@ Aakash Medical|lIT-JEE |Foundations Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 01147623458 Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 MM : 720 Test -1 Time : 3.00 Hrs. Topics covered : Physics: Physical World, Units and Measurements, Motion in a straight line, Motion in a plano, Laws of Motion, Work, Energy and Power, Rotational motion, Gravitation. Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter, Thermodynamics, Equilibrium. Botany: Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom, Morphology of Flowering Plants and Anatomy of Flowering Plants Zoology: Animal Kingdom, Structural Organisation in Animals, Biomolecules and Digestion and Absorption. Instructions (i) Use bluerblack ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle (ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. Gi) Dark only one circle for each entry (@) Dark the circle in the space provided oniy () Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluld of any other rubbing material on Answer sheet (vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score. 1. Speed of a particle moving in a straight ine varies | 3. Velocity-time (v- t) graph of a particle moving ina with time as v = (3 + 2) m/s. The distance straight line is as shown in the figure. The sign of covered in first 3 second is acceleration in regions OP, PQ, QR and RS (1) 24m respectively are Choose the correct answer : @) 27m (@) 18m R (4) 9m O 2. If the rate of change in velocity w.rt time is 6 constant and its position after 6" second will be ‘S same as that after 11 second then the particle retums to the starting point at time t equals to P (1) Bs (2) 15s @) 17s (4) 198 (1)Test-t (Code-A) ‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 4, inthe equaton fj = ace, where v i yr velocity, tis time, e is exponent. The dimensions of Bare y [oh] @ ler] Woh] w [vara] The force acting on a particle at time tis given by the equation, F=tben(e), where Vy and p are constants. The dimensions of V and ft are respectively (1) (MUTE IT] (2) IMT 7]8 07 7] (3) IMUT“]e m7] (4) IMT] 8 IT] Which of the following quantities, is a vector quantity? (1) Current (2) Speed (3) Current density (4) Work A particle is moving with constant speed over circle x2 + ¥ = 50, with speed 10 mis. ‘Acceleration of the particle, when it is at point (6, 5) is (in mis?) (1) ij 1743 A; 4; Apt a) Bit gz Zi-zi A parlcle is projected with velocity u at angle 8, with horizontal, The ratio of range and maximum height is 4. When itis projected at angle 0, with horizontal with same speed, the ratio of range (3) and maximum height is 2. Then a will be equal to as 2 1 1 3) 2 a) + Os 4 A block of mass m is sliding on a fixed smooth inclined plane of angle @ = 30° in case (|). In case (I) inclined plane is accelerated horizontally so that the block does not slide with respect to it The ratio of acceleration of the block in horizontal direction in two cases is a Case () 30 Case (il) 10. " 12 3 3 ms as 4 4 Oy Ms A uniform rod of mass 6 kg Is lying on a smooth horizontal surface. Its two ends are pulled by strings as shown in figure. Force exerted by 40 cm part of the rod on 10 cm part of the rod is, 400m 400m FL=40N SS 30 cm (1) 30N (2) 16N (3) 24N (4) 22N A rod of length L is pivoted at one end and is rotated with a uniform angular velocity in a horizontal plane. The value of x for point P, where tesonis + or etenson 0 — | FEL L L 1) £ a & M5 QG 3k wt a) a) WE @ > a> AA lock of mass m is Kept on a rough inclined piano of incination @. Coefficient of fiction between the block and the plane is y. What horizontal force F should be applied on the block 50 that it just bogins to sido up the plano? (Given 4 < cotd). _mg(u.c0s0+ sind) mF (cosd—psind) mg(usind + cos8) ) F (cos0—ysind) mg(ucos0-+sind) (@) Fe (cos6-+usindy mg(usind + cos) (8) Fos nsindy 2)‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 13. 14. 16. Two blocks of masses 4 kg and 10 kg are connected with a massless string and a massless spring in between them. String goes over a massless and frictionless pulley as shown jin figure. Initialy the spring is unstretched. When 4/kg block is released from rest, minimum normal ‘contact force between 10 kg block and the surface in contact with it will be (Take g = 10 mis’) Jako 10g (1) Zero (2) 20N (3) 40N (4) 60N In the arrangement shown in figure, the relation between acceleration of blocks m, and m, is “| 1) a (3) a, =3a, a Potential energy curve of a body of mass m= 2 kg is shown in the figure, It is released fram rest at point A. Maximum distance covered by it on the positive x-axis til it momentarily comes to rest from the origin is UW) (1) 1m 2) 2m (3) (4) 16. 17 18. 19. 20. ‘Test-t (Code-A) A particle of mass m is dropped on a fixed smooth inclined plane of angle @ = 30° as shown, in the diagram. After collision particle moves horizontally. Coefficient of restitution of collision is (1) e=1 1 (8) e=F A light particle moving horizontally with a speed of 10 mis strikes a very heavy block moving in the same direction with speed 8 mls. The collision is head-on elastic coll After colision, velocity of particle will be Leemis x 10 ms| (1) 10 mis along negative x-axis (2) 6 mis along positive x-axis (3) 2mvis along positive x-axis (4) 6 mis along negative x-axis A projectile of mass 2 kg is thrown at an angle ‘© = 60" with the horizontal with speed 100 mis. At the highest point of projectile it explodes into two equal parts. One part moves vertically upward with speed 100 m/s with respect to the ground, Kinetic energy of other part immediately after the explosion is (1) 1040 (2) 2x 104d (3) 1084 (4) Zero A stone tied to a string of length £ is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the string at the centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest point and has a speed u. The magnitude of change in velocity as it reaches its highest point ofthe circle is (1) u- gu? age (2) (au? 94) (3) fage (4) ute? -4ge A ball of mass mis attached to the lower end of a light vertical spring of force constant k. The upper ‘end of the spring is fixed. The ball is released from rest with the spring is at its natural length The ball comes to rest momentarily after descending through a distance x. At this position, acceleration of the ball is (1) Zero (2) g downward (3) g upward (4) 2g upwards @)Test-t (Code-A) ‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 24 22. 23, 24. 25. 26. 2. In the figure shown, a small ball hits obliquely a ‘smooth horizontal surface with speed u whose x and y components are indicated. If coefficient of 3 restitution is =< speed of particle after the collision will be on t snes (3) 32 mis (4) 3 mis The potential energy U of a particle of mass m= 1 kg moving in x - y plane is given by U= 3x + 4y, where x and y are in metre and U is in joule. If initially particle was at rest, then its speed at f= 2s wil be (1) 10 mls (2) 6 mis 3) 8mis (4) 7 mis The power of water pump is 8 KW. The amount of water it can raise in 1 minute to a height of 15 m is (Take g = 10 mis?) (1) 1600 kg (2) 3200 kg (3) 6400 kg (4) 800 kg In the given figure, friction force between the block of mass m= 1 kg and the inclined plane is DQ (g= 10 mis") (1) 8N (2) 6N (3) 10N (4) 5N In the arrangement shown in figure, acceleration of block is mg Fa 2 upware & downwar (1) upward (2) 20 ard (3) g upward (4) Zero At the highest point of a projectile instantaneous power of gravity is [u is initial velocity and @ is angle of projection with horizontal] (1) mgucoso (2) mgusine (3) mgu (4) Zero ‘The dimensional formula of "Moment of force” is (1) (MILT) (2) (ML2T] (3) [MLAT2] (4) IMU] 28. 29, 20. a 32, 33, 34, If the angular velocity vector of a spinning body points out of the page then, when viewed from above the page, the body s spinning, (1) Counter clockwise about an axis that is perpendicular to the page (2) Clockwise about an axis that is perpendicular to the page (3) Clockwise about an axis that is changing orientation (4) About an axis that is parallel to the page The rotational inertia of a disc about geometrical axis does not depend upon its (1) Diameter (2) Distribution of mass (3) Mass (4) Speed of rotation ‘A force with a given magnitude is to be applied to ‘wheel. The torque can be maximised by (1) Applying the force near the axle, radially outward from the axle (2) Applying the force near the rim, radially outward from the axle (3) Applying the force near the axle, parallel to a tangent to the wheel (4) Applying the force at the rim, tangent to the A single force acts on a particle situated on the negative x-axis. The torque about the origin is in the positive z-direction, The force is (1) In the negative z-direction (2) Inthe positive z-direction (3) Inthe posttive y-direction (4) In the negative y-direction Ten seconds after an electric fan is tuned on, the fan rotates at 300 revimin. Its average angular acceleration is (1) 30 revis? (2) 3.14 rads? (3) 0.5 rads? (4) 1800 revis? The angular position of a point over a rotating flywheel is changing according to the relation, 6 = (20 - 3 — 4t — 5) radian. The angular acceleration of the flywheel at time, = 1 s is (1) Zero (2) 4radis? (3) 6 radis? (4) 12 rads? The two arms of a balance are of unequal length ‘An object when placed in the left pan of the balance weighs 4 kg. The same object when placed in the right pan of the balance weighs ‘9kg. The actual (or) rue mass of the object is (1) 5.5kg (2) 6kg (3) 85kg (4) 7kg its (4)‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-A) 36, 36. 37. 38, 39, 40. Two discs are mounted on frictionless bearings ‘on a common shaft. The first disc has rotational inertia / and is spinning with angular velocity o. The second disc has rotational inertia 2/ and is spinning in opposite direction with angular velocity 30, as shown in figure. The two discs are slowly forced towards each other along the shaft until they couple and have a final common angular velocity of a @ 5a o> (3) 20 (4) 1.50 From a ring of mass M and radius R, a 30° sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining portion of the ring, about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is yp Sy? oo) So @) Sue 14 ype (4) yr’ 4 ‘The moment of inertia of a uniform square plate of mass M and edge length a about one of its diagonals is (3) MR® 2 1 (1) Mat (2) Me Ma Ma? ) AP oe The radius of gyration of a hollow sphere of radius R about an axis along its tangent is. es w fin fr w fe A wheel initially has an angular velocity of 18 rad/s. It has a constant angular acceleration of 2 rad/s® and is slowing at first. What time elapses before its angular velocity is 22 rad/s in the direction opposite to its intial angular velocity? (1) 28 (2) 20s 3) 1s (4) 108 The kinetic energy of a body of mass m at a a height n= from earth surface, when mass m is thrown from surface with JgR speed. (R is radius of earth) a4 42, 43, , ay mR (2) mgr mgR Bn (3) S (4) 2 igR The position P on axis of ring of mass M and radius R, where mass m has maximum sravitational force M xB (1) x=R 2 x v2 (3) x=RV2 (4) x be The gravitational potential due to a system of two concentric thin spherical shells of mass M and 2M and radius R and 3R respectively at the point Pis au om 56M ( -S @ 3 om om 8) ~ SR O oR ‘Two particles each of mass M are released from rest when they are at infinite separation. The velocity of any one when their separation becomes r, will be o- oO cy J @ ou zr [om ® {F oft 6)Test-t (Code-A) ‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 44. A satellite of mass m, revolving in a circular orbit of radius r around the earth of mass M has magnitude of total energy E. Then its angular momentum will be (1) Emr (2) Em (3) VEmr= (4) V4Emr 45. The potential energy of interaction between the are of ring of radius R and mass m and the particle of mass ma placed at centre of curvature is CHE! 48. If the following matter waves are travelling with same speeds, the longest wavelength is for (1) Analpha particle (2) Aneutron (3) Aproton (4) An electron 47. Which of the following electronie transitions in a hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of energy? (1) From in ton=1 (2) Fromn=1ton=2 (3) From n=2ton=5 (4) Fromn=Ston=1 48. Tho orbital diagram in which both tho Paul's exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated is 2s 2 22 (2) 2 2p 2s 2p a (4) oT 49. Number of moles of oxygen atom present in 0.1 mole of Al,(SO,), are (1) 12 mole 2) 1.2 mole (3) 0.4 mole (4) 0.3 mole 50. Equivalent mass of crystalline oxalic acid in complete neutralisation process is (1) 45 (2) 63 (3) 126 (4) 90 51. Molality of an aq, solution of urea having mole fraction 0.2 is (1) 937m (2) 2667 m (3) 17.47m (4) 13.88m 52, 100 mL of 1 M HCI solution is diluted to 500 mL. The final molaity of HCI solution is (1) 0.40 M (2) 020M (3) 0.44 M (4) 05M 53, 55, 56. 87. 58, 59, For the reaction A + 28 — 2C, § moles of A and 8 moles of B are reacted, then (1) Whole ‘Ais consumed (2) Whole is consumed (3) 8 moles of C" are obtained (4) Both (2) and (3) What is the empirical formula of the compound which has the following percentage composition C= 80%, H = 20%? (1) CH (2) CH, (3) CH (4) C3Hs The percentage of carbon by mass in urea (NH,CONH,) is (1) 20% (2) 40% (3) 46.6% (4) 59.1% In iron atom, how many electrons have quantum numbers n = 3 and! = 2? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 On the basis of Bohr's model, the radius of the 3" orbit for H atom is equal to (1) Two times of the radius of first orbit (2) Three times of the radius of first orbit (3) Five times of the radius of first orbit (4) Nine times of the radius of frst orbit The values of the orbital angular momentum of fan electron in the orbitals 1s, 3s, 3d and 2p orbitals respectively are (1) 0,0, Yn, V2h (2) 1.1, Van 2h (3) 0,1, Vn, V3n (4) 0,0, ¥20h,J6n ‘The electron affinity values for the halogens show the following trends (1) F Brot (3) F>Cl>Br>1 (2) FBr S-(@) (4) S(9) +e" > S$%(g) 62. The ratio of o and x bonds in the given molecule is (ast (2) 8:19 (3) 19:5 (4) 8:10 63. -At300 K, the value of | } will be lowest for (1) N3(g) + O,(g)=——=2NO(g) (2) No(g)+3H2(g)=——=2NH, (9) (3) PCl5(g)——PCh(g) + Cla(g) (4) 249} —H,(9)+1(9) 64. pH of 0.05 M aqueous solution of weak acid HA {K,24 x 10-419 (1) 470 2) 235 (3) 3.39 (4) 1.30 65. On adding NH,HS in following equilibrium NH,HS(s)=NH(9)+H,S(9) (1) Total pressure in container increases (2) Partial pressure of NH, increases, but partial pressure of H,S decreases (3) K, increases (4) No effect is observed 66. If for the dissociation of NH,COONH,(s), K, is 32 alm? then equilibrium pressure is NH,COONH,(s) = 2NH,(g)4CO,(g) (1) 2atm (2) 4atm (3) 32 atm (4) 6 atm 67. 68, 69, 70. nm 72. 73, 74, 7. Which of the following is incorrect for isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas? (1) al (2) au () aT (4) W=0 For the reaction, A(g) + B,(a) —» AB,(9) AS = 110 JK mot, AH = 55 kJimol respectively. The reaction will be spontaneous at (1) 500K (2) 505k (3) 495k (4) Both (1) & (2) If compressibility factor (2) for a gas is more than unity at STP, then volume of 1 mole of gas at STPis (1) Less than 22.4L (2) More than 22.4 L. (3) Zero (4) Equal to 22.4 L Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90° F —Br-F bond angles in BF, is 1) 6 (2) 4 @2 (4) Zero The bond strength in CO,CO, and CO;* follows the order (1) COCO, >CO;? (4) CO, >CO>Co;? Incorrect match is Molecule Shape (1) Xeo, Pyramidal @) CF, T-shape (3) XeF, Square planar 4) Linear Which of the following compounds contain ionic, covalent and co-ordinate bonds? (1) k,co, (2) C,HjONa (3) 05 (4) NaNO, Select the correct order of polarising power of cations, (1) Nat > Mg"? > Ar > sit (2) Nat N3 (4) Both (1) and (2) m”Test-t (Code-A) ‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 76. 7. 78. 79, 80. at 82, The density of Ne will be highest at (1) STP. (2) °C, 2atm (3) 273°C, 2 atm (4) 273°C, 1 atm At tC, K, for water is 6.4 * 10-%, The pH of water at {°C will be (1) 6.91 (2) 5.90 (3) 6.09 (4) 5.15 In a buffer solution concentration of (NH,),80,, and NH,OH are 0.4 M and 0.8 M respectively, pH ofthe ststion [k,(H) =10°] (1) 7.2 (2) 8 (3) 92 (4) 10 At 25°C, if the concentration of Ag* ion is 1.5 * 10+ moll in the saturated solution of ‘Ag,Cr0,, then solubllty product of Ag,CrO, is (1) 6.25 x 10-78 (2) 5.1 «10-8 (3) 1.69 x 10-12 (4) 7.2* 10-4 ‘Among the following processes, select the process for which AS is positive. (1) Ne(g) + O2(g)—» 2NO(g) (2) caco,(s) (3) No(g)+ 3H,(9) >CaO(s)+CO,(9) >2NH, (9) (4) NaNO, (s)+40, (g) —>NaNO, (s) 2 Consider the following equilibrium reactions at 25°C, A(g) + 3B(g)——=2C(g), K, A(g) + D(g) = 2E(9), Kg = ¥ Big) + Dig) Fig). Keg =z then the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction 2C(g) + 40(g) = 2E(g) + 3F(g), at 25°C y ~@% x z @ x 3) ay 50 J heat is supplied to a gaseous system, simultaneously the gas expands against external pressure 2 atm by 0.8 L. The change in intemal energy of the system will be (1) 120.84 () 112.114 (3) 125.44 (4) -130.60 J 83, 84, 85, 86, 87. The van der Waals equation for one mole of a real gas at low pressure is a (1) Pv=RT-2 (2) PV=Pb4RT (3) PV=RT- Pb (4) PV=RTHS If AHP, of solid benzoic acid at 27°C is x kcalimol, then AE® (in kcal/mol) is (1) «+08 (2) «+03 (@) -x-09 (4) -x-03 Correct graphical representation of Boyle's law is i] i P>As (2) B>In>Ga (3) F>Cl> Br (4) O>Te>S Which of the following set contains intensive properties only? (1) Molar enthalpy, entropy, temperature (2) Work, pressure, Gibbs free energy (3) Molar entropy, density, refractive index (4) Volume, enthalpy, density Meristems which appear early in life of higher plants and are responsible for the formation of the primary plant body are a. Interfascicular cambium b. Intercalary meristem c. Lateral meristem d. Phellogen fe. Apical meristem (1) aandb (2) bande (3) candd (4) a,candd Which of the following is not a feature of collenchyma? (1) Mechanical support (2) Intercellular spaces absent (3) Thickening of cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin (4) Present below epidermis in dicot stem a. Bullform cells b. Presence of cuticle c. Piliferous layer d. Bean-shaped guard cells, Which of the above feature(s) belong(s) to dicot leaves? (1) onlyd (3) bande (2) aandc (4) bandd 94, 95, 96. 97. and _B Bark includes A. A B (1) Secondary xylem Secondary phloem (2) Secondary phloem Primary phloem only (3) Periderm ‘Secondary phloem (4) Phelloderm ‘Secondary xylem, Choose the incorrect match wart. elements of phloem and their features. (1) Sieve tube element — Peripheral cytoplasm, large central vacuole but lacks a nucleus (2) Companion cells - Maintain pressure gradient in sieve tubes (3) Phloem parenchyma — Storage of _ resins, latex mucllage and food materials Generally absent in secondary phloem Dicot root differs from monocot root in having (1) Pericycle that gives rise to lateral roots (2) More than 6 vascular bundles (3) Small and inconspicuous pith (4) Casparian strips in endodermis Palisade parenchyma is present (1) Below the abaxial epidermis in monocot leaves (2) Below the adaxial epidermis leaves (3) Around the vascular bundles in dicot leaves and monocot leaves. (4) Below the adaxial epidermis in dicot leaves (4) Phloem fibers in monocot (9)Test-t (Code-A) ‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 98, 99, 100. 101. 102, 103. Defining features present in all living beings are (1) Growth, Reproduction (2) Metabolism, Internal growth (8) Reproduction, Consciousness (4) Cell division, Reproduction Read the following statements w.rt_ binomial nomenclature system. A. Itwas developed by Linnaeus B. Name of the author is written after specific epithet in abbreviated form The first word denoting specific epithet starts with a capital letter Biological names are generally in Latin and printed in italics. Correct statements are: ©. D. (1) AB&D 2 Ac&D (3) B.C&D (4) Only A&B Mark the incorrect match w.r.t taxonomic categories of mango. (1) Kingdom — Angiospermae (2) Order —- Sapindales (3) Family — Anacardiaceae (4) Genus - Mangifera a. Number of common characteristic increases from kingdom to species in taxonomic hierachy b. Order being a higher category exhibits many similar characters than family Choose the correct option. (1) Both a & b are correct (2) Only bis correct (3) Only ais correct (4) Both a & b are incorrect In six kingdom classification are placed in kingdoms. (1) Eukaryotic, three (2) Prokaryotic, three (3) Eukaryotic, five (4) Prokaryotic, two Mark the incorrect option w.rt monerans, (1) Non-cellulosie cell wall (2) Lack of nuclear membrane (3) Collular type of body organisation (4) Very simple in behaviour organisms 104. 1085. 106. 107. 108. 109. Statement-A : Most of the bacteria are decomposers, Statement-B Membrane bounded cell organelles are absent in bacteria (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement Ais correct (4) Only statement Bis correct Prokaryotes capable of converting CO, into methane is (1) Methanococcus, an obligate aerobe (2) Methanobacterium, a facultative aerobe (2) Methanobacterium, an obligate anaerobe (4) Methanococcus, a facultative anaerobe Choose the correct option wrt. features of slime moulds showing similarity with fungi (F), plantae (P) and animaiia (A) respectively a. Wallless vegetative phase b. Fruiting bodies &. Mitospore formation d. Cellulosic cell wall (1) F(b, c), P(d), Ala) (2) F(a), P(b), Alc, d) (3) F(b), Pla, ¢), A(d) (4) F(), P(e), Ata, d) Dinoflagollates showlare (1) Mainly parasitic (2) Responsible for toxic red tide that harm all fishes (3) Bioluminescence (4) Unifiagellate Choose the odd one w.r.t. fungal group (1) Truffles (2) Morels (3) Drosophila of plant kingdom (4) Toadstools Asexual and sexual respectively are (1) Conidia and zoospores (2) Oospores and ascospores (3) Sporangiospores and basidiospores (4) Ascospores and basidiospores spores found in fungi (10)‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-A) 110. 1 112. 113. 114, Match the columns and select the correct option, Column Column. a. Imperfect fungi (i) Claviceps b. Club fungi (ii) Alternaria ce. Sac fungi (li) Saccharomyces (iv) Puftoalis (W) Aspergillus (vi) Trichoderma (vi) Bracket fungi (1) ai, vid, b(iv, v), e€ li, vi) (2) alii, vi), bv, v), efi, vi) (3) a(i ii), bli, v), evi, vi) (4) ai vi), btiv, vil), c(t, v) Viruses (1) Have metabolic machinery to generate ATP (2) Lack genetic material for replication (8) Are inert outside their specific host cell (4) Always have specialised protein coat covered by an envelope ‘An inert virus is known as. (1) Viroid (2) Virion (3) Virusoid (4) Prion Select the correct option to fil up the blanks in the following statements. The (I) _ reproduce by asexual spores called conidia but conidia as well as fruiting bodies are found in (II). a Lichens are very good __(lll)_ indicators. The most notorious organism is (IV) that causes malaria which has a staggering effect on human population. 0 w am m (1) [Destere- | Bastzony- Water —[Plasmoatarn Imycetes |cetes [pollution (2) [Phycom- Ascomy- Water [Entamoeba lycetes [estes [pollution (3) [Deutero- Basia. Jar —[Entamooba Inycotes |mycetos [polation (4) [Beutero- ascomy- [air [Plasmodium Imyestes estes [potion The branch of taxonomy which is based on cytological information like chromosome number, structure and behaviour is (1) Chemotaxonomy (2) Classical taxonomy (3) Cytotaxonomy (4) Both (1) and (2) 116. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121 122. Spirogyra differs from Fucus as the former lacks (1) Chlorophyt ‘a (2) Flagellated male gametes (3) Non-fiagellated male gametes (4) Thalloid gametophyte Select the odd one w.rt life cycle pattern of algae. (1) Spirogyra (2) Volvox (3) Fucus (4) Chlamydomonas If gemmae of Marchantia has 15 chromosomes, then the number of chromosomes in zygote, thizoidal cell and spore will be respectively (1) 30, 15, 15 (2) 30, 15, 30 (3) 30, 30, 15 (4) 15, 15, 30 Which of the following features is not correct for all the gymnosperms? (1) They are heterosporous (2) They exhibit diplontic life cycle (3) Dominant phase is sporophyte (4) Gametophyte is independent of sporophyte Read the following four statements (a-d).. a. In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is represented by megasporophyll b. In Selaginetia, the gametophytic plant body possesses rhizophore c. Origin of seed habit can be traced in Selaginella d. Antheridiophore and archegoniophores. are present in Marchantia How many of the above statements are correct? (1) Two (2) Three (3) One (4) Four Double fertilisation is found in al, except (1) Eucalyptus, Wolfia (2) Sunflower, Ashwagandha (3) Eucalyptus, Mustard (4) Cedrus, Pinus Which of the following bryophytes? (1) Heterosporous (2) Embryo formation (3) Gametophytc plant body (4) Show oogamy Strobili or cones are found in (1) Selaginetta, Equisetum (2) Solaginotla, Azolla (3) Equisetum, Azolla (4) Selaginella, Sphagnum is odd one wrt (14)Test-t (Code-A) ‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. Diplontic life cycle is found in (1) All seed-bearing plants (2) All vascular eryptogams (3) All amphibians of plant kingdom (4) All homosporous plants Read the following statements w.rt double fertilisation. a, PEN develops into endosperm b. One male gamete fuse with haploid secondary nucleus ©. itis an event unique to gymnosperms and angiosperms d. One of the male gamete fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus to produce PEN Mark the option representing incorrect statements (ad Q) ab @B) ad (4) be Mark the incorrect option w.rt. brown algae. (1) They show great variation in size and form (2) Plant body is differentiated into holdfast, stipe and frond (3) They possess the photosynthetic pigments chia and chi-c but not fucoxanthin (4) They are found primarily in marine habitats, Axillary buds on stems may get modified into (1) Tendrits (2) Thoms (3) Rachis| (4) Both (1) and (2) Opposite phyllotaxy of leaves is found in (1) Mustard, maize (2) China rose, guava (3) Calotropis, guava (4) Nerium, Alstonia Cymose inflorescence differs from racemose Inflorescence in (1) Possessing limited growth of axis as the shoot tip transforms into a flower ‘Acropetal succession of flowers arrangement Bearing flowers laterally on the floral axis: Bearing only a single flower on a floral branch always (2) 8) (4) 129. 130. 131. 132, 133. 136. 136. ‘One margin of the petal overlaps that of the next fone and so on, this type of aestivation is exemplified by and (1) China rose and cassia (2) China rose, cotton (3) Lady's finger, pea (4) Cotton, Calotropis Select the odd statement w.rt parthenocarpic fruits (1) Generally do not have seeds (2) Are useless in groundnut (3) Are formed without fertilisation (4) Are useless for fruit industry Angiospermic family including producing plant (1) Bears non-endospermous seeds (2) Has tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium with axile placentation Lacks cymose inflorescence Is characterised by presence of zygomorphic flowers The region of the root consisting of very small, thin walled cells with dense protoplasm (1) Lies proximal to elongation zone (2) Has repeatedly dividing cells intermingled with differentiated cells colchicine (3) (4) (3) Is situated slightly above the root cap (4) Gives rise to lateral branches of endogenous crigin Which of the following is not correctly matched? (1) Radial symmetric flower Datura (2) Bilateral symmetric flower — Delonix (3) Trimerous flower = Trifolium (4) Asymmetric flower —Canna Plant of arid regions that modifies its stem into flattened structure that contains chlorophyll and carries out photosynthesis is (1) Euphorbia (2) Opuntia (3) Bougainvillea (4) Both (1) and (2) Which of the following is not correctly matched? (1) Leaf tendril - Pea (2) Leaf spines - Cactus (3) Thorn = Citrus (4) Phyllode — — Euphorbia (12)‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-A) 136, 137. 138, 139. 140. 141 142. ZOOLOGY Protonephridia are the main excretory structures (1) Cnidarians (2) Aschelminthes (3) Molluses (4) Platyheiminthes Al of the following are endoparasites in humans except (1) Aneylostoma duodenale (2) Hirudinaria granulosa (3) Ascaris umbricoides (4) Taenia solium Metamerism is a feature exhibited by (1) Tongue worms (2) Porifera (3) Chordates (4) Roundworms Select the incorrect match (1) Meandrina = Brain coral (2) Pleurobrachia = Sea walnut (3) Chaetoploura - Sea pen (4) Gorgonia - Seafan Read the following statements and choose the correct option Statement-A: polyps asexually. Statement-B: Fasciola absorbs nutrients from host directly through their body surface, (1) Aand B are correct (2) Aand B are incorrect (3) Only Ais correct (4) Only Bis correct Protostomes differ from deuterostome in having (1) Indeterminate cleavage (2) Radial cleavage (3) Spiral cleavage (4) Triploblasty Which one of the following is a correctly matched set of phylum and its three examples? In Obelia, medusae produce (1) Aschelminthes - Ancylostoma, Echinus, Wuchereria (2) Annelida ‘Nereis, Pheretima, Laccifer (3) Mollusca. —Dentalium, Pinctada, Aplysia (4) Echinodermata — Ophiura, Sepia, Antedon 143. 144, 145. 146. ‘The figure shows two animals (a) and (b) tt (a) (b) Select the correct answer with respect to a ‘common characteristic of these two animals. (1) Both show dioecious condition (2) Both have open vascular system (3) Both have nephridia for excretion (4) Both show indirect development Omithorhynchus differs from Macropus as former (1) Shows pulmonary respiration (2) Is viviparous (3) Does not possess mammary glands (4) Lays eggs Torpedo and Trygon differ from Scoliodon because (1) Their skin is tough containing minute placoid scales (2) In males, pelvic fins possess claspers (3) Their pectoral fins are demarcated from the body not sharply (4) Their gill operculum, slits are separate and without Which of the following does not belong to chondrichthyes? (1) Carcharodon (2) Pristis (3) Scoliodon (4) Clarias (13)Test-t (Code-A) ‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 147. 148. 149. 150. 151 Read the statements ‘A’ and 'R’, where ‘R’ Is the reason given for the statement ‘ A. Petromyzon is included in the division Agnatha, R. tis a jawless vertebrate. Choose the correct option, (1) Statement and reason are true in themselves but the reason does not explain the statement (2) Statement is true but the reason is false (3) Both the statement and reason are true and reason explains the statement (4) Statement is false but the reason is an accepted fact Choose the correct match of the name of animal in (Column-l) with one characteristic given in (Column-lI) and the phylum/ctass in (Column-tIl) to which it belongs, Column Column (1) Hippocampus Gil-sits are separate and covered by operculum Notochord is present in larval tail Column Chondrichthyes 2) Branchios- toma Urochordata (3) Plerophyllum Contains air bladder Which regulates buoyancy Body covered by dry and comified skin Select the edd one wrt. air sacs. (1) Aptenodytes (2) Neophron (3) Pteropus (4) Columba Neuroglial cells exhibit (1) Cell division (2) Excitability (3) Conductivity (4) Extensibility Read the characteristics given below |. Fusiform in appearance II. Not under the control of our will Il, Unbranched IV. Uninucteated These can be found in (1) Unstriated, voluntary muscles (2) Visceral muscles (3) Striated voluntary muscles (4) Cardiac muscles Osteichthyes (4) lohthyophis Amphibia 152 153. 154. 156. 156. What type of tissue is blood? (1) Loose connective tissue (2) Dense connective tissue (3) Areolar tissue (4) Specialised connective tissue Which of the following statements is false? (1) Dense irregular connective tissue that has fibroblasts and mostly fibres that are oriented differently are present in skin (2) Compound epithelium covers the dry surface of the skin and has protective function (3) Epithelial tissue is rich in intercellular matrix and is vascular (4) Skin is connected to muscles by areolar connective tissue Which of the following is a secretion of exocrine gland? (1) Glucagon (2) Insulin (3) Aldosterone (4) Mucus Identify the given statements as true (T) or False (F), A. Tight junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the plasma membranes of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and sometimes bigger molecules. B. Simple epithelium covers the moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, muscle and lining of ducts of salivary glands. C. Cell junctions hold smooth muscle fibres and they are bundled together in a connective tissue sheath, D. Cartilage is present in tip of nose, limbs and hands in adults A B cD FoF oT F @T oF oT F @®F oF oT TT @T oF oT TF Tendons differ from ligaments in that the tendonsiare (1) Dense regular connective tissue (2) Composed of only etastin fibres (3) Attach skeletal muscles to bones (4) Attach one bone to another (14)‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 ‘Test-t (Code-A) 187. 158. 159. 160. 161 162. Which of the following is the function of mast cells of areolar connective tissue? (1) They are phagocytic in nature (2) They secrete maximum amount of the matrix (3) They secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen or elastin (4) They secrete histamine, heparin Which of the following mouth parts of cockroach are unpaired? serotonin and a. Maxilla b. Mandible cc. Hypopharynx dd. Labrum fe. Labium (1) a.bande (2) b,cande: (3) o,dande (4) a, bandd If head of cockroach is cut off, it will still ive for as long as one week because (1) Head holds a large mass of nervous system which is, however, not essential for survival (2) Most of the nervous system is present in ventral part of its body as ventral nerve cord (3) Nervous system is present only in abdominal region (4) There is no control of brain over the body activities Which of the following is false regarding the cockroach? (1) Fertilization is internal & takes place inside the brood pouch (2) Each ovary is formed of 8 pairs of ovarioles (3) Development takes place through gradual metamorphosis (4) Mushroom gland is a characteristic feature of male cockroach Which of the following structures do not represent the characteristic features of phylum arthropoda in cockroach? (1) Antennae (2) Anal cerci (3) Mesothoracic legs (4) Anal styles Which of the following statements are correct regarding cockroach? a. Tilllator is associated with right phallomere b. Malpighian tubules present at the junction of midgut and hindgut help in removal of wastes from haemolymph ©. Sclerites are attached to each other by help of flexible arthrodial membranes d. 10 pairs of spiracles are present on dorsal body surface of cockroach 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. (1) abcandd (2) a,bande (3) bande (4) Only b In the figure given below, percentage composition of biomolecules along with water in living tissue is shown. Phospholipids are likely to be oblained in the fraction labelled. J ( K (70-90%) MY (2) ZK 3) W (aye The acid-soluble pool produced during acid analysis of living animal tissue would contain all of the following, except (1) Lysine (2) GTP (3) Fructose (4) DNA The simplest amino acid is (1) Glutamic acid (2) Lysine (3) Valine (4) Glycine How many water molecules are lost upon Combination of tihydroxypropane with three molecules of palmitic acid? (1) Three (2) Six (3) Four (4) Zero Proteins such as trypsin and GLUT-4 are (1) Heteropolymers of amino acids (2) Homopolymers of amino acids (3) Heteropolymers of fatty acid and alcohol (4) Heteropolymers of monosaccharides Select the incorrect match (1) Ribozymes = Nucleic acids with power catalytic (2) Fibroin Protein in silk with secondary level of organisation (3) Insulin — Polysaccharide hormone whose tertiary structure determines its specificity (4) Sucrose —Non-reducing sugar with glycosidic bond Non-competitive inhibitors ___ of the reaction. Select the option that fills the blank correctly (1) Increase the V,., (2) Increases the K,, (3) Decrease the K, (4) Decrease the V,,., (15)Test-t (Code-A) ‘Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 170. m1 172. 173. 174. 175, Read the given statements, a. For B-DNA, the rise per base pair is 3.4 A b. For human DNA, if (A] = 30% then purine | 176. content will be 50% c. The first digit of enzyme commission number for enzyme ‘ligase’ willbe 4 Select the correct statements. (1) a, band ¢ (2) aande (3) aandb (4) bande Which of the following is a prosthetic group for enzymes peroxidase and catalase that catalyze the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen? 17. (1) NAD (2) Haem (3) Zine (4) NADP Identify the correct match wart structure and its secretion (1) Salivary glands — Proteases (2) Parietal cells — Intrinsic factor (3) Pepticcells. - —Trypsinagen (4) Chief cells Enterokinase Match the columns and choose the correct combination, 178. Column-| Columns a. Micelles (i) Fat absorption b. Jaundice (i) Liver disorder ©. Chylomicron (ii) Protein coated fat globules 4. Indigestion (iv) Feeling of fullness (1) a(), bai, ev), dCi) (2) a, Bi, efi), atv) (3) ai), Bei). of), iv) (4) atv), Bei, ef). A) Select the incorrect statement (1) Vomiting reflex centre is present in medulla | 179 oblongata (2) Small amount of lipases are also secreted by gastric glands (3) Rennin present in the infants stomach digests casein component of milk (4) About 70% of starch is hydrolysed in oral cavity Muscularis layer is a part of the wall of alimentary | 180. canal. Select the option which is correct wart this layer (1) Its the outermost layer of the alimentary canal wal (2) Itis formed of involuntary striated muscles (3) Muscles are usually arranged into an inner circular and outer longitudinal layer aaa (4) An oblique muscle layer is also present in all parts of alimentary canal Read the facts stated below and choose the incorrect statement. (1) Gastro - oesophageal sphincter is present between oesophagus and stomach (2) Sphincter of Oddi regulates the opening of hepatopancreatic duct (3) Maximum absorption of water occurs in small intestine (4) Action of nucleases helps to release simple absorbable forms in small intestine Read the following statements and select the correct option ‘A. Alcohol can be absorbed across gastric and intestinal mucosa. B. Pancreatic juice and bile are released into intestine through the hepatopancreatic duct. (1) Both A and B are correct (2) Only Ais correct (8) Both A and B are incorrect (4) Only Bis correct Select the correct statement about human stomach (1) Achlorhydria results from non-functional Peptic cells present in rugal folds of gastric mucosa (2) Fundic part of stomach opens into duodenum (3) Its glandular mucosa secretes. proteolytic Proenzymes. (4) Drugs and water are not absorbed in the stomach at al Choose the correct option. (1) Diphyodont — Deciduous testh replaced by dentition permanent teeth (2) Marasmus Only protein deficiency in infants; edema is seen (3) Cystic duct. - Pancreas (4) Crypts of | - Large intestine Lieberkunn Choose the incorrect statement. (1) In diarrhoea, increased liquidity of the fecal discharge is observed (2) Submandibular salivary glands are also called submaxillary glands. (3) HCI provides the acidic pH (1.8) in stomach. (4) Hepatic lobules are not covered by Glisson's capsule (16)