Sample Paper

ANGEL'S ACADEMY SR. SEC.
SCHOOL
SAMPLE PAPER FOR HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2023-24)
Class – XI
Subject – Mathematics
Time: 3 hrs MM: 80
General Instructions:
1. This Question paper contain- five sections A, B, C, D and E. Each section is compulsory. However,
there are internal choices in some questions.
2. Section A has 18 MCQ’s and 02 Assertion-Reason based questions of 1 marks each.
3. Section B has 5 VSA -type questions of 2 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 Short Answer questions of 3 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 Long Answer questions of 5 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 source based / case based/passage based/integrated units of assessment (4
marks each) with sub-parts.
Section A
1. Let A ={1,2,3} , B={2,3,4} then which of the following is a function A to B?
(a) {(1,2) , (1,3), (2,3), (3,3)} (b) {(1,3), (2,4)}
(c) {(1,3), (2,2), (3,3)} (d) {(1,2), (2,3), (3,2), (3,4)}
2. The number of ways to arrange the letters on the word CHEESE are
(a) 120 (b) 240 (c) 720 (d) 6
3. If A = {1,2,4} , B = {2,4,5}, C = {2,5} , then (A-B) x (B-C) is
(a) {(1,2) , (1,5) , (2,5)} (b) {(1,4) (c) (1,4) (d) none of these.
4. Two finite set A and B are such that A ⊂ B , then which of the following is not correct ?
(a) A U B = B (b) A ∩ B = A (c) A - B = ∅ (d) B - A = ∅
5. Number of proper subsets of a set containing 4 elements is
(a) 42 (b) 42 - 1 (c) 24 (d) 24 - 1
6. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) N ⊂ R (b) N ⊂ Q (c) Q ⊂ R (d) N ⊂ T
7. If A = {a, b} and B = { x, y, z}, then the number of relations from B to A is
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64
8. Which of the relations is a function?
(a) R = {(4, 6), (3, 9), (-11, 6), (3, 11)} (b) R = {(1, 2), (2, 4), (2, 6), (3, 11)}
(c) R = {(2, 1), (4, 3), (6, 5), (8, 7)} (d) R = {(0, 1), (1, 3), (2, 4), (3, 1), (3, 5)}
9. The angle subtended by an arc of length 20 cm at the centre of circle when radius is 14 cm is
5 10 5 7
(a) radians (b) radians (c) radians (d) radians
7 7 14 10
10. If x is a negative integer, then the solution set of - 12x > 30 is
(a) {-2, -1} (b) {……,-5, -4, -3} (c) {…,-5,-4, -3, -2} (d) {-2, -1, 0, 1, 2,…….}
11. The number of 3 digit odd numbers, when repetition of digit is allowed is
(a) 450 (b) 360 (c) 400 (d) 420
12. If -3x+ 17 < -13 , then
(a) 𝑥 ∈ (10, ∞ ) (b) 𝑥 ∈ [10, ∞ ) (c) 𝑥 ∈ (−∞, 10 ) (d) 𝑥 ∈ [−10,10
13. (√-2) (√-3) is equal to
(a) √6 (b) -√6 (c) i√6 (d) 6
14. For two sets, A U B = A if and only if
(a) B ⊆ A (b) A ⊆ B (c) A ≠ B (d) A = B
15. Let A = {1, 2, 3}, then total number of the element in A X A is
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12
16. If √𝑎 + 𝑖𝑏 = x + iy, then possible value of √𝑎 − 𝑖𝑏 is
(a) x2 + y2 (b) √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 (c) √𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 (d) x - iy
17. Which of the following is a finite set?
(a) { x : x = 2n, n 𝜖 N} b) ( x : x is a prime number}
c) { x : x 𝜖 N, x is a factor of 4 } d) { x : x 𝜖 I, x ≤ 7}
18. A ∩ B = ∅ then
(a) A = ∅ or B = ∅ (b) A = ∅ and B = ∅ (c) A = ∅ and B ≠ ∅ (d) None of these
Assertion-Reason Based Questions
In the following questions, a statement assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason ( R).
choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A) : If a = { 1, 2, 3}, B = {2, 4}, then the number of relation from A to B is equal to 26.
Reason (B) : the total number of relation from set A to set B is equal to {2 n(A) . n(B)}.
1
20. Assertion (A) : Domain of the f(x)= 9−𝑥 2 is x 𝜖 R - 3.
1
Reason (B) : y = 𝑓(𝑥) is defined if f(x) ≠ 0.
Section B
21. If n ( A - B) = 10 , n (B - A) = 8 and N (A ∩ B) = 3, then find the value of n(B).
22. (I + i)6 + (1 - i)3 Convert in the standard from a + ib.
23. Solve the following system of inequalities graphically: 3y - 2x ≤ 4, x + 3y > 3, x + y ≥ 5, y < 4.
19𝜋
24. Find the value of (i) cosec (- 3 ) (ii) cosec (- 14100)
25. How many 4 - digit numbers are there with no digit repeated?
Section C
1
26. Find the Domain and Range of the function f(x) = .
√9− 𝑥 2
2𝑥−1 3𝑥−2 2−𝑥
27. Solve for x : ≥ - .
3 4 5
28. Find the angle in radians between the hands of a clock at 7:20 p.m.
29. If 2nC3 : nC3 = 11 : 1, find n.
30. Everybody in a room shakes hands with everybody else. The total number of shake hands is 66.
How many people are three in the room?
31. Find the square roots of the complex number: - 48 - 14 i
Section D
32. In a class of 25 students, 12 have taken Mathematics, 8 have taken Mathematics but not
Biology. If each students has taken at least one subject, find the number of students who have
taken (i) Biology but not Mathematics (ii) both Mathematics and Biology
3+2𝑖 sin 𝜃
33. Find real values of 𝜃 such that is a real number.
1−2𝑖 sin 𝜃
sin 𝑥−sin 3𝑥
34. Prove that (i) = 2 sin x .
𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥
𝑥 9𝑥 5𝑥
(ii) cos 2x cos 2 - cos 3x cos = sin 5x sin .
2 2
35. Find the number of permutations of the letters of the word ALLAHABAD. In how many of them
vowels occupy only the even positions?
Section - E
This section comprise of 3 case study/passage-based questions of with two sub parts. First two
case study questions have three sub-parts (i), (ii), (iii) of marks 1, 1, 2 respectively. The third
case study question has two sub two parts of 2 marks each.
36. Case - Study 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below
In a certain city all telephone numbers have seven digits. City is divide into 6 zones. Each zone is
allotted a specific non-zero digit which is to be used as first digit of all telephone numbers of
that zone.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) How many different telepone numbers are there in each zone if repetions of digit is
allowed?.
(ii) How many different telephone numbers are there in the city, if first two digit of different
zones are 12, 23, 34, 45, and 67?
ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR. SEC. SCHOOL
SAMPLE PAPER FOR HALF YEARLY EXAMINANTION (2023-24)
Class – XI
Subject – Mathematics (241)
Time: 3 hrs MM: 80
1. This Question paper contain- five sections A, B, C, D and E. Each section is compulsory.
However, there are internal choices in some questions.
2. Section A has 18 MCQ’s and 02 Assertion-Reason based questions of 1 marks each.
3. Section B has 5 VSA -type questions of 2 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 Short Answer questions of 3 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 Long Answer questions of 5 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 source based / case based/passage based/integrated units of assessment (4
marks each) with sub-parts.
Section A
(Multiple Choice Questions) Each question carries 1 mark
1. Two finite sets A and B are such that A ⊂ B, then which of the following is not correct?
a) A U B = B b) A ∩ B = A c) A - B = ∅ d) B - A = ∅
2. A ∩ B = ∅ then ,
a) A = ∅ or B = ∅ b) A = ∅ and B = ∅ c) A = ∅ and B ≠ ∅ d) None of these
3. If A = { 1, 2, 3} , B = { 1, 4, 6, 9} and R is a relation from A to B defined by x is greater than
y. the range of R is
a) {1, 4, 6, 9} b) {4, 6, 9} c) {1} d) none of these
4. If R = { (x, y) : x, y 𝜖 N, x + 2y = 21}, then range of R is
a) {1,2,…,8} b) {1,2,…10} c) {1, 2,…19} d) { 1,2,…….15}
5. Which of the following is a finite set?
a) { x : x = 2n, n 𝜖 N} b) ( x : x is a prime number}
c) { x : x 𝜖 N, x is a factor of 4 } d) { x : x 𝜖 I, x ≤ 7}
6. The variance of first 5 natural number is
a)1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
7. The set {-1, 1} in the set builder form can be written as
a) {-1, 1} b) {x 𝜖 W : x ≤ 1}
c) {x 𝜖 Z : x ≤ 1} d) { x : x is a solution of x2- 1}
8. The empty set or the null set or the void set is not denoted by the symbol
a) ∅ b) { } c) { ∅ } d) ∅ or { }
9. A set which is subset of every set is a)
null set b) universal set c) singleton set d) power set
10. Given set A = {a, b} and set B = {1, 2}. How many relations are possible from set A to set B
? a) 2 b) 4 c) 16 d) 8
11. If (2x, y - x) = (y + 3, 0), then value of y is
a) -3 b) 3 c) x d) - x
1
12. The domain of the real valued function f(x) = is.
3x−2
2 2
a) Q - { 3 } b) R - { 3 } c) R - {2} d) N
13. 12” 30’ in circular measure is written in Radian as a)
25 25 𝜋 5𝜋 5𝜋
b) c) d)
2 36 72 36
14. If tan A = 1/2 and tan B = 1/3, then the value of A + B is
𝜋 𝜋
a) 6 b) 𝜋 c) 0 d) 4
15. The number of 6-digit numbers, all digit of which are odd is.
a) 56 b) 55 c) 65 d) 66
16. Number of three letter words formed from the letter A, S, T, R, P and ending with T are
a) 6 b) 12 c) 4 d) 8
17. LCM of 3! , 5! and 7! Is
a) 3! b) 35! c) 7! d) 115!
n n n
18. If C8 = C7 , then find the value of C15.
a) 15 b) 0 c) 1 d) 225
Assertion-Reason Based Questions
In the following questions, a statement assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (
R).choose the correct answer out of the following choices. (A)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): The order pair with entries 7 and a is (7, a).
Reason ( R ) : For order pair (a, b), a represents first entry and b represents second entry.
20. Assertion (A) : In a set of prime numbers, any two elements are coprime.
Reason ( R ) : HCF of two co-prime numbers is 1.
Section- B
(This section comprises of very short answer type-questions (VSA) of 2 marks each)
21. Convert the decimal number 569 to the binary number.
2𝑥𝑦
22. ax = by = cz and b2 = ac, prove that y = 𝑧+𝑥
23. The average of 4 integers is 39. The highest integer is 73 and the lowest integer is 19.
The difference between the remaining two integers is 18. Find the remaining integers
24. The Cartesian product A x A has 9 elements among which are found (-1, 0) and (0, 1).
Find the set A and the remaining elements of A x A.
25. Find the value of n, if
(n+1)! = 20(n-1)!
Section- C
(This section comprises of short answer type-questions (SA) of 3 marks each
21
26. Solve for x: log2x + log4x + log16x = 4 .
27. Walking at 5/6th of his actual speed, a man reached his house 24 minutes late. Find his
usual time to reach his house.
28. A swimming pool 36m wide and 27m long is 3m deep on the shallow end and 4m
deep at the deeper end. Find the capacity of the pool (in litres).
29. Draw a suitable Venn diagram for each of the following:
i. (A U B)’ ii. (A ∩ B)’ iii. A’ U B’
30. . If nC4, nC5 and nC6 are in A.P.,find n.
31. A and B together can build a wall in 30 days. If A is twice as good a workman as B, in
how many days will A alone finish the work?
Section- D
(This section comprises of long answer type-questions (LA) of 5 marks each)
32. Eleven friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are watching a movie in a cinema hall sitting in
a row. H is immediate left of D and third to the right of I. J is the immediate neighbor of A
and B and third to the left of G. A is the second to the right of E who is at one end of the
row. F is sitting next to the right of D and D is second to the right of C
33. If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4} and R = {(x, y): (x, y) Ԑ A x B, y = x+1 }, then
i. find A x B. ii. write R in roster form.
iii. write domain and range of R iv. represent R by an arrow diagram
34. Solve for x:
log 125
i. log x = ii. log (5x-4) – (x+1) = log 4
𝑙𝑜𝑔1/5
35. Given 5 flags of different colours. How many different signals can be generated by hoisting
the flags on a vertical pole (one below the other) if each signal requires the use of
(i) Two flags ii. Atleast two flags
Section - E
This section comprise of 3 case study/passage-based questions of with two sub parts. First
two case study questions have three sub-parts (i), (ii), (iii) of marks 1, 1, 2 respectively. The
third case study question has two sub two parts of 2 marks each.
36. In a survey of 40 students, it was found that 21 had taken Mathematics, 16 had taken
Physics and 15 had taken Chemistry, 7 had taken Mathematics and Chemistry, 12 had
taken Mathematics and Physics, 5 had taken Physics and Chemistry and 4 had taken all the
three subjects.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions
(i) The number of students who had taken Mathematics only is
(ii) The number of students who had taken Physics and Chemistry but not Mathematics is
(iii) The number of students who had taken exactly one of the three subjects is
37. An open wooden box has the outer dimensions as length 14cm, breadth 11cm and depth 9
cm. The thickness of wood is 1 cm.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
i. The internal length of the box is
ii. The internal depth of the box is
iii. Length of the longest rod that can be fitted in the box is
38.A manufacture has 640 liters of 8% boric acid solution and 1300 liters of 2% boric acid solution. To
dilute the 8% boric acid solution manufacturer added some amount of 2% boric acid solution into it.
(i) Find the maximum amount of 2% boric acid solution to be added so that resulting mixture is to be
more than 4% boric acid.
(ii) Find the maximum amount of 2% boric acid solution left after adding to 8% boric acid solution so
that resulting mixture to be less than or equal to 6% boric acid.
ANGELS’ ACADEMY SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL
SAMPLE PAPER FOR HALF YEARLY EXAMS (2023-24)
CLASS - XI
SUB- ENGLISH CORE (301)
Time: 3 hours MM: 80 Marks
1. The paper is divided into three sections Section-A: Reading Comprehension,
SectionB: Writing Skills and Grammar and Section-C: Literature. All the sections are
compulsory.
2. Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.
3. Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer script correctly
before attempting it.
4. Separate instructions are given with each question, wherever necessary. Read these
carefully.
SECTION--A: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the following passage:

1. If your household is like mine, the memories of our 2005 summer holiday may well
disappear into the void that lies between the material past. You see, our paper photo album
ends halfway through 2004.
2. Since the arrival of the digital camera and the mobile camera phone has meant our photos are
'stored' (on two computers, two phones, the camera itself, in an online drive of friends). None
of the 'photos' has made it onto paper and into the album. They probably never will. In fact,
technochallenged people like me fear these new pixel images will never become permanent,
like the pictures on screen in albums, whose pages are turned like the books of our lives.
3. The processing industry once hoped the snap would lead to more images being transferred to
paper because some households are yet to adjust to the latest forms of photographic display
and storage.
4. The most fundamental way photography has changed is that digital photos are virtually free.
A happy snapper can take hundreds of photos of an event, rather than ration the occasion to a
dozen composed shots. Digital snappers can become like the National Geographic
photographers, who take about 12,600 shots per assignment, knowing only ten will be used.
5. The photographer, however amateur, also becomes the editor. Once the images are
transferred to a computer, they can be tampered with. Don't like the person in the shot? Get
rid of him. Want to make London look sunny? Click on the blue sky. A double chin? Deft
shading will fix that.
6. The photo, once a candid image and a priceless memory, becomes something that's cheaply
taken, easily discarded, and endlessly manipulated. It's easy to see why the photo processing
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industry is having trouble coming to terms with the new century of snappers. An industry
whose slogan was the preservation of priceless family memories has found itself in a virtually
disposable world.
7. For more than a century, memories of who we were and where we've come from have been
refreshed by regularly turning the pages of our photographic chronology. Future generations
will have a different grab on their history. A series of mouse clicks will take through a
kaleidoscope of images of life caught on the run.
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the following questions given
below: 10X1=10 Marks
i. Why, in the present times, none of the 'photos' make it to the paper or album?
a. They are "stored" in electronic devices
b. They are too many to print
c. They are too much edited
d. They have lost their originality
ii. What opinion does the writer have of new pixel images?
a. They are the future
b. They will never be permanent memories
c. They have replaced albums
d. They can never be seen as a book of memories
iii. Why is the processing industry still not happy?

a. Their businesses are not growing
b. They find it difficult to adjust
c. Their business slogan has to be changed
d. They find people no longer interested in getting albums made
iv. Why is it said that the digital photos are virtually free?
a. Not have to worry about the roll count
b. Can take lots of photos even though a few are to be picked
c. One may click hundreds of photos and store them digitally
d. No need to worry about bad clicks
v. What is the writer’s opinion about the new age photos?

a. They have replaced an era of photo albums
b. They are merely a kaleidoscope of past life c They are cheaply taken
and have lost originality
d. Pixel images put a heavy load on computer hard-drives
vi. Which of these statements is incorrect about the new- age photos?
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a. They are virtually indisposable
b. They no longer preserve priceless memories
C They can be captured in large numbers
d. They have begun to replace photo albums
vii. Why does the writer feel that in the present times, photographs have lost their
genuineness?
viii. How have the new age photos made an editor out of the amateur photographer?
ix. Find a word similar in meaning to "beginner" in para 5.
x. Find a word similar in meaning to "timeline" in para 7.
II. Read the following passage:
1. India ranks third in the list of countries with the largest number of threatened turtle and
tortoise species in the world after China and Vietnam, an international report released on
Thursday has revealed.
2. The country has two of the world's 25 most threatened freshwater turtle species - Northern
River Terrapin (Batagur baska) found in the Sundarbans, West Bengal and the Red-Crowned
Roof Turtle (Batagur kachuga), found only within the riverine National Chambal Gharial
Wildlife Sanctuary (NCGWS) in Madhya Pradesh.
3. Another three species - South Asian Narrow headed Softshell Turtle (Chitra indica) from
NCGWS, Black Softshell Turtle (Nilssonia nigricans) from Assam, and the Arakan Forest
Turtle (Heosemys depressa) from Mizoram, were identified under the list of top 50 most
threatened species globally. This takes the tally in India to 7.4% under the world's 25 most
threatened turtle species and 10% of the top 50.
4. Additionally, the study identified the Keeled Box Turtle (Cuora mouhotii), Asian Giant
Tortoise (Manouria emys) in northeast India, and the Leith's Softshell Turtle (Nilssonia leithii)
from western India, as three other threatened species outside the top 50, assessed as critically
endangered. The details were revealed in the report - Turtles in Trouble: The World's 25+ Most
Endangered Tortoises and Freshwater Turtles - in Ojai, California, USA compiled by the Turtle
Conservation Coalition, an international body comprising eight conservation groups including
the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and Turtle Surveillance Alliance
(TSA).
5. "Our study found that Asia was facing a crisis with 63% of the top threatened tortoise and
turtle species identified from the continent, followed by Africa and Latin America at 14.8%
each," Rick Hudson, President and Chief Executive Officer, TSA, that released the study, told
HT in a telephonic interview.
6. The study identified 356 tortoise and freshwater turtle species globally, of which, 148 or
60.4% of those species have been included in the IUCN 2017 Red List, and 41.6% of all turtle
and tortoise species are officially listed as 'Threatened' by IUCN criteria (categorised as
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vulnerable, endangered or critically endangered). Of this, all species identified in India are
listed either under 'endangered' or 'critically endangered' categories. Yangtze Giant Softshell
Turtle from China is the most threatened species worldwide.
(The Hindustan Times)
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate option: 8X1=8 marks
i. Scientific name for the Red-Crowned Roof Turtle is:
a. Cuora mouhotii
b. Batagur baska
c. Batagur kachuga
d. Nilssonia leithii
ii. Pick the statement that is NOT TRUE according to the passage:
a. India has one of the world's 25 most threatened fresh water turtle species.
b. Three species of turtle were identified under the list of top 50 most threatened species
globally.
c. Yangtze Giant Softshell Turtle from Korea is the most available species worldwide.
d. Asia was facing a crisis with 53% of the top threatened tortoise and turtle species
identified from the continent.
iii. What is India's count in the percentage of the world's 50 most threatened turtle species? a.
7.4%
b. 8%
c. 8.4%
d. 10%
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iv. What is the function of International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)?
a. protection of turtle species
b. conservation of nature
c. conservation of turtle species
d. surveillance of turtles
v. Rick Hudson, President and Chief Executive Officer, TSA, that released the study, has
said that:
a. Asia was facing a crisis with 63% of the top threatened tortoise
b. Turtle species identified from the continent is also included under this
c. African and Latin American species comes at the second place
d. All of these
vi. Where is Yangtze Giant Softshell Turtle, the most threatened species worldwide is found?
vii. Which word in the passage means the same as 'involving’? (para 4)
viii. Which word in the passage means the same as 'protection’? (para 4)
III. Read the passage given below:
The COVID-19 pandemic, also known as the coronavirus pandemic, is an ongoing global
pandemic of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) caused by severe acute respiratory
syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2). The novel virus was first identified from an
outbreak in Wuhan, China, in December 2019. Attempts to contain it there failed, allowing
the virus to spread to other areas of China and later worldwide. The World Health
Organization (WHO) declared the outbreak a pandemic on 11 March 2020. As of 26 August
2022, the pandemic had caused more than 599 million cases and 6.48 million confirmed
deaths, making it one of the deadliest in history.
COVID-19 symptoms range from undetectable to deadly, but most commonly include fever,
dry cough, and fatigue. Severe illness is more likely in elderly patients and those with
certain underlying medical conditions. COVID-19 transmits when people breathe in air
contaminated by droplets and small airborne particles containing the virus. Infected persons
are typically contagious for 10 days, and can spread the virus even if they do not develop
symptoms. Mutations have produced many strains (variants) with varying degrees of
infectivity and virulence.
COVID-19 vaccines have been approved and widely distributed in various countries since
December 2020. Other recommended preventive measures include social distancing,
wearing masks, improving ventilation and air filtration, and quarantining those who have
been exposed or are symptomatic. Treatments include monoclonal antibodies, novel
antiviral drugs, and symptom control. Governmental interventions include travel
restrictions, lockdowns, business restrictions and closures, workplace hazard controls,
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quarantines, testing systems, and tracing contacts of the infected. The pandemic has
triggered severe social and economic disruption around the world, including the largest
global recession since the Great Depression.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Covid-19_pandemic
a) On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it, using recognizable
abbreviations wherever necessary. Supply a suitable title. 5
marks
b) Write a summary of the above passage in about 50 words. 3
SECTION-B: CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS AND GRAMMAR
IV GRAMMAR
i) Choose the best word from the options given below to fill the gaps: ( ½ X8=4 marks)
Puppets (a)__________ among the oldest man-made objects that (b) _______ known to the
world. Archaeologists in Egypt and India have (c) __________ jointed clay models that (d)
__________ operated by pulling their strings, which date back to 4,000 years. Historians
tell us that puppets (e) __________ created by nearly all peoples at all times. The first
puppets (f) __________ probably used mostly by adults. Tribal peoples, such as Native
Americans, (g) __________ the puppets to represent people or animals in their religious
rituals. People all over the world (h) _________fascinated by them.
a) i. is ii. am iii. are iv. were

b) i. is ii. am iii. are iv. was
c) i. find ii. found iii. finding iv. fond
d) i. is ii. am iii. are iv. was
e) i. has been ii. is iii. was iv. Have been
f) i. was ii. were iii. are iv. had
g) i. using ii. Were using iii. used iv. Had used
h) i. were ii. was iii. will iv. are
ii. Rearrange any three of the following words/phrases to make meaningful sentences:
(3X1=3 Marks)
a) that he/to the finish/fight/he says/will
b) a couple of days/the money in/that he/he has promised/will return
c) he/though/finished late/he started/early
d) his/where/he hid/could not find/pursuers/
V. CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS

i. You are Vikram/ Sonia, a resident of 57, Civil Lines Rohtak. You are a young
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person of 32 with seven years of experience as an expert executive in a reputed medical
firm. You seek an immediate change to some other medical firm in Mumbai/Pune. Draft a
suitable advertisement in about 50 words for the 'Situation Wanted' column of a National
Daily. ( 3 Marks )
OR
You are Ranveer / Ravina of 254 Greater Kailash, New Delhi. You want to sell the first
floor of your newly constructed house. Draft an advertisement in the Indian Express under
its classified Advertisement column "Property for Sale' in about 50 words. Include all
relevant details like location, type of accommodation, cost and contact address including
telephone number etc.
ii. You were very upset about the reports of communal riots in various parts of the
country. As a concerned social worker, design a poster in not more than 50 words,
highlighting the importance of communal harmony. You are Vinay/Vineeta working with
Indian Society for Harmony, Delhi. ( 3 marks )
OR
G20 leaders committed to the key goal of limiting global warming in the recent G20
Summit held. Draft a poster in not more than 50 words with the theme ‘Global Warming’
for the ‘Environment Week’ to be observed by your school. You are Mohit/Mridula of
Shyamlal Vidyalaya, Delhi.
iii. Ragging has raised its ugly head again. A recent incident at a prestigious school has
shown that this evil has not yet come to an end. Write a speech for the morning assembly in
school in 120-150 words on ‘Ragging, an Evil’. You are Navtej/ Navita. (5 Marks)
OR
It is increasingly felt that the youth of the country should be actively involved in social
service activities. Their involvement will give them first-hand knowledge of the actual
problems the people are facing and inspire them to play a more active role in nation
building. Write a speech in 120-150 words on “Youth and Social Service”. You are
Deepak/Deepika, Youth Secretary of the school.
iv. Academic excellence has been identified with achieving high grades and superior
performance. But academic excellence is more than just making good grades. What are
your views on the issue? Write a debate in 120-150 words either for or against the view
“Academic excellence is the only requirement for a successful career”.
(5 marks)
OR
Social media is a big part of many teens' lives. Is media responsible for the moral degradation
of teenagers? As Daivik/Daivika, write a debate either for or against the motion in 120-150
words.
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SECTION-C: LITERATURE
VI. REFERENCE TO CONTEXT

i)Read the following extracts carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(3x1=3marks)
…………..A sweet face,
My mother’s, that was before I was born
And the sea, which appears to have changed less,
Washed their transient feet.
(a) Where was her mother?
(b) When did this incident take place?
(c) What has not changed over the period of time?
OR
The laburnum top is silent, quite still

In the afternoon yellow September sunlight
A few leaves yellowing, all its seeds fell.
Till the goldfinch comes, with a twitching
Chirrup
A suddenness, a startlement, at a branch end
.(i) What is the significance of the ‘Laburnum top’ here?
(ii) Which season has been described in these lines?
(iii) What commotion does the bird create? How?
ii. Read the following extracts carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(3x1=3 Marks)
She did not believe in the things they taught at the English school and was distressed that
there was no teaching about God and the scriptures. One day I announced that we were
being given music lessons. She was very disturbed. To her music had lewd associations. It
was the monopoly of harlots and beggars and not meant for gentlefolk. She said nothing but
her silence meant disapproval. She rarely talked to me after that.
i.Which of the following was not taught in the English school?
a. scriptures
b. English
c. western science
d. music
ii.What does the “silence” signify?
iii.According to her, the music has “lewd associations”. What does this tell about the grand
mother?
OR
Unexpectedly, my head popped out of the water. A few meters away, Wavewalker was
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near capsizing, her masts almost horizontal. Then a wave hurled her upright, my lifeline
jerked taut, I grabbed the guard rails and sailed through the air into Wavewalker’s main
boom. Subsequent waves tossed me around the deck like a rag doll. My left ribs cracked;
my mouth filled with blood and broken teeth. Somehow, I found the wheel, lined up the
stern for the next wave and hung on.
i.) What was the physical state of the narrator?
1) Deteriorating
2) Stabilised
2) Meliorating
3) All of these
ii) Which literary device has been used in 'Like a rag doll'?
iii) What is stern?
iii. Read the following extracts carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(4x1=4Marks)
And what should I have done with them in a small rented room where the shreds of black-
out paper still hung along the windows and no more than a handful of cutlery fitted in the
narrow table drawer? I resolved to forget the address. Of all the things I had to forget, that
would be the easiest.
i. The word ‘them’ stands for
a. friends
b. things
c. feelings
d. the belongings
ii. The narrator resolves to forget the address as ----------
iii. Find a word from the extract opposite to ‘abundance’
iv.Explain “Of all the things I had to forget, that would be the easiest.”
OR
Howard Carter, that is- was the British archaeologist who in 1922 discovered Tut’s tomb
after years of futile searching. Its contents, though hastily ransacked in antiquity, were
surprisingly complete. They remain the richest royal collection ever found and have
become part of the pharaoh’s legend. Stunning artefacts in gold, their eternal brilliance
meant to guarantee resurrection, caused a sensation at the time of the discovery – and still
get the most attention. But Tut was also buried with everyday things he’d want in the
afterlife: board games, a bronze razor, linen undergarments, cases of food and wine.
Q1. Who found King Tut’s mummy?

Q2. What was the mummy laden with?
Q3. Why were kings laden with riches?
Q4. What is artefact?
VII. Answer any two out of the following four questions in 30-40 words: (2x3=6 marks)
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a. Explain ‘Both wry with the laboured ease of loss’ in reference to the poem A
Photograph.
b. Do you think it was the sheer luck or the skills of the Captain which saved the
voyagers? Explain.
c. Why was king Tut’s body kept in the Sun?
d. Describe the weather conditions on 2nd January.
VIII. Answer any one out of the following two questions in 30-40 words:
(1x3=3 marks )
How did Aram react when he saw the horse? Why could he not believe his eyes?
OR
Who was Mrs. Dorling? Why did she visit Mrs.S’ house frequently?
IX. Answer any one out of the following questions in 120-150 words:
(1x6= 6 marks)
‘Our optimistic attitude helps us to face extremely dangerous situations.’ Discuss with
reference to the story ‘We’re Not Afraid to
Die….
OR
In January 2005, History was created in the field of archaeology. Write an article on it with
reference to “Discovering Tut the Saga Continues.”
X. Answer any one out of the following questions in 120-150 words:
(1x6=6 marks)
What was the narrator’s experience when she went to visit Mrs Dorling’s house the
second time? Justify its outcome with reference to “The Address”? OR
What did Aram feel about ‘the crazy streak’ of the family?
___________________________________________________
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ANGELS’ ACADEMY SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL
Class XI
SUB-GEOGRAPHY (029)
Time-3 hrs. MM- 70
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
I. Question paper is divided into 5 sections A ,B,C,D & E

II. In section A question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
III. In section B question number 18& 19 are Source based questions.
IV. In Section C question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions(80-100
words).
V. In section D question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120 to
150words).
VI. In section E question number29&30 are Map based questions having 5 subparts.
SECTION A (1 X 17=17)
Multiple choice questions
1. Which one of the following discipline attempts temporal synthesis?

(a). Psychology
(b) Geography
(c). Anthropology
(d) History
2 Which one of the following has the longest duration?

(a). Eons
(b) Period
(c). Era
(d) Epoch
3 Which one of the following is not related to the formation or modification of present
atmosphere?
(a).Solar winds
(b).Differentiation
(c). Degassing
(d) Photosynthesis
4.Which one of the following is a direct source of information about the interior of earth?
(a)Earthquake wave
(b)Volcanoes
(c)Gravitational force
(d)Earth magnetism
5.Which type of volcanic eruption have caused Deccan trap formation?

(a)Shield
(b)Flood
(c)Composite
(d) Caldera
6 which one of the following describes the lithosphere

(a). Upper and lower mantel
(b). Crust and Upper mantel
(c). Crust and core
(d) Mantel and core
7 Polar fleeing force related to

(a).Revolution of the earth
(b).Gravitation
(c).Rotation of the earth
(d) Tides
8 Who among the following was the first to consider the possibility of Europe Africa and
America having being located side by side.
(a). Arthur homes
(b). Abraham ortelius
(c). Admans heinz
(d) Alfred Wegner
9 which one of the following is the type of plate boundary of Indian plate along the Himalayan
mountains?
(a). Ocean continent convergence
(b). Divergent boundary
(c). Transformer boundary
(d) Continent- continent convergence
10 Which one of the following processes is a gradational process?

(a).Deposition
(b) Diastrophic
(c). Volcanism
(d) Erosion
11. Which of the following is an example of endogenic forces?

(a). Erosion
(b).Volcanism
(c). Weathering
(d) None of these
12 Which one of the following material is affected by hydration process?

(a) Granite
(b) Clay
(c) Quartz
(d) Salts
13 Debris Avalanche can be included in the category of

(a) Landslides
(b) Slow flow mass movements
(c) Rapid flow mass movement
(d) Subsidence
14 Which of the following is a form of weathering?

(a). Physical
(b). Chemical
(c). Biological
(d) All of these
15 Name the smallest continent

(a). Asia
(b). Europe
(c). Africa
(d) Australia
16 What was the name given by Alfred Wegener to a large continent surrounded with water?
(a). Pangaea
(b). Panthalassa
(c). Angara land
(d) Gondwana land
17 What is the thickness of oceanic crust?
(a). 5km
(b). 30km
(c).10 km
(d)70 km
SECTION B (3 X 2= 6)
Source base questions
18 . Volcanoes
A volcano is a place where gases ashes and other Morton Rock material Lava escape to the
ground. A volcano is called an active volcano if the material mentioned are being released or
have been released out in the recent past. The layer below the solid crust is mantle. It has
examples. These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt a type of flower that is very fluid
when erupted. For this reason these volcanoes are not steep. They become explosive if some
how water gets into the wealth otherwise they are characterized by low explosive the
upcoming Lava moves in the form of fountain and throws out the cone at the top of the went
and develops into cinder cone.
(i)What are the three types of volcanoes?
(ii)What is Lava and magma?
(iii)What is the cause of erupting the volcano?
19. Landslides
In our country debris have launches and landslides occur very frequently in the Himalayas.
There are many reason for this. One the Himalaya are tectonically active. They are mostly made
up of sedimentary rocks and unsolidated and semi solided deposits. The slope are very steep.
Compared to the Himalayas that Nilgiri bordering Tamilnadu ,Karnataka ,Kerala and the
Western ghats along the West coast are relatively tectonically stable and are mostly made up
of very hard rocks but still debris have launches and landslide occur through not as frequent
as in the Himalayas in these hills. Why? Many slopes are stepper with almost vertically clips
and escarpments in the Western ghats and Nilgiris. Mechanical weathering due to
temperature changes and changes is pronounced. They receive heavy amount of rainfall over
short periods. So there is almost direct rock fall while frequently in these places along with
landslide and debris Avalanches.
(i) In which part of our country frequently landslides are happening?
(Ii) What is the difference between landslide and avalanches
(iii) Why peninsular mountains of India cannot face landslides frequently ?

SECTION C (3 X 4 = 12)
Short answer type questions
. 20. What is meant by process of differentiation?
21.What were the gases which initially formed the earth’s atmosphere?
22.It is weathering that is possible for biodiversity on the earth how?
23.What are the mass movement that are real rapid and perceptible ?
SECTION D. ( 5 X 5= 25)
Long answer type questions
24.What are the evidences in support of continental drift theory.
25.What are the basic difference between the drift theory and the plate tectonics?
26 What are the various mobile and mighty exogenic geomorphic agents and what
is the prime job they perform?
27 What are convectional currency in the mantle initiated and maintained?
. 28 What was the location of Indian land mass during the formation of the Deccan traps?
. SECTION D. (5 X 2 = 10)
Map based questions
29 In in the outline map of World Physical Mark the following
(i) Equator
(ii) Tropic of Cancer
(iii) Tropic of Capricorn
(iv) Niagara falls
(v) Angel Falls
30.In the outline map of World show all the Major plates in plate tectonics.
ANGEL’S ACADEMY SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION SAMPLE PAPER(2023-24)
Class XI
CHEMISTRY THEORY(043)
MM:70 Time: 3hrs
Read the following instructions carefully.
a) There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
b) SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c) SECTION B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d) SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e) SECTION D consists of 2 case- based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed
SECTION A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct.
1. The solution A and B are 0.1 and 0.2 molar in a substance. If 100 ml of A are mixed
with 25 ml of B and there is no change in volume, then the final molarity of solution
is ?
(1) 0.15 M (2) 0.18 M (3) 0.12 M (4) 0.30 M
2. The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10–34 Js. The speed of light is 3 × 1017
nm s–1. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light
with frequency of 6 × 1015 s–1 ? a)10 b)25 c)50 d)75
3. Two atoms are said to be isobars if(i) they have same atomic number but different
mass number.
(ii) they have same number of electrons but different number of neutrons.
(iii) they have same number of neutrons but different number of electrons.
(iv) sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the number of protons is
different.
4. Anything that influences the valence electrons will affect the chemistry of the
element. Which one of the following factors does not affect the valence shell?
(a) Valence principal quantum number (n)
(b) Nuclear charge (Z )
(c) Nuclear mass
(d) Number of core electrons.
5. Considering the elements F, Cl, O and N the correct order of their chemical reactivity
in terms of oxidizing property is:
(a) F > Cl > O > N (b) F > O > Cl > N
(c) Cl > F > O > N (d) O > F > N > Cl
6.What is the other name for acyclic compounds?

a) Aliphatic
b) Aromatic
c) Heterocyclic
d) Alicyclic
7. An atom of an element A has three electrons in its outermost orbit and that of B
has six electrons in its outermost orbit. The formula of the compound between
these two will be
(a) A3B6
(b) A2B3
(c) A3B2
(d) A2B
8 .The S.I unit of temperature is :

(a) Kelvin
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Centigrade
9.Which of the following weighs the most?

(a) One g – atom of nitrogen
(b) One mole of water
(c) One mole of sodium
(d) One molecule of H2SO4

10.The -ve charged particles is called:
(a) Anion
(b) Cation
(c) Radical
(d) Atom
11.Which of the following properties generally decreases along a period?

(a) Ionization Energy
(b) Metallic Character
(c) Electron Affinity
(d) Valency.
12.The number of types of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide is
(a) Two sigma, two pi
(b) One sigma, two pi
(c) One sigma, one pi
(d) Two sigma, one pi
Assertion and reasoning questions:
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements
and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statementsbut reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrongstatement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
13Assertion: Black body is an ideal body that emits and absorbs radiations of all
frequencies. Reason: The frequency of radiation emitted by a body goes from a lower
frequency to higher frequency with an increase in temperature.
14.Assertion: Boron has a smaller first ionisation enthalpy than beryllium. Reason:
The penetration of a 2s electron to the nucleus is more than the 2p electron hence
2p electron is more shielded by the inner core of electrons than the 2s electrons.
15.Assertion: F2<B2<O2<C2<N2is order ofstability.
Reason: Higher the bond order, lower thestability.

16. Assertion : The bond order of helium is always zero.
Reason : The number of electrons in bonding molecular orbital and antibonding
molecular orbital is equal.
Section B
17. What is the difference between molality and molarity?
18.. Calculate the mass percent of calcium, phosphorusand oxygen in calcium

phosphate Ca2(PO4)2?
19. Yellow light emitted from a sodium lamp has a wavelength of 580 nm. Calculate
the frequency (v) and wave number (v) of the yellow light.
20.Find energy of each of the photons which
(i) corresponds to light of frequency 3 X 1015 = Hz.
(ii) having wavelength of 0.50 A
21. Why do alkali metals have lowest ionisation energy?
SECTION C
22.Bond angle in NH3 is more than in H2O . Justify.
23. Define (i) metallic radius, (ii) van der Waals' radius.
24.Account for the following:
i)Which is smaller F e2+ or F e3+ why?
(ii) Chlorine (CI) have more negative electron gainenthalpy than Fluorine (F). [Atomic
no.: F = 9, Cl = 17 ]
(iii) Anions are bigger in size than their parent atom.
25i)What is the state of hybridisation of nitrogen in NH3ion?
(ii) What are objectives of VSEPR theory?
(iii) Which hybrid orbitals are used by carbon atoms in CH3 CHO ?
26.Give reason for the following:
(i) Halogens act as good oxidising agent.

(ii) Electron gain enthalpy of noble gas is almostzero.
(iii)Ionization enthalpy of Mg is more than that of Na and Al.
27. The mass of an electron is 9.1X10 - 31 kg. If its kinetic energy is 3 X10- 25 J,
calculate its wave length. [Given: h= 6.626 X10- 34 Js.
28.. How many grams of Cl2 are required to completely react with 0.4 g of H2 to yield
HCI? Also, calculate the amount of HCI formed.
SECTION D
29.Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow based on passage
and related studied concepts Orbitals are region or space where there is maximum
probability of finding electrons. Qualitatively, these orbitals can be distinguished by
their size, shape and orientation. An orbital of small size means there is more chance
of finding the electron near the nucleus. Shape and orientation means the direction
in which probability of finding electron is maximum. Atomic orbitals can be
distinguished by quantum numbers. Each orbital is designated by three quantum
numbers n, l and m, (magnetic quantum number) which define energy, shape and
orientation but these are not sufficient to explain spectra of multi-electrons atoms.
Spin quantum number (m) determines the spin of electron. Spin angular momentum
of electron has two orientations relative to chosen axis which are distinguished by
spin quantum numbers m, which can take values +1/2 and -1/2
A)The number of orbitals in 3rd shell are equal to
(a) 3
(b) 12
(c) 6
(d) 9
B) n=2,l=1,n=4,l=0 respectively represent
(a) 2d, 4s
(b) 2s,4d
(c) 2p,4s
d) 2s ,4p
(iii) An orbital can have maximum electrons equal to
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 14
(iv) Shape of 's' and 'p' orbitals respectively are
(a) spherical, dumb-bell
(b) Both are dumb-bell
(c) Both are spherical
(d) dumb-bell, spherical
30.Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
The attractive force which holds the two atoms together is called a chemical bond. A
covalent bond is formed by an equal sharing of electrons. A coordinate bond is formed
by unequal sharing of electrons. An ionic bond is formed by the transfer of electrons
from one atom to another. Octet rule, although very useful but is not universally
applicable. According to valence bond theory, a covalent bond is formed by
overlapping of half-filled atomic orbitals resulting in a lowering of energy and more
stability. Bond order is the number of bonds between atoms in a molecule. The higher
the bond order more will be stability and bond dissociation enthalpy but the smaller
the bond length. The polarity of a covalent bond depends upon the difference in
electronegativity. The covalent character of a bond depends upon polarising power,
smaller cation and bigger anions have higher polarising power. VSEPR theory helps to
predict the shapes of molecules.
(a) Write the electron dot structure of N2O.
(b) What are the ions present in CsI3?
(c) Out of CN+, CN–, NO, which has the highest bond order?
(d) Draw the structure of XeOF4 on the basis of VSEPR theory.

SECTION E
31. A photon of wavelength 4 × 10-7 m strikes on metal surface ; the work function of
the metal being 2.13 eV. Calculate (i) the energy of the photon,
(ii) the kinetic energy of the emission
(iii) the velocity of the photoelectron. (Given 1 eV = 1.6020 × 10 -19 J).
32.A substance, on analysis gave the following percent composition

: Na=43.4%,C=11.3% and O=45.3%. Calculate the empirical formula. (At.
mass Na=23 u,C=12 u,O=16 u).
33. N2 molecule has a greater bond dissociation energy than N 2+ion . Explain in terms
of molecular orbital theory.
Class: XI
SUB: Biology
Time: 3hrs. MM:70
General Instructions: (i) All questions are compulsory. (ii) The question paper has five
sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory. (iii) Section–A has 16 questions of
1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3
marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3
questions of 5 marks each. (iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have
been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in
such questions. (v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be
drawn.
Section A
1 Which of the following ’suffixes’ is used for units of classification in plants [1]
indicates a taxonomic category of ’family’?
a) Ales
b) Aceae
c) Onae
d) Ae
2 Wheat is placed in which Phylum/Division? [1]

a) Monocotyledonae
b) Dicotyledonae
c) Anacardiaceae
d) Angiospermae
3 The plant cells differ from animal cells in: [1]

a) None of these
b) Having cell wall and chloroplast

c) Having chloroplast and mitochondria
d) Having cell membrane and golgibodies
4 AIDS virus contains: [1]

a) RNA with protein
b) Only DNA
c) RNA without protein
d) DNA with protein
5 Assertion (A): In red algae, the pyrenoid lacks a starch sheath. Reason (R): [1]
Pyrenoid is a polysaccharide body.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
6 Assertion (A): Megasporophyll is equivalent to carpel in angiosperm. Reason [1]

(R): Sexual reproduction takes place in ovule.

7 The ribosomes of a polysome translate: [1]

a) mRNA to Proteins
b) Proteins to DNA
c) mRNA to DNA
d) DNA to DNA
8 The site for the light reactions is ________. [1]

a) Stroma
b) Cisternae
c) Grana
d) Vacuoles
9 Proteins are made up of___________. [1]

a) Nucleosides
b) Monomers
c) Heteropolymers
d) Homopolymers
10 An important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is: [1]
a) Vacuoles
b) Lysosomes
c) Plastids
d) Golgi apparatus
11 RBCs and muscle cells carry out anaerobic respiration, but: [1]
1. RBCs are permanently anaerobic and muscle cells are temporarily
anaerobic.
2. RBCs are temporarily anaerobic and muscle cells are permanently

anaerobic.
3. Muscle cells lack mitochondria.

a) Only statement (ii) and (iii) are correct
b) None of these
c) Only statement (i) is correct
d) Only statement (ii) is correct
12 The exchange of gases in: [1]

1. The alveoli that lower the pO of blood and raise its pCO is external
respiration.
2. The tissues that lowerthe pCO of blood and raise its pO is internal
respiration.
a) Both statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect

b) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
c) Statement (ii) is incorrect and (i) is correct
d) Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct
13 Identify the wrong statement about meiosis: [1]

a) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
b) Four haploid cells are formed
c) At the end of meiosis the number of chromosomes are reduced to half
d) Two cycle of DNA replication occurs
14 Which of the following is true for G - phase? [1]

a) DNA synthesis or replication takes place
b) Amount of DNA per cell doubles
c) Amount of chromosome per cell doubles

d) Cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its
DNA
15 Assertion (A): An injury or a trauma stimulates the platelets in the blood to [1]
release certain factors which activate the mechanism of coagulation. Reason
(R): Certain factors released by the tissues at the site of injury also can initiate
coagulation.

16 Assertion (A): Eosinophils resist infections and are also associated with [1]
allergic reactions. Reason (R): Basophils secrete heparin which involved in
inflammatory reactions.

Section B
17 How is respiration regulated? [2]

18 What is a prosthetic group in enzymes? [2]
OR
Starch is not a single material, but is regarded as a homopolysaccharide.
Explain.
19 What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention the functions that it [2]

performs.
20 What is a bacteriophage? How does it start acting like a living being? [2]
21 In which plant will you look for mycorrhiza and coralloid roots? Also, explain [2]
what these terms mean.
Section C
22 Why was Linnaeus’ system of classification considered asartificial system? [3]

23 Distinguish between bryophytes and pteridophytes. [3]
OR
What is the most common liverwort? Draw its well - labelled diagram. What is
the nature of its thallus?
24 State the functions of the following [3]

1. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
2. Golgi Apparatus
25 Schematically represent primary, secondary and tertiary structures of a [3]

hypothetical polymer say for example a protein.
26 Meiosis is advantageous than mitosis as it produces variations so plays an [3]
important role in evolution. What are the stages during which chances of
recombination of genes are increased during meiosis? Explain these events.
27 Describe the evolutionary change in the pattern of heart among the [3]
vertebrates.
28 Give the role of Hb in the transport of gases. [3]
Section D
29 Read the text carefully and answer the questions: There are millions of [4]
living organisms on earth. All these living organisms differ in shape, size,
colour, habitat and many other characteristics. To understand their origin,
diversity, distribution and inter relationship, the scientists have devised
mechanisms to classify all of them. Classification of living organisms helps in
revealing the relationship between various organisms. It also helps in making
the study of organisms easy and organized.
1. A scientist who made significant contribution of field of classification is:
a) Linnaeus
b) Oparin
c) Darwin
d) Pasteur
2. Modem classification is based on:
a) Fossils
b) Phylogeny
c) Morphology
d) Phylogeny
3. An important criteria on in the present day classification is:
a) Presence/absence of notochord.
b) Morphological resemblance
c) Breeding habit
d) Anatomical & Physiological traits.
4. All living organism are linked to one another because:

a) All of these.
b) They share common genetic material bus to varying degrees.
c) They have common cellular organization.
d) They have common genetic material of the same type.

5. Assertion (A): The term systematics refers to the diversity of different
kinds of organisms and their relationship. Reason (R): Systematics
deals with the identification, naming and classification of the organisms
into groups.

30 Read the following and answer any four questions: Electron microscopic [4]
studies of eukaryotic cells reveal the presence of a network or reticulum of tiny
tubular structures scattered in the cytoplasm that is called the endoplasmic
reticulum (ER). The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a large network of
membrane - bound tubes and sheets which look like long tubules or round or
oblong bags (vesicles).
1. The endoplasmic reticulum bearing ________ on their surface is called the
rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).
a. Ribosomes
b. Lysosomes
c. Golgi body
d. Plastids
2. RER is frequently observed in the cells actively involved in ________
synthesis and secretion.
a. Lipid
b. Glycoprotein
c. Glucose
d. Protein
3. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for synthesis of
________.
a. Lipid
b. Protein
c. Glucose
d. Starch
4. ER divides the intracellular space into ________ distinct compartments.
a. Three
b. Six
c. Two
d. Four
5. Assertion: The ER often shows ribosomes attached to their outer

surface. Reason: In animal cells, lipid - like steroidal hormones are
synthesised in RER.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.
Section E
31 How are the male and female gametophytes of pteridophytes and [5]
gymnosperms different from each other?
OR
List out the merits of the five kingdom system of classification.
32 Formation of enzyme - substrate complex (ES) is the first step in catalysed [5]
reactions. Describe the other steps till the formation of product.
OR
What is the difference between a nucleotide and nucleoside? Give two

examples of each with their structure.
33 Describe conduction of heartbeat with the help of a suitable diagram. [5]

OR
Why is it necessary to check the Rh factor of the blood in a pregnant woman?

SUBJECT: INFORMATICS PRACTICES (083)
CLASS: XI
TIME: 3:00 Hrs. M.M: 70
 Please check this question paper contains 35 questions.
 The paper is divided into 4 Sections- A, B, C, D and E.
 Section A, consists of 18 questions (1 to 18). Each question carries 1 Mark.
 Section B, consists of 7 questions (19 to 25). Each question carries 2 Marks.
 Section C, consists of 5 questions (26 to 30). Each question carries 3 Marks.
 Section D, consists of 2 questions (31 to 32). Each question carries 4 Marks.
 Section E, consists of 3 questions (33 to 35). Each question carries 5 Marks.
 All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only
SECTION A (1 mark each)

Multiple Choice Questions
1. If x=3.123, then int(x) will give ?
a) 1
b) 0
c) 1
d) 3
2. Which statement is true from following-

a) List is mutable & Tuple is immutable
b) List is immutable & Tuple is mutable
c) Both are Mutable.
d) Both are Immutable
3. The return type of the input() function is

A) string
B) integer
C) list
D) tuple
4. The lines beginning with a certain character, and which are ignored by a compiler and not executed, are called
……….
a) operators
b) operands
c) functions
d) comments
5. Python is____
a) High-Level
b) Interpreted
c) Object-Oriented
d) All Of The Above
6. X wants to allow the program to repeatedly ask the user to enter their Choice if it does not equal the
Answer. Which loop option should X use?
a) while Choice == Answer:

Choice = input()
Page 1 of 5
b) while Choice != Answer:
Choice = input()
c) while Answer != Choice:
Choice = input()
d) while Answer =! Choice:
Choice = input()
7. To access a list which contains ten elements, which of the following uses of range() would
produce a list of the desired indexes?
a) range(1,10)
b) range(0,9)
c) range(10)
d) range(1,11)
8. Iteration stands for ___________
a) The order in which instructions are carried out

b) A decision point in a program
c) The repetition of steps within a program
d) Testing a program to make sure it works
9. What will be the final value of I after execution of the loop:
for I in range(10):
print(I)
a) 10
b) 9
c) None
d) Error
10. Which one of the following is the default extension of a Python file?
A) .exe B) .p++ C).py D) .p
11. Find the output:
Code = [1, 2, 3, 4]
Code.append([5,6,7,8])
print(Code)
a) [1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8]
b) [1,2,3,4]
c) [1,2,3,4,[5,6,7,8]]
d) [1,2,3,4][5,6,7,8]
12.Find the output:
list = [1, 2, 3, None, (1, 2, 3, 4, 5), [‘Hi’, ‘Hello’, ‘Bye’]]

print(len(list))
a) 12
b) 11
c) 22
d) 6
13. Find the output :
list = [‘python’, ‘learning’, ‘@’, ‘cbse’, ‘python’, ‘.in’]

print(list[0:6:2])
a) [‘python’, ‘@’, ‘python’]
b) [‘python’, ‘learning’, ‘@’]
c) [‘python’, ‘learning’, ‘@’, ‘python’, ‘in’]
Page 2 of 5
d) [‘python’, ‘in’]
14. What is the output:
sampleList = [10, 20, 30, 40, 50]

sampleList.pop()
print(sampleList)
sampleList.pop(2)
print(sampleList)
a) [10, 20, 30, 40, 50]

[10, 20, 30, 40]
b) [20, 30, 40, 50]

[10, 20, 40]
c) [10, 20, 30, 40]

[10, 20, 30, 50]
d) [10, 20, 30, 40]

[10, 20, 40]
15.Suppose d = {“john”:40, “peter”:45}, to delete the entry for “john” what command do we use:
a) d.delete(“john”:40)
b) d.delete(“john”)
c) del d[“john”]
d) del d(“john”:40)
16. Which one of the following is correct?
a) In python, a dictionary can have two same keys with different values.
b) In python, a dictionary can have two same values with different keys
c) In python, a dictionary can have two same keys or same values but cannot have two same
key-value pair
d) In python, a dictionary can neither have two same keys nor two same values.
17. Assertion (A) : Lists traversal in Python is done through slicing and for loop also.
Reason (R) : In lists, you can change the elements in place.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c ) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
18. Assertion (A) : In python, lists are mutable.

Reason (R) : In lists, values are enclosed inside double or single quotes mandatory
SECTION B (2 mark each)

19. What do you mean by DICTIONARY in Python? Write a code to print an empty dictionary.
20. Explain difference between list and dictionary.
21. Explain difference between append() and insert() in list.
22. Write a Python script to generate and print a dictionary that contains a number (between 1
and n) in the form (x, x*x).
Page 3 of 5
Sample Dictionary ( n = 5) :
Expected Output : {1: 1, 2: 4, 3: 9, 4: 16, 5: 25}
23. Write a program to calculate and display the sum of all the odd numbers in the list.
24. Write a Python program to remove a key from a dictionary.
25. Which numbers are printed?
for i in range(2):
print i
for i in range(4,6):
print i
SECTION C (3 marks each)

26. Write a program to print factorial of number.
27. How to add, update and delete element from the dictionary? Illustrate your answer with an
example.
28. Write the output of the given Python code :
print (3 + 4)
print (3 – 4)
print (3 * 4)
print (3/4)
print (3 % 2)
print (3**4)
print (3 // 4)
29. Write a program to print whether the entered number is prime or not.
a. l=list(‘ListMethods’);print(l)
b. l=((78,90,12,34));print(l)
c. l=list({‘Karthik’:90,’Manoj’:85})
SECTION D (4 marks each)

31. Write a Python program to create a dictionary from a string.
Note: Track the count of the letters from the string.
Sample string : 'w3resource'
Expected output: {'w': 1, '3': 1, 'r': 2, 'e': 2, 's': 1, 'o': 1, 'u': 1, 'c': 1}
32. Write a Python script to check whether a given key already exists in a dictionary.
SECTION E (5 marks each)
33. Write a code to create dictionary by inputting name as key and phone no as values and do the
following operations:
34. Write a code to convert following for loop code into while loop: [3]
for a in range(12,200,15):
print(a)
Page 4 of 5
b) Write a program which print all words in a list having more than 5 letters. [2]
35. Accept the electric units from the user and calculate the bill according to the following.
Page 5 of 5
SAMPLE PAPER FOR HALF YEARLY EXAMINANTION (2023-24)
Class – XI
Subject – Physical Education (048)
Time: 3 hrs. MM: 70
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.

2. Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice questions. All questions are
compulsory.
3. Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short answer types and should not
exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4. Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer types and should not exceed
100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5. Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies. There is internal choice
available.
6. Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer types and should not exceed
200-300 words. Attempt any 3.
(SECTION - A)
Q1. Physical education is used to constructive habits

(a) Maintain
(b) Decrease
(c) Provide
(d) Develop
Q2 What is the scope of Coaching?

(a) Social Parks
(b) Sports Clubs
(c) Hotels
(d) All of the above
Q3. Thomas cup is Related to which Game?

(a) Hockey
(b) Judo
(c) Badminton
(d) Football
Page 1 of 8 Physical Education SQP Class-XII 2023-24

Q4. Is The Yogic Exercise Which Keep the Internal Organs of Our Body in A Clean State.
(a)
Neti
(b)
Vajarasana
(c)
Padmasana
(d)
Dhyan
Q5. Describe The Elements Of Yoga.
(a) Patanjali
(b) Maharishi Ved Vyas
(c) Swami Sampurnand
(d) None Of These
Q6. Means Non Stealing.
(a) Asteya
(b) Niyama
(c) Yama
(d) Dharna
Q7 They Are Neither Allowed To Participate Nor To See These Games(Olympics). Who They Are –
(a) Women
(b) Children
(c) Senior Citizens
(d) Dead People
Q8. In Ancient Olympic Games Crown Is Made Up Of L eaves.

(a) Olives
(b) Yellow Pain Killer
(c) Anaesthesia
(d) Highly Costly
Q9. The Credit Goes To Start Modern Olympic-

(a) Baron De Coubertein
(b) Pierree De Coubertein
(c) Thomas Bach
(d) None Of Above
Q10. Disability Developed By

(a) Genetic
(b) Balance Diet
(c) Injury
(d) B & C Both
Q11. Speech Therapist Help A Children With Special Needs In

A) Grooming
B) Enhancing Mobility
C) Communication
D) Playing Games
Q12. In Which Type Of Disability A Person’s Mobility Or Deformity

(a) Cognitive Disability
(b) Intellectual Disability
(c) Physical Disability
(d) Zero Disability
Q13. The aim of heath related fitness is to prevent.
(a) Power
(b) Way
(c) Capacity
(d) Diseases
Q14 The ability of body to execute movements with greater amplitude or range is called:
(a) Strength
(b) Flexibility
(c) Body composition
(d) Stamina
Q15. Which one of the following Health and well being lifestyle determinants, an individual has the maximum
control?
(a) Healthcare system
(b) Social and cultural
(c) Heredity and Age
(d) Personal Interactions
Q16. How many components do physical fitness have?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Six
Q17.How Many Month Were Compulsory For Participant To Stay In Olympic Village
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q18. Helps Control Diabetes.
(a) Ahinsa Or Non Violence
(b) Saucha
(c) Santosh
(d) Tapa
(SECTION - B)
Q19. What is adaptive physical education? [1/2+1/2+1/2+1/2=2]
Q20. Briefly explain development of values through Olympic movement? [1+1=2]
Q21. Define Physical fitness and wellness. [1+1=2]
Q22. What do you understand by disability etiquettes? [1+1=2]
Q23 Explain in brief about the PRICE [1+1=2]
Q24.What do you mean by yogic kriyas? [1+1=2]
(SECTION - C)
Q25 How does the Sensory Processing Disorder interfere with a child’s normal everyday functioning?
[1+1+1=3]
Q26.Explain pranayama and its types. [1+1+1=3]
Q27.Explain the role of various professionals for children with special needs. [1.5+1.5=3]
Q28.Describe the any three components of wellness. [1+1+1=3]
Q29. What is the main aim of fit India program? [1+2=3]
Q30.What is the functions of IFS and NOCS?

[1+1+1=3]
(SECTION - D)
Q31. It is generally considered that yoga is related to spiritual development only and it is not related to
the field of sports and game. Yoga practices are beneficial in the enhancement of health and fitness of
spots persons. It plays a vital role to prepare the sports man psychologically and physiologically for the
sports competition doing yoga regularly along with other fitness methods is very helpful in developing
certain aspects of fitness that an improve performance in competitive sports.
[1+1+1+1=4]
(a) Asanas develop:

I. Flexibility
II. Strength
III. Both I and II

IV. None of the above.
(b) Pranayama enhances:
I. Strength of respiratory system
II. Strength of nervous system
III. Both I and II
IV. None of the above
(c) Meditation helps in:
I. Shooting
II. Archery
III. Chess
IV. All of the above.
(d) Yoga practices are beneficial:
I. health and fitness
II. Flexibility
III. Both I and II
IV. None of the above
Q32. Sports traditionally has been the domain of the fit and able-bodied. Many people started to feel
that the physically challenged people should also be able to enjoy sports and the competition.
Thereafter, the role of sports and competition assumed importance for the intellectually challenged
people as well. This brought about a lot of changes in the Olympic movement. Starting as finding the
fittest athlete, today, besides finding winners, the Olympic movement has come to represent
participation from all strata of society. These Games are held under the International Olympic
Committee where India is represented by the Indian Olympic Committee.
(a) What are the changes modern Olympics have witnessed since their inception in 1896?
(b) What role does the International Olympic Committee have?
(c) Write briefly about the Indian Olympic Committee.
(d) Which Committee where India is represented.
Q33 list A list B [1+1+1+1=4]
1. Asana A. Breath control techniques.

2. Pranayama B. The physical postures in Yoga.
3. Meditation C. Focused attention and mental concentration.
4. Yoga Nidra D. A state of deep relaxation and conscious sleep.

(SECTION - E)
Q34.Discuss the development of Physical Education in India -post independence. [3+2=5]
Q35.Explain in detail active lifestyle, and stress management through yoga. [3+2=5]
Q36.Explain in detail the symbols, ideas, objectives and values of Olympics [1+2+2=5]
Q37.What is the qualities and role of a leader in physical education? [3+2=5]

ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR SEC SCHOOL
SAMPLE PAPER FOR HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2023)
CLASS –XI
SUBJECT – HISTORY (027)
TIME : 3 Hrs. M.M.:80
1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 34 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – Question 1 to 21 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 22 to 27 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60-80 words.
4. Section C - Question no 28 to 30 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 8 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 300-350 words
5. Section D – Question no.31 to 33 are Source based questions with three sub questions
and are of 4 marks each
6. Section-E - Question no. 34 is Map based, carrying 5 marks that includes the
identification and location of significant test items. Attach the map with the answer book.
7. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be
attempted.
8. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question,
wherever necessary.
Section –A (1x21=21)
1. The king who released Babylonia from Assyrian domination in 625 BCE was-
(a) Alexander (b) Nabonidus
(c) Nabopolassar (d) Sargon
2. The tool used to press signs on the tablet was _______

(a) Red (b) Microlith
(c) Wood (d) Papyri
3. The Mesopotamian city which was systematically excavated in the 1930s, was
(a) Uruk (b) Ur
(c) Mari (d) Nineveh
4. There was a growing uncertainty about the value and purpose of monasticism by the
(a) 13th century (b) 14th century
th
(c) 15 century (d) 16th century
5. Saint Augustine was bishop of North African city of

(a) Annaba (b) Algeria
(c) Hippo (d) Numidia
6. In Roman urban life, the entertainment shows called spectacular happened for at least
(a) 150 days (b) 160 days
(c) 167 days (d) 176 days
7. The religion of Islam arose during the

(a) 5th century CE (b) 8th century CE
(c)6th century CE (d) 7th century CE
8. Which one of the following is a river that form the boundary of the Roman Empire-
(a) Mekong River (b) Rhine River
(c) Amur River (d) Yangtze River
9. A guild was an association of

(a) monks (b) farmers
(c) craft and industry (d) lords
10. Identify the main features of structure of Mesopotamian towns:

(i) Irregular shapes of house plots (ii) Narrow winding streets
(iii) Ventilation through windows (iv) Inefficient drainage system
Options:
(a) I, ii, iii (b) ii, iii, iv
(c) I, ii, iv (d) All of these
11. Why were the Mangols defeated by the Egyptian army?

(a) Because Mangol rulers began to take more interest in China.
(b) Because the Mangol army was less equipped.
(c) Because Mangols were less developed
(d) None of the above
12. During Genghis Khan’s attempt to conquer china, North China was ruled by-
(a) Hsi Hsia (b) Jurchen
(c) Sung dynasty (d) Ogodei
13. Correct and Rewrite

- The connection between city life, trade and writing is brought out in a long Sumerian
epic poem about Hammurabi, one of the earliest rulers of Uruk.
14. Assertion (A) : From the second century BCE, Rome was a republic.
Reason (R) : Government in Rome was based on a complex system of election and gave
importance to birth, wealth and slavery.
Codes-
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
15. Arrange in sequence.

(i) Establishment of the Republic of Mongolia.
(ii) Babin found the Mughal empire.
(iii) Manchus of China conquer Mongolia.
Codes
(a) (ii), (iii), (i) (b) (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (iii), (i), (ii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii)
16. Why the Great wall of China built?

(a) To store grains (b) For the protection of China
(c) To export materials (d) None of the above
17. Match the following:
List I List II
A. Temujin 1. Moth of Genghis Khan
B. Yesugei 2. Childhood name of Genghis Khan
C. Oelun-eke 3. Father of Genghis Khan
D. Boghurchu 4. Friend of Genghis Khan
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 2 1 3
18. Identify the Picture-
19. One of the gradual changes that effect the social and economic ties beween the lords
and the Vassals was-
(a) Agricultural technology (b) environment
(c) land use (d) New towns
20. Assertion (A) : Monks took vows to remain in the abbey for the rest of their lives.
Reason (R) : All Abbeys are single sex communities, i.e. separates Abbeys for men and
women.
Codes :
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
21. Correct and Rewrite:

The most revolutionary changes in the land use were the switch from a three-fold to a
two-fold system.
Section -B (Short Answer Type Questions) (3x6=18)
22. How did feudalism develop in England?

OR
What changes did Christianity bring in the practices and life of European society?
23. Whether the city life would have been possible without the use of metals?
24. What was the typical form of marriage in the third century of Rome?
25. Why Mesopotamia is considered important for Europeans? Explain.
26. Define the territorial position of the Roman Empire?

OR
How did Temujin become Genghis Khan? Discuss.
27. ‘Though kingdom of Mari was not military strong, it was exceptionally prosperous’.
Justify this statement.
Section -C (Long Answer Type) (8x3=24)
28. Why do you think the people of new towns were considered of fourth order? Explain.
OR
What is social hierarchy? Discuss in detail about different social groups.
29. How did technological changes affect agriculture during 11th century?
30. Discuss in detail about the third order. Explain about life of peasants and serfs in the
third order.
OR
Discuss about the crisis created by the change in climatic conditions and shortage of
metals in the Europe during 14th Century.
Section -D (SOURCE BASED) (4x3=12)
31. Today, Mesopotamian excavators have much higher standards of accuracy and care in
recording than in the old days, so that few dig huge areas the way Ur was excavated.
Moreover, few archaeologists have the funds to employ large teams of excavators.
Thus, the mode of obtaining data has changed.
Take the small town at Abu Salabikh, about 10 hectares in area in 2500 BCE with a
population less than 10,000. The outlines of walls were at first traced by scraping
surfaces. This involves scraping off the top few millimetres of the mound with the sharp
and wide end of a shovel or other tool. While the soil underneath was still slightly moist,
the archaeologist could make out different colours, textures and lines of brick walls or
pits or other features.
A few houses that were discovered were excavated. The archaeologists also sieved
through tons of earth to recover plant and animal remains, and in the process identified
many species of plants and animals and found large quantities of charred fish bones that
had been swept out on to the streets. Plant seeds and fibres remained after dung cakes
had been burned as fuel and thus kitchens were identified.
Living rooms were those with fewer traces. Because they found the teeth of very young
pigs on the streets, archaeologists concluded that pigs must have roamed freely here as
in any other Mesopotamian town. In fact, one house burial contained some pig bones—
the dead person must have been given some pork for his nourishment in the afterlife!
The archaeologists also made microscopic studies of room floors to decide which rooms
in a house were roofed (with poplar logs, palm leaves, straw, etc.) and which were open
to the sky.
(i) Explain in brief the procedure adopted to discover Abu Salabikh? Why had
Mesopotamian excavators much higher standards of accuracy?
(ii) What do you know about Abu Salabikh?
(iii) What does the presence of pig bones along with burial indicate?
32. A major difference between the two superpowers and their respective empires was that
the Roman Empire was culturally much more diverse than that of Iran. The Parthians
and later the Sasanians, the dynasties that ruled Iran in this period, ruled over a
population that was largely Iranian. The Roman Empire, by contrast, was a mosaic of
territories and cultures that were chiefly bound together by a common system of
government. Many languages were spoken in the empire, but for the purposes of
administration Latin and Greek were the most widely used, indeed the only languages.
The upper classes of the east spoke and wrote in Greek, those of the west in Latin, and
the boundary between these broad language areas ran somewhere across the middle of
the Mediterranean, between the African provinces of Tripolitania (which was Latin
speaking) and Cyrenaica (Greek-speaking). All those who lived in the empire were
subjects of a single ruler, the emperor, regardless of where they lived and what
language they spoke.
(i) How would you differentiate the Roman Empire from Iran?
(ii) Name two dynasties who ruled over Iran during this period.
(iii) Which empire was bound together by a common system of government and why?
33. We also caused to be painted, by the exquisite hands of many masters from different
regions, a splendid variety of new windows… Because these windows are very valuable
on account of their wonderful execution and the profuse expenditure of painted glass
and sapphire glass, we appointed an official master craftsman for their protection, and
also a goldsmith—who would receive their allowances, namely, coins from the altar and
flour from the common storehouse of the brethren, and who would never neglect their
duty to look after these
1. Who was appointed for the protection of windows?

2. Windows were precious. How?
3. Who would receive their allowances, namely coins?
PART-D (MAP BASED) (5x1=5)
34. Mark the following locations on the map of the Central Asia.
(i) Karakoram (ii) Turfan (iii) Delhi (iv) Samarqand (v) Nishapur
SAMPLE PAPER HALF YEARLY EXAM(2023-24)
CLASS XI
SUB: PHYSICS
TIME: 3Hrs MM:70
(1) There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
(3) All the sections are compulsory.
(4) Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each,
Section B contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each,
Section D contains two case study based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long
answer questions of five marks each.
(5) Use of calculators is not allowed.
Section A
1. A force of 1N acts on a body of 1g. Calculate the acceleration produced in the body.
2 What is the angle made by vectors A=2i +2j with x axis?
3 What is the percentage error in volume of a sphere when error in measuring its radius is 2%.
4 Constant acceleration means position time graph will have constant slope. Yes or no? last year
5 Which physical term remains conserved in an inelastic collision?
6 The component of a vector r along X-axis will have maximum value if
(a) r is along positive y-axis
(b) r is along positive x-axis
(c) r makes an angle of 45° with the x-axis
(d) r is along negative y-axis
7. Given, force= α/( Density + β3) What are the dimensions of α , β?
(a) [ML2 T2], [ML-1/3]
(b) [M2LT 2], [M1/3 L-1]
(c) [M2L-2 T-2], [M1/3 L-1]
(d) [M² L-2T-2], [ML2]
1. If the size of bacteria is 1 μ, then the number of bacteria in 1 m length will
(a) one hundred
(c) one thousand
(b) one crore
(d) one million
2. The coordinates of object with respect to a frame of reference at t=0 are (-1, 0, 3). If t = 5 s, its
coordinates are (-1, 0, 4), then the object is in
(a) motion along z-axis
(b) motion along x-axis
(c) motion along y-axis
(d) rest position between t=0s and t=5s
3. The average velocities of the objects A and B are VA and VB, respectively. The velocities are related
such that VA > VB. The position-time graph for this situation can be represented as
4. Conservation of momentum in a collision between particles can be understood from

(a) conservation of energy
(b) Newton's first law only
(c) Newton's second law only
(d) Both Newton's second and third law
5. The distance travelled by a moving body is directly proportional to time. Is any external force acting on
it?
(a) 4:1
(b) √2:1
(c) 1:2
(d) 1:16
Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
Write only a/b/c/d in your answers.
6. Assertion Action and Reaction forces do not cancel out each other.
Reason It is because both do not act on the same body. a
7. Assertion The range of a projectile is maximum at 45°.
Reason At = 45°, the value of sin 0 is maximum. c
8. Assertion For uniform motion, velocity is the same as the average velocity at all instants.
Reason In uniform motion along a straight line, the object covers equal distances in equal intervals of
time. b
Section B
9. What is cross product of two parallel vectors and self scalar product of vector
10. Using principle of homogeneity check dimensional consistency T=2 𝜋 √l/√g.
11. Explain the property of vectors A and B if |A+B| = |A-B|.
12. A man of mass 70 kg stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving
(i) upwards with uniform speed of 10 m/s?
(ii) downwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 m/s²?
Find the reaction force?
13. The length, breadth and thickness of a rectangular sheet of metal are 4.234 m, 1.005 m and 2.01 cm,
respectively. Give the volume of the sheet to correct significant figures.
Section C
14. Define impulse. Explain how momentum is conserved when a bomb explodes into two equal parts.
15. Express the average distance of earth from sun in: (i) light year, (ii) parsec.
16. Derive an expression for work-energy theorem for variable force.
17. Derive an expression for centripetal acceleration for a body having uniform circular motion.
18. A football is kicked at 20ms-1 at a projection angle of 45 °. A receiver on the goal line 25m away in the
direction of the kick runs the same instant to meet the ball. What must be his speed if he has to catch
the ball before it hits the ground. (g= 9.8ms-2)
19. Rain is falling with a speed of 30m/s. A woman rides a bicycle with a speed of 10m/s in north to south
direction. What is the direction in which she should hold her umbrella and her speed relative to rain?
Use tan18°=0.33
Section D
CASE STUDY
20. The centre of mass of a body or a system of bodies is the point which moves as though all of the mass
were concentrated there and all external forces were applied to it. Hence, a point at which the entire
mass of the body or system of bodies is supposed to be concentrated is known as the centre of mass.
If a system consists of more than one particle (or bodies) and net external force on the system in a
particular direction is zero with centre of mass at rest. Then, the centre of mass will not move along
that direction. Even though some particles of the system may move along that direction.
a. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are lying in xy-plane at (-1, 2) and (2, 4), respectively. What
are the coordinates of the centre of mass?
(a) 1, 10/3
(b) (1,0)
(c) (0,1)
(d) None of these
b. The centre of mass of a system of two particles divides, the distance between them
(a) in inverse ratio of square of masses of particles
(b) in direct ratio of square of masses of particles
(c) in inverse ratio of masses of particles
(d) in direct ratio of masses of particles
c. Two particles A and B initially at rest move towards each other under a mutual force of
attraction. At the instant, when the speed of A is v and the speed of B is 2v, the speed of centre
of mass of the system is
(a) zero
(b) v
(c) 1.5 v
(d) 3v
Section E
21. A) Derive centre of mass of a thin rod lying on x axis.
B) Explain with reason which formula for displacement y of a particle undergoing periodic motion is
correct : y=a Sin 2 𝜋𝑡/𝑇 or y = a Sin vt, where v=sped of particle, T = time period of motion and a =
maximum displacement of the particle
22. A)Derive an expression for range of the projectile.
1. B) For the below v-t graph of a particle in one dimensional motion over the time interval t 1 to t2 , state
whether the following equation is correct or not:
x(t2)=x(t1) + v(t1) (t2-t1) +1/2 a(t2-t1)2
Class: 11.
SUB: HINDI
Time: 3 hrs. MM: 80
सामान्य निर्दे श:
इस प्रश्ि पत्र में र्दो खंड हैं- खंड 'अ' और 'ब
खंड 'अ' में 400 वस्तुपरक प्रश्ि पूछे गए हैं, सभी 40 प्रश्िों के उत्तर र्दे ते हैं।
खंड व में वर्णिात्मक प्रश्ि पूछे गए हैं। प्रश्िों के उचित आंतररक ववकल्प दर्दए गए हैं।
प्रश्िों के उत्तर दर्दए गए निर्दे शों का पालि करते हुए र्दीजिए।
र्दोिों खडों के प्रश्िों के उत्तर र्दे िा अनिवायण है।
यथासंभव र्दोिों खडों के प्रश्िों के उत्तर क्रमशः ललखखए।
खंड अ (वस्तुपरक प्रश्ि)
1. अिुच्छे र्द को ध्यािपूवणक पढ़कर निम्िललखखत प्रश्िों के उत्तर र्दीजिये: 1x10=10
मिुष्य के िीवि में लक्ष्य का होिा बहुत आवश्यक है। लक्ष्य के बबिा िीवि दर्दशाहीि तथा व्यथण ही है। एक बार एक
दर्दशाहीि युवा आगे बढ़े िा रहा था, राह में महात्मा िी की कुदिया र्दे ख रूककर महात्मा िी से पूछिे लगा कक यह
रास्ता कहााँ िाता है? महात्मा िी िे पूछा "तुम कहााँ िािा िाहते हो ? युवक िे कहा "मैं िहीं िािता मुझे कहााँ
िािा है " महात्मा िी िे कहा "िब तुम्हें पता ही िहीं है कक तुम्हें कहााँ िािा है, तो यह रास्ता कहीं भी
िाए, इससे तुम्हें क्या फकण पडेगा ? कहिे का मतलब है कक बबिा लक्ष्य के िीवि में इधर-उधर भिकते
रदहये कुछ भी प्राप्त िहीं कर पाओगे। यदर्द कुछ करिा िाहते तो पहले अपिा एक लक्ष्य बिाओ और
उस पर कायण करो अपिी राह स्वयं बिाओ। वास्तव में िीवि उसी का साथणक है जिसमें पररजस्थनतयों को
बर्दलिे का साहस है ।
गांधीिी कहते थे कुछ ि करिे से अच्छा है, कुछ करिा िो कुछ करता है वही सफल असफल होता है।
हमारा लक्ष्य कुछ भी हो सकता है, क्योंकक हर इंसाि की अपिी-अपिी क्षमता होती है और उसी के
अिुसार वह लक्ष्य निधाणररत करता है। िैसे ववद्याथी का लक्ष्य है सवाणचधक अंक प्राप्त करिा तो िौकरी
करिे वालों का लक्ष्य होगा पर्दोन्िनत प्राप्त करिा। इसी तरह ककसी मदहला का लक्ष्य आत्मनिभणर होिा
हो सकता है। ऐसा माििा है कक हर मिष्ु य को बडा लक्ष्य बिािा िादहए ककन्तु बडे लक्ष्य को प्राप्त
करिे के ललए छोिे -छोिे लक्ष्य बिािे िादहए। िब हम छोिे लक्ष्य प्राप्त कर लेते हैं तो बडे लक्ष्य को
प्राप्त करिे का हममें आत्मववश्वास आ िाता है। स्वामी वववेकािंर्द िे कहा था कक िीवि में एक ही
लक्ष्य बिाओ और दर्दि-रात उसी के बारे में सोिो। स्वप्ि में भी तुम्हें यही लक्ष्य दर्दखाई र्दे िा िादहए,
उसे पूरा करिे की एक धुि सवार हो िािी िादहए बस सफलता आपको लमली ही समझो। सि तो यह है
कक िब आप कोई काम करते हैं तो यह िरुरी िहीं कक सफलता लमले ही लेककि असफलता से भी
घबरािा िहीं िादहए। इस बारे में स्वामी वववेकािंर्द िी कहते हैं कक हिार बार प्रयास करिे के बार्द भी
यदर्द आप हार कर चगर पडें तो एक बार पुिः उठें और प्रयास करें । हमें लक्ष्य प्राजप्त तक स्वयं पर
ववश्वास रखिा िादहए।
1. युवक कह ाँ ज रह थ ?
1. दिश हीन मंजजल की ओर
1. दिश हीन लक्ष्य की ओर
III. लक्ष्य की ओर
iv. मंजजल की ओर
2. ककसी ववद्य थी क लक्ष्य क्य होन च दहए?
1. आत्मननर्भर होन
2. सव भधिक अंक प्र प्त करन

3. परीक्ष में उत्तीर्भ होन
4. सफल बनन
3. ककसी मदहल क लक्ष्य क्य होन च दहए?
1. आत्मननर्भर बनन
2. पर वलम्बी बनन
3.खुश होन iv. गह

ृ स्थ बनन
4. व्यजक्त अपन लक्ष्य कैसे ननि भररत करत है ?
1. अपनी क्षमत के अनुस र
2. अपने सुख के अनुस र
3. अपने िुःु ख के अनस

ु र
4. अपने क यभ के अनुस र
5. छोटे लक्ष्य प्र प्त करने पर क्य होत है ?
1. मनुष्य क लक्ष्य पूर हो ज त है ।
2. मनुष्य में आत्मववश्व स आ ज त है।
3. मनुष्य सुखी हो ज त है।
4. मनुष्य िख
ु ी हो ज त है ।
6. ककसक जीवन स थभक है?

1. जो पररजस्थनतयों को बिलने क स हस रखत है ।
2. जो पररजस्थनतयों को बिलने क स हस नहीं रखत है।
3. जो इिर-उिर र्टकत रहत है ।
4. जो लक्ष्य की पपभटी नहीं कर प त ।
7. ननम्नललखखत कथनों पर ववच र कीजजए.
1. जीवन में लक्ष्य की कोई आवश्यकत नहीं होती है ।
2. ववद्य थी क लक्ष्य नौकरी प न ही होत है।
3. कुछ करने व ल ही असफल होत है ।
उपररललखखत कथनों में से कौन सही है/हैं?
1. केवल l
2. केवल ll
3. केवल lll
4.. इनमें से कोई नहीं
8. हमें कब तक स्वयं पर ववश्व स रखन च दहए?
1. लक्ष्य प्र जप्त तक छोटे लक्ष्य बन ने च दहए।
2. लक्ष्य प्र प्त न होने पर
3. असफलत लमलने पर
4. प्रय स न करने पर
9. असफल शब्ि में प्रयुक्त उपसगभ है-
1. अ
2. अस
3. सफल
4. ल
10. ननम्नललखखत कथन (A) तथ क रर् (R) को ध्य नपूवभक पदिए। उसके ब ि दिए गए ववकल्पों में से कोई एक सही
ववकल्प चुनकर ललखखए।
कथन (A): हर इंस न क लक्ष्य उसकी क्षमत के अनुस र ही होत है। क रर् (R): लक्ष्य प्र जप्त तक
मनुष्य को स्वयं पर ववश्व स रखन च दहए।
i. कथन (A) तथ क रर् (R) िोनों सही है तथ क रर् (R) कथन (A) की सही व्य ख्य करत है ।
ii. कथन (A) गलत हैं लेककन क रर् (R) सही है।
iii. कथन (A) तथ क रर् (R) िोनों गलत हैं।
iv. कथन (A) सही है लेककन क रर् (R) उसकी गलत व्य ख्य करत है।
2. अिुच्छे र्द को ध्यािपूवणक पढ़कर निम्िललखखत प्रश्िों के उत्तर र्दीजिये। 1x5=5

मैं हूाँ उिके साथ खडी िो सीधी रखते अपिी रीढ़
कभी िहीं िो ति सकते हैं।
अपिा न्यायोचित अचधकार,
कभी िहीं िो सह सकते हैं
शीश िवाकर अत्यािार,
एक अकेले हों या उिके साथ खडी हो भारी भीड;
मैं हूाँ उिके साथ खडी िो
सीधी रखते अपिी रीढ़ निभणय होकर घोवित करते
िो अपिे उद्वार वविार
जििकी जिह्वा पर होता है
उिके अंतर का अंगार, िहीं जिन्हें िप

ु कर सकती है।
आततानययों की शमशीर;
िहीं झुका करते िो र्दनु िया
से करिे को समझौता, ऊाँिे से ऊाँिे सपिों को
र्दे ते रहते िो न्योता,
र्दरू र्दे खती जििकी पैिी आाँख भववष्यत ् का तम िीरः
1. रचन क र ककस तरह के लोगों को अपन समथभन करत है?

क) अवसरव िी एवं ल लची लोगों को
ख) मोक परस्त लोगों क
ग) सत्त पर ननयंत्रर् रखने व लों को
घ) अपनी रीि सीिी रखने व ले अथ भत ् स्व लर्म नी लोगों को
2. क व्य ंश में प्रयुक्त अंतर क अंग र से क्य त त्पयभ है?
क) अपने हृिय की आग
ख) सर्ी ववकल्प सही हैं
ग) ककसी से िरू ी के क रर् उत्पन्न वैमनस्यत
घ) र्ौनतक ल र्ों से वंधचत रहने के क रर् उत्पन्न
3. अपनी रीढ सीिी रखने व ले अथ भत ् स्व लर्म नी एवं कमभठ लोग ननम्न में से क्य नहीं करते हैं?
क) अत्य च र को सहन
ख) न्य योधचत अधिक र की म ाँग
ग) ऊाँचे सपने य नी मह न लक्ष्यों को ननमंत्रत्रत
घ) सत्य क स मन
4. क व्य ंश में प्रयक्

ु त शब्ि अत्य च र में मौजि
ू उपसगभ को धचजननत करें ।
क) अनत
ख) अत्य
ग) अत ्
घ) अ
5. िरू िे खती जजनकी पैनी आाँख र्ववष्यत ् क तम चीर पंजक्त से क्य आशय है?
क) जो व्यजक्त र्ववष्य के ब रे में पहले ही अनुम न लग लेते हैं।
ख) इनमें से कोई नहीं
ग) जो व्यजक्त कर्ी र्ववष्य के ब रे में नहीं सोचते
घ) जो व्यजक्त हमेश र्ववष्य के ब रे में ही सोचते रहते हैं
3. निम्िललखखत प्रश्िों के उत्तर र्दीजिये: 1x5=5
1. र् रत में अखब री पत्रक ररत की शुरुआत कब और कह ाँ से हुई?
क) 1780, कोलक त
ख) 1780, बम्बई
ग) 1880 मद्र स
घ) 1781, कोलक त
2. रे डियो म ध्यम की ननम्नललखखत में से कौन-सी ख मी नहीं है ?
क) सूचन क त्वररत म ध्यम नहीं है ।
ख) िब
ु र सुनने य लौटकर सुनने की सुववि नही होती
ग) यह स क्षर व ननरक्षर िोनों के ललए उपयोगी हैं
घ) श्रोत को बुलेदटन प्रस रर् क इंतज र करन पड़त है

3. वेब स इट पर ववशुद्ि पत्रक ररत शुरू करने क श्रेय ककसे ज त है?
क) बीबीसी
(ख) इंडियन एक्स्प्रेस
ग) ट इम्स ऑफ इंडिय
घ) तहलक िॉटकॉम
4. दहंिी क प्रथम स प्त दहक पत्र है:
क) आज
ख) ग ंिीव
ग) बंग ल गजट
घ) उिं त म तंि
5. सम च र पत्र प्रक लशत य प्रस ररत करने के ललए आखखरी समय सीम को कह ज त है।
क) रै ि ल इन
ख) ब्लू ल इन
ग) ब्लैक ल इन
घ) िैि ल इन
औसत र्दफ़्तरी बडे बाबू की हैलसयत वाले रिेश के ललए सोहि को अपिी भाई-बबरार्दर बतलािा अपिे
सम्माि के ववरुद्ध िाि पडता था और उसे घरे लू िौकर से अचधक हैलसयत यह िहीं र्दे ता था, इस बात
को मोहि भी समझिे लगा था। थोडी-बहुत ढीला हवाली करिे के बार्द रमेश िे निकि के ही एक
साधारर् से स्कूल में उसका िाम ललखवा दर्दया। लेककि एकर्दम िए वातावरर् और रात दर्दि के काम के
बोझ के कारर् गााँव का यह मेघावी छात्र शहर के स्कूली िीवि में अपिी कोई पहिाि िहीं बिा पाया।
उसका िीवि एक बाँधी-बाँधाई लीक पर िलता रहा। साल में एक बार गलमणयों की छुट्िी में गााँव िािे का
मौक भी तभी लमलता िब रमेश या उसके घर का कोई प्रार्ी गााँव िािे वाला होता वरिा उि छुट्ियों
को भी अगले र्दरिे की तैयारी के िाम पर उसे शहर में ही गुजार र्दे िा पडता था। अगले र्दरिे की तैयारी
तो बहािा भर थी, सवाल रमेश और उसकी गह
ृ स्थी की सुववधा असुववधा का था। मोहि िे पररजस्थनतयों
से समझौता कर ललया था, क्योंकक और कोई िारा भी िहीं था। घरवालों को अपिी वास्तववक जस्थनत
बतलाकर यह र्दख
ु ी िहीं करिा िाहता था। वंशीधर उसके सि
ु हरे भववष्य के सपिे र्दे ख रहे थे।
1. रमेश मोहन को ककस हैलसयत से रखत थ ?
क) र् ई की
ख) संबंिी की
ग) लमत्र की
घ) नौकर की
2. मोहन स्कूल में अपनी पहच न क्यों नहीं बन प य ?
क) घर के अत्यधिक क म के क रर्
ख) पिने की इच्छ न होने के क रर्
ग) मंिबद्
ु धि होने के क रर्
घ) अच्छे लशक्षक न होने के क रर्
3.मोहन ने अपनी व स्तववक जस्थनत घर व लों को क्यों नहीं बत ई?
क) क्योंकक वह अपने घर नहीं लौटन च हत थ

ख) क्योंकक उसे घर की िीन िश पत थी
ग) क्योंकक घर व ले उसे सुनन नहीं च हते थे
घ) क्योंकक उसके प स कोई नौकरी नहीं थी
4. मोहन को ग ाँव ज ने क मौक कब लमलत थ ?
क) जब उसक मन नहीं होत
ख) जब उसे अगले िरजे की तैय री करनी होती
ग) जब उसक मन होत
घ) जब रमेश के घर क कोई सिस्य ग ाँव ज त
5. रमेश ककस पि पर थ ?
क) बड़े ब बू
ख) अफसर
ग) छोटे ब बू
घ) नौकर
न हो कनीज तो प ाँवों से पेट बैंक लेंगे.
ये लोग ककतने मुन लसब हैं इस सफर के ललए।
खि
ु नहीं, न सही, आिमी क ख्व ब सही,
कोई हसीन नज र तो है नजर के ललए।
1. कवव ने ककस पर कट क्ष ककय है ?
क) इनमें से कोई नहीं
ख) र् रतव लसयों की िबी-कुचली आव ज़ और स्वयं पर िोनों
ग) र् रतव लसयों की िबी-कुचली आव ज
घ) स्वयं पर
2. परम त्म कैस सपन है?
क) सख
ु ि
ख) िुःु खि
ग) इनमें से कोई नहीं
घ) िुःु खि और सुखि िोनों
3. कवव ने ककन लोगों पर व्यंग्य ककय है?
क) इनमें से कोई नहीं
ख) परमसंतोषी
ग) स िव
ु वृ त्त
घ) परमसंतोषी और स िुववृ त्त िोनों
4. नजर क अथभ है-

क) ननग ह
ख) परीक्ष
ग) दृजष्ट
घ) ननग ह और दृजष्ट िोनों
5. सफर क सम न थी है:
क) िस
ू रे स्थ न के ललए
ख) सर्ी ववकल्प सही हैं
ग) कून
घ) य त्र
6. निम्िललखखत प्रश्िों के उत्तर र्दीजिये: 1x10=10
1. र् रतीय ग नयक ओं में बेजोड़ लत मंगेशकर प ठ के आि र पर लत के ग ने के स्वरों की क्य ववशेषत है ?
क) ननमभलत
ख) सहजत
ग) उज्वलत
घ) स्व र् ववकत
2. र् रतीय ग नयक ओं में बेजोड़ लत मंगेशकर प ठ के आि र पर श स्त्रीय संगीत क स्थ यीर् व है-
क) जलिलय
ख) गंर्ीरत
ग) चपलत
घ) इनमें से कोई र्ी नहीं
3. लत मंगेशकर के वपत क न म थ -
क) िीन न थ मंगेशकर
ख) रम न थ मंगेशकर
ग) गंग न थ मंगेशकर
घ) र्ोल न थ मंगेशकर
4) श स्त्रीय संगीत की ककतने घंटे की महकफल होती है ?
(क) 4 घंटे (ख) तीन से 3:30 घंटे
(ग) 5 घंटे (घ) 7 घंटे
5) धचत्रपट संगीत के क्षेत्र में ककसे बेत ब स म्र ज्ञी ककसे कह गय है ?
(क) उष मंगेशकर (ख) लत मंगेशकर
(ग) अनुर ि पौिव ल (घ) अलक य जग्नक
6) लत जी की ग य की ककस क्षेत्र में सबसे अधिक लोकवप्रय हुई ?
(क) धचत्रपट संगीत में (ख) श स्त्रीय संगीत में
(ग) क्षेत्रीय संगीत में (घ) सर्ी

7) लत जी ने जव हरल ल नेहरू के स मने कौन स गीत ग य ?
(क) मेर िे श रं गील (ख) ए मेरे वतन के लोगों
(ग) स रे जह ं से अच्छ (घ) वंिे म तरम
8) लत जी ने ककस गीत में न री की पीड़ को व्यक्त ककय है ?
(क) ओ ब बुल प्य रे (ख) यह गललय ं यह चौब र
(ग) न री सब पर र् री (घ) सर्ी
9) लत जी के वपत जी क क्य न म थ ?
(क) रमेश न थ मंगेशकर (ख) वेंकटे श न थ मंगेश्वर
(ग) िीन न थ मंगेशकर (घ) ननमभल जी मंगेशकर
10) लत जी ने ककस रस के ग नों के स थ न्य य नहीं ककय ?
(क) ववयोग रस (ख) ह स्य रस
(ग) करुर् रस (घ) र्जक्त रस
11) निम्िललखखत में से ककसी एक वविय पर फीिर ललखखए। 6x1=6
क) मेरा वप्रय िाइमपास
ख) धरा के आभि
ू र् पेड
ग) कामकािी मदहला
घ) आि के समय में खेलों का महत्व
12) निम्िललखखत प्रश्िों के उत्तर ललखखए। 1×4= 4
क) भारत का पहला समािार वािि ककसे मािा िाता है ?
ख) दहंर्दी में छपिे वाले िार समािार पत्रों के िाम ललखखए।
ग) मुद्रर् की शुरुआत ककस र्दे श में हुई ?
घ) भारत में छपिे वाला पहला अखबार कौि सा था ?
13) निम्िललखखत में से 5 प्रश्िों के उत्तर ललखखए। 2×5 =10
क) समािार के ललए िवीिता का क्या महत्व है ?
ख) पत्रकाररता के मूल्य को स्पष्ि कीजिए ?
ग) ििसंिार ककसे कहते हैं ?
घ) संिार के कायण बताइए ।
ङ) शोर क्या है?
ि) र्दनु िया एक गांव में बर्दल गई स्पष्ि कीजिए।
छ) इंिरिेि के तीि लाभ और तीि हानियां ललखें ।
14) निम्िललखखत प्रश्िों के उत्तर 30 से 40 शब्र्दों में र्दीजिए ।

2x5=10
क) उिरी कौि थी ? ककसाि उसे इतिा यार्द क्यों करता था ?
ख) ककसाि की आंखों में ककसका अलभमाि भरा था ?
ग) कवव िे अपिे वपता की क्या क्या ववशेिताएं बताई है ?

घ) कवव की बात पर िंपा को क्यों ववश्वाश िहीं हुआ?
ङ) 'लसल र्दे िुबाि शायर की' पंजक्त का आशय स्पष्ि कीजिए ।
15) निम्िललखखत प्रश्िों के उत्तर 50 से 60 शब्र्दों में र्दीजिए । 2x5=10
क) वंशीधर के वपता के बारे में आप क्या सोिते हैं?
ख) गलता लोहा कहािी में ककताबों की ववद्या और घि िलािे की ववद्या का जिक्र आया है स्पष्ि
कीजिए ।
ग) धिराम और मोहि की लमत्रता कैैसी थी अपिे वजैिारो के आधार पर ललखखए?
घ) 'स्पीनत में बाररश' का वर्णि एक अलग तरीके से ककया गया है आप अपिे यहां होिे वाली बाररश का
वर्णि कीजिए।
ङ) वंशीधर के वपता िे उसे कौि-कौि सी िसीहतें र्दी ?

SAMPLE PAPER FOR HALF YEARLY EXAM (2023-24)
Class - Xl
Sub- Painting
Time – 2 Hours M.M. 30
General Instructions :-
(i) SECTION - A : Attempt all questions.(Each question will carry 1 mark.)
(ii) SECTION – B : Attempt all questions. (Each question will carry 2 marks. )
(iii) SECTION – C :Attempt any two questions. (Each question will carry 6 marks. )
SECTION – A
(Multiple choice questions)
Q1. Select the right answer from the given options: (8×1=8)
(A) Who first discovered the rock paintings in India?
(i) Archiboldcarlleyle
(ii) Cockburn
(iii) Anderson
(iv) Mitra
(B) What is the literal meaning of Lakhudiyar?
(i)Hand linked dancing figure
(ii)Hunting animals
(iii )One lack caves
(iv) Mound of the dead
( C ) During pre historic times, brushes were made of
(i) Plant fibers
(ii) Plastic
(iii) Silk
(iv) None of these
(D ) which of the following materials has been used in the making of the statue of
Male Torso?
(i) Red Limestone
(ii) Red sand stone
(iii) Red soapstone
(iv ) Red chunar stone
(E) Where is site of Farmana situated?

(i) Haryana
(ii) Gujarat
(iii ) Maharashtra
(iv ) Punjab
(F) In which of the following museum the figure of the Male Torso can be seen?
(i) National museum new Delhi
(ii) The Indian Museum
(iii ) Metropolitan museum of art, New York
(iv ) Kerala folklore museum
(G)Archaeologists have discover red thousands of seals from Indus Valley,
mostly made of Steatite and other materials like agate copper, Terracotta, etc.
For which purpose seals were used ?
(i) Commercial
(ii) Artistic
(iii ) Spiritual
(iv ) Educational
(H) At Which place bead industry was well developed?
(i) Kalibungan
(ii) Rakhigarhi
(iii ) Lothal
(iv ) Daimabad
SECTION – B
( Short Answer Type questions )
( Answer for these questions is expected in around 100 words) (5×2=10)
Q2. Mention few Indus Valley sites excavated in India.
Q3. What do the art objects that have survived tell us about the daily life of the people of
the indu valley civilization?
Q4. Define the old stone age.
Q5. What are the various forms of art found from the sites of Indus Valley Civilization and
when were they emerged ?
Q6. In modern times, how have walls been used as a surface to make painting, graphic
etc ?
SECTION - C
( Long answer type questions)
(Answer for these question is expected in around 200 words) (2×6=12)
Q7. (A) Write an essay on the Indus Valley Civilization.
(B)Evaluate the beauty and aesthetics of:
(i) Painted Earthenware (ii) Mother goddess
ANGELS’ ACADEMY SR SEC SCHOOL
CLASS-XI
SUB: POLITICAL SCIENCE
Time: 3 hours MM: 80
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A has Objective type questions of 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 2 passage-based questions 17 and 18 having MCQs of 1 mark each.
4. Question no. 19-22 carries 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
each.
5. Question no. 23-27 carries 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should not exceed 100
words each.
6. Question no. 28-29 pertains to map and cartoon based questions carrying 5 marks each to be
answered accordingly.
7. Question no. 30-32 carries 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should not exceed 150
words each.
Section-A
1.The freedom of speech and expression falls under
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 16
(c) Article 18 (d) Article 19
2. The word that does not appear in the Indian Constitution is
(a) Sovereign (b) Federal
(c) Fraternity (d) Republic
3. Article 18 of the constitution deals with
(a) right against exploitation (b) right to practice own religion
(c) equality before law (d) abolition of titles
4. In which Part Directive Principles of State Policy are described?
(a) Part V (b) Part IV

(c) Part III (d) Part IX
5. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Freedom (d) Right Against Exploitation
6. By impeachment who is removed :
(a) Prime Minister (b) Speaker
(c) President (d) Governor
7. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha
(a) 6 members (b) 9 members
(c) 12 members (d) 15 members
8. “Hung House” means
(a) No party gets majority of seats in the elections
(b) House elected without the approval of its citizens
(c) A house is hung between the two buildings
(d) No party gets more than 50% votes
9. The tenure of the members of the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 5 years (b) 4 years
(c) 6 years (d) 3 years.
10. Supreme Court consists of one Chief Justice and:
(a) 13 other Judges (b) 25 other Judges
(c) 20 other Judges (d) 30 other Judges
11. The executive plays a crucial role; the legislature has the powers of removal. This has ensured…
(a) Balance of Power
(b) Judicial Interpretation
(c) Separation of Power
(d) Both balance of power and independence of the judiciary
12. Which is not the issue of original jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India
(a) Dispute of fundamental rights
(b) Dispute between States
(c) Interpretation of the constitution
(d) To give opinion to president
13. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federation?
(a) Written Constitution (b) Supremacy of the Constitution
(c) Distribution of Powers (d) Dual Citizenship
14. Assertion and Reason
Mark the option which is most suitable:
a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
d) A is false but R is true
Assertion : Third-tier of government is local government.
Reason : It made democracy weak.
15. Assertion (A) : India is democratic republic.
Reason (R ) : The Head of the State is elected directly by the people
16. Assertion (A) : The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights.
Reason (R ) : The Right to Property stood in the way of land reform scheme.
Section-B
17. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:-
Our constitution is called a living document because it keeps responding to situations and
circumstances arising from time to time. Like a living being, constitution responds to experience. So
even after so many decades, constitution continues to work effectively because of its ability to be
dynamic, to be open to interpretations and its ability to respond to changes. This is vital for
democracy of the country. Our constitution has protected the democracy but at the same time
allowed it to be open to new practices. Our judiciary has maintained the letter and spirit of the
constitution. it has insisted that all work has to be within the framework of the constitution. People
measures should be taken but it should not bypass the legal procedures. Because if the legal
procedures are ignored in the name of public interest, then executive will have arbitrary use of
power and our political leaders, political parties, government and parliament has accepted its
functioning within the "basic structure of constitution’. Our constitution is built on the principles of
liberty, democracy, egalitarian, secular and federal, open to community values, sensitive to the
needs of religious and linguistic minorities and commitment towards building common national
identity. Constitution is a set of rules and regulations on which the state should run. But these rules
and regulations are formed keeping a norm in mind. for example: every individual has right to
freedom of speech. This law has a principle that every individual's freedom should be respected.
(i) Our constitution is called a living document because it is..............................
(a) Dynamic (b) Not active
(c) Inactive (d) All the above
(ii) Our constitution is built on the principles of.....................................
(a) Liberty (b) Fraternity
(c) Secular (d) All the above
(iii) Constitution is a set of rules and regulations on which they....................should run.
(a) State Government (b) Central Government
(c) Family (d) Both "a" and “b"
(iv) Our...................... should maintain the spirit of Constitution.
(a) Judiciary (b) Chief Minister
(c) Prime Minster (d) Legislature
(v) Every individual has right to freedom of speech. This law has a principle-----------.
a) That every individual's freedom should be respected
b) Building common national identity.
c) Basic structure of constitution.
d) Constitution responds to experience.
18. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:- .
Rights are those conditions and guarantees which the state should provide to every citizen in order
that he may attain his best self in the society. Right is it claim of the individual for doing things
independently. The individual claims his right from the society. But each and every claim of the
individual cannot be termed and accepted as a right. In order to become a right individual claims
must fulfil certain condition. A is right is a claim recognised by the society and enforced by the state.
The claim of the individual takes the form of a right only when it is recognised by the society. Any
claim which is neither acceptable to society nor enforceable by the state cannot be called as a right
in a true sense.
(i) What are those conditions and guarantees which states should provide to every citizen in order
that he may attain his best to self in the society?
a) Rights c) Claims
b) Law d) Equality
(ii) What is it claim of the individual for doing things independently
a) Law. c) Liberty
b) Rights d) Equality
(iii) Who claim his Rights from the society?
a) City c) Country
b) Individual d) none of these
(iv) From where claim should be recognised?
a) in court c) Society
b) City-state d) none of these
(v) Right to freedom means freedom thought, expression and action. This Right belong to which
Article?
a) Article 14-18 b) Article 19-22
c) Article 23-24 d) Article 25-28
Section-C
19. Explain the meaning of Constitution.
20. What do you understand by Right against Exploitation?
OR
What is the meaning of Independence of Judiciary?
21. The Prime Minister’s resignation amounts to the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers.
How?
22. Mention the special powers of the Rajya Sabha.
OR
How many subjects are in the State list? Mention the names of state subjects.
Section-D
23. Why we need a strong Centre? Give reasons.

24. Explain the relationship between political and economic liberty.
25. Why is Indian Constitution bulky?
26. Which of the fundamental right is in your opinion the most important right? Summarise its
provision and give arguments to show why it is most important.
27. What do you understand by Directive Principles of State Policy? Explain in brief the objectives of
Directive Principles.
OR
“The Prime Minister is the Key-stone of the Cabinet arch.” Explain.
Section-E
28.
Questions: (21/2 + 21/2)
1. What is explained in the above picture?

2. Are such orders fair by court? Why?
29.
Questions: (21/2 + 21/2)

1. Can you identify what these different groups stand for?
2. What do you think prevailed in this balancing act?
Section-F
30. How is the Prime Minister on India appointed? Discuss his powers and functions. OR
Discuss the role and functions of Bureaucracy in a Modern State.
31. Discuss the composition, powers and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India. OR
Mention the various stages through which the bill passes before becoming an Act.
32. Explain briefly the scheme of ‘Fundamental Rights’ as contained in the Indian Constitution. OR
Discuss the main Directive Principles of State Policy.

SUBJECT: COMPUTER SCIENCE (083)
CLASS: XI
TIME: 3:00 Hrs. M.M: 70
 Please check this question paper contains 35 questions.
 The paper is divided into 4 Sections- A, B, C, D and E.
 Section A, consists of 18 questions (1 to 18). Each question carries 1 Mark.
 Section B, consists of 7 questions (19 to 25). Each question carries 2 Marks.
 Section C, consists of 5 questions (26 to 30). Each question carries 3 Marks.
 Section D, consists of 2 questions (31 to 32). Each question carries 4 Marks.
 Section E, consists of 3 questions (33 to 35). Each question carries 5 Marks.
 All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only
SECTION A (1 mark each)

1. If x=3.123, then int(x) will give ?
a) 1
b) 0
c) 1
d) 3
2. Which statement is true from following-
a) List is mutable & Tuple is immutable
b) List is immutable & Tuple is mutable
c) Both are Mutable.
d) Both are Immutable
3. Which of the following is/are correct ways of creating strings ?
a) name = Jiya
b) name = ‘Jiya’’
c) name = “Jiya”
d) name = (Jiya)
4. The return type of the input() function is
A) string
B) integer
C) list
D) tuple
5. The lines beginning with a certain character, and which are ignored by a compiler and not executed, are called
……….
a) operators
b) operands
c) functions
d) comments
6. Python is____
a) High-Level
b) Interpreted
c) Object-Oriented
d) All Of The Above
7. X wants to allow the program to repeatedly ask the user to enter their Choice if it does not equal the
Answer. Which loop option should X use?
a) while Choice == Answer:

Choice = input()
Page 1 of 5
b) while Choice != Answer:
Choice = input()
c) while Answer != Choice:
Choice = input()
d) while Answer =! Choice:
Choice = input()
8. To access a list which contains ten elements, which of the following uses of range() would
produce a list of the desired indexes?
a) range(1,10)
b) range(0,9)
c) range(10)
d) range(1,11)
9. Find and write the output of the following python code:
x = “abcdef”
i = “a”
while i in x:
print(i, end = ” “)
a) a
b) a a a a a a
c) a a a a a a … infinite times
d) Code will generate error
10. Iteration stands for ___________
a) The order in which instructions are carried out

b) A decision point in a program
c) The repetition of steps within a program
d) Testing a program to make sure it works
11. What will be the final value of I after execution of the loop:
for I in range(10):
print(I)
a) 10
b) 9
c) None
d) Error
12. Which one of the following is the default extension of a Python file?
A) .exe B) .p++ C).py D) .p
Code = [1, 2, 3, 4]
Code.append([5,6,7,8])
print(Code)
a) [1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8]
b) [1,2,3,4]
c) [1,2,3,4,[5,6,7,8]]
d) [1,2,3,4][5,6,7,8]
Page 2 of 5
14.Find the output:
list = [1, 2, 3, None, (1, 2, 3, 4, 5), [‘Hi’, ‘Hello’, ‘Bye’]]

print(len(list))
a) 12
b) 11
c) 22
d) 6
15. Find the output :
list = [‘python’, ‘learning’, ‘@’, ‘cbse’, ‘python’, ‘.in’]

print(list[0:6:2])
a) [‘python’, ‘@’, ‘python’]

b) [‘python’, ‘learning’, ‘@’]
c) [‘python’, ‘learning’, ‘@’, ‘python’, ‘in’]
d) [‘python’, ‘in’]
16. What is the output:
sampleList = [10, 20, 30, 40, 50]

sampleList.pop()
print(sampleList)
sampleList.pop(2)
print(sampleList)
a) [10, 20, 30, 40, 50]

[10, 20, 30, 40]
b) [20, 30, 40, 50]

[10, 20, 40]
c) [10, 20, 30, 40]

[10, 20, 30, 50]
d) [10, 20, 30, 40]

[10, 20, 40]
17. Assertion (A) : Strings traversal in Python is done through slicing and for loop also.
Reason (R) : In Strings, you can change the elements in place.
18. Assertion (A) : In python, lists are mutable.

Reason (R) : In lists, values are enclosed inside double or single quotes mandatory
Page 3 of 5
SECTION B (2 mark each)
19. What do you mean by string in Python? Give an example of swapcase( ) in Python.
20. Explain difference between list and tuple.
21. Explain difference between append() and insert() in list.
22. Write a program to count number of ‘s’ in the string ‘successor’.
23. Write a program to calculate and display the sum of all the odd numbers in the list.
24. Explain break and continue statements.
25. Which numbers are printed?
for i in range(2):
print i
for i in range(4,6):
print i
SECTION C (3 marks each)

26. Write a program to print factorial of number.
27. Write a program to print following pattern.
A
AB
ABC
ABCD
ABCDE
28. Write the output of the given Python code :
print (3 + 4)
print (3 – 4)
print (3 * 4)
print (3/4)
print (3 % 2)
print (3**4)
print (3 // 4)
29. Write output:

a. l=list(‘ListMethods’);print(l)
b. l=((78,90,12,34));print(l)
c. l=list({‘Karthik’:90,’Manoj’:85})
SECTION D (4 marks each)

31. Differentiate between following functions with an example for each:
a) strip() and lstrip()
b)swapcase() and title()
c) packing and unpacking in tuple
Page 4 of 5
32. Write a program to print all triod/Armstrong numbers from 1 to n where n is entered by the
user.
OR
Write a program to print all perfect numbers from 200 to 1000.
SECTION E (5 marks each)
33.a)What is the use of count() method? Explain with example. 1
b) Justify the statement: “reverse() does not return anything.” 1
c) Explain the following string slices in your words with appropriate examples:3
1. [:]
2. [::]
3. [5:]
4. [:5]
5. [::-1]
6. [5:0]
7. [5::-1]
8. [5:-5]
9. [5]
34. a) Write a code to convert following for loop code into while loop: [3]
for a in range(12,200,15):
print(a)
b) Write a program which print all words in a string having more than 5 letters.
35. Accept the electric units from the user and calculate the bill according to the following.
Page 5 of 5
QUESTION BANK CLASS 11 (ACCOUNTANCY)
Section A
1 Goods/Assets or Cash used for personal use by a businessman is called ________. [1]
a) Investment
b) Drawings
c) Profit
d) Capital
2 Which of the following is not a limitation of accounting? [1]

a) Evidence in Legal Matters
b) Based on accounting conventions
c) Incomplete Information
d) Omission of Qualitative Informations
3 ________ need the information to form policies at the macro level and for providing subsidies. [1]
a) Competitors
b) Management
c) Tax authorities
d) Government and its agencies
4 Which of the following is a limitation of accounting? [1]

a) Replacing Memory
b) Evidence in court
c) Facilitates loan
d) Window Dressing
5 Cost of Goods Manufactured is determined by: [1]

a) Cost Accounting
b) Human Resource Accounting
c) Financial Accounting
d) Management Accounting
6 Which of the following limitations of accounting states that accounts may be manipulated to [1]
conceal vital facts:
1. Accounting is not fully exact
Page 1 of 12
2. Accounting may lead to window dressing
3. Accounting ignores price level changes
4. Accounting ignores qualitative elements
a) Only D
b) Only C
c) Only A
d) Only B
7 Income statement include [1]

a) Profit and loss account only
b) Trial Balance only
c) Balance sheet only
d) Statement of profit and loss
8 Which stakeholder would be most interested in the VAT and other tax liabilities of the firm: [1]
a) None of these
b) Management
c) Government and other regulators
d) Social responsibility groups
9 Accounting is________. [1]

a) profit of business
b) language of business
c) objective of business
d) None of these
10 Book - keeping is mainly concern with: [1]

a) All of these
b) Recording financial data relating to business operations and classifying it.
c) Designing for system recording, classifying and summarizing.
d) Interpreting data for internal and external users.
11 Why the following parties are interested in Accounting Information: [3]

1. Investors
Page 2 of 12
2. Government
12 Explain accounting as a source of information. [3]

13 Write a short note on Double Entry System of Accounting. [3]
14 What is accounting? Define its objectives. [4]
15 Explain in brief, the limitations of financial accounting. [4]
16 Explain the factors which necessitated systematic accounting. [6]
17 Ram started a business for buying and selling of stationery with Rs.5,00,000 as an initial [1]
investment. He employed a salesperson and clerk. At the end of the month, he paid Rs.5,000
as their salaries, what are the expenses?
a) Rs.1,50,000
b) Rs.5,00,000
c) Rs.5,000
d) Rs.5,05,000
18 Ram started a business for buying and selling of stationery with Rs.5,00,000 as an initial [1]
investment. Of which he paid Rs.1,00,000 for furniture, Rs.2,00,000 for buying the
stationery item. He withdrew Rs.2000 for his personal use. What is the amount of drawings?
a) Rs.2,000
b) Rs.5,00,000
c) Rs.1,00,000
d) Rs.2,00,000
19 State the meaning of cost concept? [1]

20 Explain the Revenue Recognition Concept. [1]
21 Materiality principle is an exception to which principle? [1]
22 A Company has been charging depreciation @ 10% p.a. on the original cost method. It now [1]
wants to change the method from the original cost to the diminishing balance method, the
rate of depreciation being 15% p.a. Can it do so?
23 Full cost of an asset is not treated as an expense in the year of its purchase because of which [1]
concept?
24 What is the effect of the Accounting Entity Concept? [1]
25 Explain Dual Aspect Concept. [1]
26 In an accident on 13th March, 2013, a company lost its plant and machinery, which will have [1]
a negative impact on its production capacity. As a result, it is likely to loose business to its
competitors. The company has not disclosed this fact in its annual report for the year ended
31st March, 2013. State the principle being violated by the company.
27 X a cloth merchant started a business investing Rs 50,000. He bought goods for Rs 40,000 [1]
that he sold for Rs 55,000 to Mr. Y in the month of December 2013. Y pays him Rs 40,000
immediately and promises to pay the balance after 6 months. For the year ending 31st
March 2014, X’s accountant enters the sales at Rs 40,000.
28 Identify the concept / convention / principle followed/not followed in thiscase. Give [1]
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reasons:There was a huge fire in the godown of Harish Enterprises destroying the
operational activities of the firm for over 6 months. The firm wants to show this in three
financial statements. Is it correct?
29 Explain the following: [6]
1. Dual Aspect Concept
2. Accrual Concept
3. Going Concern Concept
4. Cost Concept
5. Accounting Period Concept
30 A firm dealing in computer peripherals which maintain its account on accrual basis, [1]
received an order for 20 laptops alongwith an advance of Rs1,00,000. How will the advance
received will be treated?
31 Which basis of accounting gives a correct picture of operating results and the financial [1]
position of a firm?
32 Discuss Cash and Accrual Basis of Accounting. [1]
33 Name the basis of accounting in which outstanding expenses are not recorded? [1]
34 Mr X had made cash sales of₹ 2,00,000 and credit sales of ₹ 3,00,000 for the year ended [1]
March 31, 2013. He paid expenses of ₹ 50,000 and ₹ 30,000 are still outstanding for the
current financial year. Calculate profit or loss earned during the year under:
1. Cash basis of Accounting,
2. Accrual basis of Accounting.
35 The process of transferring the accounts from the Journal to the ledger is called ________. [1]
a) Posting
b) Journalising
c) Balancing
d) Costing
36 Purchased goods from Manoj of Rs 20,000 at 20% trade discount. Posting will be made in [1]
Manoj A/c:
a) Dr. side Rs 16,000
b) Cr. side Rs 20,000
c) Cr. side Rs 16,000
d) Dr. side Rs 20,000
37 Whichaccount will be credited for the goods given as charity? [1]

a) None of these
Page 4 of 12
b) Charity A/c
c) Sales A/c
d) Purchases A/c
38 Journalise the following transactions of Kamal, Delhi for April, 2019, post them in Ledger [6]
Accounts and balance them:
39 Enter the following transactions in a Double Column Cash Book and Journal Proper and post [6]
them into Ledger: -

40 On 1st April, 2019, the following were Ledger balances of M/s. Ram & Co., Delhi:Cash in [6]
Hand ₹ 300; Cash at Bank ₹ 7,000; Bills Payable ₹ 1,000; Zahir (Dr.) ₹ 800; Stock ₹ 4,000;
Gobind (Cr.) ₹ 2,000; Sharma (Dr.) ₹ 1,500; Rahul (Cr.) ₹ 900; Capital ₹ 9,700. Transactions
during the month of April, 2019 were:
Inter - state transactions are subject to levy of IGST @ 12% and Intra - state transactions
are subject to levy of CGST and SGST @ 6% each. GST is not levied on transactions marked
with (*).Post the above transactions to the Ledger and prepare the Trial Balance on 30th
April, 2019.
41 Mohan’s bank reconciliation statement shows cheques deposited but not credited by bank [1]
Page 5 of 12
of₹ 3,800 and cheques issued but not presented by suppliers of ₹ 3,500. His bank balance as
per Cash Book is ₹ 25,000. Balance as per pass book statement is
a) ₹ 25,300
b) ₹ 24,700
c) ₹ 25,000
d) ₹ 32,300
42 A bank reconciliation statement is prepared by: [1]

a) customers of the bank
b) auditors
c) creditors
d) bank
43 Overdraft as per Cash Book is₹ 10,000. Cheques deposited but not credited ₹ 2,500. Cheques [1]
issued but not encashed ₹ 3,500. What is the balance as per Pass Book?
a) Overdraft₹ 11,000
b) Overdraft₹ 9,000
c) Balance₹ 11,000
d) Balance₹ 9,000
44 When cash is deposited into the bank then the following account would be debited in the [1]
company accounts?
a) Bank A/c
b) None of these
c) Cash A/c
d) Overdraft A/c
45 An amount of₹ 50 debited by the bank as bank charges: [1]

a) Credit in cash book
b) Credit in passbook
c) Record in cash Receipt journal
d) Credit in cash payment journal
46 The following facts relate to the business of Roshan who requires you to reconcile his cash [6]
Page 6 of 12
book with the pass book balance.
Additional Information
1. The debit side of the cash book (bank column) has been undercast by Rs 500.
2. A cheque of Rs 200 paid to a creditor has been entered by mistake in the cash
column.
3. Bank charges Rs 80 have not been entered in the cash book.
47 The passbook of Mr Kartik showed an overdraft of Rs 81,900 on 31st March, 2013. Prepare [6]
bank reconciliation statement on 31st March, 2013
1. Out of cheques amounting to Rs 16,000 drawn by Mr Kartik on 27th March a cheque

for Rs 6,000 was encashed on 3rd April.
2. Credited by bank with Rs 7,600 were collected by them but the amount is not
entered in the cash book.
3. Rs 21,800 paid in by Mr Kartik in cash and by cheques on 31st March, cheques

amounting to Rs 7,600 were collected on 7th April.
4. A cheque of Rs 1,560 credited in the pass book on 28th March being dishonoured is
debited again in the pass book on 1st April, 2013. There was no entry in the cash
book about the dishonour of the cheque until 15th April.
48 From the following information determine the balance as per Bank Pass Book of Ajay on [6]
31st March, 2019:
1. Bank overdraft as per Cash Book on 31st March, 2019₹ 63,400
2. Interest on overdraft for 6 months ended 31st March, 2019,₹ 1,600 entered in the
Pass Book.
3. Bank charges of₹ 300 for the above period are debited in the Pass Book.
4. Cheques issued but not cashed prior to 31st March, 2019, amounted to₹ 11,680
5. Cheques paid into the bank but not cleared before 31st March, 2019 were for₹
21,700
6. Interest on investments collected by the bank and credited in the Pass Book,₹ 12,000
7. Credit side of the Bank Column of the Cash Book was undereasted by₹ 1,000
49 Cash Book and Bank Statement show ________ Balance. [1]

a) None of these
b) opposite
c) credit
Page 7 of 12
d) debit
50 Overdraft means ________ balance of Cash Book. [1]

a) debit
b) closing
c) opening
d) credit
51 Depreciable cost of an asset is equal to [1]

a) None of these
b) Cost +Net residual value
c) Cost - Depreciation
d) Cost - Net residual value
52 Fixed assets are subject to decline in value and this decline is technically referred to as [1]
a) None of these
b) Depreciation
c) Reduction
d) Obsolescence
53 Depreciation arise due to [1]

a) None of these
b) Fall in the value of money
c) Normal wear and tear
d) Fall in the market value
54 Which one is not the cause of depreciation? [1]

a) Obsolescence
b) Natural wear and tear
c) Price fluctuation
d) Efflux of time
55 ’In case of a long - term asset, repair and maintenance expenses are expected to rise in later [1]
years than in earlier year.’ Which method is suitable for charging depreciation if the
management does not want to increase burden on profit and loss account on account of
depreciation and repair.
56 What is meant by the Written Down Value Method of providing Depreciation? [1]
Page 8 of 12
57 Under which method depreciation is calculated on the original cost of the asset? [1]
58 Which of the following are advantages of straight line method of depreciation? [1]
1. It is very simple, easy to understand and apply.
2. This method makes it possible to distribute full depreciable cost over useful life of
the asset.
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. None of these
a) Option (i)
b) Option (iii)
c) Option (iv)
d) Option (ii)
59 Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of written down value method? [1]
1. It results into almost equal burden of depreciation and repair expenses taken
together every year on profit and loss account
2. Income Tax Act accept this method for tax purposes
3. As a large portion of cost is written - off in earlier years, loss due to obsolescence
gets reduced
4. All of these
a) Option (iv)
b) Option (i)
c) Option (iii)
d) Option (ii)
60 The following Trial Balance has been prepared by an inexperienced accountant.Redraft it in [6]
Page 9 of 12
the correct form and manner:

61 If the debit, as well as credit aspects of a transaction, are recorded in the cash book, it is [1]
called ________.
a) opening entry
b) compound entry
c) adjustment entry
d) contra entry
62 When a firm maintains two - column Cash Book, it does not maintain: [1]
a) Bank and Cash Account in the Ledger
b) Purchases Book
c) Journal Proper
d) Sales Book
63 State three advantages of Sub - Division of Journal. [1]

64 The cash column in the Cash Book cannot have a negative balance, i.e., payments cannot be [1]
more than cash balance in hand. Why?
65 Give one advantage of maintaining a Cash Book. [1]
66 What is a contra entry? [1]
67 Where will you record Rent unpaidin the Cash Book? [1]
68 M/s Ruchi trader started their cash book with the following balances on July 2017: cash in [4]
hand₹ 1,354 and balance in bank current account ₹ 7,560. He had the following transaction
in the month of July 2017:
Page 10 of 12
Prepare bank column cash book
69 1. Give the similarities of Cash Book with Journal. [4]

2. Give the similarities of Cash Book with Ledger.
70 State True or False: [2]

1. Materiality principle is an exception to the Full Disclosure Convention .
2. The essence of the convention of prudence is to anticipate no profit and provide for
all possible losses.
Question No. 71 to 74 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer [4]
the questions: Accounting is the most important part of any business entity. It gives the
framework to record all the business transactions and events that happens during the
working of the business entity. Accounting is the language of business with books of
accounts being its script and debit - credit its style ie. the way of expressing it. According to
the American Accounting Association, "Accounting is the process of identifying, measuring
and communicating information to permit judgement and decisions by the users of
accounts." According to the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants -
"Accounting is the art of recording, classifying and summarising in a significant manner and
in terms of money, transactions and events which are, in part at least of a financial character
and interpreting the result thereof."Accounting is an Art as well as Science. It records
Financial Transactions only which can be expressed in terms of money. First the
transactions are recorded and then they are classified and summarised to interpret the
financial position of the business. One needs to keep in mind that Accounting and
Accountancy are two different concepts. Accounting is the recording classifying and
summarising business transactions to ascertain the financial position of the business firm.
On the other hand, Accountancy is the body of knowledge based on principles for recording,
classifying and summarising business transactions to help in the decision - making function
of management. Accounting is an art of recording, classifying and summarising all the
business transactions. It is a science as well as it follows certain guiding accounting
principles and standards.
71 Accounting is called science because it follows certain guiding ________.
a) Accounting principles
Page 11 of 12
b) Accounting standards
c) None of these
d) Accounting principles and standards
72 Accounting givesthe ________ to record all the business transactions.

a) Classification
b) Money
c) Framework
d) Process
73 Accounting is the art of recording classifying and summarising in a significant manner and
in terms of money, transactions and events which are, in part at least of a financial character
and interpreting the result thereof. This definition of Accounting is given by:
a) American Institutes of Certifed Public Accountants
b) American Accounting Association
c) Indian Institute of Chartered Accountants
d) International Financial Regulation System
74 Accounting records only ________ transactions.

a) Bank
b) Financial
c) Marketing
d) All of these
Page 12 of 12
QUESTION BANK FOR HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION-2023-24
CLASS – XI
SUB: BANKING
1. Answer to question carrying 1 Marks may be from one word to one Sentence.
2. Answer to question carrying 2 Marks may be from 50 to 75 words
4. Answer to question carrying 5 Marks may be from 200 words
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is banking ?
2. Meaning of advancing loans ?
3. What do you mean by transfer of funds
4. What is Public sector bank ?
5. What is Regional rural banks?
6. What is foreign banks?
7. What do you mean by mobile banking?
8. Full forms of:
a. PSBs
b. NABARD
c. EXIM BANK
d. CRR
e. SLR
f. REPO RATE
9. Who is customer?
10.What is the relation ship between the banker and customer?
11. Who is lunatic person ?
12.What do mean by partnership firm ?
13. What is HUF?
14. What is cash management services ?
15. What is RTGS and NEFT?
16.What is term deposit ?
17.What is overdraft facility?
18. What is liquid assets ?
19. What is CRR?
20.Define term loans ?
Two mark questions:
21.What are the basic functions of bank?
22. Explain co-operative banks ?
23.Explain the RBI?
24. What is pre-paid payment instruments ?
25.Explain the general relationship between the debtor and creditor ?
26. Can married women can take a loan from a bank ?
27. Explain different types of accounts ?
28.What is FD?
29. What is pass book ?
30. Explain the joint stock companies ?
31.What is liquidity?
32.What is notice money?
Four marks questions :

33.Explain the types of securities ?
34.What is hypothecation ?
35.Duties of pledger and plegee ?
36.Explain the discounting of bill?
37.What is consumer durables loans ?
38. What is credit card ? how it is different from debit cards.
39.Features of liquid assets?
40. Explain the importance of banking system in our society.
Five marks questions:
41.Explain the banking system in India .

42. Differentiate between the public sector banks and private sector banks .
43.What do you mean by RBI ? explain the functions of it?
44.Who is minor ? can minor become the account holder?
45.Differentiate between the wholesale banking and retail banking.
46.Explain the different types of accounts which one person can open in the
bank easily.
47.What is nomination ? explain the process of it?
48. Which documents is required for opening the account?
49.What is money laundering?
50.What is investment in securities ?
51. Differentiate between the secured and unsecured loans.
52.What is credit rating ? explain its process .
2023-2024
CLASS- XI
SUBJECT – ECONOMICS
QUESTION BANK
1. The central problem of how to produce is a problem of choice regarding:
a. Distribution c. quantity to be produced
b. Techniques of production d. commodities to be produced
2. Identify the central problem which deals with deciding the quantity of goods to be produced:
a. For whom to produce c. what to produce
b. How to produce d. none of these
3. Which part of economic theory aims to determine income & employment level of the economy?
a. Both microeconomics and macroeconomics
b. Neither microeconomics nor macroeconomics
c. Microeconomics
d. Macroeconomics
4. Economics is all about:
a. How to manage unlimited resources
b. How to reduce limited wants
c. How to make choice in the presence of scarcity
d. How to maximize profit
5. Example of microeconomics variable is:
a. National income c. wholesale price index
b. Market demand d. aggregate demand
6. Total output of an economy is the sum of total output of individual producers. This statement
proves that:
a. Macroeconomics depends on microeconomics
b. There is no correlation b/w micro and macroeconomics
c. Study of microeconomics and macroeconomics is independent of each other
d. Microeconomics is dependent on macroeconomics
7. Under a free economy, prices are
a. Regulated by government
b. determined through free interplay of demand and supply
c. partly regulated by government
d. none of these
8. Central problem are found only in the developing economies like India and Bangladesh and not
in developed countries like USA. Is the following statement true or false giving reasons?
9. State two characteristics of the economic resources which give rise to economic problem.
10. Distinguish between microeconomics and macroeconomics.
11. Is the following a subject matter of microeconomics or macroeconomics? Give reason
a. Price determination of a commodity
b. Balance of payments
c. Consumer’s equilibrium
d. Rate of inflation
e. National income
12. From the following PP schedule, calculate MOC of good X and also comment on the shape of PPC
Production possibilities Production of good X Production of good Y
A 0 14
PREPARED BY VISHAL GARG 1

B 1 13
C 2 11
D 3 8
E 4 3
13. Marginal utility is
a. The utility from first unit of a commodity consumed
b. The utility y from the last unit consumed
c. Total utility dividend by number of units consumed
d. Always positive
14. If MRT is increasing throughout, the indifference curve will be
a. Downward sloping convex
b. Downward sloping concave
c. Downward sloping straight line
d. Upward sloping convex
15. If MRT is constant throughout, the indifference curve will be:
e. Downward sloping convex
f. Downward sloping concave
g. Downward sloping straight line
h. Parallel to x-axis
16. Total utility is
a. Sum of marginal utility
b. Utility from first unit X no. of units consumed
c. Always increasing
d. Utility from last unit X no. of units consumed
17. What is the value of MU at the point of satiety?
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Negative
d. zero
18. State law of diminishing marginal utility
19. State condition of consumer’s equilibrium
20. Explain with diagram, the relationship between TU and MU.
21. Complete the following table:
Units consumed TU MU
1 9 -
2 - 7
3 - 6
4 27 -
5 - 2
6 27 -
22. Differentiate between cardinal utility approach and indifference curve approach
23. First-hand information data are called
a. Primary data
b. Secondary data
c. Both
d. None
24. Section of few items as representatives of all the items of the universe is
a. Population

b. Sample
c. Survey
d. None
25. To conduct survey of illiterate respondent, the best method for collection of data will be
a. Questionnaire method
b. Indirect interviews
c. Personal interviews
d. Observation method
26. Which of the following are important sources of secondary data?
a. Census of India
b. NSSO
c. Both
d. None
27. Secondary sources of data are
a. Data obtained by survey for the purpose
b. Data obtained by personal investigation
c. Production records of a firm
d. All of these
28. Name the two important sources of secondary data in India.
29. Write any six principles of drafting a questionnaire.
30. What is the difference between primary and secondary data?
31. Write the precautions of secondary data.
32. Write any six categories of published sources.
33. Differentiate between direct personal investigation and indirect oral investigation.
34. Differentiate between primary and secondary data.
35. Differentiate between questionnaire and schedules.
36. Explain the method information from local sources with its suitability
37. What is mailing surveys? Explain any two suitability of it.
38. What are the merits and demerits of direct personal investigation methods?
39. Write the qualities of good questionnaire
40. What is enumerator’s method? Also write two-two merits and demerits.
41. Assertion (A):- the consumer buys less tea even when the price of tea is constant.
Reason (R):- the demand curve for tea shifts to the left when the price of the substitute
commodity means coffee decreases
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
c. A is true and R is false
d. A is false but R is true
42. A rise in the income of the consumer leads to a fall in the demand for commodity ‘x’. What type
of good is commodity ‘x’?
a. Snob goods
b. Normal goods
c. Inferior good
d. Necessity goods
43. Increase in demand occurs due to
a. Increase in the price of the substitutes
b. Decreases in the price of the complementary good
c. Increase in income of the consumer

d. All of these
44. In case of giffen’s paradox, the slope of demand curve is
a. Parallel to x-axis
b. Positive
c. Parallel to y-axis
d. Negative
45. Other things being equals, which of the following might shift the demand curve for petrol to the
left?
a. The discovery of vast new oil reserves in India
b. The development of a low-cost electric automobile
c. An increase in the price of train and air transportation
d. A large decline in the price of automobile
46. What do you mean by inferior goods? Give some examples
47. Does a fall in income have the same effect on demand for the given commodity?
48. What is meant by cross price effects? Give two example.
49. Explain the difference between change in demand and change in quantity demanded?
50. state whether the following statements are true or false by giving reason:-
a. the want and demand of a commodity are the same
b. As the price of ink pen rises, the demand for ink rises.
c. Demand means quantity of a commodity which is consumer ready to buy.
51. Median divides a series into how many parts?
a. Two b. three c. four d. all of these
52. Which of the following formulae is used to find out median?
𝑁 n
−𝑐.𝑓 −c.f. N−c.f
a. M=l1 4 ×𝑖 b .M=l2+4 ×i c. M=l1+ ×i d. none of these
𝑓 f f
53. Median of these numbers :3, 5, 7, 9, 12 is
a. 3 b. 6 c. 7 d. 12
54. When total product is constant, average product will……………
55. TP, AP and MP are ………………..shaped curves.
56. Calculate median from the following data
Mid-Value 5 15 25 35 45
Frequency 4 8 16 7 5
57. Calculate median of the following data:
Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
Students 8 30 40 12 10
58. What type of changes take place in total product & marginal product when there are
a. Increasing return to a factor
b. Diminishing returns to a factor
59. (a) State whether the following are true or false giving reason:-
a. The distinction between short and long run is based on a fixed time period.
b. When there are diminishing returns to a factor, marginal and total product both always fall.
c. Production function establishes a relation between inputs and output, which is technical and
not economical in nature.
d. When MP is zero, TP is maximum.
(b) Give the meaning of returns to a factor.
60. ……………… factors refers to those factors, which can be changed in the short run.
61. Average product is also known as……………. Or……………. .

?
62. Marginal product=change in units of variable factor .
63. A rational producer will always seek to operate in phase…………… of law of variable proportions.
64. ……………….. Refers to the functional relationship between inputs and output for a given state of
technology.
65. State whether the following are true or false giving reason:-
a. When there are diminishing returns to a factor, total product always decreases.
b. Total product will increase only when marginal product increases.
c. Increase in total product always indicates that there are increasing returns to a factor.
d. When marginal product falls, average product will also fall.
66. What is the significance of stages of law of variable proportions?
67. Availability of agricultural land (fixed factor) is limited in the world, but demand of food grain;
pulses, etc. are increasing continuously. Is it possible to supply these food items continuously by
increasing variable factor like seeds, fertilizers, irrigation facilities etc?
68. What are the different phases in the law of variable proportions in terms of marginal product?
Give reason behind each phase. Use diagram.
69. Read the following information and answer the following questions on the basis of the same
Ordinarily the term desire, want and demand convey the similar meaning, therefore used
interchangeably. But in economics these terms gave different meaning. Desire simply means a
wish to have a commodity regardless of having ability to buy it. Want means an effective desire
where a person is ready to sacrifice money to fulfill it. Demand, on the other hand, means a
person is ready to purchase the commodity in the given market at a particular price at a given
period of time. The individual demand and market demand curve have a straight line downward
sloping curves it has inverse relationship between price and demand.
a. Define individual demand function and market demand function
b. Write the determinant of individual demand function.
70. On the basis of the figure given below explain the law of variable proportion with the help of
schedule

QUESTION BANK FOR HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION-2023-24
CLASS – XI
SUB: BUSINESS STUDIES
1. Answer to question carrying 1 Marks may be from one word to one Sentence.
3. Answer to question carrying 4-5 Marks may be from 150 to 170 words
4. Answer to question carrying 6 Marks may be from 200 words
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:

Direction (Q. Nos. 1-20) All the questions have four options out of which only one is correct. Choose the
correct option as your answer.
1. Ram, Mohan and Sohan are good friends. Ram is working as a doctor in a private hospital and getting
salary of 1,50,000 per month Mohan is a farmer and producing 50 quintals wheat for his own
consumption. Soban is working as a teacher in a school and getting salary of 340,000 per month. In
addition to that, Sohan teaches some slum area children in the evening and does not charge anything
from them. It gives him a psychological and mental satisfaction. Which type of human activity is
performed by Ram?
(a) Economic activity
(b) Non-economic activity
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above.
2. Match the ‘various e-banking services' in column I with their respective statement in column II.
Column I
A. Debit card
B. Credit card
C. Core banking
D. Bank draft
Column II
(i) 'Customer of a branch' to 'Customer of a bank'.
(ii) A card is issued to a customer in lieu of his money deposited in the bank.
(iii) This is a sort of overdraft facility.
(iv) Working as a outstation cheque
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
3. Mr. Harish Kalra is a farmer and cultivatessugarcane on a large piece of land in a district in
Maharashtra. Mr Harish has sold his ancestral house for Rs 40 lakhs.
His son, SakSham proposes him to establish a sugar mill with this money as the raw material sugarcane
will be available from their fields. Mention the type of industry in which Harish is engaged in.
(a) Primary (b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary (d) Service
4. A departmentally run enterprise enjoys corporate status.
(a) True (b) False (c) Can't say (d) Partially false
5. Mr. Naresh Batra, a businessman, incurred some financial loss due to the dishonesty of his workers.
This loss is caused due to_________
(a) natural cause (b) financial cause
(c) human cause (d) economic cause
6. Family floater health insurance policy covers the hospitalisation expenses of an individual upto a
specified limit.
a) True (b) False (c) Can't say (d) Partially false

7. Name and discuss the benefits of banking service in which the customer can conduct banking
activities like managing savings, checking accounts, applying for loans, etc. over the internet.
(a) Mobile banking (b) Physical banking (c) e-banking (d) None of these
8. Which of the following is not related to One Person Company?
(a) No person shall be eligible to incorporate more than a One Person Company or become nominee in
more than one such company.
(b) No minor shall become member or nominee of the One Person Company or can hold share with
beneficial interest.
c) Such company cannot be incorporated or converted into a company under Section 8 of the Act.
(d) Such company can carry out Non-Banking Financial investment in securities of anybody corporate.
9. Anubhav took a fire insurance policy for his property worth Rs 10,00,000 with two insurers: Shri Ram
General Insurance Co. Ltd. for Rs 8,00,000 and Bajaj Allianz General Insurance Co. Ltd. For Rs 4,00,000.
An electric short circuit in his property caused fire and it resulted in a loss of Rs 3,00,000. He filed a claim
for Rs 3,00,000 against each of the two insurance companies. Which principle of insurance is highlighted
in the above case?
(a) Subrogation (b) Indemnity
(c) Contribution (d) Mitigation
10. ...... organisation is formed by passing a Special Act of Parliament of state legislature.
(a) Statutory corporation (b) Government company (c) Departmental undertaking (d) None of the above
11. Intra-B transactions involves a firm's interactions with its employees.
12. It is the moral obligation of business to get involved in solving social problems, instead of expecting
other social agencies dealing with them. It is related to which justification of social responsibility?
(a) Better environment for doing business
(b) Holding business responsible for social problems
(c) Maintenance of society
(d) Converting problems into opportunities
13. The control of central government on departmental undertakings is very effective. This control on
departmental undertakings is subject to
(a) Government control (b) IAS officers control (c) Parliamentary control (d) Control by CAG
14. Craft Enterprises pays wages to its employees at a rate which is much lower than the minimum
wages prescribed by the government. The working conditions in the factory are inappropriate as there is
lack of proper ventilation and there is a strict rule against formation of Trade Union. Against which
'group', Craft Enterprises has ignored the social responsibility?
(a) Community (b) Consumers (c) Government . (d) Workers
15. Chennai Pharmaceuticals Co. Ltd., registered under the Companies Act, 2013, was started with a
paid up capital of Rs 50,00,000. 40% of this paid up capital is in the hands of private individuals and the
balance is held by the government of Chennai, Chennai pharmaceuticals belongs to which form of public
sector enterprises?
(a) Statutory corporation (b) Government company
(c) Departmental undertaking (d) None of the above.
16. Shivangi wants to buy a new laptop with latest features and want to sell the old laptop before buying
the new one. So, she listed her old laptop on Quikr.com. She received good response from her post and
was able to sell the laptop at good price. Identify the component of e-business being described above.
(a) C2C (b) B2B (c) Intra-B (d) B2G
17. Development of business education has made people aware of the importance of social
responsibility for the business.
18. The transactions taking place between consumers and business are known as________
(a) B2B (b) B2C (c) C2C (d) None of these
19. The management of Mars Ltd. manipulated its financial statements to show lesser earnings so that
low rate of dividend can be given. Identify the group whose interest is being ignored?
(a) Society (b) Employees (c) Shareholders (d) Consumers
20. By providing quality product at reasonable price, business is fulfilling its responsibility
towards_______
(a) society (b) government (c) consumers (d) employees
Assertion-Reasoning MCQS
Direction (Q.Nos. 21 to 25) There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the
statements and choose the appropriate option from the options given below
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
21. Assertion (A) In case of fire insurance, insurable interest must be present at the time of taking the
policy as well as at the time of loss of subject matter.
Reason (R) Fire must be the proximate cause of damage or loss in a fire insurance policy.
22. Assertion (A) e-business has considerably increased dependence on paperwork.
Reason (R) In case of e-business, most of the work is done electronically through computers.
23. Assertion (A) The karta cannot be an expert in all areas of management.
Reason (A) The inability of karta to decide effectively may result into losses for the organisation.
24. Assertion (A) Auxiliaries to trade are generally referred as services.
Reason (R) Auxiliaries to trade facilitate activities relating to industry and trade.
25. Assertion (A) Businessman often pass the burden of social responsibility to consumers.
Reason (R) Businessman charging lower prices to customers.
Case Based MCQS
Direction Read the following case study and answer questions 26 to 30.
Mr. Liyaquat Ali Khan runs a departmental store in Bhopal. He procures different kinds of products from
all over India through railways, roadways and airways. He also owns a godown to hold the stocks. He has
also taken an insurance policy worth Rs 15 crores for his business. Moreover, he has taken a loan of Rs
3,00,000 from Axis Bank in order to meet short-term financial needs of his business. He has placed
information about his store on the hoardings, bill boards, etc. in order to popularise them.
26. Mr. Liyaquat is doing which type of human activity?
(a) Economic (b) Non-economic (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
27. Which type of economic activity is done by Mr. Liyaquat?
(a) Business (b) Profession (c) Employment (d) None of these
28. "He also owns a godown to hold the stocks.” Which auxiliary to trade is used here?
(a) Transportation (b) Warehousing (c) Banking (d) Insurance
29. “He procures different kinds of products from all over India through railways, roadways and
airways.” Which feature of business is highlighted in the given lines?
(a) Element of risk (b) Uncertainty (c) Procurement of goods and services (d) Sale of goods and services
30. “He has placed information about his store on the hoardings, bill boards, etc. in order to popularise
them.” Which auxiliary to trade is used here?
a) Transportation (b) Advertising (c) Banking (d) Insurance
Subhadra, Isha, Samriti and Kamlesh, all the four of them are members of the same Kitty Party. The
speciality of their Kitty Party is that besides several entertainment programmes, they also provide an
opportunity to some of the members to speak on some special subject. Once, all the four of them got
the opportunity of speaking on the subject: ‘Digital Payment System'. They shared their respective
experiences as given below: First of all Subhadra spoke on her payment system. She told that as and
when she buys goods from a mall, she scans the pattern pasted on the ‘Payment Counter using her
mobile and makes the payment easily. After this, Isha told about her own payment system. She said that
as and when she has to make some payment, she uses the LOGIN. Id, LOGIN PASSWORD and
TRANSACTION PASSWORD obtained from her Bank. In this way, very easily and with full safety she
makes the payment. Samriti told that she made her payment quite fast by using her VIRTUAL Id.
Similarly, Kamlesh told that she had a mobile with BASIC FEATURES and she required no internet to
make her payments. In order to make the payment, she needed the registered Mobile number and
MMID of the receiver. She has to use the MPIN issued by her bank.
31. Identify Subhadra's digital payment system.
(a) Internet banking (b) Quick response code
(c) Unified payment interface (d) Unstructured supplementary service data
32. Isha uses LOGIN ID, LOGIN PASSWORD and TRANSACTION PASSWORD to make her payments.
Identify her payment system.
33. Samriti makes payments by using her VIRTUAL Id. Identify her payment system.

34. Kamlesh uses a mobile with BASIC FEATURES. Identify her payment medium.
35. They all are using which facility of banking?
(a) Bank draft (b) Cheque (c) e-banking (d) RTGS
A group of seven friends decided to jointly set a public company in a rural area where the people were
facing a serious unemployment problem. All of them jointly selected a place where the company's
registered office would be situated. Along with it, with the advice of business specialists, it was also
decided what procedure would be followed for the issue and allotment of shares. All the friends wanted
their company to have a singular recognition, and people should get immediate attraction towards its
produ ts. It was felt that the very name of the com; ny could become a reason for its recognition. After a
detailed discussion, the company's name was decided as Trimurti Ltd. Then, they jointly completed all
the formalities of the formation of the company.
36. Which form of business is highlighted in the above case?
(a) Partnership (b) Company (c) Sole proprietorship (d) HUF
37. Which type of company highlighted in the lines?
(a) Public company (b) Private company
(c) One person company (d) None of these
38. “All of them jointly selected a place where the company's registered office would be situated.”
Which clause of MoA is being discussed in the given lines?
(a) Name (b) Capital
(c) Situation (d) Association
39. “After a detailed discussion, the company's name was decided as Trimurti Ltd.” Which clause of MoA
i being discussed in the given lines?
(a) Name (b) Capital (c) Situation (d) Association
40. “It was also decided what procedure would be followed for the issue and allotment of shares”.
Which document is being highlighted in the lines?
(a) MOA (b) AOA (c) Prospectus (d) None of these

THREE MARK QUESTIONS :
41. Why does businessman willingly undertake business risk?
42. “Profit is not an objective but a requirement of business” Do you agree with
this statement? Support your answer with reasons.
43. What do you mean by minimum subscription?
44. Write a Note on ‘Karta’.
45. What do you meant by partner by estoppels?
46. What is PPP. Explain three features.
47. What is partnership? Explain the types of partnership.
48. What is AOA? Explain the contents of AOA.
49. What do you mean by Departmental undertakings? Explain Merits

of Departmental undertaking.
50. “Taking Insurance is essential for Business.” Do you agree? If yes state
certain reasons that specify its importance in content to modern business.
FOUR MARKS QUESTIONS :

51. Explain four features of Global Enterprise.
52. Why does business need multiple objectives?
53 “Compare business with profession” justify this statement on the behalf

of basis. (five points)
54. What is MOA? Explain it.
55. What is joint stock company? Explain the Procedure for formation
of Company.
56. Explain the changing role of Public sector?
57. Descirbe the meaning and function of e-commerce.
58. Explain the role of Government in controlling pollution.

59. Discuss the types of insurance policies >
60. Discuss the RTGS and NEFT .also specify the difference between
both the terms .
SIX MARKS QUESTIONS:

61. Discuss the various reasons which justify the need for pollution
control by business firms even through it leads to drain of their precious
reasons .
62. Mercury ltd. decided to donate 2% of its sales to ‘ child rights and you
(CRY)’ for improving the conditions of children in India. This initiate by
the company was highly appreciated by the public and their sales
increased by 10% . identify the interest group towards which ltd. is
discharging its social responsibility?
63. Explain the various element of business ethics .
64. Build up arguments for social responsibilities.
65. Explain the scope for e- business.
66. Kapil took the marine policy worth rs. 2,00,000 to protect the goods from
the perils of the sea. On the way the goods were spoiled by rats . he suffered the loss
of rs. 1, 25,000. He filled a claim for the loss against the insurance company .
1. can kapil recover the rs. 1, 25,000 from the insurance company .
2. which principle of insurance is highlighted in the given case.
67. “ In all types of insurance insured must have the insurable interest both
at the time of insurance and at the time of loss.” Do you agree?
68. Why MNCs are in a position to exercise massive control on the world
economy ?
69. “Cooperative society offers various advantages as compared to other forms

of business organization “ comment.
70. Discuss the objectives of business.

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ANGEL'S ACADEMY SR. SEC.

Time: 3 hours MM: 80 Marks

SECTION--A: READING COMPREHENSION

I. Read the following passage:

iii. Why is the processing industry still not happy?

v. What is the writer’s opinion about the new age photos?

ix. Find a word similar in meaning to "beginner" in para 5.

x. Find a word similar in meaning to "timeline" in para 7.

II. Read the following passage:

III. Read the passage given below:

SECTION-B: CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS AND GRAMMAR

a) i. is ii. am iii. are iv. were

V. CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS

VI. REFERENCE TO CONTEXT

The laburnum top is silent, quite still

Q1. Who found King Tut’s mummy?

I. Question paper is divided into 5 sections A ,B,C,D & E

Multiple choice questions

1. Which one of the following discipline attempts temporal synthesis?

2 Which one of the following has the longest duration?

5.Which type of volcanic eruption have caused Deccan trap formation?

6 which one of the following describes the lithosphere

7 Polar fleeing force related to

10 Which one of the following processes is a gradational process?

11. Which of the following is an example of endogenic forces?

12 Which one of the following material is affected by hydration process?

13 Debris Avalanche can be included in the category of

14 Which of the following is a form of weathering?

15 Name the smallest continent

Source base questions

(i)What are the three types of volcanoes?

(ii)What is Lava and magma?

(iii)What is the cause of erupting the volcano?

(i) In which part of our country frequently landslides are happening?

(Ii) What is the difference between landslide and avalanches

(iii) Why peninsular mountains of India cannot face landslides frequently ?

Short answer type questions

. 20. What is meant by process of differentiation?

22.It is weathering that is possible for biodiversity on the earth how?

Long answer type questions

24.What are the evidences in support of continental drift theory.

is the prime job they perform?

27 What are convectional currency in the mantle initiated and maintained?

Map based questions

29 In in the outline map of World Physical Mark the following

HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION SAMPLE PAPER(2023-24)

MM:70 Time: 3hrs

Read the following instructions carefully.

a) There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.

b) SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.

c) SECTION B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.

d) SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.

e) SECTION D consists of 2 case- based questions carrying 4 marks each.

f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.

g) All questions are compulsory.

h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed

The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct.