النماذج محلوله

Pathology exam Dr.
Fayed Al-Yousofy
Q1: Select the ONE appropriate answer (5.5 for each):

1- one hemodynamic abnormality in pathophysiology of mitral valve stenosis is:
a. increased left ventricular filling
b. increased left atrial pressure
c. increased forward cardiac output
d. decreased right ventricular pressure
2- of the following, a major constituent of atherosclerotic plaque is:
a. smooth muscle cells
b. red blood cells
c. platelets
d. fibroblasts
e. leukocytes
3- all of the following factors contribute to an increased risk for the development
of hypertension EXCEPT:
a. diabetes mellitus
b. high levels of high density lipoprotein (HDL)
c. hypertension
d. family history
e. cigarette smocking
4- rheumatic valvular disease results from
a. rheumatic endocarditis
b. rheumatic myocarditis
c. rheumatic pericarditis
d. bacterial endocarditis
e. mural thrombosis
5- the most common cause of aortic stenosis is:
a. bacterial infection
b. systemic hypertension
c. left side heart failure
d. rheumatic fever
e. congenital
6- the most common and most frequent complication of myocardial infarction is:
a. arrhythmias
b. myocardial rupture
c. cardiac tamponade
d. mural thrombosis
e. pericarditis
7- regarding periarteritis nodosa, all are true EXCEPT:
a. more commonly affecting adults males.
b. the pathogenesis involving immune complex deposition
c. affecting medium sized and small arteries
d. associated with multiple microaneurysms
e. mainly affect renal and pulmonary arteries
Q2: Mark (T) for true statement and (F) for false one (5.5 for each).
a. Secondary hypertension is caused by diseases of the kidneys or
endocrine glands ( )
b. Right side heart failure is most commonly due to left side heart failure or
primary pulmonary disease ( )
c. Myxomas are the most common primary tumor of adult heart ( )
d. Q3: Enumerate the histomorphological types of myocarditis.
Pathology exam Dr. Fayed Al-Yousofy
Urinary system clinical part
1- A 35-year-old woman has experienced urinary frequency with dysuria for the past 4
days. On physical examination she has no flank pain or tenderness. A urinalysis
reveals sp. gr. 11014, pH 715, no glucose, no protein, no blood, nitrite positive, and
many WBC's. She has a serum creatinine of 019 mg/dL. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
a. Lupus nephritis
b. Acute bacterial cystitis
c. Urinary lithiasis
d. Diabetes insipidus
e. Tuberculosis the urinary system
2- A 70-year-old man incurs blunt force trauma in a fall. On physical examination he
has a contusion on his lower back. An abdominal CT scan shows 3 peripheral 1 to 2
cm cysts in his kidneys. The kidneys are normal in size. Laboratory studies show a
serum urea nitrogen of 16 mg/dL and creatinine of 111 mg/dL. A urinalysis reveals no
blood, ketones, protein, or glucose. Microscopic urinalysis reveals a few oxalate
crystals. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Dominant polycystic kidney disease
b. Prostatic nodular hyperplasia
c. Renal artery atherosclerosis
d. Simple renal cysts in the cortex
e. Recurrent urinary tract infection
3- A clinical study is performed with pediatric subjects who had minimal change
disease. These patients are observed to have prominent periorbital edema. Laboratory
test findings from serum and urine tests are analyzed. Which of the following
laboratory test findings is most likely to be consistently present in these subjects?
a. Nitrite positive urinalysis specimen
b. Proteinuria >315 gm/24 hours
c. Hematuria with >10 RBC/hpf
d. Lipiduria in association with hypercholesterolemia
e. Renal tubular epithelial cells and casts.
4- A 3-year-old child has become more irritable over the past two months and does not
want to eat much at meals. On physical examination the pediatrician notes an
enlarged abdomen and can palpate a mass on the right. An abdominal CT scan reveals
a 10 cm solid mass involving the right kidney. The resected mass has a microscopic
appearance with sheets of small blue cells along with primitive tubular structures. The
child receives chemotherapy and radiation therapy, and there is no recurrence. Which
of the following neoplasms is this child most likely to have had?
a. Angiomyolipoma c. Renal cell carcinoma
b. Urothelial carcinoma d. Wilms tumor d. Medullary fibroma
5- A 70year-old patient with urinary retention and increased PSA. All are true except:
a. Elevation more than 20ng usually indicate benign prostatic hyperplasia.
b. Transrectal biopsy of prostate is valuable
c. Usually have a papillary tumor in trigone
d. Bilharziasis is the most likely cause of his condition.
Female Genital System Pathology Exam/ Part 2

I- Select the one most appropriate answer
1. A female patient develops abortion and postabortion hemorrhage. She seeks

medical advice. Her HCG was 400000IU/ml. Diagnostic D&C revealed
amixture of cytotrophoblast and syncitiotropholblast amid areas of
hemorrhage and necrosis without any chrionic villi. This patient has:
a. Teratoma
b. Vesicular mole
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Remnants of conception.
2. A black woman 35 year-old with huge pelvic tumor. Grossly: this tumor is
complex solid cystic with yellow tinge and microscopically composed of
cuboidal cells with Call-Exner rosettes. Mitotic activity is normal. This tumor
is most likely:
a. Cystic hyperplasia
b. Cervical adenocarcinoma
c. Uterine leiomyoma
d. Granulosa cell tumor.
3. A young female with multiple warty lesions at the vulva. Histologically, they
are composed of papillary lesion with multiple layers of stratified squamous
epithelium and Koliocytosis. This patient is sexually active. The most likely
diagnosis is:
a. Syphilis
b. Condyloma accuminata
c. Lymphogranuloma venerium
d. Herpes simplex type II
II- Select (T) for true statement and (F) for false one:
1. The most common uterine tumors are fibroids ( )
2. Karytyping revealed 69XXX is likely from complete vesicular mole ( )
3. Herpes virus type II related to cervical cancer ( )
4. The most common site for female genital system tuberculosis is fallopian
tubes ( )
5. Adenomyosis is presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus e.g the
ovaries ( )
6. Endometriois may be complicated by obstructive infertility ( )
7. Malignant transformation in leiomyoma to leiomyosarcoma approximately 3:
( )
III- Give an account on Endometrial hyperplasia



a. Teratoma
b. Vesicular mole
c. Choriocarcinoma
5. A black woman 35 year-old with huge pelvic tumor. Grossly: this tumor is
complex solid cystic with yellow tinge and microscopically composed of
cuboidal cells with Call-Exner rosettes. Mitotic activity is normal. This tumor
is most likely:
a. Cystic hyperplasia
d. Granulosa cell tumor.
diagnosis is:
a. Syphilis
8. The most common uterine tumors are fibroids ( )
9. Karytyping revealed 69XXX is likely from complete vesicular mole ( )
10. Herpes virus type II related to cervical cancer ( )
11. The most common site for female genital system tuberculosis is fallopian
tubes ( )
12. Adenomyosis is presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus e.g the
ovaries ( )
( )
III- Give an account on Endometrial hyperplasia



a. Teratoma
b. Vesicular mole
c. Choriocarcinoma
8. A black woman 35 year-old with huge pelvic tumor. Grossly this tumor is
cystic with sebaceous material and hairs inside. Microscopically it is lined by
keratinized squamous epithalamium with hair follicles and sebaceous glands
as well as areas containing cartilage and bone. This tumor is most likely:
a. Mature cystic teratoma (Dermoid cyst)
d. Placenta
diagnosis is:
a. Syphilis
15. Chocolate cyst represent ectopic endometrium in ovary forming cystic lesion
( )
16. Karytyping revealed 69XXX is likely from vesicular mole ( )
17. Herpes virus type II not related to cervical cancer ( )
18. Simple endometrial hyperplasia carries a greater risk for malignancy than
complex endometrial hyperplasia ( )
19. The most common site for female genital system tuberculosis is the
endometrium ( )
20. The incidence of leiomyosarcoma increases with multiple leiomyomas than
solitary myoma ( )
( )
III- Write short notes on:

1. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
2. Classification of ovarian tumors
Genitourinary Pathology Exam Part 2

I- Select the appropriate answer (1 mark for each):
1- A child 10 years old had two weeks ago sore throat, and developed now flank pain,
and headache. His urine is smoky colored and urine examination revealed blood casts.
This child most likely has:
a. Minimal change glomerulonephritis (MCGN)
b. Acute diffuse GN
c. Membranous GN
d. Acute pyelonephritis.
2- Patient suffering from massive non selective proteinuria, hypoalbumiuria, lipiduria
and edema. This patient has:
a. Acute glomerulonephritis (nephritic syndrome)
b. Minimal change glomerulonephritis
c. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Renal failure
3- A child 4 years with flank mass, pain, hematuria, failure to thrive and mild fever is
most likely to have:
a. Renal stone
b. Acute pyelonephritis
c. Nephroblastoma
d. Renal cell carcinoma
4- A patient 60 years comes to the outpatient clinic with frequency, and dysuria.
Ultrasound revealed bilateral hydronephrosis, urine cystology revealed abnormal
urothelial cells. This patient most likely has:
a. Wilms tumor
b. Acute cystitis
c. Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder
d. Prostatic carcinoma.
5- Patient with chronic osteomyelitis, develops renal failure. Renal biopsy revealed
deposition of homogenous pink material around renal blood vessles, basement
membranes of the glomeruli and renal tubules. The cause of his renal failure is:
a. Membranous GN
b. Diabetic nephropathy
c. Secondary amyloidosis
d. Multiple myeloma
6- A 32 year-old male develops dysuria and hematuria. He seeks medical advice.
Urine examination shows no abnormality except numerous RBCs. Cystoscopy
revealed a gray white granular lesion with fissuring ulcer at the trigon. Biopsy
revealed a granulomatous lesion rich in eosinphils and without caseation necrosis. The
most likely lesion is:
a. Bladder tuberculosis
b. Bilharzasis
c. Transitional cell carcinoma
d. Oxalate stones
7- All are true about benign prostatic hyperplasia except:
a. Usually occurs in old men above 60
b. May be complicated bilateral hydronephrosis
c. Predisposing factor for recurrent cystitis
d. A precancerous lesion for prostatic carcinoma
8- Tuberculosis of male genital tract is most commonly affect:

a. Testis
b. Epididymis
c. Scrotum
d. Prostate
9- Which statement is true regarding testicular seminoma.
a. It is a malignant neoplasm
b. It occurs under 20 year-old.
c. Its incidence comes second to teratoma.
d. It is chemoresistant.
II- Describe the histopathological changes in a kidney suffering malignant

hypertension (2.5 marks).
III- Enumerate complications of renal stones (2.5 marks).
Questions 1 and 2 each has one mark for the selected appropriate answer:
8- A female patient develops abortion and postabortion hemorrhage. She seeks

a. Teratoma
b. Vesicular mole
c. Choriocarcinoma
9- Which one would be the expected histopathological result of D&C from a

female with polycystic ovary disease:
a. Endometrial hyperplasia
b. Arias-Stella reaction
c. Secretory endometrium
d. Adenomyosis
e. Atrophic endometrium
10- Mark (T) for true statement and (F) for false one (0125 mark for each):
1- The lactating breast shows epithelial hyperplasia ( )
2- Oestrogen-producing ovarian cancer can cause endometrial
hyperplasia ( )
3- Human papilloma virus is the main cause of cervical cancer ( )
4- Stroma ovarii is a mondermal teratoma ( )
5- Dysgerminoma is a surface epithelial ovarian tumor ( )
6- Type 1 endometrial cancer is related to endometrial hyperplasia ( )
7- Infiltrating ductal carcinoma (NOS) is less frequent than infiltrating
lobular carcinoma ( )
8- Endometriosis is a common cause of obstructive infertility ( )
9- Karytyping revealed 69XXX is likely from vesicular mole ( )
10- Malignant transformation in leiomyoma to leiomyosarcoma approximately
3: ( )
11- Regarding cervical cancer adenocarcinoma is the commonest type ( )
12- Krukenberg tumor is the name given to bilateral ovarian serous

carcinoma ( )
11- Discus fibrocystic disease (3 marks)
Pathology exam 3rd year Medical students
Local accumulation of blood within a dilated vein in the spermatic

cord:
A.hematocele
B.hydrocele
C.chylocele
D.vericocele (venous varix)
nodular gummas are associated with?

A.TB
B.gonorrhea
C.syphilis
D.mumps
Cerebral infarcts due to focal obstruction of blood flow may arise
from either thrombotic or embolic arterial occlusion
A.true
B.false
Hydrocele, hematocele, chylocele, spermatocele, and vericocele are

all lesions of the:
A.tunica vaginalis
B.tunica albicans
C.glans penis
D.testis
An autopsy study reveals that evidence for atheroma formation can begin
even in children. The gross appearances of the aortas are recorded and
compared with microscopic findings of atheroma formation. Which of the
following is most likely to be the first visible gross evidence for the formation
of an atheroma?
A Thrombus
B Fatty streak
C Calcification
D Hemorrhage
E Exudate
F Ulceration
On sectioning of an organ from a 66-year-old man at the time of autopsy, a

focal, wedge-shaped area that is firm is accompanied by extensive
hemorrhage, giving it a red appearance. The lesion has a base on the surface
of the organ. In which of the following situations will this lesion most likely
occur?
A Lung with pulmonary thromboembolism
B Heart with coronary thrombosis
C Liver with hypovolemic shock
D Kidney with septic embolus
E Spleen with embolized mural thrombus
F Brain with cerebral arterial aneurysm
Musculoskeletal Pathology Exam Part 2
I- Select the appropriate answer for each question:
a. all of the following delay bone healing except:

a. Poor nutrition
b. Vitamin deficiency
c. Early mobilization
d. Good fixation
b. All are correct in osteoporosis except:
e. Serum calcium is normal
f. Caused by vitamin D deficiency
g. Decreased bone density
h. Bone mineralization is decreased
c. About tuberculosis of bones all are true except:
i. Almost always secondary
j. Vertebrae are most common affected
k. Affect short bones like carpal and tarsal bones
l. Intervertebral discs are spared
d. Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis, all are true except:
m. Staphylococcus is the main cause
n. It is common in children than adults
o. Diaphysis of the femur is the main site

p. Salmonella osteomyelitis is common in patients with sickle cell
disease.
e. Pathological fracture can occur in all except:
q. Traffic accidents in young healthy adult
r. Patient with Pott's disease
s. Bone suffering rickets
t. Patients with metastatic prostatic carcinoma in bone
II- Discuss the pathology of Ewing sarcoma?
Musculoskeletal Pathology Exam Part 2
I- Select the appropriate answer for each question:
a. all of the following delay bone healing except:

a. Poor nutrition
b. Vitamin deficiency
c. Early mobilization
d. Good fixation
b. All are correct in osteoporosis except:
e. Serum calcium is normal
f. Caused by vitamin D deficiency
g. Decreased bone density
h. Bone mineralization is decreased
c. About tuberculosis of bones all are true except:
i. Almost always secondary
j. Vertebrae are most common affected
k. Affect short bones like carpal and tarsal bones
l. Intervertebral discs are spared
d. Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis, all are true except:
m. Staphylococcus is the main cause
n. It is common in children than adults
o. Diaphysis of the femur is the main site
p. Salmonella osteomyelitis is common in patients with sickle cell
disease.
e. Pathological fracture can occur in all except:
q. Traffic accidents in young healthy adult
r. Patient with Pott's disease
s. Bone suffering rickets
t. Patients with metastatic prostatic carcinoma in bone
II- Discuss the pathology of osteosarcoma?
Pathology exam for nursing

I. Fill by using appropriate pathological term (definitions) (2 marks for each):
1) ………………………………….. is inflammation of joints.
2) …………………………………… is inflammation of lung.
3) ……………………………………. Is inflammation of stomach mucosa
4) ……………………………………. Is inflammation of the liver.

5) Change of mature tissue to immature disoriented tissue with cellular
atypia is ……………………………………
6) Cavity containing pus is …………………………………….
7) Inflammation characterized by excess secretion of mucous is
………………………………..…………………………………….
8) Osteomyelitis is inflammation of ……………………………………….
9) …………………………………. Is tissue death inside the body during life.
16) Example of serous inflammation occurs in …………………………
11) Red granular tissue occurs during healing …………………………………….
12) Healing of surgical wounds is by ………………………………………..
13) ………………………………………….. inflammatory process lasts for months or
years.
14) ………………………………. is the fixative commonly used for surgical
specimens.
15) ………………………….. is commonly used to fix cytological smears.
16) The pathological specimen should be labeled with patient name and
delivered to the pathology laboratory with a ……………………………………
form.
17) ……………………………….. unusual event may occur in the course of a
disease.
18) …………………………………… opened track between two epithelial surfaces.
19) …………………………………………. descriptive term when the necrotic material
appears like cheese.
26) ……………………………………… descriptive term when the necrotic material
appears black and feted.
21) Accumulation of fat inside liver cells is …………………………..
22) …………………………………………. Chemical substance present at the site of
inflammation and control the inflammatory process.
23) ………………………………. produce collagen.
24) ………………………………………results from excessive collagen production
during healing of skin wound.
25) The tissue becomes smaller the normal ……………………………..
II. Mark (T) for true and (F) for false statement of the following (1 mark for each):
1) The lactating breast shows epithelial dysplasia ( )
2) Healing by secondary intention results in more scar tissue ( )
3) Granuloma is a collection of epithelioid cells forming nodule ( )
4) Disfigurement results from the healing process is due to scar
contracture or excess scar tissue ( )
5) Adiposity is accumulation of fat inside adipose tissue ( )
6) Sinus is opened track between two surfaces ( )
7) In essential hypertension the left ventricle shows metaplasia ( )
8) Apoptosis is programmed cell death ( )
9) Apoptosis always associated with inflammatory response ( )
16) Cellulitis is a kind of localized suppurative inflammation ( )
11) Exudate is inflammatory fluid in the interstitium ( )
12) Autolysis is tissue death during life ( )

13) Prostaglandin F2α is responsible for chemotaxis ( )
14) Bradykinin is derived from plasma high molecular weight kininogen (
)
15) Membrane phospholipids are the depot of prostaglandins and
leukotriens ( )
16) Inflammatory process in uterine cervix (cervicitis) may cause abortion
of pregnant female due to elaboration of PGE2 ( )
17) The most common type of tissue injury is due to oxygen lake ( )
18) Fatty change – alcohol ( )
19) Free radicals - cell membrane damage ( )
26) Idiopathic - cause unknown ( )
21) Pathogenesis - direct cause of disease ( )
22) Congenital - present at birth ( )
23) Prognosis - likely disease outcome ( )
24) Aetiology - mechanism of disease production ( )
25) Symptoms - features of an illness that the patient notices ( )
26) Tiredness - clinical sign ( )
27) High blood pressure - clinical sign ( )
28) Metaplasia - precancerous lesion ( )
29) Interleukin-1 (IL-1) – fever ( )
36) Cellulitis is inflammation of cells ( )
Innumerate cardinal signs of inflammation (5 marks)?

1- 3- 5-
2- 4-
Give a short note on types of pathological specimens and how to deal them (15
marks)?
Questions 1-3: Read carefully the clinical case and select one
appropriate answer (1 mark for each):
13- A 56-year-old man has noted passing darker urine for the past week. On
physical examination there are no abnormal findings. A urinalysis shows 2+
blood, no protein, and no glucose. A urine cytology is performed and there are
atypical uroepithelial cells seen. A urologist performs a cystoscopy, but no
mucosal lesions are noted. He has a 66 pack year history of smoking cigarettes.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A- Adenocarcinoma of prostate
B- Urothelial carcinoma of renal pelvis
C- Acute interstitial nephritis
D- Nodular glomerulosclerosis
E- Squamous cell carcinoma of penis
14- A 72-year-old man has been feeling tired and lethargic for 5 months. He has
noted increasing hesitancy with urination. On physical examination his prostate
is diffusely enlarged. Laboratory studies show creatinine 1.9 mg/dL, and glucose
81 mg/dL.
Which of the following renal abnormalities is most likely to be present in this man?
A- Cortical atrophy
B- Glomerulonephritis
C- Papillary necrosis
D- Polycystic changes
E- Renal cell carcinoma
15- A 56-year-old man with diabetes mellitus. He has an increasing serum urea
nitrogen and a urinalysis shows sp gr 1.612, pH 6.5, 1+ protein, no blood, 1+
glucose, negative leukocyte esterase, negative nitrite, and no ketones.
Which of the following renal diseases is he most likely to have?
A- Nodular glomerulosclerosis
B- Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis
D- Crescentic glomerulonephritis
E- Pyelonephritis
Questions 4-9 : Select one answer of the following (5.5 mark for each):
16- The most common features of nephritic syndrome include the folloing except:
A- heavy proteinuria B- Hypertension
C- Oliguria D- Microscopic hematuria
17- The most common form of glomerulonephritis (GN) in adults is:
A- Minimal change disease B- Membranous GN
B- Membranoproliferative GN C- Focal segmental GN
18- Acute post-streptococcal GN is characterized by proteinuria of:
A- Selective B- Non-selective
C- Albuminuria only D- Low molecular weight only
19- The most common and most severe form of lupus nephritis is:
A- Mesangeal lupus nephritis B- Focal segmental lupus nephritis
C- Diffuse proliferative GN D- Membranous GN
26- The following type of renal calculi are infection-induced:
12- Calcium oxalate C- Struvite
13- Uric acid D- Calcium phosphate
21- All are true about prostatic carcinoma except:
e. We use Gleason system for staging
f. Prostatic specific antigen is important for diagnosis and follow up
g. Serum acid phosphatase increased
h. Produce osteosclerotic boney metastasis
i. Mostly originate from the peripheral part of prostate.
Question 15: Enumerate the pathological lesions in the kidney that can be seen
in patient with diabetes mellitus. (3 marks)
1- A 50-year-old man has noted passing darker urine for the past week. On
2- A 72-year-old man has been feeling tired and lethargic for 5 months. He has
noted increasing hesitancy with urination. On physical examination his prostate is
diffusely enlarged. Laboratory studies show creatinine 119 mg/dL, and glucose 81
mg/dL.
A- Cortical atrophy
3- A 50-year-old man with diabetes mellitus. He has an increasing serum urea

nitrogen and a urinalysis shows sp gr 11012, pH 615, 1+ protein, no blood, 1+
E- Pyelonephritis
A- Calcium oxalate C- Struvite
B- Uric acid D- Calcium phosphate
A- We use Gleason system for staging
B- Prostatic specific antigen is important for diagnosis and follow up
C- Serum acid phosphatase increased
D- Produce osteosclerotic boney metastasis
E- Mostly originate from the peripheral part of prostate.
10-A 50-year-old man has noted passing darker urine for the past week. On
11-A 72-year-old man has been feeling tired and lethargic for 5 months. He has
noted increasing hesitancy with urination. On physical examination his prostate is
diffusely enlarged. Laboratory studies show creatinine 119 mg/dL, and glucose 81
mg/dL.
A- Cortical atrophy
12-A 50-year-old man with diabetes mellitus. He has an increasing serum urea
nitrogen and a urinalysis shows sp gr 11012, pH 615, 1+ protein, no blood, 1+
E- Pyelonephritis
C- Calcium oxalate C- Struvite
D- Uric acid D- Calcium phosphate
F-We use Gleason system for staging
G- Prostatic specific antigen is important for diagnosis and follow up
H- Serum acid phosphatase increased
I- Produce osteosclerotic boney metastasis
J- Mostly originate from the peripheral part of prostate.
The fate of acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis is usually
a) Development of chronic glomerulonephritis
b) Development of membranous glomerulonephritis
c) Development of lobular glomerulonephritis
d) Development of sub acute glomerulonephritis
e) Complete recovery
Pathology exam Genitourinary system

I- Select the most appropriate answer (1 mark for each selection):
1- A 55-year-old man has developed progressive renal failure for the past 5
years. Microscopic examination of a renal biopsy shows extensive glomerular
and vascular deposition of pink amorphous material on H&E staining. This
material demonstrates apple-green birefringence under polarized light after
Congo red staining. Immunohistochemical staining of these deposits is
positive for lambda light chains. Which of the following conditions is most
likely to be present in this man?
a. Rheumatoid arthritis d- Tuberculosis
b. Alzheimer disease e- Multiple myeloma
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus
2- A 9-year-old boy has a sore throat. A throat culture grows group A hemolytic
streptococcus. He receives antibiotic therapy. However, 17 days later he
develops dark-colored urine. Laboratory studies show 3+ blood on urinalysis.
A renal biopsy is performed. On immunofluorescence staining the biopsy
shows granular deposition of IgG and complement around glomerular
capillary loops. Which of the following immune hypersensitivity mechanisms
is most likely responsible for this pattern of findings?
a. Type I c- Type III
b. Type II d- Type IV
3- A 55-year-old woman has had increasing difficulty with swallowing over the
past year. On physical examination her blood pressure is 210/110 mm Hg.
Laboratory testing reveals a positive antinuclear antibody test with a nucleolar
pattern on immunofluorescence. Her serum complement levels are normal.
Which of the following lesions is most likely to be seen in her kidneys with
renal biopsy?
a. Renal cell carcinoma d- Nodular glomerulosclerosis
b. Acute glomerulonephritis e- Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis
c. Polycystic change
II- Select the most appropriate answer (5.5 mark for each):
1- Hematuria is least likely to occur in:
a. Renal cell carcinoma
b. Transitional cell carcinoma of renal pelvis and ureter
c. Acute post infectious glomerulonephritis
d. Urine lithiasis
e. Minimal change glomerulonephritis
2- In polycystic kidney which of the following is false:
a. It is familial disease e. Enlarged kidneys
b. The renal involvement is occasional unilateral
c. The disease is usually asymptomatic until early adult or middle life
d. Renal failure late in the course
3- Which of the following is not a feature of Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease?
a. Occurs in diabetes e. Nodular glomerulosclerosis
b. Hyalinization of efferent arteriole
c. Thickened basement membrane
d. Subepithelial glomerular deposits
4- The most characteristic feature of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is
a. Crescent formation d. Hyaline nodules
b. Sub-epithelial dense deposits e. Wire-loop lesions
c. Thickened capillary loops
5- Nephritic edema differs from nephritic edema in having:

a. Mild edema c. Distributed on face and eyes
b. Heavy proteinuria d. Occurs in acute glomerulonephritis
6- Which of the following conditions does not predispose to urolithiasis?
a. Hydronephrosis c. Chronic pyelonephritis
b. Hypercalcemia d. Hydrocele e. cystitis
III- Write short notes on the following: the answer on the question paper!
7- Classification of testicular tumors and discuss one of them.
8- Genitourinary TB?
Pathology exam GIT course

I- Encircle the single most appropriate answer in each of the
following (6.5 mark for each):
1- Which of the following tumors occurs almost exclusively in parotid gland.
a. Pleomorphic adenoma c. Warthin's tumor
b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma d. Myoepithelioma
2- The most common malignancy of appendix is:
a. Carcinoid c. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
b. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) d. Squamous cell carcinoma
3- The most common lymphoma in small intestine is:
a. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (MALT oma). c. Burkitt's lymphoma
b. Hodgkin's lymphoma mixed cellularity d. Adenocarcinoma
4- The most common site of peptic ulcer is:
a. Esophagus b. Stomach c. Duodenum d. Meckel's diverticulum.
5- All are true about hepatointestinal bilharziasis except:
a. Bilharizal colonic polyps are common c. It cause periportal fibrosis
b. Bilharzial polyps are precancerous lesions d. Huge spleen is common.
6- A 55 year old woman with anemia is found to have a decreased Vitamin B12 level.
Antibodies to intrinsic factor are identified. Levels of all other vitamins are within
normal limits. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this
condition?
a. Duodenal ulcer c. Ulcerative colitis e. Angiodysplasia
b. Dietary Vit. B12 deficiency d. Atrophic gastritis
5- Which of the following is a major predisposing factor for the development of
pseudomembranous colitis?
a. Young age c. Malnutrition e. Antibiotic use
b. Refined diet d. Obesity
8- Classic lesion of crohns disease is
a. Skip lesion c. Flask shaped ulcer e. Pseudopolyps
b. Crypt abscess d. Macrophages laden lamina propria
II- Discuss the pathology of chronic hepatitis (3 marks).
General Pathology Examination (Part 2)

III- Choose the most appropriate answer (one selection only 2 marks
for each):
1- Hematoma is:
a. A benign tumor of blood c- Malignant tumor of blood
b. A granuloma d- Type of hemorrhage
2- In autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the following type of immunological injury
happens is:
a. Type I (anaphylactic) c- Type III (immune complex)
b. d- type IV (cell mediated) d- Type II (cytotoxic)
3- Grave's disease is a type of:
a. Type I reaction c- Type III reaction
b. Type II reaction d- Type IV reaction
4- Hematoxylin body in SL cell represent
a. Nuclear chromatin material c- Cytosolic components
b. c- RNA d- Cell membrane components
5- Male infant suffering from recurrent bacterial infection (pneumonia). He most
likely to have:
a. DiGeorge syndrome c- Acute leukemia
b. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection d- X-linked agammaglobulinemia
6- A 23 year old male eats sunfish and develops itching and diarrhea after an
hour. The condition continuo for 3 hours then disappeared. Which of the
following immunologic abnormalities is she most likely to have?
a. Localized anaphylaxis d- Immune complex deposition
b. Release of complement C3b e- Hypergammaglobulinemia
c. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
7- The essential difference between plasma and interstitial component is:
a. Glucose is higher in plasma c- Urea is higher in plasma
b. Protein is higher in plasma d- Potassium is higher in plasma
8- The causation of edema by decreased osmotic pressure, the following factor is
most important:
a. Fall in albumin as well as globulin c- Fall in globulin level
b. Fall in albumin level d- Fall in fibrinogen level
9- Transudate differ from exudate in having the following except:
a. No inflammatory cells c- Low protein content
b. Low glucose content d- Low specific gravity
10- Active hyperemia is the result of:
a. Dilatation of capillaries c- Venous engorgement
b. Dilatation of arterioles d- Lymphatic obstruction
11- Section surface of the lung shows brown induration in

a. Pulmonary hemorrhage c- Pulmonary embolism
b. Chronic venous congestion of lung d- Pulmonary infarction
12- The most common source of arterial thromboembolism is
a. Aortic atherosclerosis c- Aortic aneurysm
b. Cardiac thrombi d- Pulmonary veins
13- Venous emboli are most often lodged in:
a. Intestines c- Lungs
b. Kidneys d- Heart
14- The infarct of the following organ is invariably hemorrhagic
a. Kidney infarct c- Lung infarct
b. Cardiac infarct d- Spleen infarct
15- Pick the correct sequence:
a. Rennin- Angiotensinogen - Angiotensin I – Angiotensin II –
Aldosterone
b. Angiotensin I – Rennin - Angiotensin II – Angiotensinogen –
Aldosterone
c. Rennin- Angiotensin I – Angiotensin II – Angiotensinogen –
Aldosterone
d. Angiotensin I – Angiotensin II – Angiotensinogen – Rennin-
Aldosterone
16- Tubercle bacilli cause lesions by the folloing mechanisms:
a. Elaboration of exotoxin c- Elaboration of endotoxin
b. Type IV hypersensitivity d- Direct cytotoxicity
17- Hamartoma refers to:
a. Tumor arising from totipotential cells
b. Mass of disorganized but mature cells indigenous to the part
c. Tumor differentiating towards more than one cell line
d. Mass of ectopic rests of normal tissue
18- Grading of tumors depends upon the following except:
a. Metastatic spread c- Degree of anaplasia
b. Rate of growth of cells d- Degree of differentiation
19- Which of the following viruses is not implicated to produce any human tumor?
a. EBV c- HSV
b. HTLV d- Polyoma virus
20- A 54-year-old woman goes to her physician because she has noted that during
the past month her fingers become pale and painful upon exposure to
cold. Which of the following autoimmune diseases is she most likely to have?
a. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) c- Lupus erythematosus (LE)
b. Scleroderma d- Polymyositis-dermatomyositis
c. Sjogren's syndrome (SS)
IV- Mark (T) for true statement and (F) for false one in between
brackets (5.5 mark for each):
1- melanoma is a malignant tumor of melanocytes ( )
2- teratoma is a neoplasm differentiating to the components of the three germ cell
layers (endoderm, ectoderm and mesoderm) ( )
3- Ghon's focus represent the main pathological lesion in secondary pulmonary
TB ( )
4- Cellulitis usually caused by B-hemolytic streptococci ( )
5- lymphoma is a benign tumor of lymph nodes ( )
6- basal cell carcinoma is a malignant skin neoplasm which can metastasize ( )
7- Neuroblastoma usually occurs in infants and children ( )
8- Hemangioma is a benign tumor of red blood cells ( )
9- Granuloma is a benign tumor of histiocytes ( )
10- Septicemia is the presence of small number of virulent bacteria in the blood ( )
V- Write a short assay on (5 marks for each): please answer in question

paper
1- Fate of thrombus in deep veins of the calf.
2- Tumor spread
3- Primary TB complex
Pathology exam Genitourinary system

IV- Select the most appropriate answer (1 mark for each selection):
4- A 55-year-old man has developed progressive renal failure for the past 5
years. Microscopic examination of a renal biopsy shows extensive glomerular
and vascular deposition of pink amorphous material on H&E staining. This
material demonstrates apple-green birefringence under polarized light after
Congo red staining. Immunohistochemical staining of these deposits is
positive for lambda light chains. Which of the following conditions is most
likely to be present in this man?
a. Rheumatoid arthritis d- Tuberculosis
b. Alzheimer disease e- Multiple myeloma
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus
5- A 9-year-old boy has a sore throat. A throat culture grows group A hemolytic
streptococcus. He receives antibiotic therapy. However, 17 days later he
develops dark-colored urine. Laboratory studies show 3+ blood on urinalysis.
A renal biopsy is performed. On immunofluorescence staining the biopsy
shows granular deposition of IgG and complement around glomerular
capillary loops. Which of the following immune hypersensitivity mechanisms
is most likely responsible for this pattern of findings?
a. Type I c- Type III
b. Type II d- Type IV
6- A 55-year-old woman has had increasing difficulty with swallowing over the
past year. On physical examination her blood pressure is 210/110 mm Hg.
Laboratory testing reveals a positive antinuclear antibody test with a nucleolar
pattern on immunofluorescence. Her serum complement levels are normal.
Which of the following lesions is most likely to be seen in her kidneys with
renal biopsy?
a. Renal cell carcinoma d- Nodular glomerulosclerosis
b. Acute glomerulonephritis e- Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis
c. Polycystic change
V- Select the most appropriate answer (5.5 mark for each):
9- Hematuria is least likely to occur in:
a. Renal cell carcinoma
b. Transitional cell carcinoma of renal pelvis and ureter
c. Acute post infectious glomerulonephritis
d. Urine lithiasis
e. Minimal change glomerulonephritis
10- In polycystic kidney which of the following is false:
a. It is familial disease e. Enlarged kidneys
b. The renal involvement is occasional unilateral
c. The disease is usually asymptomatic until early adult or middle life
d. Renal failure late in the course
11- Which of the following is not a feature of Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease?
a. Occurs in diabetes e. Nodular glomerulosclerosis
b. Hyalinization of efferent arteriole
c. Thickened basement membrane
d. Subepithelial glomerular deposits
12- The most characteristic feature of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is
a. Crescent formation d. Hyaline nodules
b. Sub-epithelial dense deposits e. Wire-loop lesions
c. Thickened capillary loops
13- Nephritic edema differs from nephritic edema in having:
a. Mild edema c. Distributed on face and eyes
b. Heavy proteinuria d. Occurs in acute glomerulonephritis
14- Which of the following conditions does not predispose to urolithiasis?
a. Hydronephrosis c. Chronic pyelonephritis
b. Hypercalcemia d. Hydrocele e. cystitis
VI- Write short notes on the following: the answer on the question paper!
15- Classification of testicular tumors and discuss one of them.
16- Genitourinary TB?

VI- Encircle the single most appropriate answer in each of the
1- Duke's staging system is used for :
a. Cancer stomach c. Cancer tongue
b. Cancer colon d. Cancer esophagus
2- Multiple gut ulcerations is associated with which of the following disorders:
a. Peutz Jegher's c. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
syndrome d. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
b. Turcott's syndrome
3- All are true about celiac disease except:
b. Gluten hypersensitivity d. The duodenal villi are flat
c. The patient is presented by on histology
malabsorption e. It is a chronic
granulomatous disease.
a. Entropathic associated
lymphoma is a complication
4- The type of carcinoma associated with Barrett's esophagus is:
a. Adenocarcinoma d. Epidermoid carcinoma
b. Squamous cell e. Mucoepidermoid
carcinoma carcinoma
c. Malignant lymphoma f. Small cell carcinoma
5- The development of peptic ulceration associated with all of the following except:
c. Caffeine c. H. pylori
d. Mallory-Weiss syndrome a. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
e. Alcohol b. Asprin
6- Which of the following have malignant potential for colon cancer:
a. Leiomyoma c. Hamartomatous polyp
b. Adenomatous polyp d. Juvenile (retention) polyp
5- In which of the following disorders there is an increased risk for cancer colon:
a. Granulomatous disease of
colon
b. Peri rectal abscess and
fistula.
c. Chronic ulcerative colitis
d. Chronic diverticulitis
e. Peutz Jegher's syndrome
8- Segmoidoscopy will reveal what typical findings in patient with Crohn's disease:
a. Sheets of white blood cells with inflammaed mucosa c. Fungating mass
b. Mucosal ulcers and fissures adjacent to normal- d. Psedopolyps

appearing mucosa.
VII- Very short assay about the fate of acute viral hepatitis C?

VIII- Encircle the single most appropriate answer in each of the
9- The most common malignancy of appendix is:
a. Carcinoid c. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
b. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) d. Squamous cell carcinoma
15- The most common lymphoma in small intestine is:
a. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (MALT oma). c. Burkitt's lymphoma
b. Hodgkin's lymphoma mixed cellularity d. Adenocarcinoma
11- The most common site of peptic ulcer is:
a. Esophagus b. Stomach c. Duodenum d. Meckel's diverticulum.
12- All are true about hepatointestinal bilharziasis except:
a. Bilharizal colonic polyps are common c. It cause periportal fibrosis
b. Bilharzial polyps are precancerous lesions d. Huge spleen is common.
13- A 55 year old woman with anemia is found to have a decreased Vitamin B12 level.
Antibodies to intrinsic factor are identified. Levels of all other vitamins are within
normal limits. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this
condition?
a. Duodenal ulcer c. Ulcerative colitis e. Angiodysplasia
b. Dietary Vit. B12 deficiency d. Atrophic gastritis
14- Which of the following is a major predisposing factor for the development of
pseudomembranous colitis?
a. Young age c. Malnutrition e. Antibiotic use
b. Refined diet d. Obesity
15- Classic lesion of crohns disease is
a. Skip lesion c. Flask shaped ulcer e. Pseudopolyps
b. Crypt abscess d. Macrophages laden lamina propria
IX- Discuss the pathology of chronic hepatitis (3 marks).
X- Encircle the single most appropriate answer in each of the
16- Esophageal webs have the following features except:
a. They are located at the lower esophagus
b. They are associated with dysphagia
c. They are associated with chronic atrophic glossitis
d. They are associated with iron deficiency anemia

15- Barrett's esophagus is:
a. Congenital anomaly
b. Inflammatory disease
c. Metaplastic process
d. Neoplastic lesion
18- Barrett's esophagus predisposes to development of:
a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Esophageal varices
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Adenocarcinoma
19- The following features characterized ulcerative colitis except:
a. Formation of crypt abscess and cryptitis
b. Superficial mucosal ulceration
c. Depletion of goblet cells
d. Stricture formation in chronic cases.
25- Tuberculous ulcers in bowel have the following features except:
a. They begin in Peyer's patches
b. The are transverse to the long axis
c. Advanced cases may cause intestinal obstruction
d. Often cause intestinal perforation
21- The following type of colorectal polyps has highest malignant transformation:
a. Hyperplastic polyp
b. Adenomatous plyp
c. Villous adenoma
d. Tubulovillous adenoma
XI- Discuss the pathology of peptic ulcer?
XII- Inumerate the pathological lesions of hepatointestinal
bilharziasis?

XIII- Encircle the single most appropriate answer in each of the
c. Cancer stomach e. Cancer tongue

d. Cancer colon f. Cancer esophagus
c. Peutz Jegher's e. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
syndrome f. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
d. Turcott's syndrome
e. Gluten hypersensitivity f. The duodenal villi are flat
f. The patient is presented by on histology
malabsorption g. It is a chronic
d. Entropathic associated
d. Adenocarcinoma g. Epidermoid carcinoma
e. Squamous cell h. Mucoepidermoid
carcinoma carcinoma
f. Malignant lymphoma i. Small cell carcinoma
h. Caffeine d. H. pylori
i. Mallory-Weiss syndrome f. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
j. Alcohol g. Asprin
c. Leiomyoma e. Hamartomatous polyp
d. Adenomatous polyp f. Juvenile (retention) polyp
colon
fistula.

appearing mucosa.
XIV- Very short assay about the fate of acute viral hepatitis C?
XV- Encircle the single most appropriate answer in each of the

d. Adenocarcinoma
26- Typhoid ulcers in bowel have the following features except:
c. Usually occurs in the 3rd or 4th week.
b. Adenomatous plyp
c. Villous adenoma
XVI- Discuss the pathology of colonic carcinoma.
XVII- Discuss Barrett's esophagus.

XVIII- Encircle the single most appropriate answer in each of the
d. Adenocarcinoma
b. Adenomatous plyp
c. Villous adenoma
XIX- Discuss the pathology of peptic ulcer?
XX- Inumerate the pathological lesions of hepatointestinal
bilharziasis?

I- Encircle the single most appropriate answer in each of the
j. Esophageal webs have the following features except:
k. Barrett's esophagus is:
e. Congenital anomaly
f. Inflammatory disease
g. Metaplastic process
h. Neoplastic lesion
l. Barrett's esophagus predisposes to development of:
i. Reflux esophagitis
j. Esophageal varices
k. Squamous cell carcinoma
l. Adenocarcinoma
m. The following features characterized ulcerative colitis except:
m. Formation of crypt abscess and cryptitis
n. Superficial mucosal ulceration
o. Depletion of goblet cells
p. Stricture formation in chronic cases.
n. Typhoid ulcers in bowel have the following features except:
q. They begin in Peyer's patches
r. The are transverse to the long axis
s. Usually occurs in the 3rd or 4th week.
t. Often cause intestinal perforation
o. The following type of colorectal polyps has highest malignant transformation:
u. Hyperplastic polyp
v. Adenomatous plyp
w. Villous adenoma
x. Tubulovillous adenoma
II- Discuss the pathology of colonic carcinoma.
III- Discuss Barrett's esophagus.

XXI- Encircle the single most appropriate answer in each of the

d. Adenocarcinoma
38- Typhoid ulcers in bowel have the following features except:
c. Usually occurs in the 3rd or 4th week.
b. Adenomatous plyp
c. Villous adenoma
XXII- Discuss the pathology of colonic carcinoma.
XXIII- Discuss Barrett's esophagus.

XXIV- Encircle the single most appropriate answer in each of the
d. Adenocarcinoma
b. Adenomatous plyp
c. Villous adenoma
XXV- Discuss the pathology of peptic ulcer?
XXVI- Inumerate the pathological lesions of hepatointestinal
bilharziasis?

XXVII- Encircle the single most appropriate answer in each of the
e. Cancer stomach g. Cancer tongue
f. Cancer colon h. Cancer esophagus
e. Peutz Jegher's g. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
syndrome h. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
f. Turcott's syndrome
g. Entropathic associated h. The duodenal villi are flat
lymphoma is a complication on histology
h. Gluten hypersensitivity i. It is a chronic
malabsorption i. The patient is presented by

g. Adenocarcinoma j. Epidermoid carcinoma
h. Squamous cell k. Mucoepidermoid
carcinoma carcinoma
i. Malignant lymphoma l. Small cell carcinoma
m. Caffeine e. H. pylori
n. Mallory-Weiss syndrome k. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
o. Alcohol l. Asprin
e. Leiomyoma g. Hamartomatous polyp
f. Adenomatous polyp h. Juvenile (retention) polyp
colon
fistula.

appearing mucosa.
XXVIII- Very short assay about the fate of acute viral hepatitis C?

XXIX- Encircle the single most appropriate answer in each of the
g. Cancer stomach i. Cancer tongue
h. Cancer colon j. Cancer esophagus
g. Peutz Jegher's i. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
syndrome j. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
h. Turcott's syndrome
k. Gluten hypersensitivity j. The duodenal villi are flat
l. The patient is presented by on histology
malabsorption k. It is a chronic
j. Entropathic associated
j. Adenocarcinoma m. Epidermoid carcinoma
k. Squamous cell n. Mucoepidermoid
carcinoma carcinoma
l. Malignant lymphoma o. Small cell carcinoma
r. Caffeine f. H. pylori
s. Mallory-Weiss syndrome p. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
t. Alcohol q. Asprin
g. Leiomyoma i. Hamartomatous polyp
h. Adenomatous polyp j. Juvenile (retention) polyp
c. Chronic ulcerative colitis a. Granulomatous disease of
d. Chronic diverticulitis colon
e. Peutz Jegher's syndrome b. Peri rectal abscess and
fistula.
Cardiovascular Exam, 2nd year Pathology

appearing mucosa.
XXX- Very short assay about the fate of acute viral hepatitis C?
3) Essential features of nephrotic syndrome includes all except

Increased Urinary excreti
Hypoalbuminemia
c) Peripheral edema
d) Decreased serum cholesterol
1. A 7 year old child presents with hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia, and

proteinuria. The edema is in the periorbital region initially and eventually spreads to the
rest of the body. The patient is given steroid therapy and the disease goes away. What
is a key morphological feature of the patients disease?
A.Fusion of the foot processes
B.Destruction of the basement membrane
C.Destruction of the glomerulus
D.Hemosiderin laden macrophages in the kidney
E.None of the above
2. A patient presents with symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. The disease is immune

complex mediated and is known to create an increase in glomerular basement
membrane size. IgG and C3 levels are deposited on subepithelial side of the basement
membrane. Which of the following would best describe the morphology of the disease?
A.Proliferation of new basement membrane between complexes
B.spike and Hair-comb pattern
C.infiltration of the area with lymphocytes
D.A and B
E.B only
7. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is a group of disorders associated with severe

oliguria and death from renal failure within weeks and is commonly associated with _
formation
Obstructive uropathy will cause dilation of renal pelvises and calyses also known
as –
2.Hematuria is least likely to occur in:

A. papillary transitional cell carcinoma of renal pelvis, ureter or bladder
B. renal tubular adenocarcinoma
C. acute post-infectious glomerulonephritis
D. urinary lithiasis
E. minimal change disease
36
4.Red cell casts in the urine would be compatible with:

A. a ureteral calculus
B. a transitional cell carcinoma of the renal pelvis
C. anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody induced renal lesion
D. a foreign body in the urinary bladder
8.Typical features of adult polycystic kidney disease include:

A. involvement of both kidneys
B. autosomal dominant inheritance
C. enlarged kidneys
D. cysts in the liver
E. all of the above
18.Each of the following is true of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

except:
A. becomes rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis in 56: of children
B. is a proliferative glomerulonephritis
C. preceded by infective episode
D. shows dome-shaped subepithelial humps
E. usually affects children
19.The majority of patients with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:

A. die from congestive heart failure in a few weeks
B. die from renal failure in a few weeks
C. pass through a latent period but eventually develop chronic glomerulonephritis
D. progress through subacute phase to chronic glomerulonephritis
E. recover completely
26.Which is not a feature of Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease?

A. occurs in diabetes
B. nodular glomerulosclerosis
C. hyalinization of efferent arteriole
D. subepithelial glomerular deposits
E. thickened basement membrane
22.Membranous glomerulopathy and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are

similar in
that they both:
A. are self-limiting and transient renal diseases
B. are commonly associated with the nephrotic syndrome
C. are most commonly seen in children
D. have glomerular immune complex deposits
37
E. occur most frequently following an infectious disease
24.A patient with hemoptysis and renal failure has a renal biopsy which reveals
crescentic
proliferative glomerulonephritis. Immunofluorescence reveals linear deposits of IgG
and
C3. The diagnosis is:
A. acute post-infectious glomerulonephrities
B. membranous nephropathy
C. Goodpasture’s syndrome
D. minimal change disease
25.The most characteristic feature of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is

A. crescent formation
B. hyaline nodules
C. sub-epithelial dense deposits
D. thickened capillary loops
E. wire-loop lesions
31.A patient with minimal change disease is least likely to have:

A. hypoproteinemia
B. edema
C. massive albuminuria
D. hypertension
E. hyperlipemia
6.Which testicular tumor is most likely to contain a variety of tissue patterns?

A. seminoma
B. interstitial cell tumor
C. embryonal carcinoma
D. teratocarcinoma
E. choriocarcinoma
7.Production of gonadotropins is most characteristic of:

A. adenocarcinoma of the prostate
B. seminoma of the testis
C. embryonal carcinoma of the testis
D. choriocarcinoma of the testis
E. teratoma of the testis
38
12.Painless enlargement of the testis without involvement of the epididymis is most

characteristic of:
A. torsion of the testis
B. germ cell tumor
C. hydrocele
D. spermatocele
E. orchitis
14.The most frequent cause of urinary obstruction in the male is:

A. benign prostatic hypertrophy
B. carcinoma of prostate
C. staghorn calculus
D. hydronephrosis
E. pyelonephritis
Pathophysiology exam
III. Define the following
1) Embolus (3 marks)
2) Dementia (3 marks)
3) Epilepsy (2 marks)
4) Septicemia (3 marks)
5) Seizure (2 marks)
6) Stroke (2 marks)
7) Coma (2 marks)
IV. Select the appropriate answer of the following (1 mark for each question):
1) A patient did a urinary catheter and developed pyogenic arthritis in knee
joint. The underlying mechanism of his knee joint infection is:
a. Toxemia
b. Bacteremia
c. Viremia
d. Acute renal failure.
2) A patient with CML develops thrombosis because of all except:
a. Slow circulation
b. Abnormal blood vessels
39
c. Abnormal blood constituents

d. High blood viscosity
3) A patient considered having AIDS if has:
a. Absolute lymphocyte count in blood less than 266/ cmm
b. WBCs count less than 1666/ cmm
c. Absolute T-helper cell count in lymph nodes less than 266/ cmm
d. HIV infection
4) Esophageal varices in bilharzial patient is caused by:
a. Splenomegally
b. Bilharzial worms
c. Portal hypertension
d. Liver Failure
5) Hyperuricemia and gout in leukemic patient is due to
a. Increased intake of proteins
b. Tumor lysis
c. Infiltration of the liver by leukemic cells
d. Increased vitamin B12
6) A patient develops and attack of convulsion in one side of the body and he is
not aware of surroundings (loss of consciousness) . This patient has:

a. Coma
b. Epilepsy
c. Complex partial seizures
d. Encephalopathy
7) One of the following is not appropriate in treatment of asthma:
a. Corticosteroids (Hydrocotizone)
b. Mucolytics
c. NSAIDs like Ibubrufen
d. Bronchodilators (salbutamol)
8) The most common cause of acute renal failure is:
a. Renal stones
b. Acute glomerulonephritis
c. Hepatic failure
d. Shock
40
9) A male child 9 year-old with temporary repeated attack of loss of

consciousness without falling the ground and without any muscular
contractions. This patient is most likely to have:
a. Dementia
b. Grand mal epilepsy
c. Partial complex seizures
d. Absence seizures
16) All are complications of Grand mal epilepsy except:
a. Acute heart failure
b. Status epilepticus
c. Acute renal failure
d. Diabetic ketoacidosis
11) All are true about the pathological process occurring in Parkinsonism except:
a. Free radical injury.
b. Abnormal protein in dopaminergic cells
c. Hyperplasia of dopamine secreting cells as well as acetyl cholin
d. Increase apoptosis of cells in the substantia nigra.
12) Death of an area of the brain characterizes:
a. Coma
b. Stroke
c. Dementia
d. Epilepsy
13) Abnormal protein seen in parkinsonism called:
a. Amyloid A
b. Amyloid B
c. Neurofibrillary tangels
d. Lewy body
14) Which is characterized TB granuloma
a. Epithelioid cells
b. Lymphocytes
c. Caseation necrosis
d. Plasma cells
15) The pathologic lesions in TB are due to combination of:
a. Immunity and hypersensitivity
41
b. Immunity only
c. Bacterial enzymes
d. Type III hypersensitivity
16) The idea of vaccination of many disease like measles after 6-9 months and
not directly after birth, because:
a. These disease have cellular immunity
b. The period of 6-9 months is enough for passive immunity to finish
c. Immunity of viral disease depend on secretory immunoglobulin (IgA)
that cross placenta.
d. Measles before 9 months is rare.
17) The strategy in TB treatment should take long course based on all except:
a. TB bacilli usually resist antituberculous drugs
b. TB bacilli are intracellular organisms
c. Anti-TB cant not pass the caseous material to kill TB bacilli
d. To allow organization and fibrosis of the caseous material.
18) Patient have dementia then develops muscle rigidity, bradykinesia and
static tremors. This patient has:
a. Parkinsonism
b. Huntington's chorea
c. Lewy disease
d. Alzheimer's disease
19) Patient have dementia and develops abnormal involuntary jerky dance-like
movements. This patient has:
a. Rheumatic chrorea
c. Myoclonic epilepsy
26) The mechanism of immatinib in leukemia treatment:
a. Free radical formation
b. Inhibit Bcr-Abl tyrosin kinase
c. Activation of perforin and granzyme B
d. Inhibit reverse transcriptase enzyme
V. Pathophysiology of seizures (15 marks).

VI. Stages of HIV infection (13 mark)
42
I. Define the following
1) Thrombus (3 marks)
2) Dementia (3 marks)
3) Partial complex seizures (2 marks)
4) Pyemia (3 marks)
5) Seizure (2marks)
6) Stroke (2 marks)
7) Shock (2 marks)
II. Select the appropriate answer of the following (1 marks for each question):
1) A patient did a urinary catheter and developed pyogenic arthritis in knee
joint. The underlying mechanism of his knee joint infection is:
a. Toxemia
b. Bacteremia
c. Viremia
d. Acute renal failure.
2) A hypertensive patient develops thrombosis in his carotid arteries. All the
following mechanisms contributes to thrombus formation are applied
except:
a. Slow circulation
c. Turbulent blood flow
d. Carotid artery stenosis
3) Primary TB is all except:
a. TB infection for the first time
b. TB in non-immune patient
c. Reactivation TB
d. No previous vaccination
4) The mechanisms for developing hepatic encephalopathy in bilharzial
periportal fibrosis are all except:
a. Fatty change
b. Portosystemic shunt
c. Ammonia overproduction
d. Bleeding esophageal varices
43
5) Hyperuricemia and gout in leukemic patient is due to

p. Increased intake of proteins
q. Tumor lysis
r. Infiltration of the liver by leukemic cells
s. Increased vitamin B12
6) A patient develops and attack of convulsion in one side of the body and he is
not aware of surroundings (loss of consciousness) . This patient has:

a. Coma
b. Epilepsy
c. Complex partial seizures
d. Encephalopathy
7) One of the following is not appropriate in treatment of asthma:
a. Corticosteroids (Hydrocotizone)
b. Mucolytics
c. NSAIDs like Ibubrufen
d. Bronchodilators (salbutamol)
8) The most common cause of acute renal failure is:
14- Renal stones
15- Acute glomerulonephritis
16- Hepatic failure
17- Shock
9) A male child 9 year-old with temporary repeated attack of loss of
consciousness without falling the ground and without any muscular
contractions. This patient is most likely to have:
a. Dementia
b. Grand mal epilepsy
c. Partial complex seizures
d. Absence seizures
16) In Parkinsonism. All are true except:
a. Increase in dopamine secreting cells
b. Affection mostly involve substantia nigra
c. Affects the extrapyramidal tract
d. Usually over 56 year-old.
11) The clinical picture of parkinsonism includes all except:
44
a. Rigidity of muscles
b. Dance like movements
c. Bradykinesia
d. Static tremors.
12) Death of an area of the brain characterizes:
a. Coma
b. Stroke
c. Dementia
d. Epilepsy
13) Abnormal protein seen in parkinsonism called:
a. Amyloid A
b. Amyloid B
c. Neurofibrillary tangels
d. Lewy body
14) Which is characterized TB granuloma
a. Epithelioid cells
b. Lymphocytes
c. Caseation necrosis
d. Plasma cells
15) The pathologic lesions in TB are due to combination of:
a. Immunity and hypersensitivity
b. Immunity only
c. Bacterial enzymes
d. Type III hypersensitivity
16) The idea of vaccination of many disease like measles after 6-9 months and
not directly after birth, because:
a. These disease have cellular immunity
b. The period of 6-9 months is enough for passive immunity to finish
c. Immunity of viral disease depend on secretory immunoglobulin (IgA)
that cross placenta.
d. Measles before 9 months is rare.
17) The strategy in TB treatment should take long course based on all except:
a. TB bacilli usually resist antituberculous drugs
b. TB bacilli are intracellular organisms
45
c. Anti-TB cant not pass the caseous material to kill TB bacilli

d. To allow organization and fibrosis of the caseous material.
18) Patient have dementia then develops muscle rigidity, bradykinesia and
static tremors. This patient has:
a. Parkinsonism
c. Lewy disease
d. Alzheimer's disease
19) Patient have dementia and develops abnormal involuntary jerky dance-like
movements. This patient has:
a. Rheumatic chrorea
c. Myoclonic epilepsy
26) The mechanism of immatinib in leukemia treatment:
a. Free radical formation
b. Inhibit Bcr-Abl tyrosin kinase
c. Activation of perforin and granzyme B
d. Inhibit reverse transcriptase enzyme
III. Etiology of seizures (15 marks)

IV. Pathology of Alzheimer's disease (8 marks)
V. Pathophysiology of HIV infection (5 marks).
I. Define the following:

1) Angina pectoris (3 marks)
2) Metaplasia (2 marks)
3) Hypertrophy (2 marks)
4) Fatty change (2 marks)
5) Cellulitis (2 marks)
6) Abscess (2 marks)
7) Secondary hypertension (2 marks)
46
8) Catarrhal inflammation (2 marks)
1) Necrosis is tissue death during life ( )
2) Prostaglandin E2 is responsible for chemotaxis ( )
3) Bradykinin is derived from mast cells ( )
leukotriens ( )
5) Inflammatory process in uterine cervix (cervicitis) may cause abortion of
pregnant female due to elaboration of PGE2 ( )
6) Endothelial activation means contraction of endothelial cells and
expression of adhesion molecules ( )
8) Prostaglandin F2α is responsible for chemotaxis ( )
9) Bradykinin is derived from plasma high molecular weight kininogen ( )
leukotriens ( )
13) Fatty change – alcohol ( )
14) Free radicals - cell membrane damage ( )
15) C5a of the complement - opsonisation ( )
16) Clotting factor XII - Hageman factor ( )
17) Idiopathic - cause unknown ( )
18) Pathogenesis - direct cause of disease ( )
19) Congenital - present at birth ( )
26) Prognosis - likely disease outcome ( )
21) Aetiology - mechanism of disease production ( )
22) Symptoms - features of an illness that the patient notices ( )
23) Tiredness - clinical sign ( )
24) High blood pressure - clinical sign ( )
25) Platelet aggregation is promoted by thromboxane A2 ( )
26) Metaplasia - precancerous lesion ( )
27) Interleukin-1 (IL-1) – fever ( )
III. Select the single most appropriate answer (2 marks for each):
1) In hypoxic cell injury all are seen except:
t. ATP depletion
u. Free radical formation
v. Lactic acidosis
w. Cellular swelling
2) Free radicals are harmful because of all except:
47
VI. Can interact with proteins

VII.Injure the DNA
VIII. Lipid peroxidation
IX. Interact with vitamin C
3) All of the following factors contribute to increased risk for the development of
hypertension EXCEPT:
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) High levels of high density lipoprotein (HDL)
c) Hypertension
d) Family history
e) Cigarette smocking
IV. Discuss with or without diagrammatic illustrations (15 marks for each):
1- Pathogenesis of left side heart failure
I. Define the following:

a. Unstable angina (3 marks)
b. Hyperplasia (2 marks)
c. Hypertrophy (2 marks)
d. Fatty change (2 marks)
e. Fistula (2 marks)
f. Abscess (2 marks)
g. Essentials hypertension (2 marks)
1) The lactating breast shows epithelial hyperplasia ( )
2) Apoptosis is genetically determined cell death ( )
3) Apoptosis is important during organogenesis in embryo ( )
4) Cellulitis is a kind of acute suppurative inflammation ( )
5) Secondary hypertension is caused by diseases of the kidneys or
6) Right side heart failure is most commonly due to left side heart failure or
7) Necrosis is tissue death during life ( )
8) Prostaglandin E2 is responsible for chemotaxis ( )
48
9) Bradykinin is derived from mast cells ( )

leukotriens ( )
11) Inflammatory process in uterine cervix (cervicitis) may cause abortion of
III. Select the single most appropriate answer (2 marks for each):
1) The edema of acute inflammation involves the exudation of protein -rich fluid
22- Primarily through venules and capillaries
23- Primarily through arterioles
24- Only through capillaries
25- Through lymphatic vessels
26- Through all micro vessels more or less equally
2) In hypoxic cell injury all are seen except:
x. ATP depletion
y. Free radical formation
z. Lactic acidosis
aa. Cellular swelling
3) All of the following are characterized by granulomatous inflammation except:
a) Sarcoidosis
b) Tuberculosis
c) Bilharziasis
d) Diphtheria
4) Free radicals are harmful because of all except:
e. Can interact with proteins
f. Injure the DNA
g. Lipid peroxidation
h. Interact with vitamin C
5) All of the following factors contribute to increased risk for the development of
hypertension EXCEPT:
2- Diabetes mellitus
3- High levels of high density lipoprotein (HDL)
4- Hypertension
5- Family history
6- Cigarette smocking
49
6) The most common and most dangerous complication of myocardial infarction

is:
e. Arrhythmias
f. Myocardial rupture
g. Cardiac tamponade
h. Mural thrombosis
i. Pericarditis
IV. Discuss with or without diagrammatic illustrations (15 marks for each):
1- Pathogenesis of hypoxic cell injury.
2- Pathogenesis of left side heart failure
V. Define the following:

1) Unstable angina (3 marks)
2) Atrophy (2 marks)
3) Dysplasia (2 marks)
4) Fatty change (2 marks)
5) Sinus (2 marks)
6) Abscess (2 marks)
7) Primary hypertension (2 marks)
8) Chemical mediators of inflammation (3 marks)
VI. Mark (T) for true and (F) for false statement of the following (1 mark for each):
e. The lactating breast shows epithelial dysplasia ( )
f. Apoptosis is programmed cell death ( )
g. Apoptosis always associated with inflammatory response ( )
h. Cellulitis is a kind of localized suppurative inflammation ( )
i. Secondary hypertension is caused by diseases of the kidneys or
j. Right side heart failure is most commonly due to left side heart failure or
k. Autolysis is tissue death during life ( )
l. Prostaglandin F2α is responsible for chemotaxis ( )
m. Bradykinin is derived from plasma high molecular weight kininogen ( )
50
n. Membrane phospholipids are the depot of prostaglandins and

leukotriens ( )
o. Inflammatory process in uterine cervix (cervicitis) may cause abortion of
p. Endothelial activation means contraction of endothelial cells and
q. The most common type of tissue injury is due to oxygen lake ( )
r. Fatty change – alcohol ( )
s. Free radicals - cell membrane damage ( )
t. C5a of the complement - opsonisation ( )
u. Clotting factor XII - Hageman factor ( )
v. Idiopathic - cause unknown ( )
w. Pathogenesis - direct cause of disease ( )
x. Congenital - present at birth ( )
y. Prognosis - likely disease outcome ( )
z. Aetiology - mechanism of disease production ( )
aa. Symptoms - features of an illness that the patient notices ( )
bb. Tiredness - clinical sign ( )
cc. High blood pressure - clinical sign ( )
dd. Platelet aggregation is promoted by thromboxane A2 ( )
ee. Metaplasia - precancerous lesion ( )
ff. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) – fever ( )
VII. Discuss with or without diagrammatic illustrations :

14) Pathogenesis of free radical cell injury (4 marks)
15) Pathogenesis of left side heart failure (16 marks)
Pathology exam
2- Define the following
a. Thrombus
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Emphysema
3- Select the appropriate answer of the following:
e. In DIC the following is/are true:
a. Increased platelets in blood
b. Decreased platelets in blood
c. Bleeding tendency
d. a&b
51
e. b&c
f. A patient with heart failure develops DVT the following mechanism is
applied:
a. Slow circulation
g. A patient with CML develops thrombosis
a. Slow circulation
h. The most dangerous complication of thrombus is
a. Recanalization
b. Dystrophic calcification
c. Calcification
d. Embolization
i. The characteristic thing of Hodgkin's lymphoma is:
i. T- cell type
j. B- cell type
k. RS cells
l. Extranodal usually
j. Fever in leukemic patient may be due to all of the following except:
IV- Cytokine production
V- Hypermetabolic state
VI- Secondary infection
VII- Organ infiltration
k. Bleeding tendency in leukemic patient is usually due to:
X. Increased blood viscosity
XI. Thrombocytopenia
XII. Hypofibrinogenemia
XIII. Secondary bacterial infection
l. Hyperuricemia and gout in leukemic patient is due to
bb. Increased intake of proteins
cc. Tumor lysis
dd. Infiltration of the liver by leukemic cells
52
ee. Increased vitamin B12

m. Philadelphia chromosome results from
2- Translocation between chromosome 16 and 22
5- Isochromosome
n. One of the following is not appropriate in treatment of asthma:
27- Corticosteroids (Hydrocotizone)
28- Mucolytics
29- NSAIDs like Ibubrufen
36- Bronchodilators (salbutamol)
4- Pathophysiology of acute renal failure.
53

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Pathology exam Dr.

Q1: Select the ONE appropriate answer (5.5 for each):

Urinary system clinical part

Female Genital System Pathology Exam/ Part 2

1. A female patient develops abortion and postabortion hemorrhage. She seeks

III- Give an account on Endometrial hyperplasia

Female Genital System Pathology Exam/ Part 2

4. A female patient develops abortion and postabortion hemorrhage. She seeks

III- Give an account on Endometrial hyperplasia

Female Genital System Pathology Exam/ Part 2

7. A female patient develops abortion and postabortion hemorrhage. She seeks

III- Write short notes on:

Genitourinary Pathology Exam Part 2

8- Tuberculosis of male genital tract is most commonly affect:

II- Describe the histopathological changes in a kidney suffering malignant

8- A female patient develops abortion and postabortion hemorrhage. She seeks

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12- Krukenberg tumor is the name given to bilateral ovarian serous

11- Discus fibrocystic disease (3 marks)

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A Lung with pulmonary thromboembolism

B Heart with coronary thrombosis

C Liver with hypovolemic shock

D Kidney with septic embolus

E Spleen with embolized mural thrombus

F Brain with cerebral arterial aneurysm

Musculoskeletal Pathology Exam Part 2

I- Select the appropriate answer for each question:

a. all of the following delay bone healing except:

o. Diaphysis of the femur is the main site

Musculoskeletal Pathology Exam Part 2

I- Select the appropriate answer for each question:

a. all of the following delay bone healing except:

Pathology exam for nursing

4) ……………………………………. Is inflammation of the liver.

12) Autolysis is tissue death during life ( )

Innumerate cardinal signs of inflammation (5 marks)?

3- A 50-year-old man with diabetes mellitus. He has an increasing serum urea

The fate of acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis is usually

a) Development of chronic glomerulonephritis

b) Development of membranous glomerulonephritis

c) Development of lobular glomerulonephritis

d) Development of sub acute glomerulonephritis

Pathology exam Genitourinary system

5- Nephritic edema differs from nephritic edema in having:

Pathology exam GIT course

II- Discuss the pathology of chronic hepatitis (3 marks).

General Pathology Examination (Part 2)

11- Section surface of the lung shows brown induration in

V- Write a short assay on (5 marks for each): please answer in question

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Pathology exam GIT course

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Pathology exam GIT course

d. They are associated with iron deficiency anemia