Rychel Rose M.

Cereneche - PRELIM QUIZZES

LONG TEST 1

1. If a person is standing erect, facing forward and has her hands on her lips, what movements must she make
to assume the anatomical position?
Answer: She need to lower her upper limbs to her side with her side facing anteriorly.
2. In which quadrant of the abdomen is most of the liver usually located?
Answer: Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)
3. Which of the sections belows separates the body into dorsal and ventral parts?
Answer: Frontal section
4. Anatomical position refers to individuals that are?
Answer: standing erect. Upper limbs at their side, facing anteriorly
5. Which of these statements about serous membrane is true?
Answer: visceral serous membranes are in contact with internal organs
6. It refers to the specific interrelationships among the parts of an organisms and how these parts interact to
perform functions
Answer: Organization
7. It refers to the ability of an Organism to sense change in the environment and make adjustments needed to
help maintain life.
Answer: Responsiveness
8. Which of these sections below separates the body into superior and inferior part?
Answer: Transverse section
9. The study of external features, such as body projections that serve as landmarks to locate deeper structures
is called?
Answer: Surface Anatomy
10. When a person is in an anatomical position, the wrist is___to the elbow?
Answer: Distal
11. Which of these statements is true of negative feedback?
Answer: Negative feedback is important for maintaining homeostasis in the body.
12. In studying psychology It is important to recognize that structures within the body
Answer: Dynamic and Mutable
13. The fluid found between serous membrane layers?
Answer: Reduces Friction
14. Which of the following cavities contains the liver, stomach, kidney, and spleen?
Answer: Abdominal cavity
15. The chemical level of organization?
Answer: Both involves interaction between
16. Which of these characteristic of life means “the ability to use energy to perform vital functions?
Answer: Metabolism
17. The major goals of physiology includes
Answer: Both understanding and predicting the body’s response to stimuli.
18. The pericardial cavity?
Answer: contains the pericardial fluid
19. Homeostasis is the condition produced by?
Answer: The tendency for change in a body variable to be contracted as soon as the body variable goes past its
normal range of values
20. The spleen, thymus and tonsils are all part of the___system
Answer: Lymphatic system
21. A patient arrives at an emergency room With a traumatic pneumothorax after a car accident. In the course of
the accident, the patient suffered a penetration wound, which allowed air to fill the lungs Which allowed air to
fill the space around one of her lungs causing it to collapse. Which serous membranes were likely damaged
assuming that the lung itself was not punctured?
Answer: Parietal Pleura
22. Increased carbon dioxide in the blood increases respiration (breathing) rate. Which of these statements
would apply to this mechanism?
Answer: This is negative feedback, because increased respiration rate decreased carbon in the blood
23. Which statement below describes a physiological process?
Answer: The blood transports nutrients and oxygen to the cells of the body.
24. The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by?
Answer:
25. The study of the body’s organization by areas (the approach used in most medical schools) called?
Answer: Regional anatomy
26. In which of these cavities would the urinary bladder and internal reproductive organs be found?
Answer: Pelvic
27. Which of these is an example of a positive-feedback mechanism
Answer: Increased stretch of the uterus causes it to contract, which further increases stretch

28. In which quadrant of the abdomen would the pain of acute appendicitis be felt?
Answer: right lower quadrant
29. The basic structural and functional unit of an organism, such as plant or animal is the ___
Answer: Cell
30. From the anatomical position, the scapula (shoulder blade) is always__to the ribs
Answer: Dorsal, Posterior, Superior

LECTURE LONG TEST 2

1. When you get sunburn after a day at the beach, which of the following membranes have you damaged?
A. Cutaneous
B. Serous
C. Pleural
D. Peritoneal

2. Major components of the extracellular matrix of connective tissue include:

A. phospholipids, glycoproteins, and proteins.

B. B.ground substance, glycoproteins, and phospholipids.
C. C.protein fibers, carbohydrates, and lipids.
D. D.protein fibers, ground substance, and fluid.

3. Which of these does NOT occur because of increased permeability of blood vessels during the inflammatory
process?

A. Edema, or swelling, of the tissues occurs.

B. Neutrophils move into the injured tissue.
C. Pus leaks out of blood vessels.
D. Increased fluid in the tissues causes increased tissue pressure, which causes pain.

4. All of the following are protein components of the cytoskeleton, EXCEPT:

A. Microtubules
B. Microfilaments
C. intermediate filaments
D. centrosomes

5.Which of these is NOT one of the four basic tissue types?

A. Muscle
B. Nervous
C. Connective
D. Glandular

6. During the mitosis in humans,

A. replication of DNA during interphase produces identical chromatids.

B. when centromeres separate, there are two identical sets of 23 chromosomes.
C. four daughter cells are produced from one original cell.
D. centrioles are points of attachment between chromatids

7. Which of these comparisons between smooth muscle and skeletal muscle is NOT correct?

A.Smooth muscle cells are under voluntary control; skeletal muscle cells are under involuntary control.
B.Smooth muscle forms the walls of hollow organs except the heart; skeletal muscle attaches to the skeleton.
C.Smooth muscle cells have a single nucleus; skeletal muscle cells have many.
D.Smooth muscle cells are tapered at each end; skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical.

8. Which of the following organelles are NOT paired correctly with their location within the cell?
 A. Cilia - on the cell surface
B. Nucleolus - within the nucleus
C. Microtubules - within the cytoplasm
D. Golgi apparatus - on the cell surface

9. You would normally expect to find ________epithelium in the alveoli of lungs.

A. simple columnar
B. simple cuboidal
C. stratified squamous
D. simple squamous

10 which of the cells would most likely have the largest number of mitochondria?

A. Blood cells
B. Bone cells
C. Adipocytes (fat cells)
D. Muscle cells

11. Your significant other is an amazing chef. When you come home from lecture, the smell of whatever she or
he is cooking makes you salivate as soon as you step in the door. Your saliva is being secreted from what type of
gland?

A. Paracrine
B. Unicellular (goblet cells)
C. Endocrine
D. Exocrine

12.Moveable projections from the surface of cells found in abundance in the respiratory tract are:

A. centrioles
B. microvilli
C. cilia
D. flagella

13.According to the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane,

A. there is a double protein layer in the plasma membrane.

B. there are lipids floating in the protein layer.
C. carbohydrates functions as membrane channels.
D. protein molecules that perform important cellular functions float in a lipid bilayer.

14. Two types of phagocytic cells involved in tissue repair are:

A. dead cells and live cells.

B. epithelial cells and fibroblasts.
C. neutrophils and macrophages.
D. fibroblasts and chondrocytes.

15. Which of the following statements concerning solutes and solvents is TRUE?

A. At equilibrium, all solute particles ceases movement.

B. When oxygen is present in the blood, blood is the solute and oxygen is the solvent.
C. The solvent is the predominant liquid or gas in a solution.
D. All solute particles move into or out of the cell by diffusion.

16. Cell shrinkage is also called:

A. hydrostatic pressure
 B. crenation
C. cellular dissolution
D. lysis

17.Which of the following is NOT a true statement about epithelial tissue?

A. Epithelial tissue functions in absorption and secretion.

B. Epithelial tissue controls the permeability into and out of an area or organ.
C. Epithelial tissue is vascular.
D. Epithelial tissue provides physical protection for organs.

18. In regeneration,
A. the damaged cells repair themselves perfectly, restoring function.
B. new cells of a different tissue type develop, and normal function is restored.
C. a new type of tissue develops, causing the loss of some function.
D. new cells of the same type are created, and normal function is usually restored.

19. Cell connections that bind adjacent cells together and form permeability barriers are called:

A. tight junctions.
B. plasma junctions.
C. gap junctions.
D. desmosomes.

20. Which of the following statements concerning facilitated diffusion and active transport is correct?

A. Both facilitated diffusion and active transport require ATP, but only active transport requires carrier molecules.
B. Facilitated diffusion and active transport both move substances down the concentration gradient, but active
facilitated diffusion requires ATP to do so.
C. Facilitated diffusion is used to exchange one substance for another, but active transport only moves a single
substance.
D. Both facilitated diffusion and active transport require carrier molecules, but only active transport requires ATP.

21.Which of the following statements about transitional epithelium is FALSE?

A. Transitional epithelium is pseudostratified.

B. Transitional epithelium is found in the lining of the urinary bladder, the ureters, and the superior urethra.
C. Transitional epithelium is found in cavities that can expand greatly in volume.
D. Transitional epithelium has cells that change shape when the tissue is stretched.

22.When placed in a __________ solution, a cell will exhibit a net loss of water. The specific process by which
the water leaves the cell is called __________.

A. hypertonic; facilitated transport

B. isotonic; exocytosis
C. hypertonic; osmosis
D. hypotonic; osmosis

23. Cell membranes are said to be selectively permeable because they:

A. allow the passage of materials in one direction but not the other.
B. allow the passage of positively charged particles but not negatively charged particles.
C. allow the free passage of some materials and restrict the passage of others.
D. permit the passage of most materials but not of water.

24.The nucleolus:

A. is the location for production of large and small ribosomal subunits.

B. is located in the cytoplasm.
C. is important for the formation of Golgi apparatus.
D. has its own distinct membrane.

25.The most correct classification of an epithelial tissue consisting of many layers of cells, in which the outer
layers are flat and thin and the basal layers are cuboidal or columnar, is:
 A. stratified squamous epithelium.
B. simple columnar epithelium.
C. pseudostratified epithelium.
D. simple squamous epithelium.

26. If a red blood cell were placed in distilled water, we would expect the cell to:

A. shrink and lyse.

B. swell and crenate.
C. shrink and crenate.
D. swell and lyse.

27. The connective tissue that covers muscles, glands, and nerves is:

A. dense collagenous connective tissue.

B. loose or areolar connective tissue.
C. hyaline cartilage.
D. elastic cartilage.

28. Which of these molecules is correctly matched with its method of movement through the cell membrane?

A. Glucose and amino acid molecules - pass through membrane channels.

B. Lipid-soluble molecules - pass through membrane channels.
C. Small, water-soluble molecules (ions) - dissolve in double phospholipid layer.
D. Large, water-soluble molecules - transported by carrier-mediated processes.

29.Which of these connective tissue types is NOT correctly matched with its description?

A. Adipose tissue—very little extracellular matrix; cells filled with lipids

B. Dense collagenous connective tissue—widely separated collagen fibers running in random directions
C. Bone—hard connective tissue with mineralized matrix
D. Fibrocartilage—more collagen and less ground substance than hyaline cartilage

30.Phospholipid molecules:

A. have a phosphate-containing end that is nonpolar.

B. are not found in the cell membrane.
C. are arranged in a double layer in the cell membrane.
D. have a fatty acid end that is polar.

LECTURE LONG TEST 3

1. Which of the following statements regarding the epidermis is not true?

Answer: Melanocyte give skin its pink color
2. A vitamin that is manufacture in skin is vitamin D
Answer: True
3. The extremely observable part of a hair is called the root
Answer: False
4. As you are walking down the beach, you see a dead, dry, shriveled-up fish. Which layer of your epidermis
keeps you from drying out?
Answer: Stratum corneum
5. Which mechanism aids thermoregulation?
Answer: Blood vessel constriction
6. Hair is found on the body except the palms of the hands, soles of the feet and lips and its primarily consists of
dead keratinized cells.
Answer: True
7. A client tells the nurse that his palms sweat profusely when he’s feeling stressed. The nurse explains that
which sweat glands are responsible for the reaction
Answer: Eccrine
8. Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypodermis?
Answer: Source of blood vessels in the epidermis
9. Collagen lends_____to the skin.
Answer: Structure
10. A sheath formed of both epithelial and connective tissues is the hair follicle.
Answer: True
 11. In humans, exposure of the skin to sunlight is required for:
Answer: Vitamin D synthesis
12. Jaundice is a bluish cast of skin resulting from inadequate oxygenation of the blood.
Answer: False
13. In response to stimuli from the sympathetic nervous system, the arrector pili:
Answer: are responsible for goose bumps
14. While performing a skin assessment, the nurse should consider which integumentary structure an epidermal
appendage?
Answer: Hair
15. The most abundant protein in dead epidermal structures such as hair and nails is melanin.
Answer: False
16. An individual has spent too much time sun bathing. Not only is his skin painful to touch, but small blisters
have appeared in the affected area. This indicates that he has damaged which layers of the skin?
Answer: Epidermis and dermis
17. The nurse is teaching a class on preventing skin cancer and correctly explains that which is the outermost
layer of the skin?
Answer: Epidermis
18. Sebum is an oily mixture of lipids, cholesterol and cell fragments.
Answer: True
19. The eccrine sweat glands:
Answer: Are present in the skin throughout the body and produce watery sweat
20. Sweat glands(apocrine) become more active at puberty with little influence in the thermoregulation.
Answer: True
21. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?
Answer: Sweat glands-secrete sebum to cool the skin
22. The papillary layer of the dermis is most closely associated with which of the layer of the epidermis?
Answer: Stratum basale
23. An individual using a sharp knife notices a small amount of blood where he just cut himself. Which of the
following layers of the skin did he cut into in order to bleed.
Answer: Papillary dermis
24. A saltwater solution is secreted by sebaceous glands.
Answer: False
25. The epidermis is completely composed of what type of tissue?
Answer: Epithelial tissue
26. The nurse is teaching an adolescent about acne. Which statement would the nurse make to this client?
Answer: Whiteheads occur when sebum blocks a duct
27. Which of the following statements regarding melanin is NOT true?
Answer: Causes the formation of wrinkles
28. The papillary and reticular layers of the dermis are composed mainly of:
Answer: Connective tissue
29. The epidermis provides mechanical strength to the skin.
Answer: False
30. The term for profuse sweating is
Answer:Diaphoresis

LABORATORY LONG TEST 3

1. Which layer of skin has veins and arteries?

Answer: Dermis
2. Skin color is due mostly to amount of melanin produced by melanocyte
Answer: True
3. Epithelial cells divide, become hardened and scaly, from plates which we call it?
Answer: Nails
4. Which of the following statements about eccrine sweat glands is correct?
Answer: The present in the skin throughout the body and produces watery sweat
5. Meissner’s Corpuscles are located near the top of the ______
Answer: Dermis
6. Which is NOT part of the integumentary system?
Answer: Muscle
7. Also called sudoriferous glands; widespread; made of tiny tubes starting as a ball-shaped coil, sweat
secreting epithelial cells
Answer: sweat glands
8. Which layer is mostly adipose (fat) tissue?
Answer: Hypodermis
9. Which of the following are accessory organs of the skin
Answer: Pain receptors
 10. The hair matrix contains which of the following?
Answer: A layer of basal cells
11. Oil is the substance produced by which of the following?
Answer: sebaceous glands
12. The bundle of smooth muscles associated with hair follicles is called?
Answer: arrector pili muscle
13. Groups of specialized epithelial cells that secrete a mixture of fatty material and cellular debris through ducts:
Answer: Sebaceous glands
14. Like the hair, nails grow continuously throughout our lives. Which of the following is the furthest from the nail
growth center?
Answer: Hyponychium
15. Answer: Nail matrix (30)
16. Which of the following statements about apocrine glands and mammary glands is correct?
Answer: Specialized sweat glands
17. In response to stimuli from the sympathetic nervous system, which of the following statements about the
arrector pili is correct?
Answer: Are responsible for goose bumps
18. Which of the following is NOT an accessory of the integumentary system?
Answer: Odiferous gland
19. Pacinian Corpuscles are located deep in the ___________________
Answer: Dermis
20. Which of the following is not a function of the skin?
Answer: Hormone protection to protect bones
21. Where does the Merkel cells located?
Answer: Epidermis
22. L
23. Accessory organs of the skin include which of the following?
Answer: All choices are correct
24. The cells producing the pigment responsible for skiin color are which of the following?
Answer: Melanocyte
25. What do you call muscles that cause “goose bumps”?
Answer: Arrector pili
26. The basale layer which includes dividing keratinocytes that act as stem cells are located where in the skin?
Answer: Bottom of the epidermis
27. What cells are responsible for epidermal growth?
Answer: Basal Cells
28. Which of the following statements about sebaceous glands is correct?
Answer: Are associated with hair follicle
29. The epidermis provides mechanical strength to the skin.
Answer: False
30. The term for profuse sweating is:
Answer: Diaphoresis

(6) Sweat glands

(13) Skin
(20) Medulla

LECTURE LONG TEST 4

1. The interconnecting rods or plates of the bone to spongy bone are called?
Answer: Trabeculae
2. During growth of long bone, the site of growth in the length is the.
Answer: Epiphyseal plate
3. Fibrous joints between the bones of the skull are called.
Answer: Sutures
4. Which of these anatomical terms for bone features is not correctly matched
Answer: Process-prominent indentation
5. Which of these statements about bone growth is NOT correct?
Answer: Bone growth occurs primarily because osteoclasts start forming new bone.
6. Bone Growth
Answer: occurs through the deposition of new bone lamellae onto existing bone or other connective tissue
7. When bone growth in length stops,
Answer: The cartilage of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone and is called the epiphyseal
8. The functions of the skeletal system include all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer: Transport of materials via its fluid matrix
 9. Which of the following does NOT occur during endochondral ossification
Answer: A medullary cavity is formed as the osteoblasts remove bone and calcified cartilage
10. Mr X is suffering from a sinus infection. He is experiencing pain just below his eyes. Which paranasal sinus is
most affected by the infection?
Answer: Maxillary
11. The extracellular matrix of tendons and ligaments is made up of
Answer: Primarily collagen fibers
12. Which of the following bones is NOT part of the pelvic girdle?
Answer: Femur
13. The extracellular matrix of cartilage may contain
Answer: collagen fibers, elastic fibers, and proteoglycans
14. Intramembranous ossification
Answer: Occurs in the bones of the skull
15. The outer surface of the bone is covered by a connective tissue layer called the
Answer: Periosteum
16. In adults, which of the following represents a set of fused bones?
Answer: Sacral bone
17. Bones is a type of
Answer: Connective tissue
18. Which of these joints is a saddle joint
Answer: Thumb joint
19. Which of the following shows the path of nutrients rounded by osteocytes in compact bone\
Answer: Blood vessels in periosteum & endosteum > blood vessels in central canals>diffusion through the
canaliculi>lacuna>osteocyte
20. Which of the following bones were likely produced through endochondral ossification?
Answer: Femur
21. The hip bones
Answer: on the sacrum at the sacroiliac joint.
22. Which of these sections of the vertebral column curve posteriorly
Answer: Thoracic curvature and sacrum (with coccyx)
23. Which of these sections of the vertical column is matched with its correct number of vertebrae
Answer: Sacral 5 vertebrae fused into one sacrum
24. You turn the doorknob clockwise with your right hand to open the door. The movement your hand makes is
Answer:Supination
25. Compact bone consist of cells called osteocytes located within spaces in the matrix called
Answer: Lacunae
26. Which of these statements concerning the upper limb is TRUE?
Answer: The hand is composed of 5 metacarpals
27. When classifying a joint based on function, which characteristic is most important?
Answer: Range of motion
28. Which of these following statements occuring the appendicular styloid processes is
Answer: The steroid process are located on the radius and ulna where they
29. Large point of muscle attachment near the proximal end of the femur are called
Answer: The trochanters
30. The two bones of the skull in which teeth are located are the
Answer: maxilla and mandible
LABORATORY LONG QUIZ 4
1. The prominent portions of the chicks are made-up of the______bones.
Answer: Zygomatic
2. The outer covering of each bone, made from fibrous connective tissue is called the_________
Answer: Periosteum
3. Which sinus inflammation in that car could most commonly lead to deafness?
Answer: Mastoid sinus
4. How many bones are there in the body?
Answer: 206
5. Inside the epiphysis of each long bone, mostly_______ can be found.
Answer:Trabeculae.
6. Which bones do not belong to the axial skeleton?
Answer: Hip bone.
7. A soft spot in a newborn's skull is called a_____
Answer: Fontanel.
8. By morphology, the parietal bone can be classified as a_______ bone
Answer: flat
9. Inside the 50 Shades of each long bone, mostly______can be found
Answer: spongy bone
10. What is the last stage in the repair of a fracture?
Answer: Inflammation
nWhich of these factors is not necessary for normal bone growth and development?
Answer: high fat diet
11. That_____ of typical vertebra projects posteriorly and is the stickiest and most blunt in appearance and
lumbar vertebrae.
Answer: spinous process
12. Which bones would contain significant amounts of red bone marrow in an adult?
Answer: Sternum.
13. Several layers of cells reside within epiphyseal disk of developing long bones. Which layer is responsible for
anchoring the disk to the bony epiphysis?
Answer: Resting cells
14. The part of the bone that the articular cartilage covered directly is the_____
Answer: epiphysis
15. The cells that tear down and remodel bone are the _____
Answer: osteoclasts
16. Another name for the wrist bone is____
Answer: Carpals
17. The medullary cavity by the diaphysis of an adult bone would contain_____
Answer: yellow bone marrow
18. The pectoral girdle is made up of the clavicle and the____
Answer: Scapula
19. Which of these bones has a prominent spine?
Answer: scapula
20. The femur inserts into the pelvic girdle at the _____
Answer: Acetabulum
21. Which type of fracture breaks the bone into several fragments?
Answer: commuted
22. Which of these statements is not true about intramembranous bones?
Answer: They begin with a cartilage model
23. The junction between the diaphysis and epiphysis is called the_____
Answer: Epiphyseal disk
24. Which bone contains the foramen magnum?
Answer: occipital
25. The________suture joints the temporal and parietal bones of the skull
Answer: squamosal
26. The membranes that surround the skull attach to the crista galli found on the_____
Answer: ethmoid
27. Which skull bones are not part of the cranium?
Answer: Maxilla
28. Which type of bone fracture occurs as an incomplete break in the bone?
Answer: Greenstick
 29. Which of these skull bones does not contain paranasal sinuses?
Answer: Zygomatic