EM 5 LaplaceEqn
EM 5 LaplaceEqn
EM 5 LaplaceEqn
∇·D =ρ
Plug in D̄ = εĒ
ρ
∇ · Ē =
ε
Since Ē = −∇V , thus
ρ
∇ · ∇V = −
ε
Consider ∇ · ∇
1
Thus the Poisson Equations are
( 2 2 2
)
∂ ∂ ∂
+ 2+ 2 V
( (∂x 2
) ∂y ∂z )
ρ 1 ∂ ∂ 1 ∂2 ∂2
− =∇ V =2
r + 2 2+ 2 V
ε
( ( r ∂r
) ∂r (r ∂ϕ )∂z )
1 ∂ ∂ 1 ∂ ∂ 1 ∂2
r 2
+ 2 sin θ + 2 2 V
r2 ∂r ∂r r sin θ ∂θ ∂θ r sin θ ∂ϕ2
i.e.
∂ 2 V (x, y, z) ∂ 2 V (x, y, z) ∂ 2 V (x, y, z) ρ
+ + =−
( ∂x
2
) ∂y 2 ∂z 2 ε
1 ∂ ∂V (r, ϕ, z) 1 ∂ 2 V (r, ϕ, z) ∂ 2 V (r, ϕ, z) ρ
r + 2 + =−
( r ∂r ) ∂r r
( ∂ϕ 2
) ∂z
2 ε
2
1 ∂ ∂V (r, ϕ, θ) 1 ∂ ∂V (r, ϕ, θ) 1 ∂ V (r, ϕ, θ) ρ
2
r2 + 2 sin θ + 2 2 2
=−
r ∂r ∂r r sin θ ∂θ ∂θ r sin θ ∂ϕ ε
Next, before solving these PDEs, let’s review on general solutions of the ODEs.
Type I
dy ´
+ ay = 0 y = ke− adx
dx
Type II
d2 y
2
= b2 y y = Aebx + Be−bx
dx
ex + e−x ex − e−x
Or using cosh x = , sinh x =
2 2
y = A′ cosh bx + B ′ sinh bx
They are equivalent
′e
bx
+ e−bx ′e − e
bx −bx
y=A +B
2 2
A′ + B ′ bx A′ − B ′ −bx
= e + e
2 2
A′ + B ′ A′ − B ′
A= B=
2 2
2
Type III
d2 y
= −m2 y y = Aejbx + Be−jbx
dx2
ejx + e−jx ejx − e−jx
Or using cos x = , sin x =
2 2j
y = A′ cos mx + B ′ sin mx
They are equivalent
∂ 2 V (x, y, z) ∂ 2 V (x, y, z) ∂ 2 V (x, y, z)
+ + =0
( ∂x
2
) ∂y 2 ∂z 2
1 ∂ ∂V (r, ϕ, z) 1 ∂ 2 V (r, ϕ, z) ∂ 2 V (r, ϕ, z)
r + 2 + =0
( r ∂r ) ∂r r
( ∂ϕ2 ) ∂z
2
∂ 2 V (r, ϕ, θ)
1 ∂ 2 ∂V (r, ϕ, θ) 1 ∂ ∂V (r, ϕ, θ) 1
r + sin θ + =0
r2 ∂r ∂r r2 sin θ ∂θ ∂θ r2 sin2 θ ∂ϕ2
We need to following
´
dy − adx
= −ay y = ke
dx
d2 y 2
=b y y = Aebx + Be−bx = A′ cosh bx + B ′ sinh bx
dx 2
2
d y = −m2 y y = Aejbx + Be−jbx = A′ cos mx + B ′ sin mx
dx2
And a techniques “Separation of Variables”
3
1 d2 X(x) 1 d2 Y (y) 1 d2 Z(z)
+ + =0
X(x) dx2 Y (x) dy 2 Z(x) dz 2
| {z } | {z } | {z }
X−only Y −only Z−only
Since 3 parts are one variable only, the other terms can be treated as constants, thus
{ { {
Aeax + Be−ax Cebx + De−bx Eejcz + F e−jcz
X(x) = Y (y) = Z(z) =
A cosh ax + B sinh ax C cosh bx + D sinh bx E cos cz + F sin cz
4
Expand , and using shorthand notation
R′ R” Φ” Z”
+ + 2 + =0
Rr R r Φ Z
Let
{
Z” Aeaz + Be−az
= a2 ⇒ Z(z) =
Z A cosh az + B sinh az
Thus the remaining part is
R′ R” Φ”
+ + 2 + a2 = 0
Rr R r Φ
rR′ r2 R” Φ”
+ + + r 2 a2 = 0
R R Φ
Let
{
Φ” Cejbϕ + De−jbϕ
= −b2 ⇒ Φ(ϕ) =
Φ C cos bϕ + D sin bϕ
The remaining part is
rR′ r2 R”
+ − b2 + r2 a2 = 0
R R
( )
R′ b2
+ R” + a − 2 R = 0
2
r r
Which is
( )
d2 R 1 dR b2
+ + a − 2 R=0
2
dr2 r dr r
This is the Bessel’s Equation, the solution is R = EJ(r) + F Y (r) , where J, Y are the Bessel’s
function of the first kind and second kind
Let
V = RΘ
5
( ) ( )
Θ ∂ 2 ∂R R ∂ ∂Θ
r + 2 sin θ =0
r2 ∂r ∂r r sin θ ∂θ ∂θ
Expand
2Θ ∂R ∂ 2 R R cot θ ∂Θ R ∂ 2 Θ
+Θ 2 + + 2 2 =0
r ∂r ∂r r2 ∂θ r ∂θ
2r ∂R r2 ∂ 2 R cot θ ∂Θ 1 ∂ 2Θ
+ + + =0
R ∂r R ∂r2 Θ ∂θ Θ ∂θ2
And specially set the constant to be n(n + 1)
2r ∂R r2 ∂ 2 R cot θ ∂Θ 1 ∂2Θ
+ = n(n + 1) + = −n(n + 1)
R ∂r R ∂r2 Θ ∂θ Θ ∂θ2
∂ 2R ∂R R ∂ 2Θ ∂Θ
+ 2r − n(n + 1) =0 + cot θ + n(n + 1)Θ = 0
∂r2 ∂r r2 ∂θ2 ∂θ
R = Arn + Br−(n+1)
The second one is the Legendre Equation, the solution is the Legendre polynomials.
1 dn ( 2 )n
P (ξ) = n ξ − 1
2 n! dξ n
Thus the final solution
V = RΘ
(How to exactly solve the Legendre Eqautions will be mentioned in another document.)
−EN D−