Year 3rd Semester 5th

Community Health Nursing II

1. A 4 week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization. Which can be given to him?
A. Infant BCGB. OPV1
C. DPT1D. Hepatitis B Vaccine
2. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant had?
A. Abscess formation after DPT1B. Seizures a day after DPT1 
C. Fever for 3 days after DPT1D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT1
3. A 1 1/2 year old child was classified as having 3rd degree of protein energy malnutrition, kwashiorkor.
Which of the following signs will be most apparent in this child?
A. Voracious appetite B. Wasting
C. edema (swelling) of ankles, feet, and bellyD. Apathy

4. Which biological used in EPI should not be stored in the freezer?

A Measles vaccine B. OPV
C.MMRD. DPT
5. Among the following diseases, which is airborne?
A. MeaslesB. Acute poliomyelitis
C. Viral conjunctivitisD Diphtheria
6. A 4-year old client was brought to the health center with chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the
passage of “rice water”. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?
A. Giardiasis B. Cholera
C. Amebiasis D. Dysentery

7.The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is: 

A. DPT  B. meningitis
C. yellow fever D. influenza
8. A woman, 6 months pregnant, came to the center for consultation. Which of the following substances is
contraindicated?
A. Tetanus toxoid B. Potassium iodate 200 mg, capsule
C. Ferrous sulfate 200mg D. Retinol 200,000 IU
9. You are in a client’s home to attend to a delivery. Which of the following will you do first?
A. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor and contractions
B. Set up a sterile area
C. Cleanse the client’s vulva with soap and water
D Put on a clean gown and apron
10. You explain to a breastfeeding mother that breast milk is sufficient for all of the baby’s nutrient needs
only up to:
A. 3 months B. 6 months
C. 1 year D. 2 years
11. What is given to a woman within a month after the delivery of a baby?
A. Malanga capsule B. Ferrous sulfate l00mg O.D
C. Retinol 200.000 IU 1 capsule.D. Potassium Iodate 200 mg, 1 capsule
12. Which biological used in EPI is stored in the freezer?
A. DPT B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Tetanus toxoidD. Measles vaccine
13. Unused BCG should be discarded how many hours after reconstitution?
A. 2 B. 4
C. 6 D. At the end of the day
14. Which immunization produces a permanent scar?
A. DPT B. BCG
C. Measles vaccination D. Hepatitis B vaccination
15. Population- focused nursing practice requires which of the following processes?
A. Community organizing B. Nursing process
B. Epidemiologic process D. Community diagnosis
16. Which of the following disease is caused by virus?
A. cholera and T.B B. aids and syphilis
C. typhoid and tetanus D. rabies and mumps
17. Region IV Hospital is classified as what level of facility? 
A. Primary B. Secondary
C. Intermediate D. Tertiary
18. According to W.H.O adolescence are divided into_______ periods
A. 9 B. 7
B. 5 D. 3
19. You are a new B.S.N. graduate. You want to become a Public Health Nurse. Where will you apply?
A. Department of Health B. Provincial Health Office
C. Regional Health Office D. Rural Health Unit
20. Which level of health facility is the usual point of entry of a client into the health care delivery system?
A. Primary B. Secondary
C. Intermediate D. Tertiary
21. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease? 
A. Pre-pathogenesis B. Pathogenesis
C. ProdromalD. Terminal
22. Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?
A. Primary B. Secondary
C. Intermediate D. Tertiary

23. Modifiable risk factors in case of Hypertension include all, EXCEPT: 

A. Obesity B. Age
C. Alcohol intake D. Salt intake

24. The diseases notifiable to the WHO under the International Regulation Act are all except: 
A. Diphtheria B.Plague
C .CholeraD. Yellow Fever

25. Measles vaccine is given under the National Immunization Program: 

A. 9 Months  B. 6 monthsC. 18 months D.6 weeks

26. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is 

A. deltoid B. gluteal
C.forearm D. lateral aspect of thigh

27. Infections primarily of animals that can be transmitted through milk is all, EXCEPT: 
A. Brucellosis B. Tuberculosis 
C. Malaria D. Q fever

28. Vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy is 

A. OPV B. Tetanus 
C. influenza D. Rubella

29. In control of communicable diseases, the period of quarantine in respect of a disease is determined by: 
A. Incubation period  B. Infectivity period
C. Duration of illness D. Carrier state

30. Vaccine which requires most stringent condition for storage: 

A. OPVB. Tetanus Toxoid
C.DPT D. BCG 

31. Measles vaccine is kept in refrigerator in: 

A. Chilled tray B. Shelves in the door
 C.Freezer D. Tray below the freezer 

32. Ideal temperature for DPT storage is: 

A. 4 to 8 degree Celsius  B. 15 to 20 degree Celsius
C. 0 to -20 degree Celsius D. Room temperature

33. Which of the following is not a live vaccine? 

A. Hib vaccine  B. BCG
C.OPV D. Ty 21 against typhoid

34. Measles vaccine should be used within the following time after reconstitution: 
A. 30 minutesB. 2 hours
C. 1 hour D. 3 hours 

35. Which of the following vaccine was introduced most lately? 

A. Pertussis  B. Measles
C.Rubella D. Mumps

36. Smallpox was eradicated because of the following factors except: 

A. Long incubation period B. Extra human reservoir control
C.Potent vaccine D. Easy to recognize

37. All stages of rash are seen in: 

A. Smallpox B. Measles
C. Typhoid D. Chickenpox

38. Which of the following diseases gives life-long immunity after an attack? 
A. Diphtheria – Given B. Tetanus
C. Typhoid D. Mumps
39. When performing a newborn assessment, the nurse should measure the vital signs in the following

sequence: 
A. Respirations, pulse, temperature B. Respirations, temperature, pulse
C. Temperature, pulse, respirations D. Pulse, respirations, temperature

40. The expected respiratory rate of a neonate within 3 minutes of birth may be as high as: 
A. 100 B. 50
C.80 D. 60

41. A baby is born precipitously in the ER. The nurses initial action should be to: 
A. Quickly tie and cut the umbilical cord 
B. Ascertain the condition of the fundus
C. Establish an airway for the baby
D. Move mother and baby to the birthing unit
42. Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A nurse prepares to administer the medication in which muscle

site? 
A. Triceps B. Biceps
C.Vastus lateralis  D. Deltoid

43. The primary critical observation for Apgar scoring is the: 

A. Presence of meconium B. Evaluation of the Moro reflex - Given
C. Heart rateD. Respiratory rate
44. During a prenatal visit at 38 weeks, a nurse assesses the fetal heart rate. The nurse determines that the fetal heart rate

is normal if which of the following is noted? 

A. 80 BPM B.150 BPM
C.180 BPM  D. 100 BPM
45. A multiparous client who has been in labor for 2 hours states that she feels the urge to move her bowels. How should

the nurse respond? 

A. Perform a pelvic examination B. Check the fetal heart rate
C. Let the client get up to use the potty D. Allow the client to use a bedpan 
46. The nurse should realize that the most common and potentially harmful maternal complication of epidural anesthesia

would be: 
A. Severe postpartum headache B. Increase in respiratory rate
C. Hypotension  D. Limited perception of bladder fullness

47. During the period of induction of labor, a client should be observed carefully for signs of: 
A. Uterine tetany  B. Umbilical cord prolapse
C. Severe pain D. Hypoglycemia

48. The breathing technique that the mother should be instructed to use as the fetus’ head is crowning is: 
A. Shallow B. Blowing C. Accelerated-
decelerated  D. Slow chest
49. A laboring client complains of low back pain. The nurse replies that this pain occurs most when the position of the

fetus is: 
A. Occiput anterior B. Breech
C. Occiput posterior  D. Transverse

50. Which of the following fetal positions is most favorable for birth? 
A. Vertex presentation  B. Frank breech presentation
C. Posterior position of the fetal head D. Transverse lie
51. Normal lochia findings in the first 24 hours post-delivery include:
A. Bright red blood B. Large clots or tissue fragments
C. A foul odor. D. The complete absence of lochia

52. A patient is in the second stage of labor. During this stage, how frequently should the nurse in charge assess her
uterine contractions?
A. Every 5 minutes B. Every 15 minutes
C. Every 30 minutes D. Every 60 minutes

53. A patient is in last trimester of pregnancy. Nurse Jane should instruct her to notify her primary health care provider
immediately if she notices:
A. Blurred vision B. Hemorrhoids
C. Increased vaginal mucus D. Shortness of breath on exertion

54. A client telephones the clinic to ask about a home pregnancy test she used this morning. The nurse understands that
the presence of which hormone strongly suggests a woman is pregnant?
A. Estrogen B. HCG
C. Alpha-fetoprotein D. Progesterone

55. The nurse is assessing a six-month-old child. Which developmental skills are normal and should be expected?
A. Speaks in short sentences. B. Sits alone.
C. Can feed self with a spoon. D. Pulling up to a standing position.

56. While giving nursing care to a hospitalized adolescent, the nurse should be aware that the MAJOR threat felt by the
hospitalized adolescent is
 A. Pain managementB. Restricted physical activity
C.Altered body image D. Separation from family

57. The nurse is assessing a four month-old infant. The nurse would anticipate finding that the infant would be able to
A. Hold a rattle B. Bang two blocks
C. Drink from a cup D. Wave “bye-bye”

58. Tuberculosis (TB) is an example of

A. Pandemic B. prodemic
C. endemic D. epidemic

59.  People who are infected with, likely to live their whole life
A. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
B. HIV
C. lungs cancer
D. All of above
60.  Polio is known as humans haunt after eradication of
A. Tuberculosis B. measles
C.chickenpox D. smallpox
61. Rice water is clinical name of
A. Diarrhea B. measles
C. Chronic Bronchitis D. Emphysema
62.  Childhood blindness can be caused due to
A. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (HIV/AIDS)
B. malaria
C. measles
D. tuberculosis
63.  Pathogen for Measles is known as
A. Variola Virus B. Vibrio Cholera
C. Plasmodium D. Morbillivirus
64.  Infectious diseases include
A. Malnutrition B. cystic fibrosis
C.Retinoblastoma D.tuberculosis
65.  Variola virus has been known to cause
A. Malaria B. measles
C. smallpox D. chickenpox

66.  Incubation period of Vibrio cholera has duration of

A. few hours to four days B. two hours to five days
C.two hours to fifteen days. D.None of above
67. Action site of cholera virus is
A. small intestine B. large intestine
C.faeces of infected person D. stomach
68. Vaccination is a major control measure for
A. infectious diseases B. genetic diseases
C. long term degenerative diseases D. deficiency diseases
69. People who are affected by an infection are called
A. translocations B. pathogens
C. phagocytic individual’s D. carriers
70. A patient develops explosive, watery diarrhea 24 hours after eating seafood. What bacterium is most likely involved?
A.  Campylobacter fetus B. Salmonella typhimurium
C. Shigella flexneri D.  Vibrio cholera
 KEYS( CHN II )
1. a
2. b
3c
4d
5a
6b
7c
8d
9a
10 b
11 c
12 d
13 b
14 b
15 d
16 d
17 d
18 d
19 d
20 a
21 d
22 a
23 b
24 a
25 a
26 a
27 c
28 d
29 a
30 a
31 c
32 a
33 c
34 c
35 c
36 b
37 d
38 c
39 a
40 d
41 c
42 c
43 c
44 b
45 a
46 c
47 a
48 b
49 c
50 a
51 a
52 b
53 a
54 b
55 b
56 c
57 a
58 c
59 d
60 d
61 a
62 c
63 d
64 d
65 c
66 b
67 a
68 a
69 d
70 b