Year 3rd Semester 5th

Community Health Nursing II

1. A 4 week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization.
Which can be given to him?

A. Infant BCG B. OPV1

C. DPT1 D. Hepatitis B Vaccine

2. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant had?

A. Abscess formation after DPT1 B. Seizures a day after DPT1

C. Fever for 3 days after DPT1 D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT1

3. A 1 1/2 year old child was classified as having 3rd degree of protein energy
malnutrition, kwashiorkor. Which of the following signs will be most apparent in
this child?

A. Voracious appetite B. Wasting

C. edema (swelling) of ankles, feet, and belly D. Apathy

4. Which biological used in EPI should not be stored in the freezer?

A Measles vaccine B. OPV

C. MMR D. DPT
5. Among the following diseases, which is airborne?

A. Measles B. Acute poliomyelitis

C. Viral conjunctivitis D Diphtheria

6. A 4-year old client was brought to the health center with chief complaint of
severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water”. The client is most probably
suffering from which condition?

A. Giardiasis B. Cholera
C. Amebiasis D. Dysentery

7. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is:

A. DPT B. meningitis
C. yellow fever D. influenza

8. A woman, 6 months pregnant, came to the center for consultation. Which of the
following substances is contraindicated?

A. Tetanus toxoid B. Potassium iodate 200 mg, capsule

C. Ferrous sulfate 200mg D. Retinol 200,000 IU

9. You are in a client’s home to attend to a delivery. Which of the following will
you do first?

A. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor and contractions

B. Set up a sterile area
C. Cleanse the client’s vulva with soap and water
D Put on a clean gown and apron
10. You explain to a breastfeeding mother that breast milk is sufficient for all of
the baby’s nutrient needs only up to:

A. 3 months B. 6 months
C. 1 year D. 2 years
11. What is given to a woman within a month after the delivery of a baby?

A. Malanga capsule B. Ferrous sulfate l00mg O.D

C. Retinol 200.000 IU 1 capsule. D. Potassium Iodate 200 mg, 1 capsule

12. Which biological used in EPI is stored in the freezer?

A. DPT B. Hepatitis B vaccine

C. Tetanus toxoid D. Measles vaccine

13. Unused BCG should be discarded how many hours after reconstitution?

A. 2 B. 4
C. 6 D. At the end of the day

14. Which immunization produces a permanent scar?

A. DPT B. BCG
C. Measles vaccination D. Hepatitis B vaccination

15. Population- focused nursing practice requires which of the following

processes?

A. Community organizing B. Nursing process

B. Epidemiologic process D. Community diagnosis

16. Which of the following disease is caused by virus?

A. cholera and T.B B. aids and syphilis

C. typhoid and tetanus D. rabies and mumps

17. Region IV Hospital is classified as what level of facility?

A. Primary B. Secondary
C. Intermediate D. Tertiary
18. According to W.H.O adolescence are divided into_______ periods

A. 9 B. 7
B. 5 D. 3

19. You are a new B.S.N. graduate. You want to become a Public Health Nurse.
Where will you apply?

A. Department of Health B. Provincial Health Office

C. Regional Health Office D. Rural Health Unit

20. Which level of health facility is the usual point of entry of a client into the
health care delivery system?

A. Primary B. Secondary
C. Intermediate D. Tertiary

21. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of

disease?

A. Pre-pathogenesis B. Pathogenesis
C. Prodromal D. Terminal

22. Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?

A. Primary B. Secondary
C. Intermediate D. Tertiary

23. Modifiable risk factors in case of Hypertension include all, EXCEPT:

A. Obesity B. Age
C. Alcohol intake D. Salt intake
24. The diseases notifiable to the WHO under the International Regulation Act are

all except:

A. Diphtheria B. Plague
 C .Cholera D. Yellow Fever

25. Measles vaccine is given under the National Immunization Program:

A. 9 Months B. 6 months
C. 18 months D.6 weeks

26. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is

A. deltoid B. gluteal
C. forearm D. lateral aspect of thigh

27. Infections primarily of animals that can be transmitted through milk is all,

EXCEPT:

A. Brucellosis B. Tuberculosis
C. Malaria D. Q fever

28. Vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy is

A. OPV B. Tetanus
C. influenza D. Rubella

29. In control of communicable diseases, the period of quarantine in respect of a

disease is determined by:

A. Incubation period B. Infectivity period

C. Duration of illness D. Carrier state

30. Vaccine which requires most stringent condition for storage:

A. OPV B. Tetanus Toxoid

C. DPT D. BCG

31. Measles vaccine is kept in refrigerator in:

A. Chilled tray B. Shelves in the door

C. Freezer D. Tray below the freezer

32. Ideal temperature for DPT storage is:

 A. 4 to 8 degree Celsius B. 15 to 20 degree Celsius
C. 0 to -20 degree Celsius D. Room temperature

33. Which of the following is not a live vaccine?

A. Hib vaccine B. BCG

C.OPV D. Ty 21 against typhoid

34. Measles vaccine should be used within the following time after

reconstitution:

A. 30 minutes B. 2 hours
C. 1 hour D. 3 hours

35. Which of the following vaccine was introduced most lately?

A. Pertussis B. Measles
C. Rubella D. Mumps

36. Smallpox was eradicated because of the following factors except:

A. Long incubation period B. Extra human reservoir control

C. Potent vaccine D. Easy to recognize

37. All stages of rash are seen in:

A. Smallpox B. Measles
C. Typhoid D. Chickenpox

38. Which of the following diseases gives life-long immunity after an attack?

A. Diphtheria – Given B. Tetanus

C. Typhoid D. Mumps

39. When performing a newborn assessment, the nurse should measure the vital

signs in the following sequence:

A. Respirations, pulse, temperature B. Respirations, temperature, pulse

C. Temperature, pulse, respirations D. Pulse, respirations, temperature
40. The expected respiratory rate of a neonate within 3 minutes of birth may be as

high as:

A. 100 B. 50
C.80 D. 60

41. A baby is born precipitously in the ER. The nurses initial action should be

to:

A. Quickly tie and cut the umbilical cord

B. Ascertain the condition of the fundus
C. Establish an airway for the baby
D. Move mother and baby to the birthing unit

42. Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A nurse prepares to administer the

medication in which muscle site?

A. Triceps B. Biceps
C. Vastus lateralis D. Deltoid

43. The primary critical observation for Apgar scoring is the:

A. Presence of meconium B. Evaluation of the Moro reflex - Given

C. Heart rate D. Respiratory rate

44. During a prenatal visit at 38 weeks, a nurse assesses the fetal heart rate. The
nurse determines that the fetal heart rate is normal if which of the following is

noted?

A. 80 BPM B.150 BPM

C.180 BPM D. 100 BPM

45. A multiparous client who has been in labor for 2 hours states that she feels

the urge to move her bowels. How should the nurse respond?

A. Perform a pelvic examination B. Check the fetal heart rate

C. Let the client get up to use the potty D. Allow the client to use a bedpan

46. The nurse should realize that the most common and potentially harmful

maternal complication of epidural anesthesia would be:

 A. Severe postpartum headache B. Increase in respiratory rate
C. Hypotension D. Limited perception of bladder fullness

47. During the period of induction of labor, a client should be observed carefully

for signs of:

A. Uterine tetany B. Umbilical cord prolapse

C. Severe pain D. Hypoglycemia

48. The breathing technique that the mother should be instructed to use as the

fetus’ head is crowning is:

A. Shallow B. Blowing
C. Accelerated-decelerated D. Slow chest

49. A laboring client complains of low back pain. The nurse replies that this pain

occurs most when the position of the fetus is:

A. Occiput anterior B. Breech

C. Occiput posterior D. Transverse

50. Which of the following fetal positions is most favorable for birth?

A. Vertex presentation B. Frank breech presentation

C. Posterior position of the fetal head D. Transverse lie

51. Normal lochia findings in the first 24 hours post-delivery include:

A. Bright red blood B. Large clots or tissue fragments

C. A foul odor. D. The complete absence of lochia

52. A patient is in the second stage of labor. During this stage, how frequently
should the nurse in charge assess her uterine contractions?

A. Every 5 minutes B. Every 15 minutes

C. Every 30 minutes D. Every 60 minutes

53. A patient is in last trimester of pregnancy. Nurse Jane should instruct her to
notify her primary health care provider immediately if she notices:

A. Blurred vision B. Hemorrhoids

 C. Increased vaginal mucus D. Shortness of breath on exertion

54. A client telephones the clinic to ask about a home pregnancy test she used
this morning. The nurse understands that the presence of which hormone
strongly suggests a woman is pregnant?

A. Estrogen B. HCG
C. Alpha-fetoprotein D. Progesterone

55. The nurse is assessing a six-month-old child. Which developmental skills are
normal and should be expected?

A. Speaks in short sentences. B. Sits alone.

C. Can feed self with a spoon. D. Pulling up to a standing position.

56. While giving nursing care to a hospitalized adolescent, the nurse should be
aware that the MAJOR threat felt by the hospitalized adolescent is

A. Pain management B. Restricted physical activity

C. Altered body image D. Separation from family

57. The nurse is assessing a four month-old infant. The nurse would anticipate
finding that the infant would be able to

A. Hold a rattle B. Bang two blocks

C. Drink from a cup D. Wave “bye-bye”

58. Tuberculosis (TB) is an example of

A. Pandemic B. prodemic
C. endemic D. epidemic

59. People who are infected with, likely to live their whole life

A. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

 B. HIV
C. lungs cancer
D. All of above

60. Polio is known as humans haunt after eradication of

A. Tuberculosis B. measles
C.chickenpox D. smallpox

61. Rice water is clinical name of

A. Diarrhea B. measles
C. Chronic Bronchitis D. Emphysema

62. Childhood blindness can be caused due to

A. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (HIV/AIDS)

B. malaria
C. measles
D. tuberculosis

63. Pathogen for Measles is known as

A. Variola Virus B. Vibrio Cholera

C. Plasmodium D. Morbillivirus

64. Infectious diseases include

A. Malnutrition B. cystic fibrosis

C. Retinoblastoma D. tuberculosis

65. Variola virus has been known to cause

A. Malaria B. measles
C. smallpox D. chickenpox

66. Incubation period of Vibrio cholera has duration of

 A. few hours to four days B. two hours to five days
C. two hours to fifteen days. D. None of above

67. Action site of cholera virus is

A. small intestine B. large intestine

C. faeces of infected person D. stomach

68. Vaccination is a major control measure for

A. infectious diseases B. genetic diseases

C. long term degenerative diseases D. deficiency diseases

69. People who are affected by an infection are called

A. translocations B. pathogens
C. phagocytic individual’s D. carriers

70. A patient develops explosive, watery diarrhea 24 hours after eating seafood.
What bacterium is most likely involved?

A. Campylobacter fetus B. Salmonella typhimurium

C. Shigella flexneri D. Vibrio cholera

KEYS( CHN II )
1. a
2. b
3c
4d
5a
6b
7c
8d
9a
10 b
11 c
12 d
13 b
14 b
15 d
16 d
17 d
18 d
19 d
20 a
21 d
22 a
23 b
24 a
25 a
26 a
27 c
28 d
29 a
30 a
31 c
32 a
33 c
34 c
35 c
36 b
37 d
38 c
39 a
40 d
41 c
42 c
43 c
44 b
45 a
46 c
47 a
48 b
49 c
50 a
51 a
52 b
53 a
54 b
55 b
56 c
57 a
58 c
59 d
60 d
61 a
62 c
63 d
64 d
65 c
66 b
67 a
68 a
69 d
70 b