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2021 Neet Question Paper

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05 2 released from

height S from th
is
5. A particle Ata certain kinetiic
height its
Section A (Physics) Earth.
surface ofthe times its potential energy. Th
The
energy
is three earth and the speed of
surface of
The effective resistance of a parallel connection that height from the
1. are respectively:
that instant
consists of four wires of equal length, equal area ot the particle at
cross-section and same material is 0.25Q. What
will be the effective resistance if they are connected 3g5
(1) 2
in series?
(1) 1Q 3gS
(2)
(2)
0.250
(3) 2
(4) 0.5Q

2.
()
For plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
a

a-direction, which one of the following combination the molecules:


gives the correct possible directions for electric 6. Polar molecules are when magnetic
moment only
field (E) and magneticfield (B) respectively? (1) acquire a dipole
field is absent.
A
() electric dipole moment.
jtk,-- (2) having a permanent
moment.
(3) having zero dipole
(2) -jtk, -j+k acquire a dipole moment only
in the presence
(4)
of electric field due to displacement of
A A

j+k,j+k, j+k charges.


7. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are
chosen as the fundamental physical quantities.
Find the dimensions of energy.
A capacitor of capacitance C, is connected across
) [F] [A][T-1]
an ac source of voltage V, given by
(2) [F] [A-1] IT]
V=Vo sinot (3) [FI[A] [T]
The displacement current between the plates of 4) [FILA] [T]
the capacitor, would then be given by:
8. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of
15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
() I wC
sinot frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
much power is generated by the turbine?
2) I-Vg %Csinot g=10m/s)
(3) =Vo Ccosot (1) 12.3 kW
(2 7.0 kW
4) .Vo
Ia-cosot
wC
(3) 10.2 kW
4) 8.1 kW
The number of photons per second on an average 9. Anucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of
fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the powerof energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is
3.3x 10-3 watt will be: (h=6.6x 10-34 Js) 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The
(1) 1016 total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is:

(2) 1015 (1) 804 MeV


(2) 216 MeV
3)1018 (3) 0.9 MeV
1017
) (4) 9.4 MeV
bo67a739
05
3 carries a
conductor
10. A screw gauge gives the following readings when 13. An infinitely long straight e l e c t r o n is moving
An
c u r r e n t of 5 A a s shown.
used to measure the diameter of a wire the conductor.
with a speed of 10
m/s parallel to
the electron
distance between
Main scale reading: 0 mm The perpendicular instant.
20 at an
the c o n d u c t o r is
c m

and of the experienced


force
Circular scale reading: 52 divisions Calculate the magnitude
at that instant.
the electron
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to by
100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter Electron U=10) m/s
of the wire from the above data is

0.26 cm 20 cm

(2) 0.052 cm

(3) 0.52 cm
P BA
4TX 10-20N
(1)
(4) 0.026 cn
8x 10-20N
(2)
4x 10-20 N
The equivalent capacitance of the combination (3)
11.
8TX 10-20 N
shownin the figure is: (4)
concentration in an n-type
14. The electron concentration
is the s a m e as hole
semiconductor
semiconductor. An external field
C in a p-type
each of them. Compare
(electric) is applied a c r o s s
the currents in them.
current in n-type > current in p-type.
(1)
current will
(1) C/2 (2) No current will flow in p-type,
only flow in n-type.
(2) 3C/2 current in n-type = current in p-type.
3)
3) 3C current in p-type > current in n-type.
(4)
(4 2C
cm and a concave
15. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20
the
lens 'B of focal length 5 cm are kept along
field shown. In Ifa
dipole is placed in an electric them.
as between
12. A s a m e axis with a
distance 'd'
which direction will it move? 'A' leaves 'B asa
parallel beam of light falling
on

then the distance d' in cm will be


parallel beam,
1) 50

2) 30

8) 25

(4) 15

16 Alens of large focal length and large aperture is


an astronomical
will best suited as an objective of
(1) towards the left as its potential energy
decrease. telescopesince
the quality
will s(1)tia large aperture contributes to
towards the right as its potential energy and visibility of the images.
(2
increase. better
large area of the objective
ensures

will (2) a
towards the left as its potential energy light gathering power.
(8)
increase. better resolution.
3) a large aperture provides a
as its potential energy
will
towards the right all of the above.
4) 4)
decrease.
05
radiua 'R carrio.
17. A spring is sitretched A thick current carrying cable ot
by 5 ctn by a fote 10 N. The 21 distributed acrosa 23
time perind of
the oscillsticiIs when m e of 2 kg current T uniformly ita
is suspended by it is eross-secetion. The variation of magnetie field B
due the cable with the
to
distance'r firóm the axi
1) 3.14s by
ofthe cable is represented
0.628s
(3) 0.0628 s
(4) 6.28s
(1) B
18. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours
The fraction of original activity that will remain
after 150 hours would be:

(1)
2)

(2)

(3) 1/2

(4)
22
(3) B
19. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R, and
R are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of
surface charge densities of the spheres (la,) is:

(1)
VR2
(4) B

(2)
R
22. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric
3)
field 'E' in the space between the plates. f the
distance between the plates is 'd' and the area of
(4) R2 each plate is 'A', the energy stored in the capacitor
R is:Epermittivityoffree space)

0. In a potentiometer circuit a cell ofEMF 1.5 Vgives oEAd


balance point at 36 cm length of wire. Ifanother
cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at
what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?
(2
EAd
(1) 64 cm

(2) 62 cm (3)
60 em

(4) 21.6 cm 4) EAd


O5
the
23. Anelectromagnetic wave of wavelength i s 27. Find the valueofthe angleofemergencev3.
incident on a photosensitive surfece of negligible is
prism. Refractive index of the glass
work function. 1f m mass is of
photoe lectrom
emitted frcm the sirface has de-Broglie wavelength
Ag. then

1)

A2
60
(3) Ah () 45

() A 2me 90

24. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with 60


frequency 'ni, the frequency of its potential energy
(4 30
(1) 3n
(2) 4n
(3) n 28. Aradioactive nucleusX undergoesspontaneous
) 2n decay in the sequence
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) where Z is the
25.
and identify the correct answer.
2Xz-1B-z-3Cz-gD.
atomic number of element X. The possible decay
(A) Azener diode is connected in reverse bias,
when used as a voltage regulator.
particles in the sequence are:
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies (1) B,a, B
between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
(1) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect. 2) B. a, B*
(2) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
(3) a. p*
(3) (A) and (B) both are correct.
(4 (A) and (B) both are incorrect. (4)aB.B
26. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are
connected in series to an ac source of potential 29. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined
difference V volts as shown in figure. plane, starting from rest at time t=0. Let S, be
Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, the distance travelled by the block in the interval
10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of
t=n-1to t=n. Then, the ratio Sn is
current flowing through LCR series circuit is
10/2 A. The impedance of the circuit is:
2n+1
000H 2n-1
40 V -10 V -40 V 2n
(2) 2n-1

(1) 40 (3) 2n-1


(2) 50 2n
(3) 42
2n-1
(4) 5/2 9 (4) 2n+1
720 a4
05
6
30 Match Column -1 end Column I1 arid choose Tf E and G reapectively denote ener
the correct natch ana
from the the
given choices. gravitationalconstant, thenhas
G dimension
Coumn-1 Column- of:
36
(1) (MILI[T°
Root mean square
(P) m2

speed of gas molecules (2 MIL-1(T-1

(M'I(L-I[T°]
B) Pressure exerted 3RT
[MI [L-J [T-1
by ideal gas
34 The velocity of a small ball of mass M and
(C) Average kinetic energy ( ensity
of a molecule RT d. when dropped in a container filled with glycerir
becomes constant after some time. If the densits

D) of glycerine i s , then the viscous force actingoon


Total internal energy
of 1 mole of a
S) kgT the ball will be
diatomic gas
( Mg
(1) (A)-(Q). B)- P), (C)- (S), (D) -(R)
(2) (A)- (R). B) (Q). (C)-(P). (2) 2Mg
(D)- (S)
-

(3) (A)- (R), (B)- (P). (C)- (s), (D)- (Q


(3) Mg
(4 (A)- (Q.(B) (R), (C)- (S), D)- (P)
-

31. The escape velocity from the Earth's (4) Mg


surface is v.
The escape velocity from the surface of
another
planet having a radius, four times that of Earth 35. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated
and same mass density is: with flow of current through a metalic conductor.
Column II gives some mathematical relations
-

(1) 3u
involving electrical quantities. Match
(2) 4U Column I and Column II with appropriate
- -

relations.
(3)
Column -I Column-II
(4) 2u

(A) Drift Velocity P) 2


32. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes, ne"p
when the room temperature is 20°C. The time
Laken bya similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q neua
to 60°C at a room temperature same at 20°C is:

10 C) Relaxation Period ( e T
(1) 13 m

D) Current Density S)
()
1) (A)-(R), (B)-P), (C)-(S), D-(Q)
(3)
13
10 (2) (A)-R), (B)-Q. (C)-(S), (D)-(P)
8 (A)-R), (B-S), (C)-P,D)
(4) 19 4) (A)-R), (B)-S), (C-(). (D)-(P)
O6

circular ring of
mass
'M and radiun 'R an
From a The
3 to a 0 sector is removed.
Section B (Physics) are
correspondint
remaining part of the ring
of inertia otthe
A particle moving in circle of radis R with a Imonment
the centre ot the
B6. about an axis paaing throuth
to com plete one to the plane of the ring
uniform sipeed takes a tithe
in

Ping and perpendieular


revrilution
times 'MR".
Then the vnlue K is of
speed R
this particle were projected with the
save
1f
t an angle ® to the horizontal, the maximum
The angle of
height attained by it equals 4R. ()
projectin, , is then given by

=sin 7 ' n 2
(1) &T

-sin 2 T )
2)
R
(
(3)
resistances r, tg and r
40. Three resistors having
a s shown in the given
circuit. The
-Cog R )2 are connected
(4) resistances used
ratio ofcurrents in terms of
37. In the product in the circuit is:

F-xB)
w
-qux{Bi+B,+B,)
B
For q-1 and v-2i +4j+6k and

F-4i-20+12k
B?
What will be the complete expression for (1)
a)8i+8j-6k
(2) 2
(2) 6i+6j-8k n+3

(3)-8i -8j-6k 2+3


4) -6i-6j-8k
88. Two conducting circular loops of radii R, and R2 (4) 2
are placed in the same plane with their
centres 2t3
coinciding. IfR,>>R, the mutual inductance M
between them will be directly proportional to:
41. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a heig
10m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the sar
height. The magnitude of impulse imparted
Be the ball is (g= 10 m/s) nearly:
(2) (1) 2.1 kg m/s
R
R (2) 1.4 kg m/a
(3)
3) 0 kg m/s

4) B2 (4) 4.2 kg m/s


R
O5
42 Twenty seven dropa of same size are chaa

220Veach. They combine form a bivtat


to

1TEIr e r e pit Caleulate the potential of the bigger drop bigger drnp.
tif the perpeniieeilset to the prinpal AX
Jeihs ahdet
finsl distahce of 40 n from 1t, the (1) 1520 V
imge otld be formed
stadistance on (2 1980 V

660 V

( 1320 V

45. A car starts from rest and accelerates at


At t-4 s, a ball is dropped out of a windowm/g
30em 40 em What is the velorits.
person sitting in the
car.
(1) 30 em from the plane mirror, it and
1irtual image would be a accelerationof the ball at t=6s?
2) 20 em from the
(Take g= 10 m/s
1irtual image
plane mirror, it would be a 20/2 m/s, 0
(1)
() 20 em from the lens, it
rould be a real 2 20/2 m/s. 10 m/s
1DAge.
(4) 30 cm (3) 20 m/s. 6 m/s
from the lens, it would be a real
image ( 20 m/s. 0
43. For the given circuit, the
46 A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor
appied at the terminals A,input digital signals are
B and C. What would S0 uF capacitor and 40 N resistor is connected to
be the output at the
terminal y ? 230 V variable frequency
ac source.
The angular
frequencies of the source at which power
5 transferred to the circuit is half the power at the
A
0 resonant angular frequency are likely to be:
(1) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
5 (2) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
B
0- (3) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
50 rad/s and 25 rad/s

47. A uniform rod of length 200 and


mass 500 g is
cm
balanced on a wedge placed at
40 cm mark. A
mass of 2 kg is suspended from
the rod at 20 cm
and another unknown mass 'm' is
suspended from
the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the
Find the value of 'm' such that the rodfigure.
is in
equilibrium. (g= 10 m/s)
B 0 20 cm 40 cm 160 cm

A
2 ks m
(1)
t6 (1) kE
-OV

(2)
-5V
oV
3172923
(3) 5V
(3) kg
5V
(4)
-0V ( k
9
48. A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity Section A (Chemistry)
U=kV,(k< 1) from the surface of the earth. dehydrohalogenation
51. The major product forined in This
is Pent-2-ene.
V.escape velocity) reaction of 2-Bromo pentane
on?
product formation is based
The maximum height above the surface reached Hofmann Rule
(1)
by the particle is Huckel's Rule
2)
(3) Saytzeffs Rule
Rk Hund's Rule
(1) ()
1+k bond
bond enthalpy of C-X
52. The correct sequence of
Rk2 is
CH-F<CH-Cl> CH-Br> CH-I
(2) 1-k2
(1)
(2) CH-CI>CH-F> CH-Br >CH,-I
(3) CH-F< CH-Cl<CH-Br< CH3-I
(3) 1) CH-F> CH-Cl>CH-Br> CH,-I
New Delhi,
53. Aparticular station of All India Radio,
broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
emitted by the transmitter is: [speed of light,
c=3.0x 105 me
(1) 2192 m
49. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains (2) 21.92 cm
supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W (3) 219.3 m
lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, (4) 219.2 m
what is the current in the primary circuit?
54. Zr Z=40) and Hf (Z= 72) have similar atomic and
(1) 2A ionic radii because of:
(1) lanthanoid contraction
(2) 4A 3172923
(2) having similar chemical propertie
3) 0.2A (3) belonging to same group
4) diagonal relationship
(4) 0.4 A
55. The pK, of dimethylamine and pK, of acetic acid
are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
50.
resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carryingg solution is:
coil in the shape of, (1) 7.75
(2) 6.25
an equilateral triangle of side 'a'.
(3) 8.50

a square of side 'a'. (4) 5.50


i)
56. The incorrect statement among the following
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each
is
case respectively are:
(1) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and
(1) 3Iaand 4 Ia2 electricity.
(2) Actinoids are highly reactive metals,
(2) 4 Iaand 3 Ia2 especially when finely divided.
(3) Actinoid contraction is greater for element
to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
(3) 3Ia and 3 Ia2
(4) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are
(4) 3 Iaand Ia2 colorless in the solid state.
O5
10
radioactive isotope of hydy
67.
The correct option for the number of body centred 61. Tritium, n
following particles?
ogen, emit,
unit cells in all 14 types of 1Bravais lattice uni which of the
Camma (Y) 68.
cells is: (1)
Neutron (n)
(1) 2 (2)
(3) Beta (s)
(2) 3
4) Alpha ()
(3) 7
Which one of the following polymers is pror
(4) 62. ared
by addition polymerisation?

Novolac
58. The maximum (1)
in blast
temperature that can be achieved (2) Dacron
furnace is: Teflon
(1) (3)
upto 1900 K Nylon-66
(4) 69.
(2) upto 5000 K Noble gases are named because of their inert-
63.
(3) upto 1200OK Identify incorr
towards reactivity. an
rrect
(4) upto 2200 K statement about them.

(1) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces


59. Given below are two statements: Noble gases have large positive values o
(2)
electron gain enthalpy.
Statement I: (3) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
Aspirin and
Paracetamol belong to the class of Noble gases have very high melting and
narcotic analgesics. (4)
boiling points
Statement II: Right option for the number of tetrahedral and
64.
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell
In the light of the above are:
correct answer from the
statements, choose the
options given below. (1) 2, 1
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II (2) 12, 6
is false. (3) 8, 4
(2) Statement I i s incorrect but
4) 6, 12
Statement II is true.
65. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides,
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are one which is covalent and soluble in organic
true. solventsis
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) Magnesium chloride
false. (2) Beryllium chloride
(3) Calcium chloride
60. Identify the compound that will react with Hlinsberg's (4) Strontium chloride
reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
66. Which one among the following is the correct option
CH2 for right relationship between
Cp and Cy for one
(1) CH NH mole of ideal gas ?
(1) Cp=RCy
CH2
N CH2 CH3
(2) Cy=RCp
CHCH 8) Cp+Cy=R
4) Cp-Cy R
CH3
67. The right option for the statement
CH2 is exhibited by", is: "Tyndall effect
(3) CH (1) Starch solution
(2) Urea solution
CH (3) NaCl solution
(4) CH
(4) Glucose solution
11 II.
I with List
-

70. Match List -

The ollowing sohtàons were prepared by dissolving List II


10 gofgluoose (C,HO) in 250 ml of water (P) List-I
10gofurea (CH,N,O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and Sequare p y r a m i d a l

10 of sucrose (C1HgO1) in 250 ml of PCl 0)


(a)
water (P). The right option for the decreasing Trigonal planar
(b) SFo (i)
order ofosmotic pressure of these solutions is:
Octahedral
(ii)
PgPa> P () BrF Trigonal bipyramidal
Ps>P>Pa (d) BF (iv)
given
Pa>P> Pa correct answer
from the options
Choose the
( PPa>P below.
(d)-(i)
Choose the correct option for graphical () (a)-Gii), (b)-G). (c)-Gv),
representation of Boyle's law, which shows a graph (d)-)
of pressure vs, volume of a gas at different (2) (a)-4v). b)-ii), (©-6i),
temperatures: (d)-(i)
3) (a)-Giv), (b)-Gi), (o)-6),
200 (a)-(i), b)-ii), (c)-(iv).
(d)-)
A00K (4)
600
K
of reaction is
6 0 0

71. For reaction A->B, enthalpy


a activation is
-4.2 kJ mol- and enthalpy of
energy profile
9.6 kJ mol-, The correct potential
for the reaction is shown option.
in

Volume (V)
(dm

(1) PE A B
600 K Reaction Progress
2 400
200

Volume (V)
(dm) B
PE
(2) A
Reaction Progress

(3) 200 K
400
600

Volume (V)> PE
(dm) (3)

Reaction Progress

(200 K, 400 K, 600 K

(4)
PEA
B
Volume (V)
(dm) Reaction Progress
O5
12
72. of the organic
comn.
Statement I: 75. What is the IUPAC
name

formed in the following


chemical reaction?nd 81.
Acid strength increases in the order
HF HCl
given as
<< << HBr << HI.
Acetone
G)CH,MgBr, dry Ether,Product
i ) H20, H*
Statement II:
As the size of the elements pentan-3-ol
F, CI, Br, I increases (1)
down the group, the bond 2-methyl butan-2-o1
strength of HF, HCI,
HBr and HI decreases and so the (2)
acid strength 2-methyl propan-2-ol
increases. 8)
In the light of the above pentan-2-ol
statements, choose the 82.
correct answer from the options below.given The structures of beryllium chloride in solid stato
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II 76. tate
is false. and vapour phase, a r e :
(1) Dimer and Linear, respectively
(2) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true. (2) Chain in both

(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are 3) Chain and dimer, respectively
83.
true.
(4) Linear in both
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false. 77. The compound which shows metamerism is:

(1) CgHgO
73. The major product of the following chemical
reaction is: (2) CH00
CH3 3) CsH12
CH.CH-CH=CH+ HBr ,CO),0, 4) CgHO 84

78. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of:


(1)
CH3
CH-CH-CH3 (1) Vitamin B
CH3 Br (2) Vitamin B2

CH3 (3 Vitamin B12


CH3CBr-CH2-CH3
(2) Vitamin B

CH3 79.
Which of the
following reactions is the metal
(3) CH-CH2-CH2-Br displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
CH3 (1) Fe+2HCl>FeCl2+H2
CH
2 2PbNO22Pb0+
+4NO2+OT
CH-CH,-CH2-0- COCgH
CH3 (3) 2KCIO 2KCI+30,
74. BF is planar and electron deficient compound.
4) Cr,Og+2A1 A1,O,+2Cr
Hybridization and number of electrons around the
80. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane
central atom, respectively are is
1) spand 6
(1) 60
(2) sp and 8
2) 0

(3) sp and 4 (3 120


(4) sp$ and 6 (4) 180
05
13
Section B (Chemistry)
81. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCI and
CH,COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 Match List - I with List - II
86. List -II
and 91.0 S cm2 moll respectively. The molar
conductance of CH,COOH at infinite dilution is.
List - I
Acid rain
2S0,(g)+O,(g)> G)
Choose the right option for your answer. (a)
(1) 698.28 S cm2 mol- 1 2SO,()
540.48 S cm2 mol-1 hv (ii) Smog
(2) (b) HOCK)
(8) 201.28 S cm2 mol-1
OH+C1
4) 390.71 S cm2 mol-1 CaCOg+HSO (ii) Ozone

82. Which one of the following methods can be used to CaSO+H,0 + CO2 depletion
obtain highly pure nmetal which is liquid at room Civ) Tropospheric
NO,(g) h
temperature? d)
pollution
(1) Distillation NO(g)+OE
from the options given
(2) Zone refining Choose the correct a n s w e r
(3) Electrolysis below.
(4) Chromatography (1) (a)-iv), (b)-(), (©)-), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-ii), b)-Gi), (©)-iv), (d)-()
83. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right (a)-Gi), (b)-i), (c)-Gi), (d)-(iv)
(a)-i), (b)-(Gii), ()-(iv), (d)-)
option for the empirical formula of this compound A4
is: [Atomic wt. of C is 12, His 1] of chemical
87. The reagent R' in the given sequence
(1) CH reaction is:
(2 CH4 NCI
CH NH2
3 Br
Br
Br NaNO, HC Br
(4) CH2 0-5C

84. The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene Br


Br
is
(1) HI
(2) CuCN/KCN

(1)
(3) HO
(4) CH,CH,OH
srsobdioron
88. CHCH,COO-Nat NaOH,
Heat
+? CH,CH3+
(2) Na,COg
Consider the above reaction and identify the
missing reagent/chemical.
(1) CaO
d DIBAL-H tefs torslait
(2
3) (3) BH6
4) Red Phosphorus

(4) 89. The slope of Arrhenius Plot In k v/s offirst


order reaction is -5x103 K. The value of E of
i t h e reaction is. Choose the correct option for your
85. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is : answer.
(1) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
(2) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor [GivenR=8.314 JK-mol-1]
(1) 166 kJ mol-l
atoms
(3) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two 2) - 83 kJ mol-1
"N donor atoms (3) 41.5 kJ mol- 1

4) Unidentate ligand 0 A83.0 kJ mol-1


O5 14 the value of vapo pre
option for
The c o r r e c t benzene to ont 99.
90. Match List-I with
List- 11. 96.
of n
solution at 45°C
2 is
with
octane in
List-1
molar ratio 3:
List-II
of benzn
(a)
Pe(CN)a1 () 5.92 1BM
[At 46C
vapour
pressure

of octane is 20
is 420
7ene
(b) Pea1,0) 0 BM
(ii) and that mm
280 m m Hg Hy
(c) Pe(CNl (iii)
4.90 BM Assume Ideal gas]
(d) Pe,O (iv) 1.73 BM 336 mm of Hg
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1)
below. 350 mm of Hg
(2)
(1) (a)-), (b)-Gi), (c)-(Gv),. (d)-(Gi) 160 mm of Hg
(3)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-), (C)-Gi), (d)-(ii) 168 mm of Hg
3) (a)-(iv). b)-Gi), )-), (d)-Gii) (4)
(4) (a)-i), b)-(iv), (c)-(Gi), (d)-6i) List-II.
97. Match List - I with
91. From the following pairs of ions which one is not List-II
List-I
an iso-electronic pair?
(1) Mn24, Fe3+ CO, HCI
Anhyd.AICIy i) Hell-Volhar
(2) Fe2+, Mn2+ (a)
(3) 02-, F- CuCl Zelinsky reaction
(4) Nat, Mg2+
92. In which one of the following arrangements the O
given sequence is not strictly according to the (b) R-C-CH,+ (ii) Gattermann-Koch
properties indicated against it ? reaction
(1) NHg < PH
NaOX
Increasing
<AsH<SbH acidic character
(c) R-CH,-OH (ii) Haloform
(2) CO < SiOD
Increasing +R'COOH reaction
<SnO< PbO2 oxidizing power
(3) HF <HCI Increasing acidic
Conc. HS0
<HBr < HI strength
4) H0 < HS a) R-CH,C0OH (iv) Esterification
Increasing pKa
<H,Se <H,Te values ) X/Red P
(i) H20
93.
For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under
isothermal condition, the correct option is: Choose the correct answer firom the options given
(1) AU=0, AStotal#0 below.
(2) AU#0, AStotal =0 () (a)-, b)-6v), ©-(ii), d)-)
(3) AU=0, AStotal0 (2) (a)-Gi), b)-(Gii), (©)-Gv), d)-G)
(4) AU#0, AStotal#0 ge
(3) (a)-(v), 6)-0), )-i), a)-(Gii)
94. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in 4) (a)-ii), (b)-i), (©)-G), (d)-(iv)
nature?
(1) SbCl 98. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is
(2) NO2 20 S cm2 mol-1. What is the dissociation
(3) POCl constant of acetic acid? Choose the correct option.
(4) CH0
A350 S cm mol1-
95. Choose the correct option for the total pressure
in atm.) in amixture of 4 g Og and 2gHy confined 50 S cm
in a total volume of one litre at 0°C is: CHco0
=
mol
[Given R=0.082 IL atm mol- K-,T=273 K]
(1) 25.18 (1) 1.75x 10-6 mol L-l
(2) 26.02 (2 2.50x 10- mol L-1
(3) 2.5118 (3) 1.75x 10-4 mol L-1
(4) 2.602
(4) 2.50x 10-4 mol L-1
99. The intermediate 15
compound X in the O5
chemical reaction is: following Section- A (Biology: Botany)

CH 101. Gemmae are present in

+CrO,Cl S, H,0 (1) Some Gymnosperms


(2) Some Liverworts
CI (3) Mosses
CH
(1) CI (4) Pteridophytes
102. Amensalism can be represented as
C1 (1) Species A(-);Species B(-)
CH (2) Species A(+); Species B(0)
(2) H
(3) Species A(-);Species B (0)
(4) Species A (+) ; Species B (+)
(3) CH(OCrOHCL) 103. Plants follow different pathways in response to
environment or phases of life to form different
kinds of structures. This ability is called:
(4) CH(OCOCH (1) Plasticity
(2) Maturity
(3) Elasticity
100. The product formed in the
following chemical ) Flexibility
reactionis:
104. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:

CH2-C-OCH Gamma rays

CH3
NaBH2
CaH,OH
(2)
(3)
Zeatin
Kinetin
OH (4) Infrared rays
H
105. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves
CH2-C-CH division of centromere?
(1) OH

CH, Anaphase II
(2) Telophase II
OH (3) Metaphase l
CH--OCH, (4) Metaphase II
(2) 106. Which of the following is an incorrect
CH3 statement?
(1) The perinuclear space forms a barrier
OH H between the materials present inside the
CH-C-OCH, nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
(3) OH (2) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins
and RNA molecules in both directions
CH3 between nucleus and cytoplasmn.
(3) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
CH-CH-OH conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
organelles.
(4)
(4) Microbodies are present both in plant and
CH3 animal cels.
16
Or that 112.
ntuch
The nmountofnutrienta, proentna Carbon.i
lends Founder effeet
to Pounder effect 2
populatiom in
to in nA
wia nd calcium in the Hoil a
given time, ia roferred
na:
()
Mutation Standing atate
(2) (1)
denetic dri Standing erop
(3) (2)
Natural selection Climax
()
()
Genetic reoombination Climax community
(1)
108 Mateh Lint-I with Lint-11. 118, Tho plant hormone
uned to dentroy weeda inin a a

in
Lint List 11
(1) 2,4-1D
(a)Coheaion More attraction in
(2) IBA
liquid phane
Mutual attraction (3) IAA
(hAtheaion i) among water (0) NAA
moleculea 114. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia producete
(c) Surface tennion lGiater losa in liquid|
kinde of spores, Such plants are known as
phase
(d Guttation iv Attraction towards (1) Homosporous
P'polar surfnces Heterosporous
Choone the correct anawer from the
below. options given (3) Homosorus

() Hoterosorus
(a) (b) (o) (ol)
(1) dii) ) iv) 116. Which of the following is a correct sequence
(i)
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
2) (ii) iv) (it)
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
3) (i) (iv) ) (i)
(2) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
() (iv) i) Gi) AS) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
109. The site of 4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
perception of light in plants during
photoperiodism is: 116. Which of the following plants is monoecious?
(1) Axillary bud (1) Marchantia polymorplha
(2) Leaf (2) Cycas circinalis
(3) Shoot apex (3) Carica papaya
(1) Stem A) Chara

117. The production of gametes by the parents


110. Which of the following algao produce Carrageen? formation of zygotes, the P andP, plants, can be
0) Red algae understood from a diagram ealled:
(2) Blue-green algao (1) Punnett square
(3) Green algae (2)Net square
(1) Brown algae (3)Bullet squaro
() Punch squaro
111. When gene targettinginvolving gene amplification
in attempted in an individual'» tissue to troat 118, DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium
disease, it in known as: bromide whon viewed under UV radiation, appear

(1) Molecular dingnosis


(1) Dark red bands
(2) Safety teting
e)Brightblue bands
(3) Biopiracy (3) Yollow banda
Cene therapy ) Bright orange bands
3172923
17
119. Diadelphous stnmenn are fomnd in
123. In the enution (iP - P
Pen
(2) Chinn rose nnd citrue
(3) China roe (1) Knvinmet far
() Citrus ( apirntn bese
120. Match List -I with List -I1
tadiant enerY
(
etardation faetr
List 1
Lint -11
(a)Protoplast fusion 0)Totipoeney 124. Mateh 1ist-1 with List 11
Plant tieRUe culture (iPomato
( Merintem culture i)Somaclonea Aat1 List
(d)Micropropagation (iv) Virun free phanta ntice 0Phellkgn
Choose the correct answer from the
Cork amium 0uherin degreitim
below.
optionn givon eolary corter Exchang f gases
Cork hellderm
(a) (b) (c) (d) Choose the correet anawer from the
(1) (ii) (iv) () (i) Dolow
optiona given
(2) iv) i) i) 0) () (b) o) (d)
A8T (ii) (iv) (i) (0) (1) (0i)
1) (i) i)(iv) (ii)
(2) (v) ) Oi)
121. Match List I with List- 11. (v) (0)

ListList-I List II (4) (ii) 0) (iv) )


(n) Cristao 1) Primary conntriotion in
chromosOnO 126. Which of the following is not an
(Polymernse Chain leaction)
appliention of PCt
b Thylakoids GiDisC-8haped BncH in
Clolgi upparntus () Purification of isolated protein
c) Centromere (iii)nloldinga in
mitochondrin (2) Detection of yene mutation
P'lattened membranou () Moleeular diagnosis
(d) Cisternae iv)BACH in atronu of
Jplastils 4) Clone amplification
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below 126. Which of the following algne contains mannitol a
rosorvo food material?
(a) (b) () (d)
) (il) (iv) ) di) U)Volouox
(2) i) (i) (iv) 0) (2) Ulothrix
(3) (iv) (i) 6) ) (0) Eetocurpus
4) 0) (iv) (iii) (ii) () Craclaries
122. During the purification procom for rocombinant
DNA technology, nddition of ohillod otunol 127. The first stablo product of CO, fixation in Morghum
precipitate8 out
(1) Hintones A Hueeinie acid
(2) Polysuceharidos () Phoaphoglycorie necl
(8) RNA () Pyruvie acid
(4) DNA
) Oxaloacetie acid
q730 List
-
II.

18 List -
I
with
List III 136. Ma
Match

ascular
132.

O5 in ture,
natur List-I cell
competition active
tissues
might with
128. Inspite of interspecificcompeting species
the Cells
which
mechanism
survival?
division capaciy cells Meristematic
all
evolved for their
have
Tissue
( b ) s i m i l a r
having
i n s t r u c t u r e
(i1)tissue
Mutualism
1) a n d function Cii) Sclereids
(c)T1ssue having

(2) Predation typesofhcells


ighly
different with Civ Simple tissue
cells
Dead walls
and
Resource partitioning
(3) thickened
(C
Inarrow lumen the options given
from
Competitive release correct
answer

(4) Select the

below.
() (d)
(a) (b)
middle of Civ)
When the c e n t r o m e r e
is situated in the i )
(i)
129. the chromosome
(1
two equal a r m s of chromosomes, iv)
(ii) (i)
is referred as:
(i) iv)
(3) 137.
(1) Sub-metacentric
(i) i) )
(4) iv)
is n o t correct?
statements
Acrocentric
133. Which ofthe following is always upright.
(1) Pyramid of energy grassland
) Metacentric numbers in a
Pyramid of
(2) ecosystem is upright.
Telocentric
138.
(4) biomass in sea is generally
3) Pyramid of
inverted.

biomass in sea is generally


(4) Pyramid of
sac at maturity is:
130. Atypical angiosperm embryo upright.

7-nucleate and 7-celled of pollen grains from


(1) 134. The term used for transfer
different plant
anthers of one plant to stigma of a
genetically
(2) 8-nucleate and 8-celled which, during pollination, brings
different types of pollen grains to stigma, is:

8-nucleate and 7-celled (1) Chasmogamy


(2) Cleistogamy
7-nucleate and 8-celled
4) 8Xenogamy
(4) Geitonogamy

131. Which of the following are not secondary 135. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
metabolites in plants ?
(a)CDNA mRNA (d)
(1) Vinblastin, curcumin (1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
(c)-Translation; (d)-Protein
(2) Rubber, gums (2) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation;
(c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
3) Morphine, codeine (3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
(4) Amino acids, glucose (4) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication,
(c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
19 05
B
Section (Biology : Botany) 140. In some members of which of the following paira
I with List II.
6
Match List -

- pollen grains retain their viability


of families, for
List I months after release?
List I1
(1) Poaceae; Solanaceae
(aS phase Proteinsare
(2) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
synthesized
(bGe phase i) Inactive phase (3) Poaceae; Rosaceae

(4) Poaceae; Leguminosae


Interval between
(c)Quiescent stage (i mitosis and initiation state ments is correct ?
of DNA replication 141. Which of the following
Organisms that depend on living plants
are
(1)
( G i phase iv) DNA replication called saprophytes.
Choose the correct answer trom the options given (2) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
below called sheath
nitrogen in specialized cells
(a) (b) (c) (d)
iv) i) i)
cells
1) (3) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
2 ) iv) ii)
motile
(8) i) i) iv) (4) Fusion of protoplasms between two
on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
Cav) ) Gi)
7. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the the mutated
process of transcription in eukaryotes?
142. Now days it is possible to detect
a
allowing radioactive probe
gene causing c a n c e r by
(1) Transcribes precursor of mRNA to hybridise its complimentary DNA
in a clone of
2 Transcribes only snRNAs its detection using
cells, followed by
3 Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
autoradiography because:
() Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA on a
(1) mutated gene does not appear
the probe has no
38. Match List -

I with List -II. photographic film as


complimentarity with it.
List - I List I I
mutated does not appear o n
(a)Protein )C=C double bonds gene
photographic film a s the probe
has
Unsaturated i) Phosphodiester bonds complimentarity with it.
fatty acid on a
(C) Nucleic acid (ii) Glycosidic bonds (8) mutated gene partially appears
photographic film.
( ) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
Choose the correct answer from the options given mutated gene completely and clearly
4)
below. appears on a photographic film.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) i) (iv) (ii) 143. Inthe exponential growth equation
(2) iv) ii) i)
iv) (i) (ii) N=Ner, e represents:
4 ) iv) ii) (i) (1) The base of natural logarithms
Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site (2 The base of geometric logarithms
9.
within gene ampk that confers ampicillin The base of number logarithms
(3
resistance. Ifthis enzyme is used for inserting a
and the (4) The base of exponential logarithms
gene for B-galactoside production
recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
144. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences
(1) it will lead to lysis of host cell. in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called
with
(2) it will be able to produce a novel protein
as:
dual ability.
it will not be able to confer ampicillin (1) Single nucleotides
3
resistance to the host cell. (2) Polymorphic DNA
the transformed cells will have the ability
4) to resist ampicillin as well as produce (3 Satellite DNA
(4) Repetitive DNA
B-galactoside.
60614730

20
with Column -II,
145. Match Column I 148 Mateh Colunmn-I
-Iwith Column-Il.
Column-1 Column-11
(8Nitrococcus Denitrification
Column -I
Column-1
bRhizobium ()onversion of (a) 966 K C12+A)1G )Brassicns
cacene
ammonia tonitrite
(c7hiobacilhus Conversion of nitrite
to nitrate b)aoKCAG (ii) Liliaceae
Conversion of
(Nitrobocter (v) atmospheric nitrogen (iii) Pabaceae
to ammonia
Choose the correct from
below.
answer options given (iv) Solanaceae
(a (b) (c) (d) Select the correct answer from the options
() below. given
v) )
Gv) i ) ) (a) (b) (c) (d)
) Gv) ) ii) (iv)
()
ii) iv) Civ)
146. Identify the correct statement. Cii) iv) )
The coding strand ina (1) (i) (ii) (iv)
copied to an mRNA. transcription unit is
) Split gene arrangement is eharacteristic of 149. Which of the following statements is
prokaryotes. incorrect
(3) In capping, (1) ATP is synthesized
methyl guanosine
is added to the 3' end triphosphate through complex V.
of hnRNA. (2) Oxidation-reduction reactions produce
(4) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to proton gradient in respiration.
terminate the process of
bacteria. transcription in (3) During aerobic respiration, role of
limited to the terminal oxygen is
stage.
147. Select the correct pair. 4) In ETC
(Electron Transport Chain), one
(1) Cells of molecule of NADH +H* gives rise to
medullary rays
that form part of Interfascicular 2ATP molecules, and one
cambial ring cambium to 3 ATP
molecules. FADH gives rise
(2) Loose parenchyma cells
Spongy
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma 150. Which of the
and forming a lens- following statements is incorrect?
shaped opening in bark (1) Grana lamellae have
both PS I and PS I.
(3) Large colorless empty 2)
cells in the epidermis Subsidiary cells Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both
PSI and
of grass leaves PS II.
(4) In (8) Both ATP and
dicot leaves, vascular NADPH
bundles are surrounded Conjunctive synthesized +H
are
tissue during non-cyclic
by large thick-walled
cells
4)
photophosphorylation.
Stroma lamellae have
NADP reductase. PS I only and lacs
05
21
hormone which
stimulates R.B.C
Section A (Biology: Zoology) Erythropoietin
167. formation is produced by:
which of the following is not an objective of The cells of bone
marrow
(1)
51. Biofortification in crops? Juxtaglomerular cells
of the kidney
(2)
Improve vitamin content
(3) Alpha cells of pancreas
Improve micronutrient and mineral content The cells of rostral
adenohypophysis
(2) (4)
Improve protein content thickness of:
3) used to measure

Improve resistance to diseases 168 Dobson units are

(4) Ozone
(1)
is
resposible for the conversion of
o Which enzyme (2) Troposphere
152 inactive fibrinogens
to fibrins?
CFCs
3)
Epinephrine Stratosphere
(1) (4)
Thrombokinase
favourable conditionis
required for the
159. Select the
Thrombin at the alveoli.
formation of oxyhaemoglobin
Renin less H*, higher
(4) (1) High pO2. high pCO2,
temperature
re Which one of the following organisms bears hollow low pCO2, more H*, higher
and pneumatic long bones? (2) Low pOg.
Macropus temperature
(1) less H*, lower
High pOg, low pcO2,
Ornithorhynchus (3)
temperature
Neophron more H*, higher
(3) (4) Low pO2, high pCO2,
(4 Hemidactylus temperature

Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are


160. Succus entericus is referred
to as:
154.
present on: (1) Gastricjuice
(1) Perivitelline space Chyme
(2)
Zona pellucida Pancreaticjuice
(2) (3
Corona radiata Intestinaljuice
(3) (4)
Vitelline membrane example of
(4) 161. Which one of the following
is an

statements wrongly Hormone releasing IUD?


155. Which of the following
muscle?
represents the nature ofsmooth (1) Cu7
Communication among the cells is (2) Multiload 375
(1)
performed by intercalated discs 3) CuT
These muscles are present in the wall of 4 LNG 20
(2)
blood vessels
Match List I with List -
II.
striations 162. -

(3) These muscle have no

muscles List I List I I


(4) They are involuntary
Entry of sperm through
156. Match the following: aVaults Cervix is blocked
List - II
List-I b)IUDs i)Removal of Vas deferens
(a) Physalia G) Pearl oyster hagocytosis of sperms
(Vasectomy ii)
(b) Limulus i) Portuguese Man of War |within the Uterus
(C)Ancylostoma| (i) |Livingfossil
iv) Hookworm_ (cTubectomy iv) Removal offallopian tube
)Pinctada
from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options give-
Choose the correct answer
below. below.
(a) (b) ( (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) (ii) iv) ) )
(2 (ii) (iv)
(2) (iv) ii) Gi) (i) ) (ii)
(3) Giv)
(3) i) (ii) ) (iv) ii) (i) (iv)
(4) Giv) ) (ii) (i)
6067730

05 22 present at:

163. Which one of the following belongs to the family 168. Sphincter of oddi is
Gastro-oesophagealjunction

Muscidae ? (1) Junction ofjejunum and duodenum


(1) Cockroach (2)
Ileo-caecal junction
(2) House fly (3)
(3) Fire fly Junction of hepato-pan
ancreatic duct
(4) and
4) Grasshopper duodenum

164. Match List -I with List -II. mm Hg) of oxvgo.


The partial pressures (in
and carbon dioxide (CO) at alveoli (the (O,)
169.
List-I List-II (the site of
(a) Metamerism )Coelenterata diffusion)are:
pO=95 and pCO, 40
=

6)Canal system (i) Ctenophora (1)


pO=159 and pCO, 0.3
=

(c)Comb plates Gii) Annelida (2)


(d Cnidoblasts Giv)Porifera (3) pO=104and pCO,=40
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) pO=40 and pCO, =45
below.
170. Which of the folowing HNAs 18 not required for
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (111) (v) i) the synthesis of protein?
(2 (iv) (i) (i) (1) rRNA
3) (iv) (ii) (i) (2) siRNA
4 (i) iv) ) (i) mRNA
(3)
165. Persons with 'AB blood group are called as tRNA
"Universal recipients". This is due to:
(1) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, 171. The centriole undergoes duplication during:
on RBCs (1) Metaphase
(2) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and
anti-B, in 2) Ga phase
plasma
8) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface 3) S-phase
of RBCs (4) Prophase
4) Absence of antigens A and B in
plasma 172. Match List - I with List - II.
166. Read the following statements.
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths. List-I List - II
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate (a)Aspergillus niger ) Acetic Acid
animals. b)|Acetobacter aceti
Round worms have (i) Lactic Acid
organ-system level of (c) Clostridium butylicum i) Citric Acid
body organization.
(d) Comb plates present in
ctenophores help in
a) Lactobacillus Giv) Butyric Acid
digestion. Choose the correct answer from the
Water vascular system is below. options given
characteristic of
Echinoderms. (a) (b) (c) d)
Choose the correct answer from the
options given i) (ii) (iv)
below.
(1) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
(2 (iv) i) ii)
(2) (b), (c) and (e) are correct (iv) ()
(3) 4) ) Gi) ii)
(c), (d) and (e) are correct iv)
4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct 178. Which of the
167. Which is the with respect following characteristics is incorrect
to cockroach?
"Only enzyme"that has "Capability" (1) In females, 7th.gth
to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination gterna together form a
in the process genital pouch.
of transcription in prokaryotes? 2) 10th abdominal
(1) DNA Ligase segment in both sexes, bears
(2) DNase
a
pair of anal cerci.
(3)
(3) A ring of gastric
DNA dependent DNA is
(4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase junction of midgut caeca
and hindpresent
at the
polymerase (4) gut.
Hypopharynx
by the mouth
lies within the
cavity enclosed
parts.
with regard to inulin chooe correct. 23 05
114. () options.
C-peptide 1s not present in mature 181 The organeles that are inciuded in the
b) insulin produced by rDNA insulin
The endomembrane system are
has C-peptide technology (1) Golgi complex, Mitschondria. Ribosomea and
The pro-insulin
(cC) has C-peptide.
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are Lyeosomes
interconnected by disulphide
bridges (2) Golgi complex. Endoplasmic reticulum.
Choose the correct answer from the Mitochondria and Ly sosomes
below. options given
(a), (c) and (d) only (3) Endoplasmic reticulum. Mitochondria,
(1) (a) and (d) only Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(2)
(3) (b) and (d) only
4) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex.
4) (b) and (c) only
Lyeosomes and Vacuoles
During the process of gene
175. DCR. if very high amplification using 182 IfAdenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what
temperature is not maíntained
in the beginning. Lhen be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
which of the
of PCR will be affected first? following steps will
Cytosine in it ?
Denaturation
(2) Ligation (1) T:30;G: 20;C: 20
(3) Annealing (2) T:20 G:25:C: 25
( Extension (3) T:20;G:30; C: 20
6. Chronic aut immune disorder affecting neuro T: 20;G: 20; C: 30o
muscular junction leading to fatigue,
and paralysis of skeletal muscle weakening
is called 183. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell.
as :
Myasthenia
(1) Gout gravis During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
(3) Arthritis chromosomes at G phase is 8, what would be the
(4) Muscular dystrophy number of chromosomes after S phase ?
(1) 4
177. For effective treatment of the disease, early (2) 32
diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology
is very important. Which of the (3) 8
molecular diagnostic techniques is veryfollowing
useful for 16
carly detection ?
1) ELISA Technique 184. Veneral diseases can spread through:
(2) Hybridization Technique
(3) Western Blotting Technique (a) Using sterile needles
() Southern Blotting Technique (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
178. In a cross between a male and female, both Infected mother to foetus
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
) Kissing
percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
(1) 25% Inheritance
(2) 100% Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) 50% below.
4) 75% (1) (b) and (c) only
179. Identify the incorrect pair. (2) (a) and () only
1) Lectins Concanavalin A 8 (a). (b) and () only
(2) Drugs Ricin
(3) (4) (b), (c) and (d) only
Alkaloids Codeine
4) Toxin Abrin 185. Aspecific recognition sequence identified by
180, Which stage of meiotic prophase shows endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions
terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive within the DNA is:
feature? (1) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
(1) Diakinesis (2) Poly(A) tail sequences
(2) Pachytene
(3) (8) Degenerate primer sequence
Leptotene
4) Zygotene (4) Okazaki sequences
05
24
Section B (Biology: Zoology) 189. Assertion (A):
A person goes to high altitude and experi
186. Statement I: 'altitude sickness' with eymptoms like brent
The codon 'AUG' codes for difficulty and heart palpitations. hing
methionine and
phenylalanine. Reason (R):
Statement II Due to low atmospheric pressure at high
the body does not get sufficient oxygen.
altitudle,
'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons
code for the amino
acid lysine. In the light of the above statements, choose th
In the light of the above correct answer from the options given below
statements, choose the (A) is true but (R) is false
correct answer from the (1)
options given below. (A) is false but (R) is true
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II (2)
is false (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
3) Both Statement I and
Statement II are
true 190. Match List - I with List - II.
(4) Both Statement I and
Statement II are List - I List II
false

187.
(a Scapula () Cartilaginous joints
Following are the statements about prostomium (b) Cranium Ci) Flat bone
of earthworm. () Sternum ii) Fibrous joints
(a) It serves as a
covering for mouth. (d) Vertebral column (iv)|Triangular flat bone
(6) It helps to open cracks in
the soil into which Choose the correct answer from the options
it can crawl.
below. given
It is one of the
sensory structures. (a) (b) (c) (d)
d) It is the first body (1) iv) i) i)
segment. )
Choose the correct answer from the iv) ii) i)
below. options given
(3) ii) i) Civ)
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) ii) (iv)
(2) (b) and (c) are correct 191.
(3)
Following are the statements with
reference to
(a), b) and (c) are correct lipids'
4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct (a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
unsaturated fatty acids.
188. Match List I with List II.
-

(b) Lecithin is a
phospholipid.
-

List I
List II Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(a) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms
(a) Pilariasis Haemophilus carboxyl carbon. including
influenzae Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
(b)Amoebiasis i) |Trichophyton Choose the correct answer
from the options given
(c)Pneumonia (ii) Wuchereria bancrofti below.
(d) Ringworm Giv) Entamocba histolytica (1) (b) and (c) only
Choose the correct answer from the (2) (b) and (o) only
below. options given (3) (a) and (b) only
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4) () and (d) only
(1) 6) Gi) Civ) Gii) 192. The Adenosine
(2) Gi) (iii) 6) iv)
deaminase deficiency results into:
(1) Digestive disorder
(3) (iv) 6) (ii) i) (2) Addison's disease
AY (ii) (iv) () i) (3)
Dysfunction of Immune system
(4) Parkinson's disease
25
93. Dur
museular contraction
following events occur? which of the 197.
05
1dentify the types of cell
(a) H zone disappears junctione that help
'A' band widens theleakageof the subatances acrose tiasue and a

(b) facilitation ofcommunication with neighbouring


) T band reduces in cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecule.
width
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the
and Pi
(1) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
ADP respectively.
) Z-lines attached to actins are (2) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
Choose the correct answer from thepulled inwards respectively.
below options given (3) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
(1) (b), (C), (d), (e) only respectively.
(2) b). (d), (e), (a) only 4) Tight junctions and Gap junctions,
8) (a), (c), (d), (e) only respectively.
(4) (a), (b), (c), d) only 198. Which of the following secretes the hormone,
these is not an
Which oft relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
194.
important
initiation of parturition in humans component
? of (1) Foetus
() Release of Oxytocin (2) Uterus
(2) Release of Prolactin (3) Graafian follicle
(3) Increase in estrogen and AA Corpus luteum
progesterone ratio
Synthesis of prostaglandins
4)
199. Match List I with List-II.
-

195 Which of the following is not a step in


Ovulation Embryo Transfer Multiple List I List II
(MOET)? Technology (a) Allen's Rule )Kangaroo rat
1) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination GPhysiologicalä)
adaptation
Desert lizard
(2) Fertilized eggs are transferred to
mothers at 8-32 cell stage surrogate (oBehavioural Gi) Marine fish at depth
(3) Cow is administered hormone adaptation
like activity for super ovulation having
LH
(a)
d) Biochemical Giv Polar senl
(4) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time adaptation
Choose the correct answer from the options given
196. Match List - I with List - II. below.
List -I List - I (a) (b) (c) (d)
Selection of resistant (1) iv) i) i)
(2)
(a) Adaptive
varieties due to excessive Civ) (ii) (i)
aradiation use of herbicides and (3 (iv) i) (ii)
pesticides 4Giv) ) i) i)
Bones of forelimbs in Man
(6) |Convergent (i)
evolution and Whale 200. Which one of the following statements about
(C) Divergent Gi Wings of Butterfly and Histones is wrong?
evolution 11 Bird (1) Histones are rich in amino acids Lysine
Evolution by and Arginine.
a)anthropo Giv) Darwin Finches (2 Histones carry positive charge in the side
genic action chain.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) Histones are organized to form a unit of
below. 8 molecules.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
(1) (i) ) iv) (ii)
(2 ) (iv) ii) (i)
(3) ) o 0o-
iv) ii) (i)
(4) (ii) 6i) ) iv)

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