1 4922695170245264415
1 4922695170245264415
1 4922695170245264415
2022
Science
Class IX
CBSE Term II
2022
Science
Class IX
Complete Theory Covering NCERT
Authors
Naman Jain Physics
Jyoti Aggarwal Chemistry
Anam Aarzoo Biology
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CBSE Term II
2022
Contents
CHAPTER
Atoms and Molecules -
CHAPTER
Structure of Atom -
CHAPTER
Gravitation -
CHAPTER
Work and Energy -
CHAPTER
Why do we fall ill -
Practice Papers - -
Syllabus
CBSE Term II Class IX
Units Marks
Total
THEME MATERIALS
UNIT - I Matter- It s Nature and Behaviour
Chapter Atoms and Molecules
Particle nature and their basic units: Atoms and molecules, Law of constant
proportions, Atomic and molecular masses. Mole concept: Relationship of mole to mass
of the particles and numbers.
Chapter Structure of Atom
Structure of atoms: Electrons, protons and neutrons, Valency, Chemical formula of
common compounds. Isotopes and Isobars
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CHAPTER 01
Atoms and
Molecules
In this Chapter...
l Law of Constant Proportions/ l Ions
Law of Definite Proportions l Valency
l Atoms l Molecular Mass
l Molecules l Mole Concept
In the present chapter, we shall discuss about the various e.g. Atoms of hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen etc., are not
laws (which explains how atoms combine to form molecule), capable of independent existence whereas atoms of helium,
symbols and formulae of atoms and molecules and various neon etc., are capable of existing independently.
ways of expressing their masses.
Atoms are very small and their radius is measured in
nanometres.
Law of Constant Proportions/Law 1/10 9 m = 1 nm
of Definite Proportions or 1 m = 10 9 nm
According to this law, in a chemical substance (or compound),
Hydrogen atom is the smallest atom and its radius is 0.1 nm.
the elements are always present in definite proportions (or
ratios) by mass.
Modern Day Symbols of Atoms of
e.g. In a compound such as water, the ratio of the mass of
hydrogen to the mass of oxygen is always 1 : 8, whatever the Different Elements
source of water.Thus, if 9g of water is decomposed, 1g of In chemistry, symbols are the representation of an element.
hydrogen and 8g of oxygen are always obtained. It is simple to use the symbol of an element rather writing a
Similarly, carbon dioxide (CO 2 ) always contains carbon and whole word of an element.
oxygen in the ratio of 3 : 8. If a sample of CO 2 contains 36 g of Dalton was the scientist who introduced symbols for
carbon then it is compulsory that the sample has 96 g oxygen. representing elements for the first time.
3 36 36 × 8 Hydrogen Carbon Oxygen
This is calculated as = ∴ x= = 96 g
8 x 3 Phosphorus Sulphur I Iron
Atoms C Copper L Lead S Silver
Atoms are the smallest particles of an element which may or G Gold P Platina Mercury
may not have independent existence but take part in a
Symbols for some elements as proposed by Dalton
chemical reaction. These are the building blocks of all matter.
02 CBSE Term II Science IX
Dalton’s symbol were difficult to draw, so JJ Berzelius e.g. noble gases like argon (Ar), helium (He) etc. The
introduced modern symbols for the elements. molecules of most of the non-metals are made up of more
Symbols for Some Elements than one atom. e.g. a molecule of oxygen (O2 ) consists of
two atoms of oxygen and is known as diatomic molecule,
Elements Symbols Elements Symbols Elements Symbols ozone (O3 ) consists of three atoms of oxygen is known as
Aluminium Al Copper Cu Nitrogen N triatomic molecules.
Argon Ar Fluorine F Oxygen O
Atomicity
Barium Ba Gold Au Phosphorus P
Atomicity tells us the number of atoms present in a
Boron B Hydrogen H Potassium K molecule.
Bromine Br Iodine I Silicon Si On the basis of atomicity, molecules can be classified as
Calcium Ca Iron Fe Silver Ag (i) Monoatomic molecules consist of only one atom.
Carbon C Lead Pb Sodium Na e.g. He, Ne, Ar, Xe, Fe, Al etc.
Chlorine Cl Magnesium Mg Sulphur S (ii) Diatomic molecules consist of two atoms.
Chromium Cr Mercury Hg Uranium U e.g. H 2 , O 2 , N 2 , I 2 , Br2 , Cl 2 , HCl, NaCl etc.
Cobalt Co Neon Ne Zinc Zn (iii) Triatomic molecules consist of three atoms.
e.g. O 3 , CO 2 , NO 2 etc.
Atomic Mass (iv) Tetra-atomic molecules consist of four atoms.
e.g. P4 , H 2 O 2 etc.
According to Dalton’s, each element has a characteristic atomic
mass. But determining the mass of an individual atom was a (v) Polyatomic molecules consist of more than four atoms.
relatively difficult task due to its very small size. e.g. CH4 (penta-atomic), S 8 (octa-atomic) etc.
Hence, their relative atomic masses were determined using the Atomicity of Some Elements (Non-metals)
laws of chemical combinations and the compounds formed. Name Atomicity Name Atomicity
Relative Atomic Mass Argon Monoatomic Chlorine Diatomic
It is defined as the number of times a given atom is heavier Helium Monoatomic Ozone Triatomic
than 1 /12 th of mass of 1 atom of carbon-12 (C-12) or it is the Oxygen Diatomic Phosphorus Tetra-atomic
average mass of the atom as compared to 1/12th the mass of one Hydrogen Diatomic Sulphur Poly-atomic (octa-atomic)
carbon-12 atom. Nitrogen Diatomic
1 mole of
Valency carbon atoms
The combining power (or capacity) of an element is called its 6.022 × 1023
valency. Valency can be used to find out how the atoms of an 12 g of C-atoms
numbers of
element will combine with the atom(s) of another element to C-atoms 1 mole of
form a chemical compound. The valency of an ion is equal to molecules
the charge on the ion.
6.022 × 1023 Molecular mass
numbers of in grams
Molecular Mass molecules 1 mole of any
particle like atoms,
The molecular mass of a substance is the sum of the atomic molecules, ions
masses of all the atoms in a molecule of the substance. It is 6.022 × 1023 Relative molecular
therefore, the relative mass of a molecule expressed in atomic number of that mass of that
mass units (u). e.g. the relative molecular mass of water (H2 O) particle particle in gram
is 18 u, which can be calculated as, Relationship between mole, Avogadro number and
atomic mass of hydrogen = 1 u molecular mass
Chapter
Practice
PART 1 5. The chemical symbol for sodium is (NCERT Exemplar)
(a) So (b) Sd (c) NA (d) Na
Objective Questions 6. Which of the following represent 1 amu ?
(a) Mass of hydrogen molecule
1. Who discovered law of constant proportions? 1
(b) th of mass of C-12 atom
(a) Antoine L. Lavoisier (b) John Dalton 12
(c) Ernest Rutherford (d) Neils Bohr (c) Mass of O-12 atom
2. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory can (d) Mass of C-12 atom
explain the law of definite proportions? 7. What is the atomic mass of magnesium?
(a) Atoms are indivisible particles, which can neither be (a) 24 (b) 32 (c) 16 (d) 35.5
created nor be destroyed in a chemical reaction
(b) Atoms of different elements have different masses and 8. The chemical symbol for nitrogen gas is?
(NCERT Exempler)
chemical properties +
(c) Atoms combine in the ratio of small whole numbers to (a) Ni (b) N 2 (c) N (d) N
form compounds
9. How many atoms are present in a H 2O 2 molecule?
(d) The relative numbers and kinds of atoms are constant
in a given compound (a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 5
3. During an experiment hydrogen (H 2 ) and oxygen 10. A molecule of salt found to contain sodium and
chlorine combined together in the ratio of 23 : 35.5 by
(O 2 ) gases reacted in an electric arc to produce water
Electricity mass. What is the formula of salt?
as follows: 2H + O 2 → 2H 2O (a) Na 2Cl (b) NaCl 2 (c) Na 3Cl 2 (d) NaCl
The experiment is repeated three times and data 2−
11. What is the valency of CO 3 ?
tabulated as shown below:
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
Experiment Mass of H 2 Mass of O2 Mass of H 2O
number reacted reacted produced
12. What is the molecular mass of CO 2 ?
1 2g 16 g 18 g
(a) 44 (b) 42
(c) 40 (d) 50
2 4g 32 g 36 g
3 – – 9g 13. Match the formula units given in Column I with
their masses given in Column II.
During 3rd experiment, the researcher forgot to list
Column I Column II
masses of H 2 and O 2 used. So, if the law of constant
proportion is correct then find mass of O 2 used A. Calcium oxide 1. 56 u
during 3rd experiment. B. Magnesium chloride 2. 95 u
(a) 4 g (b) 8 g (c) 16 g (d) 32 g
C. Aluminium phosphide 3. 58 u
4. Which of the following statement is not true about an D. Calcium carbonate 4. 100 u
atom? (NCERT Exemplar)
E. Aluminium oxide 5. 102 u
(a) Atoms are not able to exist independently
(b) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and A B C D E
ions are formed (a) 3 1 2 5 4
(c) Atoms are always neutral in nature (b) 4 3 5 1 2
(d) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter (c) 1 2 3 4 5
that we can see, feel or touch (d) 2 5 1 3 4
CBSE Term II Science IX 05
14. Calculate the number of aluminium ions which are Dalton was the scientist who introduced symbols for
present in 0.0051 g of aluminium oxide. representing elements for the first time but they
(a) 6. 022 × 1015 Al 3+ ions (b) 6. 022 × 1019 Al 3+ ions were difficult to draw and inconvenient to use, so
modern symbols were introduced. These symbols are
(c) 6. 022 × 1014 Al 3+ ions (d) 6. 022 × 10 23 Al 3+ ions
defined as ‘‘a short hand representation of the name
15. The number of molecule of sulphur (S 8 ) present in of an element.’’
16 g of solid sulphur will be In the beginning, the names of elements were
(a) 3.76 × 10 16 molecules (b) 3.76 × 10 22 molecules derived from the name of the place where they were
found for the first time. Now a days, it is the IUPAC
(c) 2.76 × 10 molecules
14
(d) 2.76 × 10 22 molecules
(International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry)
who approves the names and symbols of the
l Assertion-Reasoning MCQs elements.
Direction (Q. Nos. 16-20) Each of these questions Element Latin name of the element
contains two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
P Cuprum
Each of these questions also has four alternative
choices, any one of which is the correct answer. You have Q Kalium
to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. R Ferrum
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
S Natrium
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct T Argentum
explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (i) What is the name of element P?
(d) A is false, but R is true. (a) Carbon (b) Copper
16. Assertion Pure water obtained from different sources (c) Chlorine (d) Chromium
such as river, well, spring, sea, etc., always contains (ii) The symbol of element S is ......
hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 1 : 8 by mass. (a) Na (b) Nt (c) Nm (d) NA
Reason A chemical compound always contains (iii) Who discovered modern symbols of elements ?
elements combined in a fixed proportions by mass. (a) John Dalton (b) Amedeo Avogadro
(c) J J Berzelius (d) Joseph Stefan
17. Assertion Atomic mass has no unit but expressed in amu.
Reason It is the average mass of an atom taking care (iv) Name the element R.
(a) Iron (b) Fluorine
of relative abundance of its all isotopes.
(c) Phosphorus (d) Magnesium
18. Assertion Atomic mass of aluminium is 27. (v) An element is used for making jewellery and is a
Reason An atom of aluminium is 27 times heavier good conductor of heat and electricity. Identify the
than 1/12th of the mass of carbon-12 atom. Latin name of that element.
19. Assertion Elements that are made up of only one (a) Kalium (b) Cuprum
kind of atoms are classified as pure substances. (c) Ferrum (d) Argentum
Reason Hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen are 22. Read the following and answer the questions from (i)
elements. to (v) given below
20. Assertion Molecular weight of SO 2 is double to that The molecular mass of a substance is the sum of the
of O 2 . atomic masses of all the atoms in a molecule of the
Reason One mole of SO 2 contains double the substance. It is therefore, the relative mass of a
molecule expressed in atomic mass units (u).
number of molecules present in one mole of O 2 . Depending upon the number of atoms of same or
different elements present in the molecule, it can be
l Case Based MCQs monoatomic, diatomic, triatomic, tetra-atomic or
21. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) polyatomic molecule.
to (v) given below The formula unit mass is calculated in the same
In chemistry, symbols are the representation of an manner as the molecular mass calculated. It is a sum
element. It is simple to use the symbol of an element of the atomic masses of all atoms in a formula unit of
rather writing a whole word of an element. compound.
06 CBSE Term II Science IX
The atomic masses of few elements are given below. (iii) The number of particles present in 1 mole of any
Element Atomic mass (µ)
substance is equal to .......
(a) 6.022 × 10−23 (b) 6.022 × 1024
Hydrogen 1
(c) 6.022 × 1023 (d) 6.022 × 1020
Carbon 12
(iv) What is the mass of 1 mole of oxygen atoms?
Oxygen 16
(a) 32 g (b) 18 g
Sodium 23 (c) 3.2 g (d) 16 g
Calcium 40 (v) Calculate the number of moles for 84g of nitrogen
atoms.
(i) Which of the following is an example of polyatomic (a) 5 moles (b) 6 moles
molecule ? (c) 7 moles (d) 8 moles
(a) H2 (b) O3 (c) S8 (d) Cl 2
(ii) The relative molecular mass of H2 O is
(a) 23 u (b) 18 u (c) 10 u (d) 40 u
(iii) How many kinds of atoms are present in a molecule PART 2
of copper carbonate (CuCO3 )?
(a) 3 (b) 4 Subjective Questions
(c) 5 (d) 6
(iv) What is the ratio by mass of the combining l Short Answer Type Questions
elements in the compound methanol. 1. (i) State the law of constant proportion.
(a)1 : 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 : 1
(c) 4 : 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1 : 4 (ii) In a compound, carbon and oxygen react in a
ratio
(v) What is the formula unit mass of CaCl 2 ?
3 : 8 by mass to form carbon dioxide. What mass
(a) 110 u (b) 94 u
of oxygen is required to react completely with 9 g
(c) 111 u (d) 115 u
carbon?
23. Read the following and answer the questions from (i)
2. Copper oxide was prepared by two different
to (v) given below
methods. In one case, 1.75 g of the metal gave 2.19 g
Formula unit mass is the sum of atomic masses of all of oxide. In the second case, 1.14 g of the metal gave
atoms present in a formula unit of a compound and it 1.43 g of the oxide. Show that the given data
is calculated in the same manner as we calculate illustrate the law of constant proportions.
molecular mass. The mole is the base unit of amount
1
of substance in the international system of units (SI). 3. Initially of the mass of an atom of naturally
The definition of mole was adopted in November 16
2018 as one of the seven. SI base units reviving the occurring oxygen was taken as standard unit.
previous definition that specified one mole as the Give two reasons.
amount of substance in 12 grams of carbon-12 (12 C ), 4. Define atomic mass unit. What is the atomic mass of
an isotope of carbon. nitrogen and sulphur?
The mole is widely used in chemistry as a convenient 5. Why is it not possible to see an atom with naked eyes ?
way to express amounts of reactants and products of 6. State three points of differences between an atom
chemical reactions. October 23, in the US is and a molecule.
recognized as mole day. It is an informal holiday in
honor of the unit among chemists. 7. Classify each of the following on the basis of their
atomicity.
We can calculate number of moles present in a
(i) F2 (ii) NO2
compound by calculating it’s molecular mass.
(iii) N2 O (iv) C2 H6
(i) What is the formula unit mass of HCl ?
(a) 35.5 (b) 36.5 (v) P4 (vi) H2 O2
(c) 40 (d) 35 (vii) P4 O10 (viii) O3
(ii) Formula unit is used for the substance whose (ix) HCl (x) CH4
constituent particles are ......... (xi) He (xii) Ag (NCERT Exemplar)
(a) Ions (b) molecules
8. How many atoms are present in a
(c) fixed (d) atoms
(i) H 2S molecule and (ii) PO 3−
4 ion ?
CBSE Term II Science IX 07
9. What is a molecule? Name and explain two 23. The mass of a single atom of M is 3.05 × 10 −22 g. What
categories in which molecules are divided and give is its atomic mass? What would this element be?
examples for each. Check periodic table for possible answer.
10. Nitrogen and hydrogen atoms combine in the ratio 24. Calcium chloride when dissolved in water dissociates
14 : 3 by mass to form ammonia molecule. Find the into its ions according to the following equation,
formula of ammonia molecule by calculating the
molar ratio. CaCl 2 ( aq) → Ca 2+ ( aq) + 2Cl − ( aq)
[Given atomic mass of N = 14 u and H = 1 u] Calculate the number of ions obtained from CaCl 2
11. A bicarbonate of sodium is found to contain sodium, when 222 g of it is dissolved in water.(NCERT Exemplar)
hydrogen, carbon and oxygen combined together in 25. (i) Calculate the number of atoms of hydrogen present
the ratio of 23 : 1 : 12 : 48 by mass. Derive the formula in one dozen molecule of hydrogen gas. Convert the
of the bicarbonate and name it. given number of hydrogen in terms of number of
12. What do you mean by ions ? Explain the types of moles.
ions with examples. (ii) If hydrogen combines with oxygen in the ratio of 1 :
13. Calculate the molecular mass of the following 8 by mass to form water, how many moles of oxygen
substances: would be required for the given amount of hydrogen
gas? [Atomic mass of H =1.0 u and O = 16.0 u]
(i) Nitric acid, HNO 3
(ii) Ethyne, C 2H 2 26. What is the mass of
(iii) Sulphur molecule, S 8 (i) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms ?
14. Calculate the molecular mass of NH 3 and CH 3OH. (ii) 0.5 mole of water molecules ?
27. Compute the difference in masses of one mole each
15. Calculate the formula unit masses of ZnO,
of aluminium atoms and one mole of its ions (Mass of
Na 2O, K 2CO 3 .
an electron is 9.1 × 10 −28 g). Which one is heavier?
[Given, atomic mass of Zn = 65 u, Na = 23 u ,
(NCERT Exemplar)
K = 39 u , C = 12u and O = 16 u ] (NCERT)
28. Cinnabar (HgS) is a prominent ore of mercury. How
16. (i) Define Avogadro’s number. Write its value. many grams of mercury are present in 225 g of pure
(ii) Calculate the mass of 0.2 mole of oxygen gas. HgS? Molar mass of Hg and S are 200.6 g mol −1 and
17. Which has more number of atoms, 100 g of sodium 32 g mol −1 respectively. (NCERT Exemplar)
or 100 g of iron? 29. Calculate the number of moles present in
[Given, atomic mass of Na = 23 u and Fe = 56 u] (i) 3. 011 × 10 23 number of oxygen atoms
18. What is the mass of (ii) 60 g of calcium
(i) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms? [Given that atomic mass of Ca = 40u and Avogadro’s
(ii) 4 moles of aluminium atoms number = 6. 022 × 10 23 ]
[Atomic mass of aluminium = 27 ] ? 30. Find the number of copper atom present in 10 g of
(iii) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na 2SO 3 ) ? (NCERT) 22 carat gold.
19. Calculate the number of aluminium ion present in 31. Which has more number of atoms ?
2 g of aluminium oxide.
100 g of N 2 or 100 g of NH 3 (NCERT Exemplar)
20. The mass of one steel rod is 4.11 g. Find the mass
32. (i) Find the mass of one molecule of water.
of one mole of these steel screws. Compare this
(ii) If 16.26 mg of a sample of an element X contains
value with the mass of the earth (5. 98 × 10 24 kg).
1.66 × 10 20 atoms. What is the atomic mass of the
Which one of the two is heavier and by how many element X ?
times? (NCERT Exemplar)
21. Convert into mole l Long Answer Type Questions
(i) 12 g of oxygen gas 33. (i) How do we express number of particles in terms of
(ii) 20 g of water moles?
(iii) 22 g of carbon dioxide (NCERT) (ii) Calculate the number of moles of sodium in a
22. Which would weigh more, 2 moles of CaCO 3 or sample containing 10 20 atoms of sodium.
10 moles of H 2O ? (iii) How do we express mass of a substance in terms of
moles?
08 CBSE Term II Science IX
(iv) Calculate the number of moles in When a reaction is run, the number of atoms of
(a) 56 g of He (b) 23 g of Na each specific type must be the same on both sides
34. ‘SO 2 is an air pollutant released during burning of fossil of the equation. For some materials, it turns out
that one element can combine with a second
fuels and from automobile exhaust’.
element in more than ratio. Carrying out mass
(i) Write the names of elements present in this gas. ratio calculations helped establish.
(ii) What are the valencies of sulphur in SO2 and SO3 ?
The law of constant composition which was put
(iii) Find out the number of molecules in 5 moles of SO2 . forth by Joseph Proust in 1800. A given
(iv) Calculate the number of moles in 320 g of SO2 gas. compound always has the same proportion by
(v) Calculate the molar mass of 10 moles of sodium sulphite. mass of its constituent elements.
[Given, atomic masses of S = 32 u, O = 16 u, Na = 23 u Compound Combining elements Ratio by mass
and NA = 6.022 × 1023 per mol]
Water (H2O) Hydrogen and oxygen 1: 8
35. (i) Calculate the number of moles in 112 g of iron. Ammonia (NH3 ) Nitrogen and hydrogen 14 : 3
(ii) Calculate the mass of 0.5 mole of sugar (C12 H22 O11 ) .
Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) Carbon and oxygen 3: 8
(iii) Define the term molecular mass.
Common Salt (NaCl) Sodium, chlorine 23 : 35.5
(iv) Determine the molecular mass of ZnSO4
[Atomic mass of Zn = 65 u, S = 32 u and O = 16 u]. (i) How many types of atoms are present in a
(v) Calculate the number of molecules of carbon dioxide, molecule of water (H2 O) ?
CO2 present in 4.4 g of CO2 . (ii) What is the ratio by mass of H2 SO4 ?
[Atomic mass of C = 12 u, O = 16 u and (iii) An oxide of nitrogen is found to contain nitrogen
N A = 6.022 × 1023 mol −1 ] and oxygen combined together in the ratio of
7 : 16 by mass. Derive the formula of the oxide
36. (i) Which has more number of atoms? and name it.
(a) 10 g of nitrogen (N2 ) (iv) What are the combining elements of carbon
(b) 10 g of ammonia (NH3 ) monoxide?
(ii) Calculate the total number of moles in 0.585 g of (v) Give an example of monoatomic and polyatomic
sodium chloride. molecule.
[Atomic mass of N = 14 u, H = 1 u, Cl = 35.5 u, Na = 23 u] 39. Ion is any atom or group of atoms that bears one
37. Fill in the missing data in the following table. or more positive or negative electrical charges.
Atoms in solution generally exists in the form of
Species Property H 2O CO2 Na atom MgCl 2 ions. Valency can be used to find out how the
Number of moles 2 — — 0.5 atoms of an element will combine with the
Number of particles — 3 . 011 × 10 23
— — atom(s) of another element to form a chemical
Mass 36 g — 115 g — compound.
(NCERT Exemplar) Valency Polyatomic Ions Symbol
1 Ammonium; Nitrate NH+4 ; NO−3
l Case Based Questions
2 Carbonate; Sulphite CO23 − ; SO23 −
38. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to
(v) given below 3 Phosphate PO34 −
(iii) (c) JJ Berzelius discovered modern symbols of elements Now, in second sample of copper oxide compound.
because Dalton’s symbol for elements were difficult to Mass of copper : Mass of oxygen = 1.14 : 0.29
draw and inconvenient to use. 1. 14
= : 1 = 3. 93 : 1 ≈ 4 : 1
(iv) (a) The name of element R is iron which has the symbol 0. 29
‘Fe’ according to it’s Latin name.
3. The reasons are
(v) (d) The Latin name of the element is Argentum which is
(i) Oxygen reacted with a large number of elements and
now known as silver (Ag). This element is very ductile and
formed compounds.
malleable, so is used for making jewellery and has the
highest conductor of heat and electricity of all metals. (ii) This unit gave masses of most of the elements as whole
numbers.
22. (i) (c) S8 has more than 4 atoms. Therefore, it is an 1
example of polyatomic molecule (octa-atomic). 4. It is defined as the mass unit equal to exactly th of the
12
(ii) (b) The relative molecular mass of water ( H2O) is mass of one atom of C-12 isotope.
= 2 × 1 + 1 × 16 = 18 u. The atomic mass of nitrogen in 14 u and sulphur is 32 u.
(iii) (a) Copper carbonate (CuCO3) contains three type of
5. Atoms are very small, they are smaller than anything we can
atoms, i.e. one copper atom, one carbon atom and three imagine. More than millions of atoms when stacked would
oxygen atoms. make a layer barely as thick as the sheet of paper. These are
(iv) (d) Methanol( CH3OH) → C : H : O = 12 : 4 : 16 = 3 : 1 : 4. very small in radii and measured in terms of nanometers
(v) (c) The formula unit mass of CaCl 2 (1nm = 10−9 m). Hence, it is not possible to see an atom with
naked eyes.
= [(Atomic mass of Ca) + (2 × Atomic mass of Cl)
= [ 40 + (2 × 35. 5)] = 111 u 6. Atom Molecule
23. (i) (b) The formula unit mass of HCl is 1 + 1 × 35.5 = 36.5 u (i) An atom is the smallest A molecule is the smallest
(ii) (a) The formula unit word is used for the substances particle of an element particle of an element or
whose constituent particles are ions. e.g. NaCl. that can take part in a compound which has the
(iii) (c) The number of particles (atoms/ions/molecules) chemical reaction. properties of that element or
present in 1 mole of any substance is equal to Avogadro compound.
number whose value is 6.022 × 1023. (ii) An atom may or may not A molecule is capable of
(iv) (d) Mass of 1 mole of oxygen atoms exist independently. independent existence.
= 1 × molar mass of oxygen atoms (g) (iii) Examples : Hydrogen Examples: Hydrogen molecule
= 1 × 16 = 16 g (H), oxygen (O). ( H2 ), oxygen molecule ( O2 ),
(v) (b) 14g of N-atom = 1 mole of N-atom water molecule ( H2O).
1
∴ 84g of N-atom = × 84 = 6 moles 7. Monoatomic : Ag, He
14
Diatomic : HCl, F2
Subjective Questions
Triatomic : NO2, N2O, O3
1. (i) Law of constant proportion states that, “a pure
chemical compound always consists of the same Tetra-atomic : P4, H2O2
elements that are combined together in a fixed Polyatomic : C2H6, P4O10, CH4
(or definite) proportion by mass”.
8. (i) In H2S molecule, three atoms
(ii) Carbon : Oxygen (by mass) = 3 : 8 , i.e. 3 g of carbon
requires 8 g of oxygen to form carbon dioxide. [i.e. 2 atoms of H + 1 atom of S] are present.
∴ 9 g of carbon require ( 3 × 8)24 g of oxygen to form (ii) In PO3–
4 ion, five atoms
carbon dioxide. [i.e. 1 atom of P + 4 atoms of O] are present.
2. Case I Mass of copper = 1.75 g 9. The smallest particle of an element or compound which is
and mass of copper oxide = 2.19 g capable of independent existence and shows all the
properties of that substance is called as molecule. In general,
So, mass of oxygen = Mass of copper oxide − Mass of copper
molecule is a group of two or more atoms that are chemically
= 2 . 19 − 1.75 = 0. 44 g bonded together.
Now, in first sample of copper oxide compound. Molecules can be divided into two categories:
1.75
Mass of copper : Mass of oxygen = 1.75 : 0.44 = :1 (i) Molecules of Elements They contain same type of
0. 44 atoms, i.e. either made up of only one atom of that
= 3. 98 : 1 ≈ 4 : 1 element. e.g. noble gases like argon (Ar), helium (He)
Case II Mass of copper = 1.14 g etc. or made up of more than one atom of an element.
and, mass of copper oxide = 1.43 g e.g. Non-metals like oxygen forms a molecule of O2 that
So, mass of oxygen = Mass of copper oxide − Mass of copper consists of two atoms of oxygen and is known as
= 1. 43 − 1. 14 = 0.29 g diatomic molecule.
CBSE Term II Science IX 11
(ii) Molecules of Compounds Atoms of different elements 14. Molecular mass of NH3 (ammonia) = (Atomic mass of
join together in definite proportions to form molecules nitrogen × 1 ) + (Atomic mass of hydrogen × 3)
of compounds.
= (14 × 1) + (1 × 3) = 14 + 3 = 17 u
e.g. Water (H2O) contains hydrogen and oxygen as
combining elements and it’s ratio by mass is 1 : 8. Molecular mass of CH3OH (methanol or methyl alcohol)
= (Atomic mass of carbon × 1 ) + (Atomic mass of hydrogen
10. Number of nitrogen atom present in the molecule × 3) + (Atomic mass of oxygen × 1 ) + (Atomic mass of
=
Proportion by mass 14
= =1 hydrogen × 1 )
= (12 × 1) + (1 × 3) + (16 × 1) + (1 × 1)
Atomic mass 14
= 12 + 3 + 16 + 1 = 32 u
Number of hydrogen atom present in the molecule
Proportion by mass 3 15. (i) Formula unit mass of ZnO (zinc oxide)
= = =3
Atomic mass 1 = 65 + 16 = 81 u
This means number of nitrogen and hydrogen atoms (ii) Formula unit mass of Na 2O (sodium oxide)
combine in ratio = 1 : 3 = (23 × 2 ) + (16 × 1 ) = 46 + 16 = 62 u
Thus, the formula of molecule of ammonia is NH3. (iii) Formula unit mass of K2CO3 (potassium carbonate)
= ( 39 × 2 ) + (12 × 1 ) + (16 × 3) = 78 + 12 + 48 = 138 u
11.
16. (i) Avogadro’s number is the number of particle (atom,
Mass Atomic x molecules or ions) constituted in 1 mole of a substance.
Element Mole ratio Simplest
ratio (x) mass (y) y ratio Value of Avogadro's number (NA ) = 6.022 × 1023
23 (ii) 1 mole of oxygen gas (O2 ) consists = 32 g
Na 23 23 =1 1
23 ∴ 0.2 mole of oxygen gas (O2 ) consists
1 = 0.2 × 32 g = 6.4 g
H 1 1 =1 1
1 17. 23 g atomic unit or 23 g (1 mol) Na = 6.022 × 1023 atoms
12 6.022 × 1023
C 12 12 =1 1 ∴ 100 g sodium contains = × 100
12 23
48 = 2.617 × 1024 atoms
O 48 16 =3 3
16 Again, 56 g atomic unit or 56 g (1 mol) iron = 6.022 × 1023 atoms
6.022 × 1023
Therefore, bicarbonate of sodium contains one sodium, ∴100 g iron contains = × 100 = 1. 075 × 1024 atoms
one-carbon, one hydrogen and three oxygen atoms. Hence, 56
the formula is NaHCO3, i.e. sodium bicarbonate which is also Therefore, 100 g of Na has more atoms than 100 g of iron.
known as ‘‘Baking powder”.
18. (i) Atomic mass of N = 14 u
12. When atoms, groups of atoms or molecules lose or gain ∴ Mass of 1 mole of N-atoms =14 g
electron(s), they become charged. These charged species are
known as ions. (ii) Mass of 1 mole of Al-atoms = 27 g
∴ Mass of 4 moles of Al-atoms = 27 × 4 = 108 g
Ions are categorised into two groups:
(iii) Mass of 1 mole of Na 2SO3
(i) Cations They are positively charged ions. e.g. Na + , K+ ,
Ca 2 + , Al 3 + etc. These are formed when elements loses = (23 × 2 ) + 32 + (16 × 3) = 46 + 32 + 48 = 126 g
electrons. Usually, metals form cations. Mass of 10 moles of Na 2SO3 = 126 × 10 = 1260 g
(ii) Anions They are negatively charged ions. e.g. Cl − , Br − , 19. 1 mole of Al 2O3 = 2 × 27 + 3 × 16 = 102 g mol −1
O2 − , N3 − etc. These are formed when elements gain
electrons. Usually, non-metals form anions. Q 102 g of Al 2O3 contains 2 × 6.022 ×1023 Al 3 + ions
13. The molecular mass of : 2 × 6.022 ×1023
∴ 1g of Al 2O3 will contain Al 3+ ions
(i) Nitric acid, HNO3 102 g
= (Atomic mass of H) + (Atomic mass of N) + 2 × 6.022 ×1023
and 2 g of Al 2O3 will contain ×2
(3 × Atomic mass of O) 102 g
= 1 + 14 + ( 3 × 16) = 15 + 48 = 63 g/mol
4 × 6.022 × 1023
(ii) Ethyne, C2H2 = = 2 . 36 × 1022 Al 3+ ions
102 g
= (2 × Atomic mass of C) + (2 × Atomic mass of H)
= (2 × 12 ) + (2 × 1) = 26 g/mol 20. Given that, mass of one steel rod = 4.11 g
(iii) Sulphur molecule, S8 Mass of earth = 5.98 × 1024 kg = 5.98 × 1027 g
= 8 × Atomic mass of S We know that,
= 8 × 32 = 256 g/mol 1 mole = 6.022 × 1023 atoms/molecules/ions
12 CBSE Term II Science IX
23. 1 mole = atomic mass of element = 6.022 × 1023 atoms 28. Given that, molar mass of Hg = 200.6 g mol − 1
Q Mass of 1 atom = 3.05 × 10−22 g and that of S = 32 g mol − 1
Molar mass of HgS = Molar mass of the Hg
∴ Mass of 6.022 × 1023 atoms
+ Molar mass of the S
= 3.05 × 10−22 × 6.022 × 1023 = 183.671 g
Molar mass of HgS = 200.6 + 32 = 232.6 g mol −1
This is nearly the atomic mass of tungsten (W 183.8 ). Q 232.6 g of HgS contains Hg = 200.6
24. Molar mass of CaCl 2 = 40 + 2 × 35.5 = 40 + 71 = 111 g mol −1 (as molar mass of Hg = 200.6 g mol −1)
CaCl 2 ionises in water as: 200.6 × 225
∴ 225 g of HgS will contains Hg = = 194.05 g
2+ − 232.6
CaCl 2 (aq) → Ca (aq) + 2Cl (aq)
1 mol 1 mol 2 mol Given number of atoms
1444 2444 3 29. (i) Number of moles =
[111 g] 3 mol Avogadro’s number
Q 111 g of CaCl 2 produces ions = 3 mol 3. 011 × 1023
= 3 × 6.022 × 10 ions
23 Number of moles of oxygen atoms = = 0. 5 moles
6. 022 × 1023
∴ 222 g of CaCl 2 produces ions Given mass 60
3 × 6. 022 × 1023 (ii) Number of moles 60 g of calcium = =
= × 222 = 36.132 × 1023 Molar mass 40
111 = 1.5 moles
= 3.6132 × 1024 ions [Q Atomic mass of Ca = 40 u]
25. (i) 1 molecule of hydrogen gas contains 2 atoms of hydrogen 30. [22 carat gold means 22 out of 24 parts is gold and rest is
Q 1 dozen of H2 molecules = 24 atoms of H copper]
2
= 12 molecules of H 2 Mass of copper = × 10 g
24
6.022 × 1023 molecules of H2 = 1 mole Given mass 2 10
Number of moles of Cu = = ×
12 Molecular mass 24 63. 5
∴ 12 molecules of H 2 = = 1.99 × 10−23moles
6.022 × 1023 Number of atoms of Cu = Number of moles × NA
(ii) Hydrogen : Oxygen (by mass) = 1 : 8 = 2 g : 16 g 2 10
= × × 6. 022 × 1023
1 24 63. 5
Q 1 mole of H2 combines with mole of oxygen
2 = 7. 9 × 1021 atoms
CBSE Term II Science IX 13
37. For H 2O 38. (i) H2O contains two type of atoms, i.e. two hydrogen
atoms and one oxygen atom.
Given, number of moles = 2 and mass = 36 g (ii) H2SO 4→ H : S : O = 2 × 1 : 32 : 4 × 16 = 2 : 32 : 64
∴ Number of particles = number of moles × 6. 022 × 1023 The ratio by mass of H2SO4 = 1 : 16 : 32
= 2 × 6. 022 × 1023 = 1. 2044 × 1024 (iii) Element Mass Atomic Mole Simplest
Number of particles ratio (x) mass (y) x ratio
Q Number of moles = Avogadro’s number ratio
y
For CO 2 N 7 14 7 1 1
= ×2=1
Given, number of particles = 3. 011 × 1023 14 2 2
∴ Number of moles of CO2 O 16 16 16
=1 1×2=2
Number of particles 16
=
6.022 × 1023 Thus, the oxide of nitrogen contains one nitrogen
3.011 × 10 23 atom and two oxygen atoms. So, the formula of the
= = 0. 5 mol oxide is NO2 which is also known as nitrogen dioxide.
6.022 × 1023
(iv) The combining elements of carbon monoxide (CO) is
Mass of CO2 = moles × molar mass = 0.5 × 44 = 22 g carbon and oxygen.
(Q Molar mass of CO2 = 12 + 2 × 16 = 44 ) (v) Monoatomic molecules consists of only one atom, e.g.
For Na atom Xe, Al and polyatomic molecules are those molecules
which consist of more than four atoms.
Given, mass = 115 g
e.g. PCl 5 (Hexa-atomic), CH 3 CH 3 (octa-atomic).
Mass 115
Number of moles = = = 5 mol 39. (i) The compounds which are made up of ions are called
Molar mass 23
as ionic compounds. e.g. sodium chloride or common
∴ Number of particles = 5 × 6. 022 × 1023 = 3 .011 × 1024 salt (NaCl) consists of a positively charged sodium ion
For MgCl 2 (Na + cation) and negatively charged chloride ion (Cl −
anion).
Given, number of moles = 0. 5 mole
(ii) Cations are positively charged ions which are formed
∴ Number of particles = 0. 5 × 6. 022 × 1023 = 3. 011 × 1023 when elements loses electrons. e.g. K + .
Mass = number of moles × molar mass Anions are negatively charged ions which are formed
(Molar mass of MgCl 2 = 24 + 2 × 35. 5 = 24 + 71 = 95 g mol −1 when elements gain electrons. e.g. Br − .
(iii) The symbol of hydroxide ion is OH− and valency is 1.
= 0. 5 × 95 = 47. 5 g
(iv) Valency helps in making pair of electrons needed by
Thus, the completed table is as : one and pair of electrons to be loosed to attain nearest
noble gas configuration or to fulfill the octet.
Species H 2O CO 2 Na atom MgCl 2
Property The elements which have same valency can combine
with each other to form a compound. e.g. Ca 2 + and
Number of 2 0.5 5.0 0.5 CO23 − both have same valency, i.e. 2 so they combine
moles together and form CaCO3.
(v) A group of atoms carrying a charge and behaving like
Number of 1.2044 × 10 24 3. 011 × 10 23 3. 011 × 10 24 3. 011 × 10 23 one entity is known as polyatomic ion. e.g. oxygen
particles
atom and by hydrogen atom combine to form
Mass 36g 22g 115g 47.59g hydroxide ion ( OH − ) and one C-atom and three
O-atoms combine to form carbonate ion ( CO2− 3 ).
Chapter Test Short Answer Type Questions
9. Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1:8 by
mass to form water. What mass of oxygen gas would
Multiple Choice Questions be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen
1. Atoms combine in the ratio of small ....... to form gas ? [Ans. 24 g]
compounds. 10. How did Berzelius assign symbols to the elements ?
(a) integers (b) whole numbers What is the chemical symbol of chlorine?
(c) fraction (d) proportions 11. Write one example of each.
2. What is the atomicity of I2 and Na2SO 4 ? (i) Tetra-atomic molecule
(a) 1, 3 (b) 2, 7 (ii) Diatomic molecule
(c) 2, 5 (d) 1, 5 12. Find the mass of each one of the following:
3. .......... form cations. (i) 1 mole of water (H2O)
(a) Molecules (b) Non-metals (ii) 1 mole of ethanol (C 2H5OH)
(c) Metalloids (d) Metals (iii) 1 mole of glucose (C 6H12O 6 )
4. Calculate the molecular mass of Al2 (SO 4 ) 3 . [Atomic mass of H = 1u, O = 16 u and C = 12 u]
(a) 342 u (b) 242 u [Ans. (i) 18 g, (ii) 46 g, (iii) 180 g]
(c) 249.5 u (d) 288 u 13. Calculate
5. Which of the following correctly represents 360 g of (i) the mass of 1.0505 × 10 23 molecules of carbon
water? dioxide (CO 2 ).
(i) 2 moles of H2O (ii) the number of molecules in 0.25 mole of NH3 .
(ii) 20 moles of water (iii) the formula unit mass of Na2SO 3 .
(iii) 6.022 × 10 23 molecules of water [Atomic mass of Na = 23 u, S = 32 u, O = 16u, H
(iv) 1.2044 × 10 25 molecules of water = 1 u and NA= 6 .022 × 10 23 mol−1 ]
(a) Only (i) (b) (i) and (iv) [Ans. (i) 7.676 g, (ii) 1.5055 × 10 23 molecules, (iii) 1264]
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) Long Answer Type Questions
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs 14. (i) Explain, why the number of atoms in one mole
of hydrogen gas is double the number of
Direction (Q. Nos. 6-7) Each of these questions contains
atoms in one mole of helium gas?
two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Each of these
(ii) Explain atomic mass unit.
questions also has four alternative choices, any one of
(iii) How many atoms are present in
which is the correct answer. You have to select one of the
codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. (a) MnO 2 molecule
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) CO molecule?
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation 15. (i) One mole of carbon atoms weighs 12 g. Find
of A. the mass of 1 atom of carbon in grams.
(c) A is true, but R is false. [Avogadro’s number = 6.022 × 10 23 per mole]
(d) A is false, but R is true. [Ans. 1.99 ×10 −23 g]
6. Assertion SI unit of atomic mass and molecular mass is u. (ii) Calculate the mass of the following:
Reason It is equal to the mass of 6 .023 × 10 23 atoms. (a) 0.5 mole of N2 gas
7. Assertion Atomicity of O 3 is 3. (b) 0.2 mole of O-atoms
(c) 4 moles of aluminium atom
Reason 1 mole of an element contains 6 .023 × 10 23 atoms.
[Given, N = 14 u, O = 16 u, Al = 27 u,
Avogadro’s number = 6.022 × 10 23 per mole]
8. Assertion Molecular weight of N2 is half to that of MgS.
[Ans. (a) 14 g, (b) 3.2 g (c) 108 g]
Reason One mole of N2 contains half the number of
molecules present in one mole of MgS.
Answers
Multiple Choice Questions
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d)
For Detailed Solutions
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs Scan the code
6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c)
CHAPTER 02
Structure of the
Atom
In this Chapter...
l Charged Particles in Matter
l Structure of an Atom
l Writing Chemical Formulae
l Atomic and Mass Number
l Different Atomic Species
Structure of an Atom l
The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the
size of the atom.
According to Dalton’s atomic theory, atom was indivisible Gold atoms
and indestructible. Now, the discovery of two fundamental
particles (electrons and protons) inside the atom, led to the α-particles
failure of this aspect of Dalton’s theory.
To know the arrangement of electrons and protons
within an atom, many scientists proposed various atomic
models.
l
Starting from nucleus, energy levels (orbits) are l
The maximum number of electrons in the outermost shell is 8.
represented by numbers (1, 2, 3, 4 etc.) or by l
Electrons are not accomodated on a given shell, unless the inner
alphabets (K, L, M, N etc.). shells are filled.
l
The electrons present in first energy level (E 1 ) have
lowest energy. Energies increases on moving
towards outer energy levels. H He
l
Energy of an electron remains same as long as it
remains in discrete orbit and it does not radiate Li Be B C N O F Ne
energy while revolving.
Neutrons (n)
Na Mg AI Si P S CI Ar
In 1932, J. Chadwick discovered another sub-atomic
particle called neutrons which is represented by ‘n’. Nucleus
Electron
They are electrically neutral and are as heavy as protons.
They are present in the nucleus of all atoms, except Ca
K
hydrogen. The mass of an atom is given by the sum of the
masses of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus. Schematic atomic structure of the first twenty elements
Composition of Atoms of the First Twenty Elements with Electron Distribution in Various Shells
Name of Symbol Atomic Number of Number of Number of Distribution of electrons
element number protons neutrons electrons Valency
K L M N
Hydrogen H 1 1 — 1 1 — — — 1
Helium He 2 2 2 2 2 — — — 0
Lithium Li 3 3 4 3 2 1 — — 1
Beryllium Be 4 4 5 4 2 2 — — 2
Boron B 5 5 6 5 2 3 — — 3
Carbon C 6 6 6 6 2 4 — — 4
Nitrogen N 7 7 7 7 2 5 — — 3
Oxygen O 8 8 8 8 2 6 — — 2
Fluorine F 9 9 10 9 2 7 — — 1
Neon Ne 10 10 10 10 2 8 — — 0
Sodium Na 11 11 12 11 2 8 1 — 1
Magnesium Mg 12 12 12 12 2 8 2 — 2
Aluminium Al 13 13 14 13 2 8 3 — 3
Silicon Si 14 14 14 14 2 8 4 — 4
Phosphorus P 15 15 16 15 2 8 5 — 3, 5
Sulphur S 16 16 16 16 2 8 6 — 2
Chlorine Cl 17 17 18 17 2 8 7 — 1
Argon Ar 18 18 22 18 2 8 8 — 0
Potassium K 19 19 20 19 2 8 8 1 1
Calcium Ca 20 20 20 20 2 8 8 2 2
CBSE Term II Science IX 19
Writing Chemical Formulae Note ● The simplest compounds made up of two different elements are
also called binary compounds.
The shortest way to represent a compound with the help of ● When the subscript is number 1, subscript is not written.
Chapter
Practice
PART 1 6. The electron distribution in an aluminium atom is
(NCERT Exemplar)
14. Isotopes of an element have J J Thomson was the first scientist to propose a
(a) the same physical properties model for the structure of an atom. Then Ernest
(b) different chemical properties Rutherford came who designed an experiment to
(c) different number of neutrons know how the electrons are arranged within an atom.
(d) different atomic numbers
To overcome the objections raised against
1
Rutherford’s model, Neils Bohr put forward some
15. 1H is named as postulates about the model of an atom.
(a) protium (b) deuterium (i) Who discovered proton?
(c) tritium (d) proton (a) E. Goldstein (b) J J Thomson
(c) Ernest Rutherford (d) Neils Bohr
l Assertion-Reasoning MCQs (ii) Thomson’s model of an atom was similar to ......
Direction (Q. Nos. 16-20) Each of these questions (a) apple (b) guava
contains two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). (c) christmas pudding (d) strawberry
Each of these questions also has four alternative (iii) Which metal foil was used by Rutherford in his
choices, any one of which is the correct answer. You have experiment?
to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. (a) Aluminium (b) Gold
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (c) Silver (d) Zinc
explanation of A. (iv) The electrons of second energy level (E 2 ) will be
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct present in which shell?
explanation of A. (a) K-shell (b) L-shell
(c) A is true, but R is false. (c) M-shell (d) N-shell
(d) A is false, but R is true.
(v) J J thomson taken a discharge tube in his
16. Assertion Cathode rays get deflected towards the experiment which is made up of?
positive plate of electric field. (a) Rubber (b) Metal foil
Reason Cathode rays consist of negatively charged (c) Plastic (d) Glass
particles known as electrons. 22. Read the following and answer the questions from
17. Assertion In Rutherford’s gold foil experiment, very (i) to (v) given below
few α-particles are deflected back. Protons are present in the nucleus of an atom. It is
Reason Nucleus present inside the atom is heavy. equal to the number of protons in an atom, which
18. Assertion According to Bohr’s model, the orbits of an determines its atomic number. It is denoted by ‘Z’.
atom are also called energy levels. All atoms of an element have the same atomic
number, Z. Therefore, the atomic number is defined
Reason Orbits are the spheres containing definite
as the total number of protons present in the nucleus
value of energy.
of an atom. The mass of an atom is practically due to
19. Assertion Atom is electrically neutral. the protons and neutrons alone. These are present in
Reason A neutral particle, neutron is present in the the nucleus of an atom. Hence, protons and neutrons
nucleus of atom. are called nucleus. The mass number is equal to the
20. Assertion Electronic configuration of neon is 2, 8. sum of total number of protons and neutrons present
in the nucleus of an atom.
Reason Atomic number of neon is 8.
Information about 6 elements is given below
l
Case Based MCQs Element Lithium Beryllium Carbon
21. Read the following and answer the questions from Symbol Li Be C
(i) to (v) given below Atomic number 3 4 6
According to Dalton’s atomic theory, atom was Relative atomic mass 7 9 12
indivisible and indestructible. The discovery of two
Element Oxygen Aluminium Chlorine
fundamental particles (electrons and protons) inside
the atom, led to the failure of the aspect of Dalton’s Symbol O Al Cl
theory. To know the arrangement of electrons and Atomic number 8 13 17
protons within an atom, many scientists proposed
Relative atomic mass 16 27 35.5
various atomic models.
22 CBSE Term II Science IX
13. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen. (iii) Which two sub-atomic particles are equal in
number in a neutral atom?
14. How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur and
magnesium? l Long Answer Type Questions
15. Write the electronic configuration and valency of the
23. (i) Which popular experiment is shown in the
following figure?
(i) Chlorine (ii) Sodium (iii) Silicon (ii) List three observations of this experiment.
16. What is meant by the term chemical formula ? Explain (iii) State conclusions drawn from each observation of
with example. this experiment.
17. Write down the formulae of (iv) State the model of the atom suggested on the
(i) sodium oxide. (ii) aluminium chloride. basis of the experiment.
Gold atoms
(iii) sodium sulphide .
α-particles
18. Write down the names of compounds represented by
the following formulae:
(i) Al 2 (SO4 ) 3 (ii) CaCl 2 (iii) K 2 SO4 (iv) KNO3
19. Given below is the atomic structure of an atom of
23
element 11 A, according to Bohr’s model of atom.
1 p+
12 n0
(ii) What would be the valency of element C listed in the (i) What will be the ratio of their sizes ?
above table? (ii) If atom is represented by planet earth ‘R e ’
= 6. 4 × 10 6 m, estimate the size of the nucleus.
24 CBSE Term II Science IX
29. Complete the following table. The electrons present in the outermost shell of an
atom are known as valence electrons. The shortest
Atomic Mass Number Number Number Name of way to represent a compound with the help of
number number of of of the atomic
neutrons protons electrons species
symbols and valency of elements is known as
chemical formula.
9 — 10 — — —
(i) What is the number of valence electrons in Na +
16 32 — — — Sulphur
ion?
— 24 — 12 — — (ii) Write the chemical formula for chloride of an
— 2 — 1 — — element ‘Y’ whose valency is 2.
— 1 0 1 0 — (iii) What is the molecular formulae of mercury (II)
(NCERT)
bromide?
(iv) What is the valency of an element of it has 2, 8, 3
30. (i) Write two differences between isotopes and isobars. electronic configuration?
(ii) Write uses of Co-60 and U-235. (v) Consider an element ‘X’ having two shells. What is
31. Number of electrons, protons and neutrons in the maximum number of electrons present in
chemical species A, B, C and D is given below. outermost shell of X. Name the element ‘X’.
Chemical Electrons Protons Neutrons 33. Read the following and answer the questions from
species (i) to (v) given below
A 2 3 4
In nature, some elements have been identified,
B 10 9 8 which have the same atomic number but different
C 8 8 8 mass number. These are called isotopes. Many
D 8 8 10 elements consist of a mixture of isotopes. Each
Now answer the following questions. isotope of an element is a pure substance. The
chemical properties of isotopes are similar but their
(i) What is the mass number of A and B?
physical properties are different. The mass of an
(ii) What is the atomic number of B?
atom of any natural element is taken as the average
(iii) Which two chemical species represent a pair of mass of all the naturally occuring atoms of that
isotopes and why?
element. If an element have no isotopes, then the
(iv) What is the valency of element C? mass of its atom would be same as the sum of protons
Also justify your answers. and neutrons in it. But, if an element occurs in
isotopic forms, then we have to know the percentage
l
Case Based Questions
of each isotopic form and then average mass is
32. Read the following and answer the questions from calculated. These have special properties which find
(i) to (v) given below them useful in various fields.
The tendency to react with atoms of the same or (i) Hydrogen has three isotopes : 11 H, 12 H, 13 H. Why are
different elements to form molecules is an attempt to these electrically neutral?
attain fully-filled outermost shell. It means, atoms (ii) The relative atomic mass of a sample of an element
react with other atoms in order to attain fully-filled X is 16.2. Calculate percentage of isotopes 16 8 X and
outermost shell. An outermost shell, which had eight 18
8 X present in the sample.
electrons is called an octet. Atoms would thus react, 35 37
(iii) Chlorine have two isotopes, 17 Cl and 17 Cl. If the
so as to achieve an octet in the outermost shell. This
abundance of 17
35 Cl is 75% and 17
37 Cl is 25%, what is
was done by sharing, gaining or the loss of electrons.
Valency is defined as the combining capacity of the the average atomic mass of chlorine?
atom of an element with the atom(s) of other (iv) Why is that certain atoms are radioactive while
element(s) in order to complete its octet. many others are not?
(v) Why atomic weight of the isotopes is not same?
EXPLANATIONS
Objective Questions 12. (a) (i) The atomic number is written on the lower left side of
1. (d) The first model of an atom was given by J J Thomson. the symbol, while mass number is written on the upper left
According to him, an atom consists of a sphere of positive side of the symbol.
charge with negatively charged electrons embedded in it. (ii) Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons
2. (c) Rutherford discovered nucleus of the atom by his Given that, number of electrons in element X = 15 and
α-particle scattering experiment. So, this experiment number of neutrons = 16
resulted into discovery of nucleus in the atom. Atomic number = number of protons = number of electrons
3. (b) A→(iv), B→(iii), C→(i), D→(ii) in neutral atom = 15
A →(iv) Thomson proposed the model in which the positive Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons
charge in the atom spread all over like the red edible part of = 15 + 16 = 31
watermelon in which electrons are studded like seeds in 31
Thus, the atom is represented as 15 X.
watermelon. K,L,M
B →(iii) E. Goldstein discovered that canal rays are 13. (d) Electronic configuration 12Mg atom = 2 , 8, 2 and that of
positively charged rays and leads to the discovery of another Mg+ ion = 2 , 8
subatomic particle proton.
C →(i) The distribution of electrons into different orbit of an
atom was suggested by Bohr and Bury.
n = 12
D →(ii) The major drawback of Rutherford’s model was that p = 12
it could not explain the stability of atom.
4. (c) Figures (ii) and (iv) not correctly represent the Bohr's
model of an atom.
It is because maximum number of electrons in K (I) shell is
Number of protons in Mg atom = 2 + 8 + 2 = 12
2, not 4, so (ii) is wrong and maximum capacity of L (II) shell
is 8 electrons, not 9. So, (iv) is also wrong. Number of neutrons in Mg atom = 24 − 12 = 12
5. (a) Neutron is another sub-atomic particle, discovered by [as mass number of Mg atom = 24 and
J. Chadwick in 1932, it is represented by n. Neutrons are number of neutrons = mass number − number of protons]
electrically neutral particles.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
6. (a) Aluminium atom has 13 protons and 13 electrons.
14. (c) Isotopes have different physical properties, similar
Therefore, electronic configuration of chemical properties, same atomic number but different mass
K L M numbers. Hence, isotopes of an element have different
13 Al = 2, 8, 3
number of neutrons.
7. (a) The given electronic configuration contains 20 electrons. 15. (a) The name of the 1 H1 is the protium.
Therefore, it is the electronic configuration of calcium 16. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
(Z = 20). A. Being made up of negatively charged particles, the
8. (a) Valency of an element is 2 because two electrons are cathode rays get deflected towards the positive plate of
present in outermost shell. electric field.
9. (c) Metals and non-metals both can have valency 1. 17. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
Metals which have 1 valence electron and non-metals which explanation of A. Because nucleus present inside the atom is
have 7 valence electrons, have valency 1. It is because, heavy but small.
metals loose their 1e− and non-metals gain 1e− to complete 18. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
their octet.
Atom consists of positively charged nucleus around which
10. (b) BiPO4, is the correct formula, its name is bismuth electrons revolve in discrete orbits that are associated with
phosphate. certain value of energy. Hence, these orbits are called
11. (b) Valency of M is +3. energy levels or energy shells.
Symbol M PO4 19. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of
A. Because of the presence of equal number of protons and
Charge 3 3
electrons the atom is neutral.
Formula MPO 4
Proton and neutron collectively called nucleons present in
∴The formula of phosphate of metal M will be MPO4. the nucleus of the atom.
26 CBSE Term II Science IX
20. (c) A is true, but R is false. The atomic number of neon is (iii) (b) Energy increases on moving towards outer energy
10. Therefore, its electronic configuration is levels. Hence, K-shell has least energy and N-shell has
K L highest energy.
=2 8 So, the increasing order is K < L < M < N.
(iv) (a) The atomic number of phosphorus is 15 which has
21. (i) (a) In 1886, E. Goldstein discovered the presence of
electronic configuration as 2, 8, 5.
new radiations known as anode rays which were
positively charged and called as protons. The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. So it’s electronic
configuration is 2, 5.
(ii) (c) In Thomson’s model, electrons were present in a
sphere of positive charge just like currants (dry The atomic number of oxygen and carbon is 8, 6 and their
fruits) in a spherical christmas pudding. configuration is 2, 6 and 2, 4.
(iii) (b) Rutherford bombarded fast moving α-particles (v) (a) If first four shells (K, L, M, N) of an atom are
on thin sheet of gold foil because it was about 1000 completely filled, then the total number of electrons are 36
atoms thick. as K, L, M and N shell contains maximum of 2, 8, 8, 18
electrons respectively.
(iv) (b) The electrons of second energy level (E 2 ), i.e.
n = 2 will be present in L-shell which contains Subjective Questions
maximum of 8 electrons. 1. Canal rays or anode rays are the positively charged rays which
(v) (d) The electron was identified by J J Thomson are seen moving from the anode towards cathode in a specially
when he performed cathode ray experiment using a designed discharge tube, when a high voltage is applied across
discharge tube which is made up of glass. the electrodes.
22. (i) (d) Atomic number of oxygen is 8, i.e. oxygen atom 2. An electron is a negatively charged particle, whereas a proton is
has 8 electrons and 8 protons. Therefore, electronic a positively charged particle and the magnitude of their charges
K L is equal. Therefore, an atom containing one electron and one
configuration of 8 O = . proton will not carry any charge. Thus, it will be a neutral atom.
2 6
3. According to Thomson model, an atom consists of a positively
(ii) (b) CCl 4 (Carbon tetrachloride) is liquid at room
charged sphere and the electrons are embedded in it. The
temperature. negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So, the
(iii) (a) Li, Be, Al are good conductors electricity. atom as a whole is electrically neutral.
(iv) (c) Mass number of Be = 9 4. If α-particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of
Atomic no. = 4 any other metal by Rutherford, there would be no change in
Atomic no. = No. of protons = 4 observations. Since other metals are not so malleable. So such a
Mass no. = No. of protons + No. of neutrons thin foil is difficult to obtain.
9 = 4 + No. of neutrons If we use a thick foil, more α-particles would bounce back and
No. of neutrons = 9 − 4 = 5 no idea about the location of positive mass in the atom would be
available with such a correctness. This means as the thickness of
(v) (a) Protons are positively charged particles and the foil increases, the possibility of correctness for the
denoted by ‘p + ’, so, they have +1 charge. experiment decreases. So, use of gold in this case is preferred.
Neutrons are electrically neutral particles and
denoted by ‘n’, so, they have zero (0) charge. 5. Thomson Rutherford Bohr
23. (i) (d) N-shell is the fourth orbit, i.e. here, n = 4. So, by Atoms consists of a A positively The positive charge in
the formula 2 n 2, the maximum number of electrons positively charged charged centre in centre of an atom
present in N-shell is 2 × ( 4)2 = 32. sphere. an atom called called nucleus.
nucleus. All mass of
∴32 is the maximum electron capacity of N-shell. an atom resides in
(ii) (c) Valency is defined as the number of electrons lost the nucleus.
or gained by an atom to achieve an octet in the Electrons are Electrons revolve Electrons revolve in
outermost shell. embedded in the around the nucleus. discrete orbits and do
A (2, 8, 2) has 2 valence electrons and 2 valency. sphere of + ve not radiate energy.
charge.
B (2, 8, 4) has 4 valence electrons and 4 valency.
C (2, 6) has 6 valence electrons and 2 valency An atom is Size of nucleus is The orbits were
because it require 2 e− to complete it’s octet. electrically neutral, very small as termed as energy
as positive charge = compared to size of shells labelled as K, L,
∞(2, 8) has 8 valence electrons and zero valency negative charge atom. M, N or n = 1, 2, 3, 4.
because it’s octet is full.
CBSE Term II Science IX 27
6. Properties of electrons, protons and neutrons are as follows 12. The given statement is not correct.
According to this statement, p > n > e
Property Electron Proton Neutron
But actually, number of protons is never greater than the
Location Outside the nucleus, Inside nucleus Inside number of neutrons. Number of neutrons can be equal to or
i.e. they are present in nucleus
orbits
greater than the number of protons because mass number is
equal to double the atomic number or greater than double the
Absolute (− ) 1.6 × 10 −19 C ( +) 1.6 ×10−19 C Nil atomic number. Of course, number of neutrons can be greater
charge than the number of electrons because number of electrons =
Relative −1 +1 Nil number of protons in the neutral atom.
charge
13. The combining capacity of the atom of an element with the
Absolute 9.1 × 10−31 kg 1.67 ×10−27 kg 1.675 ×10−27 kg atom(s) of same or other element(s) in order to complete its
mass octet is called the valency of that element. The valency of an
Relative 1/2000 1 1 element is determined by the number of valence electrons
mass present in the atom of that element. If the number of valence
electrons of the atom of an element is less than or equal to four
7. Atomic mass of helium = 4 u then the valency of that element is equal to the number of
Number of protons = 2 valence electrons.
Let the number of neutrons = x e.g. The atom of silicon has four valence electrons [Q atomic
no of silicon is 14, therefore its electronic configuration is
Number of protons + number of neutrons = Atomic mass KLM
2+x=4 ]. Thus, the valency of silicon is four.
2 , 8, 4
⇒ x = 4−2 =2
On the other hand, if the number of valence electrons of the
8. Number of electrons = 13 atom of an element is greater than four, the valency of that
Number of protons = 13 element is obtained by subtracting the number of valence
electrons from eight.
Number of neutrons = 27 − 13 = 14
K L M e.g. The atom of oxygen has six valence electrons [Q atomic
Its electronic configuration is 2 , 8 , 3 . no. of oxygen is 6, therefore, its electronic configuration is
2 (K ), 6(L )]. Thus, the valency of oxygen is two [8 − 6 = 2].
‘Al’ may lose 3 electrons easily to achieve completely filled
14. Magnesium is a metal while chlorine and sulphur are non-metals.
outermost shell and hence become stable, it acquires a
positive charge of +3. Valency of a metal = Number of valence electrons (i.e. number
of electrons present in outermost shell)
Therefore, its ion is represented as Al 3+ .
Valency of a non-metal = 8 − number of valence electrons
9. The maximum number of electrons that can occupy K and
(i) 12Mg = 2 , 8, 2 ; Valency of magnesium = 2
L-shells of an atom are 2 and 8 respectively.
(ii) 16 S = 2 , 8, 6 ; Valency of sulphur = 8 − 6 = 2
Therefore, if K and L-shells of an atom are fully filled, then
(iii) 17 Cl = 2 , 8, 7 ; Valency of chlorine = 8 − 7 = 1
the total number of electrons in the atom would be
( 2 + 8) = 10 electrons. K L M
15. (i) Chlorine (17 Cl) : 2 , 8 , 7 ⇒ Valency =1
10. The tabular form is as below K L M
(ii) Sodium (11 Na) : 2 , 8 , 1 ⇒ Valency =1
Atomic Mass number Number of
Element number = {no. of electrons
Electronic
Valency
K L M
configuration (iii) Silicon (14 Si) : 2 , 8 , 4 ⇒ Valency = 4
(= no. of p) (p + n)} (= no. of p)
16. It is the shortest way to represent a compound with the help
X 5 5 + 6 = 11 5 2, 3 3
of symbols and valency (charge) of elements.
Y 8 8 + 10 = 18 8 2, 6 2 e.g. Element Ca Cl
Z 15 15 + 16 = 31 15 2, 8, 5 3, 5 Charge +2 –1
Formula CaCl 2
11. The rules for writing the number of electrons in different
energy levels or shells are 17. (i) Sodium oxide
(i) The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is Symbol Na O
given by the formula 2 n 2, where n is the orbit number Charge +1 –2
of energy level, 1, 2, 3, .... Formula Na 2O
(ii) The maximum number of electron that can be (ii) Aluminium chloride
accomodated in the outermost orbit is 8. Symbol Al Cl
(iii) Electrons are not accomodated in a given shell, unless Charge +3 –1
the inner shells are filled.
Formula AlCl 3
28 CBSE Term II Science IX
(iii) Sodium sulphide (b) Some of the α-particles were deflected by the foil
Symbol Na S by small angles.
Charge +1 –2 (c) Very few α-particles (one out of 12000) appeared
Formula Na 2S to rebound.
(iii) On the basis of his experiment, Rutherford concluded
18. (i) Aluminium sulphate [Al 2 (SO4 )3 ] that
(ii) Calcium chloride ( CaCl 2 )
(a) Most of the space inside the atom is empty
(iii) Potassium sulphate (K 2SO4 ) because most of the α-particles passed through
(iv) Potassium nitrate (KNO3 ) the gold foil without getting deflected.
19. (i) The element A is Na has three shells K, L and M but here
(b) Very few particles were deflected from their path,
only 2 shells are given. Further, L-shell cannot have more
than 8 electrons but here 9 electrons are given. indicating that the positive charge of the atom
occupies very little space.
(ii) The correct structure is
(c) A very small fraction of α-particles were deflected
M
by 180° (i.e. they rebound), indicating that all the
positive charge and mass of atom were concentrated
11 p+ K L in a very small volume within the atom.
12 n0
(iv) On the basis of his experiment, he stated the model of
the atom as
(a) There is a positively charged, highly densed
(iii) As Na has 1 valence electron, thus it has a valency of +1 centre in an atom, called nucleus. Nearly, the
and chlorine has a valency of −1. Hence, the formula of whole mass of the atom resides in the nucleus.
its chloride is ACl, i.e. NaCl. (b) The electrons revolve around the nucleus in
20. (i) Atomic number = Number of protons = 8 circular path.
(ii) The charge on the atom is zero because number of (c) The size of the nucleus (10−15 m ) is very small as
electrons and number of protons are equal. compared to the size of the atom (10−10 m ).
21. Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons
24. Rutherford’s model could not explain the stability of the
Mass number of X = 6 + 6 = 12 atom. This is because according to Rutherford’s model,
Mass number of Y = 6 + 8 = 14 an atom consists of a small heavy positively charged
To find the relation between X and Y. nucleus in the centre and the electrons were revolving
around it.
Atomic number of X = Number of protons = 6
These revolving electrons would loose energy as they are
Atomic number of Y = Number of protons = 6
the charged particles and due to acceleration charged
It can be that the atomic numbers of both the elements X and particles would radiate energy.
Y are same (6) but their mass number is different, so, X and Y
Thus, the orbit of the revolving electron will keep on
are isotopes of the same element (carbon).
becoming smaller and smaller, following a spiral path as
Hence, X and Y are 126 C and 146 C respectively. shown in figure and ultimately the electron should fall into
the nucleus. In other words, the atom should collapse.
22. (i) D and E have same mass number but different atomic
numbers. Hence, they are a pair of isobars.
(ii) Electronic configuration of C is 2 (K ), 5(L ). Hence, its
valency is three because it gains three electrons to attain
stable electronic configuration.
[or valency can be find as, 8 − 5 = 3]
(iii) For a neutral atom,
Number of electrons = Number of protons
Thus, electrons and protons are equal in numbers in a
neutral atom.
Continuous loss of energy by a revolving electron.
23. (i) This figure shows scattering of α-particles by a gold foil
which is known as Rutherford’s experiment or α-particle 25. The postulates of Bohr’s model of atom are as follows
scattering experiment. (i) In an atom, the electrons revole around the nucleus in
(ii) Three observations of this experiment are certain definite circular paths called orbits or shells.
These are represented by the letters K, L, M, N....... or
(a) Most of the fast moving α-particles passed straight
the numbers n = 1, 2, 3, 4 ...........
through the gold foil.
CBSE Term II Science IX 29
E4 Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
E3 Nuclear composition
E2 Number of protons = 12
E1
Number of neutrons = 26 − 12 = 14
Nucleus 1 2 3 4 Valency = 2
K L M
N
Because it can donate 2 electrons easily to complete its
octet and become stable.
(ii) Valency of the element Y would be 1, i.e. it can gain
1 electron to become stable. When it combines with the
element X of valency 2, the compound formed will be
Circular loss of energy by a revolving electron XY2 .
(ii) The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is Element X Y
given by the formula 2 n 2, where 'n' is the orbit number Valency +2 1
or energy level index, 1, 2, 3 ..... . Hence, the maximum Formula of the compound would be XY 2.
number of electrons in different shells are as follows. 28. (i) Atomic size is represented in terms of atomic radius,
First orbit (K-shell) will be = 2 × 12 = 2, second orbit (or rH
= 105
L-shell) will be = 2 × 2 2 = 8, third orbit (M-shell) will be rn
= 2 × 32 = 18 and so on. 4
As volume of sphere = π r 3, therefore,
(iii) The maximum number of electrons that can be 3
accomadated in the outermost orbit is 8. 4 4
VH = π rH3 and Vn = π rn3
(iv) Electrons are not accomodated in a given shell, unless 3 3
the inner shells are filled. That is the shells are filled in Thus, the ratio of volumes
a step-wise manner. 4
π rH3 3
(v) While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do not VH 3 r3 r
radiate energy. = = H3 = H
Vn 4 π r 3 rn rn
26. (i) An outermost shell, which has eight electrons is said to n
3
possess an octet. Elements attain their octet by sharing,
= (10 ) = 1015
5 3
gaining or losing electrons.
V
(ii) Atomic structure of Mg (ii) n = 10−15 or Vn = 10−15 × VH
VH
If atom is represented by planet earth with
M R e = 6. 4 × 10 6 m
p=12 K L
n=12 4
Then, volume of atom (VH) = π R e3
3
4
= × 3.14 × ( 6. 4 × 106 m )3
3
KL M
12 Mg = 2, 8 , 2 = 1097. 5 × 1018 m 3
Atomic structure of P = 1. 0975 × 1021 m 3
−15
∴ Volume of nucleus = 10 × (1. 0975 × 1021 ) m 3
M
= 1 . 0975 × 10 6 m 3
p=15
n=16
K L 29.
Atomic Mass Number Number Number Name of
number number of of of the atomic
neutrons protons electrons species
K L M
15P = 2 , 8 , 5 9 19 10 9 9 Fluorine
27. (i) Atomic number = 12 16 32 16 16 16 Sulphur
Mass number = 26
12 24 12 12 12 Magnesium
Atomic structure of X
1 2 1 1 1 Deuterium
1 1 0 1 0 Hydrogen ion
p = 12
n = 14 Explanation
19
(i) Fluorine ( 9 F) Given, atomic number = 9 and
number of neutrons = 10
30 CBSE Term II Science IX
Mass number = Atomic number + number of neutrons (ii) Atomic number of B = Number of protons = 9
= 9 + 10 = 19 (iii) C and D are isotopes as they have same atomic
Number of protons = Atomic number numbers but different mass numbers.
= Number of electrons = 9 K L
(iv) Electronic configuration of C : 2 , 6
16S) Given, atomic number = 16
(ii) Sulphur ( 32
It needs two electrons to complete its octet. Hence, its
Number of protons = Number of electrons = 16 valency is 2.
Number of neutrons = Mass number 32. (i) Na + ion is formed when Na atom loses an electron. The
− atomic number = 32 − 16 = 16. atomic number of Na is 11, i.e. It has 11 e− . When it
24
(iii) Magnesium (12 Mg) Number of protons = 12 loses one e− , it becomes Na + ion and has 10 e− . Thus,
Atomic number = Number of protons = 12 electronic configuration of Na atom and Na + ion are as
Number of electrons = Number of protons = 12 follows:
Number of neutrons = Mass number Na (atom) = 2, 8, 1 Valence electrons = 1
− atomic number = 24 − 12 = 12 Na + (ion) = 2, 8 Valence electrons = 8
(iv) Deuterium (21 D) Number of protons = 1 and Number of Hence, Na + ion has 8 valence electrons.
electrons = 1 (ii) Valency of Y = 2
∴ Atomic number = 1, mass number = 2 Valency of chlorine = 1
Number of neutrons = 2 − 1 = 1 ∴The formula of compound
(v) Hydrogen ion (1 H+ ) Mass number = 1 Y Cl
Number of protons = 1 +2 –1
Number of neutrons = 0 YCl 2
Number of electrons = 0 (iii) The molecular formula of mercury (II) bromide is
Atomic number = Number of protons = 1 Hg Br
Because number of electrons is zero, i.e. not equal to +2 –1
that of protons, so the species is hydrogen ion, not HgBr2
hydrogen atom. (iv) Valency of an element is 3 because three electrons are
30. (i) Difference between Isobars and Isotopes present in outermost shell.
(v) An element ‘X’ have two shells, i.e. K and L. The
Isotopes Isobars outermost shell is L which can have maximum 8
These are the atoms of These are the atoms of the number of electrons. So, the atomic number or total
the same element having different elements having number of electrons are 10, i.e. element ‘X’ is neon.
same atomic number but same mass number but 33. (i) Isotopes of hydrogen are electrically neutral because all
different mass numbers. different atomic numbers. these have only one electron and one proton.
They have identical They have different (ii) Atomic masses of 16 18
8 X and 8 X are 16 and 18.
chemical properties and chemical properties and A (100 − A )
16 × + 18 = 16.2
different physical different physical properties 100 100
properties. because these are the atoms
e.g. 11 H, 12 H, 13 H. ∴ A = 90% and B = 100 − A
of different elements.
40
e.g. 18 Ar and 40 ∴ B = 10%
20 Ca.
(iii) Average mass of chlorine
(ii) Isotope of cobalt ( Co -60) is used in the treatment of 75 25
= 35 × + 37 × = 35. 5
cancer. 100 100
Isotope of uranium ( U-235) is used as a fuel in nuclear (iv) In certain atoms, the number of neutrons exceeds the
reactor. number of protons and became unstable.
31. (i) Mass number of A = 3 + 4 = 7 (v) Atomic weight of isotopes is not same as the number of
Mass number of B = 9 + 8 = 17 neutrons present in the nucleus is not same.
Chapter Test Reason Electrons remain stationary in these orbits
for some time.
7. Assertion The valency of an atom of flourine is 7.
Reason The number of electrons present in the
Multiple Choice Questions outermost shell of an atom are known as the
valence electrons.
1. Atomic models have been improved over the years. 8. Assertion The atoms of different elements having
Arrange the following atomic models in the order of their same mass number but different atomic number
chronological order. are known as isobars.
(i) Rutherford’s atomic model Reason The sum of protons and neutrons, in the
(ii) Thomson’s atomic model isobars is always different.
(iii) Bohr’s atomic model
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (i)
Short Answer Type Questions
(c) (ii), (i) and (iii) (d) (iii), (ii) and (i) 9. What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of
the atom?
2. Which of the following correctly represent the electronic
distribution in the Mg atom ? 10. What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of
(a) 3, 8, 1 (b) 2, 8, 2 the atom?
(c) 1, 8, 3 (d) 8, 2, 2 11. Describe Bohr’s model of the atom.
3. An atom with 3 protons and 4 neutrons will have a valency 12. Sulphur dioxide (SO 2 ) is a colourless pungent
of smelling gas and is a major air pollutant.
(a) 3 (b) 7 (i) Write the electronic configuration of its
(c) 1 (d) 4 constituent elements ‘sulphur and oxygen’
4. The chemical formula of potassium carbonate is ........ (Given, 32 16
16 S, 8 O).
(a) KCO 3 (b) K 2(CO) 3 (ii) Write the valency of sulphur and oxygen.
(c) (KCO 3 ) 2 (d) K 2CO 3 (iii) Are sulphur and oxygen isotopes of same
5. Which of the following are true for an element? element? Explain your answer.
(i) Atomic number = number of protons + number of 13. The average atomic mass of a sample of an
electrons element X is 16.2 u. What are the percentages of
(ii) Mass number = number of protons + number of isotopes 168 X and 188 X in the sample?
neutrons
Long Answer Type Questions
(iii) Atomic number = number of protons = number of
neutrons 14. (i) From Rutherford’s α-particle scattering
experiment, give the experimental evidence for
(iv) Atomic number = number of protons = number of
deriving the conclusion that
electrons
(a) most of the space inside the atom is empty.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) (b) the nucleus of an atom is positively
charged.
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs (ii) An element has mass number = 32 and atomic
Direction (Q. Nos. 6-8) Each of these questions contains number = 16, find
two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Each of (a) the number of neutrons in the atom of the
these questions also has four alternative choices, any one element.
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of (b) the number of electrons in the outermost
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. shell of the atom.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (iii) On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom,
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation which subatomic particle is present in the
of A. nucleus of an atom?
(c) A is true, but R is false. 15. Write the molecular formulae of all the compounds
(d) A is false, but R is true. that can be formed by the combination of following
6. Assertion Bohr’s orbits are called stationary orbits. ions:
Cu 2 + , Na+ , Fe 3 + , Cl− , SO 24 − , PO 34 −
Answers
Multiple Choice Questions
For Detailed Solutions
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d)
Scan the code
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c)
CHAPTER 03
Gravitation
In this Chapter...
l Gravitation
l Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion
l Free Fall
l Mass
l Weight
It has been observed that an object dropped from a height Consider two bodies A and B having masses m1 and m 2 ,
falls towards the earth. Newton generalised this idea and whose centres are at a distance d from each other.
said that not only the earth but every object in the universe m1 m2
attracts every other object. This force of attraction between
two objects is called the force of gravitation or gravitational d
A B
force.
The gravitational force between two bodies
In this chapter, we shall learn about gravitation and universal is directed along the line joining their centres
law of gravitation.
Then, the force between two bodies is directly proportional
to the product of their masses, i.e.
Gravitation
F ∝ m1 m 2 …(i)
It is defined as the force of attraction between any two bodies
in the universe. The earth attracts (or pulls) all objects lying and the force between two bodies is inversely proportional to
on or near its surface towards its centre. the square of the distance between them, i.e.
1
The force with which the earth pulls the objects towards its F∝ 2 …(ii)
centre is called the gravitational force of the earth or gravity d
of the earth. Combining Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
The Universal Law of Gravitation m m
F∝ 12 2
It was given by Isaac Newton. According to this law, d
‘‘The attractive force between any two objects in the universe m m
or F=G 12 2
is directly proportional to the product of their masses and d
inversely proportional to the square of distance between
them’’. where, G = 6.67 × 10 −11 N - m 2 / kg 2 is called the universal
The direction of the force is along the line joining the centres gravitational constant.
of two objects.
CBSE Term II Science IX 33
Its value does not depend on the medium between the two Kepler’s Second Law
bodies and the masses of the bodies or the distance between It states that an imaginary line from the sun to the planet
them. Suppose the masses of two bodies are 1 kg each and sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time.
the distance d between them is 1 m, then Thus, if the time of travelling of a planet from A to B and from
F = G (Q m1 = m 2 = 1 kg and d =1 m) C to D is same, then the areas AOB and COD are equal.
Hence, the universal gravitational constant is defined as the
C
gravitational force between two bodies of unit masses and B
separated by a unit distance from each other placed Sun
anywhere in space. 1 month 1 month
The SI unit of G is N-m2 / kg 2 . The value of G was found out O
by Henry Cavendish (1731-1810) by using a sensitive balance. A
D
Importance of Universal Law of Gravitation Areas showing Kepler’s second law
The universal law of gravitation successfully explained
several phenomena are given below Kepler’s Third Law
l
The force that binds us to the earth. It states that the cube of the mean distance of a planet from the
l
The motion of the moon around the earth. sun is directly proportional to the square of its orbital period T.
l
The motion of planets around the sun. It is expressed as
l
The occurrence tides is due to the gravitational force of r 3 ∝ T2, r 3 = k × T2
attraction of moon. r3
k=
l
The flow of water in rivers is also due to gravitational T2
force of the earth on water.
where, T = time period of the planet (around the sun),
Motion of Moon around Earth r = radius as mean distance of the planet from the sun
and Centripetal Force and k = Kepler constant.
The force that keeps a body moving along the circular path
is acting towards the centre is called centripetal (centre Free Fall
seeking) force. The motion of the moon around the earth is
due to the centripetal force. When objects fall towards the earth under the influence of
earth’s gravitational force alone, then these are called freely
The centripetal force is provided by the gravitational force falling objects and such a motion is called free fall.
of attraction of the earth. If there were no such force, then
the moon would pursue a uniform straight line motion.
Acceleration due to Gravity (g )
Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion Whenever an object falls towards the earth, an acceleration is
Johannes Kepler proposed three laws of planetary motion in involved. This acceleration is due to the earth’s gravitational pull
16th century. The three laws are given as below and is called acceleration due to gravity. It is denoted by g.
The SI unit of g is the same as that of acceleration, i.e. m/s 2 .
Kepler’s First Law Let mass of the earth be M and an object falling freely towards
It states that the path of any planet in an orbit around the sun it be m. The distance between centres of the earth and the
follows the shape of an ellipse with the sun at one of the foci. object is R.
Planet From Newton’s law of gravitation,
GMm
F= …(i)
Perihelion Sun
Aphelion R2
fastest
motion Centre
slowest Also, from second law of motion, force exerted on an object,
motion
F = ma
Since, a = g (i.e. acceleration due to gravity)
An ellipse showing Kepler’s first law F = mg …(ii)
Equating RHS of Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
The point in the orbit of a planet nearest to the sun is called
perihelion and the point farthest from the sun is called GMm GM
mg = 2
or g= …(iii)
aphelion. R R2
34 CBSE Term II Science IX
From the formula, it is clear that acceleration due to gravity Irrespective of the position of the body in the universe, mass
does not depend on the mass of a falling object. It depends always remains constant everywhere. The mass of the body
only on the mass of the earth or celestial bodies. cannot be zero.
As distance of an object from the centre of the celestial body
increases, the value of g decreases. Weight
Earth is flattened at poles. Thus, radius of the earth is less at The weight of an object is the force with which it is attracted
poles than at equator. Hence, the value of g is less at equator towards the earth.
than at poles. Weight of an object, w = mg
Calculation of the Value of g where, m = mass and g = acceleration due to gravity
To calculate the value of g, we should put the values of G,M GMm
or w=
and R in the Eq. (iii), g = GM / R 2 . R2
QMass of the earth, M = 6 × 10 24 kg Here, M = mass of the earth
and R = radius of the earth.
Radius of the earth, R = 6. 4 × 10 6 m
Important points regarding weight are as given below
Universal gravitational constant, G = 6. 67 × 10 −11 N-m 2 / kg 2 l
Weight is a vector quantity, it acts in vertically downward
GM 6. 67 × 10 −11 × 6 × 10 24 direction and its SI unit is newton (N). Weight of 1 kg
g= = = 9. 8 m/s 2
R2 ( 6. 4 × 10 6 ) 2 mass is 9.8 N. (i.e. 1 kg-wt = 9 . 8 N)
l
Weight of an object is not constant, it changes from
g = 9. 8 m /s 2
place-to-place.
Equations of Motion for Free Fall l
In the space, where g = 0, so weight of an object is zero.
The three equations of motion which we have derived earlier l
At the centre of the earth, weight becomes zero. This is due
is for bodies under uniform acceleration. In case of motion of to the fact that on going down to the earth value of g
bodies under free fall, there is a uniform acceleration, i.e. decreases and at the centre of the earth, g = 0.
acceleration due to gravity ( g ) acting downward. Note l It is clear that, weight of an object will change on a planet
So, the three equations of motion can be applied for the other than the earth.
motion of bodies under free fall as follows l Spring balance is used to measure the weight of a body and
General equations Equations for body pan balance is used to measure the mass of a body.
of motion under free fall
Weight of an Object on the Moon
v = u + at v = u + gt (Q a = g )
Let the mass of an object be m and its weight on the moon be
1 1 w m . Suppose the mass of the moon is M m and its radius be
s = ut + at 2 h = ut + gt 2 (Q a = g )
2 2 R m . According to universal law of gravitation, the weight of
v 2 = u 2 + 2 as v 2 = u 2 + 2 gh (Q a = g )
an object on the moon will be
M ×m
wm = G m 2 ...(i)
where, h is the height from which the object falls, t is the Rm
time of fall, u is the initial velocity and v is the final velocity
when the body accelerates at g. Let the weight of the same object on the earth be w e , the
mass of the earth be Me and the radius of the earth be R e .
In solving numerical problems, we should remember the
following points GM m m
2
l
If an object falls vertically downwards, then acceleration wm Rm M R2
due to gravity is taken as positive, since its velocity = = m × 2e
we GMe m Me R m
increases while falling. 2
Re
l
If an object is thrown vertically upwards, then acceleration
due to gravity is taken as negative, since its velocity Now, M m = 5. 98 × 10 24 kg; Me = 7 . 36 × 10 22 kg
decreases as it moves upwards. R m = 1.74 × 10 6 m; R e = 6. 37 × 10 6 m
w m 5. 98 × 10 24 ( 6. 37 × 10 6 ) 2 1
Mass ∴ = × ≈
we 7 . 36 × 10 22 (1.74 × 10 6 ) 2 6
Mass is the total content of the body which measures the inertia
of a body. It is a scalar quantity and its SI unit is kilogram. In Thus, the weight of an object on the moon is one-sixth of its
other words, mass is the quantity of matter contained in a body. weight on the earth.
Solved
Examples
Time, t = 0.6 s
Example 1. Find the gravitational force between earth and
(i) Speed, v = u + gt
an object of 2 kg mass placed on its surface. (Take, mass of
v = 0 + 10 × 0. 6
the earth, m e = 6 × 10 24 kg and radius of the earth,
v = 6 m/s
R = 6. 4 × 10 6 m) u + v 0 + 6
(ii) Average speed = = = 3. 0 m/s
Sol. Given, mass of the earth, m e = 6 × 1024 kg 2 2
Mass of an object, m o = 2 kg 1
(iii) Distance travelled, h = ut + gt 2
Distance between earth and an object, i.e. radius of the 2
earth, R = 6. 4 × 106 m 1
From universal law of gravitation, h = 0 + × 10 × ( 0. 6)2
m m 2
F =G e2 o = 5 × 0. 36 = 1. 80 m
R
6. 67 × 10−11 × 6 × 1024 × 2 Example 4. An object is thrown vertically upwards and
∴ F= = 19.5 N
(6. 4 × 106 )2 rises to a height of 13. 07 m.
Calculate
Example 2. The mass of the mars is 6. 39 × 10 23 kg and that (i) the velocity with which the object was thrown upwards
of the jupiter is 1.89 × 10 27 kg. If the distance between mars and
and jupiter is 7.49 × 10 5 m, calculate the force exerted by (ii) the time taken by the object to reach the highest point.
the jupiter on the mars. ( Take , G = 6.7 × 10 −11 N - m 2 kg −2 ) Sol. Given, distance travelled, h = 13.07 m
Sol. Given, mass of the mars, M m = 6.39 × 1023 kg Final velocity, v = 0
Mass of the jupiter, M j = 1. 89 × 1027 kg Acceleration due to gravity g = −9. 8 m/s2 (upward motion)
Example 6. Mass of an object is 12 kg. Calculate Example 8. A particle weighs 120 N on the surface of the
(i) its weight on the earth and (ii) its weight on the moon. earth. At what height above the earth’s surface will its weight
Sol. Given, mass of an object, m = 12 kg be 30 N? (Take, radius of the earth = 6400 km)
(i) Acceleration due to gravity on earth, ge = 9. 8 m/s2 Sol. Given, weight of particle on the surface of earth, w = 120 N
Weight of particle at height h above the earth’s surface,
Weight on the earth, w e = mge = 12 × 9. 8 = 117. 6 N
w1 = 30 N
g
(ii) Acceleration due to gravity on moon, gm = e The weight of a particle on the surface of the earth,
6
9. 8
gm = m/s2 mGM GM
6 w = mg = Q g = 2
R2 R
9. 8
Weight on the moon, w m = mgm = 12 × = 9. 8 × 2 = 19. 6 Let w1 be the weight of a particle at height h above the
6
N earth’s surface.
M
Example 7. A man weighs 600 N on the earth. What is his w
G 2
(R + h ) 2
= R =
mass, if g is 10 m/s 2 ? On the moon, his weight would be So,
w1 G M R2
100 N. What is the acceleration due to gravity on the moon? (R + h ) 2
12. The magnitude of weight of a body at the centre of 18. Assertion The moon revolves around the earth due
earth is to gravitational force between moon and earth.
(a) zero (b) equal to mass of the body Reason Gravitational force between moon and earth
(c) greater than g (d) less than g is calculated by Newton’s law of gravitation.
13. Two objects of different masses falling freely near the 19. Assertion An object is weightless when it is in free
surface of moon would (NCERT Exemplar) fall and this phenomenon is called weightlessness.
(a) have same velocities at any instant Reason In free fall, there is no upward force acting
(b) have different accelerations on the object.
(c) experience forces of same magnitude 20. Assertion At the centre of earth, a body has no centre
(d) undergo a change in their inertia of gravity.
14. When you put an object on a spring balance .......... Reason This is because, g = 0 at the centre of earth.
will be measured.
(a) mass (b) acceleration (c) force (d) weight lCase Based MCQs
15. Match the following Columns. 21. Read the following and answer the questions from (i)
Column I Column II to (v) given below
−2 Universal Law of Gravitation
A. Escape velocity 1. 1.67 ms
−2
Each mass particle of universe attracts the other mass
B. Gravitational constant, G 2. 9.8 ms particle. The force of attraction between two particles
C. Acceleration due to gravity of 3. 6.67 ×1011 N-m 2kg −2 because of their masses, is called the gravitational force of
earth, gearth attraction. This law was given by Isaac Newton.
m1 m2
D. Acceleration due to gravity of 4. 11.2 km/s F12 F21
moon, gmoon
r
Codes In figure shown above, let there be two particles of
A B C D A B C D masses m1 and m 2 at a separation r. According to this law,
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 the force of attraction acting between them is dependent
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2 on both the masses and also on the distance of separation.
l Assertion-Reasoning MCQs (i) The force of attraction between two unit point masses
separated by a unit distance is called (NCERT Exemplar)
Direction (Q. Nos. 16-20) Each of these questions (a) gravitational potential
contains two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). (b) acceleration due to gravity
Each of these questions also has four alternative (c) gravitational field
choices, any one of which is the correct answer. You (d) universal gravitational constant
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given (ii) In the relationF = Gm1 m 2 / r 2 , the quantity G
below. (NCERT Exemplar)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) depends on the value of g at the place of observation
explanation of A
(b) is used only when the earth is one of the two masses
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(c) is greatest at the surface of the earth
explanation of A
(d) is universal constant of nature
(c) A is true, but R is false
(iii) If mass of a planet is 2% of mass of earth, then the ratio
(d) A is false, but R is true
of gravitational pull of earth on the planet and that of
16. Assertion Gravitational force between two masses in planet on earth will be
air is F. If they are immersed in water, force will (a) 1 : 20 (b) 2 : 5 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 50
remain F. (iv) Two equal point masses are separated by a distance
Reason Gravitational force does not depend on the d 1 . The force of gravitation acting between them is
medium between the masses. F1 . If the separation is decreased to d 2 , then the new
17. Assertion The measurement of G by Cavendish’s force of gravitationF 2 is given by
2
experiment, combined with the knowledge of g and d
(a) F2 = F1 (b) F2 = F1 1
R E enables one to estimate M E . d2
Reason By Newton’s second law, the value of g is d
2
d
GM E (c) F2 = F1 2 (d) F2 = F1 1
given by the relation, g = d1 d2
R E2
CBSE Term II Science IX 39
(v) According to Newton’s law of gravitation, the (iii) The mass of an astronaut in a space satellite, if at
magnitude of the forceF on point masses m1 and m 2 earth’s surface the astronaut weighs 250 N is
Gm1 m 2 (a) 20 kg (b) 5 kg (c) 25 kg (d) 30 kg
is given by|F | =
r2 (iv) An astronaut experiences weightlessness in a space
m1 satellite. It is because
m2 (a) gravitational force is large at that location in space
(b) gravitational force is small at that location in space
r (c) astronaut experiences no gravity
Which of the following statement(s) about this (d) gravitational force is infinitely large at that location in
space
equation is/are correct?
(v) A person sitting in a chair inside the satellite feels
I. This equation is not directly applicable for the
weightlessness as
gravitational force between extended object (like
(a) the earth does not attract the objects in a satellite
the earth) and a point mass.
(b) the normal force by the chair on the person balances
II. This equation can be directly applied for the earth’s attraction
gravitational force between an extended object (c) the normal force is zero
and a point mass. (d) the person in the satellite is not accelerated
III. This equation can be applied to find the
gravitational force between an extended object
and a point mass. PART 2
(a) Only I (b) Both I and II
(c) Only II (d) Both II and III Subjective Questions
22. Read the following and answer the questions from (i)
to (v) given below l Short Answer Type Questions
Weightlessness in a Satellite
1. State the universal law of gravitation. (NCERT)
A satellite which does not produce its own gravity
moves around the earth in a circular orbit under the 2. Write the formula for magnitude of gravitational
action of gravity. force between the earth and an object on the surface
Satellite of the earth. (NCERT)
m
3. How does the force of gravitation between two
objects change, when distance between them is
h reduced to half?
r v 4. What is the importance of universal law of gravitation?
R
GMm 5. If the distance between masses of two objects is
r2
Earth increased by five times, by what factor would the
mass of one of them have to be changed to maintain
the same gravitational force? Would there be an
increase or a decrease in the same?
GM
The acceleration of satellite is towards the centre 6. Calculate the force of gravitation between the earth
r2 and the sun. The average distance between the two is
of the earth as shown in figure. If a body of mass m is 1 . 5 × 1011 m. (Take, the mass of the earth = 6 × 10 24
placed on the surface inside a satellite moving around
kg and of the sun = 2 × 10 30 kg). (NCERT)
the earth, then forces applied on the body are the
gravitational pull of earth and the reaction force by the 7. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force
surface. Using, Newton’s law, the reaction force between the earth and a 1 kg object on its surface?
exerted on the surface becomes zero. (Take, mass of the earth = 6 × 10 24 kg and radius of the
(i) Astronauts inside spaceship feel earth = 6 . 4 × 10 6 m) (NCERT)
(a) zero weight (b) more acceleration
(c) less weight (d) None of these 8. The earth and the moon are attracted to each other
(ii) In the weightlessness state, bodies have by gravitational force. Does the earth attract the
(a) no weight, no inertia (b) weight and inertia moon with a force that is greater than or smaller than
(c) no weight, but possess inertia or equal to the force with which the moon attracts the
(d) weight, but don’t possess inertia earth? Why? (NCERT)
40 CBSE Term II Science IX
9. How does the force of attraction between the two 20. What is the difference between the mass of an object
bodies depend upon their masses and distance and its weight?
between them? A student thought that two bricks 21. Why is the weight of an object on the moon (1/6)th of
tied together would fall faster than a single one its weight on the earth? (NCERT)
under the action of gravity. Do you agree with his
hypothesis or not? Comment. (NCERT Exemplar)
1
22. The weight of any person on the moon is about
6
10. A body weighs 25 kg on the surface of the earth. If
times that on the earth. He can lift a mass of 15 kg on
the mass of the earth is 6 × 10 24 kg, then the radius of
the earth. What will be the maximum mass which can
the earth is 6. 4 × 10 6 m and the gravitational constant
be lifted by the same force applied by the person on
is 6. 67 × 10 −11 N-m 2/ kg 2.
the moon? (NCERT Exemplar)
Calculate
(i) the mutual force of attraction between the body and
23. Gravitational force on the surface of the moon is only
the earth. (1 / 6)th as strong as gravitational force on the earth.
(ii) the acceleration produced in the body. What is the weight (in N) of a 10 kg object on the
(iii) the acceleration produced in the earth. moon and on the earth? (NCERT)
11. Two bodies of masses 3 kg and 12 kg are placed at a 24. Amit buys few grams of gold at the poles as per the
distance 12 m. A third body of mass 0.5 kg is to be instruction of one of his friends. He hands over the
placed at such a point that the force acting on this same, when he meets him at the equator. Will the
body is zero. Find the position of that point. friend agree with the weight of gold bought? If not,
why?
12. What do you mean by free fall? (NCERT)
13. What do you mean by acceleration due to gravity?
l Long Answer Type Questions
(NCERT) 25. (i) Write the formula to find the magnitude of
14. Gravitational force acts on all objects in proportion to gravitational force between the earth and an object on
their masses. Why a heavy object does not fall faster the earth’s surface.
than a light object? (NCERT) (ii) Derive how does the value of gravitational forceF
between two objects change, when
15. A stone is released from the top of a tower of height
(a) distance between them is reduced to half.
19. 6 m. Calculate its final velocity just before
(b) mass of an object is increased four times.
touching the ground. (NCERT)
26. (i) At some moment, two giant planets jupiter and saturn
16. On the earth, a stone is thrown from a height in a of the solar system are in the same line as seen from the
direction parallel to the earth’s surface while another earth. Find the total gravitational force due to them on
stone is simultaneously dropped from the same a person of mass 50 kg on the earth. Could the force
height. Which stone would reach the ground first and due to the planets be important?
why? (NCERT Exemplar) (Take, mass of the jupiter = 2 × 10 27 kg,
17. A ball is thrown with some speed u m/s. Show that Mass of the saturn = 6 × 10 26 kg,
under the free fall, it will fall on the ground with Distance of jupiter from the earth = 6. 3 × 1011 m,
same speed. Distance of saturn from the earth = 1.28 × 1012 m,
18. Identical packets are dropped from two aeroplanes, Gravitational constant, G = 6. 67 × 10 −11 N-m 2 / kg 2
one above the equator and the other above the north and acceleration due to gravity on the earth = 9.8 m/s 2 .
pole, both at height h. Assuming all conditions are (ii) A bag of sugar weighs w at a certain place on the
identical, will those packets take same time to reach equator. If this bag is taken to Antarctica, then will it
the surface of earth? Justify your answer. weigh the same or more or less? Give a reason for your
(NCERT Exemplar) answer.
19. A firecracker is fired and it rises to a height of 27. (i) Prove that, if the earth attracts two bodies placed at the
1000 m. Find the same distance from the centre of the earth with equal
(i) velocity by which it was released and force, then their masses will be the same.
(ii) Mathematically express the acceleration due to gravity
(ii) time taken by it to reach the highest point. (Take,
in terms of mass of the earth and radius of the earth.
g = 9 . 8 m/s 2 )
(iii) Why is G called a universal constant?
CBSE Term II Science IX 41
28. A ball thrown up vertically returns to the thrower Variation in acceleration due to gravity
after 6 s, find g=
GM
I. At the surface of earth
(i) the velocity with which it was thrown up, R2
(ii) the maximum height it reaches and g
gh = 2
(iii) its position after 4 s. II. Effect of altitude h
1 +
R
29. A stone is dropped from the edge of a roof.
(i) How long does it take to fall 4.9 m? d
III. Effect of depth gd = g1 −
(ii) How fast does it move at the end of that fall? R
(iii) How fast does it move at the end of 7.9 m?
(iv) What is its acceleration after 1 s and after 2 s?
where,
g = acceleration due to gravity,
30. Two objects of masses m1 and m 2 having the same
g h = acceleration due to gravity at height h above the
size are dropped simultaneously from heights h 1 and
surface of earth,
h 2 , respectively. Find out the ratio of time they
would take in reaching the ground. g d = acceleration due to gravity at depth d,
Will this ratio remain the same if (i) one of the M = mass of earth = 6 × 10 24 kg
objects is hollow and the another one is solid and (ii) and R = radius of earth = 6. 4 × 10 6 m.
both of them are hollow, size remaining the same in
(i) From the given table, what conclusion can you derive?
each case? Give reason. (NCERT Exemplar)
(ii) Calculate the value of gusing formula I, given in table.
31. The radius of the earth at the poles is 6357 km and (iii) What is the value of acceleration due to gravity at point
the radius at the equator is 6378 km. Calculate the O(in given figure)?
percentage change in the weight of a body, when it is
(iv) As we increase the value of h in formula II given in
taken from the equator to the poles.
table, what will be the effect on acceleration due to
32. (i) A person weighs 110.84 N on the moon, whose gravity of earth?
acceleration due to gravity is (1/6)th of that the R
earth. If the value of g on the earth is 9.8 m/s 2 , then (v) If a person starts digging and reaches at a depth from
2
calculate the surface, then find the value of acceleration due to
(a) g on the moon, R
gravity at a depth .
(b) mass of person on the moon and 2
(c) weight of person on the earth. 34. Read the following and answer the questions from (i)
(ii) How does the value of g on the earth is related to to (v) given below
the mass of the earth and its radius? Derive it. The universe has many forces that include our daily
pushes and pulls. We are always pushing or pulling
l
Case Based Questions something, even if we stand still on the ground. But it
33. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) truns out that in physics, there are only four
to (v) given below fundamental forces are present from which everything
Consider the earth to be made up of concentric shells else is derived. These are the strong force, the weak
and a point mass m situated at a distance r from the force, the electromagnetic force and the gravitational
force. The gravitational force is a force that attracts any
centre.
two objects which has some mass.
The point P lies outside the sphere of radius r and (i) When do we use the term force of gravity rather than
point P lies inside, if the shell’s radius is greater than r. force of gravitation?
The smaller sphere exerts a force on a mass mat P, as if (ii) Which force brings tides in the ocean?
its mass m r is concentrated at the centre. (iii) Which force keeps the moon in a uniform circular
S
motion around the earth?
Earth’s surface
P (iv) Two objects kept in a room do not move towards each
r M other as per the universal law of gravitation. Why?
m
O R (v) The earth is acted upon by gravitation of the sun even,
d then it does not fall into the sun. Why?
EXPLANATIONS
Objective Questions 9. (d) Given, height, h = 20 m and g = 10 m/s 2
1. (b) Henry Cavendish was the scientist who first determined At highest point, final velocity, v = 0
the value of G experimentally. ∴ From equation of motion,
2. (c) Law of gravitation is applicable to all bodies having some v 2 = u 2 − 2 gh
mass and is given by F =
Gm 1m 2 0 = u 2 − 2 × 10 × 20
r2 Initial velocity, u = 400 = 20 m/s
where, F = force of attraction between the two bodies, Thus, object was thrown upwards with velocity 20 m/s.
m1 and m 2 = masses of two bodies, 10. (c) We know that when, we go above the surface of earth, the
G = gravitational constant value of acceleration due to gravity will decrease. Hence, the
and r = distance between the two bodies. value of acceleration due to gravity at the Mount Everest is
less than g.
3. (d) G is the constant of proportionality and is called the
universal gravitational constant. It is independent of mass 11. (c) The atmosphere is held to the earth by gravity.
and radius of the earth. 12. (a) The value of gravitational acceleration g at the centre is
4. (d) According to Newton’s law of gravitation, zero, hence weight, w = mg = m × 0 = 0.
Gm1m 2
F= 13. (a) Objects of different masses falling freely near the surface
d2 of the moon would have the same velocities at any instant
1 because they will have same acceleration due to gravity.
⇒ F∝ 2
d 14. (d) A spring balance measures the weight of an object by
1 opposing the force of gravity acting with the force of an
Force between them directly depends on 2 , so, it will
represent a straight line in the graph. d extended spring.
5. (d) According to Newton’s law of gravitation, any two bodies 15. (a) (A) → (4); Escape velocity on earth is given by
in the universe attract each other with a force. i.e. force is 2 GM
directly proportional to the product of their masses and v escape = = 11.2 km/s
inversely proportional to square of distance between them. r
m1 m 2 (B) → (3); Value of gravitational constant,
As, F∝ G = 6. 67 × 1011 N-m 2 kg − 2
r2
1 (C) → (2); Acceleration due to gravity of earth,
⇒ F∝ gearth = 9. 8 ms − 2
r2
where m1, m 2 are masses and r is the distance. (D) → (1); Acceleration due to gravity on the moon is (1 / 6) th
g 10
Hence, gravitational force exerted by earth is exactly equal that of earth, gm = e = ms − 2 = 1. 67 ms − 2
to that exerted by earth on sun. 6 6
Gm e Hence, (A) → (4), (B) → (3), (C) → (2), (D) → (1)
6. (a) Gravitational acceleration g is given by g = 16. (a) Gravitational force is given by
R 2e
GMm
where, G is gravitational constant, m e is mass of earth and F=
r2
R e is radius of earth.
where M, m are masses of bodies and F is force of
Since, radius of earth at equator is greater than poles, hence
gravitation between two bodies and depends on universal
value of g at poles is greater than equator.
gravitational constant G.
force ( f ) The value of G remains constant and does not depend upon
7. (d) As we know, acceleration ( a ) = such that,
mass ( m ) medium.
acceleration is inversely proportional to the mass of the So, the gravitational force in both mediums (air and water)
object. Since, the mass of earth is very large as compared to would be equal.
that of the apple. Thus, both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A.
Therefore, acceleration of the earth is very small when
compared to that of the apple. 17. (a) Henry-Cavendish experiment helped to determine the
value of G (G = 6. 67 × 10−11 N-m 2 kg −2)
8. (c) Initial velocity, u = 0 From the value of g (acceleration due to gravity on the
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s 2 surface of the earth) and R E (radius of the earth) using the
Q If v be the speed of car on striking the ground, then GME
relation g = the mass of the earth (ME ) can be
v = u + gt RE2
= 0 + 10 × 0. 9 = 9 m/s estimated
CBSE Term II Science IX 43
gR E2 Similarly,
⇒ ME =
G d2
−2
where, g = 9. 8 ms m m
R E = 6400 × 10 m 3
Gm 2
F2 = ...(ii)
and G = 6. 67 × 10−11 N-m 2/kg d22
Thus, A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. On dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get
18. (b) Moon revolves around the sun and centripetal force is 2
F1 d2
obtained from gravitational force between moon and earth. =
F2 d1
i.e. Gravitational force = Centripetal force
2
Thus, both A and R are true but R is not the correct d
explanation of A. ∴ F2 = F1 1
d2
19. (a) An object is weightless when it is in free fall as during
free fall, there is no upward force acting on the body and this (v) (a) For the gravitational force between an extended
phenomenon is called weightlessness. object (like the earth) and a point mass, the Newton’s
universal law of gravitation is not directly applicable.
Thus, A and R are true and R is the correct explanation So, statement I is correct but II and III are incorrect.
of A.
22. (i) (a) They feel zero weight because there is no external
20. (a) At the centre of earth, acceleration due to gravity, g = 0, force present in the space.
i.e. a body has no weight and hence no centre of gravity. (ii) (c) The weight of a body is the force with which it gets
Thus, both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation attracted towards centre of earth, but inertia is a property
of A. of mass. A body can have inertia but no weight.
m1m 2 (iii) (c) Inside the satellite, the astronaut feels
21. (i) (d) We know that, the gravitational force, F = G weightlessness. So, mass of astronaut can be calculated
r2 using weight at the surface of earth
F F
m1 r m2 mg = 250 N
where, F = force between masses, 250
⇒ m =
m1 and m 2 = mass of the body, 10
G = gravitational constant, ⇒ m = 25 kg
and r = distance between two masses. (iv) (c) The main reason behind weightlessness inside a
Given, m1 = 1 unit, m 2 = 1 unit and r =1 unit, we get space satellite is that the astronaut experiences no
1×1 gravity.
F=G (v) (c) Since, the person sitting in a chair inside the
( 1 )2
satellite is essentially in free-fall along the satellite. So,
⇒ F=G he does not experience any reaction force.
Therefore, the force of attraction between two unit
point masses separated by a unit distance is called Subjective Questions
universal gravitational constant. 1. The universal law of gravitation states that, “The force of
(ii) (d) The quantity G is universal constant of nature. It is attraction between any two objects is directly proportional to
applied to all the body present in universe. It is the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the
constant of proportionality in Newton’s universal law of square of the distance between them”. This law is applicable
gravitation. on any two objects anywhere in the universe.
The accepted value of G is 6.67 × 10−11 N-m 2kg−2. 2. The formula for magnitude of gravitational force between the
(iii) (c) The gravitational forces are mutually equal and earth and an object on the surface of the earth is given by
opposite, hence the ratio of gravitational pull of the Mm
earth on the planet and that of planet on the earth will F=G
be 1 : 1. R2
(iv) (b) From Newton’s law of gravitation, the two equal where, M = mass of the earth,
point masses are separated by a distance d1 are shown m = mass of an object,
below G = gravitational constant
d1 = 6. 67 × 10–11 N- m 2/kg2
m m and R = distance between centres of the earth and an object.
3. Force of gravitation between two objects is given by
Gm ⋅ m Gm 2
Gravitational force, F1 = = ...(i) m m
d12 d12 F = G 12 2
r
44 CBSE Term II Science IX
Mass of the sun, M s = 2 × 1030 kg, (ii) Acceleration produced in the body,
F 244
Mass of the earth, M e = 6 × 1024 kg a= = = 9. 8 m/s2
m 25
and average distance between the earth and the sun, (iii) Acceleration produced in the earth,
r = 1.5 × 1011 m. F 244
a= =
From Eq. (i) we get Me 6 × 1024
6. 67 × 10–11 × 2 × 1030 × 6 × 1024 = 4. 06 × 10−23 m/s 2
F=
(1. 5 × 1011 )2 11. Given, mass of first body, m1 = 3 kg
= 3. 6 × 1022 N
and mass of second body, m 2 = 12 kg
Thus, the force between earth and sun is 3.6 × 10 22N. Let the mass of third body, m 3 = 0.5 kg be placed at a
7. Gravitational force between the earth and an object is given distance of x from m1 as shown in figure.
GMm
by F = . m1 F31 m3 F32 m2
R2
where, gravitational constant, G = 6. 67 × 10−11N-m 2/kg 2, x
12 m
12 – x
9. The force of attraction between two bodies of masses m1 and Hence, the motion of a particle falling down or going
m 2 and separated by distance r is given by Newton’s up under the action of gravity means the body is under
universal law of gravitation. free fall.
CBSE Term II Science IX 45
13. According to Kepler’s third law of planetary motion, T 2 ∝ r 3 So, value of g at equator is less than value of g at poles and
For objects on or near the surface of the earth, 2h 1
M×m we know that, t = , i.e. t ∝
mg = G g g
R2
Since, g is greater at the poles than at the equator. So, packet
where, g = acceleration due to gravity, dropped above the north pole will reach first at the surface
M = mass of the earth, of the earth.
m = mass of an object 19. Given, height, h = 1000 m,
and R = radius of the earth. Final velocity, v = 0,
GM Acceleration due to gravity, g = −9. 8 m/s 2
Hence, g= 2
R
(i) From the third equation of motion,
14. Acceleration due to gravity g is independent of mass of the
v 2 = u 2 + 2 gh
falling object and is equal for all objects at a point. So, a
heavy object falls with same acceleration as light object. ⇒ 0 = u 2 − 2 × 9. 8 × 1000
15. Given, height, h = 19. 6 m u = 2 × 9. 8 × 1000
Initial velocity, u = 0 (Q it starts from rest) = 19600 = 140 m/s
From the third equation of motion, v 2 = u 2 + 2 gh Velocity by which firecracker is released = 140 m/s
v 2 = 0 + 2 × 9. 8 × 19. 6 = 19. 6 × 19. 6 (ii) From the first equation of motion,
v = u + gt
∴ v = 19. 6 × 19. 6 = 19. 6 m / s
⇒ 0 = 140 − 9. 8 t
Final velocity of stone just before touching the ground is 140
19.6 m/s . ⇒ t= = 14.28 s
9. 8
16. For both the stones, Time taken, t = 14.28 s
initial velocity, u = 0 20. Difference between the mass of an object and its weight
Acceleration in downward direction = g given as below
Now, from second equation of motion, Mass Weight
1 1
h = ut + gt 2 ⇒ h = 0 + gt 2 Quantity of matter Force with which an object is
2 2 contained in an object. attracted towards centre of the
1 2h earth due to gravity.
⇒ h = gt 2 ⇒ t=
2 g Constant everywhere. Changes from place-to-place.
Both stones will take the same time to reach the ground It is a scalar quantity. It is a vector quantity.
because the two stones fall from the same height.
17. When the ball is thrown upwards, then it will reach certain Its SI unit is kg. Its SI unit is newton.
height h and starts falling. At maximum height h, the final Mass is never zero. Weight is zero at the centre of
velocity will be v = 0. the earth or free space.
Maximum height reached by the ball,
21. Weight of an object, w = mg
v 2 − u 2 = 2 gh (using equation)
where, m = mass of an object
0 − u 2 = − 2 gh (Q acceleration = − g)
and g = acceleration due to gravity.
u2
⇒ h= …(i) The mass of an object m remains constant at all the places.
2g Acceleration due to gravity changes from place-to-place. So,
In second case, when the ball starts to fall, then the initial we can say that the weight of an object depends on the
velocity u = 0. It will accelerate due to gravity, i.e. a = g and acceleration due to gravity.
reach ground with speed (say v 2). On the moon, the acceleration due to gravity is (1/6)th that of
Using equation, the earth, this is the reason why the weight of an object on
the moon is (1/6)th its weight on the earth.
v 22 − u 2 = 2 gh
22. On earth Force applied by the man on earth, F = m × g,
⇒ v 22 − 0 = 2 gh
where m = mass.
u 2 g
v 22 = 2 g = u 2 [ from Eq. (i)] On moon g = , so by same force he can lift a mass of
2 g 6
15 × 6 = 90 kg
⇒ v2 = u This is because, the 90 kg of mass will appear only 15 kg on
Thus, the ball reaches the ground with same speed. moon.
18. No, those packets do not take same time to reach the surface 23. Given, mass of the object, m = 10 kg
of earth. Because the value of g is different at poles and Weight on the earth, w = mg = 10 × 9. 8 = 98 N
equator due to rotation of the earth.
46 CBSE Term II Science IX
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CBSE Term II Science IX 47
The stone will be moving with a speed of 12.44 m/s at the ∴ % variation in the weight of a body = % change in g = 0.7%
end of 7.9 m. 32. (i) (a) g on the moon is given by
(iv) During the free fall, the acceleration produced in a body g 9. 8
g′ = = = 1. 63 m / s 2
remains constant. 6 6
So, acceleration after 1 s = 9. 8 m/s2 and acceleration after 2 s (b) Given, a person weighs on the moon = 110.84 N
= 9. 8 m/s2. Mass of the person on the moon,
30. From second equation of motion, 110. 84
m = = 68 kg
1 1. 63
h = ut + gt 2 (for I object, u = 0)
2 (c) Weight of person on the earth = mg
1
So, h = gt 2 = 68 × 9. 8 = 666. 4 N-m 2 / kg2
2
where, h = displacement, u = initial velocity, t = time (ii) From Newton’s law of gravitation,
GMm
and g = acceleration due to gravity. F= …(i)
R2
⇒ gt 2 = 2 h
48 CBSE Term II Science IX
here, M is mass of earth, object having mass m falling (iii) Point O is the centre of earth.
towards it and R is the distance between centres of At centre O of the earth, d = R
earth & the object. From formula III given in table,
From second law of motion, force exerted on an object, d
F = ma gd = g1 − = 0
R
Since, a = g (i.e. acceleration due to gravity)
Thus, at the centre of earth, acceleration due to gravity
F = mg …(ii) is zero.
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get (iv) The value of acceleration due to gravity decreases with
GMm increase in height above the surface of earth.
mg =
R2 R
(v) At a depth of d = from centre of earth according to
GM 2
g= 2 formula III given is table,
R
d R /2 g
33. (i) Given table shows the variation in acceleration due to gd = g1 − = g1 − =
R R 2
gravity at the surface of earth, at depth d below from
the surface of earth and height h above from the surface i.e. Acceleration due to gravity will be reduced to half.
of earth. 34. (i) We use the term force of gravity rather than force of
Acceleration due to gravity is different at different gravitation for the force of attraction between two
points on the earth. bodies in which one body had infinitely large mass.
(ii) Given, mass of the earth, M = 6 × 1024 kg (ii) Gravitational force of the moon brings tides in the
ocean.
Radius of the earth, R = 6. 4 × 106 m
(iii) Gravitational force between the moon and the earth
Universal gravitational constant, keeps the moon in a uniform circular motion around
G = 6. 67 × 10−11 N-m 2/kg 2 the earth.
GM (iv) The size of the bodies is very small, therefore the force
Q g= 2
R of attraction between them is very small. So, both
objects do not move towards each other.
( 6. 67 × 10−11 ) ( 6 × 1024 )
= (v) The earth does not fall into the sun because the earth
( 6. 4 × 106 )2 remains in its circular orbit due to the gravitational
= 9. 8 m/s 2 force acting on it.
Chapter Test 6. Assertion A 5 kg piece of lead attracts the earth
with the same force with which earth attracts it.
Reason Newton’s universal law of gravitation is
Gm1 m2
F=
Multiple Choice Questions r2
1. Newton’s law of gravitation is universal law, because it 7. Assertion Heavier objects fall towards the earth
(a) acts on all bodies and particles in the universe with greater acceleration.
(b) acts on all the masses at all distances and not affected by the
Reason The value of acceleration due to gravity
medium GM
(c) is always attractive g = 2 changes as the distance of separation
(d) None of the above
R
changes.
2. Gravitational force between two objects is 10 N. If masses
of both objects are doubled without changing distance 8. Assertion The value of acceleration due to gravity g
between them, then the gravitational force would become is independent of mass of the body.
(a) 2.5 N (b) 20 N Reason The value of acceleration due to gravity
(c) 40 N (d) 10 N GM
g= , where M is mass of planet (earth) and R is
3. Two bodies A and B having masses 2 kg and 4 kg R2
respectively are separated by 2 m. Where should a body radius of planet (earth).
of mass 1 kg be placed, so that the gravitational force on
this body due to A and B is zero?
Short Answer Type Questions
(a) 8.3 m (b) 0.83 m
(c) 3.8 m (d) 0.38 m 9. Does the force of gravitation exist at all the places
of the universe?
4. The mass of a planet is twice and its radius is three times
that of the earth. The weight of a body, which has a mass 10. The gravitational force between two objects is F.
of 5 kg on that planet will be How will the force change when the distance
(a) 11.95 N (b) 10.88 N between them is reduced to (1/4)th?
(c) 9.88 N (d) 20.99 N 11. A sphere of mass 40 kg is attracted by a second
5. Among the statement which is/are correct? sphere of mass 15 kg, when their centres 320 cm
apart with a force of 0.1 mg weight. Calculate the
Acceleration due to gravity value of gravitational constant.
(i) decreases from equator to poles
12. Does the acceleration of a freely falling object
(ii) decreases from poles to equator depend to any extent on the location, i.e. whether the
(iii) is maximum at the centre of the earth object is on top of Mount Everest or in Death Valley,
(a) (i) only California? Explain.
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
13. Find the ratio of weights of a body on the earth
(c) (iii) only
and jupiter, given g on jupiter is 2.5 times that on
(d) (ii) only
the earth.
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs 14. If a planet existed whose mass was twice that of the
Direction (Q. Nos. 6-8) Each of these questions contains earth and whose radius is 3 times greater, how much
will a 1 kg mass weigh in the planet?
two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Each of
these questions also has four alternative choices, any one Long Answer Type Questions
of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of 15. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with an initial
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. velocity of 50 m/s. Find the maximum height
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. reached by the stone. What is the net displacement
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation and the total distance covered by the stone? (Take,
of A. g = 10 m/s 2 )
(c) A is true, but R is false. 16. The acceleration of a freely falling body does not
(d) A is false, but R is true. depend on the mass of the body. Show this by
deriving an expression for the same.
Answers
Multiple Choice Questions
For Detailed Solutions
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)
Scan the code
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a)
CHAPTER 04
In this Chapter...
l Work
l Energy
l Law of Conservation of Energy
l Rate of Doing Work : Power
In this chapter, we will study about scientific conception of Work done = Force × Displacement in the direction of force
work and its mathematical formula along with it. We will
or W = F ×s …(i)
study two standard unit which are closely related to work, i.e. s
energy and power. F
Work A B
Initial Final
Work is said to be done, if on applying a force on an object, it position position
is displaced from its position in the direction of force.
Work done by a force when the body moves in the direction of force
Scientific Conception of Work
From the point of view of science, following two conditions SI Unit of Work
need to be satisfied for work to be done In Eq. (i), if F = 1 N and s = 1 m, then the work done by the
(i) A force should act on an object. force will be 1 N-m. The SI unit of work is newton-metre
(ii) The object must be displaced. (N-m) which is also called joule (J).
If any one of the above conditions does not exist, work is not Thus, 1 J is the amount of work done on an object when a
done. e.g. A girl pulls a trolley and the trolley moves through force of 1 N displaces it by 1 m along the line of action of the
a distance. force.
In this way, she has exerted a force on the trolley and it is 1 joule = 1 newton × 1 metre ⇒ 1J = 1N-m
displaced. Hence, work is done.
Positive, Negative and Zero Work
Work Done by a Constant Force l
When the force F and displacement s are in the same
Work done by a force on an object is equal to the magnitude of direction (angle between direction of force and
the force multiplied by the distance moved in the direction of displacement is 0°), work done will be positive, i.e. work is
force. done by the force.
CBSE Term II Science IX 51
l
The wound spring in the toy car possesses potential energy. or 1kW = 1000 W = 1000 Js −1
As the spring is released, its potential energy changes into
⇒ 1 MW = 10 6 W,
kinetic energy due to which, toy car moves.
l
In a stretched bow, potential energy is stored. As it is 1 HP (horse power) = 746 W
released, the potential energy of the stretched bow gets
converted into the kinetic energy of arrow which moves in Average Power
the forward direction with large velocity. Average power is defined as the ratio of total work done by
Some Energy Transformations the total time taken. An agent may perform work at different
rates at different intervals of time. In such situation, average
Instruments Transformations
power is considered by dividing the total energy consumed
Electric motor Electrical energy into mechanical energy. by the total time taken.
Electric generator Mechanical energy into electrical energy.
Steam engine Heat energy into kinetic energy. Total energy consumed
∴ Average power =
Electric bulb Electrical energy into light energy. Total time taken
Dry cell Chemical energy into electrical energy.
Solar cell Light energy into electrical energy. Commercial Unit of Energy
The unit joule is too small to express large quantities of
energy conveniently. Therefore, a bigger unit of energy
Rate of Doing Work : Power is used. The commercial unit of electric energy is
The rate of doing work or the rate at which energy is kilowatt-hour (kWh) or Board of Trade (BOT) unit.
transferred or used or transformed to other form is called It is the amount of electric energy consumed by an appliance
power. of power 1000 W in one hour.
If work W is done in time t, then 1 kWh = 1 kW × 1 h
Power =
Work = 1000 W × 3600 s
Time = 1000 Js −1 × 3600 s
⇒ P=
W 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10 6 J
t The energy used in households, industries and commercial
The unit of power is watt (W) in honour of James Watt. establishments is expressed in kilowatt-hour. The electrical
energy used, is expressed in terms of units in our monthly bills.
We express larger rate of energy transfer in kilowatt (kW).
Here, 1 unit = 1 kilowatt-hour
1 W = 1 Js −1
Solved
Examples
Example 1. A force of 10 N is acting on an object. The Example 4. If a body of mass 5 kg is moving along a
object is displaced through 5 m in the direction of force. straight line with velocity 10 ms −1 and acceleration
What is the work done in this case? 20 ms −2 . Find its kinetic energy (KE) after 10 s.
5m Sol. Given, mass of the body, m = 5 kg
Initial position Final position Initial velocity, u = 10 ms −1
10 N Acceleration, a = 20 ms −2
Sol. Given, force, F = 10N, displacement, s = 5m Time, t = 10 s
Velocity, v = ? ; KE = ?
∴Work done, W = F × s = 10 N × 5 m
First, we use equation of motion, v = u + at to find v.
= 50 N-m or 50 J 1
Then, we use KE = mv 2 to find kinetic energy.
Example 2. A crane lifts a crate upwards through a height 2
of 20 m. The lifting force provided by the crane is 5 kN. So, v = u + at
How much work is done by the force? ⇒ v = (u + at) ms −1 …(i)
1
As we know, kinetic energy, KE = mv 2 …(ii)
2
1
So, KE = m × ( u + at )2 [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
2
1
5 kN ⇒ KE = × 5 × (10 + 20 × 10)2
20 m 20 m 2
1
⇒ KE = × 5 × 210 × 210 = 110250 J
A crane provides the upward force needed to lift a crate 2
Sol. Given, force, F = 5 kN = 5000 N Example 5. What is the work done to increase the velocity of
Displacement, s = 20 m a van from 10 m/s to 20 m/s, if the mass of the van is 2000 kg?
Work done, W = ? Sol. Given, m = 2000 kg, v1 = 10 m s −1 and v 2 = 20 ms −1
We know that work done, W = Fs The initial kinetic energy of the van
Here, force and displacement are in same direction. 1 1
KE1 = mv12 [Q KE = mv 2 ]
So, W = Fs 2 2
⇒ W = 5000 N × 20 m = 100000 J 1
= × 2000 kg × (10 m s −1 )2
So, the work done by the force is 100000 J or 100 kJ. 2
= 100000 J = 100 kJ
Example 3. A bullet of mass 8 g is fired with a velocity of
80 ms −1 . Calculate its kinetic energy. Final kinetic energy of the van
8
Sol. Given, mass, m = 8 g = kg and velocity, v = 80 ms −1 KE 2 =
1 1
mv 22 = × 2000 kg × (20 m s −1 )2
1000 2 2
1
KE of the bullet = mv 2 = 400000 J = 400 kJ
2
The work done = Change in kinetic energy
1 8
= × × ( 80)2 = 400 kJ − 100 kJ = 300 kJ
2 1000
1 8 So, the kinetic energy of van increases by 300 kJ when it
= × × 80 × 80 = 25.6 J speeds up from 10 ms −1 to 20 ms −1.
2 1000
CBSE Term II Science IX 55
mgh
Example 6. Suppose you have a body of mass 1 kg in your Ratio of their potential energies =
mg × 3h
hand. To what height will you raise it, so that it may acquire
1
a gravitational potential energy of 1 J? = =1: 3
(Take, g = 10 ms −2 ) 3
Sol. Given, PE = 1 J, mass, m = 1 kg, Example 9. The heart does 1.2 J of work in each heart beat.
How many times per minute does it beat, if its power is 2 W?
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 ms −2, h = ?
Sol. Here, work done in each heart beat = 1.2 J
We know that, PE = mgh
t = 1 min = 60 s, power, P = 2 W = 2 Js −1
or 1 = 1 × 10 × h
1 Total work done = P × t = 2 × 60 = 120 J
∴ Height, h = = 0. 1 m = 10 cm
1 × 10 Number of times heart beats per minute
Total work done
=
Example 7. A boy weighing 40 kg climbs up a vertical Work done in each heart beat
height of 200 m. Calculate the amount of work done by him. 120
= = 100 times
How much potential energy does he gain? 1.2
(Take, g = 9.8 ms −2 )
Example 10. A horse exerts a pull on a cart of 500 N, so that
Sol. Given that, mass, m = 40 kg
horse cart system moves with a uniform velocity of 36 kmh −1 .
−2
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 ms , What is the power developed by the horse in watt as well as in
height, h = 200 m horse power?
Work done by the body = mgh = 40 × 9. 8 × 200 Sol. Given, force, F = 500 N
= 78400 J = 7. 84 × 104 J and velocity, v = 36 kmh −1
Gain in PE = Work done = 7. 84 × 104 J 36 × 1000
= ms −1 = 10ms−1
3600
Example 8. Suppose two bodies A and B having equal W Fs
masses are kept at heights of h and 3 h, respectively. Find As, P= = [Q W = Fs and v = s / t]
t t
the ratio of their potential energies. = Fv = 500 × 10
Sol. Let the mass of each body be m.
= 5000 W
PE of body A = mgh ; PE of body B = mg × 3h 5000
In horse power, P = = 6.70 HP
746
56
Chapter
Practice
PART 1 7. The work done on an object does not depend upon
the (NCERT Exemplar)
0 s(metre)
5 10 15 20 Ball
(a) 80 J (b) 160 J (c) 240 J (d) 24 J h
13. When the force and displacement are in perpendicular Reason Work done is given by W = Fs cos θ, where θ
direction, then work done is said to be ....... . is the angle between force (F ) and displacement (s ).
(a) zero (b) positive (c) negative (d) Can’t say 19. Assertion Work done by friction is always positive.
14. If the speed of an object is doubled, then its kinetic Reason Work done by a force is given by
energy becomes ......... times .
(a) two (b) four (c) six (d) eight W = Fs cos θ, where F, s and θ are force,
displacement and angle between force and
15. A body is dropped from a height h with zero initial displacement, respectively.
velocity. Match the items of Column I with the items
of Column II and choose the correct codes given 20. Assertion The kinetic energy of a particle is equal to
below. the work done on it by the net force.
Column I Column II Reason Change in kinetic energy of particle is equal
to the work done for a particle and system of particles.
A. At height h, total energy of body 1. Both kinetic and
remains in the form of potential energies l Case Based Questions
B. At height h , total energy of body 2. Heat energy
2 21. Read the following and answer the questions from (i)
remains in the form of to (v) given below
C. When body is just about to touch 3. Potential energy Following table gives an approximate idea about the
the ground, then its total energy energy associated with different phenomena
remains in the form of
Phenomenon Energy (in J)
D. When body comes to rest after 4. Kinetic energy
Rotational energy of earth 10 29
falling on the ground, then its total
energy remains in the form of Annual solar energy incident on the earth 5 × 10 24
Annual wind energy dissipated near earth’s surface 10 22
Codes
Energy released of 15 megaton fusion bomb 1017
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 3 2 Energy released in burning 1000 kg of coal 3 × 1010
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 4 2 3 1 Kinetic energy of large jet aircraft 10 9
l Assertion-Reasoning MCQs Daily food intake of a human adult 10 7
Direction (Q. Nos. 16-20) Each of these questions Typical energy of a proton in nucleus 10 −13
contains two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Typical energy of an electron in an atom 10 −18
Each of these questions also has four alternative Energy to break one bond in DNA 10 −20
choices, any one of which is the correct answer. You
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given (i) The ratio of the phenomenon of maximum energy to
below. the phenomenon of minimum energy is
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a)10 39 : 1 (b)10 9 : 1 (c)10 49 : 1 (d)1019 : 1
explanation of A
(ii) The number of broken bonds in DNA to get 100 J of
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
energy is
explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false (a)10 20 (b)1010 (c)1018 (d)10 22
(d) A is false, but R is true (iii) The calorific value of coal is
16. Assertion When the force retards the motion of a (a)1 × 10 7 J/kg (b) 2 × 10 7 J/kg
body, the work done is negative. (c) 9 × 10 7 J/kg (d) 3 × 10 7 J/kg
Reason Work done does not depend on angle (iv) If mass of large jet aircraft is 1000 kg, then the velocity
between force and displacement.
of jet aircraft will be
17. Assertion Work done by or against gravitational (a) 1000 m/s (b) 1.414 m/s
force in moving a body from one point to another, it (c) 1414 m/s (d) 14.14 m/s
is independent of the actual path followed between
(v) The daily food intake of a human adult in terms of kcal
the two points.
will be
Reason Gravitational forces are conservative forces. (a) 40 kcal
18. Assertion Work done by a force is zero when (b) 140 kcal
displacement is in perpendicular direction of applied (c) 2400 kcal
force. (d) None of the above
58 CBSE Term II Science IX
22. Read the following and answer the questions from (v) In the given curved road, if particle is released from A,
(i) to (v) given below then which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
m A
It states that, the energy can neither be created nor
be destroyed but can only be converted from one
form to another. It is one of the fundamental laws
h
and is applied in all the processes taking place in
the universe.
For example, when a bass of mass m is released B
from a certain height (as shown), its total energy I. Kinetic energy atBmust be mgh
during the entire journey remains constant II. Kinetic energy atBmust be zero.
(ignoring air resistance and friction).
III. Kinetic energy atBmust be less than mgh.
m
IV. Kinetic energy atBmust not be equal to zero
u
h (a) Only I and III (b) Only I
(c) I, III and IV (d) None of these
23. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to
(v) given below
Ground Collision between two billiard balls and between two
automobiles on a road are a few examples of collision
(i) When an object is raised through a certain height
from everyday life. Even gas atoms and molecules at
above the ground, its energy
(a) increases room temperature keep on colliding against each other.
(b) decreases In some collisions, momentum of the system is
(b) first increases then decreases
conserved but the kinetic energy is not conserved while
in some collisions, both momentum and kinetic energy
(d) None of the above
of the system are conserved.
(ii) U is the potential energy, K is the kinetic energy and
E is the mechanical energy. Which of the following
When two billiard balls collide to each other elastically,
is not possible for a stable system?
then their velocity of separation is equal to velocity of
approach. Similarly, in inelastic collision of two bodies,
(a) U > E velocity of approach is less than the velocity of
(b) U < E separation. In perfectly inelastic collision of two bodies,
(c) E > K velocity of separation becomes zero.
(d) K > E (i) In elastic collision of two billiard balls,
(iii) A body is falling from a height h. After it has fallen a (a) kinetic energy is conserved (b) momentum is conserved
h (c) total energy is conserved (d) All of these
height ,it will possess
2 (ii) For elastic and inelastic collision which of the following
(a) only potential energy statement(s) is/are correct?
(b) only kinetic energy (a) Both energy and momentum are conserved
(c) half potential and half kinetic energy (b) Only momentum is conserved.
(d) more kinetic and less potential energy (c) Only energy is conserved.
(iv) Which of the following graph best represents the (d) Neither energy nor momentum is conserved.
total energy (T) of a freely falling body and its height (iii) In a perfectly inelastic collision, the velocities of the
(h) above the ground? colliding bodies after the collision
T T (a) will increase (b) is zero
(c) will decrease (d) None of these
(a) (b) (iv) A bullet gets embedded in a wooden block, its kinetic
h h energy gets converted into
(a) heat energy (b) sound energy
T T (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) (d) (v) Throwing mud on a wall is an example of
(a) elastic collision (b) inelastic collision
h h (c) perfectly inelastic collision (d) None of these
PART 2 (iii) A skier of mass 50 kg stands at A, at the top of a ski
jump. He takes off from A for his jump to B. Calculate
Subjective Questions the change in his gravitational potential energy
between A and B.
10. A body of mass 5 kg is thrown vertically upwards
l Short Answer Type Questions with an initial velocity of 50 ms −1 . What will be its
1. An object thrown at a certain angle to the ground potential energy at the end of 5 s?
moves in a curved path and falls back to the ground.
The initial and the final points of the path of the object 11. The weight of a person on a planet A is about half
lie on the same horizontal line. What is the work done that on the Earth. He can jump up to 0.4 m height on
by the force of gravity on the object? (NCERT) the surface of the Earth. How high can he jump on
the planet A ? (NCERT Exemplar)
2. Certain force acting on a mass 20 kg changes its
velocity from 5 ms −1 to 2 ms −1 . Calculate the work 12. 300 J of work is to be done in lifting a bag of mass
done by the force. 5 kg in weight up to height of 4 m from the ground.
3. In each of the following, a force F is acting on an What will be the acceleration with which the bag was
object of mass m. The direction of displacement is raised?
from West to East shown by the longer arrow. (Take, g = 10 ms −2 )
Observe the figure carefully and state whether the
work done by the force is negative, positive or zero. 13. The potential energy of a freely falling object
F
decreases progressively. Does this violate law of
conservation of energy? Why?
A
F s F s
s h′
(I) (II) (III) (NCERT) B
h
4. A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes
involved in the process. (NCERT)
5. A light and a heavy object have the same momentum. C
Find out the ratio of their kinetic energies. Which Ground (NCERT)
one has a larger kinetic energy? (NCERT Exemplar) 14. On a level road, a scooterist applies brakes to slow
6. Calculate the kinetic energy of a car of mass 750 kg down from a speed of 54 kmh −1 to 36 kmh −1 . What
−1 amount of work is done by the brakes?
moving with a velocity of 54 kmh . Find the new
kinetic energy of the car, if a passenger of mass 50 kg (Assuming, the mass of the empty scooter is 86 kg
sits in the car. and that of the scooterist and petrol is 64 kg.)
7. The kinetic energy of an object of mass m moving 15. Calculate the work required to be done to stop a car
with a velocity of 5 ms −1 is 25 J. What will be its of 1500 kg moving at a velocity of 60 kmh −1 .
kinetic energy when its velocity is increased three 16. When a force retards the motion of a body, what is
times? (NCERT) the nature of work done by force? State reason. List
8. A mass of 10 kg is at a point A on the table. It is two examples of such a situation.
moved to a point B. If the line joining A and B is 17. An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m
horizontal, what is the work done on the object by above the ground. What is its potential energy, if
the gravitational force? Explain your answer. (NCERT) object is allowed to fall. Find its kinetic energy when
9. (i) Define potential energy. it is half way down.
(ii) Give an example where potential energy is acquired 18. A body falls from a height bounces from ground
by a body due to change in its shape. and again goes upwards with loss of a part of its
A energy.
B (i) How will its potential energy change?
75 m (ii) What are the various energy conversions taking
60 m place?
(iii) What will be its ultimate energy?
Ground level
60 CBSE Term II Science IX
19. (i) State and define SI unit of power. (ii) Calculate the retarding force provided by the brakes.
(ii) A person carrying 10 bricks each of mass 2.5 kg on his (iii) How much time did it take to stop after the brakes
head moves to a height 20 m in 50 s. Calculate power were applied?
spent of the person in carrying bricks. (iv) What is the work done by the braking force?
(Given, g = 10 ms –2 ) 29. (i) A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes
20. A boy X can run with a speed of 8 ms −1
against the involved in the process.
frictional force of 10 N and another Y can move with (ii) Calculate the amount of work needed to stop a car of
a speed of 3 ms −1 against the frictional force of 20 N. 500 kg moving at a speed of 36 kmh −1 .
Find the ratio of powers of X and Y. 30. A car is moving with uniform velocities; 18 kmh −1 ,
21. A machine gun takes 10 s to fire 30 bullets with a 36 kmh −1 , 54 kmh −1 and 72 kmh −1 at some
intervals. Find the K.E. of the boy of 40 kg sitting in
velocity of 500 ms −1 . Find the power developed by
the car at these velocities.
the gun when each bullet has a mass of 100 g. Draw a graph between the K.E. and the velocities.
22. What is the output power in watt of a 60 kg sprinter Also, find the nature of the curve.
who accelerates from 0 to 10 ms −1 in 3 s? 31. Illustrate the law of conservation of energy by
23. Compare the power at which each of the following is discussing the energy changes which occur when
moving upwards against the force of gravity? we draw a pendulum bob to one side and allow it
to oscillate. Why does the bob eventually come
(Given, g = 10 ms −2 )
to rest? What happens to its energy eventually?
(i) A butterfly of mass 1 g that flies upwards at a rate of Is it a violation of the law of conservation of
0.5 ms −1 . energy? (NCERT)
(ii) A 250 g squirrel climbing up on a tree at a rate of S
0.5 ms −1 . (NCERT Exemplar)
24. Two boys A and B weighing 60 kg and 40 kg
Q P
respectively, climb on a staircase each carrying a load
of 20 kg on their head. The staircase has 10 steps, each h
O
h
of height 50 cm. If A takes 20 s to climb and B takes
10 s to climb, then 32. (i) Name two forms of mechanical energy. Define the SI
(i) who possesses greater power? unit of energy.
(ii) find the ratio of their powers. (ii) A man of mass 50 kg jumps from a height of 0.5 m.
If g = 10 ms −2 , what will be his energy at the highest
25. Find the energy in kWh consumed in 10 h by four
point?
devices of power 500 W each.
(iii) Calculate the energy of a body of mass 20 kg moving
26. Five bulbs each having 100 W power are used for 4 with velocity of 0.1 ms −1 .
h, a heater having 1500 W power is used for 2 h and
an electric iron of power 1000 W is used for 5 h. 33. A body of mass 20 kg is raised to the top of a building
(i) Calculate the total energy consumed by them. 15 m high and then dropped freely under gravity.
(ii) Convert this energy into joules. (i) Find out the work done in raising the body to the top
of the building.
l
Long Answer Type Questions (ii) What will be the value of gravitational potential
27. The velocity of a body moving in a straight line is energy at the top of the building?
increased by applying a constant force F for some (iii) By what factor will the gravitational potential energy
distance in the direction of the motion. Prove that of the same body increases, if it is raised to the top of a
the increase in the kinetic energy of the body is multi-storey building 45 m high?
equal to the work done by the force on the body. (iv) When will the kinetic energy of the body be
(NCERT Exemplar) maximum?
28. A vehicle of 1 tonne travelling with a speed of 60 ms 34. Calculate the electricity bill amount for a month of
−1
notices a cow on the road 9 m ahead applies April, if 4 bulbs of 40 W for 5 h, 4 tubelights of 60 W
brakes. It stops just infront of the cow. for 5 h, a TV of 100 W for 6 h, a washing machine of
(i) Find out the K.E. of the vehicle before applying 400 W for 3 h are used per day. The cost per unit is
brakes. ` 1.80.
CBSE Term II Science IX 61
l Case Based Questions (iii) What will be the net work done by the conservative
force during the round trip of a body?
35. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) (iv) When the ball moves vertically upwards, then work
to (v) given below done by gravitational force is negative. Why?
A ball is thrown vertically upwards. When it rises, the (v) Name the energy of the ball which remains same
gravitational force does negative work on it, during round trip of the ball.
decreasing its kinetic energy. As the ball descends, the 36. Read the following and answer the questions from (i)
gravitational force does positive work on it, increasing to (v) given below
its kinetic energy. The ball falls back to the point of
projection with same velocity and kinetic energy with It is a form of energy that gets stored and depends on
which it was thrown up. The net work done by the the corresponding position of various parts of a
gravitational force on the ball during the round trip is system.
zero because work done by the gravity on displacing a In a spring, the potential energy will increase if it
body from one point to another point depends only on gets compressed or stretched. A steel ball has more
the end positions of the body. potential energy raised above the ground than it has
Topmost after falling to Earth. In the raised position it is
height capable of doing more work.
(i) When is an object said to possess energy ?
u
(ii) Does the work done by the gravity depend on the path
u covered by object ?
(iii) Name the type of energy possessed by the water
Ball stored in a dam.
Ground
(iv) Give the formula to calculate the potential energy of
an object of massM kept at height h.
(i) Why do we say work done against gravity is negative?
(v) If an engine supplies 100 J of energy to a mass of 200 g,
(ii) A man is holding a suitcase in his hand at rest. What is
how high it can be lifted ? (Given, g = 9. 8 ms −2 )
the work done by him?
EXPLANATIONS
Objective Questions 8. (b) If two stones are dropped from some height, then the
heavier stone has greater kinetic energy w.r.t. lighter stone,
1. (d) Work done is, W = F ⋅ d cos θ
because kinetic energy is directly proportional to mass.
For negative work, the angle between the force and
displacement should be 180°. 9. (d) Given, m = 50 kg, g = 9. 8 ms −2, h = 300 m
i.e. W = − F ⋅ d (Q cos 180° = − 1) Work done by the body = mgh
2. (d) We know that, work done = 50 × 9. 8 × 300 = 14.7 × 104 J
W = F ⋅ d cos θ Gain in P.E. = Work done = 14.7 × 104 J
Force on school bag makes as angle of 90° from the road. 10. (c) Since, total energy of the system is always conserved, so
Displacement when a body falls freely towards the earth, then its total
energy remains constant, i.e. the sum of the potential energy
90°
and kinetic energy of the body would be same at all points.
11. (c) At middle point of fall, the ball has both kinetic and
potential energies.
Force 12. (a) The statement given in option (a) is correct but rest are
i.e. θ = 90° incorrect and these can be corrected as, like velocity,
potential energy is also measured only in relative terms.
W = F ⋅ d cos 90° (Q cos 90° = 0)
Their absolute value cannot be determined.
W=0
Difference of velocity and difference of potential energy can
Hence, work done against the gravitational force is zero. be measured. So, acceleration can also be measured.
3. (c) Loss of kinetic energy is equal to the work done by the 13. (a) Work done, W = Fs cos θ
frictional force. When θ = 90°, W = Fs cos 90°
Work done by the frictional force is given as the area under W=0 [Q cos 90° = 0]
the F-s curve.
14. (b) Since, kinetic energy of a body is directly proportional to
1
So, we get W = × (sum of parallel sides)× h + l × b the square of speed. Hence, if the speed of an object is
2 doubled, then its kinetic energy becomes four times.
1 1
+ × (sum) × h + × (sum) × h
2 2 15. (c) A. At maximum height h, body is in rest, so kinetic
Hence, work done energy is zero, hence total energy remains in the form of
potential energy.
1
W = × ( 5) ( 4 + 12 ) + ( 5) (12 ) B. At height h /2, body gains some velocity, hence both kinetic
2
and potential energies are present. Therefore, total energy
1 1
+ ( 5) (12 + 16) + ( 5) (16 + 12 ) remains in the form of kinetic and potential energies both.
2 2
C. When body is just about to touch the ground, then h = 0.
Work done against friction, W = 240 J Velocity of body is maximum, hence total energy of body
4. (d) Work done by weight-lifter is zero because there is no remains in the form of kinetic energy.
displacement. D. When body comes to rest, then its total energy is
In case of a person holding a suitcase on his head and converted into heat energy.
standing at a bus terminal, work done is zero because there
is no displacement. Hence, (A) → (3), (B) → (1), (C) → (4), (D) → (2)
In a locomotive, work done is zero because force due to gravity 16. (c) Work done in a retarding motion is
and displacement are mutally perpendicular to each other. W = F ⋅ s cos θ ...(i)
Hence, options (a), (b) and (c) are correct. = − Fs cos θ
5. (d) When a horse pulls a cart, work is being done by horse. i.e. work done is negative.
6. (a) If there is no displacement due to application of force, From Eq. (i), we can say that work done depends on the
then net work done will be zero. angle between the force and displacement.
7. (d) We know that, W = F ⋅ d cos θ Therefore, A is true but R is false.
Here, F = force applied on the object, d = displacement 17. (a) Work done in moving a body against a conservative force
is independent of the path followed. It depends only on the
and θ is angle between force and displacement. initial and final position of the particle.
So, the work done on an object does not depend upon the Gravitational force is a conservative force. Therefore, both A
initial velocity of the object. and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
CBSE Term II Science IX 63
18. (a) Work done by a force F, 22. (i) (a) If an object is raised to a height above the ground,
W = Fs cosθ its energy increases. This is because work is done on it
against gravity while it is being raised.
when θ = 90°, then W = Fs cos 90° = 0
(ii) (a) According to the law of conservation of energy,
Hence, both A and R are true and R is the correct
K.E. + P.E. = Total mechanical energy
explanation of A.
⇒ K+ U=E
19. (d) Friction always acts in opposite direction of
displacement, hence θ = 180°. K=E−U ...(i)
or U=E−K ...(ii)
∴ Work done by friction,
Since K.E. is always positive.
W = Fs cos 180° = − Fs [Q cos 180 = − 1]
K>0
Therefore, work done by friction is always negative.
E −U > 0 ⇒E > U
Hence, A is false, but R is true. Since, potential energy may be negative,
20. (d) According to work energy theorem, U<0
Change in kinetic energy = Work done by net force E −K < 0 ⇒E < K
This relationship is valid for particles as well as system of If K.E. and P.E. both have some small positive value, then
particles. U < E and K < E
Therefore, A is false but R is true. Hence, U > E is not possible.
21. (i) (c) According to given table, maximum energy is given (iii) (c) As we know that when a body is at height h, it has
due to the phenomenon of rotation of earth total energy = K.E. + P.E.
m
∴ E max = 1029 J and at height ‘h’, velocity of body is zero.
Minimum energy is given due to the phenomenon of So, K.E. = 0 and P. E. = mgh
breaking of one bond in DNA. So, total energy = mgh + 0 = mgh h
m
i.e. E min = 10−20 J Now, at height
h
2
E max 1029 h/2
∴ = −20 = 1049
E min 10 h mgh
its P. E. = mg = ...(i)
∴ E max : E min = 1049 : 1 2 2
1
(ii) (d)Q 10−20 J energy is obtained due to break of one And K.E. = mv 2
2
bond in DNA.
where, velocity can be determined by equation of motion
∴ To obtain energy of 100 J, number of broken bonds in
100 v 2 = u 2 + 2 gh (Q all v, g, h are in same direction)
DNA = −20 = 1022
10 [as u = 0 at highest point]
(iii) (d) From given table, 2 gh
So, v =2
⇒ v = gh
Mass of burned coal, m = 1000 kg 2
Energy released, E = 3 × 1010 J 1 mgh
So, K.E. = m × ( gh )2 = ...(ii)
2 2
E 3 × 1010
∴ Calorific value of coal = = = 3 × 107 J/kg h
m 1000 So, from Eqs. (i) and (ii), body at possesses half
2
(iv) (c) Given, m = 1000 kg
potential energy and half kinetic energy.
From table, kinetic energy of jet aircraft, K = 109 J (iv) (a) From the law of conservation of energy, we
1 know that energy can neither be created nor be
i.e. mv 2 = 109
2 destroyed. It can only be transferred from one place to
1 another.
⇒ × 1000 × v 2 = 109
2 When an object is under free fall, its potential energy
⇒ v = 2 × 103 = 1. 414 × 103 = 1414 m/s gets converted into kinetic energy.
Hence, total energy is conserved.
(v) (c) From given table,
(v) (b) In a conservative field, loss of P.E. or gain of K.E.
Daily food intake of a human adult is = 107 J depends only on the initial and final points and not on
1 path travelled. So, kinetic energy at point B will be
We know, 1 J = cal
4.186 equal to P.E. i.e. mgh.
For 107 J, energy in calories Thus, the statement given in option (a) is correct, rest
1 are incorrect.
= 107 × cal = 2388915.43 cal 23. (i) (d) In elastic collision of two bodies, the linear
4.186
momentum, total energy of the system and kinetic
= 2388.9 kcal ~− 2400 kcal energy all are conserved.
64 CBSE Term II Science IX
h 1 10
So, mg = mv 2 [where, v = velocity at the bottom] ⇒ Acceleration, a = m s −2
2 2 3
h 5 1
So, K.E. = mg = 40 × 10 × = 1000 J As, s = ut + at 2
2 2 2
18. (i) When it strikes ground, its P.E. is zero and after 1 10
⇒ s=0+ × × 3 × 3 = 15 m
bouncing, its potential energy increases gradually. 2 3
(ii) At the time it strikes the ground, it has maximum K.E. ∴ Work done, ( W ) = Force (F ) × Displacement (s)
and after it bounces, its K.E. starts changing into potential 10
energy. = 60 × × 15 [Q F = ma ]
3
(iii) The ultimate or total energy remains constant at any
point of time during the motion. = 3000 J
19. (i) The SI unit of power is watt. W 3000
So, power, P = = = 1000 W
1 watt is the power of a body which does work at the t 3
rate of 1 joule per second. 23. (i) Given, mass of butterfly,
1 joule 1
i.e. 1 watt = m = 1g = kg, [Q 1 kg = 1000 g]
1 second 1000
(ii) Given, mass of one brick = 2.5 kg g = 10 ms−2
Mass of 10 bricks = 2.5 × 10 = 25 kg
and speed, v = 0.5 ms −1
Height, h = 20 m, time, t = 50 s, power, P = ?
∴Power = Force × Speed [Q force, F = mg]
mgh 25 × 10 × 20
∴ Power, P = = = 100 Js −1 P = mgv
t 50 1
20. Given, distance travelled by the boy X in 1 s = 8 m ⇒ P= × 10 × 0.5
1000
Distance travelled by the boy Y in 1 s = 3 m 1
⇒ P= W = 0. 005 W
As we know, work done by the boy X to run against the 200
frictional force of 10 N = 10 N × 8 m = 80 J 250
(ii) Given, mass of squirrel = 250 g = kg [Q 1 kg = 1000 g]
W 80 J −1 1000
So, power of 80 J of work done by X = = = 80 W and speed = 0.5 m s
t 1s
∴ Power = Force × Speed [Q force, F = mg]
Similarly, work done by the boy Y to run against the
frictional force of 20 N = 20 N × 3 m = 60 J P = mg × v
60 J 250 250
Power of Y = = 60 W ⇒ P= × 10 × 0.5 = W
1s 1000 200
250
So, ratio of two values of powers is given by ∴ P= W = 1.25 W
Power of X 80 4 200
= = =4:3
Power of Y 60 3 Therefore, a squirrel has more power than butterfly.
24. Given, mass of A , m A = 60 kg
21. Given, mass of 30 bullets = 30 × 100 = 3 kg
Mass of B , m B = 40 kg
Velocity, v = 500 ms −1, time, t = 10 s
Mass of luggage, m L = 20 kg
W
∴ Power developed by the gun, P = Height of staircase, h = 0.5 × 10 = 5 m
t
So, work done by boy A to climb staircase = mgh
Here, work done by gun will be equal to the kinetic energy
of all the bullets. = ( 60 + 20) × 9. 8 × 5 = 3920 J
work 3920
1
mv 2 So, power of A = = = 196 W
KE 2 mv 2 time 20
∴P= = = work mgh
t t 2t Similarly, power of B = =
3 × ( 500)2 3 × 500 × 500 time t
= = = 37500W [(40 + 20) × 9.8 × 5] 2940
2 × 10 20 = = = 294 W
10 10
22. Given, mass of the sprinter, m = 60 kg (i) B possesses greater power than A.
Initial velocity, u = 0 (ii) So, the ratio is given by,
Final velocity, v = 10 ms −1, time, t = 3 s power of A 196
= =2: 3
power of B 294
From equation of motion, v = u + at
W 3000
⇒ 10 = 0 + a × 3 So, power, P = = = 1000 W
t 3
CBSE Term II Science IX 67
25. Given, power = 500 W So, retarding force provided by the brakes
Total power of four devices = ma = 1000 kg × (−200) ms −2 = − 200000 N
= 4 × 500 = 2000 W (iii) Now, again from the second equation of motion,
So, Energy consumed = Power × Time 1 1
s = u t + a t 2 ⇒ 9 = 60 t + × ( −200) t 2
= 2000 × 10 2 2
= 2 × 104 kWh or 9 = 60 t − 100 t 2
or 100 t 2 − 60 t + 9 = 0 ⇒ (10 t − 3)2 = 0
26. (i) Energy consumed by five bulbs
5 × 100 × 4 3
= = 2 units or 10 t − 3 = 0 ⇒ t = = 0.3 s
1000 10
1 × 1500 × 2 (iv) So, work done by the braking force is given by
Energy consumed by 1 heater = = 3 units
1000 W = Fs = −200000 N × 9 m
1000 × 5 = − 1800000 J
Energy consumed by electric iron = = 5 units
1000 29. (i) When a battery lights a bulb, its chemical energy
Total energy consumed by them = (2 + 3 + 5) = 10 units changes into light and heat energies.
(ii) 1 unit or kWh = 3.6 × 106 J (ii) Here, m = 500 kg, v = 0 and
∴ 10 units = 3 . 6 × 106 × 10 J = 3 . 6 × 107 J 36 × 1000
u = 36 kmh −1 = = 10 ms −1
27. Consider an object of mass m moving with a uniform 3600
velocity u. Let, it now be displaced through a distance s, when ∴ Work done = Change in kinetic energy
a constant force F acts on it in the direction of its 1 1
displacement. = m ( v 2 − u 2 ) = × 500 ( 0 − 102 )
2 2
From the third equation of motion, v 2 = u 2 + 2 as 1
= − × 500 × 100
⇒ v 2 − u 2 = 2 as 2
v2 − u2 = − 25000 Js −1
⇒ s= ...(i)
2a So, it is negative because work is done to stop the car.
18 × 1000
We know that, work done by F is 30. At v1 = 18 kmh −1 = = 5 ms −1,
W = Fs cosθ = Fs [since, force and displacement are in 3600
1 1
same direction, so θ = 0° ] KE1 = mv12 = × 40 × ( 5)2 = 500 J
∴ W = ma × s [Q F = ma ] 2 2
v 2 − u 2 At v 2 = 36 kmh −1 = 10 ms −1,
= ma × [from Eq. (i)] 1 1
2a KE 2 = mv 22 = × 40 × (10)2 = 2000 J
1 2 2
W = m (v 2 − u 2) ...(ii) At v 3 = 54 kmh −1 = 15 ms −1,
2
If the object is starting from its stationary position, i.e. u = 0, 1 1
KE 3 = mv 23 = × 40 × (15)2 = 4500 J
from Eq. (ii), we get 2 2
1
W = mv 2 At v 4 = 72 kmh −1 = 20 ms −1
2 1 1
KE 4 = mv 24 = × 40 × (20)2 = 8000 J
It is clear that, the work done is equal to the increase in the 2 2
kinetic energy of an object.
The graph between the K.E. and the velocities is shown
28. Given, mass of the vehicle, below.
m = 1 tonne = 1000 kg 8000
Initial speed, u = 60 ms −1
6000
Distance between vehicle and the cow, s = 9 m
4500
K.E. (J)
Final velocity, v = 0
4000
(i) K.E. of vehicle before applying brakes is given by
1 1
= mu 2= × 1000 × 60 × 60 = 1800000 J
2 2 2000
500
(ii) From the third equation of motion,
v 2 − u 2 = 2 as 5 10 15 20
( 0)2 − ( 60)2 = 2 × a × 9 Velocity (ms–1)
⇒ a = −200 ms −2 The graph is parabolic curve because K.E. ∝ v 2
68 CBSE Term II Science IX
31. Let a simple pendulum be suspended from a rigid support S Electric energy consumed per day by 4 tubelights
and OS be the equilibrium position of the pendulum. Let the = 4 × 60 × 5 = 1200 Wh
pendulum be displaced to a position P, where it is at rest. At
position P, the pendulum has potential energy ( mgh ). When Electric energy consumed per day by TV
the pendulum is released from position P, it begins to move = 100 × 6 = 600 Wh
towards position O. The speed of the pendulum increases and Electric energy consumed per day by washing machine
its height decreases that means the potential energy is = 400 × 3 = 1200 Wh
converting into kinetic energy.
∴ Total electric energy consumed by all electric appliances
At position O, whole of the potential energy of the pendulum = ( 800 + 1200 + 600 + 1200) Wh
is converted into its kinetic energy.
= 3800 Wh = 3. 8 kWh = 3. 8 units
Then, the pendulum swings to other side due to inertia of
Total electric energy consumed in the month of April
motion. As the pendulum begins to move towards position Q,
(30 days) = 3 . 8 × 30 = 114 units
the speed of pendulum decreases and height increases that
means kinetic energy is converting into potential energy. At Cost of one unit = ` 1.80
point Q, whole of the kinetic energy is converted into potential Cost of 114 units = 114 × 1. 80 = ` 205.20
energy. Thus, we find that the potential energy is converted ∴ Electricity bill amount = ` 205.20
into kinetic energy and vice-versa during the motion of the
pendulum. But the total energy remains constant. 35. (i) It is because force and displacement are in opposite
directions to each other.
When the pendulum oscillates in air, the air friction opposes
its motion. So, some part of kinetic energy of pendulum is (ii) Zero, as displacement is zero.
used to overcome this friction. With the passage of time, (iii) Work done by the conservative force depends only on
energy of the pendulum goes on decreasing and finally initial and final position of the object. During round
becomes zero. trip of a body, initial and final position of the body
The energy of the pendulum is transferred to the coincides, hence work done by the conservative force
atmosphere. So, energy is being transferred, i.e. is converted is zero.
from one form to another. So, no violation of law of (iv) When the ball moves vertically upwards, then angle
conservation of energy takes place.
between the direction of gravitational force and
32. (i) Two forms of mechanical energy are displacement remains 180°.
(a) kinetic energy ∴Work done, W = Fs cos 180° = − Fs
(b) and potential energy.
Therefore, work done by gravitational force on the ball
The SI unit of energy is joule (J). 1 J is the amount of during upward movement is negative.
work done on an object when a force of 1N displaces it
by 1 m along the line of action of force. (v) Total energy (sum of kinetic and potential energy).
(ii) Given, m = 50 kg, h = 0.5 m, g = 10 ms−2 36. (i) Objects can have two kinds of energy.
At highest point, kinetic energy is converted into (a) Potential energy It is an energy that an object
potential energy. possesses due to its position relative to other objects.
∴ PE = mgh = 50 × 10 × 0.5 = 250 J (b) Kinetic energy It is an energy that an object
possesses due to its position.
(iii) Given, m = 20 kg, v = 0.1 ms −1
(ii) Work done by the gravity is equal to potential energy.
As we know that, a moving body has kinetic energy. So, regardless of what path the object takes, the work
1 1 done by gravity doesn’t depend on the path. It only
∴ K.E. = mv 2 = × 20 × ( 0. 1)2
2 2 depends upon the height through which it falls.
1
= × 20 × 0.1 × 0.1 = 0.1 J (iii) Water is always stored in a dam at high level i.e. at
2 some height. Stored water does not have any speed. So,
33. Given, m = 20 kg, h = 15 m, g = 10 ms−2 water is always stored in the form of potential energy.
(i) Work done = mgh = 20 × 10 × 15 = 3000 J (iv) Potential energy of an object is an energy that it
(ii) Gravitational P.E. = Work done = 3000 J possesses due to its position relative to other objects.
(iii) Gravitational P.E. at a height of 45 m If mass of an object is M and that object is lifted the
= mgh ′ = 20 × 10 × 45 = 9000 J height H from the ground, then its potential energy
Now, with respect to ground will be, P.E. = MgH
Potential energy at height 45 m 9000 (v) Given m = 200 g = 0.2 kg
= = 3
Potential energy at height 15 m 3000 Potential energy = 100 J, g = 9.8 ms −2
Therefore, P.E. increases by 3 times. We know that,
(iv) K.E. will be maximum just before the body strikes the Potential energy, P.E. = mgh
ground.
34. Electric energy consumed per day by 4 bulbs 100 = ( 0.2 ) × ( 9. 8) × h
= 4 × 40 × 5 = 800 Wh ⇒ h = 51.02 m
Chapter Test 7. Assertion Force applied on a block moving in
one-dimension is producing a constant power. Then
the motion should be uniformly accelerated.
Reason This constant power multiplied with time is
equal to the change in kinetic energy.
Multiple Choice Questions
8. Assertion A spring has potential energy, when it is
1. Mukesh drops a ball of 200 g from a tower of height 20 m. either compressed or stretched.
What will be its kinetic energy at the height of 5 m ? Reason In compressing or stretching a spring, work
(a) 30 J (b) 50 J (c) 60 J (d) 65 J done on it is against the restoring force.
2. A cricket ball is projected vertically upwards such that it Short Answer Type Questions
returns back to the thrower. The variation in kinetic energy
with time is best represented by 9. A mass of 10 kg is dropped from a height of 50 cm.
Find its
K.E. K.E.
(i) potential energy just before dropping.
(a) (b) (ii) kinetic energy just on touching the ground.
(Take, g = 10ms −2 )
t t
10. A force applied on a body of mass 4 kg for 5 s
K.E. K.E. changes its velocity from 10 ms −1 to 20 ms −1 . Find the
(c) (d) power required.
11. A labourer whose own mass is 50 kg carries a load of
t t an additional 60 kg on his head to the top of a
3. An iron sphere of mass 30 kg has the same diameter as an building 15 m high. Find the total work done by him.
Also, find the work done by him, if he carries another
aluminium sphere whose mass is 10.5 kg. The spheres are
dropped simultaneously from a cliff. When they are 10 m additional block of mass 10 kg to the same height.
from the ground, they have the same (Take, g = 10 m s −2 )
(a) acceleration (b) momentum 12. A girl having mass of 35 kg sits on a trolley of mass
(c) potential energy (d) kinetic energy 5 kg. The trolley is given an initial velocity of 4 ms −1
4. Which mathematical relation of energy of a stone of mass by applying a force.
m falling freely from height h remains conserved at every The trolley comes to rest after traversing a distance of
point in its downward motion? 16 m. (i) How much work is done on the trolley? (ii)
1 How much work is done by the girl?
(a) E = mgh (b) E = mv 2
2
1 13. At a height of 20 m above the ground, an object of
(c) E = mgh + mv 2 (d) None of these
2 mass 4 kg is released from rest. It is travelling at a speed
5. Which of the following is unit of power? of 20 ms −1 when it hits the ground. The object does not
(a) kilowatt-hour (b) horse power rebound and the gravitational field strength is 10 Nkg−1 .
How much energy is converted into heat and sound on
(c) watt hour (d) All of these
impact?
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs
Long Answer Type Questions
Direction (Q. Nos. 6-8) Each of these questions contains
14. (i) What do you understand by the term
two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Each of “transformation of energy?” Explain with an
these questions also has four alternative choices, any example.
one of which is the correct answer. You have to select one
(ii) Explain the transformation of energy in the
of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. following cases
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(a) A ball thrown upwards.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
(b) A stone dropped from the roof of a building.
of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. 15. (i) A ball thrown vertically upwards returns to the
(d) A is false, but R is true. thrower. How do the kinetic and potential
energies of the ball change?
6. Assertion Kilowatt hour is the unit of energy.
(ii) Calculate the power of a pump which lifts 100 kg
Reason One kilowatt hour is equal to 3.6 × 10 8 J of water to a water tank placed at a height of
20 m in 10 s. (Take, g = 10 ms −2)
Answers
Multiple Choice Questions For Detailed Solutions
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)
Scan the code
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d)
CHAPTER 05
In this Chapter...
l Health
l Personal and Community Health Issues
l Disease
l Infectious Diseases
l Immunisation
l Pulse Polio Programme
Infectious Diseases
They are caused by some biological agents (pathogens) such
as viruses, bacteria, fungi and single- celled animals, i.e.
protozoans, etc. These can rapidly spread from one person
Picture of Leishmania, the protozoan
to another by various means such as water, air, food, insects organism that causes kala-azar
(vectors) or by physical contact. Hence, are also known as
communicable diseases. cm
1 2 3
Infectious Agents
The unicellular or multicellular organisms that cause
infection are called infectious agents.
l
These diseases causing organisms are also called
pathogens.
l
They are classified into a wide range of categories such as
viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoans, nematodes, etc., to
decide the kind of treatment to use because the same
drug will not work against a microbe belonging to a
different group.
Picture of an adult roundworm (Ascaris lumbricoides is the
l
Some infectious agents of various diseases are shown
technical name), causes infection of small intestine.
below
Peptic Ulcers and the Nobel Prize
Two Australians, Robin Warren and Barry Marshall discovered
that a bacterium Helicobacter pylori was responsible for peptic
ulcers disease. Previously, it was thought that peptic ulcers were
caused due to stressful lifestyle.
Due to this discovery, peptic ulcer no longer remained a chronic
disease as it can be treated by a short period of treatment with
antibiotics. For this discovery, both of them received the Nobel
Prize in physiology and medicine in the year 2005.
Picture of Staphylococci, the bacteria which can cause acne
Summary of Some Infectious Diseases
Diseases Caused by Protozoans
Diseases Causal organisms Means of spread Symptoms Preventions and controls
Malaria Plasmodium Female Anopheles Headache, nausea and muscular pain. High fever with Use mosquito nets and insect repellents to prevent
mosquito specific pattern of cold, hot and sweating stage. mosquito bite. Do not allow collection of water
anywhere. Sprinkle kerosene oil in open drainage or any
place where uncovered water is collected. Wire-gauze
should be used on doors and windows.
CBSE Term II Science IX
Sleeping Trypanosoma brucei Bite of tse-tse fly Anxiety, fever, headache, itching, insomnia, mood Using insect repellents, wearing long-sleeved clothing,
sickness changes, sleep pattern changes, etc. avoiding tse-tse fly dense areas. Doses of drug
Eflornithine.
Kala-azar or Leishmania donovani Bite of infected Difficulty in breathing. Skin sores, which may become Use insect repellent. Stay in well-screened areas.
Leishmaniasis sand flies skin ulcers. Ulcers in mouth, tongue, gum, lips and Antibodies containing compound is the main drug for
nose. Abdominal discomfort. treating this disease.
74
Diseases Causal organisms Means of spread Symptoms Preventions and controls
Influenza Myxovirus influenzae Through contact and by Sudden chills, discharge from nose, Try to keep away from the patient.
droplet infection via sneezing, fever, headache, coughing, Anti-viral drugs are taken for cure.
sneezing, coughing or inflammation of respiratory mucosa
talking to infected person. and weakness.
Jaundice or Hepatitis virus or Food and water Dark yellow urine and light yellow Use chlorinated boiled water.
Hepatitis-A hepatitis-A and B virus contaminated with hepatitis stool. High fever, nausea, vomiting, Avoid stale food.
and B virus. headache, loss of appetite and joint
pain. Hepatitis-A and B vaccination and interferon injection.
Intake of high calorie diet such as juice of sugarcanes, radish with
jaggery.
AIDS Retrovirus HIV Through blood transfusion, Swollen lymph node, regular fever and Keeping knowledge about AIDS transmission.
(Acquired (Human Immuno- sexual contact, use of sweating at night, weight loss, Avoid sexual contact with unknown person.
Immuno deficiency Virus) contaminated needles from loss of memory and ability to speak and Avoid use of common needles and razors.
Deficiency infected person to healthy think.
Syndrome) person, from mother to child No effective treatment is known so far.
through placenta. Frequent occurrence of viral, bacterial
and fungal infection. Some anti-viral drugs are given to the patient to keep HIV infection
under control.
Rabies Rabies virus By bite of rabid cat, dog and Severe headache and high fever. Cleaning of wound with medicated soap.
(Hydrophobia) monkey. Painful contraction of muscles of throat Course of anti-rabies vaccine.
and chest. Compulsory immunisation of stray cats and dogs.
Fear of water (hydrophobia) No treatment if disease occurs.
is developed. Excessive salivation,
difficulty in taking food and damage of
central nervous system.
Mental depression for a short period.
Dengue Dengue virus Aedes mosquito High fever with headache, nausea, Maintenance of hygienic conditions in community, preventing the
(it lands with the head and vomiting, weakness and joint pains. mosquito breeding sites and public awareness programmes should
tip of abdomen pointing be conducted.
towards the surface)
Polio or Polio virus Contaminated food, water Sore throat and headache. Complete rest and physiotherapy (helpful in beginning).
Poliomyelitis and milk. Fever, vomiting, muscular pain, Maintenance of hygiene by proper sanitary disposal.
stiffness in neck and tingling sensation
in limbs. OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine) is given orally. Following pulse polio
programme controls polio.
Ultimately paralysis of lower body
(paraplegia).
CBSE Term II Science IX
CBSE Term II Science IX 75
Chapter
Practice
PART 1 Codes
(a) I and III
Objective Questions (b) II and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) II and III
1. Which of the following is dangerous for individual
health? 7. What is common between diarrhoea, cholera and
(a) Open drainage typhoid diseases?
(b) Garbage throw in streets (a) All of them are caused by bacteria
(c) Stagnant water in our surroundings (b) All of them is transmitted by contaminated food and
water
(d) All of the above
(c) All of them are cured by antibiotics
2. Which of the following would lead to malnutrition? (d) All of the above
I. Overnutrition 8. The figure given below shows a diseases-causing
II. Undernutrition microbe. Choose the correct option for microbe A.
III. Imbalanced nutrition
Codes
(a) Only II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
A
3. Identify the incorrect match.
(a) Acute disease — Cold and cough
(b) Infectious disease — Goitre
(c) Non-infectious disease — Diabetes
(d) Chronic disease — Tuberculosis (a) Staphylococci : Bacteria which can cause acne
4. Complete the analogy given below and choose the (b) Leishmania : Protozoan that causes kala-azar
correct option. (c) Ascaris lumbricoides : Also known as round worm
(d) Trypanosoma : protozoan responsible for sleeping
Typhoid: Bacterial disease:: Polio: ………… sickness
(a) Protozoan (b) Bacterial disease
(c) Viral disease (d) Worm disease 9. Refer to the given flowchart.
Diseases
5. Making anti-viral drug is more difficult than making
anti-bacterial medicine because (NCERT Exemplar) Infectious Non-Infectious
(a) viruses do not use same pathway as that of bacteria disease disease
(b) viruses are on the border line of living and non-living
(c) viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their P Q R S T
own Choose the correct option for P, Q, R, S and T.
(d) viruses have a protein coat P Q R S T
6. Select the contagious, viral disease from the (a) Tuberculosis Cancer Chickenpox Influenza Diabetes
following. (b) Chickenpox Influenza Tuberculosis Cancer Diabetes
I. Dengue II. Leprosy (c) Diabetes Influenza Cancer Chickenpox Tuberculosis
III. Common cold IV. Chickenpox (d) Chickenpox Cancer Diabetes Tuberculosis Influenza
78 CBSE Term II Science IX
10. Identify the microorganisms shown in the picture Match the labelling referred in Column I and
below. Select the option which gives correct correlate with the diseases given in Column II.
identification of the type of microbe and disease
Column I Column II
caused by it.
A 1. Tuberculosis
B 2. Syphilis
C 3. Filariasis
D 4. Diarrhoea
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) Leishmania; Protozoan—Kala-azar (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(b) Round worm; Worms—Intestinal infection (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 4 2 1 3
(c) Trypanosoma; Protozoan—Sleeping sickness 14. Consider the following statements and select the
(d) Staphylococci; Bacteria—Acne incorrect one regarding penicillin.
11. If you live in an overcrowded and poorly ventilated I. Penicillin works against viruses.
house, it is possible that you may suffer from which II. Penicillin blocks the processes that build the cell wall.
of the following diseases? (NCERT Exemplar) III. Penicillin is an antibiotic.
(a) Cancer (b) AIDS Codes
(c) Airborne diseases (d) Cholera (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) Only II (d) Only I
12. Identify the disease and its causative agent which 15. Match the following columns.
spread through the given mode of transmission.
Diseases Target Organs
A. Hepatitis 1. Brain
B. Fits 2. Lungs
C. Pneumonia 3. Skin
D. Fungal disease 4. Liver
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 2 1 4
16. A person is suffering from X disease. He wants to get
vaccine against that disease, but he has not found any
(a) Tuberculosis—Mycobacterium vaccine against the X disease. Choose the
(b) Cholera—Vibro cholerae appropriate option for disease X.
(c) Influenza—Trypanosoma (a) Tetanus (b) Whooping cough
(d) Peptic ulcer—Helicobacter pylori (c) Measles (d) Common cold
13. The diagram given shows some common methods of 17. Refer to the given picture and choose the correct
transmission of diseases as A to D. statement regarding it.
A
Infected Healthy
person person
C
28. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) (i) Which of the following is an airborne disease?
(a) Pneumonia (b) Cholera
to (v) given below
(c) Malaria (d) Jaundice
A teacher asked students to observe three slides of
(ii) Identify the vector from the following.
different disease, causing microbes under the (a) Virus (b) Protozoan
microscope. She marked the slides as I, II and III.
(c) Bacteria (d) Flies
(iii) Which of the following statement is incorrect?
I. Diseases that can spread from sick person to
healthy person is called as communicable
diseases.
II. Malaria is both airborne and waterborne diseases.
III. Tuberculosis is a waterborne disease.
I II III
IV. Peptic ulcers are caused due to stressful lifestyle.
(i) Identify the correct pathogens of their respective Codes
slides. (a) I and II (b) II, III and IV
(a) I—Trypanosoma (b) II—Staphylococci
(c) I, III and IV (d) II and III
(c) III—Leishmania (d) II—SARS
(iv) ORS is commonly given in case of
(ii) Anti-viral drugs can prevent the disease caused by (a) airborne disease
which of the following microbe? (b) waterborne disease
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) Only I (d) Only III (c) vector-borne disease
(d) sexually transmitted disease
(iii) Which of the following is the target organ of microbe II?
(a) Liver (b) Small intestine (v) Which of the following disease can spread through
(c) Brain (d) Kidneys breastfeeding?
(a) TB (b) Kala-azar
(iv) Which of the following is an infectious disease?
(a) Sleeping sickness (b) Kala-azar (c) Sleeping sickness (d) AIDS
(c) SARS (d) All of these
(v) Which of the following groups of microorganisms can
be used to extract antibiotics? PART 2
(i) Virus (ii) Bacteria
(iii) Protozoa
Codes
(iv) Fungi Subjective Questions
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) l
Short Answer Type Questions
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
1. State any two conditions essential for good health.
29. Read the following and answer the questions from (i)
to (v) given below 2. Write Five ‘F’s of prevention of transmission of
diseases by maintaining sanitation and hygiene.
Infectious diseases can spread from an infected
person to a healthy person by various ways. These 3. Public cleanliness is considered more important for
diseases spread through various modes like air, individual’s health. Do you agree? Give reason.
water, sexual contact, vectors, etc. 4. How is personal health and community health
The practices adopted for prevention of diseases that connected?
are related to environment are given in table below 5. Are the conditions essential for maintaining
Microbes Practices good health and being free of diseases same or
Airborne microbes By providing living conditions that different? Why?
are not overcrowded. 6. Why are we normally advised to take bland and
Waterborne microbes By providing safe drinking water. nourishing food when we are sick?
This is done by treating the water to
kill any microbial contamination. 7. Give two examples for each of the following:
Vector-borne By providing clean environment (i) acute diseases (ii) chronic diseases
microbes which would prevent breeding of (iii) infectious diseases (iv) non-infectious diseases
mosquitoes, etc. (NCERT Exemplar)
CBSE Term II Science IX 81
8. List three disadavantages of infectious diseases. 21. A person is suffering from loss of appetite with
9. It was diagnosed that a patient has lost the power of feeling of nausea and is passing dark yellow urine.
fighting against any infection. Identify the disease and suggest any two methods of
preventing it and two methods of controlling it.
(i) Name the disease from which the patient is suffering
from. 22. Under which of the following conditions are you
(ii) Name the pathogen responsible for the disease. most likely to fall sick?
(i) When you are taking examinations?
10. Name two non-infectious diseases and their cause.
(ii) When you have travelled by bus and train for two
11. Name and give an example of each days?
(i) The disease causing factors within the body. (iii) When your friend is suffering from measles.
(ii) The non-cellular disease causing microorganism.
Why?
(iii) The substance introduced in body to confer immunity
against subsequent infection. 23. Give one local and one general effect of inflammation
process.
12. What do you mean by disease symptoms? Explain by
giving two examples. (NCERT Exemplar) 24. Name the viral disease which is about to be
completely eradicated from the world. What is its
13. A baby is not able to tell her/his caretakers that preventive measure?
he/she is sick. What would help us to find out
25. Write two ways other than sexual contact by which
(i) that the baby is sick?
AIDS can spread.
(ii) the sickness from which bahy is suffering ?
26. A person suffering from HIV-AIDS cannot fight even
14. Name
minor infections. Why?
(i) A worm which is found in our small intestine.
27. Why is AIDS considered to be a ‘syndrome’ and not
(ii) Bacteria responsible for causing cholera.
a disease? (NCERT Exemplar)
15. A baby from a poor family is suffering from loose
28. A mother who had suffered from chickenpox in her
motions. Predict the first, second and third level
childhood, is now taking care of her child, who
cause of the disease in the given case.
is suffering from the same disease. What are
16. Name two diseases caused by contaminated food and the chances of the mother having chickenpox?
water. Explain.
17. A patient has been recommended to take Oral 29. Give cause and remedy of
Rehydration Solution (ORS) multiple times a day. (i) Hepatitis (ii) AIDS (iii) Malaria
Which disease is he likely to be suffering from.
30. List any three ways of preventing the spread of
18. Mr. Sharma becomes exposed to a disease causing airborne diseases.
microbe but does not develop any noticeable
diseases. Explain. 31. A person was bitten by a stray dog. After some days
his nature gets irritated, he started fearing from water.
19. Under which of the following conditions is
(i) Name the disease.
a person most likely to fall sick?
(ii) Is there any vaccine available?
(i) When she is recovering from malaria.
(iii) Is there any plan of your local authority for the control
(ii) When she has recovered from malaria and is taking of this disease?
care of someone suffering from chickenpox.
(iii) When she is on a four-day fast after recovering from 32. Explain, how body reacts after the entry of microbes
malaria and is taking care of someone suffering from in the body.
chickenpox. 33. Name any two groups of microorganisms from which
Why? antibiotics could be extracted? (NCERT Exemplar)
20. A person is suffering from chest pain, breathlessness, 34. (i) If penicillin is given to a patient suffering from
loss of body weight, persistent cough and produces jaundice, it does not have any effect on the infection.
blood stained sputum. Why?
(i) Name the disease and its causative agent. (ii) Name a disease which has been eradicated from the
(ii) Mention any mean of its transmission. world.
(iii) Name the vaccine used to prevent this disease. (iii) State the principle behind its eradication.
82 CBSE Term II Science IX
35. What are the two barriers, which prevent the entry 45. What precautions will you take to justify ‘prevention is
of microbes in the body? better than cure’? NCERT Exemplar
36. Which female mosquito feed on blood of Or How can you justify the statement prevention of
warm-blooded animals like human beings? diseases is better than cure?
37. Who discovered ‘vaccine’ for the first time? Name 46. ‘Educating parents would help a lot in reducing the
the two diseases which can be prevented by using incidences of diseases in children’. Justify the
vaccines. (NCERT Exemplar) statement with five reasons.
38. Why is immune system essential for our health? l
Case Based Questions
(NCERT Exemplar)
47. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to
l
Long Answer Type Questions (v) given below
39. Explain by giving reasons. (NCERT Exemplar) Many animals who live around us in the environment
(i) Balanced diet is necessary for maintaining healthy can transmit diseases from sick person to a healthy
body. person.
(ii) Health of an organism depends upon the The diagrammatic representation of common methods
surrounding environmental conditions. of transmission of diseases as A, B and C is shown as
(iii) Our surroundings should be free from stagnant follows:
water.
(iv) Social harmony and good economic conditions are A
necessary for good health.
40. What are the different means by which infectious
Infected Healthy
diseases spread? (NCERT)
person
B
person
41. Construct a table showing category of agents
which cause infection and one disease/ infection
caused by each. C
(i) Virus (ii) Fungus
(iii) Bacteria (iv) Protozoan (i) What are vectors?
(v) Worm (ii) Name two diseases that spread through pathway A.
State the importance of categorisation of infection (iii) Name any two diseases that are transmitted through
causing agents. mosquitoes vector.
42. What are the causes and symptoms of malaria? (iv) Write two preventive measures to prevent diseases to
How can it be prevented and controlled? spread through pathway B.
(v) What is the common symptoms of the diseases that
43. (i) Name two airborne diseases. How does the disease
spread through pathway A?
causing microbes spread through air?
(ii) How does HIV virus spread from a patient to a 48. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to
healthy person? (v) given below
(iii) How does the immune system of our body The principles of prevention consist of general ways
function? that deal with practices to be followed to avoid diseases
44. Explain the statement by giving two examples: and specific ways that include immunisation.
‘It is not necessary that the pathogen may affect The table given shows some important vaccines for
an organ or tissue depending upon the point of infants and children. Study the table carefully and
entry.’ answer the following questions.
CBSE Term II Science IX 83
Important Vaccines for Infants and Children The doctor recorded the following things in his
Vaccines Diseases Age groups Safety land
prescription.
Patient’s Name Simran Date : 20th, Oct, 2021
Hepatitis-B Hepatitis All infant, children, Not yet
even adult confirmed Age : 6 months
Sex : Female
Polio Poliomyelitis All infants up to 5 Nearly
years of age, 100% Prescription
minimum of three 1. CROCIN ORAL SUSP 120 mg / 5 mL
doses per child at 4mL, once every 6 hours for 3 days after food
one month interval
Lab Test
BCG Tuberculosis All children between Nearly 70%
10 to 14 years of age 1. Dengue Profile
2. CBC ESR
(i) How vaccination works? General Advice
(ii) Who was the first ever person to produced a vaccine? 1. Report to hospital in case of worsening of symptoms
Name the disease it was developed against. 2. Follow the prescription
(iii) What does BCG vaccine stands for? 3. Plenty of oral fluids
(iv) What is/are the measure of spread of hepatitis-B? Doctor’s Notes/Diagnosis
(v) On the basis of which symptoms a medical practitioner 1. Viral fever
will diagnose a condition as tuberculosis?
2. Unspecified vector-borne viral fever
49. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) (i) How can we detect the occurrence of disease ?
to (v) given below (ii) How can we prevent a disease ?
Simran is a 6 month baby. She lives in a village that (iii) How can we diagnose a disease ?
lacks basic public services such as clean drinking (iv) What is a source of infection ?
water, sewage and waste disposal system. (v) Why newborn babies are more vulnerable to diseases
She was suffering from high fever from last few days. as compare to adults ?
Her mother took her to a doctor.
EXPLANATIONS
Objective Questions A. Syphilis is sexually transmitted disease which can spread
1. (d) Proper hygiene and cleanliness is very important for through direct contact of infected person, i.e. sexual
individual health. Open drain’s garbage and stagnant water intercourse or exchange of blood fluids.
provide breeding places to various disease causing microbes. B. Tuberculosis is an airborne disease.
Hence, they are dangerous for individual as well as C. Diarrhoea is usually caused by a virus that transmits
community health. Thus, option (d) is correct. through contaminated food.
2. (d) Malnutrition means bad nutrition. It can be applied to D. Filariasis is a vector-borne disease. It is transmitted
both undernutrition and overnutrition and also for through Culex mosquito.
imbalanced nutrition. Some of the diseases caused due to 14. (d) Statement I is incorrect and can be corrected as
malnutrition are obesity, Kwashiorkor, marasmus, etc. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works against bacterial cells
Thus, option (d) is correct. that cause disease like pneumonia. It blocks the processes
that build the bacterium cell wall.
3. (b) Option (b) is incorrect match and can be corrected as
Infectious diseases are caused by pathogens like bacteria, 15. (a) Target organs for the given diseases are as follows
virus, etc., and can pass from one person to another, e.g. Hepatitis targets liver, fits or unconsciousness targets brain,
chickenpox. Goitre is a non-infectious disease. It is a Pneumonia targets lungs and fungal disease targets skin.
deficiency disease caused by lack of iodine in diet. Thus, option (a) is correct.
4. (c) Typhoid is a bacterial disease, whereas polio is a viral 16. (d) There are vaccines against tetanus, diphtheria, whooping
disease. cough, measles, polio, etc., but there is no vaccine for
5. (c) Making anti-viral drug is more difficult than making common cold due to involvement of many viruses.
anti-bacterial medicines because viruses have very few 17. (a) The picture given shows the vaccination process in which
biochemical mechanisms of their own. They use host body to Edward Jenner tried deliberately giving cowpox virus to
reproduce. Therefore, it is difficult to target virus cell or its people so as to provide resistant to smallpox disease.
functioning.
Option (a) is correct as
6. (c) Chickenpox and common cold, both are caused by viruses Edward Jenner is known as Father of Immunology or
and are contagious in the mode of their transmission, i.e. Vaccination. The other options are incorrect and can be
droplets. corrected as
l Cowpox is a mild disease.
7. (d) Diarrhoea, cholera and typhoid are bacterial diseases.
Hence, can be cured by antibiotics. These diseases are l The smallpox virus is closely related to the cowpox virus.
transmitted by contaminated food and water. l There are vaccines available for a whole range of
Thus, option (d) is correct. infectious diseases, but not for all diseases.
8. (d) Option (d) is correct for microbe A. 18. (d) Statements I, III and IV are correct. Statement II is
incorrect and can be corrected as
The figure given is of Trypanosoma, the protozoan organism
responsible for causing sleeping sickness. Some hepatitis viruses, which cause jaundice are
transmitted through water.
9. (b) P, Q and R are represented as chickenpox, influenza and 19. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
tuberculosis, respectively whereas S and T represent cancer explanation of A.
and diabetes, respectively. Chickenpox and influenza are
caused by viruses, while tuberculosis is a bacterial disease, Children fall ill more frequently due to (i) poor personal
therefore comes under infectious disease, whereas cancer, hygiene; (ii) poor domestic hygiene; (iii) unclean food; (iv)
diabetes are non-infectious disease. lack of proper nutrition and balanced diet.
All these factors result in the weakening of the immune
10. (d) The microorganism given in the picture is bacteria, system. It makes the children more susceptible to disease.
Staphylococci. It is responsible for causing acne.
20. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
11. (c) In closed areas, the droplets nuclei recirculate and pose a explanation of A.
risk to everybody. Thus, overcrowded and poorly-ventilated
Chronic diseases are more harmful because they last for
house is a major factor in spread of airborne diseases.
longer time and cause drastic long term effects on patient’s
12. (a) Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a bacterium called health, e.g. arthritis, diabetes, etc.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is an airborne disease which 21. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
can spread through coughing, sneezing and sharing clothing. explanation of A.
The bacteria usually attack the lungs, but TB bacteria can
An active immune system recruits many cells to the affected
attack any part of the body such as the kidney, spine and
tissue to kill off disease causing microbes, i.e. fungi, bacteria,
brain.
virus, protozoans, etc. This recruitment process is called
13. (a) Diseases that are spread through common methods of inflammation. Due to this process, there may be local effects
transmission are like swelling, pain and fever.
CBSE Term II Science IX 85
22. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct protozoan Leishmania and SARS is viral disease.
explanation of A. Hence, option (d) is the correct.
Antibiotics are compounds produced mainly by bacteria or (v) (c) Antibiotics can be extracted from microorganisms
fungi. These are very effective against bacterial diseases like bacteria and fungi.
because they block essential biochemical pathways of Thus, option (c) is correct.
bacterial metabolism, in turn killing them.
29. (i) (a) Causative microbe of pneumonia spreads through
23. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation air so it is an airborne disease. Whereas cholera and
of A. jaundice are waterborne diseases and malaria is
DPT is known as triple antigen because it is a vaccine that transmitted through female Anopheles mosquitoes.
works against the occurrence of three specific diseases. (ii) (d) Vectors are carrier of the disease or infection, e.g.
(i) Diphtheria (ii) Pertussis female Anopheles mosquitoes transmit malaria, flies
(iii) Tetanus. such as housefly transmit cholera and typhoid. Virus,
24. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct bacteria and protozoan are pathogens or
explanation of A. disease-causing microbes.
Fever is a symptom of inflammation or infection. (iii) (b) Statements II, III and IV are incorrect and can be
Inflammation is the result of an active immune system to a corrected as
pathogen which leads to increase in temperature of the body l
Malaria is a vector-borne disease spread by female
and providing unfavourable condition to pathogen. Anopheles mosquitoes.
25. (c) A is true, but R is false because l
TB is an airborne disease.
Congential diseases are not communicable, since these l
Peptic ulcers are caused by bacterium, Helicobacter
diseases are inherited at the time of birth due to genetic/ pylori.
chromosomal disorder. These diseases are not caused by
(iv) (b) ORS stands for Oral Rehydration Solution. It is used
microbes.
to treat dehydration caused by diarrhoea and vomiting.
26. (d) A is false, but R is true because It is most commonly used in case of waterborne
Dead or weak disease causing organisms are injected diseases which lead to diarrhoea or dehydration.
through vaccination and thus, the antibodies are developed
(v) (d) AIDS virus can spread through blood transfusion
in our body in order to fight against disease. Hence,
from an infected mother to her baby during pregnancy
vaccination is a process of immunisation.
and through breastfeeding.
27. (i) (d) The symptoms shown by the person is of malaria
disease. Subjective Questions
(ii) (d) Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite 1. Two conditions essential for good health are
Plasmodium. (i) availability of sufficient and nutritious food.
(iii) (b) Statements I, II and IV are correct. Statement III is (ii) better sanitation or clean surroundings.
incorrect and can be corrected as 2. The five ‘F’s of prevention of transmission of diseases are
Being disease-free does not necessarily mean being fluids, fingers, flies, fields and floods.
healthy. Health is a state of complete physical, mental
3. Yes, public cleanliness is more important for individual’s
and social well-being, whereas disease-free is a state of
health because open drainage, garbage thrown on street,
absence of discomfort of body and its functioning.
stagnant water, etc., are the places where disease causing
(iv) (b) The malarial parasites enter the person’s microbes multiply and mosquitoes and flies breed. In this
bloodstream and travel to the liver. When the way, diseases may spread in community and hence, affect the
parasites mature, they leave the liver and infect red individual’s health.
blood cells.
4. Personal health refers to the overall well-being of an
(v) (c) Malaria is transmitted from sick person to a healthy
individual, whereas community health is the maintenance,
person through female Anopheles mosquitoes.
protection and improvement of the whole community in
28. (i) (c) Microbes show in slide I is SARS virus. Round which an individual lives. Human beings live in
worm and Leishmania are shown in slide II and III, communities, interacting and affecting other individuals.
respectively. Hence, option (c) is correct. Therefore, the health of the community becomes an
(ii) (c) Anti-viral drugs are effective in prevention of viral important factor for maintaining individual’s health.
diseases. Microbes shown in slide I is SARS virus that 5. Essential conditions for maintaining good health and being
is responsible for causing viral disease which can be free of diseases are different, but interconnected. If the
prevented by using anti-viral drugs. conditions that are essential for good health are maintained,
(iii) (b) In slide II, round worm is shown. It is also known as then the chances of getting a disease will be minimised
Ascaris lumbricoides which is responsible for causing automatically. But, being disease-free does not mean being
infection in small intestine. healthy. The former means not suffering from any disease,
(iv) (d) Infectious diseases are those diseases that are while the latter means complete physical, mental and social
well-being.
caused by pathogens like bacteria, virus, protozoan,
fungi, worms, etc. Sleeping sickness is caused by 6. In case of illness, the normal functions of the body get
protozoan Trypanosoma, kala-azar is caused by disturbed and immune system is weakened. So, a nourishing
86 CBSE Term II Science IX
food is required, which is easily digestable and contains all l Pale skin, yellow urine and yellowing of eyes indicate
the nutrients. Therefore, bland and nourishing food is jaundice.
advised to be taken during sickness. l Doctors suggest for laboratory tests if there is fever with
7. (i) Acute diseases last for short period of time and do not no other symptoms, so as to find out the type of sickness.
cause long term effects, e.g. cold and cough.
14. (i) Ascaris (ii) Vibrio cholerae
(ii) Chronic diseases last for long period of time even for
whole life and also cause long term effects on health, 15. As the baby suffering from loose motions, the first or the
e.g. tuberculosis and arthritis. immediate cause is a virus. The virus could have come from
(iii) Infectious diseases are caused by the attack of unclean drinking water.
pathogens and can pass from one person to another, e.g. The baby suffered because he was not well-nourished and
malaria and chickenpox. so the virus from water attacked his body system.
(iv) Non-infectious diseases are caused by the factors other Thus, lack of good nourishment becomes second level cause.
than living pathogens and are not transmitted from one The baby was not properly fed because he belongs to a poor
person to other, e.g. cancer and goitre. family. Thus, poor public services providing unclean
drinking water and poverty becomes the third level cause of
8. These limitations or disadvantages of infectious diseases are
the disease.
as follows
l Once someone has disease, his body functions are
16. Jaundice and typhoid are caused by ingestion of
damaged and may never recover completely. contaminated food and water.
l The treatment will take time. It means that someone
17. The patient must be suffering from diarrhoea.
suffering from a disease is likely to be bedridden for 18. An infectious microbe is able to cause a disease only if the
sometime even if proper treatment is given. immune system of the infected person is unable to put proper
l The person suffering from an infectious disease can serve defence against it. Many persons have strong immune system
as the source for further spread of infection to other people. or have acquired immunity against the pathogen.
9. (i) AIDS (ii) HIV virus Thus, the immune cells will kill the infectious microbe
before it can cause major harm to our body. As a result,
10. Diseases that are not caused by infectious agents are called despite exposure to infective microbe, the person will not
non-infectious diseases. For example, cancers are caused by manifest the disease.
genetic abnormalities and high blood pressure can be caused
19. In condition (iii), a person is most likely to fall sick.
by excessive weight and lack of exercise.
The reasons are
11. (i) The disease causing factors within the body is known as (i) Due to malaria, the body becomes weak and start
intrinsic factors, e.g. excessive weight, hormonal loosing fluids. In this condition, if she takes four-day
imbalance. fast, she will not recover from the weakness and will
(ii) Virus are non-cellular pathogen, AIDS and influenza become more weak.
are viral diseases. (ii) Her immune system is already weak due to malaria. If she
(iii) Weakened or killed antigens introduced through will take care of someone suffering from chickenpox,
vaccination confer immunity against specific infections, there is high probability that she may also suffer from this
e.g. polio vaccine. disease.
12. Symptoms are the evidences or physical indications that 20. (i) The disease is Tuberculosis (TB) and its causative agent
point the presence of a disease. They are visible in the form is Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
of either structural or functional changes in our body or any (ii) Inhaling infected droplets released by coughing,
of its parts. sneezing or talking to infected person.
(iii) Vaccine used to prevent this disease is BCG (Bacillus
On the basis of these symptoms, doctors search for definite
Calmette Guerin).
clues or signs of a particular disease.
21. The person is suffering from jaundice.
For example, symptoms for malaria and typhoid are same
like fever, weakness, headache, etc. But, signs for the disease Two methods for prevention are:
are different as malaria fever manifests through chills and (i) Use chlorinated boiled water.
typhoid fever shows rashes, stomach pain, etc. (ii) Hepatitis-A vaccine should be taken to prevent the
disease.
13. (i) Symptoms which help in finding that the baby is sick are.
Two methods for controlling are:
l
Continuous crying
(i) Application of interferon injection on the advice of
l
Drooping of eyes doctor will control the disease.
l
Redness of eyes (ii) The patient should take high calorie diet such as juice
l
High temperature of body of sugarcane, radish with jaggery.
(ii) Signs which help to indicate the sickness in baby are: 22. In condition (iii), chances of falling sick are maximum.
l
Loose motions and stomach pain indicate diarrhoea. Measles is an infectious viral disease of young children. It
spreads through nasal or throat discharge. Being in contact
l
High fever, headache, muscular pain, shivering and
with a friend suffering from measles can cause the
feeling very cold indicate malaria.
transmission of infection.
l
Redness and persistent rubbing of eyes indicate eye flu.
CBSE Term II Science IX 87
23. Local effects — Swelling or pain. Our immune system comes into action in response to
General effects — Fever. infection. It recruits many cells to affected tissue to kill off
24. Polio is the viral disease which is about to be completely the disease causing microbes. This recruitment process is
eradicated from the world. called inflammation. Due to the effect of this process,
swelling, pain and fever occur.
It can be prevented through immunisation with oral polio
vaccine initiated by Pulse Polio Programme. 33. Two groups of microorganism from which antibiotics could
be extracted are
25. AIDS is a viral disease that spreads by sexual contact. It can
(i) bacteria (ii) fungi
also spread through blood transfusion from infected person
34. (i) Penicillin given to a patient suffering from jaundice will
or through use of common needles and syringes.
have no effect. Jaundice is caused by a virus. Penicillin
26. In case of AIDS, the virus affects the body’s immune system blocks the biochemical pathways in bacteria. As, viruses
and damages it. So, a person cannot fight even very small do not use such pathway. So, they remain unaffected by
infections due to weakend immune system. this antibiotic.
27. Syndrome is a group of symptoms, signs, physical and (ii) Smallpox has been eradicated from the world.
physiological disturbances that are due to a common cause. (iii) The principle behind its eradication is immunisation.
AIDS is also a complex of diseases and symptoms. It 35. Skin and sweat are the barriers that prevent the entry of
develops due to the failure of body to fight against even microbes in the body.
minor infections, such as cold. 36. In many species of mosquitoes, the female need highly
HIV that causes AIDS damages immune system of the patient. nutritious food in the form of blood inorder to be able to lay
As a result, even small cold leads to the development of mature eggs. Hence, mosquitoes feed on many
pneumonia. A slight gut infection leads to severe diarrhoea warm-blooded animals including humans. In this way, they
and blood loss. transfer diseases from one person to other person.
Likewise, skin rashes develop into ulcers. Thus, it leads to a 37. A ‘vaccine’ is a biological preparation that improves
group of symptoms. immunity to a particular disease.
An English physician Edward Jenner (1749-1823), made the
28. The chances of mother having chickenpox are nil because she
first vaccine against smallpox using the microbes of cowpox,
has became immune to this disease. When the immune
a similar, but less severe disease. The modern term
system first encounters an infectious microbe, it responds ‘vaccination’ comes from the Latin words vacca which means
against it and then remembers it specifically. cow and vaccinia meaning cowpox.
So, when the next time that particular microbe enters into Diseases which can be prevented by vaccines are diphtheria,
the body, the immune system responds with greater vigour pertussis, tetanus and measles.
and eliminates infection more quickly. Thus, eliminating any 38. Immune system is body’s defence system against various
chance of further infection. types of pathogens. It includes various components of blood
29. such as phagocytic cells, natural killer cells (NK cells),
Diseases Causes Remedies T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes.
(i) Hepatitis Hepatitis virus Avoid stale food, hepatitis-A B-lymphocytes produce antibodies against antigens of
and B vaccination. pathogens and their toxins.
(ii) AIDS HIV Avoid used razors/needles Immune system keeps the body healthy by killing infectious
/blades and sexual contact microbes and remembers the microbe for better action
with unknown person. against any subsequent encounters. It is also important as it
decides on the severity of disease manifestations by
(iii) Malaria Plasmodium Hygienic conditions and not determining the number of microbes surviving in the body.
letting water stagnate for
39. (i) A balanced diet is the first and foremost condition
mosquito breeding, use
mosquito repellant. necessary for good health. A balanced diet provides all
the nutrients, e.g. proteins, carbohydrates, fats,
30. The measures of preventing airborne diseases include vitamins and minerals required by the body in correct
(i) Avoiding direct contact with the infected persons. proportions. When our diet lacks one or more of these
nutrients, we get deficiency diseases or nutritional
(ii) Not sharing articles used by infected persons.
disorders, e.g. lack of mineral iron causes anaemia.
(iii) Use of mask/gloves/handkerchief.
31. (i) Rabies is the disease which spreads by the bite of an Excessive or inadequate intake of food and nutrients
infected stray dog. leads to conditions such as obesity, Kwashiorkor and
rickets, A balanced diet prevents deficiency diseases. It
(ii) Yes, a course of anti-rabies vaccine is available.
also increases our ability to fight against infections in
(iii) Yes, the local authority makes efforts to immunise all
general.
stray dogs.
32. When virus, bacteria or other microbes enter our body, they (ii) Our health depends on the cleanliness of our
begin to multiply and cause infection. As a result of surroundings. Flies and mosquitoes carry germs that
cause diseases. Flies breed in rotting garbage and
infection, the cells of our body get damaged and signs and
mosquitoes breed in pools of stagnant water.
symptoms of illness appear.
88 CBSE Term II Science IX
So, people fall ill quite often if the area in which they (b) Hot stage High fever, fast respiration and
live or work has garbage, stagnant water or open drains. heartbeats are increased.
Clean air is also a part of our surrounding and a basic (c) Sweating stage It is due to the pressure released by
requirement for good health. sweating, temperature of the body goes down.
(iii) This is so because many waterborne diseases causing The only way to prevent malaria is to take precaution against
insect vectors flourish in stagnant water, which mosquito bites. We can protect ourselves from bite of
cause diseases such as malaria, dengue, etc., in human mosquitoes by the following methods
beings. (i) Mosquito repellent should be used to prevent mosquito
(iv) Social harmony and good economic conditions are bite.
necessary for good health. Social harmony involves (ii) Mosquito larvae can be killed by sprinkling kerosene
each other’s participation in joys and sorrows, helping oil in open drainage, water coolers or any uncovered
others, etc. If we mistreat each other, we cannot be water bodies. Adult mosquitoes can be killed by
happy or healthy. Proper earning is necessary to spraying insecticides, e.g. BHC, malathion.
provide adequate and nutritious food and clean (iii) One should sleep under mosquito nets.
environment for living.
(iv) Wire-gauze should be used on doors and windows of
Thus, good economic condition is also a necessary
houses to prevent entry of mosquitoes.
factor for good health.
43. (i) Pneumonia and common cold are two airborne
40. Infectious diseases spread by the following mean
diseases. Spreading of disease causing microbes occurs
(i) Through air An infected person, when sneezes or through the little droplets thrown out by an infected
coughs releases out droplets containing germs. These person, when he sneezes or coughs. Someone standing
droplets infect healthy person standing nearby by close by can breathe in these droplets and microbes get
entering into his/her body through air. Examples of a chance to start new infection.
such diseases are common cold, pneumonia and
(ii) HIV virus can spread from a patient to a healthy person
tuberculosis.
in the following ways
(ii) Through water If the water source is polluted by the
(a) It spreads through sexual contact from an infected
excreta of infectious individuals having gut diseases and
person to a healthy person.
this water is used by other people, they will be infected
by the diseases, e.g. cholera, amoebiasis, hepatitis (b) It spreads through blood transfusion from infected
which get spread through water. person or through use of common needles, razors
(iii) Through sexual contact Some diseases like AIDS and and syringes.
syphilis are transmitted by sexual contact. (c) It can also spread through blood transfusion from
(iv) Through vectors There are some organisms which act an infected mother to her baby during pregnancy
as intermediates or vectors for a particular disease. and through breastfeeding.
These vectors carry disease from infected person to the (iii) Immune system is body’s defence system against
healthy person, e.g. mosquito bites spread malaria in various types of pathogens. It keeps the body healthy
humans. by killing infectious microbes and remembers the
microbe for better action against any subsequent
41. encounter.
Disease causing agents Diseases/Infections caused
(i) Virus AIDS 44. The pathogen does not necessarily affect an organ or tissue
(ii) Fungus Ringworm depending on the point of entry. It may invade the body at
the easiest accessible route and then makes it is way to the
(iii) Bacteria Tuberculosis target organ/tissue. The examples of such instances are
(iv) Protozoa Malaria (i) AIDS causing virus enters through sexual contact, but
(v) Worm Elephantiasis spreads to lymph nodes all over the body.
(ii) Japanese encephalitis Virus enters blood through
Importance of categorisation of infection causing agents mosquito bite, but reaches brain.
It helps to decide the kind of treatment to use because the (iii) Malaria Protozoan Plasmodium enters blood through
same drug will not work against a microbe belonging to a mosquito bite, but reaches liver and then passes into
different group. the RBC.
42. Malaria is caused by the protozoan parasite Plasmodium.
45. When someone gets a disease:
This disease spreads through the bite of an insect vector, i.e.
the female Anopheles mosquito, which feeds on human (i) His/her body function gets damaged and may never
blood. recover completely.
Its symptoms are (ii) He/she may become bedridden for sometime.
(i) Fever, headache, nausea and muscular pain. (iii) He/she can serve as a medium for further spread of
disease.
(ii) Each malarial attack is of 6-10 hours duration and Therefore, prevention is better than cure.
consists of the three stages. These three stages are
For prevention of diseases, following general practices are
(a) Cold stage Feeling extreme cold and shivers. adopted
CBSE Term II Science IX 89
(i) Avoid exposure to airborne microbes. (a) Use mosquitoes repellent and maintain cleanliness
(ii) Adopt living conditions that are not overcrowded. and hygiene in your surroundings.
(iii) Prevent exposure to waterborne microbes. (b) Do not allow water to collect around your
(iv) Safe drinking water should be provided. surroundings. Put kerosene oil in drains.
(v) Avoid vector borne infection. Establish clean (v) The common symptoms of the diseases that are spread
environment as it would not allow breeding of disease through contamination of food and water are diarrhoea
spreading vectors. and vomiting.
46. (i) Educated parents understand the importance of 48. (i) Vaccination is the process of injecting dead microbes in
healthy and balanced diet for their children which will the body of a healthy person in order to develop
prevent nutritional deficiency disorders and will also immunity against a particular diseases caused by that
help in the proper functioning of immune system. microbe.
(ii) They know about modes of spread of diseases so, will (ii) Edward Jenner discovered the first vaccine against
maintain hygienic conditions. smallpox disease.
(iii) Parents will provide only safe uncontaminated water to (iii) BCG vaccine stands for Bacillus Calmette Guerin.
avoid water borne diseases.
(iv) Hepatitis-B is spread through water and food
(iv) Educated parents can provide symptomatic treatment
contaminated with hepatitis virus.
first and then go for further doctor’s consultation to kill
the cause of the disease. (v) A persistent cough that lasts more than 3 weeks and
usually bring up phlegm, which may be bloody is a
(v) Educated parents can educate a sense of social and
common symptom of tuberculosis.
moral responsibility in their children to maintain clean
environment to prevent spread of infections. 49. (i) Signs and symptoms help us to detect the disease.
47. (i) Vectors or intermediates are animals that carry the Some diseases have specific symptoms and signs.
infecting agents from a sick person to a healthy person. (ii) Diseases can be prevented by maintaining personal and
Anopheles mosquito (for malaria), housefly (for typhoid), public hygiene, strong immune system by taking
rat flea (for plague) are the examples of vectors. balanced diet and adopting the practice of
(ii) Typhoid and cholera are diseases that spread through immunisation.
contaminated water and food (pathway A). (iii) A disease can be diagnosed by laboratory tests.
(iii) Malaria is transmitted through female, Anopheles (iv) Person, animal, object or substance from which an
mosquitoes and dengue is transmitted through Aedes infectious agent passes or is disseminated to the host is
mosquitoes. known as the source of infection.
(iv) Pathway B shows transmission of diseases through (v) Newborn babies are more vulnerable to diseases as
vectors like mosquitoes and flies. To prevent diseases to compare to adults due to weak immunity or immune
spread through these vectors system and no memory of previous infections.
Chapter Test 7. Assertion Japanese encephalitis is also known as brain
fever.
Reason Its virus enters through a mosquito bite and
Multiple Choice Questions goes on to infect the brain.
1. Which of the following group of disease is caused by 8. Assertion Having the disease once is a mean of
bacteria? preventing subsequent attacks of the same disease.
(a) Anthrax, Typhoid, Dengue Reason Immune system responds against the
(b) Influenza, AIDS, Common cold infectious microbe and then remember it specifically.
(c) Malaria, Kala-azar, Skin infection
(d) Typhoid, Cholera, Anthrax Short Answer Type Questions
2. People drinking water from a shallow hand pump are 9. High fever, headache, nausea, vomiting and joint pains
likely to suffer from which of the following disease? are some of the symptoms seen in a patient. Which
(a) Cholera (b) AIDS disease he might be suffering from? How does it spread?
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Malaria 10. Roshni visited her friend suffering from malaria. What
3. Penicillin kills bacteria, but not our cells because are the chances of her contracting the disease?
(a) our cells are immune to penicillin 11. Give an account of malaria, its causative agent,
(b) it blocks formation of cell wall symptoms and control measures.
(c) our cells do not form cell wall 12. Given below are few situations:
(d) it attacks our nervous system (i) Geeta of class IX was having common cold. She sits
4. Which of the following is a causative microbe of with Sarika who also develops the disease.
corona virus disease? (ii) Animesh of class IX shifted to a new residence,
(a) HIV virus with his family, where water purification system
(b) SARS virus has not been installed yet. He develops cholera
(c) Parasitic protozoan and dysentery.
(d) Staphylococci Associate these situations with their mode of
5. A microorganism X is oval-shaped and has one long transmission and assign appropriate category to
whip-like structure. It reproduces through binary them.
fission. 13. A lady suffering from AIDS is pregnant.
Choose the correct option for X. What is the most likely route for the child to get the
(a) Trypanosoma disease?
(b) Plasmodium
Long Answer Type Questions
(c) Staphylococci
(d) Leishmania 14. (i) State two examples of viral diseases.
(ii) After an injury, an injection is given immediately.
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs
What is it and why is it given?
Direction (Q. Nos. 6-8) Each of these questions contains (iii) What type of food is advised when we fall sick and
two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Each of why?
these questions also has four alternative choices, any 15. Fill in the table with appropriate term.
one of which is the correct answer. You have to select
one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Diseases Microbes Target Modes of
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A organs transmission
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation Meningitis Virus …(i)… Faecal contamination
of A
Hepatitis …(ii)… …(iii)… Contaminated water
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true …(iv)… Bacteria Lungs …(v)…
6. Assertion Peptic ulcers can be cured by a short period Ringworm Fungus …(vi)… Indirect contact
of treatment with antibiotics.
…(vii)… Virus Lungs …(viii)…
Reason They cause acidity-related pain and bleeding
in the stomach. Dengue fever …(ix)… Whole body …(x)…
Answers
Multiple Choice Questions For Detailed Solutions
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) Scan the code
Assertion-Reasoning MCQs
6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a)
CBSE Term II Science IX 91
Science
Class 9th ( Term II)
Practice Paper 1 *
(Solved)
General Instructions Time : 2 Hours
Max. Marks : 40
1. There are 11 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A, Question no. 1 to 3 is a Case Based Questions, which has four MCQs/Questions. Each question carries one mark.
3. Section B, Question no. 4 to 8 are Short Answer Type Questions. Each question carries 2/3 marks.
4. Section C, Question no. 9-11 are Long Answer Type Questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
5. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. Students have to attempt
only one of the alternatives in such questions.
* As exact Blue-print and Pattern for CBSE Term II exams is not released yet. So the pattern of this
paper is designed by the author on the basis of trend of past CBSE Papers. Students are advised
not to consider the pattern of this paper as official, it is just for practice purpose.
Section A
1. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to (iv) given below
Air transmitted diseases are easier to catch the closer we are to the infected person. However, in closed
areas, the droplet nuclei recirculate and pose a threat to everybody. The risk of infection increases with the
duration of time a person remains exposed to the airborne pathogen.
Small droplets
evaporate to droplet Droplet nuclei Ventilation
nuclei in this zone carried in air
current for
minutes to hours
Large droplets
settle to
ground in a
few seconds
2m 4m
years ago. Or
(i) What are triatomic molecules? Give an example. A vessel contains 5.6 grams of N 2 gas. Calculate the
(ii) How many moles are present in 4.6 g of Na? number of moles of N 2 gas, number of nitrogen
(Atomic mass of Na = 23 u) molecules and number of nitrogen atoms if the atomic
(iii) Define atom. What is their radius? mass of N = 14.0 u and NA = 6.022 × 10 23 per mole. [3M]
(iv) Molecular mass of water is 18 u. What will be the
number of molecules of water in 18 g water ? Section C
Or
9. Students of class IX had to present a seminar on
The rest mass of an electron is 9.11 × 10 −31 kg. ‘Dengue fever’. They wanted to introduce the disease
Molar mass of the electron is ? by starting with
(i) immediate causes of the diseases.
Section B (ii) definition of infectious diseases.
4. Why does a person who suffers from the deadly (iii) pathogen causing dengue fever.
HIV-AIDS, fails to fight even the minor (iv) vector responsible for dengue microbe.
infections? [2M] Can you help them to explain the above points? Give
5. Which force keeps the moon in a uniform circular details.
motion around the earth? [2M] Or
Or What are the causes and symptoms of malaria?
Mention steps to prevent and control it.
Think of two situations for each of the following
given conditions. 10. (i) Define kinetic energy of an object. Can kinetic
(i) Large mass but low kinetic energy. energy of an object be negative? Give reason.
(ii) Small mass but high kinetic energy. [2M]
(ii) A car weighing 1200 kg is uniformly accelerated from
rest and covers a distance of 40 m in 5 s. Calculate
6. State the source of centripetal force that a planet the work, the car engine had to do during this time.
requires to revolve around the sun. On what
Or
factors does the force depend? Suppose this force
suddenly becomes zero, then in which direction (i) Name two forms of mechanical energy. Define the SI
will the planet begin to move, if no other celestial unit of energy.
body affects it? [3M] (ii) A man of mass 50 kg jumps from a height of 0.5 m. If
g = 10 ms −2 , what will be his energy at the highest
Or
point?
When a force retards the motion of a body, what is (iii) Calculate the energy of a body of mass 20 kg moving
the nature of work done by force? State reason. with velocity of 0.1 ms −1 .
List two examples of such a situation. [3M]
11. What are the features and drawbacks of Rutherford’s
7. Write the molecular formulae for the following nuclear model of an atom?
compounds
Or
(i) Copper (II) bromide
(i) How did discovery of protons take place?
(ii) Aluminium (III) nitrate
(ii) Why do helium, neon and argon have zero valency?
(iii) Calcium (II) phosphate
Explanations
1. (i) (c) Causal organisms/microbes of airborne diseases (ii) Atomic mass of Na = 23,
spread through the air via little droplets which come Given mass of Na 4. 6 g
Number of moles = =
out of an infected person whenever he coughs or Atomic mass of Na 23 g
sneezes and infect the healthy person.
= 0.2 mol
Thus, airborne diseases are communicable.
(iii) Atoms are the smallest particles of an element which
(ii) (b) Cholera is a water borne disease which spreads may or may not have independent existence but take
when there is lack of safe supply of drinking water. part in a chemical reaction.
Pneumonia, TB and common cold are spread by air (via
infected droplets), thus, are airborne. Atoms are very small and their radius is measured in
nanometers.
(iii) (d) Kala-azar is transmitted through sandfly which acts 1
as the vector of the disease. m = 1 nm
109
(iv) (c) The most common and easy target organ of airborne
diseases is the lungs as these diseases affect the or 1 m = 109 nm
respiratory system of our body. (iv) Since, molecular mass of water is 18 u, therefore mass
Or of 1 mole of water is 18 g which consist of molecules
(b) Poorly ventilated housing as well as overcrowded equal to Avogadro’s number (NA ) , i.e. 6. 022 × 1023.
places are major factors responsible for the spread of Or
airborne diseases. Mass of 1 mole of electrons
2. (i) (c) Mass of the body on the surface of moon is same to = 9.11 × 10− 31 kg × 6. 02 × 1023 = 5. 5 × 10−7 kg.
the mass of body on the surface of earth.
Because mass is a constant quantity and it does not 4. A person suffering from HIV-AIDS suffers a weakened
depend on the acceleration due to gravity. immune system as the virus affects the body’s immune
system and damages it. Thus, the person cannot fight even
Gm1m 2
(ii) (a) F = m1m 2 ≈ 1000 kg very small infections.
r2
5. Gravitational force between the moon and the earth keeps
r~− 1m
− 11
the moon in a uniform circular motion around the earth.
6. 67 × 10 × 10 3
∴ F~ − − 10− 8 N
~ Or
(1 ) 2 (i) A shot put thrown by an athlete.
P (ii) A hockey ball which has been hit hard by a player and
(iii) (a) is travelling fast.
2 kg 8 kg
x 9–x 6. The source of centripetal force is the gravitation force. It
Let x be the distance of point P from 2 kg where depends upon the following factors
resultant gravitational field is zero. (i) Mass of the planet and the sun.
G ×2 G×8
∴ = (ii) Distance between the planet and the sun.
x2 ( 9 − x )2
If this force suddenly becomes zero, then the planet will
2
9 − x 9−x begin to move in a straight line in the direction in which it
⇒ =4 ⇒ =2
x x was moving at that instant.
Or
⇒ 9 − x = 2x
The nature of work done in case of retarding motion is
⇒ x = 3m
negative.
Hence, field is zero at 3 m from 2 kg and 6 m from 8 kg.
Suppose a force F brings a body moving with velocity v to
GMm
(iv) (a) We know, F = rest (retards), then work done = change in KE = KE f − KE i
R2
1 1
6. 67 × 10 × (1. 67 × 10− 27 )2
− 11 W = 0 − mu 2 = − mu 2
F= 2 2
(10− 15 )2 e.g.
= 18. 60 × 10− 35 N (i) When we apply brakes of a car, work done is negative.
= 1. 86 × 10− 34 N (ii) Work done by frictional force is negative.
Or 7. (i) Cu 2+ Br 1− = CuBr2 [Copper (II) bromide]
(d) Only the gravitational force is responsible for the (ii) Al 3+ 3 = Al(NO 3 )3
NO1−
flow of water in rivers. So, the correct option is (d).
[Aluminium (III) nitrate]
3. (i) Triatomic molecules are the molecules that consist of
three atoms. e.g. H2S , CO2 etc. (iii) Ca 2+ PO3−
4 = Ca 3 (PO 4 )2
[Calcium (II) phosphate]
CBSE Term II Science IX 95
Practice Paper 2 *
(Unsolved)
Section A
1. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to (iv) given below
For many years, people used to think that ulcers in stomach were caused due to stressful lifestyle and bad
eating habits. These ulcers cause acidity related problems along with pain and bleeding in the stomach as
these open sores affect the stomach lining.
Two Australian scientists made a discovery regarding the causal organism behind these ulcers and also found
the cure for it. For this achievement, they received a Nobel Prize for physiology and medicine in the year
2005.
Treatment of ulcers has been more and more effective with advancements in time. However, the main
symptoms include nausea, vomiting, bloating, etc.
(i) Which of the following organ of our body, apart from stomach, gets affected by ulcers?
(a) Large intestine (b) Lungs (c) Liver (d) Small intestine
(ii) The microbes responsible for causing ulcers include
(a) virus (b) bacteria (c) protozoans (d) worms
(iii) Two pathologists who received the Nobel Prize for the discovery of microbes responsible for ulcers are
(a) Marshall and Jenner (b) Jenner and Warren
(c) Marshall and Warren (d) Edward and Robin
(iv) Peptic ulcers are
(a) chronic disease (b) acute disease (c) communicable disease (d) viral disease
Or
Peptic ulcers can be treated by
(a) vaccine (b) anti-viral medicines
(c) antibiotics (d) home remedy
2. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to (iv) given below
The atomic number or proton number of a chemical element is the number of protons found in the nucleus
of every atom of that element. The atomic number uniquely identifies a chemical element. It is identical to
98 CBSE Term II Science IX
the charge number of nucleus. All the atoms of the 3. Read the following and answer the questions from
same element have the same number of protons in (i) to (iv) given below
their nuclei and hence they have the same atomic When we throw a ball up, the chemical energy
number. stored in our body gets transferred to the ball as its
The sum of the atomic number Z and the number of kinetic energy. As the ball moves up, it loses K.E.
neutrons N gives the mass number A of an atom. and gains P.E. At the highest point, all of its K.E.
Since, protons and neutrons have approximately the changes into P.E. As the ball falls on the ground, its
same mass and the mass defect of nucleon binding P.E. changes into heat and sound. Although energy
is always small compared to the nucleon mass. is being transformed from one form to another at
Atoms with the same atomic number but different every stage, yet its total amount remains the same.
neutron numbers and hence different mass (i) State law of conservation of energy.
numbers are known as isotopes. A little more than (ii) Which type of energy gets converted into kinetic
three-quarters of naturally occurring elements energy when we throw a ball?
exists as a mixture of isotopes, and the average (iii) Name the form of energy present in stretched bow.
isotopic mass of an isotopic mixture for an element
in a defined environment on Earth, determines the (iv) Name the device which converts chemical energy
into electrical energy.
element’s standard atomic weight.
Or
(i) Which of the following statement is always
correct? A ball is thrown up vertically with a velocity of
(a) An atom has equal number of electrons and protons 20 ms − 1 . At what height will its kinetic energy be
(b) An atom has equal number of electrons and neutrons half of its original value? [Ans. h =10 m]
(c) An atom has equal number of protons and neutrons
(d) An atom has equal number of electrons, protons and Section B
neutrons
(ii) How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of 4. A stone and the Earth attract each other with an
hydrogen atom? equal and opposite force. Why, then we see only the
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0 stone falling towards the Earth but not the Earth
(iii) Different isotopes are matched with their uses as
rising towards the stone? [2M]
(ii) If the moon attracts the Earth, then why does the (ii) Mathematically express the acceleration due to
earth not move towards the Moon? [3M] gravity in terms of mass of the Earth and radius of
Or the Earth.
A car is moving on a levelled road and gets its (iii) Why is G called a universal constant?
velocity doubled. In this process, Or
(i) how would the potential energy of the car change? (i) A person weighs 110.84 N on the moon, whose
(ii) how would the kinetic energy of the car change? acceleration due to gravity is 1/6 of that the Earth.
[3M]
If the value of g on the Earth is 9.8 m/s 2 , then
calculate
8. (i) What will be the maximum number of electrons (a) g on the Moon [Ans. 1.63 m/s 2]
which can be filled in Z-shell of an imaginary
atomic model? (b) mass of person on the Moon [Ans. 68 kg]
(ii) Why is it almost impossible to find such an atom in (c) weight of person on the Earth [Ans. 666.4 N-m 2/kg 2]
nature? [3M] (ii) How does the value of g on the Earth is related to
the mass of the Earth and its radius? Derive it.
Section C 11. Give a brief description about the following
9. A person is suffering from watery diarrhoea, (i) Relative atomic mass
effortless vomiting without nausea and loss of (ii) Atomic mass unit
several litres of fluid takes place within hours. (iii) Ions
(i) Name the disease and its causal organism. (iv) Ionic compound
(ii) Suggest some preventive measures to avoid this (v) Atomicity
disease. Or
(iii) Can the spread of this disease be controlled? If (i) Name a greenhouse gas with molar mass
yes, how? 44 g mol −1 and is known to extinguish fire.
Or (ii) Name the elements present in this gas and write
(i) What is meant by the term sexually transmitted their valency.
diseases? Given two examples. (iii) Calculate the number of moles in 360 g of this gas
(ii) What role does immune system play in our life? sample. [Ans. 8.18 mol]
(iii) State two measures by which we can increase the (iv) Calculate the number of molecules in 88 g of this
efficiency of our immune system. gas sample.
10. (i) Prove that, if the earth attracts two bodies placed [Given, atomic masses of C = 12 u, O = 16 u,
at the same distance from the centre of the earth NA = 6.022 × 1023 per mole] [Ans. 12.044 × 10 23]
with equal force, then their masses will be the (v) For the ratio by mass of the combining elements in
same. this gas.
Answers
1. (i) - (d); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (b, c) 2. (i) - (a); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (a, a)
100 CBSE Term II Science IX
Science
Class 9th ( Term II)
Practice Paper 3 *
(Unsolved)
Section A
1. Read the following and answer the questions from (i) to (iv) given below
The combining capacities of different elements are compared with that of hydrogen. The valency of
hydrogen is taken as 1 and the valencies of all other elements are measured against this standard. An atom of
calcium always combines with two atoms of hydrogen to form calcium hydride, a compound of calcium and
hydrogen. Hence, the combining capacity or valency of calcium is twice that of hydrogen.
But, there are elements which do not combine with hydrogen at all. However, they can combine with chlorine.
For example, gold does not combine with hydrogen but it combines with chlorine to form a compound (AuCl 3 ),
in which one atom of gold is united with three atoms of chlorine.
Since, the valency of chlorine is one, we conclude that the valency of gold must be three. Hence, valency is
measured by the number of hydrogen or chlorine atoms which combine with or are displaced by one atom of
the element. There are some elements which show different valencies in different compounds. Copper shows two
valencies, one and two.
In the red oxide of copper, its valency is one, while in the black oxide, its valency is two. Similarly, iron shows
valency two and three.
(i) The element B shows valencies of 4 and 6. The formulae of its two oxides respectively are
(a) BO3 , BO2 (b) B 2O6 , BO4
(c) BO2 , BO3 (d) BO4, B 2O6
(ii) The formula of the sulphate of an element X is X 2 ( SO4 ) 3 . The formula of nitride of the element X is
(a) X 2 N (b) XN2 (c) XN (d) X 2 N3
(iii) Number of valence electrons present in N 3− ion is
(a) 16 (b) 10 (c) 7 (d) 4
(iv) What is the formula of the compound formed by the ions Al +3
and SO24 − ?
(a) Al 2( SO4 )3 (b) AlSO4
(c) Al(SO4 )3 (d) 2AlSO4
CBSE Term II Science IX 101
Or Or
The formula of oxide of an element Z is Z 2 O3 . If we go inside a mine and drop a 10 kg iron ball
What is the valency of element Z ? and 1 kg aluminium ball from the top of a high
(a) 1 (b) 2 platform, then which of the following is not true?
(c) 3 (d) 4 I. Both will reach the floor at the same time.
2. Read the following and answer the questions from II. 1 kg weight will reach the floor first.
(i) to (iv) given below III. 10 kg weight will reach the floor first.
Unlike universal gravitational constant, the value of IV. It is not possible to indicate which of the two will
acceleration due to gravity is not constant on the reach the floor first without further data.
surface of the Earth. It varies from place to place (a) I and II (b) II and IV
and thus, the weight of a body changes from place (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
to place. The value of acceleration due to gravity on 3. Read the following and answer the questions from
the surface of the earth at its equator is taken as (i) to (iv) given below
standard and is equal to 9.8 ms − 2 . Disease is any harmful deviation from the normal
(i) The weight of a body is the force with which a structural and functional state of an organism. It is
body is attracted by the earth towards its centre. generally associated with certain signs and
What is the weight of an object at the point A symptoms and differs in nature.
shown in figure?
The study of disease is called pathology. It involves
the determination of the cause of the disease, the
understanding of the mechanisms of its
development, the structural changes associated
A Earth with the disease process and the functional
consequences of these changes observed. The
process concludes by identifying the proper course
(a) Zero (b) Infinite
of treatment.
(c) R times the weight at the surface of earth
1 Causes of disease can be classified into
(d) 2 times the weight at the surface of earth
R 1. First level of causes (Pathogen)
2. Second level of causes (Lack of balanced diet)
(ii) Where will it be profitable to purchase one
kilogram sugar? 3. Third level of causes (Poverty)
(a) At poles (b) At equator (i) Give examples of first level causes of diseases.
(c) At 45° latitude (d) At 40° latitude (ii) Aman is suffering from bleeding gums. Explain the
(iii) Which of the following graphs correctly represents level of cause of disease that he might be suffering
the variation of g on earth. from.
(iii) Sohail’s family lives in a slum area where they lack
g g
even the basic public services. They face poor
(a) (b) economic condition. Some members of his family
suffer from other illnesses also. What could be the
level of cause of their illness?
R r R r (iv) Name two diseases that are caused due to
immediate cause.
g g
Or
(c) (d) What are infectious agents?
r r
Section B
1 4. It was diagnosed that a patient has lost the power of
(iv) The value of g on the moon is th that on the
6 fighting against any infection.
earth. A body weighing 60 N on the earth, has (i) Name the disease from which the patient is
weight on the moon as suffering from.
(a) 20 N (b) zero
(ii) Name the pathogen responsible for the disease. [2M]
(c) 360 N (d) 10 N
102 CBSE Term II Science IX
Or Or
What is the purpose of dividing infectious diseases A body of mass 20 kg is raised to the top of a building
into various categories? [2M] 15 m high and then dropped freely under gravity.
5. Find out the valency of atoms represented by the (i) Find out the work done in raising the body to the
following figures. top of the building. [Ans. 3000 J]
(ii) What will be the value of gravitational potential
energy at the top of the building? [Ans. 3000 J]
(iii) By what factor will the gravitational potential
(i) + (ii) + energy of the same body increases, if it is raised to
the top of a multi-storey building 45 m high?
[Ans. 3 times]
(iv) When will the kinetic energy of the body be
maximum?
10. Find the ratio by mass of the combining elements in
(iii) + (iv) + the following compounds
(i) CaCO 3 (ii) MgCl 2
[2M] (iii) H 2SO 4 (iv) C 2 H 5OH
6. Differentiate between immediate and contributory (v) NH 3 (vi) Ca(OH) 2
causes of a disease. [3M] Or
14
Or An element 7 A exists as diatomic gas in nature
List the factors responsible for soil formation. [3M]
which is relatively inert and forms 78% of earth’s
atmosphere.
7. (i) What are inert elements? Why are they called so? (i) Identify the gas and write its molecular formula.
(ii) What is the valency of these elements and why? Write the formulae of nitrite and nitrate ions.
(iii) How many electrons can be accommodated in a (ii) How many moles of this gas would contain
M and N-shell? 12.044 × 10 23 atoms of this element?
Or [Avogadro’s number = 6.022 × 1023 ]
[Ans. 12.044 × 10 23]
Explain Bohr and Bury rules for distribution of
electrons into different shells. [3M]
(iii) Calculate the molecular mass of
(a) NH4 NO3 and (b) HNO3
8. Find the ratio of gravitational potential energy, if
height of an object is doubled and mass is tripled. [Given atomic masses N = 14 u, O = 16 u, H = 1 u]
[Ans. 80 u and 63 u]
Also, find the ratio of work done by gravity in
bringing the object to zero height in both cases. [3M] 11. Verify by calculating that
[Ans. 6 : 1, 6 : 1] (i) 5 moles of CO2 and 5 moles of H2 O do not have the
same mass.
Section C (ii) 240 g of calcium and 240 g magnesium elements
have a mole ratio of 3 : 5.
9. (i) A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy
changes involved in the process.
Or
A silver ornament of mass m gram is polished with
(ii) Calculate the amount of work needed to stop a car
gold equivalent to 1% of the mass of silver. Compute the
of 500 kg moving at a speed of 36 kmh −1 .
[Ans. − 25000 Js −1] ratio of the number of atoms of gold and silver in the
ornament. [Ans. 108 : 19700]
Answers
1. (i) - (c); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a, b) 2. (i) - (a); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (d, d)
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