Operational Procedures: General Annex 6 Parts I, II and III

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
GENERAL
Annex 6 parts I, II and III
1. An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7
to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:
A – 1 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger
compartment
B – 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger
compartment
C – 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger
compartment
D – 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger
compartment
Ans: A
2. The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be
inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be
observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
A – the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
B – the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
C – the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
D – the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
Ans: A
3. The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in
flight and located at the tip of the left wing is:
A – 140o
B – 110o
C – 70o
D – 220o
Ans: B
4. For aircraft specified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder must
keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:
A – flight
B – 25 hours of operation
C – 30 minutes of operation
D – 48 hours of operation
Ans: C
5. An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach
procedure which is based upon the use of a VOR is not lower than:
A – 150 ft
B – 200 ft
C – 250 ft
D – 300 ft
Ans: D
6. When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or
disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)
A – All the flight crew be on board
B – The aircraft’s stairs be completely extended
C – Refuelling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or
disembarking
D – Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified
personnel on board
Ans: D
7. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft
coming from the front right will first see the:
A – green flashing light
B – green steady light
C – white steady light
D – red steady light
Ans: D
8. The validity period of a certificate of airworthiness varies with the conditions
under which the aircraft is maintained. If the maintenance is carried out
according to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop
approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:
A – three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others
B – three years
C – three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the others
D – three years if the aircraft has not undergone major modifications
Ans: B
9. Before any flight is commenced, forms have to be completed certifying that
the aeroplane is airworthy. Who has to be satisfied that the aeroplane is
airworthy?
A – The commander
B – The operator
C – The maintenance supervisor
D – a JAA authorised person
Ans: A
10. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight
rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the
aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative
destination, are: (Annex 6, Part l)
A – At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum
conditions required for aerodrome use
B – At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum
C – At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and
after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum
D – At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions
required for aerodrome use
Ans: A
11. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that flight can be
safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and
secured? (Annex 6, Part ll)
A – The operator
B – The captain
C – The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot
D – the company’s cargo technicians
Ans: B
12. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the
scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing
distance multiplied by a factor of:
A – 0.5
B – 0.7
C – 0.6
D – 0.8
Ans: C
13. Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be
sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold
(jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
A – 80% of the landing distance available
B – 70% of the landing distance available
C – 60% of the landing distance available
D – 50% of the landing distance available
Ans: C
14. The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be
operable on board any aircraft of more than 5,700 kg or more than 9
passengers during at least:
A – 15 minutes
B – 60 minutes
C – 30 minutes
D – 2 hours
Ans: C
The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an
operator must not be less than:
A – 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft
during the last 90 days
B – 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft
during the last 90 days
C – 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft
during the last 6 months
D – 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft
during the last 6 months
Ans: B
15. The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in
flight and located at the rear of the aircraft, is:
A – 140o
B – 100o
C – 70o
D – 220
Ans: A
16. The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required
equipment approved by: (Annex 6, Part l)
A – The country where the aircraft is operated
B – The country where the aircraft was manufactured
C – The country of the operator
D – It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation authorities
Ans: C
17. The rgulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with
a coverage angle of:
A – 70o
B – 140o
C – 110o
D – 220o
Ans: C
18. For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance
on at alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance
multiplied by a factor of:
A – 0.7
B – 0.6
C – 0.5
D – 0.8
Ans: A
19. On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft
is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of
the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin
depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure
altitude is greater than:
A – 12,000 ft
B – 11,000 ft
C – 10,000 ft
D – 13,000 ft
Ans: C
20. The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take
the following into account:
1. equipment available for navigation
2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. composition of the flight crew
4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A – 1, 2, 4, 5
B – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C – 2, 4, 5
D – 2, 3, 5
Ans: B
21. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
A – from take off to landing
B – only during take off and landing
C – only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the
commander in the interest of safety
D – while at their station
Ans: D
22. The minimum time track is a track defined for:
A – a period of 12 hours
B – a given travel
C – a period of 24 hours
D – aircraft flying in MNPS airspace
Ans: B
23. On over-water flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance
away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater
than that corresponding to:
A – 400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed
B – 300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed
C – 200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed
D – 100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed
Ans: A
24. The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
A – the operator
B – the manufacturer
C – the aircraft manufacturers list
D – the aircraft state of registry
Ans: B
25. Who shall provide the flight operations personal with an operations manual
and also issue the amendments to keep it up to date?
A – Owner of the aircraft
B – Aircraft producer
C – Aircraft operator
D – ATS authority of the state of registry
Ans: C
26. For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance
that: (Annex 6, Part l)
A – Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising
speed all engines operating
B – Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time at cruising
speed with only one engine operative
C – Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed
all engines operating
D – Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising
speed with only one engine operative
Ans: D
27. When must a radiation indicator be carried?
A – For flights above 29,000 ft
B – For flights above 39,000 ft
C – For flights above 49,000 ft
D – For flights above 59,000 ft
Ans: C
Who accepts the MEL?
A – The country where the flight takes place
B – The country of the operator
C – The country of the designers
D – The country of the manufacturers
Ans: B
28. On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied
with oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during
which the pressure altitude is between:
A – 10,000 ft and 12,000 ft
B – 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft
C – 11,000 ft and 13,000 ft
D – 11,000 ft and 12,000 ft
Ans: B
29. A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away
from the shore by more than:
A – 100 NM
B – 50 NM
C – 200 NM
D – 400 NM
Ans: B
30. An aeroplane flying at 30,000 ft would be required to provide oxygen
dispensing units in the passenger cabin for:
A – the total number of passengers + 10%
B – the total number of passengers
C – the total number of seats
D – the total number of seats + at least 10% additional units
Ans: D
31. Who compiles the MEL and where does it go?
A – The manufacturer and in the Flight Manual
B – The manufacturer and in the Operations Manual
C – The operator and in the Flight Manual
D – The operator and in the Operations Manual
Ans: D
32. A modern aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its
certified take-off gross weight is greater than:
A – 27,000 kg
B – 5,700 kg
C – 20,000 kg
D – 14,000 kg
Ans: B
33. Who makes up the MMEL?
A – The operator
B – The manufacturer and it must be approved by the state of certification
C – The authority
D – The state of registry
Ans: B
A transport category aircraft suffers an unserviceability on the ground prior to
take-off. What document do you refer to?
A – Aircraft Operating Manual
B – Minimum Equipment List
C – JAR OPS 1
D – Operations Manual – relevant chapter
Ans: B
34. FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:
A – 30 hours of operation
C – 25 hours of operation
D – The whole flight
Ans: C
35. When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome
elevation?
A – Te threshold is more than 2m above the ARP
B – The threshold is less than 2m above the ARP
C – The threshold is less than 2m below the ARP
D – The threshold is more than 2m below the ARP
Ans: D
36. When you have been unlawfully interfered with the commander is required to
inform certain people:
(i) State of the Operator
(ii) ICAO
(iii) State of registration of aircraft
(iv) JAA
A – (i), (ii) and (iii)
B – (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C – (i), (iii) and (iv)
D – all of the abov
Ans: A
37. To operate an aircraft as commander a pilot must have:
A – Carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same
type or a flight simulator in the preceding 60 days
B – Carried out at least 5 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same
C – Carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same
D – Carried out at least 5 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same
Ans: C
38. An aeroplane with one passenger deck, is configured with 61 seats. The
required number of megaphones on board is:
A–0
B–1
C–2
D – 2 if the seating capacity with one passenger deck is 31
Ans: B
39. Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped:
(Annex 6, Part l)
A – As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument

flight rules
B – Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights
C – With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icy
conditions)
D – As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must
also possess indicators of attitude and course, along with a precise
barometric altimeter
Ans: A
On board a non-pressurised aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with
oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
A – 12,000 ft
B – 11,000 ft
C – 10,000 ft
D – 13,000 ft
Ans: D
40. For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on
board any pressurised aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than:
A – 13,000 ft
B – 29,000 ft
C – 10,000 ft
D – 25,000 ft
Ans: D
41. Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of
passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful
interference until their journey can be continued?
A – JAA
B – Commander of the aircraft
C – Aeroplanes operator
D – Contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs
Ans: D
42. What is the requirement regarding the carriage of a CVR for aircraft registered
before April 1998?
A – Record last 30 mins of flight
B – Record for the duration of the flight
C – Record the last 25 hours of operation
D – Record the last 48 hours of flight
Ans: A
43. Is it necessary to carry the entire Operations Manual on each flight?
A – No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight and those
concerning crew duty
B – No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight
C – Yes
D – No, only the parts concerning crew dut
Ans: A
44. To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have:
A – acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days
B – acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days
C – acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days
D – been at the controls for landing in the same type recently
Ans: A
45. A copy of which of the following documents must be kept on the ground by an
operator for the duration of each flight?
A – The journey log
B – The ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan
C – The operational flight plan
D – The meteorological forecast
Ans: C
46. A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over:
A – 20,000 kg
B – 5,700 kg
C – 10,000 kg
D – 7,000 kg
Ans: B
47. Oxygen should be supplied for all crew members and some passengers above
which altitude:
A – 10,000 ft
B – 12,000 ft
C – 13,000 ft
D – 11,000 ft
Ans: A
48. What is the oxygen requirement for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an
un-pressurised aircraft:
A – 10,000 ft
B – 11,000 ft
C – 12,000 ft
D – 13,000
Ans: D
49. What manuals are to be carried on board the aircraft?
A – Operations Manual in toto
B – Company instructions for all flight crew
C – All those specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness
D – Relevant parts of the ops manual and AFM
Ans: D
50. From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on
an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be observed:
A – Green
B – Red
C – White
D – All of the above
Ans: B
51. First Aid (therapeutic) oxygen is carried for which of the following:
A – All crew and passengers in the event of an unexpected rapid
depressurisation
B – The crew in the event of noxious fumes entering the flight deck
C – 30% of passengers between 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft
D – Any passengers who require it for pathological respiratory disorders
Ans: D
52. A helicopter with a Maximum take-off mass exceeding 5,700 kg conducting
Helicopter Emergency Medical Service shall be operated in accordance with:
A – performance class 1 at night, 1 or 2 by daylight
B – performance class 1 or 2
C – performance class 1
D – any class of performance due to the emergency situation
Ans: C
53. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeng an aircraft
coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see
the:
A – red light
B – green light
C – white light
D – red and white flashing light
Ans: B
54. For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:
A – provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13000
ft after 30 minutes
B – protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious
gases
C – protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation
D – provide undiluted oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons,
might require oxygen following a cabin depressurisation
Ans: B
55. What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?
A – Simulator flying skills
B – The ability to land safely
C – Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR
D – The ability to conform with set procedures
Ans: C
56. How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?
A – No less than 6 months between checks
B – 2 checks every 13 months
C – 3 checks within the year with no less than 4 months between checks
D – 2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks
Ans: D
57. Coverage of permanently illuminated white lights at the rear of the aircraft is:
A – 140o
B – 70o
C – 110o
D – 220o
Ans: A
58. 22784. What is VAT?
A – VSO x 1.3
B – VS1G x 1.3
C – The lesser of VSO or VSIG
D – VSO x 1.23
Ans: A
What is the definition of a minimum time route?
A – Closest diversion on route
B – Shortest distance between two points of a route
C – Shortest time between dest and dep adhering to ATC restrictions
D – Route using the least amount of fuel
Ans: C
59. Regarding an observer in the cockpit seeing an aeroplane coming from the
forward left, what colour is the first light seen (at night)?
A – Flashing white
B – Steady red
C – Steady green
D – Steady white
Ans: C
Through what angle can the green navigation light be seen?
A – 70o
B – 110o
C – 130o
D – 140o
Ans: B
60. If you are squawking 3770 and have a ‘transponder’ failure, what do you
squawk?
A – 0000
B – 3770
C – 4096
D – 7600
Ans: A
The abbreviation AOC stands for:
A – Aircrew operators certificate
B – Air operator competence
C – Aircraft operations certificate
D – Air operators certificate
Ans: D
What is the definition of a damp runway?
A – Surface not dry but moisture does not give the surface a shiny appearance
B – Surface dry but moisture does not give the surface a shiny appearance
C – Surface not dry and moisture gives the surface a shiny appearance
D – Surface dry and moisture gives the surface a shiny appearance
Ans: A
61. Therapeutic oxygen carried on a pressurised aircraft is used for:
A – passengers following a decompression
B – passengers or crew when required
C – crew only
D – passengers notified as having a medical condition
Ans: B
62. Annexes to the Chicago Convention contain:
A – Standards and approved Practices
B – Recommendations and Means of Compliance
C – Articles and Terms
D – Standards and Recommended Practices
Ans: D
When changing the transponder code for radar identification the selections to
be made are:
A – ON then STBY then ON
B – ON then STBY
C – STBY
D – OFF
Ans: A
071-01-02 JAR-OPS Requirements
1. The recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an
aircraft by an operator must not be less than:
A – 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or
approved simulator
B – 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or
approved simulator in the preceding 90 days
C – 3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months
D – 6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months
Ans: B
2. Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:
A – journey logbook
B – flight manual
C – operation manual
D – operational flight plan
Ans: C
3. During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is
referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if
the runway threshold is at more than:
A – 4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altitude
B – 2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude
C – 2 m (7 ft) below the airdrome altitude
D – 4 m (14 ft) above the airdrome altitude
Ans: C
4. Which of the following forms or information are NOT required to be carried
on all flight?
1. The Operational Flight Plan (OFP)
2. Mass and Balance Documentation
3. NOTAMS
4. The Technical Log
5. Maps and Charts
6. Passenger and Cargo Manifests
A – All except 1
B – All except 3
C – All except 6
D – All except 4
Ans: C
5. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not
operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless:
A – he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying
in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision
of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days
B – he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an
aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the
preceding 90 days
C – he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying
in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in
the preceding 90 days
D – he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying
in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in
the preceding 30 days
Ans: C
6. During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a
portable device suspected to disturb the aircraft electronic systems. The
captain:
A – authorises its use during the whole flight phase
B – authorises its use except during take-off and landing phases
C – must not authorise any person to use such a device on board
D – may authorise the use of this device, as an exception
Ans: C
7. During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate
services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crews
operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be
continued is:
A – the start final descent point (glide slope intersection)
B – the FAF
C – the middle marker
D – the outer marker (O
Ans: D
8. An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants
(including pilot). The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children
(5 and 6 years old). The boarding of all passengers is:
A – authorised, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the
same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to
release their seat belt if necessary
B – authorised, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using
the same seat belt. No other particular precautions are necessary
C – forbidden
D – authorised, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the
same seat and using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat
next to them in order to release their seat belt
Ans: C
9. The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:
A – the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft
B – the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them
C – the aircraft used by police, customs and defence departments
D – the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial
transport aircraft
Ans: D
10. For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may
be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
A – 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable
B – 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable
C – 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running
D – 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running
Ans: A
11. Supplemental oxygen is used to:
A – provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation
B – protect a crew who fights a fire
C – provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin
depressurisation
D – assist a passenger with breathing disorders
.Ans: A
After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder
must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
A – 60 days
B – 30 days
C – 90 days
D – 45 days
Ans: A
The operator is required to ensure that certain persons are to be permitted
access to the flight deck providing the Commander is satisfied that his
aeroplane is not endangered. Who are the permitted personnel?
A – JAR-145 qualified engineers
B – IATA Quality Assurance assessors
C – Security Officers
D – Persons authorised by the Authority
Ans: D
12. In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a
minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a
second pilot?
A – If the flight lasts more than 3 hours
B – If the aircraft is a twin-engine
C – If part or all the flight is done at night
D – Never
Ans: D
13. An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach
procedure which is based upon the use of an ILS (glide slope out) is not lower
than:
A – 150 ft
B – 200 ft
C – 250 ft
D – 300 ft
Ans: C
14. The NO SMOKING sign must be illuminated:
A – when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin
B – during climb and descent
C – in each cabin section if oxygen is being carried
D – during take-off and landi
Ans: A
15. Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of
information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It contains
more particularly:
1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at
destination
2. One copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and
balance sheet
3. Copies of the relevant parts of the aircrafts material report
4. The en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the
operator
5. Notification for special loadings
6. For each flight, details of the days performances and limitations with
completed charts
A – 2, 3, 4, 5
B – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C – 1, 3, 5
D – 2, 4
Ans: A
16. An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the
ground, if required:
A – a copy of the weight and balance sheet
B – a copy of the calculated take-off performances
C – the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity
D – the aircraft equipment report (log book)
Ans: A
17. What is a dry lease?
A – Where the person leasing the aeroplane is responsible fuel etc
B – Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person to whom it
is leased
C – Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person from who it
is leased
D – Where the leased aeroplane comes complete with flight crew
Ans: B
18. The JAR-OPS is based on:
A – ICAO Appendix 6
B – The air transport rules
C – The Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)
D – A JAA guideline
Ans: A
19. The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the airplane.
He:
A – can request a delay of 48 hours
B – must do so, within a reasonable period of time
C – can refuse to present them
D – can only do so after having consulted the operator
Ans: B
20. Where can you carry safety matches?
(i) On your person
(ii) Hand baggage
(iii) Checked in luggage
A – (i), (ii)
B – (i), (ii), (iii)
C – (i), (iii)
D – (ii), (iii)
Ans: A
21. What is required for navigation in IMC?
A – Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until the visual point
B – Anti-icing equipment
C – A serviceable weather radar
D – One VHF box and one HF box
Ans: A
22. The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:
1. the training
2. the test results
3. a log of flying hours
4. a summary of the training by reference period
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?
A – 1, 2, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 3
C – 2, 3
D – 3, 4
Ans: A
23. As cabin altitude increases, what happens to the differential pressure?
A – Decreases
B – Increases
C – Stays the same
D – None of the above
Ans: A
24. What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?
A – Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority
B – Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes
C – Have registered offices in all countries of operations
D – Have facilities for all maintenance
Ans: A
During a night flight, an observer on the flight deck first sees an aircraft
coming in from the front right. The light observed would be a:
A – Steady green light
B – Steady white light
C – Flashing green light
D – Steady red light
Ans: D
25. Which of the following are the duties of a Flight Dispatch Officer?
(i) Assist the pilot-in-command in flight preparation and provide the
relevant information required
(ii) Assist the pilot-in-command in preparing the operational and ATS
flight plans, sign when applicable and file the ATS flight plan with the
appropriate ATS unit
(iii) Furnish the pilot-in-command while in flight, by appropriate means,
with information, which may be necessary for the safe conduct of the
flight
(iv) In the event of an emergency, initiate such procedures as may be
outlined in the operations manual
A – (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
B – (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
C – (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
D – All statements are correct
Ans: D
26. The operator may not operate aircraft that do not conform to the ditching
requirements over water further away from a suitable landing field than:
A – 100 nm or 30 min at cruise speed
B – 200 nm or 45 min at cruise speed
C – 300 nm or 90 min at cruise speed
D – 400 nm or 120 min at cruise spee
Ans: D
27. The period of validity of an operator proficiency check is:
A – 6 months
B – 12 months
C – 18 months
D – 2 years
Ans: A
Above what altitude are quick-donning masks required:
A – 25,000
B – 15,000
C – 10,000
D – 32,000
Ans: A
Damp lease is:
A – One operator leases out, or in, just the aeroplane no crew is involved
B – The aeroplane and a full crew
C – The lessor provides the aeroplane plus cockpit crew and the lessee
provides the cabin crew
Ans: C
28. Destination alternate for a turbojet – what is the required fuel overhead?
A – 30 minutes at cruise speed
B – 30 minutes at 1,500 in standard conditions
C – 2 hours at 1,500 in standard conditions
D – 30 minutes at endurance speed
Ans: B
29. For a medium then a light aeroplane on the approach, what is the required
separation?
A – 2 mins
B – 3 mins
C – 1 min
D – 4 mins
Ans: B
30. DH is used in a:
A – Non precision approach
B – Precision approach
C – Un-centred approach
D – Centred approach
Ans: B
31. When must the No Smoking sign be illuminated:
A – Take-off and landing
B – When oxygen is being supplied to the cabin
C – When oxygen containers are carried in the passenger compartment
Ans: B
32. The MEL is drawn up:
A – the operator
B – by the manufacturers aircraft list
C – by the manufacturer
D – by the state of registration
Ans: A
An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach
procedure which is based upon the use of a VOR/DME is not lower than:
A - 150 ft
B – 200 ft
C – 250 ft
D – 300 ft
Ans: C
33. With a heavy aircraft then a medium landing on the same runway, what are the
minimum distance and time criteria:
A – 5 nm and 2 mins
B – 5 nm and 3 mins
C – 4 nm and 2 mins
D – 6 nm and 3 mins
Ans: A
34. What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment?
A – The failure of one piece does not affect another
B – All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight
C – All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications
D – if one piece of equipment fails there must be a spare available
Ans: A
35. For an aeroplane powered by turbo-jet engines, the fuel and oil to be carried is
at least the amount sufficient to allow the aeroplane:
A – to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach, at the aerodrome
to which the flight is planned and thereafter to fly to the alternate
aerodrome specified in the operational flight plan and ATS flight plans;
and then to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 450m (1,500 ft) above
the alternate aerodrome under standard temperature conditions and
approach and land; and
B – to have an additional amount of fuel sufficient to provide for the increased
consumption on the occurrence of any of the potential contingencies
specified by the operator to the satisfaction of the State of the operator; or
C – to fly to the alternate aerodrome via any predetermined point and
thereafter for 30 minutes at 450m (1500 ft) above the alternate aerodrome
Ans: D
36. When landing in heavy rain:
A – Decrease air speed on landing, area may be more slippery
B – Increase air speed as rain affects boundary layer
C – Keep the speed the same until landing
D – Decrease the landing speed to stick shaker
Ans: B
37. During a flight, the captain is informed that a passenger is using a portable
electronic device, which is adversely affecting the aircraft’s electrical
avionics. The captain must:
A – Stop the passenger from using the device
B – Allow the device to be used at take-off and landing
C – Allow the device to be used from take-off to landing
D – Allow the device to be used for certain exceptions
Ans: A
38. Following an electrical failure, the emergency lighting unit must provide
illumination for:
A – 90 secs
B – 5 mins
C – 10 mins
D – 30 mins
Ans: C
39. When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or
disembarking:
A – Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are
embarking/disembarking
B – All flight crew must be on board
C – Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew
on board
D – The stairs shall be fully extended
Ans: C
When are flight crew allowed to leave their stations?
A – In the performance of their duties
B – At any time specified by the operations manual
C – When having lunch
D – Only when the captain allows it
Ans: A
40. The term decision height (DH) is used for:
A – an indirect approach
B – a conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuvre
C – a precision approach
D – a conventional approach
Ans: C
41. A category 1 precision approach (CAT 1) is an approach which may be carried
out with a runway visual range of at least:
A – 800 m
B – 500 m
C – 550 m
D – 350 m
Ans: C
42. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft
coming from the front left, will first see the:
A – white steady light
B – green flashing light
C – green steady light
D – red steady light
Ans: C
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Ae4rodrom Operating Minima), an
operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach
procedures, which are based upon the use of ILS without glide path (LLZ
only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value
with:
A – NDB facility, lowest MDH = 300 ft
B – ILS facility without glide path (localiser) lowest MDH = 200 ft
C – VOR facility, lowest MDH = 250 ft
D – VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH = 300 ft
Ans: A
JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight
controls during take-off and landing unless:
A – he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co-
pilot at the controls of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
B – he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during
take-off and landing of the type to be used in the preceding 90 days
C – he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off
and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the
type used, in the preceding 90 days
D – he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off
and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the
type used, in the preceding 30 days
Ans: B
43. An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the
ground a copy of the:
A – operation flight plan
B – ATC (Mr Traffic Control) flight plan
C – flight plan processing
D – flight route sheet
Ans: A
44. 15377. What is the angle of the red navigation light?
A – 90o
B – 110o
C – 140o
D – 70o
Ans: B
45. What is conversion angle?
A – Ch long x sin lat.
B – Ch long x ½ cos lat.
C – Ch long x ½ sin lat.
D – Ch long x cos lat
Ans: C.
46. The minimum crew for all turbo propeller aeroplanes is 2 when:
A – There are 9 or more passengers carried
B – The seating configuration is more than 9
C – The seating configuration is more than 19
D – There are more than 19 passengers carried
Ans: B
47. An observer in the cockpit sees an aeroplane closing from the forward left,
what colour is the first light seen (at night)?
A – Flashing white
B – Steady red
C – Steady green
D – Steady white
Ans: C
48. According to JAR OPS, a transport aircraft carrying passengers with a door to
the flight deck must:
A – Have distinctive red or yellow access marks in case of blockage
B – Have a pressure seal to maintain pressure in event of cabin pressure loss
C – Be lockable from the inside to prevent unauthorised access
D – Be lockable from the outside
Ans: C
49. With reference to the retention of documents how long must command course
records be kept by the operator:
A – 3 months
B – 15 months
C – 24 months
D – 3 years
Ans: D
50. Aeroplanes with a take-off mass greater than 5.700 kg shall be fitted with an
independent automatically operated emergency power supply to operate and
illuminate the artificial horizon for:
A – 15 mins
B – 30 mins
C – 60 mins
D – 2 hours
Ans: B
51. What is the co-pilot currency requirement?
A – 3 flights in the last 90 days
B – 3 take-offs and landings in the last 60 days
C – At the controls for 3 flights in the last 60 days
D – At the controls for 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days
Ans: D
52. The first part of JAR-OPS is applicable to:
A – Civil Air transport
B – International Commercial Air Transport of JAA state members
C – Military & Police Transport
D – Any operations overflying JAA states
Ans: B
53. An aeroplane door would be rendered inoperative for the following
unserviceabilities:
1. External opening mechanism
2. Internal opening mechanism
3. The emergency lighting
4. Doors hold open device
5. The door open assist device
6. Slide unserviceable
A – all of the above
B – 1, 2, 5, 6
C – 2, 3, 4 , 6
D – 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: A
54. A pilot is not able to operate as pilot-in-command unless:
A – He has completed 3 take-offs and landings in any aircraft or approved
simulator within the previous 60 days
B – He has completed 3 flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or
approved simulator of the type to be used in the previous 90 days
C – He has completed 3 flights as pilot in an aeroplane or simulator of the
same type to be used within the previous 30 days
D – He has completed 3 take-offs and landings in an aeroplane or approved
simulator of the same type to be used within the previous 90 days
Ans: D
55. The first part of the JAR OPS document relates to:
A – Aircraft proceeding from or over flying European States
B – JAA state operators flying civil commercial air transport aeroplanes
C – Aeroplanes in the police/defence
D – Treatment of passengers with pathological respiratory disorders
Ans: B
56. Regarding the FDR and CVR, which of the following statements is true:
A – All commercial aircraft above 15.000 kg have to carry both a FDR and
CVR
B – The CVR monitors all human voice exchanges on the flight deck
throughout the flight keeping the last 30 minutes as a hard copy
C – A FDR shall be capable of retaining recorded information for at least the
last 24 hours of operation
D – A Type 1 recorder retains information recorded during the last 30 minutes
of operation
Ans: B
57. The JAR-OPS document is based on:
A – Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)
B – A JAA guide line
C – Rules of the Air
D – ICAO Annex 6
Ans: D
58. If there is unauthorised use of equipment that affects the aeroplane’s system,
the commander:
A – may authorise its use for take-off and landing
B – must not authorise its use
C – may authorise its use for the whole flight
D – may authorise its use at his discretion
Ans: B
59. After an incident, the FDR recordings must be kept for:
A – 30 days
B – 60 days
C – 90 days
D – 120 days
Ans: B
60. What allows a pilot to act as co-pilot for take-off and landing?
A – Performed a flight in the previous 90 days
B – Operated as PIC or as co-pilot at the controls for a take-off and landing in
the previous 90 days
C – Performed at least 3 landings and take-offs in the previous 90 days
D – Performed at least 9 landings and take-offs in the previous 90 days
Ans: B
61. Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at
least the last:
C – flight
D – 30 hours of operation
Ans: B
62. SVFR may not be commenced when the visibility is less than:
A – 1.5 km
B – 3 km
C – 5 km
D – 6 km
Ans: B
63. According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation
minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
A – MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
B – MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an
intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m
C – LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an
intermediate part of the same runway
D – LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
Ans: A
64. According to JAR-OPS 1 Subpart K, in an aeroplane with a maximum
configuration of more than 19 passengers, the door between the passenger
compartment and the flight deck compartment shall have locking means:
A – capable of being locked only from outside the flight deck compartment
B – to prevent passengers from opening it without permission of a member of
the flight crew
C – capable of being remotely locked by cabin crew from outside the flight
deck compartment
D – capable of being remotely locked from either inside or outside the flight
deck compartment
Ans: B
65. According to JAR-OPS 1, a public address system is required to operate an
aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more
than:
A – 61
B – 30
C–9
D – 19
Ans: D
66. According to JAR-OPS 1, a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain
a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation is required at each pilot
station to operate an aeroplane with a:
A – maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 6 seats
B – maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 15000 kg
C – maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 9 seats
D – maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 5700 kg
Ans: D
67. According to JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger
seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with:
A – two hand fire-extinguishers on the flight deck and two hand fire-
extinguishers in the passenger compartment
B – one hand fire-extinguisher on the flight deck and two hand fire-
extinguishers in the passenger compartment
C – three hand fire-extinguishers in the passenger compartment
D – one hand fire-extinguisher on the flight deck and one hand fire-
extinguisher in the passenger compartment
Ans: D
68. According to JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger
seating configuration is 200 must be equipped with:
A – 4 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment
B – 5 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment
C – 7 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment
D – 3 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment
Ans: D
69. According to JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall not operate across areas in which
search and rescue would be especially difficult, unless it is equipped with:
1. signalling equipment
2. at least one ELT
3. at least 2 ELTs
4. additional survival equipment
A – 1, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 4
C – 1, 4
D – 2, 4
Ans: B
70. According to JAR-OPS 1 for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off
mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data
recorded during at least the last:
C – 25 flights
D – 10 flight
Ans: B
71. According to JAR-OPS 1, the minimum number of crash axes or crowbars on
board an aeroplane, whose maximum approved passenger seating
configuration is more than 200, is:
A–4
B–1
C–3
D–2
Ans: D
According to JAR-OPS 1, the recent experience conditions of a commander
assigned to a flight on an aeroplane by an operator must not be less than:
A – 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or
approved simulator, of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90
days
B – 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or
approved simulator, of the aeroplane type to be used
C – 6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months
D – 3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aeroplane during the last 6
month
Ans: A
72. According to JAR-OPS at least one of the following hand fire extinguishers
must be conveniently located on the flight deck:
A – a foam fire-extinguisher
B – a water fire-extinguisher
C – a powder fire-extinguisher
D – a halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent
Ans: D
73. According to JAR-OPS, for a non-pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers
shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
A – the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft
B – the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft
C – the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than
10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
D – the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any
period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not
exceeding 13000 ft
Ans: B
74. According to JAR-OPS, for a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew
members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
A – the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any
exceeding 13000 ft
C – the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft
D – the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than
Ans: A
75. According to JAR-OPS, for a non pressurised aircraft, the supplemental
oxygen is:
A – therapeutical oxygen specially carried for certain passengers
B – available for supply to passengers for physiological reasons
C – used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide
D – required to operate at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft
Ans: D
76. According to JAR-OPS, the minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be
located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved
passenger seating configuration of 31 is:
A–2
B–1
C–3
D–4
Ans: A
77. According to JAR-OPS, the public address system must be audible and
intelligible at:
1. all passenger seats
2. toilets
3. cabin crew seats
4. work stations
A–1
B – 1, 2
C – 1, 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 2, 3
Ans: C
78. According to JAR-OPS, when a flight data recorder is required, it must start
automatically to record the data:
A – when lining up
B – when taking-off
C – when the landing gear is retracted
D – prior to the aircraft being capable of moving under its own power
Ans: D
79. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation
minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
A – to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure
when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold, if the
projected flight paths are expected to cross
B – to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival
when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold
C – to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an
intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760m
D – Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed
approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilising an opposite-direction runway
for take-off
Ans: C
80. An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. In accordance with JAR-
OPS 1, the number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required is at
least:
A – 110% of the seating capacity
B – 150% of the seating capacity
C – 100% of the seating capacity plus one additional mask per seat block
D – 100% of the seating capacity plus one additional mask per seat row
Ans: A
81. An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg,
shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining
information recorded during at least the last:
A – 30 minutes or 1 hour of its operation, certificated take-off mass over 5700
kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining
information recorded during at least the last:
B – 30 minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first
issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness
C – 20 hours of its operation
D – 25 hours of its operation
Ans: B
82. An operator shall ensure that for the duration of each flight or series of flights,
relevant information is preserved on the ground. This includes:
A – a coy of the calculated take-off performance
B – mass and balance documentation, if required
C – the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity
D – meteorological information
Ans: B
83. Assuming 60 passengers on board a land aeroplane. The intended track will
overfly water for a distance of 80 NM from the shore. According to JAR-OPS
1, the minimum number of passenger life jackets to be on board is:
A–0
B – 66
C – 60
D – None if equipped with life rafts
Ans: C
84. Assuming a multi-engine land aeroplane with 60 persons on board. The
cruising speed is 180 kt. The aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight
with the critical power-unit becoming inoperative. The track will overfly
water for a distance of 380 NM from shore. The emergency equipment on
board must include:
A – 1 lift raft of 30-seat capacity and 2 life rafts of 20-seat capacity
B – 2 life rafts of 30-seat capacity
C – 3 life rafts of 30-seat capacity
D – none, distance being less than 400 NM
Ans: C
85. During an ILS procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the
applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond:
A – te glide slope intersection
B – the FAF, or 1500 ft above the aerodrome/heliport if there is no FAF
C – the middle marker, or 500 ft above the aerodrome/heliport if thereis no
middle marker
D – the outer marker or equivalent, or 1000 ft above the aerodrome/heliport if
there is no outer marker or equivalent
Ans: D
86. Following an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight
recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
A – 60 days
B – 30 days
C – 90 days
D – 45 days
Ans: A
87. For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has
a:
A – low mass and high airspeed
B – high mass and high airspeed
C – low mass and low airspeed
D – high mass and low airspeed
Ans: D
88. For three and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall
be located (in still air conditions) within:
A – 2 hours flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed
B – 2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
C – 1 hour flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed
D – 1 hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
Ans: A
89. For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-ioff alternate, if
required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
A – two hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
B – two hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed
C – one hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
D – one hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed
Ans: D
90. If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator
must:
A – not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast
B – take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed
C – take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate
aerodrome
D – select two destination alternates
Ans: D
91. In an aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety
belts and harnesses provided
1. during taxiing
2. during take-off
3. during landing
4. whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety
5. during other phases of flight
A – 1, 2, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 2, 3, 4, 5
Ans: C
92. In accordance with JAR OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima) for a
Category III A approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
A – 200 m
B – 250 m
C – 230 m
D – 300 m
Ans: A
93. In accordance with JAR OPS 1, the operator shall ensure that:
A – for VFR flights conducted in class E airspace, flight visibility at and
above 3050m (10000 ft) is at least 5 km (clear of cloud)
B – for VFR flights conducted in class B airspace, horizontal distance from
clouds is at least 1000m
C – for VFR flights conducted in class F airspace, vertical distance from
clouds is at least 250m
D – special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km
Ans: D
94. In accordance with JAR OPS, where no outer marker or equivalent position
exists, if the reported RVR/Visibility is less than the applicable minima, the
approach shall not be continued beyond:
A – 1000 ft above the aerodrome/heliport
B – the FAF
C – the middle marker
D – the glide slope intersection
Ans: A
95. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if required, the number of life rafts to be
carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire
aeroplane occupants:
A – in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity
B – plus 10%
C – plus 20%
D – plus 30%
Ans: A
96. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved
passenger seating configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at
least:
compartment
compartment
compartment
compartment
Ans: D
least:
compartment
compartment
C – 6 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger
compartment
D – 3 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger
compartment
Ans: B
least:
compartment
compartment
compartment
compartment
Ans: A
least:
compartment
compartment
compartment
D – 8 hand fire- extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger
compartment
Ans: C
least:
compartment
compartment
compartment
compartment
Ans: C
least:
compartment
compartment
compartment
compartment
Ans: C
passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped
(including flight deck) with at least:
A – 4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent
B – 2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent
C – 3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent
D – 1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent
Ans: C
passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped
with at least:
compartment
compartment
compartment
compartmen
Ans: C
104. In accordance ith JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass
exceeds 5,700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating
configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped
with a:
A – crash axe on the flight deck and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment
B – crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment
C – crash axe or a crow-bar on the flight deck
D – crow-bar on the flight deck and a crash axe in the passenger compartment
Ans: C
105. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane with a maximum approved
passenger seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its
passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:
A – 2 Halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent
B – 1 Halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent
C – 3 Halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent
D – no Halon fire-extinguisher
Ans: A
106. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly
at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight
deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no
case less than:
A – 1 hour
B – 30 minutes
C – 2 hours
D – 10 minutes
Ans: C
107. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for aeroplanes intended to be operated at
pressure altitude of 39000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units and
outlets shall exceed:
A – the number of seats by at least 10%
B – the number of seats
C – the number of passengers
D – the number of passengers by at least 10%
Ans: A
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, if the flight is to be carried out at FL 290,
demonstration about oxygen equipment must be completed before:
A – the aircraft reaches FL 100
B – take-off
C – the aircraft reaches FL 140
D – the aircraft reaches FL 250
Ans: B
108. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, in an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the
number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at least:
A – 5% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is
the greater
B – 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever
is the greater
C – 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever
is the greater
D – 20% of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever
is the greater
Ans: B
109. In accordance with AR-OPS 1, on aeroplanes intended to be operated at
pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units
shall exceed the number of:
A – seats by 2%
B – passengers by 10%
C – seats by 10%
D – passengers by 2%
Ans: C
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, regarding the first aid oxygen, the supply of
undiluted oxygen carried on board a pressurised aeroplane with 8 passengers
operated at pressure altitude 27000 ft, shall be sufficient for at least:
A – 1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation
when the cabin altitude exceeds 8000 ft
B – 2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation
when the cabin altitude exceeds 8000 ft
C – 1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation
when the cabin altitude only exceeds 14000 ft
D – 2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation
when the cabin altitude only exceeds 14000 ft
Ans: A
110. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the cockpit voice recorder, when required,
must start to record automatically:
A – prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of
flight when the parking brake is set
B – when the parking brake is released until the termination of flight when the
parking brake is set
C – when full thrust is applied until the termination of the flight when the
aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power
D – prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of
the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its
own power
Ans: D
111. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane
should have a final reserve fuel for:
A – 45 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation
in standard conditions
B – 30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation
in standard conditions
C – 30 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL 140
D – 45 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL 140
Ans: B
112. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
A – supply all the passengers in case of depressurisation
B – provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection
C – provide undiluted oxygen to passengers for physiological reasons
following a cabin depressurisation
D – provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurisation
Ans: C
113. In accordance with JAR-OPS, 10% of the passengers in a non-pressurised
aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time
after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:
A – 10,000 ft but not exceeding 15,000 ft
B – 14,000 ft but not exceeding 15,000 ft
C – 10,000 ft but not exceeding 13,000 ft
D – 10,000 ft but not exceeding 14,000 ft
Ans: C
In accordance with JAR-OPS, 100% of the passengers in a non-pressurised
aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at
pressure altitudes above:
A – 14,000 ft
B – 10,000 ft
C – 13,000 ft
D – 15,000 ft
Ans: C
114. In accordance with JAR-OPS, a commander shall ensure that the amount of
usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the fuel required to proceed to
an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:
A – fuel to fly 20 minutes at best range speed
B – 15 minutes of remaining fuel
C – fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the aerodrome
D – final reserve fuel remaining
Ans: D
115. In accordance with JAR-OPS, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck
duty in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen
for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
A – 15,000 ft
B – 10,000 ft
C – 13,000 ft
D – 14,000 ft
Ans: B
116. In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator shall ensure that a copy of the
operational flight plan is stored in an acceptable form for at least:
A – 12 months
B – 3 months
C – 15 months
D – 24 months
Ans: B
117. In accordance with JAR-OPS, during a VOR procedure, if the reported
RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be
continued beyond:
A – the middle marker, or 500 ft above the aerodrome/heliport if there is no
middle marker
B – the FAF, or 1500 ft above the aerodrome/heliport if there is no FAF
C – 1000 ft above the aerodrome/heliport on the final approach segment
D – the final path intersection
Ans: C
118. In accordance with JAR-OPS, for a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of
flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental
oxygen during:
A – the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any
exceeding 13000 ft
C – the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft
D – the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than
Ans: C
119. In accordance with JAR-OPS, on board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the
passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time,
after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:
A – 10,000 ft but not exceeding 13,000 ft
B – 10,000 ft but not exceeding 12,000 ft
C – 11,000 ft but not exceeding 13,000 ft
D – 11,000 ft but not exceeding 12,000 ft
Ans: A
In accordance with JAR-OPS, on board a non-pressurised aircraft, the crew
and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period
during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
A – 13,000 ft
B – 12,000 ft
C – 11,000 ft
D – 10,000 ft
Ans: A
120. In accordance with JAR-OPS, refuelling performed while passengers are
embarking or disembarking the aircraft:
A – is acceptable provided that all the aircraft doors must be completely
opened
B – is acceptable provided that the ground area beneath the exits intended for
emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear
C – is prohibited
D – is acceptable provided that all flight crew shall remain at their station
Ans: B
121. In accordance with JAR-OPS, the operator must ensure that the information
contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
A – 15 months
B – 3 months
C – 24 months
D – 12 months
Ans: C
In accordance with JAR-OPS the operator must ensure that the mass and
balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of:
A – 1month
B – 3 months
C – 6 months
D – 1 year
Ans: B
122. In accordance with JAR-OPS, when the flight data recorder is required, it must
stop automatically to record the data:
A – when the main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runway
B – after the aircraft is unable to move by its own power
C – when the landing gear is extended and locked
D – when the aircraft clears the runway
Ans: B
123. In accordance with JAR-OPS, which of the following are included in the
Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach?
1. the required RVR
2. the ceiling
3. the minimum descent height (MDH)
4. the decision height (DH)
A – 1, 2, 4
B – 1, 4
C – 1, 2, 3
D – 1, 3
Ans: D
124. In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (JAR-OPS 1), for
aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be
less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:
A – 2 hours at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel
B – 30 minutes at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel
C – 2 hours at holding consumption at 1500 ft (450m) above aerodrome
elevation in standard conditions
D – 30 minutes at holding consumption at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome
elevation in standard conditions
Ans: A
In accordance with the JAR-OPS, a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an
approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying passengers, must be
equipped with at least:
A – 1 megaphone
B – 2 megaphones
C – 2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board
D – 3 megaphones
Ans: A
125. JAR-OPS 1 requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls during
take-off and landing unless:
A – he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in
an aeroplane in the preceding 60 days
B – he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in
an aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the
aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 60 days
C – he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in
an aeroplane in the preceding 90 days
D – he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in
an aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the
aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 90 days
Ans: D
126. The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
A – 90 NM between aircraft flying above FL 285
B – 60 NM between all aircraft operating below MNPS airspace
C – 60 NM between aircraft meeting minimum navigation performance
specifications
D – 90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region
Ans: C
127. To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by JAR-OPS
1 is:
A – 3000 m
B – 1500 m
C – 2500 m
D – 5000 m
Ans: B
When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation
required to be carried on board, the commander:
A – can request a delay of 48 hours
B – shall comply within a reasonable period of time
C – can refuse to present them
D – shall only comply if authorised by the operator
Ans: B
128. Who is responsible for providing an Operation Manual in accordance with
JAR-OPS Subpart P for the use and guidance of the operations personnel?
A – The owner of the aircraft
B – The aircraft producer
C – The aircraft operator
D – The national authority
Ans: C
129. Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the
mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their
acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?
A – The commander
B – The operator
C – The flight engineer
D – The airline’s dispatcher
Ans: A
130. Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class
A aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20
or more over a route which contains a point further from an adequate
aerodrome, at a distance flown:
A – in60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed
B – in 30 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed
C – in 90 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed
D – in 120 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed
Ans: A
131. When are life jackets required
A – 50 nm from land
B – 100 nm from land
C – 300 nm from land
D – 400 nm from land
Ans: A
132. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight
rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the
aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternate
destination, are, at the predicted time of:
A – Take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for
aerodrome use
B – Arrival, and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time,
equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use
C – Arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for
aerodrome use
D – Arrival better that the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
Ans: C
133. When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations?
A – Take-off and landing
B – Throughout the flight
C – At all times other than take-off and landing
D – As specified in the operations manual
Ans: A
134. Who is the operator to provide an Operations Manual for:
A – Operations staff
B – All company personnel
C – Only for flight crew
D – For the Authority
Ans: A
135. Who is to ensure safe handling of flights?
A – The Operator
B – The Authority
C – The State of Registration
D – The Operations Officer
Ans: A
136. Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?
A – Operator
B – State of Registration
C – Captain
D – State of the Operator
Ans: C
137. What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts?
A – 30 mins or 120 nm whichever is less
B – 50 nm from land
C – 120 mins or 400 nm whichever is less
D – 60 mins flying time at the one engine out cruise speed
Ans: C
138. Who provides the operations personnel with the operations manual and the
amendments to keep it up to date?
A – Aircraft manufacturer
B – ATS authority of the state of registry
C – Aircraft operator
D – Owner of aircraft
Ans: C
A pilot in command:
Must comply with ATC instructions immediately
1. Is only responsible when airborne
2. May deviate in an emergency
3. May deviate from complying with rules of the air in order to comply with
an ATC instruction
4. May request a new clearance if unsatisfied
The correct combination is:
A – 1, 3, 4, 5
B – 3, 5
C – 3, 4, 5
Ans: B
139. A copy of what info is to be left on the ground?
A – Passenger manifests, notification of special passengers
B – Route specific maps and charts
C – NOTAMS, Tech log, Op flight plan, Mass and Balance, Spec load
notification
D – AICs, AISs, and all company NOTAMs
Ans: C
140. Which of the following is to be left on the ground?
A – The aeroplane noise certificate
B – The operations manual
C – Parts of the operations manual relevant to the flight
D – Operational flight plan
Ans:D
What are the ules on the carriage of PRMs?
A – Cannot impede the performance of crew duty
B – Must be seated away from emergency exits
C – No more than 5% of passengers may be PRMs
D – They must provide their own food
Ans: A
141. When can special VFR be commenced?
A – Visibility greater than 1500 m
B – Greater than 3 km vis
C – Visibility no more than 3000 m
D – Greater than 5 km vis
Ans: B
142. What is the minimum capacity of life rafts that must be provided for
passengers in the event of the aeroplane ditching?
A – Enough for 10%
B – Enough for 30%
C – To cover the loss of 2 life rafts
D – To cover the loss of a life raft of the greatest capacity
Ans: D
143. A VFR aircraft used for flight in controlled airspace should have:
A – Bearing indicator, accurate barometric altimeter
B – Equipment necessary for VFR flight
C – One VOR, ADF, DME and ILS
D – 2 radios and an SSR transponder
Ans: B
144. A VFT flight in controlled airspace needs:
A – Navigation equipment in accordance with VFR requirements
B – Navigation equipment in accordance with VFR requirements plus attitude
indicator and precise barometric indications
C – Navigation equipment in accordance with IFR requirements
D – More restrictive anti-icing systems
Ans: A
How many fire extinguishers are required in the cabin for a maximum seating
capacity of 31 pax?
A–1
B–2
C–3
D–4
Ans: B
145. An aeroplane has a max approved seating configuration of 61 to 200. How
many hand held fire extinguishers are required to be carried?
A – One on the flight deck and two in the passenger cabin
B – One on the flight deck and four in the passenger cabin
C – three in the passenger cabin only
D – One on the flight deck and three in the passenger cabin
Ans: D
146. If you have an aeroplane with 201 seats, how many crowbars/fire axes have to
be on the aeroplane?
A–1
B–4
C–2
D–3
Ans: C
147. An aeroplane has between 9 and 200 seats. Does it require?
A – A crash axe or crowbar in the cockpit
B – A crash axe in the cockpit, a crowbar in the cabin
C – A crowbar in the cockpit, a crash axe in the cabin
D – A crash axe or crowbar in the cabi
Ans: A
148. For aeroplanes having a maximum approved seating capacity between 61 –
200 passengers, the required number of portable Halon fire extinguishers
required on the aeroplane is:
A–3
B–2
C–1
D–5
Ans: A
149. When does a pilot start to physically become affected due to lack of oxygen,
above what level?
A – 8,000 ft
B – 14,000 ft
C – 24,000 ft
D – 6,000 ft
Ans: D
150. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum
non-radar separation time if a light aeroplane ( 700 kg or less) is following a
medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the
approach to landing?
A – 3 inutes
B – 2 minutes
C – 4 minutes
D – 5 minutes
Ans: A
151. For a light aircraft following a medium what is the minimum time for wake
turbulence separation (assuming take-off from the same point)?
A – 3 min
B – 2 min
C – 1 min
D – 5 min
Ans: B
152. Time for separation for wake turbulence for a light behind a medium
A – 3 min for landing
B – 3 min for departure
C – 2 min if departing from an intersection
D – 3 min if approaching in the opposite direction
Ans: A
153. The radar separation between a medium aeroplane followed by a light
aeroplane departing from or arriving on the same, or parallel runway less than
760 m apart is:
A–4m
B – 3 nm
C – 5 nm
D – 2 nm
Ans: C
154. Aeroplanes having a maximum approved seating capacity between 61 – 200
passengers will require the following number of megaphones on the passenger
deck:
A–0
B–2
C–1
D–5
Ans: C
An aeroplane with a seating capacity of 180 has a total of 47 passengers on
board. According to JAR OPS the required amount of First Aid Oxygen is:
A – Enough for 3 passengers for the duration of flight following a
depressurisation when the cabin altitude is between 10,000 ft and 14,000
ft
B – Sufficient for one passenger when the cabin altitude exceeds 8,000 ft but
does not exceed 15,000 ft for the remainder of the flight following a
depressurisation
C – Sufficient for one passenger for the duration of the flight above 8,000 ft
cabin altitude
D – None required
Ans: B
155. When is it compulsory to carry life jackets for each person on board?
1. Flight over water and at a distance of more than 50 nm from shore
2. Cruising speed unable to reach shore with one engine inoperative
3. flight over water more than 100 nm from shore
4. Where a hazard exists during take-off or landing or ditching
A – 1, 4
B – 2, 3
C – 3, 4
D – 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: A
156. The number of emergency exits must be:
A – Dependent on aeroplane capacity
B – Enough to evacuate the passengers in 90 sec. with 50% of the emergency
exits unavailable
C – chosen by the operator
D – Enough to evacuate the passengers in 120 sec with 50% of the emergency
exits unavailable
Ans: B
157. With reference to the retention of documents how long must journey logs be
kept by the operator:
A – 3 months
B – 12 months
C – 15 months
D – 24 months
Ans: A
Ans: B
158. The period of validity of a line check is:
A – 6 months
B – 12 months
C – 18 months
D – 2 years
Ans: B
159. Which of the following statements is true?
A – OCH is referenced to aerodrome elevation
B – OCA is referenced to threshold elevation
C – OCH is referenced to threshold elevation
D – Both OCA and OCH are referenced to aerodrome elevation
Ans: C
160. In a 4 engined jet transport aircraft, in order to gain the optimum performance,
a cruise climb technique is sometimes applied. This normally involves flying
the aircraft at:
A – levels above the optimum altitude
B – the service ceiling
C – levels below the optimum altitude
D – about the optimum altitude
Ans: D
161. All flight crew members are to be at their duty stations:
A – during take-off and landing
B – in an emergency
C – in turbulence
D – unless absence is necessary to satisfy physiological needs
Ans: D
162. When a third pilot is carried on a public transport flight as cruise pilot the first
officer must hold
A – a CPL
B – a CPL with theoretical exams passed at ATPL level
C – an ATPL
D – an ATPL and be certificated as Captain on type
Ans: C
163. How many hand held fire extinguishers must be located in the passenger cabin
of an aircraft with a passenger seating configuration of 375?
A–4
B–5
C–6
D–7
Ans: B
164. An aircraft with a certificated MTOM of 232,000 kg and certificated to carry
350 passengers requires
(i) one crash axe or crowbar on the flight deck
(ii) one crash axe or crowbar in the rear galley area
(iii) one crash axe or crowbar in the mid galley area
A – (ii) only
B – (i) only
C – (i) and (ii)
D – (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: C
165. Is refuelling permissible when passengers are on board, embarking or
disembarking?
A – It is permissible
B – It is permissible when relevant precautions are taken except when using
AVGAS or wide-cut fuels
C – It is not permissible except when using wide cut fuels or AVGAS
D – It is permissible only as long as the passengers remain on board
Ans: B
When must wake turbulence be considered?
A – High rate roll manoeuvres over the runway
B – A heave category landing with full lift enhancing devices employed
C – A heavy landing in a strong crosswind
D – A high landing in a light crosswind
Ans: B
166. What is the dispersal tim for wake turbulence from a wide-bodied aircraft?
A – 30 secs
B – 1 nm
C – 3 mins
D – 10 mins
Ans: C
167. The take-off alternate is to be located within which distance for a 2 engined
aircraft?
A – 1 hour with one engine operating
B – 1 hour with both engines operating
C – 2 hours with one engine operating
D – 2 hours with both engines operating
Ans: A
168. If a JAA operator is wel leasing out an aeroplane to another JAA operator,
who is the operator of the aeroplane?
A – The Lessor
B – TheLessee
C – The JAA authority for the State of the Lessee
D – The JAA authority for the State of the Lessor
The wake turbulence category ‘HEAVY’ applies to aircraft with a max
certificated all up mass in pounds in excess of:
A – 299,200
B – 275,000
C – 136,000
D – 125,000
Ans: A
169. When a potentially hazardous condition is encountered in flight:
A – the appropriate ground station must be notified as soon as practicable
B – other aircraft should be informed without delay
C – the operator must be notified within two hours of landing
D – the Authority must be notified within ten days
Ans: A
170. Which of the following combinations of statements describes what is recorded
by a cockpit voice recorder?
(i) Radio communications transmitted from the aircraft
(ii) Speech on the flight deck
(iii) Communications through the intercom
(iv) Navigation aid identification heard through headphones
(v) PA messages
A – All of the above
B – All except (iv)
C – All except (ii)
D – All except (iv) and (v)
Ans: A
171. An operator is required to maintain certain records of flight crew training.
These include:
(i) Type Rating Courses
(ii) Conversion Courses
(iii) Recurrent Training
(iv) Command Courses
B – All except (iii)
C – All except (iv)
D – All except (iii) and (iv)
Ans: A
172. An operator shall produce documents and records, when requested by the
Authority, within:
A – ten days
B – 24 hours
C – a reasonable time
D – 14 days
Ans: C
173. If the commander of an aeroplane violates any local rule, regulation or
procedure he is to report the matter:
A – tothe local Authority without delay
B – to the Authority of the State of the operator without delay
C – to the local Authority within ten days
D – to the Authority of the State of the operator within 14 days
Ans: A
at take-off th maximum mass of the aeroplane shall be:
A – not more than the basic empty mass plus the payload
B – not more than the maximum landing mass
C – equal to or less than that at which the take-off run can be completed under
ISA conditions and nil headwind
D – not more than that which would enable compliance with any noise
abatement procedure
Ans: D
174. Aeroplanes that fly at night are required to be lit. The starboard navigation
light is required to be:
A – green and visible through 140o from dead ahead
B – green and visible through 110o from dead ahead
C – red and visible through 140o from dead ahead
D – red and visible through 110o from dead ahead
Ans: B
175. An un-pressurised aircraft must carry sufficient oxygen for 10% of the
passengers for the time in excess of 30 minutes spent at altitudes between:
A – 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft
B – 10,000 ft and 12,000 ft
C – 8,000 ft and 10,000 ft
D – 10,000 ft and the service ceiling
Ans: A
070-02 SPECIAL OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES AND
HAZARDS
071-02-01 Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
1. The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on
which certain in-flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which
this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
A – the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer
B – the operator and is specified in the operation manual
C – the operator and approved by the certification authority
D – the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority
Ans: D
2. The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:
A – the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer
B – the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
C – the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
D – the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the
authority
Ans: C
3. The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in
the:
A – flight record
B – JAR OPS
C – flight manual
D – operation manual
Ans: D
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still
parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow
is:
A – the minimum equipment list
B – the operation manuals chapter Abnormal and Emergency procedures
C – the JAR OPS
D – the flight manual
Ans: A
4. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain
in-flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance
can be accepted. The Mel is drawn up by:
A – the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum
Equipment List (MMEL)
B – the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum
C – the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum
D – the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum
Equipment List
Ans: B
5. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to
the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide
on the procedure to follow is:
A – the JAR OPS
B – the minimum equipment list
C – the operation manuals chapter Abnormal and Emergency Procedures
D – the flight record
Ans: C
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
A – the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on
B – the manufacturer
C – the airline operator
D – the Civil Aviation Authority of the European states
Ans: C
6. Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxiing to the holding
point, what do you consult first?
A – Flight manual
B – Operator
C – State of registration
D – MEL
Ans: D
7. Who issues and updates the MEL?
A – The authority
B – The designer
C – The manufacturer
D – The operator
Ans: D
8. The MEL (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
A – the aircraft manufacturers list
B – the aircraft state of registry
C – the operator
D – the manufacturer
Ans: C
An operator is permitted to use an aircraft with certain items of equipment out
of service if this is provided for in:
A – the approval conditions for return to service following maintenance
B – the Maintenance Schedule, in the Approval Specifications Section
C – the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Master Minimum Equipment List
(MMEL)
D – JAR-OPS Subpart M
Ans: C
9. The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by
a phase of flight operation. The commander must use the limitations provided
by the MEL:
A – At any time during the flight
B – Prior to the aircraft take-off
C – At the parking area prior to the aircraft taxiing
D – Until the aircraft has come to a complete stop at the end of the flight
Ans: C
10. The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which
can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which
this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
A – the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer
B – the operations manual
C – the operator and approved by the certification authority
D – the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority
Ans: D
11. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
A – the Civil Aviation Authority of the European states
B – the manufacturer and approved by the authority
C – the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on
D – the airline operator and approved by the authority
Ans: D
12. Where is the Minimum Equipment List?
A – Appended to the Aeroplane Flight Manual
B – In the Operations Manual
C – In the Maintenance Documents
D – In the Operations Room
Ans: B
13. A list to be carried in the aeroplane detailing minimum equipment required
must be approved by:
A – Country of operations
B – Country of operator
C – Country of manufacturer
D – No such book is required to be approved by an authority
Ans: B
14. The MMEL is?
A – Compiled by the manufacturer and approved by the operator
B – Compiled by the manufacturer and approved by the state of design or state
of the manufacturer
C – Compiled by the operator and approved by the state of design
D – Compiled by the manufacturer and not approved by the operator
Ans: B
071-02-02 De-icing/Anti-icing
1. When taking off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost
will cause the following effects:
1. An increase in the take-off distance
2. A decrease of the take-off run
3. An increase in the stalling speed
4. A decrease of the stalling speed
5. A decrease of the climb gradient
A – 1, 3, 5
B – 2, 4, 5
C – 1, 2, 3
D – 2, 3, 5
Ans: A
2. In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check
that:
A – external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm
B – external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the
airplane performance and manoeuvrability except within the limits
specified by the flight manual
C – external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid
D – possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits
Ans: B
3. An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid
free at the latest when:
A – leaving the icing zone
B – releasing the brakes in order to take-off
C – it is implementing its own anti-icing devices
D – it is rotating (before taking-off
Ans: D
4. The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide
a:
A – certain time of protection depending on its concentration
B – 24 hours protection time
C – certain time of protection independent of the outside temperature
D – 3 hours protection tim
Ans: A
5. The terminal VOR transmits the following weather data. When do you expect
carburettor icing?
A – Outside Air Temperature (OAT): + 15oC Dew Point (DEWP): -5oC
B – Outside Air Temperature (OAT): + 10oC Dew Point (DEWP): +7oC
C – Outside Air Temperature (OAT): + 25oC Dew Point (DEWP): +5oC
D – Outside Air Temperature (OAT): - 10oC Dew Point (DEWP): -15oC
Ans: B
6. When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-icing procedure,
must be protected again?
A – Yu must wait until the protection time of the anti-icing fluid is over
before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid
B – You can apply directly the new layer of anti-icing fluid without previous
de-icing
C – You must operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing devices before applying
the new layer of anti-icing fluid
D – First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane, then applhy the
new layer of anti-icing fluid
Ans: D
during an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:
A – the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold
B – the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot
C – the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is
applied hot
D – the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is
applied hot
Ans: C
7. For stable clouds:
1. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0oC and -10oC
2. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0oC and -15oC
3. Icing becomes rare at t<-18oC
4. Icing becomes rate at t<-30oC
5. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03 mm
6. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2 mm
Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements?
A – 1, 3, 5
B – 2, 4, 6
C – 2, 3, 5
D – 1, 4, 6
Ans: A
8. The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the
protection time:
A – when the outside temperature is close to 0oC
B – during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash
C – when the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0oC
D - when the airplane is into the wind
Ans: B
If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
A – Dependent on the temperature
B – Less than the actual
C – Equal to the actual
D – Greater than the actual
Ans: D
9. An aircraft having undergon an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the
protection time of the anti-icing fluid:
A – must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off
B – must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing
fluid for take-off
C – need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off
D – must only undergone a de-icing procedure for take-off
Ans: B
10. The EPR probes of an aircraft are covered in ice. The indicated EPR:
A – will be lower than the real EPR
B – will be higher than the real EPR
C – will be zero
D – will be correct
Ans: B
11. The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in
the:
A – tuck under
B – value of the stall angle of attack
C – stalling speed
D – roll rate
Ans: C
The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions,
occurs on:
A – The aircraft front areas
B – The upper and lower wing surfaces
C – The upper and lower rudder surfaces
D – Only the pilot and static probes
Ans: A
12. During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting
time starts:
A – at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage)
B – at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage)
C – at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage)
D – at the end of the first stage (de-icing stage)
Ans: A
13. The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:
1. The type and intensity of the showers
2. The ambient temperature
3. The relative humidity
4. The direction and speed of the wind
5. The temperature of the airplane skin
6. The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature
A – 2, 3, 4, 5
B – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C – 1, 2, 4, 6
D – 1, 3, 5, 6
Ans: B
The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is:
A – the Washington Convention
B – ICAO Appendix 8
C – ICAO Appendix 18
D – Instruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957
Ans: C
14. Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:
A – separate on each side of the runway
B – stagnate on the runway
C – separate to the right side
D – separate to the left side
Ans: A
15. Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight
with icing conditions:
A – The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems
B – The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be
initiated rapidly
C – The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-iing fluid
D – A meteorologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without
ice-protection systems
Ans: A
16. Ice accretion depends on many factors including ambient temperature and type
of precipitation. Which of the following woule give the longest holdover
time?
A – Steady snow
B – Freezing fog
C – Rain on a cold soaked wing D – Frost
Ans:D
17. What happens to the EPR if the probe is blocked by ice?
A – Over reads
B – Under reads
C – Depends on temperature
D – Nothin
Ans: A
18. In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your
airplane, you are waiting to take-off by:
1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding
aircraft
2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding
aircraft
3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft
4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft
A – 1, 2
B – 3, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 1, 4
Ans: A
19. Anti-icing hold-over times are affected by:
1. Ambient temperature
2. Temperature of the skin
3. tupe and intensity of precipitation
4. Relative humidity
5. Windspeed and direction
Ans: D
In icing conditions, the pilot in command must:
A – ensure sufficient anti-ice is still present on surfaces
B – ensure surfaces are free from build-up of ice within constraints allowed by
the operations manual
C – ensure no ice more than 5mm in depth is on surfaces
D – ensure holdover time has not exceeded the time since de-icikng started
Ans: D
20. The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will
vary considerably depending on the ambient temperature and the weather
conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in
weater conditions of:
A – frost
B – freezing fog
C – rain on a cold soaked wing
D – steady snow
Ans: A
21. If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals
evidence of freezing, the correct action is to:
A – switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on
until clear of icing conditions when airborne
B – compelte departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover
(protection) time for the prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has
not been exceeded
C – carry out a further de-icing process
D – complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility
Ans: C
For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one
of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time
be shortest?
A – Steady snow
B – Freezing fog
C – Frost
D – Freezing rain
Ans: D
22. What effect does snow and ice contamination have on aircraft performance?
1. Increase take-off run
2. Decrease take-off run
3. Increase stall speed
4. Decrease stall speed
5. Reduce climb gradient
A – 2, 4, 5
B – 1, 3, 5
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 2, 3
Ans: B
23. In high ambient temperatures (30oC) and at relative humidities as low as 40%,
in air free from cloud, fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing
A – Can occur but only at low power settings
B – Cannot occur
C – Can occur at anyu power settings
D – Can occur, but only at full power and cruise settings
Ans: A
Holdover tie can be considerably reduced by:
A – air temperature being slightly below 0 deg C
B – airframe temperature being slightly below 0 deg C
C – strong winds and effect of jet blast from other aeroplanes
D – effect of headwind
Ans: C
24. How long is holdover time for Type II anti-icing fluids?
A – 24 hours
B – 3 hours
C – A certain time dependent on concentration
D – A certain time independent of skin temperature
Ans: C
What is the worst case for hold over time following de-ice/anti-ice?
A – Freezing rain
B – Freezing fog
C – Frost
D – Snow
Ans: A
When anti-icing has been applied, when must you make sure it is still active?
A – When clear of icing conditions
B – On rotation
C – At brake release for take-off
D – Until one can use ones own anti-icing equipment
Ans: C
After anti-icing has been completed, a pre-departure inspection reveals
presence of frost, ice or snow. The correct action is to:
A – switch on all the aircraft anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until
clear of icing conditions when airborne
B – complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further
contamination
C – carry out a new de-icing/anti-icing procedure
D – complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover
(protection) time for the prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has
not been exceeded
Ans: C
25. During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning
departure. The crew notice a slight glistening ice deposit on top of the wings
or blades which appears translucent. Under these conditions:
A – the take off performance of the aircraft will not be affected
B – there is no risk of ice accretion
C – the aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing fluid of the correct type
D – a longer starting procedure will be necessary to warm up the aircraft
Ans: C
In icing conditions, if you have exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is
to:
A – de-ice again the aircraft, then apply anti-icing fluid
B – apply directly anti-icing fluid without conducting previous de-icing
procedures
C – operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing systems
D – de-ice the aircraft
Ans: A
The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces,
amongst other serious consequences, an increase in the:
A – tuck under
B – value of the stall angle of attack
C – stalling speed
D – roll rate
Ans: C
26. The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce the holdover time
considerably:
A – during strong winds or as a result of other aircraft engines jet blast
B – when the outside temperature is close to 0oC
C – when the temperature of the aeroplane skin is close to 0oC
D – when the aeroplane is parked facing into wind
Ans: A
27. The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on the ground will
provide a:
A – limited holdover time
B – protection time up to 24 hours
C – limited time of protection independent of the outside temperature
D – protection against icing for the duration of the flight
Ans: A
28. The commaner shall not commence take-off in icing conditions:
A – unless the external surfaces are free from any ice contamination greater
than 5 mm
B – unless the external surfaces are clear of any contamination, except as
permitted by Aircraft Flight Manual
C – unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the
aircraft is not to be operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than
moderate icing
D – even if the ice contamination does not lead to an excedence of mass and
balance limits
Ans: B
29. The greatest possible risk if ice build-up occurs when flying in icing
conditions:
A – On the aircraft front surfaces
B – Only on pitot or static probes
C – On the rudder upper and lower surfaces
D – On the wind upper and lower surfaces
Ans: A
30. After de-icing/anti-icing still in freezing conditions, how should you position
the aircraft?
A – In prop and jet wash
B – In jet wash but not prop wash
C – In prop wash but not jet wash
D – In neither
Ans: D
When planning a flight in icing conditions, what are the requirements?
A – Aircraft to be equipped with approved anti-icing equipment
B – Apply anti-icing fluid
C – A Met officer will decide if the flight can take place
D – Take off anyway and hope for the best
Ans: A
31. If taking off in icing conditions, pilot-in-command must make sure:
A – Icing does not affect performance within the constraints of the operations
manual
B – Icing does not affect the mass and balance of the aeroplane
C – Icing on the airframe is not greater than 5 mm
D – Anti-ice is still present on the airframe
Ans: A
32. When does the anti-icing holdover time begin on a 2 step procedure?
A – From the start of the anti-icing procedure
B – From the end of the anti-icing procedure
C – When all icing deposits have been removed from the airframe
D – From the start of the de-icing procedure
Ans: A
33. After the anti-icing time has expired, do you:
A – De-ice then anti-ice?
B – Just de-ice?
C – Do nothing?
D – Just anti-ice?
Ans: A
For a de-icing and anti-icing procedure, how are the fluids applied:
A – Both hot
B – Anti-icing hot, de-icing cold
C – De-icing hot, anti-icing cold
D – Both cold
Ans: C
071-02-03 Bird strike risk and avoidance
1. During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing
must be made immediately. Following this icident the pilot:
A – must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no
warning
B – must file a Bird Strike report
C – must file a airworthiness report
D – is not obliged to report this inciden
Ans: B
2. Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to
an aerodrome?
A – The extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel
B – Mowing and maintaining the grass long
C – A modern sewage tip in close proximity
D – A refuse tip in close proximity
Ans: D
3. Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract
flocks of birds?
A – Edible rubbish
B – Long grass
C – An area liable to flooding
D – Short gang-mown grass
Ans: B
As regards the detection of bird strikehazard, the pilot means of information
and prevention are:
1. ATIS
2. NOTAMs
3. BIRDTAMs
4. Weather radar
5. The report by another crew
A – 1, 2, 5
B – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C – 1, 3, 4
D – 2, 5
Ans: A
4. 90% of bird strikes occur:
A – under 500 m
B – above 1000 m
C – between 500 and 1000 m
D – between 500 and 1500 m
Ans: A
5. An analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered
in a layer from:
A – from 0 to 150 m
B – from 500 to 1200 m
C – from 100 to 800 m
D – from 200 to 500 m
Ans: A
What would be most likely to attract birds near an airfield?
A – Mowed grass kept long
B – Modern sewerage plant
C – Mineral extraction
D – A refuse tip
Ans: D
6. Which habitat is the least favourable for birds?
A – Long grass
B – Rubbish tips
C – Short grass cut by gang mowers
D – Areas that flood
Ans: A
7. What is the most effective method for scarding birds?
A – Shell crackers
B – Landrover with loudspeaker
C – Scarecrow
D – Making movement
Ans: A
8. The observations and studies conducted on the behaviour of birds on the
ground, ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of
135 kt, show that birds fly away:
A – about two seconds beforehand
B – about ten seconds beforehand
C – as soon as they hear the engines noise
D – from the beginning of the take-off roll
Ans: A
9. The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is:
A – the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc
B – broadcasting of recorded distress calls
C – firing shellcrackers
D – various visual methods
Ans: B
10. After take-off the pilot of a commercial aeroplane notices a flock of birds
which could pose a bird-strike risk. Does the pilot:
A – contact the ground station immediately
B – inform other aircraft by radio
C – inform the appropriate persons in a reasonable time
D – ignore the problem and hope someone else will make a report
Ans: A
11. 90% of bird strikes happen at:
A – 500 – 1500m
B – 500 – 1000m
C – Over 1000 ft
D – Under 500 ft
Ans: D
12. The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:
A – above 1000m
B – under 500m
C – between 500 and 1000m
D – between 500 and 1500m
Ans: B
Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to
an aerodrome?
A – maintaining the grass on the airfield
B – a opened refuse tip in close vicinity
C – modern and close sewage treatment centre in close proximity
D – the extraction of mine4rals such as sand and gravel
Ans: B
13. What is the best way of clearing birds from an airfield using modern methods?
A – Model predators
B – Shell crackers
C – Flashing lights
D – Recorded distress calls
Ans: D
14. An aircraft has a bird-strike at take-off and is forced to land immediately due
to vibrations from the engine. Does the pilot:
A – Report an AIRPROX because ATC did not inform him of birds
B – File a bird strike report
C – Inform the RSPB
D – Check with the engineers if any damage has occurred
Ans: B
15. What is the best way for crews to be warned of bird activity?
1. ATIS
2. BIRDTAMs
3. Weather radar
4. Other crews
5. NOTAMs
B – 1, 2, 5
C – 3, 4, 5
D – 1, 4, 5
Ans: D
16. Studies of bird behaviour on the ground have shown that, with an aircraft at
approximately 135 kt is taking off, the birds will fly away:
A – 2 seconds before hand
B – 10 seconds before hand
C – When they hear the noise of the engines
D – At the start of the take-off run
Ans: A
071-02-04Noise Abatement
According with the noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B, as established
in DOC 8168 – Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until
reaching:
A – 3000 ft
B – 500 ft
C – 1500 ft
D – 1000 ft
Ans: D
1. Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise
abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS
OPS 8168 the:
A – operator
B – state of the operator
C – state in which the aeroplane is operating
D – commander
Ans: A
2. When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a
power reduction shall be allowed is:
A – 600m (2000 ft)
B – 450m (1500 ft)
C – 150m (500 ft)
D – 300m (1000 ft)
Ans: D
3. About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:
A – They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only
B – They prohibit the use of reverse thrust
C – Such procedures do not exist
D – Such procedures will not involce the prohibition of using reverse thrust
Ans: D
4. Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a
runway, under the following circumstances:
1. When cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots
2. When the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots
3. When the runway is not clear or dry
A – 1, 3
B – 1, 2
C – 1, 2, 3
D – 2, 3
Ans: C
5. Acording to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the
ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume 1 part V, data available indicates that the procedure
which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the
airport:
A – is procedure A
B – is procedure B
C – is ither procedure A or B, because there is no difference in noise
distribution
D – depends on the wind component
Ans: B
6. Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the
operator is:
A – different according to airports and airplane types
B – for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport
C – different for a same airplan type, according to airports
D – for the same airplane type, the same for all airports
Ans: D
7. Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as
the preferential landing runway for noise abatement purposes in visual
meteorological condition (VMC)?
A – It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance
B – Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt
C – It has a tail wind component of any value
D – It has a tail wind component of 3 kts and a cross wind, including gusts, of
12 kt
Ans: A
8. In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 – OPS, noise preferential routes are
established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying
noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In
establishing noise preferential routes:
A – turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank
angle for turns is limited to 20o (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 kt)
B – turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the
aeroplane has reached and can maintain throughout the turn a height of no
less than 100m above terrain and the highest obstacle
C – no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power
associated with a noise abatement procedure
D – turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank
angle for turns is limited to 28o (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 kt)
Ans: C
9. According to the recommended noise abatement take-off and climb procedure
A established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume 1 part v, Chapter 3, thrust
reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches:
A – 2000 ft
B – 3000 ft
C – 1500 ft
D – 1000 ft
Ans: C
10. Which statement is correct concerning turns on noise abatement procedures?
A – All turns must give at least 100m obstacle and terrain clearance
B – Turns of a bank angle of up to 20 deg are allowed maintaining VAT + 10-
20 kts
C – Turns of a bank angle of up to 28 deg are allowed maintaining VAT + 10-
20 kts
D – No turns should be coincident with a reduction in powe
Ans: D
11. According to ICAO Document 8168 Part V, when using Procedure A for noise
abatement, when must you reduce power:
A – 1000 ft
B – 1500 ft
C – 2000 ft
D – 3000 ft
Ans: B
12. What precludes a runway being used for noise abatement procedures if
landing in VMC?
A – Any tailwind
B – Cross wind including gusts of 10 kts
C – Tail wind up to 3 kts
D – No ILS or visual guidance
Ans: D
13. Noise abatement for landing:
A – Precludes the use of thrust reverse
B – Should not preclude the use of thrust reverse
C – Stop use of thrust reverse before the threshold
D – Allows limited use of thrust reverse
Ans: B
14. According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT
to be initiated at less than:
A – 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation
B – 1000 ft above aerodrome elevation
C – 800 ft above aerodrome elevation
D – 2000 ft above aerodrome elevation
Ans: C
15. According to the recommended “noise abatement take-off and climb
procedure” NADP2, established in ICAO Doc 8168, acceleration and
flaps/slats retraction is initiated:
A – at 1500 ft
B – not below 1000 ft
C – at 3000 ft
D – not below 800 ft
Ans: D
16. In accordance with JAR-OPS the take-off climb procedures for noise
abatement to be specified by the operator should be:
A – for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome
B – for any one aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes
C – for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes
D – different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types
Ans: B
17. In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement
procedures when:
A – it has a tail wind regardless its magnitude
B – Cross wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less
C – It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance
D – Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt
Ans: C
18. Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?
A – There are no noise abatement procedures for landing
B – These procedures prohibit the use of reverse thrust
C – These procedures shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust
D – These procedures are applied in case of instrument approach only
Ans: C
19. Which statement is correct concerning noise abatement?
A – There is no prohibition on the use of thrust reverse
B – Reverse thrust is not permitted at any time
C – At night, thrust reverse is not permitted
D – Thrust reverse may be permitted, but only at idle power
Ans: A
20. Who is responsible for establishing and distribution amendments to noise
abatement procedures?
A – The country where the aeroplane is operated
B – The country where the aeroplane is registered
C – The country of the operator of the aerodrome
D – The operator of the aerodrome
Ans: C
21. When would you not have to turn on a noise abatement procedure?
A – Below 1000 ft
B – When changing radio frequencies
C – When reducing power
D – when raising flap
Ans: C
22. Class B noise abatement procedures are used:
A – Near airfield
B – Away from airfield
C – Depends on the prevailing wind
D – Not applicable
Ans: A
23. When using ICAO noise abatement Procedure A the flap retraction is
commenced at
A – 1000 f
B – 2000 ft
C – 1500 ft
D – 3000 ft
Ans: D
24. What conditions can the choice of runway preclude noise abatement
procedures?
(i) Cross wind > 15 knots
(ii) Tail wind > 5 knots
(iii) Windshear and thunderstorm reported
A – (i), (ii) and (iii)
B – (i) and (ii)
C – (i) and (iii)
D – (ii) and (iii)
Ans: A
071-02-05 Fire/Smoke
1. You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for:
1. a paper fire
2. a plastic fire
3. a hydrocarbon fire
4. an electrical fire
A – 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 3, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 1, 2, 3
Ans: B
2. Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is on
board:
A – crash axes or crowbars
B – water and all type of beverages
C – a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools
D – a big bunch of fire extinguishing blanke
Ans: A
3. A class B fire is a fire of:
A – solid material usually of organic nature
B – liquid or liquefiable solid
C – electrical sources fire
D – special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
Ans: B
After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are
extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:
A – under no circumstances
B – only from left or right side
C – from any side
D – only from front or rear sid .
Ans: D
4. After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:
A – apply the parking brake and you approacoh the wheels either from fore or
aft
B – release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards
C – release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or
fore
D – apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards
Ans: C
5. The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:
1. H2O
2. CO2
3. dry-chemical
4. halon
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
A – 2, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 3, 4
C–1
D – 3, 4
Ans: B
6. To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
A – useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions
B – useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing
oxygen
C – useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions
D – possible and recommended
Ans: B
7. A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:
1. a paper fire
3. a fabric fire
5. a wood fire
A – 2, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C – 1, 3, 5
D – 2, 4, 5
Ans: C
8. In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:
1. a dry powder fire extinguisher
2. a water spray atomizer
3. a water fire-extinguisher
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum
A – 1, 2
B – 2, 3, 4
C – 3, 4
D – 1, 4
Ans: A
9. A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:
1. a paper fire
2. a fabric fire
3. an electric fire
4. a wood fire
A – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B – 1, 3, 5
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 2, 4, 5
Ans: A
10. H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
A – electrical source fires
B – Class B fires
C – Class A fires
D – special fires: metals, gas, chemical products
Ans: C
11. A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The
safest extinguishant to use is:
A – water
B – dry powder
C – CO2 (carbon dioxide)
D – foam
Ans: B
12. In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:
A – pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers
B – carry out a damp cranking
C – carry out a dry cranking
D – fight thenozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher
Ans: C
13. You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:
1. a paper fire
2. a plastic fire
A – 1, 2, 3
B – 1, 2, 3, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 1, 4
Ans: B
14. Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
A – all available liquids
B – all available extinguishers simultaneously
C – all available extinguishers in sequence
D – only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets
Ans: B
15. The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
A – Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes
B – Water may only be used for minor fires
C – A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire
D – Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using
carbon dioxide
Ans: A
16. To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:
1. a water fire-extinguisher
2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher
3. a halon fire-extinguisher
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher
A – 1, 2, 3, 4
B – 3, 4
C – 1, 2
D – 2, 3, 4
Ans: B
17. You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of:
1. solids (fabric, carpet, etc)
2. liquids (ether, gasoline, etc)
3. gas
4. metals (sodium, etc)
A – 3 and 4
B–2
C–3
D–1
Ans: D
18. CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:
1. class A fires
2. class B fires
3. electrical source fires
4. special fires: metals, gas, chemical product
Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
A – 1, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 4
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 2, 3
Ans: D
19. If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:
A – Determine which system is causing the smoke
B – Begin an emergency descent
C – Put on the mask and goggles
D – Cut off all air conditioning units
Ans: C
20. To fight a fire in an air conditioned cargo hold:
A – Fire fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in
an air conditioned cargo hold is forbidden
B – Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning
C – Extinguish fire only
D – You turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire
Ans: D
21. An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The
fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
A – fire is no longer detected
B – the fire shut-off handle has been pulled
C – the fire-extinguisher has been triggered
D – all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered
Ans: A
22. A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:
1. a paper fire
3. a fabric fire
5. a wood fire
A – 2, 3, 4
B – 1, 3, 5
C – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D – 2, 4, 5
Ans: C
23. You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:
1. solids, (fabric, plastic, etc)
2. liquids (alcohol, gasoline, etc)
3. gas
4. metals (aluminium, magnesium, etc)
A – 1, 2, 3
B – 1, 2, 3, 4
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 2, 4
Ans: A
24. After landing heavy and fast, an enginer should approach the landing gear
from:
A – the sides
B – the front or rear
C – neither
D – only when the gear has cooled down
Ans: B
25. If you have a fire in a toilet, what fire extinguishers would you use:
A – All available liquids
B – Only toilet extinguishers
C – All available in sequence
D – All available simultaneously
Ans: D
26. What action is required in flight for a fire in an air conditioned cargo hold?
A – Put out the fire
B – Reduce the airflow and put out the fire
C – Turn off the ventilation and put out the fire
D – Don’t do anything because it is not permissible to have flammable or toxic
materials in modern aeroplane holds
Ans: C
27. For a flight deck fire which of the ollowing do you use?
(i) CO2
(ii) Halon
(iii) Dry Powder
(iv) Water
A – (iii), (iv)
B – (i), (ii)
C – (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
D – (i), (ii), (iii)
Ans: B
28. When does the fire handle warning light go out?
A – When all bottles to that engine are discharged
B – When fire detected as being out
C – When fire handle is pulled
D – When that fire bottle has been fired
Ans: B
29. The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:
1. H2O
2. CO2
3. dry-chemical
4. halogen
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements:
A – 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 3, 4
C–2
D – 2, 3, 4
Ans: D
30. A Halon fire extinguisher should preferably be used on which of the following
types of fire:
A – Paper
B – Plastic
C – Hydrocarbon
D – Brake
Ans: C
31. CO2 type fire extinguishers are usable on:
(i) Class A fires
(ii) Class B fires
(iii) Electrical fires
(iv) Special fires – metal, chemical
A – (ii), (iii) and (iv)
B – (i), (ii) and (iv)
C – (i), (iii) and (iv)
D – (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: D
32. A class A fire is a fire of:
A – liquid or liquefiable solid
B – solid material, generally of organic nature
C – electrical origin
D – metal or gas or chemical (special fares)
Ans: B
33. Water fire extinguisher with a directed spray can be used on which fires?
A – Solid fires
B – Liquid fires
C – Gas fires
D – Special fires
Ans: A
34. In case of an engine jet pipe fire while of the ground you:
A – pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire extinguishers
B – carry out a dry motoring cycle
C – fight the jet pipe fire with a water fire extinguisher
D – carry out a wet motoring cycle
Ans: B
35. The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is
generally the:
A – ventilation of the cargo compartment
B – pressurisation
C – total airconditioning
D – trim air
Ans: A
36. Why should you not use oxygen masks when the cabin is affected by smoke?
A – Because the oxygen would spontaneously combust
B – Because the mask allows the smoke to mix with theoxygen
C – Because the chemical oxygen generator does not work in smoky
conditions
D – You should use the oxygen masks in smoky conditions
Ans: B
37. A dry-chemikcal type fire extinguisher is fit to fight?
1. class A fires
2. class B fires
3. electrical source fires
4. special fires: metals, gas, chemicals
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
A – 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 3
C – 1, 2, 3, 4
D – 2, 4
Ans: C
38. What type of fire extinguisher do you use on a magnesium fire?
A – Water
B – Sand
C – Halon
D – Foam
Ans: B
39. The use of passenger oxygen in the case of severe smoke in the cabin is:
A – Useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions
B – Useless because breating oxygen would explode under smoke conditions
C – Possible and recommended
D – Useless because the toxic cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen
Ans: D
40. The principle of operation of a fire loop detector is an the temperature
increases, the:
A – resistance decreases
B – reference current decreases
C – pressure decreases
D – pressure decreases
Ans: A
41. An aircraft is configured for seating 61 to 200 passengers. What is the
requirement for hand held fire extinguishers.
A – 4 conveniently located in the passenger compartment
B – 5 conveniently located in the passenger compartment
C – 2 conveniently located in the passenger compartment
D – 3 conveniently located in the passenger compartmen
Ans: D
A water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) can be used on a fire of:
1. solids (fabric, carpet, etc)
2. liquids (ether, gasoline, etc)
3. gas
4. metals (sodium, etc)
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
A–3
B–2
C–1
D – 3 and 4
Ans: C
42. Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very
high temperature, one should approach the landing gear:
A – from any direction
B – sidewards
C – either from aft or fore
D – from the inboard side
Ans: C
43. Halon or equivalent fire extinguishers can be used in case of fire fighting in an
aeroplane:
A – in the fuel tanks and in the cargo holds
B – in the cockpit and cargo holds
C – in the wheel bays and lavatories
D – in the avionics bay and the wheel bays
Ans: B
44. In case of an engine tail pipe fire while on the ground you should abort the
starting procedure and:
A – carry out a dry cranking
B – carry out a damp cranking
C – pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engine’s fire-extinguishers
D – fight the fire with a water fire-extinguishe .
Ans: A
45. To fight a fire in an air conditioned class E cargo hold, the correct initial
action is to:
A – discharge the fire extinguishers in the affected compartment
B – shut off the ventilating airflow within the affected compartment
C – confirm visually the fire
D – evacuate the smoke
Ans: B
46. The engine fire warning system on a multi-engine aircraft consists of:
A – One warning light, individual bells
B – Individual warning lights, common bell
C – Individual warning lights, individual bells
D – One warning light, one bell
Ans: B
47. If there is a fire in the cargo compartment in the lower half of the fuselage,
what is your action?
A – Turn off the ventilation
B – Turn off all the air conditioning
C – Reduce the airflow
D – Turn off the pressurisation
Ans: A
48. Which statement is most correct with regard to theuse of fire extinguishers?
A – CO2 is best used in a cargo aeroplane on cargo fires
B – Water is best used on small fires
C – Halon is best used on fires within the passenger compartment
D – Dry powder is best used on cockpit fires
Ans: C
After a fast landing, hot brakes are suspected. What action should be taken?
A – Apply the parking brake and approach the aeroplane from the front to rear
B – Apply the parking brake and approach the aeroplane from the sides
C – Release the brakes and approach the aeroplane from the sides
D – Release the brakes and approach the aeroplane from the front or rear
Ans: D
49. In a situation where there is dense smoke in the cabin:
A – It is recommended to use O2 only above 10,000 ft in this case
B – It is useless to use passenger O2 because it will explode
C – It is recommended to use passenger O2 and is sensible
D – It is useless to use passenger O2 masks because they mix O2 with the
cabin air
Ans: D
50. You see smoke coming from the air conditioning. Do you?
A – don your oxygen mask and smoke goggles
B – Turn all the air conditioning off
C – Investigate to find the source of the smoke
D – Do an emergency descent
Ans: A
How should firemen approach a heavy aircraft that has had an aborted take-
off?
A – Not at all (do not approach)
B – From the front/rear
C – From the side
D – From all angles
Ans: B
51. CO2 can be used on which fires?
(i) Paper
(ii) Hydrocarbons
(iii) Electrical
(iv) Wood
A – (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
B – (i), (ii) and (iv)
C – (iii) and (iv)
D – (i), (ii) and (iii
Ans: A
52. In the event of a jet pipe fire on the ground, what do you do?
A – Wet motor
B – Dry motor
C – Pull fire handle
D – Fight with water
Ans: C
53. What items for use in fire fighting would you expect to see close to a fire
extinguisher?
A – axe
B – gloves
C – breating equipment
D – blanket
Ans: B
54. On what type of fire would you use a CO2 extinguisher?
A – Paper
B – Hydrocarbon
C – Plastic
D – Electrical
Ans: D
55. The correct colour for hand held fire extinguisher labels is
A – black for CO2
B – red for water
C – yellow for BCF
D – blue for foam
Ans: A
56. A fire in the toilet waste bin is extinguished with:
A – BCF
B – a liquid agent
C – 2 types of extinguisher simultaneously
D – 2 types of extinguisher one after the other
Ans: A
57. A fire extinguisher must be carried in the cockpit. It should contain:
A – BCF
B – CO2
C – Water
D – Foam
Ans: A
58. Engine fire warnings include:
A – a red light that can be cancelled and an audio warning that can be
cancelled
B – a red light that cannot be cancelled and an audio warning that can be
cancelled
C – a red light that can be cancelled and an audio warning that cannot be
cancelled
D – a red light and an audio warning that cannot be cancelled until the fire is
out
Ans: B
59. Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the:
A – temperature of the hydraulic fluid
B – pressure of the hydraulici fluid
C – pressure of the pneumatic tyres
D – temperature of the brakes
Ans: D
071-02-06 Decompression of pressurised cabin
1. We would know that the automatic pressurisation system has malfunctioned if:
1. There is a change in environmental sounds
2. The cabin barometer indicates a sharp rise
3. The differential pressure between the exterior and the interior becomes
edqual
A – 1, 2
B – 1, 2, 3
C – 1, 3
D – 2, 3
Ans: B
2. A slow decompression may be caused by:
1. a slight airtightness defect
2. a bad functioning of the pressurisation
3. the loss of a window 4, the loss of a door
A – 1, 2, 3, 4
B – 1, 2
C – 3, 4
D – 1, 2, 3
Ans: B
3. An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31,000 ft.
What is the initial action by the operating crew?
A – Disconnect the autopilot
B – To put on oxygen masks
C – Transmit a MAYDAY message
D – Place the seat belts sign to ON
Ans: B
4. When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a
small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can
be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
A – a ate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
B – a rate of climb
C – zero
D – a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure
Ans: B
5. The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in
pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for
pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure
altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
A – 15,000 ft
B – 14,000 ft
C – 13,000 ft
D – 25,000 ft
Ans: C
6. During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first
action will be:
A – to put on the oxygen mask
B – to set the transponder to 7700
C – to warn the ATC
D – to comfort your passengers
Ans: A
(Refer to figue 071-04)
Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is
limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14,000 feet,
the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
A – 22,500 ft
B – 24,500 ft
C – 27,000 f
D – 29,000 ft
Ans: B
7. The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an
altitude of 40,000 ft is:
A – 1 minute
B – 30 seconds
C – 12 seconds
D – 5 minutes
Ans: C
8. Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter
demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with
pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the normal position. At what
approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure
oxygen only?
A – 25,000 ft
B – 32,000 ft
C – 14,000 ft
D – 8,000 ft
Ans: B
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:
A – attains its maximum permitted operating limit
B – increases
C – remains constant
D – decreases
Ans: D
9. (Refer to figure 071-04)
limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14,000 feet,
the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
A – 20,750 ft
B – 12,000 ft
C – 8,600 ft
D – 2,900 ft
Ans: A
10. For an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of
pure oxygen mixed with air. Following explosive decompression with the
regulator set to normal, at what approximate altitude will pure oxygen be
supplied:
A – 8,000 ft
B – 24,000 ft
C – 14,000 ft
D – 32,000 ft
Ans: D
11. Oxygen should be used after rapid decompression in an emergency descent
until what altitude?
A – 10,000 ft
B – 15,000 ft
C – 13,000 ft
D – 14,000 ft
Ans: A
12. When the pressurisation system fails, the differential pressure:
A – rises
B – falls
C – remains the same
D – fluctuates
Ans: B
13. What is supplementary oxygen used for?
A – To passengers in an aircraft, following a loss of pressurisation
B – For passengers who may require it, following a loss of pressurisation
C – For passengers with breathing difficulties
D – Protect crew when combating a fire
Ans: A
14. Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen
at which flying efficiency is not impaired is:
A – 14,000 ft
B – 8,000 ft
C – 25,000 ft
D – 2,500 ft
Ans: B
15. Flying at FL 390, before what cabin altitude must the Oxygen drop out masks
be automatically presented?
A – 12,000 ft
B – 13,000 ft
C – 14,000 ft
D – 15,000 ft
Ans: D
16. Following a rapid decompression, above what height does a lack of 02 affect
performance:
A – 14,000 ft
B – 2,500 ft
C – 8,000 ft
D – 25,000 ft
Ans: C
17. A fast decompression is recognisable by the following elements:
1. mist in the cabin
2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft
3. expansion of body gases
4. blast of air released violently from the lungs
A – 1, 2, 3, 4
B – 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 2, 3
D – 1, 4
Ans: A
18. In a pressurisation malfunction:
1. Noise increase
2. Change in RCDI
3. Pressure differential decreases
A – 1, 2
B – 2, 3
C – 1, 3
D – 1, 2, 3
Ans: D
Gradual decompression is caused by:
(i) Window leak
(ii) Door leak
(iii) Window blown
(iv) Emergency escape hatch open
A – (i), (ii)
B – (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
C – (iii), (iv)
D – (ii), (iii
Ans: A
19. After compression and descent, there will be enough supplementary oxygen
available for flight crew for all flight time above:
A – 13,000 ft
B – 15,000 ft
C – 25,000 ft
D – 14,000 ft
Ans: A
20. An aeroplane suffers cabin decompression at 31,000 ft, what is the crew’s
initial reaction:
A – Disconnect autopilot
B – Put FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign on
C – Declare MAYDAY
D – Don 02 masks
Ans: D
(Refer to figure 01-04)
limited to 2 psi. Assuming you don’t want the cabin altitude being greater
than 10,000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
A – 12,000 ft
B – 5,000 ft
C – 15,100 ft
D – 15,000 ft
Ans: C
1. a leak in a doorseal during normal pressurised flight
2. loss of a cabin window
3. malfunction of all pressurised systems
4. loss of a door
A – 2, 4
B – 1, 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 3
D – 1, 2, .
Ans: C
22. A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This
warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude:
A – 10,000 ft (approx. 3000 m)
B – 14,000 ft (approx. 4200 m)
C – 8,000 ft (approx. 2400 m)
D – 12,000 ft (approx. 3600 m)
Ans: A
According to JAR-OPS 1, following a decompression, the maximum pressure
altitude at which each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty are able
to fly with no supplemental oxygen with no flight time limitation is:
A – 15,000 ft
B – 13,000 ft
C – 10,000 ft
D – 8,000 ft
Ans: C
23. According to JAR-OPS 1, oxygen masks for use by flight crew members shall
be a quick donning type of mask, in pressurised aeroplanes operating at
pressure altitudes above:
A – 41,000 ft
B – 10,000 ft
C – 39,000 ft
D – 25,000 ft
Ans: D
24. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum
requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100% of the
passengers following a cabin pressurisatin failure, is:
A – the entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13,000 ft
B – 30 minutes
C – the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 ft,
but in no case less than 10 minutes
D – the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than
10,000 ft but not exceeding 13,000 ft
Ans: C
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for a pressurised aircraft, the definition of
supplemental oxygen is:
A – oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in the case of cabin
pressurisation failure
B – oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for physiological
reasons
C – oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide
D – oxygen specifically carried for therapeutic purposes
Ans: A
1. A slight air leak from an overwing exit
2. A malfunction of the pressurisation
3. The loss of a window
4. The loss of a door
A – 1, 2, 3
B – 1, 2
C – 3, 4
D – 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: B
26. What is the time of useful consciousness after a rapid decompression at 40,000
ft?
A – 12 seconds
B – 30 seconds
C – 10 minutes
D – 3 minutes
Ans: A
What would e evident during a rapid decompression?
1. Violent rush of gas from lungs
2. Expansion of body gases
3. Blast of air to the exterior
4. Mist in the cabin
B – 1, 2, 4
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 2, 3
Ans: A
27. The cockpit windows suddenly mist up, the temperature drops and the
background noise level increases. This indicates:
A – over pressurisation
B – a failure of the environmental control system
C – the automatic cabin fire extinguisher system has gone off
D – explosive decompression
Ans: D
28. When the pressurisation system fails, the RCDI shows:
A – A climb
B – A descent
C – No change
D – Fluctuations
Ans: A
29. Mist in the cabin accompanied by a drop in pressure and temperature are
indications of:
A – A rapid decompression
B – A slow decompression
C – An electrical fire
D – A plastic fire
Ans: A
30. At what cabin altitude would the flight crew be alerted if the cabin pressure
was reducing unnoticed?
A – 10,000 f
B – 11,000 ft
C – 13,000 ft
D – 800 ft
Ans: A
31. Normal flow on a diluter deman oxygen system is obtained by selecting:
A – NORMAL
B – NORMAL and breathing in
C – 100% and breathing in
D – EMERGENCY
Ans: B
Windshear and Microbust
While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about thepresence
of a microburst. You will expect to encounter:
A – windshears (vertical and horizontal)
B – wake turbulence
C – supercooled water
D – convection motion of air mas
Ans: A
1. During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an
increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:
1. Flies above the glide path
2. Flies below the glide path
3. Has an increasing true airspeed
4. Has a decreasing true airspeed
The combination of correct statements is:
A – 2, 4
B – 2, 3
C – 1, 3
D – 1,
Ans: A
2. During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a
decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:
A – 2, 4
B – 2, 3
C – 1, 3
D – 1, 4
Ans: A
3. Wind shear is:
A – a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
B – a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
C – a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction over a short
distance
D – a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction over a large
distance
Ans: C
4. In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:
1. set the maximum take-off thrust
2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker
3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)
4. keep the airplanes current configuration
5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio
A – 3, 5
B, 1, 3, 5
C – 2, 3
D – 1, 2, 4
Ans: D
5. An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way
towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst,
to face a windshear of:
A – 60 kt
B – 40 kt
C – 80 kt
D – 20 kt
Ans: C
6. In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind
which forces you to go around.
1. maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps)
2. reduce the drags (gear and flaps)
3. gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker
4. avoid excessive attitude change
A – 2, 3
B – 1, 4
C – 1, 3
D – 2, 4
Ans: C
7. During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an
increasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:
A – 2, 3
B – 1, 4
C – 1, 3
D – 2, 4
Ans: C
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a
decreasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:
A – 2, 4
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 1, 3
Ans: D
8. When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:
A – to climb
B – to descend
C – not to change its trajectory
D – to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength
Ans: B
9. A change to a horizontal tailwind will cause:
A – A climb
B – A descent or climb depending upon the strength of the gust
C – A descent only
D – An increase in TAS
Ans: B
10. How can the direction of wing tip vortices be described?
A – Both clockwise
B – Both counter clockwise
C – From above the wing to below the wing
D – From below the wing to above the wing
Ans: D
11. If an aircraft hits windshear with an increasing tailwind:
(i) TAS increases
(ii) TAS decreases
(iii) Aircraft descends below glideslope
(iv) Aircraft climbs above glideslope
A – (i), (iii)
B – (i), (iv)
C – (ii), (iii)
D – (ii), (iv)
Ans: C
12. A horizontal tailwind gust may cause an aeroplane to:
A – climb
B – climb or descend depending on gust strength
C – descend
D – have no effect on the flight path
Ans: C
13. In a mountainous region you encounter windshear and see an increase in
airspeed. You:
A – reduce power to stay on the glidepath
B – reduce power to 1.2VS and make a precision landing
C – bring to level flight, allow speed to fall and intercept the glidepath from
above
D – allow speed to increase while staying on the glidepath and monitoring
speed
Ans: D
14. In windshear associated with a microburst, you experience a 40 kts headwind.
Coming out of the microburst, you will experience a windshear of:
A - -20 kts
B - -40 kts
C - -60 kts
D - -80 kts
Ans: D
15. Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in
space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of
windshear the amount of control action that is required is:
A – medium
B – small
C – substantial
D – null
Ans: C
16. One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:
A – can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes
B – occurs only at a low altitude (2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane
C – occurs only at a low altitude (2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane
D – can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plan
Ans: A
17. Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value
when penetrating a windshear?
A – Pitch angle
B – Vertical speed
C – Ground speed
D – Indicated airspeed
Ans: D
18. If you encounter a microburst just after take-off, at the beginning you will
have:
1. a head wind
2. a strong rear wind
3. better climb performance
4. a diminution of climb gradient
5. an important thrust drop
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
A – 2, 4
B – 1, 4
C – 4, 5
D – 1, 3
Ans: D
19. On the approach you experience an increasing headwind. What happens to the
aircraft:
1. Descends below the glide path
2. Climbs above the glide path
3. TAS increases
4. TAS decreases
A – 1 and 4
B – 1 and 3
C – 2 and 4
D – 2 and 3
Ans: D
20. What is the first indication of windshear? A change in:
A – pitch angle
B – ground speed
C – vertical speed
D – indicated airspeed
Ans: D
21. What are the characteristics of windshear?
A – It occurs at any altitude in the horizontal and vertical plane
B – It can occur at any altitude only in the horizontal plane
C – it occurs only below 2000 ft and never in the horizontal plane
D – It only occurs below 2000 ft and never in the vertical plane
Ans: A
22. On the approach you hit windshear and have to go around. Do you:
A – Do nothing to your gear and flaps
B – Take gear and flap in
C – Pitch up to the stick shaker
D – Avoid excessive attitude manoeuvres
Ans: C
23. On the approach, you experience a decrease in tail wind, what happens to the
aeroplane without any corrections being applied?
1. Clmbs above glide path
2. Descends below glide path
3. TAS increases
4. TAS decreases
A – 1, 3
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 2, 4
.Ans: A
n the “worst case” scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst,
having increased to full go around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it
may be necessary to:
A – reduce speed to V2 and hold
B – climb away at Vat + 20 kt
C – increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly
below this angle
D – slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb
Ans: C
24. Just after take-off an aircraft encounters a “microburst” situated directly
ahead. The initial indications will be:
1. an increase in head wind
2. an increase in tail wind
3. better climb performance
4. a decrease in climb gradient
A – 1, 4
B – 2, 3
C – 1, 3
D – 2, 4
Ans: C
25. Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear?
A – Groundspeed
B – Pitch angle
C – Vertical speed
D – Indicated airspeed
Ans: D
Under a microburst, what happens?
A – Air is diverging and local pressure increases
B – Air rotates and local pressure decreases
C – Air is diverging and local pressure decreases
D – Air rotates and local pressure decreases
Ans: A
26. On encountering windshear what do you do?
A – Apply take-off power and pull to the stick shaker
B – Apply small increase in power
C – Apply moderate power and pull to the stick shaker
D – Pull to the stick shaker
Ans: A
27. What would you expect to encounter in a microburst?
A – Rain
B – Hail
C – Windshear
D – Thunder and lightning
Ans: C
28. When you encounter windshear, what input is needed by the pilot?
A – Small
B – Nil
C – Substantial
D – Moderate
Ans: C
What do you do in a microburst?
1. Apply engine power
2. Retract speed brakes
3. Retract flaps and gear
4. Retract all drag devices
5. Pitch up to stick shaker
A – 1, 3, 5
B – 1, 4, 5
C – 1, 2, 5
D – 2, 3,
Ans: C
29. What is wind shear?
A – Horizontal change in wind speed
B – Vertical change in wind speed
C – Vertical or horizontal change in wind velocity over a short distance
D – Vertical and horizontal change in wind velocity over a long distance
Ans: C
30. In a microburst downdrafts in the order of 3000 to 4000 ft/min can produce
vector changes in horizontal wind of:
A – 30 to 40 kts
B – 10 to 20 kts
C – 60 to 80 kts
D – 100 to 140 kt
Ans: C
071-02-08 Wake Turbulence
1. In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHaircraft
are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760m,
(in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence
radar separation minima of:
A – 2 NM
B – 4 NM
C – 3 NM
D – 5 NM
Ans: D
2. An airplane creates a wake turbulence when:
A – generating lift
B – flying at high speed
C – using a high engine RPM
D – flying with its gear and flaps extended
Ans: A
3. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation
minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to
A – LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel
runway separated by less than 760m (using whole runway)
B – LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
C – LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are
using the same runway
D – MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraf
Ans: B
To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should
manoeuvre:
A – Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
B – Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
C – Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
D – Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
Ans: C
4. For the purposes of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum
radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind
another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
A – 9.3 km (5 NM)
B – 7.4 km (4 NM)
C – 11.1 km (6 NM)
D – 3.7 km (2 NM)
Ans: b
5. The wake turbulence:
A – starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag
devices
B – starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as
it has come to a stop at landing
C – starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and
stops when it crosses this height before landing
D – starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplanes wheels touch
the ground
Ans: D
The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:
1. An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices)
2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts)
3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps,
etc)
A – 1, 2 and 3
B–3
C – 2 and 3
D–1
Ans: D
6. According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation
minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
A – MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an
intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760m
B – MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
C – LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an
intermediate part of the same runway
D – LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
Ans: B
7. DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes that wake turbulence separation minima shall
be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the
maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft
types of:
A – 146,000 kgs or more
B – 135,000 kgs or more
C – less than 136,000 kgs but more than 126,000 kgs
D – 136,000 kgs or more
Ans: D
For purposes of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium
aeroplane (less than 136,000 kg but more than 7,000 kg) on the approach to
landing?
A – 2 minutes
B – 4 minutes
C – 5 minutes
D – 3 minutes
Ans: D
8. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum
separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a
heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway?
A – 5 minutes
B – 4 minutes
C – 3 minutes
D – 2 minutes
Ans: C
9. When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left
side, you adopt a path, whenever possible?
A – distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and
under its path
B – distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above
its path
C – identical to the one of the preceding airplane
D – distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its
path
Ans: B
The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is:
1. slow
2. heavy
3. in a clean configuration
4. flying with a high thrust
The combination of correct statement is:
A – 1, 4
B – 1, 2, 3
C – 1, 2, 3, 4
D – 2, 3, 4
Ans: B
10. The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:
A – Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
B – Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
C – Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration
D – Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration
Ans: D
In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be
entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less
than 136,000 kg but greater than 7,000 kg:
A–H
B–M
C–L
D–S
Ans: B
Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:
A – a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling
manoeuvres over the runway
B – when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a
strong crosswind on a long runway
C – during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft
D – a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway,
a light crosswind condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used
Ans: D
11. In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:
A – The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence
B – The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway
C – The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway
D – The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway
Ans: D
12. The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a:
A – low weight and low speed
B – low weight and high speed
C – high weight and low speed
D – high weight and high speed
Ans: C
13. When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should
take-off:
A – in front of the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down
B – beyond the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down
C – at the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down and on the wind
side of the runway
D – at the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched the ground and on the
underwind side of the runway
Ans: B
14. According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima
of 9.3 km (5.0 NM) shall be applied when a:
A – LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude
or less than 300 m (1000 ft)
B – LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same
altitude or less than 300m (1000 ft)
C – HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude
or less than 300m (1000 ft)
D – MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same
altitude or less than 300 m (1000 ft)
Ans: B
15. The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-
body aircraft during take-off is about:
A – 3 minutes
B – 30 seconds
C – 1 minute
D – 10 minutes
Ans: A
16. When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the right
side, you adopt a path, whenever possible?
A – identical to the one of the preceding airplane
B – distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left of and under
its path
C – distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the right of and
above its path
D – different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under
its path
Ans: C
To which situation is 3 mins wake turbulence separation applied?
A – Light following a medium departing from a runway intersection on a
parallel runway less than 760m apart
B – A light taking off after a heavy has taken off in the opposite direction
C – A medium landing after a heavy aircraft
D – A light aircraft departing after a heavy on the same runway
Ans: A
17. Wake turbulence risk is highest:
A – if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same
runway with heavy crosswind
B – when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated
parallel runway with a light crosswind
C – following a preceding aircraft at high speed
D – when a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to
take off
Ans: B
18. Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the
following is established:
A – drag
B – lift
C – spin up
D – lift destruction
Ans: B
19. Under what conditions is a radar separation of 5 nm required for wake
turbulence spacing:
A – Heavy following a heavy
B – Medium following a heavy
C – Light following a heavy
D – Heavy following a medium
Ans: B
20. Where is the best position following a heavier aeroplane?
A – Above its flight path and downwind
B – Below its flight path and upwind
C – Below its flight path and upwind
D – Upwind and above its flight path
Ans: D
21. Wake turbulence starts:
A – when selecting the drag dev ices and stops when retracting the drag
devices
B – when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops
when it crosses this height before landing
C – during rotation and stops as soon as the airplanes wheels touch the ground
D – as soon as the aeroplane is commencing the take-off run and stops as soon
as it has comed to a stop after landing
Ans: C
22. For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than
136,000 kg and more than 7,000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy
aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
A – 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes
B – 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
C – 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
D – 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes
Ans: C
In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
A – high altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the
atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals
B – low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the
atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals
C – low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the
atmospherica pressure increases by a few hectopascals
D – low altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the
atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals
Ans: C
23. The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
A – counter-clockwise
B – clockwise
C – from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing
D – from the upper side of the wing toward the underwin
Ans: C
24. According to DOC 4444 (ICAO) a wake turbulence non-radar separation
minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
A – to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure
when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold, if the
projected flight paths are expected to cross
B – between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed
approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway
for take-off
C – to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an
intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less than 760m
D – to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival
when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold
Ans: C
When is 3 minutes separation applied?
A – A light aeroplane departing after a heavy aeroplane from the same
position
B – A medium aeroplane departing after a heavy aeroplane has made a missed
approach in the opposite direction
C – A light aeroplane landing following a medium aeroplane
D – A medium aeroplane landing following a heavy aeroplane
Ans: C
25. The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is:
1. slow
2. heavy
3. in a clean configuration
4. flying with a high thrust
The combination of correct statement is:
A – 1, 2 and 3
B – 1, 3 and 4
C – 2, 3 and 4
D – All of the abov
Ans: A
26. What flying conditions give the worst wake turbulence?
A – Large, heavy, slow and clean
B – Large, heavy, fast and full flaps, large
C – Large, high power, slow and full flaps
D – Large, high powers fast and clean
Ans: A
You are a heavy aeroplane behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach. What is
the required separation?
A – 7.4 km, 4 nm
B – 3.6 km, 2 nm
C – 5.5 km, 3 nm
D – 9.2 km, 5 nm
Ans: A
27. For a light aircraft departing after a medium what is the minimum time for
wake turbulence separation?
A – 3 min
B – 2 min
C – 1 min
D – 5 min
Ans: B
28. What is the major factor causing wake turbulence?
1. Wing Tip Vortices
2. Engines
3. High Lift Devices
4. Size of the Landing Gear
A–1
B – 2, 3
C – 1, 4
D–3
Ans: A
A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contracts the
horizontal tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be:
A – tendency to increase speed after initial stall
B – nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response
C – nose down tendency
D – increase sensitivity of elevator inputs
Ans: B
When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake
turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according with
DOC 4444 (ICAO) shall be:
A – 1 min
B – 2 min
C – 3 min
D – 4 min
Ans: C
29. In calm wind conditions, an aircraft at take-off creates tip vortices that:
A – stagnate on the runway
B – separate outwards on each side of the runway
C – separate outwards to the right side only
D – separate outwards to the left side only
Ans: B
30. What is the weight range for medium category aircraft?
A – 5,700 kg to 100,000 kg
B – 7,000 kg to 125,000 kg
C – 5,700 kg to 136,000 kg
D – 7,000 kg to 136,000 kg
Ans: D
071-02-09 Security
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the
commander should submit a report of the act to:
A – the Authority of the State of the operator only
B – the local authority only
C – both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
D – the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the
time of the unlawful interference
Ans: C
1. What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft
which is being subjected to unlawful interference:
A – code 7700
B – code 7600
C – code 7500
D – code 200
Ans: C
2. What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to
unlawful interference (hijacked) is:
A – 7500
B – 7600
C – 7700
D – 7800
Ans: A
3. In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:
A – 2000
B – 7600
C – 7700
D – 7500
Ans: D
4. In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board
an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act
of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
A – State of the operator, the JAA and ICAO
B – State of Registry of the aircraft and the JAA
C – State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO
D – State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only
Ans: C
5. According to the JAR OPS, when a commercial transport passenger airplane is
equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must
include:
A – a locking system to prevent any unauthorised access
B – a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit
C – distinctive red or yellow coloured markings indicating the access area (in
case of a blocked door)
D – a sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as possible of the
pressure in the cockpit in case of a depressurisation in the compartment
area
Ans: A
6. When you have been unlawfully interfered with, the state in which you land is
required to inform certain people:
1. State of the Operator
2. ICAO
3. State of registration of aircraft
4. JAA
B – 1, 2
C – 1, 2, 3
D – 2, 4
Ans: C
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a
pressurised aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
A – you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabinaltitude
or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting
yourself in a landing approach configuration
B – you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude
C – you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of
pressurisation
D – you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and
keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach
Ans: A
7. The flight deck door should be capable of being:
A – remotely locked from either side inside or outside the compartment
B – locked from within the compartment
C – directly locked from outside the compartment
D – remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment
Ans: B
8. According to ICAO Annex 17, following an unlawful interference, who shall
take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft,
until their journey can be continued? The:
A – contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs
B – JAA
C – Commander of the aircraft
D – aircraft’s operator
Ans: A
A bomb alert is received at cruise altitude, fuel is not a problem that needs to
be considered, what do you do?
A – Descend to safety altitude
B – Go to the maximum altitude not affected by pressure
C – Go to cabin altitude pressure and remain clean until the final approach
D – Descend to cabin pressure altitude or safety altitude whichever is the
higher, and go to landing configuration as a safety measure
Ans: D
1-02-10 Emergency and precautionary landings
1. An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is
necessary to:
A – carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much
lifting surface to the rain
B – reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on
landing
C – maintain the normal approach speed up to landing
D – increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by
deteriorating the boundary layer
Ans: D
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise?
A – a slow depressurisation
B – a fast depressurisation
C – an electrical fire
D – a plastic fire
Ans: B
2. The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts fastened:
A – head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh
B – head down as far as possible, grasp the passenger in front of you
C – head down as far as possible, grasp the legs with your arms
D – cross the arm in front of the face
Ans: A
In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will:
1. evacuate women and children first
2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts
3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplanes floatation
ability
4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane
A – 2, 3
B – 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 4
Ans: B
3. The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
A – an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably
expect no injuries on board
B – a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result
to the occupants
C – a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to
protect the aircraft and its occupants
D – an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably
expect no injuries on board or on the surface
Ans: D
4. Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft,
you will:
1. Remain on the runway
2. Clear the runway using the first available taxiway
3. Keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical
power supply on
4. Turn off all systems
A – 2, 3
B – 1, 3
C – 1, 4
D – 2, 4
Ans: C
5. For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must
be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity,
including the required numberof crew members, can be evacuated from the
aeroplane to the ground in:
A – 90 seconds
B – 132 seconds
C – 120 seconds
D – 60 seconds
Ans: A
6. After ditching, when must a passenger inflate the lift jacket?
A – If the water is deep
B – Before leaving the aeroplane
C – On entering the water
D – When exiting the aeroplane
Ans: D
What are the tasks to be undertaken by cabin crew when evacuating
passengers?
(i) Women and children first
(ii) Ensure no movement of passengers for floatation
(iii) Direct into life rafts
(iv) Ensure aircraft evacuated
B – (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C – (iii) and (iv)
D – (ii) and (iv)
Ans: C
7. What is the evacuation time for an aeroplane with more than 44 seats?
A – 60 secs
B – 90 secs
C – 120 secs
D – 132 secs
Ans: B
8. The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling
direction, in case of an emergency landing are:
1. legs together and feet flat on the floor
2. head resting against the back of the front seat
3. forearms on the armrests
4. seat belt very tightly fastened
5. head resting on the forearm
A – 2, 3, 4
B – 2, 4, 5
C – 1, 4, 5
D – 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: C
In a ditching situation, except for infants, the passengers shall be instructed to
inflate their life jackets:
A – as soon as ditching is prepared
B – immediately on the opening of the exits
C – immediately on ditching
D – when exiting the aircraft
Ans: D
9. After an overweight landing on a short runway, do you check:
A – Pressure of tyres
B – pressure of hydraulic fluid
C – Temperature of hydraulic fluid
D – Temperature of brakes
Ans: D
10. Information about evacuation can be found in the:
A – Journey Logbook
B – Operation Manual
C – Operational Flight Plan
D – Flight Manual
Ans: B
11. 24887. In case you have to assume the emergency brace position, do you:
1. legs together, feet flat on the floor
2. Arms on arm rests
3. Head on forearms
4. Head on seat in front
5. Seat belt tight round waist
B – 1, 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 3, 4, 5
D – 1, 2, 4, 5
Ans: C
12. What action should you take after an emergency landing requiring emergency
evacuation?
1. Remain on runway
2. Take first taxiway exit off runway
3. Shut off all systems
4. Keep one engine or APU on to supply electrical equipment
A – 1, 4
B – 2, 3
C – 1, 3
D – 2, 4
Ans: C
13. According to JAR-OPS, the time for emergency evacuation where the seating
capacity is more than 44 is:
A – 2 min with 50% of the exits unavailable
B – 90 sec with 50% of the exits unavailable
C – 90 min with 50% of the exits unavailable
D – 90 sec with all the exits available in a real emergency
Ans: B
14. After an accident or serious incident in flight, the state where the aeroplane
lands should report to:
A – State of Registry/ICAO
B – State of Registry/State of the Operator
C – State of Registry/JAA
D – State of Registry/ State of the Operator/ICAO
Ans: D
15. Who is responsible for initiating the procedures outlined in the Operations
Manual in the event of an emergency?
A – In the air the aircraft commander, on the ground the flight dispatcher
B – In the air the pilot, on the ground the operator
C – In the air the flight crew, on the ground ATC
D – In the air the cabin crew, on the ground the handling agent
Ans: A
071-02-11 Fuel Jettisoning
1. If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
A – under flight level 50 (FL 50)
B – in a holding stack, after control clearance
C – in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level
D – during final phase of approach
Ans: C
2. A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in
order to reduce the aircraft weight in an emergency:
A – until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing and landing
gear constraints at landing touchdown
B – unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements: 2.7% in approach
configuration with 1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration
with all engines operative
C – in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15
minutes after activation of the jettisoning system
D – in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the effective runway
length
Ans: B
3. In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning
sufficient fuel to meet the precise climb and discontinued approach
requirements:
A – 15 minutes
B – 30 minutes
C – 60 minutes
D – 90 minutes
Ans: A
4. From the following list:
1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard
2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane
3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane
4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of
the aeroplane
Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel
jettisoning tests:
A – 1, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 4
D – 2, 3 .
Ans: B
5. In what minimum time must sufficient fuel be jettisoned in order to comply
with approach/climb gradient specifications?
A – 90 minutes
B – 60 minutes
C – 30 minutes
D – 15 minutes
Ans: D
1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard
2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane
3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane
4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of
the aeroplane
Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel
jettisoning tests?
A – 1, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 4
D – 2, 3
Ans: B
7. The time limit for fuel jettison to reduce from MTOM to emergency landing
mass is:
A – 15 minutes
B – 30 minutes
C – 10 minutes
D – 20 minutes
Ans: A
8. Where is it best to carry out fuel jettison?
A – Below flight level 50
B – In a holding pattern if cleared by ATC
C – Straight and level at a high altitude as possible
D – On final approach
Ans: C
9. When jettisoning fuel for certification the following conditions must be
demonstrated:
(i) Fuel jettisoning must be free from fire hazards
(ii) Fuel discharges clear of aircraft
(iii) Fuel or fumes do not enter the aircraft
(iv) Fuel jettisoning does not affect the controllability of the aircraft
(v) Fuel can be jettisoned within 30 minutes
B – (i), (ii) and (iii)
C – (ii), (iii) and (v)
D – (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
Ans: A
Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air
10. In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on
board a public transport airplane, they must be accompanied with a:
A – transport document for hazardous materials
B – representative of the company owning the materials
C – specialised handling employee
D – system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in
temperature
Ans: A
11. The authorisation for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:
A – airworthiness certificate
B – registration certificate
C – air carrier certificate
D – insurance certificate
Ans: C
12. The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of
hazardous materials are specified in the:
A – operation manual
B – flight manual
C – AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication)
D – air carrier certificate
Ans: A
13. ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organisation) Appendix 18 is a document
dealing with:
A – the technical operational use of aircraft
B – the air transport of live animals
C – the noise pollution of aircraft
D – the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
Ans: D
14. A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found
in:
A – the shippers declaration for dangerous goods
B – Annex 18 to the Chicago convention
C – Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention
D – the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air
Ans: D
15. Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is
not prohibited?
A – The shipper when completing the shippers declaration for dangerous
goods
B – The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items
C – The operator
D – It is not specified
Ans: A
16. Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or
materials in question are defined as such by:
A – The directives of the Community Union
B – The UNO document entitled Dangerous Goods Regulations
C – The ICAO document entitled Technical Instructions for the safe transport
of dangerous goods by air
D – The IATA document entitled Regulations governing the transportation of
dangerous goods by ai
Ans: C
17. The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:
A – the shipper
B – the operator
C – the captain
D – the handling agent
Ans: A
18. In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the
regulatory arrangements is the responsibility of the:
A – sender
B – captain
C – station manager
D – aerodrome manager
Ans: A
1. Fire extinguishers
2. Portable oxygen supplies
3. First-aid kits
4. Passenger meals
5. Alcoholic beverages
Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the
aeroplane in accordance with relevant JARs for operating reasons:
A – 1, 2, and 5 only
B – 1, 2 and 3 only
C – 3, 4 and 5 only
D – 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: B
20. In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language
should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods:
A – English, French or Spanish
B – French
C – Spanish
D – English
Ans: D
21. Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
A – no passenger is carried on the same flight
B – national aviation administration permission has been granted
C – government permission has been granted
D – the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
Ans: D
22. A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:
1. on himself/herself
2. in his/her hand luggage
3. in his/her checked luggage
A – 1, 2, 3
B–1
C – 1, 2
D – 2, 3
Ans: B
23. When carrying hazardous dangerous air cargo on an aeroplane with passengers
what must you have?
A – A trained person accompanying the goods
B – Details on procedures if split during an emergency
C – A company representative
D – Transport documentatio
Ans: D
Who is responsible for ensuring that the regulatory procedures for the
transportation of dangerous goods is complied with?
A – Captain
B – Sender
C – Station Manager
D – Aerodrome Manager
Ans: B
24. The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are
listed in the:
A – aircrafts flight manual
B – IATA document Dangerous products transportation
C – JAR-OPS documentation
D – ICAO document named Technical safety instructions for the air
transportation of dangerous products
Ans: D
25. Regarding the carriage of dangerous goods, the transport document, if
required, is drawn up by:
A – The operator
B – The captain
C – The handling agent
D – The shipper
Ans: D
26. ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organisation) Appendix 18 is a document
dealing with the:
A – safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
B – technical operational use of aircraft
C – air transport of live animals
D – noise pollution of aircraft
Ans: A
27. Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given?
A – Certificate of Airworthiness
B – Aircraft registration
C – Air Operators Certificate
D – Insurance Certificate
Ans: C
For the two labels represented in the appendix, the principal and secondary
risks are respectively:
A – corrosive material, toxic
B – corrosive material, infectious
C – infectious material, corrosive
D – toxic material, corrosive
Ans: D
28. (Refer to figure 071-06)
Considering the two holds of an aircraft. Each hold consists of 4
compartments to accommodate freight pallets or luggage containers. You are
asked to load:
2 pallets of live animals marked “AVl”
2 luggage containers marked “BAG”
1 mortal remains marked “HUM”
1 pallet of food product marked “EAT”
1 pallet of radioactive materials marked “RRY”
1 pallet of toxic materials marked “RHF”
The locations still vacant shall be marked “XXX”. According to the table of
compatibility of special freight and hazardous materials given in the appendix,
the most operational distribution in the holds shall be:
A – Hold 1 : EAT – BAG – RRY – RHF;
Hold 2 : BAG – AVl – AVl – HUM
B – Hold 1 : EAT – BAG – AVl – AVl
Hold 2 : BAG – HUM – RRY – RHF
C – Hold 1 : BAG – BAG – RRY – HUM
Hold 2 : AVl – AVl – XXX – EAT (RHF disembarked)
D – Hold 1 : BAG – RHF – HUM – RRY
Hold 2 : AVl – AVl – BAG - EAT
Ans: D
If a packet is marked with the label shown in the appendix (Label ‘A’) it is:
A – an explosive substance
B – a corpse
C – an infectious substance
D – a toxic material
Ans: D
29. As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a
dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
A – accept it after a visual inspection
B – mention it on the Notification to Captain
C – ensure that arrangements are made for its removal
D – mention it on the shipper’s declaration
Ans: C
30. Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authority, carriage of
dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
A – the operator complies with the technical instructions (ICAO DOC 9284)
B – the dangerous goods transport document is approved by the national
authority prior to each flight
C – the operator has certified the dangerous goods
D – no passengers and dangerous goods are carried on the same flight
Ans: A
31. The authorisation for th transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:
A – airworthiness certificate
B – registration certificate
C – air operator certificate
D – insurance certificate
Ans: C
32. The dangerous goods regulations ICAO annex 18 and JAR OPS require that,
when delivering cargo for transport, the responsibility for compliance with the
regulations are to:
A – aerodrome manager
B – commander
C – station manager
D – sender
Ans: D
33. The dangerous goods transport document regarding the safe transport of
dangerous goods by air is specified in the:
A – air transport permit
B – technical instructions
C – flight manual
D – operations manual
Ans: B
34. The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:
A – ICAO Appendix 8
B – ICAO Annex 18
C – the Washington Convention
D – ICAO Annex 17
Ans: B
35. Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or
partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the
transport document in addition to any other language?
A – Spanish
B – French
C – English
D – English, French, Spanish, Russian, Chinese
Ans: C
36. Where is the general information about the carriage of dangerous goods to be
found?
A – Operations Manual
B – AIC
C – Aircraft flight notes
D – Journey LogBook
Ans: A
37. What are Class 6 dangerous goods?
A – Explosives
B – Toxic
C – Radioactive
D – Flammable liquid
Ans: B
38. Who checks that any dangerous cargo offered for shipping is legal?
A – The pilot-in-command
B – The operator
C – The shipper
D – No one specified
Ans: C
39. Which language must dangerous goods is labelled in?
A – English
B – French
C – Spanish
D – English, French or Spanish
Ans: A
Where is information on dangerous goods allowed to be carried by passengers
found?
A – JAR FCL
B – ICAO Annex 18 for carriage of dangerous goods
C – Dangerous Goods Procedures in Ops manual
D – AFM
Ans: B
40. According to JAR OPS, which of the following are considered dangerous
goods that are required to be carried on board the aeroplane?
1. Portable fire extinguishers
2. Emeergency oxygen supplies
3. Passenger food
4. First aid kits
5. Alcoholic beverages
A – 1, 2
B – 1, 2, 4
C – 1, 3, 4
D – 2, 4, 5
Ans: B
41. What manual should you use to find the specific instructions for the carriage
of dangerous goods:
A – Technical Instructions
B – ICAO Annex 18
C – ICAO Annex 16
D – AFM
Ans: A
What does ICAO Annex 18 relate to?
A – Dangerous goods
B – Flight time limitation
C – Facilitation
D – Flight Crew Licensing
Ans: A
071-02-13 Contaminated Runways
1. For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude
will:
A – maintains or increases the hydroplaning speed
B – decreases the hydroplaning speed
C – maintains the hydroplaning speed
D – increases the hydroplaning speed
Ans: D
2. For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as the:
1. Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves
2. Speed is greater than 96 kt
3. Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
A – 3 and 4
B – 1 and 4
C – 2 and 3
D – 1 and 2
Ans: D
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
A – 1 and 4
B – 1 and 2
C – 2 and 3
D – 3 and 4
Ans: B
3. Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film
of water and:
A – is rough textured
B – is very smooth and clean
C – is very smooth and dirty
D – the tyre treads are not in a good state
Ans: C
4. In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain:
1. you increase your approach speed
2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the
runway and immediately land your nose gear
3. you decrease your approach speed
4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices
5. you land as smoothly as possible
6. you brake energetically
A – 1, 2, 4
B – 3, 5
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 4, 5, 6
Ans: A
5. In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
A – its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny
appearance
B – surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance
C – it is covered with a firm of water of less than 3 mm
D – it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm
Ans: A
6. In the JAR OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25%
of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following
elements:
1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway
2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of
water
3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further)
4. ice, including wet ice 5 moist grass
A – 1, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 3, 4
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 3, 4, 5
Ans: C
7. The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form
ofa:
A – letter falling between A and E
B – percentage varying from 10% to 100%
C – zero followed by two decimals
D – combination of the terms: poor, medium, good
Ans: D
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
A – poor
B – unreliable
C – medium
D – good
Ans: A
8. The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the
appearance of:
A – rubber reversion hydroplaning
B – dynamic hydroplaning
C – viscous hydroplaning
D – rubber steaming hydroplaning
Ans: C
9. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
A – 24 hours
B – 12 hours
C – 6 hours
D – 3 hours
Ans: A
10. The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
A – aircraft’s weight
B – depth of the standing water on the runway
C – strength of the head wind
D – amount of the lift off speed
Ans: B
Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on
landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports
indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The
required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
A – 20%
B – 18%
C – 15%
D – 17.6%
Ans: C
11. A runway covered with 4 mm thick water is said to be:
A – flooded
B – wet
C – contaminated
D – damp
Ans: C
12. For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
1. water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves
2. speed is greater than 123 kt
3. water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
A – 2 and 3
B – 1 and 4
C – 3 and 4
D – 1 and 2
Ans: D
A – 1, 2
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 3, 4
Ans: A
13. The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 10.8 bars. The speed at
which the hydroplaning phenomenon will appear is approximately:
A – 112 kt
B – 56 kt
C – 87 kt
D – 145 kt
Ans: A
14. Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplanes mainwheel tyre
pressure is 206 psi, the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning
may occur in the event of applying brakes is:
A – 80 kt
B – 114 kt
C – 100 kt
D – 129 kt
Ans: D
hydroplaning as soon as:
A – 1, 2
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 3, 4
Ans: A
15. Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared lengthof a runway in metres. If this
is less than the published length, how is this reported:
A – by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in metres
B – it is not reported
C – in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM
D – as a percentage of the total length of the runway available as the final
items of a SNOWTAM
Ans: C
16. If airworthiness documents do not show any additional correction factor for
landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance
shall be increased by:
A – 20%
B – 15%
C – 105
D – 5%
Ans: B
What is the definition of a wet runway?
A – 25% contamination of the runway with water depth less than 3 mm
B – More than 25% coverage of water greater than 3 mm deep
C – Water standing on a runway without grooves or a porous pavement
D – Water standing on a runway with water depth less than 3 mm, appearing
non-reflective
Ans: A
17. Braking action is described as 0.25 or below. Is it good/medium/poor?
A – Poor
B – Medium to Poor
C – Medium
D – Good to medium
Ans: A
18. Which combination of statements describes a wet runway?
1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or
equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water
2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does
not give it a shiny appearance
3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does
not create large stagnant sheets of water
4. it bears stagnant sheets of water
A – 1, 4
B – 2, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 1, 3
Ans: D
An aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 Bar is in danger of dynamic
hydroplaning if:
1. The aeroplane speed is in excess of 107 kts
2. The water depth is equal to the tyre tread depth
3. The aeroplane speed is in excess of 95 kts
4. The water depth is equal to half the tyre tread depth
A – 1, 2
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 3, 4
Ans: A
19. Viscous hydroplaning is caused by:
A – a smooth and clear runway surface
B – a smooth and dirty runway surface
C – bald tyres
D – a rough runway surface
Ans: B
20. An aircraft with a tyre pressure of 14 Bar will be subject to hydroplaning
when:
(i) The water depth is equal to the tyre tread depth
(ii) The speed is greater than 123 kts
(iii) The water depth is equal to half the tyre tread depth
(iv) The speed is greater than 95 kts
A – (i) and (ii)
B – (ii) and (iii)
C – (i) and (iv)
D – (iii) and (iv
Ans: A
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:
1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or
equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water
2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does
not give it a shiny appearance
3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does
not create large stagnant sheets of water
4. it bears stagnant sheets of water
A – 1, 3
B – 1, 2, 3
C – 1, 2
D–4
Ans: A
21. In a SNOWTAM, if the cleared length of runway is less than the published
length, what and where would the information be displayed?
A – Box D with the cleared length expressed as a percentage
B – Box D with the cleared length is metres
C – Box T explained in plain English
D – Box C with the runway designator
Ans: B
22. How is braking efficiency presented?
A – Decimal followed by two significant figures
B – Sequentially from A to E
C – Poor, medium, good
D – As a function of the length of the runway
Ans: C
A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered more
than:
A – 10% with ice
B – 25% with compacted snow
C – 20% with melted snow
D – 15% with melted snow
Ans: B
23. For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
A – Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
B – Speed is greater than 108 kt
C – Speed is greater than 96 kt
D – Runway temperature is greater than 40oC
Ans: B
A – Speed is greater than 83 kt
B – Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
D – Speed is greater than 95 kt
Ans: C
A – Tail wind is greater than 10 kt
C – Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
D – Speed is greater than 95 kt
Ans: B
For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
A – Speed is greater than 138 kt
C – Water depth is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves
D – Cross wind is greater than 15 kt
Ans: A
A – Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of tyre grooves
D – Cross wind is greater than 20 k
Ans: C
27. How is the uncleared part of a contaminated runway reported in a
SNOWTAM
A – As a percentageof the total length of the runway available as the final item
of a SNOWTAM
B – It is not reported
C – By a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in metres
D – In plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM
Ans: D
When there is a risk of hydroplaning the pilot of an aeroplane:
A – should make a positive landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and
brakes as quickly as possible
B – should use maximum reverse thrust, however should start braking below
the hydroplaning speed
C – should use normal landing, braking and reverse technique
D – must wait for landing until the risk for hydroplaning is no longer existing
Ans: A
28. Landing on a flooded runway in heavy rain:
1. Decrease your approach speed
2. Make a positive touch down on the main gear and lower the nose gear as
soon as practicable
3. Increase the approach speed
4. Make a smooth touchdown
5. Use all available lift dumpers in a systematic manner
6. Brake heavily
A – 2, 4, 5, 6
B – 2, 5
C – 1, 2, 5
D – 1, 4, 5
Ans: B
An aircraft with a tyre pressure of 14 Bar will be subject to hydroplaning
when:
A – 1, 2
B – 2, 3
C – 1, 4
D – 3, 4
Ans: A
29. What is the aquaplaning speed if the main gear tyre pressure is 10.8 Bar?
A – 112 kts
B – 143 kts
C – 85 kts
D – 95 kts
Ans: A
30. What is the most important factor to be taken into account concerning
dynamic hydroplaning?
A – Weight of the aeroplane
B – Lift off speed
C – Depth of the water
D – Configuration of the aeroplane
Ans: B
If no other figure is published, by what factor must the landing distance on a
wet runway be connected by?
A – 5%
B – 10%
C – 15%
D – 20%
Ans: C
31. A runway is considered to be wet when;
1. Slush/snow equivalent or water less than 3 mm in depth
2. Change of colour but not shiny
3. Shiny appearance
4. Large stagnant sheets of water
A – 4 only
B – 2, 4
C – 1, 3
D – 3, 4
Ans: C
32. In the H field of a SNOWTAM the information displayd is 0.25. This means
that the braking action is:
A – Medium
B – Medium to poor
C – Poor
D – Medium to good
Ans: C
An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 12.4 bar. Dynamic hydroplaning is likely to
begin at:
A – 106 kt
B – 121 kt
C – 143 kt
D – 82 kt
Ans: B
071-02-15 Operation influenced by met conditions
1. When would you expect carburettor icing to occur?
A – Outside Air Temperature (OAT): -10oC, Dew Point (DEWP): -15oC
B – Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +25oC, Dew Point (DEWP): +5oC
C – Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +10oC, Dew Point (DEWP): +7oC
D – Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +15oC, Dew Point (DEWP): -5oC
Ans: C

Operational Procedures: General Annex 6 Parts I, II and III

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Operational Procedures: General Annex 6 Parts I, II and III

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OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

A – As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument

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