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Study Material Grade: Xi Biology CHAPTERS: 1,2,3,4 &5 Chapter 1 The Living World

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STUDY MATERIAL

GRADE: XI BIOLOGY
CHAPTERS: 1,2,3,4 &5

CHAPTER 1 THE LIVING WORLD


1.Who is also called the “Darwin of the 20th century”?
(a) Lamarck
(b) Ernst Mayr
(c) Carolus Linnaeus
(d) Robert May
SHOW ANSWER
(b) Ernst Mayr
2. The number of species that are known and described range between _. Fill in the
blanks with the correct option from the following.
(a) 1.4 to 1.5 million
(b) 1.6 to 1.7 million
(c) 1.7 to 1.8 million
(d) 1.9 to 2 million
SHOW ANSWER
(c) 1.7 to 1.8 million
3. What are the twin characteristics of growth?
(a) increase in mass
(b) increase in number
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(c) both a and b
4. Growth in living organisms is from
(a) outside
(b) inside
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(b) inside
5. Growth cannot be taken as a defining property or feature of living organisms because
(a) all living organisms do not show growth
(b) non living things grow from inside
(c) non living things also grow
(d) some living organisms do not show the process of reproduction
SHOW ANSWER
(c) non living things also grow
6. Growth is synonymous with reproduction for which of the following organisms?
(a) unicellular algae
(b) amoeba
(c) bacteria
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
7. Which of the following organisms multiply by fragmentation?
(a) fungi
(b) filamentous algae
(c) planaria
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
8. Mark the correct statement from the following
(a) growth in living organisms is from inside
(b) plants grow but only up to a certain age
(c) only living organisms grow
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(a) growth in living organisms is from inside
9. Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events in which of the following
(a) plants only
(b) animals only
(c) higher animals and plants
(d) lower organisms
SHOW ANSWER
(c) higher animals and plants
10. Reproduction cannot be an all inclusive defining characteristic feature of living
organisms because
(a) living organisms do not show growth
(b) many living organisms do not reproduce
(c) non living objects are also capable of reproducing
(d) all living organisms show a small period of reproductive phase in their life
SHOW ANSWER
(b) many living organisms do not reproduce
11. Living organisms show
(a) self replication and self regulation
(b) evolution
(c) response to external stimuli
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
12. The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in the body is known as
(a) metabolism
(b) catabolism
(c) anabolism
(d) homeostasis
SHOW ANSWER
(a) metabolism
13. Select the incorrect statement from the following
1) NBRI (National Botanical Research Institute) is situated at Lucknow
2) Plant families like convolvulaceae and solanaceae are included in other polynomials
mainly based on floral characters
3) All living organisms – present, past and future are linked to one another by sharing
of common genetic material but to varying degrees
4) Order solanum, datura and petunia are placed in the family solanaceae
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 4 only
(d) 2 and 3
SHOW ANSWER
(c) 4 only
14. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) all plants, animals, fungi and microorganisms exhibit metabolism
(b) interactions among the molecular components of the organelles result into the properties
of cell organelles
(c) properties of cellular organelles are present in the molecular constituents of the organelles
(d) cellular organisation of the body is the defining feature of life forms
SHOW ANSWER
(c) properties of cellular organelles are present in the molecular constituents of the organelles
15. Properties of organs are
(a) present in the constituent cells
(b) due to different cells in them
(c) due to their similar origin
(d) a result of interaction among the constituent issues
SHOW ANSWER
(d) a result of interaction among the constituent issues
16. Growth by cell division occurs ___ in plants and ___ in animals
(a) continuously, only up to a certain age
(b) only up to a certain age, continuously
(c) continuously, continuously
(d) never, continuously
SHOW ANSWER
(a) continuously, only up to a certain age
17. Which set of the following organisms multiply by fragmentation?
(a) planaria, hydra, yeast
(b) echinoderms fungi bacteria
(c) fungi, filamentous algae, protonema of mosses
(d) amoeba, hydra, virus
SHOW ANSWER
(c) fungi, filamentous algae, protonema of mosses
18. Which of the following organisms do not reproduce?
(a) mules
(b) sterile worker bees
(c) sterile human couple
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
19. Which of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living organisms?
(a) isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro
(b) increase in mass is from inside only
(c) increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally
(d) perception of events happening around their environment and their memory
SHOW ANSWER
(b) increase in mass is from inside only
20. Which of the following is self conscious?
(a) human being
(b) salamander
(c) cat
(d) housefly
SHOW ANSWER
(a) human being
21. Metabolic reactions take place
(a) in vitro
(b) in Vivo
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(c) both a and b
22. Which of the following organisms can sense and respond to environmental cues?
(a) eukaryotes only
(b) prokaryotes only
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(c) both a and b
23. Growth, development and functioning of a living organism is due to
(a) an increase in Gibbs free energy
(b) a decrease in entropy
(c) metabolism
(d) adaptation
SHOW ANSWER
(c) metabolism
24. Living organisms can be exceptionally differentiated from non living things on the
basis of which of the following abilities?
(a) reproduction and excretion
(b) growth and movement
(c) responsiveness in touch and temperature
(d) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
SHOW ANSWER
(d) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
25. What are the two components of Binomial Nomenclature?
(a) the generic name
(b) specific epithet
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(c) both a and b
26. In Mangifera Indica Linn, what does Linn stand for?
(a) Latin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Linnaeus
(d) lower organism
SHOW ANSWER
(c) Linnaeus
27. Alsatian is a breed of?
(a) dog
(b) cat
(c) donkey
(d) horse
SHOW ANSWER
(a) dog
28. Modern taxonomy studies require which of the following?
(a) knowledge of external and internal structure
(b) knowledge development process and ecological information of organism
(c) knowledge of structure of cell
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
29. Which of the following terms includes all other terms?
(a) classification
(b) nomenclature
(c) taxonomy
(d) systematics
SHOW ANSWER
(d) systematics
30. What are groups of plants or animals with similar traits of any rank called?
(a) species
(b) order
(c) genus
(d) taxon
SHOW ANSWER
(d) taxon
31. Binomial Nomenclature means
(a) two names; one given by zoologist, other by botanist
(b) one scientific name consisting of a generic name and a specific epithet
(c) two names; one french, other latinized
(d) two names; one scientific, other local
SHOW ANSWER
(b) one scientific name consisting of a generic name and a specific epithet
32. Basic unit of taxonomic hierarchy is
(a) species
(b) kingdom
(c) class
(d) phylum
SHOW ANSWER
(a) species
33. Botanical name of mango is
(a) Mangifera indica
(b) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Solanum melongena
(d) Panthera leo
SHOW ANSWER
(a) Mangifera indica
34. Botanical name of potato is
(a) Mangifera indica
(b) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Solanum melongena
(d) Panthera leo
SHOW ANSWER
(b) Solanum tuberosum
35. Zoological name of lion is
(a) Mangifera indica
(b) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Solanum melongena
(d) Panthera leo
SHOW ANSWER
(d) Panthera leo
36. The branch connected with characterisation, nomenclature, identification and
classification is
(a) ecology
(b) taxonomy
(c) anatomy
(d) morphology
SHOW ANSWER
(b) taxonomy
37. The third name in trinomial nomenclature is
(a) genus
(b) sub genus
(c) subspecies
(d) species
SHOW ANSWER
(c) subspecies
38. In Binomial Nomenclature
(a) genus and species both are printed in italics
(b) both the initial letters in genus and species is capitalised
(c) genus is written after the species
(d) genus and species may be the same
SHOW ANSWER
(a) genus and species both are printed in italics
39. As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of common
characteristics/features/similar traits goes on
(a) remains the same
(b) decreasing
(c) increasing
(d) none of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(b) decreasing
40. Binomial Nomenclature was given by
(a) Ernst Mayr
(b) Lamarck
(c) Carolus Linnaeus
(d) Darwin
SHOW ANSWER
(c) Carolus Linnaeus
41. Taxon is used for
(a) the ranks of species and genus
(b) the species epithet only
(c) the ranks upto phylum
(d) any rank of taxonomic Hierarchy
SHOW ANSWER
(d) any rank of taxonomic Hierarchy
42. Which taxonomic aid provides information for the identification of names of species
found in a particular area?
(a) monograph
(b) manual
(c) catalogue
(d) key
SHOW ANSWER
(b) manual
43. Indian Botanical Garden is located in
(a) Howrah
(b) Bangalore
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Mysore
SHOW ANSWER
(a) Howrah
44. The famous botanical garden “Kew” is located in
(a) England
(b) America
(c) Lucknow
(d) Howrah
SHOW ANSWER
(a) England
45. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic categories
(a) species – order – kingdom – phylum
(b) order – genus – phylum – species
(c) family – species – class – genus
(d) species – genus – order – phylum
SHOW ANSWER
(d) species – genus – order – phylum
46. Which of the following biological name is wrongly written
(a) Triticum aestivum
(b) Felis domesticus
(c) Apis indica
(d) Mangifera Indica
SHOW ANSWER
(d) Mangifera Indica
47. Descending arrangement of categories is called
(a) characterization
(b) taxonomy
(c) hierarchy
(d) classification
SHOW ANSWER
(c) hierarchy
48. Petunia is
(a) species
(b) sub genus
(c) subspecies
(d) genus
SHOW ANSWER
(d) genus
49. In hierarchy of classification order is present between
(a) family and genus
(b) family and species
(c) family and class
(d) Phylum and kingdom
SHOW ANSWER
(c) family and class
50. Select the incorrect statement from the following
(a) ICZN stands for international code of zoological nomenclature
(b) each statement in key is known as lead
(c) taxonomic keys are tools that help in identification based on characteristics
(d) Ernst Mayr used Systema Naturae as the title of his Publication
SHOW ANSWER
(d) Ernst Mayr used Systema Naturae as the title of his Publication
51. In which of the following do we store dry plants for information purposes?
(a) monograph
(b) museum
(c) key
(d) herbarium
SHOW ANSWER
(d) herbarium
52. Select the incorrect statement from the following
(a) taxonomic studies are useful in agriculture, Forestry and industries
(b) closely related species differ in morphological features
(c) genus comprises a group of related species
(d) notochord and ventral hollow neural system are a common feature of the phylum chordata
SHOW ANSWER
(d) notochord and ventral hollow neural system are a common feature of the phylum chordata
53. ICBN stands for
(a) international committee for biological naming
(b) international code for botanical nomenclature
(c) international code for biological nomenclature
(d) international code for biological naming
SHOW ANSWER
(b) international code for botanical nomenclature
54. Zoological name of tiger is
(a) Mangifera indica
(b) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Solanum melongena
(d) Panthera tigris
SHOW ANSWER
(d) Panthera tigris
55. Zoological name of leopard is
(a) Mangifera indica
(b) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Solanum melongena
(d) Panthera pardus
SHOW ANSWER
(d) Panthera pardus
56. Zoological name of house fly is
(a) Mangifera indica
(b) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Solanum melongena
(d) Musca domestica
SHOW ANSWER
(d) Musca domestica
57. Zoological name of man is
(a) Mangifera indica
(b) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Solanum melongena
(d) Homo sapiens
SHOW ANSWER
(d) Homo sapiens
58. Botanical name of wheat is
(a) Mangifera indica
(b) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Solanum melongena
(d) Triticum aestivum
SHOW ANSWER
(d) Triticum aestivum
59. Zoological name of cat is
(a) Mangifera indica
(b) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Solanum melongena
(d) Felis domesticus
SHOW ANSWER
(d) Felis domesticus
60. Botanical name of makoi is
(a) Mangifera indica
(b) Solanum tuberosum
(c) Solanum melongena
(d) Solanum nigrum
SHOW ANSWER
(d) Solanum nigrum
61. Potato and brinjal belong to the genus
(a) Allium
(b) Solanum
(c) Brassica
(d) Mangifera
SHOW ANSWER
(b) Solanum
62. Genera Petunia and Datura belong to the family
(a) Solanaceae
(b) Liliaceae
(c) Fabaceae
(d) none of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(a) Solanaceae
63. Family Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae belong to which of the following the order
(a) Diptera
(b) Polymoniales
(c) Poales
(d) Dicot
SHOW ANSWER
(b) Polymoniales
64. Common features of chordata are
(a) presence of notochord in any stage of life
(b) paired pharyngeal gill slits
(c) dorsal hollow neural system
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
65. Which of the following is a common feature of the category insecta?
(a) exoskeleton of cutin
(b) presence of ostium
(c) three pairs of jointed legs in the thoracic region
(d) presence of coxal gland for excretion
SHOW ANSWER
(c) three pairs of jointed legs in the thoracic region
66. Which of the following represents the family of mango?
(a) poaceae
(b) anacardiaceae
(c) poales
(d) sapindales
SHOW ANSWER
(b) anacardiaceae
67. Housefly belongs to the order
(a) diptera
(b) carnivora
(c) primata
(d) insecta
SHOW ANSWER
(a) diptera
68. A museum has a collection of which of the following
(a) preserved plants
(b) preserved animals
(c) skeleton of animals
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
69. Which of the following animals are usually stuffed and preserved?
(a) large birds
(b) mammals
(c) small lizards
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
70. Zoological parks are for which of the following?
(a) wild animals
(b) endangered plants
(c) pet animals
(d) domestic animals
SHOW ANSWER
(a) wild animals
71. Which of the following is a/are feature/features of zoological parks?
(a) place where we can learn about the wild animal’s food habits
(b) place where we can learn about the wild animal’s behaviour
(c) place where wild animals are kept in a protected environment under human care
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
72. Keys are based on contrasting characters generally in pairs called
(a) dimer
(b) couplet
(c) duplex
(d) none of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(b) couplet
73. Which of the following is incorrect about the taxonomical aid keys?
(a) used for identification of plants and animals based on similarities and dissimilarities
(b) each statement in the key is called a lead
(c) keys are generally analytical in nature
(d) used for identification of plants and animals based on similarities only
SHOW ANSWER
(d) used for identification of plants and animals based on similarities only
74. Flora contains actual account of habitat and distribution of
(a) animals in a particular area
(b) plants in a particular area
(c) both plants and animals in a particular area
(d) none of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(b) plants in a particular area
75. Monograph contain information on
(a) family
(b) species
(c) habitat and distribution of plants of a particular area
(d) any one taxon
SHOW ANSWER
(d) any one taxon
76. Manuals contain information on
(a) any one taxon
(b) habitat and distribution of animals found in a particular area
(c) identification of names of species found in a particular area
(d) habitat and distribution of plants found in a particular area
SHOW ANSWER
(c) identification of names of species found in a particular area
77. Organisms vary in
(a) their habitat
(b) their size and colour
(c) their physiological and morphological features
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
78. Live specimens of organisms are found in which of the following
(a) museum
(b) herbarium
(c) botanical gardens and zoological parks (zoos)
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(c) botanical gardens and zoological parks (zoos)
79. The name of a plant written on a herbarium sheet is it’s
(a) local name
(b) english name
(c) botanical name
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
80. Tiger, dog and cat are placed in the order
(a) primata
(b) carnivora
(c) mammalia
(d) chordata
SHOW ANSWER
(b) carnivora
81. Monkey, gorilla and gibbons belong to which of the following order?
(a) carnivora
(b) primata
(c) mammalia
(d) hominidae
SHOW ANSWER
(b) primata
82. In plants, families are characterised on the basis of
(a) vegetative structures
(b) reproductive features
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(c) both a and b
83. Single horned rhinoceros are found in which of the following?
(a) Indira Gandhi Zoological Park
(b) Nehru Zoological Park
(c) Kaziranga National Park
(d) Gir National Park
SHOW ANSWER
(c) Kaziranga National Park
84. Herbarium sheet provides information on which of the following?
(a) family of plant
(b) collector’s name
(c) local, english and botanical name
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
85. Indian rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which of the following states in India?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Assam
SHOW ANSWER
(d) Assam
86. Which of the following is a defining property of living organisms?
(a) cellular organisation of the body
(b) consciousness
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(c) both a and b
87. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(a) both the words in a biological name are printed in bold to indicate their Latin origin
(b) biological names are generally in Greek
(c) the first word in a biological name represents this specific epithet while the second
component denotes this genus
(d) the first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter by the specific epithet starts
with a small letter
SHOW ANSWER
(d) the first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter by the specific epithet starts
with a small letter
88. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) human being is the only organism who is aware of himself or herself, that is, has self
consciousness
(b) the most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living organisms is the ability
to sense their surrounding or environment and respond to these stimuli
(c) prokaryotes cannot respond to environmental cues
(d) consciousness is a defining property of living organisms
SHOW ANSWER
(c) prokaryotes cannot respond to environmental cues
89. Biodiversity is
(a) number and type of organisms present on earth
(b) number and type of plants present on earth
(c) number and type of animals present on earth
(d) none of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(a) number and type of organisms present on earth
90. What is the basis of modern taxonomic studies?
(a) external and internal structure along with the structure of cell
(b) development process of organisms
(c) ecological information of organisms
(d) all of the above
SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above
91. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) systematics takes into account the evolutionary relationships between organisms
(b) the word systematics is derived from latin word systema
(c) systematics includes identification and nomenclature but not classification
(d) the Latin word systema means the systematic arrangement of organisms
SHOW ANSWER
(c) systematics includes identification and nomenclature but not classification
92. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities is known as genus
(b) as we go from species to kingdom the number of common characteristics remains the
same
(c) as we go from kingdom to species the number of common characteristics decreases
(d) as we go from species to kingdom the number of common characteristics decreases
SHOW ANSWER
(d) as we go from species to kingdom the number of common characteristics decreases
93. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) herbaria serves as a quick referral system in taxonomic studies
(b) botanical gardens have collections of dead and living plants for reference
(c) plants in botanical gardens are labelled to indicate their botanical name and family
(d) museums have collections of preserved plants and animal species for study and reference
SHOW ANSWER
(b) botanical gardens have collections of dead and living plants for reference
94. Mark the correct statement from the following
(a) monographs contain information on any one taxon
(b) manuals contain information about the habitat and distribution of plants of a given area
(c) monographs contain information for identification of names of species found in a given
area
(d) key is used for identification of plants based on similarities and dissimilarities
SHOW ANSWER
(a) monographs contain information on any one taxon
95. Choose the correct statement from the following
(a) all living organisms do not grow
(b) all living organisms have self consciousness
(c) all living organisms reproduce
(d) all living organisms are not self regulating
SHOW ANSWER
(a) all living organisms do not grow
96. Which of the following is a defining feature of all living organisms?
(a) reproduction
(b) growth
(c) self consciousness
(d) metabolism
SHOW ANSWER
(d) metabolism
97. Which of the following is a false statement?
(a) classification is the process by which anything is grouped into convenient categories
based on some easily observable characteristics
(b) nomenclature is important because there is a need to standardise the naming of living
organisms such that a particular organism is known by the same name all over the world
(c) all living organisms cannot be classified into different taxa
(d) characterisation, identification classification and nomenclature and the processes that are
basic to taxonomy
SHOW ANSWER
(c) all living organisms cannot be classified into different taxa
98. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(a) scientific name of leopard is Panthera leo
(b) scientific name of tiger is Panthera pardus
(c) potato and brinjal are two different species but they belong to the genus solanum
(d) felis includes dogs
SHOW ANSWER
(c) potato and brinjal are two different species but they belong to the genus solanum
99. The incorrect statement from the following is?
(a) the highest category is kingdom
(b) the lowest category is species
(c) lower the taxa, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon on share
(d) higher the taxa, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share
SHOW ANSWER
(d) higher the taxa, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share
100. Man belongs to which of the following families?
(a) muscidae
(b) hominidae
(c) mammalia
(d) primata
SHOW ANSWER
(b) hominidae
CHAPTER 2 BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
FOR NEET PHYSICS
FOR NEET CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following are likely to be present in deep seawater?


(a) Eubacteria
(b) Blue-green algae
(c) Saprophytic fungi
(d) Archaebacteria

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(d) Archaebacteria
Archaebacteria can survive in harsh conditions due to the presence of a branched lipid chain
in the cell membrane that reduces the fluidity of the cell membrane. It includes halophiles
which are exclusively found in saline habitats.
2. Which one of the following is true for fungi?
(a) They are phagotrophic
(b) They lack a rigid cell wall
(c) They are heterotrophs
(d) They lack a nuclear membrane

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) They are heterotrophs
Fungi lack chlorophyll, hence, they do not prepare their food by photosynthesis. They can
grow where organic material is available. So, they are heterotrophs that acquire their nutrient
by absorption and store in the form of glycogen.

3. Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in Nostoc are


(a) Akinetes
(b) Heterocysts
(c) Hormogonia
(d) Nodules

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Heterocysts
Heterocysts are large-sized, thick-walled specialized cells that occur in a terminal, intercalary
or lateral position in filamentous cyanobacteria, example, Nostoc. They have enzyme
nitrogenase and are specialized to perform biological nitrogen fixation.

4. Satellite RNAs are present in some


(a) Plant viruses
(b) Viroids
(c) Prions
(d) Bacteriophages

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) Plant viruses
Plant viruses often contain parasites of their own, referred to as satellites. Satellite RNAs are
dependent on their associated (helper) virus for both replication and encapsidation.
Example:
Tobacco Necrosis Virus (TNV).
Viroids are infectious agents smaller than viruses.
Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria.
A prion is an infectious agent that is composed primarily of protein.

5. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is NOT based on:
(a) Presence or absence of a well-defined nucleus
(b) Mode of reproduction
(c) Mode of nutrition
(d) Complexity of body organization

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) Presence or absence of a well-defined nucleus
Five kingdom system of classification was proposed by R.H. Whittaker (1969). The five-
kingdom classification is based on the following criteria:
The complexity of cell structure – Prokaryotes or Eukaryotes
The complexity of organisms body – Unicellular or Multicellular
Mode of obtaining nutrition – Autotrophic or Heterotrophic
Phylogenetic relationships

6. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens?


(a) Morchella esculenta
(b) Amanita muscaria
(c) Neurospora sp.
(d) Ustilago sp.

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Amanita muscaria
Several mushrooms such as Amanita muscaria, Psilocybe mexicana, and Panaeolus spp.
secrete hallucinogenic substances like psilocybin and psilocin. These substances may destroy
brain cells and power perception in human beings.

7. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in:


(a) Cell membrane
(b) Mode of nutrition
(c) Cell shape
(d) Mode of reproduction

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(c) Cell shape
Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure. They lack
peptidoglycan in the cell wall and possess a monolayer of branched fatty acids attached to
glycerol by ether bonds in their cell membranes.

8. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres?


(a) Poliovirus
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus
(c) Measles virus
(d) Retrovirus

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(b) Tobacco mosaic virus
TMV (Tobacco Mosaic Virus) is a rod-shaped virus. The rod has a core that contains
helically coiled single-stranded RNA. There is a protective covering of protein called capsid
around the infective part. The capsid consists of small subunits called capsomeres and has
antigenic property.

9. Viruses have:
(a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat
(b) Prokaryotic nucleus
(c) Single chromosome
(d) Both DNA and RNA
SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION
(a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat
All viruses are nucleoproteins (Nucleic acid + Protein) in the structure. In a virus, either DNA
or RNA is the genetic material. Both are never present in a virus.
A virus envelope is known as a capsid. The capsid is composed of protein subunits called
capsomere.

10. The motile bacteria can move by:


(a) Fimbriae
(b) Flagella
(c) Cilia
(d) Pili

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(b) Flagella
Motile bacteria have thin filamentous extensions on their cell wall called flagella.

11. Which one of the following matches is correct?


(a) Alternaria Sexual Deuteromycetes reproduction absent
(b) Mucor Reproduction Ascomycetes by Conjugation
(c) Agaricus Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes
(d) Phytophthora Aseptate Basidiomycetes mycelium

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(a) Alternaria Sexual Deuteromycetes reproduction absent
Alternaria belongs to the class – Deuteromycetes, which lack sexual reproduction. Asexual
reproduction takes place by conidia produced on conidiophores.

12. True nucleus is absent in:


(a) Mucor
(b) Vaucheria
(c) Volvox
(d) Anabaena

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(d) Anabaena
Anabaena is cyanobacteria that lack a true nucleus because of the absence of a nuclear
membrane.

13. Which of the following structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell?


(a) Ribosome
(b) Mesosome
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) Nuclear envelope

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(d) Nuclear envelope
A nuclear envelope is not found in a prokaryotic cell.
14. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling
belong to:
(a) Basidiomycetes
(b) Phycomycetes
(c) Ascomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes

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(d) Deuteromycetes
Class Deuteromycetes comprises imperfect fungi which play role in the decomposition of
organic wastes

15. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and /or host tissues are:
(a) Fimbriae
(b) Mesosomes
(c) Holdfast
(d) Rhizoids

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(a) Fimbriae
Fimbriae assist some bacteria in attaching to rocks or host body for obtaining establishment
and nutrition.

16. Pick the wrong statement


(a) Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition
(b) Some fungi are edible
(c) Nuclear membrane is present Monera
(d) Cell wall is absent in Animalia

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(c) Nuclear membrane is present Monera
The kingdom Monera possesses unicellular organisms (example – bacteria) having no nuclear
membrane.

17. In which group of organisms the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells which fit
together?
(a) Euglenoids
(b) Dinoflagellates
(c) Slime moulds
(d) Chrysophytes

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(d) Chrysophytes
In chrysophytes, the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells held together. The body of
Diatoms appears like a soapbox due to overlapping shells.

18. Choose the wrong statement:


(a) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics
(b) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms
(c) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation
(d) Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics

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(b) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms
Morel and truffles are used as food and they are members of Ascomycetes fungi.

19. Which of the following are the most suitable indicators of SO2 pollution in the
environment?
(a) Conifers
(b) Algae
(c) Fungi
(d) Lichens

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(d) Lichens
Lichens cannot grow in places where sulphur dioxide is present in the environment.

20. Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?


(a) They lack a protein coat
(b) They are smaller than viruses
(c) They cause infections
(d) Their RNA is of high molecular weight

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(d) Their RNA is of high molecular weight
Viroids, the smallest known pathogens, are naked, circular, single-stranded RNA molecules
that do not encode a protein but autonomously replicate when introduced into host plants.
Viroids only infect plants; some cause economically important diseases of crop plants, while
others appear to be benign.

21. One of the major components of the cell wall of most fungi is
(a) Chitin
(b) Peptidoglycan
(c) Cellulose
(d) Hemicellulose

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(a) Chitin
A cell wall is a rigid structural layer, which provides protection and structural support to the
cells. The composition of the cell wall varies from one species to another. In fungi, the cell
wall is composed of strong covalent linkages of chitin, glucans, and glycoproteins.
Alternatively, in the case of land plants, the cell wall is composed of cellulose and
hemicellulose. Archean cell walls consist of peptidoglycans.

22. Which one of the following statements is wrong?


(a) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae
(b) Golden algae are also called desmids
(c) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
(d) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi

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(c) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
Eubacteria are the true bacteria.

23. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates, and Slime moulds are included in the
kingdom
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Fungi
(d) Animalia

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(b) Protista
All unicellular eukaryotic organisms like diatoms, desmids (chrysophytes), euglenoids,
dinoflagellates, and slime mould are included in Protista.

24. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?


(a) Eubacteria
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Mycobacteria
(d) Archaebacteria

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(d) Archaebacteria
Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh conditions due to the presence of a branched lipid
chain in the cell membrane that reduces the fluidity of the cell membrane. It includes
halophiles which are exclusively found in saline habitats.

25. Which of the following components provides a sticky character to the bacterial cell?
(a) Nuclear membrane
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Glycocalyx
(d) Cell wall

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(c) Glycocalyx
The sticky character of the bacterial wall is due to glycocalyx which is rich in glycoproteins

26. Viroids differ from viruses in having;


(a) DNA molecules without a protein coat
(b) RNA molecules with a protein coat
(c) RNA molecules without a protein coat
(d) DNA molecules with a protein coat

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(c) RNA molecules without a protein coat
Viroids in nature are sub-viral agents as infectious RNA particles, without a protein coat.

27. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite
cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?
(a) Pseudomonas
(b) Mycoplasma
(c) Nostoc
(d) Bacillus

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(b) Mycoplasma
Mycoplasmas are the smallest, prokaryotes lacking cell walls and are pleomorphic in nature.
These are pathogenic to both plants and animals.

28. All eukaryotic unicellular organisms belong to


(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Fungi
(d) Bacteria

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(b) Protista
Protista is a group comprising all unicellular eukaryotic plants and animals. The organisms
included in this group are either photoautotrophs, heterotrophs or parasites.
Monera includes prokaryotic organisms like bacteria, unicellular organisms.
Fungi are eukaryotic but are mostly multicellular (yeast is unicellular).

29. The five-kingdom classification was proposed by


(a) R.H. Whittaker
(b) C. Linnaeus
(c) A Roxberg
d) Virchow

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(a) R.H. Whittaker
R.H. Whittaker (1969), an American taxonomist divided organisms into five kingdoms, in
order to develop phylogenetic classification:
(i) Monera
(ii) Protista
(iii) Fungi
(iv) Plantae
(v) Animalia
C Linnaeus developed two-kingdom classification.
(i) Kingdom-Plantae
(ii) Kingdom-Animalia
and Virchow is associated with the discovery of cell theory
30. Organisms living in salty areas are called as
(a) methanogens
(b) halophiles
(c) heliophytes
(d) thermoacidophiles

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(b) halophiles
Halophiles are organisms inhabiting areas with a high concentration of salts. The name
halophiles mean ‘salt loving’.
Heliophytes are the plants that grow best in sunlight and can not survive in dark conditions.
Methanogens are the bacteria that produce methane as a metabolic byproduct under anaerobic
conditions.
Thermoacidophiles are archaebacteria able to survive under strong acidic environments and
high temperatures, but cannot tolerate high salt concentrations around them.

31. Naked cytoplasm, multinucleated and saprophytic are the characteristics of


(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Fungi
(d) Slime molds

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(d) Slime molds
Slime molds are saprophytic protists, that move along the dead leaves engulfing organic
matter. These are multinucleated with no cell wall and have naked cytoplasm.
Monerans are prokaryotes, comprised of all bacteria.
Protists are a group of eukaryotic organisms, that bears a well-defined membrane around the
cytoplasm, may be uninucleate or multinucleated. Their cell has a well-developed cell wall
made of chitin.

32. An association between roots of higher plants and fungi is called


(a) lichen
(b) fern
(c) Slime molds
(d) BGA

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(c) Slime moulds
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of a fungus with the roots of higher plants like
gymnosperms and angiosperms.
The fungus is dependent on plants for food and shelter, while the plants are benefitted from
the fungal hyphae as they help in the absorption of water and dissolved minerals present in
the soil debris and make it available to the plants.
Whereas lichens are the symbiotic association between algae and fungi. Ferns are a group of
plants, belonging to pteridophytes like other vascular plants and BGA is blue-green algae
with a prokaryotic cell.

33. A dikaryon is formed when


(a) meiosis is arrested
(b) the two haploid cells do not fuse immediately
(c) cytoplasm does not fuse
(d) None of the above

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(b) the two haploid cells do not fuse immediately
Dikaryon is a cell with two nuclei. This results when two somatic cells fuse but their nucleus
do not fuse immediately. Meiosis does not result in such conditions.

34. Contagium vivum fluidum was proposed by


(a) D.J. Ivanowsky
(b) M.W. Beijernek
(c) Stanley
(d) Robert Hook

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(b) M.W. Beijernek
M.W. Beijerinck proposed contagium vivum fluidum which means contagious living fluid.
This phrase was first used to describe the virus, characteristic in escaping from the finest
mesh available.
D.J. Ivanowsky was a Russian botanist who discovered the filterable nature of viruses and is
one of the founders of virology.
Stanley Miller was a Jewish American chemist who experimented on the origin of life on the
primitive earth. Robert Hooke was the first to study and visualize cells using his primitive
microscope.

35. Association between mycobiont and phycobiont are found in


(a) mycorrhiza
(b) root
(c) lichens
(d) BGA

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(c) lichens
Lichens are organisms comprised of a permanent symbiotic association of a fungus and an
alga. The fungal partner is called mycobiont and the algal partner is called phycobiont.
Mycorrhiza is an association of a fungus with the roots of higher plants, but not with algae,
while BGA is blue-green algae, a member of Monera with a prokaryotic cell structure.

36. The difference between virus and viroid is


(a) absence of protein coat in viroid, but present in the virus.
(b) presence of low molecular weight RNA in virus, but absent in viroid
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d)None of the above

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(a) absence of protein coat in viroid, but present in the virus
Viruses contain DNA or RNA as the genetic material and a protein coat, whereas viroids
have no protein coat, but the only RNA as their nucleic acid. This is the reason why viroids
are carried inside viruses. example, hepatitis D is a viroid carried inside the capsid of the
hepatitis B virus.

37. With respect to the fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of events.
(a) Karyogamy, Plasmogamy, and Meiosis
(b) Meiosis, Plasmogamy, and Karyogamy
(c) Plasmogamy, Karyogamy, and Meiosis
(d) Meiosis, Karyogamy, and Plasmogamy

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(c) Plasmogamy, Karyogamy, and Meiosis
Plasmogamy means fusion of protoplasm while karyogamy means fusion of nucleus. These
two events lead to the formation of a zygote (2n) which is a diploid structure where meiosis
occurs.

38. Viruses are non-cellular organisms, but replicate themselves once they infect the
host cell. To which of the following kingdom do viruses belong?
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Fungi
(d) None of these

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(d) None of these
In the five-kingdom classification proposed by Whittaker, non-cellular organisms like viruses
and viroids are not included. Viruses were not placed in the classification since they are not
truly ‘living’ and hence, they are considered as non-cellular.

39. Members of Phycomycetes are found in


(i) Aquatic habitats
(ii) On decaying wood
(iii) Moist and damp places
(iv) As obligate parasites on plants
Choose from the following options:
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) None of these
(d) All of these

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(d) All of these
Phycomycetes are fungi that can thrive on dead and decaying wood as saprophytes. These
prefer to live in moist and damp places and need water for the movement of zoospore and
sexual gametes.
Few members of Phycomycetes are obligate parasites like Phytophthora infestans that causes
late blight of potato and Peronospora viticola causing downy mildew of grapes.

40. Two kingdom classification was given by


(a) Whittaker
(b) Aristotle
(c) Linnaeus
(d) Darwin

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(c) Linnaeus

41. Cyanobacteria belong to the kingdom


(a) Protista
(b) fungi
(c) Plantae
(d) monera

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(d) monera

42. The bacteria that can survive in extreme salty areas are called
(a) archaebacteria
(b) methanogens
(c) eubacteria
(d) halophiles

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(d) halophiles

43. Heterocyst is found in


(a) Nostoc
(b) chrysophytes
(c) slime moulds
(d) dinoflagellates

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(a) Nostoc

44. ‘Diatoms’ the chief producers in the oceans belong to the group
(a) chrysophytes
(b) dinoflagellates
(c) euglenoids
(d) slime moulds

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(a) chrysophytes

45. Bacteria have been put in the kingdom Monera because they are
(a) unicellular
(b) prokaryotes
(c) microscopic
(d) decomposers
SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION
(b) prokaryotes

46. Archaebacteria are considered to be ancient bacteria because they are


(a) autotrophs
(b) heterotrophs
(c) able to survive in extreme conditions
(d) unicellular

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(c) able to survive in extreme conditions

47. The five-kingdom classification was given by


(a) Linnaeus
(b) Whittaker
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) John Ray

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(b) Whittaker

48 Euglena belongs to the kingdom


(a) monera
(b) Protista
(c) Plantae
(d) Animalia

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(b) Protista

49. Ferns are


(a) unicellular prokaryotes
(b) unicellular eukaryotes
(c) multicellular prokaryotes
(d) multicellular eukaryotes

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(d) multicellular eukaryotes

50. The mode of nutrition in Kingdom Fungi is mainly


(a) autotrophic
(b) heterotrophic
(c)saprophytic
(d) parasitic

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(c) saprophytic
51. Viruses have
(a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat
(b) prokaryotic nucleus
(c) DNA enclosed in a nuclear membrane
(d) membrane attached DNA

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(a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat

52. The smallest living organism is/are


(a) Amoeba
(b) yeast
(c) blue-green algae
(d) red or brown algae

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(c) blue-green algae

53. The holozoic kind of nutrition is found in


(a) protozoans
(b) phytoplanktons
(c) cyanobacteria
(d) fungi

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(a) protozoans

54. The multicellular decomposers belong to the kingdom


(a) monera
(b) Protista
(c) fungi
(d) Plantae

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(c) fungi

55. Lichens are produced by


(a) soredia
(b) conidia
(c) zoospores
(d) zygospores

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(a) soredia

56. Statement 1: Linnaeus classified plants into trees, shrubs, and herbs, on the basis of
morphological characters.
Statement 2: Aristotle divided animals into 2 groups – Anaima and Enaima.
(a) Only statement 1 is correct
(b) Only statement 2 is correct
(c) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct
(d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect

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(b) Only statement 2 is correct

57. Which of the following characteristic(s) is/are used by Whittaker for the
classification of organisms?
(a) Mode of nutrition
(b) Thallus organisation
(c) Phylogenetic relationships
(d) All of the above

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(d) All of the above

58. Select correct match w.r.t. Whittaker’ system of classification


(a) Monera: Unicellular, osmotrophs, producers and decomposers, true cellulosic cell wall
(b) Protista: Unicellular, eukaryotic, photoautotrophs, and chemoautotrophs
(c) Fungi: Multicellular/loose tissue, eukaryotic, osmotrophs, chitinous wall
(d) Animalia: Multicellular, eukaryotic, organ or organ system, holozoic, no saprobic

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(c) Fungi: Multicellular/loose tissue, eukaryotic, osmotrophs, chitinous wall

59. Organisms of which of the following kingdom do not have nuclear membrane?
(a) Protista
(b) Fungi
(c) Monera
(d) Plantae

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(c) Monera

60. Protists are


(a) single-celled eukaryotes
(b) multicellular eukaryotes
(c) single-celled prokaryotes
(d) single-celled akaryote

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(a) single-celled eukaryotes

61. Bacteria are considered primitive organisms because they


(a) Possess incipient nucleus
(b) Are small, microscopic plants, which are not seen by the naked eyes
(c) Cause serious diseases to the human being, domesticated animals, and crop plants
(d) Produce endospores that are very resistant to adverse conditions
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(a) Possess incipient nucleus

62. Which of the following pigments is present in cyanobacteria?


(a) Chlorophyll ‘a’
(b) Chlorophyll ‘b’
(c) Chlorophyll ‘c’
(d) Chlorophyll ‘d’

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(a) Chlorophyll ‘a’

63. 70S ribosomes, chromatophores, and circular DNA are found in


(a) All eukaryotes
(b) All prokaryotes
(c) Some prokaryotes
(d) Some eukaryotes and some prokaryotes

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(c) Some prokaryotes

64. Which of the following is the smallest living cell and can live without oxygen?
(a) Mycoplasma
(b) Mycorrhiza
(c) Euglena
(d) Trypanosoma

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(a) Mycoplasma

65. There is no alternation of generation in Escherichia coli because of the absence of


(a) Syngamy
(b) Reduction division
(c) Conjugation
(d) Both (1) & (2)

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(d) Both (1) & (2)

66. Which of the following processes are involved in the reproduction of protists?
(a) Binary fission and budding
(b) Cell fusion and zygote formation
(c) Spore formation and cyst formation
(d) All of the above

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(d) All of the above
67. Branched-chain lipids occur in the cell membranes of
(a) Methanobacterium
(b) Mycoplasma
(c) Actinomycetes
(d) Streptomyces

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(a) Methanobacterium

68. Which of the following pairs come under the group chrysophytes?
(a) Diatoms and Euglena
(b) Euglena and Trypanosoma
(c) Diatoms and Desmids
(d) Gonyaulax and Desmids

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(c) Diatoms and Desmids

69. Cyanobacteria do not possess


(a) Gene recombinations
(b) Flagella
(c) Plasmids
(d) Pigments

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(b) Flagella

70. Which of the following is an example of amoeboid protozoans?


(a) Trypanosoma
(b) Paramecium
(c) Gonyaulax
(d) Entamoeba

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(d) Entamoeba

71. The bacterial cell divides every one minute. It takes 15 minutes for a cup to be one-
fourth full. How much time will it take to fill the cup?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 45 minutes
(c) 60 minutes
(d) 17 minutes

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(d) 17 minutes

72. Which of the following are parasitic fungi on the mustard plant?
(a) Albugo
(b) Puccinia
(c) Yeast
(d) Ustilago

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(a) Albugo

73. The highly resistant nature of endospore is due to the presence of


(a) Dipicolinic acid and peptidoglycan in spore coat
(b) Peptidoglycan in exosporium
(c) Dipicolinic acid and Ca in cortex
(d) Dipicolinic acid and Ca in cell membrane

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(c) Dipicolinic acid and Ca in cortex

74. Which of the following is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work?
(a) Agaricus
(b) Alternaria
(c) Neurospora
(d) Mucor

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(c) Neurospora

75. Endospores formed by certain bacteria are actually the means for
(a) Reproduction
(b) Perennation
(c) Bioluminescence
(d) Red snow formation

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(b) Perennation

76. Which of the following is/are example(s) of Deuteromycetes?


(a) Alternaria
(b) Colletotrichum
(c) Trichoderma
(d) All of these

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(d) All of these

77. Which group of fungi is commonly known as imperfect fungi?


(a) Phycomycetes
(b) Ascomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes

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(d) Deuteromycetes

78. Seawater glows during the night mainly due to the occurrence of
(a) Gonyaulax
(b) Noctiluca
(c) Euglena
(d) Cyclotella

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(b) Noctiluca

79. Bladderwort and Venus flytrap are examples of


(a) insectivorous plants
(b) parasitic plants
(c) N2 – rich plants
(d) aquatic plants

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(a) insectivorous plants

80. Rejuvenescent spore of diatom is


(a) Haploid and exospore
(b) Diploid and statospore
(c) Haploid and statospore
(d) Diploid and auxospore

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(d) Diploid and auxospore

81. The subunit of the capsid is called


(a) core
(b) nucleotide
(c) amino acid
(d) capsomere

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(d) capsomere

82. Leucosin (Chrysolaminarin) is a carbohydrate that is stored as reserve food in case


of
(a) Diatom
(b) Euglena
(c) Dinoflagellates
(d) Paramoecium
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(a) Diatom

83. Which of the following is not a viral disease?


(a) AIDS and mumps
(b) Smallpox and herpes
(c) Influenza
(d) Cholera

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(d) Cholera

84. Flagellation in Euglena is


(a) Uniflagellation and stichonematic
(b) Isokont and whiplash type
(c) Heterokont and whiplash type
(d) Heterokont and stichonematic

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(d) Heterokont and stichonematic

85. The symbiotic association between fungi and algae is called


(a) lichen
(b) mycorrhiza
(c) rhizome
(d) endomycorrhiza

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) lichen

86. The special type of red pigment present in the eye-spot of Euglena and Crustacea is
called
(a) Phycoerythrin
(b) Astaxanthin
(c) Carotene
(d) Xanthophyll

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Astaxanthin

87. The genetic material of the virus includes


(a) only RNA.
(b) only DNA.
(c) RNA and DNA both
(d) RNA or DNA, i.e., one nucleic acid in a virus.

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(d) RNA or DNA, i.e., one nucleic acid in a virus.
88. Paraflagellar body of Euglena helps in
(a) Locomotion
(b) Photoreception
(c) Reproduction
(d) Osmoregulation

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Photoreception

89. Dikaryon formation is the characteristic feature of


(a) ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
(b) phycomycetes and basidiomycetes.
(c) ascomycetes and Phycomycetes.
(d) phycomycetes and zygomycetes.

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.

90. The structure formed in the life cycle of cellular slime mould due to chemotactic
movement is
(a) Pseudoplasmodium
(b) Swarm cells
(c) Macrocyst
(d) Capillitia

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) Pseudoplasmodium

91. The clamp connection is found in


(a) basidiomycetes
(b) ascomycetes
(c) saccharomycetes
(d) haplomycetes

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) basidiomycetes

92. Myxamoeba are formed in the life cycle of


(a) Physarum
(b) Amoeba
(c) Entamoeba
(d) Diatoms

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) Physarum

93. Plasmogamy is the fusion of


(a) two haploid cells including their nuclei.
(b) two haploid cells without nuclear fusion.
(c) sperm and egg.
(d) sperm and two polar nuclei.

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) two haploid cells without nuclear fusion.

94. The difference between a red sea and red tide is


(a) Red tide takes place in the red sea
(b) Associated with cyanobacteria and protist respectively
(c) One is by virus and the other by bacteria
(d) Associated with Rhodophyceae and diatoms respectively

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Associated with cyanobacteria and protist respectively

95. Which scientist classified plants into trees, shrubs, and herbs and animals into two
groups based on the absence or presence of red blood cells?
(a) Aristotle
(b) R. H. Whittaker
(c) D. J. Ivanowsky
(d) W. M. Stanley

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) Aristotle

96. Consider the following statements and select the correct set of features with respect
to the life cycle of acellular slime moulds

1. Haploid vegetative stage as myxamoebae


2. Diploid vegetative stage as plasmodium
3. Capillitium
4. Photosynthetic protists
5. Sporic meiosis
6. Isogamous sexual reproduction
7. Anisogamous sexual reproduction with zygotic meiosis
(a) a, c, g
(b) b, c, g
(c) b, d, e, f
(d) b, c, e, f
SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION
(d) b, c, e, f

97. Fungi are filamentous with the exception of “X” which is unicellular. Identify X.
(a) Yeast
(b) Albugo
(c) Mucor
(d) Lichen

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) Yeast

98. Find the correct match


Column I Column II

1. Gill fungi (i) Salmon disease


2. Cup fungi (ii) Trama
3. Black mould (iii) Penicillin
4. Blue/green (iv) Zygophore
(v) Apothecium
(a) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v)
(b) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(i)
(c) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(iii)
(d) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION
(c) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(iii)

99. The bacteria which oxidize various inorganic substances and use the released energy
for the synthesis of food are called
(a) Archaebacteria
(b) Heterotrophic bacteria
(c) Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
(d) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria

SHOW ANSWER
(d) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria

100. Select incorrectly matched pair


(a) Mucor mucedo – Coprophilous
(b) Albugo candida – Facultative parasite
(c) Agaricus bisporus – Edible basidiocarp
(d) Puccinia graminis – Black rust fungi

SHOW ANSWER
(b) Albugo candida – Facultative parasite

101. Which of the following statements is not correct for viruses?


(a) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(b) Viruses can multiply only when they are inside the living cells.
(c) Viruses cannot pass through bacterial filters.
(d) Viruses are made up of protein and DNA or RNA (never both DNA and RNA).

SHOW ANSWER
(c) Viruses cannot pass through bacterial filters.
102. Fungi differ from bacteria in
(d) Mode of nutrition
(c) Having NAG in cell wall
(b) Flagella structure
(a) Reserve food material as glycogen

SHOW ANSWER
(c) Having NAG in cell wall

103. Which of the following statements is correct for archaea?


(a) Archaea resemble eukaryotes in all respects.
(b) Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(c) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(d) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes.

SHOW ANSWER
(b) Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

104. The fruiting body in Aspergillus (or Penicillium) is known as


(a) Cleistothecium
(b) Apothecium
(c) Perithecium
(d) Ascus

SHOW ANSWER
(a) Cleistothecium

105. Which of the following statements is not correct for methanogens?


(a) They are archaebacteria.
(b) They live in marshy areas.
(c) Methane is their preferred carbon source.
(d) They are present in the guts of several ruminant animals (cow, buffaloes) and produce
biogas (CH4) from the dung of these animals.

SHOW ANSWER
(c) Methane is their preferred carbon source.

106. The famous Irish famine is related to a disease of potato known as


(a) Late blight of potato
(b) Early blight of potato
(c) Dry rot of potato
(d) Potato scab

SHOW ANSWER
(a) Late blight of potato

107. Which of the following statements is correct for both blue-green algae and
bacteria?
(a) Both show anaerobic respiration.
(b) Both have chlorophyll pigment.
(c) Both are devoid of a true nucleus.
(d) None of the above

SHOW ANSWER
(c) Both are devoid of a true nucleus.

108. A dolipore septum is a characteristic feature of


(a) Phycomycetes
(b) Ascomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes
(d) Zygomycetes

SHOW ANSWER
(c) Basidiomycetes

109. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) TMV has a double-stranded RNA molecule.


(b) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses.
(c) The bacteriophage has double-stranded DNA.
(d) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses.

SHOW ANSWER
(a) TMV has a double-stranded RNA molecule.

110. Which one of the following combinations of characters is correct for the given
fungal group?
(a) Algal fungi: Coenocytic, cellulosic wall, zoospore, zygospore, dikaryophase present
(b) Conjugating: Septate mycelium, chitinous cell wall, sporangiospores, shorter (n + n)
phase
(c) Sac fungi : Septate mycelium, Ascogonium, Crozier stage, meiospores as ascospores,
shorter dikaryophase
(d) Club fungi: Shorter primary mycelium stage, No sex organs, dominant dikaryophase,
zygosporic meiosis

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) Sac fungi: Septate mycelium, Ascogonium, Crozier stage, meiospores as ascospores,
shorter dikaryophase

111. Which of the following statements is/are correct for bacteria?


(a) They are the members of the kingdom monera.
(b) They live in extreme habitats such as hot springs, deserts, snow, and deep oceans.
(c) They show the most extensive metabolic diversity.
(d) All of the above

SHOW ANSWER
(d) All of the above
112. Find a set of edible basidiocarps.
(a) Agaricus, Pleurotus
(b) Agaricus, Morchella
(c) Volvariella, Tuber
(d) Amanita, Morchella

SHOW ANSWER
(a) Agaricus, Pleurotus

113. Which of the following statements is a characteristic feature of chrysophytes?


(a) They are parasitic forms that cause diseases in animals.
(b) They have a protein-rich layer called the pellicle.
(c) They have an indestructible cell wall layer deposited with silica.
(d) They are commonly called dinoflagellates.

SHOW ANSWER
(c) They have an indestructible cell wall layer deposited with silica.

114. Read the statements carefully


a. Hartig net is the network of intracellular mycelium of Boletus
b. Ectomycorrhiza forms ten percent of total mycorrhiza
c. Fungal partner of endomycorrhiza belongs to zygomycetes or Phycomycetes
(1) Only a & c are correct
(2) Only b & c are correct
(3) Only c is correct
(4) All are correct

SHOW ANSWER
(2) Only b & c are correct

115. Which of the following statements is correct for dinoflagellates flagella?


(a) A single flagellum lies in the transverse groove between the cell plates.
(b) A single flagellum lies in the longitudinal groove between the cell plates.
(c) Two flagella, one lies longitudinally and the other transversely in a furrow between the
wall plates.
(d) Flagella are absent.

SHOW ANSWER
(c) Two flagella, one lies longitudinally and the other transversely in a furrow between the
wall plates.

116. A symptom not seen in plants due to viruses is


(1) Mosaic formation
(2) Leaf rolling and curling
(3) Yellowing, vein clearing
(4) Root-knot

SHOW ANSWER
(4) Root-knot
117. Choose the correct statements (i – v) regarding mycoplasma
(i) Mycoplasma has no cell wall.
(ii) Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism known.
(iii) Mycoplasma cannot survive without O2.
(iv) Mycoplasma is pathogenic in animals and plants.
(v) A sort of sexual reproduction occurs in a bacterium by adopting a primitive DNA
transfer from one bacterium to the other.
(a) Only (iii)
(b) (i), (iii) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), and (v)
(d) All of the above

SHOW ANSWER
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), and (v)

118. Viruses possess all the following properties, except


(a) They are non-cellular organisms
(b) Possess both DNA and RNA
(c) Capsid protects the nucleic acid
(d) Have inert crystalline structure outside living cells

SHOW ANSWER

(b) Possess both DNA and RNA

119. Read the given statements and answer the question. Identify the correct class of
fungi which have all the below-given characteristics.
(i) It includes unicellular as well as multicellular fungi.
(ii) In multicellular forms, hyphae are branched and septate.
(iii) Conidiophore produces conidia (spores) exogenously in the chain.
(iv) Sexual spores are ascospores produced endogenously in the chain.
(v) Fruiting body is called ascocarp.
(a) Phycomycetes
(b) Sac fungi
(c) Club fungi
(d) Fungi imperfecti

SHOW ANSWER
(b) Sac fungi

120. T. O. Diener discovered a new infectious agent that was smaller than viruses and
has the following characteristics:
(i) It causes potato spindle tuber disease.
(ii) It has free RNA.
(iii) Molecular weight of RNA is low.
Identify the infectious agent.
(a) Viruses
(b) Viroids
(c) Virion
(d) Mycoplasma

SHOW ANSWER
(b) Viroids

CHAPTER 3 PLANT KINGDOM


1. Besides paddy fields cyanobacteria are also found inside the vegetative part of:
(a) Cycas
(b) Equisetum
(c) Psilotum
(d) Pinus

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) Cycas
In Cycas specialized root called coralloid roots are associated with N2 – fixing cyanobacteria
either Nostoc or Anabaena. Coralloid roots lie near the soil surface. They are irregular and
often dichotomously branched. Root hair and root cap are absent in these roots.

2. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in:


(a) Spirogyra
(b) Volvox
(c) Fucus
(d) Chlamydomonas

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) Spirogyra
In Spirogyra, sexual reproduction occurs through conjugation. Gametes are non-flagellated,
morphologically similar. But physiologically different (isogamy with physiological
anisogamy). Volvox and Fucus are examples of oogamous and Chlamydomonas contain
isogamous flagellated gametes.

3. Read the following statements (1-5) and answer the question which follows them.

1. In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living


2. Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous.
3. Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox, and Albugo is oogamous
4. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
5. Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One
SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION
(b) Three
In liverworts and ferns gametophytes are free-living while in fern, sporophytes are free
living. Gymnosperms and genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous. The
sporophyte in mosses are more elaborate than that of liverworts, Pinus is monoecious and
heterosporous. Marchantia is dioecious.

4. Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall
degrading enzyme?
(a) Plant cells-Cellulase
(b) Algae-Methylase
(c) Fungi-Chitinase
(d) Bacteria-Lysozyme

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Algae-Methylase
Algae is a plant and so its cell wall is made up of cellulose. Cellulase enzyme is needed for
degradation of its cell wall.

5. The plant body is thalloid in


(a) Funaria
(b) Sphagnum
(c) Salvinia
(d) Marchantia

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(d) Marchantia
The plant body of a liverwort is haploid (n), gametophytic, small, dorsoventrally flattened,
thallose, dichotomously branched fixed by unicellular and unbranched rhizoids, e.g.,
Marchantia.

6. What is common in all three, Funaria, Dryopteris, and Ginkgo?


(a) Independent sporophyte
(b) Presence of archegonia
(c) Well developed vascular tissues
(d) Independent gametophyte

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Presence of archegonia
The female sex organ archegonium is formed in bryophytes (Funaria), pteridophytes
(Dryopteris), and gymnosperms (Ginkgo).

7. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?


(a) Nostoc-Water blooms
(b) Spirogyra-Motile gametes
(c) Sargassum-Chlorophyll c
(d) Basidiomycetes-Puffballs

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Spirogyra-Motile gametes
Cyanobacteria, e.g., Nostoc, grow in such abundance as to form water blooms. Sargassum
belongs to brown algae which possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids, xanthophyll, and a
characteristic brown pigment, fucoxanthin. Commonly known forms of basidiomycetes are
mushrooms, bracket fungi, or puffballs. In Spirogyra gametes are non flagellated (non-
motile) but similar in size. They show amoeboid movements.

8. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes?


(a) Sargassum
(b) Ectocarpus
(c) Ulothrix
(d) Spirogyra

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(d) Spirogyra
In Spirogyra, sexual reproduction occurs through conjugation. Gametes are non-flagellated
morphologically similar. But physiologically different (isogamy with physiological
anisogamy).

9. Which one of the following is wrong about Chara?


(a) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
(b) Globule and nucule present on the same plant
(c) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
(d) Globule is male reproductive structure

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
Chara is a green alga found attached to bottoms of shallow water of ponds, pools, and lakes.
The male sex organ is called antheridium. The female sex organ is called oogonium.
Oogonium is borne at the top of the four celled filaments.

10. Which of the following is responsible for peat formation?


(a) Marchantia
(b) Riccia
(c) Funaria
(d) Sphagnum

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(d) Sphagnum
Sphagnum, a moss, provides peat that has long been used as fuel. It can retain water for long
periods and as such used to cover the plant roots during transportation.

11. An alga that can be employed as food for the human being is:
(a) Ulothrix
(b) Chlorella
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Polysiphonia

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Chlorella
Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular algae, rich in proteins and are used as food
supplements by space travelers.
12. In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living?
(a) Marchantia
(b) Pteris
(c) Pinus
(d) Funaria

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) Pinus
Pinus belongs to gymnosperms in which male and female gametophytes do not have an
independent free-living existence. They remain within the sporangia which are of two types –
microsporangia and megasporangia.

13. Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct
statements:
(A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonize bare rock.
(B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte
(C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM
(D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is
sporophytic
(E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia
located on the sporophyte
(a) (B), (C), and (D)
(b) (A), (D), and (E)
(c) (B), (C), and (E)
(d) (A), (C), and (D)

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) (A), (D), and (E)
Selaginella is a heterosporous pteridophyte containing micro & megaspores. In Cycas,
coralloid root has the cyanobacteria – Anabaena.

14. Male gemetes are flagellated in:


(a) Anabaena
(b) Ectocarpus
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Polysiphonia

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Ectocarpus
Male gametes are flagellated in Ectocarpus (Phaeophyceae). They possess heterokont, lateral
flagella.

15. Which one of the following statements is wrong?


(a) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
(b) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
(c) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
(d) Algin and carrageen are products of algae

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
Mannitol or laminarin is the stored food in Phaeophyceae (brown algae).

16. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces:


(a) Single sperm and vegetative cell
(b) Single sperm and two vegetative cells
(c) Three sperms
(d) Two sperms and a vegetative cell

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(d) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
Two sperms and a vegetative cell are produced by male gametophyte in angiosperms.

17. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis, and megasporogenesis :


(a) form gametes without further divisions
(b) Involve meiosis
(c) occur in ovule
(d) occur in anther

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Involve meiosis
In meiosis, the number of chromosomes is reduced by half producing haploid daughter cells.
The microspore mother cell and the megaspore mother cell undergo meiosis to produce
haploid microspore and megaspore respectively.

18. Which one is the wrong statement?


(a) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores
(b) Haploid endosperm is a typical feature of gymnosperms
(c) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c and fucoxanthin
(d) Archegonia are found in Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, and Gymnosperms.

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores
The spores are non-motile in Mucor.

19. Select the correct statement:


(a) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
(b) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
(c) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
(d) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
Sequoia sempervirens is one of the tallest trees

20. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires


(a) Wind
(b) Insects
(c) Birds
(d) Water

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(d) Water
Bryophytes neither have pollen nor flowers and rely on water to carry the male gametes
(sperm) to the female gametes (eggs). The antherozoids (male gametes of pteridophytes) are
armed with hair-like or whip-like cilia or flagella and can swim through water; they do not
travel great distances and are only released when free water is available.

21. An example of colonial alga is :


(a) Volvox
(b) Ulothrix
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Chlorella

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) Volvox
Volvox is a motile colonial freshwater green alga. It forms spherical colonies.

22. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of:


(a) Fucus
(b) Funaria
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) Marchantia

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) Chlamydomonas
Chlamydomonas has haplontic life cycle hence shows zygotic meiosis.

23. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are:


(a) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
(b) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
(c) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
(d) Haplontic, Diplontic

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
Ectocarpus exhibits a haplodiplontic life cycle while Fucus has a diplontic life cycle.

24. Select the mismatch


(a) Cycas – Dioecious
(b) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(c) Equisetum – Homosporous
(d) Pinus – Dioecious

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(d) Pinus – Dioecious
Pinus is a monoecious plant comprising both male and female cones on the same plant.
25. Double fertilization is exhibited by :
(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Angiosperms
(d) Gymnosperms

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) Angiosperms
Double fertilization is a unique feature exhibited only by angiosperms. It involves both
syngamy and triple fusion.

26. Cyanobacteria are classified under


(a) Protista
(b) Plantae
(c) Monera
(d) Algae

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) Monera
Kingdom Monera exclusively includes all forms of bacteria. All bacteria are prokaryotes and
do not possess a well-defined nucleus and other cell organelles. Protista, Algae, and Plantae
include eukaryotic and unicellular or multicellular organisms.

27. Fusion of two motile gametes which are dissimilar in size is


termed as
(a) oogamy
(b) isogamy
(c) anisogamy
(d) zoogamy

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) anisogamy
Lower groups of plants like algae exhibit great variation in the mode of sexual and asexual
reproduction. Some algae produce gametes that are not similar in shape, size, and structure.
Their fusion is called anisogamy. For example, Chlamydomonas. Isogamy is the fusion of
similar gametes, zoogamy is the sexual reproduction of animals.

28. Holdfast, stipe, and frond constitutes the plant body in case of
(a) Rhodophyceae
(b) Chlorophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae
(d) All of these

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) Phaeophyceae
Phaeophyceae: In the members of the class- Phaeophyceae, the plant body is usually attached
to the substratum using a holdfast and has a stalk called stipe and a leaf-like photosynthetic
organ called a frond.
29. A plant shows a thallus level of organization. It shows rhizoids and is haploid. It
needs water to complete its life cycle because the male gametes are motile. Identify the
group to which it belongs to
(a) pteridophytes
(b) gymnosperms
(c) monocots
(d) bryophytes

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(d)bryophytes
Bryophyta is a group of plants that have a gametophytic haploid thalloid body. The motile
male gametes are produced in special male reproductive structures called antheridia. These
gametes need a thin film of water to swim and reach the female reproductive organ called
archegonia. Pteridophytes, gymnosperm, and monocots show a higher level of organization.

30. A prothallus is
(a) a structure in pteridophytes formed before the thallus develops
(b) a sporophytic free-living structure formed in pteridophytes
(c) a gametophyte free-living structure formed in pteridophytes
(d) a primitive structure formed after fertilization in Pteridophytes

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) a gametophyte free-living structure formed in pteridophytes
Prothallus is usually a gametophytic phase in the life of a pteridophyte. The spore germinates
to form a prothallium, it is a short-lived inconspicuous heart-shaped structure with several
rhizoids developed beneath and bears sex organs, archegonium, and antheridium.

31. Plants of this group are diploid and well adapted to extreme conditions. They grow
bearing sporophylls in compact structures called cones. The group in reference is
(a) monocots
(b) dicots
(c) pteridophytes
(d) gymnosperms

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(d) gymnosperms
Gymnosperms include medium-sized or tall trees and shrubs. Their plants are well adapted to
withstand extremes of temperature, humidity, and wind. Reproductive organs are usually in
the form of cones or strobili. The male cones are made up of microsporophyll and the female
cones are made up of megasporophyll. The presence of sporophyll (micro and
megasporophyll) shows the development of seed habit but seeds develop from naked ovule
and are not covered.

32. The embryo sac of an angiosperm is made up of


(a) 8 cells
(b) 7 cells and 8 nuclei
(c) 8 nuclei
(d) 7 cells and 7 nuclei
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(b) 7 cells and 8 nuclei
Embryo sac in angiosperm contains 2 synergids, 1 egg cell, 3 antipodal cells, and one
secondary nucleus.

33. If the diploid number of a flowering plant is 36. What would be the chromosome
number in its endosperm?
(a) 36
(b) 18
(c) 54
(d) 72

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(c)54
The endosperm is a product of triple fusion. One male nuclei (n = 18) fuses with diploid
secondary nucleus (2n = 36), so it becomes triploid (3n = 54). Thus, the ploidy of endosperm
is (3n) and chromosomes will be 54.

34. Protonema is
(a) haploid and is found in mosses
(b) diploid and is found in liverworts
(c) diploid and is found in pteridophytes
(d) haploid and is found in pteridophytes

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(a) haploid and is found in mosses
The germination of haploid spores of mosses produced by sporophyte after reductional
division from the protonema. This structure later develops into an independent gametophytic
plant.

35. The giant redwood tree (Sequoia sempervirens) is a/an


(a) angiosperm
(b) free fern
(c) pteridophyte
(d) gymnosperm

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(d) gymnosperm
Sequoia sempervirens is a gymnosperm. It has thick, woody, and branched stems. The plant
also shows some xeric adaptations which help it to survive in adverse climatic conditions.

36. Red algae have green chlorophyll-a that


is like the one present in
(a) green algae
(b) cyanobacteria
(c) mosses
(d) higher plants

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(b) cyanobacteria

37. Which one of the following is generally


found in cool seas?
(a) red algae
(b) brown algae
(c) green algae
(d) blue-green algae

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(b) brown algae

38. Floridean starch is found in


(a) red algae
(b) brown algae
(c) green algae
(d) blue-green algae

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(a) red algae

39. Fucoxanthin is found in


(a) red algae
(b) brown algae
(c) green algae
(d) blue-green algae

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(b) brown algae

40. The zoospore of Ulothrix has


(a) one flagellum
(b) two flagella
(c) three flagella
(d) four flagella

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(d) four flagella

41. A diploid structure with a tough coat produced during unfavorable conditions are
(a) zoospore
(b) zygote
(c) zygospore
(d) spore

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zygospore
42. A multicellular green algae is
(a) Chondrus
(b) Laminaria
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) Ulva

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(d) Ulva

43. Which one of the following does not have flagellated male gamete?
(a) red algae
(b) brown algae
(c) mosses
(d) green algae

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(a) red algae

44. Which one of the following groups led to the evolution of land plants?
(a) Rhodophyta
(b) Phaeophyta
(c) Chlorophyta
(d) Cyanophyta

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(c) Chlorophyta

45. A distinct feature of bryophytes, when compared to other green plants, is that they
(a) produce spores
(b) have sporophyte attached to the gametophyte
(c) lack xylem
(d) lack roots

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(b) have sporophyte attached to the gametophyte

46. The first land inhabiting plants are


(a) pteridophytes
(b) bryophytes
(c) gymnosperms
(d) angiosperms

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(a) pteridophytes

47. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of bryophytes?


(a) presence of archegonia
(b) water is essential for fertilization
(c) an independent photosynthetic sporophyte
(d) motile sperms

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(c) an independent photosynthetic sporophyte

48. Which of the following bryophyte is of great economic importance?


(a) funaria
(b) liverworts
(c) sphagnum
(d) chondrus

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(c) sphagnum

49. Water is essential for the life cycle of Funaria because


(a) it will dry without water
(b) fertilization takes place in water
(c) it is a hydrophyte
(d) the growth will remain stunted in the
absence of water

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(b) fertilization takes place in water

50. Which of the following is likely to occur on sea coasts?


(a) mosses
(b) green algae
(c) red algae
(d) brown algae

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(d) brown algae

51. A moss differs from a fern in having


(a) swimming sperms
(b) alternation of generation
(c) dependent gametophyte
(d) independent gametophyte

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(d) independent gametophyte

52. Which of the following groups produces spores, but lacks vascular tissue?
(a) fungi
(b) pteridophytes
(c) gymnosperms
(d) angiosperms
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(a) fungi

53. The protonema of moss is


(a) diploid
(b) haploid
(c) sporophyte
(d) sporangium

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(a) diploid

54. The male gametophyte in higher plants is represented by


(a) microspore
(b) anther
(c) pollen grain
(d) male gamete

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(c) pollen grain

55. Which of the following conditions is found in Pinus but not Pteris?
(a) conducting tissue
(b) uncovered seeds
(c) presence of sporangia
(d) secondary growth

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(b) uncovered seeds

56. Which of the following is an amphibian of the plant kingdom?


(a) red algae
(b) fungi
(c) moss
(d) pines

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(c) moss

57. A Pinus does not have


(a) resin canals
(b) xylem tracheids
(c) ovuliferous scales
(d) two cotyledons

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(d) two cotyledons
58. Gymnosperms do not bear fruits because
(a) they are not pollinated
(b) they lack ovary
(c) they produce spores
(d) they do not have seeds

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(b) they lack ovary

59. Which of the following has a dominant sporophytic generation?


(a) Dryopteris
(b) Funaria
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Liverworts

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(a) Dryopteris

60. Which of the following groups produce seeds but lack flowers?
(a) bryophytes
(b) fungi
(c) pteridophytes
(d) gymnosperm

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(d) gymnosperm

61. Irish moss is the common name of a particular


(a) algae
(b) moss
(c) lichen
(d) fungi

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(a) algae

62. Agar-Agar is produced from


(a) blue-green algae
(b) red algae
(c) brown algae
(d) green algae

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(b) red algae

63. Kelp is a kind of


(a) an aquatic plant
(b) a moss
(c) an algae
(d) a fungus

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(c) an algae

64. Cuscuta is a
(a) xerophyte
(b) parasite
(c) sporophyte
(d) epiphyte

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(b) parasite

65. The pitcher plant is


(a) autotrophic
(b) saprophytic
(c) parasitic
(d) insectivorous

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(d) insectivorous

66. The sporangia of a fern develop on


(a) roots
(b) stems
(c) rhizoids
(d) leaves

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(d) leaves

67. An ovule is the equivalent of


(a) megasporangium
(b) megasporophyll
(c) megaspore
(d) female gamete

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(a) megasporangium

68. In Pinus the fertilization takes place in the


(a) 1st-year cone
(b) 2nd-year cone
(c) 3rd-year cone
(d) microsporangia

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(b) 2nd-year cone

69. Wolffia a small plant about 1 mm in diameter is a


(a) moss
(b) pteridophyte
(c) gymnosperm
(d) angiosperm

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(d) angiosperm

70. Carpels of angiosperms are equivalent to


(a) sporophyll
(b) sporangia
(c) spore
(d) zygospore

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(a) sporophyll

71. A monocot angiosperm has


(a) taproot
(b) corolla in sets of 5
(c) scattered vascular bundles
(d) 6 groups of xylem

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(c) scattered vascular bundles

72. A plant showing reticulate venation and a woody stem is a


(a) pteridophyte
(b) gymnosperm
(c) monocot
(d) dicot

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(d) dicot

73. Chilgozas are the seeds of


(a) a monocot
(b) a dicot
(c) conifer
(d) false fruit

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(c) conifer

74. Frond is a term given to the leaves of


(a) a moss
(b) a fern
(c) a conifer
(d) an angiosperm

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(b) a fern

75. The group of plants having vascular tissue is called


(a) Bryophyta
(b) Pteridophyta
(c) angiosperms
(d) Tracheophyta

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(d) Tracheophyta

76. Which group has seeds enclosed in fruits?


(a) Gymnospermae
(b) Angiospermae
(c) phanerogamae
(d) pteridophytes

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(b) Angiospermae

77. Ferns belong to the following group


(a) thallophyta
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Pteridophyta
(d) Gymnospermae

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(c) Pteridophyta

78. Lichens have a symbiotic relationship between


(a) alga and bacteria
(b) alga and fungus
(c) bacteria and fungus
(d) fern and bacteria

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(b) alga and fungus

79. Dicotyledon plants generally have


(a) fibrous roots
(b) pentamerous flowers
(c) parallel venation in leaves
(d) trimerous flowers
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(b) pentamerous flowers

80. Mushroom belongs to the group


(a) algae
(b) fungi
(c) lichens
(d) Bryophyta

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(b) fungi

81. Seed bearing plants include


(a) pteridophytes and gymnosperms
(b) bryophytes and pteridophytes
(c) gymnosperms and angiosperms
(d) bryophytes and angiosperms

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(c) gymnosperms and angiosperms

82. Both chlorophyll a and b are present in


(a) Rhodophyceae
(b) Phaeophyceae
(c) Chlorophyceae
(d) None of these

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(c) Chlorophyceae

83. Bryophytes can be separated from algae because they


(a) are thalloid forms
(b) have no conducting tissue
(c) possess archegonia
(d) contain chloroplast

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(c) possess archegonia

84. The female reproductive part of bryophytes is


(a) Antheridium
(b) Oogonium
(c) Archegonium
(d) Sporangium

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(c) Archegonium
85. Which of the following is called amphibians of the plant kingdom?
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Gymnosperms
(d) Algae

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(a) Bryophytes

86. Bryophytes are of


(a) great economic value
(b) no value at all
(c) great ecological importance
(d) a lot of aesthetic value

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(c) great ecological importance

87. The common characteristic between bryophytes and pteridophytes are


(a) vascularisation
(b) terrestrial habit
(c) water for fertilization
(d) independent sporophyte

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(c) water for fertilization

88. The plant group that produces spores and embryo but lacks vascular tissues and
seeds is
(a) Pteridophyta
(b) Rhodophyta
(c) Bryophyta
(d) Phaeophyta

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(c) Bryophyta

89. A plant having seeds but lacking flowers and fruits belongs to
(a) pteridophytes
(b) mosses
(c) ferns
(d) gymnosperms

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(d) gymnosperms

90. Pteridophytes differ from mosses/bryophytes in possessing


(a) independent gametophyte
(b) well developed vascular system
(c) archegonia
(d) flagellate spermatozoids

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(b) well developed vascular system

91. In Chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction occurs by


(a) isogamy and anisogamy
(b) isogamy, anisogamy, and oogamy
(c) oogamy only
(d) anisogamy and oogamy

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(b) isogamy, anisogamy, and oogamy

92. Bryophytes are dependent on water because


(a) water is essential for fertilization for their homosporous nature
(b) water is essential for their vegetative propagation
(c) the sperms can easily reach up to egg in the archegonium
(d) archegonium has to remain filled with water for fertilization

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(c) the sperms can easily reach up to egg in the archegonium

93. Which of the following is without exception in angiosperms?


(a) Presence of vessels
(b) Double fertilisation
(c) Secondary growth
(d) Autotrophic nutrition

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(b) Double fertilisation

94. Agar is commercially obtained from


(a) red algae
(b) green algae
(c) brown algae
(d) blue-green algae

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(a) red algae

95. Brown algae are characterized by the presence of


(a) phycocyanin
(b) phycoerythrin
(c) fucoxanthin
(d) haematochrome

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(c) fucoxanthin

96. Chloroplast of Chlamydomonas is


(a) stellate
(b) cup-shaped
(c) collar-shaped
(d) spiral

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(b) cup-shaped

97. Sexual reproduction involving the fusion of two cells in the Chlamydomonas is
(a) isogamy
(b) homogamy
(c) somatogamy
(d) hologamy

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(a) isogamy

98. Prothallus (gametophyte) gives rise to fern plant (sporophyte) without fertilization.
It is
(a) apospory
(b) apogamy
(c) parthenocarpy
(d) parthenogenesis

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(b) apogamy

99. Moss peristome takes part in


(a) spore dispersal
(b) photosynthesis
(c) protection
(d) absorption

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(a) spore dispersal

100. Which one of the following is a living fossil?


(a) Pinus
(b) Opuntia
(c) Ginkgo
(d) Thuja

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(c) Ginkgo
101. Blue-green algae belong to
(a) eukaryotes
(b) prokaryotes
(c) Rhodophyceae
(d) Chlorophyceae

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(b) prokaryotes

102. Dichotomous branching is found in


(a) Fern
(b) Funaria
(c) Liverworts
(d) Marchantia

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(d) Marchantia

103. Floridean starch is found in


(a) Chlorophyceae
(b) Rhodophyceae
(c) myxophyceae
(d) Cyanophyceae

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(b) Rhodophyceae

104. Cycas have two cotyledons but not included in angiosperms because of
(a) naked ovules
(b) seems like monocot
(c) circinate ptyxis
(d) compound leaves

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(a) naked ovules

105. Peat moss is used as packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant
places because
(a) it is hygroscopic
(b) it reduces transpiration
(c) it serves as a disinfectant
(d) it is easily available

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(a) it is hygroscopic

106. Conifers differ from grasses in the


(a) lack of xylem tracheids
(b) absence of pollen tubes
(c) formation of endosperm before fertilization
(d) production of seeds from ovules

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(c) formation of endosperm before fertilization

107. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the
following characters you should choose?
(a) Nature of stored food materials in the cell
(b) Structural organization of thallus
(c) Chemical composition of the cell wall
(d) Types of pigments present in the cell

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(d) Types of pigments present in the cell

108. Algae have a cell wall made up of:


(a) cellulose, galactans, and mannans
(b) hemicellulose, pectins, and proteins
(c) pectins, cellulose, and proteins
(d) cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectins

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(a) cellulose, galactans, and mannans

109. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into


(a) embryo sac
(b) ovule
(c) endosperm
(d) pollen sac

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(a) embryo sac

110. In gymnosperms like Pinus and Cycas, the endosperm is


(a) triploid
(b) haploid
(c) diploid
(d) tetraploid

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(b) haploid

111. Protonema occurs in the life cycle of


(a) Riccia
(b) Funaria
(c) Equisetum
(d) Spirogyra
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(b) Funaria

112. Which of the following cannot fix nitrogen?


(a) Nostoc
(b) Azotobacter
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Anabaena

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(c) Spirogyra

113. An alga very rich in protein is


(a) spirogyra
(b) ulothrix
(c) oscillatoria
(d) chlorella

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(d) chlorella

114. Which one of the following plants is monoecious?


(a) Pinus
(b) Cycas
(c) Fucus
(d) Marchantia

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(a) Pinus

115. Which type of ribosomes is found in Nostoc cells?


(a) 50S
(b) 60S
(c) 70S
(d) Eukaryotic

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(c) 70S

116. Nostoc is a
(a) green alga
(b) yellow-green alga
(c) blue-green alga
(d) red alga

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(c) blue-green alga
117. The attachment structure/s found in lichens
(a) Rhizomes
(b) Holdfast
(c) Both of these
(d) Rhizosphere

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(c) Both of these

118. Bioindicators are


(a) lichens tracing the presence of pollution
(b) fossil lichens
(c) a special type of litmus paper
(d) None of the above

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(a) lichens tracing the presence of pollution

119. Which commonly known as ‘Peat moss’ or ‘Bog moss’?


(a) Selaginella
(b) Equisetum
(c) Laminaria
(d) Sphagnum

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(c) Laminaria

120. Which is commonly known as ‘Liverwort’?


(a) Funaria
(b) Marchantia
(c) Anthoceros
(d) Sphagnum

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(b) Marchantia

121. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte in


(a) bryophytes
(b) gymnosperms
(c) angiosperms
(d) pteridophytes

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(a) bryophytes

122. The rhizophore is not a true root because it is


(a) endogenous
(b) exogenous
(c) mesogenous
(d) endarch

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(b) exogenous

123. Seed habit first originated in


(a) certain pteridophytes
(b) certain pines
(c) certain monocots
(d) certain dicots

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(a) certain pteridophytes

124. Which of the following plants exhibit independent alternation of generation?


(a) Angiosperms
(b) Gymnosperms
(c) Pteridophytes
(d) Bryophytes

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(c) Pteridophytes

125. ‘Maiden hair fern’ is


(a) Dryopteris
(b) Azolla
(c) Adiantum
(d) Pteris

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(c) Adiantum

126. Sporocarp is a reproductive structure of


(a) some algae
(b) some aquatic ferns having sori
(c) angiosperms having spores
(d) bryophytes

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(b) some aquatic ferns having sori

127. Prothallus means


(a) Immature gametophyte
(b) Immature sporophyte
(c) Immature archegonium
(d) None of these

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(d) None of these

128. Fruits are not formed in Gymnosperms because of


(a) absence of pollination
(b) absence of seed
(c) absence of fertilization
(d) absence of ovary

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(d) absence of ovary

129. In Gymnosperms, seeds are said to be naked because they


(a) do not have ovule
(b) do not have an ovary
(c) do not contain endosperm
(d) do not contain starch

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(b) do not have an ovary

130. The embryo sac in an angiosperm is a


(a) megasporangium
(b) megaspore mother cell
(c) megagametophyte
(d) megaspore

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(c) megagametophyte

131. The role of double fertilization in angiosperms is to produce-


(a) endosperm
(b) integuments
(c) cotyledons
(d) endocarp

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(a) endosperm

132. Which of the following is a “resurrection” plant?


(a) Lycopodium
(b) Selaginella
(c) Rhynia
(d) Marsilia

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(b) Selaginella

133. Algae used in the space program is


(a) fucus
(b) volvox
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) chlorella

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(d) chlorella

134. Which of the following is not the feature of gymnosperms?


(a) Parallel venation
(b) Perennial plants
(c) Distinct branches (long and short branches)
(d) Xylem with vessels

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(d) Xylem with vessels

135. In Pinus, the male cone bears a large number of


(a) ligules
(b) anthers
(c) microsporophylls
(d) megasporophylls

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(c) microsporophylls

136. In gymnosperms, ovules are


(a) covered
(b) naked
(c) single coat
(d) imbricate

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(b) naked

137. Laminaria (kelp) and Fucus (rockweed) are the examples of


(a) red algae
(b) brown algae
(c) green algae
(d) golden brown algae

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(b) brown algae

138. Tallest angiosperm is


(a) Eucalyptus
(b) redwood tree
(c) oak tree
(d) Pinus
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(a) Eucalyptus

139. Seaweeds are an important source of


(a) chlorine
(b) fluorine
(c) iodine
(d) fromine

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(c) iodine

140. Which of the following is a fatty oil-yielding plant?


(a) Sunflower
(b) Acacia
(c) Butea
(d) Casuarina

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(a) Sunflower

141. The red colour of Rhodophyta is due to the preponderance:


(a) phycobilins
(b) phycocyanin
(c) phycoerythrin
(d) None of these

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(c) phycoerythrin

142. The present-day higher green plants are believed to have evolved from:
(a) ferns
(b) green algae
(c) liverwort
(d) mosses

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(a) ferns

143. “Algal zone” is found in :


(a) normal roots of Cycas
(b) normal roots of Pinus
(c) coralloid roots of Cycas
(d) stem of Cycas

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(c) coralloid roots of Cycas
144. The largest flower found is known as :
(a) Rafflesia
(b) Tecoma
(c) Musa
(d) Cauliflower

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(a) Rafflesia

145. Chloroplasts of Spirogyra have:


(a) spiral margin
(b) smooth or waxy margin
(c) smooth margin
(d) None of the above

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(a) spiral margin

146. Which of the following is autotrophic?


(a) Virus
(b) Mycoplasma
(c) Nostoc
(d) All of these

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) Nostoc

147. Match the following and choose the correct option:


Column-I Column-II
(Classes of pteridophytes) (Examples)
A. Psilopsida I. Selaginella
B. Lycopsida II. Psilotum
C. Sphenopsida III. Dryopteris
D. Pteropsida IV. Equisetum

(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III


(b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III

148. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Phaeophyceae I. Funaria, Polytrichum, Sphagnum
B. Rhodophyceae II. Equisetum, Psilotum, Pteris
C. Mosses III. Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria.
D. Pteridophytes IV. Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gracilaria
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II

149. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched?


(a) Chlorophyceae – Major pigments are Chl a and b.
(b) Phaeophyceae – Cell wall made up of cellulose and algin.
(c) Rhodophyceae – Stored food as mannitol.
(d) Chlorophyceae – The cell wall is made up of Cellulose.

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(c) Rhodophyceae – Stored food as mannitol.

150. In which of the following, all listed genera belong to the same class of Algae?
(a) Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia
(b) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas
(c) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix
(d) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracilaria

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas

151. Funaria may be differentiated from Pinus by the character


(a) No fruits are produced
(b) No seeds are produced
(c) Antheridia and archegonia
(d) Both (a) and (b)

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(b) No seeds are produced

152. Fern plant is a


(a) haploid gametophyte
(b) diploid gametophyte
(c) diploid sporophyte
(d) haploid sporophyte

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) diploid sporophyte

153. Mosses are of great ecological importance because of


(a) their contribution to preventing soil erosion.
(b) their contribution to ecological succession.
(c) its capability to remove CO from the atmosphere.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION
(d) Both (a) and (b)

154. You are given an unknown plant to study in the laboratory. You find that it has
chlorophyll, no xylem. Its multicellular sex organs are enclosed in a layer of jacket cells.
Its gametophyte stage is free living. The plant probability belongs to
(a) Chlorophyceae
(b) Bryophyte
(c) Pteridophyte
(d) Gymnosperm

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(b) Bryophyte

155. Pre-fertilized endosperm is characteristic of


(a) Pteridophytes
(b) Angiosperms
(c) Gymnosperms
(d) Bryophytes

SHOW ANSWER AND EXPLANATION


(c) Gymnosperms

CHAPTER 4 ANIMAL KINGDOM


1. The body cavity formed by the splitting of the mesoderm is called
(a) pseudocoelom
(b) coelom
(c) haemocoel
(d) blastocoel

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(b) coelom

2. Pseudocoelom is found in
(a) cnidaria
(b) Platyhelminthes
(c) nematodes
(d) annelids

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(c) nematodes

3. The body of the tapeworm is said to be


(a) unsegmented
(b) pseudo segmented
(c) metamerically segmented
(d) none of these

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(b) pseudo segmented

4. Which of the following cells are found in Porifera only?


(a) choanocytes
(b) cnidoblasts
(c) sensory cells
(d) gland cells

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(a) choanocytes

5. Which of the following is found in sponges only?


(a) mesoglea
(b) nerve cells
(c) one exit
(d) numerous inlets

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(d) numerous inlets

6. Choanocytes are found in


(a) outer epithelium
(b) inner epithelium
(c) mesoglea
(d) spongocoel

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(b) inner epithelium

7. Coelenterates differ from other metazoans in having


(a) nematocysts
(b) gemmules
(c) radial symmetry
(d) polymorphism

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(a) nematocysts

8. Which of the following does not have a medusa stage?


(a) jellyfish
(b) hydra
(c) obelia
(d) corals

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(b) hydra

9. Which of the following level of organization is found in coelenterates?


(a) cellular
(b) tissue
(c) organ
(d) organ system

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(b) tissue

10. The cavity present in Hydra is called


(a) haemocoel
(b) coelom
(c) blastocoel
(d) coelenteron

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(d) coelenteron

11. Haemocoel is present in


(a) flatworms
(b) roundworms
(c) segmented worms
(d) insects

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(d) insects

12. Excretion in flatworms is by


(a) malpighian tubule
(b) nephridia
(c) flame cells
(d) nephrons

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(c) flame cells

13. A triploblastic, unsegmented animal with complete alimentary canal could be a


(a) roundworm
(b) Planaria
(c) liver fluke
(d) Hydra

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(a) roundworm

14. The tapeworm takes its food by


(a) suckers
(b) mouth
(c) scolex
(d) skin
SHOW ANSWER
(d) skin

15. Nematodes are not found in


(a) soil
(b) freshwater
(c) seawater
(d) none of these

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(d) none of these

16. The alimentary canal of nematodes has


(a) only mouth
(b) only anus
(c) mouth and anus
(d) no intestine

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(c) mouth and anus

17. Which animal shows locomotion by setae?


(a) roundworm
(b) earthworm
(c) leech
(d) tapeworm

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(b) earthworm

18. The coral reef is formed by


(a) echinoderms
(b) coelenterates
(c) molluscs
(d) shells

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(b) coelenterates

19. The common name of Sepia is


(a) dogfish
(b) silverfish
(c) cuttlefish
(d) flyingfish

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(c) cuttlefish
20. Which of the following has an ink gland?
(a) cuttlefish
(b) hydra
(c) snail
(d) oyster

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(a) cuttlefish

21. The radially symmetrical, diploblastic animals belong to the phylum


(a) Porifera
(b) Coelenterata
(c) Platyhelminthes
(d) Echinodermata

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(b) Coelenterata

22. A pearl oyster belongs to the class


(a) Asteroidea
(b) lamellibranchia
(c) Gastropoda
(d) Cephalopoda

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(b) lamellibranchia

23. Which animal has a modified mantle cavity to expel water with force?
(a) snail
(b) oyster
(c) squid
(d) chiton

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(c) squid

24. A characteristic feature of insects is


(a) antennae
(b) 3 pairs of legs
(c) 1 pair of compound eyes
(d) 2 pairs of wings

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(b) 3 pairs of legs

25. Which of the following is an insect?


(a) spider
(b) mite
(c) daphnia
(d) silverfish

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(d) silverfish

26. Which of the following groups do not have the antennae?


(a) crustacea
(b) myriapoda
(c) insecta
(d) arachnida

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(d) arachnida

27. An animal that has 1 pair of jointed legs on each segment is


(a) centipede
(b) millipede
(c) prawn
(d) Nereis

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(a) centipede

28. Locomotion in starfish is with the help of


(a) spines
(b) feet
(c) water vascular system
(d) tentacles

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(c) water vascular system

29. Which of the following is a fish?


(a) cuttlefish
(b) seahorse
(c) starfish
(d) silverfish

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(b) seahorse

30. Which of the following is an echinoderm?


(a) sea urchin
(b) sea lion
(c) octopus
(d) oyster

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(a) sea urchin

31. Which of the group is only marine?


(a) coelenterata
(b) mollusca
(c) porifera
(d) echinodermata

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(d) echinodermata

32. Chordates may not have a


(a) vertebral column
(b) dorsal nerve cord
(c) gill slits
(d) notochord

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(a) vertebral column

33. Which one is not a feature of Agnatha?


(a) parasites
(b) jawless mouth
(c) paired fins
(d) horny teeth

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(c) paired fins

34. Which one of the following is not a bony fish?


(a) dogfish
(b) sea horse
(c) flying fish
(d) rohu

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(a) dogfish

35. A shark does not have


(a) gill slits
(b) swim bladder
(c) placoid scales
(d) ventral mouth

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(b) swim bladder

36. Which one of the following has a four-chambered heart?


(a) frog
(b) snake
(c) crocodile
(d) lizard

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(c) crocodile

37. Which one of the following has a four-chambered heart?


(a) frog
(b) snake
(c) crocodile
(d) lizard

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(c) crocodile

38. Which one of the following is a cold-blooded animal?


(a) cat
(b) ostrich
(c) lizard
(d) penguin

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(c) lizard

39. Which one of the following is characteristic of mammals only?


(a) warm-blooded
(b) 4-chambered heart
(c) pinna
(d) Limbs with 5 toes

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(c) pinna

40. Whale belongs to the group


(a) Edentata
(b) cetacea
(c) Carnivora
(d) Rodentia

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(b) cetacea

41. The most primitive placental mammal is


(a) Platypus
(b) bat
(c) shrew
(d) mice
SHOW ANSWER
(c) shrew

42. The lateral line system of sense organs is found only in


(a) birds
(b) bats
(c) sharks
(d) snakes

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(c) sharks

43. Man belongs to the group


(a) prosimians
(b) primates
(c) edentates
(d) cetacea

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(b) primates

44. Rodents are also known as


(a) hoofed mammals
(b) toothless mammals
(c) gnawing mammals
(d) carnivores

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(c) gnawing mammals

45. All hoofed mammals


(a) have horns
(b) are cud-chewing
(c) are herbivores
(d) have four-chambered stomach

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(c) are herbivores

46. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of sponges?


(a) Tissue level of organization
(b) Presence of Ostia
(c) Extracellular digestion
d) Indirect development

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(b) Presence of Ostia
47. Collar cells are found in
(a) Sponges
(b) roundworms
(c) earthworm
(d) spider

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(a) Sponges

48. The canal system is the characteristic feature of


(a) Arthropods
(b) Mollusca
(c) sponges
(d) echinoderms

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(c) sponges

49. Which of the following phylum animals are mostly found in marine water but few
are in freshwater
(a) Annelida
(b) Porifera
(c) Mollusca
(d) Chordata

SHOW ANSWER
(b) Porifera

50. Skeleton is made up of _ in Porifera


(a) Spicules
(b) Spongin
(c) Both a and b
(d) Chitin

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(c) Both a and b

51. The cavity of coelenterates is called


(a) cavity
(b) coelom
(c) coelenteron
(d) all above

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(b) coelom

52. Find the odd


(a) Sea fan
(b) sea horse
(c) sea cucumber
(d) sea lily

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(b) sea horse

53. Which animal has a cylindrical form


(a) Physalia
(b) Admsia
(c) Hydra
(d) b & c

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(d) b & c

54. Which animal is umbrella-shaped and free-swimming


(a) Aurelia
(b) Jelly-fish
(c) Hydra
(d) a & b

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(d) a & b

55. Which of the following is rightly matched?


(a) Physalia – Portuguese man of war
(b) pennatula – sea fan
(c) Adamsia – sea-pen
(d) aorgonia – sea anemone

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(a) Physalia – Portuguese man of war

56. Corals have a skeleton composed of


(a) CaCO3
(b) CaPO4
(c) CaCl2
(d) CaSiO2

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(a) CaCO3

67. Match the item in column I with column II and choose the option showing correctly
matched pairs.
I II
(p) porifera (i) spongila
(q) Cnidaria (ii) liver fluke
(r) platyhelminthes (iii) Neris
(s) Annelida (iv) Adamsia
(a) p – (iv), q – (ii), r – (i), s – (iii)
(b) p – (i), q – (iv), r – (ii), s – (iii)
(c) p – (i), q – (iv), r – (iii), s – (ii)
(d) p – (iv), q – (ii), r – (iii), s – (i)

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(b) p – (i), q – (iv), r – (ii), s – (iii)

68. Cnidoblasts are used for


(a) Anchorage
(b) Defense
(c) Capture
(d) All of the given

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(d) All of the given

69. The gastro-vascular cavity is located in


(a) Earthworm
(b) Hydra
(c) Liver fluke
(d) Ascaris

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(b) Hydra

70. The body bears _ external rods of ciliated comb plates in pleurobrachia
(a) Eight
(b) Four
(c) Ten
(d) Sixteen

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(a) Eight

71. Ctenophores are commonly known as


(a) Flatworms
(b) Sea walnuts
(c) roundworms
(d) sponges

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(b) Sea walnuts

72. The excretory cells, that are found in Platyhelminthes are


(a) Nephridia
(b) Coller cells
(c) Flame cells
(d) all above
SHOW ANSWER
(c) Flame cells

73. The function of suckers cell in liver fluke


(a) Defense
(b) Reproduction
(c) Locomotion
(d) Absorb nutrients

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(d) Absorb nutrients

74. Ascaris is found in


(a) body cavity
(b) tissue
(c) alimentary canal
(d) lymph nodes

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(c) alimentary canal

75. The pseudocoelomate among these is


(a) Porifera
(b) Annelida
(c) Mollusca
(d) Aschelminthes

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(d) Aschelminthes

76. Match the fllowing columns and select the option shows correctly matched pairs
Column I Column II
(p) Ascaris (i) Hookworm
(q) Wuchereria (ii) Round worm
(r) Ancylostoma (iii) Flatworms
(s) Tapeworm (iv) Filaria worm
(a) p – (ii), q – (iv), r – (iii), s – (i)
(b) p – (ii), q – (i), r – (iii), s – (iv)
(c) p – (ii), q – (iv), r – (i), s – (iii)
(d) p – (i), q – (ii), r – (iv), s – (iii)

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(c) p – (ii), q – (iv), r – (i), s – (iii)

77. Which is correct for earthworm


(a) segments
(b) parapodia
(c) nephridia
(d) all of given
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(d) all of given

78. The neural system consists of paired ganglia connected by lateral nerves to double _
in Annelida
(a) ventral nerve cord
(b) dorsal nerve cord
(c) Anterior nerve cord
(d) posterior nerve cord

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(a) ventral nerve cord

79. Blood sucking animal is


(a) Neris
(b) Earthworm
(c) a & b
(d) Leech

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(d) Leech

80. __ which help in swimming in Annelida.


(a) parapodia
(b) Nephridia
(c) sucker
(d) seaments

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(a) parapodia

81. This is the largest phylum of Animals on the earth


(a) Mollusca
(b) Amphibia
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Aves

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(c) Arthropoda

82. The body of arthropods is covered by _ exoskeleton


(a) calcium carbonate
(b) calcium sulphate
(c) chitiarous
(d) conchin

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(c) chitiarous
83. The respiratory organ in Arthropoda
(a) gill
(b) book gill
(c) tracheal system
(d) all of given

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(d) all of given

84. The excretory organ in cockroach is


(a) green gland
(b) malpighian tubules
(c) nephridia
(d) kidney

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(b) malpighian tubules

85. The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for fooding, called _ in Molluscs.
(a) radulla
(b) medulla
(c) Gizzard
(d) teeth

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(a) radulla

86. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
(p) pila (i) Devil fish
(q) Dentalium (ii) ctsiton
(r) chaetopleura (iii) Applo smail
(s) octopus (iv) Tusk shell
(a) p – (ii), q – (iii), r – (iii), s – (iv)
(b) p – (iii), q – (iv), r – (ii), s – (i)
(c) p – (ii), q – (iv), r – (i), s – (iii)
(d) p – (i), q – (ii), r – (iii), s – (iv)

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(b) p – (iii), q – (iv), r – (ii), s – (i)

87. In which of the following phyla, while the adult shows radial symmetry, the larva
shows bilateral symmetry?
(a) Mollusca
(b) Echinodermata
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Annelida

SHOW ANSWER
(b) Echinodermata

88. An excretory system is absent in


(a) Sepia
(b) Crab
(c) Starfish
(d) Earthworm

SHOW ANSWER
(c) Starfish

89. Water vascular system which help in


(a) Cocomotion
(b) capture and transport of food
(c) respiration
(d) all above

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(d) all above

90. The body is cylindrical and composed of __ in Hemichordata


(a) Proboscis
(b) collar
(c) trunk
(d) all the above

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(d) all the above

91. Choose correct option for in Hemichordata


(a) circulatory system – open
Respiration – gills
Excretory system – proboscis gland
(b) circulatory system – close
Pespiration – gills
Excretory system – green gland
(c) circulatory system – open
Respiration – gills
Excretory system – kideny
(d) circulatory system – open
Respiration – lungs
Excretory system – proboscis gland

SHOW ANSWER
(a) circulatory system – open Respiration – gills Excretory system – proboscis gland

92. Into how many sub-phylum Chordata is divided?


(a) two
(b) four
(c) six
(d) three

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(d) three

93. The notochord is replaced by a __ vertebral column in chordata


(a) cartilaginous
(b) bony
(c) both of a & b
(d) none of those

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(c) both of a & b

94. Notochord is present only in larval tail


(a) urochordata
(b) cephalochordata
(c) vertebrata
(d) protochordates

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(a) urochordata

95. Vertebrates have a ventral muscular heart with _ chambers


(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) all above

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(d) all above

96. _ have a sucking and circular mouth without jaws


(a) lamprey
(b) scoliodon
(c) catla
(d) rohu

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(a) lamprey

97. Larve of _ after metamorphosis return to the ocean


(a) scoliodon
(b) shark
(c) lamprcy
(d) catla

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(c) lamprcy

98. Chondrichthyes is characterized by


(a) ventral mouth
(b) placoid scale
(c) ctenoid scale and ventral mouth
(d) placoid scale and ventral mouth

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(d) placoid scale and ventral mouth

99. Air bladder is absent in


(a) Dog fish
(b) catla
(c) Pohu
(d) flying fish

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(a) Dog fish

100. Sea horse is


(a) a bird
(b) a mammal
(c) an amphibian
(d) a fish

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(d) a fish

101. Terminal mouth occur in


(a) catla
(b) Electric ray
(c) shark
(d) stingray

SHOW ANSWER
(a) catla

102. Which of the following is oviparous fish?


(a) shark
(b) sea horse
(c) catla
(d) all the above

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(d) all the above

103. The scaleless vertebrate is


(a) snake
(b) Rohu
(c) shark
(d) rat

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(d) rat

104. They are cold-blooded animal


(a) horse
(b) sea-horse
(c) bat
(d) crane

SHOW ANSWER
(b) sea-horse

105. Amphibia means _


(a) A = amphi = dual, B = bios = life
(b) A = amphi = water, B = bios = life
(c) A = Amphi = single, B = bios = life
(d) A = amphi = land, B = bios = life

SHOW ANSWER
(a) A = amphi = dual B = bios = life

106. The limbless amphibians are


(a) Tree fog
(b) Toad
(c) Pana
(d) Ichthyophis

SHOW ANSWER
(d) Ichthyophis

107. _ open into a common chamber called the cloaca


(a) Alimentary canal
(b) reproductive tract
(c) urinary
(d) all the above

SHOW ANSWER
(d) all the above

108. Choose the correct combination of the given option


(a) Rana – Frog
(b) Ichthyophis – Toad
(c) Hyla – Salamander
(d) salamander – toad
SHOW ANSWER
(a) Rana – Frog

109. Which type of Respiratory is/are found in amphibians


(a) gills
(b) lungs
(c) skin
(d) all of the above

SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above

110. Dry skin with scales or scutes without gland is a characteristic of


(a) Aves
(b) Pisces
(c) Reptilia
(d) mammals

SHOW ANSWER
(c) Reptilia

111. A four-chambered heart is not found in


(a) mammals
(b) crocodile
(c) birds
(d) snake

SHOW ANSWER
(d) snake

112. They do not have external __ opening in reptilla


(a) Nose
(b) Jaws
(c) Ear
(d) scale

SHOW ANSWER
(c) Ear

113. Which animals of the following reptile are poisonous?


(a) Turtle
(b) Tree lizard
(c) Crocodile
(d) krait

SHOW ANSWER
(d) krait
114. Choose the correct combination of the given option?
(a) calotes – garden lizard
(b) chameleon – krait
(c) Naja – viper
(d) crocodilus – tortoise

SHOW ANSWER
(a) calotes – garden lizard

115. Which of the following is a flightless bird?


(a) pigeon
(b) vulture
(c) parrot
(d) ostrich

SHOW ANSWER
(d) ostrich

116. The hind limb generally have _ in Aves


(a) nail
(b) scales
(c) wing
(d) joint skin

SHOW ANSWER
(b) scales

117. The hind limbs are modified for _ in Aves


(a) walking
(b) swimming
(c) clasping
(d) all of the above

SHOW ANSWER
(d) all of the above

118. Which of the following is present on the skin of the bird


(a) wax gland
(b) oil gland
(c) Hormonal gland
(d) green gland

SHOW ANSWER
(b) oil gland

119. Endoskeleton is full A and the long bones are hollow with B in birds
(a) A = cartilage, B = air cavities
(b) A = Bony, B = air cavities
(c) A = Bony, B = air bladder
(d) A = cartilage, B = air balloons

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(b) A = Bony, B = air cavities

120. The gizzard is associated with _ in birds


(a) Reproductive system
(b) Digestive system
(c) circulatory system
(d) skeletal system

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(b) Digestive system

121. The blood of Aves is


(a) warm
(b) cold
(c) warm and cold
(d) semi worm

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(a) warm

123. Which is correct for birds?


(a) Air sacs
(b) Mammary gland
(c) tail
(d) viviparous

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(a) Air sacs

124. Air sacs is connected to __ in birds


(a) wings
(b) Bone
(c) lungs
(d) limbs

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(c) lungs

125. Mammary gland are found in


(a) Aves
(b) Mammalia
(c) Amphibian
(d) Reptile

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(b) Mammalia

126. Which one of the following Mammalia live in water


(a) Bat
(b) platypus
(c) pat
(d) Blue whole

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(d) Blue whole

127. Which mammalian have adapted to fly?


(a) fox
(b) penguin
(c) ostrich
(d) all of the above

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(b) penguin

128. Different types of teeth are present in the jaw in _


(a) crocodile
(b) snake
(c) Frog
(d) Human

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(d) Human

129. Which is correct for Mammalia


(a) A = macropus = kangaroo, B = camelus = cameleon
(b) A = canis = dog, B = fells = cat
(c) A = equus = rat, B = leo = lion
(d) A = camelus = cameleon, B = canis = cat

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(b) A = canis = dog, B = fells = cat

130. When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism
into two identical halves, it is called
(a) asymmetrical
(b) radial symmetry
(c) bilateral symmetry
(d) all of the above

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(b) radial symmetry
131. The radial symmetry is observed in
I. Platyhelminthes
II. Coelenterates
III. Aschelminthes
IV. Annelids
V. Echinoderms
(a) II, III, and V
(b) I, II, III, V
(c) II, III, I
(d) II and V

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(d) II and V

132. All chordates possess


(a) exoskeleton
(b) limbs
(c) skull
(d) axial skeletal rod of the notochord

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(d) axial skeletal rod of the notochord

133. A common characteristic of all vertebrates is


(a) presence of skull
(b) division of the body into head, neck, trunk and tail
(c) presence of two pairs of functional appendages
(d) the body is covered with an exoskeleton

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(a) presence of skull

134. Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in


(a) pigeon
(b) house lizard
(c) frog’s tadpole
(d) flying fish

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(a) pigeon

135. The long bones are hollow and connected by air passages these are characteristics
of
(a) mammals
(b) reptiles
(c) birds
(d) all land vertebrates

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(c) birds

136. Animals/organisms floating on the surface of the water is


(a) plankton
(b) pelagic
(c) benthos
(d) neritic

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(a) plankton

137. Earthworms are


(a) useful
(b) harmful
(c) more useful than harmful
(d) more harmful

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(a) useful

138. A chordate character is


(a) gills
(b) spiracles
(c) postanal tail
(d) chitinous exoskeleton

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(c) postanal tail

139. Malpighian tubules are


(a) excretory organs of insects
(b) excretory organs of annelids
(c) respiratory organs of insects
(d) respiratory organs of annelids

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(a) excretory organs of insects

140. Skin is a respiratory organ in


(a) lizards
(b) birds
(c) primitive mammals
(d) frog

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(d) frog

141. Silk thread is obtained from silk moth during


(a) pupal state
(b) larval state
(c) nymph state
(d) adult state

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(a) pupal state

142. Flight muscles of birds are attached to


(a) clavicle
(b) keel of sternum
(c) scapula
(d) coracoid

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(b) keel of sternum

143. Classification of Porifera is based on


(a) branching
(b) spicules
(c) reproduction
(d) symmetry

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(b) spicules

144. Metamorphosis of insects is regulated through hormone


(a) pheromone
(b) thyroxine
(c) ecdysone
(d) All of the above

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(c) ecdysone

145. Which one occurs in Echinodermata?


(a) Bilateral symmetry
(b) Radical symmetry
(c) Porous body
(d) Soft skin

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(b) Radical symmetry

146. A: Periplaneta americana is nocturnal, omnivorous, household pest


R: It is because it acts as a scavenger
(a) A is true but R is false
(b) A is false but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
SHOW ANSWER
(c) Both A and R are true and R is correct

147. Bull Frog of India is


(a) Rana tigrina
(b) R. sylvatica
(c) R. ecutesbeiana
(d) R. esculenta

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(a) Rana tigrina

148. The cervical vertebrae in humans is


(a) same as in whale
(b) more than that in rabbit
(c) double than that of horse
(d) less than that in giraffe

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(a) same as in whale

149. What is common in a whale, bat, and rat?


(a) Absence of neck
(b) Muscular diaphragm between thorax and abdomen
(c) Extra-abdominal testes to avoid high temperature of the body
(d) Presence of external ears

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(b) Muscular diaphragm between thorax and abdomen

150. Gorilla, chimpanzee, monkeys, and humans belong to the same


(a) species
(b) genus
(c) family
(d) order

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(d) order
CHAPTER 5 MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
1. Roots that grow from any other part of the plant other than the radicle are called
(a) taproots
(b) adventitious roots
(c) prop roots
(d) epiphytic roots

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(b) adventitious roots

2. A large globular root that tapers sharply at the lower end is called
(a) fusiform
(b) napiform
(c) conical
(d) tuberous

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(b) napiform

3. The roots that have swellings at regular intervals are called


(a) nodulose
(b) fasciculated
(c) moniliform
(d) tuberous

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(c) moniliform

4, Massive aerial roots present in a Banyan tree is


(a) fibrous
(b) respiratory
(c) epiphytic
(d) prop roots

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(d) prop roots

5. Plants growing in swamps have roots that grow vertically upwards like
conical spikes and have aerating pores. Such roots are called
(a) pneumatophores
(b) mycorrhizal
(c) conical
(d) assimilatory

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(a) pneumatophores
6. The roots of the parasitic plant Cuscuta are of
(a) climbing
(b) prop or stilt
(c) mycorrhizal
(d) haustoria

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(d) haustoria

7. A short, vertical underground stem that contains the food reserve is called
(a) rhizome
(b) bulb
(c) corm
(d) tuber

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(c) corm

8. Ginger is an example of
(a) rhizome
(b) bulb
(c) corm
(d) tuber

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(a) rhizome

9. A long green stem with long internodes growing horizontally on the soil surface is
called
(a) runner
(b) sucker
(c) stolon
(d) offset

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(a) runner

10. A short, green, flattened branch resembling a leaf arising from the axil of a reduced
scale leaf is called
(a) phylloclade
(b) cladode
(c) phyllode
(d) stipule

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(b) cladode

11. When many equally strong veins like midrib arise from the petiole towards the
margin of the leaf forming a network, the leaf is said to
(a) reticulate pinnate
(b) reticulate palmate
(c) parallel pinnate
(d) parallel palmate

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(b) reticulate palmate

12. In a pitcher plant, the pitchers are modified


(a) fruits
(b) branches
(c) petioles
(d) leaves

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(d) leaves

13. The sharp spines in cactus are modified


(a) leaflets
(b) leaves
(c) branches
(d) thorns

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(b) leaves

14. The tendrils of the pea plant Pisum are modifications of


(a) branch
(b) axillary bud
(c) leaf
(d) apical bud

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(c) leaf

15. When the leaflets are joined together at a common point at the petiole, the leaf is
(a) simple leaf
(b) pinnately compound leaf
(c) palmately compound leaf
(d) a branch

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(c) palmately compound leaf

16. Phyllotaxy refers to an arrangement of


(a) phloem in a vascular bundle
(b) leaves on a branch
(c) veins in a leaf
(d) axillary buds in a plant
SHOW ANSWER
(b) leaves on a branch

17. A flower that has only stamens is called


(a) unisexual flower
(b) bisexual flower
(c) complete flower
(d) neuter flower

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(a) unisexual flower

18. A flower with a superior ovary is called


(a) hypogynous
(b) perigynous
(c) epigynous
(d) syncarpous

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(a) hypogynous

19. An inflorescence with the main axis elongated bearing flowers in a pendulous axis is
called
(a) raceme
(b) spike
(c) catkin
(d) spadix

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(c) catkin

20. On maturity, an ovule forms a


(a) seed
(b) fruit
(c) embryo sac
(d) endosperm

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(a) seed

21. Pineapple is an example of


(a) simple fruit
(b) aggregate fruit
(c) multiple fruits
(d) false fruit

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(c) multiple fruits
22. Monocarpellary, superior ovary is found in
(a) Liliaceae
(b) Poaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Fabaceae

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(d) Fabaceae

23. Tricarpellary, the syncarpous condition is found in


(a) Liliaceae
(b) Poaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Asteraceae

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(a) Liliaceae

24. Family Fabaceae has


(a) 4 corolla
(b) 5 corolla
(c) 6 corolla
(d) none of these

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(b) 5 corolla

25. Which of the following plant parts elongates directly and leads to the formation of
primary roots?
(a) bud
(b) radicle
(c) plumule
(d) root hair

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(b) radicle

26. The primary roots and their branches constitute the


(a) fibrous root system
(b) taproot system
(c) adventitious root system
(d) all of the above

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(b) taproot system

27. The fibrous root system is found in


(a) monocotyledonous plants
(b) dicotyledonous plants
(c) bryophytes
(d) gymnosperms

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(a) monocotyledonous plants

28. Roots develop from parts of the plant other than radicle are called
(a) taproots
(b) fibrous roots
(c) adventitious roots
(d) nodular roots

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(c) adventitious roots

29. Root hairs develop from


(a) region of maturation
(b) region of elongation
(c) region of meristematic activity
(d) root cap

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(a) region of maturation

30. The part of the root which is most active in water absorption is called
(a) root cap
(b) maturation zone
(c) meristematic zone
(d) zone of elongation

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(b) maturation zone

31. Fibrous roots develop in maize from


(a) upper nodes
(b) lower nodes
(c) upper internodes
(d) none of these

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(b) lower nodes

32. Prop roots of the banyan tree are meant for


(a) respiration
(b) absorption of water from the soil
(c) providing support to the big tree
(d) all of the above

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(c) providing support to the big tree

33. Stilt roots occur in


(a) groundnut
(b) rice
(c) sugarcane
(d) wheat

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(c) sugarcane

34. Pneumatophores are found in


(a) the vegetation which is found in marshy and saline lake
(b) the vegetation which is found in saline soil
(c) xerophytic condition
(d) hydrophytic condition

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(a) the vegetation which is found in marshy and saline lake

35. Which of the following plants grow in swampy areas, where the roots come out of
the ground and grow vertically upwards?
(a) Potato
(b) Opuntia
(c) Rhizophora
(d) Grass

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(c) Rhizophora

36. Root differs from the stem in having


(a) nodes and internodes
(b) axillary buds
(c) multicellular hairs
(d) unicellular hairs

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(d) unicellular hairs

37. Which of the following plant parts is generally green when young and later often
become woody and dark brown?
(a) stem
(b) seed
(c) leaves
(d) flower

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(a) stem
38. The regions of the stem where leaves are borne are called _ while _ are the portions
between two _
(a) nodes, nodes, and internodes
(b) nodes, internodes, and nodes
(c) internodes, nodes, and nodes
(d) internodes, internodes, and nodes

SHOW ANSWER
(b) nodes, internodes, and nodes

39. Which of the following plant groups has underground stems?


(a) Potato, ginger, turmeric, Euphorbia, zaminkand
(b) Potato, ginger, turmeric, zaminkand, Colocasia
(c) Potato, Citrus, Opuntia, zaminkand, Colocasia
(d) Potato, cucumber, watermelon, zaminkand, Colocasia

SHOW ANSWER
(b) Potato, ginger, turmeric, zaminkand, Colocasia

40. Stem tendrils can be found in


(a) cucumber
(b) pumpkins
(c) grapevines
(d) all of these

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(d) all of these

41. What is a modified stem used to protect plants from browsing animals?
(a) Tendrils
(b) Thorns
(c) Rhizome
(d) Tuber

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(b) Thorns

42. Fibrous root in maize develop from


(a) Lower internodes
(b) Lower nodes
(c) Upper nodes
(d) None of the above

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(b) Lower nodes

43. Which of the following plants have root pockets?


(a) Eichhorinia
(b) Capparis
(c) Opuntia
(d) Banyan

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(a) Eichhorinia

44. In which of the following, the plants have all roots?


(a) Podostemon
(b) Lemna
(c) Wolffia
(d) Utricularia

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(a) Podostemon

45. Food present in bulbil occurs in


(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaf base
(d) Petioles

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(c) Leaf base

46. From which part of the root, root hairs develop?


(a) Region of maturation
(b) Region of elongation
(c) Meristematic region
(d) Region of root cap

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(b) Region of elongation

47. Epiphytic roots are found in


(a) Indian rubber
(b) Orchid
(c) Tinospora
(d) Cuscuta

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(b) Orchid

48. Potatoes are borne on


(a) Primary roots
(b) axil of scaly leaves
(c) Lateral roots
(d) Adventitious roots

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(b) axil of scaly leaves

49. Some plants have rhizomes and roots as underground structures. Which
characteristics of rhizome would distinguish them from roots?
(a) Rhizomes are thicker than roots
(b) Rhizomes have scaly leaves
(c) Rhizome are thinner than roots
(d) None of the above

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(b) Rhizomes have scaly leaves

50. Sweet potato is a modification of


(a) Primary root
(b) leaf
(c) underground root
(d) Adventitious root

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(d) Adventitious root

51. Roots are differentiated into adventitious roots by their


(a) Function
(b) appearance
(c) place of origin
(d) position

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(c) place of origin

52. Winged petiole is found in


(a) citrus
(b) acacia
(c) radish
(d) peepal

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(a) citrus

53. In one of the following the stem performs the function of storage and propagation
(a) Ginger
(b) Wheat
(c) Radish
(d) Groundnut

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(a) Ginger
54. Leaves are attached to the stem at
(a) Apical meristem
(b) Internode
(c) Nodes
(d) Axillary meristem

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(c) Nodes

55. Phyllotaxy refers to


(a) Arrangement of leaves on the stem
(b) Folding leaf in the bud
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) None of the above

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(a) Arrangement of leaves on the stem

56. Plants with jointed stem and hollow internodes are known as
(a) Clums
(b) Scape
(c) Ephemerals
(d) Lianas

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(a) Clums

57. Bulbils take part in


(a) Sexual reproduction
(b) Respiration
(c) Transpiration
(d) Vegetative reproduction

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(d) Vegetative reproduction

58. The stem is very much reduced in


(a) Tuber
(b) Bulb
(c) Corm
(d) Rhizome

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(b) Bulb

59. Turmeric is a stem and not a root because


(a) It stores food material
(b) It grows parallel to the soil surface
(c) It has nodes and internodes
(d) It has chlorophyll

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(c) It has nodes and internodes

60. Grasses are examples of the following type of stem


(a) Suckers
(b) Runners
(c) Stolon
(d) Rhizomes

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(b) Runners

61. Red root is the name of


(a) Carrot
(b) Sweet potato
(c) Potato
(d) Beetroot

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(d) Beetroot

62. Tiny sacs or bladders are found in


(a) Utriculariya
(b) Salvinia
(c) nepenthes
(d) Hydrilla

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(a) Utriculariya

63. Which would do maximum harm to a tree? The loss of


(a) Half of its branches
(b) All of its leaves
(c) Half of its flower
(d) Half of its bark

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(b) All of its leaves

64. Smallest dicotyledonous parasitic plant of the world is


(a) Coryadalis nana
(b) Primula minutissina
(c) Arcethobium minustissimum
(d) Marsilea minuta

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(c) Arcethobium minustissimum

65. Adventitious roots


(a) Develop from radical
(b) Develop from flower
(c) Develop from embryo
(d) Develop from any part of plant body except radical

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(d) Develop from any part of plant body except radical

66. The arrangement of leaves on a stem is called


(a) Venation
(b) Vernation
(c) Phyllotaxy
(d) Axis

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(c) Phyllotaxy

67. Stem modified into flattened photosynthetic structure is


(a) Phyllode
(b) Bulbil
(c) Phylloclade
(d) Tendril

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(c) Phylloclade

68. Nodulated roots occur in


(a) Leguminoceae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Malvaceae
(d) Papilionaceae

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(a) Leguminoceae

69. Insectivorous plants catch insects for obtaining


(a) Na – K
(b) Taste
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Nitrogen

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(d) Nitrogen

70. Petiole is modified into tendril in


(a) Passiflora
(b) Gloriosa
(c) Pisum
(d) clematis

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(d) clematis

71. Thorn is a stem structure because it


(a) Develops from the trunk
(b) Develops from the apical bud
(c) modification of bank floral bud
(d) is pointed

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(b) Develops from the apical bud

72. Vegetative reproduction of Agave occurs through


(a) Rhizome
(b) Stolon
(c) Bulbils
(d) Sucker

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(c) Bulbils

73. What is the eye of a potato?


(a) Axillary bud
(b) Accessory bud
(c) Adventitious bud
(d) Apical bud

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(a) Axillary bud

74. If a raceme inflorescence is branched, it is called?


(a) Umbel
(b) spike
(c) Cymose
(d) Panicle

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(d) Panicle

75. Zig-zag development of inflorescence axis is an example of


(a) Helicoid cyme
(b) Scorpioid
(c) Umbel
(d) Compound umbel
SHOW ANSWER
a) Helicoid cyme

76. Opposite decussate phyllotaxy is found in


(a) Calotropis
(b) Mango
(c) Hibiscus
(d) Nerium

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a) Calotropis

77. A brightly coloured bract-like covering associated with the banana inflorescence is
called
(a) Spathe
(b) Scape
(c) Spiral
(d) Scapigeron

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a) Spathe

78. Inflorescence is
(a) Number of flower present on an axis
(b) Arrangement of flowers on an axis
(c) Method of the opening of a flower
(d) Type of flower borne on a peduncle

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b) Arrangement of flowers on an axis

79. In monocot male gametophyte is


(a) Megaspore
(b) Nucleus
(c) Microspore
(d) Tetrad

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c) Microspore

80. A catkin of the unisexual flower is found in


(a) Mulberry
(b) Wheat
(c) Onion
(d) Grass

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a) Mulberry
81. Flower is a
(a) Modified cone
(b) Modified spike
(c) Modified branch system
(d) Modified reproductive shoot

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d) Modified reproductive shoot

82. Flowers are always present in


(a) Cryptogamous
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Angiosperms
(d) Bryophytes

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(c) Angiosperms

83. Floral formula represents


(a) number and arrangement of floral parts
(b) Number of flowers in an inflorescence
(c) Type of flowers in a family
(d) None of above

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(a) number and arrangement of floral parts

84. From the life cycle point of view, the most important part of plants is
(a) Flower
(b) Leaf
(c) Stem
(d) Root

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a) Flower

85. The vexillum, (standard) wings, and keel in pea flowers constitute
(a) Calyx
(b) Corolla
(c) Androecium
(d) Gynaecium

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b) Corolla

86. Diadelphous condition is present on


(a) Citrus
(b) Bombyx
(c) Pisum
(d) Brassica

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c) Pisum

87. The number of female flowers in a cyathium is


(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Many

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a) One

88. The perianth is found in a flower in which


(a) Calyx and Corolla are not distinguishable
(b) Stamens are leaf like
(c) Corolla leaf-like but the calyx is colored
(d) None of the above

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a) Calyx and Corolla are not distinguishable

89. Stamens with free anthers but filaments fused into several groups are
(a) Polyadelphous
(b) Diadelphous
(c) Monadelphous
(d) Syngenesious

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a) Polyadelphous

90. Pappus is a modification of


(a) Calyx
(b) Corolla
(c) Stamens
(d) Gynoecium

SHOW ANSWER
a) Calyx

91. Placentation in legumes is


(a) Basal
(b) Marginal
(c) Axile
(d) Free central

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(b) Marginal

92. The leaves are modified into tendrils, hooks, pitcher, and bladder in the following
plants respectively
(a) sweet pea, bignonia, Nepenthes, Utricularia
(b) sweet pea, bignonia, Utricularia, Nepenthes,
(c) Nepenthes , bignonia, sweet pea, Utricularia
(d) Utricularia, Nepenthes, bignonia, sweet pea

SHOW ANSWER
a) sweet pea, bignonia, Nepenthes, Utricularia

93. Leaf apex is modified into tendril in


(a) Smilax
(b) Gloriosa
(c) Australian acacia
(d) Pea

SHOW ANSWER
(b) Gloriosa

94. A fibrous root system is better adapted than a tap root system for
(a) Storage food
(b) Anchorage of the plant to soil
(c) Absorption of water and organic food
(d) Transport of water and organic food

SHOW ANSWER
(b) Anchorage of the plant to soil

95. Which is not a stem modification?


(a) Rhizome of Ginger
(b) Corm of Colocasia
(c) Pitcher of Nepenthes
(d) tuber of the potato

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c) Pitcher of Nepenthes

96. A pair of insectivorous plants are


(a) Dionaea and Viscum
(b) Nepenthes and bladderwort
(c) Drosera and rafflesia
(d) Venus fly and Rafflesia

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b) Nepenthes and bladderwort
97. A phyllode is a modified
(a) leaf
(b) stem
(c) root
(d) branch

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a) leaf

98. An underground specialized shoot with a reduced disc-like stem covered by fleshy
leaves is
(a) bulb
(b) Rhizome
(c) rhizophore
(d) bulbil

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a) bulb

99. Stipular tendril modification is found in


(a) Smilex
(b) Pea
(c) Guava
(d) Mimosa pudica

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a) Smilex

100. Viscum is
(a) total stem parasite
(b) total root parasite
(c) partial stem parasite
(d) partial root parasite

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c) partial stem parasite

101. Root pocket does not occur in


(a) Ipomoea
(b) Mangrove plants
(c) trapa
(d) pistia

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d) pistia

102. Phylloclades are


(a) leaf modification
(b) one internode and long stem
(c) modified petioles
(d) green succulent stem of indefinite growth

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d) green succulent stem of indefinite growth

103. The bladder of Utricularia and Pitchers of nepenthes are modifications of


(a) leaves
(b) stems
(c) root
(d) flowers

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a) leaves

104. Tallest gymnosperm


(a) sequoia
(b) Eucalyptus
(c) Pinus
(d) Rannuncoulus

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a) sequoia

105. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber is


(a) Root buds
(b) Flower buds
(c) Shoot bud
(d) Axillary buds

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d) Axillary buds

106. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family


(a) Asteraceae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Brassicaceae
(d) Fabaceae

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d) Fabaceae

107. Mangrove plant live in


(a) Alpine Tundra
(b) Tundra
(c) Marshy areas along rivers
(d) Marshy areas along the seashore

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(d) Marshy areas along the seashore

108. Succulents are likely to be found in


(a) Tropical rain forest
(b) Deciduous forest
(c) Deserts
(d) Tundra

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(c) Deserts

109. In a compound umbel, each umbellate is subtended by


(a) Involucre
(b) Bracket
(c) Involucel
(d) Bracteole

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(b) Bracket

110. In the monocotyledonous seeds, the endosperm is separated from the embryo by a
distinct layer known as
(a) testa
(b) epithelial layer
(c) tegmen
(d) scutellum
(e) coleoptile

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(b) epithelial layer

111. The fleshy receptacle encloses a number of


(a) Berries
(b) achene
(c) Unisexual flower
(d) Samaras

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(c) Unisexual flower

112. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of


(a) Peach
(b) Cucumber
(c) Cotton
(d) Guava

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(a) Peach
113. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In tomato, fruit is capsule
(b) Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperm
(c) Placentation in primrose is basal
(d) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot.

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(b) Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperm

114. Flowers are zygomorphic in


(a) Mustard
(b) Gulmohar
(c) Tomato
(d) Datura

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(b) Gulmohar

115. Phyllode is present in


(a) Euphorbia
(b) Australian Acacia
(c) Opuntia
(d) Asparagus

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(b) Australian Acacia

116. Cymose inflorescence is present in


(a) Sesbania
(b) Trifolium
(c) Brassica
(d) Solanum

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(d) Solanum

117. The seed can be defined as


(a) An immature embryo protected by coats
(b) A mature ovule with a dormant embryo with enough reserve food and a protective
coating.
(c) A mature spore with enough reserve food and protective coatings
(d) A mature ovary with reserve food and protective coverings

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(b) A mature ovule with a dormant embryo with enough reserve food and a protective coating

118. In the maize grain, the starchy food is stored in


(a) Cotyledons
(b) Coleoptile
(c) Aleurone layer
(d) Endosperm

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(d) Endosperm

119. Which one of the following is not fruit?


(a) Cabbage
(b) Apple
(c) Watermelon
(d) Tomato

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(a) Cabbage

120. What is the edible part of Mango?


(a) Epicarp
(b) Mesocarp
(c) Endocarp
(d) Thalamus

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(b) Mesocarp

121. A fruit in which the fruit wall (pericarp) and seed coat have got fused is called
(a) Legume
(b) caryopsis
(c) nut
(d) drupe

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(b) caryopsis

122. A composite or multiple fruits develop from


(a) Polycarpellary ovary
(b) Bicarpellary and syncarpous ovary
(c) Apocarpous ovary
(d) Inflorescence

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(d) Inflorescence

123. Wheat grain is an example of :


(a) Achene
(b) Caryopsis
(c) Nut
(d) Follicle

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(b) Caryopsis

124. Which fruit is a type of nut?


(a) Ground nut
(b) Oat
(c) Walnut
(d) Cashew nut

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(d) Cashew nut

125. What is the edible part of coconut?


(a) Entire seed
(b) Fruit wall
(c) Endosperm
(d) None of the above

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(c) Endosperm

126. Water inside a coconut is


(a) Liquid endosperm
(b) Liquid endocarp
(c) Liquid Mesocarp
(d) Liquid Nucleus

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(a) Liquid endosperm

127. False fruit is a fruit that develops from:


(a) Ovary
(b) Any part of the flower except the ovary
(c) Aporcarpous carpellary
(d) Syncorpous carpellary

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(b) Any part of the flower except the ovary

128. Fibers are found on the seeds of:


(a) Calotropis
(b) Gossypium
(c) Alstonia
(d) All of above

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(d) All of above

129. Which is the correct pair for an edible part?


(a) Tomato – Thalamus
(b) Maize – Cotyledons
(c) Guava – Mesocarp
(d) Date palm- Pericarp

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(b) Maize – Cotyledons

130. How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an
inflorescence?
Walnut, poppy, radish, pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry.
(a) Five
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

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(c) Three

131. A characteristic of angiosperm is


(a) Flower
(b) Root
(c) Seed
(d) All of these

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(a) Flower

132. The capacity for vegetative reproduction is found in


(a) Leaves
(b) Roots
(c) Stem
(d) All of above

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(d) All of above

133. _ are the vegetative organs of the flowering plants


(a) Root, stem, flower
(b) Leaves, stem, fruits
(c) Roots, leaves, flowers
(d) Roots, stem, leaves

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(d) Roots, stem, leaves

134. A root can be differentiated from the stem because of the absence of
(a) Green colour
(b) Nods and internodes
(c) Hair
(d) Branches

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(b) Nods and internodes

135. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the root


(a) Presence of root tap
(b) Presence of unicellular hair
(c) Presence of chlorophyll
(d) Absence of buds

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(c) Presence of chlorophyll

136. When the trunk is unbranched and bears a crown of leaves at its apex, it is known
as
(a) Runner
(b) Sucker
(c) Caudex
(d) Culm

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(c) Caudex

137. Parallel venation is a characteristic of


(a) Legumes
(b) Grasses
(c) Parasitic plants
(d) Xerophytic plants

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(b) Grasses

138. Leaf morphology helps in


(a) Plant identification
(b) Plant classification
(c) None of these
(d) (a) & (b) both

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(d) (a) & (b) both

139. When the stem or its branch ends into a floral bud
(a) Vegetative growth starts
(b) Reproductive growth starts
(c) Lateral branch is given out
(d) Apical growth is stimulated
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(b) Reproductive growth starts

140. The root that grows from any part of the plant body other than the radical is
called?
(a) Tap root
(b) Adventitious root
(c) Modified roots
(d) Aerial roots

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(b) Adventitious root

141. _ require more than two growing seasons to complete their life cycle
(a) Annual
(b) Perennials
(c) Biennials
(d) Herbs

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(b) Perennials

142. Modified stem of _ protect the plant from grazing animal


(a) Datura festuosa
(b) Aloe vera
(c) Gloriosa superba
(d) Carissa carandus

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(d) Carissa carandus

143. Which of the following is actually not a flower?


(a) Shoe flower
(b) Sun flower
(c) Rose
(d) Pea

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(b) Sun flower

144. The beauty of the Bougainvillea flower is


(a) Corolla
(b) Calyx
(c) Bracts
(d) Androecium

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(c) Bracts
145. Flower in which the only set of one essential organ develops is called
(a) Unisexual
(b) Monoecious
(c) Dioecious
(d) Polygamous

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(a) Unisexual

146. Individual components of Perianth are called


(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Tepals
(d) Brackets

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(c) Tepals

147. Brinjal show which calyx


(a) Pappus
(b) Deciduous
(c) Caduceus
(d) Persistent

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(d) Persistent

148. The hairs present in maize corn cob are


(a) Styles
(b) Stigma
(c) Seed hairs
(d) Modified hairs of bracts

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(a) Styles

149. Seed is :
(a) Fertilized embryo
(b) Fertilized ovary
(c) Fertilized fruit
(d) Fertilized ovule

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(d) Fertilized ovule

150. A pome fruit is said to be false because


(a) The pericarp is inconspicuous
(b) The endocarp is cartilaginous
(c) The fruit is present in fleshy edible thalamus
(d) The fruit is derived from an inferior ovary

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(c) The fruit is present in fleshy edible thalamus

151. Geocarpic fruit is


(a) Potato
(b) Pea nut
(c) Onion
(d) Garlic

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(b) Pea nut

152. The unifoliate leaf is found in


(a) Pea
(b) Citrus
(c) Royal palm
(d) Oil palm

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(b) Citrus

153. Drupe has


(a) hard Epicarp
(b) hard endocarp
(c) hard mesocarp
(d) no epicarp

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(b) hard endocarp

154. Which of these characters do not belong to Compositae?


(a) Ligulate ray flowers
(b) Basal ovules
(c) Syngenesious stamens
(d) Five lobed stigma

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(d) Five lobed stigma

155. An inflorescence always forms a


(a) Multiple or composite fruit
(b) Simple fruit
(c) Dry dehiscent fruit
(d) Aggregate fruit

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(a) Multiple or composite fruit

156. Which of the following pairs is not correct?


(a) Corymb – Candytuft
(b) Capitulum – sunflower
(c) Catkin – Mulberry
(d) Raceme – Wheat

SHOW ANSWER
(d) Raceme – Wheat

157. Find the incorrect match


(a) Stilt root – turnip
(b) Taproot – carrot
(c) Adventitious root – sweet potato
(d) Prop root- banyan tree

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(a) Stilt root – turnip

158. Which of the following is a wrong pairing?


(a) Raceme – Mustard
(b) spike – Achyranthus
(c) compound umbel – Onion
(d) spadix – Musa

SHOW ANSWER
(c) compound umbel – Onion

159. The correct match for the edible part of the fruit is
(a) Guava – pericarp with the thalamus
(b) Tomato – thalamus
(c) Maize – cotyledon
(d) Date palm – epicarp

SHOW ANSWER
(a) Guava – pericarp with the thalamus

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