Applied Thermodynamics Mech MCQ

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Babu Banarasi Das Institute of Technology & Management, Lucknow
Course/Branch: B.TECH/ME Year / Semester :IV

Subject Code : KME401 Subject Name : Applied Thermodynamics
Date 20/6/21
Topic : Unit1 Gas Power Cycles and chemical combustion in fuel
CO1: To learn about of I law for reacting systems with heating value of fuels and gas power cycles.
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION BANK
BTL
S.NO Objective Questions (MCQ /True or False / Fill up with Choices )
1. The Otto cycle is the L1

a) a) air standard cycle of CI engine
b) air standard cycle of SI engine
c) vapour power cycle of CI engine
d) vapour power cycle of SI engine
2. In a four-stroke internal combustion engine, L1
a) the piston does four complete strokes within cylinder
b) for each cycle, the crankshaft completes two revolutions
c) both of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
3. The correct sequence of strokes in a four-stroke SI engine is L2
a) intake->compression->exhaust->expansion
b) intake->expansion->compression->exhaust
c) intake->exhaust->compression->expansion
d) intake->compression->expansion->exhaust
4. The spark plug fires shortly before the ____ stroke. L1
a) compression
b) expansion
c) intake
d) exhaust
5. The pressure in cylinder is ____ the atmospheric value during exhaust stroke L2
and ____ it during intake stroke.
a) above, below
b) below, above
c) equal to, equal to
d) equal to, above
6. In a two-stroke engine, the four functions performed in SI engine are done in L2
which two strokes?
a) expansion stroke and compression stroke
b) intake stroke and exhaust stroke
c) compression stroke and power stroke
d) compression stroke and expansion stroke
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Prepared By: Prof. Achman Mishra (ME, Deptt.)
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7. A two-stroke engine is used in motorcycles and scooters. L1

a) true
b) false
8. In a two-stroke engine, L1
a) the crankcase is sealed
b) the outward motion of piston is used to pressurize the air-fuel mixture
c) the intake and exhaust valves are replaced by opening in lower part of
cylinder wall
d) all of the mentioned
9. The two-stroke engine is ____ the four-stroke engine. L1
a) more efficient than
b) less efficient than
c) equally efficient to
10. The two-stroke engine is L1
a) simple and expensive
b) high power-to-weight ratio
c) low power-to-volume ratio
11. The efficiency of Otto cycle is given by (rk is the compression ratio) L1
a) 1/(rk)^(ɣ-1)
b) 1 – 1/(rk)^(ɣ)
c) 1 – 1/(rk)^(ɣ-1)
d) 1/(rk)^(ɣ)
12. The Otto cycle consists of L1
a) two reversible isotherms and two reversible isobars
b) two reversible isochores and two reversible adiabatics
c) two reversible isotherms and two reversible isochores
d) two reversible isobars and two reversible adiabatics
13. The mean effective pressure of an Otto Cycle increases with an increase in L1
___________
a) pressure ratio
b) compression ratio
c) temperature ratio
14. If compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to L3
6, its air standard efficiency will increase by ___________
a) 1%
b) 20%
c) 16.67%
d) 8%
15. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 L3
to 7, the percentage increase in efficiency will be ___________
a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 8%
d) 14%
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16. What is the relation between compression ratio (rk) and the efficiency of the L2
Otto cycle?
a) efficiency decreases with increase in compression ratio
b) efficiency increases with increase in compression ratio
c) efficiency does not affected by change in compression ratio
d) none of the above
17. For the compression ratio 8, the efficiency of otto cyyle is L3
a) 56
b) 48
c) 28
d) 32
18. The maximum temperature in the I.C engine cylinder is of the order of L1
a. 500 – 1000 C
b. 1000 – 1500 C
c. 1500 – 2000 C
d. 2000 – 2500 C
19. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the engine L1
size in following way
a. injecting more fuel
b. increasing flywheel size
c. scavenging
d. supercharging
20. A diesel engine has compression ratio from ____________ L1
a) 6 to 10
b) 10 to 15
c) 16 to 20
d) 25 to 40
21. In Diesel cycle, heat addition takes place at ___________ L1
a) constant temperature
b) constant pressure
c) constant volume
22. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by ____________ L1

a) spark
b) injected fuel
c) heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
d) combustion chamber
23. The thermal efficiency of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, with L1
increase in cut-off ratio will ____________
a) increase
b) decrease
c) be independent
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24. The pressure at the end of compression, in diesel engines, is approximately L2

____________
a) 10 bar
b) 20 bar
c) 25 bar
d) 35 bar
25. If the temperature of intake air in I.C. engine is lowered, then its efficiency will L1
____________
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) increase up to a certain limit and then decrease
26. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of ____________ L1
a) 5-10 kg/cm2
b) 20-25 kg/cm2
c) 60-80 kg/cm2
d) 90-130 kg/cm2
27. For the same maximum pressure and temperature, what is the relation among L2
the efficiencies of the Otto cycle, the Diesel cycle and the Dual cycle?
a. ηDual > ηDiesel > ηOtto
b. ηDiesel > ηDual > ηOtto
c. ηDiesel > ηOtto > ηDual
d. ηOtto > ηDiesel > ηDual
28. In a two-stroke engine, the four functions performed in SI engine are done in L2
which two strokes?
a) expansion stroke and compression stroke
b) intake stroke and exhaust stroke
c) compression stroke and power stroke
d) compression stroke and expansion stroke
29. The maximum adiabatic flame temperature is attained, when the fuel is burnt L2
with ______________________?
A. Theoretically required amount of air
B. More than theoretically required amount of air
C. Less than theoretically required amount of air
D. Theoretically required amount of oxygen
30. When the system A + B C + D is at equilibrium, L2
(a) the sum of the concentrations of A and B must equal the sum of the
concentrations of C and D.
(b) the forward reaction has stopped.
(c) both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped.
(d) the reverse reaction has stopped.
(e) neither the forward nor the reverse reaction has stopped.
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31. Consider the equilibrium system: L2

2ICl(s) I2(s) + Cl2(g)
Which of the following changes will increase the total amount of of Cl 2 that
can be produced?
(a) removing some of the I2(s)
(b) adding more ICl(s)
(c) removing the Cl2 as it is formed
(d) decreasing the volume of the container
(e) all of the above
32. What is the equilibrium constant for a reaction that has a value of Go = -41.8 L3
kJ at 100oC?
(a) 1.01
(b) 7.1 x 105
(c) -5.87
(d) 1.4 x 10-6
(e) 13.5
33. Kc = 0.040 for the system below at 450oC: L3
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
Evaluate Kp for the reaction at 450oC.
(a) 0.40
(b) 0.64
(c) 2.4
(d) 0.052
(e) 6.7 x 10-4
34. The reaction between hydrogen (H2) and nitrogen (N2) is described by the L2
equation
N2 + 3H2 ⇋ 2NH3 ΔH = -92.4 kJ/mol
What will be the effect of increasing the concentration of ammonia (NH3)?
A. The temperature increases
B. More ammonia (NH3) is formed
C. More hydrogen (H2) is formed
D. Less nitrogen (N2) is formed
35. Find the pH of a solution when 0.01 M HCl and 0.1 M NaOH are mixed in L3
equal volumes
(a) 12.65
(b) 1.04
(c) 7.0
(d) 2.0
36. Which of the following aqueous solution will be the best conductor of L2
electricity?
(a) NH3
(b) CH3COOH
(c) HCl
(d) C6H12O6
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37. In 0.10 M aqueous solution of pyridine (C5H5N), find the percentage of L3

pyridine that forms pyridinium ion (C5H5N+H) (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 x 10-9 )
(a) 1.6%
(b) 0.77%
(c) 0.0060%
(d) 0.013%
38. What will be the pH of a buffer solution having an equal concentration of B– L3
and HB (Kb = 10-10 for B–)
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 10
(d) 6
39. Find out whether the following reaction is spontaneous or not at 127 degrees L3
centigrade? N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g); ΔH = 92.22 kJ/mol and ΔS = -198.75
J/K-mol.
a) it is spontaneous
b) it is not spontaneous
c) it may be spontaneous
d) cannot predict
40. The melting of ice into liquid water is an example of tube _________ reaction. L2
a) endergonic
b) exergonic
c) exothermic
d) endothermic
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Date 20/6/21
Topic : Unit2 Vapour Power cycles
CO2: To learn about gas and vapor cycles and their first law and second law efficiencies.
BTL
1. Why Reheating of steam is used? L1

a) to increase efficiency
b) to increase work output
c) to increase Turbine Inlet Temperature
d) to reduce amount of fuel used
2. Reheating of steam _____________ L1
a) decreases steam rate
b) increases steam rate
c) no effect on steam rate
3. Efficiency of cycle will increase due to Reheating if _____________ L1
a) mean temperature of heat addition in boiler is higher than in reheat
process
b) mean temperature of heat addition in boiler is lower than in reheat
process
c) it will increase without any conditions
d) it will not increase
4. Why don’t we use more than two reheats? L1
a) not economical
b) increased mechanical stresses
c) net efficiency is decreased
5. The cycle efficiency in a single reheat plant is influenced by _________ L2
a) pressure at tubine inlet
b) pressure at which steam is reheated
c) temperature at which steam is reheated
d) temperature at tubine inlet
6. The optimum reheat pressure for most of the modern power plants is-----of L1
the initial steam pressure.
a) 0.1-0.5
b) 0.2-0.3
c) 0.2-0.25
d) 0.25-0.3
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7. What is the effect of reheat on steam quality? L1

a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) depends on several parameters
8. What should be the dryness fraction at the time of exhaust? L1
a) 0.88
b) 0.80
c) 0.90
d) 0.75
9. Reheat is preferred for the plants having efficiency greater than _______. L1
a) 150MW
b) 200MW
c) 100MW
d) 250MW
10. Rankine efficiency of a Steam Power Plant __________ L1
a) improves in Summer as compared to that in Winter
b) improves in Winter as compared to that in Summer
c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
11. Rankine cycle comprises of ______ L1
a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
c) two isothermal processes and two constant pressure processes
12. In Rankine cycle, the work output from the turbine is given by _________. L1
a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
b) change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet
c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet
13. What is the actual turbine inlet temperature in Rankine cycle? L1
a) 700C
b) 800C
c) 550C
d) 1150C
14. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good Steam Power Plant may be in the range L1
of?
a) 15 to 20%
b) 35 to 45%
c) 70 to 80%
d) 90 to 95%
15. A simple Rankine cycle operates the Boiler at 3 MPa with an outlet L3
temperature of 350°C and the Condenser at 50 kPa. Assuming ideal
operation and processes, what is the thermal efficiency of this cycle?
a) 7.7
b) 17.7
c) 27.7
d) 37.7
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16. A simple Rankine cycle produces 40 MW of power, 50 MW of process heat L3

and rejects 60 MW of heat to the surroundings. What is the utilization
factor of this co generation cycle neglecting the pump work?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
17. In which of the following conditions, Rankine cycle gives higher efficiency ? L3
A. Superheater cycle
B. Saturated cycle
C. Reheat cycle
D. Regenerative cycle
18. Why Reheating of steam is used? L1
a) to increase efficiency
b) to increase work output
c) to increase Turbine Inlet Temperature
d) to reduce amount of fuel used
19. Reheating of steam ___________ L1
a) decreases steam rate
b) increases steam rate
c) no effect on steam rate
20. The optimum reheat pressure for most of the modern power plants is L1
___________ of the initial steam pressure.
a) 0.1-0.5
b) 0.2-0.3
c) 0.2-0.25
d) 0.25-0.3
21. What is the effect of reheat on steam quality? L1
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) depends on several parameters
22. What should be the dryness fraction at the time of exhaust? L1

a) 0.88
b) 0.80
c) 0.90
d) 0.75
23. Reheat is preferred for the plants having efficiency greater than ______. L1
a) 150MW
b) 200MW
c) 100MW
d) 250MW
24. The efficiency of an ideal regenerative cycle is given by L2
a) 1 – (T1/T2)
b) 1 – (T2/T1)
c) 1 – (Q1/Q2)
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25. The efficiency of an ideal regenerative cycle is ____ the Carnot cycle L1
efficiency.
a) greater than
b) equal to
c) less than
26. When compared with the Rankine cycle, the ideal regenerative cycle has L1
a) less net work output
b) more steam rate
c) more efficient
27. For a regenerative cycle, which of the following is true? L2
a) efficiency = (Q1-Q2)/Q1
b) efficiency = (Wt-Wp)/Q1
c) steam rate = 3600/(Wt-Wp)
28. Which of the following is an assumption for heaters? L2
a) they are adequately insulated
b) there is no heat gain from or heat loss to the surroundings
29. Feed water heaters are of how many types? L2
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
30. What is the other name of the open heater? L2
a) shell & tube heat exchangers
b) contact type heaters
c) regenerative heat exchangers
d) closed heaters
31. Closed heaters are ______________ heat exchangers. L2
a) parallel flow
b) shell-and-tube
c) counter flow
d) cross- flow
32. If plant efficiency is high, what will be its effect on heater size? L3
a) it remains same
b) it increases
c) it decreases
33. Which of these is a disadvantage of open heater? L3

a) simplicity
b) lower cost
c) high heat transfer capacity
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34. The number of pumps required by a closed heater for pumping the main L2
feedwater stream is?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
35. What is the purpose of using open heaters in steam power plants? L3
a) feedwater purification
b) feedwater esterification
c) feedwater deaeration
d) feedwater carbonisation
36. Why are closed heaters sometimes made vertical? L2
a) to reduce weight of heaters
b) to reduce floor areas for installations
c) to minimize losses due to weight
37. Enthalpy of reactants is 15 J/Kg and enthalpy of products is 40 J/Kg, what L3
is the heat of reaction?
a) -10 J/Kg
b) 10 J/Kg
c) -25 J/Kg
d) 25 J/Kg
38. Enthalpy of reactants is 50 J/Kg and enthalpy of products is 25 J/Kg, what L3
is the heat of reaction?
a) -10 J/Kg
b) 10 J/Kg
c) -25 J/Kg
d) 25 J/Kg
39. Heat of formations of A, B, C, and D, are 5 J, 10 J, 15 J, and 20 J L3
respectively, what is the heat of reaction A + 4B -> 3C + D?
a) 10 J
b) 20 J
c) 35 J
d) 45 J
40. Heat of formations of A, B, C, and D, are 1 J, 2 J, 3 J, and 4 J respectively, L2
what is the heat of reaction 3A + 4B -> 2C + D?
a) -1 J
b) 1 J
c) 3 J
d) 6 J
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Date 28/6/21
Topic : Unit3 Boiler and Condenser
CO3: To learn about Boilers and condenser with its components and performance.
BTL
1. On what basis are fire and water tube boilers are classified? L1
a) Depending the combustion products formed
b) Depending the state of fuel
c) Depending on the steam formation rate
d) Depending tubular heating surface
2. Cornish boiler is an example of which type of boiler? L1
a) Fire tube boiler
b) Water tube boiler
c) Vertical tube boiler
d) Externally fired boiler
3. Stirling boiler is an example of which type of boiler? L1
a) Inclined tube boilers
b) Mobile boiler
c) Fire tube boiler
d) Water tube boiler
4. Which of these is a stationary boiler? L1
a) Locomotive boiler
b) Marine boiler
c) Mobile boiler
d) Babcock-Wilcox boiler
5. Which of these is a mobile boiler? L1
a) Lancashire boiler
b) Stirling boiler
c) Locomotive boiler
d) Cochran boiler
6. What is the steam pressure limit of natural circulation boilers? L1
a) 650bar
b) 180bar
c) 400bar
d) 550bar
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7. Which of the given boilers operate above critical pressure? L1

a) Natural circulation boilers
b) Forced circulation boilers
c) Once-through boilers
d) Water tube boilers
8. Which type of boilers are called drum-less boilers? L1
a) Natural circulation boilers
b) Fire tube boilers
c) Positive forced circulation boiler
d) Forced circulation boiler
9. Out of the given option choose the advantage that supports fire tube boilers? L1
a) Water circulation is cyclic
b) Used as a mobile boiler
c) Water circulation is limited inside boiler shell
d) Bursting of flue tube does not cause any explosion
10. Which type of boiler is it when the furnace is placed in the region of L1
boiling water?
a) Internally fired boiler
b) Externally fired boiler
c) Babcock-Wilcox boiler
d) Stirling boiler
11. Which are the major types of boilers that are operated in world today? L1
a) Natural circulation boiler
b) Forced circulation boiler
c) Fire tube boiler
d) Once through boiler
12. Which of the following is NOT a fire tube boiler? L2
a) Cochran Boiler
b) Lancashire Boiler
c) Locomotive Boiler
d) Babcock and Wilcox Boiler
13. The classification of boilers into horizontal, vertical and inclined is done on the L1
basis of their _____
a) pressure
b) method of firing
c) tubes
d) axis
14. Which of the following is a low pressure boiler? L1
a) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
b) Benson boiler
c) Lancashire
d) Lamont Boiler
15. Which of the following is NOT true about Babcock and Wilcox boiler? L1
a) Water tube boiler
b) Externally fired
c) High pressure boiler
d) Single tube
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16. Stationary boilers are used for _____. L1

a) locomotive applications
b) temporary applications
c) power plant steam generation
d) marine application
17. How many level indicators are there in the water level indicator of a boiler? L1
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
18. What is the function of pressure gauge in the boiler? L1
a) To indicate steam pressure
b) To indicate water pressure
c) To indicate Air pressure
d) To indicate Flue gas pressure
19. What type valve is a feed check valve of a boiler? L1
a) One way valve
b) Globe valve
c) Reversible valve
d) Disc check valve
20. What is the function of fusible plug in the boiler? L1
a) Protect the fire tube
b) To trip on overload
c) To act as a junction switch
d) To maintain pressure
21. What is the function of safety valves in the boiler? L1
a) To prevent excessive steam pressure
b) To prevent excessive air pressure
c) To prevent water pressure
d) To prevent from rising temperatures
22. What is the function of boiler? L1
a) To burn the fuel in a confined closed system with the supply of air
b) To generate steam at varying pressure
c) To generate steam at constant pressure
d) To produce flue gases by burning fuel at a given pressure
23. Which of the following is not a heat recovery equipment? L1
a) Economizer
b) Air preheater
c) Feed water heater
d) Steam separator
24. Boiler efficiency doesn’t depend on ____ L1
a) calorific value of fuel fired
b) specific heat of steam generated
c) boiler design
d) operation time
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25. The _________ may have water circulation either by natural means due to L1
difference in density or by external means.
a) Piping
b) Tubes
c) Furnace
d) Boiler
26. In what is water in high pressure boiler circulated through? L1
a) Conduits
b) Cove
c) Channel
d) Tubes
27. Steam condensers help in maintaining high back pressure on the exhaust side L1
of the piston of a steam engine.
a) True
b) False
28. Sub-atmospheric pressure is also called ____ L1
a) Gauge pressure
b) Absolute pressure
c) Vacuum pressure
d) High altitude pressure
29. Discharging condensate to hot well improves plant efficiency because _____. L1
a) condensate is not wasted
b) condensate cools down faster in the hot well
c) feed water for boiler is taken from the hot well
d) it increases the pressure in the hot well
30. Cooling water is sprayed into the exhaust steam in _____ L1
a) steam condensers
b) surface condensers
c) jet condensers
d) jet condensers and high condensers
31. Which of the following statements is TRUE about single-pass condenser? L1
a) It is a type of jet Condenser
b) The flow of water is in one direction only
c) The water flows in one direction through some tubes and returns through the
remainder
d) It is not used to condense steam
32. The function of a condenser in a thermal power plant is ___ L1
a) To act as reservoir to receive steam for turbine
b) To condense steam into condensate to be reused again
c) To create vacuum
d) All of the above
33. Which of the following is the correct definition of vacuum efficiency? L1
a) It is the ratio of actual vacuum to atmospheric pressure
b) It is the ratio of atmospheric pressure to actual vacuum
c) It is the ratio of maximum obtainable vacuum to actual vacuum
d) It is the ratio of actual vacuum to maximum obtainable vacuum
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34. The inlet and outlet temperatures of cooling water to a certain condenser are L3
recorded to be 30°C and 40°C respectively. If the absolute pressure in the
condenser is given to be 0.11 bar, determine efficiency.
a) 45.21%
b) 75.65%
c) 95.32%
d) 56.46%
35. The following data refers to a steam condenser – L3
Inlet temperature of cooling water = 36°C
Absolute pressure inside the condenser = 0.12 bar
efficiency = 78%
Determine the outlet temperature of cooling water.
a) 42.37°C
b) 39.12°C
c) 46.49°C
d) 35.21°C
36. Which condenser is high capacity condenser? L1
a) Jet condenser
b) Surface condenser
c) Both used
d) None of these
37. The vaccum obtained in condenser is depend upon a ......... L1
a) Quanity of steam
b) Temperature of cooling water
c) Capacity of enjector
d) None of these
38. What is the other name of the open heater? L1
a) shell & tube heat exchangers
b) contact type heaters
c) regenerative heat exchangers
d) closed heaters
39. Closed heaters are ______________ heat exchangers. L1
a) parallel flow
b) shell-and-tube
c) counter flow
d) cross- flow
40. Which of these is a disadvantage of open heater? L1
a) simplicity
b) lower cost
c) high heat transfer capacity
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Date 01/7/21
Topic : Unit4 Steam and Gas Nozzles and Steam Turbines
CO4: To understand and analyze about gas dynamics of air flow and steam through nozzles.
BTL
1. When a gas is pushed through a pipe, the gaseous molecules are _________ L2
by the pipe’s walls.
a) Attracted
b) Absorbed
c) Deflected
d) Dissipated
2. If the speed of sound is much ________ than that of the gas, the gas density L2
will stay constant.
a) Smaller
b) Larger
c) Equal to
d) Non-existent
3. Isentropic nozzle flow states about the movement of a gas or fluid through a L2
narrow orifice without an increase or decrease in _________.
a) Pressure
b) Energy
c) Displacement
d) Entropy
4. In fluid dynamics, the velocity of the fluid in the stagnation point is L1
a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Non-existent
d) Negative
5. The stagnation state is obtained after a _____________ to zero velocity. L2
a) Accelerating
b) Decelerating
c) Equilibrium
d) Exponential increase
6. To refrain from separation in subsonic nozzles, the expansion angle must not L2
be more than __
a) 10 degrees
b) 20 degrees
c) 30 degrees
d) 40 degrees
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7. Gas flows through the nozzle from an area of _____ pressure (called the L2
chamber) to one of _____ pressure.
a) High, low
b) Low, high
c) Same, same
d) Constant, Infinite
8. Converging-diverging nozzle is also known as __________. L1
a) Pascal nozzle
b) Bernouille’s nozzle
c) Toricelli’s nozzle
d) de Laval’ nozzle
9. When the pressure chamber is big, the flow velocities are _____. L1
a) Large
b) Negligible
c) Constant
d) Increasing
10. Nozzle efficiency is described as.... L1
a) Isentropic heat drop/useful heat drop
b) useful heat drop/isentropic heat drop
c) saturation temperature/supersaturation temperature
d) supersaturation temperature/saturation temperature
11. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is... L1
a) 0.528
b) 0.546
c) 0.577
d) 0.582
12. The steam leaves the nozzle at a.... L1
a) High pressure and low velocity
b) High-pressure and high velocity
c) Low pressure and low velocity
d) Low pressure and high velocity
13. In rocket engine the flow in the throat of the nozzle is __________ L1
a) subsonic
b) laminar
c) turbulent
14. The discharge is maximum when Mach number is L1
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) infinity
15. Which of the following relation is correct? L1
a) (dA)/A = (M + 1)*(dV/V)
b) (dA)/A = (M – 1)*(dV/V)
c) (dA)/A = (M2 + 1)*(dV/V)
d) (dA)/A = (M2 – 1)*(dV/V)
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16. Where do we have the value of Mach number as 1 ? L1

a) at the start of flow
b) at the throat
c) at the end of flow
d) everywhere along the nozzle or diffuser
17. When are properties at throat termed as critical? L1
a) when M=1
b) discharge is maximum
c) nozzle is choked
18. For diatomic gases, critical pressure ratio is equal to L1
a) 0.528
b) 0.628
c) 0.728
d) 0.828
19. Which of the following is correct? L2
a) when M<1, M*>1 and when M>1, M*<1
b) when M=0, M*=0 and when M=1, M*=1
20. At the choking limit, nozzle passes the ____ mass flow. L1
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) constant
21. Within the mean free path of molecule, flow passes from L1
a) supersonic state
b) subsonic state
c) subsonic to supersonic state
d) supersonic to subsonic state
22. When flow passes from supersonic to subsonic state, L1
a) pressure increases
b) velocity decreases
23. What happens when the shock wave propagates in the opposite direction with L2
the same magnitude as wave velocity?
a) Velocity increases
b) Velocity decreases
c) Appears stationary
d) Becomes sonic
24. The flow properties of the moving wave depends on which property/ L2
properties?
a) Direction
b) Time
c) Both direction and time
d) Temperature
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25. How is total enthalpy related in a stationary shock wave? L2

a) Constant
b) h2 > h1
c) h2 < h1
d) h02 < h01
26. According to the number of pressure stages, steam turbines are classified into L1
_____
a) single cylinder and multi-cylinder
b) single stage and multi-stage
c) mono stage and multi-stage
d) axial and radial
27. According to the direction of steam flow, steam turbines are classified into __ L1
a) axial and radial
b) uniaxial and multi-axial
c) upstream and downstream
d) forward and backward
28. On the basis of method of governing, steam turbines are classified into turbines L1
with __
a) diffuser governing and nozzle governing
b) throttle governing and nozzle governing
c) impulse governing and reaction governing
d) throttle governing and diffuser governing
29. Stationary turbines with variable speed cannot be used to drive _____ L2
a) turbo-blowers
b) air-circulators
c) pumps
d) ships
30. Which of the following is not a type of steam turbine? L2
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
c) Pelton wheel turbine
d) Axial flow type turbine
31. Which of the following is the correct expression for reheat factor? L2
a) Cumulaive heat drop / Isentropic enthalpy drop
b) Isentropic enthalpy drop / Cumulaive heat drop
c) Adiabatic heat drop / Isentropic enthalpy drop
d) Isentropic enthalpy drop / Adiabatic heat drop
32. The value of reheat factor doesn’t depend on _____ L2
a) stage efficiency
b) initial condition of steam
c) final pressure
d) atmospheric temperature
33. The process of draining steam from the turbine, at specific points during its L2
expansion for heating the feed water is called _____
a) governing
b) reheating
c) bleeding
d) recycling
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34. Which of the following expressions for degree of reaction (R d) of a reaction L1

turbine stage is correct?
a) Rd=Heat drop in moving blades / Heat drop in the stage
b) Rd=Heat drop in the stage / Heat drop in moving blades
c) Rd=Heat drop in fixed blades / Heat drop in the stage
d) Rd=Heat drop in the stage Heat drop in fixed blades
35. The degree of reaction of a Parson’s reaction turbine is _____ L1
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 100%
36. Which of the following statements does NOT hold true for a Parson’s reaction L2
turbine?
a) α = Ф
b) θ = β
c) C1 = Cr2
d) Cr1 = Cr2
37. The following data refers to a particular stage of a Parson’s reaction turbine: L3
Mean blade speed = 90 m/s
Velocity of steam leaving the nozzle = 120 m/s
Nozzle angle = 20°
Mass flow rate of steam = 0.8 kg per second
Calculate the tangential force on the blade.
a) 203.54 N
b) 108.42 N
c) 65.32 N
d) 195.45 N
38. In a single stage Parson’s reaction turbine, the mean blade velocity is observed L3
to be 60 m/s and the nozzle angle to be 20°. Determine the the entrance angle
of moving blade if the absolute velocity of the steam leaving the nozzle is 120
m/s.
a) 38°
b) 56°
c) 23°
d) 28°
39. The flow rate of steam is controlled by regulating the _____ L1
a) Steam
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Speed
40. What is the purpose of a steam turbine governing? L2
a) Controls speed
b) Controls flow rate
c) Controls volume
d) Controls discharge
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Date 03/7/21
Topic : Unit5 Gas Turbine and Jet Propulsion
CO5: To understand about gas turbine and jet propulsion with their modifications and implications.
BTL
1. Based on type of flow arrangements gas turbines are classified into ____. L1
a) None of the mentioned
b) Impulse-reaction gas turbine
c) Open cycle gas turbine
d) Axial flow gas turbine
2. Identify the types of Gas turbines ______ L1
a) Turbo jet
b) Turboprop
c) Turbo fan
d) All of the mentioned
3. Gas Turbine Engines, when compared to Reciprocating engines have ___ L1
a) high power to weight ratio
b) low power to weight ratio
c) produce low power
4. Gas turbines work on _____. L1
a) Otto cycle
b) Dual cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle
5. Gas turbine performance majorly depends on __________ L1
a) compressor efficiency
b) calorific value of fuel used
c) nozzle efficiency
6. Some of the types of combustors available are __ L1
a) annular
b) can Annular
c) silo
d) all of the mentioned___
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7. A gas turbine works on __ L1

a) Carnot cycle
b) Brayton cycle
c) Dual cycle
d) Rankine cycle
8. A simple Brayton cycle uses Helium as the working fluid, has a maximum L3
temperature of 1000 K, and a pressure ratio of 4. At the start of the
compression, the Helium pressure and temperature are 50 kPa and 250 K.
Based upon cold-air standard analysis assumptions, the thermal efficiency of
the cycle is?
a) 0.13
b) 0.23
c) 0.43
d) 0.53
9. Which of the following methods can be used to increase efficiency of a L1
Brayton cycle?
a) Regeneration
b) Increasing pressure ratio
c) Heat exchanger
d) All of the mentioned
10. A Sterling engine uses an energy source whose temperature is 727°C and L3
an energy sink whose temperature is 27°C. How much heat must be
added to the engine to produce 1 unit of work?
a) 1.10
b) 1.19
c) 1.43
d) 2.0
11. Which of the following is not a component of Brayton cycle? L1
a) Compressor
b) Combustion Chamber
c) Turbine
d) Pump
12. Regenerator is also called as ___ L1
a) Intercooler
b) Reheater
c) Recuperator
d) None of the mentioned
13. Effectiveness can be defined as ________ L1
a) decrease in exhausted gases
b) inverse of the efficiency
c) ratio of heat rate to the mass entering
d) ratio of Actual heat transferred to the maximum heat transferred
14. When equal pressure ratio are maintained at two stages the work output ___ L2
a) increases
b) decreases
c) optimum
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15. Rotary compressors are used where ____ quantities of gas are needed at L2
relatively ____ pressure.
a) large, high
b) large, low
c) small, high
d) small, low
16. Rotary compressor can be classified as L1
a) displacement compressor
b) steady-flow compressor
17. In steady-flow compressor, compression occurs by L1
a) transfer of kinetic energy
b) transfer of potential energy
c) trapping air
18. The rotary positive displacement machines are ____ and compression is ____ L2
a) cooled, isothermal
b) uncooled, isothermal
c) cooled, adiabatic
d) uncooled, adiabatic
19. For a Root blower, as pressure ratio increases, efficiency ____ L1
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
20. Which of the following is true for a centrifugal compressor? L1
a) rotation of impeller compresses the air
b) diffuser converts part of KE into internal energy
c) typical pressure ratio is around 1.4 to 1
21. For uncooled rotary compressor, compression process is ____ while ideal L2
process is ____
a) isothermal, adiabatic
b) isentropic, adiabatic
c) adiabatic, isentropic
d) adiabatic, isothermal
22. In _________ air is directly fed to the nozzle. L1
a) burner & ramjet
b) burner
c) ramjet
23. When 1 kg of jet fuel is produced _______ amount of co2 is released. L2
a) 3kg
b) 3.2kg
c) 3.4kg
d) 3.8kg
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24. Gas turbines are used in aircraft propulsion because L2

a) they are light
b) they are compact
c) they have high power-to-weight ratio
25. The processes in compressor, turbine, diffuser and nozzle are L1
a) reversible
b) adiabatic
c) reversible and adiabatic
26. The propulsive efficiency is given by L1
a) work done by engine / propulsive power
b) propulsive power / work done by engine
c) energy input rate / propulsive power
d) propulsive power / energy input rate
27. The bypass ratio is the ratio of L1
a) mass flow rates of two streams
b) pressure ratio of inlet and exit
c) volume flow rate of inlet and exit
28. In aircraft propulsion the most widely used engine is L1
a) turbojet
b) turbofan
c) turboprop
29. For minimum work, the compression should be ____ L1
a) adiabatic
b) isothermal
c) isochore
d) isobar
30. The first stage of compression is done in ____ cylinder and next stage in ____ L2
cylinder.
a) both in high pressure cylinder
b) both in low pressure cylinder
c) high pressure, low pressure
d) low pressure, high pressure
31. In perfect intercooling, gas from intercooler has temperature equal to L1
a) inlet temperature
b) outlet temperature
c) intercooler temperature
32. In a multi-stage compression L1
a) lubrication difficulties are reduced
b) explosion hazards are lessened
c) leakage losses are reduced
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33. Rocket engines used for orbital adjustments are also called as ________. L1
a) boost propulsion system
b) primary propulsion system
c) auxiliary rockets
d) strap-on motors
34. For the application of pure torques in three directions, it requires ______ L1
thrusters.
a) 6
b) 3
c) 12
d) 9
35. Which of the following modes of firing thrusters leads to pure modulation? L1
a) Pulsing mode
b) Step input mode
c) Ramp input mode
d) Sinusoidal mode
36. The ratio of work-done per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is L1
known as.
a) Compressor capacity
b) Compression ratio
c) Compressor efficiency
d) Mean effective pressure
37. Aeroplanes employe following type of compressor.. L1
a) Radial flow
b) Axial flow
c) Centrifugal
d) Combination of above
38. Compression efficiency is compared against.... L1
a) Ideal compression
b) adiabatic compression
c) both isothermal and adiabatic compression
d) Isothermal compression
39. Compression with intercooler causes ___ L2
a) increase in the compressor work
b) decrease in the compressor work
c) increases the overall efficiency
40. Using of intercooler and reheating process ________ efficiency. L2
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
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Applied Thermodynamics Mech MCQ

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Babu Banarasi Das Institute of Technology & Management, Lucknow

Course/Branch: B.TECH/ME Year / Semester :IV

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION BANK

1. The Otto cycle is the L1

7. A two-stroke engine is used in motorcycles and scooters. L1

22. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by ____________ L1

24. The pressure at the end of compression, in diesel engines, is approximately L2

31. Consider the equilibrium system: L2

37. In 0.10 M aqueous solution of pyridine (C5H5N), find the percentage of L3

Babu Banarasi Das Institute of Technology & Management, Lucknow

Course/Branch: B.TECH/ME Year / Semester :IV

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION BANK

1. Why Reheating of steam is used? L1

7. What is the effect of reheat on steam quality? L1

16. A simple Rankine cycle produces 40 MW of power, 50 MW of process heat L3

22. What should be the dryness fraction at the time of exhaust? L1

33. Which of these is a disadvantage of open heater? L3

Babu Banarasi Das Institute of Technology & Management, Lucknow

Course/Branch: B.TECH/ME Year / Semester :IV

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION BANK

7. Which of the given boilers operate above critical pressure? L1

16. Stationary boilers are used for _____. L1

Babu Banarasi Das Institute of Technology & Management, Lucknow

Course/Branch: B.TECH/ME Year / Semester :IV

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION BANK

16. Where do we have the value of Mach number as 1 ? L1

25. How is total enthalpy related in a stationary shock wave? L2

34. Which of the following expressions for degree of reaction (R d) of a reaction L1

Babu Banarasi Das Institute of Technology & Management, Lucknow

Course/Branch: B.TECH/ME Year / Semester :IV

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION BANK

7. A gas turbine works on __ L1

24. Gas turbines are used in aircraft propulsion because L2

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