Risk 0801 Portfolio
Risk 0801 Portfolio
Risk 0801 Portfolio
Technical article
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T
o begin understanding and optimising the risk of a portfolio, portfolio
and business managers need to know how each component of that strongly than mean-variance does. The allocation of risk between the as-
portfolio contributes to the overall risk. A common measure of risk sets is consistent with the investor’s view of risk implied by the chosen
contribution is the sensitivity of the risk to an infinitesimal fractional change confidence level of VAR.
in asset allocation. These have the convenient property that their sum is the It can be reformulated and generalised using utility theory.
overall risk.1 The simplest measure of risk is the mean-variance framework,
in which the risk is equal to the mean plus a given number of standard de- Review of the saddle-point method
viations (or simply the standard deviation). This is sufficient if the assets in Before embarking on the derivation of the VAR contributions, we review
the portfolio have a joint distribution that is multivariate normal. It is easy the saddle-point methodology for deriving an analytical expression for the
to derive the sensitivities of the mean and standard deviation to asset allo- VAR of a portfolio from the loss distributions of the individual assets.
cation. But real loss distributions, and particularly those in credit, operational A portfolio loss distribution is constructed by adding the losses of the
and insurance risk, are not normal, and the standard deviation does not ad- individual assets. For such ‘additive’ problems, a useful construction is the
equately capture the risk of large losses. Value-at-risk, a quantile of the dis- cumulant generating function (KGF), which for a random variable X is de-
tribution at some specified level of confidence, better captures extreme risks. fined as K X(s) = logE[esX], for real or complex s. The tail probability of X
It has some undesirable properties, such as lack of subadditivity2, which are can be recovered from the KGF by a contour integral:
not shared by other risk measures, such as expected shortfall. However, VAR
P (X > t ) =
1
+ i ∞ exp K
X (s) − st( )
is currently an industry standard often used for setting bank capital and it is ∫
2πi − i ∞,(0+ ) s
ds (1)
the one that we shall study here. Leibowitz & Henriksson (1989) have dis-
cussed the use of VAR constraints in portfolio optimisation and Litterman in which the path of integration is up the imaginary axis and the notation
(1996) discusses risk contributions in the VAR-based framework. Most re- (0 +) indicates that the contour runs to the right of the origin to avoid the
cently, Gouriéroux, Laurent & Scaillet (2000) have given a general expres- pole there.
sion for sensitivity of VAR to portfolio allocation, but to put this into practice The KGF is a useful construction because when independent random
still requires Monte Carlo simulation (except in the Gaussian case). variables are added (Y = Σ ja jX j), their KGFs are added:
What would be most powerful, however, is a method of deriving the sen-
sitivity of VAR to asset allocation directly from a model, without any need for K Y (s) = ∑ KX j (ajs) (2)
j
simulation. In a previous article (Martin, Thompson & Browne, 2001), we
demonstrated the saddle-point method, an analytical technique that approx- For example, if a loan portfolio consists of n assets with default proba-
imates VAR with great accuracy in the tail of the loss distribution. It relies on bilities pj and losses-given-default aj, then Xj represents a default event (it is
construction of the moment-generating function, and not on Monte Carlo sim- one if the jth asset defaults and zero if not). If the recovery rate is zero, then:
For normal distributions, our method is identical to risk analysis in the 1 Provided that the risk measure satisfies the simple condition of 1-homogeneity (see below)
mean-variance framework, originally studied by Markowitz (1952). 2 That is, the relationship Risk(A + B) ≤ Risk(A) + Risk(B) does not necessarily hold. For a
For non-normal distributions, it is a generalisation of mean-variance, re- fuller discussion, see, eg, Artzner et al (1999)
producing that method for quantiles close to the mean. 3 Incidentally, our methods could be extended to include expected shortfall
in which K X j(s|k) ≡ logE[exp(sX j)|W = k]. For the example of a loan port- the VAR is also multiplied by β. Examples of 1-homogeneous risk mea-
folio, this reduces to: sures include the mean, the standard deviation, the expected shortfall for
some quantile and any constant multiple, or sum, difference, maximum or
( ( ))
n
K Y (s) = log ∑ h k ∏ 1 − p jk + p jk exp a j s (3a) minimum of other 1-homogeneous functions. This homogeneity property
k j =1
leads to the following well-known decomposition formula of Euler:
where pjk is the probability of the jth asset defaulting given that W = k. n ∂Tp
Referring to equation (1), the saddle-point approximation (see, eg, Mar- ∑ a j ∂a = Tp (9)
j =1 j
tin, Thompson & Browne, 2001, and references therein) consists of ap-
proximating the term in the exponential as a Taylor series around the point Hence the sum of the sensitivities of Tp to infinitesimal fractional changes
at which the term in the exponential is stationary (the saddle-point), trun- in each allocation is equal to Tp itself. Equivalently, the sum of the VAR
cating at the quadratic term and doing the resulting Gaussian integral. The contributions is just the VAR. Now K Y(s) also has a homogeneity proper-
saddle-point is ^t such that: ty, in that it depends on s and a only through their product. It obeys a
K ′Y ˆt = t () (4)
similar formula to (9):
n a ∂K ∂
∑ s ∂aY (s) = ∂ s K Y (s)
j
in which the prime denotes differentiation. As K Y is convex, there is on the (10)
j =1
real axis a unique saddle-point ^
t for each point t ‘in’ the distribution of Y. j
The lowest-order saddle-point approximation to the tail probability of Y is, The right-hand side of this expression, evaluated at the saddle-point (ie,
for t > E[Y]: at s = ^
t ), is just Tp(a). Hence:
( () (ˆt))Φ − ()
a j ∂K Y
()
n
P (Y > t ) ≈ exp K Y ˆt − t ˆt + t K ′′Y
1 ˆ2 ˆt2K′′Y ˆt (5) ∑ t̂ = Tp (a) (11)
2 j =1 t ∂a j
ˆ
with Φ denoting the cumulative normal distribution function. The sum of the saddle-point VAR contributions is exactly the VAR, de-
The correspondence (4) is fundamental because it enables us to relate spite the fact that equation (8) is an approximation. Notice also that:
a quantile t of the distribution, or a part of the distribution local to that
quantile, to the KGF evaluated at, or in the vicinity of, the saddle-point ^
t. a j ∂K Y
(s) =
( )
a j ∫ x j exp ∑i=1 s a i xi dP X (x )
n
( )
(12)
s ∂a j
∫ exp ∑i=1 s a i xi dP X (x )
We have found that this approximation works particularly well in the tail n
The first term is linear in aj and predominates if the jth risk is small compared 1. Loss exceedance curve for the test portfolio
with the other risks in the portfolio. The second term puts a non-proportional
penalty on large risks. This is because a large risk brings no diversification to a. Independent loss events b. Dependent loss events
the portfolio. For example, one asset of standard deviation five gives the same 1 1
Saddle-point Saddle-point
loss distribution as 25 (not five) completely independent assets of standard Monte Carlo Monte Carlo
deviation one. This observation leads to a related point on correlation. If an 0.1 0.1
Tail probability
Tail probability
asset is not correlated with the rest of the portfolio, its risk contribution will
be smaller than if it is positively correlated, for in the presence of positive 0.01 0.01
correlation there is less diversification to be had by cutting one large expo-
sure into several small ones. Indeed, in the extreme case when there is 100% 0.001 0.001
correlation, five assets of size one are no better than one of size five, and the
risk contribution for one asset of size one is one-fifth that of an asset of size 0.0001 0.0001
five. Negative correlation can cause a VAR contribution to be negative. 0 2 4 6 8 10 0 2 4 6 8 10 12
Non-normal distributions. Real loss distributions are not normal, and Loss Loss
the standard deviation does not capture the extreme risk well enough. For
example, suppose that loan A is £10 million to a counterparty with a de- tion model are given in table A. The correlation model is that condition-
fault probability of 10% and loan B is £30 million to a counterparty with a ally on a latent (or ‘mixing’) variable W, which takes four states with prob-
default probability of 1%. The mean losses are £1 million and £300,000 re- abilities given in the top row of the table, default events occur independently
spectively, and the standard deviations are both roughly £3 million. To an and with probabilities given in the table.
investor who assesses risk by variance, the loans are equally good. But a Figure 1a shows the loss exceedance curve for the portfolio, assuming
portfolio manager with £20 million capital will disagree. If loan A defaults independence (note the excellent agreement between saddle-point and
they lose half the capital, but if loan B defaults their fund is bankrupt. A Monte Carlo). Figure 2a shows the saddle-point VAR contributions calcu-
consequent criticism of mean-variance analysis is that it leads to over-con- lated for different quantiles of the loss distribution (loss = 1, 3, 6). Note
centration, and so (awkward-looking) concentration constraints are tacked first that the VAR contribution of each asset increases as we go further into
on. The saddle-point VAR contribution obviates these by measuring risk in the tail (the yellow bars are higher than the red, which are higher than the
a more appropriate way. We can also see that the portfolio manager with blue). However, the VAR contributions of the assets with the biggest ex-
£20 million capital will want to use a risk measure that incorporates a high- posures increase more rapidly. Start by looking at the VAR contributions
er degree of risk aversion than a mean-variance measure, because of their for assets 1–5 and assets 6–10 (in both of these sequences the asset allo-
concern about the fund going bankrupt. cations are in arithmetic progression). The mean total loss is 0.31. For a
If we examine the saddle-point VAR contribution in more depth we ob- quantile fairly close to this, such as loss = 1 (blue bars), the VAR contri-
serve that it inherently accounts for the extra risk that arises from asset size bution is roughly proportional to the square of the asset allocation (see
^
and which the mean-variance analysis misses. In general, K Y (t ) is not qua- figure 2a). The risk contribution of asset 5 (0.21) is in fact 36 times the VAR
^
dratic in t . Expanding it in a Taylor series around the origin we have4: contribution of asset 1 (0.0059), when the asset allocation is five times larg-
()
K Y ˆt = E [Y ]ˆt + 1 V [Y ]ˆt 2 + 1 H3 [Y]ˆt 3 + 1 H4 [Y]ˆt 4 + ...
2 3! 4! (15)
er. Further into the tail (loss = 6, yellow bars), the variation of risk contri-
bution with asset allocation is much stronger, as we predicted above (see
in which H3[Y] and H4[Y] are the third and fourth cumulants of Y (in “Non-normal distributions”). The risk contribution of asset 5 (2.45) is 225
essence the skewness and kurtosis). For^ t ≈ 0, corresponding to points on times the risk contribution of asset 1 (0.011). In other words, we find that
the distribution near the mean, we have the mean-variance result as be- the tail of the distribution is almost entirely dominated by the assets with
fore. However for larger ^ t (corresponding to points further into the tail) the highest exposures. For loss = 1 (blue bars), assets 5 and 10 contribute
the higher-order moments come into play. As higher powers of ^ t carry roughly equally, with assets 4, 9, and 11–15 also being quite significant.
with them higher powers of the exposure parameters, the VAR contribu- For loss = 6, asset 5 is by far the most significant, followed by 4 and 10,
tion is no longer a quadratic function of allocation. The mean-variance re- and the VAR contributions of the others are trivial. Note in passing that the
sult is therefore part of the more general theory described here. risk contributions of assets 11–15 are exactly equal, as they should be (this
Example. We consider a portfolio of 15 assets (loans) with the follow- is another advantage of analytical techniques over simulation-based ones).
ing ‘ratings’ and exposures: Figures 1b and 2b are analogous to 1a and 2a, but with correlation in-
Assets 1–5: rating A, exposures 1.0, 2.0, 3.0, 4.0, 5.0. troduced. The most important difference is that the smaller assets now con-
Assets 6–10: rating B, exposures 0.7, 1.4, 2.1, 2.8, 3.5. tribute more to the risk than they did for a model of independent defaults,
Assets 11–15: rating C, exposures 0.9, 0.9, 0.9, 0.9, 0.9. 4 K Y is analytic at the origin, and hence has a Taylor expansion (though the radius of
We shall analyse this portfolio, assuming first independence and then de- convergence is generally not infinite). As the expansion is for the purposes of illustration
pendence between default events, and calculate the VAR contributions only, we do not go into this further – but note that some divergent series can be summed
using the methods described here. The default probabilities and correla- in any case (Euler’s method, Cesaro summation, Padé approximants, etc)
1.0 We identify the jth summand in the right-hand side as a risk contribution
of the jth asset, which we shall call the U-risk contribution. The sum of the
0.5 U-risk contributions is the Y-quantile determined by λ (and U). Equation
(12) and the ensuing remarks also generalise, for the jth U-risk contribution
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 is E[aj X j U′(γ – λY)]/E[U′(γ – λY)]. All this is the same exposition as before
Asset number but in a more general setting. The parameter λ plays the same role as the
The VAR contributions of each of the 15 assets in the portfolio, at three different saddle-point s (or ^ t ) did before. In this context, λ has a natural interpreta-
points on the distribution. The bars are superimposed rather than stacked tion as a risk-aversion parameter. When λ = 0 we are risk-neutral, and when
λ > 0 we are risk averse, with increasing risk aversion as λ increases. ■
as we discussed earlier. Richard Martin and Kevin Thompson are members of the fixed-income
General representation of the VAR contribution. A nice argument by capital management team at BNP Paribas in London. We thank
Gouriéroux, Laurent & Scaillet (2000) is that the VAR contribution of the jth professor Olivier Scaillet for helpful discussions. A longer version of this
asset in a portfolio is the expected loss from that asset conditional on the article is available on request. E-mail: richard.martin@bnpparibas.com
portfolio loss being equal to the VAR, ie, E[a j X j|Y = t]. From this it is clear and kevin.thompson@bnpparibas.com
that the VAR contributions total E[Y|Y = t], ie, t, and also that the jth VAR Comments on this article may be posted on the technical discussion forum on the Risk
website at http://www.risk.net
contribution lies in [aj min X j, aj max X j]. It also shows why small uncorre-
lated assets contribute so little to credit VAR. For the portfolio loss to be large,
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