SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ NỘI ĐỀ XUẤT ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI

TRƯỜNG THPT CHU VĂN AN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI – ĐBBB 2016
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10
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(Có Video kèm theo)

PART 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION

I. Read the sentences below. You are going to hear two women talking about a holiday
in France. Read the sentences, and choose the best option: A, B, or C, to complete the
statements about the recording.

1. Paula's friend says that

A. she has been ill.
B. Paula doesn't look very well.
C. she's pleased to see Paula.

2. Before the trip, Paula

A. was enthusiastic about It.
B. wanted to go to the Lake District.
C. didn't tell anybody she was going.

3. Before Mark and Paula went to Paris,

A. Mark's boss didn't want him to go.
B. Paula arranged for somebody to look after the hamster.
C. Paula's sister promised to look after the children.

4. The journey across the Channel

A. was very smooth.
B. was unpleasant for Paula.
C. lasted eight hours.

5. The return trip from Paris was

A. disturbed by a flood.
B. an enjoyable experience.
C. earlier than planned.

II. Read the statements and decide whether they are true (T) or false (F).
1. The speaker has come from the Theosophical Society.
2. One of the main points of the talk is to save money.
3. She thinks students should do more housework.
4. She argues that plastic containers won't biodegrade quickly.
5. She warns that asthma sufferers should be careful with her recipes.

III. Part 1
You are going to hear two separate recordings about the uses of plastics.
Question 1-5
Complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words or number for each
space

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 1. According to the speaker, the three factors contributing to the success of plastics today
are safety, __________ and ______________.
2. _______________ and other food products are wrapped in plastic to protect them from
contamination.
3. The use of plastics in major appliances ensures that they will _________________ corrosion.
4. Experts have calculated that a kilo of plastic packaging can lead to a reduction of
___________ in wasted food.
5. Plastic parts have made air conditioners as much as ___________________ more efficient
since the 1970s.
Question 6-10
Complete the notes. Write no more than three words of numbers in each space.
A history of plastic bag
1957 introduction of (6) _______________
1966 Around one third of packaging in (7) ___________ consists of
plastic bags
1969 ‘New York City Experiment’:
(8) __________________ collected in plastic bags
(9) _______________ Plastic grocery bags first manufactured commercially
2002 New Irish tax of (10) ______________ per carrier bag

PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

I. Choose the best word from A, B, C or D that fits each blank
1. It isn’t that woman’s turn. Don’t let her push _______.
A. in B. through C. into D. up
2. We heard her _________ in agony as she dropped the saucepan on her toe.
A. boil over B. cry out C. let off D. ring out
3. Tom won’t buy that old car because it has too much ________ on it.
A. ups and downs B. odds and ends C. wear and tear D. white lie
4. His English teacher recommends that he _______ a regular degree program.
A. begin B. begins C. will begin D. is beginning
5. As a citizen, it is natural to _______ to the laws and rules made by the society.
A. conform B. resist C. hinder D. obey
6. The inconsiderate driver was _______ for parking his vehicle in the wrong place.
A. inflicted B. condemned C. harassed D. fined
7. Look, will you stop _______ in and let me finish my sentence!
A. moving B. pushing C. butting D. plugging
8. It’s the ________ of stupidity to go walking in the mountains in this weather.
A. height B. depth C. source D. matter
9. Tax ________ deprives the state of several million pounds as a year.
A. retention B. desertion C. escapism D. evasion
10. The university might accept you, ________ of your disappointing exam results.
A. irrespective B. pending C. expectant D. dependent
11. She __________ two miles and a half, and now she feels exhausted.

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 A. has been running B. run C. was running D. has run
12. Robert will enjoy skiing more the next time he goes to Mt. Hellens _____ he has had skiing
lessons.
A. now that B. so that C. before D. and
13. Don’t blame me for what I did. __________ differently in my place?
A. Would you have acted B. Would you act C. Would you acted D. Wouldn’t you
act
14. The five Olympic rings are a __________ of the five continents.
A. emblem B. symbol C. logo D. sign
15. “How come you didn’t tell me that you would quit the job?” – “__________”
A. I found the job so interesting. B. Because I am so bored with it.
C. I would love to. Thank you. D. Because I know you would make a fuss
about it.
16. Archeologists are constantly searching for an answer __________ the question of what is
actually __________ the ground we walk on.
A. of/along B. to/beneath C. for/to D. on/for
17. The car was three years old but __________ very much.
A. hasn’t been used B. doesn’t use C. hasn’t used D. hadn’t been used
18. Dreams are commonly __________ both visual and verbal images.
A. made of B. made from C. consisted of D. made up of
19. He’d hardly finished doing his homework when you arrived, __________?
A. would he B. had he C. didn’t you D. hadn’t he
20. The incredible thing about telephone __________ across the continents, but that you can
recognize the other person’s voice.
A. is it allow people to talk instantly B. is not that people can instantly talk to each
other
C. is it provides instant talking to each other D. is that people can talk instantly

II. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write
their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right.
Crime preventing is as crucial in the workplace as it is in the home or (1) __________
neighborhood. Reducing crime is as much a part of good management as
(2) __________
prompt delivery, good staff relations, and other acceptable management
functions. Losses from shops through shoplifting are extremely high and (3) __________
ultimately, those losses are payment for by all of us in high prices. There
(4) __________
are many opportunities for shopkeepers themselves to reduce
shoplifting. As with all types of criminal, prevention is better than cure. (5) __________
The best deterrent is the present of staff properly trained in how to
(6) __________
identify potential shoplifters. There are also many secure devices now
available. Video camera surveillance is a popular system, even with quite (7) __________
small retailers. In clothes shopping, magnetic tag marking systems that
(8) __________
set off an alarm if they are taken out of the shop have proved their
worthless. However, there are many simpler measures that retailers (9) __________
should consider. Better lighting and ceiling-hung mirrors can help staff to
(10) _________
watch all parts of the display area. Similarly, simply arrangement shelves
and display units to allow clear fields of visible is a good deterrent.

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III. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles
1. I wonder if this dress fits. I’ll try it _______ and see.
2. “Did you enjoy the concert last night with Liz?” “We didn’t go. I waited an hour, but Liz
didn’t turn ___________.”
3. Don’t spend the money you won. Why don’t you put it ________ until you have enough to
buy something you really want?
4. I was ill for two weeks, so I’ve fallen ________ with my work.
5. This painting can’t possibly be an original. I think we’ve been taken _________.
6. I won’t be able to go out tonight because a problem has just cropped ________.
7. After he was knocked out, it took a long time to bring him ________.
8. Don’t worry. The pain should wear _______ fairly soon.
9. Violence flared ________ and a lot of people were injured.
10. The changes were phased ________ gradually so that everyone could get used to them.

IV. Write the correct form of the word given

We’ve all felt anger at sometime, whether as faint (0) (0) ANNOY
annoyance or blind rage. Anger is a normal, sometimes
useful human emotion, but uncontrolled outbursts of (1) DESTROY
temper can be (1) ___________. “People who give free rein to
their anger, (2) __________ of the offence this may cause, (2) REGRAD
haven’t learned to express themselves constructively”, says
Martin Smolik, who runs weekend (3) _______ courses in (3) RESIDENCE
anger management. “It is important to maintain your (4)
__________ and put your case in an assertive, not aggressive, (4) COMPOSE
manner without hurting others. Being assertive doesn’t
mean being pushy or demanding; it means being (5) (5) RESPECT
__________ of yourself and other people.” He adds that people
who are (6) _______ angered are intolerant of frustration, (7) (6) EASY
_________ or irritation and, not surprisingly, find (8) ________
to other people very difficult. But what causes people to (7) CONVENIENT
behave like this? It seems there is evidence to support the
idea that some children may be born (9) __________ and (8) RELATE
prone to anger and this tendency is sometimes apparent
from a very early age. However, research also suggests that (9) IRRITATE
a person’s family (10) ________ may have an influence. Very
often, people who are quick-tempered come from (10) GROUND
disorganized and disruptive families who find it difficult to
express their emotions.

PART 3. READING COMPREHENSION

I. Read the text below and then decide which word best fits each blank
Gerard Mercator: The Man Who Mapped the Planet
When Gerard Mercatorwas was born in 1512, the geography of the globe still remained
a mystery. It was unclear whether America was part of Asia, if there was a vast (1)
__________ of sea at the top of the world or if Australia was (2) __________ to Antarctica.
Mercator's childhood was spent chiefly in Rupelmonde, a Flemish trading town on the
river, and it was here that his geographical imagination was (3) __________ by the ships
which passed to and from the rest of the world. Alongside imagination, he developed

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 two very different skills. The first was the ability to gather, (4) __________ and co-ordinate
the geographical information (5) __________explorers and sailors who frequented the
margins of the known. He also had to be able to imagine himself (6)__________from the
heavens, to achieve the visionary (7) ____________of gods in the skies, (8) ____________down
on the world. The main reason why Mercator's name is (9) ___________ to us is because of
the Mercator Projection: the solution he (10) ___________ to represent the spheroidal
surface of the globe on a two-dimensional plane. It is less well known that Mercator was
the first man to conceive of mapping the (11)___________ surface of the planet or that he
(12) ___________the idea of multiple maps being presented in bound books, to which he
gave the name 'Atlas'.
It is difficult for us now to be surprised by maps, so many are there, and of such detail
and coverage, but we should (13) ___________ in mind that Mercator lived at a time when
such knowledge was far from (14) ____________ He was the man who (15)____________ our
worldview forever.
1. A. territory B. distance C. range D. expanse
2. A. connected B. coupled C. united D. integrated
3. A. raise B. reared C. supplied D. nourished
4. A. congregate B. amass C. assimilate D. construct
5. A. granted B. conferred C. contributed D. provided
6. A. suspended B. located C. situated D. attached
7. A. inspection B. observation C. perspective D. assessment
8. A. glimpsing B. scrutinizing C. watching D. gazing
9. A. familiar B. famous C. memorable D. recognizable
10. A. invented B. contrived C. devised D. schemed
11. A. sheer B. full C. entire D. utter
12. A. pioneered B. initiated C. lead D. prepared
13. A. carry B. hold C. take D. bear
14. A. typical B. common C. routine D. normal
15. A. converted B. substituted C. distorted D. altered

II. Supply the most suitable word for each blank

I was reading an article last week in which the writer described ___(1)___ her children has
changed as they grow up. When they were small she had to ___(2)____ up with noisy games
in the house or join in interminable games of football in the garden which wore her out. If the
house went quiet, she wondered what the monsters were getting up to, or what crisis she
would have to ____(3)_____ with next. She dreaded the fact that they might ____(4)____
after her husband, who admitted having ___(5)____ an uncontrollable child who
____(6)_____ most of time showing off to his friends by breaking things or getting into
fights. What was worse was that everyone else thought he was ___ (7)____sweet child, and
he got away with the most terrible things. However, she had experienced an even greater
shocked with her children. They had ___(8)____ out as chess and playing the piano. They
never did anything ___(9)____ talking it over first, and coming to a serious decision. She had
to face up to the fact that they made her feel rather childish as they got ___(10)____, and that
in some ways she preferred them when they were young and noisy

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each
question.

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No longer is asthma considered a condition with isolated, acute episodes of
bronchospasm. Rather, asthma is now understood to be a chronic inflammatory
disorder of the airways—that is, inflammation makes the iirways chronically sensitive.
When these hyperresponsive airways are irritated, airflow is limited, and attacks of
coughing, wheezing, chest tightness and breathing difficulty occur.
Asthma involves complex interactions among inflammatory cells, mediators, and the
cells and tissues in the airways. The interactions result in airflow limitation from acute
bronchoconstriction, swelling of the airway wall, increased mucus secretion, and airway
remodeling. The inflammation also causes an increase in airway responsiveness. During
an asthma attack, the patient attempts to compensate by breathing at a higher lung
volume in order to keep the air flowing through the constricted airways, and the greater
the airway limitation, the higher the lung volume must be to keep airways open. The
morphologic changes that occur in asthma include bronchial infiltration by
inflammatory cells. Key effector cells in the inflammatory response are the mast cells, T
lymphocytes, and eosinophils. Mast cells and eosinophils are also significant participants
in allergic responses, hence the similarities between allergic reactions and asthma
attacks. Other changes include mucus plugging of the airways, interstitial edema, and
microvascular leakage. Destruction of bronchial epithelium and thickening of the
subbasement membrane is also characteristic. In addition, there may be hypertrophy
and hyperplasia of airway smooth muscle, increase in goblet cell number, and
enlargement of submucous glands.
Although causes of the initial tendency toward inflammation in the airways of patients
with asthma are not yet certain to date the strongest identified risk factor is atopy. This
inherited familial tendency to have allergic reactions includes increased sensitivity to
allergens that are risk factors for developing asthma. Some of these allergens include
domestic dust mites, animals with fur, cockroaches, pollens, and molds. Additionally,
asthma may be triggered by viral respiratory infections, especially in children. By
avoiding these allergens and triggers, a person with asthma lowers his or her risk of
irritating sensitive airways. A few avoidance techniques include: keeping the home clean
and well ventilated, using an air conditioner in the summer months when pollen and
mold counts are high, and getting an annual influenza vaccination. Of course, asthma
sufferers should avoid tobacco smoke altogether. Cigar, cigarette, or pipe smoke is a
trigger whether the patient smokes or inhales the smoke from others. Smoke increases
the risk of allergic sensitization in children, increases the severity of symptoms, and may
be fatal in children who already have asthma. Many of the risk factors for developing
asthma may also provoke asthma attacks, and people with asthma may have one or
more triggers, which vary from individual to individual. The risk can be further reduced
by taking medications that decrease airway inflammation. Most exacerbations can be
prevented by the combination of avoiding triggers and taking anti-inflammatory
medications. An exception is physical activity, which is a common trigger of
exacerbations in asthma patients. However, asthma patients should not necessarily
avoid all physical exertion, because some types of activity have been proven to reduce
symptoms. Rather, they should work in conjunction with a doctor to design a proper
training regimen, which includes the use of medication.
In order to diagnose asthma, a healthcare professional must appreciate the underlying
disorder that leads to asthma symptoms and understand how to recognize the condition
through information gathered from the patient's history, physical examination,
measurements of lung function, and allergic status. Because asthma symptoms vary
throughout the day, the respiratory system may appear normal during physical
examination. Clinical signs are more likely to be present when a patient is experiencing

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symptoms; however, the absence of symptoms upon examination does not exclude the
diagnosis of asthma.
1. According to the passage, what is the name for the familial inclination to have
hypersensitivity to certain allergens?
A. interstitial edema
B. hyperplasia
C. hypertrophy
D. atopy
2. Why does a person suffering from an asthma attack attempt to inhale more air?
A. to prevent the loss of consciousness
B. to keep air flowing through shrunken air passageways
C. to prevent hyperplasia
D. to compensate for weakened mast cells, T lymphocytes, and eosinophils
3. The word triggered is closest in meaning to
A. caused
B. taken place
C. eliminated
D. cured
4. The passage suggests that in the past, asthma was regarded as which of the following?
A. a result of the overuse of tobacco products
B. a hysterical condition
C. mysterious, unrelated attacks affecting the lungs
D. a chronic condition
5. Which of the following would be the best replacement for the underlined word
exacerbations in this passage?
A. allergies
B. attacks
C. triggers
D. allergens
6. The passage mentions all of the following bodily changes during an asthma attack
except
A. Severe cramping in the chest.
B. Heavy breathing.
C. Airways blocked by fluids.
D. constricted airways.
7. Although it is surprising, which of the following triggers is mentioned in the passage
as possibly reducing the symptoms of asthma in some patients?
A. using a fan instead of an air conditioner in summer months
B. exposure to second-hand cigarette smoke
C. the love of a family pet
D. performing physical exercise
8. Why might a patient with asthma have an apparently normal respiratory system
during an examination by a doctor?
A. Asthma symptoms come and go throughout the day.

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 B. Severe asthma occurs only after strenuous physical exertion.
C. Doctor's offices are smoke free and very clean.
D. The pollen and mold count may be low that day.
9. Who might be the most logical audience for this passage?
A. Researchers studying the respiratory system
B. healthcare professionals
C. A mother whose child has been diagnosed with asthma
D. An antismoking activist
10. What is the reason given in this article for why passive smoke should be avoided by
children?
A. A smoke-filled room is a breeding ground for viral respiratory
B. Smoke can stunt an asthmatic child's growth.
C. Smoke can heighten the intensity of asthma symptoms.
D. Smoke can lead to a fatal asthma attack.

IV. Read the text and answer the following questions.

The Reading Passage has eight paragraphs A-H.
From the list of headings below, choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph.
List of headings

i. Obesity in animals
ii. Hidden dangers
iii. Proof of the truth
iv. New perspective on the horizon
v. No known treatment
vi. Rodent research leads the way
vii. Expert explains energy requirements of obese people
viii. A very uncommon complaint
ix. Nature or nurture
x. Shifting the blame
xi. Lifestyle change required despite new findings
Example: Paragraph A: x
1. Paragraph B _______________
2. Paragraph C _______________
3. Paragraph D _______________
4. Paragraph E _______________
5. Paragraph F _______________
6. Paragraph G _______________
7. Paragraph H _______________

Tackling Obesity in the Western World

A. Obesity is a huge problem in many western countries and one which now attracts
considerable medical interest as researchers take up the challenge to find a ‘cure’ for the
common condition of being seriously overweight. However, rather than take responsibility
for their weight, obese people have often sought solace in the excuse that they have a slow
metabolism, a genetic hiccup which sentences more than half the Australian population

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 (63% of men and 47% of women) to a life of battling with their weight. The argument goes
like this: it doesn’t matter how little they eat, they gain weight because their bodies break
down food and turn it into energy more slowly than those with a so-called normal
metabolic rate.
B. ‘This is nonsense,’ says Dr Susan Jebb from the Dunn Nutrition Unit at Cambridge in
England. Despite the persistence of the metabolism myth, science has known for several
years that the exact opposite is in fact true. Fat people have faster metabolisms than thin
people. “What is very clear,’ says Dr Jebb, ‘is that overweight people actually burn off more
energy. They have more cells, bigger hearts, bigger lungs and they all need more energy
just to keep going.’
C. It took only one night, spent in a sealed room at the Dunn Unit to disabuse one of their
patients of the beliefs of a lifetime: her metabolism was fast, not slow. By sealing the room
and measuring the exact amount of oxygen she used, researchers were able to show her
that her metabolism was not the culprit. It wasn’t the answer she expected and probably
not the one she wanted but she took the news philosophically.
D. Although the metabolism myth has been completely disproved, science has far from
discounted our genes as responsible for making us whatever weight we are, fat or thin. One
of the world’s leading obesity researchers, geneticist Professor Stephen O’Rahilly, goes so
far as to say we are on the threshold of a complete change in the way we view not only
morbid obesity, but also everyday overweight. Prof. O’Rahilly’s groundbreaking work in
Cambridge has proven that obesity can be caused by our genes. ‘These people are not
weak-willed, slothful or lazy’, says Prof. O’Rahilly, ‘They have a medical condition due to a
genetic defect and that causes them to be obese.’
E. In Australia, the University of Sydney’s Professor Ian Caterson says while major genetic
defects may be rare, many people probably have minor genetic variations that combine to
dictate weight and are responsible for things such as how much we eat, the amount of
exercise we do and the amount of energy we need. When you add up all these little
variations, the result is that some people are genetically predisposed to putting on weight.
He says while the fast/slow metabolism debate may have been settled, that doesn’t mean
some other subtle change in the metabolism gene won’t be found in overweight people. He
is confident that science will, eventually, be able to ‘cure’ some forms of obesity but the
only effective way for the vast majority of overweight and obese people to lose weight is a
change of diet and an increase in exercise.
F. Despite the $500 million a year Australians spend trying to lose weight and the $830
million it costs the community in health care, obesity is at epidemic proportions here, as it
is in all Western nations. Until recently, research and treatment for obesity had
concentrated on behavior modification, drugs to decrease appetite and surgery. How the
drugs worked was often not understood and many caused severe side effects and even
death in some patients. Surgery for obesity has also claimed many lives.
G. It has long been known that a part of the brain called the hypothalamus is responsible for
regulating hunger, among other things. But it wasn’t until 1994 that Professor Jeffery
Friedman from Rockerfeller University in the US sent science in a new direction by
studying an obese mouse. Prof. Friedman found that unlike its thin brothers, the fat mouse
did not produce a hitherto unknown hormone called leptin. Manufactured by the fat cells,
leptin acts as a messenger, sending signals to the hypothalamus to turn off the appetite.
Previously, the fat cells were thought to be responsible simply for storing fat. Prof.
Friedman gave the fat mouse leptin and it lost 30% of its body weight in two weeks.
H. On the other side of the Atlantic, Prof. O’Rahilly read about this research with great
excitement. For many months two blood samples had lain in the bottom of his freezer,
taken from two extremely obese young cousins. He hired a doctor to develop a test for
leptin in human blood, which eventually resulted in the discovery that neither of the
children’s blood contained the hormone. When one cousin was given leptin, she lost a

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 stone in weight and Prof. O’Rahilly made medical history. Here was the first proof that a
genetic defect could cause obesity in humans. But leptin deficiency turned out to be an
extremely rare condition and there is a lot more research to be done before the ‘magic’
cure for obesity is ever found.
Complete the summary of the Reading Passage using words from the box at the bottom
of the page.
OBESITY
People with a _weight_ problem often try to deny responsibility. They do this by seeking
to blame their (8)_____ for the fact that they are overweight and erroneously believe that
they use less energy than thin people to stay alive. However, recent research has shown
that a (9) _____ problem can be responsible for obesity as some people seem
programmed to consume more than others. The new research points to a shift from
trying to change people’s (10)_____to seeking answer to the problem in the laboratory.
List of words
weight exercise sleep
mind bodies metabolism
more genetic less
physical consume behavior
use mental

PART 4. WRITING
A. Sentence transformation
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use
between three to eight words, including the word given.
1. Adrian was the only person who didn’t enjoy the party.
WITH
Everyone enjoyed the party _________________________________________ Adrian.
2. Sam said that the situation at work was like a family argument.
LIKENED
Sam __________________________________________________ a family argument.
3. I always find chess problems like that quite impossible.
DEFEAT
Chess problems ____________________________________________________ me.
4. I thought I could count on your support at the meeting.
UP
I had hoped ______________________________________________ at the meeting.
5. Please read the instructions carefully before you use this appliance.
MAKING
Before ________________________________, please read the instructions carefully.
6. Only the usual, everyday things happen here.
OUT
Nothing _________________________________________________________ here.
7. He did everything possible to save his marriage.
POWER
He did ________________________________________________ save his marriage.
8. I promised her that the situation would not be repeated in the future.
WORD
I __________________________________ no repetition of the situation in the future.

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 9. No matter what happens, Jane will never forgive Mark for what he did.
EVER
Under _____________________________________________ Mark for what he did.
10. They were never aware at any moment that something was wrong.
TIME
At ____________________________________________ that something was wrong.

II. Rewrite the sentences, using the words given so that it has a similar
meaning to the first sentence
1. He really disappointed me when breaking the promise to help me out. (TEETH)
_________________________________________________________________________
2. He died, having nothing of his own. (NAME)
_________________________________________________________________________
3. Have a look at this picture. It may help you to remember something. (JOG)
_________________________________________________________________________
4. Motorists are jamming the streets as they slow down to see the wall paintings. (HOLD
UPS)
_________________________________________________________________________
5. He is becoming quite famous as an interviewer. (NAME)
_________________________________________________________________________

B. Composition

Many parts of the world are losing important natural resources, such as forests, animals, or
clean water. Choose one resource that is disappearing and explain why it needs to be saved.
Write a paragraph, using specific reasons and examples to support your opinion. (150 words)

--- THE END ---

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ NỘI HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
TRƯỜNG THPT CHU VĂN AN Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 10
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ANSWER KEY
PART 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the sentences below. You are going to hear two women talking about a holiday
in France. Read the sentences, and choose the best option: a, b, or c, to complete the
statements about the recording.
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. C

II. Read the statements and decide whether they are true (T) or false (F).
1. F
2. T
3. F
4. T
5. F
III. You are going to hear two separate recordings about the uses of plastics.
1. performance (and) value
2. Meat
3. resist
4. 3.74 kilos
5. fifty percent
6. (the) sandwich bag
7. (the) bread industry
8. garbage/trash/refuse or rubbish
9. 1973
10. 15 cents

PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

V. Choose the best word from A, B, C or D that fits each blank
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. B

VI. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write
their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right.
1. preventing ➔ prevention
2. acceptable ➔ accepted
3. payment ➔ paid
4. criminal ➔ crime
5. present ➔ presence
6. secure ➔ security
7. shopping ➔ shops

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 8. worthless ➔ worth
9. arrangement ➔ arranging
10. visible ➔ vision/visibility

VII. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles
1. on
2. up
3. aside
4. behind
5. in
6. up
7. round
8. off
9. up
10. in

VIII. Write the correct form of the word given

1. destructive
2. regardless
3. residential
4. composure
5. respectful
6. easily
7. inconvenience
8. relating
9. irritable
10. background

PART 3. READING COMPREHENSION

I. Read the text below and then decide which word best fits each blank
1. D
2. A
3. D
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. D

II. Supply the most suitable word for each blank

1. how 2. put 3. deal 4. take 5. been
6. spent 7. a 8. grown 9. without 10. older

13
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each
question.
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. D

IV. Read the text and answer the following questions

11. vii
12. iii
13. iv
14. xi
15. ii
16. vi
17. viii
18. metabolism
19. genetic
20. behavior

PART 4. WRITING
C. Sentence transformation
III. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use
between three to eight words, including the word given.
1. ... with the exception of ....
2. ... likened the situation at work to ...
3. ... like that (always) defeat ...
4. ... you would back me up ...
5. ... making use of this appliance ...
6. ... out of the ordinary (ever) happens ...
7. ... everything in his power to ...
8. ... gave her my word (that) there would be ...
9. ... no circumstances will Jane ever forgive ...
10. ... no time were they (ever) aware ....

II. Rewrite the sentences, using the words given so that it has a similar meaning
to the first sentence
1. He really kicked me in the teeth when breaking the promise to help me out.
2. He died with nothing to his name/having nothing to his name/without anything to his
name.
3. Have a look at this picture. It may help to jog your memory.
4. Motorists are causing/cause hold ups as they slow down to see the wall paintings.
5. He is making (quite) a name for himself as an interviewer.

14
 D. Composition

- Content: 50% of total mark a provision of all main ideas and details as appreciate

- Language: 30% total mark a variety vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language gifted school students

- Presentation: 20% of total mark coherence, cohesion and style appropriate to the level of
English language gifted school students

Tapescripts:

I.

Paula Hi Meg!
Meg Paula! It's great to see you! You look fantastic!
Paula Oh. do I? That's strange. I should be looking awful.
Meg Why? Have you been ill?
Paula No. Not that. It's just that trip to Paris. It was a nightmare'.
Meg Really? You must be joking! Don't tell me you didn't have a good time. When you told me
you were going I was green with envy.
Paula No wonder, I was so excited I just couldn't wait to go. Now I wish we'd gone to the Lake
District or even just stayed at home.
Meg But what was so bad about it? Paula Well, in the beginning everything looked all right.
Mark's boss gave him two weeks off without too much trouble, the children went to stay with
Mark's mother, and Sheila - you know, my younger sister-promised to come over to our place to
feed the hamster. So we packed our suitcases and set off.
Meg Sounds all right so far.
Paula Yes, but in Dover it turned out that the ferry terminal workers had gone on strike, and we
had to wait over eight hours before we could board a ferry.
Meg Oh no!
Paula And that was just the beg inning. During the passage the weather turned stormy, and I
was terribly sea-sick all the way across the Channel.
Meg Oh, poor you!
Paula Yeah, it was horrid. Then, when we arrived in Calais, it was so late that we had to look for
somewhere to spend the night.
Meg Oh dear!
Paula Yes, but that's not all! On the way to Paris the next day we had a puncture, so Mark had to
change the tyre, the hotel where we'd booked a room turned out to be terribly noisy, it was
pouring with rain most of the time, and some of the galleries I wanted to visit were closed.
Meg Oh no! So what did you do, then?

15
Paula Well, I ended up shopping for clothes. That's about the only thing I can't complain about,
but, obviously, it wasn't cheap, so Mark go t furious.
Meg No surprise there!
Paula Hmmm so in the end we decided to shorten our stay and left after just ten days. You can
imagine our return trip - I was unhappy. Mark was mad at me because of the money, and," when
we got home, the flat was flooded.
Meg Flooded?
Paula Yes, we couldn't believe it! When we were away, Sheila let the hamster out of the cage for
a while, and the horrid creature bit through the fridge cable. Of course, she didn't even notice,
but when we got back, there was water all over the kitchen floor and all the food in the fridge
had gone off.
Meg What a nightmare!
II.

A talk from a member of the conservation Society about 'green cleaning'

Good morning everyone. It's a pleasure to be here as a representative of the Conservation
Society, to talk to you about "Green Cleaning", in other words about ways you can help to save
the environment at the same time as saving money.
I'll start with saving money - as we're all interested in that, especially students who are living on
a tight budget. Probably none of you has sat down and calculated how much you spend on
cleaning products each year everything from dishwashing detergent, window cleaners and so on
through to shampoos and conditioners for your hair, and then those disasters products to get
stains out of carpets, or to rescue burnt saucepans. I can see some nods of agreement, even if you
don't spend a lot of time on housework you'd end up spending quite a lot of money over a period
of time, wouldn't you? We can save money on products and also use products which are cheap,
biodegradable and harmless to the environment - these I will call 'green' products.
Unfortunately most cleaning products on sale commercially are none of these, and many of our
waterways and oceans are polluted with bleach, dioxins, phosphates and artificial colourings
and perfumes. Also think how many plastic bottles each household throws away over a year -
they'll still be around in land-fill when you are grandparents! So we often feel there's nothing we
can do to make a difference, but we can. The actual 'recipes' are on handouts you can take at the
end of the talk: The sorts of ingredients I'm referring to are things like bicarbonate of soda,
eucalyptus oil, ammonia, vinegar, lemons, pure soap. Lastly many people find they're allergic to
modem products, so for all you asthma sufferers keep listening. Nothing in these recipes should
cause you any problems, an end to itching and wheezing!
So let’s start with spills and stains. Soda water is wonderful as an immediate stain remover: mop
up the excess spill don't rub but apply soda water immediately - it's great for tea coffee wine
beer and milk - as is salt or bicarbonate of soda, which will absorb the stain - then vacuum when
dry and shampoo if necessary.
While we are talking about disasters lets quickly look at some others that can be avoided.
Bicarbonate of soda is wonderful for removing smells, especially in the fridge - an open box in
the fridge will eliminate smells for up to three months. And those terrible burnt saucepans?
Either sprinkle with our good friend bicarb again and leave it to stand, or cover with vinegar
and a layer of cooking salt.
Bring it to the boil and simmer for ten minutes, then wash when cool. Much cheaper than a new
saucepan! Then there are heat rings on wooden furniture. Simply rub with a mixture of salt and
olive oil, or for scratched furniture use olive oil and vinegar.

16
 Now let's look at general cleaning - first the floors. If your floor covering is made of slate, cork
or ceramic tiles or lino it probably only needs a mop or a scrub with vinegar in a bucket of
water. Carpets can be shampooed using a combination of pure soap washing soda, cloudy
ammonia and some boiling water. You put a small amount of this mixture onto the mark on the
carpet, rub with a cloth until it lathers and then wipe off the excess. A smelly carpet can be
deodorized by sprinkling bicarbonate of soda on the surface, leaving overnight and vacuuming
off the next day. Cleaning in the kitchen, bathroom and toilet is the next section....
III.

Part 1

There are so many different types of plastic, and it’s such a versatile material, that it’s now used
in thousands of ways, and we find it difficult to imagine living without it. Plastics are the choice
for many products featuring in different areas of our lives at the moment, from car parts to toy
parts, from soft drink bottles to the refrigerators they’re stored in. I believe that there are three
main reasons why plastics have scored over other materials in satisfying customer’s needs. These
are - safety, performance and, last but not least, value.

Just consider the changes we have seen in food retail business in recent years. The introduction
of plastic bottles has meant that even an economy-size bottle of juice can easily be lifted - glass is
much heavier, of course. And should you accidentally drop that bottle, it’s far less likely to break.
Plastic wrap helps keep food fresh and free from contamination, which is particularly important
with meat. In each case, plastics help to make your life easier, healthier, and of course, safer.

Plastics also help you get maximum value from some of the high-cost items you need to buy.
They ensure that cellphones and laptop computers really are light and easy to carry. They help
to make sure that major appliances like refrigerators and dishwashers will resist the corrosive
effects of moisture and certain chemicals, which guarantees they’ll last longer. These appliances
also operate more efficiently thanks to the use of plastics. Food safety is of key importance to the
consumer, and packaging such as heart-scaled plastic pouches and wraps means the resources
that went into producing the food in the first place aren’t wasted. It’s the same thing once you
get the food home, where releasable plastic containers keep your leftovers protected. In fact
packaging experts have estimated that every kilo of plastic packaging can cut food waste by
3,74 kilos. That’s a statistic that very few people are aware of.

Plastics also help to conserve energy in your home, lowering your heating - and cooling - bills by
cutting electricity consumption. Indeed, plastic parts and insulation have helped to improve the
energy efficiency of air conditioners by up to 50 per cent in the 1970s. And these appliances run
more quietly than earlier using other materials.

In short, I believe plastics are a very good thing for the human race!

Part 2

In the opinion of a growing number of environmental campaigners, the plastic bag is an

unnecessary and damaging item that we should get rid of at all costs. This simple innovation,
which was welcomed in the 1950s as an attractive modern material with many practical
applications, is now seen by many as a major source of pollution.

17
1957 saw the launch of the sandwich bag, first produced and promoted in the USE as a good way
to keep lunchtime snacks fresh and clean. American companies quickly recognized the value of
plastic bags, and, by 1966, the bread industry, for instance, used them for about one third of
packaging.

But it wasn’t just in the area of food packaging that the plastic bag was beginning to enjoy
success. In 1969, the New York City Sanitation Department’s “New York City Experiment”
showed how much cleaner, safer, and quieter it was to use plastic bags in garbage collection,
and the public soon started to line their metal trash cans with specially produced bags.

However, even in the late 1960s, people were still bringing home their shopping in baskets or
brown paper sacks. The commercial production of plastic grocery bags didn’t start until 1973,
with the opening of the first manufacturing plant. The plastic carrier bag soon became an
indispensable part of everyone’s life, something that governments and campaigners worldwide
are now trying to reserve. In 2002, for example, the Irish government introduced a new tax
payable by consumers of fifteen cents a bag, which, in two year following its introduction, raised
23 million euros for environmental projects. In the same year, the government of another
country, Bangladesh, had to take a more drastic approach, banning the production of plastic
bags and introducing an on-the-spot fine for using one. Since then, many governments have
introduced similar measures and it now seems that the days of plastic bag may indeed be
numbered.

18
 HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LẦN
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC THỨ IX
BỘ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 11
Thời gian: 180 phút
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT ĐIỆN BIÊN

A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1: You will hear part of a radio programe in which two people, Sally White and
Martin Jones, are discussing the popularity of audio books. For questions 1- 5, choose the
answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts)
1. Sally feels that the main advantage of audio books is that they
A. encourage children to read more.
B. make more books accessible to children
C. save parents from having to read to children.
D. are read by experienced actors.
2. What does Martin say about the woman who came into his shop?
A. She no longer worries about long journeys.
B. Her children used to argue about what to listen to
C. she no longer takes her children to France.
D. Her children don’t like staying in hotels.
3. Martin says that in the USA there is a demand for audio books because people there
A. were the first to obtain audio books
B. feel that they do not have time to read books.
C. are used to listening to the spoken words on the radio
D. have to drive long distances
4. Sally says that authors may record their own books on tape if
A. their book has just been published.
B. they want it read a certain way.
C. they have already read extracts from it aloud.
D. there are no suitable actors available.
Page 1 of 21
5. According to Sally, successful abridgements depend on
A. their closeness to the original
B. the length of the original
C. the style of the author
D. the type of story
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 1-5, you will hear a talk about water shortage in deserts. Decide
whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). (10 pts)
1. ______ Scientists have already found one answer to the problem of water shortages.
2. ______ They got their idea from a small beetle that is an expert at surviving in hot and dry
conditions in Afiran desert.
3. ______ Scientist designed the shape and material like those of the beetle’s bumps to collect
water from the air.
4. ______ The scientists believe this new technology could be helpful in many dry places.
5. ______ One of the scientists, Philseok Kim, said their design could help speed up the
process of quickly converting steam to liquid water in thermal power plants.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 3. You hear a talk about short-sightedness. Listen to the talk and complete the notes
below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and/or A NUMBER. (20 pts)
Researchers predicted in a (1) ___________________ in the journal Opthalmology that by
2050, half of the world's population will be short-sighted. (2) ___________________ for this
condition is myopia. It is also known as near-sightedness. It is when we have difficulty (3)
___________________ that are far away from us. The researchers say that around 4.8 billion
people will suffer from myopia myopia. This is a (4) ___________________ in cases from
2000 to 2050. Sixty years ago, around 15 per cent of the Chinese population was short-
sighted. Now, almost 90 per cent of Chinese teenagers (5) ___________________ have
Page 2 of 21
trouble seeing faraway objects. A recent survey found that up to 95 per cent of teenagers in
South Korea are near-sighted.
The researchers said they could not pinpoint (6) ___________________ this phenomenon
and say it could be a combination of factors. They did say that looking at computer screens
and mobile phones could be (7) ___________________. Researchers said (8)
___________________in myopia may be linked to "lifestyle changes resulting from a
combination of decreased time outdoors and increased (9) ___________________". Science
journalist Sarah Zhang said, "spending time outdoors, especially in early childhood, reduces
the onset of myopia". Professor Kovin Naidoo, (10) ___________________the report,
offered some advice. He said: "You could spend a long time reading computers and screens,
but also spend hours outdoors."
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence. (10
pts)
1. Journalists were ______ around the hotel, waiting to interview the star.
A. sauntering B. milling C. trudging D. staggering
2. Tim’s extremely punctual. He turns up every day at nine o’clock on the ______
A. dot B. spur C. spot D. day
3. That human rights are ______ is unacceptable in a civilized society.
A. abrogated B. impeached C. infringed D. quashed
4. A: You should neverhave agreed to help mend her car!
B: “__________________”
A. Famous last words B. Well, you live and learn
Page 3 of 21
C. It’s a small word D. You can’t win them all
5. The rents in this area are ______ the highest in the city.
A. far from away B. away by far
C. far and away D. far or away
6. All buliding work must be carried out ______ safety regulations.
A. on behalf of B. with obedience to
C. in compliance with D. with reference to
7. We’ll have to take what he says on ______.
A. trust B. faith C. belief D. confidence
8. I don’t like that movie because the storyline seemed ______ .
A. compulsory B. analogue C. poised D. contrived
9. I can’t tell you much about the subject, I’m afraid. I only have a very ______ knowledge of
it myself.
A. fundamental B. redimentary C. elemental D. primary
10. No matter how angry he was, he would never ______ to violence.
A. resort B. resourse C. exert D. resolve
11. He looks very aggressive and threatening, and so his soft, gentle voice is rather ______
A. disembodied B. disconcerting C. dismissive D. discordant
12. We were ______ by the officers' decision to divert the whole traffic from the main route.
A. rambled B. shuffled C. stumbled D. baffled
13. I usually buy my clothes ______. It’s cheaper than going to the dressmaker.
A. on the house B. off the peg C. in public D. on the shelf
14. My father _______ when he found out that I had damaged his car.
A. brought the house down B. saw pink elephants
C. made my blood boil D. hit the roof
15. She was kept awake for most of the night by the ______ of a mosquito in her car.
A. groan B. moan C. whine D. screech
16. Their eventual choice of the house was _____ by the time Peter would take to get to the
office.
A. related B. consequent C. determined D. dependent
Page 4 of 21
17. When the funds finally ______ , they had to abandon the scheme.
A. faded away B. clamped down C. petered out D. fobbed off
18. I was in a quandary ______ what to say.
A. as to B. for C. owing to D. of
19. The argiricultural project suffered a major ______ when winter arrived three weeks ealier
than expected.
A. distortion B. downfall C. contraction D. setback
20. The police arrested the wrong man manily because they ______ the names they had been
given by the witness.
A. bewildered B. merged C. confused D. puzzled
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2: Identify 5 errors in the following passage and correct them, (0) has been done as an
example. (5 pts)
1 I can not stress too much the important on watching your opponent, of knowing exactly
2 where he is on the tennis court and what he is doing. It is usually possible to work out
3 the pattern of his game very early in a match. Test at the front of the court. Try hitting
4 one or two balls up high to see how his shots are like. The more quickly you discover his
5 weaknesses, the easier the match should become.
6 Now and again it may be a good idea to give your opponent an opportunity of a mistake.
7 When, early in the match, it seems that he os very accurate player, but not a forceful one,
8 then you should tempt him to play a winning shot. Give him the opening, for there are
9 some players who simply cannot hit winners. They will try to play an attacking game but
10 they can't quite finish it off. The way to break down their steady game may be putting
11 them into the front of the court.
12 It is obviously wiser to try to be at the beginning of the match whether your opponent is
13 weaker on his left-hand or on his right-hand side, and then play a little more than fifty
14 percent of your shots down that side. Play a normal attacking game, or the game you
Page 5 of 21
15 think you will win, but concentrate on the weaker side. A number of players experience
16 more trouble than others in the back corners of the court - always be ready to recognize
17 this weakness. Perhaps an opponent has a favorite backhand shot, but lacks certainty
18 with his forehand shot. Tempt him to play the forehand shot.
Number Line Mistake Correction
0. 1 on of
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. (10
pts)
1. She says she won’t help us, but we’ll soon get __________ her.
2. The man was forced to give himself __________ to the police.
3. What were you driving __________ when you said you might not see Mark for sometime?
4. He came __________ several thousand pounds when his grandfather died.
5. I wish you wouldn’t fly __________ me like that every time I made a mistake.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 4. Complete the following sentences with the words given in the brackets. You have to
change the form of the word. (10 pts)
King of the Watchmakers
For a period of its history, the city of Coventry had a considerable reputation as the main
center of clock and watch-making in Britain, and Coventry timepieces made then were (1)
(SYNONYM) __________________ with both quality and (2) (RELY)
_________________. Few people in the city today will have heard of Samuel Watson, but he
almost (3) (HAND) __________________ paved the way for Coventry’s involvement in the
Page 6 of 21
clock and watch business. He was at the (4) (FRONT) __________________ of the watch-
making revolution in the 1680s, and although it is not known how Watson became involved
in the trade, he was a trailblazer for others. Watson made his name in 1682 when he sold a
clock to King Charles II and was invited to be the King’s (5) (MATHEMATICS)
__________________. The following he began work on an astronomical clock for the King,
complete with planets and signs of the zodiac, which took seven years to build. It not only
told the time of day but also the (6) (POSITION) _________________ changes of the
planets. Queen Mary acquired it in 1691 and it is still in the (7) (OWN)
__________________ of the Royal Family. He built several other clocks, and by 1690 the
clamour for Watson’s clocks was such that he left Conventry and took up (8) (RESIDE)
__________________ in London. He became Master of the London Clockmakers’ Company
in 1692, which is testament to his (9) (STAND) _________________ in the growing
industry. In 1712, Samuel Watson’s name disappears from the records of the London
Clockmakers’ Company, and the (10) (LIKELY) ________________ is that he died in that
year.
Your answer
1. 3. 5. 7. 9.
2. 4. 6. 8. 10.

C. READING (60 points)

Part 1: For questions 1–15, read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C,
or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts)
SECRETARIES
What’s in a name? In the case of the secretary, it can be something rather surprising. The
dictionary calls a secretary “anyone who handles correspondence keeps records and does
clerical work for others”. But while this particular job (1) _____ looks a bit (2) _____, the
word’s original meaning is a hundred times more exotic and perhaps more (3) _____. The
word itself has been with us since the 14 th century and comes from the medieval Latin word
secretaries meaning “something hidden”. Secretaries started out as those members of staff

Page 7 of 21
with knowledge hidden from others, the silent ones mysteriously (4) _____ the secret
machinery of organizations.
A few years ago “something hidden” probably meant (5) out of sight, tucked away
with all the other secretaries and typists. A good secretary was an unremarkable one,
efficiently (6)_______ orders, and then returning mouse-like to his or her station behind the
typewriter, but, with the (7) _____ of new technology, the job (8) upgraded itself
and the role has changed to one closer to the original meaning. The skills required are more
(9) _____ and more technical. Companies are (10) that secretarial staff should already
be (11) ______ trained in, or at least familiar with, a (12) of word processing
packages. In addition to this, they need the management skills to take on some administration,
some personnel work and some research. The professionals in the (13) _____ business see all
these developments as (14) _____ the jobs which secretaries are being asked to do.
It may also encourage a dramatic (15) in office practice. In the past it was usual to
regard the secretary as almost dehumanized, to be seen and not heard.
1 A. explanation B. detail C. definition D. characteristic
2 A. elderly B. unfashionable C. outdated D. aged
3 A. characteristic B. related C. likely D. appropriate
4 A. operating B. pushing C. vibrating D. effecting
5 A. kept B. covered C. packed D. held
6 A. satisfying B. obeying C. completing D. minding
7 A. advent B. approach C. entrance D. opening
8 A. truly B. validly C. correctly D. effectively
9 A. thorough B. demanding C. severe D. critical
10 A. insisting B. ordering C. claiming D. pressing
11 A. considerably B. highly C. vastly D. supremely
12 A. group B. collection C. cluster D. range
13 A. appointment B. hiring C. recruitment D. engagement
14 A. improving B. intensifying C. advancing D. heightening
15 A. turn B. change C. switch D. swing
Your answers
Page 8 of 21
 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 2: For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each
space. Use only one word in each space. (15pts)
ACCIDENTAL INVENTORS
A number of products (1) _______ we commonly use today were developed quite by
accident. Two of many possible examples of this concept (2) ________ the leotard and the
Popsicle, each of which came (3) ________ when an insightful person recognized a
potential benefit in a negative situation.
The first of these accidental inventions is the leotard, a close-fitting, one- piece garment
worn today by dancers, gymnasts, and acrobats, (4) _______ others. In 1828, a circus (5)
__________ named Nelson Hower was faced with the prospect of missing his performance
because his costume was (6) ________ the cleaners. In stead of canceling his part of the
show, he decided to perform in his long underwear. Soon, other circus performers began
performing the (7) _______way. When popular acrobat Jules Leotard adopted the style, it
became (8) ________ as the Leotard.
Another product (9) ______ by chance was the Popsicle. In 1905, eleven – year old Frank
Epperson stirred up (10) ________ drink of fruit- flavored powder and soda water and then
mistakenly left the drink, (11) ________ the spoon in it, out on the back porch overnight.
As the temperature (12) _______ that night, the soda water froze around the spoon, creating
a tasty treat. Years (13)_________ remembering how enjoyable the treat had been.
Epperson went (14) _____ business (15) ________ Popsicles.
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (15 pts)
Page 9 of 21
The Amazonian wilderness harbors the greatest number of species on this planet and is an
irreplaceable resource for present and future generations. Amazonia is crucial for maintaining
global climate and genetic resources, and its forest and rivers provide vital sources of food,
building materials, pharmaceuticals, and water needed by wildlife and humanity.
The Los Amigos watershed in the state of Madre de Dios, southeastern Peru, is representative
of the pristine lowland moist forest once found throughout most of upper Amazonian South
America. Threats to tropical forests occur in the form of fishing, hunting, gold mining, timber
extraction, impending road construction, and slash and burn agriculture. The Los Amigos
watershed, consisting of 1.6 million hectares (3.95 million acres), still offers the increasingly
scarce opportunity to study rain forest as it was before the disruptive encroachment of
modern human civilization. Because of its relatively pristine condition and the immediate
need to justify it as a conservation zone and as a corridor between Manu National Park and
the Tambopata-Candamo Reserved Zone, this area deserves intensive, long-term projects
aimed at botanical training, ecotourism, biological inventory, and information synthesis.
On July 24, 2001, the government of Peru and the Amazon Conservation Association,
represented by Enrique Ort?z, signed a contractual agreement creating the first long-term
permanently renewable conservation concession. To our knowledge this is the first such
agreement to be implemented in the world. The conservation concession protects 340,000
acres of old growth Amazonian forest in the Los Amigos watershed which is located in
southeastern Peru. This watershed protects the eastern flank of Manu National Park and is
part of the lowland forest corridor that links it to Bahuaja-Sonene National Park. The Los
Amigos conservation concession will serve as a mechanism for the development of a regional
center of excellence in natural forest management and biodiversity science.
Several major projects are being implemented at the Los Amigos Conservation Area. Louise
Emmons is initiating studies of mammal diversity and ecology in the Los Amigos area. Other
projects involve studies of the diversity of arthropods, amphibians, reptiles, and birds. Robin
Foster has conducted botanical studies at Los Amigos, resulting in the labeling of hundreds of
plant species along two kilometers of trail in upland and lowland forest. Los Amigos has also
been a major field site for Robin's rapid identification laminated photographic field guides to
tropical plants. Michael Goulding is leading a fisheries and aquatic ecology program, which
Page 10 of 21
aims to document the diversity of fish, their ecologies, and their habitats in the Los Amigos
area and the Madre de Dios watershed in general.
With support from the Amazon Conservation Association, and in collaboration with US and
Peruvian colleagues, the Botany of the Los Amigos project has been initiated. At Los
Amigos, we are attempting to develop a system of preservation, sustainability, and scientific
research; a marriage between various disciplines, from human ecology to economic botany,
product marketing to forest management. The complexity of the ecosystem will best be
understood through a multidisciplinary approach, and improved understanding of the
complexity will lead to better management. In essence, we must be informed to make wise
management decisions about Amazonian forests. These forests hold the greatest number of
species on our planet and are an irreplaceable resource for present and future generations. The
future of these forests will depend on sustainable management and development of alternative
practices and products that do not require irreversible destruction.
The botanical project will provide a foundation of information that is essential to other
programs at Los Amigos. By combining botanical studies with fisheries and mammology, we
will better understand plant/animal interactions. By providing names, the botanical program
will facilitate accurate communication about plants and the animals that use them. Included in
this scenario are humans, as we will dedicate time to people-plant interactions in order to
learn what plants are used by people in the Los Amigos area, and what plants could
potentially be used by people.
To be informed, we must develop knowledge. To develop knowledge, we must collect,
organize, and disseminate information. In this sense, botanical information has conservation
value. Before we can use plant-based products from the forest, we must know what species
are useful. We must know what their names are in order to be able to communicate accurately
about them. We must be able to identify them, to know where they occur in the forest, how
many of them exist, how they are pollinated and when they produce fruit (or other useful
products). Aside from understanding the species as they occur locally at Los Amigos, we
must have information about their overall distribution in tropical America in order to better
understand and manage the distribution, variation, and viability of their genetic diversity and

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germplasm. This involves a more complete understanding of the species through studies in
the field and herbarium.
1. The phrase “genetic resources” refers to
A. plant seeds
B. different races of people
C. diverse species of plants and animals
C. cells that can be used in genetic cures for diseases
2. In paragraph 2, the author emphasizes that the current environmental condition of
Amazonian South America is
A. mostly unscathed
B. restorable through his project
C. irredeemable everywhere but in the Los Amigos watershed
D. varying from destroyed to virtually pristine
3. The word “concession” could be replaced, without changing the meaning, with
A. grant B. acknowledgement C. apology D. compromise
4. The author implies in paragraph three that the agreement between Peru and the Amazone
Conservation Association is history primarily because it
A. was the first long-term agreement regarding land in the Amazone Rainforest.
B. represented the first time a South American government had agreed to renew a
conservation agreement.
C. is essentially a permanent conservation agreement.
D. represents the first time such an agreement has been in the form of a renewable contract.
5. The author’s main purpose in the passage is to
A. demonstrate that conservation efforts have been historically successful and so should be be
continued.
B. garner support for opposition to destructive activities in the Los Amigos watershed.
C. position the Los Amigos watershed agreement as a success towards the achievement of the
vital goal of conservation the Amazonian rainforests.
D. argue that the study pristine rainforests is essential for documenting and studying the
myriad new species that the forests contain.
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6. The author’s tone in the passage can be best described as
A. advocacy for his project over the other competing projects
B. general praise for conservation projects in Amazonian South America.
C. passionate support for his and related projects.
D. zealous advocacy for his point of view.
7. The work of Louise Emmons, Robin Foster, and Michael Goulding (in the fourth
paragraph) are employed in the passage as
A. colleagues of the author’s in his botanical project.
B. examples of the kinds of activities the author and his colleagues are trying to halt.
C. scientists who are represent new trends of study in Amazonian botany.
D. scientist involved in projects related and amenable to the author’s.
8. The author’s botanical project involved all of the following EXCEPT
A. studying plants in laboratory.
B. studying how plants are used by humans and animals.
C. facilitating pharmaceutical use of plants.
D. labeling plants in the Los Amigos area.
9. When the author says that the botanical project will “provide names,” he means that the
project will
A. help recognize new species.
B. aid in the standardization of names for new species.
C. participate in naming the region’s different zones.
D. clarify the conclusion surrounding the names of different organizations working in
Amazonia.
10. When the author says that “botanical information has conservation value,” he means that
A. a robust understanding of conservationism is aided by botanical information.
B. conservationists should strive to preserve botanical information.
C. specification is important for conservation.
D. political discussions about conservation should use botanical nomenslature.
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Page 13 of 21
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (15 pts)
ADAM’S WINE
A Water is the giver and, at the same time, the taker of life. It covers most of the surface of
the planet we live on and features large in the development of the human race. On present
prediction, it is an element that is set to assume even greater significance.
B Throughout history, water has had a huge impact on our lives. Humankind has always
had a rather ambiguous relationship with water, on the one hand receiving enormous benefit
from it, not just as a drinking source, but as a provider of food and a means whereby to travel
and to trade. But forced to live close to water in order to survive and to develop, the
relationship has not always been peaceful or beneficial. In fact, it has been quite the contrary.
What has essentially been a necessity for survival has turned out in many instances to have a
very destructive and life-threatening side.
C Through the ages, great floods alternated with long periods of drought have assaulted
people and their environment, hampering their fragile fight for survival. The dramatic
changes to the environment that are now a feature of our daily news are not exactly new:
fields that were once lush and fertile are now barren; lakes and rivers that were once teeming
with life are now long gone; savannah has been turned to desert. What perhaps is new is our
native wonder when faced with the forces of nature
D Today, we are more aware of climatic changes around the world. Floods in far flung
places are instant news for the whole world. Perhaps these events make us feel better as we
face the destruction of our own property by floods and other natural disasters.
E In 2002, many parts of Europe suffered severe flood damage running into billions of
euros. Properties across the continent collapsed into the sea as waves pounded the coastline
wreaking havoc with sea defenses. But it was not just the seas. Rivers swollen by heavy rains
and by the effects of deforestation carried large volumes of water that wrecked many
communities.
F Building stronger and more sophisticated river defenses against flooding is the expensive
short-term answer. There are simpler ways. Planting trees in highland areas, not just in
Page 14 of 21
Europe but in places like Himalayas, to protect people living in low-lying regions like the
Ganges Delta, is a cheaper and more attractive solution. Progress is already being made in
convincing countries that the emission of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases is
causing considerable damage to the environment. But more effort is needed in this directing
G And the future? If we are to believe the forecasts, it is predicted that two-thirds of the
world population will be without fresh water by 2050. But for a growing number of regions
of the world the future is already with us. While some areas are devastated by flooding,
scarcity of water in many other places is causing conflict. The state of Texas in the United
States of America is suffering a shortage of water with the Rio Grande failing to reach the
Gulf of Mexico for the first time in 50 years in the spring of 2002, pitting region against
region as they view for water sources. With many parts of the globe running dry through
drought and increased water consumption, there is now talk of water being the new oil.
H Other doom-laden estimates suggest that, while tropical areas will become drier and
uninhabitable, coastal regions and some low-lying islands will in all probability be
submerged by the sea as the polar ice caps melt. Popular exotic destinations now visited by
countless tourists will become no-go areas. Today’s holiday hotspots of southern Europe and
elsewhere will literally become hotspots- too hot to live in or visit. With the current antic
behaviour of the weather, it is difficult not to subscribe to such despair.
I Some might say that this despondency is ill-founded but we have had ample proof that
there is something not quite right with the climate. Many parts of the world have experienced
devastating flooding. As the seasons revolve, the focus of the destruction moves from one
continent to another. The impact on the environment is alarming and the cost to life
depressing. It is a picture to which we will need to become accustomed.
Questions 1-8
Choose the most suitable heading for paragraphs A-I from the list of heading below. One
of the headings has been done for you as an example. There are more headings than
paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.
List of headings
a. Environmental change has always been with us
b. The scarcity of water
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 c. Rivers and seas cause damage
d. Should we be despondent? Or realistic?
e. Disasters caused by the climate make us feel better
f. Water, the provider of food
g. What is water?
h. How to solve flooding
i. Far-flung flooding
j. Human’s relationship with water
k. The destructive force of water in former times
l. Flooding in the future
m. A pessimistic view of the future
E.g: Paragraph A: ..g…
1. Paragraph B: ………. 5. Paragraph F: ………..
2. Paragraph C: ………. 6. Paragraph G: ……….
3. Paragraph D: ………. 7. Paragraph H: ……….
4. Paragraph E: ………. 8. Paragraph I: ………..
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.

Question 9-15: Choose the correct option for each of the following.
9. The writer believes that water ____________ .
A. is gradually becoming of greater importance.
B. will have little impact on our lives in future.
C. is something we will need more than anything else.
D. will have even greater importance in our lives in the future.
10. Humankind’s relationship with water has been ___________ .
A. two-sided. B. one-sided.
C. purely one of greater benefits. D. fairly frightening
11. The writer suggests that ___________ .
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 A. we are in awe of the news we read and see on TV every day
B. change to the environment leaves us speechless
C. we should not be in awe of the news we read and see on TV every day
D. our surprise at the environment change brought about by nature is something new
12. According to the text, planting trees ______________ .
A. has to be coordinated internationally
B. is more expensive than building sea and river defenses
C. is a less expensive answer to flooding than building river defenses
D. is not an answer to the problem of flooding in all regions
13. By 2050, it is projected that _____________ .
A. at least haft the world population will have fresh water
B. the majority of the world population will have fresh water
C. one-third of the world population will have fresh water
D. fresh water will only be available to haft of the world population
14. According to the text, in the future low-lying islands ___________ .
A. will still be habitable B. will not be under water
C. are likely to be under water D. will probably not be under water
15. According to the writer _____________ .
A. people do not need to get used to environment damage
B. people will need to get used to climate changes that cause environmental damage
C. people are now more used to environmental damage than they have been in the past
D. the general despondency about environmental changes is ill-founded
Your answer
9. 10. 11. 12.
13. 14. 15.

D.WRITING (60 pts)

Part 1: (5 pts)
A/ Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (2 pts.)
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1. Her primus stove ceased to function on the last day. (GASP)
Her primus stove ………………………………………. on the last day.
2. At this time of year, the area is often affected by violent storms.
-> At this time of year, the area often ………………………………… violent storms
B/ For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning
to the original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any
way. (3 pts.)
7. Trade has deteriorated and staff are being laid off. (BAD)
-> ………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Don’t tell the boss about our scheme. (BREATHE)
-> ………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. Since the advertisement, we have had more applications than we can deal with.
(SWAMPED)
-> ………………………………………………………………………………………………
Part 2: (20 pts)
The graphs below give information about computer ownership as a percentage of the
population between 2002 and 2010, and by level of education for the years 2002 and 2010.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.

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Part 3. Essay writing (35 pts)
In recent years, the family structure and the role of its members are gradually changin.
What kinds of changes can ocurr? Do you think these changes are possitive or negative?
Write an essay (about 250words) to express your opinion.
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......................THE END...................

Người ra đề: Nguyễn Hạnh Tuyết (mobile: 0974866717)

Page 21 of 21
 HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LẦN THỨ IX
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 11
Thời gian: 180 phút
ĐỀ ĐỀ NGHỊ ĐIỆN BIÊN

KEY
A. LISTENING (50 points)
Part 1: You will hear part of a radio programe in which two people, Sally White and
Martin Jones, are discussing the popularity of audio books. For questions 1- 5, choose the
answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts)
Your answers:

1. B 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C

Part 2. For questions 1-5, you will hear a talk about water shortage in deserts. Decide
whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). (10 pts)
Your answers:
1. F 2. T 3. F 4. F 5. T

Part 3. You hear a talk about short-sightedness. Listen to the talk and complete the notes
below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and/or A NUMBER. (20 pts)
1. report published 6. definite reasons
2. The medical term 7. a leading cause
3. focusing on objects 8. the sudden rise
4. seven-fold increase 9. near-work activities
5. and young adults 10. a co-author of
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence. (10
pts)
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. A
11. B 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. C 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. C

Part 2: Identify 5 errors in the following passage and correct them, (0) has been done as an
example. (5 pts)
Number Line Mistake Correction
0. 1 on of
1. 2 on out
2. 4 how what
3. 7 when if
Page 1 of 7
4. 10 down up
5. 12 be decide

Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. (10
pts)
1. get round = persuade 2. give oneself up = surrender
3. drive at = imply, suggest 4. come into = inherit
5. fly at = attack (with blows or words)

Part 4. Complete the following sentences with the words given in the brackets. You have to
change the form of the word. (10 pts)
1. synonymous 2. reliability 3. single- 4. forefront 5. mathematician
handedly
6. positional 7. ownership 8. residence 9. standing 10. likelihood

C. READING (60 points)

Part 1: For questions 1–15, read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C,
or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts)
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. A
6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. A
11. B 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. B

Part 2: For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each
space. Use only one word in each space. (15pts)
1. that / which 2. are 3. about 4. among 5. performer
6. at 7. same 8. known 9. invented 10. a
11. with 12. dropped 13. later 14. into 15. producing

Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (15 pts)
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. C
6. C 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A

Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (15 pts)
1. j 2. a 3. e 4. c
5. h 6. b 7. m 8. d
9. D 10. A 11. D 12. C
13. C 14. C 15. B
D.WRITING (60 pts)

Page 2 of 7
Part 1: (5 pts)
A/ Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (2 pts.)
1. Her primus stove GAVE ITS LAST GASP on the last day.
2. At this time of year, the area often FEEL THE EFFECT OF violent storms.
B/ For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning
to the original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any
way. (3 pts.)
3. Trade has gone from bad to worse and staff are being laid off.
4. Don’t breathe a word about your scheme to the boss.
5. Since the advertisement, we have been swamped with applications.
Part 2: (20 pts) 
The graphs below give information about computer ownership as a percentage of the
population between 2002 and 2010, and by level of education for the years 2002 and 2010.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.
Part 3. Essay writing (35 pts)
In recent years, the family structure and the role of its members are gradually changin.
What kinds of changes can ocurr? Do you think these changes are possitive or negative?
Write an essay (about 250words) to express your opinion.

LISTENING TAPESCRIPT
Part 1: You will hear part of a radio programe in which two people, Sally White and
Martin Jones, are discussing the popularity of audio books. For questions 1- 5, choose the
answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts)

Page 3 of 7
Page 4 of 7
Page 5 of 7
Part 2. For questions 1-5, you will hear the historian, George Davies, talking about society
and the theatre in England in the time of William Shakespeare. Decide whether the
following statements are true (T) or false (F). (10 pts)
Scientists may have found one answer to the problem of water shortages. It is a new material
that collects water from the air. They got their idea from a small beetle that lives in the desert
in Africa. The deserts of the Skeleton Coast in Namibia are very dry, but the Namib desert
beetle is an expert at surviving in hot and dry conditions. Its shell is covered in small bumps
that collect tiny water droplets from the air. The water is enough to keep the beetle alive.
Scientists studied the shape and material of the beetle's bumps. They want to use what they
found out about the beetle to make their own materials that can collect water from the air.
This will help people who live in very dry areas.
The scientists believe this new technology could help in many areas of our life. They said it
could be very useful for power plants and for the heating and air conditioning in airplanes,
cars and trains. One of the scientists, Philseok Kim, said: "Thermal power plants, for
example, rely on condensers to quickly convert steam to liquid water. [Our] design could help
speed up that process and even allow for operation at a higher temperature, significantly
improving the overall energy efficiency." Another scientist, Joanna Aizenberg, said she was
looking forward to the future of getting ideas for new technologies from nature. She said:
"Everybody is excited about bio-inspired materials research."

Part 3. You hear a radio interview in which the presenter, Terry Davis, is talking to Dr
Elizabeth Jones, an expert on climate. Listen to the interview and complete the notes
below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and/or A NUMBER. (20 pts)
Researchers predicted in a new report published in the journal Opthalmology that by 2050,
half of the world's population will be short-sighted. The medical term for this condition is
myopia. It is also known as near-sightedness. It is when we have difficulty focusing on
objects that are far away from us. The researchers say that around 4.8 billion people will
suffer from myopia. This is a seven-fold increase in cases from 2000 to 2050. Sixty years
ago, around 15 per cent of the Chinese population was short-sighted. Now, almost 90 per cent
of Chinese teenagers and young adults have trouble seeing faraway objects. A recent survey
found that up 95 per cent of teenagers in South Korea are near-sighted.
The researchers said they could not pinpoint definite reasons for this phenomenon and say it
could be a combination of factors. They did say that looking at computer screens and mobile
phones could be a leading cause. Researchers said the sudden rise in myopia may be linked to
"lifestyle changes resulting from a combination of decreased time outdoors and increased
Page 6 of 7
near-work activities". Science journalist Sarah Zhang said, "spending time outdoors,
especially in early childhood, reduces the onset of myopia". Professor Kovin Naidoo, a co-
author of the report, offered some advice. He said: "You could spend a long time reading
computers and screens, but also spend two hours outdoors."

Page 7 of 7
 TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN NGUYỄN TRÃI - HẢI DƯƠNG
ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CỤM CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
NĂM 2016
PART A. LISTENING

I. Listen and choose the correct letter A, B, or C. You are going to listen to the recording
twice. (5 points)
1. What does the charity Forward thinking do?
A. It funds and art exhibitions in hospitals.
B. It produces affordable materials for art therapy.
C. It encourages the use of arts projects in healthcare.
2. What benefit of Forward thinking’s work does Jasmine mention?
A. People avoid going to hospital.
B. Patients require fewer drugs.
C. Medical students do better in tests.
3. When did the organization become known as Forward thinking?
A. 1986 B. in the 1990's C. 2005
4. Where does Forward thinking operate?
A. within Clifton city
B. in all parts of London
C. in several towns and villages near Clifton
5. Jasmine explains that the Colvin Centre is
A. a school for people with health problems.
B. a venue for a range of different activities.
C. a building which needs repairing.
II. Listen and mark each of the following statements TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). You are going
to listen to the recording twice. (5 points)
6. Stan Leach is a member of a sport club specializing in adventure sports
7. Walking is the most popular outdoors activity in Britain
8. Climbing is a terrifying sport even when you are experienced.
9. Stan went on a day- climb on his own in Scotland.
10. You do not need to pay a huge amount of money if you want to take up mountain biking.
III. (10 points): Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD for each answer. You are
going to listen to the recording twice.
Questions 11-15:
Manufacturing in the English Midlands
 In the eighteenth century, the (11) _____________________ still determined how
most people made a living
 In the ground were minerals which supported the many (12) _____________________
of the region.
 Since the late sixteenth century the French settlers had made (13)
_____________________.
 In Cheshire (14) _____________________ was mined and transported on the river
Mersey.
 Potters worked in a few (15) _____________________ situated on the small hills of
the North Staffordshire.
Questions 16-20:
Pottery notes
Earthenware
Advantages:
 potters used (16) _____________________ clay
 saved money on (17) _____________________
Disadvantages:
 needed two firings in the kiln to be (18) _____________________
 fragile led to high (19) _____________________ during
manufacturing
Stoneware
 more expensive but better.
 made from a (20) _____________________ of clay and flint

PART B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY:

I. Choose the words or phrases that best fit the gap in each sentence or is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underline part in each of the following questions. (20 points)
1. ____, both safety and reliability have always been primary goals of the rail way
mechanical engineer.
A. Railroad history B. Railroad history includes
C. Through railroad history D. In railroad history there are
2. Newspaper publishers in the United States have estimated ___ reads a newspaper every
day.
A. nearly 80 percent of the adult population who
B. it is nearly 80 percent of the adult population who
C. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population who
D. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population
3. My decision to leave university after a year is one I now ____ regret.
A. harshly B. painfully C. keenly D. heavily
4. Despite all the interruptions, he ____ with his work.
A. pressed on B. held on C. stuck at D. hung out
5. The organization has the authority to manage and regulate new and existing free trade
agreements, to supervise world trade practices and to settle trade disputes among member
states.
A. prolong B. strengthen C. reconcile D. augment
6. Many a ________it difficult to avoid the interference of mass media in their life.
A. pop star find B. pop star finds C. pop stars find D. pop stars finds
7. He went to Australia hoping to find a teaching ________ without too much difficulty. 
A. work B. occupation C. employment D. post
8. The president placed his car at my _______ as a bonus for my good work.
A. disposal B. like C. expense D. wit’s end
9. My father has decided to ________ a beard to cover a small scar he has on his chin.
A. rear B. bring up C. breed D. grow
10. The workers decided to _______ until their demands were met.
A. stand up B. lie behind C. sit in D. sleep out
11. When we heard the news about their marriage, _____________
A. we were completely out of the question. B. it was completely once in a blue moon.
C. it was completely impossible. D. it was completely out of the blue.
12. It’s a small black dog and _____ to the name of “Emily”
A. belongs B. answers C. obeys D. responds
13. “He’s not interested in Physics, is he?” – “________”
A. No problem! B. No, he isn’t. I’m afraid.
C. Yes, he is not at all. D. I promise he isn’t.
14. Managers of small businesses prefer ____ on doing their management work.
A. centrality B. centralization C. centralism D. centre
15. My father supposes, _____, that he will be retiring at 60.
A. like most people did B. like most people do
C. as do most people D. as most of people
16. What made Peter ____ his family and his job? Where did he go and why?
A. walk away on B. leave out at C. go off on D. walk out on
17. My grandfather has a________ storage house.
A. beautiful big cubic old yellow wooden B. big beautiful old cubic yellow wooden
C. beautiful cubic big old yellow wooden D. beautiful old big cubic wooden yellow
18. _____ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know ____ exact number
of them.
A. A/ the B. The/ an C. The/ the D. A/an
19. A: “I left work early today, dear.” - B: “_____”
A. Why was that B. Why did you leave
C. How’s that? D. When so?
20. A: “Come on, Peter. I want to show you something”
B: “Oh how nice of you! I ________you________ to bring me gift.”
A. never think/ are going B. never thought/ were going
C. didn’t think/ are going D. hadn’t thought/ would be going

III. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Find them and correct them. Write your
answers in the space provided. (10 points)
LINE
1 Britain has a general mild temperate climate. The weather, however, tends to be
changed (though not necessarily unpredictable) as a result of the constant
influence of different air mass. The prevailing winds are south-westerly, which
bring warm air in from across the Atlantic. There are a few extremes in
5 temperature, which rarely goes above 320C or below -100C. In summer, southern
Britain is warmer than northern Britain because of its latitude, but in winter the
North Atlantic Drift – a warm sea current - keeps the west mild than the east.
Consequently, Wales and the south-west Peninsula has the most moderate climate
and eastern England the most extremely. These differences, are not great however,
10 and local variations arise from factors such as altitude and pollution are often
greater. Annual rainfall is fairly evenly distribute, but ranges from more than 1,600
mm in the mountainous areas of the west and north far less than 800 mm over
central and eastern parts. This is because depression from the Atlantic bring frontal
rainfall first to the west and because western Britain is higher and so gets more
15 relief rain.
Your answers:
LINE Mistakes Corrections LINE Mistakes Corrections
21. 26.
22. 27.
23. 28.
24. 29.
25. 30.
III. Fill each gap in the following sentences with one suitable preposition or particle.
Write your answer in the gap. (10 points)
31. There are many advantages __________ being able to speak a foreign language.
32. My hands were blue __________ cold when I got home.
33. I’d like to exchange this car __________ a new model but I can’t afford it.
34. It falls __________ Mary to care for her mother since her sister moved.
35. The family may not be very rich, but they are certainly well __________.
36. The firm will have to step _________ production if it is to defeat its competitors.  
37. Well, it’s getting late – perhaps we’d better get __________ to business.
38. A lion has escaped and is __________ large in the city.
39. You can't miss him. That haircut makes him stand __________in a crowd.
40. I am really thirsty. I could do __________a drink.
IV. Provide the correct form of the words in brackets(20 points).
Responding to (41. provoke) ______________ insults that have been thrown at you is a
wonderful way of honing your sense of humour. The great (42. play) ______________
George Bernard Shaw was a contemporary of Winston Churchill’s. GBS thoughtfully invited
Churchill to the first night of one of this plays, (43. close) ______________ two tickets with
a note which said, ‘One for yourself and one for a friend – if you have one.’ Churchill lost no
time in writing back, saying that, unfortunately, due to pressure of work, he would be unable
to come, but could he have tickets for the second night – ‘if there is one.’
This joke was (44. date) ______________ more recently by a prominent (45. politics)
______________ in the Labour Party, when speaking to a colleague and (46. term)
______________ rival of his. The two men found themselves in the same meeting, despite
being (47. swear) ______________ enemies. The colleague apparently rose to excuse
himself, saying that he had arranged to phone some friends, (48. upon) ______________ the
statesman immediately gave him a small coin (enough for a brief local call) and said (49. wit)
______________, ‘There you are. Go (50. head) ______________ and phone them all!’

PART C: READING
I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space
(15 points).
The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is the Internet, which has been (1)
______ for broken relationships, job losses, financial ruin, and even suicide. Psychologists
now recognize Internet Addiction Syndrome (IAS) (2)______ a new illness that could (3)
______ serious problems and ruin many lives. Special help groups have been set up to (4)
______ sufferers help and support.
Psychologists have described many worrying examples, (5) ______ one man who took
his own life after (6) ______ more than ₤ 14,000 to feed his addiction, and a teenager who
had to receive psychiatric treatment for his 12-hour-a-day (7) ______. "This illness is not
fake, and it must be (8)______ seriously," said an expert in behavioural addiction at
Nottingham Trent University. "These are not sad people with serious personality defects;
they are people who were fine (9) ______ they found the Internet."
IAS is similar (10)______ other problems like gambling, smoking and drinking:
addicts have dreams about the Internet; they need to use it first thing in the morning; they
(11) ______ to their partners about how much time they spent online; they wish they could
cut down, but are unable to do so. A recent study found that many users spend up to 40 hours
a week on the Internet; (12) ______ they felt guilty, they became depressed if they were
made to stop using it.
(13)______ anyone can be at risk. Some of the addicts are teenagers who are already
hooked on computer games and who (14) ______ it very difficult to resist the games on the
Internet. Surprisingly, (15) ______, psychologists say that most victims are middle-aged
housewives who have never used a computer before.
1. A. blamed B. faulted C. mistaken D. accused
2. A. like B. such C. as D. for
3. A. lead B. affect C. take D. cause
4. A. offer B. suggest C. recommend D. advise
5. A. consisting B. including C. comprising D. composing
6. A. gaining B. lending C. borrowing D. winning
7. A. custom B. habit C. manner D. routine
8. A. considered B. realised C. thought D. taken
9. A. before B. after C. as soon as D. when
10. A. with B. to C. as D. in
11. A. betray B. deceive C. cheat D. lie
12. A. although B. despite C. unless D. without
13. A. Nearly all B. Most of C. Most D. Almost
14. A. say B. feel C. find D. have
15. A. but B. therefore C. however D. so

II. Fill each blank in the passage with ONE suitable word. (15 points)
SAVING THE TIGER
In 1973, when the tiger appeared to be facing extinction, the World Wide Fund for Nature
and the Indian Government agreed to set (16) _________'Operation Tiger' - a campaign to
save this threatened creature. They started (17) _________ creating nine special parks so that
tigers could live in safety. The first was at Ranthambhore, a region (18) _________ was
quickly turning into a desert because too much of the grass was being (19) _________ by the
local people's cattle. At the time there were just fourteen tigers (20) _________ there. The
government had to clear twelve small villages, which (21)________ moving nearly 1,000
people and 10,000 cattle so the land would be handed back to nature.
Today, Ranthambhore is a very different place (22) _________ grass tall enough for tigers
to hide in, and there are now at least forty of them in the park, (23) _________ freely about.
Other animals have also been raised. For example, there are more deer and monkeys than
before. The people who were moved are now living in better (24) _________ . They live in
new villages away from the tiger park, with schools, temples and fresh water supplies. There
are now sixteen such tiger parks in India and the animal's future looks a (25) _________
safer.

III. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following
questions. (15 points)
The biologist's role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the discovery
and development of new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and scientific value
systems. A scientist can no longer ignore the consequences of his discoveries; he is as
concerned with the possible misuses of his findings as he is with the basic research in which
he is involved. This emerging social and political role of the biologist and all other scientists
requires a weighing of values that cannot be done with the accuracy or the objectivity of a
laboratory balance. As a member of society, it is necessary for a biologist now to redefine his
social obligations and his functions, particularly in the realm of making judgments about
such ethical problems as man's control of his environment or his manipulation of genes to
direct further evolutionary development.
As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms, genetic engineering, by
which human traits are made to order, may soon be a reality. As desirable as it may seem to
be, such an accomplishment would entail many value judgments. Who would decide, for
example, which traits should be selected for change? In cases of genetic deficiencies and
disease, the desirability of the change is obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so
numerous that they may far outweigh the benefits.
Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will be to find
ways to curb environmental pollution without interfering with man’s constant effort to
improve the quality of his life. Many scientists believe that underlying the spectre of
pollution is the problem of surplus human population. A rise in population necessitates an
increase in the operations of modern industry, the waste products of which increase the
pollution of air, water, and soil. The question of how many people the resources of the Earth
can support is one of critical importance.
Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they do indicate
the need for biologists to work with social scientists and other members of society in order to
determine the requirements necessary for maintaining a healthy and productive planet. For
although many of man’s present and future problems may seem to be essentially social,
political, or economic in nature, they have biological ramifications that could affect the very
existence of life itself.
26. According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned about ____.
A his basic research B. the development of new ideas
C. his manipulation of genes D. the consequences of his discoveries
27. The pronoun "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ____.
A. a reality B. an accomplishment 
C. genetic engineering D. hereditary mechanism
28. It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering ____.
A. may do us more harm than good B. is no longer desirable
C. is the most desirable for life D. will change all human traits
29. The pronoun "they" in paragraph 2 refers to ____. 
A. discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms B. effects of genetic engineering misuse 
C. cases of genetic deficiencies D. possibilities for genetic deficiencies 
30. What is probably the most important biological problem mentioned in the passage?
A. social and economic deficiencies B. manipulation of genes 
C. genetic engineering misuse D. environmental pollution
31. The word "which" in paragraph 3 refers to ____.
A. activities of an overpopulated society's industry B. the waste products dumped into our
environment
C. activities of surplus human population D. serious environmental pollution
32. The word "underlying" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by "____".
A. noticing B. causing C. finding D. depriving
33. According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work
A. harder and harder B. accurately and objectively
C. on social and political purposes D. with other social scientists 
34. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "ramifications" in paragraph 4?
A. useful experiments B. effective techniques
C. harmful consequences D. latest developments 
35. What is the author's purpose in this passage?
A. To conduct a survey of the biologist's role in society
B. To urge biologists to solve the problem of surplus human population
C. To emphasize the biologist's role in solving the world's problems 
D. To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering
IV. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. (15 points):
a. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs 1 – 6 from the list of headings (A – I)
below. There is an example for you.
List of headings
A. Predicting climate changes
B. The relevance of the Little Ice Age today
C. How cities contribute to climate change
D. Human impact on the climate
E. How past climatic conditions can be determined
F. A growing need for weather records
G. A study covering a thousand years
H. People have always responded to climate change
I. Enough food at last
Example: Paragraph 1 ….H…..
36. Paragraph 2 ……………
37. Paragraph 3 ……………
38. Paragraph 4 …………….
39. Paragraph 5 …………….
40. Paragraph 6 …………….

THE LITTLE ICE AGE

1. This book will provide a detailed examination of the Little Ice Age and other climatic
shifts, but, before I embark on that, let me provide a historical context. We tend to
think of climate – as opposed to weather – as something unchanging, yet humanity has
been at the mercy of climate change for its entire existence, with at least eight glacial
episodes in the past 730,000 years. Our ancestors adapted to the universal but irregular
global warming since the end of the last great Ice Age, around 10,000 years ago, with
dazzling opportunism. They developed strategies for surviving harsh drought cycles,
decades of heavy rainfall or unaccustomed cold; adopted agriculture and stock raising,
 which revolutionised human life, and founded the world’s first pre-industrial
civilisations in Egypt, Mesopotamia and the Americas. But the price of sudden climate
change, in famine, disease and suffering, was often high.
2.
The Little Ice Age lasted from roughly 1300 until the middle of the nineteenth
century. Only two centuries ago, Europe experienced a cycle of bitterly cold winters:
mountain glaciers in the Swiss Alps were the lowest in recorded memory, and pack ice
surrounded Iceland for much of the year. The climatic events of the Little Ice Age did
more than help shape the modern world. They are the deeply important context for the
present unprecedented global warming. The Little Ice Age was far from a deep freeze,
however, rather an irregular seasaw of rapid climatic shifts, few lasting more than a
quarter-century, driven by complex and still little understood interactions between the
atmosphere and the ocean. The seasaw brought cycles of intensely cold winters and
easterly winds, then switched abruptly to years of heavy spring and early summer rains,
mild winters, and frequent Atlantic storms, or to periods of droughts, light northeasterly
winds, and summer heat waves.
3. Reconstructing the climate changes of the past is extremely difficult, because
systematic weather observations began only a few centuries ago, in Europe and North
America. Records from India and tropical Africa are even more recent. For the time
before records began, we have only ‘proxy records’ reconstructed largely from rings
and ice cores, supplemented by a few incomplete written accounts. We now have
hundreds of tree ring records from throughout the northern atmosphere, and many from
south of the equator, too, amplified with a growing body of temperature data from ice
cores drilled in Antarctica, Greenland, the Peruvian Andes, and other locations. We are
close to a knowledge of annual summer and winter temperature variations over much
of the northern hemisphere going back 600 years.
4.
This book is a narrative history of climatic shifts during the past ten centuries, and
some of the ways in which people in Europe adapted to them. Part One describes the
Medieval Warm period, roughly 900 to 1200. During these three centuries, Norse
voyagers from Northern Europe explored northern seas, settled Greenland, and visited
North America. It was not a time of uniform warmth, for then, as always since the
Great Ice Age, there were constant shifts in rainfall and temperature. Mean European
temperatures were about the same as today, perhaps slightly cooler.
5. It is known that the Little Ice Age cooling began in Greenland and the Arctic in about
1200. As the Arctic ice pack spread southward. Norse voyages to the west were
rerouted into the open Atlantic, then ended altogether. Storminess increased in the
North Atlantic and the North Sea. Cooler, much wetter weather descended on Europe
between 1315 and 1319, when thousands perished in a continent-wide famine. By
1400, the weather had become decidedly more unpredictable and stormier, with sudden
shifts and lower temperatures that culminated in the cold decades of the late sixteenth
century. Fish were a vital commodity in growing towns and cities, where food supplies
were a constant concern. Dried cod and herring were already the staples of the
European fish trade, but changes in water temperatures forced fishing fleets to work
 further offshore. The Basques, Dutch, and English developed the first offshore fishing
boats adapted to a colder and stormier Atlantic. A gradual agricultural revolution in
northern Europe stemmed from concerns over food supplies at a time of rising
populations. The revolution involved intensive commercial farming and the growing of
animal fodder on land not previously used for crops. The increased productivity from
farmland made some countries self-sufficient in grain and livestock and offered
effective protection against famine.
6.
Global temperatures began to rise slowly after 1850, with the beginning of the
Modern Warm Period. There was a vast migration from Europe by land-hungry farmers
and others, to which the famine caused by the Irish potato blight contributed, to North
America, Australia, New Zealand, and southern Africa. Millions of hectares of forests
and woodland fell before the newcomers’ axes between 1850 and 1890, and intensive
European farming methods expanded across the world. The unprecedented land
clearance released vast quantities of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, triggering for
the first time humanly caused global warming. Temperatures climbed more rapidly in
the twentieth century as the use of fossil fuels proliferated and greenhouse gas levels
continued to soar. The rise has been even steeper since the early 1980s. The Little Ice
Age has given way to a new climatic regime, marked by prolonged and steady
warming. At the same time, extreme weather events like Category 5 hurricanes are
becoming more frequent.
b. Complete the summary using the list of words, A – I below.
Weather during the Little Ice Age
Documentation of past weather conditions is limited: our main sources of knowledge of
conditions in the distant past are (41) _________ and (42) _________ .We can deduce that
the Little Ice Age was a time of (43) _________ rather than of consistent freezing. Within it
there were some periods of very cold winters, others of (44) _________ and heavy rain, and
yet others that saw (45) _________ with no rain at all.

A. climatic shifts B. ice cores C. tree rings

D. glaciers E. interactions F. weather observations
G. heat waves H. storms I. written accounts

VIII. Write a new sentence so that it has the same meaning as the original sentence: (5
points)
1. I am having a lot of trouble now because I lost my passport last week.
-> If I______________________________________________________________________
2. She had hardly begun to speak before people started interrupting her.
-> Hardly___________________________________________________________________
3. “Nothing will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house”, she said
-> She flatly________________________________________________________________
4. I was too scared to tell him what I really thought.
-> I lacked__________________________________________________________________
5. The house shouldn’t be left unlocked for any reason
-> On no___________________________________________________________________
IX. Write a new sentence so that it has the same meaning as the original sentence, using
the word in capital
letters. This word must not be altered in any way. (5 points)
6. We don’t expect that the missing climbers have survived. (HOLD)
______________________________________________________________________
7. Pauline isn’t one of the people who know the secret.( ON)
______________________________________________________________________
8. You must make allowances for his inexperience. (ACCOUNT)
______________________________________________________________________
9. I really don't know what you're talking about. (FAINTEST )
______________________________________________________________________
10. You must accept the fact that she has left you. (TERMS)
______________________________________________________________________
X. Write an essay on the following topic: (250 words) (20 points)
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement:
''Electronic devices are destroying the quality of human interaction.”
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN NGUYỄN TRÃI - HẢI DƯƠNG
ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CỤM CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
NĂM 2016
ĐÁP ÁN

PART A
I. (5 points)
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B
II. (5 points)
6. F 7. T 8. F 9. F 10. T
III. (10 points)
11. land 12. industries/trades 13. glass 14. salt 15.
villages
16. local 17. fuel 18. water proof 19. waste/wastage 20.
mixture/mix/combination

PART B
I. (20 points)
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5.C 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. C
11. D 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. C 16. D 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. B
II. (10 points)

Mistakes Corrections Mistakes Corrections

21. line 2: changed changeable 26. line 9: extremely extreme
22. line 3: mass masses 27. line 10: arise arising
23. line 4: a few few 28. line 11: distribute distributed
24. line 7: mild milder 29. line 12: far to
25. line 8: has have 30. line 13: depression depressions

III. (10 points)

31. of/to 32. with 33. for 34. to 35. off
36. up 37. down 38. at 39. out 40. with

IV. (20 points)

41. unprovoked 42. playwright 43. enclosing 44. updated 45 politician
46. long-term 47. sworn 48. whereupon 49. wittily 50 ahead
Part
PART C: READING
I. (15 points)
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. D 14.
C 15. C
II (15 points)
16. up 17. by 18. which/that 19. eaten 20. living
21. means/meant 22. with/having 23. wandering 24. condition 25. little/lot/bit
III. (15 points)
26. D 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. D
31. A 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. C
IV. (15 points)
a.
36. paragraph 2: B
37. paragraph 3: E
38. paragraph 4: G
39. paragraph 5: I
40. paragraph 6: D
b. 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. H 45. G
PART D: WRITING
I. (5 points)
1. If I hadn’t lost my passport last week, I wouldn’t be having so much trouble now.
2. Hardly had she begun to speak before/when people started interrupting her.
3. She flatly refused to sleep in the/in that haunted house.
4. I lacked the courage to tell him what I really thought.
5. On no account should the house be left unlocked.
II. (5 points)
6. We don’t hold out much hope for the missing climbers.
7. Pauline hasn’t been let in on the secret.
8. You must take his inexperience into account./Or You must take account of his
inexperience
9. I don't have the faintest idea what you're talking about.
10. You must come to terms with the fact that she has left you.
III. (25 points)
TAPESCRIPT 1
FE: And now here’s Jasmine, who’s come to tell us about this week’s charity.
JA: Hi Fergus. This week I’m going to talk about Forward thinking and their plans for the
Colville Centre. So, in recent years, peple have realised how useful the arts can be within
healthcare. The idea behind Forward thinking is to use the arts to promote wellbeing. The
charity develops projects for people with special needs and health problems, and also delivers
training to healthcare professionals in using the arts, as well as supplying them with
informantion and advice. Forward thinking doesn’t just run art and craft classes to distract
people who are ill, or recovering from illness, but arranges long-term projects and courses, as
it’s been shown that the arts can bring all sort of positive changes in patients, including
benefits such as shortening the length of stay in hospital and reducing the amount of
medicine they need.
FE: I see.
JA: Forward thinking has experience of working with a broad range of people from young
adults with learning difficulties to older people in homes or daycare centres, and people with
physical disabilities. The organization’s been around since 1986, and gradually expanded
during the 1990s. Then in the new millennium, it was decided to find a memorable name, so
it’s been operating as Forward thinking for several years, er, in fact since 2005. It’s quite a
locally based charity, mainly for people in the southern part of this region, which include all
rural and urban communities outside the city of Clifton, which has its own organization.
There are of course some similar charities in other parts of the country, in London and so on.
FE: Mm. And what’s the present fundraising in aid of?
JA: Yeah. Well, the charity needs funding in order to buy the Colville Centre. Thid is a
former village school, which was built in 1868. It was modernized and refurbished by the
present owners last year, so it’s ideal for art classes and for small social events,
performances, seminars and so on. Forward thinking is fund-raising to purchase the building
so they can use it to continue running classes and so on for the general public and eventually
also for some of the people they help.
TAPESCRIPT 2 IN: INTERVIEWER
IN: Welcome back to the progamme. Well, statistics show that the fastest growing sports in
Britain are adventure sports, and I have with me Stan Leach, an official at the Sports
Council, who’s going to tell us a bit about some of them. Stan, where shall we start?

Stan: Well, most people start with walking, I think – although of course strictly speaking it’s
not necessarily an adventure sport, but it’s what gets most people outdoors. Indeed, the great
thing about walking in Britain is the endless variety, from an easy stroll to a country pub, to
an energetic walk up a high peak. If you want to take up walking, you can start with a few
short circular walks and then pick something longer and more demanding.

IN: What’s this thing called scrambling I’ve been hearing about?
Stan: Yeah, scrambling is sort of in the grey area between walking and climbing. Scrambles
are graded according to difficulty, and on the harder ones, which are quite close to rock
climbing, it’s best to go with an expert.

IN: Well, that brings us nicely on to climbing – that’s really caught on here lately, hasn’t it?
Stan: Yes, and of course you know it doesn’t have to mean going up the really big ones like
Everest. Climbing might seem rather terrifying to begin with, but it’s great fun and really
keep you fit. You start by climbing small crags before moving on to a rock face. I went for a
day’s lesson with mountaineer Alan Kimber in Scoland and it was really scary but really
exciting.

IN: Right, well, what’s next?

Stan: Mountain biking. If you can get used to the saddle, you can cycle across Britain. But
unlike in the USA, where there are special cycling paths, In Britain, most of the paths are the
same as for walkers, which can cause a bit of trouble. After the initial investment, there’s one
bike that costs four thousand pounds but you can get very good one for two hundred – it’s a
cost-efficient sport. And there are relatively easy trips, such as the Pyrenees Traverse, which
has 70% downhill slopes with no major climbs.

TAPESCRIPT 3

Thank you for coming to this series of talks. Before I talk in detail about the experiments and
innovations of the British ceramicists, I’d like to give you a summary of the social and
manufacturing background in which they lived and worked. So, we are talking about
England, or more specifically, the region known as ‘The Midlands’, and we need to go back,
mainly to the 18th century and, briefly, even earlier, to put it in a global context.
Now, at that period the majority of the population, whatever their station in life, as you may
say, were dependent for their living, in one way or another, not on the geographical location
of where they lived, but on the physical characteristics of the actual land they lived on. This
is true, whether we’re talking about the aristocracy, the owners of great estates, who
incidentally had no snobbery about the concept of making money from all the reserves of
coal, or timber, or stone on their rolling acres, or the farmers making a fat living from the rich
soils. And besides these groups, and the less affluent ones, the deposits of iron ore and lead,
the limestone and flint and the brown and yellow clay also sustained the numerous industries
in the area.
It’s important to recognize that it was already an industrial region, and had been so for
centuries. There were many Midland trades, some of them indigenous, some of them not. For
example, there were immigrants from France who came as early as the late 16 th century and
they were the producers of glass. A century later, there is plenty of evidence that the variety
of trades was enormous: there was brewing in Burton-onTrent; silk weaving and ribbon-
making near Coventry; framework knitting around Nottingham. And of course, in Cheshire
men dug the salt, as we still do nowadays even, which in that era was sent downriver to the
estuary os the Mersey.
Now, among these well-established trades, one of the oldest of the local crafts was pottery.
As you will probably be aware, ceramics has always been a mix of science, design and skill,
and a good potter is in a sence an experimental chemist, trying out new mixes and glazes, and
needing to be alert to the impact of changes of temperature on different types of clay. For 200
years, up to the time we are concerned with, potters had been making butterpots and pitchers
and patterned plates, using the clay which was plentiful in the area where they lived – in a
handful of North Staffordshire villages dotted along the low hills.
Now I want to explain a little about the industrial processes which had preceded the great
breakthrough in Germany in 1708. That’s when the formula for porcelain was discovered, a
secret that had been held in China for a thousand years. In the Midlands, in England, as
elsewhere, there had basically been two kinds of pottery. The first was known, is still known,
as ‘earthernware’.
Now this was a bit rough and ready, but it was deservedly popular for several reasons. To
start with, it was relatively cheap, so it could be used by most households. This was because
it could be made from local clay without any complicated processing or added materials.
From the potter’s point of view, there was another reason for its cheapness. This was that it
could be fired in simple ovens, or kilns, and at a relatively low temperatures, so he didn’t
have to spend so much money on fuel to achieve the necessary heat. On the other hand, after
one firing in the kiln, the problem with earthenware was that it remained porous so had
limited usefulness. So for most purposes, it had to go back in the kiln for a second firing
before it became waterproof.
And another thing was that it was extremely breakable – I mean, before it had been sold. I
suppose the potter wouldn’t have minded so much if people just had to keep coming back for
more every time they broke a jug or whatever! – but it was very inconvenient because it
meant there was a lot of wastage in the course of the manufacturing process.
Anyway, for all these reasons, if people could afford it, and that would be all but the very
poor, they would buy a stoneware, a much tougher product.
Now, for this, the potter used a slightly more expensive raw material, which was made by
combining clay and flint and this mixture was fired at a far higher heat, with the result that
the ingredients vitrified, that is to say, in effect the whole thing became glassy and because of
this it was non-porous, and natually, this was regarded as a great advance.
Well, that’s the situation in the 18th century. Are there any questions at this stage? Ok. So,
now we can go on to look at the age of innovation
 HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN

VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ ĐỀ THI MÔN: ANH VĂN

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HƯNG YÊN KHỐI 10

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT Năm học: 2015-2016

(Đề thi gồm 22 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

I. LISTENING (40 points):

Section 1: Questions 1 – 5: You will hear two students talking about their presentations
at university. For each of the following questions, choose the option which fits best to
what you hear. You will listen to the recording twice. (10 pts)

1. Sarah felt nervous because____.

A. too many people were watching her.
B. she doesn’t like Professor Stone.
C. she realized the professor would be taking notes.
2. Sarah thought that Charlie’s main weakness was _____.
A. his Power Point presentation.
B. the accompanying music.
C. the speech itself.
3. Charlie feels that he can improve if he _______.
A. spends more time on his visuals.
B. provides more examples.
C. reduces the length of his speech by two minutes.
4. Sarah is worried about her written work because ______.
A. her essays are too long.
 B. she feels her grades are low.
C. she hasn’t done enough essays.
5. What does Charlie think about Sarah’s presentation?
A. He thinks it is useful.
B. He thinks it doesn’t have a focus.
C. He thinks some parts are redundant.

Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Section 2: Questions 6 – 10: You will hear a conversation between a man, Marcus and
a woman, Cora, who work in the same office. Decide if each of the following statement
is true (T) or false (F) according to what you hear. You will listen to the recording
twice. (10 pts)

6. Cora disagrees with Marcus about the cause of the traffic jams.

7. Marcus agrees that cycling to work would be good for him.

8. Marcus believes employers should provide buses.

9. Marcus agrees to try coming to work by bus tomorrow.

10. Cora suggests that Marcus is lazy.

Your answers

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Section 3: Questions 11 – 20: You will hear a woman talking to a man who works for a
travel agency. Complete the note below with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS
AND/OR A NUMBER. Write your answer in the corresponding numbered boxes. You
will listen to the recording twice. (20 pts)
 SAFARI HOLIDAY

 Holiday begins on (11)__________.

 Minimum age is (12) _________ years.
 Each day group covers (13) _______ of the Serengeti plains.
 Holiday costs (14) ______ per person sharing.
 All food included except (15) ______.
 More information is available at www. (16)________.com
 Price is inclusive of (17) _______.
 The holiday promoter offers a (18) _______ of your money back if all the
animals on the list are not spotted.
 Tour is popular, so travelers are advised to (19) _______.
 A (20) ______ of 500 pounds is required to secure your place.

Your answers

11. 12. 13.

14. 15. 16.
17. 18. 19.
20.
II. LEXICO–GRAMMAR (60 points)
Part 1: Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and
write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 pts)
1. The _____ of the Syrian boy drowned off Turkey has aroused the world’s pity.
A. event B. situation C. case D. plight
2. At long last the building is nearing______.
A. finish B. termination C. completion D. finale
3. There is a(n)______ of difference between our two lifestyles.
 A. land B. way C. world D. arm
4. People can make themselves walk on nails or through fire. It’s a question of mind
over______.
A. body B. material C. matter D. facts
5. Many people were wounded after the terrorists started ______ with machine guns.
A. blazing away B. whipping up C. shouting out D. blazing up
6. At the moment, the ruling party is on the ______ of a dilemma.
A. hooves B. points C. feet D. horns
7. By attacking the old lady, the youth committed a _____ crime.
A. naughty B. heinous C. bad D. evil
8. Twelve European countries ____ over to the euro on January 1st 2002.
A. shifted B. switched C. transformed D. altered
9. Some of the chocolate bars were found to contain glass and the whole batch had to
be____.
A. overthrown B. overdrawn C. recalled D. retracted
10. His voice has been_____ to that of Elton John.
A. equated B. equaled C. likened D. associated
11. The match was _____ and will be played next Wednesday.
A. pelted down B. poured out C. rained off D. seen through
12. He didn’t have a ______ of evidence to support his claims.
A. scrap B. sign C. sense D. state
13. I bought the chocolates on______: I saw them while I was queuing up to pay.
A. desire B. urge C. spontaneity D. impulse
14. Members of the rock group were asked to ____ their behavior or else leave the
hotel.
A. modify B. amend C. transfer D. convert
 15. We have all passed our final exams. We are going to ______ the town red to
celebrate.
A. color B. decorate C. paint D. make
16. The organizing committee should be quite small. Too many cooks spoil the _____.
A. soup B. porridge C. cake D. broth
17. I have a _____ in my throat. I think I am getting a cold.
A. fly B. bee C. toad D. frog
18. Some supporters were _____ at the entrance because the ground was full.
A. sent off B. turned away C. booked up D. shut down
19. Suddenly a car ______ and an important-looking official got out.
A. stopped over B. drew up C. stopped out D. called by
20. It’s a good idea to divide a task up into ______ chunks.
A. portable B. pliable C. manageable D. thinkable

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2: For questions 21–30, read the following text which contains 10 mistakes.
Underline the errors and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes.
There is an example at the beginning (0). (10 pts)

Line The Malaysian Airlines plane MH 370 is not the first disappearing without
trace. Even if it is, this is highly unusual. In 2009, an Air France airbus jet
also vanished of radar screen. Wreckage from the lost aircraft were
eventually found in the Atlantic yet the causes of the crash remained
 5 mystery until voice and data recorders were found years later. The final
report said human error was partly blamed. ‘Today aircrafts are incredibly
reliable and you do not get some sudden structure failure in a flight’, said
Mr. Louis, an aviation expert in New York said. ‘It just doesn’t happen. It
just won’t happen’, he added. Boeing describes its 777 model a super star.
10 First flown in 1995, more than a thousand planes now rolled up the
production line. It can travel for 16 hours non-stop and experts point to its
impressive safe record with one fatal crash in 5 million flights. It could
take investigators months if years to determine what exactly happened to
the Malaysian aircraft but experts believe what happened was quick and
15 left the pilot no time to put a distress call.

Your answers

1. line 1: 21. line 22. line 23. line

disappearingto
disappear
24. line 25. line 26. line 27. line
28. line 29. line 30. line

Part 3: For questions 31–40, fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable
prepositions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an
example at the beginning (0). (10 pts)

1. He finds it hard to put _________ the noise of the nearby factory.

31.President Obama’s statement was seen as an allusion______ the recent mass
shooting.
32.I don’t think Mr. Anderson is convinced ______ the man’s honesty.
33.Wealth is not necessarily synonymous _______ happiness.
 34.Rob drove the audience mad because he spent half of his presentation
beating______ the bush.
35.They made a surprise assault ______ their enemies and gained control of the town.
36.______retrospect, she was the person who had made the greatest sacrifice to him.
37.The film was so funny that everybody seemed to laugh their head_____.
38.The police are combing the area for two men who held_____ the local bank and
got away with a million dollar.
39.I was very impressed with the standard of the speaker. He was brilliant at
answering questions _____ the cuff.
40.The mother was blind _____ her son’s fault and tried to defense him stubbornly.

Your answers

0. up with
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

Part 4: For questions 41–50, use the word in capitals at the end of each of the following
sentences to form a word that fits suitably in the blank. There is an example at the
beginning (0). (20 pts)

ANGER

We’ve all felt anger at some time, whether as faint (0)________(ANNOY) or blind rage.
Anger is a normal, sometime useful human emotion, but uncontrolled (41)_________
(BURST) of temper can be destructive. People who give free rein to their anger,
regardless of the (42) __________(OFFEND) this may cause, haven’t learned to express
themselves (43)____________(CONSTRUCT),’ says Martin Smolik, who runs weekend
residential courses in anger management. ‘It is important to maintain your (44)
_________(COMPOSE) and put your case in an assertive, not aggressive manner without
hurting others. Being assertive doesn’t mean being pushy or demanding; it means being
(45) __________ (RESPECT) of yourself and other people.’ He adds that people who are
easily angered are (46)____________ (TOLERATE) of frustration, inconvenience or
irritation and, not surprisingly find relating to other people very difficult. But what causes
people to behave like this? It seems there is evidence to support the idea that some
children may be born (47) _________ (IRRITATE) and prone to anger and this tendency
is sometimes apparent from a very early age. However, research also suggests that a
person’s family (48)___________(GROUND) may have an influence. Very often, people
who are (49)_____________(TEMPER) and often find it difficult to express their
emotions come from (50)___________(ORGANIZE) and disruptive families.

Your answers

0. Annoyance 41. 42. 43.

44. 45. 46. 47.
48. 49. 50.

III. READING (60 points)

Part 1: For questions 1–15, read the following passages and decide which answer (A, B,
C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. There
is an example at the beginning (0). (15 pts)

KIWI SURPRISE

When a work project ()_______ me the opportunity to return to New Zealand, I spent
several weeks (1)_______ a country I had left in my early twenties. I’d forgotten about
the petrol stations where men in smart uniforms (2)_______ to you. They fill your tank,
(3)_______your oil and still (4)_______you less than one third of the British price for
fuel. And the people rush to your assistance if they see you (5)_______over a map. Or the
blissful (6)_______of tips. Locals simply cannot understand why anybody should
(7)_______to pay extra for friendly efficient service.

Given that New Zealand has about 3,000 kilometers of coastline, it should come as no
(8)_______that social life (9)_______around the sea. When Auckland office workers
leave their desks at the end of the working day, they don’t (10)_______home. Instead,
they (11)_______ a beeline for the marina and spend the evening (12)_______ sail on the
Hauraki Gulf. There are more yachts in Auckland than in any other city in the world- no
wonder it’s called the City of Sails. Even those who can’t afford a (13)_______ of their
own will always know someone who has one, or at the (14)_______ least, will windsurf
the offshore breezes at speeds that make the commuter ferries appear to stand
(15)_______.

1. A. gave B. offered C. sent D. lent

2. A. regaining B. recapturing C. refamiliarizing D. rediscovering
3. A. assist B. attend C. supply D. serve
4. A. control B. measure C. check D. calculate
5. A. charge B. ask C. require D. demand
6. A. pointing B. doubting C. clamoring D. puzzling
7. A. absence B. shortage C. removal D. neglect
8. A. accept B. insist C. expect D. respond
9. A. wonder B. surprise C. amazement D. news
10. A. centers B. revolves C. turns D. gathers
11. A. move B. aim C. head D. divert
12. A. have B. do C. get D. make
13. A. under B. by C. with D. on
14. A. vehicle B. hull C. vessel D. receptacle
15. A. simple B. single C. utmost D. very
16. A. still B. dead C. afloat D. upright

Your answers

0. B
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 2: For questions 16–25, read the text below and think of the word which best fits
each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in corresponding
numbered boxes. (15 pts)

HERBS AND SPICES

There is nothing (16) ________in the use of herbs and spices. They have enriched human
life for thousands of years, providing (17) _______comfort and luxury. They have
flavored our food, cured our ailments and surrounded us with sweet scents. They have
also played their (18)______in our folklore and magic. It (19)_______be a very different
world without them.

Nobody really knows who first used herbs and spices, or for (20) ______ purpose. All
their properties were known to the ancient Greeks and Egyptians as well as those (21)
______ in early Biblical times. The knowledge that they employed, and that we still use
today, must have been based on the trial and (22) ______ of early human, who was
originally drawn to the plants (23)______ of their tantalizing aroma. He gradually
discovered their individual effects on his food and well-being and our use of them comes
from those early experiments. For centuries herbs and spices were appreciated to the
(24)_______ but in modern times the arrival of the convenience foods and new medicines
of the twentieth century almost made us forget them. But anything that has been so much
loved and valued will never be completely neglected. The knowledge has been (25)
______ alive and in our present-day search for all things natural, herbs and spices have
come into their own again.

Your answers

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

Part 3: For questions 26–35, read the text below and choose the correct answer (A, B, C
or D). Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts)

Forgetful Brains

Humans have always had trouble remembering certain details. One person has the
unique experience of recalling in almost exact detail a memory from his childhood, but
he cannot remember what he ate for lunch yesterday. Another cannot recall names of
people she met five minutes ago, but she remembers the names of people she met from an
hour before. Psychologists have searched for answers to the memory phenomenon to
better understand how the brain functions and what triggers memory or causes
forgetfulness. After extensive research over the past century, they have come up with
some basic theories to help explain memory loss.

There are times when an individual loses all recollection of an event. This is referred to
as the decay theory, which states that if memories are not recalled from time to time, they
fade and then gradually drop from a person’s memory. Decay is proven to occur with
sensory memories, or short-term memories, if they are not recalled or rehearsed. Decay of
long-term memory is harder to explain because these memories last through the passage
of time. In fact, some knowledge can be accessed many years after it was first learned.
Research on students who took Spanish courses in high school revealed that they still
remembered a great deal of Spanish fifty years later, even though they had hardly used
the language. While some memories tend to decay, others remain burned into the recesses
of the brain, causing psychologists to further ponder the workings of memory.

Another explanation made by researchers concerning memory loss is known as

interference. Under this theory, an individual forgets a memory when similar information
enters the mind and interferes with the original memory in either the storage or retrieval
area of the brain. The information is somewhere in the person’s memory, but it gets
confused with other details. This occurs in both short-term and long-term memory and is
most common when a person tries to recall isolated facts. For instance, a woman goes to
a party and meets a man named Joe at the front door. Half an hour later, she is introduced
to Jason. When she sees Joe again, she accidentally calls him Jason. This is retroactive
interference. The newest information input replaces the old information, causing the
woman to mistakenly call the first man by the wrong name. Additionally, people may
suffer from proactive interference. A new student meets his first professor, Dr. Mack, in
his English class. When he has history, he meets Dr. Miller. However, he frequently calls
both teachers Dr. Mack, since that is the first name he had learned. Remembering the first
set of information and not remembering the next is proactive interference. The old
information interfered with the student’s ability to recall the newer information.

When a person needs to remember something, he frequently relies on cues, or

reminders, to help him retrieve a specific memory. When he lacks the cue to recall the
memory, the person suffers from cue-dependent forgetting. This may be the most
common type of forgetfulness. Psychologist Willem Wagenaar did a year-long study
during which he recorded events from his life daily. After a year’s time, he could not
remember twenty percent of the critical details, and after five years, he had forgotten
sixty percent. However, he compiled cues from ten witnesses to some events in his past
that he believed he had forgotten, and he was able to recall pieces of information about
all ten. Thus, when he had cues to help him retrieve his memories, he could remember his
experiences, illustrating that he was somewhat cue-dependent. Cognitive psychologists
believe that these specific cues help direct a person to the area of the brain where
the memory is stored or they match up with information linked to the actual
memory the person is seeking.

26. The word ‘triggers’ in the passage is closest in meaning to

(A) closes (B) cues (C) review (D) erases

27. According to paragraph 2, decay of short-term memories can be avoided by

(A) remembering associations

(B) removing immediate distractions

(C) recollecting information often

(D) taking time to acquire input

28. What can be inferred about the decay theory from paragraph 2?

(A) Memories from big events always remain in the mind.

(B) Memory decay arises from specific circumstances.

(C) Recalling old memories prevent their decay.

(D) Most people suffer from some degree of memory decay.

29. Where can the following sentence be most possibly added to the passage?
However, the age of the memory does not enable psychologists to predict which
memories will disappear and which will remain.

(A) Right before the sentence “This is referred to as…a person’s memory”

(B) Right before the sentence “In fact, some knowledge…first learned”

(C) Right before the sentence “Research on students…the language”

(D) Right after the sentence “while some memories…of memory”

30. The word ‘ponder’ in the paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) consider (B) explain (C) forget (D) understand

31. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 3 as interference EXCEPT:

(A) Confusing newly learned facts with other details

(B) Confusing old memories with current situations

(C) Remembering the first information but forgetting the second set

(D) Recalling the last information acquired but losing the first

32. In paragraph 3, the author discusses remembering and forgetting names in order to

(A) demonstrate memory interference

(B) refute proactive and retroactive interference

(C) advocate acquiring new memories

(D) reveal the workings of forgetfulness

33. The word ‘isolated’ in the passage is closest in meaning to

(A) complex (B) angry (C) remote (D) ignored

34. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that a cue-dependent person

(A) can remember details or events when clues are present

(B) relies on clues too much when retrieving his memories

(C) cannot remember details or events without assistance from other people

(D) can only remember details or events unless clues are present

35. Which of the sentences below best express the essential information in the bold
sentence “Cognitive psychologists…..the person is seeking.” in the passage4? Incorrect
choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

(A) Cues about an event lead a person back to the part of the brain storing the memory.

(B) Psychologists are able to link cues to areas of a person’s brain when he or she is
forgetful.

(C) Information stored within the brain cannot be linked to specific memories after time.

(D) A person can find specific memories by using context cues about an experience.

Your answers

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

Part 3. For questions 36–40, choose the correct heading for each paragraph A–F from
the list of headings below (i-ix). There are more headings than paragraphs. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning.

List of Headings
i How fragile X syndrome was discovered
ii The genetic basis of the fragile X syndrome
iii Fragile X syndrome and developmental delays in the brain
iv New treatments for fragile X syndrome
v The comparative frequency of fragile X syndrome
vi Research into understanding fragile X syndrome
vii Reason for the increase of fragile X syndrome
viii Other conditions related to cognitive development
ix Examples of the symptoms of fragile X syndrome

Example Answer
Paragraph E v

36 Paragraph A
37 Paragraph B
38 Paragraph C
39 Paragraph D
40 Paragraph F

Your answers
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

A. A condition that causes children to dislike being hugged and sometimes reject all
physical affection is closer to being understood following research into the part of
the brain responsible for our senses. Scientists at Northwestern University, Illinois,
and the University of Edinburgh explored fragile X syndrome, a condition
associated with hypersensitivity to sounds, touch, smells and visual stimuli that can
 result in social withdrawal or anxiety. Hypersensitivity is a condition in which the
person affected responds in an excessive way to contact with the world around
them. Some sufferers are even hypersensitive to material on their skin.
B. The scientists found that critical phases in the brain’s development may be
wrongly timed in people with the condition. This may result in delayed
communication between certain neurons in the brain. By recording electrical
signals in the brains of mice, bred to exactly copy the effect of the condition, the
researchers found that connections in the brain’s sensory cortex were late to
develop fully. The study, published in the journal Neuron, found that normal neural
connections in the sensory cortex occur much earlier than previously thought: in
the first week of pregnancy in mice, which is equivalent to the middle of the
second trimester (or fifth month) of pregnancy in humans. In fragile X syndrome,
the mistiming also has a domino effect, causing further problems with the correct
wiring of the brain. The hope is that by understanding how and when the functions
of the brain are affected in fragile X syndrome, a therapy may become possible.
C. ‘There is a “critical period” during development, when the brain is very plastic and
is changing rapidly,’ said Anis Contractor, from the Feinberg School of Medicine
at Northwestern University. ‘All the elements of this rapid development have to be
coordinated so that the brain becomes wired correctly and therefore functions
properly.’ People with the syndrome have cognitive problems as well as sensory
problems that make them physically weaker. ‘They have tactile defensiveness,’ Dr
Contractor said. ‘They don’t look in people’s eyes, they won’t hug their parents,
and they are hypersensitive to touch and sound. All of this causes anxiety for
family and friends as well as for the fragile X patients themselves.’ Peter Kind,
who led the study at the University of Edinburgh, said: ‘We know there are key
windows during which the brain develops, both in the womb and afterwards. The
 general principle is that if these time windows have shifted, then that could explain
the cognitive problems.’
D. Professor Kind said that this could be demonstrated by the fact that a child with a
cataract (a medical condition in which the lens of the eye becomes less and less
transparent) that was not corrected would become permanently blind in the
affected eye, whereas an adult would be able to regain their sight after an
operation. ‘We’ve learnt that these changes happen much earlier than previously
thought, which gives valuable insight into when we should begin therapeutic
intervention for people with these conditions,’ he said. ‘It’s also has implications
for the treatment of autism since the changes in the brains of people with fragile X
syndrome and autistic people are thought to significantly overlap.’ Autism, as
many people know, is a disability that affects how a person communicates with
and relates to other people, and how they make sense of the world.
E. Fragile X syndrome is as common as cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that
commonly affects the lungs and causes breathing difficulties, and that affects about
1 in 4,000 males and 1 in 8,000 females worldwide. The Fragile X Society believes
that there are many people who have fragile X syndrome but have never been
diagnosed. It shows up in early infancy and progressively worsens throughout
childhood, causing intellectual disability as well as social, language and behavioral
problems.
F. Fragile X syndrome is caused by a gene mutation on the X chromosome – one of
the two chromosomes that determine the gender or sex of a person. The mutation
interferes in the production of a protein called fragile X mental retardation protein.
Fragile X is so-named because the X chromosome appears broken or kinked. Tim
Potter, of the Fragile X Society, said: ‘We welcome any research that helps us
understand fragile X and which may open the way to reversing the effect of
preventing them ever happening’.
Question 41-45

Complete the summary of paragraphs A and B below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in spaces 41-45

People with fragile X syndrome are extremely sensitive to sensory (41)_________. Some
sufferers are even (42)_______ to clothing. The condition is the result of the connections
within the (43 _______ of the brain not being made at the right time. Instead, the neurons
of people with the condition establish connections later than should happen, which is
normally in the second (44)_______ of pregnancy in humans. By understanding how the
brain’s (45)_______ are affected, scientists hope to develop a treatment.

Your answers
41. 42. 43. 44. 45.
IV. WRITING (40 points)

Part 1:
For questions 1–5, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means
exactly the There is an example at the beginning (0).

1. I haven’t enjoyed myself so much for years.

It’s years …………….…....since I enjoyed myself so much……….…... .
1. “I think opinion polls are worthless,” he said.
He dismissed…………………………………………………………
2. The harsh criticism of the Prime Minister was quite unjustified.
There…………………………………………………………………
3. It was more of a business contract than a marriage.
It was not so…………………………………………………………..
 4. They stand a good chance of winning the case.
The chances..…………………………………………………………..
5. It doesn’t matter what happens, we’ll stay side by side.
Come………………………………………………………………….

For questions 6–10, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the
first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. There is an example
at the beginning (0).

0. It’s no use arguing: I’ve made up my mind.

point
…..…. There’s no point in arguing: ……… I’ve made up my mind.

6. I need someone to take my place at the ceremony. (STAND)

…………………………………………………………………………
7. He owed his life to a passer-by. (INDEBTED)
…………………………………………………………………………
8. I had suspicion when they offered me such a high interest rate. (RAT)
…………………………………………………………………………
9. It is certain that the new cuts will worry the staff. (BOUND)
…………………………………………………………………………
10.Money has no value on a desert island. (COUNTS)
…………………………………………………………………………

Part 2:
It has been said, “Not everything that is learned is contained in books.” Compare and
contrast knowledge gained from experience with knowledge gained from books, in
your opinion, which source is more important? Write a paragraph of about 150
words to express your opinion.
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………..The end………..

Người ra đề

Nguyễn Thu Hà

(Điện thoại liên hệ: 0988 838 638)

 HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN

VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HƯNG YÊN MÔN: ANH VĂN

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT KHỐI 10

Năm học: 2015-2016

I. LISTENING (40 points)

Part 1: (10 points – 2 points/correct answer)

1. C 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A

Part 2: (10 points – 2 points /correct answer)

6. T 7. F 8. F 9. F 10. T

Part 3: (20 points – 2 points/correct answer)

11. May 21st 12. 14 13. 20 km

14. $675.99 (dollar) 15. evening meals 16. safarafaria
17. flights 18. guarantee 19. book early
20. deposit

II. LEXICO–GRAMMAR (60 points)

Part 1: (20 points – 1 point/correct answer)

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. A
6. D 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. C
11. C 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. C
16. D 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. C
Part 2: (10 points – 1 point/correct answer)

0. line 1: to disappear 21. line 3: offrom 22. line 3: werewas

23. line 5: mystery 24. line 6: blamed 25. line 6:
a mystery/mysterious to blame aircraftsaircraft
26. line 9: aas a 27. line: rolled 28. line 13: safesafety
have rolled
29. line 14: ifif not 30. line 15: put
make/place

Part 3: (10 points – 1 point/correct answer)

0. up with
31. to 32. of 33. with 34. about 35. on/upon
36. in 37. off 38. up 39. off 40. to
Part 4: (20 points – 2 points/correct answer)

0. Annoyance 41. outbursts 42. offence 43. constructively

44. composure 45. respectful 46. intolerant 47. irritable
48. background 49. quick-tempered/ 50. disorganized
hot-tempered/
bad-tempered

III. READING (60 points)

Part 1: (15 points – 1 point/correct answer)

0. A
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D
6. A 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. C
 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A

Part 2: (15 points – 1.5 points/correct answer)

16. new 17. both 18. part 19. would 20. what
21. living 22. error 23. because 24. full 25. kept

Part 3: (15 points – 1.5 points/correct answer)

26. B 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. A

31. B 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. A

Part 4: (15 points – 1.5 points/correct answer)

36. vi 37. iii 38. ix 39. viii 40. ii

41. stimuli 42. hypersensitive 43. sensory cortex 44. trimester 45. functions
IV. WRITING (40 points)

Part 1: (15 points – 1.5 points/correct answer)

1. He dismissed opinion polls as (being) worthless.

2. There was no justification for the harsh criticism of the Prime Minister.
3. It was not so much a marriage as a business contract.
4. The chances are that they will win the case.
5. Come what may, we’ll stay side by side.
6. I need someone to stand in for me at the ceremony.
7. He was indebted to a passer-by for his life.
8. I smelt a rat when they offered me such a high interest rate.
9. The new cuts are bound to worry the staff.
10.Money counts for nothing on a desert island.
Part 2: (25 points)

The mark given to part 2 is based on the following criteria:

 Organization (25%):
 3 parts ( topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence)
 topic sentence: consists of topic and controlling idea.
 concluding sentence: summarizes the main supporting ideas/ restates the
topic sentence and gives personal opinion.
 Content, coherence and cohesion (25%):
 supporting sentences: support directly main idea stated in the topic sentence
and provide logical, persuasive examples.
 use of transition signals appropriately
 Lexical resource (25%):
 The writer uses synonyms and paraphrases flexibly.
 The writer uses topic-related vocabulary.
 Grammatical range and accuracy (25%):
 The writer uses a wide range of sentence structures (simple, compound and
complex)
 The writer uses verb tense and forms accurately.
 The writer shows good control of spelling and punctuation.
 LISTENING TRANSCRIPT

Part 1.

Charlie: Oh, I’m glad that’s over! How do you think you did in the presentation,
Sarah?

Sarah: I don’t really know. It’s hard to tell. I followed all the instructions on my
handout but when I came to do it, I felt really nervous.

Charlie: How come? I always thought you’d be a good speaker. Was it because
Professor Stone was taking notes or because we were all watching?

Sarah: Well, I already knew that you’d all be watching me so I was prepared for
that, but I hadn’t thought about him writing anything down. He hardly looked at
me. I don’t even know if he noticed all the work I’d put into it.

Charlie: Of course, he did. He hardly looked at any of us. Anyway, I’m sure we all
felt the same. I certainly did. I’m much happier in front of the computer monitor.
I’m not a very confident speaker at the best of times. You know I hate giving
speeches in front of an audience. Remember what I was like when we all had to
stand up and talk about ourselves at the beginning of the course. Anyway, what did
you think of mine? Be honest.

Sarah: Well, I was impressed by the visuals. You’re certainly good with
computers. I wish my PowerPoint was as good as yours. The images conveyed
your ideas really clearly and the background music was great.

Charlie: You think so? Did you really like it? I changed my mind about the
soundtrack at the last minute but it was too late to do anything about it.

Sarah: No, the music was perfect. It wasn’t too loud either. We could hear you
easily right from the back of the room. Next time you can help me with mine. I can
never find the right piece of music. Um... My only criticism would be that you read
from the screen a bit too much without going into much detail.

Charlie: You mean that I needed to spend more time on developing my ideas
(uhu). Yeah, you’re right. I spent far too long on the visuals and not enough time
on thinking about what I was going to say and that’s why I finished with more than
2 minutes to spare. I’ve got to include more examples in my next one.

Sarah: Well, I had the opposite problem. I kept going off the point and went well
over time. You see when I’m nervous; I tend to talk too much. I’m bound to lose
points from that.

Charlie: Oh, I don’t know – he might give you more content (laughs). He’s
always going on about not dropping below the word limit in our written
assignments. You know what he’s like. More is better.

Sarah: I do hope so. He’s always so critical about everything I write. I never get
more than a B.

Charlie: Cheer up! We’ve only done 2 essays so far and I only got a C in my first
one. So, how do you think I interacted with the audience?

Sarah: Well, I don’t know about Professor Stone, but we enjoyed it a lot. It was
funny in places but you kept to the point. How about mine?

Charlie: Well. You did make us feel personally involved and we did learn a lot but
I must admit some parts were much too long-especially the second slide. That went
on for over 5 minutes. We’ll both need to work on our timing next time.

Part 2

Man: Morning. Can I help you?

Woman: I hope so. I wanted to inquire about booking a two-week vacation. I was
thinking of somewhere in Africa – to see the wild animals. Would you have any
like that available?
Man: Yes. We have a Safari Holiday offer running for the rest of the month. Tours
last a fortnight, so that sounds like you’re looking for.
Woman: Just the ticket! Have you any spaces in June; around the 20?
Man: June is all booked up. I’m afraid. The nearest date I have to that is May 21.
Are you booking for yourself?
Woman: Actually no; it’s a present for my two sons – they’re twins and they’ve
just turned 16.
Man: Right. That’s no problem; there is a minimum age for this tour in my notes,
but it’s 14, so your sons are more than welcome to sign up. In fact, they’d probably
be quite excited by the prospect of going off to safari – I know I would have loved
to at their age.
Woman: That’s what I’m hoping.
Man: Let me tell you a little bit about it then and you can see what you think. The
tour group isn’t based on one place but travels around 20km across e flatlands of
the Serengeti Park everyday.
Woman: Sounds very nice! Isn’t it expensive to go on safari like that though?
Man: It used to be that you couldn’t book a tour like this for an less than $1,000
per person, but these days prices are much more reasonable. We charge $675.99
and that includes morning and afternoon, though not evening meals.
Woman: How can I find out about the tour itinerary in detail?
Man: I would recommend that you go directly to the website- safarafaria.com.
You’ll find an answer there for any question you might have about the route and
what they’re likely to see.
Woman: Is that ‘safa’-s-a-f-a- ‘rafa’-r-a-f-a- and’ria’- r-i-a?
Man: Safarafaria, you got it.
Woman: What an odd name!
Man: By the way, I should tell you of course that the 675$-odd I quoted you
includes flights; they’re not additional expense. What’s more, though I am sure
your twins will love their adventure, the holiday promoter has given us a money-
back guarantee, so, if they are unhappy and if they don’t see all the animals listed
on the website at one point or another during the tour, you can reclaim what you’ve
paid.
Woman: Wonderful! It sounds like a terrific holiday and I’ll definitely gave it
some thought.
Man: Don’t dwell too long though.
Woman: Oh, why not?
Man: This tour is in demand and there are a limited number of spaces left, so you
may miss out if you don’t book early.
Woman: I see. Well, that’s a shame.
Man: Why are you so disappointed?
Woman: I don’t have that kind of money to hand at the moment even if I want to
book for them.
Man: Never mind! You don’t have to pay it all upfront; all you need to do is place
a deposit to reserve your tour tickets; and that’s only $500.
Woman: Hmm, yes. I think I could manage that. Thank you. You’ve been very
helpful and informative.
Man: You’re very welcome.
Part 3
Marcus: Hi there!
Cora: Morning, or should I say afternoon?

Marcus: I'm not late, am I?

Cora: Only a few minutes today. But you're never exactly early, are you?
Marcus: Well, it's the traffic isn't it? There were queues of buses
stopping anything from moving up the London Road.
Cora: But that's where you're wrong. It's the cars that make traffic jams because
there are so many of them. And most of the time they have just one person in them
- like you! At least the buses have more than one person in them. Anyway, I don't
know why you don't come to work on your bike. You'd pass all the jams, and you'd
be fitter.
Marcus: I just don't accept that. What about the air I'd breathe while I was
cycling? I'd get wet in the rain. And I'd arrive at work all hot and sticky.
Cora: But you wouldn't if you allowed enough time to come across the park. It's
really quite pleasant riding that way, and it's not much further. And it's cheaper.
Marcus: Yeah, anything would be cheaper than the buses in this town. If they
weren't so expensive, more people would catch them. They should make them
cheaper, or employers should pay part of people's bus fares. That would cut the
traffic and we'd all get to work in much less time.
Cora: And it'd be healthier for everyone, whether they were on a bike or not.
Marcus: If the buses weren't too old and smelly. Some of them are terrible.
Cora: But so are cars and lorries, of course. So, are you getting the bus tomorrow,
then?
Marcus: Well, I might consider it, but unfortunately the bus stop's a long way
from my flat, so I'd have to get up earlier, and tomorrow's my day off anyway.
Cora: Honestly, I sometimes wonder how you manage to get out of bed in the
mornings.
Marcus: Well, I don't have to tomorrow.
Cora: So we'd better get on with some work now.
Marcus: OK, OK.
 SỞ GD & ĐT LÀO CAI ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LÀO CAI NĂM 2016

MÔN TIẾNG ANH- LỚP 10

Đề gồm 4 phần, 12 trang
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

SECTION I: LISTENING (40 POINTS)

Part 1: You will hear a radio program about the arts. Choose the best answers A, B, C or D.

1. Tonight’s program will focus on

A. training priorities in broadcasting companies
B. employment opportunities in London colleges.
C. career prospects for existing media employees.
D. courses for those hoping to work in the media.
2. What is the main aim of the organization called Cinemax?
A. organizing a local film festival
B. getting young people interested in cinema
C. providing courses in media studies
D. recruiting scriptwriters for the film industry.
3. Why did Nigel go in for scriptwriting?
A. It was the only thing available
B. He already had some practical experience
C. It had long been his ambition
D. He’d already been working on some ideas
4. Nigel say that the film script he has written is designed to
A. appeal to young people
B. draw attention to local issues.
C. be suitable for television adaptation.
D. fit in with other group members’ work
5. How does Nigel feel about the input from the consultant?
A. He feels that she was over-critical.
B. He is glad she rewrote some sections
C. He is keen to acknowledge her contribution.
D. He is pleased that he ignored her advice.
6. Nigel explains that consultants were brought in because.
A. they may provide funds for future projects.
B. the organizers had invested heavily in the project
C. they provided some expensive equipment.
D. the team members were lacking in confidence.
7. Looking to the future, Nigel says he is
A. keen to become a full time scriptwriter.
B. aware of the need to remain flexible.
C. less enthusiastic about working in film making
D. hoping to do some further work on his first script.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
Part 2: You will hear a radio report about a trip to an animal fair in India. Complete the sentence
by filling the suitable words in the blank. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS for your answers.

ANIMAL FAIR IN INDIA

On the way to the fair the speaker saw women wearing bracelets made of (8)..............................
Annually, the fair lasts for almost (9)..............................................................................................
At the fair, there are experienced elephant keepers who are in charge of (10)…...........................for
elephants.
Elephants are displayed with their foreheads and ears and trunks covered in (11)………………………..
Traditionally, the elephants stand in a special area near to the (12).................................................
Behind the elephant area there is a very (13)...........................................which is used by a theatre.
The speaker bought some (14)...............................................................for her lunch.
The products displayed at the fairs ranging from expensive items made of leather to (15)………………
To the speaker’s surprise, a large numbers of (16).........................were found at the back of the fairground.
It is traditional at an Indian marriage for the man to (17)…………………………..
The horses used for the weddings are displayed with (18)……………………….saddles and bridles.
Some young horse dealers put on a display of (19).................................................at the fair.

Your answers
8. 14.
9. 15.
10. 16.
11. 17.
12. 18.
13. 19.

Part 3: You will hear two friends, Dominic and Sue, talking about formality in the workplace.
Listen and decide whether the opinions are expressed by only one of the speakers, or whether the
speakers agree.
Write S for Sue
D for Dominic
Or B for Both, where they agree

20. Today’s technology removes the need for open-plan offices

21. Company policy determines the level of formality required when dealing with others.
22. Dressing casually for work is not always appropriate.
23. There are similarities in attitude towards dress between school and the workplace.
24. Some people need guidance as to what to wear.
25. Clothes can create artificial differences between work colleagues.

Your answers
20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

SECTION II: LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (60 POINTS)

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer (A,B,C, or
D) in the numbered box.
1. General Custer was confident of victory despite being vastly...............by the enemy.
A. Outnumbered B. outclassed C. overcome D. overtaken
2. The weather forecast predicted …………weather with snow, sunshine, wind, and thunder, and that is
what we have had
A. various B. differing C. variable D. fluctuating
3. The ministry refused to .................the figures to the press.
A. release B. leak C. show D. add
4. Steve...........his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question.
A. threw out B. threw off C. threw away D. threw in
5. The murderer has been put ……………..for 30 years
A. out B. away C. down D. up
6. Since he spoke about the subject so indirectly, it was difficult to see what he was.........
A. getting at B. getting on C. getting in D. getting up
7. James had,........., saved the manuscript of his first novel from the burning house
A. lastly B. At last C. lately D.at least
8. Mr Nixon refused to answer the question on the.................that the matter was confidential.
A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundation
9. The lawyer insisted that his client...........never have been arrested in the first place.
A. should B. must C. ought D. would
10. As they came under heavy fire, the captain ordered his men to................
A. fall away B. fall back C. fall over D. fall out
11. How votes will react to this latest political scandal.......to be seen.
A. is B. remains C. has D. waits
12. “There is no further treatment we can give” said Dr JekyII.”. We must let the disease take its.........
A. course B. end C. term D. way
13. He walked from the court a free man, having been............of murder.
A. unconvinced B. discharged C. liberated D. acquitted
14. Michael was the..........force behind the company’s rapid expansion.
A. managing B. leading C. rising D. driving
15. I don’t think that this fashion will……………………….
A. catch up B. catch out C. catch on D. catch over
16. As soon as you buy a car, it starts falling in..................
A. cost B. worth C. value D. price
17. There's no point in telephoning him. He's certain ..................... by now.
A. to leave B. to have left C. left D. having left
18. Giving up smoking is just one of the ways to ..................... heart disease.
A. push off B. put off C. ward off D. throw off
19. The windows don't fit very well and this makes the room awfully.....................
A. airy B. draughty C. breezy D. ventilated
20. I was proud to be....................... out for special praise for my performance.
A. selected B. singled C. separated D. distinguished
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 16. 19.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 17. 20.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 18.

Part 2: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them.
Steeplechasing early began in the eighteenth century as a sport among the fox-hunting gentry. In those
days, they raced through the countryside to a place marked by a distant church spire, or steeple. It is a
reckless and dangerous sport. By 1830, it became a part of formal racing, and is today an established
winter sport. The courses, which there are over 40 in England and nearly 30 in Ireland, have artificial
barriers in place of the real ditches, walls, streams and hedges. From October to March, hundreds of
steeplechase jockeys, professional and amateur, risk life and limbs. Of all the races in the steeplechasing
calendar, the most popular is the Grand National, run over a distance of ten kilometers and forty high
jumps. Everyone in the country takes an interest to it and most people seems to buy a sweepstake ticket, or
put a pound or two on the horse they think will win. In some years, where the going is especially bad, as
much as three-quarters of the horses will not finish the race.

Your answers
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part 4: Complete the following sentences with suitable phrasal verbs that are given below then put
them in correct verb tenses. Each phrasal verb is use only one time.

talk out of draw up go in for stand in for feel up to pull out of

split up face up to make up for come in for come up with look up to

1. A: Are you going to Mick’s party tonight?

B: No, I don’t ...............................it. I’ve got a bit of a headache.
2. Alan is off work today so I’m.........................him at the meeting.
3. Now that you’re father you have to...................your responsibilities.
4. The bus.....................at the traffic lights.
5. I was going to resign from my job, but my boss................me...........it.
6. What Jay lacked in experience, he ........................ in enthusiasm.
7. The finance minister...................a lot of criticism after he raised interest rates by 2%, but he defended
himself vigorously.
8. I don’t really....................team sports, but I play a lot of tennis and I go running twice a week.
9. Due to cuts in the defence budget, the army will.............the occupied territories.
10. Did you hear Samantha and Oliver.............................They look so sad recently.

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the spaces below. (0) has been done as an
example.
0. Celebration
In 1999, as part of the UK's (0) CELEBRATE of the millennium, a huge rotating wheel, (1) ABLE of
carrying groups of passengers to a great (2) HIGH was built in the center of London, a short (3)
DISTANT from the River Thames and the Houses or Parliament. The construction of The London Eye
was originally carried out through a (4) SPONSOR deal with the airline, British Airways although the
wheel is now owned and operated by The London Eye Company. A typical trip round the wheel, (5)
LAST thirty minutes, gives tourists (6) BREATH views of the surrounding city and its many well-known
landmarks, (7) INCLUDE Buckingham Palace, the Palace of Westminster and Trafalgar Square. In its
eight years of (8) CONTINUE operation, The London Eye has become the most popular (9) PAY tourist
attraction in the UK and it is easy to see why. At only a little over fifteen pounds for a ticket, it certainly
offers (10) BEAT value for money.

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION III. READING (40 POINTS)

Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the best option(A, B, C or D) to complete the blank.
A Night Out In Bristol
EXAMPLE
0 A wish B hope C fancy D dream
If you're in Bristol on a weekday evening and (0)...............a lively, boozy night out without getting too
badly (1).................off you could do worse than to try Fandangos, the new nightclub complex on Lower
Guzzlemore Street. Before eleven o'clock, prices are quite (2)............ and you can get a (3)...............of
four drinks for around a tenner. If like me, you're a bit of a (4).............it could even set you back less than
that. But for the heavyweights, more often than (5)............, they run some kind of drinking competition at
some point in the evening. On the evening I visited they were offering a free pint to anyone who could
(6).............their first pint in one – guaranteed to leave even the most hardened heavyweight with a
(7).............the next day. On most nights, the dress (8)...............is fairly relaxed although they do seem to
draw the line at torn jeans.

If, on the other hand, you're looking to (9)..............away from it all and enjoy a quiet beer or two in
somewhere a little more off the (10)..............track, The Pickwick Brewery Tap on Regents Muse might be
more to your liking. Despite the rather unoriginal name, this charming little pub is not the fake tourist trap
that you might expect. Most nights the other customers are nearly all locals and regulars but from time to
time they do get busloads of pensioners taking over the place for an hour or two in the late afternoon.

1. A stolen B lifted C taken D ripped

2. A reasonable B respectful C realistic D resistible
3. A hand B round C pack D stack
4. A weak-drinker B lightweight C low consumer D soft head
5. A not B ever C never D sometimes
6. A stomach B down C draw D drain
7. A sore-brain B head-bang C heavy-head D hangover
8. A plan B rule C code D restriction
9. A run B get C go D put
10. A well-known B tourist C beaten D popular

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 2: For questions 1-15, read the article below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use
only one word in each gap. There is an example at the beginning.

THE TOUGHEST RUNNERS

There are a few runners who have completed every London Marathon since the first race in 1981. They
are the toughest runners of (1)………………………These athletes, (2)………………honor of both their
mental and physical strength, have been given a permanent entry in the event for the rest of their lives,
provided that they do not miss a year. Other people have (3)…………….the race faster or under greater
handicaps, (4)………..these are athletes with a mission. For them, the annual event is a way of life, not
just a worthy fund-raising exercise (5)…………………a single challenge. Bill O’Connor is one of these
runners. In his case, running is a daily ritual which (6)………… in New Zealand, (7)……………………
as a youngster, he pounded along the wet sand on the edge of the Tasman Sea. Now aged fifty, (8)
……………….working as a mathematics teacher at a school in London, he retains his fascination (9)
………………..the London Marathon and the activity of running. He says, “When the first London
Marathon was held, I thought (10)…………………….myself that here was a challenge. I thought that if
there was only going to be one race, I wanted to have run in (11)…………………” But the London
Marathon went (12)…………………..to become the most impressive success story in British sport and
Bill O’Connor has been a constant part of it. (13)…………..he ever felt that he would fail to finish? “In
1985. It was a beautiful day and I started running much (14)…………………….fast for the first mile and
got worried. So I slow down for the next mile. Yet (15)……….I expected I would take at least four hours,
I finished in two hours thirty-four minutes and twenty-nine seconds”. It is his best time so far.

Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 3: Read the passage below, then choose the correct answer by circling (A, B, C or D).
 
Archaeological records ― paintings, drawings, and carvings of humans engaged in activities
involving the use of hands ― indicate that humans have been predominantly right-handed for more than
5,000 years. In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right-hand is depicted as the dominant one in
about 90percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on tools also indicate that a majority of ancient
people were right-handed.
     Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000years old commonly show outlines of human hands made by
placing one hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other. Children today make similar
outlines of their hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left hands of Cro-Magnons are
displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were usually done by right-handers.
     Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human ancestors back to at least
1.4 million years ago. One important line of evidence comes from flaking patterns of stone cores used in
toolmaking: implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a right-handed toolmaker) can be
distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation (indicating a left-handed toolmaker).
     Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are thought to have cut meat
into strips by holding it between their teeth and slicing it with stone knives, as do the present-day Inuit.
Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users` teeth. Scratches made with a left-to-right
stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than scratches in the opposite direction (made by
left-handers).
     Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that physical differences between
the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical differences between the two
sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres corresponds to which side of the body is used to
perform specific activities. Such studies, as well as studies of tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided
dominance is not exclusive to modern Homo sapiens. Populations of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectus
and Homo habilis, seem to have been predominantly right-handed, as we are.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
(A) Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools.
(B) It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning tool use.
(C) Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a million years.
(D) Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modern humans.
2. The word "other" refers to
(A) outline B) hand (C) wall (D) paint
3. What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of hands?
(A) Some are not very old. (B) It is unusual to see such paintings.
(C) Many were made by children. (D) The artists were mostly right-handed.
4. The word "implements" is closest in meaning to
(A) tools (B) designs (C) examples (D) pieces
5. When compared with implements "flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation"), it can be inferred that
"implements flaked with a clockwise motion" are
(A) more common (B) larger (C) more sophisticated (D) older
6. The word "clues" is closest in meaning to
(A) solutions (B) details (C) damage (D) information
7. The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their teeth is significant because
(A) the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be verified
(B) it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors
(C) the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns produced by modern
knives
(D) it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools
8. The word "hemispheres" in line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) differences (B) sides (C) activities (D) studies
9. Why does the author mention Homo erectus and Habilis
(A) To contrast them with modern humans
(B) To explain when human ancestors began to make tools
(C) To show that early humans were also predominantly right-handed
(D) To prove that the population of Neanderthals was very large
10. All of the following are mentioned as types of evidence concerning handedness EXCEPT
(A) ancient artwork (B) asymmetrical skulls
(C) Studies of tool use (D) fossilized hand bones

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow

A. Match the headings given below with their appropriate numbers that lead the six paragraphs and
write the letters I- X in corresponding numbered boxes (the headings outnumber the paragraphs, so
you will not use all of them)

I. Process of formation
II. Effect of a storm surge
III. Defining characteristics
IV. Systems for identifying
V. Damage effects
VI. History of hurricanes
VII. System for classification
VIII. Speculation about cause
IX. Effect of low pressure
X. The Carib god of Evil

A..................................
A hurricane is a tropical cyclone, an area of intense low pressure in the tropics surrounded by a violent
rotating storm. It is called a hurricane in the North Atlantic, the Northeast Pacific east of the dateline, and
the South Pacific Ocean east of 160E; west of the dateline it is called a typhoon, and in the Indian ocean, a
cyclone. It becomes a hurricane officially if its wind speeds reach 74mph, or force 12 on the Beaufort
scale; below that it is a tropical storm. Every year, there are about 100 tropical storms and about 50 of
them reach hurricane strength. The name comes from "Hurricane", the Carib god of evil.
B.....................................
Hurricanes need precise meteorological conditions to form: the sea surface temperature needs to be above
26.5C. They are formed over the tropical ocean when strong clusters of thunderstorms drift over warm
water. Warm air from the storm and the ocean surface combine and begin to rising, creating an area of low
pressure on the ocean surface. Rising warm air causes pressure to decrease at higher altitudes. Air rises
faster and faster to fill the low pressure, in turn drawing more warm air up off the sea and sucking cold air
downwards. The cluster of thunderstorms merge to become a huge storm, which moves west with the
trade winds. While it remains over warm water, the tropical wave begin to grow. Wind speeds increase as
air is sucked into the low pressure centre. If the depression strengthens and its win speed climbs above
10mph it become a tropical storm and is named by US National Hurricane Centre Once. If the sustained
wind exceed 74 mph, the storm become a hurricane. It can take as long as several days or only a few hours
for a depression to develop into a full – blown hurricane. The fully developed hurricane is made up of an
eye of calm winds surrounded by a spinning vortex of high winds and heavy rainstorms. Around the eye
winds grow with great velocity, generating violent seas.  
C......................................
Hurricanes produce the highest wind speeds, up to 200mph in the most extreme cases, which only the
strongest structures can withstand. They produce absolutely enormous amounts of rain which can lead to
catastrophic flash floods. But sometimes most seriously - they produce a phenomenon known as a storm
surge. This is a huge raising of the sea level, caused jointly by the huge winds and the very low
atmospheric pressure. In the most extreme cases it can be as much as 25ft above normal.
The hurricane pushes this heightened sea along in front of its path and when it hits the coastline,
especially the low-lying coasts, there can be disastrous inundations, especially when the surge combines
with torrential rain. Britain experienced something like this on 30 January 1953 when a violent gale
combined with very low pressure produced a storm surge in the North Sea, which breached the sea
defences of Lincolnshire and East Anglia and drowned 307 people. Once a hurricane reaches land, it tends
to die out fairly quickly as there is no more warm water to supply heat. But out in the open ocean it can
last for a fortnight or more.
D.....................................................
Hurricanes are now measured between strengths 1 and 5 on the Saffir-Simpson scale, formulated in 1969
by Herbert Saffir, a consulting engineer, and Dr Bob Simpson, the director of the US National Hurricane
Centre. The scale was devised in the aftermath of Hurricane Camille in 1969, the most violent storm ever
to hit the continental United States. Its categories run like this:
Category one (minimal): winds 75 to 95mph, minor flooding, slight structural damage, storm surge up to
1.5 metres.
Category two (moderate): winds between 96 and 110mph, roof and tree damage, storm surge 1.8 to 2.4m.
Category three (extensive): winds between 111 and 130mph, houses damaged, severe flooding, storm
surge 2.7 to 3.7m
Category four (extreme): winds of between 131 and 155mph, major structural damage to houses and
some roofs destroyed, storm surge of between 4 and 5.5m.
Category five (catastrophic): winds above 155mph, many buildings destroyed, smaller ones blown away
completely, severe inland flooding, storm surge of more than 5.5m.

E..........................................
Although global warming is confidently expected to produce more violent storms, scientists cannot yet
prove a link between current hurricane rates and climate change. There does not seem to have been an
increase in the number of category five hurricanes world-wide. This year appears to be more active than
2003 and 2002 but less active than the four years before that.
F..........................................
All tropical cyclones are named, to provide ease of communication between forecasters and the general
public about forecasts, watches, and warnings. Since the storms can often be long-lasting and more than
one can be occurring in the same region at the same time, names can reduce the confusion about which
storm is being described. Before the 20th century, especially in the Caribbean, hurricanes were sometimes
named after the saint's day on which they struck land. During the Second World War, US Navy
meteorologists gave them the female names of wives and loved ones, but by 1950 a formal naming
strategy was in place for North Atlantic cyclones, based on the phonetic alphabet of the time (Able, Baker,
Charlie and so on.). In 1953 the US Weather Bureau decided to switch to female first names, and with the
agreement of the World Meteorological Association, included male first names in the list in 1979. Each
meteorological region of the world now has an agreed list of names. The letters Q, U, X, Y, and Z are not
used because few names begin with these letters. Quite a few hurricane names - including Andrew, Betsy,
Bob, Camille, Hugo and Hilda - have been officially retired because the storms concerned caused damage
on a scale unlikely to be repeated. About 50 names have been retired: a country can request retirement.

Your answers
1. Section A:
2. Section B:
3. Section C:
4. Section D:
5. Section E:
6. Section F:

B. The following sentences can be true (T), false (F) or not given (NG) according to the passage. Read
the passage carefully, then write your answers.

1. Warm waters are the sole reason to fuel the heat engine of the tropical cyclone.
2. Hurricanes is a tropical cyclone in which the maximum sustained surface wind is 74 mph or more.
3. Hurricanes can form a storm surge when the wind speed up to highest level.
4. The centers of hurricanes are warmer than their surroundings

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4.

SECTION IV: WRITING (40 POINTS)

Part 1: Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence
in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the
form of the given word(s).

1. I like to take my time to decide, not rush important things. (SNAP)

=> I don't like to..............................................................................important things.
2. I know it is unlikely, but if you see Mum, could you give her this money.( HAPPEN)
=> If you............................................................................could you give her this money.
3. Generally speaking, this has been a successful year for this company. (LARGE)
=> This has…………………………………………. been a successful year for this company.
4. If children were allowed to do what they wanted, they would probably watch TV all day (OWN)
=> If children were....................................   they would probably watch TV all day.
5. It’s what people eat that betrays their social background, not their table manners.(GIVE)
=> What .............................................................................................their table manner.

Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.

1. The boy wasn't allowed to have any friends, so he became an introvert.

=> Deprived.........................................................................................................................................?
2. What a pity these shops close at lunch-time.
=> I wish................................................................................................................................................
3. I wasn't surprised when they refused to pay me.
=> As I...................................................................................................................................................
4. It probably takes at least six hours to drive to Glasgow from here.
=> It’s.....................................................................................................................................................
5. It was such an appalling sight that we reeled back in horror.
=> So.......................................................................................................................................................

Part 3: International entertainers, including sports personalities, often get paid millions of dollars in
one year.
In your view, with widespread poverty in the world, are these huge earnings justified?
You should write at least 150 words.
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should give reasons for your answer using your own ideas and experience.

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The end!

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 ANSWER KEY

SECTION I: LISTENING ( 40 points – 1.6 each correct answer)

Part 1:
1. D
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. B

Part 2:

8. Glass
9. one month
10. periodic maintenance
11. floral and geometric tattoos
12. river
13. large/ enormous tent
14. perfectly cooked rice/ expertly cooking rice
15. embroided cloth
16. cows
17. ride a white horse.
18. silver and gold
19. riding skills

Part 3:

20. S
21. B
22. B
23. S
24. D
25. B

SECTION II: LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (60 points)

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer (A,B,C,
or D) in the numbered box.

Key:
1 A 8 C 15 C
2 C 9 A 16 C
3 A 10 B 17 B
4 C 11 B 18 C
5 B 12 A 19 B
6 A 13 D 20 B
7 D 14 D
Part 2: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them.

01. Omit “early”, or place after “began”.

02. Use “across” instead of “through”.
03. was => is
04. Needs “of” before “which”.
05. Use “obstacles” instead of “barriers”.
06. Phrase takes singular “limb”. (lam cho tan phe/n. edge/ quang thien van hoc, phien da)
07. in
08. Use plural “seem” to agree with “most people”.
09. Use “when” instead of “where” to indicate time.
10. Use “many” instead of “much” to indicate number.

Part 3: Complete the following sentences with suitable phrasal verbs that are given below then
put them in correct verb tenses. Each phrasal verb is use only one time. (10 points)

1. Feel up to
2. Standing in for
3. Face up to
4. drew up
5. has talked/talked.......out of
6. made up for
7. Came in for
8. Go in for
9. Pull out of
10. have split up

Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the spaces below. (0) has been done as
an example. (10 points)

1. CAPABLE
2. HEIGHT
3. DISTANCE
4. SPONSORSHIP
5. LASTING
6. BREATHTAKING
7. INCLUDING
8. CONTINUOUS or CONTINUED
9. PAID
10. UNBEATABLE

IV. READING (40 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete the blank
1.D 2.A 3.B 4.B 5.A 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.B 10.C

Part 2: For questions 1-15, read the article below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use
only one word in each gap. There is an example at the beginning.
Your answers

1. all 2. in 3. run 4. but/only/yet 5. or/nor 6. began 7. where/when 8. and

9. with/for 10. to 11. it 12. on 13. has/had 14. too 15. (al)though
Part 3: Read the passage below, then choose the correct answer by circling (A, B, C or D).

1. C 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. D

Part 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks follow

A. Match the headings given below with their appropriate numbers that lead the six paragraphs and
write the letters I- X in corresponding numbered boxes (the headings outnumber the paragraphs, so
you will not use all of them)
1. Section A: iii
2. Section B: i
3. Section C: v
4. Section D: vii
5. Section E: viii
6. Section F: iv

B. The following sentences can be true (T), false (F) or not given (NG) according to the passage.
Read the passage carefully, then write your answers.

1. F 2.T 3.F 4. NG

V. WRITING

Part 1: Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new
sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not
change the form of the given word(s). Look at the example in the box. (10 POINTS)

1. I don’t like to make snap decisions on/about important things

2. if you happen to see mum/should happen to see mum could you give her this money.
3. This has, by and large, been a successful year for this company.
4. If children were left their own devices, they would probably watch TV all day.
= Students were left to their own devices (=left alone and allowed to do whatever they wanted) for
long periods.
5. What gives people’s social background away is what they eat, not their table manner

Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.

1. Deprived of friends, the boy became an introvert.

2. I wish these shops opened at lunch-time.
3. As I (had) expected, they refused to pay me.
4. It's probably at least a six-hour drive to Glasgow from here.
5. So appalling was the sight that we reeled back in horror.

Part 3:
TOTAL: 25 POINTS
1. Completion: (2 pt.)
2. Content: (8 pts)
Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example and/or
reasonable justification.
3. Organisation: (6 pts)
- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.
4. Language: (6 pts)
- Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures.
- Good use of grammatical structures.
- Present the ideas with clarity.
5. Punctuations and spelling. (3 pts)
 TAPESCRIPT FOR LISTENING

PART 1: The listening task is chosen from the book “CAE Practice Test plus 2 - Test 6
– Listening Part – Part 3 (The tapescript on page 190 is attached to the audio file)
PART 2: You will hear a radio report about a trip to an animal fair in India. Complete
the sentence by filling the suitable words in the blank. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR
WORDS for your answers.

I had always wanted to visit one of the famous animal fairs that are held throughout India. So
I was delighted when I was asked to go to India and report on one for this programme. The
fair I was going to look at was at a place called Sonepur, which is in the north-east of India.
To get there I had to take two planes and then take a short taxi ride. As my taxi approached
the place where the fair was being held, it was obvious something special was going on. The
passengers in the other three-wheeler taxis were all dressed in their very best clothes, some
made of silver and gold cloth, the women with their arms covered in glass bracelets.

As I got nearer to the fairground I spotted my first elephant – only it was not walking to the
fair, but was being transported in the truck up ahead. Sonepur is famed for its fair, held once
a year. It usually begins in the third week in November and for nearly a month the elephants
are displayed and traded, prices agreed upon and periodic maintenance carried out by
experienced elephant keepers – there are even specialists on hand to look at the elephants’
teeth.

And it is the elephants you see first, once you have made it through the crowds of people and
taxis. They stand motionless or swaying from foot to foot, their foreheads and ears and trunks
covered in floral or geometric tattoos. Their privileged position – closest to the river – is part
of an ancient tradition. The origins of this fair go back many years, and while the number of
elephants has fallen from several hundred to around 70, they still make an impressive
assembly. At the back of the elephant area is the enormous tent of a travelling theatre,
surrounded by side-shows and fairground stalls. Behind these are rows of shops selling tea
and soft drinks.

As for food, there was no end of choice. I could see mounds of brightly coloured fruit and
fresh baked bread. It was nearly lunchtime and all this food made me feel hungry. I looked up
and down the rows until I found a man expertly cooking rice, which tasted as good as it
looked.

I was beginning to appreciate the size of this fair. It was as if a city had grown out of the soil.
Different alleyways sold everything that a farmer who had sold his crop could wish to spend
his money on, from costly leather goods to cheap embroidered cloth.
I climbed a small hill to regain my sense of direction and was amazed to see that behind the
fairground was an open plain, full, as far as the eye could see, of cows. There were thousands
of them and there was some serious business going on in the viewing areas.

From there, I moved on to the Horse Fair in another clearly defined area. The dealers sat
patiently waiting for customers. Families would come, each looking for a white horse for
their son to ride at his wedding, which is a custom of this country. These horses were wearing
saddles and bridles richly decorated with silver and gold and were kept safe in the dealers’
tents. Outside, some of the younger horse-dealers were watering their horses while others
showed off their riding skills, leaning far back in the saddle or standing up as they moved
from a trot to a gallop.

By now the sun had lost its earlier intensity and smoke had begun to rise from the campfires.
I decided it was time to leave, so I wandered back to the elephant area where I knew I could
find a taxi to take me back to my hotel. For me, it had been a wonderful experience.

PART 3: You will hear two friends, Dominic and Sue, talking about formality in the
workplace. Listen and decide whether the opinions are expressed by only one of the
speakers, or whether the speakers agree.

DOMINIC: You know, Sue, I was speaking to someone yesterday about informality at work
and he thought that open-plan offices really improve the working environment and encourage
people to talk about the job and about problems among themselves, and to the boss, who’s
sitting there too.

SUE: I wouldn’t be able to concentrate, so it would definitely be detrimental to my work

output.

DOMINIC: Well, it depends to some extent on the individual, I suppose, but it works for
me, though previously I was sceptical.

SUE: These days with e-mail and all these other ways of communicating, I can’t see any
advantage in having open plan offices.

DOMINIC: That’s hardly an argument against them. Everyone wants a more informal
atmosphere these days.

SUE: Another aspect of being less formal is calling your colleagues by their first names.
Where I work the owners most definitely want to be called ‘Mr’ and ‘Mrs’, but the rest of us
all call each other by our first names. Does your company have any convention on that?

DOMINIC: We’re trained to go for polite informality. I answer the phone and introduce
myself as Dominic Greenfield, not Mr Greenfield, so everyone calls me Dominic and we’re
off on a good footing.
SUE: I’m sure that’s right, because you’re immediately breaking down the barrier. You can
get on with the business more smoothly than if you sound starchy.

DOMINIC: What about dressing down at work into casual wear? My boss has changed his
mind, in fact, and now he thinks it’s acceptable. What do you think about that?

SUE: I’m for it in the right environment. Maybe you are in a very young environment, not an
old-fashioned workplace like mine and it’s probably very acceptable if people … frankly, if
they work better because they feel more comfortable. But as long as it doesn’t get too sloppy,
because I think if you go to work with no idea of formal dress, if there isn’t any code at all
then it just tends to encourage people to be lazy.

DOMINIC: I understand what you’re saying, and maybe wearing a nice shirt and tie and a
nice pair of cufflinks … you know, it is important to impress your clients. But when you’ve
got a day at work when you’re not having any meetings or representing the firm at all, and
you’re probably in an airless, overheated office, I think it helps to have easy, casual clothes.

SUE: I think modern offices are usually quite congenial and conducive to work.

DOMINIC: Anyway, it shouldn’t be like school.

SUE: But I think some of the reasons children wear school uniform can be applied to adults
in the workplace. I’ve always been in favour of school uniform because it equalises people in
a place where they need to concentrate on work, not on what everybody else looks like.

DOMINIC: And there are certainly those who need to be protected from their own dress-
sense, and it’d be better for all of us if they were told.

SUE: What difference does that make to your performance at work?

DOMINIC: Don’t you think that dressing down may create an unspoken hierarchy that
doesn’t really exist? So people at work who’re, maybe, on the same level – if one of them
dresses on a higher budget, in designer labels, even if it’s casual clothes, that person will
automatically be seen as more prestigious.

SUE: I don’t say it’s all-important, but I think it could disadvantage certain people. I like the
idea of being comfortable and wearing casual clothes and it all being easier and less formal,
but I always feel right in a suit at work.

DOMINIC: I think there’s two sides to the argument.

SUE: Anyway, I like to come home …
 HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ ĐỀ THI MÔN: ANH VĂN
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHỐI 10
LÊ HỒNG PHONG – NAM ĐỊNH

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

(Đề thi gồm 14 trang)

I. LISTENING (40 points)

1. Part 1 (20 points) (IELTS PRACTICE TESTS – JAMES MILTON)
Question 1-7: Complete the following notes using A WORD or SHORT PHRASE for
each answer.
Borchester University
Example: Where to get …food…on campus
PLACE CAPACITY REGULAR MENU COST
Main Refectory Hall 500 vegetarian, fish, (1) ..…….. (3) ……….. - £3
Open: (2) …………

Arts Building Café (4) .………… tea, coffee, hot chocolate, (5) ……………..
Open: 9 - 6 sandwiches

(6)……………..Bar tea, coffee, £1.30

Open: 10 - 4 (7) ………….. sandwiches

Question 8-10: Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS for each answer.
8. You can hear a concert of classical music every………………….
9. The jazz concerts start at……………………………….
10. You can smoke in…………………………………………

Page 1
2. Part 2: You are going to hear two students discussing a talk by a paleontologist
(a fossil expert). Listen and choose the best answers. (10 points) (CAMBRIDGE
IELTS)
1. Why did Milton miss the talk on fossils?
A. He attended a different lecture.
B. He had to catch up on some work.
C. He was not interested in the subject.
2. What started Mr Brand’s interest in fossils?
A. a trip to America.
B. a chance discovery.
C. a film he saw as a child.
3. What do schoolchildren say they most enjoy about the fossil hunts?
A. looking for fossils in the rocks.
B. having their photo taken with a fossil.
C. being able to take the fossils home.
4. During a fossil hunt, the main thing children learn is that
A. history is all around them.
B. it is important to be careful.
C. patience leads to rewards.
5. What do Juni and Milton agree to do?
A. persuade Mr Brand to run a fossil hunt for them.
B. use the Internet to book a place on a fossil hunt.
C. talk to some people who have been on a fossil hunt.
3. Part 3: You will hear a woman asking a tutor for more information about a
Media
Studies course at a university. Listen and decide whether the following statements
are
true or false. (10 points) (IELTS PRACTICE TESTS – JAMES MILTON)
1. Louise worked at a radio station for about 4 years.

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2. Louise wants to do a Masters because employers like post-graduate
qualifications.
3. It will take 4 years to do the Masters part-time rather than the modular route.
4. To join the course, Louis must have research experience and a completed thesis
5. Students can find the details on funding on the university website.
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (60 points)
Part 1: Choose the best answer to each of the following questions. (20 points)
1. It was only when he had been unemployed for six months that Neil’s situation
hit……..
A. base B. down C. home D. back
2. We were all on a ………………-edge until the very end of the Hitchcock film.
A. razor B. cliff C. knife D. chair
3. Always having had ……………..feet, Delia is off again, backpacking round India.
A. itchy B. scratchy C. sore D. light
4. Were you on the …………… when you said you had resigned from work?
A. wagon B. level C. flat D. town
5. I left the house in a hurry and my bedroom was…………….with clothes.
A. scattered B. dispersed C. strewn D. sprinkled
6. Employees of the company are forbidden to………information about the secret
formula.
A. betray B. divulge C. portray D. unveil
7. Young children are often …………….. to illnesses such as measles.
A. liable B. apt C. sensitive D. susceptible
8. “ All the money collected will be in………….of Cancer Relief.
A. aid B. help C. cause D. hope
9. …………………..do his views reflect those of the company as a whole?
A. To what extent B. In what condition
C. Under what circumstances D. To what end
10. “There is no further treatment we can give,” said Jekyll. “ We must let the disease
take its …………….”
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A. course B. end C. term D. way
11. The President decided to release a number of political prisoners as a(n)……………..
of goodwill.
A. gesture B. indication C. pledge D. symbol
12. “Relax,” said Harry. “We’re ………………….the worst.”
A. over B. against C. done with D. finished off
13. He broke his arm in two places and it was a long time before the bones
would……………
A. cure B. seal C. knit D. join
14. The helicopter ………………………..over the ship and lowered a doctor onto the deck.
A. flew B. stationed C. hovered D. stayed
15. The cut on his face needed twelve ………………..
A. threads B. links C. stitches D. joins
16. This book will be a delight to……………….readers of science fiction.
A. amateur B. skilled C. seasoned D. loving
17. The two sides are entrenched and any meeting between them is unlikely to
………………a result.
A. submit B. force C. yield D. concede
18. After years of working together, the partners found themselves……..linked.
A. permanently B. indelibly C. perpetually D. inextricably
19. Christopher is prepared to ………………..his professional reputation on the idea that
this stone circle originally had an astronomical purpose.
A. risk B. bet C. gamble D. stake
20. He works hard, but …………………. of his health
A. at the expense B. at the limit C. at a cost D. at a loss
Part 2: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Identify the errors and write the
corrections. (10 points)
Line
1 Human and primates, the family of apes, gorillas, and
2 chimpanzees, among others, divide many common traits. While
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 3 primates are deemed the most intelligent of animals, most
4 researchers believed they lack the capacity to produce language.
5 However, a research project in the 1970s at University of
6 Georgia showed promise that chimpanzees have the abilit to
7 learn a certain language, just as human children do. The project
8 used several chimpanzees as test subjects in which Lana , a
9 female chimp was the study focus .Though the primates lack the
10 vocal construct ions to make human speech patterns, the
11 researchers created a language called Yerkish, using lexigram
12 made up of symbols that represent sounds and words. 125
13 symbols were placed on a keyboard, which Lana was taught how
14 to use the board to communicate with the researchers. She
15 successfully expressed her thoughts by pressing different keys
16 in succession. In some cases, she used up to seven at times.

Part 3: Complete the following sentences with the correct prepositions or particles.
(10 points)
1. You will have to answer ………… your behaviour one day.
2. His parents really laid …………….. him for wasting so much money.
3. He laughed ………………… suggestions that he was going to resign.
4. We had to resign ourselves ………… making a loss on the sale.
5. His teachers are full of praise ………….. the progress he's making
6. The damage to the building is put ………………. over $1 million.
7. That's a philosophy I could live ………………….
8. Steve threw……………………his chances of passing by spending too much time on the
first question.
9. We were extremely gratified …………….. the number of people who supported us.
10. She has a deep aversion ………….. getting up in the morning.
Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the following passage.
(20 points)

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 THE WORLD TODAY
One way to stay abreast of and have intelligent opinion on global issues is by reading
The World Today. By doing this you will receive a regular and ……………… (1. BIAS)
briefing on the people and events that shape our world. Each week, this publication
………………. (2. TANGLE) the important issues through concise, informative and
challenging articles. The most complex subjects are presented with…………………………
(3. CLEAR), so you will acquire an ………………….. (4. DEEP) and focused knowledge of
countries, industries and topics of worldwide concern. The World Today is ………………..
(5. SURPASS) for the quality of its reporting. Regular feature articles examine a range
of…………………… (6. CONTEND) issues, from international trade wars to the
exploitation of …………………….. (7. REFUGE).
In short, The World Today makes the world a little more comprehensible. A
……………………… (8. SUBSCRIBE) to The World Today is a sound business decision.
Take advantage of our exclusive introductory offer: you can save 55% off the usual
price if you return your order within the next 21 days. The price includes free
…………….… (9. DELIVER) and immediate access to our online library. Now is
……………………… (10. QUESTION) the right time to join many of the world’s business
and national leaders who read The World Today.
III. READING COMPREHENSION (60 points)
Part 1: Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text. (15 points)
If a picture is (1)…………….. a thousand words, the seventy-three scenes of the
Bayeux Tapestry speak volumes. The tapestry narrates, in pictorial (2)………………,
William, Duke of Normandy's invasion and conquest of England in AD 1066, when he
(3) …………….. the Saxon forces of King Harold at Hastings.
Historians believe that the work was (4)…………….. in England, probably around AD
1092, and that it was commissioned by Odo, Bishop of Bayeux, William's half brother,
who (5)……………… his fame by figuring (6)……………….. in the tapestry's later (7)
…………….. . Legends connecting it with William's wife Matilda have been (8)
……………………..

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 The Bayeux tapestry is not, (9) ……………. speaking, a tapestry, in which design are
woven into the fabric, but rather a crewel form of embroidery, the pictures being
made by stitching wollen threads into a background of plain linen. The threads, in (10)
…………… of red, yellow, blue and green, must (11)……………… have been jewel bright,
but have (12)……………….. light brown with age. Moreover, one (13)………….. of the now
20 inch (50 cm) broad and 231 feet (70 cm) long cloth is missing.
You can find the Bayeux Tapestry in the William the Conqueror Centre, Bayeux,
Normandy, France. An enduring (14)…………….. of the times, it is as valuable a (15)
………… of evidence for the Norman Conquest as photographs or film are today.
1. A. valued B. worth C. merited D. deserving
2. A. fashion B. type C. design D. form
3. A. defeated B. won C. defended D. invaded
4. A. originated B. invented C. created D. manufactured
5. A. insured B. made sure C. ensured D. assured
6. A. prominently B. strongly C. powerfully D. sufficiently
7. A. views B. scenes C. frames D. pictures
8. A. disowned B. dispersed C. disgraced D. discounted
9. A. normally B. strictly C. truly D. sincerely
10. A. colors B. shadows C. shades D. earlier
11. A. once B. then C. before D. deserving
12. A. changed B. turned C. transformed D. developed
13. A. end B. side C. tip D. part
14. A. witness B. confirmation C. testimony D. proof
15. A. segment B. part C. piece D. portion
Part 2: Read the following text. Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your
answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (15 points)
LIFE IN THE FAST LANE
In our modern, competitive world, employers are beginning to expect almost
complete …………………. (1) from their employees. But what is it that is leading a
growing army of workers to tolerate such heavy demands all for the ………………….. (2)
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of earning a little money? Peer pressure is certainly a part of it. Incessant media
pressure has a lot to ……………(3) for too. We are bombarded by images of the latest
products …………….. (4) to those who are in the right earning group and the fact that
the majority of people use plastic to purchase goods these days is …………….. (5) of the
“spend now, pay later” culture that is blighting modern society and leading so many
into debt.
The prevailing trend for young people to spend hours surfing the internet and
the growing popularity of eBay has …………… (6) it all too easy for people to purchase
expensive goods without really coming to ……………… (7) with how much money they
are spending. Perhaps, most at fault, however are the credit card companies and banks
that permit and often blatantly encourage people to spend beyond their means. Once
people are ………………….. (8) in this kind of financial trap, it is incredibly difficult for
them to extract themselves from the burden of interest that must be paid on expensive
loans and overdrafts.
So how can we learn to evaluate our life in a more constructive manner? There is
a need to regain some of the basic priorities and values of the past. There needs to be a
……………………… (9) in emphasis from materialism to building and maintaining
personal relationship, both within a ………………… (10) circle of family and friends and
with colleagues and associates. Welfare needs to become the number one priority in a
world that is becoming smaller through technology. The global village needs to adopt a
village mentality of caring by going back to the basics.
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.
(15 points)
Printmaking is the generic term for a number of processes, of which woodcut and
engraving are two prime examples. Prints are made by pressing a sheet of paper (or
other material) against an image-bearing surface to which ink has been applied. When
the paper is removed, the image adheres to it, but in reverse.
The woodcut had been used in China from the fifth century A.D. for applying
patterns to textiles. The process was not introduced into Europe until the fourteenth
century, first for textile decoration and then for printing on paper. Woodcuts are
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created by a relief process; first, the artist takes a block of wood, which has been
sawed parallel to the grain, covers it with a white ground, and then draws the image
in ink. The background is carved away, leaving the design area slightly raised. The
woodblock is inked, and the ink adheres to the raised image. It is then transferred to
damp paper either by hand or with a printing press.
Engraving, which grew out of the goldsmith's art, originated in Germany and
northern Italy in the middle of the fifteenth century. It is an intaglio process (from
Italian intagliare, "to carve"). The image is incised into a highly polished metal plate,
usually copper, with a cutting instrument, or burin. The artist inks the plate and wipes
it clean so that some ink remains in the incised grooves. An impression is made on
damp paper in a printing press, with sufficient pressure being applied so that the
paper picks up the ink.
Both woodcut and engraving have distinctive characteristics. Engraving lends
itself to subtle modeling and shading through the use of fine lines. Hatching and cross-
hatching determine the degree of light and shade in a print. Woodcuts tend to be more
linear, with sharper contrasts between light and dark. Printmaking is well suited to the
production of multiple images. A set of multiples is called an edition. Both methods can
yield several hundred good-quality prints before the original block or plate begins to
show signs of wear. Mass production of prints in the sixteenth century made images
available, at a lower cost, to a much broader public than before.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The origins of textile decoration B. The characteristics of good-quality prints
C. Two types of printmaking D. Types of paper used in printmaking
2. The word "prime" in line 2 is closest in meaning to
A. principal B. complex C. general D. recent
3. The author's purposes in paragraph 2 is to describe
A. the woodcuts found in China in the fifth century
B. the use of woodcuts in the textile industry
C. the process involved in creating a woodcut
D. the introduction of woodcuts to Europe
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4. The word "incised" in line 14 is closest in meaning to
A. burned B. cut C. framed D. baked
5. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. "patterns" (line 5) B. "grain" (line 8)
C. "burin" (line 15) D. "grooves" (line 16)
6. According to the passage, all of the following are true about engraving EXCEPT that
it
A. developed from the art of the goldsmiths
B. requires that the paper be cut with a burin
C. originated in the fifteenth century
D. involves carving into a metal plate
7. The word "yield" in line 22 is closest in meaning to
A. imitate B. produce C. revise D. contrast
8. According to the passage, what do woodcut and engraving have in common?
A. Their designs are slightly raised.
B. They achieve contrast through hatching and cross-hatching.
C. They were first used in Europe.
D. They allow multiple copies to be produced from one original.
9. According to the author, what made it possible for members of the general public to
own prints in the sixteenth century?
A. Prints could be made at low cost.
B. The quality of paper and ink had improved.
C. Many people became involved in the printmaking industry.
D. Decreased demand for prints kept prices affordable.
10. According to the passage, all of the following are true about prints EXCEPT that
they
A. can be reproduced on materials other than paper
B. are created from a reversed image
C. show variations between light and dark shades
D. require a printing press
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Part 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.(15 points)
The History of Writing
1.
The earliest stage of writing is called pre-writing or proto-literacy, and depends on
direct representation of objects, rather than representing them with letters or other
symbols. Evidence for this stage, in the form of rock and cave paintings, dates back to
about 15,000 years ago, although the exact dates are debatable. This kind of proto-
literate cave painting  has been found in Europe, with the best know examples in
South- Western France, but also in Africa and on parts of the American continent.
These petrographs (pictures on rock) show typical scenes of the period, and include
representations of people, animals and activities. Most are astonishingly beautiful,
with a vibrancy and immediacy that we still recognise today. They are painted with
pigments made from natural materials including crushed stones and minerals, animal
products such as blood, ashes, plant materials of all kinds, and they produce a wide
range of colours and hues.
2.
Why did ancient people put such effort into making them? Various theories have been
put forward, but the most compelling include the idea that the pictures were records
of heroic deeds or important events, that they were part of magical ceremonies, or that
they were a form of primitive calendar, recording the changes in the seasons as to why
man started to write.
3.
A related theory suggests that the need for writing arose thereafter from the
transactions and bartering that went on. In parts of what is now Iraq and Iran, small
pieces of fired earth-pottery- have been found which appear to have been used as
tokens to a casino, or money, today. Eventually, when the tokens themselves became
too numerous to handle easily, representations of the tokens were inscribed on clay
tablets.
4.

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An early form of writing is the use of pictograms, which are pictures used to
communicate. Pictograms have been found from almost every part of the world and
every era of development, and are still in use in primitive communities nowadays.
They represent objects, ideas or concepts more or less directly. They tend to be simple
in the sense that they are not a complex or full picture, although they are impressively
difficult to interpret to an outsider unfamiliar with their iconography, which tends to
be localised and to differ widely form society to society. They were never intended to
be a detailed testimony which could be interpreted by outsiders, but to serve instead
as aide- memoires to the author, rather as we might keep a diary in a personal
shorthand. However, some modern pictograms are more or less universally
recognised, such as the signs which indicate men’s and women’s toilets, or road signs,
which tend to be very similar throughout the world.  
5.
The first pictograms that we know of are Sumerian in origin, and date to about 8000
BC. They show how images used to represent concrete objects could be expanded to
include abstractions by adding symbols together, or using associated symbols. One
Sumerian pictogram, for example, indicates ‘death’ by combining the symbols for ‘man’
and ‘winter’; another shows ‘power’ with the symbol for a man with the hands
enlarged.
6.
By about 5,000 years ago, Sumerian pictograms had spread to other areas, and the
Sumerians had made a major advance towards modern writing with the development
of the rebus principle, which meant that symbols could be used to indicate sounds.
This was done by using a particular symbol not only for the thing it originally
represented, but also for any thing which was pronounced in a similar way. So the
pictogram for na (meaning ‘animal’) could also be used to mean ‘old’ (which was also
pronounced na). the specific meaning of the pictogram (whether na meant ‘old’ or
‘animal’) could only be decided through its context.
7.

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It is a short step from this to the development of syllabic writing using pictograms, and
this next development took about another half a century. Now the Sumerians would
add pictograms to each other, so that each, representing an individual sound- or
syllable- formed part of a larger word. Thus pictograms representing the syllables he,
na and mi (‘mother’, ‘old’, ‘my’) could be put together to form henami or
‘grandmother’.
Question 1-5: Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs 1-7 from the list
of headings below. Write the appropriate letters A-H in boxes 1-7 on your answer
sheet. There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
Paragraph 2 and 3 have been done for you.
Paragraph Headings
A Magic and Heroes D Sounds and G A Personal Record
B Doing Business Symbols H From Visual to
C Early E Images on Stone Sound
Developments F Stories and Seasons
Paragraph 2 – F
Paragraph 3 – B
Question 6-10: Complete the following notes on Reading Passage 3 using ONE or
TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer. Write your answers in
boxes 8-12 on your answer sheet.
Notes on the Development of Writing
First stage of writing- pre- writing or proto- literacy- very old- 15,000 years. Evidence:
cave and rock paintings. Famous example- …………………….(6). Reasons for
development of writing: primitive ceremonies, recording events, seasons, used on
pottery to represent………………….(7). Next stage: simple pictograms- pictures used to
represent articles and…………………….(8). Very simple drawings (but very difficult to
understand). Then- 8000 BC – combined………………(9) to create new concepts (eg.
Man + winter = death). After this- started using same pictogram for different words
with same………………….(10). Very important step.
IV. WRITING (40 points)

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Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use
between TWO and SIX words, including the word given. (7.5 points)
1. Simon couldn't remember ever having met the woman. RECOLLECTION
Simon …………………………………………………… ever having met the woman.
2. He didn't seem to consider anything to be as important as winning the medal.
MATTER
Nothing ………………………………………………………. winning the medal.
3. The diplomat has been arrested because it is believed he had been spying for his
government. SUSPICION
The diplomat has been arrested ……………………………….. for his government.
4. Could you have a quick look at my essay before I give it in? CAST
Could you …………………………………………………. before I give it in?
5. Sally Smith became known throughout the country as a result of her popular TV
series. HOUSEHOLD
Sally Smith became …………………………………….as a result of her popular TV series.
Part 2: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly
the sentence before it. (7.5 points)
1. You don't have to come and see the new house if you don't wish.
=> You are under……………………………………
2. He threatened the officers with violence.
=> He made……………………………………
3. The headmaster has a very good opinion of the physics teacher.
=> The headmaster holds………………………………………………
4. He himself admits to a fear of spiders.
=> On his……………………………………………………………….
5. Suzanne is far superior to me in terms of technical knowledge.
=> When it……………………………………………………………………
Part 3: Write a paragraph of about 150 words on the following topic: (25 points)
Tourism is becoming an important industry in the world.
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What benefits and challenges does it present?

Page 15
 HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN
VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ ĐỀ THI MÔN: ANH VĂN
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHỐI 10
LÊ HỒNG PHONG – NAM ĐỊNH

ĐÁP ÁN Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

I. LISTENING: (40pts)
Part 1: (20pts)
1. pasta and salad 6. Theatre
2. 11.30-2.30 7. toasted
3. £1.50 8. Thursday
4. 50 9. 1pm
5. £1.15 10. The main Refectory
Part 2: (10pts)
1. B 2. B 3. A 4.C 5. A
Part 3: (10pts)
1. F 2. T 3. F 4. F 5. T

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60pts)

Part 1: (10pts)
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. A
11.A 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. C
16. C 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. A
Part 2: (10pts)

Page 1
Lin Lin
Mistake Correction Mistake Correction
e e
2 divide share 9 study focus study’s focus
4 believed have believed 9 though since
the
5 University 11 up of of
University
7 just as just like 12 which and
8 in which among which 16 at times times

Part 3: (10pts)
1. for 6. at
2. into 7. by
3. off 8. away
4. to 9. at
5. for 10. to
Part 4: (20pts)
1. unbiased 6. contentious
2. untangles 7. refugees
3. clarity 8. subscription
4. in-depth 9. delivery
5. unsurpassed   10. unquestionably

III. READING COMPREHENSION (60pts)

Part 1: (15pts)
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. C
6. A 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. C
11. A 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. C
Part 2: (15pts)

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 1. devotion/ commitment 6. made
2. sake 7. terms
3. answer 8. caught
4. available 9. shift
5. indicative 10. close-knit
Part 3: (15pts)
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. D
Part 4: (15pts)
1- Paragraph 1 - E 6. South-western France
2- Paragraph 4 - G 7. Bartered objects
3- Paragraph 5 - C 8. Ideas/concepts
4- Paragraph 6 - D 9. symbols
5- Paragraph 7 - H 10. Sound

IV. WRITING (40pts)

Part 1: (7.5pts)
1. Simon had no recollection of ever having met the woman.
2. Nothing seemed to matter to him as much as winning the medal.
3. The diplomat has been arrested on suspicion of spying for his government.
4. Could you cast an eye over my essay before I give it in?
5. Sally Smith became a household name as a result of her popular TV series.

Part 2: (7.5pts)
1. You are under no obligation to come and see the new house if you don't wish.
2. He made threats of violence against the officers
3. The headmaster holds the physics teacher in high esteem
4. On his own admission, he is afraid of spiders

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 5. When it comes to technical knowledge, Suzanne is far superior to me
Part 3: Writing a paragraph (25 points)
Requirements:
 Organization:
 3 parts ( topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence)
 topic sentence: consists of topic and controlling idea.
 concluding sentence: summarizes the main supporting ideas/ restates the topic
sentence and gives personal opinion.

 Content, coherence and cohesion:

 supporting sentences: support directly main idea stated in the topic sentence
and provide logical, persuasive examples.
 use of transition signals appropriately

 Language use and accuracy:

 variety of structures, expressions and good use of vocabulary
 no spelling or grammar mistakes

Người ra đề và đáp án: Trần Thị Phượng – Sđt: 01689940064

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Page 5
 TAPESCRIPT FOR LISTENING PART
PART 1:
A. Hello, everyone, and welcome to Borchester University. If you ‘d like to split into
small groups of about ten, a guide will take you around the campus – the first thing
they’ll show you is the most important – where to get food! OK, please divide into
smaller groups now, the guides are here on the left.
[ guide] Right,…, nine, ten – that’s about right. OK let’s start. As the coordinator
said, we’ll look at where to eat on campus first. The principle place to buy food is
here – the Main Refectory. As you can see this is large – it holds about five hundred
people – so it’s very busy.
What can you buy here? They always have a good choice. Usual choices are
vegetarian, fish, pasta and salad – as well as a main menu, including the budget
choice. Sometimes they do special menus for a week – last week it was Chinese
food. Mmm – I remember they had some wonderful choices.
[laughter]
Of course, to get the best choice you need to get here early. The main hall is open
from 11.30 to half past two – but by about two the choices are rather reduced.
Unless you like chips and pies, that is – the budget menu is always available.
What’s the cost here? Well, it varies – from about £1.50 for the budget to £3. It
sounds expensive, but if you eat here you probably won’t want to eat so much in
the evening as the portions are huge.
OK, so much for the refectory. The next place to eat is the café near the Arts
Building – that’s here on the map. This is small – much smaller, with only space for
about 50 people. It’s also a shop, so it’s very busy all day. It’s open from nine in the
morning until 6 in the evening. What can you buy here? Well, really only tea, coffee,
hot chocolate and sandwiches. The cost of a meal is about £1.15. One nice thing
about here is that you can surf the Internet while you eat – absolutely free, as long
as you are a customer of course. There are six computers for customers to use. Oh,
I said there’s a shop too – it sells all the usual things, chocolate, newspapers,
sweets, cakes and bottled drinks. It’s very convenient.
Page 1
Another nice place to eat is the bar area in the theatre – again this is small, but
there’s more space than the café and no shop, so it tends to be less crowded. It is
still quite busy though, because it’s very comfortable with nice chairs. It is open
from 10 to 4. What can you get to eat here? Again, it’s really only drinks like tea
and coffee and toasted sandwiches. The toasted sandwiches here are better since
they also have a garnish – tomatoes and lettuce – with them. But the average meal
costs more –about 1.30. one problem is that they rrun out quickly here – you are
not likely to find much to eat after about 1.30
Well, that’s the general information about where you can eat on campus. But you
know, those places are not just for eating and drinking. The main Refectory has a
string quartet of music students playing every Thursdays at lunchtime and on
Tuesdays and Fridays the Theatre Bar offers lunchtime jazz concerts at one o’clock.
They’re always popular and the bar fills up by noon, so make sure you get there
early.
Now I can see some of you are smoking. This is only allowed in certain areas of the
campus and never in the library or eating places. Oh no, sorry, it is allowed in the
Main Refectory but only in a small section in the corner. There were suggestions
that the Theatre Bar would be a smoking area but this created quite a debate
among students so a final decision hasn’t as yet been made.
Thank for your attention. Now your guide will take you on your tour.
PART 2:
Juni: Hi, Milton – I didn’t see you this afternoon. You missed a really good talk.
Milton: oh, did I? that’s a pity – it was Mr Brand’s talk about fossils, wasn’t it?
J: yeah, I hadn’t rally expected to enjoy it, but it was fascinating.
M: I thought it would be. I’d been planning to go to the talk, but then when I was in
the lab this morning, I realized I hadn’t done any reading for tomorrow’s history
seminar.
J: Well, I think he’s going to repeat it some time, but it may be next year.
M: Perhaps you could tell me a bit about it, then?
J: Well, he talked about himself in the first part.
Page 2
M: I saw on the notice that went around that he wnet to America to study and met
a famous anthropologist.
J: yeah, that’s right, but he said he got interested in fossils well before then – when
he was about six in fact – and he found the most amazing fossil on a school visit to
a national park. He showed it to us - he still has it- though he said he wasn’t looking
for it at the time!
M: Most kids wouldn’t recognize a fossil if they saw one!
J: I know – they want to watch adventure films or play with model dinosaurs. But
apparently he spent his school holidays hunting for fossils in the farm pits near his
home.
M: so does he lecture on the subject now?
J: Yes – but he also runs a business organizing fossil hunts for groups of adults and
chidren.
M: Aw…Wouldn’t it be great if we could do something like that?
J: He showed us lots of pictures…
M: So they all go out in a group to the cliffs or somewhere with little hammers, so
they?
J: Yeah – apparently, the kids tell everyone that’s the best bit-tapping the stones to
see if anything’s there.
M: Do they know what they’re looking for?
J: Yeah. They get shown some examples of what they may find first.
M: And do they actually get to find any fossils?
J: Yes – Mr Brand showed some photos of children proudly holding up their fossils
for the camera at the end of the day.
M: If they take them home, I bet they become prized possessions in their rooms as
well.
J: For sure. He said he never stops being amazed at how close you can be to a fossil.
M: I guess the children aren’t aware of history that much.
J: No, but, for them, the key thing they learn is that if they keep looking, they will
find something,
Page 3
M: Mmm- you have to wait…it’s not for people who want instant success. So why
don’t we go on one of those hunts?
J: Well, yes, I’m quite keen. The hunts are fully booked until the end of this year,
unfortunately.
M: I could talk to some of the other students and see if we can form a group.
J: That’s a good idea. I’ll give him a call. Then, it we have enough people, we might
be able to get him to do an extra one for us
M: I’ll look on his website when I get back to the dorm just to get a bit more
information.
PART 3:
Loius: I’m looking for some advice about doing a Master’s Degree in Media Studies.
Am I at the right place?
Mark: Yes, my name’s Mark, I’m head of the Media Studies course. Nice to meet
you, and you are…
Louis: I’m Louise, nice to meet you too.
Mark: So how can I help you?
Louis: Well I’ve seen the prospectus for the course but I’m still a bit confused about
a few things and about some of the options for studying.
Mark: What’s your situation at the moment? Are you working?
Louis: Yes, I’ve been working as a journalist for a local newspaper for the last 3
months. Prior to that I had two jobs in the media – at a small local radio station for
about 2 years and at a TV station for about 4 years. So I’ve worked in media for
about six years in total.
Mark: Ok well that’s useful if you want to do the course. What is your motivation to
do further study?
Louis: I enjoy my job a lot at the moment but I feel the opportunities for
promotion are quite limited. It’s not that I think a masters will help with this
though. I’ll probably leave my job, maybe to go into TV or something, but basically I
think wherever I end up going in the future, employers prefer to see someone with
post-graduate qualifications these days.
Page 4
Mark: And are you intending to study full-time?
Louis: Well I’d really like to keep working as I need an income. What are the
options for me if I want to work whilst studying?
Mark: You could do certain modules over a number of years you like. It’s up to you
how many you do. Basically you get credits for the ones you complete. People
usually do the Masters in anything from 18 months up until 4 years. It depends on
your time. If you wanted a fixed schedule and attendance and did it part time then
that would be a total of 3 years.
Louis: So what is the admission criteria to join the course?
Mark: Well there are a few things that are useful but not essential, but there are
some requirements. Usually to join a Masters people must have a bachelor’s
degree, but we are prepared to overlook this if someone has enough work
experience. But you must have one or the other. It’s useful if you have research
experience as you have to complete a thesis but we can train you on this if not. It’s
essential that you have motivation if you want to join the course as it is very
demanding.
Louis: What about the costs for the course?
Mark: The fees for a year if you are studying part-time are £2250. No sorry, they
have gone up this year – £2400. Of course you are paying for all other living costs.
Louis: Is there any kind of bursary or scholarship available to help with the fees?
Mark: Yes there are things available but you have to meet the criteria to get
funding. Often though the university will actually contact you about funding.
Universities have a certain budget available to provide funds so they will look for
the best students and offer them something if they think they will be suitable. You
would have to have a firm offer in place to join the course though before you’d be
considered for any funding.
Louis: Where can I go to find out more about it?
Mark: The best place to look for information about funding is on our university
website. All the details about whether you’re eligible, what help is on offer, and

Page 5
how to apply will be there. If you can’t find the information you’re looking for, you
can always come and speak to us again and there will be a number you can ring.
Louis: Ok thanks for that. And is it easy to get hold of you if I need to speak to you
further?
Mark: Yes, I’m here most days, but you can always phone the office first to check.
It’s best to book an appointment in case I’m not around.

Page 6
SỞ GD & ĐT QUẢNG NAM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NGUYỄN BỈNH KHIÊM Năm học 2015 – 2016 (đề xuất)
MÔN TIẾNG ANH- LỚP 10
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
Bài thi gồm 16 trang. Tổng điểm: 200)

I. LISTENING: (40 points)

PART 1.
You are going to listen a journalist called Max Wilson talking about a book about luck
in sport by Matthew Syed. Listen to the whole interview and choose the best answer A,
B, or C.(10 pts)
1. Max says that top sportspeople usually believe their success is due to
A. good fortune
B. hard work
C. natural skill
2. According to Max, the examples of recent sporting achievements prove
A. that people in general have become stronger and fitter
B. that standards are getting higher
C. that technology is responsible for improved performance
3. In the book Matthew Syed says he had a greater chance of success because of
A. his parents’ love of table tennis.
B. his competitive brother.
C. his own ambition.
4. That advantage is mentioned of the Omega Club when Matthew joined?
A. It was open all the time.
B. It had a lot of good players.
C. It had great facilities.
5. Max says that a ten-year investigation has shown that lucky people
A. believe they will succeed.
B. look for good opportunities.
1
 C. depend less on talent.
Write your answers here:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART 2.
Listen to a nutritionist called Penny Flack talking about the effects of health and diet in
some countries around the world. Are these statements True (T) or False (F)? (10 pts)
EATING FOR HEALTH
1 A quarter of Europeans and Americans are now said to be obese.
2 American politicians have been discussing how to tackle the causes and
consequences of obesity.
3 High-fat cheese and meat is causing the French to become obese.
4 Heart disease is becoming more common in Japan and Greenland.
5 Scientists have discovered that a number of spices used in Indian cooking can
improve brain health.

Write your answers here:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART 3.
Listen to a talk on insomnia – the inability to sleep properly. Complete the following
notes on the talk about insomnia. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (20 pts)

 CAUSES
People may have trouble falling asleep due to worries about exams or a (1)
………………..…………
It can be due to (2) ………………………………….factors: noise, light, no
privacy.
It can be due to occupational factors: working irregular hours, overworking, too
much (3) …………………………………., high stress.
2
  SOLUTIONS
In situations where the patient is suffering from illness and physical discomfort,
a doctor may give them (4) …………………………………. or (5)
………………………………….
(6) …………………………………. before going to bed.
Watch your diet. Don’t eat a large meal in the evening. Avoid alcohol, cola and
coffee.
Drink herbal tea (e.g. camomile) or (7) ………………………………….
Don’t take naps during (8) ………………………………….
Take a (9) ………………………………….before bed or after exercise.
Cut down on (10) …………………………………. in the evening.

Write your answers here:

1. ………………………………… 6. ………………………………………
2. ………………………………… 7. ………………………………………
3. ………………………………… 8. ………………………………………
4. ………………………………… 9. ………………………………………
5. ………………………………… 10. ………………………………………

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60 points )

PART1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions. (10ps)
1. It is an impressive work at first but it does not really _______ close examination.
A. stand up to B. stand out from C. stand up for D. stand in for
2. Unfortunately, I think there is one very serious _______ in your argument.
A. rip B. blemish C. split D. flaw
3. The lecturer _______ a number of parallels between Blake's engravings and devotional
art.
A. drew B. pulled C. tied D. linked
4. He was so _______ on his work that he lost all track of time.
A. intent B. intentional C. intense D. intensive
5. It is an _______ that the most talented artists often go completely unrecognized in their
lifetime.
A. irregularity B. eccentricity C. anomaly D. abnormality
6. She suffered a few disappointments at first but she took them all in her _______
3
 A. pace B. march C. step D. stride
7. The course is intended for well qualified graduates who wish to improve their career
________
A. perspectives B. views C. prospects D. vistas
8. He started his first business ________ as soon as he left school and now he's a
millionaire.
A. affair B. essay C. venture D. trial
9. I was shocked to hear that Mrs Cane had decided to ________in her notice
A. place B. hand C. put D. offer
10.It's a very competitive field, but if that's what you really want to do, then don't be
_______off.
A. sent B. put C. set D. held
11.In these times of high unemployment everyone thought my giving up my job was
______ madness.
A. sheer B. steep C. high D. deep
12.I don't know how I am going to cope _______working without my personal assistant.
A. in B. on C. thought D. with
13.I trusted you to do the job properly but you've _______me down.
A. let B. turned C. put D. kept
14.Jack was disappointed not to be promoted as he was given to _______ that the job
would be his.
A. know B. understand C. realize D. say
15.That loud heavy metal music from next door is _______ me up the wall.
A. driving B. sending C. bringing D. pushing
16.Bright children who are ________ on the uptake may get bored easily if they are not
stimulated enough at school.
A. swift B. fast C. quick D. rapid
17.This new model of car is the _______ in driving luxury.
A. penultimate B. ultimate C. finest D. best
18.Shiftwork does have its ________ sometimes.
A. purposes B. conveniences C. reasons D. uses
19.My husband told me in no _______ terms that I would have to economize on
household expenses.
A unsure B uncertain C vague D unclear
20.We had a _______ of a time at Jason's party 10 yesterday.
A whale B period C whole D week

Write your answers here:

4
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

PART2. Find and correct TEN mistakes in the following passage. Write them down
& give the correction. (10 pts)

The Birth of Venus

The Florentine master Sandro Botticelli created one of the most grateful and joyful image
of the model age, and the single most popular painting in the Uffizi. To see them at its
best, you need to pre-book a ticket to timed entry at 8.15 a.m., courtesy of the Firenze
Musei booked service; don’t be put off if you can’t get over on the phone first time. Once
inside, head straight for the suite of rooms 10-14, where the Botticellis are displaying.
Then take in the other highlights of the collects- the Da Vincis in room 15, the Raphaels in
room 26, and the Caravaggios in room 43- staying ahead of the hordes because you go. If
there are any gaps you need filling in, work backwards towards the entrance: by now, the
crowds will be avoided, but you’ll have already had the masters to yourself.

Write your answers here: 0 parent --> parents

1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

PART 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. (10 pts)
1. He was the sort of person who immediately made you feel _________ ease.
2. The monk told me that the old woman had not really died. He said that she simply
passed ________ her next life
3. Is it possible to insure yourself __________ nuclear attack?
4. The shop is closing down and selling ___________ all the stock at reduced price
5. I’ve take this watch __________ pieces and now I can’t put it together again.
6. We got lost last night and ended ____________ in the next town.
5
7. Suddenly, __________ warnings, the door burst open and she rushed in.
8. These traditions have been handed ______________ from generation to generation.
9. I was ____________ the impression that you had to be twenty-one to vote in general
elections.
10. Just as the sun was breaking ____________, a loud bang was heard at the back of the
house.
Write your answers here:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART 4: Read the text below. Use the words given in capitals at the end of some of the
lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. There is an example at the
beginning (0). (20 pts)
Dirty money
Sooner or later it's something that everyone does; you put your jeans
into the washing machine, having completely (0) forgotten about the
money in the pocket. Coins, on the whole, survive the experience
relatively (1) ________ , but the same is not true of banknotes. FORGET
These have a (2) ________to disintegrate as a result of prolonged
(3) ________ to the forces of heat, water and detergent. If you live HARM
in Britain, however, all may not be lost. It is possible to send TEND
damaged banknotes, (4)________for use as payment in shops and EXPOSE

Section” (BEMS) in Leeds. Here experts will give the note a ACCEPT
thorough (6) ________and, if they are convinced that it is indeed the LET
remains of a valid banknote, they will send you a (7) _______- or at
least a cheque of the equivalent value. EXAMINE
And it's not only washing machines that destroy notes. According REPLACE
to BEMS staff, who receive up to 500 (8) ______ per week, toddlers
and puppy dogs also figure high on the list of offenders, as do
people who hide their savings in rather (9) ______ places, such as APPLY

6
microwave ovens or damp cellars. Sometimes, even banks make use
of the service, as happened during last year's spring floods when a FORTUNE
number of branches found that their burglar-proof and fireproof
safes sadly were not (10) _________ waterproof. EQUAL

Write your answers here:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. READING (60 points)

PART 1: For questions 1-15, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C
or D) best fits each space.
AARDVARKS
When the Boer settlers first arrived in South Africa from Holland, they found a strange
animal. Its ears (1) … those of a donkey and its body is (2) … with stiff hair. It has a long
snout, (3) … longer than that of a pig, and long eyelashes. It is also (4) … with very short,
powerful legs, with (5) … it digs into the ground. The Boers named it ‘aardvark’, which
means ‘earth pig’ in the (6) … Dutch.
The favourite food of the aardvark is termites. Termites are insects that live in large
colonies, (7) … ants. Using (8) …….. and saliva, termites construct a tall mound which is
as hard as concrete. The aardvark uses its (9) … … legs to break the termite mound (10)
… and get at the insects inside. There are special termites, (11) … as soldiers, who try to
protect the colony. Aardvarks, (12) …, have thick skin to protect themselves from bites.
Females only (13) … birth to one baby a year, so aardvarks are quite rare. When they are
(14) … threat, they use their tough legs to quickly dig underground to (15) … from their
attacker. Aardvarks are not often seen because they are nocturnal, sleeping in their
burrows during the day and coming out to hunt at night.
1. A. appear B. resemble C. seem D. look
2. A. covered B. full C. decorated D. surrounded
3. A. very B. more C. much D. as
4. A. qualified B. enabled C. provided D. equipped
5. A. which B. them C. those D. these
7
6. A. primary B. genuine C. first D. original
7. A as B. like C. so D. also
8. A. soil B. ground C. floor D. surface
9. A .top B. forward C. front D. ahead
10. A. out B. open C. over D. through
11. A. recognized B. called C. named D. known
12. A. although B. despite C. though D. still
13. A. give B. make C. do D. have
14. A. in B. under C. with D. on
15. A. avoid B. prevent C. remove D. escape

Write your answers here:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

PART 2: For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best
fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. (10 points )
There is an example at the beginning (0).
Example: 0 which
ACUPUNCTURE
Acupuncture is a Chinese medical technique (0) …which… has been practised for
more than 4000 years. It involves inserting long thin needles into particular spots in the
skin, (1) …………… as acupuncture points, and rotating them. It is mainly used to relieve
pain but it is also sometimes used for curing disease and improving general health.
Acupuncture is (2) …………… of the great mysteries of medical science. There is
little doubt that it can be effective in relieving pain. Western doctors have witnessed
surgical operations carried (3) …………… on Chinese patients who were anaesthetised
only by acupuncture and yet showed no signs (4) …………… pain. However, Western
scientists have still not (5) ………… up with an adequate explanation as to how
acupuncture actually works. At one time it was believed that acupuncture was related in
some way to hypnosis, but this has now been proved (6) ……… to be true. Still,
acupuncture is (7) ………..…increasingly popular here in the West, with many American
and European doctors now believing acupuncture may have a role to play in medicine,
although most argue that much more research needs to be (8)…………… first.
8
 In 1972, acupuncture received some welcome publicity as a result of President
Nixon’s trip to China. Nixon became ill during the trip and (9) ……… rushed to hospital.
He later (10) …… reporters that acupuncture had greatly relieved his pain.
Write your answers here:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART 3: For questions 1-10, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best
according to the text. (15 points)
At 7p.m on a dark, cold November evening, thousands of people are making their
way across a vast car park. They’re not here to see a film, or the ballet, or even the circus.
They are here for what is, bizarrely, a global phenomenon: they are here to see Holiday on
Ice. Given that most people don’t seem to be acquainted with anyone who’s ever been, the
show’s statistics are extraordinary: nearly 300 million people have seen Holiday on Ice
since it began in 1943: it is the most popular live entertainment in the world.
But what does the production involve? And why they are so many people prepared
to spend their lives traveling round Europe in caravans in order to appear in it? It can’t be
glamorous, and it’s undoubtedly hard work. The backstage atmosphere is an odd mix of
gym class and workplace. A curtained-off section at the back of the arena is laughably
referred to as the girl’s dressing room, but is more accurately described as a corridor, with
beige, cracked walls and cheap temporary tables set up along the length of it. Each girl has
a small area littered with pots of orange make-up, tubes of mascara and long false
eyelashes.
As a place to work, it must rank pretty low down the scale: the area round the ice-
rink is grey and mucky with rows of dirty blue and brown plastic seating and red carpet
tiles. It’s an unimpressive picture, but the show itself is an unquestionably vast, polished
global enterprise: the lights come from a firm in Texas, the people who make the audio
system are in California, nut Montreal supplies the smoke effects: former British Olympic
skater Robin Cousins is now creative director for the company and conducts a vast master
class to make sure they’re ready for the show’s next performance.
The next day, as the music blares out from the sound system, the cast start to go
through their routines under Cousins’ direction. Cousins says, The aim is to make sure
they’re all still getting to exactly the right place on the ice at the right time – largely
9
because the banks of lights in the ceiling are set to those places, and if the skaters are all
half a metre out they’ll be illuminating empty ice. Our challenge’, he continues, ‘is to
produce something they can sell in the number of countries at the same time. My theory is
that you take those things that people want to see and you give it to them, but not in the
way they expect to see it. You try to twist it. And you have to find music that is
challenging to the skaters, because they have to do it every night.’
It may be a job which he took to pay the rent, but you can’t doubt his enthusiasm.
‘The only place you’ll see certain skating moves in an ice show’, he says, ‘because you’re
not allowed to do them in competition. It’s not in the rules. So the ice show world has
things to offer which the competitive world just doesn’t. Cousins knows what he’s talking
about because he skated for the show himself when he stopped competing – he was
financially unable to retire. He learnt the hard way that you can’t put on an Olympic
performance every night. ‘I’d be thinking, these people have paid their money, now do
your stuff, and I suddenly thought, “I really can’t cope. I’m not enjoying it”.’ The
solution, he realized, was to give 75 percent every night, rather than striving for the sort of
twice-a-year excellence which won his medals.
To be honest, for those of us whose only experience of ice-skating is watching top-
class Olympic skaters, some of the movements can look a bit amateurish, but then, who
are we to judge? Equally, it’s impossible not to be swept up in the whole thing; well,
you’d have to try pretty hard not to enjoy it.
1. According to paragraph 1, the writer is surprised to see that although Holiday
on Ice is popular ……………………………………………
A. people often prefer other types of show
B. people prefer to see a film, the ballet or the circus
C. most people consider it as a holiday
D. few people know someone who has seen it
2. From the phrase, “it must rank pretty low down the scale” in paragraph 3 we
can infer that…………..
A. Holiday on Ice has rather poor working condition
B. Holiday on Ice has a very dirty place to work
C. Skaters do not enjoy working in this place

10
D. Skaters do not earn much money form the job
3. Which of the following adjectives can be used to describe the backstage area?
A. glamorous B. relaxing C. messy D. old
4. It is mentioned in paragraph 3 that………….
A. many companies are involved in the production
B. it is difficult to find suitable equipment
C. the show needs financial support
D. the show has been staged in many places
5. For Robin Cousins, the aim of the rehearsal is………………….
A. to keep in time with the music
B. to adjust the spotlights
C. to be acquainted with the stage
C. to position the skaters on the ice
6. Cousins’ theory on how to produce shows for different audiences is that…
A. he adapts movements to suit everyone
B. he selects suitable music
C. he presents performance in an unexpected way
D. he varies the routines every night
7. It is suggested in paragraph 5 that skating in shows……………
A. enables skaters to visit a variety of places
B. is as competitive as other forms of skating
C. can be particularly well paid
D. doesn’t force skaters to try out moves appearing in competitions
8. The pronouns “them” in paragraph 5 prefer to………………
A certain skating moves
B. some famous skaters
C. some live performance
D. certain ice shows
9. The phrase “the hard way” in paragraph 5 is mostly means…………
A. by working very hard
B. by having expectations of others

11
 C. through personal experience
D. through doing things again and again
10. Which of the following is the writers’ conclusion of Holiday on Ice?
A. Olympic ice-skating is more enjoyable than Holiday on Ice
B. Everyone should enjoy watching Holiday on Ice
C. Holiday on Ice requires more skills than Olympic ice-skating
D. It is hard to know who really enjoys Holiday on Ice.

Write your answers here:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART4: Fill in each gap in the passage with one suitable sentence from A-J
What You Need to Know about Culture Shock
Most people who move to a foreign country or culture may experience a period of time
when they feel very homesick and have a lot of stress and difficulty functioning in the new
culture. This feeling is often called ‘culture shock’ and it is important to understand and
learn how to cope with culture shock if you are to adapt successfully to your new home’s
culture.
First of all, (1)…… Everyone in a new situation will go through some form of culture
shock, and the extent to which they do is determined by factors such as the difference
between cultures, the degree to which someone is anxious to adapt to a new culture and
the familiarity that person has to the new culture.(2)……
There are four general stages of cultural adjustment, …(3)…which stage you are in and
when so that you will understand why you feel the way you do and that any difficulties
you are experiencing are temporary, a process you are going through rather than a constant
situation.
The first stage is usually referred to as the excitement stage or the ‘honeymoon’ stage.
Upon arriving in a new environment, you’ll be interested in the new culture, everything
will seem exciting, everyone will seem friendly and helpful and you’ll be overwhelmed
with impressions. (4)……

12
 But it isn’t long before the honeymoon stage dissolves into the second stage –
sometimes called the withdrawal stage. The excitement you felt before changes to
frustration as you find it difficult to cope with the problems that arise. It seems that
everything is difficult, the language is hard to learn, people are unusual and unpredictable,
friends are hard to make, and simple things like shopping and going to the bank are
challenges. (5) This is the stage which is referred to as ‘culture shock’.
Culture shock is only temporary, and at some point, if you are one of those who
manage to stick it out,(6)…… At this point, you’ll have a routine, and you’ll feel more
confident functioning in the new culture. You’ll start to feel less isolated as (7)……
Customs and traditions are clearer and easier to understand. At this stage, you’ll deal with
new challenges with humor rather than anxiety.
The last stage is the ‘home’ or ‘stability’ stage –(8)……At this stage, you’ll function
well in the new culture, adopt certain features and behaviors from your new home, and
prefer certain aspects of the new culture to your own culture.
There is, in a sense, a fifth stage to this process. If you decide to return home after a
long period in a new culture, (9)……This means that you may find aspects of your own
culture ‘foreign’ because you are so used to the new culture that you have spent so long
adjusting to. Reverse culture shock is usually pretty mild – you may notice things about
your home culture that you had never noticed before,(10)…… Reverse culture shock
rarely lasts for very long.

A. this is the point when people start to feel at home in the new culture.
B. During this stage you are merely soaking up the new landscape, taking in these
impressions passively, and at this stage you have little meaningful experience of the
culture.
C. and some of the ways people do things may seem odd
D. and it is important that you are aware of these stages and can recognize
E. you start to understand and accept the way things are done and the way people behave
in your new environment
F. it’s important to know that culture shock is normal
G. you may experience what is called ‘reverse culture shock’.

13
H. It is at this stage that you are likely to feel anxious and homesick, and you will
probably find yourself complaining about the new culture or country.
I. you’ll transition into the third stage of cultural adjustment, the ‘recovery’ stage
J. If you go, for example, to a culture that is far different from your own, you’re likely to
experience culture shock more sharply than those who move to a new culture knowing
the language and the behavioral norms of the new culture.

Fill in each gap in the passage with one suitable sentence from A-J

Write your answers here:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

IV. WRITING (40 points)

PART 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (7.5 pts)
1. She was definitely displeased when I told her.
She was nothing _________________________________________________
2. Fortunately I found another job shortly afterwards.
I had_____________________________________________________________
3. I hope it’s not inconvenient for me to phone you so late.
I hope I’m not putting ______________________________________
4. We only came to this restaurant because you insisted that we did so.
It was at _______________________________________________
5. Arguing with her won’t get you anywhere.
It won’t do __________________________________________________

PART II. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible
in meaning to the original one, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE the word
given. (7.5 pts)
1. The police had to let the suspect go because new evidence was produced. LIGHT
→The police had to_________________________________
2. I feel that I don’t fit in with the people in the new office. FISH
14
→I feel ________________________________ in the new office.
3. Most people expect the minister to resign. HIGHLY
→It seems ________________________________________resign
4. His holiday failed through lack of support. BACK
→His holiday failed __________________________________ him up.
5. His grandfather is now having an operation. KNIFE
→His grandfather is now ___________________________________

PART III. (25pts). Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
Classmates are a more important influence than parents on a child’s success at
school.

Write a paragraph of about 150 words to express your point of view on this topic.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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------ THE END -----

16
SỞ GD & ĐT QUẢNG NAM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NGUYỄN BỈNH KHIÊM Năm học 2015 – 2016 (đề xuất)
MÔN TIẾNG ANH- LỚP 10
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
Bài thi gồm 18 trang. Tổng điểm: 200)

I. LISTENING: (40 points)

PART 1.
You are going to listen a journalist called Max Wilson talking about a book about
luck in sport by Matthew Syed. Listen to the whole interview and choose the best
answer A, B, or C.(10 pts)
1. Max says that top sportspeople usually believe their success is due to
A. good fortune
B. hard work
C. natural skill
2. According to Max, the examples of recent sporting achievements prove
A. that people in general have become stronger and fitter
B. that standards are getting higher
C. that technology is responsible for improved performance
3. In the book Matthew Syed says he had a greater chance of success because of
A. his parents’ love of table tennis.
B. his competitive brother.
C. his own ambition.
4. That advantage is mentioned of the Omega Club when Matthew joined?
A. It was open all the time.
B. It had a lot of good players.
C. It had great facilities.
5. Max says that a ten-year investigation has shown that lucky people
A. believe they will succeed.
 B. look for good opportunities.
C. depend less on talent.

Write your answers here:

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. B

PART 2.
Listen to a nutritionist called Penny Flack talking about the effects of health and
diet in some countries around the world. Are these statements True (T) or False
(F)? (10 pts)
EATING FOR HEALTH
1 A quarter of Europeans and Americans are now said to be obese.
2 American politicians have been discussing how to tackle the causes and
consequences of obesity.
3 High-fat cheese and meat is causing the French to become obese.
4 Heart disease is becoming more common in Japan and Greenland.
5 Scientists have discovered that a number of spices used in Indian cooking can
improve brain health.

Write your answers here:

1. T 2. F 3. F 4. F 5. T

PART 3.
Listen to a talk on insomnia – the inability to sleep properly. Complete the
following notes on the talk about insomnia. Write NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (20 pts)

 CAUSES
People may have trouble falling asleep due to worries about exams or a (1)
………………..…………
 It can be due to (2) ………………………………….factors: noise, light, no
privacy.
It can be due to occupational factors: working irregular hours, overworking, too
much (3) …………………………………., high stress.
 SOLUTIONS
In situations where the patient is suffering from illness and physical discomfort,
a doctor may give them (4) …………………………………. or (5)
………………………………….
(6) …………………………………. before going to bed.
Watch your diet. Don’t eat a large meal in the evening. Avoid alcohol, cola and
coffee.
Drink herbal tea (e.g. camomile) or (7) ………………………………….
Don’t take naps during (8) ………………………………….
Take a (9) ………………………………….before bed or after exercise.
Cut down on (10) …………………………………. in the evening.

Write your answers here:

1. ………………………………… 6. ………………………………………
2. ………………………………… 7. ………………………………………
3. ………………………………… 8. ………………………………………
4. ………………………………… 9. ………………………………………
5. ………………………………… 10. ………………………………………

Write your answers here:

1. job interview 6. relax
2. domestic 7. fruit juice
3. travelling 8. the day
4. painkillers 9. warm bath
5. sleeping pills 10. smoking
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60 points )
Part 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions. (10ps)

1. It is an impressive work at first but it does not really _______ close examination.
A. stand up to B. stand out from C. stand up for D. stand in for
2. Unfortunately, I think there is one very serious _______ in your argument.
A. rip B. blemish C. split D. flaw
3. The lecturer _______ a number of parallels between Blake's engravings and
devotional art.
A. drew B. pulled C. tied D. linked
4. He was so _______ on his work that he lost all track of time.
A. intent B. intentional C. intense D. intensive
5. It is an _______ that the most talented artists often go completely unrecognized in
their lifetime.
A. irregularity B. eccentricity C. anomaly D. abnormality
6. She suffered a few disappointments at first but she took them all in her _______
A. pace B. march C. step D. stride
7. The course is intended for well qualified graduates who wish to improve their
career ________
A. perspectives B. views C. prospects D. vistas
8. He started his first business ________ as soon as he left school and now he's a
millionaire.
A. affair B. essay C. venture D. trial
9. I was shocked to hear that Mrs Cane had decided to ________in her notice
A. place B. hand C. put D. offer
10.It's a very competitive field, but if that's what you really want to do, then don't be
_______off.
A. sent B. put C. set D. held
11.In these times of high unemployment everyone thought my giving up my job was
______ madness.
A. sheer B. steep C. high D. deep
12.I don't know how I am going to cope _______working without my personal
assistant.
A. in B. on C. thought D. with
13.I trusted you to do the job properly but you've _______me down.
A. let B. turned C. put D. kept
14.Jack was disappointed not to be promoted as he was given to _______ that the job
would be his.
 A. know B. understand C. realize D. say
15.That loud heavy metal music from next door is _______ me up the wall.
A. driving B. sending C. bringing D. pushing
16.Bright children who are ________ on the uptake may get bored easily if they are
not stimulated enough at school.
A. swift B. fast C. quick D. rapid
17.This new model of car is the _______ in driving luxury.
A. penultimate B. ultimate C. finest D. best
18.Shiftwork does have its ________ sometimes.
A. purposes B. conveniences C. reasons D. uses
19.My husband told me in no _______ terms that I would have to economize on
household expenses.
A unsure B uncertain C vague D unclear
20.We had a _______ of a time at Jason's party 10 yesterday.
A whale B period C whole D week

Write your answers here:

1.A 2.D 3.A 4.A 5.C 6.D 7.C 8.C 9.B 10.B
11.A 12.B 13.A 14.B 15.A 16.C 17.B 18.D 19.B 20.A

Part 2. Find and correct TEN mistakes in the following passage. Write them
down & give the correction. (10 pts)
The Birth of Venus
The Florentine master Sandro Botticelli created one of the most grateful and joyful
image of the model age, and the single most popular painting in the Uffizi. To see
them at its best, you need to pre-book a ticket to timed entry at 8.15 a.m., courtesy of
the Firenze Musei booked service; don’t be put off if you can’t get over on the phone
first time. Once inside, head straight for the suite of rooms 10-14, where the
Botticellis are displaying. Then take in the other highlights of the collects- the Da
Vincis in room 15, the Raphaels in room 26, and the Caravaggios in room 43- staying
ahead of the hordes becau se you go. If there are any gaps you need filling in, work
backwards towards the entrance: by now, the crowds will be avoided, but you’ll have
already had the masters to yourself.
Write your answers here: 0 parent --> parents
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Mistakes Corrections Mistakes Corrections

1. model modern 6. displaying displayed
2. them it 7. collects collection
3. to for 8. because as/when
4. booked booking 9. filling to fill
5. over through 10. avoided unavoidable

Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. (10
points)
1. He was the sort of person who immediately made you feel _________ ease.
2. The monk told me that the old woman had not really died. He said that she simply
passed ________ her next life
3. Is it possible to insure yourself __________ nuclear attack?
4. The shop is closing down and selling ___________ all the stock at reduced price
5. I’ve take this watch __________ pieces and now I can’t put it together again.
6. We got lost last night and ended ____________ in the next town.
7. Suddenly, __________ warnings, the door burst open and she rushed in.
8. These traditions have been handed ______________ from generation to
generation.
9. I was ____________ the impression that you had to be twenty-one to vote in
general elections.
10. Just as the sun was breaking ____________, a loud bang was heard at the back of
the house.
Write your answers here:
1. at 2. into 3. against 4. off 5. to
6. up 7. without 8. down 9. under 10. out

Part 4: Read the text below. Use the words given in capitals at the end of some of
the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. There is an example at
the beginning (0). (20 pts)

Dirty money
Sooner or later it's something that everyone does; you put your jeans
into the washing machine, having completely (0) forgotten about the FORGET
money in the pocket. Coins, on the whole, survive the experience
relatively (1) ________ , but the same is not true of banknotes. HARM
These have a (2) ________to disintegrate as a result of prolonged TEND
(3) ________ to the forces of heat, water and detergent. If you live EXPOSE
in Britain, however, all may not be lost. It is possible to
senddamaged banknotes, (4)________for use as payment in shops ACCEPT
andother retail (5)________ , to the Bank of England's "Mutilated LET
Notes
Section” (BEMS) in Leeds. Here experts will give the note a EXAMINE
thorough (6) ________and, if they are convinced that it is indeed the REPLACE
remains of a valid banknote, they will send you a (7) _______- or at
least a cheque of the equivalent value.
And it's not only washing machines that destroy notes. According APPLY
to BEMS staff, who receive up to 500 (8) ______ per week, toddlers
and puppy dogs also figure high on the list of offenders, as do FORTUNE
people who hide their savings in rather (9) ______ places, such as
microwave ovens or damp cellars. Sometimes, even banks make use
of the service, as happened during last year's spring floods when a
number of branches found that their burglar-proof and fireproof EQUAL
safes sadly were not (10) _________ waterproof.

Write your answers here:

1. unharmed 2. tendency 3. exposure 4. unacceptable 5. outlets
6. examination 7. replacement 8. applications 9. unfortunate 10. equally

III. READING (60 points)

Part 1: For questions 1-15, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C
or D) best fits each space.
AARDVARKS
When the Boer settlers first arrived in South Africa from Holland, they found a
strange animal. Its ears (1) … those of a donkey and its body is (2) … with stiff hair.
It has a long snout, (3) … longer than that of a pig, and long eyelashes. It is also (4)
… with very short, powerful legs, with (5) … it digs into the ground. The Boers
named it ‘aardvark’, which means ‘earth pig’ in the (6) … Dutch.
The favourite food of the aardvark is termites. Termites are insects that live in large
colonies, (7) … ants. Using (8) …….. and saliva, termites construct a tall mound
which is as hard as concrete. The aardvark uses its (9) … legs to break the termite
mound (10) … and get at the insects inside. There are special termites, (11) … as
soldiers, who try to protect the colony. Aardvarks, (12) …, have thick skin to protect
themselves from bites.
Females only (13) … birth to one baby a year, so aardvarks are quite rare. When they
are (14) … threat, they use their tough legs to quickly dig underground to (15) …
from their attacker. Aardvarks are not often seen because they are nocturnal, sleeping
in their burrows during the day and coming out to hunt at night.
1. A. appear B. resemble C. seem D. look
2. A. covered B. full C. decorated D. surrounded
3. A. very B. more C. much D. as
4. A. qualified B. enabled C. provided D. equipped
5. A. which B. them C. those D. these
6. A. primary B. genuine C. first D. original
7. A as B. like C. so D. also
8. A. soil B. ground C. floor D. surface
9. A .top B. forward C. front D. ahead
10. A. out B. open C. over D. through
11. A. recognized B. called C. named D. known
12. A. although B. despite C. though D. still
13. A. give B. make C. do D. have
14. A. in B. under C. with D. on
15. A. avoid B. prevent C. remove D. escape

Write your answers here:

1.B 2.A 3.C 4.D 5.A 6.D 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.B
11.D 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.D

PART 2: For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which
best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. (10 points )
There is an example at the beginning (0).
Example: 0 which
ACUPUNCTURE
Acupuncture is a Chinese medical technique (0) …which… has been practised
for more than 4000 years. It involves inserting long thin needles into particular spots
in the skin, (1) …………… as acupuncture points, and rotating them. It is mainly
used to relieve pain but it is also sometimes used for curing disease and improving
general health.
Acupuncture is (2) …………… of the great mysteries of medical science.
There is little doubt that it can be effective in relieving pain. Western doctors have
witnessed surgical operations carried (3) …………… on Chinese patients who were
anaesthetised only by acupuncture and yet showed no signs (4) …………… pain.
However, Western scientists have still not (5) ………… up with an adequate
explanation as to how acupuncture actually works. At one time it was believed that
acupuncture was related in some way to hypnosis, but this has now been proved (6)
……… to be true. Still, acupuncture is (7) ………..…increasingly popular here in the
West, with many American and European doctors now believing acupuncture may
have a role to play in medicine, although most argue that much more research needs
to be (8)…………… first.
In 1972, acupuncture received some welcome publicity as a result of President
Nixon’s trip to China. Nixon became ill during the trip and (9) ……… rushed to
hospital. He later (10) …… reporters that acupuncture had greatly relieved his pain.
Write your answers here:
1. known 2. one 3. out 4. of 5. come
6. not 7. becoming 8. done 9. was 10. told
PART 3: For questions 1-10, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits
best according to the text. (15 points)
At 7p.m on a dark, cold November evening, thousands of people are making
their way across a vast car park. They’re not here to see a film, or the ballet, or even
the circus. They are here for what is, bizarrely, a global phenomenon: they are here to
see Holiday on Ice. Given that most people don’t seem to be acquainted with anyone
who’s ever been, the show’s statistics are extraordinary: nearly 300 million people
have seen Holiday on Ice since it began in 1943: it is the most popular live
entertainment in the world.
But what does the production involve? And why they are so many people
prepared to spend their lives traveling round Europe in caravans in order to appear in
it? It can’t be glamorous, and it’s undoubtedly hard work. The backstage atmosphere
is an odd mix of gym class and workplace. A curtained-off section at the back of the
arena is laughably referred to as the girl’s dressing room, but is more accurately
described as a corridor, with beige, cracked walls and cheap temporary tables set up
along the length of it. Each girl has a small area littered with pots of orange make-up,
tubes of mascara and long false eyelashes.
As a place to work, it must rank pretty low down the scale: the area round
the ice-rink is grey and mucky with rows of dirty blue and brown plastic seating and
red carpet tiles. It’s an unimpressive picture, but the show itself is an unquestionably
vast, polished global enterprise: the lights come from a firm in Texas, the people who
make the audio system are in California, nut Montreal supplies the smoke effects:
former British Olympic skater Robin Cousins is now creative director for the
company and conducts a vast master class to make sure they’re ready for the show’s
next performance.
The next day, as the music blares out from the sound system, the cast start to
go through their routines under Cousins’ direction. Cousins says, The aim is to make
sure they’re all still getting to exactly the right place on the ice at the right time –
largely because the banks of lights in the ceiling are set to those places, and if the
skaters are all half a metre out they’ll be illuminating empty ice. Our challenge’, he
continues, ‘is to produce something they can sell in the number of countries at the
same time. My theory is that you take those things that people want to see and you
give it to them, but not in the way they expect to see it. You try to twist it. And you
have to find music that is challenging to the skaters, because they have to do it every
night.’
It may be a job which he took to pay the rent, but you can’t doubt his
enthusiasm. ‘The only place you’ll see certain skating moves in an ice show’, he says,
‘because you’re not allowed to do them in competition. It’s not in the rules. So the
ice show world has things to offer which the competitive world just doesn’t.’ Cousins
knows what he’s talking about because he skated for the show himself when he
stopped competing – he was financially unable to retire. He learnt the hard way that
you can’t put on an Olympic performance every night. ‘I’d be thinking, these people
have paid their money, now do your stuff, and I suddenly thought, “I really can’t
cope. I’m not enjoying it”.’ The solution, he realized, was to give 75 percent every
night, rather than striving for the sort of twice-a-year excellence which won his
medals.
To be honest, for those of us whose only experience of ice-skating is watching
top-class Olympic skaters, some of the movements can look a bit amateurish, but
then, who are we to judge? Equally, it’s impossible not to be swept up in the whole
thing; well, you’d have to try pretty hard not to enjoy it.
1. According to paragraph 1, the writer is surprised to see that although Holiday
on Ice is popular ……………………………………………
A. people often prefer other types of show
B. people prefer to see a film, the ballet or the circus
C. most people consider it as a holiday
D. few people know someone who has seen it
2. From the phrase, “it must rank pretty low down the scale” in paragraph 3 we
can infer that…………..
A. Holiday on Ice has rather poor working condition
B. Holiday on Ice has a very dirty place to work
C. Skaters do not enjoy working in this place
D. Skaters do not earn much money form the job
3. Which of the following adjectives can be used to describe the backstage area?
A. glamorous B. relaxing C. messy D. old
4. It is mentioned in paragraph 3 that………….
A. many companies are involved in the production
B. it is difficult to find suitable equipment
C. the show needs financial support
D. the show has been staged in many places
5. For Robin Cousins, the aim of the rehearsal is………………….
A. to keep in time with the music
B. to adjust the spotlights
C. to be acquainted with the stage
C. to position the skaters on the ice
6. Cousins’ theory on how to produce shows for different audiences is
that……………………..
A. he adapts movements to suit everyone
B. he selects suitable music
C. he presents performance in an unexpected way
D. he varies the routines every night
7. It is suggested in paragraph 5 that skating in shows……………
A. enables skaters to visit a variety of places
B. is as competitive as other forms of skating
C. can be particularly well paid
D. doesn’t force skaters to try out moves appearing in competitions
8. The pronouns “them” in paragraph 5 prefer to………………
A certain skating moves
B. some famous skaters
C. some live performance
D. certain ice shows
 9. The phrase “the hard way” in paragraph 5 is mostly means…………
A. by working very hard
B. by having expectations of others
C. through personal experience
D. through doing things again and again
10. Which of the following is the writers’ conclusion of Holiday on Ice?
A. Olympic ice-skating is more enjoyable than Holiday on Ice
B. Everyone should enjoy watching Holiday on Ice
C. Holiday on Ice requires more skills than Olympic ice-skating
D. It is hard to know who really enjoys Holiday on Ice.

Write your answers here:

1.D 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.D
6.C 7.D 8.A 9.C 10.B

PART4: Fill in each gap in the passage with one suitable sentence from A-J
What You Need to Know about Culture Shock
Most people who move to a foreign country or culture may experience a period of
time when they feel very homesick and have a lot of stress and difficulty functioning
in the new culture. (1)……
First of all, it’s important to know that culture shock is normal. (2)…… If you go,
for example, to a culture that is far different from your own, you’re likely to
experience culture shock more sharply than those who move to a new culture
knowing the language and the behavioral norms of the new culture.
(3)……………………………………………………………………….
The first stage is usually referred to as the excitement stage or the ‘honeymoon’
stage. (4)…… During this stage you are merely soaking up the new landscape, taking
in these impressions passively, and at this stage you have little meaningful experience
of the culture.
 But it isn’t long before the honeymoon stage dissolves into the second stage –
sometimes called the withdrawal stage. The excitement you felt before changes to
frustration as you find it difficult to cope with the problems that arise. (5)…… It is at
this stage that you are likely to feel anxious and homesick, and you will probably find
yourself complaining about the new culture or country. (6) ……
Culture shock is only temporary, and at some point, if you are one of those who
manage to stick it out, you’ll transition into the third stage of cultural adjustment, the
‘recovery’ stage. At this point, you’ll have a routine, and you’ll feel more confident
functioning in the new culture. (7)…… Customs and traditions are clearer and easier
to understand. At this stage, you’ll deal with new challenges with humor rather than
anxiety.
The last stage is the ‘home’ or ‘stability’ stage – this is the point when people start
to feel at home in the new culture. (8)……
There is, in a sense, a fifth stage to this process. (9)…… This means that you may
find aspects of your own culture ‘foreign’ because you are so used to the new culture
that you have spent so long adjusting to. (10)…… Reverse culture shock rarely lasts
for very long.

A. At this stage, you’ll function well in the new culture, adopt certain features and
behaviors from your new home, and prefer certain aspects of the new culture to
your own culture.
B. Upon arriving in a new environment, you’ll be interested in the new culture,
everything will seem exciting, everyone will seem friendly and helpful and you’ll
be overwhelmed with impressions.
C. Reverse culture shock is usually pretty mild – you may notice things about your
home culture that you had never noticed before, and some of the ways people do
things may seem odd.
D. There are four general stages of cultural adjustment, and it is important that you
are aware of these stages and can recognize which stage you are in and when so
that you will understand why you feel the way you do and that any difficulties you
 are experiencing are temporary, a process you are going through rather than a
constant situation.
E. You’ll start to feel less isolated as you start to understand and accept the way
things are done and the way people behave in your new environment.
F. This feeling is often called ‘culture shock’ and it is important to understand and
learn how to cope with culture shock if you are to adapt successfully to your new
home’s culture.
G. If you decide to return home after a long period in a new culture, you may
experience what is called ‘reverse culture shock’.
H. It seems that everything is difficult, the language is hard to learn, people are
unusual and unpredictable, friends are hard to make, and simple things like
shopping and going to the bank are challenges.
I. This is the stage which is referred to as ‘culture shock’.
J. Everyone in a new situation will go through some form of culture shock, and the
extent to which they do is determined by factors such as the difference between
cultures, the degree to which someone is anxious to adapt to a new culture and the
familiarity that person has to the new culture.
Fill in each gap in the passage with one suitable sentence from A-J

Write your answers here:

1. F 2.J 3.D 4.B 5. H
6. I 7. E 8.A 9.G 10.C

IV. WRITING (40 points)

PART 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar
as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (7.5 pts)
1. She was definitely displeased when I told her.
She was nothing _________________________________________________
2. Fortunately I found another job shortly afterwards.
I had_____________________________________________________________
3. I hope it’s not inconvenient for me to phone you so late.
I hope I’m not putting ______________________________________
4. We only came to this restaurant because you insisted that we did so.
 It was at _______________________________________________
5. Arguing with her won’t get you anywhere.
It won’t do __________________________________________________
ANSWER KEY
1. She was nothing but pleased when I told her
2. I had the good fortune to find another job shortly afterwards
3. I hope I am not putting you to any inconvenience by phoning you so late
4. It was at your insistence that we came to this restaurant.
5. It won’t do you any good to argue with her.

Part II. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as
possible in meaning to the original one, using the word given. DO NOT
CHANGE the word given. (7.5 pts)
1. The police had to let the suspect go because new evidence was produced.
LIGHT
→The police had to_________________________________
2. I feel that I don’t fit in with the people in the new office. FISH
→I feel ________________________________ in the new office.

3. Most people expect the minister to resign. HIGHLY

→It seems ________________________________________resign

4. His holiday failed through lack of support. BACK

→His holiday failed __________________________________ him up.
5. His grandfather is now having an operation. KNIFE
→His grandfather is now ___________________________________
ANSWER KEY
1. The police had to let the suspect go because new evidence was brought to light.
2. I feel like a fish out of water in the new office.
3. It seems highly likely that the minister will resign.
4. His holiday failed because no one was prepared to back it/him up.
5. His grandfather is now going under the knife.
PART III. (25 pts). Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
Classmates are a more important influence than parents on a child’s success at
school.

Write a paragraph of about 150 words to express your point of view on this
topic.

Marking scheme
1. Completion: 2 pts - The writing is complete.
- The writing is neither too long nor too short.
2. Content: 8 pts - Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic.
- Supported by specific example and/or reasonable
justifications.
3. Organization: 7 pts - Present the right form of a paragraph
- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity,
cohesion and coherence.
4. Language: 6 pts - Use a wide range of vocabulary and structures.
- Good use and control of grammatical structures.
5. Handwriting, - Intelligible handwriting.
punctuation and spelling: - Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
2 pts

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 TAPESCRIPT
PART 1
E = Examiner P = Presenter M = Max
E: You’re going to listen to a radio interview with a sports writer called Max Wilson
about luck in sport.

P: What is it that makes a champion? How much is sporting achievement down to the
ability you’re born with and how much to effort? And what part does luck play in
the difference between winning and losing? To discuss these questions with me is
sports writer Max Wilson. What’s the answer, Max?

M: Most top sportspeople claim that their success is down to dedication, ambition and
long hours of practice. Luck is rarely mentioned, unless they happen to lose, and
that’s sometimes blamed on something they couldn’t control, like the weather.

P: One thing that’s clear is that records go on being broken year after year. But is this
because athletes are bigger and stronger than they were twenty, fifty, a hundred
years ago? Or is it because sportspeople are getting more talented?

M: Well, experts say physical changes develop over a much longer time span. So it must
be that people are practising longer and harder, and striving to achieve more. Sure,
improvements in running shoes, tennis rackets and other technological advances
play their part, but they can’t account on their own for the differences in
standards.

P: Could it be that sportspeople are able to achieve more these days because their talent
is recognised and nourished at a younger and younger age?
M: That’s certainly true of incredibly successful tennis clubs like Spartak, in Moscow. In
recent years, this club’s created more top twenty women players than the whole of
the United States. But a seemingly exceptional natural talent in a young child is
often only the product of hours and hours of expert tuition and practice, and the
child is unlikely to continue to make progress at such a fast rate.

P: This is something that’s discussed in Matthew Syed’s book, Bounce, I believe?

M: Yes, he examines the relationship between talent, success and luck. Matthew was a
British number one and top international table tennis player during the late 1990s.
He lists several factors which he believes contributed to his success and which
had very little to do with his own talent. Matthew says his first piece of good
fortune was that when he was eight, his parents decided to buy a full-size,
professional table-tennis table, which they kept in the garage, as a way of keeping
their boys occupied and out of trouble. Matthew says he was also lucky that his
older brother loved the game as much as he did and was happy to fight out endless
battles in the garage.

P: But he was also a member of a really good club.

M: Absolutely. Matthew and his brother were lucky enough to be spotted by one of the
leading table tennis coaches in the country, Peter Charters, who ran the Omega
club. He also happened to be a teacher at Matthew’s primary school. The Omega
club wasn’t a big or well-known club in those days but the tiny group of members
could play whenever they liked, day or night, even though there was only one
table and it was freezing in winter and incredibly hot in summer.

P: I see. So how important was the Omega club in Matthew’s success?

M: Very important. The Omega club members began having considerable success and
started to attract a lot of attention. The street where Matthew lived, Silverdale
Road, contained an astonishing number of the country’s top players, including
both the men’s and women’s future Commonwealth champions. Was this
inevitable, given the quality of the coach, the talent of the players and the location
of the Omega club, or was it, as Matthew argues in the book, just a combination of
lucky events? If he hadn’t lived in Silverdale oad, he would have gone to a
different school and he wouldn’t have met Peter Charters, nor become a member
of the Omega club.

P: Do you think Matthew Syed is right about the importance of luck?

M: Interestingly, a ten-year investigation into what makes people lucky or unlucky has
concluded that people do make their own luck. Obviously, Matthew couldn’t have
succeeded without some raw talent, but he also took full advantage of the
opportunities given to him, and this is what ultimately made him so successful.
Lucky people are better at taking chances and finding ways to improve their
situation. Unlucky people are less likely to take risks and don’t like change. If
there are lessons to be learnt …

PART 2
Thanks for that lovely introduction, Helen. You are doubtless aware that obesity –
being grossly overweight – is one of the greatest challenges of the 21st century. The
instances of this have tripled since the 80s and continue to rise at an alarming rate,
affecting around one in four citizens in Europe and the USA. As well as causing physical
and psychological problems, excess weight drastically increases a person’s chances of
developing serious illnesses. Which is why ministers from the European Union
convened a meeting this week, specifically to address the issue of healthcare and how
long governments will be able to afford to fund this, given the mounting cost of obesity-
related diseases.
It’s actually not so much overweight adults that’s the issue for me; it’s the young
people who are growing up eating so much junk food. In my view, it’s the
advertisements for all this stuff that are partly to blame because they target kids. They
should be banned!
Obese 12-year-olds are eighty-two percent more likely to be obese adults. Which
is why the quality of school dinners must also be addressed. Most of you will be shocked
when I tell you that this government spends four times more per head on prisoners’
meals than on those for kids in school – that’s how much of a priority they’ve been!
Thank goodness something is finally being done to improve this situation. Although this
does involve spending more, it will save us money in the long run.
In order for obesity to be reduced, it is clear that supermarkets also need to take
more responsibility for the contents of the products they sell. True, there is much more
availability of low-fat food on the shelves these days. Now the World Health
Organization has issued new guidelines suggesting that we cut the amount of sugar we
consume daily by as much as a half to bring it to a recommended limit of 25 grams per
day. Which is less than the amount you will get in just one can of some fizzy drinks or
ready-prepared meals.
People often ask me how come the French manage to remain relatively slim
despite their love of high-fat cheeses and meat. I’m inclined to think that the key is their
approach to food. Because they still tend to have proper sit-down meals, they seem to be
less tempted by the high-calorie snacks that are the downfall of many other cultures.
Also, in my view, the fact that lunchtime tends to be the main meal in France,
rather than dinner, is also a contributory fact. The earlier in the day calories are
consumed, the more opportunity there is to convert them into energy, so we should
follow their example and try not to have a heavy meal in the evenings.
Moving on to other parts of the world, why is it that in Japan, for example, life
expectancy is much higher than anywhere else in the world? One of the reasons could be
that their diet is built around rice and fish and plentiful fruit and vegetables. There is
little meat, animal fat or sweets and two thirds of their calorie intake comes from
carbohydrates, as opposed to the UK or the USA, where fat accounts for much more
than the recommended quarter of our daily calories.
You would think the Inuit in Greenland had very little in common with the
Japanese, wouldn’t you? And unlike the Japanese, 60 percent of the calories eaten in
Greenland do come from fat – even more than we consume – and they eat surprisingly
little fruit and vegetables. However, as in Japan, heart disease there is not that common.
The difference is that the fat they eat is from oily fish such as salmon and mackerel. This
type of unsaturated fat, called omega three, we already know has huge benefits for the
bones. What has only recently been discovered and is therefore less well known is that it
is also said to improve mental health.
And for those of us who are worried about forgetting things, scientists are also
suggesting that turmeric, a key ingredient of curries, may be a major factor as to why
elderly Indian people are less likely to lose their memory than someone in the western
world. So perhaps we can learn ...

PART 3.
Insomnia is a sleep disorder. We all have trouble sleeping from time to time.
That’s not really insomnia. Insomnia is when you are regularly not getting enough sleep
or perhaps not getting a satisfying sleep. If either of those situations applies to you, then
you could have insomnia. However, don’t go running to your doctor for medication just
yet. Insomnia is often a lifestyle disease and pills from a doctor will not help unless you
deal with the underlying causes of your insomnia by changing your lifestyle. For
example, some people suffer from insomnia before something stressful like exams or a
job interview . They cease to suffer from insomnia after the event. Insomnia can be
caused by domestic factors, such as lighting, noise, and lack of privacy. It can also be
caused by occupational factors, such as working irregular hours – a particular problem
for transport and health workers, overworking – usually 70 plus hours a week, too much
travelling, or simply high stress at work.
Insomnia is more likely to occur as we get older and symptoms include not being
able to fall asleep, waking regular during the night and not being able to get back to
sleep, waking up early and not feeling refreshed after a night’s sleep. Insomnia can also
cause problems during the day, such as feeling tired and lethargic, wanting to sleep,
difficulty concentrating, and irritability. We all need different amounts of sleep so it is
not the length of sleep that determines insomnia, but the quality of sleep. Primary
insomnia means that the sleep problem is not directly linked to any other health problem.
Secondary insomnia means that the sleep problem is caused by another condition such as
depression, arthritis, stress, pain, worry, a serious illness, or medication. Acute insomnia
is a short-term problem whereas a long-term problem is known as chronic insomnia and
is usually diagnosed when a person cannot sleep at least three times week for a month
or longer.
As you may aware, doctors may prescribe some painkillers, or sleeping pills,
particularly in cases of illness or physical discomfort, but for chronic insomnia, the
underlying condition that is causing the problem needs to be treated. As I said before,
this usually involves a change in lifestyle. Relaxation techniques have been proven to be
extremely useful to people suffering from insomnia. It is important to relax before going
to bed. Some relaxation techniques and alternative therapies such as TaiChi, medication
and and massage may also be beneficial in getting a good night’s sleep. Another thing
that insomniacs should do is pay particular attention to what they eat and drink and
when. Don’t eat a heavy meal late in the evening. Avoid alcohol and stimulants like coca
and coffee before going to bed. Have herbal tea or fruit juice instead. One of my
favourite suggestions is to drink a cup of camomile tea with a little honey in it before
bedtime. Delicious!
Although exercise is obviously good for your health, don’t exercise just before
bedtime. Exercise tends to stimulate the mind and the body. At the beginning of the talk,
I mentioned light and noise. Make sure your bedroom dark and quiet. Also make sure
that it is at the right temperature for you – not too hot or cold. Go to sleep at the same
time each night and get up at the same time each morning, with no naps during the day.
Follow a relaxing routine as much as possible and wind down before sleep by, for
example, reading a book or listening to music. Take a warm bath after exercise or before
bedtime, adding a few drops of lavender essential oil. It sounds luxurious and it is.
Finally, a word to all you smokers out there – reduce the frequency with which you light
up – particularly in the evening.