1.) Reservoir host allows parasite’s life c.

Commonly found in Belize,

cycle to continue and become an Guatemala and Yucatan peninsula
additional sources of infection. d. Commonly found in areas where
Definitive host or final host is the host chicle sap is harvested
which harbors the parasite’s asexual 6.) Dumdum fever is a common name for
stage. cutaneous leishmaniasis. Dumdum
a. The first statement is true, the fever is caused by L. donovani.
latter is false a. The former statement is true, the
b. The first statement is false, the latter is false
latter is true b. The former statement is false, the
c. Both are true latter is true
d. Both are false c. Both are true
2.) Which of the following is true about d. Both are false
Leishmania tropica? 7.) Which of the following is true?
1. Causes Baghdad boils 1. Baghdad boil – L. tropica
2. Causes chiclero ulcer 2. Dumdum fever – L. donovani
3. Causes oriental sores 3. Chiclero ulcer – L. Mexicana
4. Also known as kala azar 4. Espundia – L. braziliensis
a. 1&3 a. 1&2
b. 2&4 b. 1,3,4
c. 1 only c. 1,2,3 only
d. 1,2,3 d. 1,2,3,4
3.) Which of the following is true about e. 4 only
Baghdad boils? 8.) Which of the following is true about L.
1. Caused by L. Mexicana braziliensis
2. Caused by Old World Leishmaniasis 1. It is the principal cause of
3. A cutaneous form of mucocutaneous disease in Central
Trypanosomiasis and North America
4. Presents with pus containing ulcers 2. Causes mucocutaneous disease
a. 1&2 particularly in brazil
b. 3&4 3. Causes Espundia
c. 1&3 4. Caused by a trypanosome spp.
d. 2&4 a. 1&4
e. 4 only b. 2&3
4.) Bagdad boils:________; Bay c. 1,2,3
sore:____________ d. 1,2,3,4
a. L. Mexicana ; L. tropica e. 3 only
b. L. Mexicana ; L. Braziliensis
c. L. guyanensis; L. tropica
d. L. tropica; L. donovani
e. None
5.) Which is not true about chiclero ulcer?
a. It caused by trypanosomiasis 9.) Which of the following is true about
b. It is caused by L. mexicana Forest Yaws?
 1. Caused by Leishmaniaisis demonstrated except T. cruzi where
2. Caused by L. guyanensis amastigote may also be found.
3. Principal cause of mucocutaneous a. True
leishmaniasis in the Guianas b. False
4. Also known as pian bois 15.) Which of the following is true about a
a. 1&3 hemoflagellate’s amastigote form?
b. 2&4 1. Round shape
c. 1,2,3,4 2. Has a bhleparoplast that
d. 4 only consists of parabasal body and
10.) Which of the following is not true? kinetoplast
1. Dumdum fever – mucocutaneous 3. Nucleus is eccentric
2. Forest Yaws – mucocataneous 4. It has a flagella that originates
3. Bay sore – cutaneous in the axoneme
4. Espundia – visceral a. 1&3
a. 1&4 b. 2&4
b. 3&4 c. 1,2,3
c. 2&4 d. 1,3,4
d. 1&3 e. 1 only
e. 4 only 16.) Axoneme originates in the
11.) Kala Azar is the most severe form of blepharoplast. Blepharoplast is adjacent
viseceral lieshmaniasis. Kala Azar are to the parabasal body.
caused by members of L. donovani a. The former is true, the latter is false
complex b. The former is false, the latter is true
a. The former is true, the latter is false c. Both are true
b. The former is false, the latter is true d. Both are false
c. Both are true 17.) Amastigote usually measures 5 x 3
d. Both are false mcm. Promastigote and Epimastigote
12.) Pruritus refers to intense itching. usually measures 9 by 15 mcm long.
Oriental sore is caused by L. tropica a. The former statement is true, the
complex. latter is false
a. The former is true, the latter is false b. The former statement is false, the
b. The former is false, the latter is true latter is true
c. Both are true c. Both are true
d. Both are false d. Both are false
13.) UTA is a reference to visceral
leishmaniasis in Peruvian Andes. UTA is
linked with Andean cutaneous
leishmaniasis, uta.
a. The former is true, the latter is false
b. The former is false, the latter is true
c. Both are true
d. Both are false
14.) Leishmania and Trypanosoma is
diagnosed when trypomastigote is
18.) Which of the following is true? 21.) Which of the following is related to
1. Promastigote wider than leptomonal form?
epimastigote a. Amastigote
2. C,S,U shaped amastigotes are b. Promastigote
usually seen in stained blood films c. Epimastigote
3. The only difference in the d. Trypomastigote
morphology of epimastigote and 22.) Which of the following is related to
trypomastigote is the length of the crithidial form?
undulating membrane a. Amastigote
4. The nucleus of the epimastigote is b. Promastigote
located posterior to the kinetoplast c. Epimastigote
a. 1&3 d. Trypomastigote
b. 2&4 23.) Which of the following is common to
c. 1,2,3 promastigote, epimastigote,
d. 4 only trypomastigote?
e. None a. Position of the nucleus
19.) Which of the following is not true? b. Size
1. Amastigotes doesn’t have a flagella c. Flagella
2. Only amastigotes do not have an d. Undulating membrane
undulating membrane 24.) Trypomastigotes usually measure 12 to
3. The main function of an undulating 35 mcm long and 2 to 4 mcm wide. It is
membrane is for protection long and slender and often seen in C,S,
4. The flagella of trypomastigotes are U shape appearance in blood smears.
found in the anterior end a. The former is true, the latter is false
a. 1&4 b. The former is false, the latter is true
b. 2&3 c. Both are true
c. 1&3 d. Both are false
d. 1&4 25.) Which of the following is a vector for
e. 3 only Trypanosoma cruzi?
20.) Promastigote’s kinetoplast is located in a. Triatoma
the anterior end. Trypomastigote’s b. Glossina palpalis
kinetoplast is located in the center. c. Glossina tachioides
Epimastigote’s kinetoplast is located in d. Cattle
the posterior end.
a. The first is true, the second is true,
the last is false
b. The first is true, the second is false,
the last is true
c. The first is false, the second is true,
the last is false
d. The first is true, the second is false,
the third is false
e. All is true
f. All is false
26.) Which of the following is not true e. 3&4
about Chagas’ disease? 30.) Which of the following is a reservoir
1. Also known as American sleeping host for T. cruzi?
sickness 1. Cattle
2. Most commonly seen in children 2. Dog
younger than 5 3. Sheep
3. Caused by T. brucei spp. 4. Armadillo
4. It is caused by a parasite that was 5. Cow
discovered and studied before it 6. Raccoons
was known to cause disease 7. Shark
a. 1&3 8. Primates
b. 2&4 a. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
c. 1&4 b. 2,4,6,8
d. 3&4 c. 1,3,5,7
e. 1,2,3 d. 1,7,8
27.) Who discovered Trypanosoma cruzi? e. 4,6,8
a. Dio Cruzi 31.) Which of the following is true about T.
b. Joseph Chagas cruzi?
c. Gabrielle von cruzi 1. Trypamastigotes – bloodstream
d. Carlos Chagas 2. Amastigotes – tissue
e. None of the above 3. Epimastigote – midgut of vector
28.) Which of the following is a vector for T. 4. Metacyclic promastigote – hindgut
cruzi? of vector
1. Triatoma a. 1&2
2. Rhodnius b. 3&4
3. Panstrongylus c. 1,2,3
4. Reduviid bugs d. 1,2,3,4
a. 1,2,3 e. 4 only
b. 4 only 32.) A patient diagnosed with American
c. 1,2,3,4 trypanosomiasis through tissue biopsy,
d. 1,2,4 under the microscope the parasite T.
29.) Which of the following is true about T. cruzi is observed but C, S or U shape is
cruzi? not seen. What is the possible
1. Belongs to trypanosome group explanation for this situation?
salivaria a. It is a false positive result
2. It multiplies within the mammalian b. The parasite is in its amastigote
host in a continuous manner form
3. Extracellular parasite that attacks c. C, S, U shaped amastigotes can only
myocytes primarily be seen through blood smears
4. Exhibits four stages of development d. Serologic test is more reliable for
a. 1&3 diagnosis
b. 2&4
c. 3 only
d. 4 only
33.) These form of T. cruzi are ovoid in d. Precyclic Trypomastigote
shape and usually found in small groups 39.) Which is true about metacyclic
of cyst-like collections in tissues trypomastigotes of T. cruzi?
a. Promastigote 1. It is the infective form
b. Epimastigote 2. Appear in the insect’s rectum 8-10
c. Trypomastigote after infection
d. Amastigote 3. Gain entry through wounds
e. Trypanosoma 4. They are injected to the
34.) Which of the following is a bloodstream when the bug bites
characteristic of a T. cruzi the host
trypomastigote? a. 1&4
1. Has an undulating membrane with 5 b. 2&3
undulations c. 1,2,3
2. Has a single flagellum originating in the d. 1,2,3,4
the parabasal body 40.) Which of the following is true about
3. The posterior end is blunt Chagas disease?
4. It is long and slender with C,S,U shape 1. Mainly affects the myocardium the
a. 1&3 muscular third layer of the heart
b. 2&4 wall
c. 1,3,4 2. Chagomas which are furuncle-like
d. 4 only lessions or small reddish nodule
35.) What form of T. cruzi multiplies inside appear near the site of inoculation
the mammalian host? 3. Chronic symptoms resolves after 1-
a. Amastigote 2 months
b. Promastigote 4. The early stage aka hemolymphatic
c. Epimastigote stage of chagas lasts 1-6 months
d. Trypomastigote a. 1&3
36.) Which of the following is the b. 2&4
intermediate host of T. cruzi? c. 2 only
a. Humans d. 4 only
b. Arthopod vector 41.) Kissing bugs are vectors of T. cruzi
c. Domestic animals which feeds near the lips.
d. All of the above a. True
e. None of the above b. False
37.) How does T. cruzi multiply?
a. Sexual reproduction
b. Binary fission
c. Cell division
d. Cell lysis
38.) What form of T. cruzi is found in the
insect’s midgut?
a. Metacyclic trypomastigote
b. Epimastigote
c. Amastigote
42.) Which of the following is true about 47.) Which of the following is a treatment
the acute phase of T. cruzi? drug for Trypanosomiasis which is an
a. If the parasite penetrates through antifungal agent?
the conjunctiva, Romanas Sign may a. Allopurinol
form b. Nifortimox
b. Symptoms resolves after 1-2 c. Ketoconazole
months d. Benznidazole
c. Even if the host is asymptomatic 48.) Which of the following drugs causes
he/she can still transmit the weight loss and behavioral changes?
parasite a. Allopurinol
d. The lesions represent the entry of b. Nifortimox
the parasite c. Ketoconazole
e. Two of the above d. Benznidazole
f. Three of the above 49.) Which of the following drugs causes
g. All of the above rashes and bone marrow suppression?
43.) T. cruzi can be found In south, north a. Allopurinol
and central America. It has highest b. Nifortimox
prevalence of disease in Brazil. c. Ketoconazole
a. The first is true, the latter is false d. Benznidazole
b. The first is false, the latter is true 50.) Western Blot is enough for diagnosis of
c. Both are true trypanosomiasis. ECG result of patient
d. Both are false wih T. cruzi may show ventricular
44.) Which of the following is not true extrasystole and atrial fibrillation.
about Chronic Chagas? a. The former statement is true, the
a. It affects the heart primarily the latter is false
muscle layer of the heart wall b. The former statement is false, the
b. It harms the cardiac conduction latter is true
network c. Both are true
c. It causes increases in nerve ganglia d. Both are false
leading to megasyndromes 51.) Trypomastigotes of T. cruzi are mainly
d. It can affect the intestine found in the blood stream. They
45.) Which of the following is used primarily can only be detected in the first two
to detect presence of the months of infection. They can also be
Trypanosoma? found in the lymp and CSF.
a. Thick blood smear a. The first is true, the second is true,
b. Thin blood smear the last is false
c. All of the above b. The first is true, the second is false,
46.) Which of the following is used primarily the third is false
to identify the spp. of trypanosoma? c. The first is true, the second is false,
a. Thick blood smear the third is true
b. Thin blood smear d. All is true
c. All of the above e. All is false
52.) Chronic American 3. T. brucei gambiense – chronic –
Trypanosomiasis:_________; Acute west African sleeping sickness –
African trypanosomiasis:__________ 95% of the cases
a. T. brucei brucei ; T. brucei 4. T. brucei rhodensiense – acute –
gambiense east African sleeping sickness – 5%
b. T. cruzi ; T. brucei brucei of the cases
c. T. cruzi ; T. brucei gambiense a. 1&3
d. T. brucei gambiense ; T. brucei b. 2&4
rhodesiense c. 1&2
e. T. cruzi ; T. brucei rhodesiense d. 3&4
53.) Which of the following is non- e. None of the above
pathogenic to humans? 57.) T.b. rhodensiense causes Human
1. T. brucei brucei African sleeping sickness. It is primarily
2. T. vivax a zoonosis of cattle and wild animals.
3. T. rangeli a. The former statement is true, the
4. T. evansi latter is false
a. 1&3 b. The former statement is false, the
b. 2&4 latter is true
c. 3 only c. Both are true
d. 1,2,3,4 d. Both are false
e. 1,3,4 58.) Which of the following is causes fatal
54.) T. brucei complex belongs to type of sleeping sickness?
trypanosome group ______ 1. East HAT
a. Stercoraria 2. West HAT
b. Salivaria 3. T. b. gambiense
c. Hemoflallega 4. T. b. rhodensiense
d. Anthropodia a. 1&3
55.) Which of the following is a reservoir for b. 2&4
T. brucei gambiense? c. 1&4
1. Cattle d. 2&3
2. Dog 59.) Which of the following forms are
3. Sheep exhibited by T. brucei complex?
4. Pigs 1. Amastigote
a. 1,2,3,4 2. Promastigote
b. 1 only 3. Epimastigote
c. 2,3,4 4. Trypomastigote
d. 1,3,4 a. 1&4
56.) Which of the following is true? b. 2&3
1. T. brucei gambiense – chronic – c. 1&2
east African sleeping sickness – 5% d. 3&4
of the cases e. 1&3
2. T. brucei rhodensiense – acute –
west African sleeping sickness –
90% of the cases
60.) Where does metacyclic 65.) Gaspar Viana was identified the insect
trypamastigotes of T. brucei complex vector which transmitted the
form? Leishmania brazaliensis. Henrique
a. Insect’s rectum Aragao was the one who identified the
b. Inside the human bloodstream parasite L. braziliensis.
c. Insect’s gut
d. Insect’s salivary glands a. The first statement is true, the
e. Inside the human cells latter is false
61.) Which of the following is common to b. The first statement is false, the
both Acute and Chronic HAT? latter is true
1. Has Two stages c. Both are true
2. Chancre is present d. Both are false
3. Treatment drug 66.) Which of the following statement is
4. Reservoir hosts true about leishmania spp?
5. Lymphadenopathy 1. Amastigote is the infective stage
a. 1,2,3,4 2. Promastigote is the infective stage
b. 1,2,3,4,5 3. Amastigotes are produced inside
c. 1,2,3 the sandfly
d. 1&3 4. 15 species causes clinical
e. 1,3,5 manifestations in humans
62.) Which of the following is true about T. a. 1&3
cruzi? b. 2&4
1. Found in regions of South America c. 1&4
2. Found in regions Central America d. 2&3
3. Domestic animals serves as the e. 1 only
reservoir hosts 67.) Which is the diagnostic stage of
4. Can be chronic or acute leishmania spp?
a. 1&3 a. Amastigote
b. 2&4 b. Promastigote
c. 1,2,3,4 c. Epimastigote
d. 4 only d. Trypomastigote
63.) What is the vector for T. rangeli? 68.) Which of the following describes
a. Tse tse fly amastigotes of Leishmania?
b. Reduviid bugs 1. Single free flagellum arising from
c. Rhodnius proxilus the kinetoplast
d. Triatoma 2. Lives intracellularly in monocytes
e. All of the above 3. Axoneme arises from the
f. None of the above kinetoplast and extends to the
64.) Rhodius proxilus is the vector for T. anterior tip
rangeli 4. Long and slender in shape
a. True a. 1&3
b. False b. 2&4
c. 1&4
d. 2&3
69.) The nucleus of leishmania amastigote 73.) Phlebotomus sandfly is the vector for
is large. They are long and slender, 2-3 old world leishmaniasis. Lutzomyia
mcm in length. sandfly is the vector for new world
a. The first statement is true, the leishmaniasis.
latter is false a. The first statement is true, the
b. The first statement is false, the latter is false
latter is true b. The first statement is false, the
c. Both are true latter is true
d. Both are false c. Both are true
70.) Which of the following is true about d. Both are false
promastigotes of leishmania? 74.) Which of the following causes
1. Single free flagellum arising from cutaneous leishmaniasis?
the posterior end 1. L. braziliensis
2. Measured 15 to 20 mcm in width 2. L. guyanensis
and 1.5 to 3.5 in length 3. L. panamensis
3. Found In the proboscis of the 4. L. peruviana
sandfly 5. L. donovani
4. Invade reticuloendothelial cells 6. L. tropica complex
a. 1,2,3,4 a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,3,4 b. 5 only
c. 1,2,4 c. 6 only
d. 1&2 d. 1,5,6
e. 3&4 e. 5&6
71.) Which of the following is incorrect 75.) Which of the following is associated
about leishmaniasis? with L. braziliensis complex?
a. Humans – final host 1. Mucotaneous leishmaniasis
b. Sandflies –reservoir hosts 2. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
c. Humans – definitive host 3. Lutzomyia vector
d. Canines – reservoir host 4. Large ulcers in the mouth
72.) Which of the following is correctly a. 1,3,4
matched? b. 1,2,3
1. CL – lepromatous leprosy c. 2,3,4
2. CL – tuberculoid leprosy d. 1&4
3. DCL – tuberculoid leprosy e. 2&4
4. DCL – lepromatous leprosy
a. 1&3
b. 2&4
c. 2&3
d. 1&4
76.) Which of the following is a new world 80.) L. donovani complex’ vector can be a
leishmaniasis? vector of new world leishmaniasis or an
1. L. donovani old world leishmaniasis. L. donovani
2. L. Mexicana chagasi’s vector the lutzomyia sandfly
3. L. tropica complex while L. donovani donovani’s vector is
4. L. brazileinsis phlebotomus sandfly. Now for the real
5. L. chagasi question, what is the vector of L.
6. L. infantum donovani infantum?
a. 2,4,6 a. Lutzomyia sandfly
b. 1,2,3 b. Psychodopygus sandfly
c. 2,4,5 c. Phlebotomus sandlfy
d. 1,3,6 81.) Which of the L. donovani complex is
e. 1,3,4,5 considered a new world leishmaniasis
77.) Which is true about mucocutaneous based on their vectors?
leishmaniasis? a. L. donovani donovani
1. Caused by L. braziliensis b. L. donovani chagasi
2. Causes espundia c. L. donovani infantum
3. Mucocutaneous lessions may heal d. L. donovani vianna
on its own 82.) L. donovani complex causes
4. causes disfigurement of the a. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
patients limbs b. Mucocutaneous leishamaniasis
a. 1&3 c. Visceral leishmaniasis
b. 1&2 d. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis
c. 3&4 83.) Which is true about mucocutaneous
d. 2&4 leishmaniasis?
e. 2 only a. Th1 response is strong
78.) Dogs and forest rodents are the b. Lesions usually manifest with few
intermediate host for L. braziliensis parasites
complex. Lutzomyia and Psychodopygus c. Increased levels of peripheral
are the vectors for this complex. mononuclear cells
a. The first statement is true, the d. All of the above
latter is false e. None of the above
b. The first statement is false, the 84.) Which of the following is true about
latter is true Visceral leishmaniasis? (ppt based)
c. Both are true 1. Aka kala azar
d. Both are false 2. Aka dumdum fever
79.) What is the most effective treatment 3. Late stage resembles malaria
for mucocutaneous leishmaniasis? 4. Early stage resembles typhoid fever
a. Liposomal amphotercicin B 5. Acute onset of symptoms
(ambisome) 6. 2-8 weeks incubation period
b. Sodium stibugluconate (pentosam) a. 1,2,3,4,5,6
c. Ketoconazole (nizoral) b. 1,2,5
d. Fluconazole (diflucan) c. 1,2,4,6
e. Itraconazole (sporonox) d. 1,4,5,6
85.) Which of the following is true about b. 2&4
the acute phase of visceral c. 1&4
leishmaniasis? (book and ppt) d. 2&3
1. Triple quotidian occurs 90.) What is the vector for L. Mexicana
2. Mistaken for malaria complex?
3. Gradual onset of symptoms a. Phlebotomus sandfly
4. Darkening of the skin b. Lutzomyia sandfly
5. Th1 response is low 91.) Which of the following is true about L.
6. Becomes lethal if untreated Mexicana complex?
a. 1,5,6 1. Forest rodents are the reservoir
b. 2,3,4,5,6 host
c. 2,4,6 2. Infection is characterized by
d. 1,2,4,5,6 multiple pus-containing ulcers
e. 1,2,4,6 that is self healing
86.) Late stage of dumdum fever involves 3. Pentosam is the drug of choice
kidney damage and granulomatous 4. Causes damage to ear cartilage
areas of the skin. Ambisome and 5. Small red papule at the bite site
Pentosam are the drug of choice for may cause pruritis
Kala azar. a. 1,2,3,4,5
a. The only first stament is true b. 1,3,4
b. The only second statement is true c. 1,3,4,5
c. Both are true d. 1,2,3,4
d. None is true e. 1,2,3,5
87.) Which is true about Post-kala azar 92.) Which of the following is not correctly
dermal leishmaniasis? matched?
a. Sequela of visceral leishmaniasis a. L. Aethiopica – Africa
b. Manifests as visceral eruption b. L. tropica – Asia
c. Lessions manifest weeks before c. L. tropica – eastern Europe
leishmania infection d. L. Major – soviet union
d. All of the above e. All of the above
e. Two of the above f. None of the above
88.) Which of the following causes New 93.) What is the vector of L. tropica
world cutaneous leishmaniasis? complex?
a. L. Mexicana complex a. Phlebotomus sandfly
b. L. tropica complex b. Lutzomyia sandfly
c. L. donovani complex 94.) Old world cutaneous leishmaniasis is
d. L. braziliensi complex also known as
89.) New world cutaneous leishmaniasis is a. Delhi boils
also known as b. Baghdad boils
1. Bay sore c. Oriental sore
2. Baghdad boils d. All of the above
3. Delhi boils e. None of the above
4. Chiclero ulcer
a. 1&3
95.) Which is true about oriental sore? c. Scheider’s Test
1. Characterized by one or more pus d. NNN
containing ulcers that is self-healing 100.) What is the positive result for
2. Small red papule at the bite site (2 Napier’s Aldehyde test?
cm or larger in diameter) a. Profuse flocculation
3. DCL occurs in the limbs and face b. Jellification with milk white opacity
4. Thick plaques of skin, with multiple c. Blood red solution
lesions or nodules d. Deep blue solution
a. 1,2,3,4 101.) What are the specimen and
b. 1,3,4 reagents required for Napier’s aldehyde
c. 2,3,4 test?
d. 1,2,4 1. Skin biopsy
96.) Which is true about Montenegro test 2. Patient’s serum
1. A skin test 3. Patient’s plasma
2. Positive in all types of leishmaniasis 4. 4% urea stibamine
3. A delayed hypersensitivity test 5. 40% formalin
4. A suspension of killed L. donovani a. 1,2,4
amastigote is injected intradermally b. 2,4
5. Positive – induration of more than c. 2,5
or equal 5 mm in 72 hours d. 2,4,5
6. Negative in DCL and active CL 102.) Which of the following is not
a. 1,2,3,4,5,6 true about Phylum Nematoda?
b. 1,3,4,5,6 1. Aka known as phylum
c. 1,4,5,6 nemathelminthes
d. 1,3,5,6 2. Resembles common earth worm in
e. 1,3,5 appearance
97.) Which describes NNN 3. Bilaterally asymmetrical helminths
a. Two parts salt agar 4. Elongated and cylindrical bodies
b. One part defribinated rabbit blood w/complete digestive system
c. Novy, Mcneal, Nicolle a. 1,2,3
d. All othe above b. 1&2
e. 2 of the above c. 2 only
f. None of the above d. 3 only
98.) Which of the following is a non-specific e. 2&3
test to detect 103.) Nematodes are diecious which
hypergammaglobulinemia? means
a. NNN a. Nematodes have sensory receptors
b. Scheider’s – Scheider’s Drosophilia b. Nematodes have separate sexes
insect medium c. Nematodes are free-living
c. Napier’s Aldehyde test d. Nematodes are symmetrical
d. Chopra’s antimony test
99.) Patient’s serum + 4% urea stibamine
a. Napier’s aldehyde test
b. Chopra’s antimony test
104.) Homoxenous nematodes 108.) Which of the following is an
complete their life cyle in one host. unsegmented ovum produced by an
Heteroxenous nematodes has Oviparous female nematode?
intermediate hosts. 1. Strongyloides stercoralis
a. The first statement is true, the 2. Ascaris lumbricoides
latter is false 3. Trichuris trichuria
b. The first statement is false, the 4. Trichenella spiralis
latter is true 5. Hookworm
c. Both are true a. 1,3,5
d. Both are false b. 2,3
105.) Which of the following c. 1,2,5
nematodes can penetrate the skin and d. 1,2,3,5
cause infection? e. 2 only
1. Ancyclostoma duodenal 109.) Which of the following ovum
rhabditiform are unsegmented but does not have
2. Necator Americanus Ova mucus plugs at both ends?
3. Strongyloides stercoralis filariform 1. Strongyloides stercoralis
4. Adult Ascaris lumbricoides 2. Ascaris lumbricoides
a. 1,2,3 3. Trichuris trichuria
b. 1,2,3,4 4. Trichenella spiralis
c. 1&3 5. Hookworm
d. 3 only a. 1,3,5
e. 1 only b. 2,3
106.) A 23 year old male patient is c. 1,2,4
presented with severe myalgia, d. 1,2,3,5
eosinophilia. The patient’s deltoid e. 2 only
biopsy showed coiled larva in the cyst. 5 110.) Enterobious vermicularis
weeks ago the patient ate lechon at a belongs to
feast. What parasite is most likely to be a. Oviparous
the cause of these symptoms? b. Viviparous
a. Trichuris trichuria c. Ovoviviparous
b. Trichenella spiralis d. Segmented ovum
c. Ascaris lumbricoides 111.) Which of the following are
d. Strongyloides stercoralis segmented eggs?
e. Dracunculus medenensis a. Ancylostoma spp
107.) Based on number 106, what is b. Necator spp
the common name for this parasite? c. Tristrongylus spp
a. Garbage round worm d. All of the above
b. Whipworm e. None of the above
c. Giant round worm
d. Pudoc’s worm
112.) Hookworms and Tristrongylus 117.) Aphasmids belongs to subclass
spp are classified as oviparous. aphasmidia of phylum nematoda.
Strongyloides spp are classified are Subclass aphasmidia is now known as
ovoviviparous. ________
a. The first statement is true, the a. Secernentea
latter is false b. Adenophorea
b. The first statement is false, the c. Annelia
latter is true d. Nematode
c. Both are true 118.) Female nematodes that lays
d. Both are false eggs containing fully formed larvae,
113.) Which of the following are which hatch immediately are classified
examples of viviparous? as
1. Trichenella a. Oviparous
2. Wuchereria b. Viviparous
3. Dracunculus c. Larviparous
4. Brugia d. Ovoviviparous
a. 1&3 e. Two of the above
b. 2&4 119.) What are examples of
c. 1,2,3,4 nematodes that have caudal
d. 1 only chemoreceptors?
114.) Which of the following is 1. Capillaria
correctly matched? 2. Anyclostoma
1. Trichuris – Small intestine 3. Necator
2. Capillaria – small intestine 4. Ascaris
3. Enterobius – large intestine 5. Trichuris
4. Hookworms – large intestine 6. Strongyloides
5. Strongyloides – small intestine a. 1,3,6
a. 1,2,3,4,5 b. 2,4,6
b. 2,3,4,5 c. 1,3,5
c. 2,3,5 d. 2,3,4,6
d. 1,2,3,5 e. 4 & 6 only
115.) What are the nematodes with 120.) Nematodes that belong to
caudal chemoreceptors called? subclass adenophorea
a. Phasmids 1. Ascaris
b. Aphasmids 2. Capillaria
116.) Phasmids belongs to a subclass 3. Trichuris
of phylum nematoda called Phasmidia. 4. Ancylostoma
Subclass phasmidia was renamed as 5. Hookworm
subclass _______ 6. Trichenella
a. Adenophorea 7. Enterobius
b. Nematoda a. 2,3,4,6,7
c. Secernentea b. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
d. Annelida c. 1,2,3,6,7
d. 2,3,6,7
121.) It is also known as whipworm? 126.) How many sets of reproductive
a. Trichenella spiralis organ does T. trichuria female have?
b. Trichuris trichuria a. 2 sets
c. Ascaris lumbricoides b. 1 set
d. Capillaria philippinensis c. None
122.) T. trichuria has a holomyarian d. 3 sets
type of somatic muscle arrangement. e. 4 sets
What this look like? 127.) Which of the following are the
a. Cells are numerous and project well characteristics of T. trichuria female?
into the body cavity 1. Secrete TT47
b. 2-5 cells arranged per dorsal or 2. 35-50 cm long
ventral half 3. Oviparous
c. Cells are small, numerous and 4. Anterior portion resembles the lash
closely packed in a narrow zone of whip
d. Cells are interspersed and 5. Lays 3000 – 5000 eggs average in its
intercellular fragments are lifespan
observed under the microscope. a. 1,2,3,4,5
123.) What are the characteristics of b. 1,2,3,4
adult male worm of T. trichuria? c. 1,3,4,5
1. Football shaped d. 1,3,4
2. Coiled posterior end w/ single e. 1&3
spicule and retractile sheath 128.) What is TT47?
3. 30-45 mm long a. Secreted by whipworms to suppress
4. 35-50 mm long lymphocyte proliferation
a. 1,2,3 b. Secreted by T. trichuria to protect
b. 1,2,4 themselves against digestion
c. 2&3 c. Secreted by whipworms to imbed
d. 2&4 their anterior portion to the
124.) What portion of T. trichuria intestinal wall
resembles the handle of a whip? d. Secreted by T. trichuria to imbed
a. Anterior end their posterior portion to the
b. Posterior end intestinal wall
c. Ventral end e. Clue: Where is the whip-like
d. Dorsal end portion?
125.) Where is the intestine and 129.) What is the shape of whipworm
reproductive organs of whipworm ova?
located? a. Japanese lantern
a. Anterior end b. Football
b. Posterior end c. Barrel
d. Lemon
e. All of the above
f. 2 of the above
130.) How many eggs can a female c. Both are true
produce in its lifespan? And what is the d. Both are false
average lifespan? 136.) After embryonated eggs are
a. 1,500 – 1 year ingested, the larvae escape and
b. 1,500 – 2 years penetrate the _______ and remain for
c. 60 M – 2 years _____ days
d. 16,888 – 3-4 months a. Cecum, 2-3 weeks
131.) T. trichuria is usually found in b. Intestinal villi, 2-3 weeks
the c. Cecum, 3-10 days
a. Appendix d. Intestinal villi, 3-10 days
b. Sigmoid colon 137.) Compared with Ascaris eggs,
c. Ascending colon whipworm eggs are more susceptible to
d. Caecum desiccation.
e. Transverse colon a. True
132.) From my own notes* First b. False
described the T. trichuria or human 138.) These signs and symptoms that
whipworm may occur during trichuriasis.
a. Linnaeus 1. Petechial hemorrhages
b. Tiedemann 2. Hyperemia
c. James Paget 3. Enterorrhagia
d. Richard Owen 4. Pericardial effusion
133.) Eggs of T. trichuria measures a. 1,2,3,4
a. 50-54 mcm long x 23 mcm wide b. 1&3
b. 30-45 mcm long x 30 mcm wide c. 2&4
c. 35-50 mcm long x 35 mcm wide d. 1,2,3
d. 80 mcm in diameter e. 4 only
134.) What are the characteristics of 139.) What is the infective stage of
T. trichuria ova? whipworm?
1. Unsegmented a. Fertilized egg
2. Flattened transparent bipolar plugs b. Embryonated egg
3. Yellowish outer shell c. Rhabditiform larvae
4. Transparent inner shell d. Adult worm
a. 2,3,4 140.) Embryonation is process of
b. 3&4 developing a fertilized egg into an egg
c. 1,3,4 containing a developed larvae.
d. 1,2,3,4 a. True
135.) Anteroir portion of whipworm b. False
is embedded in the mucosa. The
anterior portion of T. trichuria causes
petechial hemorrhages.
a. The first statement is true, the
latter is false
b. The first statement is false, the
latter is true
141.) Where does T. trichuria ova c. 5,000
develop and become embryonated and d. 20, 000
how long does it take? 146.) Average blood loss in Heavy
a. Outside the host – 2-3 weeks intensity Trichuriasis
b. In clayish soil – 2-3 days a. 0.8 – 8.6 mL per hour
c. Under favorable conditions – 2-3 b. 0.8 – 8.6 mL/mm3
months c. 0.8 – 8.6 mL/day
d. All of the above d. 0.8 – 8.6 mL/week
e. None of the above 147.) Because there is no larval
142.) Arrange the following in order migration to lungs, prognosis of
1. Become adult worms trichuriasis is
2. Development of embryonated eggs a. Good
(2-3 weeks) b. Bad
3. Go to the small intestine 148.) Clinical diagnosis of Trichuriasis
4. Undergo 4 larval stages is possible only in very heavy chronic
a. 2,3,4,1 infection. Kato thick smear is highly
b. 2,4,3,1 recommended in the diagnosis of
c. 1,2,3,4 trichuriasis.
d. 2,1,4,3 a. The first statement is true, the
143.) There is no heart-lung latter is false
migration in Trichuriasis. 5,000 b. The first statement is false, the
whipworm eggs are asymptomatic. latter is true
a. The first statement is true, the c. Both are true
latter is false d. Both are false
b. The first statement is false, the 149.) A technique more sensitive
latter is true than kato-katz and FECT in diagnosis of
c. Both are true trichuriasis.
d. Both are false a. DFS
144.) Which of the following is a b. SAF
result of Heavy intensity infection of c. FLOTAC
Trichuriasis? d. Chopro’s
1. Chronic dysentery 150.) What is the drug of choice for
2. Rectal prolapse trichuriasis?
3. Blood-streaked diarrheal stools a. Mebendazole – 100 mg BID x 3 days
4. Anemia b. Albendazole – 400 mg /day x 3 days
a. 1&3 c. Pentosam
b. 2&4 d. Pyrantel Pamoate – 50 mg/day x 7-
c. 1,2,3,4 14 days
d. 2,3,4
145.) Approx. minimum Number of
whipworm that cause anemia in
children.
a. 500
b. 800
151.) Arrange the following in order, d. Pinworm
this is the life cycle of T. trichuria. Start e. Pudoc’s worm
with 156.) What is the infective stage of
“Unembryonated eggs passed in feces” Capillaria philippinensis?
a. Embryonated egg
1. 2-cell stage b. 3rd stage larvae
2. Adults in cecum c. Encysted larvae
3. Larvae hatch in the small intestine d. 1st stage larvae
4. Advance cleavage 157.) Which of the following is
5. Ingestion of embryonated eggs correctly matched?
a. 1,2,3,4,5 1. Humans – incidental hosts
b. 3,1,4,5 2. Bagsit – intermediate host
c. 1,4,5,3,2 3. Fish-eating birds – natural hosts
d. 5,3,1,4,2 4. Fish – sexual hosts
e. 1,4,3,5,2 a. 1,3,4
152.) How many capillaria species are b. 1,2,3,4
known to infect humans? c. 2,3,4
a. 1 only d. 1,2,3
b. 2 only e. 1&3 only
c. 3 only 158.) Which of the following are the
d. 4 only characteristics of capillaria philippensis
e. 10 only worm?
153.) The agent of intestinal 1. Thin and short posterior end
capillariasis that was first recorded in 2. Thick and filamentous anterior end
Pudoc West, Tugudin, Ilocos Sur. 3. Thin and filamentous anterior end
a. Capillaria gastrica 4. Thick and short posterior end
b. Capillaria Philippinensis a. 1&2
c. Capillaria plica b. 3&4
d. Capillaria hepatica c. 1&3
154.) Capillaria philippinensis was d. 2&4
first reported by Chitwood et al. It is a 159.) What are the characteristics of
nematode from the superfamily capillaria philippinensis ova?
trichinelloidea. 1. Peanut shape
a. The first statement is true, the 2. Prominent bipolar plugs
latter is false 3. 36-45 mcm long x 20 -25 mcm wide
b. The first statement is false, the 4. 1.5 – 3.9 mm long
latter is true 5. 2.3 – 5.3 mm long
c. Both are true 6. 230 – 300 mcm spicule; unspined
d. Both are false sheath
155.) What is the common name for a. 1,2,3
Capillaria philippinensis worm? b. 4&6
a. Garbage round worm c. 5&6
b. Giant roundworm d. 1&2
c. Whipworm e. 1&3
160.) What are the characteristics of c. Spicule
male C. philippinensis worm d. Mouth
1. Peanut shape 166.) Where is the infective larvae of
2. Prominent bipolar plugs C. philippinensis found?
3. 36-45 mcm long x 20 -25 mcm wide a. Human intestine
4. 1.5 – 3.9 mm long b. Fish intestine
5. 2.3 – 5.3 mm long c. Bird intestine
6. 230 – 300 mcm; unspined sheath d. Soil or Water
a. 4&6 167.) Where does embryonation of C.
b. 5&6 philippinensis egg occur?
c. 3&6 a. Human intestine
d. 1,4,6 b. Fish intestine
161.) Characteristics of Pudoc’s worm c. Bird intestine
egg d. Soil or Water
a. Striated 168.) Which of the following is not a
b. Peanut-shaped clinical manifestation of infection with
c. Flattened bipolar plugs C. philippinensis?
d. 36-45 mcm x 20 mcm a. Borborygmus (gurgling stomach)
e. All of the above b. Anorexia
f. Two of the above c. Edema
162.) What is the size of a female d. Hyperalbuminemia
adult c. philippinensis? e. Protein-losing enteropathy
a. 36-45 mcm long 169.) C. philippinensis worms do not
b. 1.5-3.9 mm long invade the intestinal tissue but are
c. 2.3 – 5.3 mm long responsible for micro-ulcers in the
d. 20 mcm long epithelium.
163.) The esophagus of capillaria a. True
philippinensis worms have secretory b. False
cells called 170.) In light microscopy of C.
a. Stichiocytes philippinensis worm, a homogenous
b. Stichiosome material is seen in the
c. Stichocytes a. Anterior end
d. Stichosome b. Posterior end
164.) The entire esophageal structure c. Junction between anterior and
of capillaria philippinensis is called posterior end
a. Stichiocytes 171.) Electrolyte replacement and
b. Stichiosome high CHON diet is required for Intestinal
c. Stichocytes Capillariasis. So what type of nutrient is
d. Stichosome CHON?
165.) What is located at the junction a. Carbohydrates
of anterior and middle thirds of female b. Fats
c. philippinensis worms? c. Proteins
a. Anus d. Nucleic acid
b. Vulva
172.) What is the diagnostic stage of d. Ascaris lumbricoides eggs
trichuris trichuria? 178.) It is also known as garbage
a. Unembryonated egg in feces round worm.
b. Embryonated egg a. Trichuris trichuria
c. 2-cell stage b. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Advance cleavage c. Necator americanus
173.) What is the drug of choice for d. Ancylostoma duodenale
intestinal capillariasis? e. Trichenella spiralis
a. Mebendazole 100 mg BID x 3 days 179.) Which is true about T. spiralis?
b. Albendazole 400 mg/day x 10 days 1. Viviparous
c. Mebendazole 200 mg BID x 20 days 2. Affects the intestine and muscles
d. Pyrantel pamoate 10 mg per 3. Blue colored
kg(max.1g)/ day x 30 days 4. First described by Tiedemann
174.) Arrange the following in order, a. 1&3
this is the life cycle of capillaria b. 2&4
philippinensis. c. 1,2,3,4
Start with “unembryonated eggs” d. 1,2,4
1. Embryonation in the soil e. 1&2 only
2. Ingested by fish 180.) Who demonstrated Trichenella
3. Development into adult worm in human cadavers in London?
4. Ingestion of Raw/Uncooked fish 1. Tiedemann
5. Development into infective larvae 2. James Paget
a. 2,1,3,4,5 3. Richard Owen
b. 1,2,3,4,5 4. Rudolf Virchow
c. 1,2,5,3,4 a. 1&4
d. 1,2,5,4,3 b. 2&3
175.) This type of worm causes c. 1,2,3
internal autoreinfection. d. 4 only
a. Ascaris lumrbicoides 181.) Most important cause of
b. Capillaria philippinensis trichenollosis in man?
c. Enterobius vermicularis a. Trichenella spiralis
d. Trichuris trichuria b. Trichenella britovi
e. Trichenella spiralis c. Trichenella native
176.) Where is the habitat of d. Trichenella murrelli
Capillaria philippinensis? e. All of the above
a. Cecum, large intestine
b. Sigmoid colon, large intestine
c. Jejunum, small intestine
d. Rectum
177.) C. philippinensis eggs closely
resemble
a. Hookworm ova
b. Enterobius vermicularis eggs
c. Trichuris trichuria ova
182.) Which of the following is a c. Ventral end
characteristic of male T. spiralis adult? d. Dorsal end
1. 3.5 mm x 0.06 mm 187.) Which of the following is
2. 80 – 120 mcm x 5.6 mm correctly matched?
3. Single testes near the anterior end 1. Adult worms – striated muscles
of the body 2. Adult worms – mucosa of small
4. Posteriorly located cloaca intestine
5. Two pairs of papillae in the 3. Encysted larvae – striated muscles
posterior end 4. Encysted larvae – smooth muscles
6. Two pairs of caudal appendages 5. Adult worms – mucosa of large
a. 1,3,4,5,6 intestine
b. 3,4,5,6 a. 1&3
c. 2,3,4,5 b. 5&3
d. 3,4,5 c. 2&4
e. 4&5 only d. 2&3
183.) What is the size of adult male e. 1,3,4
trichinella spiralis worm? 188.) What is the infective stage of
a. 1.5 mm x 0.04 mm Trichenella spiralis?
b. 3.5 mm x 0.06 mm a. Encysted larvae
c. 80 – 120 mcm x 5.6 mcm b. Adult larvae
d. 900 – 1300 mcm x 35 - 40 mcm c. Filariform larvae
184.) What is the size of adult female d. Rhabditiform larvae
trichinella spiralis 189.) What is the diagnostic stage of
a. 1.5 mm x 0.04 mm Trichenella spiralis?
b. 3.5 mm x 0.06 mm a. Encysted larvae
c. 80 -120 mcm x 5.6 mcm b. Adult larvae
d. 900 -1300 mcm x 35 – 40 mcm c. Filariform larvae
185.) Which of the following is not d. Rhabditiform larvae
true about adult female trichinella 190.) How can someone possibly
spiralis worm? harbor Trichinosis?
1. Viviparous a. Eating of garbage food
2. Lays 1,500 eggs in her lifetime b. Eating mungos
3. Viviparous female lives for 30 days c. Eating ampalaya
4. Reproductive organs are in the d. Eating undercooked meat
anterior end e. Eating vegetables
a. 1&3 191.) The larvae excyst in the (page
b. 2&4 185, 1 paragraph – 2nd sentence)
st

c. 2,3,4 a. Stomach
d. 4 only b. Small intestine
186.) Which end is the spear-like, c. Large intestine
adapted for burrowing into the mucosal d. All of the above
epithelium? e. Two of the above
a. Anterior end
b. Posterior end
192.) Adult Trichinella spiralis begin 198.) In Trichinosis infection, this
to mate phase is the phase larval migration and
a. 2 days post infection muscle invasion occurs.
b. 2 days pre-infection a. Enteric
c. 5-7 days post infection b. Convalescent
d. 2-3 weeks post infection c. Invasion
193.) The female Trichinella spiralis 199.) In Trichinosis infection, during
produces eggs in its uterus. The eggs this phase, symptoms resemble acute
grow to larvae in its uterus. (page 185, food poising.
1st paragraph, last sentence) a. Enteric
a. The first statement is true, the b. Invasion
latter is false c. Convalescent
b. The first statement is false, the 200.) T. spiralis larvae migrates to
latter is true striated muscles, which of the following
c. Both are true are striated muscles.
d. Both are false 1. Skeletal muscles
194.) Encapsulation of T. spiralis 2. Cardiac muscles
larvae is completed 3. Smooth muscles
a. 2 days post infection 4. Nerve muscles
b. 5-7 days post infection a. 1&3
c. 2-3 weeks post infection b. 2&4
d. 4-5 weeks post infection c. 1,2,3
e. 5-10 years post infection d. 1&2
195.) Which of the following causes e. 3&4
asymptomatic infection of T. spiralis? 201.) In trichinosis, this stage is the
1. 1,000 larvae encystment and encapsulation
2. 50 larvae a. Enteric
3. 100 larvae b. Convalescent
4. 10 larvae c. Invasion
a. 1&3 202.) What is the definitive diagnosis
b. 2&4 of Trichinosis?
c. 2,3,4 a. ELISA
d. 4 only b. DFS
196.) What do you call the infected c. Muscle biopsy
meat? d. CK-MB
a. Nurse meat
b. Measly pork
c. Trichinic meat
197.) A muscle cell carrying larva of T.
spiralis is called
a. Nurse cell
b. Cyst
c. Encysted cell
d. Two of the above
203.) What are the Cardinal signs and 208.) Enterobius vermicularis is
Symptoms of Trichinosis classied as _______ according to
1. Severe myalgia somatic muscle arrangement
2. Pericardial effusion a. Polymyarian
3. Periorbital edema b. Meromyarian
4. Neutrophilia c. Holomyarian
5. Eosinophilia d. Ovomyarian
a. 1,2,3,4,5 209.) Based on 208, this type of
b. 1,2,3,5 somatic muscle arrangement has
c. 1,3,5 a. Numerous cell which project well to
d. 5 only the body cavity
204.) Treatment of choice for b. 2-5 cells per dorsal or ventral half
trichinosis c. Cells are small and numerous and
a. Pentosam closely packed in a narrow zone
b. Pyrantel pamoate d. Cell are interspersed
c. Thiabendazole 210.) Which is not true about Adult
d. Glucantime enterobius vermicularis
e. Ambisome 1. Anteroir Prominent Esophageal
205.) What is the common name of bulb
Enterobius vermicularis? 2. Anterior cuticular expansion
a. Sitworm 3. Lives in the cecum
b. Pinworm 4. Females are oviparous
c. Dormitory worm a. 1,2,3,4
d. Society worm b. 1
e. All of the above c. 1&3
206.) What is the former name of d. 1&2
Enterobius vermicularis? e. None
a. Oxyuris vermicularis 211.) The anterior mouth of
b. Enterobiusis oxyuris enterbius vermicularisis surrounded by
c. Oxyuris Enterobiusis 3 wing-like cutical expansions (cervical
d. Vermicularis oxyuris alae). The posterior esophagus has a
207.) Which of the following is true double-bulb structure – a feature
about Enterobiasis? unique to this worm. (interesting facts
1. Characterized by pruritus ani you might want to know)
2. Causes retroinfection a. The first statement is true, the
3. Causes ectopic complications latter is false
4. A significant cause of morbidity and b. The first statement is false, the
mortality latter is true
a. 1&2 c. Both are true
b. 3&4 d. Both are false
c. 1,2,3,4 e. Source : Panicker’s medical
d. 1,2,3 parasitology
e. 4 only
212.) Which of the following is not 216.) Which is true about
true about rhabditiform larvae of E. Enterobiasis?
vermicularis? 1. Eggs of E. vermicularis are
a. 140 – 150 mcm x 10 mcm occasionally found in ectopic areas
b. Has esophageal bulb such as liver and lungs
c. Has cuticular expansions 2. Good prognosis
213.) Which of the following is true 3. Described as group or familial
about E. vermicularis ova disease
1. Outer triple albuminous covering 4. Gold standard for diagnosis is
for chemical protection Perianal cellulose tape swab
2. Embryonic lipoidal membrane for a. 1&3
mechanical protection b. 2&4
3. Tadpole like embryo that becomes c. 1,2,3,4
fully mature in the mucosa w/in 4-6 d. 3&4
hours e. 1&2
4. Inverted D-shaped, one side 217.) A patient was presented with
flattened, the other side convex mild catarrhal inflammation of the
a. 1,2,3,4 mucosa. The patient complaint about
b. 3&4 intense itching in the perianal region
c. 4 only which lead to insomnia. The doctor
d. 1&2 suspected of Enterobiasis. What type of
214.) E. vermicularis female lays clinical test should be done for the
4,672 – 16,888 eggs/days with an diagnosis of enterobiasis?
average of 11,105 eggs a. Graham’s scotch adhesive tape
a. True swab
b. False b. ELISA
215.) After copulation, male dies. c. FLOTAC
After deposition of eggs, female dies. d. DFS
a. The first statement is true, the next 218.) Based on 217, why DFS is not
statement is false effective in diagnosing enterobiasis?
b. The first statement is false, the next a. Eggs of E. vermicularis are not
statement is true found in the stool
c. Both are true b. Eggs are airborne which means they
d. Both are false are highly pathogenic
c. Adult worms are not the diagnostic
stage
d. It gives the highest percentage of
positive result
219.) Based on 217, what is drug of
choice for treating such infection?
a. Albendazole 400 mg single dose
b. Mebedendazole 100 mg BID x 3days
c. Pentosam
d. Itraconazole
220.) Adult Female E. vermicuris has d. 1,2,5
long pointed tails. Adult Male E. 225.) The chemical released by A.
vermicularis has curved tail with a lumbricoides to suppress lymphocyte
single spicule. proliferation
a. The first statement is true, the a. TT47
second is false b. Pepsin inihibitor 3 (PI-3)
b. The first statement is false, the c. Phosphorylcholine
second is true d. Enterophatic antigen
c. Both are true 226.) The chemical released by A.
d. Both are false lumbricoides to protect themselves
221.) Cure can only be consided after against digestion.
__ perianal smears, on consecutive days a. TT47
using scotch-tape methods, are all b. Pepsin inhibitor 3 (PI-3)
found to be negative c. Phosphorylcholine
a. 3 d. Enterophatic antigen
b. 5 227.) Which of the following is a
c. 7 characteristic of an adult A.
d. 10 lumbricoides?
222.) It is the most common 1. Ventrally curved w/ single
intestinal nematode spicule
a. Giant round worm 2. Spicules are broad
b. Threadworm 3. 12-31 cm long x 2-4 cm wide
c. Pinworm 4. Vulva at the middle
d. Garbage round worm a. 1,2,3,4
223.) What type of somatic muscle b. 1,2,3
arrangement does Giant round worm c. 1&3
has? d. 2&3
a. Holomyarian e. 4 only
b. Polymyarian 228.) Embryonation of A.
c. Meromyarian lumbricoides fertilized eggs takes place
d. Bimyarian outside the host. It takes about 2-3
224.) Which is true about Ascariasis? weeks.
1. Heart to lung migration a. The first statement is true, the
2. Infective stage is the embryonated latter is false
ova b. The first statement is false, the
3. Diagnostic stage is the fertilized egg latter is true
in stool c. Both are true
4. Diagnostic stage is the unfertilized d. Both are false
egg in stool 229.) What is the size of Adult female
5. Diagnostic stage is the adult worm A. lumbricoides?
in the small intestine a. 35-50 cm x 3-6 cm
a. 1,2,3,4,5 b. 88 -94 mcm x 40 – 44 mcm
b. 1,2,3 c. 60 -70 mcm x 30 -50 mcm
c. 1,2,4 d. 12 -31 cm x 2-4 cm
230.) A. lumbricoides infertile eggs 235.) Which of the following is not a
have thin shells and are longer and characteristic of Filariform female
narrower. While fertile eggs have thick Strongyloides stercoralis
shells and round in shape. a. Slender tapering anterior end
a. The first statement is true, the b. Short conical pointed posterior tail
latter is false. c. Short buccal cavity w/ 2 lips
b. The first statement is false, the d. 2.2 mm x 0.04 mm
latter is true e. Long slender esophagus
c. Both are true 236.) Description of the uteri of
d. Both are false filariform female S. stercoralis
231.) Clinical manisfestations of 1. Two columns of 8-12 thin-
Ascariasis includes: shelled eggs
1. Bolus formation 2. Eggs are segmented
2. Pneumonitis 3. Eggs are transparent
3. Ectopic migration (appendix, 4. Eggs are 50-58 mcm by 30-34
pancreatic duct) mcm
4. Peritonitis a. 1,2,3,4
5. Myalgia b. 2,3,4
a. 1,2,3,4,5 c. 3,4
b. 1,2,4 d. 4 only
c. 1,2,3,4 237.) Rhabditiform larvae of S.
d. 1,2,4,5 stercoralis is the parasitic form.
232.) What is the most frequent Filariform larvae of S. stercoralis is the
complain of the patient? free living form.
a. Eosinophilia a. The first statement is true, the
b. Pneumonitis latter is false
c. Vague abdominal pain b. The first statement is false, the
d. Vomiting latter is true
233.) Drug of choice for Ascariasis? c. Both are true
a. Albendazole 400 mg/day x 10 days d. Both are false
b. Mebendazole 100 mg BID x 3 days 238.) What is size of the rhabditiform
c. Pyrantel Pamoate larvae of female S. stercoralis?
d. Pentosam a. 50-58 mcm x 30 – 34 mcm
234.) Benzimidazoles bind to the b. 1 mm x 0.06 mm
parasites’ b-tubulin causing them c. 2.2 mm x 0.04 mm
death. Examples of benzimidazoles are d. 550 mcm
pentosam and glucantime
a. The first statement is true, the
latter is false
b. The first statement is false, the
latter is true
c. Both are true
d. Both are false
239.) Free living form female S. 243.) Where are rhabditiform larvae
stercoralis characteristics of S. stercoralis found?
1. Smaller than parasitic female a. Soil
2. Muscular double bulbed esophagus b. Small intestine
3. Ventrally curved tail c. Lungs
4. 2 spicules d. Blood
a. 1&2 244.) How does Female S. stercoralis
b. 3&4 reproduce?
c. 1,2,3 a. Binary fission
d. 2&3 b. Mitosis
240.) S. stercoralis, which of the c. Asexual reproduction
following is correctly matched? d. Parthenogenesis
1. Rhabditiform – parasitic 245.) The greatest numbers of adult
2. Filariform – parasitic S. stercoralis worms are found in the
3. Rhabditiform – feeding stage a. Cecum
4. Filariform – non-feeding b. Mucosa
a. 1&4 c. Duodenum
b. 2&3 d. Appendix
c. 1&3 246.) Which of the following is not
d. 2&3 recommended for diagnosis of
e. 2,3,4 filariasis?
241.) Which of the following is true a. Harada mori
about infective filariform larva of S. b. Bearman funnel
stercoralis? c. Beale’s string test
1. Non-feeding stage d. ELISA
2. Slender, 550 mcm in length 247.) Which of the following is
3. Distinct cleft at the tip of the tail incorrectly matched? S. stercoralis
4. Similar to hookworm filariform a. Light infections – no intestinal
larva but bigger symptoms
a. 1,2,3,4 b. Moderate infections – diarrhea
b. 1,2,3 alternating w/ constipation
c. 1&2 c. Heavy infection – painful,
d. 2&4 intermittent diarrhea (Cochin China
e. 3&4 diarrhea)
242.) Which of the following is true d. None of the above
about rhabditiform of S. stercoralis 248.) Treatment of choice for S.
a. Free living form stercoralis infection
b. Feeding form a. Mebendazole 200 mg BID x 20 days
c. Elongated esophagus w/ pryriform b. Albendazole 400 mg/ day x 3 days
posterior bulb c. Thiabendazole 50 kg/body weight in
d. Shorter buccal capsule 2 divided doses for 2 alternate days
e. All of the above after meals
d. All of the above
249.) These are blood-sucking 252.) Characteristic Necator
nematodes that attach to the mucosa Americanus
of the small intestine. 1. Buccal capsule has a ventral pair of
a. Strongyloides stercoralis semi-lunar cutting palates
b. Brugia malayi 2. Buccal capsule has two pairs of
c. Hookworms curved ventral teeth
d. Dracunculus medenensis 3. Head is curved opposite to the
250.) How are hookworm species curvature of the body w/c like a
mainly differentiated? hook at the anterior end
1. Buccal capsule 4. Head continues in same direction as
2. Arrangement of rays in the the curvature of the body
bursa 5. Small, cylindrical, fusiform, grayish-
3. Appearance of eggs white nematodes
4. Size 6. Single pair male & female
a. 1,2,4 reproductive organs
b. 1&2 7. Posterior end of the male has a
c. 3&4 broad, caudal bursa with rib-like
d. 1,2,3 rays used for copulation.
251.) Necator americanus is found a. 1,3,5,7
mainly in moist tropical regions. b. 2,4,6
Ancylostoma duodenale is found mainly c. 1,3,6
in dryer and colder areas. d. 2,5,7
a. The first statement is true, the e. 2,4,5,6
latter is false 253.) Characteristic of ancylostoma
b. The first statement is false, the duodenale
latter is true 1. Buccal capsule has a ventral pair of
c. Both are true semi-lunar cutting palates
d. Both are false 2. Buccal capsule has two pairs of
curved ventral teeth
3. Head is curved opposite to the
curvature of the body w/c like a
hook at the anterior end
4. Head continues in same direction as
the curvature of the body
5. Small, cylindrical, fusiform, grayish-
white nematodes
6. Single pair male & female
reproductive organs
7. Posterior end of the male has a
broad, caudal bursa with rib-like
rays used for copulation.
a. 1,3,5,7
b. 2,4,6
c. 2,4,5,6
254.) Rhabditiform of N. americanus 260.) Which of the following is
and A. duodenale can be differentiated incorrectly matched about Loa loa?
according to buccal cavity a. Phylum – nemathelminthes
a. True b. Class – Adenophorea
b. False c. Order – Spirurida
255.) During skin penetration of d. Family – Filariidae
hookworm larvae, dermatitis and e. Genus – Loa
intense itching can occur, this type of 261.) African eye worm belongs to
clinical manifestation is also known as class Adenophorea. African eye worm
a. Ground itch has caudal chemoreceptors.
b. Cochin China a. The first statement is true, the
c. Enteropathy latter is false
d. Seborrheic dermatitis b. The first statement is false, the
256.) Treatment for Hookworm latter is true
infection. c. Both are false
a. Iron d. Both are true
b. Albendazole single dose 262.) What is the infective stage of
c. Mebendazole single dose Loa loa?
d. Pyrantel pamoate single dose a. Embryonated egg
257.) What is generally used for adult b. L3 larva
A. duodenale infection? c. L1 larva
a. Iron d. Adult worm
b. Folic acid 263.) What is the vector of African
c. Bephenium hydroxynapthoate 5g eye worm?
d. Thiabendazole a. Blackfly (Simulium)
e. Bephenium hydroxynapthoate 2.5 g b. Mosquito (Mansonia)
258.) Bephenium hydroxynapthoate c. Biting midges (Culicpodies)
2.5 g is recommended for children d. Fly (Chrysops)
under (specific) e. None
a. 10 years old
b. 5 years old
c. 2 years old
d. 1 year old
259.) It is also known as African eye
worm
a. Loa loa
b. Onchocerca volvulus
c. Wuchereria bancrofti
d. Brugia malayi
e. Mansonella stretocerca
264.) Which of the following is not 268.) Where is the location of the
true about Adult male loa loa? infective stage of African eye worm in
a. Nuclei in the the asexual host?
body is a. Blood
overlapping b. Bite site
and coarse c. Midgut
b. Tapering d. Proboscis
cephalic end 269.) Which tissue are mainly
c. Curved caudal affected by loa loa?
end a. Visceral
d. Equal b. Subcutaneous
copulatory c. Cardiac
spicules d. Nervous
a. 1&3 e. Blood
b. 2&4 270.) Calabar swelling is a clinical
c. 1&2 manisfestation of loiasis. It is due to the
d. 3&4 travelling action of the parasite in the
e. 4 only blood which causes the veins to swell.
265.) What is the size of adult female a. The first statement is true, the
loa loa? latter is false
a. 35-40 cm x 400 cm b. The first statement is false, the
b. 30-40 mm x 0.35-0.43 mm (250- latter is true
300 mcm) c. Both are true
c. 40-70 mm x 0.5 mm d. Both are false
d. 270-290 mm x 10 mm 271.) Which of the following is true
266.) What is the size of adult male about African eye worm?
loa loa? 1. Calabar swelling – local swelling
a. 35-40 cm x 400 cm (subcutaneous)
b. 30-40 mm x 0.35-0.43 mm (250- 2. Protopsis – bulge eye
300 mcm) 3. Eosinophilia
c. 40-70 mm x 0.5 mm 4. Painful edema of the eyelids
d. 270-290 mm x 10 mm a. 1&3
267.) Which is not true about loa loa? b. 2&4
1. Intermidiate host – humans c. 1,2,3,4
2. Asexual host – chrysops silacea d. 1,2,3
3. Definitive host – humans e. None
4. Final host – chrysops dimidiate 272.) Diagnosis of loiasis is through
a. 1&3 identification of microfilaria in
b. 2&4 peripheral blood. At which time should
c. 1&4 this be done?
d. 2&3 a. Daytime
e. 1,2,4 b. Night time
c. Full moon
d. Every 5 am
273.) What is the treatment for 276.) What is the infective stage of
loiasis? River blindness worm?
1. Suramin 1. Rhabditiform larvae
2. Ivermectin 2. Filariform larvae
3. Diethylcarbamazine citrate 3. L1 larva
4. Albendazole 4. L3 larva
a. 1,2,3,4, a. 1&3
b. 1,2,3 b. 2&4
c. 1,3,4 c. 3&4
d. 1&3 d. 4 only
e. 2&4 277.) What is the vector of
274.) Arrange the life cycle of Loa loa. Onchocerca volvulus?
Start with “L3 larvae migrates to fly’s a. Blackfly (simulium)
proboscis” b. Biting midges (culicoides)
1. L3 larvae c. Anopheles
2. Adults in subcutaneous tissue d. Fly (chrysops)
3. L1 larvae 278.) Onchocerca volvulus is
4. Fly takes a blood meal (ingests transmitted by buffalo gnats during
microfilarae) blood meals. Within the epidermis, the
5. Mircofilariae shed sheaths, filariform larvae molt twice to
penetrate fly’s midgut, and migrate transform into adult worm.
to thoracic muscles a. The first statement is true, the
6. Fly takes a blood meal (L3 larvae latter is false
enter bite wound b. The first statement is false, the
7. Adults produce sheathed latter is true
microfilariae that are found in c. Both are true
spinal fluid, urine, sputum and d. Both are false
peripheral blood and in the lungs 279.) Which of the following is true
a. 1,3,5,6,7,2,4 about Onchocerca volvulus?
b. 6,3,1,4,5,7,2 1. It takes 12 months for L3 larvae to
c. 6,2,7,4,5,3,1 transform into adult worms.
d. 2,7,5,1,4,3,6 2. L3 larvae migrates into the
275.) Also known as River Blindness subcutaneous tissue and eyes
a. Brugia malayi 3. 15 months are infection (human)
b. Loa loa L3 larva are released from the
c. Onchocerca volvulus gravid female worms
d. Wuchereria bancrofti 4. Extrinsic incubation period occurs in
e. Dracunculus medinensis the flight muscles of the blackfly
a. 1&3
b. 2&4
c. 1&4
d. 2&3
280.) Which of the following is not 285.) Which of the following is used
true about river blindness worm? to detect microfilariae of river blindness
a. Adult worms are long and thin, worm?
tapering at the posterior and a. Skin snip technique
anterior end b. Biopsy of subcutaneous nodule
b. Transverse striation on the c. A&B
cuticle d. DFS
c. Mainly found coiled in within 286.) Which of the following is used
subcutaneous nodules to detect adult worms of Onchocerca
d. Treatment – Ivermection 50 volvulus?
mg/kg yearly or semiannually a. Skin snip technique
e. None of the above b. Biopsy of subcutaneous nodule
281.) What is the size of adult male c. A&B
Onchoncerca volvulus? d. DFS
a. 35-50 cm x 400 mcm 287.) A Yemenese patient (from
b. 2-4 cm x 0.2 cm Yemen I guess) is diagnosed with
c. 270 – 290 mcm x 8 cm ochocerciasis, the patient has a good
d. 8-20 cm vision but sowda symptom was
282.) What is the size of adult female observed. What manifestation does the
Onchocerca volvulus? patient has?
a. 35-50 cm x 400 mcm a. Subcutaneous nodule
b. 2-4 cm x 0.2 cm formation
c. 270 – 290 mcm x 8 cm b. Dermatitis
d. 8-20 cm c. Blindness
283.) Onchocerca volvulus is an d. All of the above
intestinal worm. It causes three 288.) (River blindness) Asymptomatic
principal manifestations. patients have low worm load.
a. The first statement is true, the Dermatitis, subcutaneous fibrous
latter is false nodule (onchocercoma) and
b. The first statement is false, the lymphadenitis occur due to heavy
latter is true infection.
c. Both are true a. The first statement is true, the
d. Both are false latter is false
284.) What causes the most b. The first statement is false, the
pathogenic effect in ochoncerciasis? latter is true
a. Fibrous nodules formation c. Both are true
around adult female d. Both are false
b. Release of numerous
microfilariae in the host’s
tissues
c. Dermatitis
d. Blindness
289.) (River Blindness) Ocular 4. Genus – W. brancrofti
manifestations can occur even with low a. 1&3
worm load due to the presence of adult b. 2&4
worm. Skin nodules are only manifested c. 3&4
when adult worms are present. d. 4 only
a. The first statement is true, the e. 1 only
latter is false 295.) W. bancrofti belongs to order
b. The first statement is false, the spirurina. It belongs to suborder
latter is true spirurida.
c. Both are true a. The first is true, the latter is
d. Both are false false
290.) Which of the following is not b. The first is false, the latter is
true in patients with Sowda? true
a. Increased Th2 c. Both are false
b. Increased IL-4 d. Both are true
c. Increased IL-5 296.) W. bancrofti belong to class
d. Eosinophila secernentea. Which of the following is
e. Increased IgM true.
f. Increased IgG4 a. It has a caudal chemoreceptor
291.) Also known as Bancroft’s filarial b. Caudal chemoreceptor is
worm absent
a. Mansonella 297.) What form of W. bancrofti is
b. Brugia ingested by the intermediate host
c. Wuchereria during blood meals?
d. Loa loa a. Adult worms
e. Dirofilaria b. L1 larvae
292.) What is the vector for c. L3 larvae
Bancroft’s filarial worm? d. Microfilariae
a. Anopheles mosquito 298.) What form of W. bancrofti is
b. Culicoides graham midges found in lymphatics of humans?
c. Blackfly a. Adult worms
d. Mansonia spp b. L1 larvae
293.) What is the infective stage of c. L3 larvae
Wuchereria bancrofti? d. Microfilariae
a. Adult worm 299.) Location of the infective W.
b. L1 larva brancrofti L3 larva
c. L3 larva a. Thoracic muscles of the
d. Microfilariae anopheles mosquito
294.) Which of the following is b. Proboscis of the anopheles
incorrectly matched? mosquito
1. Phylum – c. Blood of the human host
Namatoda/Nemathelminthes d. Skin of the human host
2. Class – Secernentea
3. Family – Onchocercidae
300.) Which of the following is not c. Detect movements and noises
true about the morphology of W. caused by the movement of
bancrofti adult? worms
a. Filariform in shape d. Detecting dead, calcified worms
b. Creamy white color 305.) What is the recommended
c. Short treatment for W. brancrofti infection?
d. Males measure 2-4 cm in length 1. Mebendazole
e. Females measure 8-10 cm in length 2. Albendazole
301.) Which of the following is not 3. Ivermectin
true about W. bancrofti microfilaria? 4. Diethycabamazine
1. 270-290 mm a. 1,2,3,4
2. Enclosed in a hyaline sheath b. 1,2,4
3. Hyaline sheath is equal to the c. 2,3,4
size of the microfilaria d. 1,2,3
4. Ingested by the mosquito e. 1,3,4
a. 1&3 306.) Initial step for acute attacks of
b. 2&4 W. bancrofti is to relieve the pain. This
c. 1&2 is done by cooling the affected area
d. 3&4 using a clean cloth soaked in water at
e. 1&4 room temperature or slightly cooler.
302.) A dead adult W. bancrofti can a. The first is true, the latter is
still cause pathogenic effects. Adult false
worms causes lymphangitis. b. The first is false, the latter is
a. the first statement is true
true, the latter is false c. Both are true
b. the first statement is d. Both are false
false, the latter is true. 307.) What is the common name for
c. both are true Mansonella streptocerca
d. both are false a. Malayan filarial worm
303.) Which of the following is not b. Ozzard’s filarial
recommended to diagnose W. bancrofti c. Human Parasitic roundworm
infection? d. Heartworm
a. Blood smear e. Guinea worm
b. PCR 308.) What is the vector of M.
c. Ultrasound streptocerca?
d. DFS a. Culicoides grahamii midges
e. X-ray b. Blackfly (simulium)
f. ELISA c. Anopheles mosquito
304.) Ultrasound is most useful in d. Guinea worm
a. Identification of W. brancrofti e. Chrysops fly
b. Detecting minute fraction of
filarial DNA
309.) Which of the following is 315.) What is the recommended
incorrectly matched? treatment for Brugia malayi?
a. Class – Adenophorea 1. Albendazole
b. Genus – Mansonella 2. Mebendazole
c. Kingdom – Animalia 3. Ivermectin
d. Phylum – Nemathelminthes 4. Diethylcarba
310.) What is the infective stage of mzine citrate
M. streptocerca? a. 1&3
a. L3 larva b. 2&4
b. L1 larva c. 1,3,4
c. Adult worm d. 1,2,3,4
d. Microfilariae e. 4 only
311.) Diagnosis of M. streptocerca 316.) The host has a Nitric oxide
infection is done by Skin snip mechanism against this type of tissue
examination. Treatment is nematode?
Diethylcarbamazine 6 mg/kg divided in 1. Brugia malayi
doses for 14-21 days 2. Wuchereria bancrofti
a. The first is true, the latter is 3. Dracunculus medinesis
false 4. Mansonella streptocerca
b. The first is false, the latter is 5. Loa loa
true a. 1,2,3,4,5
c. Both are true b. 1,3,5
d. Both are false c. 1 only
312.) Where is the infective form of d. 2,3,4,5
M. streptocerca located? e. 2,3,4
a. Vector’s midgut 317.) Brugia malayi can be detected
b. Dermis of humans through
c. Vector’s thoracic muscles a. Wet smears
d. Vector’s proboscis b. Giemsa stained blood smears
313.) What is the common of Brugia c. Knott’s concentration biopsy
malayi? d. All of the above
a. Malayan filarial worm 318.) Where are the adult worms of
b. Ozzard’s filarial Malayan filarial worms located?
c. Heartworm a. Mosquito’s midgut
d. African eye worm b. Mosquito’s proboscis
314.) Infective stage is the L3 larva. c. Human lymphatics
While the vector are mosquito d. Human blood
(anopheles) e. Human subcutaneous tissue
a. The first is true, the latter is 319.) Mansonia bonnae is the vector
false of Malayan filarial worm. Mansonia
b. The first is false, the latter is uniformis is the vector of Brugia malayi.
true a. The first is true, the latter is
c. Both are true false
d. Both are false
 b. The first is false, the latter is 325.) Which of the following is
true correctly matched? (M. ozzardi)
c. Both are true 1. Adults – subcutaneous
d. Both are false 2. Microfilariae – bloodstream
320.) Malayan filariasis clinical 3. L3 – blood steam of humans
manisfestations except 4. L1 – vector’s proboscis
1. Eosinophilia a. 1&3
2. Adenopahy b. 1&2
3. Elephantoid Limb,groin, scrotum c. 1,2,3,4
enlargement d. 3&4
4. Bronchial asthma e. 1,2,3
5. Convulsions 326.) Does M. ozzardi have caudal
a. 1,2,3,4,5 chemoreceptor?
b. 1,2,3,4 a. Yes
c. 5 only b. No
d. 4&5 327.) What is the class of M. ozzardi?
e. 3,4,5 a. Adenophorea
321.) Mansonella ozzardi is also b. Secernentea
known as Ozzard’s filaria. L3 larva is the 328.) Which of the following Is not
infective stage true?
a. The first statement is true, the a. Mansonelliasis infection is
latter is false asymptomatic in most infected
b. The first statement is false, the subjects
latter is true b. Occurs mostly in south America
c. Both are true and some Caribbean islands
d. Both are false c. Ivermectin is the drug of choice
322.) What is the vector of Ozzard’s d. Stained blood smears are used
filarial worm? to diagnose Mansonelliasis
a. Mosquito (mansonella) e. None of the above
b. Mosquito (anopheles) 329.) Which of the following is not
c. Blackfly (simulium) true about the morphology of Ozzard’s
d. Midges (culicoides) filarial?
e. Two of the above 1. Bilaterally symmetrical w/
f. All of the above pseudocoel
323.) Female M. ozzardi are 2. Exterior cuticle
a. Oviparous 3. Long and slender reduced lips
b. Viviparoud 4. Adults are 170 – 240 mcm long
c. Ovoviviparous 5. Nuclei that extends to the end of
324.) What is released by the female the tail
Ozzard to attract male species? 6. Microfilariae has button hook
a. NO 7. Have dorsal, ventral and transverse
b. Pheromone nerve cords connected to the
c. Phermomone longitudinal muscles
d. Genital pore a. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
 b. 1,2,3,6,7 1. Cuticle with 2 main outer layers
c. 1,2,3,6 made of collagen and other
d. 1,2,3,4,7 compounds
e. 1,2,3,4,5 2. Outer layers are non-cellular
330.) What is the common name of secreted by the dermis
Dirofilaria immitis? 3. Both sexes have mouth
a. Guinea worm 4. Anal pore in females only
b. Human Parasitic roundworm 5. Spicules in males only
c. Heartworm a. 1,2,3,4,5
d. Difolarial worm b. 1,2,4
331.) What is produced by females to c. 1,2,4,5
attract male dirofilaria worms? d. 1,2,3,4
a. Pheromone e. 1&2 only
b. Phermomone 336.) Which of the following is
c. Pherohormone incorrectly matched?
d. Nitric Oxide (NO) a. Class – secernentea
332.) This structure is a characteristic b. Order – spirurida
of Heartworm which is made of cuticle c. Family – Filariidae
tissue, guides the spicules which extend d. Genus – Dirofilaria
through the cloaca and anus. e. None of the above
a. Vulva 337.) Which of the following is not
b. Malphigian tubules true about heartworm?
c. Proboscis 1. Ivermectin is the drug of
d. Gubernaculum choice
333.) What is the infetive stage of 2. Surgical removal of lung
Dirofilaria immitis? granulomas and nodules
a. L3 larvae under the skin is a method
b. L1 larvae of treating dirofilariasis
c. Embryonated egg 3. Male adult worms has
d. Adult worm spirally coiled posterior and
334.) What is the vector of tail w/ many alae
Heartworm? 4. Female adult worms have
1. Mosquito (mansonia) their reproductive organs in
2. Mosquito (aedes) the straight posterior end
3. Mosquito (anopheles) a. 1 only
4. Mosquito (malaria) b. 1,3,4
a. 1,2,3,4 c. 1&4
b. 1,2,3 d. None
c. 1&3 338.) Diagnosis of Dirofilia immitis is
d. 2&4 done through
335.) Which of the following is not a. ELISA
true about the morphology of b. ECG
Dirofilaria immitis? c. Blood smear
d. All of the above
339.) Dirofilaria immitis only affect d. Both are false
dogs and rarely humans. That is the 343.) What are the 3 major
reason why they are called dog conditions in dracunculosis?
heartworm and not human heartworm 1. Hot and painful blisters
a. The first statement is true, the 2. Secondary bacterial
latter is false infections
b. The first statement is false, the 3. Allergic reactions under the
latter is true skin that can lead to the
c. Both are true death of the host
d. Both are false 4. Pruritus
340.) It is the longest nematode 5. Blister
affecting humans a. 1,2,3
1. Guinea worm b. 1,2,3,4,5
2. River Blindness c. 1,2,5
3. Onchonchera volvulus d. 1&2 only
4. Dracunculus medinensis e. 3,4,5
a. 1&3 344.) A specific drug for
b. 2&4 dracunculosis to ease and reduce
c. 1&4 inflammation.
d. 4 only 1. Aspirin
341.) Which of the following is not 2. Ibuprofen
true about Drancuculus? 3. Metronidazole
1. Males are 1.2 – 2.9 cm long 4. Thiabendazole
2. Females are 60 cm – 3 m long a. 1&3
3. The only filarial parasite w/ one b. 2&4
uterus c. 1&2
4. It has caudal chemoreceptors d. 3&4
because it belongs to class 345.) Drug facilitates in extraction
adenophorea process of dracunculus?
a. 1&3 1. Aspirin
b. 2&4 2. Ibuprofen
c. 1&2 3. Metronidazole
d. 3&4 4. Thiabendazole
e. 4 only a. 1&3
342.) Humans become infected by b. 2&4
drinking water containing infected c. 1&2
copepods. It takes 6 months for the d. 3&4
worm to mature into an adult in the 346.) Female dracunculus medinensis
abdominal cavity. worms are classified as
a. The first statement is true, the a. Oviparous
latter is false b. Viviparous
b. The first statement is false, the c. Ovoviviparous
latter is true
c. Both are true