December 2018
December 2018
December 2018
Goodwill 130,000
1,760,000 1,760,000
Big Star Ltd. agreed to acquire Blue Star Ltd. on the following terms and conditions:
(1) Big Star Ltd. would take over all Assets, except bank balance at their book values less
10%. Goodwill is to be valued at 4 year’s purchase of super profits, assuming that the
normal rate of return be 8% on the combined amount of share capital and general
reserve.
(2) Big Star Ltd. is to take over creditors at book value.
(3) The purchase consideration is to be paid in cash to the extent of Rs. 600,000 and the
balance in fully paid equity shares of Rs.100 each at Rs.125 per share.
The average profit is Rs. 124,400. The liquidation expenses amounted to Rs. 16,000 to be
borne by Big Star Ltd. Blue Star Ltd. had purchased prior to 32 nd Ashadh, 2075 goods
costing Rs. 120,000 from Big Star Ltd. for Rs. 160,000. Rs. 100,000 worth of goods is still
in stock of Blue Star Ltd. on 32 nd Ashadh, 2075. Creditors of Blue Star Ltd. include
Rs.40,000 still due to Big Star Ltd.
Show the necessary Ledger Accounts to close the books of Blue Star Ltd. and prepare the
Balance Sheet (extract) of Big Star Ltd. as at 1 st Shrawan, 2075 after the acquisition.
Question No 2:
Following is given the Balance Sheets of M/s Himal Ltd. and Hill Ltd. for further course of actions:
Balance Sheet of Himal Ltd.
Rs. Rs.
50,00,000 50,00,000
Rs. Rs.
18,00,000 18,00,000
a) Hill Ltd declares a dividend of 10% before absorption for the payment of which it is to
retain sufficient amount of cash.
b) The net worth of Hill Ltd. is valued at Rs. 1,450,000.
c) The purchase consideration is satisfied by the allotment of fully paid shares of Rs. 100
each in Himal Ltd.
Following additional information is also to be taken in to consideration:
Himal Ltd. holds 2,500 shares of Hill Ltd. at a cost of Rs 200,000.
The stock of Hill Ltd. includes items valued at Rs. 50,000 from Himal Ltd. (cost Rs.
37,500)
The creditors of Hill Ltd include Rs. 15,000 due to Himal Ltd.
Required: Show ledger account in the books of Hill Ltd. to give effect to the above and Balance Sheet of
Himal Ltd. after completion of absorption.
Internal Reconstruction
Question No 3:
The following is the Balance Sheet of Pokhara Light Ltd. as on 31.3.2073:
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Equity shares of 10,000,000 Fixed assets 12,500,000
Rs.100 each
12% cumulative 5,000,000 Investments 1,000,000
preference (Mark
After taking the following information into account, prepare a cash flow statement for the year
ended on 31st December 2016.
i) Profit for year 2016 was Rs. 8,600 against this had been charged depreciation Rs. 3,050
and increase in provision for doubtful debt Rs.200/-.
ii) Income Tax Rs. 18,000 was paid during the year charged against the provision and in
addition Rs. 20,000 was charged against profit and carried to the provision.
iii) An interim dividend of Rs. 5,000 was paid in January 2016.
iv) Additional Plant was purchased in September 2015 for Rs. 5,000
v) Investments (cost Rs. 5,000) were sold for Rs. 4,800 in 2016 and on 1 st March 2016
another investment was made for Rs. 6,250.
Insurance Claim
Question No 5:
A fire broke out in the godown of a business house on Shrawan 08, 2074. Goods costing Rs. 203,000
in a small sub-godown remain unaffected by fire. The goods retrieved in a damaged condition from
the main godown were valued at Rs. 197,000. The following particulars were available from the
books of account:
Stock on the last balance sheet date at 31.03.2074 was Rs. 1,572,000
Purchases for the period from Shrawan 01 to Shrawan 07 were Rs. 3,710,000
Sales during the same period amounted to Rs. 5,260,000
The average gross profit margin was 30% on sales.
The business house has a fire insurance policy for Rs. 1,000,000 in respect of its entire stock.
Required: Assist the accountant of the business house in computing the amount of claim of loss by
fire.
Question No 6:
A fire occurred in the premises of M/s Gadbadh Co. on 30 th Mangsir 2073. Following particulars is
provided to the period 1 st Shrawan 2073 to 30 th Mangsir 2073.
Rs.
st
i) Stock as per Balance Sheet as at 31 Ashadh 2073 99,000
ii) Purchases (including purchase of a machinery Costing Rs. 30,000) 170,000
iii) Wages (including wages for the installation of Machinery Rs. 3,000) 50,000
iv) Sales (including goods sold on approval basis amounting to Rs. 49,500.
No confirmation had been received in respect of two-thirds of such Goods sold on approval basis.
275,000
v) Sales value of goods drawn by proprietor 15,000
vi) Cost of goods sent to consignee on 15 Mangsir 2073 lying unsold With them 16,500
vii) Sales value of goods distributed as free samples 1,500
The average rate of gross profit had been 20% in the past. This selling price had been increased by
20% with effect from 1st Shrawan 2073.
Subject to the above exceptions, the gross profit had remained at a uniform rate throughout. The
value of goods salvaged was estimated at Rs. 25,000. The enterprise had taken an insurance policy
for Rs. 60,000 which was subject to the average clause.
Required: To ascertain the amount of claim to be filed with the insurance company for the loss of
stock.
Contract Accounting
Question No 7:
M/s Santi Construction started working on a contract on 1 stBaisakh 2074 for Rs. 500,000. On
31stAshad 2074, when the company prepared its final accounts, the following information relating to
the contractor was extracted from his books of accounts:
Particulars Rs.
Material issued from stores and sent to site 160,000
Wages paid 101,200
Wages outstanding on 31-03-2074 37,520
New machines purchased and sent to the site on 1-1-2074 148,000
Direct charges paid 7,500
Direct charges outstanding on 31-03-2074 600
Establishment charges apportioned to contract 6,400
On 31 Ashad 2074 materials lying unused at the site were valued at Rs.21,620. Machines were
depreciated at 20% per annum. Value of work certified by 31stAshad 2074 was Rs. 350,000 while the
cost of work done but yet not certified as on that date was Rs.18,000. On the basis of architect‘s
certificate, the company had received a total sum of Rs. 280,000 from the contractee till 31 stAshadh
2074.
Required: Contract account and relevant portion of the balance sheet in the books of M/s Santi
Construction.
Question No 10:
Yeti Ltd. with an authorized capital of Rs. 30,000,000 offered to public 400,000 ordinary shares of
NRs.50 each at a premium of NRs.5 each. The payment was to be made as;
NRs.15 on application,
NRs.25 on allotment (including premium) and
NRs.15 on first and final call.
Application totalled 800,000 shares; shares were allotted on a pro-rata basis. Amit who had applied for
800 shares and to whom 400 shares had been allotted failed to pay the balance of allotment money due
from him. His shares were forfeited and then reissued to Tanka as Rs.40 (including premium of NRs.5) per
share as fully paid up. Rojina, another shareholder, failed to pay the call money on 100 shares held by her.
Her shares were also forfeited. Later, these shares were reissued as fully paid to Suchitra for NRs.60 per
share.
Expenses of the issue of shares came to Rs.12,000.
Required: Pass necessary journal entries in the books of M/s Yeti Ltd.
The underwriters are eligible for a commission of 5% on face value of shares. The entire amount
towards shares subscription has to be paid along with application. You are required to:
(a) Prepare the statement showing the underwriters‘ liability (number of shares)
(b) Compute the amounts payable or due to underwriters; and
(c) Pass necessary journal entries in the books of Nepal Capital Ltd. relating to underwriting.
Incomplete Records
Question No 12
The following is the Balance Sheet of Mr. Sanjay Rijal, a small trader as on 32.3.2075 :
(Figures in Rs. ‗000)
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Capital 200 Fixed Assets 145
Creditors 50 Stock 40
Debtors 50
Cash in Hand 5
Cash at Bank 10
250 250
A fire destroyed the accounting records as well as the closing cash of the trader on 32.3.2075. However,
the following information was available :
(a) Debtors and creditors on 32.3.2075 showed an increase of 20% as compared to 31.3.2074.
(b) Credit Period :
Debtors – 1 month Creditors – 2 months
(c) Stock was maintained at the same level throughout the year.
(d) Cash sales constituted 20% of total sales.
(e) All purchases were for credit only.
(f) Current ratio as on 32.3.2075 was exactly 2.
(g) Total expenses excluding depreciation for the year amounted to Rs. 250,000.
(h) Depreciation was provided at 10% on the closing value of fixed assets.
Ratio Analysis
Question No 13:
M/s Nyatapola Enterprises asked you to prepare their Balance Sheet from the particulars furnished
hereunder:
Gross Profit Margin: 10%
Stock Velocity: 12
Capital turnover ratio: 2
Fixed assets turnover ratio: 5
Debt collection period: 1 month
Creditor‘s payment period: 73 days
Gross Profit: Rs. 100,000
Excess of closing stock over opening stock: Rs. 30,000
Make suitable assumptions wherever necessary.
Dr. Cr.
Furniture-
Dhankuta 10,000
Pokhara 5,000
Kailali 6,000
Stock-
Dhankuta 46,000
Pokhara 34,000
Kailali 53,000
_______ _______
369,800 369,800
The firm was dissolved on that date. Amar took over Dhankuta Branch, and Bisnu took over Pokhara
Branch; the assets being taken at 10% less than the book values. Patents and Trade Marks were found
valueless. The business at Kailali was sold to a limited company which allotted 6,000 equity shares of
Rs. 10 each credited as fully paid. To pay the liabilities, Amar and Bisnhu introduced cash in the
profit sharing ratio. The cost of winding up came to Rs. 4,000 for which Amar advanced cash. Chetan
is insolvent and can pay nothing. Bishnu received all the shares.
Required: Necessary accounts to close the books of the firm; partners give effect to the correct
position without having to make up losses in cash. Assume the capitals to be fluctuating. Amar
and Bishnu settles accounts themselves.
Question No 17:
Following information has been given for Himalayan Sports Club, Lalitpur for the year ending
31.3.2073 and 31.3.2074
Total 1,689,592
Following additional information relating to previous quarter ending were extracted from the
records of the bank:
Particulars Amount Rs.
The bank is in the process of preparing the documents for quarterly reporting. The bank has
also provided a term loan of Rs.125,000 to a single party during the period under review. As a
reporting and compliance officer of the bank you are required to calculate movement in loan
loss provision amount.
Question No 19:
From the following information calculate Core capital ratio and total capital adequacy ratio of
DDD Bank Ltd. and suggest management about the compliance of the same:
In lakh
Paid up Capital 20,000
General Reserve Fund 377
Retained Earnings 308
Profit for current year 1,945
General Loan Loss Provision 1,215
Investment Adjustment Reserve 22
Loan Given to Relatives of Staffs 37
Risk weighted Exposure for Credit Risk 213,546
Risk weighted Exposure for Operational Risk 4,235
Risk Weighted Exposure for Market Risk 1,618
Stocks lying at different departments at the end of the year are as under:
d. ABC Co. took a machine on lease from XYZ Co. the fair value being Rs. 1,000,000. The
economic life of the machine as well as lease term is 4 years. At the end of each year, ABC Co.
pays Rs. 350,000. The lessee has guaranteed a residual value of Rs. 40,000 on expiry of lease to
the lessor. However, XYZ Co. estimates that the residual value of the machinery will be Rs.
35,000 only. The implicit rate of return is 16% and PV factors at 16% for year 1, year 2, year 3
and year 4 are 0.8621, 0.7432, 0.6407 and 0.5523 respectively. You are required to calculate the
value of machinery to be considered by ABC Co.
Business Combination
Answer No 1:
Books of Blue Star Limited
Realization Account
Rs. Rs.
To Building 3,40,000 By Creditors 3,20,000
To Machinery 6,40,000 By B Ltd. 12,10,000
To Stock 2,20,000 By Equity Shareholders A/c (Loss) 60,000
To Debtors 2,60,000
To Goodwill 1,30,000
1,590,000 1,590,000
Bank Account
To Balance b/d 136,000 By 10% debentures 400,000
To Big Star Ltd. 600,000 By Loan from A 160,000
By Equity shareholders A/c 176,000
736,000 736,000
Working Notes:
1. Valuation of Goodwill Rs.
Average profit 124,400
Less: 8% of Rs. 880,000 70,400
Super profit 54,000
Value of Goodwill = 54,000 x 4 216,000
Out of this Rs. 600,000 is to be paid in cash and remaining i.e., (1,210,000–600,000) Rs. 610,000 in
shares of Rs. 125/-. Thus, the number of shares to be allotted 610,000/125 = 4,880 shares.
3. Unrealized Profit on Stock Rs.
The stock of Blue Star Ltd. includes goods worth Rs. 100,000 which was sold by
40,000
Big Star Ltd. on profit. Unrealized profit on this stock will be 1,00,000 25,000
1,60,000
As Big Star Ltd. purchased assets of Blue Star Ltd. at a price 10% less than the (10,000)
book value, 10% need to be adjusted from the stock i.e., 10% of Rs.100,000.
Amount of unrealized profit 15,000
4. Liquidation expenses borne by the Big Star Ltd. so that should be debited to Goodwill Account.
Workings:
Hill Ltd retains Rs. 100,000 in cash for dividend (10%) ( 1,400,000-100,000)
1. Total Purchase consideration (based on net worth of Hill Ltd.) is Rs. 1,450,000.
2. Himal Ltd. holds 2,500 shares in Hill Ltd. The percentage of holding is 25%
3. The net purchase consideration to pay Rs. 1,450,000 * ¾ = 1,087,500
4. Calculation of Current Assets
Answer No 3:
Journal Entries
Rs.
Rs.
(i) Equity Share Capital (Rs.100) A/c Dr. 1,00,00,000
To Equity Share Capital (Rs.40) A/c 40,00,000
To Reconstruction A/c 60,00,000
(Being conversion of equity share capital of Rs.100 each into Rs.40 each as
per reconstruction scheme)
(ii) 12% Cumulative Preference Share capital (Rs.100) A/c Dr. 50,00,000
To 12% Cumulative Preference Share Capital (Rs.60) A/c 30,00,000
To Reconstruction A/c 20,00,000
(Being conversion of 12% cumulative preference share capital of Rs.100 each
into Rs.60 each as per reconstruction scheme)
(iii) 10% Debentures A/c Dr. 40,00,000
To 12% Debentures A/c 28,00,000
To Reconstruction A/c 12,00,000
(Being 12% debentures issued to 10% debenture-holders for 70% of their
claims. The balance transferred to capital reduction account as per
reconstruction scheme)
(iv) Sundry Creditors A/c Dr. 20,00,000
To Equity Share Capital A/c 12,00,000
To Reconstruction A/c 8,00,000
(Being a creditor of Rs.20,00,000 agreed to surrender his claim by 40% and
was allotted 30,000 equity shares of Rs.40 each in full settlement of his dues
as per reconstruction scheme)
(v) Provision for Taxation A/c Dr. 1,00,000
Reconstruction A/c Dr. 50,000
To Current Assets (Bank A/c) 1,50,000
(Being conversion of the provision for taxation into liability for taxation for
settlement of the amount due)
(vi) Reconstruction A/c Dr. 99,50,000
To P & L A/c 4,00,000
To Preliminary Expenses A/c 2,00,000
To Fixed Assets A/c 37,50,000
To Current Assets A/c 55,00,000
Working Note:
Reconstruction Account
Rs. Rs.
To Liability for taxation A/c 50,000 By Equity share capital 60,00,000
To P & L A/c 4,00,000 By 12% Cum. preference share 20,00,000
To Preliminary expenses 2,00,000 By 10% Debentures 12,00,000
To Fixed assets 37,50,000 By Sundry creditors 8,00,000
To Current assets 55,00,000
To Investment 50,000
To Capital Reserve 50,000
(balancing figure) _________ _________
1,00,00,000 1,00,00,000
Answer No 4:
28,800 28,800
39,000 39,000
Answer No 5:
= Rs 1,000,000 x1,200,000
Rs 1,600,000
=Rs 750,000
Answer No 6:
Working Notes
(1) Abnormal items: Rs.
Original cost of slow moving items 5,000
cost of slow moving item sold 2,500
Balance of slow moving items in stock 2,500
Original cost of slow moving items sold 2,500
Loss incurred on such sale 500
Sale proceeds of slow moving items 2,000
Contract Accounting
Answer No 7:
In the books of M/s Santi Constriction
Contract Account
For the period ended 31.3.2074
Date Particulars Amount Date Particulars Amount
Working Note
Answer No 8:
In the books of Omega Enterprises
Hire Purchase Trading Account
for the year ended on 31.12.2017
Dr. Rs. Rs. Cr Rs.
To Hire Purchase Stock By Hire Purchase
(30×Rs. 5,000) 1,50,000 Sales (W.N. 1) 91,40,000
To Goods Sold on By Stock Reserve
Hire Purchase (Rs. 1,50,000×20%) 30,000
Working Notes :
Rs.
(1) Cash collected:
Cash down payment (240 × Rs. 10,000) 24,00,000
Add : Instalments collected :
Last instalments on 30 computers outstanding on 1.4.99 1,50,000
Instalments due and collected on 240 computers sold
during the year :
Total instalments on 240 computers
(8 × 240 × Rs. 5,000) 96,00,000
Less : Instalments due but not collected
[(2 × 2 + 1 × 6 + 6 × 2) × Rs. 5,000] 1,10,000
Instalments not due on 31.12.99
[(8 × 50 + 6 × 30 + 1 × 20 +
1 × 2) × Rs. 5,000] 30,10,000 31,20,000
90,30,000
Hire purchase sales:
Cash collected 90,30,000
Add : Instalments due but not collected
[(2 × 2 + 1 × 6 + 6 × 2) × Rs. 5,000] 1,10,000
91,40,000
(2) Loss on repossessed computers:
Cost of instalments due but not collected
(6 × 2 × Rs. 4,000) 48,000
Cost of Instalments not yet due
(1 × 2 × Rs. 4,000) 8,000
56,000
Less : Estimated value of repossessed computers
(2 × Rs. 40,000 × 50%) 40,000
Loss 16,000
(3) Bad debts (in respect of repossessed computers):
Instalments due but not collected
(6 × 2 × Rs. 5,000) 60,000
Cost of installments not due on 31.12.99
(1 × 2 × Rs. 5,000 × 80%) 8,000
Answer No 9:
Journal Entries
NRs. NRs.
Date Particulars Dr. Cr.
(Conversion of 60% of debentures into shares of NRs. 60 each with a face value of NRs.
10)
Working Note:
NRs. 750,000
Answer No 10:
Journal Entries
4.
Bank Account Dr.
5.
6,000,000
(Being share first & final call money received except 400 7,500
shares held by Mr. Amit and 100 shares held by Rajina who
(Being 400 shares held by Amit who failed to pay the 15,500
allotment and first and final call and 100 Shares held by
Rojina who failed to pay the call money forfeited ) 11,500
2,000
Bank Account Dr.
1,000
Share Forfeiture A/c Dr.
9,500
To Bank Account
12,000
12,000
Working Note;
Answer No 11:
(a) Statement showing the underwriters’ liability (No. of shares)
A & Co. B & Co. C & Co.
Gross Liability 120,000 120,000 120,000
Less: Firm underwriting 10,000 10,000 10,000
110,000 110,000 110,000
Less: Marked applications 72,500 84,000 131,000
37,500 26,000 (21,000)
Less: Unmarked applications distributed to A &
Co. and B & Co. in equal ratio (11,250) (11,250) Nil
26,250 14,750 (21,000)
Less: Surplus of C & Co. distributed to A & Co.
and B & Co. in equal ratio (10,500) (10,500) 21,000
Net liability (excluding firm underwriting) 15,750 4,250 Nil
Add: Firm underwriting 10,000 10,000 10,000
Total liability (No. of shares) 25,750 14,250 10,000
Incomplete Records
Answer No 12:
Other computations
(1) Debtors Opening balance = Rs. 50,000
Closing balance = Rs. 50,000 + 20% = Rs. 60,000
Credit Sales = Rs. 60,000 × 12 = Rs. 7,20,000
Total Sales = 7,20,000/80% = Rs. 9,00,000
Ratio Analysis
Answer No 13:
Balance Sheet of Nyatapola Enterprises
14. Answer:
Statement showing calculation of profits for pre and post incorporation periods
Working note:
Pre post
1. calculation of time ratio = 1:4 1st Baisakh to 31.3.2071 1.4.2071 to 31.3.2072
3 months 12 months
2. Calculation of sales ratio = 1:8 3x1 = 3 12 x 2 = 24
3. Calculation of staff salary ratio = 1:12 3x1 = 3 12 x 3 = 36
4. calculation of interest 234,00,000 x 12% for 3 100,00,000 x 12% for 1 year
months Rs. 1200,000
Rs. 702,000
5. Calculation of Rent
(i) additional rent 60,000x9 = 540,000
(ii) regular rent = (1440,000-540000) 900,0000X3/15 = 900,0000X12/15 = 720,000
= 900,000 180,000
6. Calculation of gross profit = sales – cost of goods sold = 468,00,000-327,60,000 = 140,40,000
Answer No 15:
Liquidator’s Final Statement
Receipts Rs. Rs. Payments Rs.
Rs.
Cash at Bank 60,000 Liquidation expenses 4,600
Assets realised:
Sundry Debtors 160,000 Liquidator‘s remuneration (W.N. 1) 30,400
Stock 120,000 Debenture holders:
Plant & Machinery 360,000 640,000 10% debentures 200,000
Surplus from Land & Interest accrued (W.N.2) 15,000 215,000
Buildings: Preferential creditors 30.000
Amount realised 340,000 Unsecured creditors 370,000
Less: Secured Preference shareholders:
Answer No 16:
Dr. Profit & Loss Account
Cr.
Date Particulars Amount Date Particulars Amount
55,000 55,000
297,000 297,000
73,800 73,800
Answer No 17:
As on 31.3.2073
As on 31.3.2074
362,000 362,000
Answer No 18:
As per the provision of the NRB Directives, a bank can provide credit up to 25% of its core capital to
a single party. This limit is called the single obligor limit (SOL). While calculating the SOL, core
capital of previous quarter shall be taken as base. In case any excess credit than SOL, additional
100% provision shall be made for such excess credit amount.
Before calculating the provision amount, SOL of the bank shall be tested upon.
Rate Amount
Answer No 19:
c. Supplementary Capital
Particular Amount
General Loan Loss Provision 1,215
Investment Adjustment Reserve 22
Total Supplementary Capital 1,237
Answer No 21:
a) According to NAS - 18 on Revenue, revenue from the sale of goods shall be recognized when
the seller of goods has transferred to the buyer the significant risks and rewards of ownership
of the goods;
the seller retains neither continuing managerial involvement to the degree usually associated
with ownership nor effective control over the goods sold;
the amount of revenue can be measured reliably.
It is probable that the economic benefits associated with the transaction will flow to the
entity; and
The costs incurred or to be incurred in respect of the transaction can be measured reliably.
Since the transport bills were sent through the bank for collection, it may be said that the seller
entity has retained effective control over the ownership of goods. Further since the documents
were not cleared by the customer even after the expiry of the normal period of collection, there is
an uncertainty in the realization of sale proceeds. Hence, revenue should not be recognized in
this case.
c). As per NAS 37 ‗Provisions, contingent liabilities and contingent assets‘ a provision should be
recognised when;
(a) an enterprise has a present obligation as a result of a past event.
(b) it is probable that an outflow of resources embodying economic benefits will be required to
settle the obligation; and
(c) a reliable estimate can be made of the amount of the obligation. If these conditions are not
met, no provision should be recognised.
In the given situation the directors of the company are of the opinion that the claim can be
successfully resisted by the company, therefore there will be no out flow of the resources. The
company will disclose the same as contingent liability by way of the following notes:
‗Ligation is in process against the company relating to a dispute with a competitor who alleges
that the company has infringed patents and is seeking damages of Rs. 20 millions. However, the
directors are of the opinion that the claim can be successfully resisted by the company.‘
d). As per Nepal Accounting Standard (NAS) ‗Leases‘, the lessee should recognize the lease as an
asset and a liability at the inception of a finance lease. Such recognition should be at an amount
equal to the fair value of the leased asset at the inception of lease. However if the fair value of
the leased asset exceeds the present value of minimum lease payment from the standpoint of the
lessee, the amount recorded as an asset and liability should be the present value of minimum
lease payments from the standpoint of the lessee.
Value of machinery: In the given case, fair value of the machinery is Rs. 1,000,000 and the net
present value of minimum lease payments is Rs. 1,001,497 (working note). As the present value
of the machine is more than the fair value of the machine, the machine and the corresponding
liability will be recorded at fair value of Rs. 1,000,000.
Working note: Present value of minimum lease payments
Annual lease rental X PV Factor = 350,000 X (0.8621+0.7432+0.6407+0.5523) = 979,405
Debt servicing means timely payment of principal amount of instalments plus interest.
This ratio normally should be 1.33 but a higher coverage is of advantage to the
business as it improves its strength to service the debts promptly
Nepal Rastra Bank (NRB) has formulated a new category of loan for provisioning purposes. As
per the Central Bank‘s Rule, all loans are required to be classified into 5 different categories
including Watch List whereby 5% of the total loan is required to be kept as provisioning though
the provision can be reversed when the loan becomes performing later. Provision made for
watch list loans is a general loan loss provision. As per the circular issued by Central Bank, the
loans having the following characteristics are to be classified as Watch List loans:
1. If interest and principal repayments are overdue for more than a month.
2. Short term/Working Capital Loans that are not renewed on time and are renewed on
temporary basis.
3. Loan and advances to customers/ group of customers who have been categorized as non
performing by other banks and financial institutions.
4. Firms/Companies/Organizations having negative net worth or net loss though interest and
principal are served on regular basis.
5. Loan and advances having multiple banking exposure more than Rs. 1 billion and have
not entered into consortium agreement.
6. Specifically specified by NRB after due inspection.
Question No 1:
XYZ ltd has appointed you as the statutory auditor of a company for the first time. what other
auditing techniques would you employ for conducting the statutory audit apart from adopting the
conventional audit procedures when auditing for the first time?
Question No 2:
Designing an Audit Strategy is the backbone of the Audit Planning" process. Discuss.
Question No 3:
What are the considerations to be kept in mind while performing analytical procedures on data
prepared by the client?
Question No 4
You have been appointed as the auditor of a QFX cinema hall. Draw an audit programme in respect
of its Revenue and Expenditure.
Question No 5
What are the points to be considered while evaluating the "knowledge of the Business" in the conduct
of an audit?
Question No 6
PQR & Co. was appointed as auditor of Himalayam Airways Ltd. As the audit partner what factors
shall be considered in the development of overall audit plan?
Question No 7
Draw out an audit plan to enquire into causes of abnormal wastage of raw materials..
Question No 8
What are general matters to be considered by an auditor while taking up an engagement?
Question No 9
What are the major sources of obtaining information about the client's business?
Question No 10
As an internal auditor of a Cement Manufacturing Company, draft an audit programme for
verification of transportation charges for dispatches from the factory.
Question No 11
Question No 12
Under the applicable Standards on Auditing, in what circumstances does the report of the statutory
auditor require modifications? What are the types of modifications possible to the said report?
Question No 13
X Ltd closed its manufacturing operations and sold all its manufacturing fixed assets during the
financial year ended 31st March, 2015. However it intends continue its operations as a trading
company. in respect of other fixed assets, the company carried out a physical verification as at the
end of 31st March, 2015 and found a material discrepancy to the tune of 1 lac, which was written off
and is disclosed separately in the Statement of Profit and Loss.
Kindly incorporate the above in your audit report.
Question No 14
a. Big and Small Ltd. received a show cause notice from central excise department intending to levy
a demand of 25 lakhs in December 2014. The company replied to the above notice in January
2015 contending that it is not liable for the levy. No further action was initiated by the central
excise department upto the finalization of the audit for the year ended on 393, March, 2095. As
the auditor of the company, what is your role in this?
b. Director of T Ltd. draws an advance of US$ 200 per day in connection with the foreign trip
undertaken on behalf of the company. On his return he files a declaration stating that entire
advance was expended without any supporting or evidence. T Ltd. books the entire expenses on
the basis of such declaration. As the auditor of T Ltd. how do you deal with this?
Question No 15:
Write a short note on
Question No 16:
What are the features of a qualified Audit Report?
Question No 17:
Discuss the various aspects to be considered by the Statutory Auditor before qualifying his report.
Question No 18:
Question No 20:
"Obtaining audit evidence in performing compliance and substantive procedures. " Comment.
Question No 21:
Test-check approach is an accepted auditing procedure, which aims to test transactions on the basis
of selection of samples from the entire population. The auditor would also consider the specific audit
objectives to be achieved and the audit procedures which are likely to best achieve those objective s.
In addition, when audit sampling is appropriate, consideration of the nature of the audit evidence
sought and possible error conditions or other characteristics relating to that audit evidence will assist
the auditor in defining what constitutes an error and what population to use for sampling. For example,
when performing tests of control over an entity's purchasing procedures, the auditor will be
concerned with matters such as whether an invoice was clerically checked and properly approved. On
the other hand, when performing substantive procedures on invoices processed during the period, the
auditor will be concerned with matters such as the proper reflection of the monetary amounts of such
invoices in the financial statements.
(2) the design of identified controls for internal control components, including those related to
preventing and detecting fraud, and
(3) whether all points in the process have been identified at which misstatements related to relevant
financial statement assertion could occur.
Walk through also provide evidence to evaluate the effectiveness of the controls' design and confirm
that the controls have been placed in operation.
(i) Be sure that the walk-through encompasses the complete process (initiation, authorization,
recording, processing and reporting) for each significant process identified, including controls
intended to address fraud risk.
(ii) Ask the entity's personnel, at each of key stage in the process, about their understanding of what
the company's prescribed procedures require.
(iii) Determine whether processing procedures are performed as expected on a timely basis, and look
for any exceptions to prescribed procedures and controls.
(iv) Evaluate the quality of evidence provided and perform procedures that produce a level of
evidence consistent with the auditor's objectives. The auditor should follow the whole process,
using the same documents and technology that company staff use, asking questions of different
personnel at each significant stage and asking follow- up questions to identify any abuse of
controls or fraud indicators.
(v) Once a walk-through is performed, the auditor may carry forward the documentation, noting
updates, unless significant changes make preparation of new documentation more efficient. If
such significant changes occur in the process flow of transactions or supporting computer
applications, the auditor should evaluate the nature of changes and the effect on related
accounts. The auditor should determine whether it is necessary to walk through transactions that
were processed both before and after the change.
Cut-off procedures mean procedures employed to ensure the separation of transactions at the end of
one year from those in the commencement of the next year. Usually, the problem of overlapping is
found in inventory accounting since quite often goods are sold but passed on to the buyer only after
the year is over or goods are bought but received only after the close of the year. This situation may
1. Goods purchased for which property has passed to the client have in fact been included in
inventories and that the liability if any, has been provided for.
2. Goods sold have been excluded from the inventories and credit has been taken for sales.
The auditor may examine a sample of documents evidencing the movement of stocks into and out of
stores, including documents pertaining to period shortly before and shortly after the cut -off date, and
check whether the stocks represented by those documents were included or excluded, as appropriate,
during the stock-taking.
Therefore, a statutory auditor who has been appointed for the first time must resort to evaluation of
internal control system through performance of compliance procedures based on the knowledge of
the client's business followed by vouching on a selected basis having regard to sampling. Physical
observation and direct confirmation are also useful audit techniques in the verification of items
contained in the financial statements. Ratio analysis or analytical procedures would also provide
audit evidence as to various assertions contained in the financial statements.
Answer No 2:
Audit strategy is concerned with designing optimized audit approaches that seeks to achieve the
necessary audit assurance at the lowest cost within the constraints of the information available. The
formulation of audit strategy shall form the basis of audit planning to achieve the audit objectives in
the most efficient and effective manner. Audit strategy generally involves the following steps:
i. Obtaining Knowledge of Business: NSA 315 "Identify and assessing the risk of material
misstatement through understanding the entity and its environment" and NSA 330 ―The Auditors‘
responses to assessed risks" respectively states that in performing an audit of financial
statements, the auditor should obtain knowledge of the business sufficient to enable the auditor to
identify and understand the events, transactions and practices that, in the auditor's judgment, may
have a significant effect on the financial statements or on the examination or audit report.
Knowledge of the business is a frame of reference within which the auditor exercises
professional judgment. Understanding the business and using this information appropriately
assists the auditor in assessing risks and identifying problems, planning and performing the audit
effectively and efficiently. It also ensures that the audit staff assigned to an audit engagement
obtains sufficient knowledge of the business to enable them to carry out the audit work delegated
to them. This would also ensure that the audit staff understands the need to be alert for additional
information and the need to share that information with the auditor and the other audit staff.
ii. Performing Analytical Procedures: The use of the analytical procedures during the planning
stage requires the extensive use of accounting and business knowledge and experience to assess
the potential for material misstatement in the financial statements as a whole, because the key
aspect of the task is to identify the relevant risk indicators and to interpret them properly.
Furthermore, analytical techniques applied during the planning stage are not generally as precise
as the analytical techniques at the substantive stage.
iii. Evaluating Inherent Risk: To assess inherent risk, the auditor would use professional judgment
to evaluate numerous factors such as quality of accounting system, unusual pressure on
management, etc. having regard to his experience of the entity from previous audit engagements
of the entity, any controls established by management to compensate for a high level of inherent
risk, and his knowledge of any significant changes which, might have taken place since his last
assessment.
Answer No 3
When the auditor intends to perform analytical procedures on data prepared by the client, he should
consider the following:
i. Determine the suitability of particular substantive analytical procedures for given assertions,
taking account of the assessed risks of material misstatement and tests of details, if any, for
these assertions;
ii. Evaluate the reliability of data from which the auditor's expectation of recorded amounts or
ratios is developed, taking account of source, comparability, and nature and relevance of
information available, and controls over preparation;
iii. Develop an expectation of recorded amounts or ratios and evaluate whether the expectation is
sufficiently precise to identify a misstatement that, individually or when aggregated with
other misstatements, may cause the financial statements to be materially misstated; and
iv. Determine the amount of any difference of recorded amounts from expected values that is
acceptable without further investigation and if analytical procedures performed in accordance
with this NSA identify fluctuations or relationships that are inconsistent with other relevant
information or that differ from expected values by a significant amount, the auditor shall
investigate such differences by:
v. Inquiring of management and obtaining appropriate audit evidence relevant to management's
responses; and
vi. Performing other audit procedures as necessary in the circumstances.
Answer No 4
i. Peruse the Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association of the entity.
ii. Ensure the object clause permits the entity to engage in this type of business.
iii. In the case of income from sale of tickets:
iv. Verify the control system as to how it is ensured that the collections on sale of tickets of various
shows are properly accounted.
v. Verify the system of relating to online booking of various shows and the system of realization of
Answer No 5
The broad matters to be considered while obtaining knowledge of business for a new audit
assignment are set out in NSA 315 "Identify and assessing the risk of material misstatement through
understanding the entity and its environment‖. These are:
i. Relevant industry, regulatory, economic and other external factors including the applicable
financial reporting framework.
ii. The nature of the entity, including:
a.its operations;
b. its ownership and governance structures;
c.the types of investments that the entity is making and plans to make, including
investments in special-purpose entities; and
d. the way that the entity is structured and how it is financed; to enable the auditor to
understand the classes of transactions, account balances, and disclosures to be expected
in the financial statements.
iii. The entity's selection and application of accounting policies.
iv. The entity's objectives and strategies, and those related business risks that may result in risks of
material misstatement.
v. The measurement and review of the entity's financial performance.
In addition to the importance of knowledge of the client's business in establishing the overall audit
plan, such knowledge helps the auditor to identify areas of special audit consideration, to evaluate the
reasonableness both of accounting estimates and management representations, and to make judgment
regarding the appropriateness of accounting policies and disclosures.
Answer No 6
Overall plan is basically intended to provide direction for audit work programming and includes the
determination of timing, manpower development and co-ordination of work with the client, other
auditors and other experts. The auditor should consider the following matters in developing his
overall plan for the expected scope and conduct of the audit:
Answer No 7
To locate the reasons for the abnormal wastage, the auditor should first of all assess the general
requirements as under:
i. Procure a list of raw materials, showing the names and detailed characteristics of each raw
material.
ii. Obtain the standard consumption figures, and ascertain the basis according to which normal
wastage figures have been worked out.
iii. Examine the break-up of a normal wastage into that in process, storage and handling stages.
Also obtain control reports, if any, in respect of manufacturing costs with reference to
predetermined standards.
iv. Examine the various records maintained for recording separately the various lots purchased
and identification of each lot with actual material consumption and for ascertaining actual
wastage figures therein.
v. Obtain reports of Preventive Maintenance Programme of machinery to ensure that the quality
of goods manufacture is not of sub-standard nature or leads to high scrap work.
vi. Assess whether personnel employed are properly trained and working efficiently.
vii. See whether quality control techniques have been consistent or have undergone any change.
viii. Examine inventory plans and procedures in report of transportation storage efficiency,
deterioration, pilferage and whether the same are audited regularly.
ix. Examine whether the basis adopted for calculating wastage for the month is the same as was
adopted for the other three months.
x. Obtain a statement showing break up of wastage figures in storage, handling and process for
the previous four months under reference and compare the results of the analysis for each of
the four months.
xi. In addition, some specific reasons for abnormal wastage in process may be considered by the
auditor are as under:
xii. Examine laboratory reports and inspection reports to find out if raw materials purchased were
of a poor quality or were of sub-standard quality. This will be most useful if it is possible to
Answer No 8
General Economic factors:
General level of economic activity (for example, recession, growth)
(a) The market and competition.
(b) Cyclical or seasonal activity.
(c) Government policies.
(d) The industry- important conditions affecting the client's business
(e) The market and competitions.
(f) Cyclical or seasonal activity.
(g) Changes in product technology.
(h) Business risk.
The entity:
i. Management and ownership- important characteristics.
ii. Operating Management.
iii. The entity's business - products markets, suppliers, expenses, operations.
iv. Nature of business(es) (for example manufacturing whole seller, financial services,
import/ exports).
v. Location of production facilities, warehouses, offices.
vi. Employment (for example, by location, supply, wage levels, union contracts, pension
commitments, Government regulation).
vii. Products or services and markets.
viii. Financial performance- factors concerning the entity's financial condition and
profitability.
ix. Reporting environment- external influences which affect management in the preparation
of the financial statements.
x. Legislation:
xi. Regulatory environment and requirements.
xii. Taxation both direct and indirect.
Answer No 10
Procedure for Audit of Transportation Charges:
Answer No 11
While formulating the audit strategy for a company, following factors may be considered -
General Factors:
i. The engagement objectives.
ii. The results of the business review, including major developments in the client's business and
industry, significant operating results and financial arrangements.
iii. Preliminary judgments as to materiality.
x. The classes of transactions in the entity's operations that are significant to the financial
statements;
xi. The procedures, within both information technology (IT) and manual systems, by which
those transactions are initiated, recorded, processed, corrected as necessary, transferred to the
general ledger and reported in the financial statements;
xii. The related accounting records, supporting information and specific accounts in the financial
statements that are used to initiate, record, process and report transactions; this i ncludes the
correction of incorrect information and how information is transferred to the general ledger.
The records may be in either manual or electronic form;
xiii. How the information system captures events and conditions, other than transactions, that are
significant to the financial statements;
xiv. Controls surrounding journal entries, including non-standard journal entries used to record
non-recurring, unusual transactions or adjustments.
Answer No 12
The auditor may modify the opinion in the auditor's report in the following circumstances:
(i) If the auditor concludes that, based on the audit evidence obtained, the financial statements as a
whole are not free from material misstatement; or
(ii) If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence to conclude that the
financial statements as a whole are free from material misstatement.
If financial statements prepared in accordance with the requirements of a fair presentation framework
do not achieve fair presentation, the auditor shall discuss the matter with management and,
depending on the requirements of the applicable financial reporting framework and how the matter is
resolved, shall determine whether it is necessary to modify the opinion in the auditor's report .
Types of Modification to the Auditor's Opinion: Modified opinion may be defined as a qualified
opinion, an adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.
a. Qualified Opinion: The auditor shall express a qualified opinion when the auditor, having
obtained sufficient appropriate audit evidence, concludes that misstatements, individually or
in the aggregate, are material, but not pervasive, to the financial statements; or the auditor is
unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence on which to base the opinion, but the
auditor concludes that the possible effects on the financial statements of undetected
misstatements, if any, could be material but not pervasive.
b. Adverse Opinion: The auditor shall express an adverse opinion when the auditor, having
obtained sufficient appropriate audit evidence, concludes that misstatements, individually or
Answer No 13:
As per NSA 570 "Going Concern", when the auditor concludes that the use of the going concern
assumption is appropriate in the circumstances but a material uncertainty exists, the auditor shall
determine whether the financial statements-
a. Adequately describe the principal events or conditions that may cast significant doubt on the
entity's ability to continue as a going concern and management's plans to deal with these
events or conditions; and
b. Disclose clearly that there is a material uncertainty related to events or conditions that may
cast significant doubt on the entity's ability to continue as a going concern.
In the given case, X Ltd. has sold out its manufacturing fixed assets during the year. However, it
intends to continue its operations as a trading company. Therefore, selling of manufactur ing fixed
assets does not affect the going concern assumption of the company. Additionally, while carrying out
physical verification of fixed assets, a material discrepancy to the tune of 1 lac was found, which was
written off and disclosed separately in the Statement of Profit and Loss. Hence, this fact needs to be
disclosed in the Audit Report as follows:
Para in the Audit Report-
We have made our viewpoint from the facts of the case and on the basis of guidance drawn from AS
1. We report as under-
As per Nepal Accounting Standard (NAS) 1, "Presentation of Financial statements", the enterprise is
normally viewed as a going concern that is as continuing its operation for the foreseeable future. It is
assumed that the enterprise has neither the intention nor the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing
materially the scale of its operations." Although the company has disposed of its manufacturing fixed
assets during the financial year ending on 31-03-2015, it is still a going concern in the form of a
trading company. We also report that on physical verification of other fixed assets, a material
discrepancy to the tune of 1 Lac was noticed and that the same has been properly dealt with in the
books of account.
Answer No 14
a. The auditor shall obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding compliance with the
provisions of those laws and regulations generally recognized to have a direct effect on the
determination of material amounts and disclosures in the financial statements including fax and
labor laws.
During the audit, the auditor shall remain alert to the possibility that other audit procedures
applied may bring instances of non-compliance or suspected non-compliance with laws and
regulations to the auditor's attention. Then the auditor shall discuss the matter with management
and, where appropriate, those charged with governance. 1f management or, as appropriate, those
charged with governance do not provide sufficient information that supports that the entity is in
compliance with laws and regulations and, in the auditor's judgment, the effect of the suspected
non-compliance may be material to the financial statements, the auditor shall consider the need to
obtain legal advice. In case, if the auditor concludes that the non-compliance has a material effect
on the financial statements, and has not been adequately reflected in the financial statements, the
auditor shall express a qualified or adverse opinion on the financial statements.
The director concerned should provide proof of expenditure. Since the director has given only a
declaration, the auditor should ascertain other relevant facts as to whether the advance paid is
pursuant to the policy of the company which is based on approximate estimation of the
expenditure normally incurred by a person of the status of a director and the same is applicable to
persons of a similar status within the company. If the auditor considers the advance taken is
reasonable then the declaration can be considered adequate, otherwise he may have to call for
additional documentary evidences.
Answer No 15
g. Emphasis of matter paragraph in Audit Reports.
An auditor's report can be modified for matters that do not affect the auditor's opinion. In certain
circumstances, such a paragraph is added to highlight a matter affecting the financial statements
which is included in a note to the financial statements that more extensively discusses the matte r. The
addition of such a paragraph does not affect the auditor's opinion.
NSA 706 "Emphasis of Matter Paragraphs and Other Matter Paragraphs in the Independent Auditor's
Report", deals with additional communication in the auditor's report when the auditor considers it
necessary to draw users' attention to a matter presented or disclosed in the financial statements that,
in the auditor's judgment, is of such importance that it is fundamental to users' understandin g of the
financial statements. The auditor shall include an Emphasis of Matter paragraph in the auditor's
report provided the auditor has obtained sufficient appropriate audit evidence that the matter is not
materially misstated in the financial statements. Such a paragraph shall refer only to infor mation
presented or disclosed in the financial statements.
Examples of circumstances where the auditor may consider it necessary to include an Emphasis of
Matter paragraph are:
i. An uncertainty relating to the future outcome of an exceptional litigation or regulatory action.
ii. Early application (where permitted) of a new accounting standard that has a pervasive effect
on the financial statements in advance of its effective date.
A report, on the other hand, is a formal statement usually made after an enquiry, examination or
reviews of specified matters under report and includes the reporting auditors opinion thereon. Thus,
when a reporting auditor issues a certificate, he is responsible for the factual accuracy of what is
stated therein. On the other hand, when a reporting auditor gives a report, he is responsible for
ensuring that the report is based on factual data, that his opinion is in due accordance with facts, and
that it is arrived at by the application of due care and skill. The `report' involves expression of
opinion which may differ from one professional to another. There is no question of exactitude in case
of a report since the information contained therein is based on estimates and involves judgement
element.
i. Haphazard Sampling
In haphazard selection, the auditor selects the sample without following a structured technique.
Although no structured technique is used, the auditor would nonetheless avoid any consci ous bias or
predictability for example, avoiding difficult to locate items, or always choosing or avoiding the first
or last entries on a page and thus attempt to ensure that all items in the population have a chance of
selection. Haphazard selection is not appropriate when using statistical sampling.
j. Audit Risk.
Audit risk is a function of the risks of material misstatement and detection risk. The assessment of risks
is based on audit procedures to obtain information necessary for that purpose and evidence obtained
throughout the audit. The assessment of risks is a matter of professional judgment, rather than a matter
capable of precise measurement.
Audit risk does not include the risk that the auditor might express an opinion that the financial
statements are materially misstated when they are not. This risk is ordinarily insignificant. Further,
audit risk is a technical term related to the process of auditing; it does not refer to the auditor's business
risks such as loss from litigation, adverse publicity, or other events arising in connection with the audit
of financial statements.
Three components of audit risk are:
a. Inherent risk (risk that material errors will occur);
b. Control risk (risk that the client's system of internal control will not prevent or correct such errors);
and
c. detection risk (risk that any remaining material errors will not be detected by the auditor). The
Detection risk - For a given level of audit risk, the acceptable level of detection risk bears an inverse
relationship to the assessed risks of material misstatement at the assertion level. For example, the
greater the risks of material misstatement the auditor believes exists, the less the detection risk that can
be accepted and, accordingly, the more persuasive the audit evidence required by the auditor.
Detection risk relates to the nature, timing, and extent of the auditor's procedures that are determined by
the auditor to reduce audit risk to an acceptably low level. It is therefore a function of the effectiveness
of an audit procedure and of its application by the auditor. Matters such as:
adequate planning;
proper assignment of personnel to the engagement team;
the application of professional skepticism; and
supervision and review of the audit work performed,
assist to enhance the effectiveness of an audit procedure and of its application and reduce the
possibility that an auditor might select an inappropriate audit procedure, misapply an appropriate audit
procedure, or misinterpret the audit results.
The auditor should select sample items in such a way that the sample can be expected to be
representative of the population. This requires that all items in the population have an opportunity of
being selected.
There are two major methods in which the size of the sample and the selection of individual items of the
sample are determined. These methods are statistical and non-statistical sampling.
(i) Statistical sampling: This is a method of audit testing which is more scientific than testing based
entirely on the auditor's own judgment because it involves use of mathematical laws of probability in
determining the appropriate sample size in varying circumstances. Statistical sampling has reasonably
wide application where a population to be tested consists of a large number of similar items and more in
the case of transactions involving compliance testing, trade receivables' confirmation, payroll checking,
vouching of invoices and petty cash vouchers.
(ii) Non-statistical sampling: Under this method, the sample size and its composition are determined on
the basis of the personal experience and knowledge of the auditor. This method has been in common
application for many years because of its simplicity in operation. Traditionally, the auditor on the basis of
his personal experience will determine the size of the sample and express it in terms that number of pages
or personal accounts in the purchases or sales ledger to be checked. For example, March, June &
September may be selected in year one and different months would be selected in the next year. An
attempt would be made to avoid establishing a pattern of selection year after year to maintain an element
of surprise as to what the auditor is going to check. It is a common practice to check large number of
items towards the close of the year so that the adequacy of cut-off procedures can also be determined.
Answer No 16
The Features of a Qualified Audit Report are-
(i) Clarity: The Auditor must express the nature of qualification, in a clear and unambiguous
manner.
(ii) Explanation: Where the Auditor answers any of the statutory affirmations in the negative or
with a qualification, his report shall state the reasons for such answer.
(iii) Placement: All qualifications should be contained in the Auditor's Report. When there are
notes which are subject matter of a qualification, the same should preferably be annexed to the
Auditors' Report. However a reference to the notes to Accounts in the Auditors' Report does
not automatically become a qualification.
(iv) Except for: A quantified opinion should be expressed as "except for" for the effects of the
matter to which qualification related. It would not be appropriate to use phrases such as "with
the foregoing explanation" or "subject to" in the opinion paragraph as these are not sufficiently
clear or forceful.
(v) Quantification: It is also necessary that the auditor should quantify, wherever possible, the
effect of individual as well as the total effect of all qualifications on statement of profit and loss
and/or state of affairs these qualifications on the financial statements in a clear and
unambiguous manner. In circumstances where it is not possible to quantify the effect of the
Answer No 17
The auditor's report may need modification on account of certain matters which may or may not
affect the auditor's opinion. There may be certain circumstances when an auditor may not be able to
express an unqualified opinion because the effort of such circumstances in the auditor's judgment is,
or may be material to the financial statements, for example, there is a limitation on the scope of the
auditors work or there is a disagreement with management regarding the acceptability of the
accounting policies selected, the method of their application or the adequacy of financial statement
disclosures.
The auditor shall express a qualified opinion when-
(i) The auditor, having obtained sufficient appropriate audit evidence, concludes that misstatements,
individually or in the aggregate, are material, but not pervasive, to the financial statements; or
(ii) The auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence on which to base the
opinion, but the auditor concludes that the possible effects on the financial stat ements of
undetected misstatements, if any, could be material but not pervasive.
Further, while qualifying a report, it is important to appreciate as to which of the various items of
statement of fact or statement of opinion require a qualification in respect of audit The auditor may
also see whether the matters constituting the qualification involve a material contravention of any
requirements of the Companies Act which have a bearing on the accounts.
Finally, whenever the auditor expresses an opinion that is other than unqualified, a clear description
of all the substantive reasons should be included in the report and, unless impracticable, a
quantification of the possible effects), individually and in aggregate, on the financial statements
should be mentioned in the auditor's report. A quantified opinion should be expressed as "except for'
for the effects of the matter to which qualification related.
Answer No 18
There may be circumstances when it is not practicable to quantify the effect of modifications made in
the audit report accurately. In such cases, the auditor may do so on the basis of estimates made by the
management after carrying out such audit tests as are possible and clearly indicate the fact that the
Answer No 19
In forming his opinion on the financial information, the auditor should consider all material aspects,
either individual or in aggregate which are relatively important for true and fair view of financial
statements. In this context, the auditor should consider whether the effect of aggregate uncorrected
misstatements on the financial information is material. Qualitative considerations also influence an
auditor in reaching a conclusion as to whether the misstatements are material.
In performing compliance and substantive procedures, the auditor may obtain audit evidence by
following methods:
i. Inspection: Inspection involves examining records or documents, whether internal or external, in
paper form, electronic form, or other media, or a physical examination of an asset. Inspection of
records and documents provides audit evidence of varying degrees of reliability, depending on
their nature and source and, in the case of internal records and documents, on the effectiveness of
the controls over their production. An example of inspection used as a test of controls is
inspection of records for evidence of authorization. Some documents represent direct audit
evidence of the existence of an asset, for example, a document constituting a financial instrument
such as a stock or bond. Inspection of such documents may not necessarily provide audit
evidence about ownership or value. In addition, inspecting an executed contract may provide
audit evidence relevant to the entity's application of accounting policies, such as revenue
recognition. Inspection of tangible assets may provide reliable audit evidence with respect to
their existence, but not necessarily about the entity's rights and obligations or the valuation of the
assets. Inspection of individual inventory items may accompany the observation of inventory
counting.
ii. Observation: Observation consists of looking at a process or procedure being performed by the
others. For example, the auditor's observation of inventory counting by the entity's personnel, or
of the performance of control activities. Observation provides audit evidenc e about the
performance of a process or procedure, but is limited to the point in time at which the observation
takes place, and by the fact that the act of being observed may affect how the process or
procedure is performed.
iii. External Confirmation: An external confirmation represents audit evidence obtained by the
auditor as a direct written response to the auditor from a third party (the confirming party), in
paper form, or by electronic or other medium. External confirmation procedures frequently are
relevant when addressing assertions associated with certain account balances and their elements.
However, external confirmations need not be restricted to account balances only. For example,
the auditor may request confirmation of the terms of agreements or transactions an entity has
with third parties; the confirmation request may be designed to ask if any modifications have
been made to the agreement and, if so, what the relevant details are. External confirmation
procedures also are used to obtain audit evidence about the absence of certain conditions, for
example, the absence of a "side agreement" that may influence revenue recognition.
iv. Recalculation: Recalculation consists of checking the arithmetical accuracy of documents or
records. Recalculation may be performed manually or electronically.
v. Re-performance: It involves the auditor's independent execution of procedures or controls that
were originally performed as part of the entity's internal control.
vi. Analytical Procedure: Analytical procedures consist of evaluations of financial information
made by a study of plausible relationships among both financial and non-financial data.
Analytical procedures also encompass the investigation of identified fluctuations and
relationships that are inconsistent with other relevant information or deviate significantly from
predicted amounts.
vii. Inquiry: Inquiry consists of seeking information of knowledgeable persons, both financial and
non- financial, within the entity or outside the entity. Inquiry is used extensively throug hout the
audit in addition to other audit procedures. Inquiries may range from formal written inquiries to
informal oral inquiries. Evaluating responses to inquiries is an integral part of the inquiry
process.
Block selection: This method involves selection of a block(s) of contiguous items from within the
population. Block selection cannot ordinarily be used in audit sampling because most populations are
structured such that items in a sequence can be expected to have similar characteristics to each other,
but different characteristics from items elsewhere in the population. Although in some circumstances
it may be an appropriate audit procedure to examine a block of items, it would rarely be an
appropriate sample selection technique when the auditor intends to draw valid inferences about the
entire population based on the sample.
Question No 2:
Hari Krishna, a shareholder of a private company wants to sell and transfer all his shares to Buddhi
Prasad, another shareholder of the company. He has no knowledge regarding the transfer of the share of a
private company and wants your advise on the followings:
a. If Hari Krishna is entitled to sell and transfer all his shares to Buddhi Prasad?
b. Are there any restrictions imposed by law in the sell and transfer of shares?
Question No 3:
Mr. Adhikari is one of the shareholders in a company. He borrowed certain sum of loan from a bank
against the pledge or security of the shares held by him. He failed to repay the loan and the bank instituted
legal action against him. It is claimed that since he is defaulter in repaying the loan he must be prevented
from exercising voting right in respect of shares in the annual general meeting for a period until he repays
the loan. What is your opinion?
Question No 4:
ABC Associates has been appointed auditor of ABC Bank Ltd. for the FY 2072/73 in the month of Poush
2072. In the month of Shrawan 2073 he has come to know that his brother in law, living separately and
independently, has been holding 1.5 percent shares of Dena Bank Ltd. State the relevant provisions of the
Companies Act, 2063 attracted by the development and the responsibility of auditors regarding
information and disqualification?
Question No 5
Pathibhara Insurance Ltd. is registered at the Office of Company Registrar (OCR). It has also applied with
the Insurance Board for the license to operate a non-life insurance business. Pending the issuance of the
license from the Board, it held its first annual general meeting which is objected by some of the
shareholders on the ground that a public company having special objective cannot start its business
activities unless license/permission is received from the concerned authority and a certificate of
commencement of business is issued by OCR. Give your opinion on the issue.
Question No 6:
Ganesh Hotels Ltd. is a public company listed at Nepal Stock Exchange Ltd. It couldn‗t appoint its
auditor in the Annual General Meeting (AGM). However, the Annual General Meeting delegated the
power to appoint auditor to the Board of Directors (BoD) based on which the BoD appointed the auditor.
Is this appointment valid?
Question No 7
Nepal Transport Co. Ltd passed a special resolution to amend name and objective clause in its
memorandum of association and articles of association and also informed the same to the Office.
However, one of the shareholders has objected over the change in objective of the company and has filed
Question No 9:
List out the objectives of the ICAN and state the formation of council including the election of
president and vice-president pursuant to the Nepal Chartered Accountants Act, 2053.
Question No 10:
Mr. Johnson, a Sri Lankan citizen passed CAP III level examinations from the Institute of Chartered
Accountants of Nepal in the year 2018. He wants to practice accountancy profession in Nepal. He seeks
your opinion. Advise him in this regard as per Nepal Chartered Accountants Act and Rules.
Question No 12:
Explain how the meeting of board of directors of a bank and financial institution is conducted, decisions
are made and minutes are prepared?
Question No 13:
Define Capital Fund. What matters are included in Core capital and supplementary Capital.
Question No 14
List out the matters you have to collect from her for the disclosure to be made by the director as per the
Banks and Financial Institutions Act, (BAFIA), 2073.
Question No 16:
How does Nepal Rastra Bank mobilize Foreign Exchange Reserve? Explain it in the light of Nepal Rastra
Bank Act, 2058.
Question No 17:
What are the functions not to be carried out by the Nepal Rastra Bank?
Question No 19
Enumerate the objective of Industrial Enterprises Act, 2073.
Question No 20:
Explain the functions, duties and power of Industry and Investment Promotion Board under Industrial
Enterprises Act, 2073.
Question No 21:
Mention classifications of Industry. Mention types of Industries as per Nature as defined by Industrial
Enterprises Act, 2073?
Question No 22:
Define Sick Industry and its types.
Question No 24
What are the matters to be specified while giving application for license to carry securities dealing?
Question No 25
Securities Act, 2063 provides for establishment of a compensation fund to protect interest of the investors
from a possible loss or damage. Mention about such fund and its operation.
Question No 26
State the circumstances on which the chairperson of Securities Board of Nepal may be removed from
office by the Government of Nepal pursuant to the Securities Act, 2063.
Question No 28:
What are the deductions allowed from the remuneration to be obtained by the worker or employees as per
Labour Act, 2074?
Question No 29
Mention the types of leaves as per Labour Act, 2074.
Question No 35:
State the grounds under which the Insurance Board may cancel the registration of an insurance company
(insurer) under the Insurance Act, 2049.
Question No 36
Explain the Liability of an insurer
Question No 38
Question No 40:
What do you mean by "Not Negotiable Crossing"? Mr. A gives a cheque to Mr. B with not negotiable
crossing. Mr. C Steals the cheque from Mr. B and delivers it to Mr. D with consideration. D takes the
cheque without knowledge that cheque has been stolen cheque. Suggest Mr. D referring Negotiable
Instruments Act, 2034
Question No 41:
Who are the parties of the Negotiable Instrument? What liability is given to such party as mentioned in
the Negotiable Instrument Act, 2034?
WTO
Question No 42:
Point out the basic opportunities of Nepal from the membership of WTO.
In the given case, Mr. Mohan Das has already paid 50% of the share amount. As mentioned above, the
Companies Act 2063, does not allow Petrochemicals Ltd. to forfeit all her shares, but only the half of
shares issued and allotted to him. The company should retain 12,500 number of shares fully paid and the
remaining shares may be forfeited. His claim is legally tenable that all his shares should not be forfeited,
but only the shares for which he failed to pay.
Answers No 2:
a. Shares of a member in a company is considered as moveable property capable of being transferred or
can transfer in the manner provided by the articles of association of the company. In pursuance to
section 42(1) of Companies Act, 2063 and the Memorandum and Articles of Association, the shares
of company may be sold, mortgaged, or pledged as security like moveable property. So Hari Krishna,
a shareholder of the company is entitled to sell and transfer all his shares to Buddhi Prasad, another
shareholder of the company, if Buddhi Prasad is interested to have all the shares of Hari Krishna. Hari
Krishna also has to fulfill the process of the transfer of shares i.e. the approval of the Board of the
company in this respect.
b. Although share is considered as moveable property of a person and is also entitle to dispose it, this
right is not absolute especially in case of private company. The memorandum and article of
association of private companies as against public company contain more rigorous restriction on the
right of its members to transfer shares. The regulation of the company may impose fetters upon the
right of transfer. If the consensus agreement made between the shareholders of the private company
strictly restricts on the transfer of shares, it may not allowed to transfer without complying the
agreement. Accordingly, Section 42(2) of the Companies Act, 2063 imposes certain conditional
restrictions in the sale and transfer of shares, such as, a promoter other than a private company which
has not borrowed loan from any other company may not sell and transfer the shares taken up by him
until the first general meeting of the company is held and all calls of the shares issued in his name are
fully paid-up.
Section 10(c) of the Companies Act, 2063 requires a private company not to sell its shares in public;
it also means that a shareholder of a private company cannot sell its shares in public.
Answer No 3:
Section 71 of the Companies Act, 2063 prescribes the provision regarding right to vote in general
meeting. According to it, the person whose name is registered as shareholder in the shareholder register
book will be entitle to attend the general meeting and cast the vote in the general meeting. Unless the
Answer No 4:
Section 112 of the Companies Act, 2063 prescribes disqualifications of auditor. According to Section
112(1) following persons shall not be qualified for appointment as auditor and will not continue to hold
office, despite appointment as auditor,
a. A director, advisor appointed with entitlement to regular remuneration or cash benefit, a person or
employee or worker involved in the management of the company or close relative of a director or
and employee of such relative.
b. A debtor who has borrowed moneys from the company in any manner or a person who has failed
to pay any dues payable to the company within the time limit or close relative of such person.
c. A person who has been sentenced to punishment for an offense pertaining to audit and a period of
three years has not elapsed thereafter.
d. A person who has been declared insolvent.
e. A substantial shareholder of the company or a shareholder holding one percent or more of the
paid up capital of the company or his close relative;
f. A person who has been sentenced to punishment for an offense of corruption, fraud or a criminal
offense involving moral turpitude and a period of five years has not elapsed thereafter.
g. An auditor, who has been appointed as an auditor for more than three consecutive terms to
perform the audit of a public company.
h. A company or corporate body with limited liability.
i. A person having interest in any transaction with the company.
According to Section 112(2) the auditor, prior to his appointment, should give information in writing to
the company that he is not disqualified pursuant to sub-section (1). Similarly under Section 112(3) if any
auditor becomes disqualified to audit the accounts of a company or there arises a situation where he
becomes disqualified for appointment or cannot longer continue to act as an auditor of the company, he
should immediately stop performing audit which is required to be performed or is being performed by
him and give information thereof to the company in writing. Under Section 112(4) the audit performed by
an auditor who has been appointed in contravention of this Section will be invalid.
Considering the provisions of Section 112(1)(e) read with Section 2(z9) the appointment of the auditor is
invalid and has to be given up immediately notifying the company.
Answer No 5:
In the given case, it is clear that Pathibhara Insurance Ltd. has not obtained an approval from the Office of
Company Registrar to commence the business. Further, it is also evident that no license has been issued
for the insurance business by the Insurance Board. Provision of Sub-Section (6) puts a condition that in
case of a company having a business that requires approval from the regulating authority, the business
may be commenced only after such approval has been issued. Pathibhara Insurance Ltd. being an
insurance company having license yet to be issued and the approval for commencement of business yet to
be issued, cannot hold the annual general meeting.
Under Section 63(1) of the Companies Act, 2063, no public company should commence its business
without obtaining an approval from the Office of Company Registrar to carry on its business. Section 63
(4) states that without obtaining the approval to commence business no public company should carry out
any act of creating liability or publishing the prospectus. It allows the company to hold extraordinary
general meeting and meeting of the board of directors and operate the management of the company. The
Companies Act does not categorically denies the convening of an annual general meeting. However, the
exceptions to the activities are listed down such as extra ordinary general meeting, board meeting and
management of the company. Annual general meeting has not been put as a exception.
Answer No 6
According to Section 111(1) of the Companies Act, 2063, appointment of an auditor for a public limited
company is the power and obligation of a general meeting of shareholders. There is no authority of the
general meeting that it could delegate its power to the board of directors. Ganesh Hotels Ltd. is a public
limited company. The general meeting of a private limited company can delegate its power to the board of
director to appoint the auditor if the memorandum of association, articles of association or a consensus
agreement had allowed it to do so.
Section 113 gives a solution to a case where the auditor could not be appointed in the general meeting. It
states that in case an auditor could not be appointed in an annual general meeting for any reason or an
annual general meeting could not take place or an auditor appointed in accordance with the provision of
the Companies Act, 2063 could not continue for any reason, the Office of Company Registrar may
appoint the auditor on request from the board of directors.
In the given case, the board of directors could request the Office of Company Registrar for appointment
of auditor but in no case is allowed to appoint by itself regardless of the delegation of power. The
appointment of auditor by the board of directors is not valid.
Answer No 7
Section 21 of the Companies Act 2063 prescribes the provision regarding the amendment of
memorandum of association and articles of association as follows:
1. The general meeting of a company may, amend the memorandum of association or articles of
association, by adopting a special resolution to that effect.
Answer No 8:
In the given question, Mr. Sharma FCA has entered in to an agreement with M/S Fabrics Pvt. Ltd.
representing him in tax settlement commission with charging fee on the basis of expected relief to the
client as a result of the settlement commission. Section 34 of the Chartered Accountant Act, 2053 has
prescribed the provision regarding conduct to be observed by the member. Member having obtained
professional certificate shall fully observe this Act or the Rules framed under this Act. As per subsection
10 of Section 34 of the Nepal Chartered Accountant Act, 2053 no member having obtained the
Answer No 9
Objectives of ICAN:
ICAN has an important role to make accounting profession as reliable, authentic and standard for its
accuracy and enhance economic and social responsibility as a cause for economic development of the
nation. As per Section 5 of the Nepal Chartered Accountants Act, 2053, the objectives of the Institute
shall be as follows: -
a To play the role of a regulatory body to encourage the members to carry on accounting
profession being within the extent of the code of conduct in order to consolidate and develop
accounting profession as a cause for economic development of the nation.
b To enhance social recognition and faith in accounting profession by raising awareness of the
general public towards the importance of accounting profession and the economic and social
responsibility of professional accountants.
c To develop, protect and promote the accounting profession by enabling professional accountants
understand their responsibility towards the importance of accounting profession and accountancy.
d To develop mechanism of registration, evaluation and examination of accounting professionals in
consonance with international norms and practices so as to make the accounting profession
respectable and reliable.
Formation of the Council:
Pursuant to Section 7 (3), the Council shall consist of the following Council members:-
• Ten persons elected by and amongst Chartered Accountant members- Member
• Four persons elected by and amongst Registered Auditors Member
• Three persons nominated by Government of Nepal, upon the recommendation of the Auditor
General, from amongst the persons well experienced in the field of accounting profession.
Member
Answer No 10
Nepal Chartered Accountant Rules, provides opportunities to foreign nationals qualified from ICAN to
practice the accountancy profession as follows:
Rule 56: Person other than Nepali citizen can practice accountancy profession:
(1) Notwithstanding anything contained anywhere in this Nepal Chartered Accountants Rules, 2061, any
foreign citizen eligible according to these rules can perform accountancy profession in Nepal only after
registering a firm in partnership with a citizen of Nepal.
(2) Nature, scope and limitations of the firm in partnership according to sub-rule (1) shall be as decided
by the council.
(3) Notwithstanding anything contained anywhere in this Nepal Chartered Accountants Rules, 2061 a
foreign citizen performing accountancy profession acquiring membership from the ICAN shall have to
Answer No 11:
As per Section 38 of Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 2073 any licensed institution of a lower class
which meets the following conditions may, with the approval of the Rastra Bank, be converted into a
licensed institution of one level higher class: Provided that the D class institution shall not be converted
into higher class institution.
(a) If it has the capital prescribed by the Rastra Bank for a licensed institution of such higher class,
(b) If it has been able to earn profits, maintained capital fund as prescribed by NRB and its total non-
performing loan is within the limit prescribed by NRB since five consecutive years,
(c) If it has written off preliminary expenses,
(d) If the shares required to be issued for general public are issued and allotted,
(e) If the general meeting has passed special resolution for conversion of license institution of higher
class,
(f) If it has met all conditions as prescribed by Nepal Rastra Bank.
If on receipt of the approval referred to above, Nepal Rastra Bank shall cause the concerned licensed
institution to amend its memorandum of association and articles of association in accordance with the
laws in force and grant license of higher class institution. In this case Excel Development Bank Limited is
operating in profit continuously since last 6 years. If it satisfies all other conditions as mentioned above it
may be upgraded into 'A‗class Bank with the approval of Nepal Rastra Bank.
Answer No 12
Section 21 of the Banks and Financial Institution Act, 2073 has explained the meeting of board of
directors as follows:
1. Meeting of Board of directors should be held for a minimum twelve times in a year; provided interval
between two meetings should not be more than two months.
2. Meeting should be called by chairman if one third of board of directors request for it in writing.
3. The chairman will preside over the meeting of the board of directors. In the absence of chairman one
person nominated by the majority of the board of directors shall preside over the meeting.
4. No meeting of the board of directors will be held unless minimum 51 percent of the number of
members of the board of directors entitled to vote there are present.
5. The decision of a majority will be accepted in the meeting of the board of directors will be binding
and in the event of tie votes or votes are equal, the decisive (casting) vote can be given by the
chairman.
6. Director cannot participate in the meeting where proposal involving his personal interest is to be
discussed.
7. Minutes of the meeting to record the names of the directors present, the matters discussed and the
decisions made at the meeting shall be kept in a separate register and the same shall be signed by all
the directors present at the meeting. However if any directors is supposed to the decision made in the
meeting or has different views on the matter, the same can be record in the minutes book.
Answer No 13:
Answer No 14:
According to Section 24 of the BAFIA, 2073 has provided the matters to be disclosed after assuming the
office by every director. As per the Section, every director shall disclose in writing to the bank or
financial institution the following matters:
1. Full name, address, academic qualification and experience of director.
Answer No 15
Section 32 of Nepal Rastra Bank Act, 2058 has laid down the provisions of prohibition on vested
personal interests. The Act states:
(1) After appointment to the office of Governor, Deputy Governor or Director shall, in each six months,
should disclose, as prescribed to the Board about any direct or indirect commercial interest of
himself/himself or of his/her family members.
(2) Where any resolution involving personal interest of the Governor, Deputy Governor or Director, shall
disclose to the Board about his personal interest on any matter to be discussed in the meeting of the
Board, prior to the beginning of discussion on such matters. No such Director shall take part in that
meeting.
(3) The Governor and Deputy Governor should make it public the details of property held in his/her
name and in the name of his/her family members within one month from the date of appointment and
retirement.
Answer: No 16:
In pursuance to section 66 of the Nepal Rastra Bank (NRB) Act, 2058, NRB will mobilize Foreign
Exchange Reserve in the following manner:
(1) NRB will mobilize the foreign exchanges reserve. Such reserve will be denominated in the respective
foreign exchange and such reserve will consist of the following assets:-
(a) Gold and other precious metals held by or for the account of NRB;
(b) Foreign currencies held by or for the account of NRB;
(c) Foreign currencies held in the accounts of NRB on the books of a foreign central bank or other foreign
banks;
(d) Special drawing rights (SDR) held by NRB at the International Monetary Fund;
(e) Bill of exchange, promissory note, certificate of deposit, bonds, and other debt instrument payable in
convertible foreign currencies issued by any debtor or liability holder and held by NRB;
(f) Any forward purchase or repurchase agreements of NRB concluded with or guaranteed by foreign
central banks or public international financial institutions, and any futures and option contracts of NRB
providing for payment in freely convertible foreign currency.
(2) While selecting the assets referred to in Sub-section (1), due consideration should be given to NRB's
capital and liquidity to maximize earnings.
Answer No 17:
As per Section 7 of Nepal Rastra Bank Act, 2058, following functions are not to be carried out by Nepal
Rastra Bank:
Providing any loan, accepting any type of deposit or making any type of financial gift;
Purchasing shares of any commercial bank, financial institution, public corporation or a company
or acquiring any type of proprietary right in any financial, commercial, agricultural, industrial or
other institution;
Carrying out any type trade; and
Acquiring right over movable and immovable property by way of purchase, lease or in any
manner whatsoever; provided that the Bank may acquire such property as required for carrying
out its function or for achieving its objectives.
NRB may carry out the following functions: -
(a) To provide loan to and invest in the shares of the institutions which carry out the functions
helpful in carrying out the function of the Bank or in attaining its objectives, not exceeding 10%
of the total capital of such institutions.
(b) To provide loan to its own employees.
Answer No 18
Section 25 of the Industrial Enterprises Act, 2073 provides additional facilities and concessions for
women entrepreneurs: The additional facilities and concessions are as follows:
1. Notwithstanding anything contained in the prevailing laws, the concession of 35% shall be provided in
the registration fee prevailing at the time of registration if any industry is registered under the sole
ownership of women entrepreneur.
2. Notwithstanding anything contained in the prevailing laws, the concession of 20% shall be provided in
the registration of industrial assets prevailing at the time of registration of assets to any industry registered
under the sole ownership of women entrepreneur,
3. If women entrepreneur wishes to establish industry in an industrial area, she shall be availed space
inside the industrial area with priority as prescribed.
4. Industry registered with the sole ownership of women entrepreneur may be availed export credit as
prescribed for the purposes of export of its industrial production on the basis of financial position of the
business.
Answer No 19:
As provided in the preamble of the Act, the objective of the Industrial Enterprises Act, 2073 is as
follows:
To create the conducive Industrial Environment of the country, with friendly investment policy,
Answer No 20
As per Section 19 of Industrial Enterprises Act, 2073, in addition to the other function, duties and power
mentioned in this Act, the function, duties and powers of the Industry and Investment Promotion Board
shall be as follows:-
(b) To decide policies related to industrial promotion, investment protection related to enhancement of
industrialization,
(c) To resolve obstacles and confusions in respect of enforcement and implementation of law of
Industry,
(d) To observe and examine regularly country‗s overall industrial policy, legal structure and their system
and to recommend GON for necessary reformation,
(e) To decide policy matters on the basis of existing law regarding foreign investment and technology
transfer,
(f) To cause to follow the ways and means for the prevention of the Environmental pollution,
(g) To recommend GON regarding examination and evaluation of position of industrial development in
the country,
(h) To resolve any difficulties or obstacles regarding the services, facilities by the industries to be
provided to the industries under this Act,
(i) To give direction to the concern authorities resolving problem or cause to resolve by going through
the complaint of the entrepreneurs,
(j) To recommend GON in respect of level, classification and nature of the industries,
(k) To recommend GON relating to the promotion and encouragement of promotion of investment
through research and survey,
(l) To decide policy for ensuring the quality of the goods product,
(m) To advise GON relating to the enforcement of integrated industrial management information,
(n) To do or cause to do for the development of effective competitive and coordinated performance
between the public, private and cooperative sectors,
(o) To do or cause to do act to gain speed of industrialization in the country,
(p) To give directives to the concern authorities to provide facilities and on receipt of the complaint in
this regard,
(q) To perform or cause to perform other acts as prescribed.
Answer No 21
Industry can be classified as follows:
Micro Enterprises
Cottage Industry
Small Scale Industry: Industry having Fixed Capital for up to Rs. 100 million.
Medium Industry
Large Industry
As per Nature of Industry same can be classified as follows:
Answer No 22:
Section 37 of Industrial Enterprises Act, 2073 defines Sick industries as industry which has been in
operation from last five years from the date of commercial production or commencement of transactions
and is in consecutive loss from last three years not due to intention of the management or weak
management of the industry and Production capacity of such industry is 30% or less than 30% of the total
installed capacity. If above circumstances arises Government of Nepal by making necessary bylaws shall
declare such industry as sick industry.
Section 38 of Industrial Enterprises Act, 2073 defines sick industry into three categories namely: Fully
Sick Industry, Sick Industry and Oriented towards Sick industry.
Answer No 23
To regulate and manage the activities of the securities markets and persons involved in the business of
dealing in securities by regulating the issuance, purchase, sale and exchange of securities for the purpose
of protecting the interests of investors in securities, Securities Act, 2063 is enacted. According to the
provision prescribed by the Securities Act, 2063 the body corporate will issue its securities under as
follows:
Under Section 27(1) of the Act, a body corporate will have to register securities to be issued by it with the
Securities Board of Nepal (SEBON) prior to their issuance. For this a body corporate will have to make
an application in the prescribed format, accompanied by its memorandum of association, articles of
association, documents related with such securities, and the prescribed fees, to the SEBON for registering
securities.
Where an application is received the SEBON will make necessary inquiry into the matter and, if it
considers appropriate to register such securities, register such securities in the register as prescribed,
indicating the details of such securities and issue the securities registration certificate in the prescribed
format to the concerned body corporate.
Under Section 28 where a body corporate allots or sells securities after registering such securities, the
body corporate will have to give a notice along with the details of securities so allotted or sold to the
SEBON within seven days.
Upon receipt of a notice as referred as above, where it appears necessary to make the allotment and sale
of such securities fair and informative for the interests of investors and the body corporate, the Board may
give necessary directive to the concerned body corporate. It shall be the duty of the concerned body
corporate to abide by such directive.
Under Section 29 where a body corporate is to sell and distribute securities to more than fifty persons at a
time, it shall make public issue for the sale and distribution of such securities. The period to be open for
making application of the securities to be issued as above shall be as prescribed. The provisions relating
to the value and allotment of securities for which public issue has to be made will be as prescribed.
Where securities for which public issue has been made once could not be sold and have to be re-issued
again within one year, the body corporate which so issues the securities may, with the approval of the
Answer No 24:
An institution which carries securities business is also a body corporate, which is to be registered under
the Companies Act 2063. According to Section 56 of the Securities Act, 2063 it must obtain license from
the Securities Board under the Securities Act, 2063. Any institution desirous of carrying on dealing in
securities has to make an application with the required documents and fees as prescribed.
Section 57 (2) of the securities Act enumerates the matters to be provided at the time of making an
application to the board for carrying securities dealing business, which are as follows:
i. Type of securities business and services to be provided;
ii. If an agent is to be appointed to carry on securities business and if such business is to be carried on in
collaboration with others, matters pertaining thereto;
iii. In the case of those business persons, as prescribed, who are allowed to carry on business only upon
obtaining a membership of a stock exchange, a recommendation letter of the concerned stock exchange;
and
iv. Grounds proving the ability to carry on the proposed securities business and such other information as
may be specified by the board.
Answer No 25
Sections 53, 54 and 55 of the Securities Act, 2063 provide for stock exchange to establish a compensation
fund and operation of such fund. Section 53: provides the following:
(1) Stock exchange shall establish and operate a compensation fund as may be prescribed by the
Board in order to protect investors against possible loss or damage.
(2) The funds deposited to the fund referred to above shall be used to bear compensation as prescribed.
Section 54 provides for the operation of the fund as follows: The following provisions shall be made in
the Rules in relation to the operation of the compensation fund to be established pursuant to Section 53 or
55:
a. Provisions relating to the deposit of money to the fund;
Answer No 26
Section 12 of the Securities Act, 2063 provides the circumstances on which a chairperson of Securities
Board of Nepal may be removed from office. Section 12 (2) states that the Chairperson, as the case may
be, shall be removed from the office in any of the following circumstances:
a. If one is disqualified to be a Chairperson, as the case may be, pursuant to section 11 of this Act,
i. One who is an office bearer of a political party.
ii. A person involved in securities business.
iii. One who is adjudicated as an insolvent.
iv. One who is insane.
v. One who has been convicted by the court of an offence involving moral turpitude.
b. If one commits any act contrary to the interest of investors in securities or any act that may cause loss
or damage to the development of capital markets.
c. If one suffers from lack of competence to implement, or cause to implement, such functions required
to be performed by the Securities Board to attain its objectives pursuant to this Act or the Rules
framed under this Act.
d. If one has been held disqualified to carry any occupation or business by the reason of misconduct and
his or her certificate has been revoked or he or she has thus been restricted to carry on business.
e. If one remains absent from three consecutive meetings of the Board without giving notice to it.
Section 12(1) states that, where there occurs a circumstance for removal of the chairperson of the Board
as above the Government of Nepal shall remove the Chairperson, as the case may be.
Provided that prior to making such removal, the Government of Nepal, shall not deprive the concerned
person of a reasonable opportunity to defend him/herself.
Answer No 27
Section 22 of the Labour Act, 2074 prescribes following provisions for engaging foreign national:
(1) No foreign citizen shall be permitted to be engaged at work by any employer without obtaining wok
permit from the Department.
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in Sub-section (1), if the skilled worker as required by the
employer cannot be availed from Nepalese citizen, the employer may deploy foreign national at work as
provided in this section.
Answer No 28:
As per section 38 of Labor Act, 2074, the remuneration of workers or employees shall not be deducted
expect under the following circumstances:
(a) In case it is required to deduct against absence,
(b) In case it is required to deduct against loss or damage of cash or kind of the Enterprise caused
intentionally or negligently;
(c) In case it is required to deduct in respect of contribution to provident fund or contribution amount in
respect of insurance or such other contribution amount in respect of social security,
(d) In case it is required to deduct any amount as per the order of judicial or quasi-judicial body,
(e) In case it is required deduct in respect of providing prescribed facilities;
(f) In case it is required to deduct in respect of advance or over payment of remuneration;
(g) In case it is required to deduct in respect of income tax or any other tax levied under prevailing laws.
(h) In case it is required to deduct any amount from remuneration as per collective agreement,
(i) In case it is required to deduct trade union membership fee.
The limit of amount to be deducted, the method of deduction, the period of deduction and other
related matters shall be as prescribed.
Answer No 29
Chapter 9 of Labour Act, 2074 states the various provisions regarding leave. Following are the
summary lists of such leaves:
1. Weekly Holiday (Section 40): Once in every week.
2. Public Holiday (Section 41): 13 days including May day in case of male worker and employee and
14 days including women day in case of female worker and employee.
3. Compensatory Leave (Section 42): If has to work continuously based on nature of work without
taking leave on weekly and public holiday. Such leave has to be taken within 21 days from the date of
working on weekly or public holiday.
4. Home Leave (Section 43): Worker and employee shall get home leave with remuneration considering
1 day home leave for 20 working days.
5. Sick Leave (Section 44): Worker and employee shall get 12 days sick leave with remuneration.
6. Maternity Leave (Section 45): Pregnant women shall get Maternity leave with pay of 14 weeks
before or after delivery. Similarly, father shall also get 15 days of leave with pay.
7. Bereavement Leave (Section 48): Any worker or employee shall avail bereavement leave of 13 days
as required by the religion/culture in case he/she has to observe obscurity during the death of his/her
close relative.
Answer No 31
As per section 6 of the Bonus Act, 2030;
(1) An employee who has worked at least half period in a fiscal year, shall be entitled to obtain bonus
under this Act. Provided that, no employee shall be entitled to obtain Bonus who has worked casually or
in a shift basis.
(2) For the purpose of Sub-section (1), the following periods shall also be computed as a period where an
employee has worked.
(a) A period kept on reserve under any contract under Labour Act, 2074.
(b) A period under which an employee is on any leave with salary.
(c) A period of disablement caused by accident arising in course of business of the
enterprise.
In conclusion, bailee is responsible to return the bailed goods as it is and is also liable to make good the
loss, if any, caused to the bailer due to damage on the goods unless it was caused by natural calamity and
he exercised due and proper care irrespective whether it was a gratuitous or non gratuitous bailment.
Answer No 33:
Indeed, a contract is an agreement with a meeting of mind of the parties concerned. So, there should be a
meeting of mind in the performance also. Accordingly, the Contract Act, 2056 vide Section 75 provides
for the reciprocal performance of the parties and consequences for any failure, as follows:
(1) In case a contract has been concluded with a provision requiring both parties to simultaneously fulfill
their respective obligations, and in case one party fundamentally shows a conduct or intention of not
fulfilling his/her obligation the other party shall not be required to fulfill his/her promise.
(2) In case the order of priority relating to fulfillment of any promise has been specified in the contract
itself, it shall be fulfilled accordingly, and in case no such order of priority has been specified, the party
who is required to do so first according to the nature of the contract shall fulfill it.
Answer No 34:
a. Subrogation and Contribution
Subrogation Contribution
Question of Subrogation does not imply more than Question of contribution comes where there is more than
one insurer. one contract of insurance.
Subrogation is the substitution of one person in place Contribution is the right of the insurers to claim from other
of another person in place of another in relation to the some payment towards the loss and arises only where
claim, its rights, remedies or securities. there is double insurance. It takes place where different
insurers insure the same interest in respect of the same
property and the same perils.
Subrogation does not imply more than one insurance. Contribution implies more than one contract of insurance
each of which undertakes a similar, if not identical,
liability in respect of the same subject matter and the same
interest therein.
The objective is substitution of one person in place of The objective of contribution is to distribute the actual loss
another so that the one who is substituted succeeds to in such a way that each bears his proper share. No one
the rights and remedies of another person. insurer is more liable than any other, no more than the
whole loss can be recovered.
After satisfying the claim, the insurer stands in the In contribution, after making payment to the insured,
place of insured. He may recover from a third party recovers the amount that he has paid in excess of his share
who would have been liable to pay had there been no from other insurers.
insurance.
Answer No 36
Section 17 of the Insurance Act, 2049 prescribes the responsibility of an insurer: According to it the
liability of an insurer will be as follows:
a) The insurer shall pay the compensation in case any actions against the rights and interests of the
Insurance policy holders cause losses by the insurer, employees of the insurer, insurance agents or
surveyors.
b) The insured may submit a complaint to the Board as prescribed , it the liability of compensation for
insurance claim is not assessed within the prescribed period of time or if the liability is assessed to the
disadvantage, or if the insurer does not pay the compensation pursuant to Sub-section (1)
c) The board shall make necessary investigation into the complain submitted pursuant to sub-section (2)
and shall provide a reasonable opportunity to the concerned insurer to submit clarification upon such
complaint.
d) If the clarification submitted by the insurer pursuant to Sub-sec(3) is reasonable , ) the board may
cancel such complaint by mentioning its ground. If the clarification is not reasonable, the board shall
make a decision to pay the reasonable compensation to the complainant.
e) If the board decides to give compensation to the complainant pursuant to sub-sec(4) the insurer shall
pay such amount for the compensation to the concerned insured.
If appeal is made against a decision by the board to pay compensation to the insured shall promptly pay
the compensation plus the interest on the amount of compensation to be set a t the rate as prescribed, for
the date of original decision to the date of final settlement of the case.
Answer No 38:
i. All around development of Nepalese people and Nepalese society,
ii. To relate social welfare activities and various social welfare oriented activities to tie up with
reconstruction activities,
iii. To provide humanistic livelihood to the weak and helpless individual, class and community and make
them enable;
iv. To provide status and respect to the welfare oriented institutions and individuals and
v. To develop a co-ordination between social welfare oriented institutions and organizations.
Answer No 39:
S. N. Bill of Exchange Promissory Note
1 A bill of exchange contains an order to pay. Promissory note contains a promise to pay.
2 The primary liability is that of the drawee after The primary liability is that of the maker who
he has accepted the bill; the drawer ‗s liability is signs the note.
secondary.
3 A bill can be drawn payable to bearer, provided it A promissory note cannot be made payable to
is not payable on demand. bearer.
4 Bills of exchange are sometimes drawn in sets; In the case of promissory note, the necessity for
the position is not the same in the case of acceptance does not arise since the maker of the
promissory note. note is already liable upon it.
5 It cannot be drawn conditionally, but it can be A promissory note can never be conditional.
accepted conditionally with the consent of the
holder.
6 In the case of a bill of exchange, notice of These are unnecessary in respect of a promissory
dishonour, noting and protesting are required to note.
prove dishonor.
Answer No 40:
Answer No 41:
Parties of the Negotiable Instrument are as follows:
i. Agent
ii. Heir
iii. Drawer
iv. Bank
v. Maker of promissory note and Acceptor of bill of exchange
vi. Endorser
vii. Parties to holder in due course
viii. Maker or drawer of Negotiable Instrument
ix. Prior party
x. Surety
Liability of the parties of the Negotiable Instrument as mentioned above is stated as follows:
i. Liability of an Agent: If an agent who signs his/her name to a Negotiable Instrument without
indicating thereon that he/she signs as an agent, or he does not intend thereby to incur personal
responsibility, is liable personally to such Negotiable Instrument.
ii. Liability of an Heir: If a person who signs his/her name to a Negotiable Instrument as an heir of a
deceased person is fully liable personally thereon unless he/she expressly limits his liability to the
extent of the assets received by him as such.
iii. Liability of Drawer: In case the Drawer has been provided due notice of dishonour of the bill of
exchange by the acceptor or Drawee, it shall be the duty of the Drawer to Compensate the Holder.
iv. Liability of the Bank Giving Payment of the Cheque: The Bank having sufficient funds of the Drawer
in the account, properly applicable to the payment of the Cheque must pay the Cheque, and, in default
of such payment must compensate the Drawer or Holder in due Course for any loss or damage caused
by such default pursuant to this Act.
v. Liability of Maker of Promisory Note and Acceptor of bill of exchange: The maker of a Promissory
Note or the acceptor of bill of exchange is bound to pay the amount thereof at Maturity when the
Negotiable Instrument is duly presented for the payment. In default of such payment, the maker of the
Promissory Note or the acceptor of the bill of exchange is bound to compensate any party payable for
any loss or damage sustained by him and caused by such default.
Answer No 42
Followings are the basic opportunities of Nepal from the WTO membership:-
(i) Locking in the Liberalization Process WTO membership would help to lock in the ongoing
liberalization process and increase the credibility of initial reform.
(ii) Market Access: The most visible achievement of the Uruguay Round was the commitment on
market access through reduction in tariffs and elimination of WTO inconsistent non-tariff measures
and their bindings, which Nepal may use.
(iii) (iii)Freedom of Transit: Being a landlocked country, secure transit rights would be a major
achievement for Nepal, particularly she would have the legal right to trans-ship goods through
India, using the convenient port, for entry or exit.
(iv) Access to Dispute Settlement Body WTO ensures a common, stronger, faster, impartial, and a
binding mechanism for dispute settlement through Dispute Settlement Body (DSB). After WTO
membership Nepal has the right to challenge any unilateral measures taken by trading partners,
which are against her economic and trade interest, if they are inconsistent with the WTO provisions.
(v) Avoiding costs of Non-membership: As Nepal's major trading partners are members of WTO, she
could not have afforded to remain outside the system and pursue development policies in isolation.
Moreover, the rights and obligations of the Uruguay Round agreements are applicable only to
member countries.
(vi) Special Measures for Least Developed Countries: The WTO agreement has provided special
protective measures for least developed countries like Nepal, measures of special assistance e.g.
technical assistance in the development and strengthen and diversification of their production and
export bases, enable them to maximize benefit from liberalization process, etc.
(vii) Globalization of Foreign Economy: Free trade or open market policy may open up the country's
market all over the world.
(viii) Expansion of Foreign Investment through system of National Treatment.
(ix) Fair Competition: WTO requires fair competition in the world trade for all member countries which
may benefit Nepal.
Question No 2:
Answer the following questions with justifications:
(i) Discuss why we use cash flows and not accounting profits when evaluating projects.
(ii) Describe how the problem of poor project selection by the internal rate of return (IRR) method in
mutually exclusive projects can be overcome.
It is also gathered that debenture-holders owning 50% of the debentures outstanding as on Ashadh end
2074 exercised the option for conversion into equity shares during the financial year ending on Ashadh
Ratio Analysis
Question No 4
The following are the financial statements of Sunrise Ltd. for 2074/75.
Balance Sheet of Sunrise Ltd. as on Ashadh end 2074/75
Based on the above financial statement and ratios of the company and the industry provided
Above, you are required to:
a) Calculate the same ratios as provided above for 2074/75,
b) Evaluate the company‗s financial position of the company on the basis of these ratios and
Past ratios of the company and the industry,
Bond Valuation
Question No 5
Fun Limited has outstanding a Rs. 1000 face value bond with a 12% coupon rate and 3 years
remaining until final maturity. Interest payments are made semi-annually.
You are required to answer the following questions with appropriate supporting computations:
i) What value should you place on this bond if your nominal annual required rate of return is 10 percent;
and
ii) Assuming a bond similar to the one described above except that is a zero-coupon, pure discount bond,
what value should you place on this bond if your nominal annual required rate of return is 16 per cent.
(Assume a semiannual compounding.)
Equity Valuation
Question No 6
An investor has made investment in the equity share of INOX Private Limited. The Capitalization
rate of the company is 20 per cent and the current dividend is 25 per share.
You are required to calculate the value of the company‗s equity share if the company is slowly
sinking with an annual decline rate of 10% in the dividend.
The company sells its products on gross profit of 25% counting depreciation as part of the cost of
production. It keeps three month stock of raw materials and two months stock of finished goods,
and a cash balance of Rs. 55,000.
Assuming a 10% safety margin, work out the working capital requirements of the company on
cash cost basis. Ignore work – in – process.
Cash Management
Question No 9
Rato Gurans Resort & Training Center Private Limited writes cheques that average Rs 20,000 daily.
These cheques take an average of 6 days to clear. It receives payments that average Rs 22,000 daily. It
takes 3 days before these cheques are available to the firm. Calculate payment float, collection float and
net float.
Calculate Inventory conversion period, receivable conversion period, payable deferral period & cash
conversion cycle?
Question No 12
For each of the companies described below, would you expect it to have a low, medium, or high dividend
payout ratio? Explain why?
Capital Structure
Question No 13
As an investment manager, you are provided with the following information:
Investment in Initial Price Dividend (Rs.) Market Price at the Beta (Risk Factor)
(Rs.) year-end (Rs.)
Equity Share of 250 20 400 0.8
ABC Cement
Ltd.
Equity Share of 350 20 600 0.7
BCD Sugar Ltd.
Equity Share of 450 20 1,050 0.5
DEF Distillery
Ltd.
Government of 1,000 140 1,005 0.99
Nepal Bonds
Question No 14
The capital structure of Kosheli Collection Pvt. Ltd. as at Ashadh End 2075 was as under:
Particulars Rs. (in lakhs)
Equity share capital 80
Reserves 32
8% preference share capital 40
12% debentures 64
Kosheli Collection Pvt. Ltd. earns a profit of Rs. 32 lakhs annually on an average before deduction of
income-tax, which works out to 35% and interest on debentures.
Normal return on equity shares of companies similarly placed is 9.6%
Provided:
a) Profit after tax covers fixed interest and fixed dividends at least 3 Times
b) Capital gearing ratio is 0.75
c) Yield on share is calculated at 50% of profits distributed and at 5% on undistributed Profits.
d) Kosheli Collecion Pvt. Ltd. has been regularly paying equity dividend of 8%.
Leverage
Question No.15
The following details of Sagarmatha Ltd. for the year ended on Ashadh end, 2075 are given below:
Operating leverage : 1.4
Combined leverage : 2.8
Fixed cost (excluding interest) : Rs. 204 thousand
Sales : Rs. 3,000 thousand
12% Debentures of Rs. 100 each : Rs. 2,125 thousand
Equity shares capital of Rs. 100 each : Rs. 1,700 thousand
Income-tax rate : 30 per cent
Required:
Calculate the P/V ratio and Earnings per share (EPS).
Cost of Capital
Question No 16
XYZ Limited has following book value capital structure;
Particulars Amount (in
Lakhs)
Equity Capital (in shares of Rs. 100 each, fully paid - up at par) 1,200
9% Preference Share Capital (in shares of Rs. 100 each, fully paid- up at par 1000
Retained Earnings 600
11% Debenture (of Rs. 100 each) 900
13% Term Loan 360
Preference share, redeemable after 8 years, is currently selling at Rs. 90 per share. Debentures,
redeemable after 3 years, are selling at Rs. 75 per debenture. The next expected dividend per share on
equity shares is Rs. 24 and the dividend per share is expected to grow at the rate of 5%. The market price
per share is Rs. 350. The income tax rate for the company is 40%.
Required:
a) Calculate the weighted average cost of capital using market value proportion and
b) Determine the weighted marginal cost of capital for the company, if it raises Rs 400 lakhs next year,
given the following information:
i) The amount will be raised by equity and debt in equal proportions.
ii) The company expects to retain Rs. 120 lakhs earnings next year.
iii) The additional issue of equity shares will result in the net price per share being fixed at
Rs. 275
Required:
i) The expected return on a portfolio, containing A and B in the proportion of 25% and 55%
respectively.
ii) The standard deviation of return from each of the two stocks.
iii) The covariance of returns from the two stocks.
iv) Correlation coefficient between the returns of the two stocks.
Mutual Fund
Question No 20
The following particulars relates to Reliable Balance Fund – 1 scheme:
S.NO Particulars Amount
1 Investment in Fixed deposit 4,000,000
2 Investment in Shares at cost
Life Insurance Companies 3,500,000
Banking Companies 2,500,000
Hydropower companies 5,500,000
Non – Life Insurance companies 7,500,000
3 Cash and Other Assets in Hand (even throughout the fund period) 1,000,000
4 Expenses payables as on closing date 2,000,000
5 No of units outstanding 1,000,000
Question No 21
Distinguish between:
a) Recourse and Non-recourse Factoring
b) Floatation cost and Transaction Costs
c) Business Risk and Financial Risk
d) Investment bankers Vs. Mortgage bankers
e) Risk aversion Vs. Risk diversification
f) Risk and Uncertainty
g) Financial distress and Insolvency
Question No 22
Write Short Notes on:
a) Leveraged Buyout
b) Debt trap
c) Significance of Debt-equity Ratio as a Measure of Long-term Solvency
d) Tax consideration influencing the dividend policy of the firm
e) Commercial paper
f) Financial distress
g) Line of credit with a bank
Answer No 1:
The project has a negative NPV of Rs. -1,620,611, so it is financially rejected to Dhangadhi Fun City Private Limited.
However, as this is a recently-developed product, it may be appropriate to use a project-specific discount rate that reflects
the risk of the new product launch.
Year 1 2 3 4
Price Inflation 100% 110% 121% 133.1% 146.41%
Selling price (Rs./unit) 50 40 35 30
Inflated selling price (Rs./unit) 55 48.4 46.585 43.923
Sales volume (units/year) 60,000 85,000 75,000 110,000
Sales revenue (Rs./year) 3,300,000 4,114,000 3,493,875 4,831,530
Year 1 2 3 4
Price Inflation 100% 105% 110.25% 115.762% 121.55%
Variable cost (Rs./unit) 15 16 17 18
Inflated variable cost (Rs./unit) 15.75 17.64 19.679 21.879
Sales volume (units/year) 60,000 85,000 75,000 110,000
Variable cost (Rs./year) 945,000 1,499,400 1,475,925 2,406,690
Year 1 2 3 4
Capital Assets (Depreciation 9,000,000 6,750,000 5,062,500 2,996,875*
base) (Rs.)
Depreciation Rate 25% 25% 25%
Depreciation Amount (Rs.) 2,250,000 1,687,500 1,265,625 2,996,875
Tax Rate 25% 25% 25% 25%
Capital allowance tax benefits 562,500 421,875 316,406 749,219
(Can be adjusted in the year of
relevant tax payable)
*Note: Capital base for 4th year = 5,062,500-1,265,625-800,000 = 2,996,875
Answer No 2
i. Cash flows represent something that can actually be used to pay the capital suppliers. Accounting
profits do not equate to cash and so could not be taken to represent sums that could be paid to capital
suppliers. Accounting profits are drawn up on an accrual basis and include non-cash items, such as
depreciation. Accountants will also seek to apportion costs across the company, which may have no
bearing on a project‘s cash flows. A company may be making profits but the cash could be draining
out of the company. This is because the accounts don‘t reflect the cash expenditures on capital, or
movements in net working capital. Therefore, we use cash flows and not accounting profits when
evaluating
Projects.
ii. One of the failings of IRR is that it can give misleading guidance in project selection between
competing mutually exclusive projects. For example, project A may have a higher IRR than project
B, but actually has a lower NPV. Picking project A would not maximize shareholders wealth. To
overcome this problem, we can look at the differential cash flows of the two projects. Take the project
with the larger cash flows (defender), and then subtract from it the cash flows of the other project
(challenger). Calculate the IRR of the differential cash flows. If the IRR is greater than the cost of
capital, keep the defender (project A), and vice versa if the IRR is less than the cost of capital.
Answer No 4
(a) The ratios for 2074/075 for Sunrise Ltd. are computed as follows:
(b) Based on the ratios computed above, evaluation of the company’s position is presented below:
(i) The liquidity position of the firm is falling which is evident from the Ratios 1 to 4 computed above.
(ii) The gross profit margin is constant and matches with the industry average, but the net profit margin
ratio is declining. The two ratios together imply that the company‗s selling and administrative
expenses, depreciation and interest charges are on the rise.
(iii) The decline in the net margin (Ratio 7) is partly due to rapid increase in debt (Ratio 5). The return on
equity (Ratio 8) has been declining while the return on assets is rising (Ratio 9).
(iv) The decline in the net margin and the return on equity can also be attributed to the decline in assets
turnover (Ratio 10).
(v) The impact of the increase in debt and overall decline in profitability are also shown by reduction in
the interest coverage (Ratio 11).
Answer No 6
The value of the company‗s equity share is given by the following formula:
Ve = D1/(k – g), where D1 is the dividend in the year 1, k is the capitalization rate and g is the
growth rate in dividend.
Answer No 7
B) Current Liabilities
Wages Outstanding (200,000/12)X1 16,666.66
Creditors for materials 333,333.33
(1,000,000/12)X4 55,000
Manufacturing Expenses 12,583.33 417,583.32
Administrative Expenses
(151,000/12)X1 925,166.68
92,516.67
Net Working Capital (A- B)
Add Safety Margin 10% 1,017,683.35
Working Note 1
Computation of Annual Cash cost of Production Amount
Material Consumed 1,000,000
Wages 200,000
Manufacturing expenses (Rs. 55,000X12) 660,000
Total Cash cost of Production 1,860,000
Working Note 2
Computation of Annual Cash cost of Sales Amount
Cash cost of production (W. N.1) 1,860,000
Administrative Expenses 151,000
Sales promotion Expenses 450,000
Total Cash cost of sales 2,461,000
Answer No 8
The firm will maximize the shareholders value if it extends its period by additional 30 days (since
expected Return is higher than required return). In fact, it can further relax credit period until its expected
return 20% or net gain becomes zero.
Thus, the total cost for different level of sales (assuming unit price and fixed cost do not change):
Sales (Rs.) Variable Cost (Rs.) Fixed Cost (Rs.) Total Cost (Rs.)
525,000 525,000X1.20/2 =315,000 75,000 390,000
535,000 535,000X1.20/2 =321,000 75,000 396,000
540,000 540,000X1.20/2 =324,000 75,000 399,000
550,000 550,000X1.20/2 =330,000 75,000 405,000
Investment in account receivables will be:
Answer No 9
Answer No 11
Answer No 12
(i) Low payout ratio. Highly taxed owners probably will want to realize their returns through capital
gains.
(ii) Low payout ratio. There will be no or low residual funds.
(iii) Medium or high payout ratio. There are likely to be funds left over after funding capital
expenditures. Moreover, the liquidity and access to borrowing give the company considerable
flexibility.
(iv) Medium or high payout ratio. Unless the company cuts its dividend, which probably is unlikely in
the short run, its payout ratio will rise with the drop in earnings.
(v) Low payout ratio. The company will probably wish to retain earnings to build its financial
strength in order to offset the business risk.
(ii) Expected rate of return of individual portfolio using Capital Asset Pricing Model
(CAPM)
Now, we can calculate the expected rate of return on individual portfolio by applying
CAPM.
Answer No 14
Working Note:
1. Distributed and Undistributed Profit
Profit before Interest and Income Tax: Rs. 3,200,000
Less: Interest on Debenture (64 x 0.12) 768,000
Profit before Income Tax Rs. 2,432,000
Income Tax (2,432,000 x 0.35) 851,200
Profit after tax 1,580,800
Less: Preference Dividend (4,000,000 x 0.08) 320,000
1,260,800
Equity Dividend* (8,000,000 x 0.08) 640,000
Undistributed Profit** 620,800
2. Interest and Fixed Dividend Coverage:
Profit after Tax Rs. 1,580,800
Add: Interest on Debenture 768,000
Rs. 2,348,800
Interest and fixed dividend coverage of Kosheli Collection Pvt. Ltd. is 2.16 times but the industry average
is 3 times.
Risk premium is therefore added to Kosheli Collection Pvt. Ltd. shares @ 1% for every 1 time difference.
Thus, the Risk Premium = 3.00 – 2.16 (1%) = 0.84 (1%) = 0.84%
Capital gearing ratio of Kosheli Collection Pvt. Ltd. is 0.93 but the industry average is 0.75 times.
Therefore, risk premium is added to Kosheli Collection Pvt. Ltd. shares @ 2% for every 1 time
difference.
Risk Premium = (0.75 – 0.93) (2%)= 0.18 (2%) = 0.36%
(%)
Normal return expected 9.60
Answer No 15
Answer No 16
Working Notes:
1. Cost of Equity Capital (Ke) and Cost of Retained Earnings(Kr)
Ke = D1/P0+g = 24/350 + 0.05 = 0.07 + 0.05 = 0.12 or 12%
= 6.6 + 8.333
87.5
= 0.171 or 17.1%
Note: Retained earnings are not considered for calculating WACC since it does not have any
market value separately. The market value of equity shares reflects the value of retained
earnings as well.
b) Calculation of Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) XYZ Limited when it raises Rs
400 lakhs next year:
Answer No 17
Kohalpur Auto
= 40,000+60,000 (PVIF10%, 2)
= 40,000+60,000X0.8264
Dhangadhi Auto
= 100,000 – 5,000
= Rs 95,000
The total cost charged by Kohalpur Auto (Rs 89,584) is less than the total cost charged by
Dhangadhi Auto (Rs 95,000), Therefore Kohalpur Auto is offering the better deal.
Answer No 18
Stock B:
Variance = 0.5 (16-14)2 + 0.5 (12-14)2 = 4%
Standard deviation = 2%
Answer No 19
Answer No 20
NAV per unit = Net Assets Value of the Fund = 34,403,703.68/1,000,000 = Rs 34.40
No of units outstanding
= (2X3) + (34.40-24)X100
24
= 68.33%
Therefore, Return per annum = 68.33%/3 = 22.77%
Answer No 21
a) In a recourse or pure factoring, the factor firm is only involved in the work of collection of the
receivables. It does not bear any risk of default by the debtors. Such a risk will have to be invariably
borne by the selling firm. Thus, in case of default by a customer, the selling firm will have to refund
the amount of advance together with charges as per the agreement which was given by the factor to
the selling firm against the receivables.
In a non-recourse factoring, the factor firm purchases the receivable of the selling firm by paying the
agreed amount (sales value less commission) to the latter. The payment may be made immediately or
after receiving from the customer buying.
The main feature of non-recourse factoring is that the risk of default by the buyer is borne by the
factor firm and the selling firm receives the sales amount. Thus, this type of factoring will result in
the purchase of receivable by the factor firm.
In non-recourse factoring, the factor also undertakes the receivables management including
evaluation of creditworthiness, thereby also assessing the risk of bad debts. In this type of factoring,
the factor firm will normally insist on discounting the seller‟s entire book debts subject to careful
examination of the debtors and their creditworthiness. In such cases, the seller is entitled to sell to
other customers not evaluated as credit-worthy but these sales would obviously be excluded from the
services of the non - recourse factor.
b) Floatation cost refers to the cost involved in raising capital from the market, for instance,
underwriting, commission, brokerage and other expenses. The presence of floatation costs affects the
balancing nature of internal (retained earnings) and external (dividend payments) financing. The
introduction of floatation costs implies that the net proceeds from the sale of new shares would be less
than the face value of the shares, depending upon their size.
Transaction costs refer to costs associated with the sale of securities by the shareholder investors. In
the Modigliani Miller Hypothesis, it is assumed that if dividends are not paid (or earnings are
retained), the investors desirous of current income to meet consumption need can sell a part of their
holdings without incurring any cost, like brokerage and so on. This is obviously an unrealistic
c) Business Risk is defined as the uncertainty inherent in projections of future Return on Assets (ROA),
or of Returns on Equity (ROE) if the firm uses no debt. Business risk is the single most important
determinant of capital structure. Business risk varies from one industry to another and also among
firms in given industry.
Financial risk is the additional risk placed on the common stockholders as a result of using financial
leverage, which results when a firm uses fixed income securities (debt and preferred stock) to raise
capital. Thus, it is the portion of stockholders‟ risk, over and above basic business risk, resulting from
the manner in which the firm is financed.
d) Investment bankers are middlemen who are involved in the sale of stocks and bonds. When a
company decides to raise funds, an investment bank comes up with the proposal to buy the issue at
wholesale and then go to sell the same to investors at retail. Being in the business of matching users
of funds with suppliers, investment bankers can sell issues more efficiently than the issuing company.
For the services provided, they receive fee as the difference between the amounts received from the
sale of securities to the public and the amount paid to the companies.
Mortgage bankers are involved in acquiring and placing mortgages. The mortgages to the mortgage
bankers come through the individuals, businesses and builders and real estate agents. These bankers
do not hold mortgages in their own portfolios for a long time. They usually service these for the
ultimate investors. They receive fees from the ultimate investor for the services provided to them.
e) Risk aversion is the reluctance of a person to accept a bargain with an uncertain payoff rather than
another bargain with more certain, but possibly lower, expected payoff. For example, a risk-averse
investor might choose to put his or her money into a bank account with a low but guaranteed interest
rate, rather than into a stock that may have high returns, but also has a chance of becoming worthless.
An investor is said to be risk averse if he prefers less risk to more risk, all else being equal.
Risk Diversification refers to minimization of risk which an investor may choose by investing in
various types of securities. An investor may not want to concentrate his investment in a single risky
security, as a result of which he may choose to invest in various other securities to minimize his level
of risk and harmonize his returns.
f) In common parlan, the terms „Risk‟ and „Uncertainty‟ have synonymous meaning. However, they
differ from each other.
Risk may be defined as ―the chance of future loss that can be foreseen‖. In other word, in case of risk
an estimate can be made about the degree of happening of the loss. This is usually done by assigning
probabilities to the risk on the basis of past data and the probable trends.
Uncertainty may be defined as‖ the unforeseen chance for future loss or damages.‖ In case of
uncertainty, since the firm cannot anticipate the future loss, and hence it cannot directly deal with it in
its planning process, as is possible in the case of risk. For example, a firm can not foresee the loss
which may be due to destruction of its plant in account of earthquake.
g) Financial distress is a situation where a firm‘s operating cash flows are insufficient to meet its
current obligations (and so the firm must take some kind of corrective action) financial distress may
Insolvency is a term which generally means an inability to repay debts stock-based insolvency occurs
when the value of a firm‘s assets is less than what is owed on its debt flow-based insolvency occurs
when the firm‘s cash flows are insufficient to cover contractually required payments.
Answer No.22
a) Leveraged Buyout – It is an ownership transfer consummated primarily with debt. Sometimes it is
also called as asset- based financing, the debt is secured by the assets of the enterprise involved.
While some leveraged buyouts involve the acquisition of an entire company, many involve the
purchase of a division of a company or some other sub unit. Frequently the sale is to the management
of the division being sold, the company having decided that the division no longer fits its strategic
objectives. Another distinct feature is that leveraged buyouts are cash purchases, as opposed to stock
purchases. Finally the business unit involved invariably becomes a privately held as opposed to a
publicly held company.
b) Debt Trap is a situation where you add on a new debt in order to pay an existing debt. Generally,
when the firm in overleveraged all the credit sources are exhausted, firm arrives at a situation of debt
trap. It is a situation in which an entity borrows money, but does not have enough money to make the
interest payments on the loan, so it takes out another loan--with its own interest payments--to cover
the first loan's payments. They will likely have to borrow again to pay off the second loan, creating a
crippling cycle. It is an incentive structure that lures individuals into accepting long-term debt
obligations under conditions that strongly favor the lender. Victims of debt traps are often prevented
from discharging the debt through techniques such as unusually high or variable interest rates,
changing payment plans, and unreasonably high penalties for late payments.
c) The Debt-equity (D/E) ratio is calculated by comparing the long term debts with the total
shareholders‘ funds. The D/E ratio throws light on the margin of safety available to the debt providers
of the firm. If a firm with a high D/E ratio fails, then a part of the financial loss may have to be borne
by the debt providers. Thus, the greater the D/E ratio, higher would be the risk of the lenders. From
the view point of shareholders, a high D/E ratio implies that the firm is having a high degree of
financial leverage which offers the opportunity and benefit of trading on equity. In such a case, if the
rate of return of the firm is more than the cost of debt, then higher degree of financial leverage means
relatively higher return to the shareholders.
The higher D/E ratio may also have an impact on the ability of a firm to service the debt. In addition
to the payment of principal and interest on debt, such a ratio might have an adverse impact on a
firm‟s ability to pay other fixed and contractual payments in addition to the principal and interest. On
the contrary, a low D/E ratio implies a low risk to the lenders and creditors for the firm but it will not
offer the benefit of trading on equity. Therefore, a proper balance between the proportion of debt and
equity is very much essential in order to take care of the interests of both the lenders and the
shareholders and for the long term sustainability and solvency of the firm.
d) The firm's dividend policy is directed by the provisions of income-tax law. If a firm has a large
number of owners, in high tax bracket, its dividend policy may be to have higher retention. As against
this if the majority of shareholders are in lower tax bracket requiring regular income the firm may
resort to higher dividend payout, because they need current income and the greater certainty
associated with receiving the dividend now, instead of the less certain prospect of capital gains later.
f) Financial distress is a term used to indicate a condition when promises to creditors of a company are
broken or honored with difficulty. Sometimes financial distress can lead to bankruptcy. Financial
distress is usually associated with some costs to the company; these are known as costs of financial
distress. This is a situation where a firm‘s operating cash flows are not sufficient to satisfy current
obligations and the firm is forced to take corrective action. Financial distress may lead a firm to
default on a contract, and it may involve financial restructuring between the firm, its creditors, and its
equity investors.
g) A line of credit with a bank is an informal arrangement between a bank and its customers specifying
the maximum amount of credit which the bank will permit the firm to borrow at any point of time.
Normally, credit lines are established for a one-year period. The line of credit is renewed by the bank
once it receives the latest annual report and reviews the progress of the borrower. The amount of the
line of credit depends on the bank‘s assessment of the creditworthiness and the credit needs of the
borrower.
A line of credit may be adjusted upwards or downwards at the time of renewal based on the changes
in these conditions. The cash budget of a firm is an indicator of the borrower‘s short term credit
needs. The firm usually seeks a line of credit amount slightly in excess of maximum or peak
borrowing needs during the forthcoming year to give a margin of safety. The bank may impose a
‗clean up‘ provision in a line of credit arrangement. Accordingly, the borrower would be required to
clean up the bank debt for a specified period of time during the year. Such a cleanup period is usually
one to two months. It is, however, to be noted that a line of credit does not constitute a legal
commitment on the part of the bank to extend credit. The borrower is informed of the line of credit
through a letter indicating that the bank is willing to extend credit up to a certain amount. If the credit
worthiness of the borrower gets deteriorated during the year, the bank might not want to extend credit
or reduce the amount of credit already intimated.
Material Control
Question No. 2
a) Discuss briefly the considerations governing the fixation of the maximum and
minimum levels of inventory.
b) A Ltd. manufactures pistons used in car engines. As per the study conducted by the
Auto Parts Manufacturers Association, there will be a demand of 80 million pistons in
the coming year. A Ltd. is expected to have a market share of 1.15% of the total
market demand of the pistons in the coming year. It is estimated that it costs Rs.1.50
as inventory holding cost per piston per month and that the set-up cost per run of
piston manufacture is Rs. 3,500.
(i) What would be the optimum run size for piston manufacturing?
(ii) Assuming that the company has a policy of manufacturing 40,000 pistons per
run, how much extra costs the company would be incurring as compared to the
optimum run suggested in (i) above?
Labour Control
Question No. 3
Required:
1) Prepare a Statement showing hours worked, weekly earnings, number of articles
produced and labour cost per article for one operator under the following systems;
a) Existing time-rate
b) Straight piece-work
c) Rowan System
d) Halsey Premium system
Assume that 135 articles are produced in a 40-hour week under straight piece work, Rowan
Premium system, and Halsey premium system above and worker earns half the time saved
under Halsey premium system.
b) In a factory working six days in a week and eight hours each day, a worker is paid at the
rate of Rs. 100 per day basic plus D.A. @ 120% of basic. He is allowed to take 30 minutes
off during his hours shift for meals -break and a 10 minutes recess for rest. During a week,
his card showed that his time was chargeable to:
Job X 15 hrs.
Job Y 12 hrs.
Job Z 13 hrs.
The time not booked was wasted while waiting for a job. In Cost Accounting, how would
you allocate the wages of the workers for the week?
Overhead
Question No. 4
a) A machine shop has 8 identical Drilling machine manned by 6 operators. The machine
cannot be worked without an operator wholly engaged on it. The original cost of all these
machine works out to Rs 8 lakhs. These particulars are furnished for a 6 months period:
Normal available hours per month 208
Absenteeism (without pay) hours 18
Leave (with pay) hours 20
Normal idle time unavoidable-hours 10
Average rate of wages per worker for 8 hours a day Rs. 20
Production bonus estimated 15% on wages
Costs Accounts System, Cost Control (Integrated and Non-integrated Accounting System)
Question No. 5
a) ABC Ltd. has furnished the following information from the financial books for the
year ended 31st Ashadh, 2075:
Profit & Loss Account
(Rs.) (Rs.)
To Opening stock (500 units at 70,000 By Sales (10,250 units) 28,70,000
Rs.140 each)
To Material consumed 10,40,000 By Closing stock
To Wages 6,00,000 (250 units at Rs. 200 each) 50,000
Methods of Costing
Question No. 6
a) The following data are available for a product for the month of July, 2018:
Particular Process-I (Rs) Process-II (Rs)
Opening work -in-progress Nil Nil
Costs incurred during the month;
-Direct materials 6,00,000
-Labour 1,20,000 1,60,000
-Factory overheads 2,40,000 2,00,000
Units of Production:
Received in process 40,000 36,000
Completed and transferred 36,000 32,000
Closing working-in-progress 2,000 ?
Normal loss in process 2,000 1,500
An attendant for each room was provided when the room was occupied and he was paid Rs.500
per day towards wages. Further, depreciation is to be provided on building @5% on Rs 900
lakhs, furniture and fixtures @ 10% on Rs 90 lakhs and air conditioners @10% on Rs 75 lakhs.
Profit to be provided @25% on total taking and assume 360 days in a year.
c) Indian Oil Refinery Ltd. refines crude oil and produces two joint product Gasoline and
HSD in the ratio of 4:6. The refining is done in three processes.
Crude oil is first fed in Process-A, from where the two products Gasoline and HSD are
get separated. After separation from Process-A, Gasoline and HSD are further processed
in Process- B and Process- C respectively. During the month of July, 2016, 4,50,000 Ltr.
of crude oil were processed in Process-A at a total cost of R s . 1,71,99,775.
In Process-B, Gasoline is further processed at a cost of R s . 10,80,000.
In Process- C, HSD is further processed at a cost of R s . 1,35,000.
The Input output ratio for the each process is as follows:
Process- A 1 : 0.80
Process- B 1 : 0.95
Gasoline HSD
Quantity sold (Ltr.) 1,32,000 1,88,000
Sales price per Ltr.( R s . ) 68 46
There were no opening stocks. If these products were sold at split-off point, the selling
price of Gasoline and HSD would be R s . 64 and R s . 41 per Ltr. respectively.
Required:
a. Prepare a statement showing the apportionment of joint cost to Gasoline and HSD in
proportion of sales value at split off point.
b. Prepare a statement showing the cost per Ltr. of each product indicating joint cost,
processing cost and total cost separately.
c. Prepare a statement showing the product wise profit or loss for the month.
d) Dream house (P) Ltd. is engaged in building two residential housing projects in the city.
Particulars related to two housing projects are as below :
A concrete mixture machine was bought on 1st Shrawan 2074 for Rs 8,20,000 and used for 180
days in HP-1 and for 100 days in HP-2 . Depreciation is provided @15% p.a.( this machine can
be used for any other projects )
As per the contract agreement contractee shall retain 20% of work certified as retention money.
Prepare contract account for the two housing projects showing the profit or loss on each project
for the year ended 31st Ashadh, 2075
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of Nepal
e) In order to develop tourism, ABCL airline has been given permit to operate three flights in
a week between X and Y cities (both side). The airline operates a single aircraft of 160 seats
capacity. The normal occupancy is estimated at 60% throughout the year of 52 weeks. The
one-way fare is Rs. 7,200. The cost of operation of flights are:
Question No. 7
a. MNP Ltd sold 2,75,000 units of its product at Rs. 37.50 per unit. Variable costs are
Rs. 17.50 per unit (manufacturing costs of Rs. 14 and selling cost Rs. 3.50 per
unit). Fixed costs are incurred uniformly throughout the year and amount to
Rs. 35,00,000 (including depreciation of Rs.15,00,000). there are no beginning or
ending inventories.
Required:
(i) Estimate breakeven sales level quantity and cash breakeven sales level quantity.
(ii) Estimate the P/V ratio.
(iii) Estimate the number of units that must be sold to earn an income (EBIT) of
Rs. 2, 50,000.
(iv) Estimate the sales level achieve an after-tax income (PAT) of Rs. 2, 50,000.
b) ABC Baggage Ltd. sells different styles of laptop bags with identical purchase costs
and selling prices. The company is trying to find out the profitability of opening
another store which will have the following expenses and revenues:
For the each following independent situation, you are required to:
(i) Calculate the annual break-even point in units and in value. Also determine the
profit or loss if 35,000 units of bags are sold.
(ii) The sales commissions are proposed to be discontinued, but instead a fixed amount of
Rs. 9,00,000 is to be incurred in fixed salaries. A reduction in selling price of 5% is
also proposed. What will be the break-even point in units?
(iii) It is proposed to pay the store manager Rs. 5 per piece as further commission. The
selling price is also proposed to be increased by 5%. What would be the break-even
point in units?
Question No.8
a) TQM Ltd. has furnished the following information for the month ending 30th June 2018:
Master Budget Actual Variance
Units Production and sold 80,000 72,000
Sales (Rs.) 3,20,000 2,80,000 40,000 (A)
Direct material (Rs.) 80,000 73,600 6,400 (F)
Direct wages (Rs.) 1,20,000 1,04,800 15,200 (F)
Variable overheads (Rs.) 40,000 37,600 2,400 (F)
Fixed overhead (Rs.) 40,000 39,200 800 (F)
Total Cost 2,80,000 2,55,200
Actual results for the month showed that 78,400 kg of material were used and 70,400 labour
hours were recorded.
Required:
i. Prepare Flexible budget for the month and compare with actual results.
ii. Calculate Material, Labour, Sales Price, Variable Overhead and Fixed Overhead
Expenditure variances and Sales Volume (Profit) Variance.
b) A single product company estimated its sales for the next year quarter-wise as under :
The opening stock of finished goods is 10,000 units and the company expects to maintain
the closing stock of finished goods at 16,250 units at the end of the year. The production
pattern in each quarter is based on 80% of the sales of the current quarter and 20% of the
sales of the next quarter.
The opening stock of raw materials in the beginning of the year is 10,000 kg. and the closing
stock at the end of the year is required to be maintained at 5,000 kg. Each unit of finished
output requires 2 kg. of raw materials.
The company proposes to purchase the entire annual requirement of raw materials in the first
three quarters in the proportion and at the prices given below:
Quarter Total Purchase of Raw Materials % to Price Per Kg.
I 30% 2
II 50% 3
III 20% 4
The value of the opening stock of raw materials in the beginning of the year is Rs. 20,000. You
are required to present the following for the next year, quarter wise:
(i) Production budget (in units).
(ii) Raw material consumption budget (in quantity).
(iii) Raw material purchase budget (in quantity and value).
Question No. 9
Question No. 10
Question No. 11
Answer No 1 (a)
Operating Costs are the costs incurred by undertakings which do not manufacture any
product but provide a service. Such undertakings for example are — Transport concerns, Gas
agencies; Electricity Undertakings; Hospitals; Theatres etc. Because of the varied nature of
activities carried out by the service undertakings, the cost system used is obviously
different from that followed in manufacturing concerns.
It can be implemented in all firms of transport, airlines, bus -service, etc., and by all firms
of distribution undertakings.
Answer No 1 (b)
Molasses is a by product of sugar and treatment of by-product in cost accounting is as
follows.
When these are of small total value, the amount realized from their sale may be dealt as
follows:
Sales value of the by-product may be credited to Costing Profit and Loss Account and
no credit be given in Cost Accounting. The credit to Costing Profit and Loss Account
is treated here either as a miscellaneous income or as additional sales revenue.
The sale proceeds of the by-product may be treated as deduction from the total costs.
The sales proceeds should be deducted either from production cost or cost of sales.
When they require further processing: In this case, the net realisable value of the by-
product at the split-off point may be arrived at by subtracting the further processing cost
from realisable value of by-product. If the value is small, it may be treated as discussed in (i)
above.
Answer No 1 (c)
Answer No 1 (d)
(i) Explicit Costs - These costs are also known as out of pocket costs and refer to costs
involving immediate payment of cash. Salaries, wages, postage and telegram, printing
and stationery, interest on loan etc. are some examples of explicit costs involving
immediate cash payment.
(ii) Engineered Costs - These are costs that result specifically from a clear cause and effect
relationship between inputs and outputs. The relationship is usually personally
observable. Examples of inputs are direct material costs, direct labour costs etc.
Answer No 1 (e)
Cost Accounting is defined as "the process of accounting for cost which begins with the
recording of income and expenditure or the bases on which they are calculated and ends with
the preparation of periodical statements and reports for ascertaining and controlling costs."
The main objectives of the cost accounting are as follows:
(a) Ascertainment of cost: There are two methods of ascertaining costs, viz., Post Costing
and Continuous Costing. Post Costing means, analysis of actual information as recorded
in financial books. Continuous Costing, aims at collecting information about cost as and
when the activity takes place so that as soon as a job is completed the cost of completion
would be known.
(b) Determination of selling price: Business enterprises run on a profit making basis. It is
thus necessary that the revenue should be greater than the costs incurred. Cost
accounting provides the information regarding the cost to make and sell the product or
services produced.
(c) Cost control and cost reduction: To exercise cost control, the following steps should be
observed:
(i) Determine clearly the objective.
(ii) Measure the actual performance.
(iii) Investigate into the causes of failure to perform according to plan;
(iv) Institute corrective action.
Answer No 2 (a)
The important considerations which should govern the fixation of maximum level for
various inventory items are as follows:
(1) The fixation of maximum level of an inventory item requires information about re-
order level. The re-order level itself depends upon its maximum rate of consumption
and maximum delivery period. It in fact is the product of maximum consumption of
inventory item and its maximum delivery period.
(2) Knowledge about minimum consumption and minimum delivery period for each
inventory item should also be known.
(3) The determination of maximum level also requires the figure of re-order quantity or
economic order quantity. Economic order quantity means the quantity of inventory
to be ordered so that total ordering and storage cost is minimum.
(4) Availability of funds, storage capacity, nature of items and their price also are
important for the fixation of maximum level.
(5) In the case of important materials due to their irregular supply, the maximum level
should be high.
Considerations for the fixation of minimum level of inventory
Minimum level indicates the lowest figures of inventory balance, which must be
maintained in hand at all times, so that there is no stoppage of production due to non-
availability of inventory. The formula used for its calculation is as follows:
Minimum level of inventory = Re-order level – (Average consumption ×
Average delivery time).
Answer No 2 (b)
Answer No 3 (a)
Working Notes;
1 Existing time rate
Weekly wages:
Normal shift (40 hours× Rs. 160) Rs. 6,400
Late shift (9 hours× Rs. 225) Rs. 2,025
Rs. 8,425
2. Piece Rate System
15 articles are produced in 5 hours
Therefore, to produce 135 articles, hours required is 5 hours × 135 articles =45 hours
15 articles
Answer No 3 (b)
Working notes:
(i) Total effective hours in a week :
[(8 hrs. – (30 mts. + 10 mts.)] × 6 days = 44 hours
(ii) Total wages for a week :
(Rs. 100 + 120% of Rs. 100) × 6 days = Rs. 1,320
(iii) Wage rate per hour : = Rs. 30
(iv) Time wasted waiting for
job (Abnormal idle time): = 44 hrs. – (15 hrs. + 12 hrs. + 13 hrs.)
= 4 hrs.
Allocation of wages in Cost Accounting
(Rs.)
Allocated to Job X : 15 hours × Rs. 30 = 450
Allocated to Job Y : 12 hours × Rs. 30 = 360
Allocated to Job Z : 13 hours × Rs. 30 = 390
Charged to Costing Profit & Loss
A/c : 4 hours × Rs. 30 = 120
Total 1,320
Answer No 4 (a)
Working notes.
Total utilizable hours for 6 operators and for 6 months are = 160×6×6 = 5,760 hours
As machine cannot be worked without an operator wholly engaged on them therefore, hours for
which 6 operators are available for 6 months are the hours for which machines can be used.
Hence 5,760 hours represent total machine hours.
Hours per month for which wages are paid to a worker ( 208 hours- 18 hours)
= 190 hours.
Total wages paid to operators for 6 months
=190 hours ×6×6× Rs 2.50 = Rs 17,100
Answer 4 (b)
Rs.3,80,000
= ×100 = 40% of Direct labour
Rs. 9,50,000
Administrative Overhead Recovery Rate
Rs. 2,50,400
= ×100 = 8% of Factory Cost
Rs.31,30,000
ii) Detailed Cost Statement for the Order received from M.L. Auto Ltd. during 2075
Answer 5 (a):
Working Notes:
(i) Statement of Cost (10,000 units)
Total cost (R s . ) Cost per unit (R s . )
Materials 10,40,000 104.00
Wages 6,00,000 60.00
Factory Overhead 60% of wages 3,60,000 36.00
Factory cost 20,00,000 200.00
Administrative overhead 20% of 4,00,000 40.00
factory cost
Total cost 24,00,000 240.00
Computation of cost per Equivalent Unit for each element of cost ( Process-I)
Items Element Equivalent units cost per Cost (Rs) Total (Rs)
unit(Rs)
Units introduced Materials 36,000 15.7895 5,68,422.00
and completed Labour 36,000 3.2432 1,16,755.20
Overhead 36,000 6.4865 2,33,514.00
9,18,691.20
Materials 2,000 15.7895 31,579.00
Closing Stock Labour 1,000 3.2432 3,243.20
Overhead 1,000 6.4865 6,486.50 41,308.70
Computation of cost per Equivalent Unit for each element of cost ( Process-I)
Process-II Account
Answer No 6(b):
Computation of profit:
Rs 68,040x= Rs 16,66,98,000
Working Notes:
Rent of 'Super Deluxe' room is to be fixed at 2 times of 'Deluxe room' and that 'Luxury
Suite ' is 3 times of 'Deluxe room'. Therefore equivalent room days would be :
Answer No 6 (c) :
Answer No 6 (d)
*Assuming donation paid to local club was exclusively for the above projects, hence
included in the contract account.
**Depreciation on concrete mixture machine is charged on the basis of number of days
used for the projects as it is clearly mentioned in the question that this machine can be
used for other projects also.
Working Notes:
(Land purchased and brokerage and registration fee paid for this purpose cannot be
charged to contract account, hence not included in the contract account)
Answer No 6 (e)
(Rs.) (Rs.)
Fare collection (96 passengers ˟ Rs. 7,200) 6,91,200
Variable costs:
Fuel 96,000
Food (96 passengers ˟ Rs.125) 12,000
Commission (5% of Rs.6,91,200) 34,560 1,42,560
Contribution per flight 5,48,640
Fixed costs:
Aircraft Lease 3,50,000
Landing charges 72,000 4,22,000
Net income per flight 1,26,640
(ii)
Fare collection (108 passengers ˟ Rs. 6,720) 7,25,760
Variable costs:
Fuel 96,000
Food (108 passengers ˟ Rs.125) 13,500
Commission (5% of Rs. 7,25,760) 36,288 1,45,788
Contribution 5,79,972
There is an increase in contribution by Rs. 31,332. Hence the proposal is
acceptable.
Answer No 7 (a)
Fixed cos t
Break even Sales Quantity =
Contribution margin per unit
35,00,000
= =1,75,000 units
20
Contribution / unit 20
(ii) P/V ratio = ×100 = ×100 = 53.33 %
Rs.37.50
Selling Pr ice / unit
(iii) No. of units that must be sold to earn an Income (EBIT) of Rs. 2, 50,000
Fixed cost + Desired EBIT level
Contribution m argin per unit
35, 00, 000 +2, 50, 000
=
20
= 1,87,500 units
(iv) After Tax Income (PAT) = Rs.2, 50,000
Tax rate = 40%
2, 50, 000
Desired level of Profit before tax = ×100 = Rs.4,16,667
60
Fixed Cost +Desired Pr ofit
Estimate Sales Level =
⎝ P / V ratio⎠
35,00, 000 + 4,16,667 Rs.
= Rs. = 73,43,750
53.33%
Answer No 7(b)
(i) Total Fixed Cost = Rs. 6,00,000 + Rs. 20,00,000 + Rs. 8,00,000 + Rs. 2,00,000
= Rs. 36,00,000
130
×100 = 21.67%
600
130
(ii) Revised Selling Price = Rs. 600 – 5% of Rs. 600 = Rs. 570
Rs. 160
= 28,125 units
(iii) Revised Selling Price = Rs. 600 + 5% of Rs. 600 = Rs. 630
Rs. 155
= 23,225.81 or 23,226 units
Answer No 8 (a)
II. Variances:
Direct Material Cost Variance = Standard Cost for Actual output- Actual cost
= Rs.72,000- Rs.73,600= Rs.1,600(A)
Direct Material Price Variance = Actual Quaintly ( Standard Rate- Actual Rate)
=78,400 units {Rs. 1.00 - Rs 73,600}
78,400 units
= Rs.4,800 (F)
Direct Material Usage variance = Standard Rate ( Std. Qty- Actual Quantity)
= Rs.(72,000 unit -78,400 units) = Rs. 6,400(A)
Direct Labour Cost Variance = Standard Cost for actual output-Actual cost
= Rs.1,08,000- Rs.1,04,800= Rs.3,200(F)
Sales Volume (Profit) Variance =Std. Profit (Budgeted Quantity -Actual Quantity)
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of Nepal
= Rs 0.50 (80,000-72,000)= Rs. 4,000(A)
Answer No 8 (b)
Quarters Total
I II III IV
Units to be produced in
each quarter: (A) 31,500 38,250 42,000 48,250 1,60,000
Raw material con-
sumption p.u. (kg.): (B) 2 2 2 2
Total raw material
consumption (Kg.) : (A ×63,000 76,500 84,000 96,500 3,20,000
B)
(iii) Raw material purchase budget (in quantity)
I 30 94,500 2 1,89,000
(3,15,000 kg. × 30%)
II 50 1,57,500 3 4,72,500
(3,15,000 kg. × 50%)
III 20 63,000 4 2,52,000
(3,15,000 kg. × 20%)
Total : 3,15,000 9,13,500
Answer No 9 (a)
The three distinct groups of variances that arise in standard costing are:
(ii) Variances of prices and rates: These are the variances, which arise due to
changes in procurement price and standard price.
(iii) Variances due to volume: These represent the effect of difference between
actual activity and standard level of activity.
Answer No 9 (b)
Material Variance
Material SQ SP SQ×AP RSQ RSQ×SP AQ AQ×S AP AQ×AP
(WN-1) (RS) (Rs) (WN-2) (Rs) P (Rs) (Rs)
(Rs)
Labour Variance
Labour SH SR SH×S RSH RSH×S AH AH×SR AR AH*AR
(WN-3) (Rs) R (WN-4) R (Rs) (Rs) (Rs)
(Rs) (Rs)
Skilled 1,116 hrs 37.50 41,850 1144 42,900 1,200 45,000 35.50 42,600
Unskilled 893 hrs 22.00 19,646 916 20,152 860 18,920 23.00 19,780
Answer No 10 (a)
The limitations of Uniform Costing are as follows;
i. Sometimes it is not possible to adopt uniform standards, methods and procedures of costing
in different firms due to differing circumstances in which they operate. Hence, the adoption
of uniform costing becomes difficult in such firms.
ii. Disclosure of cost information and other data is an essential requirement of a uniform
costing system. Many firms do not wish to share such information with their competitors in
the same industry.
iii. Small firms in an industry believe that uniform costing system is only meant for big and
medium size firms, because they cannot afford it.
iv. It induces monopolistic trend in the business, due to which prices may be increased
artificially and supplies withheld.
Answer No 10 (b)
Answer No 11 (a)
Cost reduction is attainable in almost all areas of business activities. There is perhaps no
situation which cannot be improved. It covers a wide range like new layout, product
design, production methods, materials and machines in factories as well as in offices,
innovation in marketing, etc. it also extends to specific activities like purchasing,
handling, packing, shipping warehousing, marketing, use of administrative facilities and
even utilization of financial resources.
Excessive cost may results in every organization from:
a. Lack of information about raw materials, processes, products, components etc.
b. Lack of utilization of ideas generated from performance and economic analysis.
c. Honest but wrong beliefs that certain things are impossible for achievement.
d. Temporary circumstances like features developed under pressure or modifications
made to meet certain circumstances.
e. Habits and attitudes of confirming to one conventional method.
Mr Singh is provided with the required data, and is requested to suggest some important
strategies through the presentation paper to promote intercultural communication in the
company. From a preliminary survey Mr Singh has found that the company has more than one
hundred employees having at least twelve nationalities. He is now expecting to learn more about
the code they use while they are in work and the approach they take while they make decisions.
a) Mr Singh is expecting to learn more about the variety of code the staffs use while they are in
work and the approach they take while they make decisions. Now, write an e-mail on behalf
of Mr Singh to the administration director asking about the information that he is expecting
to learn.
b) In this specific context, what strategies of intercultural communication do you think will be
involved and discussed in the presentation paper of Mr Amayta?
c) Do you believe that conflicts arise in the workplace due to the lack of proper
communication? What can be done to overcome such conflicts?
Question No 2:
Elaborate the concepts of encoding and decoding as the two major processes of communication. 10
Question No 3:
What do you mean by workplace diversity? What are the major problems of workplace diversity? And,
how can workplace diversity be managed?
Question No 4:
Discuss the usefulness of audio-visual aids in an effective presentation of business reports, research
papers and proposals.
Question No 5:
Question No 6:
Question No 7
Proposal and report are important forms of research writing. However, they essentially differ regarding
various perspectives. Discuss briefly how a report is different from a proposal.
Question No 8:
Conflicts are assumed to be common assets of business organizations. They need to be managed
successfully to avoid bad results of them. Negotiation is one of the effective ways of settling conflicts
within business organizations. Discuss the process of negotiation as an effective means of conflict
resolution.
Question No 9:
Write short notes on ANY FOUR of the following:
a) Graphics in business communication
b) Overcoming group problems
c) Corporate social responsibilities
d) Roles of individuals in a group
e) Ethics in business communication
Question No 10:
What are barriers to effective listening? Explain in brief how they can be overcome.
Question No 11:
What are the major strategies for organizing information in the analytical reports? Critically examine the
relevance of each of these strategies.
Question No 12:
Write short notes on ANY FOUR of the following:
a) Workforce diversity
b) Buffers
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of Nepal
c) Group dynamics
d) Work plan in the proposal
From: discover.samrant@gmail.com
To: admns.sony@yahoo.com
Sub: general information
Regards,
Samrant Singh
Answer No 1(b):
The researches have pointed out that intercultural communication in the diverse workplace can
be managed as an organizational asset with some specific efforts and strategies. In order to
reduce the misunderstandings caused by work place diversity, cross cultural communication
networks need to be established. The followings are some of the important strategies that can be
adopted for the management of the cultural diversity in a workplace, and that can be involved
and discussed in a presentation paper:
Answer No 1(c):
Answer No 2:
Business communication involves a number of linguistic and non linguistic elements such as words,
phrases, discourse markers, graphic tools, paralanguage features, instruments and so on which are
used by the participants to give a specific meaning. The way of assigning meaning to such symbols
and words is known as encoding.
It is human mind that is essentially important in making the meaning of what has been used as
linguistic or nonlinguistic device for communication. The speaker‘s mind gives or determines
particular meaning of the linguistic or non-linguistic devices. This is to say the sender‘s mind is
responsible for giving the meaning of the language used. The process is known as encoding.
With the help of linguistic, socio- cultural, and experiential knowledge, a speaker encodes the
meaning of his or her speech, and intends that the receiver will also decode the meaning in the same
way.
To be more specific, encoding is a sender‘s mental process of presenting ideas or information in oral
or written form, using sounds, letters, words, figures or symbols.
Decoding is the receiver‘s mental process or act of assigning the meaning to the words and symbols
used by the speakers or writers.
While encoding is concerned with production, decoding is concerned with perception of discourse
meaning in context.
When the message encoded by the sender is decoded properly by the receiver, the process of
communication is successful.
Answer No 3:
The reality of the present day work-situation entails that the changing world has permitted people with
diverse culture, identity and ideology to work together for a common goal of business, trade and industry.
Such diversity in the workplace is commonly termed as ‗workplace diversity‘ in the field of international
business communication.
The term is also defined in the reference to the characteristic feature of cross-cultural
communication.
Cross cultural campaigns are conducted in every sector such as business, education, communication,
media, and so on.
Answer No 4
Of different tips for making the presentation sufficiently systematic and comprehensible to the
audience, the use of audio visual aids is one of the strongest one.
Audio visual aids help to make comprehensive interactions, displays, and demonstrations.
A wide range of audio visual equipment, including power point devices are required in a presentation.
A kind of variety is brought in contents as well as delivery techniques.
Speaking continuously may be monotonous, boring, and incomprehensible for the listeners. So,
participatory approach should be adopted. And for this, audiovisual aids are a must. They make
presentation more interactive, interesting, and comprehensible.
The presentation must be accompanied with some audio visual materials such as the computer, the pp
projector, the charts, pictures, figures, etc. according to the context we are in.
Answer No 5:
Answer No 6 (a)
Answer No 6 (b)
Answer No 6 (C)
Avoiding one‘s feelings of being superior or inferior to the people of other culture or background
For minimizing intercultural misunderstandings and conflicts
For bridging gaps and for managing the workplace diversity
No culture is superior to other one
Answer No 7:
The report and the proposal can be distinguished specifically in the points below.
Goals To narrate, describe what happened. To show what will happen and how.
To show a situation, or a summary of
some event, or dealing.
Presentation Narration, summary, graphic analysis, Persuasive, with plans, possible
description, factual information, … benefits, future activities, budget,
time schedule…
Answer no 8:
Working in groups may invite many different issues in a business organization. One of the most
common issues is conflict among the group members. At the same time certain measures for conflict
resolution are also identified.
Negotiation is one of the very useful and effective processes of conflict resolution. It helps people to
eliminate the basis for conflicts through bilateral discussions, dialogues and compromise. It is the
most preliminary stage in the process for the conflict resolution.
The term ‗negotiation‘ is used commonly in the sector of business communication to refer to the
common effort made by two parties intending to minimize the conflict between the two.
It is a significant process of conflict resolution. It aims to settle the dispute through intra-group
facilitation, compromise, mutual understanding and co-ordination.
The two conflicting parties are required to go through the situation with certain critical reflections,
and they are kept together face-to-face with a kind of realization about the situation. They are ready to
reach the solution and get involved in the negotiation process.
They have open discussion with the motive of negotiation. They try to make ‗give and take‘ results on
one hand, and on the other they try to compromise upon certain bottom line of their views and
positions.
They reach the ‗win-win‘ situation. The role of the third party is quite subtle unlike in the processes
such as mediation and arbitration.
Answers No 9:
e) Graphics in business communication
Graphics, one of the highly effective non-verbal tools commonly used in business communication refer to
different designs, drawings or pictures that we keep in our power point slides, advertisements, business
texts, brochures, instructions, manuals, etc. The usefulness of graphics in business communication can
never be underestimated since graphic representation of information becomes not only clear and precise
but also impressive and persuasive. It is commonly believed that a picture is worth thousand words. Line
graphs, histograms, bar charts, pie charts, figures, etc. are the common examples of graphics.
Answer No 10:
Complexity in effective listening is mostly caused by many different factors such as content, channel
and barriers to it, too. Good listeners always look for ways to overcome potential barriers throughout
the listening process.
Barriers to effective listening may vary from physical reception to listener's mental conditions. The
physical barriers such as room acoustics, phone rings and other noises, background music etc. can be
serious when the listener has to extract particular information or content from listening.
Similarly, lack of attention, interruption, schema, prejudgment etc. can be the examples of mental
barriers to effective listening.
Some of the strategies for overcoming the barriers to effective listening can be:
try to minimize the sources of physical barriers such as noises and poor acoustics
avoid selective listening and focus on the speaker
keep an open mind and avoid prejudgment
try to interpret the message from the context of the speaker
Answer No 11:
Three Major strategies for organizing information in analytical reports are (1) focusing on conclusions (2)
focusing on recommendations and (3) focusing on arguments.
When one is writing an analytical report for those audiences who are receptive in nature, information can
be organized focusing on writer's conclusions and judgments based on experience and research. The
audiences are likely to trust such judgments or conclusions, and may agree with the writer. The report can
be structured around those conclusions and findings, using a direct approach. However, focusing directly
on conclusions does have potential drawbacks. It may make everything the writer says seem too simple
and personified. The audiences can have reservations about the writer's conclusions.
When the analytical report is more concerned to what ought to be done in a particular situation than to
what is existing, the report can be structured focusing on recommendations. According to this approach
recommendations will be unfolded directly by following different steps of analysis and different modes of
conclusions. The report writer needs to be much sensible of whether the recommendations would invite
any risk in the business in future.
Reports can be organized focusing on arguments, too. Instead of drawing clear conclusions and
recommendations the report may also present certain logical analysis of specific situations along with
many different alternative ideas, solutions or options. More scientific approach is adopted in such type of
organization strategy. When the report aims at collaborative and persuasive issues, the focusing on
arguments approach would be more suitable. However, this strategy may create certain confusions among
the options. So, it seems better if the writer gives specification for each argument or option in the report.
Answer No 12(a)
Workforce diversity refers to the diverse situation of the workers in an organization derived from their
socio-cultural and national identities, backgrounds, and behaviors.
When people and products move across the borders, the workplace can be diverse enough because of
norms, age, gender, values, education, conventions, etc. of the workers. People who grew up in the same
ethnic and cultural background are most likely to share the similar patterns of social behavior in their
workplace too.
In multinational companies people from different backgrounds might have different ways of perception,
understanding and behaving. Such diversity may invite many problems including conflicts and
misunderstandings. Proper communication can minimize the potential drawbacks of workforce diversity.
Answer No 12(b)
Buffers are the tools for creating indirect but courteous relationship with the people in written transactions
such as bad news letters, follow up letters, and other general correspondences.
A buffer is useful to establish common ground with the reader. But, a poorly written buffer can mislead
and sometimes insult the reader. Good buffers have balanced elements of communication, and give good
impression to the readers.
Agreement, appreciation, cooperation, politeness, fairness, etc. are some of the types of buffers which are
important in most of the business correspondences.
Answer No 12 (d)
Proposal is a systematic plan for a research or for an action to be accomplished. A reliable and systematic
work plan needs to be presented in the proposal about how to carry out the research or action within a
given period of time.
In other words, the work plan indicates exactly the schedule for accomplishing every individual task
within the project. It describes what must be done and how it will be accomplished.
More specifically, the work plan includes when the work will begin, how it will be divided into stages,
when it will be finished, what methods or resources will be used and so on.
Income Tax
Question No 1:
Nepal Cement Pvt. Ltd. is engaged in production of cement, the factory is located at Dang and
own ore of limestone is mainly used for production of raw materials, in addition some required
other raw materials are also purchased from market. There is high demand of standard quality
cement in Nepal and also export is significant. Calculate the tax liability of the company for
Income Year (2075.76 with latest provisions of Income Act as amended by Budget for FY
2075.76):
There are 109 employees, out of which 101 are Nepali citizen, and out of Nepali 35 are among
Women, Dalit and Disabled.
The upto previous year the company was engaged in selling the cement by importing from India,
and the loss from previous five years is Rs. (70) lacs.
Required
a) Calculate the allowed Depreciation and Repair for the FY
b) Calculate the Assessable Income from Business and Taxable income from Business
c) Calculate the Tax liability for the IY with mentioning the tax rate for the business with
rebate/discount available if any.
Question No 2:
Worldwide engineering consultancy pvt ltd have furnished the following details for the income
year, calculate net tax payable by the company for the income year.
Question No 3:
Hotel Wildlife Pvt. Ltd. at Bardiya has provided the following details for the Income Year.
Particulars Amount (Rs.)
Sales Income 99,500,000.00
Total Income 99,500,000.00
Cost of Food 22,500,000.00
Cost of Beverage 12,750,000.00
The loss upto previous years was 105,00,000. The current year is 11th year of operation, and loss
for last year was Rs. 15 lacs, the remaining is equal for previous years.
Building was completed and used for business on 1.Bhadra with cost of Rs. 665,00,000, the
software purchased for 1000000 with life of 9 years and Kitchen Equipments all purchased on 25
Shrawan for 40 lacs and the bed sets of 45 rooms was acquired for 75 lacs. The repair was for
building 925000 and remaining garden development. Calculate the tax for current year.
Question No 4:
Mrs. Bidhya has revealed her income, calculate the applicable tax for income year, showing all
the workings and explanations.
Particulars Amount Remarks
- Car costing Rs. 35,00,000 for official use with driver, the salary of driver is Rs. 25,000 per
month
- Telephone allowance of Rs. 3,000 per month
Question No 5:
Following income is earned by Mr. Suresh, calculate total tax to be paid for the respective
income year.
Rent income from the building at Newroad Rs. 325,000 per month. The interest income from
Nepal Bank Limited Rs. 450,000. Dividend income from Unilever Nepal Ltd Rs. 95,000. Exam
paper preparation and evaluation from KU Rs. 75,000. Payment received from Nepal Water
Company for providing the land with natural source of water at Rasuwa Rs. 1050000. Interest
received from Nepal Water Company for the secured loan provided to company Rs. 350000. All
the payments received are net of tax (if applicable).
Question No 6:
The details of Kathmandu Buildings Pvt. Ltd. which has Kathmadu Complex at Khichapokhari,
New Road and the building is rented for various commercial enterprises is as follows:
Question No 7:
Mr. Park, a Australian citizen came to Nepal as Consultant of MCC on 7.Ashad. 2074, and
returned to Australia via Hongkong transit through Silk Air on 19.Bhadra.2074, reached to
Australia on 23.Bhadra.2074, and again revisited Nepal on 11.Magh.2074 and remained in Nepal
till 22.Baisakh.2075. Show by calculation the residential status of Mr. Park as per Income Tax
Act, 2058 of Nepal for respective Income Years?
Question No 8:
Mr. Bhandari is Consultant Engineer with Nepal Telecommunication Authority and has received
Rs. 1,050,000. upto Chaitra of 2074. He had went to Malaysia and worked with National Mobile
of Malaysia and received Rs. 450,000 from Baisakh to Ashad 2075. The tax deducted on
Malaysia on his income is Rs. 125,000. Calculate the tax liability in Nepal for IY 2074.75 (with
latest rates). The retirement contribution in Nepal is 130,000.
Question No 9:
Paramount School (pvt. Ltd.) has furnished the following information for Education Year 2074.
a- As per the information the education year used by the school is from Baisakh to Chaitra
of year. The Student Admission Fee is collected on Baisakh of each year on admission of
the students
Question No 10:
What do you mean by Final Withholding Payments and what are the payments treated as final
withholdings as per Income Tax Act, 2058?
Question No 11
Write short note on Taxpayers Rights under the Income Tax Act 2058.
Question No 12:
Define Permanent Establishment as per Income Tax Act 2058.
Question No 13:
Question No 14:
Question No 15:
Differentiate between public circular and advance ruling in respect to Income Tax Act 2058.
Question No 16:
a) Trustee
b) Royalty
Question No 18:
Amma Builders is building the multi-story boutique rented apartment at Bhaktapur, and has
furnished the following details:
Question No 19:
The income details of Integrated Engineering Consultancy Pvt. Ltd. has provided the services to
abroad prospective investors and Nepal Government as well. The Import of Survey Equipments
costing 1,575,000 USD, 1 USD =109, 35% customs and 100,000 USD transportation upto
custom point is the only purchase for the year. Calculate the Net VAT payable by the company
to Nepal Government.
Question No 20:
The royalty of Wood of Khayer tree of government forest is Rs. 1,050 per sq. ft. Mr. Janak has
cut down the tree (from his own the private forest) and agreed to sale the wood to Furniture
World Pvt. Ltd. at 1,325 per sq. ft. Give your opinion of applicability of VAT.
Question No 21:
What is market Value as per Value Added Tax 2052? Mention the relevant provision applicable
to market Value as per Value Added Tax 2052?
Question No 22:
Describe the circumstances beyond the control to submit return and pay taxes under the value
Added Tax Act, 2052.
Question No 23:
What is the provision for time and place of supply as per VAT Act 2052/ Rule 2054.
State the provision of person collecting VAT other than VAT registered person.
Question No 25:
P Allowed repair
oo Opening Actual 7% of (Minimum of
l WDV of Asset Dep rate (%) Depreciation Repair wdv Actual or 7%)
1,091,300.
A 15,590,000.00 6.67 1,039,333.33 1,590,000.00 00 1,091,300.00
Answer No 2:
Answer No 3
Particulars Amount (Rs.)
Sales Income 99,500,000.00
Total Income 99,500,000.00
Cost of Food 22,500,000.00
Tax
10,552,225.00
Note 1
Capitalized Depreciation Actual Allowable
Pool Depreciation 7% of DBV
Amount Rate Repair Repair
Pool 3,325,000.00 4,655,000.00 925,000.00 925,000.00 3,325,000.00 4,655,000.00
A
Pool 600,000.00 280,000.00 1,100,000.00 280,000.00 600,000.00 280,000.00
D
Pool 111,100.00 70,000.00 125,000.00 70,000.00 111,100.00 70,000.00
E
4,036,100.00 1,275,000.00 4,036,100.00
The gardening expense is repair of Pool D and Bed Sets of Hotels are core assets and thus
classified as assets under Pool D.
The software depreciation rate is 1/9 years =11.11%
Answer No 4:
Particulars Amount Total Amount Remarks
Salary 375,000.00 4,500,000.00
as per Labor act, one month
Festival Allowance 375,000.00 375,000.00
of basic salary per year
Children Education Allowance 37,500.00 450,000.00
Medical Allowance 37,500.00 450,000.00
Answer No 5:
Tax Amount
Particulars Nature of Income Income (Rs.) Details/Explanation
(NRs.)
Rent by natural person is not tax
applicable, the tax is payable to
Not to be included
local government as per their
Rent on Income from 3,900,000.00 -
respective legislation, For
rent
Income Tax the income is
neither includible nor taxable
Interest from The Interest from Nepal Bank is
Final Withholding 473,684.21 23,684.21
Nepal Bank Ltd after 5% TDS
Dividend from
Final Withholding 100,000.00 Dividend is after tax of 5%
Unilever Nepal
Exam paper
Final Withholding 88,235.29 13,235.29 The fee is after tax of 15%
evaluation
Income from
Nepal Water Non Final
Company for (Included in income 1,235,294.12 185,294.12 the 1050000 is after 15% tax
natural resource calculation)
(water)
Interest from Non Final
Nepal Water (Included in income 411,764.71 61,764.71 the income is after tax 15%
Company calculation)
Assessable Only the non final income are
1,647,058.82
Income added
Less: Reduction
5% of AI or
100,000 or
Donation 55,000.00 55,000
which is
lowest
25,000 or
Life insurance 35,600
25,000.00
premium which is
lowest
Contribution to 1/3rd of AI,
Approved 120,000.00 300000 or
Retirement Fund Actual
Answer No 6:
Solution Amount (Rs.)
the amount received is net of tax
Rent Income 41,666,666.67
(TDS rate 10%()
Claim from Insurance Company 1,075,000.00
Bad Debt Recovered 472,500.00 Only 70% is includible income
Total income 43,214,166.67
Salary 1,075,000.00
Electricity 1,250,000.00
Interest on Loan from bank 3,550,000.00
The interest should be paid after 15%
Interest on loan from individual persons 1,523,529.41 TDS, so total expenditure grossing up
of the net interest
Others 2,195,000.00
Depreciation 3,712,500.00
Repair 3,832,500.00
Total Expenses 17,138,529.41
Taxable Income 26,075,637.25
Tax Rate 0.25
Tax 6,518,909.31
Advance Tax Paid 4,166,666.67
Net Tax to be paid 2,352,242.65
Answer No 7
For Natural Person, the residential status is determined from the following conditions
Mr. Park‘s residential status is determined from the second condition (as first condition is not
satisfied).
For Income Year 73/74
He has came to Nepal on 7.Ashad.2074 and the Income Year ends on 30.Ashad.2074 (taking 30
days in a month), his days of stay are 24 days, which is less than 183 days so non-resident.
(assumed he has not came to Nepal at least 365 days before 7.Ashad.2074)
Answer No 8:
Amount
Particulars
(Rs.)
Employment Income In Nepal 1,050,000.00
Employment income in Malaysia 450,000.00
Assessable Income 1,500,000.00
Less: Retirement Fund Reduction (1/3rd of AI, 300,000 or actual 130,000, taking
130,000.00
the minimum of actual)
Taxable Income 1,370,000.00
Tax Calculation
First 400,000 4,000.00
Next 100,000 10,000.00
Next 200,000 40,000.00
Answer No. 9:
As per section 22 of Income Tax Act 2058, the accounting for tax by company shall be kept as
per Accrual Basis. The school being company as per Section 2 of Income Tax Act 2058 shall
keep the accounting as per Accrual Basis.
Similarly as per Section 2(Jha) of Income Tax Act, the income year shall be from first of
Shrawan of any year to end of Ashad of next year. For the company, the income year shall be
2073.74 (from 2073/04/01 to 2074/03/end) and 2074.75 (from 2074.04.01 to 2075.03.end). The
information given above are not complete for IY 2073.74, so the calculation of taxable income
for IY 2074.75 is as follows:
Particulars Amount (Nrs.) Note
Student Admission Fee i
Student Annual Service Fee 2,367,525.00 ii
Student Monthly Tuition Fee 20,623,487.75 iii
Total Income 22,991,012.75
Expenses
Salary of Faculty 20,812,500.00
Printing & Stationery 420,676.50 iv
Other Expenses 548,235.75
Total Expenses 21,781,412.25
Taxable income 1,209,600.50
i) This fee is collected on 2073 Baisakh for education year 2073, which is part of
income year 2073.74, since the admission fee is normally the first criteria to be
registered as student and on 2075 Baisakh the admission fee shall be collected by the
school from its students, so the fee is not considered as income for IY 2074.75.
(Alternative approach may me to take proportionate income for 9 months assuming
the admission fee is recognized over the 12 month period education year equally).
ii) This fee is also collected on 2074 Baisakh for annual activities/services to be
provided to the students, so it should be proportionately divided for 12 months, and 9
months fee shall be included as income for IY 2074.75.
iii) This fee is collected every months and this amount is total collection from 2074
Baisakh to Chaitra 2074 and collection of Rs. 45,06,900 opening fee of 2073 Chairta
collected during 2074. So our monthly tuition fee income is collected during every
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of Nepal
month of 2074 is Rs. (20978217-4506900)/12 = 13,72,609.75. The fee receivable at
Chaitra 2074 Rs. 82,70,000 is also to be recognized as income for IY 2074.75
although not recovered till 2075 Bhadra as per Accrual Basis of accounting for
Income Tax.
iv) All the expenses are said paid during 12 month period of 2074, so for IY 2074-75 the
9 month of 2074 are included, so 9/12th part of expenses are deducted.
Conclusion: The Company shall keep accounting on accrual basis for income tax purpose,
and the education year followed by school is not valid for income tax purpose and
contention of management as loss bearing and not paying tax is not correct.
Answer No 10:
As per Section 2(Ga) of Income Tax Act, 2058, final withholding payment is defined as the
payments specified under Section 92 such as dividend, rent, gains, interest and payment to a non-
resident person, which is to be made after withholding final tax.
Final withholding payments are the payments made after deducting tax at source at specified rate
prescribed under Income Tax Act, 2058. The tax, thus, deducted shall be the final tax. The
person receiving the final withholding payments does not have to include this amount in his
other taxable income.
According to Section 92 of Income Tax Act, 2058, following payments are treated as final
withholding payments:
Answer No 11
Answer No 12
As per Section 2(bb) of Income Tax Act, Permanent establishment means a place where a person
wholly or partly carries on a business, and includes the following places:-
(1) a place where a person wholly or partly carries on a business through an agent, other than a
general agent of independent status acting in the ordinary course of business as such;
(2) a place where a person has, is using, or is installing substantial equipment or substantial
machinery;
(3) one or more places within a country where a person furnishes (whether through employees or
otherwise) related services (including technical, professional, or consultancy services) for a
period or periods aggregating more than 90 days within any 12 month period; or
(4) a place where a person is engaged in a construction, assembly, or installation project for 90
days or more, including a place where a person is conducting supervisory activities in relation to
such a project.
Answer No 13:
As per Section 2(s) of Income Tax Act 2058, Exempt organisation means the following entites:-
(1) Following entities registered with the Department as an exempt organization:
(a) a social, religious, educational, or a charitable organization of a public character established
without having a profit motive,
(b) an amateur sporting association formed for the purpose of promoting social or sporting
facilities not involving the acquisition of gain,
(2) a political party registered with the Election Commission,
Answer No 14
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of Nepal
As per section 2(m) of Income Tax act 2058, company means a company established under the
company laws for the time being in force and the following institutions shall also be treated as
company for tax purpose:-
(1) Corporate body established under the laws for the time being in force;
(2) any unincorporated association, committee, institution, society, or group of persons other
than a partnership or a proprietorship firm (whether or not registered) or a trust;
(3) a partnership firm (whether or not registered under the laws for the time being in force) that
has 20 or more partners, a retirement fund, a co-operative, a unit trust, or a joint venture;
(4) Foreign company; and (5) any foreign institution prescribed by the Director-General.
Answer No 15
As per Section 75 of the Income Tax Act 2058, public circular is the circular issued in writing by
Inland Revenue Department setting out the Department's interpretation of Income Tax Act in
order to achieve consistency in the implementation of the Act and to make the tax administration
simple and provide guidance to persons affected by the Act, including officers of the Department.
The circular, thus, issued will be made public and shall be binding on the Department also.
On the other hand, if there is any confusion in the application of the provisions of Income Tax,
2058, or for the sake of clarification of any doubt relating to the provisions of the Act, an
individual or entity may opt for seeking Advance Ruling from IRD under Section 76 In case an
individual or entity makes a written application to IRD seeking IRD's position or view regarding
the application of this Act with respect to an arrangement proposed, IRD under the signature of
Director General may issue, in writing, an advance ruling in this regard. However, IRD should
not issue an advance ruling on the matters under consideration of any court or decided by a court.
Answer No 16:
a) As per sec 2(u) of Income tax Act, 2058, A "Trustee" means an individual or Goothi or
corporate body holding assets in a fiduciary capacity, whether held alone or jointly with other
individuals or corporate bodies, and includes the following persons-
b) As per sec 2(ak) of Income tax Act, 2058, "Royalty" means any payment made under a lease
of an intangible asset and includes any payment made for the following purpose:-
(i) the use of, or the right to use, a copyright, patent, design, model, plan, secret
formula or process, or trademark;
(ii) the supply of know-how;
(iii) the use of, or right to use, a cinematography film, video tape, sound recording, or any
other like medium and the supply of information concerning industrial, commercial, or
scientific experience;
(iv) the supply of assistance ancillary to a matter referred to in paragraphs (i), (ii) or (iii); or
(v) a total or partial forbearance with respect to a matter referred to in paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii)
or (iv). provided that, the term
c) As per sec 2(bb) of Income tax Act, 2058, "Permanent establishment" means a place where a
person wholly or partly carries on a business, and includes the following places:-
(i) a place where a person wholly or partly carries on a business through an agent, other than
a general agent of independent status acting in the ordinary course of business as such;
(ii) a place where a person has, is using, or is installing substantial equipment or substantial
machinery;
(iii) one or more places within a country where a person furnishes
(whether through employees or otherwise) related services (including technical, professional,
or consultancy services) for a period or periods aggregating more than 90 days within any 12
month period; or
(iv) a place where a person is engaged in a construction, assembly, or installation project for
90 days or more, including a place where a person is conducting supervisory activities in
relation to such a project.
d) As per sec 2(am) of Income tax Act, 2058, "Investment insurance" means insurance of any of
the following classes:
(i) insurance where the event covered is the death of an individual who is the insured or an
associate of the insured;
(ii) insurance where the event covered is an individual who is the insured or an associate of
the
insured sustaining personal injury or becoming incapacitated in a particular manner;
(iii) insurance where the insurance agreement is expressed to be in effect for at least five
years or
without limit of time and is not terminable by the insurer before the expiry of five years
except in special circumstances specified in the contract;
e) Jeopardy Assessment
If tax within a income year or after income year but before statutory time limit of filing of
return is Jeopardy assessment. It is of two types:
- Jeopardy assessment as self-assessment [Section 100(1)]
- Jeopardy assessment by tax authorities. [Section 100(2)]
Jeopardy assessment by the IRO is possible only under anyone of these conditions:
a. The person becomes bankrupt, is wound-up, or goes into liquidation.
b. The person is about to leave Nepal indefinitely.
c. The person is about to leave the business conducting in Nepal.
d. The IRD otherwise considers it appropriate.
Under any one of the above conditions the IRO may serve a notice to the taxpayer to submit
a tax return for the specified period of the year within specified days. In the case of a
taxpayer who submits the return as per the notification or does not submit it, in either case,
the income tax assessment is supposed to be made as per the provisions of Sec. 99(2). But
Sec.100(2) has given an authority to respective IRO to make a jeopardy assessment in the
above case on the basis of the best judgement adopted by the IRO
The period taken by the IRO for such a jeopardy assessment may be a part of the year or the
whole year. In such a case, the notice is meant for an assessment of the whole year, and the
taxpayer has to file the return within the time specified in the notice but in no way can wait
for the period as specified in Section 96.
The respective IRO can make a jeopardy assessment only if it has a reasonable belief that the
figures produced or deemed to be produced by the taxpayer do not exhibit the real position of
the tax liability of the taxpayer for the period.
According to Section 100(2), the following pieces of information are considered for the
jeopardy assessment:
a) Assessable income of the taxpayer from business, employment or investment, i.e. from all
the sources.
b) Taxable income of the taxpayer during the year and the total amount of tax due to the
taxpayer, and
c) In the case of a taxpayer, which is a foreign permanent establishment, the income remitted
to a foreign country during the period and tax payable on such a remittance.
Before issuing an order for jeopardy assessment, the IRO has to serve a notice to the taxpayer
In case a jeopardy assessment is made for a whole year, the taxpayer is not required to submit
a tax return under Sec. 96(1). But if it is for part of the year, the taxpayer has to file a return
under sec.96(1)
and the treatment of tax paid as per the jeopardy assessment shall be as advance payment of
tax and could be adjusted against the tax payable as calculated as per the self assessment for
the year.
When the IRO has made a jeopardy assessment, it has to issue an order to the taxpayer
stating the following assessment:
a) The total tax payable by the taxpayer for the period of assessment and the tax due to him;
b) The method of calculation of the tax liability.
c) The reason of the Jeopardy assessment by the IRO.
d) The period within which the tax due is payable; and
e) Where, when and how to appeal against the order if the taxpayer is not satisfied with the
jeopardy assessment.
Answer No 17:
Calculation of output tax
Amount Before
Particulars Taxable Non Taxable Tax
Tax
Sales of Books 54,560,000.00 54,560,000.00 7,092,800.00
Sales of Copy and printed stationery
47,085,000.00 47,085,000.00 -
items
Total 101,645,000.00 47,085,000.00 54,560,000.00 7,092,800.00
Answer No 19:
Particulars Amount 13% VAT
The market value of wood of private forest (Section 12 Ka of VAT Act 2052) is higher of royalty
fixed for government forest rate or actual sale price. Here the sale price is Rs. 1,325 per sq. ft.
Answer No 21:
As per section 2(k) of Value Added Tax Act 2052, "Market Value" means the price as
determined pursuant to Section 13;
As per section 13 of Value Added Tax Act 2052, market value related provisions are:
(1) The market value of goods or services shall be determined as the consideration in money
which the supply of these goods or services would generally be agreed on if the transaction were
made under similar circumstances at that date in Nepal taking into consideration the
characteristics, quality, quantity, materials, and any other relevant factor, being a supply freely
offered and made between persons who are unrelated.
(2) For the purpose of this section the method for the determination of market value hall be as
prescribed.
(3) Where the market value of goods or services could not be determined under subsection 1) and
(2), it shall be determined in accordance with a process determined by the Director General.
In addition to this section, Section 22 of Value Added Rules 2053 mention that, for determining
the market value under Section 13 of the Act, the tax officer shall determine the market value by
studying the transactions and value of other vendors registered in regard to the transaction of the
same nature. In cases where the market value of any goods or services cannot be determined as
set forth in sub-section (3) of Section 13 of the Act, the Director General shall determine the
value on the basis also of the information received in that regard by him from the registered
persons of the same nature.
Answer No. 22
As per Rule 35 of Vat Rule 2053, the following circumstances shall be deemed to be
circumstances beyond control for the purpose of sub-section (4) of Section 19 of the Act;
i. In case the person required to pay tax becomes disabled due to falling ill; up to seven
days of the date of his recovery.
ii. In case the person required to pay tax is to obsequies; up to seven days of the end of the
obsequies,
iii. In case a woman required to pay tax delivers a child; up to thirty five days of the date of
delivery,
In case an additional time limit shall be required to be requested due to circumstances beyond
control referred to point (ii),(iii),(iv),(v) & (vii) above; the recommendation of the concerned
Village Development Committee or Municipality shall be submitted.
While requesting for an additional time-limit due to the circumstance referred to point
no,(vi), the recommendation of the Village Development Committee or Municipality
concerned with the place where the Strike of means of transport has taken place, shall be
submitted.
Answer No 23:
As per Section 6 of VAT Act, the time of supply goods or services shall be considered to have
taken place at the earliest time of the following times:
Following shall be the provision for the time of supply in the following cases:
(a) In the case of services which are continuously provided, namely, telecommunication services
or similar other public services, when the invoice is issued;
(b) Where there is a contractual provision for paying partially the value of goods or services in
more than one day on an installment basis, the supply time shall be the earliest day on which the
payment is made or the day on which the payment is to be made according to the contract;
(c) In the case of goods or service which are so used as not to be allowed an offset under this
Act, the time when such Goods or Services are used;
(a) In the case of movable goods transferred by sale, the place where such goods were sold or
transferred,
(b) In the case of any immovable goods whose location can't be transferred even if their
ownership is changed, the place where such goods are located,
c) In the case of imported goods, the customs point in the Kingdom of Nepal through which such
goods are imported into the Kingdom of Nepal,
(d) In case any producer or vendor supplies the goods to himself, the place where the producer
or vendor of such goods resides.
As per Rule 16 of VAT Rules 2054 the following places shall be deemed to be the place of
supply of services:-
The place of supply of a service shall be the place where the benefit of that service is received.
Answer No. 24
(1) A person who is not registered shall not issue an invoice or other document showing the
collection of tax and shall not collect tax.
(2) If a person who is not registered collects tax, the tax so collected shall be assessed and
collected from him
(3) Government of Nepal, local bodies, international agencies and commissions or public
corporation must collect tax if transaction of taxable goods or services is done.
Answer No 25:
Schedule 1 of VAT Act 2052 (and amended by latest Finance Act) has listed the VAT exempt
goods and services and Schedule 2 of the act has listed the goods and services for which VAT is
payable at Zero rate.
VAT exempt goods and services are those goods and services, for which the application of VAT
(economic value addition) is not relevant, whereas for the goods and services listed under zero
rates category the payment of VAT is at Zero rate.
In practice, zero rate has more financial benefit to the business unit compared with VAT exempt
goods/services.
A is business which sold goods worth Rs. 100,000 which are VAT exempted.
Suppose the business has purchased the goods at Rs. 70,000, and his office expenditure has
Internet Expenses Rs. 10,000 and VAT Rs. 1,300 is paid for subscribing the internet.
B is business which has dealt with zero rate goods/service, for which the sales price is 100,000 +
0% VAT, and the input cost is 70,000 + 13% VAT, and internet expense of Rs. 10,000 + 13%
VAT.
Further the VAT paid on cost 70,000*13% and paid on internet 10,000*13% is refundable to the
business by Nepal government.
In respect of both economic activities, the difference is dealing of VAT exempt or Zero rated
goods/services, but the impact is different which is the fundamental difference on No VAT and
Zero VAT.