ME Revision PDF

Revision through Questions
for GATE 2020 CE

Day 1 : Q.1 to Q. 25 : General Aptitude
Q.1 Choose the correct set of words to complete the sentence:
Politicians must be _____ for the people, but they should never be_____for public welfare.
(a) disinterested, uninterested (b) disinterested, disinterested
(c) uninterested, uninterested (d) uninterested, disinterested
Q.2 How many numbers between 1 to 300 are divisible by only 11 or only 13 but not by both?
(a) 45 (b) 46
(c) 48 (d) 50
Q.3 Triangles ABC and CDE have a common vertex C with side AB of triangle ABC being parallel
to side DE of triangle CDE. If length of side AB = 4 cm and length of side DE = 10 cm and
perpendicular distance between sides AB and DE is 9.8 cm, then the sum of areas of triangle
ABC and triangle CDE is _________ cm2.
Q.4 A and B will participate in a sack race (In a sack race, people hop to reach the finish line). In the
time that A takes 3 hops, B takes 4 hops but the distance covered by A in 4 hops is equal to
distance covered by B in 5 hops. What is the ratio of A's speed: B's speed?
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 12 : 20
(c) 15 : 16 (d) 1 : 1
Q.5 In the sentence given below, a part of sentence is underlined, choose the correct alternative of
the phrasing of the underlined part:
While their ostrich like attitude is aggravating, what is very serious is loss of wealth and loss
of business.
(a) their refusal to face facts (b) their heavy handedness
(c) their annoying behaviour (d) their big ego
Q.6 What is the sum of all possible solutions to |x – 3|2 + |x – 3| = 20?

(a) –1 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 12
Q.7 A lizard is crawling up a minaret to reach the top. The top of the minaret is 1800 cm from its
position. After every minute of crawling it halts for half a minute. In every halt it slides down
by 30 cm from its position. Time the lizard will take to reach the top of the minaret if it can
crawl 150 cm per minute is
(a) 21 minutes 48 seconds (b) 25 minutes
(c) 20 minutes (d) 32 minutes 40 seconds
Q.8 How many 5 letter words (with or without meaning) can be formed using all the following 5
letters A, B, C, D and E so that letter A is to the left of letter B?
(a) 120 (b) 60
(c) 48 (d) 24
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Q.9 Choose the option that best substitutes the underlined part of the sentence :
TCS is edging closer to become the country’s first 100 bn $ company. The company is fortunate
to have excellent relationships among its employees : they each have a relationship of respect
for all the others.

(a) they each have a relationship of respect for all the others.
(b) they have respect for one another.
(c) each one has respect for one another.
(d) they each have a relationship of respect for each other.
9. (b)
This is a situation in which there is the same relationship, respect, between any possible pair of
people in the group. This is a saturation that calls for the structure “each other” or “one another”.
Choice (a) doesn’t use this, and what is used is very wordy and awkward, so it is incorrect.
These structures, “each other” and “one another”, demand a plural subject. Choices (c) and (d)
make the mistake of using a singular subject, so these are incorrect.
Option (b) is the right answer.
Q.10 What is the remainder when 1! + 2! + 3! … 100! is divided by 18?

(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 5 (d) 9
Q.11 The percentage profit earned by selling an article for `1920 is equal in the percentage loss
incurred by selling the same article for `1280. At what price (in `) should the article be sold to
make 25% profit?
Q.12 A faulty wall clock is known to gain 15 minutes every 24 hours. It is synchronized to the
correct time at 9 AM on 14th August. What will be the correct time to the nearest minute when
the clock shows 2 PM on 18th August of the same year?
(a) 12:45 PM (b) 12:58 PM
(c) 1:00 PM (d) 2:00 PM
Q.13 As shown in the figure below, two sides of triangle BCD are each 9 feet long. Triangle BCD
shares side BD with square ABDE, and angle CBD measures 45°. What is the total area of
figure ABCDE in square feet? (Note: Figure not drawn to scale.)
C
9 9
B D
A E
(a) 121.5 (b) 40.5 + 81 2

(c) 202.5 (d) 221
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Q.14 A farmer can plow his wheat field in 12 days. After working for 5 days, his daughter joins him
and together they finish plowing the field in 4 days. How many days would it take the daughter
to plow the wheat field alone?
Q.15 A series of numbers are written using digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the following pattern:
1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, (six 1’s) and so on. Which of the following
digits will come at the 100th position in this sequence?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Q.16 A part has been omitted from the sentence given below and it is to be filled with idiom(s), to
make the sentences grammatically meaningfully correct. Mark the answer accordingly.
Although Mr. Naipaul was __________, he never boasted about anything or try to use the
resources available to him in an unethical way.
1. An armchair traveller
2. Born with a silver spoon
3. A big fish in a small pond
(a) Only 2 (b) Both 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 3 (d) None of these
Q.17 In the given question, a set of conclusions is given. There are four options comprising of three
or more statements. You need to choose the option that contains the set of statements from
which the given conclusions logically follow.
All horses cannot be cottages. No glance is a cottage.
(a) Some glances are horses. Some horses are blemishes. No blemish is a cottage.
(b) No horse is a blemish. All cottages are blemishes. All glances are horses.
(c) Some horses are blemishes. All glances are blemishes. Some cottages are not blemishes.
(d) All horses are blemishes. Some blemishes are not cottages. No blemish is a glance.
Q.18 Vessel A contains six green and four red balls and vessel B contains four green and six red
balls. One ball is drawn at random from vessel A and placed in vessel B. Then one ball is
transferred at random from vessel B to vessel A. If one ball is now drawn at random from
vessel A, the probability that it is green is
23 32
(a) (b)
55 65
33 32
(c) (d)
65 55
Q.19 Four runners started running the race in the same direction along a circular path of 7 km. Their
speed are 4, 3, 9, 3.5 km/hr. individually. If they started their race at 6 AM then at what time
they all will be at the starting point?
(a) 2 PM (b) 8 PM
(c) 8 AM (d) 6 PM
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Q.20 The average number of goals scored per match by Sunil Chhetri in matches where he was in
the team of starting 11 is 1.5 and the average number of goals scored by him in matches where
he came on as a substitute is 0.5. He scored 390 goals more in matches where he was in the
team of starting 11 than in matches in which he came on as a substitute. If he played 388
matches in total, the average number of goals scored by him per match is
Q.21 In a family of 4 members, the eldest member expires after 5 years at the age of 88 and 10 years
after that a baby is born in the family such that the difference of family’s eldest to youngest
member alive after 20 years from present is 57. At present, the age of youngest member is 14
years and the average age of remaining member is 54. The age of the two eldest members alive
after 5 years would be
(a) 88, 47 (b) 42, 19
(c) 47, 42 (d) 37, 42
Q.22 Which of phrases given below should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the
sentence grammatically correct?
The crime has growth rapidly in Russia since the disintegration of the communist system.
(a) rapid crime has grown
(b) crime has grown rapidly
(c) crimes grow rapidly
(d) crimes have been rapidly grown
Q.23 A sphere is inscribed in a cube with an edge of 10 units. What is the shortest possible distance
in units from one of the vertices of the cube to the surface of the sphere?
(a) 10 ( 3 −1 ) (b) 5
(c) 10 ( 2 − 1) (d) 5 ( 3 −1 )
Q.24 Based on the given statements, select the most appropriate option to solve the question.
Sheetal wants to sell her bicycle at either a profit of K% or a loss of K%. What is the value of K?
Statement 1: Difference between the amount Sheetal gets in the 2 cases is `2560.
Statement 2: If Sheetal’s profit is Rs K, her profit in percentage is 7.5%.
(a) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.
(b) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.
(c) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
(d) Statement 1 and 2 together are NOT sufficient.
Q.25 Select the pair which has the same relationship as the two words
IMPLAUSIBLE : ABSURD :: ?
(a) shadowy : illuminated (b) flamboyant : public
(c) surprising : shocking (d) superfluous : truncated

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Detailed Explanations
1. (a)
‘Disinterested’ means ‘free from bias, free from personal/selfish motives’.
‘Uninterested’ means ‘lacking interest’.
2. (b)
Between 1 to 300:
There are 27 multiples of 11.
There are 23 multiples of 13.
There are 2 multiples of 143 (of both 11 and 13).
So, there are 27 – 2 = 25 numbers divisible by 11 only.
And, there are 23 – 2 = 21 numbers divisible by 13 only.
In all, there are 25 + 21 = 46 numbers divisible by 11 or 13 but not by both.
3. 40.6 (40 to 41)

A 4 cm B
Given AB || DE
⇒ ∠B = ∠D (Alternate angles) h1
and ∠A = ∠E (Alternate angles) C
∴ ΔABC ∼ ΔEDC (AAA similarity)

h2
h1 AB 4 2
⇒ = = =
h2 DE 10 5
D E
and h1 + h2 = 9.8 cm (given) 10 cm
∴ h1 = 2.8 cm and h2 = 7 cm
1
Area of ΔABC = × 4 × 2.8 = 5.6 cm 2
2
1
Area of ΔEDC = × 10 × 7 = 35 cm 2
2
∴ Sum of areas of ΔABC and ΔEDC = 40.6 cm2
4. (c)
Let time taken by A and B to complete 3 and 4 hops respectively be 't'
t t
Therefore time taken by A and B to do 1 hop is and respectively
3 4
Let distance covered in A and B's 4 and 5 hops respectively be 'd'
d d
Therefore distance covered by A and B in 1 hop is and respectively
4 5
⎛ d⎞ ⎛ d⎞
⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
4 5 ⎛ 3⎞ ⎛ d⎞ ⎛ 4⎞ ⎛ d⎞
A's speed: B's speed = : = ⎜ ⎟ ×⎜ ⎟ : ⎜ ⎟ × ⎜ ⎟ = 15 : 16
⎛ t⎞ ⎛ t ⎞ ⎝ 4⎠ ⎝ t ⎠ ⎝ 5⎠ ⎝ t ⎠
⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
3 4
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5. (a)
‘Ostrich like attitude’ means ‘when you overlook or ignore a problem’.
6. (b)
First of all |x – 3|2 = (x – 3)2, so we have: (x – 3)2 + |x – 3| = 20.
when x < 3, x – 3 is negative, thus |x – 3| = –(x – 3). In this case we will have (x – 3)2 – (x – 3)
= 20
⇒ x = –1 or x = 8.
Discard x = 8 because it’s not in the range we consider (< 3).
when x >= 3, x – 3 is non-negative, thus |x – 3| = x – 3. In this case we will have (x – 3)2 + (x –
3) = 20
⇒ x = –2 or x = 7.
Discard x = –2 because it’s not in the range we consider (> = 3).
Thus there the two solutions: x = –1 and x = 7
⇒ The sum = 6.
7. (a)
1800 1800
Number of trials = = = 15
150 − 30 120
Let us take 14 trials of sliding up
For every trial of these 14 trials, its effective upward movement is (150 – 30) = 120 cm
⎛ 1⎞
The time taken for this = ⎜⎝ 14 × 1 + 14 × ⎟⎠ = 21 minutes
2
Total distance = (14 × 120) = 1680 cm
Remaining = 1800 – 1680 = 120 cm
( 60 × 120 ) = 48 seconds
Remaining 120 cm it can reach in
150
Total time = 21 minutes 48 seconds
8. (b)
Total ways of arranging 5 letters in any possible order = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 5! = 120
In half of the cases A will be to the left of B and in other half A will be to the right of B
120
Hence, desired outcome = = 60
2
9. (b)
This is a situation in which there is the same relationship, respect, between any possible pair of
people in the group. This is a saturation that calls for the structure “each other” or “one another”.
Choice (a) doesn’t use this, and what is used is very wordy and awkward, so it is incorrect.
These structures, “each other” and “one another”, demand a plural subject. Choices (c) and (d)
make the mistake of using a singular subject, so these are incorrect.
Option (b) is the right answer.
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10. (d)
Factorial of the positive integers greater than 5 is divisible by 18.
So, we have to find out the remainder when 1!+2!+3!+4!+5!(= 153)is divided by 18. (All other
terms yield zero remainder)
So, Remainder = 9.
11. (2000)
Let Percentage Profit/Loss = x and Cost Price = C
Now, C + xC = 1920
C – xC = 1280
Solving for C ⇒ 2C = 3200 ⇒ C = 1600
Sale Price with 25% profit ⇒ 1.25 × 1600 = 2000.
12. (b)
9 AM of 14th August to 2 PM on 18th August = 101 hours
⎛ 15 ⎞
⎜⎝ 24 + ⎟⎠ hours of incorrect clock = 24 hours of correct clock
60
96
1 hour of incorrect clock = hours of correct clock
97
96
101 hours of incorrect clock = × 101 hours of correct clock
97
= 99 hours and approx 58 minutes
So, correct time will be
2 PM, 14th August + (99 hours and 58 minutes) = 12:58 PM on 18th August
13. (c)
The length of the hypotenuse of the triangle is the length of one of the sides multiplied by 2,
i.e. 9 2 feet. Therefore the area of the square is 9 2 × 9 2 = 81 × 2 = 162 sq. feet.
The area of the triangle must be exactly one quarter of the area of the square. If you don’t see
that directly, imagine the triangle being flipped down into the square. Therefore, the total
⎛ 162 ⎞
area is ⎜⎝ 162 + ⎟ sq. feet = 202.5 sq feet.
4 ⎠
14. (16)
Farmer works for 5 + 4 = 9 days
9 3
If he completes entire work in 12 days, he will finish or th work in 9 days.
12 4
3 1
Remaining work, 1 − = , is done by daughter in 4 days..
4 4
1
So if daughter does work in 4 days, she will complete the whole work in 4 × 4 = 16 days.
4
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15. (d)
n ( n + 1) n ( n + 1)
We will be required to get the value of n such that = 100. If n = 13, = 91 which
2 2
means that 100th digit will be occupied by 14th set of digits or it will be equal to 4.
16. (b)
‘Armchair traveller’ = Someone who reads books or watches TV programmes about other
places and countries, but doesn’t actually travel anywhere. “Born with a silver spoon” = born
into a very rich family. “A big fish in a small pond” = an important or highly-ranked person in
a small group or organisation. Since, the sentence does not contain any reference about
travelling, (1) cannot be true here.
17. (b)
The statements given in option (b) lead to the required conclusions.
Cottages
Horses Blemish
(a) Glances Horses
(b) Glances Cottage
Blemishes
In this scenario conclusion II does not follow In this scenario both the conclusions are true
Cottages
Blemishes
(c) Cottages
Horses Glances Blemishes (d) Horses Glances
In this case we see that neither of the conclusions is true In this scenario conclusion I does not follow
18. (d)
The probability that a green ball is transferred from A to B and a green ball is transferred from
⎛ 6⎞ ⎛ 5⎞ 30
.
vessel B to vessel A, Pgreen, green = ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ × ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ =
10 11 110
⎛ 6⎞ ⎛ 6⎞ 36
.
Similarly other cases, Pgreen, red = ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ × ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ =
10 11 110
⎛ 4⎞ ⎛ 4⎞ 16
Pred, green = ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ × ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ =
10 11 110
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⎛ 4⎞ ⎛ 7⎞ 28
Pred, red = ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ × ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ =
10 11 110
Probability of drawing a green ball from vessel A after the transfers in these four cases are
6 5 7 6
, , , respectively.
10 10 10 10
Therefore the required probability
⎛ 30 ⎞ ⎛ 6 ⎞ ⎛ 5 ⎞ ⎛ 36 ⎞ ⎛ 7 ⎞ ⎛ 16 ⎞ ⎛ 6 ⎞ ⎛ 28 ⎞ 32
= ⎜⎝ ⎟ ×⎜ ⎟ +⎜ ⎟ ×⎜ ⎟ +⎜ ⎟ ×⎜ ⎟ +⎜ ⎟ ×⎜ ⎟=
110 ⎠ ⎝ 10 ⎠ ⎝ 10 ⎠ ⎝ 110 ⎠ ⎝ 10 ⎠ ⎝ 110 ⎠ ⎝ 10 ⎠ ⎝ 110 ⎠ 55
19. (b)
The time required by individual to complete one revolution is
7 7 7 7
, , , hours
4 3 9 3.5
7 7 7 2
To reach at starting point, the time required is LCM of , , and hours.
4 3 9 1
LCM (7, 7, 7, 2)
= HCF(4,3,9,1) = 14 hours
After 14 hours, all 4 will be at starting point.
or, 6 + 14 = 20 = 8 PM
all will be at starting point.
20. 1.253 (1.2 to 1.3)

Let the number of matches in which he was in the team of starting 11 be x and the matches in
which he came on as a substitute be y.
Thus, x + y = 388 ...(i)
Number of goals scored in matches in which he was in the team of starting 11 = Average ×
number of matches = 1.5x
Number of goals scored in matches in which he came on as a substitute = 0.5y
Thus, 1.5x = 0.5y + 390 ...(ii)
Solving both equations for x and y, we have x = 292 and y = 96
So, the total number of goals scored by him = 1.5 × 292 + 0.5 × 96 = 486 goals
Therefore, average number of goals scored per match = 486 ÷ 388 = 1.253
21. (c)
At present,
Let the members be M, N, O and P
Where age of P > O > N > M
Since P died after 5 years at the age of 88. So, present age of P = 88 – 5 = 83
Youngest member = M = 14 years
N + O + P = 54 × 3
N + O = 162 – 83 = 79 ...(i) (O > N)
10 years after the death of P means 15 years hence from present, let Q be born.
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20 years from present means at that time Q = 5 years and is youngest.
Eldest member at that time = O (age = O + 20)
(O + 20) – 5 = 57
O = 57 – 15 = 42 years
So, N = 79 – 42 = 37 years
After 5 years, members alive are = M, N, O
M = 14 + 5 = 19 years
N = 37 + 5 = 42 years
O = 42 + 5 = 47 years
Required ages of N and O are 42 and 47.
22. (b)
23. (d)
It would be easier if we visualize this problem. As sphere is inscribed in cube then the edges
of the cube equal to the diameter of sphere,
Diameter = 10 units
Next, Diagonal of a cube = 102 + 10 2 + 102 = 10 3.

Now, half of (Diagonal minus Diameter) is the gap between the vertex of cube and surface
of the sphere, which will be the shortest distance:
Diagonal − Diameter 10 3 − 10
x =
2
=
2
=5 ( 3 −1 )
24. (c)
K
Let us assume k = and the cost price = C
100
⎛ K ⎞ ⎛ K ⎞
Based on S1, we can write C × ⎜ 1 + ⎟ − C × ⎜1 − ⎟ = 2560
⎝ 100 ⎠ ⎝ 100 ⎠
2CK
i.e. = 2560 or Ck = 1280 which does not give the value of k or K. Hence Statement 1 is NOT
100
sufficient.
Based on S2, C × 0.075 = K which gives C = 40K/3 = 4000k/3 which will NOT give the value of
k or K.
When we combine the information given in both the statements, we will be able to find C as
well as k or K. Hence option (c) is the correct option.
25. (c)

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Day 2 : Q.26 to Q. 50 : Civil Engineering
Q.26 A gravity dam of height 80 m and base width of 60 m, have upstream and downstream
water depth of 70 m and 5 m respectively. If the drainage gallery is provided at 10 m from
heel of dam, the uplift pressure acting on the dam per unit length (due to seepage pressure
only) is _________ kN.
Q.27 The discharge required to irrigate the strip of area 0.4 ha in 70 minutes with the average depth
of water in a field 6 cm is _________ m3/s.
[Take average rate of infiltration, f = 8 cm/hr]
Q.28 A block of mass 5 kg placed on a horizontal surface is being pushed by a force making an angle
of 45° with the vertical. If the friction coefficient is 0.25, the force (in Newton) needed to get
the block just started is ________.
Q.29 A sliding gate 5 m wide and 2 m high lies in a vertical plane and has a coefficient of friction of
0.2 between itself and guides. The weight of gate is 19.6 kN and its upper edge is at a depth of
10 m from water surface. The vertical force required to raise the gate is _________ kN.
10 m
2m
Gate
Q.30 The results of a traffic study is given in the form of a frequency distribution table.
Speed Range Frequency

2−6 2
7 − 11 5
12 − 14 1
15 − 19 8
The ratio of time mean speed to space mean speed is ___________.
Q.31 Virat Kohli and MS Dhoni driving Mercedeze and BMW respectively, are approaching from
opposite directions on a roadway. Data is tabulated below
Mercedeze BMW
Speed 220 kmph 180 kmph
Reaction time 2.0 sec 3.0 sec
Coefficient of friction 0.7 0.7
Brake efficiency 80% 75%
Minimum sight distance required to avoid head on collision of two cars is ______________ m.
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Q.32 In the Marshall method of mix design, the coarse aggregates, fine aggregates, filler and bitumen,
having respective specific gravities of 2.5, 2.6, 2.7 and 1.02 are mixed in the ratio of 55, 35, 4
and 6 percent respectively. The theoretical specific gravity of the mix would be
(a) 2.282 (b) 2.300
(c) 2.335 (d) 2.565
Q.33 At a rotary intersection, the proportion of weaving traffic as compared to the total traffic at
the weaving section is 0.8. The entry and exit width at rotary is 10 m. The capacity of rotary is
______________ PCU . Assume width of weaving section to be one lane more than average exit
hour
and entry width and length of weaving section to be four times the width of weaving section.
Q.34 The safe stopping sight distance on a flat highway section is 100 m and setback distance is of
10 m. The radius of the negotiable horizontal curve is
(a) 90 m (b) 100 m
(c) 111 m (d) 130 m
Q.35 For lane A, critical lane volume and saturation flow are 400 PCU/hr and 1250 PCU/hr
respectively and for lane B, critical lane volume and saturation flow are 200 PCU/hr and
800 PCU/hr respectively. All red time for pedestrian crossing is 12 seconds. The two phase
signal cycle length (in multiple of tens) is ___________ seconds. Assume start-up loss time to be
2 seconds for each phase.
Q.36 In a heavy rainfall area a 2 lane cement concrete road is constructed with parabolic camber.
The equation of road cross-section is given by
[Take width of road = 7 m and camber for cement concrete road = 1 in 50]
x2 x2
(a) y = (b) y =
175 350
x2 x2
(c) y = (d) y =
140 280
Q.37 An ascending gradient of 1 in 100 meets a descending gradient of 1 in 120. A summit curve is
to be designed for a speed of 100 kmph so as to have an overtaking sight distance of 490 m.
The length of summit curve provided is _________ m.
Q.38 On a section of a highway the speed density relationship is exponential and is given by
−k
V = 80 e 180 , where V is in kmph and k is in vehicle/km. The capacity of this section of highway
is _______ veh/hr.
Q.39 A dual wheel assembly is carrying 2004 kg load on each for a pavement thickness of 20 cm. If
the centre to centre tyre spacing is 20 cm and distance between the walls of the tyres is 11 cm
then equivalent single wheel load (ESWL) at bottom of pavement is ________ kg.
Q.40 A valley curve is formed on a highway of design speed 80 kmph. A descending gradient of 1
in 25 meets an ascending gradient of 1 in 20. The length of curve should be ________ m.
[Take coefficient of friction as 0.40]
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Q.41 In a Marshall sample, the bulk specific gravity of mix and aggregates are 2.324 and 2.546
respectively. The sample includes 5% of bitumen (by total weight of mix) of specific gravity
1.10. The theoretical maximum specific gravity of mix is 2.441. The void filled with bitumen
(VFB) in the Marshall sample (in %) is _______.
Q.42 The following observations were made of an axle-load survey on a road:

Axle load (kN) Repetitions per day
35-45 800
75-85 400
The standard axle-load is 80 kN. Equivalent daily number of repetitions for the standard
axle-load are
(a) 450 (b) 480
(c) 800 (d) 1200
Q.43 The queue length (in number of vehicles) versus time (in seconds) plot for an approach to a
signalized intersection with the cycle length of 96 seconds is shown in the figure (not drawn to
scale).
Queue
length
10
0 Time
0 60 90 96
Eff. red time Eff. green time
At time, t = 0, the light has just turned red. The effective green time is 36 seconds, during
which vehicles discharge at the saturation flow rate, s (in vph). Vehicles arrive at a uniform
rate, v (in vph), throughout the cycle. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(a) v = 600 vph, and for this cycle, the average stopped delay per vehicle = 30 seconds.
(b) s = 1800 vph, and for this cycle, the average stopped delay per vehicle = 28.125 seconds.
(c) v = 600 vph, and for this cycle, the average stopped delay per vehicle = 45 seconds.
(d) s = 1200 vph, and for this cycle, the average stopped delay per vehicle = 28.125 seconds.
Q.44 It is proposed to widen an existing 2-lane N.H. section to a 4-lane divided road. Calculate the
cumulative number of standard axles to be carried during design life of 20 years from the
following data :
1. Initial traffic in each direction in the year of completion of construction = 5000 cvpd.
2. Traffic growth rate = 7%.
3. Vehicle damage factor = 4.
(a) 279.5 msa (b) 190.15 msa
(c) 163.75 msa (d) 224.45 msa
Q.45 The CBR value of soil subgrade is 5%, wheel load for medium light traffic of 250 commercial
vehicles per day is 4100 kg and tyre pressure is 6.5 kg/cm2. The total thickness of the pavement
required is
(a) 35.13 cm (b) 46.83 cm
(c) 30.69 cm (d) 39.67 cm
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.46 Traffic flow equation for a section of road is ‘u’ = 80 – 0.6k, where ‘u’ is the speed in kmph and
‘k’ is the density in vehicle per km. The maximum expected flow is
(a) 3666 vph (b) 3333 vph
(c) 2866 vph (d) 2666 vph
Q.47 An observer counts 240 veh/h at a specific highway location. Assume that the vehicle arrival at
the location is Poisson distributed, the probability of having one vehicle arriving over a 30-
second time interval is _______.
Q.48 An observer vehicle travelling along the traffic stream on a 3 kilometer stretch is passed by
30 vehicles more than that it passes and the same vehicle at the same speed travelling
against the stream meets 240 vehicles. If the constant speed of observer vehicle is 60 kmph
then the flow of the traffic stream is ____________ vehicles per hour.
Q.49 The runway length of an airport located at 450 m above MSL, corrected for elevation, is 3720 m.
The monthly mean of maximum and mean daily temperature for the hottest month of the year
are 30°C and 15°C, respectively. The final length of runway with correction incorporated also
due to temperature effects, will be ___________ m.
Q.50 A locomotive on BG track with four pairs of driving wheels each carrying axle load of 22
tonnes is required to haul a train at a speed of 75 kmph. The train is made to run on a level
1
track with curvature of 2°. Taking hauling capacity as times of the load on driving wheels,
6
calculate the maximum permissible load that can be pulled by the engine.
(a) 1270 tonnes (b) 1070 tonnes
(c) 1245 tonnes (d) 1045 tonnes

for GATE 2020 CE
26. 12507.75 (12490 to 12515)
10 m
70 m
5m
A B C
50 m
10 m
U1 U2
2
5γw = 49.05 kN/m
2
5γw + 1/3 + (70 – 5)γw = 261.6 kN/m
2
70γw = 686.7 kN/m
U = U1 + U2
At A → 70 γw = 70 × 9.81 → 686.7 kN/m2
1
At B → 5 γ w + × (70 − 5)γ w → 261.6 kN/m2
3
At C → 5γw → 5 × 9.81 → 49.05 kN/m2
686.7 + 261.6
U1 → × 10 = 4741.5 kN /m
2
261.6 + 49.05
U2 → × 50 = 7766.25 kN /m
2
U = U1 + U2 = 4741.5 + 7766.25
= 12507.75 kN/m
= 12507.75 kN for unit length
27. 0.10 (0.10 to 0.12)

y  Q 
t = 2.303 log 10 
f  Q − fA 
70 0.06  Q 
= 2.303 × log 10 
60 0.08  Q − 0.08 × 4000 
Q
= 4.7364
Q − 320
Q = 4.7364Q – 1515.65
= 405.644 m3/hr
= 0.112 m3/s
for GATE 2020 CE
28. 23.126 (22.5 to 24)
In the limiting equilibrium, F
N
45°
The frictional force ‘fs’ will be equal to µN.
For horizontal equilibrium,
F sin θ = µN
Fs = µN
⇒ F sin 45 = 0.25 N
⇒ N = 2.828 F
For vertical equilibrium, mg
F cos θ + mg = N
⇒ F cos 45 + 5 × 9.81 = 2.828 F
⇒ 2.121 F = 49.05
⇒ F = 23.126 N
29. 235.42 (232 to 238) FV
F = ρghA
 2
F = 10 3 × 9.81 ×  10 +  × (2 × 5)
 2
F = 1079.1 kN µN
F = N = 1079.1 kN F
∴ Fv = mg + µN
= 19.6 + 0.2 × 1079.1
= 235.42 kN
mg
30. 1.26 (1.20 to 1.30)
qi
Speed Range Mean Frequency Vi q i
Vi
2−6 4 2 8 0.5
7 − 11 9 5 45 0.555
12 − 14 13 1 13 0.0769
15 − 19 17 8 136 0.47
Total 16 202 1.60
∑ q iV i 202
Time mean speed, Vt = = = 12.625
∑ qi 16
∑ qi 16
Space mean speed, Vs = = = 10
 q i  1.6
∑ 
 Vi 
12.625
Ratio of time mean speed to space mean speed = 1.26
10
for GATE 2020 CE
31. 855.68 (850.00 to 860.00)
Mercedeze BMW
SDMer SD BMW
SD
Stopping distance = SDMer + SDBMW

2
VMer
Stopping distance for Mercedeze = ( 0.278 VMer ) t +
254 f
220 2
= 0.278 × 220 × 2 +
254 × 0.7 × 0.8
= 462.59 m
180 2
Stopping distance for BMW = 0.278 × 180 × 3 + = 393.09 m
254 × 0.7 × 0.75
∴Total stopping distance required = 462.59 + 393.09
= 855.68 m
32. (c)
The theoretical specific gravity of the mix is
100
Gt = 55 35 = 2.335
4 6
+ + +
2.5 2.6 2.7 1.02
33. 3861 (3800 to 3900)

 e  p
280 W  1 +   1 −
 W 3 
Q = W
1+
L
10 + 10
e = = 10 m
2
W = 10 + 3.5 = 13.5 m
L = 4W = 4 × 13.5 = 54 m
 10   0.8 
280 × 13.5  1 +   1 − 
 13.5 3 
Q =
13.5
1+
54
= 3860.27 3861 PCU/hour
for GATE 2020 CE
34. (d)
By property of circle: 10 m
L 2 L/2 L/2
= (2R – 10) × 10
4
100 2 2R – 10
⇒ = 10 (2R – 10)
4
⇒ 250 = 2R – 10
⇒ R = 130 m
35. (70)
1.5L + 5 1.5 ( nt L + R ) + 5
C = =
1−Y  400 200 
1− +
 1250 800 
1.5 ( 2 × 2 + 12 ) + 5
C = = 67.44 sec
 400 200 
1− +
 1250 800 
C 70 seconds (in multiple of tens)
36. (a)
∵ For heavy rainfall area, camber for cement concrete road = 1 in 50
Equation of parabolic camber is,
2x 2
⇒ y = , W = 2 × 3.5 = 7 m, n = 50 
nW
2x 2 x2
⇒ y = =
50 × 7 175
x2
∴ y =
175
37. 455.41 (450 to 460)

1 1
Given: n1 = , n2 = −
100 120
 1 1 
∴ N = (n1 – n2) =  +  = 0.0183
100 120 
V = 100 kmph OSD = 490 m
Let L > OSD
NS 2 0.0183 × 490 2
L = = = 457.69 m
9.6 9.6
457.69 < 490 m (Criteria not satisfied)
L < OSD
9.6
∴ Ls = 2S −
N
9.6
⇒ 490 × 2 − = 455.41 m < OSD (= 490 m) (OK)
0.0183
Therefore, length of summit curve is 455.41 m.
for GATE 2020 CE
38. 5297.46 (5296 to 5299)
−k
V = 80 e 180
q = kV
−k
q = ( k ) × 80e 180
−k −k
dq 1
= 80 × e 180 + ( k ) × 80 e 180 × −
dk 180
dq
For maximum flow, = 0
dk
⇒ k = 180 veh/km
−180
80 × 180
q = 80 × e 180 × 180 = = 5297.46 veh/hr
e
39. 3146.04 (3142 to 3150)

d = 11 cm, S = 20 cm, P = 2004 kg
log scale
2P
P′
d
= 5.5 cm 20 cm 2S = 40 cm log scale
2
log ( 2 P) − log ( P) log ( P′ ) − log ( P)

∵ =
 d  d
log ( 2S) − log   log ( 20) − log  
 2  2
 P′ 
log  
log 2  P
⇒ =
 40   20 
log  log  
 5.5   5.5 
P′ = 3146.04 kg
for GATE 2020 CE
40. 223.69 (220 to 226)
Given, V = 80 kmph = 22.22 m/s
1 1  1 1
N = n1 − n 2 = − − = +  × 100 = 9%
25 20  25 20 
(i) Length of curve by comfort criteria
1/2 1/2
 NV 3   0.09 × 22.22 3 
= 2×  =2× 
 C   0.6 
= 81.13 m
22.22 2
(ii) SSD = 22.22 × 2.5 + = 118.46 m
2 × 9.81 × 0.4
Assuming L > SSD,
NS 2 0.09 × 118.46 2
L = =
1.5 + 0.035S 1.5 + 0.035 × 118.46
= 223.69 > 118.46 (assumption is correct)
⇒ Length of valley curve = 223.69
41. 68.79 (67 to 70)
Gt − G m 2.441 − 2.324
Vv = × 100 = × 100
Gt 2.441
= 4.79%
Percentage volume of bitumen,
Wb (%) 5
Vb = Gm × = 2.324 × = 10.56%
Gb 1.1
VMA = Vv + Vb = 4.79 + 10.56 = 15.35%
Vb (%) 10.56
∴ VFB = × 100 = × 100 = 68.79%
VMA 15.35
42. (a)
From fourth power low
4
 L0 
Equivalent axle load factor, (EALF) =  
 Ls 
Axle load Avg. axle load Repetitions per day

35 − 45 40 800
75 − 85 80 400
Total no. of repetitions in terms of standard axle load of 80 kN
4 4
 40   80 
=   × 800 +   × 400 = 450
80 80
for GATE 2020 CE
43. (b)
Cumulative arrival/departure
Queue C
16
length B
15
10
10
Depar
al
-ture
iv
v
rr
v (S)
A
E D
A
60 90 96
60 90 96 Time (sec)
Time (sec) Arrival curve : ABC
Departure curve : EBC
11
v = × 3600 = 600 vehicles/hr
60
15
s = × 3600 = 1800 vehicles/hr
30
(Area of arrival curve ) − (Area of departure curve )
Average delay = No. of vehicles
1  1  15 + 16  
 × 16 × 96 −  × 15 × 30 +   × 6 
2  2 2 
=
16
= 28.125 seconds
44. (d)
Cumulative number of standard axles,
365 (1 + r ) n − 1
Ns = × A×D×F
r
For four lane divided highway, lane distribution factor = 0.75
365 (1 + 0.07) 20 − 1
∴ Ns = × 5000 × 0.75 × 4
0.07
= 224.45 msa
45. (a)
1.75P P
Pavement thickness, t = −
CBR% pπ
Here, P = 4100 kg, p = 6.5 kg/cm2, CBR = 5%
1.75 × 4100 4100

∴ t = − = 35.13 cm
5 6.5π
for GATE 2020 CE
46. (d)
u = 80 – 0.6k
Flow, q = ku = (80 – 0.6k)k
= 80k – 0.6k2
Differentiating above equation and equating it to zero to get maximum flow,
dq
= 80 – 1.2k = 0
dk
80
⇒ k = = 66.67
1.2
∴ The maximum expected flow is,
qmax = 80 × (66.67) – 0.6 (66.67)2
= 2666.67 vph
2666 vph
47. 0.2707 (0.23 to 0.3)
e −λt . ( λt )
n
P(n, t) =
n!
Here, λ = Number of vehicles = 240 vehicle/km
−240 × 30 1
 240 
e 3600
 × 30 
3600 
P(1, 30) =
1!
= 2.e–2 = 0.2707
48. (2700)
Flow of traffic stream (q) by floating car method is
na + ny
q =
ta + tw
na = 240, ny = 30
3 1
ta = tw = = hrs
60 20
240 + 30
q = = 2700 vehicles per hour
1 1
+
20 20
for GATE 2020 CE
49. 4014.81 (4010 to 4020)
Final corrected length of runway = 3720 m + L
where, L = Length incorporated due to temperature effect
Runway length
⇒ L = × (Airport reference temp. – Standard temp.)
100
 Tm − Ta 
Airport reference temp. = Ta +  
 3 
 30 − 15 
= 15 +   = 20°C
 3 
Standard temperature = 15° – 0.0065 × 450 = 12.075°C
3720
∴ L = ( 20 − 12.075 ) = 294.81 m
100
So, final corrected length = 3720 m + 294.81 m
= 4014.81 m
50. (c)
Hauling capacity = µWn
1
= × 22 × 4 tonnes
6
Resistance calculations:
(1) Resistance independent of speed = Rt = 0.0016W
1
(2) Resistance dependent of speed = Rt = 0.00008WV
2
(3) Atmospheric resistance = Rt = 0.0000006WV 2
3
(4) Resistance due to curve, RC = 0.0004W × D
Total resistance, R = Rt + Rt + Rt + Rc
1 2 3
To move the train,
Hauling capacity ≥ R
To find train load,
Hauling capacity = R
1
∴ × 22 × 4 = 0.0016 × W +0.00008 × W × 75 + 0.0000006 × W × (75)2 + 0.0004 × W × 2
6
⇒ W = 1245.577 tonnes

Revision CE
through Questions CIVIL ENGINEERING
forGATE 2020 Q.51 - Q.75

out of 200 Questions
Day 3 of 8
PSU & Govt. Jobs
ONGC, IOCL, NTPC, CIL, SAIL, BPCL, GAIL,

NLC, HPCL, OIL, PGCIL, HAL, NMDC, NALCO, MDL, AAI,
NPCIL, DDA, Electricity Boards and many more . . .
Management Courses Research Oriented Jobs
DRDO, BARC, etc.

PGDIE/PGDM/PGDMM from NITIE
GATE
Gateway for
Engineers
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Dual Degree M.Tech + Ph.D Course from IISc, IITs, CSIR
SUBJECTWISE WEIGHTAGE ANALYSIS OF GATE SYLLABUS

Irrigation Subject Average % (last 5 yrs)
Building 1.20%
material Engg. Railway &
Mechanic Reasoning, Aptitude and English 15.00%
1.30% Airport Engg.
1.20% 0.50% Soil Mechanics 14.10%
PERT-
Open CPM Engineering Mathematics 12.40%
Channel 1.10%
Flow Reasoning, Aptitude Environmental Engineering 10.20%
3.00% & English
Hydrology 15.00% Highway Engineering 8.10%
3.20% Strength of Materials 5.80%
Steel
4.00% Surveying Engineering 5.10%
Structure Fluid Mechanics & Fluid Machines 5.00%
4.30%
Soil Reinforced Cement Concrete 4.50%
RCC Mechanics
4.50% 14.10% Structural Analysis 4.30%
Steel Structures 4.00%
FM Engineering Hydrology 3.20%
5.00%
Open Channel Flow 3.00%
Building Materials 1.30%
Surveying Irrigation Engineering 1.20%
5.10%
Maths
Engineering Mechanics 1.20%
SOM 12.40%
5.80% Construction Management (PERT-CPM) 1.10%
Railway & Airport Engineering 0.50%
Highway
Environmental
8.10%
Engg.
Total 100%
10.20%
for GATE 2020 CE
Day 3 : Q.51 to Q. 75 : Strength of Materials + RCC
Q.51 For a given steel cube section subjected to three dimensional state of principal stress.
2
75 N/mm Y
2
150 N/mm
2
30 N/mm
Z
Consider yield stress = 250 N/mm2, and μ = 0.3

The value of factor of safety according to maximum strain energy theory _________.
Q.52 If E is the shear centre of the given channel section then the value of e is ________ cm.
[Take Ixx = 300 cm4]
2 cm
2 cm
E 10 cm
e
2 cm
7 cm
Q.53 A metal rod is subjected to a tensile stress of 100 MPa. The shear stress on a plane inclined to
its longitudinal axis is 40 MPa as shown in figure. Determine the inclination of the normal to
this plane with the longitudinal axis.
y
z
100 MPa
40 MPa
(a) 46.32° (b) 55.87°
(c) 63.44° (d) 69.18°
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.54 For the frame as shown in figure, determine the vertical deflection of the free end.
C
P
R
B
O
A
3 2
PR π PR L PR 3 π 2 PRL2
(a) + (b) +
4EI EI 4EI EI
PR 3 π 2 PR 2 L
(c) (d)
4EI 2EI
Q.55 In a two dimensional stress analysis, the state of stress at a point is shown below. If σ = 120
MPa and τ = 70 MPa, σx and σy, are respectively,
y
AB = 4
BC = 3
AC = 5 τ s
σx
C A
B x
σy
(a) 26.7 MPa and 172.5 MPa (b) 54 MPa and 128 MPa
(c) 67.5 MPa and 213.3 MPa (d) 16 MPa and 138 MPa
Q.56 A rigid bar AB is hinged at A and supported by a copper rod 2 m long and steel rod 1 m long.
The bar carries a load of 20 kN at D as shown below.
Copper Rod
2m
1m
A B
20 kN
1m 2m 1m
If the cross-sectional area of steel and copper rods are 200 mm2 and 400 mm2 respectively, then
the stresses developed in steel rod and copper rod respectively are
[Take, Esteel = 200 GPa and Ecopper = 100 GPa]
(a) 100 MPa and 50 MPa (b) 54.55 MPa and 72.73 MPa
(c) 72.73 MPa and 54.55 MPa (d) 50 MPa and 100 MPa
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.57 If a solid circular shaft is required to carry a torque of 60 kNm and a bending moment of
30 kNm then the size of shaft using Tresca’s theory of failure is
[Take modulus of elasticity = 200 GPa, Poisson’s ratio = 0.3, Yield stress = 250 MPa and factor of
safety = 3]
(a) 254 mm (b) 202 mm
(c) 178 mm (d) 190 mm
Q.58 A rectangular beam 400 mm deep and 300 mm wide is simply supported over a span of 4 m. If
the bending stress in the beam is not to exceed 120 MPa then the value of uniformly distributed
load that the beam can carry is ________ kN/m.
Q.59 The compound shaft shown is built in at the two ends. It is subjected to a twisting moment T
at the middle. The magnitude of ratio of the reaction torques T2 to T1 at the ends is ______________.
T
A d 2d C
(1) (2)
B
l l
Q.60 A member is formed by connecting a steel bar to an aluminium bar as shown in figure. When
the bars are prevented from buckling sideways on the application of a gradual load, the
total length of the member gets decreased by 0.20 mm. The work done by the load is
__________ Nm. [Take Es = 2 × 105 N/mm2 and Eal = 0.7 × 105 N/mm2]
20 mm dia.
Steel
0.5 m
Aluminium
0.5 m
50 mm dia.
⎡ 50 30 ⎤
Q.61 Which of the following Mohr’s circle represents the given 2-D stress matrix: ⎢ ⎥ MPa
⎣ 30 −15 ⎦
(a) –σ +σ (b) –σ +σ
(c) –σ +σ (d) –σ +σ
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.62 Two people weighing W each are sitting on a plank of length L floating on water at L/4 from
either end. Neglecting the weight of the plank, the bending moment at the centre of the plank is
WL WL
(a) (b)
8 16
WL
(c) (d) zero
32
Q.63 In a doubly reinforced concrete section of effective depth 500 mm, the neutral axis is 200 mm
above the centre of tensile reinforcement. The compression reinforcement is placed at 50 mm
below the extreme compression fibre. If the compressive stress in the extreme compression
fibre is 5 N/mm2 then the stress in compression steel is _________ N/mm2. [Take m = 13]
Q.64 A solid shaft is subjected to a bending moment of 300 Nm and a twisting moment of 225 Nm.
The minimum diameter of the shaft, according to the maximum principal strain theory, should
be _________ mm.
[Take σy = 210 N/mm2, factor of safety = 2 and μ = 0.25]
Q.65 A slender bar AB with pinned ends is held between immovable supports as shown in the
figure below. Increase in temperature ΔT of the bar that will produce buckling at the Euler’s
load is ____________ °C.
Given
L=3m where,
α = 12 × 10–6 / °C α is coefficient of thermal expansion
d = 50 mm d = Diameter of the bar
Q.66 A compound beam is composed of a beam AB (simply supported A) and a cantilever beam BC
(fixed at C). The two beams are linked together by a pin connection at B as shown in figure.
pin
P
connection
w kN/m
A
C
B
2a a
b
3 3
wb 4 Pb 3
Deflection at B = +
MEI NEI
The value of (M + N ) = ___________.
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.67 Determine the safe axial load for a short circular column 400 mm diameter reinforced with 6
bars of 25 mm diameter. It is provided with 8 mm φ helical reinforcement at a pitch of 45 mm
center to center. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel. [Take clear cover as 40 mm]
(a) 1109.8 kN (b) 1560.8 kN
(c) 1890.7 kN (d) 2101.3 kN
Q.68 A rectangular footing of size 5 m × 7 m is acted upon by a loading of 300 kN. Also due to wind
loads a moment of 200 kNm and 350 kNm act in x and y direction respectively. The effective
stress on the footing is taken as
(a) 8.5 kPa (b) 17.5 kPa
(c) 15.5 kPa (d) 20.5 kPa
Q.69 A prestressed concrete beam with a cross section of 300 mm width and 600 mm depth, is 12 m
long. It carries a load of 12 kN/m inclusive of its self weight. It is prestressed with 2000 mm2
high tensile steel wires located at 175 mm from soffit. The cable profile is straight for full
length of the beam and it is stressed to a level of 800 N/mm2. It is bonded to concrete. The
eccentricity of thrust line at mid span in the beam is
⎡ Es ⎤
⎢ Take E = 6.0 ⎥
⎣ c ⎦
(a) 10 mm (b) 12 mm
(c) 20 mm (d) 60 mm
Q.70 A beam with four 32 mm bars as main tension steel has two of its bars symmetrically bent a the
ends of the beam at 45°. The design shear force (in kN) to be resisted by the stirrups, if the
factored shear force at critical section is 420 kN, is __________.
Assume, b = 350 mm, d = 550 mm, f ck = 25 and f y = 415 N/mm 2. τ c,max = 3.1 N/mm 2,
τc = 0.6 N/mm2
Q.71 Consider a rectangular RC beam with the following data:

Effective width = 300 mm, Effective depth = 800 mm, Overall depth = 850 mm, Factored bending
moment = 200 kNm, Factored shear force = 100 kN, Factored torsional moment = 95 kNm,
Characteristic strength of concrete = 20 MPa and Yield strength of steel = 415 MPa.
What will be the equivalent shear and equivalent bending moment?
(a) 606.67 kN and 450.84 kN-m (b) 547.33 kN and 485.67 kN-m
(c) 606.67 kN and 414.22 kN-m (d) 547.33 kN and 414.22 kN-m
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.72 A concrete pedestal made of M30 mix is shown in figure below. q0 is the maximum bearing
pressure at the base of the pedestal in MPa. The tan α value in this case will be greater than
Column
Pedestal
α
q0 = 5 MPa
(a) 3.78 (b) 4.24
(c) 5.42 (d) 6.78
Q.73 A reinforced short concrete column axially loaded with 500 mm square cross-section is made
of M20 grade of concrete and has four bars of 22 mm diameter of Fe415 grade steel as
reinforcement. The design load carrying capacity of the column is ____________ kN.
Q.74 The frequency distribution of the compressive strength of 20 concrete cube specimen is given
in the table.
Number of specimens with
f (MPa)
compressive strength equal to f
23 4
28 2
22.5 5
31 5
29 4
If μ is the mean strength of the specimens and σ is the standard deviation, the number of specimens
(out of 20) with compressive strength less than μ − σ is ________.
Q.75 If the effective depth and effective cover of a deep continuous beam is 550 mm and 50 mm
respectively, then its maximum effective length will be
(a) 1100 mm (b) 1300 mm
(c) 1375 mm (d) 1500 mm

for GATE 2020 CE
51. 1.54 (1.50 to 1.60)
As per maximum strain energy theory,
Maximum strain energy ≤ Yield strain energy
(σ y ) 2
≤
2 E(FOS) 2
2
1 ⎡ 2 1 ⎛ σy ⎞
⇒ σ 1 + σ 22 + σ 32 − 2μ(σ 1 σ 2 + σ 2 σ 3 + σ 3 σ 1 )⎤ =
2E ⎣ ⎦ 2E ⎜⎝ FOS ⎟⎠
2
⎛ 250 ⎞
⇒ (75) 2 + (150) 2 + ( −30) 2 − 2(0.3) [(150 × 75) + (75 × −30) + ( −30 × 150)] ≤ ⎜
⎝ FOS ⎟⎠
2
⎛ 250 ⎞
⇒ 26325 ≤ ⎜
⎝ FOS ⎟⎠
250
⇒ FOS = = 1.541
162.25
52. 8.64 (8.5 to 8.8)

tw
E h
e
b
We know that for the channel section,
b 2 h 2t w
e =
4 I xx
b = 6 cm, h = 12 cm, tw = 2 cm
(6) 2 × (12) 2 × 2
e = = 8.64 cm
4 × 300
for GATE 2020 CE
53. (c)
σz + σy ⎛ σz − σy ⎞
∵ σn = +⎜ ⎟⎠ cos 2θ + τ zy sin 2θ
2 ⎝ 2
⎛ σz − σy ⎞
and τ = ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ sin 2θ − τ zy cos 2θ
y
n
40 MPa
θ 90° – θ
z
100 MPa
⎛ 100 − 0 ⎞
∴ τ = ⎜⎝ ⎟ sin 2θ
2 ⎠
⇒ 40 = 50 sin2θ
∴ θ = 26.56°
and 90° – θ = 63.44°
54. (a)
C
R
θ P
dθ
B
O
A
Using unit load method,
dx = Rdθ
Segment Origin M m
AB B PR R
BC C PR sin θ R sin θ
where, m = moment due to unit load applied vertically at C

π /2
PR sin θ· R sin θ ( Rdθ) L PR· R dx
∴ Δ Cv = ∫ EI
+∫
EI
0 0
π /2
PR 3 PR 2 L
=
2EI ∫ (1 − cos 2θ)dθ +
EI
0
PR π P R 2 L
3
= +
4EI EI
for GATE 2020 CE
55. (c)
Let, ∠CAB = θ
3 4 3 y
∴ sin θ = ; cos θ = ; tan θ =
5 5 4 A
Thus from force equilibrium, θ
τ σ
σx × AB = AC × (σ cos θ – τ sin θ)
4 θ
σx
5 ⎛ 4 3⎞ 5
⇒ σx = × ⎜ 120 × − 70 × ⎟
4 ⎝ 5 5⎠
⇒ σx = 67.5 MPa
B x
And, σy × BC = AC × (σ sin θ + τ cos θ) C
σy
5 ⎛
⇒ σy = × 120 × 3 + 70 × 4 ⎞⎟
3 ⎜⎝ 5 5⎠
⇒ σy = 213.3 MPa
56. (c)
PS PC
A B
20 kN
1m 2m 1m
∵ ΣMA = 0
⇒ 1 × Ps + 3 × Pc = 20 × 4
⇒ Ps + 3Pc = 80 ...(i)
PS PC
A C D B
E
20 kN
F
G
ΔACE ∼ ΔADF, we get
AC AD
=
CE DF
1 3
⇒ =
Δs Δc
∴ Δc = 3Δs
Pc L c Ps L s
⇒ = 3×
A c Ec As Es
Pc × 2000 Ps × 1000
⇒ 3
= 3×
400 × 100 × 10 200 × 200 × 10 3
∴ 2Pc = 3Ps ...(ii)
for GATE 2020 CE
Solving eq. (i) and (ii), we get
Ps
Ps + 3 × 3 = 80
2
∴ P s = 14.545 kN
and P c = 21.82 kN
Ps 14.545 × 10 3
So, Stress in steel rod, σs = = = 72.73 MPa
As 200
Pc 21.82 × 10 3
Stress in copper rod, σc = = = 54.55 MPa
Ac 400
57. (b)
16
∵ τmax = M2 + T 2
πD3
16
3 (
30) + ( 60) × 10 6
2 2
=
πD
341.65 × 10 6
=
D3
According to Tresca’s theory,
σy
τmax ≤
FOS × 2
6
341.65 × 10 250
⇒ ≤
D 3 3 ×2
∴ D 202 mm
58. 480 (479.99 to 480.01)
bd 2 300 × ( 400 )
2
Section modulus, Z = = = 80 × 10 5 mm3
6 6
Maximum bending moment in the beam,
wl 2 w × ( 4 )
2
BMmax = = = 2 w kNm
8 8
Moment of resistance,MOR= σmax × Z
= 120 × 80 × 105
= 96 × 107 Nmm
∵ BMmax = MOR
⇒ 2w × 106 = 96 × 107
∴ w = 480 kN/m
for GATE 2020 CE
59. (16)
A d T 2d C
(1) (2)
B
l l
At joint B, θAB = θBC
T1L1 T2 L 2
⇒ =
C1 J 1 C1J2
T1 l T2 l
⇒ =
π (2d )
4 4
πd
G G
32 32
T2
∴ T1 = 16
60. 1.72 (1.7 to 1.8)

20 mm dia.
Steel
0.5 m
Aluminium
0.5 m
50 mm dia.
Let P be the force causing 0.20 mm reduction in length.

π
Area of steel bar, As = (20) 2 = 314.16 mm 2
4
π
Area of aluminium bar, Aa l = (50) 2 = 1963.5 mm 2
4
PL s PL al
Now, + = Δ
As Es A a l E a l
⎡ 500 500 ⎤
⇒ P⎢ + = 0.20
⎣ 314.16 × 2 × 10 5
1963.5 × 0.7 × 10 5 ⎦⎥
⇒ P ⎡⎣ 0.796 × 10 −5 + 0.364 × 10 −5 ⎤⎦ = 0.20
∴ P = 17241.4 N
1
Total work done by P = × Load × Deflection
2
1
= × 17241.4 × 0.20
2
= 1724.14 N mm 1.72 Nm
for GATE 2020 CE
61. (a) τ
σx = 50 MPa, σy = –15 MPa and τxy = 30 MPa a

σ
50 − 15
Abscissa of center of Mohr’s circle, a= = 17.5 r
2
∴Coordinate of center of Mohr’s circle is (17.5, 0)
2
⎛ 50 − ( −15 ) ⎞ 2
Radius of Mohr’s circle, r = ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ + 30 = 44.23
r > a, hence possible case is represented by option (a).

62. (d)
The plank will be balanced by the buoyant force acting under its bottom. Let the intensity of
buoyant force be w.
W W
L/4 L/2 L/4

For equilibrium, w×L=W+W
2W
⇒ w = upwards
L
Thus, the bending moment at the centre of the plank will be,
2W L L L
M = × × −W ×
L 2 4 4
WL WL
⇒ M = − =0
4 4
63. 54.17 (53 to 55)
50 ∈sc
500
N A
200
dis tan ce of compressive steel from N.A 5

Strain in compressive steel, ∈sc = ×
dis tan ce of extreme compressive fibre EC
( 500 − 200 − 50) × 5
=
( 500 − 200) EC
for GATE 2020 CE
250 5
⇒ Stress in compressive steel = ∈sc × Es = × × ES
300 EC
5 25
= ×5×m = × 13 = 54.17 N/ mm2
6 6
64. 32.28 (32.0 to 32.6)

The principal stresses,
16 ⎡
σ1/2 = ⎢
3 ⎣
M ± M 2 + T 2 ⎤⎥
πd ⎦
16 ⎡
= 300 ± ( 300 )2 + ( 225 )2 ⎤⎥ × 10 3
πd 3 ⎣⎢ ⎦
10.8 × 10 6
σ1 =
πd 3
1.2 × 10 6
and σ2 = −
πd 3
According to maximum principal strain theory
σ1 σ σy
−μ 2 ≤
E E E × FOS
10.8 × 10 6 1.2 × 10 6 210

∴ + 0.25 × ≤
πd 3 πd 3 2
∴ d = 32.28 mm
65. 14.28 (14.0 to 14.4)

π2 EI
Pcr = [∵ both ends are pinned, ∴ leff = L)
L2
Axial compressive force in bar
P = (E α ΔT ) × A
P = Pcr
π 2 EI
(E α ΔT ) × A =
L2
π2 I π2 ⎛ π d4 ⎞ ⎡ π d4 πd 2 ⎤
ΔT = = ⎜ 64 ⎟ ⎢∵ I = , A= ⎥
α AL2 πd 2 ⎝ ⎠ 64 4 ⎦
α× × L2 ⎣
4
π 2 ( 50 )
2
π2 d2
= = = 14.28° C
12 × 10 −6 × 16 × ( 3000 )
2
α × 16 × L2
for GATE 2020 CE
66. 12.5 (12.3 to 12.8)
Consider the free body diagrams
2P
P 3
w kN/m
A B
a C
B b
P 2P
3 3
wb 4 ( 2 P/3 ) b
3
wb 4 Pb 3
δB = + = +
8EI 3EI 8EI 4.5EI
∴ M = 8, N = 4.5
∴ M + N = 8 + 4.5 = 12.5
67. (c)
For helical column,
(
P u = 1.05 0.4 f ck Ac + 0.67 f y As )
Check:
Core diameter (dc) = 400 – 40 × 2 = 320 mm
Diameter of circle formed by helical reinforcement, dh = 320 – 8 = 321 mm
Vh ⎛ Ag ⎞ f
≥ 0.36 ⎜ − 1⎟ ck
Vc ⎝ Ac ⎠ fy
⎛π ⎞ ⎛π ⎞
π(312) ⎜ × 8 2 ⎟ (400) 2
⎝4 ⎠ ⎜4 ⎟ 20
π ≥ 0.36 ⎜ − 1⎟
2
× (320) × 45 π 2 415
⎜⎝ (320) ⎟⎠
4 4
0.0136 ≥ 0.00976 (OK)
⎡ ⎛π 2 π 2⎞⎤
⎢ 0.4 × 20 × ⎜⎝ 4 (400) − 6 × 4 (25) ⎟⎠ ⎥
∴ Pu = 1.05 ⎢ ⎥
⎢ π 2 ⎥
⎢⎣ +0.67 × 415 × 6 × 4 (25) ⎥⎦
= 1890.7 kN
68. (b)
M x 200
ex = = = 0.67 m
P 300
My
350
ey = =
= 1.17 m
P 300
A′ = (B – 2ex) (L – 2ey)
= (5 – 2 × 0.67) (7 – 2 × 1.17)
= 17.06 m2
300
σ′ = = 17.58 kPa
17.06
for GATE 2020 CE
69. (a)
Bending moment at mid span,
wl 2 12 × (12) 2
M = = = 216 kNm
8 8
Prestressing force, P = Ast × fs = 2000 × 800 N = 1600 kN
M 216 × 10 6
Shift of thrust line, a = = = 135 mm
P 1600 × 10 3
Eccentricity = 300 – 175 = 125 mm
∴ Eccentricity of thrust line = 135 – 125 = 10 mm
Thrust line
10 mm
Cable line
6m 6m
70. 152.075 (150 to 154)

Nominal shear stress,
Vu 420 × 10 3
=
τv = = 2.18 N/mm 2
bd 350 × 550
Here, τv < τc, max ( = 3.1 N/mm2)
and τv > τc ( = 0.6 N/mm2)
Hence, the shear stirrups is required.
∴ Shear to be carried by stirrups,
Vus = ( τ v − τ c ) bd
= (2.18 – 0.6) × 350 × 550 × 10–3
= 304.15 kN
∵ Shear resistance of bent-up bars
= 0.87 fy Asv sin α
⎛ π 2⎞
= 0.87 × 415 × ⎜⎝ 2 × × 32 ⎟⎠ × sin 45
4
= 410.65 kN
But bent up bars are assumed to take maximum of half of shear force to be carried by stirrups.
Hence, shear to be resisted by bent up bars
⎡ 304.15 ⎤
= Minimum of ⎢ 410.65 kN or kN ⎥
⎣ 2 ⎦
304.15
= = 152.075 kN
2
for GATE 2020 CE
71. (c)
Tu
Equivalent shear, Ve = Vu + 1.6
b
95
= 100 + 1.6 × = 606.67 kN
0.3
Equivalent bending moment,
Me = Mu + M t
Tu ⎛ D⎞
= Mu + ⎜⎝ 1 + ⎟⎠
1.7 B
95 ⎛ 850 ⎞
= 200 +
⎜⎝ 1 + ⎟ = 200 + 214.22
1.7 300 ⎠
Me = 414.22 kNm
72. (a)
As per IS 456 : 2000 the angle between the plane passing through the bottom edge of the
pedestal and the corresponding junction edge of the column with pedestal and horizontal
plane should be governed by the expression.
100 q 0
tan α ≤/ 0.9 +1
f ck
100 q 0
⇒ tan α > 0.9 +1
f ck
100 × 5
⇒ tan α > 0.9 +1
30
⇒ tan α > 3.78
73. 2410.5 (2400 to 2420)

P u = 0.4fck Ac + 0.67 fy Asc
( )
= 0.4 f ck A g − Asc + 0.67 f y Asc
⎛ π ⎞ ⎛ π ⎞
= 0.4 × 20 × ⎜ 500 2 − 4 × × 22 2 ⎟ + 0.67 × 415 × ⎜ 4 × × 22 2 ⎟
⎝ 4 ⎠ ⎝ 4 ⎠
( )
= 0.4 × 20 × 500 − 4 × 380 + 0.67 × 415 × ( 4 × 380 )
2
= 2410476 N
⇒ P u = 2410.48 kN 2410.5 kN
for GATE 2020 CE
74. (5)
Average strength,
( 4 × 23) + ( 2 × 28) + ( 5 × 22.5) + ( 5 × 31) + ( 4 × 29 )
μ = = 26.575 MPa
20
Σ (μ − f )
2
σ =
n−1
( 26.575 − 23 ) 2 × 4 + ( 26.575 − 28 ) 2 × 2 + ( 26.575 − 22.5 ) 2 × 5

+ ( 26.575 − 31) × 5 + ( 26.575 − 29 ) × 4
2 2
=
( 20 − 1)
= 3.7
Now, μ – σ = 26.575 – 3.7 = 22.872
Thus, 5 specimens are having compressive strength less than μ – σ.
75. (c)
A beam is called deep beam if
L
< 2.5, for continuous beam
D
L
< 2.0, for simply supported beam
D
So, here L < 2.5 × D
So, maximum effective length < 2.5 × (550 + 50)
< 1500 mm
So, most favourable option is (c)

Revision CE
forGATE 2020 Q.76 - Q.100

Day 4 of 8
PSU & Govt. Jobs

DRDO, BARC, etc.

GATE
Gateway for
Engineers
Research Courses

Building 1.20%
1.30% Airport Engg.
1.20% 0.50% Soil Mechanics 14.10%
PERT-
Channel 1.10%
3.00% & English
Steel
4.30%
RCC Mechanics
5.00%
5.10%
Maths
SOM 12.40%
Highway
Environmental
8.10%
Engg.
Total 100%
10.20%
for GATE 2020 CE
Day 4 : Q.76 to Q. 100 : Engineering Mathematics

Q.76 A vector F = ( y 2 − z2 + 3yz − 2 x )iˆ + (3xz + 2 xy ) ˆj + (2 xy − axz + 2 z )kˆ is known to be solenoidal. The
value of “a” is
(a) 2 (b) –3
(c) –2 (d) Can’t be determined
Q.77 The area bounded by the straight line y = x – 2 and the parabola y2 = 2x + 4 is ________ unit2.
t2 t3
Q.78 The coordinates of a particle moving in a plane are given by, x = 4t − and y = 3 + 6t − .
2 6
Here t is time in seconds and x and y are in meters. The magnitude of the velocity of the particle
at t = 2 sec is ____ m/s.
e ax − e − ax
Q.79 The value of lim is
x→0 ln(1 + bx )
a 2a
(a) (b)
b b
b
(c) (d) does not exists
a
Q.80 A function is defined by f(x) = 2x3 – 3x2 – 12x + 5 for –2 ≤ x ≤ 3. Which one of the following
statements is true about this function?
(a) function is decreasing for (–2, –1).
(b) function has a minima for x = –1.
(c) function has a maxima for x = 2.
(d) function is decreasing for (–1, 2).
1 2
Q.81 Consider the 2 × 2 matrix  p 5  . The range of possible values of p, for which both the eigen
 
values of the matrix are real and positive, is
5 5 5
(a) − ≤p≤ (b) 2 ≤ p ≤
2 2 2
5 5
(c) −2 ≤ p ≤ (d) − ≤p≤2
2 2
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.82 Consider the system of linear equations given below:
–2x + y + z = l
x – 2y + z = m
x + y – 2z = n
If l + m + n = 0, then the system of equations has
(a) no solution (b) trivial solutions
(c) unique solution (d) infinitely many solutions
1 4 5 4 3 2
Q.83 The matrix A =   satisfies the following polynomial: A – 4A – 7A + 11A – 2A + kI = 0.
 2 3 
The value of k is ________.
Q.84 Let AX = B represents a system of equations where A is 2 × 3 real matrix. The system is known
to be inconsistent. The highest possible rank of A is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) can’t be determined
4 2 1 3
 
Q.85 Given Matrix [A] =  6 3 4 7  , the rank of the matrix is
 2 1 0 1 
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1
 3 −2 2 
 
Q.86 For the matrix A = 0 −2 1  , one of the eigen values is equal to –2. Which of the following
0 0 1 
is an eigen vector?
3  −3
 −2   −2 
(a)   (b)  
 1   −1
1 2
 −2   5
(c)   (d)  
 3   0 
sin −1
x − cos −1 d2 y
Q.87 If y = e
x
and z = e , then the value of will be
dz2 x =1/ 2
1
(a) 0 (b)
ln 2
1 1
(c) 2 (d)
(ln 2) 2
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.88 The particular integral of the differential equation D 2(D 2 + 4)y = 96x2 for x = 2 will be
(a) 8 (b) 5
(c) 9 (d) 2
Q.89 The rate at which a body cools is proportional to the difference between the temperature of
the body and that of surrounding air. If the body cools from initial temperature of 100°C to
75°C in 1 minute, then temperature of the body after 5 minutes will be ________°C.
[Assume the temperature of surrounding air is 25°C]
Q.90 The solution of differential equation (1 + xy )yd x + (1 – xy )xd y = 0 is

 x 1  x 1
(a) ln   − =C (b) ln   − =C
 
y x + y  y  xy
 x 1  x 1
(c) ln   + =C (d) ln   + =C
 y  xy  y x + y
Q.91 The probability density function of a continuous random variable is given by,
x ; 0≤x≤1

f ( x ) = 2 − x ; 1≤x≤2
0 ; Otherwise

The mean value of the random variable is
(a) 1 (b) 1.5
(c) 1.67 (d) 0
Q.92 The chances that doctor A will diagnose a disease X correctly is 60%. The chances that a patient
will die by his treatment after correct diagnosis is 40% and the chances of death by wrong
diagnosis is 70%. A patient of doctor A, who had disease X, died. The chances that his disease
was diagnosed correctly is ________%.
Q.93 A and B throw alternatively a pair of dice. A wins if he throws 6 before B throws 7 and B wins
if he throws 7 before A throws 6. If A starts the game, then the probability that B wins the
game is
5 31
(a) (b)
6 61
30 36
(c) (d)
61 71
Q.94 If the probability of a bad reaction from a certain injection is 0.001, then the probability that
out of 2000 individuals more than two will get a bad reaction is
5 5
(a) 1 − 2 (b) 1 −
e e3
5 5
(c) 2 (d)
e e3
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.95 The real root of the equation x3 – 3x2 + 3x – 5 = 0 is calculated using Newton-Raphson method.
The number of different values of x0 for which the Newton-Raphson method fails for the
equation is _________.
dy
Q.96 For the differential equation = x + 2 y , Euler’s method is used to find the value of y. If y = 1
dx
corresponding to x = 1, then for x = 1.5, y will be equal to
(a) 4.56 (b) 3.35
(c) 6.24 (d) 3.94
Q.97 A function f (x) is given as

x 0 1 2 3 4
f ( x ) 1 0.5 0.2 0.1 0.058
4
1
The value of ∫ f (x ) dx as evaluated by Simpson’s
3
rule is __________.
0
∂f ∂ 2 f
Q.98 The type of the partial differential equation = is
∂t ∂x 2
(a) Parabolic (b) Elliptic
(c) Hyperbolic (d) Non-linear
Q.99 In a certain city, 40 percent of the people consider themselves conservatives (C ), 35 percent
consider themselves to be liberals (L) and 25 percent consider themselves to be independents
(I ). During a particular election, 45 percent of the conservatives voted, 40 percent of the liberals
voted and 60 percent of the independents voted. The probability percentage of a person that
voted is liberal is ______ %
Q.100 The values of function f (x) at 5 discrete points are given below:
x0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4
f(x) 0 15 60 135 240
0.4
Using trapezoidal rule step size of 0.1, the value of ∫ f ( x )dx is ________.
0

for GATE 2020 CE
76. (a)

∇⋅F = 0 [For solenoidal vector]
∂( y 2 − z2 + 3yz − 2 x ) ∂(3xz + 2 xy ) ∂(2 xy − axz + 2 z)

+ + =0
∂x ∂y ∂z
–2 + 2x – ax + 2 = 0
From here, a = 2
77. (18)
The point of intersection of line and parabolic are (0, –2) and (6, 4).
y
y=x–2
(6, 4)
x
0
(0, – 2)
y2 = 2x + 4
4 y+2 4
y +2
Area = ∫ ∫ dxdy = ∫ x y 2 − 4 dy
−2  y 2 − 4  −2
  2
 2 
 
4 4
 y2   y2 y3 
= ∫ y + 2 − + 2  dy =  + 4y −  = 18
 2   2 6 
−2    −2
78. 4.47 (4.35 to 4.60)

 t 2 ˆ  t3 

r =  4t − 2  i +  3 + 6t −  ˆj
   6
 2 ˆ
= dr = (4 − t )iˆ +  6 − t  j
v dt  2
 

v t = 2 = 2iˆ + 4 ˆj

v t =2 = 2 2 + 4 2 = 4.47 m/s
for GATE 2020 CE
79. (b)
e ax − e − ax ( e ax − e − ax ) × 2 ax × b
lim = lim0
x→0 ln(1 + bx ) x → 2 a x × b × ln (1 + bx )
 e ax − e − ax  bx  2a
= xlim  2 a x  × xlim
→0  ln(1 + bx )
 
b
 → 0
 sinh ax  bx  2a
= lim0   lim  
x→  a x  x → 0 ln(1 + bx )  b 
2a
= 1×1×
b
2a
=
b
80. (d)
f(x) = 2x3 – 3x2 –12x + 5
f ′(x) = 6x2 – 6x – 12 y
For minima/maxima, f ′(x) = 0
6x2 – 6x – 12 = 0
(2, 0) (3, 0)
x
x2 – x – 2 = 0
(–2, 0) (–1, 0)
(x + 1) (x – 2) = 0
x = –1, 2
f ′′(x) = 12x – 6
f ′′(–1) = –12 – 6 = –18 < 0 ⇒ maxima
f ′′(2) = 24 – 6 = 18 > 0 ⇒ minima
The function has maxima at x = –1 and minima at x = 2.
The function is decreasing between –1 and 2.
81. (c)
1−λ 2
p 5−λ = 0
(1 – λ) (5 – λ) – 2p = 0
λ2 – 6λ + 5 – 2p = 0
Let the roots are λ1 and λ2.
From the characteristic equation,
λ1 + λ2 = 6
λ1λ2 = 5 – 2p ≥ 0 [For roots to be positive]
5
p ≤ ... (i)
2
For roots to be real,
62 – 4(5 – 2p) ≥ 0
for GATE 2020 CE
36 – 20 + 8p ≥ 0
p ≥ –2 ... (ii)
From equations (i) and (ii),
5
–2 ≤ p ≤
2
82. (d)
AX = B
 −2 1 1 : l
 1 −2 1 : m 
Augmented matrix, [A : B] =  
 1 1 −2 : n 
R3 → R3 + R2 + R1:
−2 1 1 : l
1 −2 1 : m
A : B =
0 0 0 : l+m+n
Since, l+m+n = 0
Rank of [A : B] = 2
Rank of [A] = Rank of [A : B] = 2 < 3 (Number of variables)
⇒ Infinitely many solutions are possible.
83. (–15)
The characteristic equation of matrix A is
A − λI = 0
1−λ 4
2 3−λ = 0
λ2 – 4λ – 5 = 0
or A2 – 4A – 5I = 0
Now the given polynomial can be written as,
A5 – 4A4 – 7A3 + 11A2 – 2A + kI = (A3 – 2A + 3I) (A2 – 4A – 5I) + (k + 15)I
Since, A2 – 4A – 5I = 0
For the given polynomial to be zero,
k + 15 = 0
k = –15
84. (a)
minimum (2, 3) ⇒ highest possible rank = 2
if rank of A = 2, it will consistent. In order to be inconsistent, maximum rank of A is ‘1’.
for GATE 2020 CE
85. (c)
Consider first 3 × 3 minors, since maximum possible rank is 3
4 2 1
6 3 4
= 0
2 1 0
2 1 3
3 4 7
= 0
1 0 1
4 1 3
6 4 7
= 0
2 0 1
4 2 3
6 3 7
and = 0
2 1 1
Since all 3 × 3 minors are zero, now try 2 × 2 minors.
4 2
6 3 = 0
2 1
3 4 = 8–3=5≠0
So, rank = 2
86. (d)
Since matrix is triangular, the eigen values are the diagonal elements themselves namely
λ = 3, –2 and 1. Corresponding to eigen value, λ = –2 let us find the eigen vector
[A − λI ] x = 0
3 − λ −2 2   x1   0 
 0 −2 − λ 1   x2   0 
 =
 0 0 1 − λ   x3   0 
Putting λ = –2 in above equation we get,
 5 −2 2   x1  0
0 0 1   x   
   2  = 0
 0 0 3   x3   0 
Which gives the equations,
5x1 – 2x2 + 2 x3 = 0 ... (i)
x3 = 0 ... (ii)
3 x3 = 0 ... (iii)
Since eq. (ii) and (iii) are same we have
5x1 – 2x2 + 2x3 = 0 ... (i)
x3 = 0 ... (ii)
Putting x2 = k, in eq. (i) we get
5x1 – 2 k + 2 × 0 = 0
for GATE 2020 CE
⇒ x1 = 2/5 k
∴ Eigen vectors are of the form
 x1  2 / 5 k 
x   
 2 =  k 
 x3   0 
i.e. x1 : x2 : x3 =2/5 k : k : 0 = 2/5 : 1 : 0 = 2 : 5 : 0
 x1   2 
x   5
∴  2  =   is an eigen vector of matrix A.
 x3   0 
87. (a)
ln y = sin–1x, ln z = –cos–1x
ln y – ln z = sin–1x + cos–1x
y π
ln   =
z
  2
y = ze π/2
dy
= e π/2
dz
d2 y
= 0
dz 2
88. (a)
For particular integral,
 D2  2
  1−  x 
96x 2 1 2 96   4  
PI = 2 2
= 96 x =  
D ( D + 4)  D2  4  D2 
4D2  1 + 
 4 

 2 1
x − 
 2
= 24 2
D
 x4 x2  2 2
PI = 24  −  = 2 x ( x − 3)
 4 × 3 4 
PI x = 2 = 2 × 22(4 – 3) = 8
89. 34.88 (34.60 to 35.20)

dT
= k (T – 25)
dt
T = Temperature of the body in °C and t = time in minutes.
for GATE 2020 CE
dT
= kdt
T − 25
ln (T – 25) = kt + C1
T – 25 = Cekt
At t = 0, T = 100°C and at t = 1 minute, T = 75°C.
(100 – 25) = Ce 0
⇒ C = 75
2
50 = 75 ek ⇒ ek =
3
At t = 5 minutes, T – 25 = 75 ek × 5
5
2
T = 25 + 75 ×   ≈ 34.88°C
3
90. (b)
M = (1 + xy)y
and N = (1 – xy)x
∂M ∂N
−
∂y ∂ x = 4xy ≠ 0
Mx – Ny = 2 x2 y 2 ≠ 0
1 1
=
Mx − Ny 2x 2 y 2
1
IF (Integrating factor) =
2x 2 y 2
 1 1  1 1
 2 +  dx +  2 −  dy = 0 ...(i)
x y x  xy y 
  
equation (i) is exact
1 1 1 1
∫
y x 2
dx + ∫ dx − ∫ dy = C
x y
−1
+ ln x − ln y = C
xy
 x 1
or ln   − = C
 
y xy
91. (a)
∞ 1 2
Mean = ∫ xf ( x ) dx = ∫ x 2 dx + ∫ (2 − x )x dx
−∞ 0 1
1 2
x3  x3  1 8−1
= +  x2 −  = + 4 − 1 − =1
3  
3  3 3
0  1
for GATE 2020 CE
92. 46.15 (46.00 to 46.25)
40%
Patient dies
60%
Patient lives
Correct diagnosis
60%
A
70%
Wrong diagnosis
Patient dies
40%
Patient lives
30%
Probability that patient dies who had diseases X is
40 60 70 40 52
= × + × =
100 100 100 100 100
Probability that he dies of correct diagnosis
60 × 40 24
= =
100 × 100 100
24 / 100 6
Required probability = =
52 /100 13
6
Required chances = × 100 = 46.15%
13
93. (b)
Number of ways of throwing 6 is five ⇒ (1 + 5), (2 + 4), (3 + 3), (4 + 2), (5 + 1)
Number of ways of throwing 7 is six ⇒ (1 + 6), (2 + 5), (3 + 4), (4 + 3), (5 + 2), (6 + 1)
5
Probability of throwing 6, p1 =
36
5 31
Probability of failing to throw 6, p2 = 1 − =
36 36
6
Probability of throwing 7, q1 =
36
6 30
Probability of failing to throw 7, q2 = 1 − =
36 36
Probability of B winning = p2q1 + p2q2 p2q1 + p2q2p2q2p2q1 + ....
= p2q1[1 + p2q2 + (p2q2)2 + (p2q2)3 + .....]
31 6
×
p2 q 1 31 × 6 31
= = 36 36 = =
(1 − p2 q2 ) 1 − 31 × 30 366 61
36 36
for GATE 2020 CE
94. (a)
Since the probability of occurrence is very small, this follows Poisson distribution
mean = m = np
= 2000 × 0.001
= 2
Probability that more than 2 will get a bad reaction
= 1 – p (0) – p (1) – p(2)
 − m e − m ⋅ m1 e − m ⋅ m 2 
= 1 − e + + 
 1! 2! 
 e −2 ⋅ 2 2 2 ⋅ e −2  1 2 2
= 1 −  e −2 + +  = 1− 2 + 2 + 2 
 1 2  e e e 
5
= 1−
e2
95. (1)
Newton Raphson fails iff′(x) = 0
f′(x) = 3x2 – 6x + 3 = 0
3(x2 – 2x + 1) = 0
(x – 1)2 = 0
x = 1
For only one value, Newton-Raphson method fails.
96. (b)
xn yn f ( xn , y n ) = xn + 2 y n y n+1 = y n + 0.1f ( xn , y n )
1 1 3 1 + 0.1 × 3 = 1.3
1.1 1.3 3.7 1.3 + 0.1 × 3.7 = 1.67
1.2 1.67 4.54 1.67 + 0.1 × (4.54) = 2.124
1.3 2.124 5.548 2.124 + 0.1 × 5.548 = 2.6788
1.4 2.6788 6.7576 2.6788 + 0.1 × 6.7576 = 3.354
1.5 3.354
y = 3.35
97. 1.286 (1.20 to 1.35)

4
h
∫ f (x ) dx =
3
[( y0 + y 4 ) + 4( y1 + y3 ) + 2 y2 ]
0
1
= [(1 + 0.058) + 4(0.5 + 0.1) + 2 × 0.2 ]
3
= 1.286
for GATE 2020 CE
98. (a)
General form of second order partial differential equation,
aU xx + bU xy + cU yy = 0
∂f ∂2 f
=
∂t ∂x 2
has coefficient a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
b2 – 4ac = 0
The equation is parabolic.
99. 29.8 (29 to 31)

V 
L P( L ) ⋅ P  
P  = L
V  P(V )
L
P   = person who voted and is a liberal
V 
P (L ) = person who are liberals
P (V ) = person who voted
P (V ) = P(C ) ⋅ P   + P( L) ⋅ P   + P(1) ⋅ P  
V V V
C  L I
= (0.40) (0.45) + (0.35) (0.40) + (0.25) (0.60)
= 0.47
L (0.35)(0.40) 14
P  = = = 0.298
V  0.47 47
L
P   = 29.8%
V 
100. (33)
0.4
h
∫ f ( x )dx =
2
y0 + 2( y1 + y2 + y3 ) + y 4 
0
0.1
=
2
[0 + 2(15 + 60 + 135) + 240]
= 33

Revision CE
forGATE 2020 Q.101 - Q.125

Day 5 of 8
PSU & Govt. Jobs

DRDO, BARC, etc.

GATE
Gateway for
Engineers
Research Courses

Building 1.20%
1.30% Airport Engg.
1.20% 0.50% Soil Mechanics 14.10%
PERT-
Channel 1.10%
3.00% & English
Steel
4.30%
RCC Mechanics
5.00%
5.10%
Maths
SOM 12.40%
Highway
Environmental
8.10%
Engg.
Total 100%
10.20%
for GATE 2020 CE
Day 5 : Q.101 to Q. 125 : Environmental Engg. + CTPM + BMC
Q.101 A water sample or testing gave the following data:
[Na+] = 38 mg/l, [Ca2+] = 10 mg/l
[HCO3—] = 183 mg/l , [Mg2+] = 12 mg/l
[CO32—] = 30 mg/l, [Al3+] = 27 mg/l
[SO42—] = 45 mg/l
From the above data, non carbonate hardness in the water sample (in mg/l as CaCO3) is
Use atomic weights as
Ca = 40, O = 16, Mg = 24, Na = 23, Al = 27, C = 12, H = 1, S = 32
(a) 175 (b) 225
(c) 50 (d) 25
101. (d)
2 + Eq. weight of CaCO 3 Eq. weight of CaCO 3

Total hardness = ⎡⎣ Mg ⎤⎦ 2+
+ ⎡⎣ Ca 2 + ⎤⎦
Eq. weight of Mg Eq. weight of Ca 2+
Eq. weight of CaCO 3
+ ⎡⎣Al 3 + ⎤⎦ ×
Eq. weight of Al 3+
50 50 50
= 12 ×
+ 10 × + 27 ×
12 20 9
= 50 + 25 + 150 = 225 mg/l as CaCO3
Total alkalinity =
Eq. weight of CaCO 3 2− Eq. weight of CaCO 3

⎡ HCO—
3 ⎤ ⎡ ⎤
⎣ ⎦ × Eq . weight of HCO − + ⎣ CO 3 ⎦ × Eq. weight of CO 2 −
3 3
50 50
= 183 × + 30 × = 150 + 50 = 200 mg/l
61 30
Now carbonate hardness = Total hardness or total alkalinity whichever is less
∴ Carbonate hardness = 200 mg/l
Non carbonate hardness = Total hardness – Carbonate hardness
= 225 – 200 = 25 mg/l
Q.102 A rapid sand filter is to be provided in a water treatment plant to process the water for a
town with a population of 3,45,000. The maximum daily water demand is 225 liter/capita/
day. The rate of filtration is 15 m3/m2/hour. Allow 5% of filtered water for storage to meet
the backwash requirements. Each backwashing period is 30 minute. The number of filters required
including one as a standby unit is
[Assume the available surface area configuration of one filter unit is 50 m2]
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
for GATE 2020 CE
102. (c)
Daily water demand of filtered water = 105% of water required daily (5% more for backwashing)
105 × 345000 × 225

= = 81.5 MLD
100
Effective time for working of filter units = 24 – backwashing time (0.5 hours) = 23.5 hours
81.5
∴ Water filtration required per hour = = 3.468 ML/h
23.5
Now, filtration rate = 15 m3/m2/h
⎡ 3.468 × 10 6 ⎤
⎢ ⎥
⎣ 10 3 ⎦
∴ Area of filter required = = 231.2 m2
15
Area of one filter unit = 50 m2
231.2
∴ Number of units required = = 4.624 say 5 units
50
Q.103 A 1.5 m deep oxidation pond is constructed to treat the incoming sewage flow of 2 MLD with
BOD content of 250 mg/l. If the detention time of the oxidation pond is 6 days then BOD
loading rate in kg/day/ha is
(a) 500 (b) 625
(c) 800 (d) 525
103. (b)
2 × 10 6
Volume of oxidation pond required = Discharge × Detention time = × 6 = 12000 m 3
10 3
12000
Area of oxidation pond required = = 8000 m 2 = 0.8 ha
1.5
2 × 10 6
Total BOD load of sewage = × 250 kg/d = 500 kg/d
10 6
500
∴ BOD loading rate in kg/d/ha = = 625 kg/ha/d
0.8
Q.104 A 70 dB noise level lasting for 10 min. is followed by 60 dB for 90 min followed by 80 dB
for 20 min. The equivalent value for fluctuating noise level for 2 hours is _________ dB.
104. 72.61 (71 to 73)

n Li
L eq = 10 log ∑ 10 10 × t i
i=1
3 Li
10 90 20
Now, ∑ 10 10 × t i = 10 70/10· 120
+ 10 60/10·
120
+ 10 80/10·
120
i=1
for GATE 2020 CE
7 1 3 1
= 10 · + 10 6· + 10 8 × = 18.25 × 10 6
12 4 6
∴ L eq = 10 log (18.25 × 106) = 72.61 dB
Q.105 300 cumecs of dissolved oxygen (DO) free sewage is discharged into the river which is fully
saturated with oxygen and flowing at the rate of 3500 cumecs with minimum velocity of
0.15 m/s.
Assume :
• Coefficient of purification of river = 4
• Coefficient of deoxygenation = 0.15 day–1
• Saturated DO of water = 10 mg/l
• Ultimate of BOD of mixture = 35 mg/l
The critical DO deficit will occur at ________ km.
105. 16.46 (16 to 17)

DO of the mixture at t = 0
3500 × 10 + 300 × 0
= = 9.21 mg/l
3500 + 300
Initial DO deficit, DO = 10 – 9.21 = 0.79 mg/l
Ultimate BOD of mixture = 35 mg/l
∴ Critical time required for critical DO deficit,
1 ⎡ ⎧ D0 ⎫ ⎤
tc = log 10 ⎢f ⎨1 − ( f − 1) ⎬
k D ( f − 1) ⎣ ⎩ L ⎭ ⎥⎦
1 ⎡ ⎧ 0.79 ⎫ ⎤
= log 10 ⎢ 4 × ⎨1 − (4 − 1) ⎬
0.15 ( 4 − 1) ⎣ ⎩ 35 ⎭ ⎥⎦
= 1.27 days
0.15 × 60 × 60 × 24 × 1.27
∴ Distance = = 16.46 kms
1000
Q.106 The population of 5 decades from 1930 to 1970 are given below for a city :
Year 1930 1940 1950 1960 1970

Population 25000 28000 34000 42000 47000
The population in the year 2020, using incremental increase method will be _______.
for GATE 2020 CE
106. 84505 (84300 to 84700)
Year Population Increase in population Incremental incr.

1930 25000 − −
1940 28000 3000 −
1950 34000 6000 3000
1960 42000 8000 2000
1970 47000 5000 −3000
Total 22000 2000
22000
Increase in population per decade ( x ) = = 5500
4
2000
Average incremental increase in population per decade ( y ) = = 666.67 667
3
From 1970 to 2020, member of decades (n) = 5
n( n + 1) 5 × (5 + 1)
∴ P2020 = P1970 + nx + y = P1970 + 5x + y
2 2
= 47000 + 5 × 5500 + 15 × 667
= 84505
Q.107 A treated waste water enters a river as shown in the figure. The concentration of sodium in
the river at section 1-1 is 20 mg/l and flow rate is 600 litres/second. The concentration of
sodium in the waste water channel at section 3-3 is 250 mg/l and the flow rate is constant. The
concentration of sodium in the river at section 2-2 after complete mixing with river water
became 50 mg/l. The dilution ratio resulting from the flow of waste water into the river is
1 2
River
CR ,QR Cmix, Qmix
1 2
3 3
Waste water channel
C W, QW
(a) 10 (b) 5
(c) 14 (d) 8
107. (d)
Flow rate of river, QR = 600 l/sec
Concentration of sodium in river water,
CR = 20 mg/l
Concentration of sodium in waste water channel,
CW = 250 mg/l
for GATE 2020 CE
Concentration of sodium in the mix water,
Cmix = 50 mg/l
Let, flow rate of waste water = Q W
Concentration of sodium after mixing of waste water with river is given by
CRQR + CW QW
Cmix =
QR + QW
20 × 600 + 250 × QW
⇒ 50 = 600 + QW
⇒ 50 × (600 + QW ) = 12000 + 250 QW
⇒ 30000 + 50 QW = 12000 + 250 QW
⇒ 18000 = 200 QW
⇒ QW = 90 l/sec
Total discharge after mixing Q R + QW 600 + 90
∴ Dilution ratio = = = = 7.67 8
Discharge of waste water QW 90
Q.108 A sample of raw water contains 180 mg/l alkalinity, 50 mg/l hardness as CaCl2 and 90 mg/l
hardness as MgSO4. The total lime required to treat 106 litres of water will be
(a) 84.3 kg (b) 24.3 kg
(c) 136.7 kg (d) 142.8 kg
108. (d)
(i) Lime (CaO) required for alkalinity (CaCO3)
Molecular weight of CaO = 40 + 16 = 56
Molecular weight of CaCO3 = 40 + 12 + 3 × 16 = 100
CaO + CO 2 → CaCO 3
56 100
56
CaO required for 180 mg/l alkalinity = 180 × = 100.8 mg/l
100
100.8 × 10 −6 kg 100.8 kg
= =
l 10 6 l
(ii) Lime required for MgSO4
Molecular weight of MgSO4 = 24 + 32 + 4 × 16 = 120
CaO + MgSO 4 → CaCO 3 + MgO
56 120 100
CaO required for 90 mg/l of MgSO4

56 42 kg
= 90 ×
= 42 mg/l =
120 10 6 l
∴ Total lime required = 100.8 + 42 = 142.8 mg/l
142.8 kg
=
10 6 l
∴ Total lime required to treat 106 litres of water = 142.8 kg
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.109 The BOD5 of the effluent from a low rate trickling filter having diameter of 30 m and a depth
of 1.5 m will be
Given : The hydraulic loading is 1900 m3/day and the influent BOD5 is 175 mg/l.
Assume rate constant as 1.89 d–1 and n = 0.6.
Use Eckenfelder trickling filter equation.
(a) 36.60 mg/l (b) 68.70 mg/l
(c) 318.50 mg/l (d) 115.68 mg/l
109. (a)
Eckenfelder equation for computing the BOD removed by the filter is given as
Yt − kD/QLn
= [ e] ...(i)
Y0
where, Y0 = BOD5 of the influent entering the filter (in mg/l )
Yt = BOD5 of the effluent getting out of the filter (in mg/l)
k = rate constant per day
D = depth of filter (in m)
n depends on flow characteristics and is an empirical value.
Q
Q L = Hydraulic loading rate per unit area of filter in m3/m2/day =
A
Given: Y0 = 175 mg/l; D = 1.5 m; k = 1.89 d–1; n = 0.6
1900
QL = π = 2.688 m 3 /m 2 /day
2
× 30
4
Substituting these values in equation (i), we get
Yt 1.89 × 1.5
175
= [ e ] − 2.688 0.6
Yt
⇒ = 0.209
175
⇒ Yt = 175 × 0.209 = 36.575 mg/l 36.6 mg/l
Q.110 An activated sludge system is operating under equilibrium conditions with following
information:
Waste water related data:
Flow rate = 800 m3/hour
Influent BOD = 125 mg/l
Effluent BOD = 10 mg/l
Aeration tank related data:
Hydraulic retention time = 7.5 hours
Mean-cell residence time = 300 hour
Volume = 500 m3
Mixed liquor suspended solids = 3000 mg/l
Effluent suspended solids = 2000 mg/l
Food-to-biomass (F/M) ratio for the aeration tank is
for GATE 2020 CE
(a) 0.2 day–1 (b) 0.6 day–1
(c) 1.6 day–1 (d) 3.2 day–1
110. (c)
Flow rate, Q0 = 800 m3/hr
Influent BOD, S0 = 125 mg/l
Effluent BOD, S = 10 mg/l
Hydraulic retention time = 7.5 hr = 0.3125 days
300
Mean-cell residence time, θc = 300 hr = days = 12.5 days
24
MLSS (X) = 3000 mg/l
Volume = 500 m3
Food (F) = QS0
⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ mg ⎞
= ⎜ 800 ⎜ 125 = 2400 kg/day
⎝
⎟
hr ⎠ ⎝ l ⎟⎠
Biomass (M ) = VX
mg ⎞
(
= 500 m 3 ⎜ 3000
⎝
)⎛
l ⎟⎠
= 1500 kg
F Q 0 S 0 2400
∴ = =
M VX 1500
= 1.6 kg BOD day/kg MLSS
Q.111 Elevation and temperature data for places A, B and C are tabulated below:
Place Elevation (m) Temperature (°C)
A 45 21
B 350 18.5
C 500 14
Based on above data, for dry air lapse rate of place A to B and place B to C respectively are
(a) Subadiabatic and Subadiabatic (b) Superadiabatic and Subadiabatic
(c) Subadiabatic and Superadiabatic (d) Superadiabatic and Superadiabatic
111. (c)
From place A to B
21 − 18.5
Ambient lapse rate = × 1000 = 8.196 < 9.8°C/km
350 − 45
Since lapse rate is less than the adiabatic lapse rate, so ambient lapse rare is said to be
subadiabatic.
From B to C
18.5 − 14
Ambient lapse rate = × 1000 = 30°C/km > 9.8°C/km
500 − 350
So lapse rate is superadiabatic.
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.112 A 25 cm diameter sewer when running full carries a discharge of 0.08 m3/sec. What will be the
discharge when the same sewer runs at 0.6 times of its full depth?
(a) 0.0462 m3/sec (b) 0.0538 m3/sec
3
(c) 0.0573 m /sec (d) 0.0620 m3/sec
112. (b)
d
Given: = 0.6
D
1⎛ α⎞
⇒ 0.6 = ⎜⎝ 1 − cos ⎟⎠
2 2
⇒ α = 203.074°
2/3
q ⎛ α sin α ⎞ ⎛ ⎧ 360° sin α ⎫⎞
Now, = ⎜⎝ − ⎟⎠ ⎜ 1 − ⎨ ⎬⎟ = 0.672
Q 360° 2π ⎝ ⎩ 2πα ⎭⎠
∴ q = 0.672 × 0.08
= 0.0538 m3/sec
Q.113 The sound pressure level for a jet plane on the ground with sound pressure of 1600 μ bar
should be
(a) 112.24 dB (b) 126.76 dB
(c) 138.06 dB (d) 145.09 dB
113. (c)
⎛ P⎞
Sound pressure level (dB) = 20 log 10 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ P0 ⎠
P is sound pressure in N/m2
P0 is reference pressure (2 × 10–5 N/m2)
For given sound pressure,
P = 1600 μ bar = 160 N/m2
⎛ 160 ⎞
∴ Sound pressure level = 20 log ⎜
⎝ 2 × 10 −5 ⎟⎠
= 138.06 dB
Q.114 The area required for a new landfill site with a projected life of 20 years for a population of
150000 generating 25 kg per household per week will be ________ ha.
Assume the density of waste is 500 kg/m 3. A planning restriction limits the heights of landfill
to 10 m. Also assume 3.5 person per household.
114. 22.2 (22 to 22.4)

150000 25
Waste generated = × 3 = 1071 tonnes/week
3.5 10
= 55700 tonnes/year
Volume of landfill space required
55700 × 10 3
= = 111 × 103 m3/year
500
for GATE 2020 CE
111 × 10 3
Required land area = = 11100 m 2
10
= 1.11 ha/year
So, total area required for landfill for 20 years = 1.11 × 20 = 20.2 ha
Q.115 A water treatment plant is required to process 32500 m 3/d of raw water (density = 1000 kg/m3,
kinematic viscosity, ν = 10–6 m2/s). The rapid mixing tank imparts a velocity gradient of 1000 s–1
to blend 40 mg/l of alum with the flow for a detention time of 3 minutes. The power input
required for rapid mixing is
(a) 62500 W (b) 67708 W
(c) 70200 W (d) 73800 W
115. (b)
Power input, P = G2 μV
μ = Dynamic viscosity of raw water
= 10–6 × 103 = 10–3 N-s/m2
G = 1000 s–1
t = 3 minutes = 180 seconds
32500
∴Discharge of raw water = = 0.376 m 3/s
24 × 60 × 60
Volume of water in tank, V= 0.376 × 180 = 67.71 m 3
∴ Power, P = (1000)2 × 10–3 × 67.71
= 67708.33 watt
Q.116 An effluent at a flow rate of 4230 m3/d from a sewage treatment plant is to be disinfected.
The laboratory data of disinfection studies with a chlorine dosage of 20 mg/l yield the
model Nt = Noe–0.156t where Nt = number of micro-organisms surviving at time t (in min.)
and N o = number of micro-organisms present initially (i.e. at t = 0). The volume of
disinfection unit (in m3) required to achieve a 97% kill of micro-organisms is
(a) 65.99 (b) 54.58
(c) 45.49 (d) None of these
116. (a)
Q = 4230 m3/d
Nt = N0 e –0.156t
Let x be the no. of microorganisms present initially.
97% kill of micro-organisms implies that at time ‘t’ 3% of micro-organisms are still surviving.
3
∴ Micro-organisms surviving at time ‘t ’ = x
100
3
∴ x = x . e–0.156t
100
∴ t = 22.48 min
t = 0.0156 days
for GATE 2020 CE
∴ Volume = Q.t
= 4230 × 0.0156
= 65.99 m3
Q.117 A rectangular sedimentation tank is designed for a surface overflow rate (surface overloading)
of 400 litre/hour/m2. The percentage of the suspended particles of diameter 0.01 mm that will
be removed in the tank is ___________.
[Take kinematic viscosity of water = 1 mm2/sec and specific gravity of particle = 2.65]
117. 81 (79 to 83)

Vo = 400 litres/hour/m2 = 0.4 m/hour
1
= mm/sec
9
If d = 0.01 mm
g (G − 1) d 2
Vs = 18 ν
9810 ( 2.65 − 1 ) × ( 0.01 )

2
= = 0.09 mm/s
18 × 1
Vs 0.09
∴ Removal efficiency, η = = × 100 = 81%
V0 ( 1 / 9 )
Q.118 At a water treatment plant, 16 million litres of water is treated daily using Copperas and lime.
If the dosage of ferrous sulphate is 12 mg per litre, the total quantity of quick lime (in kg)
required daily (if lime is added first), will be
(a) 38.68 (b) 58.24
(c) 77.32 (d) None of these
118. (a)
12 × 16 × 10 6
Quantity of ferrous sulphate = = 192 kg
10 6
Chemical reaction:
FeSO4 · 7H2O + Ca (OH)2 → Fe (OH)2 + CaSO4 + 7H2O
and Ca (OH)2 → CaO + H2O
(Molecular weight of FeSO4 · 7H2O = 278, Molecular weight of CaO = 56)
∴ 278 kg of ferrous sulphate will react with 56 kg of lime.
56
Hence quantity of lime corresponding to 192 kg of ferrous sulphate = × 192 = 38.68 kg
278
Q.119 22 MLD of water is flowing through a 3 km long pipe of diameter 50 cm. The chlorine at the
rate of 40 kg/d is applied at the entry of this pipe so that disinfected water is obtained at the
exit. There is a proposal to increase the flow through this pipe to 28 MLD. Assume the
dilution coefficient, n = 1. The minimum amount of chlorine to be applied to achieve the
same degree of disinfection for the enhanced flow is
for GATE 2020 CE
(a) 64.79 kg/day (b) 54.76 kg/day
(c) 42.57 kg/day (d) 36.35 kg/day
119. (a)
In this disinfection process, we have the relationship,
tC n = k
where, t = time required to kill all pathogenic organisms
C = concentration of disinfectant
n = dilution coefficient
k = constant
∴ t 1 C1 n = t 2 C2 n ...(i)
In our case, n = 1
L
t =
V
L = length of pipe, V = velocity of flow
L L×A
∴ t = =
Q/A Q
W
C =
Q
where, W = weight of disinfectant per day
Q = discharge per day
Substituting C and t in equation (i),
L × A W1 L × A W2
× = ×
Q1 Q1 Q2 Q2
Q 22 ⎛ 28 ⎞
2
⇒ W2 = × W 1 = ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ × 40 kg/d = 64.79 kg/day
Q12 22
Q.120 The sludge from the aeration tank of the activated sludge process (ASP) has solids content
(by weight) of 4%. This sludge is put in a sludge thickener, where sludge volume is reduced
to half. Assume that the amount of solids in the supernatant from the thickener is negligible,
the specific gravity of sludge solids is 2.3 and density of water is 1000 kg/m3. The density of
the sludge (in kg/m3) removed from the aeration tank and solid content (in percentage by
weight) of the thickened sludge are respectively
(a) 1023.13 and 4 (b) 1016.56 and 8
(c) 1023.13 and 8 (d) 1016.56 and 4
120. (c)
Solid content = 4%
∴ Water content = 96%
100 % water % solids
= +
Ssludge S water Ssolids
100 96 4
+
Ssludge = 1 2.3
for GATE 2020 CE
Ssludge = 1.02313
∴ ρsludge = 1.02313 × 1000 = 1023.13 kg/m3
V1
After thickening, V2 =
2
( 100 − P1 ) × V
⇒ V2 =
( 100 − P2 ) 1
V1 ( 100 − 96) × V
⇒ =
2 ( 100 − P2 ) 1
⇒ 100 – P2 = 200 – 192
⇒ 100 – P2 = 8
⇒ P2 = 92 %
∴ Solid content = 100 – 92 = 8 %
Q.121 Radium decomposes at a rate proportional to the amount present. If 5% of original amount
disappears in 50 years, then the percentage of original amount remain after 200 years will be
(a) 80% (b) 81.45%
(c) 85.36% (d) 83.67%
121. (b)
Let the present amount = x
dx
∝ –x
dt
x = Ce –kt [K is constant]
at t = 0, let x = 100
100 = Ce –k × 0 ⇒ C = 100
at t = 50 yrs, x = 95
95 = 100e –k × 50
1 ⎛ 100 ⎞
k = log ⎜
50 ⎝ 95 ⎟⎠
1 ⎛ 100 ⎞
− × log ⎜ × 200
⎝ 95 ⎟⎠
at t = 200 years x = 100 ⋅ e 50
4
⎛ 100 ⎞
− log ⎜
⎝ 95 ⎟⎠
= 100 ⋅ e = 81.45%
Q.122 Consider the following data regarding an activity AB :

Earliest start time = 3 days
Earliest finish time = 8 days
Latest start time = 5 days
Latest finish time = 10 days
Then interferring float for this activity is ________ days.
122. (2)
Activity time = EFT – EST or LFT – LST
= 8 – 3 or 10 – 5
= 5 days
for GATE 2020 CE
Interfering float = Total float – Free float
Total float = LST – EST
= 5–3
= 2 days
Free float = EFT – EST – Activity time
= 8–3–5
= 0 days
∴ Interfering float = FT – FF
= 2–0
= 2 days
Q.123 For a research project the duration of the project is calculated as 130 weeks with the variance
of 25 weeks. The number of weeks required to complete the project with 95%, probability is
________ weeks. [Take probability factor corresponding to 95% probability as 1.647]
123. 138.235 (135 to 140)

Variance = σ2 = 25
∴ Standard deviation, σ = σ 2 = 25 = 5 weeks

Also probability factor is given by
TS − TE
z =
σ
⇒ T S = TE + zσ
= 130 + 1.647 × 5
= 138.235 weeks
Q.124 Consider the following statements:

P. Walls of one brick thick are measured in square meters.
Q. Walls of one brick thick are measured in cubic meters.
R. No deduction in the brickwork quantity is made for openings in walls up to 0.1 m2 area.
S. For the measurement of excavation from the borrow pit in a fairly uniform ground, deadman
are left at suitable intervals.
For the above statements, the correct option is
(a) P-False; Q-True; R-False; S-True
(b) P-False; Q-True; R-False; S-False
(c) P-True; Q-False; R-True; S-False
(d) P-True; Q-False; R-True; S-True
124. (d)
1. One brick wall → 20 cm (Nominal thickness)
2. 1.5 brick wall → 30 cm (Nominal thickness)
3. 2 brick wall → 40 cm (Nominal thickness)
where “Nominal thickness” is considered for measuring of wall work.
for GATE 2020 CE
• Brick wall is measured in m2 is the brick wall thickness is 10 cm (half brick wall) and
20 cm (full brick wall/one brick wall) and for brick wall greater than one brick wall i.e.,
1.5 or 2 brick wall. The brick wall is measured in m3.
• No deduction for openings and bearings in masonry works is made when
(a) opening each upto 1000 sq. cm or 0.1 m2
(b) ends of beam, post, rafters upto 500 sq./m or 0.05 m2
(c) Bed plate, wall, plate, bearing of balcony (chajja) and like upto 10 cm depth, bearing of
floor and roof slab are not deducted from masonry.
As per 151200 (Part-I) : 1992, “deadmen and tell tales” in borrow pits is not measured
separately and its removal is done after measurement.
Q.125 A concrete mix design stipulates 550 kg of fine aggregate and 1195 kg of coarse aggregate and
192 kg of free-water. The concrete mix design further stipulates that water absorption of fine
and coarse aggregates to be 2.0 and 0.75 percent, respectively. The batching plant operator
measures the aggregate moisture and finds that the moisture content of fine and coarse
aggregates delivered at the site are at 5.0 and 0.5 percent, respectively. The correct amount of
water to be added to the batch (in kg) will be _______.
125. 178.5 (178 to 179)

Amount of excess water present (+) or deficient water to be added (–) is,
Fine aggregate = 550 × (0.05 – 0.02) = +16.5 kg ...(i)
Coarse aggregate = 1195 × (0.005 – 0.0075) = –3.0 kg ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
Aggregate free-water = 16.5 – 3 = 13.5 kg
Water to be added = Stipulated in the mix design report – Aggregate free-water
= 192 – 13.5 = 178.5 kg

Revision CE
forGATE 2020 Q.126 - Q.150

Day 6 of 8
PSU & Govt. Jobs

DRDO, BARC, etc.

GATE
Gateway for
Engineers
Research Courses

Building 1.20%
1.30% Airport Engg.
1.20% 0.50% Soil Mechanics 14.10%
PERT-
Channel 1.10%
3.00% & English
Steel
4.30%
RCC Mechanics
5.00%
5.10%
Maths
SOM 12.40%
Highway
Environmental
8.10%
Engg.
Total 100%
10.20%
for GATE 2020 CE
Day 6 : Q.126 to Q. 150 : Fluid Mechanics + Structural Analysis
Q.126 In a smooth pipe of uniform diameter 30 cm a pressure of 60 kPa was observed at section 1
which was at elevation 13.00 m. At another section 2 at elevation 15.00 m the pressure was
30 kPa and the velocity was 1.5 m/s. The fluid in pipe is water. The head loss between two
sections is _________ m.
126. 1.06 (1.00 to 1.10) 2

Discharge, Q = A1V1 = A2V2
π
Q = × (0.3) 2 × 1.5 15.00 m
4
1
= 0.106 m3/s = 106 l/s
Taking atmospheric pressure as zero.
Total energy at section 1, 12.00 m
p1 V12
H1 = + + z1
γ 2g Datum
60 × 10 3 1.5 2
= + + 13
9.81 × 1000 2 × 9.81
= 19.23 m
Total energy at section 2,
p 2 V22
H2 = + + z2
γ 2g
30 × 10 3 1.5 2
= + + 15
9.81 × 1000 2 × 9.81
= 18.173 m
As H1 > H2, the flow is from section 1 to 2. Head loss between the sections 1 and 2
i.e. HL = H1 – H2 = 19.23 – 18.173 = 1.057 m
Q.127 A hemispherical bulge of diameter 1.5 m is provided in the bottom of a tank. If the depth of
water above the horizontal floor of the tank is 5.0 m, the magnitude of resultant force on the
hemisphere is ___________ kN.
127. 78.01 (77 to 79)

R S
5.0 m
P
R
O
M N
1.5 m
By symmetry the net horizontal force is zero.
for GATE 2020 CE
Vertical force, FV = Weight of fluid above the hemisphere MPN
⎡ 2 1 4 3⎤
= γ ⎢ πR H − · πR ⎥
⎣ 2 3 ⎦
⎡ 2 2 3⎤
= 9.81 × ⎢ π(0.75) × 5 − × π × (0.75) ⎥
⎣ 3 ⎦
= 78.01 kN
Resultant force is same as the vertical force FV = 78.01 kN acting vertically at the center of the
hemisphere.
Q.128 For a two-dimensional potential flow, the velocity potential is given by
φ = 4x (3y – 4)
The stream function is given as

(a) 6x2 – 6y2 + 16x (b) 6x2 + 6y2 + 16y
(c) 6x2 + 6y2 – 16y (d) 6x2 – 6y2 + 16y
128. (d)
∂φ ∂ψ −∂φ ∂ψ
–u = − = ; −v= =−
∂x ∂y ∂y ∂x
−∂ψ −∂ψ
⇒ dψ = dx + dy
∂x ∂y
= –vdx + udy
= 12xdx + (16 – 12y)dy
x2 y2
+ 16 y − 12
ψ = 12·
2 2
2 2
= 6x – 6y + 16y
Hence option (d) is correct.
Q.129 The allowable net positive section head (NPSH) for a pump provided by the manufacturer for
a flow of 0.1 m3/s is 3.1 m. The vapour pressure head (absolute) is 0.5 m, atmospheric pressure
is 10.25 m (absolute) and the head loss from the reservoir to pump is 0.3 N-m/N. The maximum
height of pump above the suction reservoir is __________ m.
129. 6.35 (6.25 to 6.45)

NPSH = Hatm – Hv – Hs – hfs
3.1 = 10.25 – 0.5 – Hs – 0.3
∴ Hs = (10.25 – 0.5) – 3.1 – 0.3
= 9.75 – 3.4
= 6.35 m
Q.130 A 10 m wide rectangular channel conveys 20 m3/s of water with a velocity of 4 m/s. The
specific energy of the flow is __________ m.
for GATE 2020 CE
130. 1.32 (1.25 to 1.36)
B = 10 m
2
V
Specific energy, E = y+
2g
Q
But V =
A
20
⇒ 4 =
10 × y
y = 0.5 m
42
∴ E = 0.5 + = 1.32 m
2 × 9.81
Q.131 The thickness of laminar boundary layer over a flat plate at two different sections P and Q
are 0.7 cm and 2.1 cm respectively. If the section Q is 4 m downstream of P, the distance of
section P from the leading edge of the plate will be ___________ m.
131. 0.5 (0.49 to 0.51)

For laminar boundary layer,
δ 5
=
x Rex
5x 5 x
⇒ δ = =
vx v
ν ν
∴ δ ∝ x
Let l be the distance of section P from the leading edge,
δP l
∴ =
δQ l+4
2
⎛ 0.7 ⎞ l
⇒ ⎜⎝ ⎟ =
2.1 ⎠ l+4
⇒ 9l = l + 4
⇒ 8l = 4
∴ l = 0.5 m
Q.132 In a laminar flow between two parallel plates with a separation distance of 6 mm, the centre
line velocity is 1.8 m/s. The velocity at a distance of 1 mm from the boundary is
(a) 0.15 m/s (b) 1.0 m/s
(c) 0.55 m/s (d) 0.75 m/s
for GATE 2020 CE
132. (b)
−1 ⎛ ∂P ⎞
u = ⎜ ⎟ Hy − y
2 μ ⎝ ∂x ⎠
2
( )
1 ⎛ ∂P ⎞ 2 −3 2
− ⎜ ⎟ ⎡ 6(1) − (1) ⎤⎦ × (10 )
u 2 μ ⎝ ∂x ⎠ ⎣
=
ucentreline 1 ⎛ ∂P ⎞ ⎡ ⎛ 6 ⎞ ⎛ 6 ⎞ ⎤
2
−3 2
− ⎜ ⎟ ⎢ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ × (10 )
6 −
2μ ⎝ ∂x ⎠ ⎣⎢ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎦⎥
u 5
=
1.8 18 − 9
u = 1 m/s
Q.133 For a constant specific energy of 1.5 N-m/N, the maximum discharge that can occur in a parabolic
channel of top width 5.0 m is ___________ m3/s.
133. 10.17 (9.5 to 11)

For a given specific energy, the discharge is maximum when critical flow occurs.
Depth of flow, y = yc
For critical flow in parabolic channel,
3 3
y = y c = E = × 1.5 = 1.125 m
4 4
V
For a parabolic channel, Fr =
gD
T
2
Ty
A =
3
A 2
D = = y y
T 3
For critical flow, Fr = 1
2 2
∴ V 2 = gD = g ×
y = 9.81 × × 1.125
3 3
⇒ V = 2.712 m/s
∴ Discharge, Q = AV
2
= × 5 × 1.125 × 2.712
3
= 10.17 m3/s
u y
Q.134 The velocity distribution in a boundary layer is given by = , where u is the velocity at a
U δ
distance y from the plate and u = U at y = δ, where δ is boundary layer thickness. The ratio of
displacement thickness to momentum thickness is ___________.
134. (3)
δ
⎛ u⎞
Displacement thickness,δ* = ∫ ⎜⎝1− U ⎟⎠ dy
0
for GATE 2020 CE
δ
u⎛ u⎞
Momentum thickness, Q = ∫ U ⎜⎝1− U ⎟⎠ dy
0
δ δ
δ ⎡
⎛ u⎞ ⎛ y⎞ y2 ⎤
δ*
∫ ⎜⎝1 − U ⎟⎠ dy ∫ ⎜⎝ 1 − δ ⎟⎠ dy ⎢y − ⎥
2δ ⎦
0 ⎣
∴ = δ = δ
0
= 0
δ
Q u ⎛ u⎞ ⎡y2
y ⎛ y⎞ y3 ⎤
∫ U ⎜⎝1 − U ⎟⎠ dy ∫ δ ⎜⎝ 1 − δ ⎟⎠ dy ⎢ − 2⎥
0 0 ⎣ 2δ 3δ ⎦ 0
⎛ δ⎞ ⎛ δ⎞
⎜⎝ δ − ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
2 2
= = =3
⎛ δ δ⎞ ⎛ δ⎞
⎜⎝ − ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
2 3 6
1 3
Q.135 In a geometrically similar model of spillway, the discharge per meter length is m /s . The
8
1
scale of the model is . The discharge per meter length of the prototype is
36
___________ m3/s/m.
135. 27 (26.5 to 27.5)

Given:
Discharge per meter length of model,
1 3
qm = m /s
8
Linear scale ratio, Lr = 36
The discharge ratio for spillway is given by equation
Qp
= Lr2.5
Qm
But discharge ratio per meter length is given as
qp Qp /Lp Qp Lm 1
= = × = L2.5
r × = L1.5
r
qm Qm /Lm Qm Lp Lr
1
× (36 ) = 27 m3 /s/m
1.5
⇒ qp = qm × Lr1.5 =
8
Q.136 A pipe of 400 mm diameter conveying 0.4 m3/s of oil (s = 0.9) has a right angle bend in
horizontal plane. If pressure at inlet and outlet of the bend are 25 N/cm2 and 23 N/cm2 then
the magnitude of resultant force on the bend is ________________ kN.
V p2
136. 42.8 (41.5 to 44.5)

Density, ρ= 0.9 × 1000 = 900 kg/m3 Ry
R
Discharge, Q = 0.4 m3/s
π Rx
× 402 = 1256.64 cm 2
Area, A =
4
Q 0.4 V
Velocity of flow, Vx = Vy = V = = p1
A 1256.64 × 10−4
= 3.185 m/s
for GATE 2020 CE
Momentum equation in x-direction:
Rx = p1 A1 + ρQ V
⇒ Rx = 25 × 1256.64 + 900 × 0.4 × 3.183
⇒ Rx = 32561.88 N
Ry = p2A2 – ρQ V
= 23 × 1256.64 – 900 × 0.4 × 3.183 = 27756.84 N
Resultant, R = R2x + Ry2
R = (32561.88)2 + (27756.84)2
R = 42786.9 N 42.8 kN
Q.137 A venturimeter of throat diameter 100 mm is installed in a pipe of 200 mm diameter to measure
the discharge. If it is observed that pressure difference between both sections is 2 m of water,
then the discharge in the pipe is ____________ l/sec.
[Take g = 9.81 m/s2 and Cd = 1]
137. 50.8 (49 to 52)
200 mm 100 mm
Given: h = 2m
Cd = 1
π
Area at inlet, a1 = × 0.2 2 = 3.14 × 10 −2 m 2
4
π
Area at throat, a2 = × 0.12 = 7.85 × 10 −3 m 2
4
Cda1a2 2gh
Discharge, Q =
a12 − a22
1 × 3.14 × 10−2 × 7.85 × 10−3 × 2 × 9.81 × 2

=
(3.14 × 10−2 )2 − (7.85 × 10−3 )2
= 0.05079 m3/s
= 50.79 l/s 50.8 l/s
Q.138 A rectangular channel is carrying water which is provided with a hydraulic jump type of
energy dissipator. It is desired to have an energy loss of 3 m in hydraulic jump when inlet
Fraud number is 5.292. Sequent depth after jump is ____________ m.
for GATE 2020 CE
138. 2.72 (2.6 to 2.8)
We know,
y2 −1+ 8F12 + 1
=
y1 2
y2 −1 + 8 × 5.292 2 + 1
⇒ = (F1 = 5.292)
y1 2
y2 −1 + 15
=7
y1 = 2
( y 2 − y 1 )3
Also, EL =
4y 1y 2
3
⎛y ⎞
y 1 ⎜ 2 − 1⎟
⎝ y1 ⎠
⇒ 3 =
⎛y ⎞
4⎜ 2 ⎟
⎝ y1 ⎠
y 1 (7 − 1)
3
⇒ 3 =
4×7
y1 = 0.389 m
∴ y2 = 2.72 m
Q.139 A 2.5 m wide rectangular channel has a flow with a velocity of 1.5 m/s and depth of flow is 1.5
m. A smooth hump is to built at a section to creat critical flow condition over the hump. The
resulting change in water level surface elevation is ____________ m.
[Assume energy loss at the hump is negligible and acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2]
139. 0.29 (0.26 to 0.31)

B = 2.5 m, V = 1.5 m/s, D = 1.5 m
Froud no can be given as
Q2T
Fr2 =
gA3
where, T = B = 2.5 m, Q = 1.5 × 1.5 × 2.5 = 5.62 m3/s
At critical flow,
(5.625)2 × (2.5)
1 =
(10) × (2.5 × y c ) 3
⇒ y c3 = 0.506
⇒ yc = 0.796 0.80 m
Specific energy at critical section = 1.5 yc = 1.2 m
Applying energy equation between both sections
for GATE 2020 CE
1.5 +
(1.5)2 = 1.2 + zhump
2 × 10
⇒ zhump = 0.4125 m 0.41 m
Change in water surface elevation = y 1 − ( y 2 + z hump ) ( )

= 1.5 – (0.8 + 0.41)
= 0.29 m
Q.140 A hydraulic jump occurs in a triangular channel as shown in the figure below. If the sequent
depth in channel are 0.50 and 1.5 m respectively than the flow rate will be ____________ m3/s.
90°
140. 1.73 (1.7 to 1.8)

2y
90°
In a triangular channel,
1
1. Area = ·2y · y = y 2
2
y γ y3
2. Force = γ whA = γ w × × y2 = w
3 3
⎛ γw ⎞ Q γ wQ2
3. Momentum = ρQV = ⎜ ·Q · =
⎝ g ⎟⎠ y2 gy 2
For hydraulic jump to occur,
F1 + M1 = F2 + M2
γ w y 13 γ w Q 2 γ w y 23 γ w Q 2
⇒ + = +
3 gy 12 3 gy 22
⎛ y 13 − y 23 ⎞ ⎛ Q 2 ⎞ ⎛ y 12 − y 22 ⎞
⇒ ⎜ ⎟ = ⎜ g ⎟⎜ 2 2 ⎟
⎝ 3 ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ y1 y 2 ⎠
⇒
Q2
=
(y 2
1 )(
+ y 1y 2 + y 22 y 12 y 22 )
g (y 1 + y 2 )
Q2
⇒ = 0.305
g
⇒ Q = 1.7298 m3/s 1.73 m3/s
for GATE 2020 CE
⎡ α 384 ⎤
Q.141 Stiffness matrix for the pin jointed frame as shown in the figure below is given as ⎢ .
⎣384 β ⎥⎦
If the area of cross-section of members AB and AC are 100 cm2 and 200 cm2 respectively,
then the value of α is ___________.
[Take modulus of elasticity as 2000 t/cm2]
2
4m
B 1
A
10 t
3m
141. 1012 (1010 to 1014)
θAB
B 1
θAC A
A AB A
k11 = cos 2 θ AB + AC cos2 θ AC
L L
But θAB = 180°
⎛ 3⎞
and θAC = 180° + tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ = 216.87°
⎝ 4⎠
100 × 2000 200 × 2000

∴ k11 = ( cos180° )2 + ( cos 216.87° )2
400 500
⇒ k11 1012 t/cm
∴ α = 1012
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.142 A fixed beam ABC fixed at the ends is loaded as shown in figure.
150 kNm
4m 30 kN/m
A C
D B
6m 4m
The magnitude of final end moment at support A is ________ kNm.
142. (58)
Fixed end moments
M 0b(3a − l ) 150 × 2 (3 × 4 − 6)
M AB = = = 50 kNm
l2 62
M 0a(3b − l) 150 × 4 (3 × 2 − 6)
M BA = = =0
l2 62
wl 2 30 × 42
M BC = – =− = −40kNm
12 12
M BC = +40 kNm
B
2 3
A 5 5 C
50 0 –40 40
16 24
8 12
58 16 –16 52
Q.143 A uniform simply supported beam is subjected to clockwise moments at both ends A and
B. If the ratio of the rotation at the two ends A and B is 4, then the ratio of the applied
moments at A and B will be ___________.
143. (1.5)
MA
L B
EI
A
MB
2E I
MAB = 0 + ( 2θ A + θB )
L
2E I
MBA = 0+ ( 2θB + θ A )
L
Given,
θA
= 4
θB
⇒ θA = 4θB
for GATE 2020 CE
MAB 2θ A + θB 9
∴ = = = 1.5
MBA 2θB + θ A 6
Q.144 The carry over moment transferred to the fixed end ‘B ’ is
D
B
A C
M L L L
2 4 4
M M
(a) (b)
4 3
M
(c) (d) M
2
144. (c)
D
B
A C
MB
RA RB
M L L L
2 4 4
∑MC = 0 (from left)
L
⇒ RA × −M = 0
2
2M 2M
⇒ RA = and RB = −
L L
∑MD = 0 (from right)
L
⇒ −M B + R A × = 0
4
L
⇒ MB = R A ×
4
2M L M
= × =
L 4 2
Q.145 A three hinged arch consisting of quadrantal parts AC and BC of radius 4 m and 6 m respectively
carries a point load of 60 kN and UDL of 40 kN/m as shown in figure below. The support
reaction at B will be ____________ kN.
for GATE 2020 CE
60 kN
40 kN/m
C
3m
4m B
6m
145. 129 (128 to 130)
60 kN
40 kN/m
C
3m
4m
H
2m
4m H
RA
6m
RB
Taking moments about C from left,

RA × 4 = H × 4
⇒ RA = H ...(i)
Taking moments about C from right,
RB × 6 = H × 6 + 40 × 3 × 1.5 ...(ii)
∑Fy = 0
RA + RB = 60 + 40 × 3 = 180 kN ...(iii)
Solving (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
RA = 75 kN
RB = 105 kN
HB = 75 kN
The resultant support reaction at B will be R = 75 2 + 105 2 = 129 kN
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.146 In a truss with all the pin-connected rods there is a joint B attached to joint E by a spring whose
unstretched length is 1 m and whose spring constant is 4 kN/m. Neglect the weight of all the
bars and the spring. The magnitude of the load W applied at D that makes CD horizontal is
___________ N.
1m
A B
1m
D
C
1m 1m
W
146. 585 (580 to 595)

Unstretched length of spring = 1m
Stretched length of spring = 2 m = 1.414 m
Thus change in length = 0.414 m
∴ FBE = kΔ = 4 × (0.414) = 1.656 kN
By method of sections,
FBE
1 m 45° B
A
FBA
FCA
D
C 1m
W
∑MA = 0
⎛F ⎞
⇒ W × 2 − ⎜ BE × 1⎟ = 0
⎝ 2 ⎠
FBE 1.656
⇒ W = = = 0.585 kN = 585 N
2 2 2 2
Q.147 The force in the member AC of the frame as shown in figure given below is ___________ N.
[Take AE as constant for all the members]
for GATE 2020 CE
A
1000 N
45° 90° 60°
B C D
147. 17.8 (16.6 to 18.8)

D S = m – (2j – r) = 3 – (2 × 4 – 6) = 1
Hence the frame is indeterminate to single degree. Considering the member AC to be redundant,
replace it by tensile forces (R) at the joints A and C, as shown below.
A
1000 N
R
45° 90° 60°
B C D
At Joint A:
A
1000 N
45° 60°
FAB FAD
R
∑ Fx = 0
⇒FAB cos 45° + FAD cos 60°= 1000 ....(i)
∑Fy = 0
⇒ FAB sin 45° + R = FAD sin 60° ....(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get
FAB = 896.61 – 0.518 R (tension); FAD = 0.732 R + 732 (compression)
n
∂U ∂F L
For the whole frame,
∂R
= 0= ∑ F ∂R . A E
1
for GATE 2020 CE
The summation may be carried in the tabular form as shown below:
(+ For tension and – For compression)
∂F ∂F
Member L F F L
∂R ∂R
AB 2 L 896.61 − 0.518 R −0.518 ( −654.29 + 0.379R )L
2
AD L −(0.732R + 732) −0.732 (0.619 R + 618.7)L
3
AC L +R +1 RL
∑ = (1.998 R − 35.59) L
∴ 1.998 R – 35.59 = 0
⇒ R = 17.81 N
Alternatively,
By using unit load method,
A A
1000 N
896.61 N 732 N 0.518 N 0.732 N

1N
B D B D
(P-forces after removing redundant member) (K-forces due to application of unit load)
Member P (in N) K ( in N) L ( in m)
AB 896.61 −0.518 2L
AD 732 −0.732 2L/ 3
AC 0 1 L
Fforce in redundant member,

∑ PKL
R = − = 17.81 N
∑ K 2L
Q.148 Force in the member AD for the truss shown below is ______ kN.
60 kN
A B
4m
E D C
40 kN 30 kN
3m 3m
for GATE 2020 CE
148. 162.5 (162 to 163)
60 kN
A 1 B
4m
θ
E D C
1
40 kN 30 kN
3m 3m
Cut the truss by section (1)-(1) passing through AB, AD and ED and consider the equilibrium
of RHS part
(FAD) × sin θ = 60 + 40 + 30
4
⇒ FAD × = 130
5
⇒ FAD = 162.5 kN (Tensile)
Q.149 The members shown in the diagram below are subjected to a moment 50 kNm at joint E, the
moments carried by members EA and EB are x and y respectively. Then, 2x + y = _________
kNm.
D
3m 5m
2m I
I
A C
2I E
50 kNm
2m
1.5I
149. 66.3 (65 to 67)

Member Stiffness Distribution Factor Moment (kNm) = D.F. × 50
4E(2 I ) 8EI 2.67
EA = = 2.67 EI = 0.466 23.3
3 3 2.67 + 2.25 + 0.8
3E(1.5 I ) 2.25
EB = 2.25EI = 0.394 19.7
2 2.67 + 2.25 + 0.8
4EI 0.8
EC = 0.8EI = 0.14 7
5 2.67 + 2.25 + 0.8
ED 0
for GATE 2020 CE
x = 23.3
y = 19.7
2x + y = 2 × 23.3 + 19.7 = 66.3 kNm
Q.150 A planar truss tower structure is shown in the figure.
Consider the following statements about the external and internal determinacies of the truss.
P. Externally Determinate
Q. External Static Indeterminacy = 1
R. External Static Indeterminacy = 2
S. Internally Determinate
T. Internal Static Indeterminacy = 1
U. Internal Static Indeterminacy = 2
Which one of the following options is correct?
(a) P-False; Q-True; R-False; S-False; T-False; U-True
(b) P-False; Q-True; R-False; S-False; T-True; U-False
(c) P-False; Q-False; R-True; S-False; T-False; U-True
(d) P-True; Q-True; R-False; S-True; T-False; U-True
150. (a)
Dse = re – 3 – s = 4 – 3 = 1
Dsi = m –(2j – 3) = 15 – (2 × 8 – 3)
=2
Trick : For a truss formed due to combination of simple triangles.
Dsi = No. of double diagonal panels = 2
Dse = R – 3 = 4 – 3 = 1

Revision CE
forGATE 2020 Q.151 - Q.175

Day 7 of 8
PSU & Govt. Jobs

DRDO, BARC, etc.

GATE
Gateway for
Engineers
Research Courses

Building 1.20%
1.30% Airport Engg.
1.20% 0.50% Soil Mechanics 14.10%
PERT-
Channel 1.10%
3.00% & English
Steel
4.30%
RCC Mechanics
5.00%
5.10%
Maths
SOM 12.40%
Highway
Environmental
8.10%
Engg.
Total 100%
10.20%
for GATE 2020 CE
Day 7 : Q.151 to Q. 175 : Soil Mechanics
Q.151 A soil deposit has a void ratio of 0.8. If the void ratio is reduced to 0.5 by compaction then the
percentage volume loss due to compaction will be
(a) 15.67% (b) 16.67%
(c) 20% (d) 30%
151. (b)
∆V ∆e 0.8 − 0.5
∵ = =
V 1 + e0 1 + 0.8
∆V 1
⇒ =
V 6
⇒ Percentage volume loss,
∆V 1
× 100 = × 100 = 16.67%
V 6
Q.152 In a falling head permeability test on a soil sample of length l1, the head of water in the stand
pipe takes 50 seconds to fall from 900 mm to 135 mm above the tail water level. When
another soil sample of length 60 mm is placed on the first soil sample, the time taken for the
head to fall between the same limits is 150 seconds. The permeameter has a cross-sectional
area of 4560 mm2 and a stand pipe has an area of 130 mm2. The permeability of the second
soil sample will be
(a) 0.0452 mm/s (b) 0.0325 mm/s
(c) 0.0532 mm/s (d) 0.0648 mm/s
152. (b)
Case-I : Soil sample I
a· L1  h 1 
∵ k1 = ln
A· t 1  h 2 
L1 A· t 4560 × 50
⇒ =
k1 = h   900 
a· ln  1  130 ln 
 h2   135 
L1
⇒ k 1 = 924.5s
Case-II : Soil sample II placed on soil sample I
For permeability test on both soils
Flow
Soil 2 l2 = 60 mm
Soil 1 l1
for GATE 2020 CE
aL  h 1 
kv = At ln  h 
2
130 × l  900 
⇒ kv = ln  
4560 × 150  135 
l
⇒ k v = 2773.43 seconds
l l1 l
∵ = + 2
kv k1 k 2
60
⇒ 2773.43 = 924.5 +
k2
60
⇒ k2 = = 0.0325 mm/s
1848.93
Q.153 A soil profile at a certain location is as shown in figure. A rigid circular foundation of 4 m
diameter rests on the sand. The contact pressure at the underside of the foundation is 230 kN/m2.
The average coefficient of compressibility of the clay is 0.65 × 10–3 m2/kN for the stress range
encountered. The ultimate settlement of the foundation assuming 45° load distribution
4m
2
230 kN/m
1m
45° 45°
4m e = 0.54
G = 2.65 Sand
e = 1.2
Clay
G = 2.7
8m
(a) 21.70 mm (b) 24.83 mm

(c) 26.48 mm (d) 28.30 mm
153. (a)
−3 m2
Given: av = 0.65 × 10
kN
σTop = 230 kN/m2
Diameter = 4 m
For sand,
G γ w 2.65 × 9.81
∵ γd = = = 16.88 kN/m 3
1+ e 1 + 0.54
G+e 2.65 + 0.54
γsat = γw = × 9.81 = 20.32 kN/m 3
1+ e 1.54
for GATE 2020 CE
For clay,
G+e 2.7 + 1.2
γsat = γw = × 9.81 = 17.39 kN/m 3
1+ e 1 + 1.2
At mid of clay layer
σ′0 = 1 × 16.88 + (20.32 – 9.81) × 3 + 4 × (17.39 – 9.81)
= 78.73 kN/m2
π
230 ×× 42
4 = 9.2 kN/m 2
∆σ = π
× [ 4 + 16 ]
2
4
av 0.65 × 10 −3
∴ mv = = = 2.95 × 10 −4 m 2 /kN
1 + e0 1 + 1.2
∴ ρf = mv H0· ∆σ
= 2.95 × 10–4 × 8 × 9.2
= 0.0217 m
= 21.70 mm
Q.154 The thickness of the cutting edge of the sampler used, if the diameter of soil sample obtained
from the sampler is 70 mm is __________ mm. [Take value of area ratio as 20%]
154. 3.34 (3.2 to 3.5)

D22 − D12
Ar =
D12
⇒ 0.2 × 702 + 702 = D22

⇒ D2 = 76.68 mm
D2 − D1 76.68 − 70
∴ Thickness of cutting edge of sampler = = = 3.34 mm
2 2
Q.155 An unconfined cylindrical specimen of clay fails under an axial stress of 240 kN/m2. The
failure plane was inclined at an angle of 35° to the vertical. The cohesion of the soil is
_________kN/m2.
155. 84 (80 to 88)

2  φ  φ
σ1 = σ 3 tan  45° +  + 2c tan  45° + 
 2  2
σ3 = 0 (∵ unconfined test)
Given, σ1 = 240 kN/m 2
The failure angle is given by

φ
α = 45° +
2
Since, the failure plane is given at an angle of 35° from vertical, thus from horizontal, it is
α = 90° – 35° = 55°
φ
∴ 55° = 45° +
2
for GATE 2020 CE
⇒ φ = 20°
σ1 240
∴ c = =
 φ  2 tan 55°
2 tan  45° + 
 2
= 84 kN/m 2
φ
Note: Also in the above formulaes, instead of 45° + directly α can be used.
2
Q.156 A group of nine friction piles with three piles in a row was driven into soft clay extending
from ground level to a great depth. The diameter and length of the piles were 30 cm and 10 m
respectively. The unconfined compressive strength of clay is 140 kN/m2. If the piles were
spaced at 90 cm centre to centre then the allowable load on the pile group on the basis of
failure criterion for a factor of safety of 2.5, will be ________ kN. [Take α = 0.6]
156. 1425 (1410 to 1435)
90 cm
30 cm
B = 90 × 2 + 30 = 210 cm = 2.1 m
q 140
Cu = = = 70 kN/m 2
2 2
(A) Pile failing individually
Q un = n(α Cu As ) = 9 (0.6 × 70 × π × 0.3 × 10)
= 3562.57 kN ...(i)
(B) Piles failing in group
Q ug = Cu(4BL) = 70 × 4 × 2.1 × 10 = 5880 kN ...(ii)
Lesser of these two values will be ultimate load
i.e. Q u = 3562.57 kN
Qu 3562.57
∴ Qs = = = 1425 kN
F 2.5
Q.157 A square pile group of 16 piles penetrates through a recently filled up soil of 2.5 m depth. The
pile diameter is 200 mm and pile spacing is 0.65 m. The unit cohesion of the soil is 20 kN/m2
and the unit weight of the soil is 15 kN/m3. The negative skin friction on the pile group is
______ kN. [Take α = 0.65]
for GATE 2020 CE
157. 603.34 (601 to 605)
Case I:
Piles acting individually,
Qun = n ( α· c As )
= 16 × 0.65 × 20 × π × 0.2 × 2.5
= 326.73 kN
Case II:
Piles acting in the group,
Q ug = c · ( As ) + γD f Ab
B
= 3 × 0.65 + 0.2 = 2.15 m
= 4BL = 4 × 2.15 × 2.5 = 21.5 m2
As
= B2 = 2.152 = 4.6225 m2
Ab
∴ Q ug
= 20 × 21.5 + 15 × 2.5 × 4.6225
= 603.34 kN
∴ Negative skin friction will be maximum of these two
∴ Negative skin friction = 603.34 kN
Q.158 A drainage pipe (as shown in figure) became completely blocked during a storm by a plug of
sand 1.5 m long followed by another plug of a mixture of clay, silt and sand 0.5 m long. When
the storm was over, the water level above ground was 1 m. The hydraulic conductivity of the
sand is 2 times that of the mixture of clay, silt and sand. The average hydraulic gradient in the
mixture of clay, silt and sand is __________.
Brick wall
1m
2.3 m
Sand Mixture of silt, clay and sand
A C B
1.5 m
0.5 m
158. 2.64 (2.5 to 2.7)

Total head at A, hA= 2.3 + 1 = 3.3 m
Total head at B, hB = 0
⇒ ∆H = 3.3 – 0 = 3.3 m
∵ Discharge is constant and cross-sectional areas are also same for both the samples and thus,
Velocity of flow = Constant
⇒ ksand isand = kmix imix
Given ksand = 2 kmix
∆Hs ∆Hm
∴ 2 kmix· = kmix·
1.5 0.5
⇒ ∆Hs = 1.5 ∆Hm
for GATE 2020 CE
∵ ∆H = 3.3 = ∆Hs + ∆Hm
⇒ 2.5 ∆Hm = 3.3
⇒ ∆H m = 1.32 m
∆H m 1.32
⇒ imix = = = 2.64
L 0.5
Q.159 The clayey soil profile above the rock surface at 30° infinite slope is shown in figure where Su
is shear strength and γt is total unit weight of soil. The slip will occur at a depth of ________ m
from top surface of soil.
3 6m
m
N/ 2
= 15 k N/m
γt 0k
=4 6m
l, A SU 3
Soi N/ m 2
18 k /m
γ t = 60 kN
SU =
l, B
Soi
30°
159. 8.698 (8.6 to 8.8)

Case-1: Let the slip happens in soil A
∵ At slip FOS
40 + ( 15 × h )· cos 2 30· tan 0°

∴ 1 =
15 × h × cos 30° sin 30°
⇒ h = 6.16 m > 6 m
i.e. slip does not happen in soil A.
Case-2: Let the slip happens in soil B
6m ne
pla
Slip
h
30°
60
∴ 1 = ( 15 × 6 + h × 18 ) sin 30° cos 30°
⇒ h = 2.698 m 2.7 m
⇒ Thus slip will occur at a depth of 6 + 2.7 = 8.7 m from top surface of soil.
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.160 In a triaxial test, a soil sample was consolidated under a cell pressure of 650 kN/m2. Thereafter,
with drainage not allowed, the cell pressure was raised to 750 kN/m2 resulting in the increased
pore water pressure reading to 445 kN/m2 from 360 kN/m2. The axial load was then increased
to give a deviator stress of 550 kN/m2 (while cell pressure remained at 750 kN/m2) and a pore
pressure reading of 640 kN/m2. The value of pore pressure coefficients B and A will be
respectively.
(a) 0.85, 0.35 (b) 0.85, 0.42
(c) 0.80, 0.30 (d) 0.80, 0.37
160. (b)
Change in pore pressure
∵ B =
Change in confining pressure
445 − 360
∴ B = = 0.85
750 − 650
Again
∆U 2 640 − 445
∵ A = AB = = = 0.355
∆σ d 550
A 0.355
∴ A = = = 0.42
B 0.85
Q.161 The water table in a deposit of sand 8 m thick, is at a depth of 3 m below the surface. Above
the water table, the sand is saturated with capillary water. The total and effective stress
(in kN/m2) at point A as shown in figure are:
1m
A
3m Sand (Capillary Saturated)
8m
3
γsat = 19.62 kN/m
(a) 19.62, 19.62 (b) 39.24, 39.24

(c) 39.24, 19.62 (d) 19.62, 39.24
161. (d)
Total stress at A, σ = γsat × 1
= 19.62 kN/m2
Pore water pressure at A,
u = –2 × γw
= –2 × 9.81
= –19.62 kN/m2
Effective stress at A, σ = σ–u
= 19.62 – (–19.62) = 39.24 kN/m2
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.162 A layer of fully saturated soft clay is 6 m thick and lies under a newly constructed building.
The weight of sand overlying the clayey layer produces a pressure of 260 kN/m2 and the
new construction increases the pressure by 100 kN/m2 both calculated at the center of clay
layer. If the water content of the clay layer is 40%, specific gravity is 2.65 and compression
index is 0.5, then the settlement of the foundation will be ____________ cm.
162. 17.54 (16 to 19)

wG 0.4 × 2.65
=
Void ratio, e = [∵ Fully saturated]
S 1
⇒ e = 1.06
Saturated unit weight of clay,
 G + e
γsat =  + e  γ w
1
 2.65 + 1.06 
=   × 9.81
1 + 1.06 
= 17.667 kN/m3
Effective stress at centre of clay layer due to clay = 17.667 × 3 = 53 kN/m3
Total intial overburden pressure = 260 + 53 = 313 kN/m3
H 0C c  σ 0 + ∆σ 
Consolidation settlement, S = 1 + e log 10  σ 
0 0
6 × 0.5  313 + 100 

= log 10  
1 + 1.06  313 
= 0.1754 m
= 17.54 cm
Q.163 A clayey soil with a specific gravity of 2.70 has a natural moisture content of 16% at 70%
degree of saturation. If after soaking, the degree of saturation becomes 90%, the water
content will rise to ____________ %.
163. 20.57 (20 to 21)

Gw 2.7 × 0.16
Void ratio, e = = = 0.617
S 0.7
Now,degree of saturation,
S = 90%
Se
∴ w =
G
0.9 × 0.617
= = 0.2057 [∵ Void ratio will remain same in both
2.7
cases]
= 20.57%
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.164 The maximum and minimum dry densities of sand determined in laboratory are 2 g/cc and
1.5 g/cc respectively. If G = 2.6 and relative density of sand is 74%, then the in-situ void ratio
of sand will be ___________.
164. 0.413 (0.4 to 0.42)

ρd ,max ( ρd − ρd ,min )
Relative density, ID =
ρd (ρd ,max − ρd ,min )
2 ( ρ d − 1.5 ) 2ρ d − 3
⇒ 0.74 = =
ρ d ( 2 − 1.5 ) 0.5ρ d
⇒ ρ d = 1.84 g/cc
Gρ w
Now, ρd =
1+ e
Gρw
⇒ e = −1
ρd
2.6 × 1
= − 1 = 0.413
1.84
Q.165 A strip footing is resting on the ground surface of a pure clay bed having undrained cohesion
as 25 kN/m2. The ultimate bearing capacity of the footing is equal to _____________ kN/m2.
165. 142.5 (142 to 143)

Ultimate bearing capacity is given by,
1
qu = cN c + γD f N q + γBN γ
2
For clay, Nγ = 0, Nq = 1 and Nc = 5.7
1
∴ qu = c × 5.7 + γ × 0 × 1 + × γ × B × 0 (∵ Df = 0)
2
= 25 × 5.7
= 142.5 kN/m2
Q.166 The following data refers to the classification tests carried out on a soil sample.
Percentage passing through 4.75 mm sieve = 100
Percentage passing through 75 µ sieve = 64
Liquid limit = 48%
Plastic limit = 33%
According to IS classification system, soil can be classified as:
(a) MI (b) OI
(c) CI (d) CL-ML
166. (a)
Fraction of sand = 100 – 64 = 36%
Fraction of fines = 64%
∴The soil is fine grained.
for GATE 2020 CE
Plasticity index = wL – wP
= 48 – 33 = 15
Equation of A-line, IP = 0.73 (wL – 20)
= 0.73 (48 – 20)
= 20.44
Soil lies below A-line, therefore, it is silt.
Now, as 35 < wL < 50 it is classified as MI.
Q.167 The intensity of vertical stress directly below a concentrated load of 200 kN at a depth of 4 m
according to Boussinesq’s theory is _______________ kN/m2.
167. 5.97 (5.9 to 6.1)

According to Boussinesq’s theory,
K BQ
q =
z2
5/2
3  1 
KB =  2
2π
 1 +  r  
  z  
3
= ∵ r = 0 
2π
3 200
⇒ q = × = 5.97 kN/m 2
2π 4 2
Alternatively,
Vertical stress directly below the point load on its axis of loading is given by,
0.4775Q 0.4775 × 200
q = =
z2 42
⇒ q = 5.97 kN/m2
Q.168 The minimum factor of safety against shear failure of a vertical cut of height 6 m in a pure
clayey soil having coefficient of undrained cohesion as 90 kN/m2 and γsat of 20 kN/m3, assuming
planar failure, is
(a) 2.0 (b) 2.5
(c) 3.0 (d) 4.0
168. (c)
Maximum height of unsupported cut,
4c
H =
γ ka
For pure clayey soil, φ = 0°
1 − sin φ
Hence, ka = 1 + sin φ = 1
4 × 90
∴ H = = 18 m
20
∵ Actual height of cut = 6 m
for GATE 2020 CE
18
∴ Factor of safety = =3
6
Q.169 The coordinates of two points on the virgin compression curve are as follows:
e (
σ′ kN/m 2 )
1.22 108
0.97 225
The void ratio that corresponds to a pressure of 300 kN/m2 is

(a) 0.56 (b) 0.70
(c) 0.87 (d) 0.95
169. (c)
e1 − e2 1.22 − 0.97
We know that, Cc = = = 0.784
 σ′   225 
log  2  log 
 σ′1   108 
e1 − e3
Also, Cc = = 0.784
 σ′3 
log  
 σ′1 
 300 
e3 = 1.22 − 0.784 log 
 108 
= 0.872
Q.170 A column is supported on a footing as shown in the figure below. The water table is at a depth
of 5 m below the base of the footing.
Column
GL
Sand
3
2m γ = 19 kN/m
Nq = 25
Footing
Nγ = 18
2m×3m
The ultimate bearing capacity of the soil based on Terzaghi’s bearing capacity equation is
_________ kN/m2.
170. 1246.4 (1244 to 1248)

For rectangular footing,
 B  B 1
qu =  1 + 0.3  cN c + γD f N q +  1 − 0.2  γBN γ
 L  L 2
∵ For sand, c = 0
 2 1
∴ qu = 19 × 2 × 25 +  1 − 0.2 ×  × × 19 × 2 × 18
 3 2
= 950 + 296.4
= 1246.4 kN/m2
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.171 A shear vane of 7.5 cm diameter and 11.0 cm length was used to measure the shear strength of
soft clay. A torque of 600 kg-cm was required to shear the soil. The vane was then rotated
rapidly to cause remoudling of the soil. The torque required in the remoulded state was
200 kg-cm. The shear strength and sensitivity of the soil are respectively.
(a) 0.323 kg/cm2 and 1/3 (b) 0.503 kg/cm2 and 1/3
(c) 0.503 kg/cm2 and 3 (d) 0.323 kg/cm2 and 3
171. (c)
T 600
Shear strength, S = = = 0.503 kg/cm2
2 H d 2  11 7.5 
π d  +  π (7.5)  +
 2 6 2 6 
∴ S = 0.503 kg/cm2
S ( undisturbed condition )
∴ Sensitivity =
S ( disturbed condition )
600
= =3
200
Q.172 A vertical wall with a smooth face is 7.2 m high and retains soil with a uniform surcharge angle
of 9°. If the angle of internal friction of soil is 27°, then the active earth pressure is
_________ kN/m .
[Assume γ = 20 kN/m3]
172. 203.2 (202 to 204)

H = 7.2 m
β = 9°
φ = 27°
γ = 20 kN/m3
β = 9°
Wall
7.2 m
pa or pp
2.4 m
9°
Retaining wall with inclined surcharge
and pressure distribution
According to Rankine’s theory,

 cos β − cos 2 β − cos 2 φ 
ka = cos β  
 cos β + cos 2 β − cos 2 φ 
 cos 9° − cos 2 9° − cos 2 27° 

= cos 9°  
 cos 9° + cos 2 9° − cos 2 27° 
for GATE 2020 CE
= 0.988 × 0.397 = 0.392
Total active thrust per metre run of the wall
1 1
γ .H 2 .Ka = × 20 × ( 7.2 ) × 0.392 = 203.2 kN/m
2
Pa =
2 2
Q.173An earth embankment is to be constructed with compacted cohesionless soil. The volume of
the embankment is 5000 m3 and the target dry unit weight is 16.2 kN/m3. Three nearby sites
(see figure below) have been identified from where the required soil can be transported to
the construction site. The void ratios (e) of different sites are shown in the figure. Assume
the specific gravity of soil to be 2.7 for all three sites. If the cost of transportation per km
is twice the cost of excavation per m3 of borrow pits, which site would you choose as the
most economic solution? (Use unit weight of water = 10 kN/m3)
Site X
e = 0.6
140 km
Construction
Site
100 km 80 km
Site Z Site Y
e = 0.64 e = 0.7
(a) Site X (b) Site Y

(c) Site Z (d) Any of the sites
173. (a)
Volume of solids at embankment,
Ws
Vs = G γ
s w
16.2 × 5000 3
Vs = m = 3000 m3
2.7 × 10
Volume of solids will remain constant,
also, V= VV + Vs
= eVs + Vs = Vs(1 + e)
V= 3000 (1 + e)
VX = 3000 × 1.6 = 4800 m3
VY = 3000 × 1.7 = 5100 m3
VZ = 3000 × 1.64 = 4920 m3
for GATE 2020 CE
Let cost of excavation be α/m3,
P X = 4800α + 140 × α × 2
= 5080α
P Y = 5100α + 80 × α × 2
= 5260α
P Z = 4920α + 100 × α × 2
= 5120α
Hence PX is least.
∴ Hence total cost for site X is least.
Q.174 Three soil specimens (Soil 1, Soil 2 and Soil 3), each 150 mm long and 100 mm diameter, are
placed in series in a constant head flow set-up as shown in the figure. Suitable screens are
provided at the boundaries of the specimens to keep them intact. The values of coefficient
of permeability of Soil 1, Soil 2 and Soil 3 are 0.01, 0.003 and 0.03 cm/s, respectively.
560 mm
Soil 1 Soil 2 Soil 3 100 mm

150 150 150
mm mm mm
The value of h in the set-up is

(a) 0 mm (b) 40 mm
(c) 255 mm (d) 560 mm
174. (b)
In normal to bedding plane flow (series arrangement), Discharge will be same and Head
loss and Hydraulic gradient will be different.
q = K 1i 1A = K 2i 2A
 HL 
= K3i3A = Kavg ⋅   A
L
ΣZ i 150 + 150 + 150
K avg 1 = =
Zi 150 150 150
Σ + +
Ki 0.01 0.003 0.03
= 0.0064
Total head loss
= HL = 560 mm
h 560
∴ K3 ⋅ × A = K avg ⋅ A
150 (150 + 150 + 150)
 h   560 
0.03 ⋅ 
 150  = 0.0064  450 
h = 40 mm
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.175 The critical slip circle for a slope is shown below along with the soil properties
2.3 m
W c = 30 kPa
φ = 0°
γ = 20 kN/m3
The length of the arc of the slip circle is 15.6 m and the area of soil within the slip circle is 82 m2.
The radius of the slip circles is 10.3 m. The factor of safety against the slip circle failure is
nearly equal to
(a) 1.05 (b) 1.22
(c) 0.78 (d) 1.28
175. (d)
Resisting moment
FOS = Actuating moment
CLR 30 × 15.6 × 10.3

= =
W × 2.3 20 × 82 × 2.3
= 1.28

Revision CE
forGATE 2020 Q.176 - Q.200

Day 8 of 8
PSU & Govt. Jobs

DRDO, BARC, etc.

GATE
Gateway for
Engineers
Research Courses

Building 1.20%
1.30% Airport Engg.
1.20% 0.50% Soil Mechanics 14.10%
PERT-
Channel 1.10%
3.00% & English
Steel
4.30%
RCC Mechanics
5.00%
5.10%
Maths
SOM 12.40%
Highway
Environmental
8.10%
Engg.
Total 100%
10.20%
for GATE 2020 CE
Day 8 : Q.176 to Q. 200 : Steel Structures + Hydrology + Surveying
Q.176 A plate of size 190 × 6 mm is connected to a 10 mm thick gusset plate using M20 bolts. Net
rupture tensile strength of section is [Take fu = 410 N/mm2]
35 mm
190 mm 30 mm
30 mm
T
30 mm
30 mm
35 mm
30 40 40 40
mm mm mm mm
(a) 259 kN (b) 328 kN

(c) 219 kN (d) 276 kN
176. (c)
1 2 3 35 mm
30 mm
190 mm
30 mm
T
30 mm
30 mm
1 2 3
35 mm
30 40 40 40
mm mm mm mm
For 20 mm diameter bolt, diameter of bolt hole = 22 mm

Calculation of net area,
An (path 111) = (B – nd) × t
where, B = 190 mm, t = 6 mm
(190 – 3 × 22) × 6 = 744 mm2
 (40) 2 × 2 
An (path 1221) =  190 − 4 × 22 + × 6 = 772 mm 2
 4 × 30 
 4 × (40) 2 
An (path 12321) and path (12121) =  190 − 5 × 22 + × 6 = 800 mm 2
 4 × 30 
for GATE 2020 CE
∴ Amin = 744 mm2
0.9Anfu 0.9 × 410 × 744
∴ Net rupture strength = =
γ m1 1.25
= 219628.8 N
219 kN
Q.177 An I-section is subjected to compressive loads. Length of I-section is 6 m. It is effectively held

in position at both ends but free to rotate at ends. Properties of I-section are as given below
A = 8591 mm2, rxx = 149.3 mm, ryy = 53.4 mm
KL
100 110 120 130 140
r
f cd 80 72 64 57 45
What is design compressive strength of the section?
(a) 550.24 kN (b) 602.3 kN
(c) 790 kN (d) 811.12 kN
177. (b)
Effective length column = kl = 1 × 6 = 6 m [k = 1 since column is hinged at both the
ends]
kl 6 × 1000
∴ Slenderness ratio = = = 112.36
rmin 53.4
∴ Design compressive strength,
(112.36 − 110)
fcd = 72 − × (72 − 64)
(120 − 110)
= 70.112 N/mm2
F = 70.112 × 8591 × 10–3 = 602.3 kN
Q.178 A tie member of truss consists of double angle section of dimension 80 mm × 80 mm × 8 mm

welded on the opposite sides of a 12 mm thick gusset plate. The axial tension in the tie is
200 kN. The effective length of 6 mm fillet weld required is ___________ mm.
[Give fu = 410 N/mm2, γmw = 1.25]
178. 126 (120 to 130)

Axial tension = 200 kN
Since, it is carried by two angles
So, tension carried by one angle = 100 kN
 410 × 0.7 × 6 
Strength of weld = 
  = 795.36 N/mm
3 × 1.25 
100 × 1000
∴Length of weld required= = 125.73 126 mm
795.36
Q.179 A portal frame is shown below. The collapse load for the portal frame by considering
individual mechanisms only will be ____________ MP .
for GATE 2020 CE
Wu
Wu B 2m E 2m C
2 2MP
MP
3m
2 MP
A D
179. 2 (1.99 to 2.01)

Possible locations of plastic hinges are at A, B, C, D, E
Number of possible plastic hinges = 5
Degree of redundancy = 3
Number of possible mechanism = 5 – 3 = 2
(i) Sway mechanism
MP
Wu 2 MP
2
θ θ
θ θ
MP
2
Wu 3Wu θ
External work = × 3θ =
2 2
MP
Internal work = (θ + θ ) + M P (θ + θ ) = 3M P θ
2
∴ External work = Internal work
3Wu θ
⇒ = 3MP θ
2
⇒ Wu = 2MP
for GATE 2020 CE
2. Beam mechanism
Wu
MP 2m 2m (MP)
2 θ θ
2θ
2MP
External work = Wu × 2 × θ = 2Wuθ

MP
Internal work = θ + 2M P × 2θ + M P θ = 5.5 M P θ
2
∴ External work = Internal work
⇒ 2Wuθ = 5.5 MPθ
⇒ Wu = 2.75 MP
So, Wu is 2MP
H
Q.180 A rectangular section of width ‘B ’ and depth ‘H ’ is stressed up to fy, to a depth of from top
8
and bottom. Section is under action of moment ‘M’. Magnitude of ‘M’ is
8f y BH 2 13fy BH 2
(a) (b)
64 64
16fy BH 2
(c) (d) None of these
64
180. (b)
B fy
1 H
8
3H
2 8
1 H
8
fy
We can split total moment of resistance is two parts viz.

M1 = MOR due to plastic section
M2 = MOR due to elastic section
for GATE 2020 CE
M1 = (Stress × Area) × Lever arm
 H  H H
=  fy × B ×  ×  H − − 
 8  16 16 
 BH   7H 
=  fy ×  × 
8   8 
7fy BH 2
=
64
M2 = (Stress × Area) × Lever arm
1 H H  2  3 
= × fy ×  −  × B ×  ×  H   × 2
2  2 8  3  8 
1  3H  H
= × fy × B  ×
2  8  2
3fy BH 2 6fy BH 2
= =
32 64
 6 + 7 13
 fy BH =
2
∴ M = M1 + M2 =  fy BH 2
64  64
Mp
Q.181 For the shown portal frame, the collapse load is by combined mechanism is ________ .
L
2W
B C D
W
l/2 l/2
l/2 l/2
MP MP
A
E
181. 3.33 (3.30 to 3.5)

By combined mechanism
2Wu
MP
Wu
B θ φ D
θ C φ δ
Mp MP MP
l/2
MP θ δ
A E
∵ ∆BC = ∆CD
for GATE 2020 CE
l l
⇒ θ× = φ×
2 2
⇒ θ= φ ...(i)
∵ ∆HB = ∆HD
l l
and θ× = δ×
2 2
⇒ θ= δ ...(ii)
External work
l l
Wext = Wu × × θ + 2Wu × θ ×
2 2
= 1.5 Wu lθ
Internal work
Wint = Mpθ + Mp (θ + φ) + Mp (φ + δ) = 5 Mpθ
(By eq. (i) and (ii))
External work = Internal work
⇒ 1.5 Wu lθ = 5 Mpθ
10 MP M
⇒ Wu = = 3.33 P
3 l l
Q.182 Two channel sections are connected by a single lacing system as shown in figure. The minimum
thickness of lacing flat (Nearest integer) will be __________ mm. [Assume lacing angle as 45°]
364 mm
183.5 mm
283.5 mm
182. (11)
Length of lacing = 283.5 × cosec 45°
= 400.9295 mm
l
Minimum thickness of lacing flat for single lacing system =
40
400.929
= 10.02 = 11 mm
=
40
(Note : ∵ 10.02 mm is minimum required thickness, practically we should choose 12 but here
in numerical we can take 11 mm)
Q.183 A bracket connection is made with four bolts of 20 mm diameter and supports a load of 40 kN
at an eccentricity of 60 mm. The maximum force resisted by any bolt will be ________ kN.
for GATE 2020 CE
40 kN
e = 60 mm
30
mm
30
mm
40 mm 40 mm
183. 20.88 (19 to 22)

Force on bolt due to direct shear
P 40
F1 = = = 10 kN
4 4
F2 = Force due to twisting moment
P. e . r
=
∑ ri2
r1
30 mm
θ
30 mm
40 mm 40 mm
30 3
tanθ = =
40 4
4
cosθ =
5
r1 = r2 = r3 = r4 = 50 mm
P· e· r1 40 × 60 × 50
∴ F2 = = = 12 kN
∑ ri2 4 × 50 2
∴ FR = F12 + F22 + 2F1F2 cos θ
4
= 10 2 + 12 2 + 2 × 10 × 12 ×
5
= 20.88 kN
Q.184 A slab base for a column ISHB 350@710.2 N/m is subjected to a factored axial compressive
load of 2000 kN. Load is transferred to the base plate by direct bearing of column flanges. The
depth of the section and width of the flange are 350 mm and 250 mm respectively. The minimum
thickness of slab base is __________ mm. [Assume square base plate of 500 mm size and concrete
of M20 grade, fy = 250 N/mm2]
for GATE 2020 CE
184. 36 (35.02 to 36.5)
Bearing strength of concrete = 0.45 fck
= 0.45 × 20 = 9.0 N/mm2
Given, a base plate of 500 mm × 500 mm in size.
The bearing pressure of concrete,
P 2000 × 10 3
w = = = 8 N/mm 2 < 9.0 N/mm 2
A1 500 × 500
Which is all right.

500 − 250
The greater projection, a = = 125 mm
2
500 − 350
The smaller projection, b = = 75 mm
2
Thickness of slab base, ts = (

2.5 w a 2 − 0.3b 2 ) γf m0
= (
2.5 × 8 × 125 2 − 0.3 × 75 2 ) 250
1.1
= 35.02 mm 36 mm
Hence minimum thickness of base plate is 36 mm.
Q.185 A watershed is in the form of a sector of a circle of radius 400 metres and angle 60°. A
6-h storm with rainfall excess of 8 cm, produces a surface runoff hydrograph with linear
rising and recession segments, having a base equal to eight times the duration. The peak
of the surface runoff hydrograph is ____________ m 3/s.
185. 0.073 (0.07 to 0.08)

Area of the sector of the circle of radius 400 metre.
2  π / 3
= π(400) · 
 2π 
= 83775.80 m2 QP
discharge
Catchment
area π/3
If QP (m3/hr) is the peak runoff, then
1
Area of the hydrograph = × 48 × Q P = 24 Q P
2
8 × 6 = 48 hr
This area is equal to rainfall excess of 8 cm in the catchment area Time
 7.5 
∴ 24QP =  × 83775.80 
100 
⇒ QP = 261.8 m3/hr
Hence, the peak of surface runoff hydrograph
261.8
QP = = 0.073 m 3 /s
60 × 60
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.186 The ordinates of a 4-h unit hydrograph for a catchment are given below:
Time (hr) 0 2 4 6 8 10
3
4-h UH (m /s) 0 10 15 25 40 20
The peak ordinate of 6-h unit hydrograph will be
(a) 30 m3/s (b) 25 m3/s
(c) 15 m3/s (d) 10 m3/s
186. (a)
4
Time (hr) 4-h UH (m3 /s) S-curve addition (m3 /s) S-curve(m3 /s) S-curve legged by 6 hr (m3 /s) ∆y 6-h UH= ∆y ×
6
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (4) − (5)
0 0 0 0 0
2 10 10 10 6.67
4 15 0 15 15 10
6 25 10 35 0 35 23.33
8 40 15 55 10 45 30
10 20 25 45 15 30 20
40 35
20 55
45
Q.187 In the Muskingum method of channel routing, the routing equation is written as
Q2 = C0I2 + C1I1 + C2Q1. If the coefficients are k = 12 hour and x = 0.15 and the time step for
routing is ∆t = 4h, then the coefficient C0 is
(a) 0.018 (b) 0.017
(c) 0.016 (d) 0.014
187. (c)
− kx + 0.5 ∆ t
C0 =
k − kx + 0.5 ∆ t
−12 × 0.15 + 0.5 × 4
=
12 − 12 × 0.15 + 0.5 × 4
0.2
= = 0.016
12.2
Q.188 Hourly rainfalls of 40 mm, 60 mm and 80 mm occurred over a 25 hectare area with φ = 50 mm/
hr for 4 ha, φ = 30 mm/hr for 10 ha and φ = 10 mm/hr for 11 ha. The total rainfall excess for the
3 hour storm will be __________ mm.
188. 108.4 (106 to 110)

4(0) + 10(40 − 30) + 11(40 − 10)
1st hour: Pexcess = = 17.2 mm
25
4(60 − 50) + 10(60 − 30) + 11(60 − 10)
2nd hour: Pexcess = = 35.6 mm
25
4(80 − 50) + 10(80 − 30) + 11 (80 − 10)
3rd hour: Pexcess = = 55.6 mm
25
for GATE 2020 CE
Total rainfall excess for 3 hour storm
= 17.2 + 35.6 + 55.6
= 108.4 mm
Q.189 The rate of rainfall for successive 30 minutes period of a 4-hour storm are as follows: 3.5, 6.5,
8.5, 7.5, 6.4, 4, 4 and 6 cm/hr. If the value of φ-index is 4.5 cm/hr, then the value of W-index is
__________ cm/hr.
189. 4.25 (4.2 to 4.3)

30
Total rainfall, P = (3.5 + 6.5 + 8.5 + 7.5 + 6.4 + 4 + 4 + 6) ×
60
= 23.2 cm
For total rainfall excess,
8.5
7.5
6.5 6.4 6.0
Rainfall intensity (cm/hr)
φ = 4.5 cm/hr
3.5 4.0
Duration (minutes)
30
Runoff, R = ( 6.5 − 4.5 ) + ( 8.5 − 4.5 ) + ( 7.5 − 4.5 ) + ( 6.4 − 4.5 ) + ( 6 − 4.5 ) ×
60
1
= ( 2 + 4 + 3 + 1.9 + 1.5) × = 6.2 cm
2
P −R
∴ W-index =
t
23.2 − 6.2
= = 4.25 cm/hour
4
Q.190 The Gumbel’s reduced variate for the flood having return period of 100 years is
(a) 4.6 (b) 1.0
(c) 2.3 (d) 8.6
190. (a)
Return period, T = 100 years
 T 
yt = Reduced variate = –lnln 
 T − 1 
 100 
yt = –lnln  = 4.6
 99 
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.191 A reservoir receives 5 ha-m water and the loss due to evaporation from the pan is 11 cm. It
receives the rainfall of 5 cm over its plan area of 100 ha. The decrease in the level is observed
as 3 cm. Taking the pan factor as 0.7, loss due to seepage will be
(a) 5 ha-m (b) 6 ha-m
(c) 7.3 ha-m (d) 5.3 ha-m
191. (d)
11
Evaporation loss = 100 × × 0.7 = 7.7 ha-m
100
5
Rainfall = 100 × = 5 ha-m
100
3
Change in storage = 100 × = 3 ha-m
100
Now, (I + P) – (E + Seepage loss) = ∆S
⇒ (5 + 5) – (7.7 + X) = –3
⇒ 10 – 7.7 – X = –3
X = Seepage loss = 5.3 ha-m
Q.192 The lengths and bearings of a closed traverse PQRSP are given below.
Line Length (m) Bearing (WCB)
PQ 200 0°
QR 1000 45°
RS 907 180°
SP ? ?
The missing length and bearing, respectively of the line SP are

(a) 207 m and 270° (b) 707 m and 270°
(c) 707 m and 180° (d) 907 m and 270°
192. (b)
For a closed traverse sum of latitutes and departures should be zero respectively i.e.
ΣL = 0
⇒ 200 cos0° + 1000 cos 45° + 907 cos 180° + L cos θ = 0
⇒ L cos θ = –0.10678 ...(i)
ΣD = 0
⇒ 200 sin 0° + 1000 sin 45° + 907 sin180° + L sin θ = 0
⇒ L sin θ = –707.10678 ...(ii)
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get,
tan θ = 6622.09
⇒ θ = 270°
(Since L cosθ and L sinθ both are –ve. Hence ‘θ’ lies in 3rd quadrant)
–707.10678
∴ L =
sin 270 °
= 707.10678 m
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.193 The length of a survey line was measured with a 20 m chain and was found to be equal to
1200 m. As a check, the length was again measured with a 25 m chain and was found to
be 1212 m. On comparing the 20 m chain with test gauge length, it was found to be 1
decimeter too long. The 25 m chain was ____________ cm too short.
193. 12 (12 to 13)

20 m chain,
True length of 20 m chain, L ′ = 20 + 0.1 = 20.1 m
20.1
Actual length of survey line, l = 1200 × = 1206 m
20
25 m length,
Actual length of survey line,
True length of 25 m
l = Measured length ×
Considered length of 25 m
L′
⇒ 1206 = 1212 ×
25
⇒ L′ = 24.88 m [∴ (25 – 24.88) × 100 = 12 cm]
Q.194 The area between the chain line and the irregular boundary by Simpson’s rule, is
Chainage (m) 0 30 60 90 120 150 180 210

Offset length (m) 0 2.65 3.80 3.75 4.65 3.60 5.00 5.80
(a) 654 m2 (b) 712 m2

(c) 736 m2 (d) 781 m2
194. (d)
3.75 4.65 3.60 5.00 5.80

2.65 3.80
A B C D E F G H
0 30 60 90 120 130 180 210
Number of divisions = 7, Internal, d = 30 m

Simpson’s rule,
Since there are even number of offsets (8), Simpson’s rule cannot be applied directly. Area
between the first and seventh offset (A1) has therefore been computed by Simpson’s rule
and between seventh and eighth offset (A2) by the average ordinate method. The total area
will be sum of these two areas.
d
A1 = (O1 + O7 ) + 4 ( O2 + O 4 + O6 ) + 2 (O3 + O5 )
3
30
= × ( 0 + 5.00 ) + 4 ( 2.65 + 3.75 + 3.60 ) + 2 ( 3.80 + 4.65 )
3 
for GATE 2020 CE
= 619 m2
5 + 5.80
A2 = × 30 = 162 m 2
2
∴ A = 619 + 162 = 781 m2
Q.195 A line of levels has been run from a bench mark of elevation 24.56 m and ends at another mark
of elevation 24.60 m. The sum of the backsights is 18.36 m and that of the foresights is 18.39 m.
The closing error is
(a) 0.03 m (b) 0.04 m
(c) 0.07 m (d) 0.08 m
195. (c)
∑BS – ∑FS = 18.36 – 18.39
= –0.03 m
Last RL – First RL = 24.60 – 24.56
= 0.04 m
Error = 0.04 – (–0.03)
= 0.07 m
Q.196 The scale of an aerial photograph is 1 cm = 150 m and the size of the photograph is 20 cm × 20 cm.
What will be the number of photographs in each strip to cover an area of 15 km × 15 km if the
longitudinal overlap is 70 % ?
(a) 18 (b) 14
(c) 12 (d) 10
196. (a)
The number of photographs in each strip is given as,
L1
N = +1
1
(1 − PL ) × × L
S
where L1 = length of ground
L = length of photograph
P L = longitudinal overlap
S = scale of photograph
Scale of photograph, S = 1 in 150 × 100 = 1 in 15000
15 × 10 3
∴ N = + 1 = 17.67 18
(1 − 0.7) × 15000 × 0.2
Q.197 An observation ray between two triangulation stations A and B just grazes the sea. If the
heights of A and B are 9000 m 3000 m respectively, the distance of AB is ______ km.
[Assume diameter of earth = 12880 km]
for GATE 2020 CE
197. 580.07 (575 to 585)
O
A B
d1 d2
A′ B′
O′
Let A and B be the two triangulation stations and let O be the point of tangency on the
horizon.
Let A′A = C1 = 9000 m = 9 km
B′B = C2 = 3000 m = 3 km
The distance d1 is given by
d12
C =
2R
After refraction correction,
6 d 12
C1 = ×
7 2R
⇒ d1 = 2RC1
7
⇒ d1 = 2 × 6440 × 9 × = 367.75 km
6
7
d2 = 2 × 6440 × 3 × = 212.32 km
6
∴ Distance AB = d1 + d2 = 367.75 + 212.32
= 580.07 km
for GATE 2020 CE
Q.198 A camera with a focal length of 20 cm fitted in an aircraft is used for taking vertical aerial
photographs of a terrain. The average elevation of the terrain is 1200 m above mean sea level
(MSL). What is the height above MSL at which an aircraft must fly in order to get the aerial
photographs at a scale of 1:8000?
(a) 3200 m (b) 2600 m
(c) 3000 m (d) 2800 m
198. (d)
Aircraft
Flying
Height
(H)
GL
RL = 1200 m
MSL
Given focal length = 20 cm

as we know scale of vertical photograph
f
=
H − havg .
its given as 1 : 8000
f 1
Hence, =
H − havg . 8000
20cm 1
=
(H − 1200) × 100cm 8000
⇒ H = 2800 m
Q.199 The upper and lower readings on a staff held at a station point ‘A’ were 3.55 m and 0.630 m
corresponding to 2.5% and 3.5% readings on a vertical circle. The lower reading was a depressed
sight. Assuming height of instrument as 300 m. Calculate the distance and elevation of station
‘A’ in metres.
(a) 69.667 m, 298.926 m (b) 48.667 m, 297.667 m
(c) 418.267 m, 297.667 m (d) 48.667 m, 301.073 m
199. (b)
3.55 m
2.5%
3.5%
0.63 m
for GATE 2020 CE
Horizontal distance between observer and staff,
3.55 − 0.63
D = = 48.667 m
2.5  3.5 
− − 
100  100 
Elevation of station A,
2.5
RLA = HI + × D − 3.55
100
2.5
= 300 + × 48.667 − 3.55 = 297.667 m
100
Q.200 Consider the following data:

Standard pull = 5 kg
Length of tape = 30 m
Cross-sectional area of tape = 0.025 cm2
Young’s modulus of tape material = 2.1 × 106 kg/cm2
Weight of tape = 20 gm/metre
For the normal tension condition, the applied pull will be ________ kg.
200. 11.24 (10.5 to 12)

Given data; L = 30 m, E = 2.1 × 106 kg/cm2, P0 = 5 kg, A = 0.025 cm2
Total weight of tape, W = 20 × 30 = 600 gm = 0.6 kg
Here we have to find the normal tension where measured distance would be equal to correct
distance.
This condition would be satisfied when, Pull correction = Sag correction
Let normal tension = Pn
( Pn − P0 ) L LW 2
∴ =
AE 24 Pn2
( Pn − 5) 30 30 × (0.6) 2
⇒ =
0.025 × 2.1 × 10 6 24 × Pn2
⇒ Pn2 ( Pn − 5 ) = 787.5
⇒ Pn3 − 5Pn2 – 787.5 = 0

On solving, we get
P n = 11.24 kg


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Revision through Questions

for GATE 2020 CE

Q.6 What is the sum of all possible solutions to |x – 3|2 + |x – 3| = 20?

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for all the others.

Q.10 What is the remainder when 1! + 2! + 3! … 100! is divided by 18?

(a) 121.5 (b) 40.5 + 81 2

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3. 40.6 (40 to 41)

and ∠A = ∠E (Alternate angles) C

∴ ΔABC ∼ ΔEDC (AAA similarity)

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(b) Glances Cottage

Horses Glances Blemishes (d) Horses Glances

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20. 1.253 (1.2 to 1.3)

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Next, Diagonal of a cube = 102 + 10 2 + 102 = 10 3.

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Speed Range Frequency

The ratio of time mean speed to space mean speed is ___________.

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Q.42 The following observations were made of an axle-load survey on a road:

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27. 0.10 (0.10 to 0.12)

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29. 235.42 (232 to 238) FV

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Stopping distance = SDMer + SDBMW

33. 3861 (3800 to 3900)

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37. 455.41 (450 to 460)

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39. 3146.04 (3142 to 3150)

log ( 2 P) − log ( P) log ( P′ ) − log ( P)

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41. 68.79 (67 to 70)

VMA = Vv + Vb = 4.79 + 10.56 = 15.35%

Axle load Avg. axle load Repetitions per day

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Here, P = 4100 kg, p = 6.5 kg/cm2, CBR = 5%

1.75 × 4100 4100

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47. 0.2707 (0.23 to 0.3)

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forGATE 2020 Q.51 - Q.75

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