REVIEW QUESTIONS IN

CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS & HUMAN RELATIONS SET ONE

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The Police seek to prevent crimes by being present in places where

crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. law enforcement
B. public services
C. opportunity denial
D. order maintenance
C

2. The society’s prime instrument for making known what acts are crimes
and what sanctions may be applied to those who commit acts defined as
crimes.
A. Ethics
B. Law
C. Conduct
D. Justice
B

3. A social norm providing guidance for people in their dealings with one
another, as a standard against which actions are evaluated, and as a
prescription or requirement that people act justly.
A. Law
B. Justice
C. Ethics
D. conduct
B

4. It is the study of human society, its origin, structure, functions and

direction.
A. Psychology
B. Criminology
C. Sociology
D. Anthropology
C
5. A person who has violated the penal law and has been found guilty by
the court.
A. Accused
B. Parolee
C. Suspect
D. Criminal
D
6. A body of knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon.
A. criminal psychology
B. criminal sociology
C. criminal law
D. criminology
D
7. The reduction or elimination of the desire and opportunity to commit a
crime.
A. law enforcement
B. crime prevention
C. protection of rights
D. order maintenance
B
8. The primary advocate of the Positivist School in Criminology.
A. Cesare Beccaria
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Henry Goddard
D. Augusto Comti
B
9. The science of classifying human physical characteristics.
A. Determinism
B. Somatology
C. Positivism
D. Atavism
B
10. Reacting to events with alertness and vigilance and a feeling of
persecution.
A. dementia praecox
B. hallucination
C. paranoia
D. depression
C
11. Science concerned with improving the quality of human off springs.
A. Genetics
B. Eugenics
C. Criminology
 D. Heredity
B

12. Scientific approach based upon mental processes and characteristics.

A. psychogenic determinism
B. emotional determinism
C. biological determinism
D. criminological determinism
A
13. The principle that events, including criminal behavior, has sufficient
causes.
A. Positivism
B. Determinism
C. Atavism
D. Nazism
B
14. Criminals who acted under the impulse of uncontrolled emotion on
occasion during otherwise moral lives.
A. seasonal criminals
B. criminals of passion
C. occasional criminals
D. born criminals
B
15. It is the most basic social institution and is the most potentially
effective agency of social control.
A. Church
B. Community
C. Family
D. School
C
16. A sub-discipline of criminology which focuses on victims of crime.
A. Penology
B. Criminal psychology
C. Criminal profiling
D. Victimology
D
17. An irrational fear which is fixed, intense, uncontrollable and often
has no reasonable foundation.
A. Phobia
B. Delusions
C. Regression
D. Anxiety
A
18. The principle which states that man, by nature, always tries to
maximize pleasure and avoid pain.
A. Utopia
B. Hedonism
C. Socialism
D. Atavism
B

19. The mental capacity to distinguish right from wrong.

A. Discernment
B. Morality
C. Ethics
D. Imbecility
A
20. It has the power to define and punish crimes.
A. Church
B. State
C. Judiciary
D. Police
B
21. Which of the following is not a victimless crime?
A. Vagrancy
B. illegal gambling
C. illegal detention
D. illegal possession of prohibited drugs
C
22. The purpose of penalty in the Positivist School of Criminology.
A. Retribution
B. Reformation
C. Rejection
D. Restitution
B
23. A doctrine which criminals were seen as distinct types of humans who
could be distinguished from non criminals by certain physical traits.
A. theory of biological inferiority
B. theory of natural selection
C. theory of differential association
D. theory of evolution
A
24. Referred to as dementia praecox, this is a form of psychosis
characterized by thinking disturbance and regression.
A. Schizophrenia
B. manic depression
C. paranoia
D. psychopathy
A
25. According to psychoanalysis, this refers to the conscience of man.
A. Ego
B. Id
C. super ego
D. spirit
C

26. A type of crime in which the end result is destructive.

A. acquisitive crime
B. extinctive crime
C. seasonal crime
D. static crime
B
27. Study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a
community.
A. Criminal epidemiology
B. Criminal demography
C. Criminal psychology
D. Criminal ecology
D
28. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to
answer for the commission of an offense.
A. Search
B. Seizure
C. Detention
D. Arrest
D
29. A valid warrant less arrest.
A. citizen’s arrest
B. void arrest
C. illegal arrest
D. juridical arrest
A
30. The authority of the court to hear or determine a case.
A. executive power
B. jurisdiction
C. hearing
D. decision
B
31. A component or pillar of the Criminal Justice System which is involved
in the administration of appropriate sanctions in keeping with the
sentence handed down.
A. Corrections
B. Prosecutions
C. law enforcement
D. court
D
32. The reading of charges against the accused in the open court and the
declaration of his plea of guilty or not guilty.
A. Charging
B. Sentencing
C. Arraignment
D. Trial
C

33. The major function of the PROSECUTION component of the Criminal Justice
System.
A. To enforce the laws of the land
B. To rehabilitate prisoners
C. To represent the government in criminal cases
D. All of these
C
34. The supreme law of the Land.
A. Bible
B. Constitution
C. PNP Law
D. Common Law
B
35. It means not only observed acts of crime but the results of a crime,
which triggers the operation of the criminal justice process.
A. commission of a crime
B. solution of a crime
C. detection of a crime
D. adjudication of a crime
B
36. The machinery of the State designed to enforce the law by arresting,
prosecuting and adjudicating those accused of violating it and by
applying the proper sanctions to those found guilty.
A. Court
B. Government
C. Criminal Justice System
 D. Due Process of Law
C
37. A law enforcement function in order to preserve social and public
order.
A. Protection
B. crowd control
C. order maintenance
D. crime prevention
C
38. This defense in a criminal case is based on the claim that the act was
the result, not of any intent on the part of the accused, but of
threats of loss of life, limb or a loved one.
A. defense of instigation
B. defense of consent
C. defense of alibi
D. defense of duress
D

38. The society’s primary instrument for making known what acts are crimes
and what sanctions may be applied to those who commit acts defined as
crimes.
A. Law
B. Ethics
C. Media
D. Conduct
A
39. A function of the Prosecution, by representing the State in criminal
cases and to present the case to the judge.
A. trial advocacy
B. pleading
C. rehabilitation
D. charging
A
40. A claim by the accused that he or she was in another place when the
crime occurred and therefore could not have committed it.
A. defense of instigation
B. defense of alibi
C. defense of consent
D. defense of duress
B
41. The informal component of the Criminal Justice System.
A. Community
B. law enforcement
C. prosecution
 D. corrections
A
42. Maltreatment of a child is considered0
A. child misuse
B. child delinquency
C. child defect
D. child abuse
D
43. PD 603 is known as:
A. the Parole Law
B. the Probation Law
C. the Child and Youth Welfare Code
D. the Revised Penal Code for children
C
44. It refers to anti social act which deviates from normal pattern of
rules and regulations
A. Recidivism
B. Reiteracion
C. Delinquency
D. Crime
C

45. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended.

A. neglected child
B. abandoned child
C. dependent child
D. abusive child
A
46. A twenty four hour child caring institution that provide short term
resident care for youthful offenders.
A. Shelter care Institution
B. Nursery
C. Foster Home
D. Detention Home
D
47. A local government together with society of individuals or
institutions.
A. Family
B. Community
C. Religion
D. Prison
B
48. A type of terrorism which is meant to incite the government to
repression.
A. organizational terrorism
B. provocative terrorism
C. symbolic terrorism
D. Narco-terrorism
B
49. A type of terrorism which is aimed at a victim who symbolizes the
State.
A. symbolic terrorism
B. organizational terrorism
C. allegiance terrorism
D. provocative terrorism
A
50. The following are guidelines for police negotiators, except one.
A. Don’t raise the aspirations or expectations of the hostage takers
B. Give in to all of the terrorists’ demands
C. Conserve your concession
D. Make sure you get something in return for a concession
B
51. The following are qualities which must be possessed by a police
negotiator except one:
A. Flexible
B. Irrational
C. Patient
D. knows psychology
B

52. Phenomena in a hostage situation where the hostages become sympathetic

to the hostage takers.
A. Oslo Syndrome
B. Stockholm Syndrome
C. Hostage Syndrome
D. Helsinki Syndrome
B
53. The following are characteristics common to terrorists except one
A. operate openly
B. highly mobile
C. promote fear
D. possess limited resources
A
54. The following are short range terrorists goal except one
A. obtain money, weapon or equipment
B. cause dramatic change in the government
C. satisfy vengeance
D. free prisoners
B
55. According to Frederick Hacker, these are terrorists who are using
terrorism to change society.
A. Crusaders
B. Crazies
C. Criminals
D. Mercenaries
A
56. Which of the following is considered least among terroristic tactic?
A. noise barrage
B. assassination
C. bombing
D. kidnapping
A
57. The effective planning, formulation of policies, procedures and
techniques for dealing with sudden violent acts of terrorists.
A. Threat Analysis
B. Crisis Management
C. Stress Management
D. Hostage Negotiation
B
58. It is a method whereby an organized group or party seeks to achieve its
avowed aims chiefly through the systematic use of violence.
A. conventional warfare
B. insurrection
C. terrorism
D. insurgency
C

59. The most important consideration in a hostage taking situation.

A. protection of life
B. media coverage
C. protection of property
D. capture of the hostage taker
A
60. In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator should not:
A. give his name
B. give his rank and designation
 C. give in to all demands
D. look friendly or accommodating
C
61. In a hostage situation, this is a non-negotiable item.
A. Food
B. media access
C. telephone
D. firearm
D
62. The highest ranking field commander should not also be the chief
negotiator because
A. hostage takers will be afraid
B. he is not authorized to grant concessions
C. of conflict of interest as mediator and decision maker
D. hostage takers will not trust him
C
63. It means to arrange by conferring or discussing.
A. validate
B. negotiate
C. extricate
D. congregate
B
64. The last option in a hostage situation.
A. Negotiation
B. crowd control
C. assault operation
D. giving in to demands
C
65. The first step in a hostage situation.
A. Assault
B. Control
C. crowd control
D. negotiation
C

66. The study of standards of conduct and moral judgment.

A. community relations
B. ethics
C. logic
D. psychology
B
67. It refers to the commitment, dignity and attitude of an individual
towards work and his integrity and his practice of the core moral
value principles.
A. Conduct
B. Morality
C. Professionalism
D. Ethics
C
68. Which of the following is not a police custom on courtesy?
A. Salute
B. address/title
C. giving gifts
D. courtesy call
C
69. The branch of moral science which treats of the duties which a police
officer owes to the public and community.
A. police philosophy
B. police professionalism
C. police conduct
D. police ethics
D
70. It is the essence of good manners, a manifestation of sportsmanship and
an exposition of gentility and culture.
A. Courtesy
B. Discipline
C. Loyalty
D. Morale
A
71. A mental or moral training that makes a man willing to be subject to
controls and regulations for the good of the entire group of which he
is a member.
A. Courtesy
B. Discipline
C. Loyalty
D. Morale
B
72. The concealment or distortion of truth in a matter of fact relevant to
one’s office, or connected with the performance of his duties.
A. gross misconduct
B. incompetence
C. dishonesty
D. disloyalty
C
73. The doing either through ignorance, inattention or malice, of that
which the police officer had no legal right to do at all, as where he
acts without any authority whatsoever or exceeds, ignores or abuses
his powers.
A. Incompetence
B. Dishonesty
C. Misconduct
D. Neglect of duty
C
74. The omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an act
or duty, which is the officer’s legal obligation to perform.
A. Incompetence
B. Misconduct
C. Neglect of duty
D. Bribery
C
75. As a general rule, police officers are not permitted or allowed to
engage in any other business or calling.
A. Bribery
B. Moonlighting
C. Neglect of duty
D. Misconduct
B
76. Police officers shall treat official business as such, and shall not
impart the same to anyone except those for whom it is intended, or as
directed by his superior officer, or as required by law.
A. criminal investigation
B. admission
C. confession
D. confidential information
D
77. A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good.
A. Virtue
B. Value
C. Dignity
D. Conscience
D
78. Authority of a person he exercised over his subordinates.
A. chain of command
B. command responsibility
C. responsibility of post
D. command by discipline
B
79. The courage to endure without yielding.
A. Perseverance
B. Endurance
C. Fortitude
D. Prudence
A
80. This refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people
it serves.
A. Human Relations
B. Police Relations
C. Police Community Relations
D. Police Public Relations
C
81. It is designed to influence public opinion in favor of the police
force.
A. Public Information Program
B. Public Relations
C. Civic Action programs
D. Mass Communications Programs
B
82. A judicial tribunal designed to administer justice.
A. Office of the Ombudsman
B. Jury
C. Court
D. Department of Justice
C
83. The assessment of our own vulnerabilities, the evaluation of the
threat, threat groups and probable targets.
A. crisis management
B. hostage negotiation
C. threat analysis
D. surveillance operation
C
84. A person who is held as a security for the fulfillment of certain
demands or terms.
A. Victim
B. Hostage
C. Negotiator
D. Coordinator
B
85. The calculated use of violence or threat of violence to attain
political, religious or ideological goals by instilling fear or using
intimidation or coercion.
A. Crisis
B. Strike
C. Crime
 D. Terrorism
D
86. One which consists of several parts that interacts with each other to
produce some results, serve some functions or meet some objectives.
A. Justice
B. System
C. Feedback
D. Environment
B

87. The stage of the criminal justice process which involves the convicted
person’s serving the sentence imposed.
A. Sentencing
B. Corrections
C. Adjudication
D. charging
B
88. The recital of the rights of a suspect during custodial investigation.
A. Bill of Rights
B. Miranda Warning
C. Code of Ethics
D. Policeman’s Code
B
89. This type of physique has relatively predominant muscles, bones and
motor organs of the body.
A. Viscerotonic
B. Mesomorphic
C. Endomorphic
D. Ectomorphic
B
90. The author of “ Origin of Species” and “ The Descent of Man”.
A. Lombroso
B. Darwin
C. Beccaria
D. Garofalo
B
91. He is the primary advocate of the “Theory of Differential Association”.
A. Lombroso
B. Sutherland
C. Beccaria
D. Garofalo
B
92. The author of “On Crimes and Punishment” and the primary advocate of
the Classical School of Criminology.
A. Lombroso
 B. Sutherland
C. Beccaria
D. Garofalo
C
93. The one who determines personally the existence of probable cause in
the issuance of a search warrant.
A. Fiscal
B. Police officer
C. Judge
D. Victim
C

94. When an individual experience tension and anxiety increases making

him/her helpless, thus he experience negative feelings called
A. Crisis
B. Frustration
C. Conflict
D. Hallucination
B
95. Among the following, who is the most vulnerable group to abuse and
suffer threats?
A. police
B. parents
C. children
D. old age
C
96. In the study of organized crimes, which of the following best defines
the term “Costa Nostra”?
A. one thing
B. two things
C. crime confederation
D. crime syndicate
A
97. What is the strict code of conduct that governs the organized crime
group behavior?
A. Omerta
B. Camorra
C. Mob
D. Tamero
A
98. Who defined White-collar crime as a criminal act committed by a person
of respectability and high social status in the course of his or her
occupation?
A. E. Sutherland
B. R. Quinney
C. E. Durkheim
D. C. Darwin
A
99. Paul likes to buy stolen cellular phones. His act is an act of
A. None of these
B. Forgery
C. Accessory to theft
D. Larceny
E. Fencing
E
100.In the Organized crime world, who bribes, buys, intimidates and
negotiates into a relationship with the police or public official?
A. Enforcer
B. Instigator
C. Corrupter
D. Corruptee
C

Answers:

1. C
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. C
16. D
17. A
18. B
19. A
20. B
21. C
22. B
23. A
24. A
25. C
26. B
27. B
28. D
29. A
30. B
31. A
32. C
33. D
34. B
35. C
36. C
37. D
38. A
39. A
40. B
41. A
42. D
43. C
44. C
45. A
46. A
47. B
48. B
49. A
50. B
51. B
52. B
53. A
54. B
55. A
56. A
57. B
58. C
59. A
60. C
61. D
62. C
63. B
64. C
65. C
66. B
67. C
68. C
69. D
70. A
71. B
72. C
73. C
74. C
75. B
76. D
77. D
78. B
79. A
80. C
81. B
82. C
83. C
84. B
85. D
86. B
87. B
88. B
89. B
90. B
91. B
92. C
93. A
94. B
95. C
96. A
97. A
98. A
99. E
100. C
 REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS & HUMAN RELATIONS SET TWO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. An old woman approached PO3 Gomez asking the police officer to run
after an unidentified young man who allegedly snatched her mobile
phone. PO3 Gomez declined claiming that the man was already a block
away from them and besides the police officer alleged that he is
rushing home for an urgent matter. The officer’s refusal to help the
old woman is an example of
A. nonfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. misfeasance
D. misconduct
A
2. When the accused is found not guilty of the charges presented before
the court, he is
A. convicted
B. suspended
C. acquitted
D. absuelto
C
3. Guilty by act means
A. Actus Reus
B. Actus Numbus
C. Giltus reus
D. Rea mensa
A
4. If physiological or psychological dependence on some agent are
obviously detected from a person, he is in the state of
A. dependency or addiction
B. comatose
C. insanity
D. metamorphosis
 A

5. Which of the following is described as the threatening behaviors,

either verbal or physical, directed at others
A. Abnormality
B. Dependency
C. Aggression
D. Violence
C
6. What aggressive behavior includes repeated noncompliance to a direct
command, verbal abuse-name calling, verbal abuse-threat, and physical
abuse?
A. Interactive
B. Isolated
C. Covert
D. Overt
A

7. What aggressive behavior includes cursing/swearing, intentional

destruction of property, and self destructive behaviors?
A. Isolated
B. Covert
C. Interactive
D. Overt
A
8. What aggressive behavior includes the emotional and cognitive
components of aggression such as anger and hostility?
A. Covert
B. Dynamic
C. Interactive
D. Directive
A
9. When there is an apparent, intentional, and physically aggressive act
irrespective of severity against another person, there is
A. Battering
B. Assault
C. Chaos
D. Crisis
 B
10. What kind of assault committed when it includes kicking, punching,
deliberately throwing an object and drawing a lethal weapon against
someone?
A. Mental
B. Physical
C. Sexual
D. Verbal
B
11. Allege means
A. Assert or make an accusation
B. remove from its position
C. direct an act from doing
D. intentional mutilation
A
12. What do you call measures other than judicial proceedings used to deal
with a young person alleged to have committed an offense?
A. Rehabilitation
B. Alternative measures
C. Individual response against bad behavior
D. Extra judicial proceedings
B
13. What do we call the psychological, emotional and behavioral reactions
and deficits of women victims and their inability to respond
effectively to repeated physical and psychological violence?
A. Woman Menopausal Syndrome
B. Battered Woman Syndrome
C. Violence against women
D. MNaughten Rule
B
14. What is the theory that tumors and seizures have been associated with
aggression and violent behavior?
A. Brain lesion theory
B. Conspiracy theory
C. Neurotic Mind theory
D. Dementia praecox
A
15. A term used to describe a clinical condition in young children who have
received non-accidental, inexcusable violence or injury, ranging from
minimal to severe or fatal trauma, at the hand of an adult in a
position of trust, generally a parent or guardian
A. Battered Child Syndrome
B. Incapacitated Child Syndrome
C. Abuse Trauma Syndrome
D. None of these
A
16. When we say capital offense, it means:
A. a very serious crime, for which the death penalty is
imposed
B. the highest penalty for selected offenses
C. total punishment of offender by incarceration
D. all of the above
A
17. At trial, the authenticity of an item as evidence is crucial, whether
it be a physical object like a bullet, a medical record or a
photograph. The item cannot be offered in court without a testimonial
sponsor who can vouch for its unaltered authenticity to the court and
the jury. To validate an items unaltered authenticity, a record must
be kept of each and every time the item changes hands. This refers to
A. Records management
B. Presentation of evidence in court
C. Chain of custody
D. Laboratory analysis of items
A
18. The negligent treatment or maltreatment of a child by a parent or
caretaker under circumstances indicating harm or threatened harm to
the child's health or welfare is known as
A. Child Abuse
B. Child Neglect
C. Child Dilemma
D. Child in conflict with the law
A
19. The exchange of sexual favors for money or other material goods without
any emotional involvement involving a person under the age of 18
years is called
A. Child prostitution
B. Child trafficking
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are wrong
 B
20. An abuse that is kept secret for a purpose, concealed, or underhanded
is called
A. Clandestine abuse
B. Clinical abuse
C. Overt abuse
D. Abuse of authority
A
21. A false belief based on an incorrect inference about external reality
and firmly sustained despite clear evidence to the contrary, and which
is not related to cultural or religious beliefs
A. False alarm
B. Wrong perception
C. Incoherence
D. Delusion
D
22. Which of the following is an act committed by a juvenile for which an
adult could be prosecuted in a criminal court?
A. Adult offense
B. Status offense
C. Delinquency offense
D. Children in conflict with the law
C
23. Anything that has been used, left, removed, altered or contaminated
during the commission of a crime by either the suspect or victim is
part of
A. Evidence
B. Modus operandi
C. Recidivism
D. Preservation of crime scene
A
24. Generally, putting to death a person, as a legal penalty, is called
A. Infliction
B. Execution
C. Murder
D. Capital punishment
B
25. Among the following, what is the form of abuse where the use of the
victim is for selfish purposes and or financial gain?
A. Verbal Abuse
B. Exploitation
C. Racketeering
 D. Khotongism
C
26. The most common legal grounds for termination of parental rights, also
a form of child abuse in most states. Sporadic visits, a few phone
calls, or birthday cards are not sufficient to maintain parental
rights.
A. Exploitation
B. Abuse
C. Neglect
D. Abandonment
D
27. Which of the following is defined as acts or omissions by a legal
caretaker that encompasses a broad range of acts, and usually requires
proof of intent.
A. Abuse
B. Expoloitation
C. Neglect
D. Abandonment
A
28. The phase of a delinquency hearing similar to a "trial" in adult
criminal court, except that juveniles have no right to a jury trial, a
public trial, or bail.
A. Acquittal
B. Conviction
C. Adjudication
D. Entertainment
C

29. Any of the processes involving enforcement of care, custody, or support

orders by an executive agency rather than by courts or judges.
A. Criminal procedure
B. Administrative procedure
C. Summary procedure
D. Trial
B
30. A legal relationship between two people not biologically related,
usually terminating the rights of biological parents, and usually with
a trial "live-in" period. Once it is finalized, the records are sealed
and only the most compelling interests will enable disclosure of
documents.
A. Adoption
 B. Foster parenting
C. Common law relationship
D. Brotherhood
A
31. What is the legal doctrine establishing court as determiner of best
environment for raising child which is an alternative to the Parens
Patriae Doctrine?
A. Rights of Society
B. Miranda Doctrine
C. Best interest of the Child Rule
D. Parental Obligation
C
32. What was the case that allowed second prosecution in adult court for
conviction in juvenile court which was based on idea that first
conviction was a "civil" matter?
A. Case Law
B. Breed v. Jones
C. Miranda v. Arizona
D. Matt v. Jeff
B
33. The Law established by the history of judicial decisions in cases
decided by judges, as opposed to common law which is developed from
the history of judicial decisions and social customs.
A. Case Law
B. Breed v. Jones
C. Miranda v. Arizona
D. Matt v. Jeff
A
34. The filing of legal papers by a child welfare agency when its
investigation has turned up evidence of child abuse. This is a civil,
rather than criminal, charge designed to take preventive action, like
appointment of a guardian for at-risk children before abuse occurs.
A. Child prosecution
B. Child protection action
C. Parens Patriae
D. Preliminary investigation
B
35. The act of being responsible for enforcing child support obligations is
known as
A. Child’s care
B. Parental Guidance
C. Child at risk
D. Child support
D
36. A court order for placement in a secure facility, separate from adults,
for the rehabilitation of a juvenile delinquent.
A. Summon
B. Subpoena
C. Custodial confinement
D. Rehabilitation order
C
37. ___ is anyone under the care of someone else. A child ceases to be a
dependent when they reach the age of emancipation.
A. Delinquent
B. Dependent
C. Independent
D. Recognizance
B
38. It a phase of delinquency proceeding similar to "sentencing" phase of
adult trial. The judge must consider alternative, innovative, and
individualized sentences rather than imposing standard sentences.
A. Preliminary investigation
B. Judgment
C. Disposition
D. Probationary period
C
39. The independence of a minor from his or her parents before reaching age
of majority is known as
A. Enlightenment
B. Recognizance
C. Emancipation
D. Freedom from parental obligation
C
40. A clause requiring government to treat similarly situated people the
same or have good reason for treating them differently. Compelling
reasons are considered to exist for treating children differently.
A. Bill of Rights
B. Equal Protection
C. Parens Patriae
D. Diversion
B

41. What is the legal doctrine preventing unemancipated children from suing
their parents?
A. Parens Patriae Doctrine
B. Equal Protection
C. Family Immunity Doctrine
D. Poisonous Tree Doctrine
C
42. What is the legal doctrine holding parents liable for injuries caused
by a child's negligent driving or other actions?
A. Family Purpose Doctrine
B. Family Immunity Doctrine
C. Parens Patriae Doctrine
D. None of the above
A
43. Guardian ad litem means:
A. “For the Proceeding"
B. “Protection of child by the law”
C. “Guardians of the little children”
D. “Legal authority”
A
44. A court order giving an individual or organization legal authority over
a child. A guardian of the person is usually an individual and the
child is called a ward. A guardian of the estate is usually an
organization, like a bank, which manages the property and assets of a
child's inheritance. Guardians are usually compensated for their
services.
A. Guardianship
B. Order of Authority
C. In Loco Parentis
D. Parens Patriae
A
45. Teachers, administrators, and babysitters who are viewed as having some
temporary parental rights & obligations are considered
A. Guardianship
B. Order of Authority
C. In Loco Parentis
D. Parens Patriae
C
46. What is the legal doctrine establishing "parental" role of state over
welfare of its citizens, especially its children?
A. Guardianship
B. Order of Authority
C. In Loco Parentis
D. Parens Patriae
D

47. The emergency, temporary custody by a child welfare agency, police

agency, or hospital for reasons of imminent danger to the child is
called
A. Preventive detention
B. Diversion
C. Witness protection program
D. Protective custody
D
48. What is the legal doctrine granting custody to the parent whom the
child feels the greatest emotional attachment to?
A. Psychological Parent
B. Maternity
C. Paternity
D. Parental Selection
A
49. A disposition requiring a defendant to pay damages to a victim. The law
prohibits making it a condition of receiving probation. Poor families
cannot be deprived of probation simply because they are too poor to
afford it.
A. Bond
B. Surity
C. Restitution
D. Protection money
C
50. An activity illegal when engaged in by a minor, but not when done by an
adult. Examples include truancy, curfew, running away, or habitually
disobeying parents.
A. Adult Offenses
B. Minor Offenses
C. Status Offenses
D. Stubbornness
C
51. A spouse of a biological parent who has no legal rights or duties to
the child other than those which have been voluntarily accepted.
A. Maternity
B. Paternity
C. Stepparent
D. Foster parent
C
52. A parent who provided an egg, sperm, or uterus with an intent of giving
the child up for adoption to specific parties.
A. None of these
B. Stepparent
C. Foster Parent
D. Surrogate Parent
D

53. What is the legal doctrine that unless the mother is "unfit", very
young children should be placed in custody with their mother following
a divorce?
A. Tender Years Doctrine
B. Psychological Parent Doctrine
C. Unwed Mother’s Doctrine
D. Illegitimacy
A
54. What is declared of a temporary or permanent termination of parental
rights in the best interest of the child usually for reasons of
abandonment, abuse, or neglect, but also including mental illness,
addiction, or criminal record?
A. Unfit Parent
B. Psychological Incapacitation
C. Mental Disturbance
 D. Child at risk
B
55. It refers to the security given for the release of the person in
custody of the law, furnished by him/her or a bondsman, to guarantee
his/her appearance before any court.
A. Surety
B. Money order
C. Conditions
D. None of these
D
56. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions most
congenial to the survival, protection and feelings of security of the
child and most encouraging to the child’s physical, psychological and
emotional development.
A. Best interest of the child
B. Rights
C. Obligations
D. Child’s role
A
57. Children who are vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal
offenses because of personal, family and social circumstances are
considered
A. Abused Children
B. Neglected Children
C. Children in conflict with the law
D. Children at risk
D
58. A child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed
an offense under Philippine laws is considered
A. Child at risk
B. Child in conflict with the law
C. Minor offense
D. Juvenile offender
B
59. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the
law by law enforcement officers or private citizens is termed as:
A. Arrest
B. Initial contact
C. Child custody
D. All of the above
B
60. The series of activities designed to address issues that caused the
child to commit an offense. It may take the form of an individualized
treatment program, which may include counseling, skills training,
education, and other activities that will enhance his/her
psychological, emotional and psycho-social well-being is called
A. reformation guide
B. intervention
C. diversion
D. welfare procedures
B
61. An undertaking in lieu of a bond assumed by a parent or custodian who
shall be responsible for the appearance in court of the child in
conflict with the law, when required is known as
A. Status offense
B. None of these
C. Recognizance
D. Bail
C
62. What is the type of offense committed where there is no private
offended party involved?
A. Status offense
B. Victimless crime
C. Minor crime
D. None of these
B
63. What is the doctrine that requires a process of resolving conflicts
with the maximum involvement of the victim, the offender and the
community?
A. Proactive justice
B. Restorative justice
C. Reactive justice
D. All of the above
B
64. One of the following is an act constituting exploitation and sex abuse
among children in exchange of any form of incentive.
A. Child trafficking
B. Child abuse
C. Child prostitution
D. Child racketeering
C
65. Centuries ago, criminal behavior was believed to be the result of evil
spirits and demons. Guilt and innocence were established by a variety
of procedures that presumably called forth the supernatural allies of
the accused. The accused were innocent if they could survive an
ordeal, they were guilty if they died at the stake or if omens were
associated with them. In the 18th century, this spiritual
determination began to give way to:
A. The belief that there is no such thing as bad spirits
B. The belief that humans are rational creatures with free will, who seek
happiness and pleasure and avoid pain
C. The belief that man is a demon and devil
D. The belief that man is evolved from the animal ape.
B
66. Among the following classical thoughts in Criminology is not correct:
A. The Classical school of Criminology is spearheaded by Bentham and
Beccaria.
B. The Classical School of Criminology is an advocate of punishment as a
deterrent to crime.
C. The Classical School of Criminology argues that criminals were
primitive creatures, incapable of living normally in society.
D. The Classical School of Criminology also argued that nature has placed
mankind under the governance of two sovereign masters, “pain” and
“pleasure’.
C
67. What school of thought in Criminology challenges the proposition that
man has absolute free will to choose between good and evil and states
that it is not absolute as presumed to be because free will can be
diminished by pathology, mental disorders and other conditions that
may instigate personal responsibility?
A. Neo-classical School of Criminology
B. Positivism
C. Hedonistic Calculus
D. Radical Criminology
B
68. The Classical School of thoughts in Criminology is based on the
principle of free will. The positivist thoughts on the other hand is
focused on the principle of:
A. Darwinism
B. Determinism
C. Cognitive Functioning
D. Conceptual Thinking
B
69. The Differential Association Theory provides a good illustration of a
social learning approach perspective in Criminology Criminal behavior
according to this theory is:
A. A result of an emotional disturbance
B. An inmate quality of goodness or badness
C. Learned and not inherited
D. An excess of wisdom
C
70. What perspective in Criminology probes the situational or environmental
action and examines the underlying conditions with in the environment
that may encourage criminal behavior?
A. Psychiatric Criminology
B. Psychological Criminology
C. Sociological Criminology
D. Criminal Anthropology
C
71. In the past, psychologist assumed that they could best understand human
behavior by searching for a stable, consistent personality
dispositions or traits that exert orderly generalized effects on
behavior. Which among the following theory on Criminal Behavior is not
consistent with the previous statement?
A. Psychoanalytical Theory
B. Strain Theory
C. Behavioral descriptions
D. Psychological Determination
B
72. Based on the Lombroso’s works, he classified criminals as: the born
criminal, the habitual, the passionate and the criminoloid. Which of
the following statements describe a criminoloid?
A. the morally insane and hysteric criminal
B. the impulsive and cruel criminal
C. the “weak natures” susceptible to bad examples
D. the primitive and atavist
C
73. Some criminology theorists have linked physical characteristics with
personality. Among these theories is William Sheldon’s Somatotyping
theory. He classified body physique into three categories as the
endomorphic, the mesomorphic and the ectomorphic body. Of the
following statements, which appropriately describes the mesomorphic?
A. the twin and fragile with withdrawn behavior
B. the muscular and hard physique
C. the attractive and beautifully shaped
D. the fat and soft body type
B
74. According to Hans Eyesenck, in his study about the behavioral character
and incidence to crime, the typical extravert is one who is:
A. sociable, impulsive, optimistic and has high needs for excitement
B. reserved, quiet and cautious
C. undersized, short and untidy
D. oversized, heavy and firm
A
75. To explain human behavior, social learning theorists place great
emphasis on cognitive variables. Social learning reflects the theory’s
strong assumption that we learn primarily by observing and listening
to people around us-
A. the social environment
B. the stimulus that elicit response
C. the mental state and brain-mediation processes.
D. the reinforcements for behavior
A
76. In the study of juvenile delinquency, which of the following projects
paved the way for a reassessment of existing treatment and prevention
programs for delinquents?
A. Chicago Area Project of 1930
B. Illinois Legislature
C. Boston Child Guidance Clinic
D. President’s Commission on Law Enforcement in theU.S.
A
77. One family background predictors in juvenile delinquency is broken
home. The term broken home is ambiguous but can be characterized by:
A. Inadequate type of family structure
B. Anti-social type of family structure
C. Discordant or disturbed family structure
D. Disrupted or incomplete family structures
D
78. Parental discipline appears relation to delinquency. Harsh discipline
in the home may result in more delinquencies than consistent and
reasoning forms of discipline. Aside from this, screaming at the
child, calling the child insulting names, excessive criticizing or
generally ignoring the child is also contributory to delinquency.
These actions simply refers to:
A. Physical Abuse
B. Emotional abuse
C. Unfair parent
D. Parental neglect
B
79. When a person is seen to show indiscriminate giggling or crying,
emotional flatness, the voice is monotonous, the face immobile and
expressionless and manifest highly bizarre and add behavior then
appropriately he is:
A. suffering from neurotic behavior
B. suffering from psychopathic behavior
C. suffering from schizophrenia or psychotic behavior
D. suffering from sexual dysfunctions
C
80. It is a popular notion that the brutal, violent and apparently
senseless crime is usually committed by someone who is mentally ill or
sick. Or if not sick, then the person is an animal. The kind of
alternate explanation is an influence of the:
A. Positivist theory of Criminology
B. Classical theory of Criminology
C. Neoclassical theory of Criminology
D. Differential Association theory of Criminology
A
81. Which of the following is not a symptom of dyssocial behavior?
A. Failure to conform to social norms.
B. Consistent irresponsibility, as reflected in a poor work history
C. Lack of guilt for wrongdoings.
D. Episode of schizophrenia like illogical thinking
D
82. A Scottish woodcutter was accused of killing a man he believed to be
Prime Minister for thought that he was persecuted by the Tories and
their leader, Robert Peel, however turned out to be another person.
The court believed he was so mentally deranged that it would be
inhuman to convict him since it was clear he was not in control of his
faculties. This case became known as:
A. the M’naghten Rule
B. the Durham Rule
C. the Brawner Rule
D. the Irrational Mind Rule
A
83. One day we maybe cool and withdrawn and the next day, warm and
sociable. This condition may fall into the disorder known as:
A. Bipolar disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Psychopathic behavior
D. Amnesia
A
84. A bank robber who kills some individual with in the bank, flees with
hostages, and kills a number of people while in flight diving a chase
would be an example of:
A. Serial Murder
B. Spree Murder
C. Mass Murder
D. Multiple Murder
A
85. Pedro engaged in a multiple means of torture, using psychological
torment combined with physical methods to lighten his sexual arousal
is suffering from:
A. Sexual Pyromania
B. Sexual Sadism
C. Sexual Torture
D. Masochism
B
86. There are many pathways to delinquency and a variety of family
circumstances contribute to negative behavior in children. Which of
the following developmental pathways to delinquency begins with
stubborn behavior, then defiant behavior, and developing later into
avoidance of authority figures like truancy, running away, staying out
late, etc.?
A. Authority conflict pathways
B. Covert pathway
C. Overt pathway
D. None of these
A
87. Which of the following refers to juveniles who have doli incapax?
A. Children aging from 7 to 12 years
B. Children above 9 that below 15 years old
C. Children at puberty age
D. Children in conflict with the law
B
88. Recent research and legal literature suggest that a useful away of
classifying juvenile crime is to distinguish between serious and non-
serious acts and between serious and non-serious offenders. Among the
following, which is not considered a serious juvenile act?
A. Forcible sexual intercourse
B. Larceny
C. Homicide
D. Vagrancy
D
89. The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is
A. harass the people
B. perform his job well
 C. dress well
D. always present in the office
B

90. Which of the following is the basic political unit of the Filipino
nation that implements the policies of the national and local
government?
A. family
B. society
C. community
D. barangay
A
91. In crisis management, the teams under the support unit are under the
control of the ground commander. Which is responsible for the
collection and processing of all information needed by the on – scene
commander?
A. Security element
B. Support unit
C. Negotiation unit
D. Intelligence team
D
92. What is known to be the oldest but commonly used terrorist tactic where
target are often police, military officials or political features?
A. Hijacking
B. Assassination
C. Ambush
D. Kidnap for Ransom
B
93. The one who makes complete estimate of the crisis situation and plans
his courses of actions upon arrival at the incident area while
negotiation is in progress is the
A. Chief Negotiator
B. Tactical Commander
C. Fire fighting team
D. Support Unit Commander
B
94. A comprehensive plan which delineates responsibilities and specific
action to be taken when a bomb incident or bomb threat occurs is
called
A. Floor plan
B. Bomb threat plan
C. Drill
 D. Contingency plan
B
95. What do you call the phenomenon where a hostage begins to identify his
captor and give his sympathy to his own hostage taker?
A. Holmshock syndrome
B. Traumatic syndrome
C. Withdrawal syndrome
D. none of these
D

96. Among the following, which is most contagious on human emotion?

A. Fear
B. Panic
C. Worry
D. Dementia Praecox
A
97. In Stockholm syndrome, some of the causes why a hostage becomes
cooperative with the hostage taker is due to
A. selfishness
B. personal grudge
C. personal affection
D. personal interest
C
98. The stage of advance planning, organization and coordination and
control in response to an anticipated future crisis occurrence is
called
A. Proactive Crisis Management
B. Reactive Crisis Management
C. Performance Stage
D. Reaction Phase
A
99. What stage is the performance of the crisis management plan when a
crisis situation occurs?
A. Pro-active Phase
B. Reactive Phase
C. Prediction
D. None of these
B
100.What model of insurgency does the New People’s Army in the Philippines
is employing?
A. Communist Model
B. Socialist Model
C. Democratic Model
D. None of these
A
Answers:
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. B
14. A
15. A
16. A
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. D
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. C
26. D
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. A
31. C
32. B
33. A
34. B
35. D
36. C
37. B
38. C
39. C
40. B
41. C
42. A
43. A
44. A
45. C
46. D
47. D
48. A
49. C
50. C
51. C
52. D
53. A
54. B
55. D
56. A
57. D
58. B
59. B
60. B
61. C
62. B
63. B
64. C
65. B
66. C
67. A
68. B
69. C
70. C
71. B
72. C
73. B
74. A
75. A
76. A
77. D
78. B
79. C
80. A
81. D
82. A
83. A
84. A
85. B
86. A
87. B
88. D
89. B
90. A
91. D
92. B
93. B
94. B
95. D
96. A
97. C
98. A
99. B
100. A