1

What is total AM transmitter power if carrier power 100W modulated with

modulation index m=0.7
A

149W

170W

124.5W

135W

What is percentage power saving if AM transmitter with modulation index

m=0.5 is replaced by SSBSC transmitter with same modulation index
A

83.30%

94.40%

96%

88.88%

In television 4:3 represents

A

Interlace ratio

Form factor

Aspect Ratio

None of above

To permit selection of 1 out of 32 equi-probable events, number of bits

required is
A

32

Value of Intermediate frequency (IF) for FM receiver is

A

455 KHz

10.7 MHz

70 MHz

118.7 MHz

Amplitude limiter is used in FM receiver because

A

It limits audio signal

It prevents overloading

It removes distortions

It removes amplitude variations

Which circuit is used in FM receiver but not in AM Receiver

A

RF amplifier

Mixer

Amplitude limiter

AGC

Demerits of balance slope detector for FM receiver

A

Poor linearity

No amplitude limiting

Tuning is difficult

All of above

AM receiver is tuned to 600 KHz with quality factor Q=100, IF value 455
KHz. Image rejection in dB

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

-20dB

-30dB

-35.5dB

-46.5dB

Crystal oscillator can be used in

A

Varactor diode modulator

Transistor reactance modulator

Armstrong modulator

FET reactance modulator

Bit rate is ___________ Baud rate in QPSK system

A

equal to

three times

two times

less than

What is the separation of phasors in 8-PSK system?

A

900

450

22.50

150

Number of possible symbols in QAM system are

A

16

Muting (squelch) circuit is basically

A

Low pass filter circuit

High pass filter circuit

Level activated switch

Frequency converter circuit

Double conversion receiver has

A

Two RF amplifier stage

Two IF

Two detectors

Two audio amplifier stage

Sampling rate required to sample CD quality audio signal is .

A

8000 samples/sec

16000 samples/sec

20000 samples/sec

44100 samples/sec

Oversampling results into .

A

Large transmission bandwidth

More transmission power

Low SNR

Distorted speech

PWM System

Synchronization is necessary in
A

PAM system

C
19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

PPM System

None of above

Nyquist bandwidth required to transmit information signal with bandwidth

10 KHz coded with total 128 quantization levels is
A

1280 Kbps

140 Kbps

70 Kbps

64 kbps

Companding is used to
A

Save transmission bandwidth

Remove noise

Achieve uniform SNR for all

amplitudes

Achieve amplitude limiting

Uplink frequency range for GSM-900 band is

A

890-915 MHz

935-960 MHz

890-960 MHz

890-910 MHz

Duplex distance for GSM-1800 band is

A

45 MHz

95 MHz

25 MHz

50 MHz

Following is not component of GSM architecture.

A

Main switching center

Base station controller

Master station controller

Base trans receiver

If PN chip rate is 30x10 and message bit rate is 1000, Processing gain of
DSSS system is ..
A

3000

6000

30000

60000

Frequency range of Ku Band is

A

2 GHz - 4 GHz

4 GHz - 8 GHz

8 GHz - 12 GHz

12 GHz - 18 GHz

What is the cut-off frequency of ractangular waveguide having dimension

1.5cm x 1 cm in dominant mode TE10.
A

1 GHz

5 GHz

10 GHz

15 GHz

Data rate at the output of GSM speech codec is

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

104 kbps

64 kbps

13 kbps

2.2 kbps

CELP Speech coder is based on .

A

Waveform coding

Parametric coding

Channel coding

Hybrid coding

Improvement in SNR of uniform PCM system if 9 bit is used instead of 8 bit

in quantization
A

1 dB

3 dB

6 dB

12 dB

In adaptive delta modulation

A

Step size is variable

Slope over load error

eliminated

Granular noise is less

All of above

The spectral density of real valued random process has

A

an even symmetry

a conjugate symmetry

an odd symmetry

no symmetry

The stationary process has

A

Ensemble average equal to

time average

All Statistical properties

dependent on time

All statistical properties

independent of time

Zero variance

A random process obeys Poisson's distribution. It is given that the mean of

the process is 5. Then the variance of process is ..
A

0.5

Thermal noise is independent of

A

Temperature

Center frequency

Bandwidth

Boltzmann's constant

A system has receiver noise resistance of 50 . It is connected to an

antenna with input resistance of 50 . Noise figure of the system is ..
A

C
36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

None of above

Calculate output SNR in dB for three identical links. SNR of one link 60 dB
A

57 dB

180 dB

51.23 dB

55.23 dB

Positive RF peak of AM signal rise to 12V and drop to minimum value of 4V.
Modulation index is
A

0.25

0.33

0.5

0.66

Resonant frequency of RF amplifier is 1 MHz, bandwidth is 10 KHz. Q factor

will be .
fr/bw=1000000/10000
A

0.1

10

50

100

Balance modulator is used to generate

A

AM Signal

DSBSC Signal

PM Signal

PWM Signal

Maximum modulating frequency in AM system increases from 10 KHz to 20

KHz, Modulation index ..
A

doubled

halved

remains constant

increase by 10

Primary function of multiplexing in communication system

A

To select one radio channel

from a wide range of
transmitted channels

To reduce the bandwidth of a

signal.

To allow a number of signals to

make use of a single
communications channel
To match the frequency range
of a signal to a particular
channel.

Optical fiber uses ______ portion of Electromagnetic waves

A

UHF

Ultraviolet

Between Infrared and

Ultraviolet

Infrarred

Glass fiber has core refractive index n1=1.5 and cladding refractive index
n2=1. Multipath dispersion would be . (c=3x108 m/s)
A

2.5 ns/m

2.5 S/m

C
44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

5 ns/m

5 S/m

In CDMA systems
A

Entire bandwidth can be used

at a time

Entire bandwidth is used on

time sharing basis

Entire bandwidth is divided

into narrow bands

None of above

Following is not usual classification of optical fiber

A

Single mode step index

Multi-mode step index

Multi-mode graded index

Single mode graded index

The energy gap Eg of PIN Photo detector should be _____photon energy of

light (hf)
A

Equal to

Smaller than

Greater than

Independent of

Numerical aperture (NA) and acceptance angle of fiber optic cable related
by equation
A

NA=sin

NA=tan

NA=sin-1

NA=(1-sin2)1/2

What is total SSB transmitter power if carrier power 10W modulated with
modulation index m=0.5
A

0.625 W

1.25 W

2.5 W

5W

What is total SSB transmitter power if carrier power 10W modulated with
modulation index m=0.5
A

0.625 W

1.25 W

2.5 W

5W

Cluster of cells is the collection of adjacent cells with

A

Same operating spectrum

Different operating spectrum

both A & B

None of above

In GSM system case 1: cluster size N=7 case 2: cluster size N=19
A

Case 1 has more SIR

Case 2 has more SIR

Case 1 and Case 2 has equal SIR

No effect of N on SIR

In GSM system case 1: cluster size N=7 case 2: cluster size N=19

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

Case 1 has more channel

capacity

Case 2 has more channel

capacity

Case 1 and Case 2 has equal

Channel capacity

No effect of N on channel
capacity

In AM systems if modulation index increases from 0.5 to 0.75

A

Bandwidth increases by 1.5

Bandwidth decreases by 1.5

Bandwidth remains constant

None of above

In FM system, if modulation index increases from 5 to 10 .

A

Transmission power doubles

Transmission power halved

Transmission power 1.41 times

Remains same

In GSM system 5 MHz bandwidth is allocated to network operator,

Assuming frequency reuse factor 1/5, maximum number of simultaneous
channels that can exists in one cell is
A

15

25

40

200

The main objective of cell in cellular mobile system is

A

hand-off possibilities

frequency resue

simple modulation requires

higher bandwidth

Which of following mobile systems is second generation mobile

communication system?
A

AMPS

GSM

IMT-2000

NAMTS

Basic purpose of cell splitting in GSM mobile systems is ..

A

Reduce handoffs

Reduce channel capacity

Increase channel capacity

Reduce bandwidth
requirement

Frequency reuse ratio in mobile communication is given by

A
C

60

61

Q=R/D
2

Q=D/R

Q=RxD

Q=D/R

A cellular system has 12 macro-cells with 10 channels per cell. Each macro
cell is splitted into 3 microcells. Find out total available channels after
splitting
A

40

120

360

30

Major development under the way in the field of telecommunications..

A
C
62

65

66

67

68

69

70

Fixed and mobile convergence

Satellite communication

GPRS
CDMA2000 1xRTT

B
D

EDGE
IS95

Which one of following enhances data capability of 2G mobile network?

A
C

64

B
D

One of following is not part of 2.5G technologies in mobile communication

A
C

63

Data & Voice convergence

Internet

TACS
GPRS

B
D

GSM
ISDN

Population inversion phenomenon found in

A

LED

Photodiode

LASER

FET

Optical fiber having core refractive index n1=1.4 and cladding refractive
index n2=1.05. Its numerical aperture will be
A

0.926

0.8

0.35

0.15

Normalized frequency of step index fiber is 28 at 1300 nm wavelength.

What are total app. number of guided mode supported by fiber?
A

50

100

200

400

The SAFER+ algorithm is used to provide security in which wireless

technology?
A

Bluetooth

ZigBee

UWB

WiMAX

Which numbers appear in the International Mobile Equipment Identity

(IMEI)?
A

Mobile Country Code

Mobile Network Code

Equipment Serial Number

None of above

The term STN (Super Twisted Nematic) refers to _________.

A

The layered structure of the

display

The nature of the liquid crystal

itself

The control signal applied to

the display

The application of display

backlighting

Disadvantage of STN (Super Twisted Nematic) is .

A

Consumes more power

Operates slowely

C
71

72

73

74

75

Higher cost

Less life time

For random variable x, probability density function p(x) is given by:

p(x)=1/2 for -1 x 1 and p(x)=0 otherwise. Mean and variance
respectively .
A

1/2 and 2/3

1 and 2/3

1 and 4/3

2 and 4/3

Probability density function of the envelope of narrowband Gaussian noise

is
A

Rayleigh

Poisson

Gaussian

Rician

Spectral density expresses .

A

Average voltage

Average current

Average frequency

Average power as a function of

frequency

Aperture effect in flat top pulses is reduced by using

A

Integrator

Differentiator

Predictor

Equalizer

In PCM system, quantization noise depends on

A

76

77

78

79

Sampling interval
B Number of quantization levels
Frequency of information
C
D None of above
signal
In PCM system, sampling rate is determined by
A

Parsevals Theorem

Nyquist Theorem

Fourier Transform

Hysenberg Theorem

Frequency range of telephonic quality speech is

A

20 Hz to 20 KHz

500 Hz to 10 KHz

300 Hz to 3.4 KHz

300 Hz to 5 KHz

Range of Very High Frequency (VHF) is

A

3-30 MHz

30-300 MHz

300-3000 MHz

3-30 GHz

Process of transmitting two or more information signals on same channel is

called
A

Modulation

Multiplexing

C
80

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

Detection

Telemetry

Which one of the following requires synchronizing signal?

A

PPM

PWM

PAM

All of above

Quantization noise occurs in

A

PWM

PPM

PCM

AM

Which one of following system is digital?

A

PAM

PWM

PCM

AM

Which one of following pulse modulation system is analog?

A

PWM

PCM

DM

ADM

In delta modulation, granular noise occurs when modulating signal

A

remains constant

increases rapidly

decreases rapidly

None of above

For uniform quantization, 32 levels can be represented by

A

4 bit

5 bit

8 bit

32 bit

In QAM system following both identity are varied

A

Amplitude and frequency

Frequency and phase

Amplitude and Phase

Baud rate and phase

In PCM systems, if transmission path is long.

A

High power transmitter are

used

Sensitive receivers are used

Repeaters are used

Pulse amplitude increases

An amplifier having noise figure of 20 dB and available power gain of 15 dB

followed by mixer circuit having noise figure of 9 dB. The overall noise
figureas referred to input in dB is

89

90

91

92

93

94

95

21.53

11.07

10.44

0.63

A parallel tuned circuit is resonated with 200 MHz with Q of 10 and

capacitance of 10 pF. Temperature of circuit is 170 C. What is noise voltage
observed across circuit by wideband voltmeter?
A

1 V

2 V

8 V

16 V

What is the relation between Noise Bandwidth and 3-dB bandwidth in ideal
systems?
A

BN > B3dB

BN = B3dB

BN =0.5* B3dB

BN = 0.5**B3dB

What is the relation between Noise Bandwidth and 3-dB bandwidth in Low
pass filter?
A

BN > B3dB

BN = B3dB

BN =0.5* B3dB

BN = 0.5**B3dB

What is internal noise power (Pn) of microwave amplifier operating with a

bandwidth of 500 MHz and noise figure of 2.5 dB?
A

0.5 pW

0.557 pW

1 pW

1.557 pW

Noise voltage source has resistance of 10 . Its power density spectrum is

0.24x10-5. Corresponding available power density is ..
A

2.6x10-5

0.025

26x10-5

6x10-8

If resistance value doubled and temperature maintained at constant level,

available thermal noise power per unit bandwidth will
A

remains constant

Increase two times

Increase four times

Decrease to half

What will be thermal noise voltage developed across resistor of 10 . The

Bandwidth of measuring instrument is 1 MHz. Ambient temperature 270 C
A

0.40 V

1.28 V

0.16 V

1.19 V

96

97

98

99

100

101

102

103

Which one of following is suitable detector to detect information signal

from modulated signal (5+10cosmt)coswct
A

Envelope detector

Synchronous detector

Ratio detector

None of above

Plot of modulation index versus carrier amplitude in FM yields .

A

Horizontal line

Vertical line

Parabola

Hyperbola

Image rejection in super-heterodyne receiver occurs at ..

A

RF Stage

Mixer Stage

IF stage

Detector stage

Modulation index of AM wave changes from 0 to 1, transmitter power

A

Increase by 100%

Increase by 50%

Increase by 25%

Does not change

Which one of following modulation scheme requires minimum bandwidth

and minimum power?
A

VSB

SSBSC

DSBSC

AM

For FDM systems used in telephone, which of the following system used
A

AM

FM

SSB

DSBSC

1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by symmetrical square

wave of period 100 S . Which of the following frequencies will not present
in the modulated signal?
A

990 KHz

1010 KHz

1020 KHz

1030 KHz

1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by sine wave of period 100

S for one cycle . Which of the following frequencies will not present in the
modulated signal?
A

990 KHz

1000 KHz

1010 KHz

1020 KHz

104

105

106

107

108

109

110

111

In amplitude modulation system, total power is 600 W and power of carrier

is 400 W. Modulation index is
A

0.25

0.5

0.75

Carrier is amplitude modulated by three message signal with modulation

index 0.2, 0.4 and 0.5 What is total modulation index?
A

1.1

0.67

0.55

0.25

Total rms antenna current of AM radio transmitter is 6 A. It reduces to 5 A

when modulating signal is removed. What is modulation index?
A

0.94

0.83

0.69

0.33

AM signal has carrier power 1 KW. In each sideband, there is 200 Watt.
What is modulation index?
A

0.201

0.404

0.8

0.894

In low level amplitude modulation, amplifier following modulated stage

must be ..
A

Non-linear amplifier

Linear amplifier

Class C amplifier

Harmonic amplifier

FM signal with modulation index 10 is passed through frequency tripler,

output signal have modulation index
A

3.33

10

30

10

Bandwidth of FM signal does not depends on

A

Modulating frequency

Carrier frequency

Maximum amplitude of
modulating signal

Peak frequency deviation

Following problem will occur if we keep value of IF too high in receiver

A

Poor adjacent channel

rejection

Poor sensitivity

Tuning is difficult

Poor fidelity

112

113

114

115

116

117

118

119

120

Following diode is used in AM detector circuit

A

Silicon diode

Point contact diode

Tunnel diode

PIN diode

Standard bandwidth of IF amplifier in FM receiver is ..

A

10.7 MHz

50 KHz

100 KHz

200 KHz

Basic reason behind linearity of phase discriminator is

A

Tuned circuit is used

Primary to secondary phase

relationship is linear

RFC is used

Parallel combination of RC

Following FM detector uses large capacitor to achieve amplitude limiting

A

Diode detector

Phase discriminator

Ratio detector

PLL Detector

UHF 900MHz frequency band is used in cellular mobile communication

because.
A

Below 900 MHz, band is not

available

Good Sky wave Propogation at

900 MHz.

Line of sight and reflected

signal ensure the reception at
mobile handset

None of above

GSM cellular mobile communication system uses

A

CDMA and FDMA

FDMA and TDMA

Only FDMA

Only TDMA

WLAN services uses

A

Long distance communication

at high data rate

Short distance communication

at high data rate

Long distance communication

at low data rate

Short distance communication

at low data rate

As per IEEE 802.11g standard WLAN devices which are 50 meter apart can
send and receive data up to .
A

64 kbps

2 MBPS

11 MBPS

54 MBPS

GPRS is.

121

122

123

124

125

126

127

128

Circuit switched and packet

switched service

Packet switching for mobile

users for data transfer

Voice telephony services

useful for sending SMS

UMTS offers data speed

A

384 kbps on move and 2.048

Mbps on stationary

64 Kbps on move and 1 Mbps

on stationary

2.1 MBPS on move and 8 MBPS

on stationary

None of above

IEEE 802.16 WiMAX standard offers maximum data rate .

A

2 MBPS

8 MBPS

54 MBPS

75 MBPS

Bluetooth module communicates using .

A

transmitter

receiver

radio module

transponder

IEEE 802.15.1 Bluetooth system has typical frequency hop rate of ______
hops per second
A

512

800

1600

3200

IEEE 802.11 WLAN physical layer with 2 MBPS with base band modulation
DSSS uses carrier modulation scheme _____________.
A

BPSK

QPSK

DQPSK

QAM

The size of file transferred in 10 seconds using WLAN system operating at

2Mbps considering ideal transfer data rate.
A

2 MB

2.5 MB

10 MB

20 MB

Which technology is used by IEEE 802.15.1 WPAN standard to separate

piconets
A

DSSS

OFDM

FHSS-CDMA

FHSS-TDMA

In close loop power control, base station sends power control messages to
mobile handset at every .

129

130

131

132

133

134

135

136

137

1 ms

10 ms

100 ms

500 ms

WCDMA uplink uses spreading factor up to .

A

16

32

64

512

Data modulation used in WCDMA for reverse channel is

A

BPSK

QPSK

DQPSK

QAM

WCDMA uses chip rate of .

A

2 Mcps

8 Mcps

3.84 Mcps

16 Mcps

Voice encoding technique used in WCDMA

A

LPC

RELP

Adaptive CELP

DPCM

Maximum EIRP for class-III mobile phone in WCDMA is

A

+23 dBm

+13 dBm

+9 dBm

+3 dBm

After spread spectrum modulation, bandwidth of spreaded signal

A

remains constant

increases

increases significantly

decreases

Minimum Eb/No value required for proper system operation depends on ..

A

Performance of coding method

Bit error rate

Tolerance of digitised voice

All of these

CDMA IS-95 technology uses one of following multiple access technique

A

FDMA

FHSS

DSSS

THSS

In DSSS system, code rate is 48 Mcps and information signal rate 4.8 Kbps,
Processing gain in dB is

138

139

140

141

142

143

144

145

4.8 dB

48 dB

40 dB

60 dB

In FHSS system total bandwith is 500 MHz, individual channel bandwidth is

5 KHz. What is processing gain in dB?
A

5 dB

50 dB

4 dB

40 dB

Each carrier of CDMA IS-95 carrier occupies bandwidth of

A

200 KHz

600 KHz

1.25 MHz

10 MHz

Once link with nearest base station is established in CDMA, open loop
power setting is adjusted in 1 dB increments after every ______ by
command from base station.
A

1 second

1.25 second

10 ms

1.25 ms

MAHO is implemented in mobile communication in order to

A

reduce co-channel interference

reduce transmission power

reduce inter-cell interference

reduce near-far problem

Which one out of following offers high spectrum efficiency with constant
amplitude ?
A

FSK

QPSK

GMSK

QAM

The frequency hoping system used in GSM allows to change transmission

frequency once in every ______ .
A

1.25 ms

120 ms

4.615 ms

125 s

Modulation data rate in GSM is .

A

200 kbps

270.833 kbps

64 kbps

2 Mbps

1.35 bps/Hz

Spectrum efficiency in GSM is .

A

1 bps/Hz

C
146

147

148

149

150

151

152

153

2 bps/Hz

4 bps/Hz

Grey list in mobile communication means

A

Mobile numbers are VIP

Mobile numbers are not

allowed permanantly

Mobile numbers are not

allowed momentarily

Mobile purchased without bills

Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH) is by BTS to broadcast .

A

Frequency of operation in cell

Channel availability

Congestion information

All of above

The number of time slots available per RF channel in GSM system is ..

A

16

The standard interface that connects BTS to BSC is called

A

Um Interface

A-bis

The difference in free space propagation loss between two location 2 km

and 8 km from transmitter is
A

3 dB

6 dB

12 dB

15 dB

Wireless medium compared to wired medium

A

Quite reliable for voice and

data communication

Not reliable for voice and data

communication

Offers more bandwidth

Requires less power

In mobile radio propagation path loss exponent is

A

Cellular network is reconfigured with frequency reuse pattern of 7 instead

of 4. Increase in overall system capacity is approximately
A

28 times

7 times

4 times

1.7 times

154

155

156

157

158

159

160

161

Cells using same set of frequencies are called

A

neighboring cells

adjacent channel cells

Co-channel cells

Clusters

The distance between the centers of two hexagonal cells, if radius of cell is
2 km
A

23

43

Mobile communication system is designed with cell size of 2 km2. Cluster

size N=7. What is will be area of one cluster?
A

3.5 km2

7 km2

14 km2

143 km2

Service area is covered with 10 clusters each having 7 cells in it. 16 channels
are assigned to each cell. The number of channels per cluster are ..
A

1120

112

70

None of above

Mobile communication system has an allocated number of 1000 voice

channels. If service area is divided into 20 cells with a frequency reuse
factor of 4. System capacity is .
A

1000

5000

10000

20000

In regular hexagonal geometry pattern, the number of cells in cluster

formed by i=2 and j=2 are .
A

12

16

Propagation considerations recommends cell shape _____________ and for

system design cell shape used is ______________.
A

circular, circular

circular, hexagonal

hexagonal, hexagonal

hexagonal, circular

If cell site antenna height is doubled, there will be

A

Reduction in path loss by 6 dB

Reduction in path loss by 3 dB

C
162

163

164

165

166

167

168

169

Reduction in path loss by 12 dB

No change in path loss

In wireless communication, transmitter power is 10W. Transmitter antenna

gain is 3 dB. EIRP is.
A

10 W

20 W

30 W

3.33 W

PLL can be used to demodulate

A

AM

FM

PM

PCM

Two sinusoids of same amplitude and frequencies of 10 KHZ and 11 KHz are
added together and applied to ideal frequency detector. Output of the
detector is .
A

21 KHz sinusoid

1 KHz sinusoid

210 KHz sinusoid

1.1 KHz sinusoid

In commercial FM broadcasting, modulating frequency is limited to ..

A

3.4 KHz

5 KHz

15 KHz

20 KHz

Modulating frequency in FM is increased from 10 KHz to 20 KH, bandwidth

A

Gets doubled

Does not change

Increase by 20 KHz

Increase by 10 KHz

In single tone FM discriminator, So/No is

A

proportional to deviation

proportional to cube of
deviation

inversely proportional to
deviation

Proportional to square of
deviation

If modulating frequency is 20 KHz and peak frequency deviation is 50 KHz.

Bandwidth of FM signal as per Carson's rule is .
A

40 KHz

90 KHz

140 KHz

200 KHz

Following is not advantage of FM over AM system

A

Noise immunity

Fidelity

Capture effect

Sputtering effect

170

171

172

173

174

175

176

177

178

A sinusoidal signal with peak to peak amplitude 1.536 is quantized in 128

levels using mid-rise uniform quantizer. Quantization noise power is
A

0.12 V2

0.012 V2

0.0012 V2

0.000012 V2

Standard data rate of PCM for 30 channels is ..

A

64 KBPS

2.048 MBPS

4 MBPS

8 MBPS

The SQR for PCM if sinusoidal signal is quantized using 10 bit

A

48 dB

56.8 dB

64 dB

67.78 dB

Pulse stuffing is used in

A

Synchronous TDM

Asynchronous TDM

Any TDM

None of above

With compare to PCM system, delta modulation requires

A

lower sampling rate

low bandwidth

simple hardware

better SNR

Following is not ideal requirement from line codes

A

Transmission bandwidth

large DC component

Favorable PSD

Timing recovery

Which one of following line code has no DC component and clock recovery
property?
A

Manchestor

NRZ

RZ

None of above

Which of the following gives maximum probability of error?

A

ASK

BFSK

BPSK

DPSK

Output SNR of matched filter, fed at its input by a ractangular pulse of

amplitude A and duration T is given by _________ considering N as noise
PSD
A

2AT/N

2A2T/N

C
179

180

181

182

183

184

185

186

AT

A/N

Main circuit used in DPSK modulator is

A

AND gate

OR gate

Ex-NOR gate

NAND gate

In digital communication system employing FSK, 0 is represented by sine

wave of 10 KHz and 1 is represented by 25 KHz. These waveforms are
orthogonal for bit interval of .
A

45 s

50 s

200 s

250 s

For a bit rate of 8 kbps, best possible values of transmitted frequencies in a

coherent binary FSK systems are
A

32 KHz and 40 KHz

8 KHz and 12 KHz

20 KHz and 40 KHz

16 KHz and 20 KHz

ASK, FSK and PSK are examples of

A

Analog transmission of data

Digital to analog converter

Analog to Digital convertor

Analog modulators

Correlation receiver consists of

A

Adder and integrator

Multilier and integrator

Mutiplier and differentiator

Addre and differentiator

Baud rate of QPSK system is 100 then bit rate is

A

800

400

200

100

In digital communication system, the delay spreading along with fading

causes _________and hence limits maximum symbol rate.
A

Multipath fading

Doppler effect

higher bit rate

Intersymbol interference

Two main reasons for rapid fluctuations of the signal amplitude in mobile
communication are ..
A

Reflection and refraction

diffraction and scattering

C
187

188

189

190

191

192

193

194

Multipath fading and doppler

effect

Blocking and shadowing

The average delay spread due to fading in urban area is ______

A

<0.1 s

0.5 s

3 s

5 s

A base station transmitter is operating at 900 MHz carrier frequency.

Mobile moving at speed of 72 km/hr in a direction perpendicular to
direction of arrival of signal. The receiver carrier frequency is
A

899.99 MHz

900.00006 MHz

900 MHz

900.03 MHz

Following channel passes all spectral components with approximately equal

gain and linear phase without distortion.
A

Rayleigh fading channel

Rician fading channel

Frequency selective channel

Flat channel

Due to presence of object between transmitter and receiver, following will

happen.
A

Scattering

Reflection

Shadow fading

Doppler effect

Rayleigh fading channel model characteristics is not applicable to

A

Multiple indirect path between

transmitter and receiver

No distict line of sight path

Direct line of sight path

None of above

In wireless communication system, transmitter and receiver stations are

located at distance of 10 km. transmission delay of signal typically
A

3.33 s

33.3 s

333.3 s

3 ms

Optimal ration between the number of fixed and dynamic channels in

hybrid channel assignment mainly depends on
A

Availability of channels

Blocking probability

Traffic characteristics

System overheads

Cell site transmitter power incerases by 3 dB that means

A

Transmitter power doubles

Transmitter power four times

C
195

196

197

198

199

200

201

202

Transmitter power 1000 times

None of above

Radius of split cell is one half of oringinal cell. Coverage area of split cell is
__________ the coverage area of original cell.
A

Half

Double

one fourth

Four times

In a flat operating terrain, doubling cell site antenna height results into ..
A

3 dB increase in gain

6 dB increase in gain

9 dB increase in gain

8 dB increase in gain

Modem uses 4 different amplitudes and 16 different phases. Bits used to

transmit each symbol are
A

Overall handoff delay in Mobile assisted hand off is about

A

5 to 10 second

2 to 5 second

1 to 2 second

less than 1 second

Minimum required C/I is about _________ for narrowband digital cellular

systems.
A

3 dB

6 dB

9 dB

12 dB

If calling rate average is 20 calls per minute and average holding time is 3
minutes then offered traffic load in Erlang is .
A

6.66

30

60

360

One of following is not related to cyclic code.

A

Error detection is simple

Look up table is required

Code is powerful and efficient

All of above

Binary symmetric channel transmitting 1's and 0's with equal probabilties
has an error rate of 0.01. Channel transmission rate will be ...
A

0.9

0.909

0.99

0.92

203

204

205

206

207

208

209

210

211

For telephonic quality speech channel, calculate information capacity of the

telephone channel for SNR of 30 dB
A

64 KBPS

32 KBPS

33.89 KBPS

16 KBPS

If receiver knows the message being transmitted by the transmitter,

amount of information communicated is .
A

8 bit

4 bit

1 bit

What is amount of information in binary PCM with equal likelihood ?

A

8 bit

4 bit

1 bit

A source produces four symbols x1,x2,x3 and x4 with probabilities 0.5,

0.25,0.125 and 0.125 respectively. Amount of information carried by symol
x1 and x2 is
A

1 bit for both x1 and x2

2 bit for both x1 and x2

1 bit for x1 and 2 bit for x2

2 bit for x1 and 1 bit for x2

What is amount of information conveyed by symbol Z in bit ,if its

probability is 0.25
A

0.25

Entropy of message source generating 4 messages with probabilities 0.5,

0.25, 0.125 and 0.125 is
A

1 bit/message

1.75 bit/message

2 bit/message

4 bit/message

Capacity of communication channel with a bandwidth of 4 KHz and 15 dB

SNR is
A

4 kbps

8.02 kbps

20.11 kbps

32.40 kbps

In T1 systems, the frame synchronization code repeats at every

A

1 s

64 s

125 s

625 s

Matched filter output over (0,T) to pulse waveform is

212

213

214

215

216

217

218

219

e-T

e-Tsin(ht)

e-Tsin(t)

e-T/2sin(2ht)

Inter-symbol Interference can be reduced by following

A

Transmit sinc pulses instead of

rectangular pulses

By using suitable pulse shaping

techniques.

By reducing data transmission

rate

All of above

Transversal equalizer uses tapped delay line to

A

Reduce ISI

Reduce data rate

Reduce bandwidth

None of above

Eb/No at the receiver input should be larger than ________ in order to

recover error free data at receiver output. Eb=Received Signal and No/2 is
power spectral density.
A

0 dB

3 dB

-1.59 dB

1.33 dB

RC load for diode detector consists of a 1000 pF capacitor in parallel with

10 k, maximum modulation depth that can be handled for sinewave of
10 KHz to avoid diagonal peak clipping.
A

0.25

0.5

0.85

0.9

HDTV has aspect ratio

A

4:3

16:9

9:16

3:4

As per new HDTV standard formats number of scan lines are

A

Interlace scan mode 1080

Progressive scan mode 780

Both A and B

None of above

In 1080i HDTV system, nummber of pixels in each line are ..

A

786

1280

1920

2400

What is the approximate frequency limit of copper wire

A

1 MHz

40 GHz

C
220

221

222

223

224

225

226

227

100KHz

10 GHz

Following circuit is used to generate PPM from PWM signal

A

Astable multivibrator

D-Flip flop

Monostable multivibrator

Schmit trigger

What will be minimum storage requirement according to Nyquist theorem

to store audio signal of 20Hz-15KHz with 8 bit quantization for the duration
of 1 minute?
A

1.2 MB

1.8 MB

30 KB

64 KB

Data rate of one speech channel in LPC-10 vocoder is ..

A

2.4 kbps

4 kbps

8 kbps

16 kbps

Total 12 telephone quality speech channels are time division multiplexed

using DPCM technique. Total transmission rate will be..
A

128 kbps

192 kbps

256 kbps

384 kbps

Following hardware is used for pulse shaping

A

Low pass filter circuit

High pass filter circuit

Transversal filter

All of above

HDMI Cable used in modern LCD/LED TV provides

A

Digital Connection

Carries video signal

Carries audio signal

All of above

Equalizer is used to ..
A

Reshape incoming pulses

Boost high freq components

To boost low freq components

Amplify incoming pulses

Gaussian filter is used in GMSK technique to

A

To achieve smooth phase

transitions of carrier

To reduce bandwidth
requirement for transmission.

To achieve zero ISI at decision

making instant of neighboring

All of above

pulse
228

229

230

231

232

233

234

235

Following parameter is not coded in the LPC-10 vocoder

A

Pitch

Gain

Sample value

Voice/Unvoiced determination

How many samples are there in 40 ms frame of telephone quality speech ?

A

160

200

320

400

Following circuit is not used in detecting information from the PPM signal
A

Low pass filter

Bistable multivibrator

Amplifier

Monostable multivibrator

If we increase number of quantization levels in PCM system..

A

We get good SNR

Large bandwidth required for

transmission

More bits required to

represent information

All of above

If we increase sampling rate in the PCM system ..

A

Transmission bit rate will

increase

Storage requirement will

increase

No possibility of aliasing error

All of above

Following is not handshaking signal for RS232 serial communication

A

RTS

Strobe

CTS

DTR

Mean quantization noise in PCM system if sine wave of peak to peak

amplitude of 16 volt is quantized with 4 bits.
A

0.0833

0.05

0.5

Adaptive delta modulation is used to

A

Reduce transmission rate

Remove slope overload and

threshold error

Dynamic sampling rate

All of above

236

237

238

239

240

241

242

243

Sigma-Delta modulation is used to

A

Pre-emphasize low frequency

content

Increase correlation between

adjacent samples

Simplify receiver design

All of above

Following is not criteria for spread spectrum system..

A

Bandwidth of transmitted
signal must be large enough

SNR should increase as

bandwidth increase

Bandwidth expansion factor

should be independent of
message signal

None of above

Relation between channel capacity C and bandwidth B can be given by

equation
A

SNR = 7.78 + 20logC

C=2Blog10(1+SNR)

C=2Blog2(SNR)

C=Blog2(1+SNR)

Noise generator is electronic model of speech generation system

represents
A

Vowels

Voiced sound

Unvoiced sound

Pitch

10 Speech channels are multiplexed using TDM then separation between

two frame of speech will be .
A

12.5 S

125 S

1250 S

None of above

Number of scanning lines and trace time per line in CCIR-B Television
system used in India is
A

625 lines, 52 S

525 lines, 53 S

625 lines, 64 S

525 lines,12 S

One time slot of a TDMA frame in GSM standard contains ____ bits
encrypted data
A

156.25

114

57

26

One slot of TDMA frame in GSM standard contains total ___ bits
A

156.25

114

57

26

244

245

246

247

248

249

250

Following database at MSC keeps information about identity of mobile

phone equipment
A

HLR

VLR

EIR

AuC

Effects of fading is distributed to improve signal quality by technique ..

A

Speech coding

Channel coding

Bit interleaving

Equalisation

Following type of technique suitable for bursty type traffic in form of

packets
A

PRMA

TDMA

FDMA

CDMA

Antenna gain in desired direction at cell site can be maximized by ______

A

Omnidirectional antenna

Parabolic antenna

Switched beam antenna

Dish antenna

To mitigate problem of ISI in TDMA system ________ technique is used

A

Source encoding

Channel coding

Interleaving

Channel Equalisation

In M-ary coding system, signaling rate Rs=1/Ts and data rate Rb=1/Tb are
related as:
A

Ts=Tblog2M

Ts=TbxM

Ts=2Tblog10M

Rs=Rblog2M

Scrambling is done to achieve

A

To help synchronization

To make data pattern random

To remove long string of 1s and

0s

All of above

ELECTRO-MAGNET

x x E is
A

. E - 2 E

2 E - . E

2 E + E

. E - E .

Unit vector of E is
A

E/E

 E ( ax + ay + az )

E.E

E/E

E x H is
A

EH cos

EH sin

EH sin an

EH cos an

E x ( A + C ) is
A

ExC+ExA

E.A+ExC

A.E + C.E

AxEExC

Gradient of a scalar is
A

Not defined

A vector

a scalar

Not periodic

Divergence of a vector is
A

Not defined

a scalar

A vector

The same as gradient of a vector

The unit of del is

A

Does not exist

meter

1/meter

dB

2 operates
A

Only on scalar

Only on vector

On a scalar and also on a vector

Only on a constant

ax . ax is
A

ax

ay

10

11

12

13

ax . ay
A

az

-az

ax

az

-az

ax

az

ay

For static fields

17

18

xH=D
xH=0

B
D

xH=J
xH=E

In free space
A

16

ax is

15

ay is

14

is

xE=0
.D =
v

B
D

xE=
x E = - B/t
t
v

Unit of E is
A

Volt

Amp/m

Volt/m

Volt/coulomb

Unit of H is
A

Weber

ampere

Volt/m

Amp/m

Unit of D is
A

Wb/m

Amp/m

C/m2

C/m

E/t
t

D is

19

20

21

22

23

24

.D/t
D t is
A

B/t
B t

-B/t
B t

D/t
D t + J

x E is
The electric flux density , D is
A

E / 0

The electric flux is

A

The unit of electric flux is

A

Weber

Gauss

Tesla

Coulomb

In free space
A
C

25

27

B
D

xE=0
.E = /
v

In free space
A

26

. E = 0
.E =

. B = 0
xB= H
0

B
D

. B = H
. B = H /
0

For free space

A

=0

J = 1 Amp/m2

r = 0

r = 0

The unit of conduction current density is

A

Amp/m

Amp/m2

Amp/m3

Amp

28

29

The unit of displacement current density is

A

Amp/m2

Amp/m

Amp

Amp-m

Amp/m

Amp-m

The unit of conduction current is

A
C

30

31

32

33

34

35

Amp
2

Amp/m

The unit of permittivity is

A

Farad

Henry

Farad/m

Henry/m

The unit of permeability is

A

Henry/m

Farad/m

Henry

Weber

The conduction current density is

A

E/

The displacement current density is

A

E/t
t

0 E

For uniform plane wave propagation in z-direction

A

Ez = 0

Ez f(y)

Ez f(x)

Ez = 0 , Hz = 0

The line integral of E around a closed loop is

A

Zero

Equal to current

36

37

38

39

40

41

The unit of attenuation is

A

dB/m

V/m

Amp/m

Coloumb/m

Velocity of a plane wave whose r = 4 , r = 1 is

A

3 x 108 m/s

1.5 x 108 cm/s

6 x 108 cm/s

2 x 108 cm/s

Velocity of uniform plane wave in free space is

A

3 x 108 m/s

3 x 108 cm/s

3 x 106 cm/s

3 x 1010 cm/s

The unit of depth of penetration is

A

dB

Meter

Neper

radian

E.H for a plane wave is

A

Zero

Does not exist

EH

Equation of continuity is
A
C

42

43

44

.J = - /t
t
.J = /t
t
v

B
D

.J = -
.J =
v

/t
t

Magnetic current density is given by

A

D/t
D t

B/t
B t

-B/t
B t

The unit of magnetic current density is

A

Amp/m2

Volt/m2

Amp

Amp/m

Boundary conditions on E is
A

an X (E1 E2 ) = 0

Et1 = Et2

an . (E1 E2 ) = 0

an . E1 = 0

45

46

47

48

49

Boundary conditions on H is
A

Ht1 = Ht2

Ht1 - Ht2 = Js

an X (H1 H2 ) = Js

an X (H1 H2 ) = 0

Boundary conditions on B is
A

an X (B1 B2 ) = 0

an . (B1 B2 ) = 0

an . (H1 H2 ) = Js

Bn1 = Bn2

Boundary conditions on D is
A

an . (D1 D2 ) = 0

an . (D1 D2 ) = s

an X (D1 D2 ) = s

an X (D1 D2 ) = 0

Boundary conditions on J is
A

an X (J1 J2 ) = 0

an . (J1 J2 ) = 0

an X (J1 J2 ) = Js

an . (J1 J2 ) = Js

Lorentz Gauge condition is

A
C

50

51

52

53

.A = - V /t
t
x A = B

B
D

x A = H
.A = - V /t
t

Equation of continuity is
A

J.dS = I

J.dS = Q

J.dS = J

J.dS = v

Intrinsic impedance of a medium is given by

A

Sqrt( / )

Sqrt( j / ( + j )

Sqrt( / )

Sqrt( )

The characteristic impedance of free space is

A

277

120

377

1202

The wave equation in free space is

A

2 E = 0 0 E /t
t

2 E = 0 0 2E /t
t

2 V = - v /

2 E = 2E /t
t

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

61

E and H are always perpendicular to each other

A

Yes

Some times

Only for uniform plane wave

None of these

Velocity of propagation of a plane wave is

A

/f

f /

Attenuation of plane wave in free space is

A

Zero

infinite

Propagation constant

itself

A medium is a good conductor if

A

( / ) >> 1

( / ) << 1

( / ) = 1

( / ) = 0

A medium is a good dielectric if

A

( / ) >> 1

( / ) << 1

( / ) = 0

( / ) = 1

The ratio of conduction current to displacement current is

A

Dissipation factor of a dielectric is

A

Inversely proportional to square

root of conductivity

Directly proportional to
conductivity

Inversely proportional to
conductivity

depth of penetration in good conductors is

A
C

62

Inversely proportional to
conductivity
Not a function of conductivity

Attenuation constant in good dielectrics is

A

Directly proportional to conductivity

C
63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

Inversely proportional to square

root of conductivity

Not a function of conductivity

Phase velocityof uniform plane wave is

A

Directly proportional to

Not a function of

Inversely proportional to
Not Inversely proportional to
square root of

Phase constant of a uniform plane wave in a medium is

A

Directly proportional to frequency

Is inversely proportional to
frequency

Not a function of frequency

Is inversely proportional to
square root of frequency

The characteristic impedance of a medium is

A

Sqrt( / )

Is a function of frequency

Not a function of frequency

Is independent of , and f

Poynting vector gives

A

Instantaneous power density

Average power density

Total power

Total power density

Standing waves are produced when

A

There are no reflections

There are full reflections

There is only transmission

The waves are incident on good

dielectrics

The minimum value of voltage standing wave ratio is

A

-1

When the load impedance ZL = Z0 , the VSWR is

A

10

Brewster angle is
A

Angle of incidence for which

there is no reflection

Angle of refraction for which

there is no reflection

Equal to reflected angle

Equal to refraction angle

71

72

73

74

75

76

77

78

79

The range of HF is
A

3-30 kHz

30-300 kHz

3-30 MHz

30-300 MHz

The range of VHF is

A

3-30 MHz

30-300 MHz

300 MHz-3 GHz

300 kHz 300 MHz

The standard antenna for reference is

A

Isotropic antenna

Half-wave dipole

Dish antenna

Yagi Uda antenna

The most common popular prevalent TV antenna is

A

Dipole

Monopole

dish

horn

Among the following the Broadband antenna is

A

Log-periodic

dipole

Yagi-Uda

Horn

Among the following the non-resonant antenna is

A

dipole

Yagi-Uda

Monopole

rhombic

The common microwave link antenna is

A

dipole

Log-periodic

Rhombic

Parabolic dish

Antenna for direction finding is

A

Yagi-Uda

Rhombic

Parabolic dish

Loop

The directivity of half-wave dipole is

80

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

10

1.5

1.64

The directivity of current element is

A

1.64

1.5

2.0

5.0

Reflectors in Yagi-Uda antenna are

A

More than 1

10

Directors in Yagi-Uda antenna are

A

More than 1

Radar antenna is
A

Parabolic dish

dipole

Horn

waveguide

The length of the folded dipole in yagi uda antenna is

A

468/f (MHz) feet

492/ f (MHz) feet

342/f (MHz) feet

192/f (MHz) feet

The impedance of folded dipole in yagi-uda antenna is

A

Inductive reactance

Capacitive reactance

Purely resistive

73

The radiation resistance of a current element is

A

80 2 ( dl / )2

80 ( dl / )2

80 2 ( dl / )

80 ( dl / )

Circularly polarized antenna is

A

Dipole

Parabolic dish

Yagi-uda

helical

If the current element is y-directed , the resultant vector magnetic potential is

89

y-directed

x-directed

z-directed

-directed

For time-varying fields

E=-

E = - V - A /t
t

E = - V - D /t
t

E = - V - H /t
t

100 poynting vector gives

A

Direction of electric field

Polarization of electromagnetic
wave

Power flow

Rate of energy flow

101 The length of folded dipole in yagi-uda antenna is

A

Frequency dependent

Frequency independent

Equal to

Equal to 0.2

102 The spacing between folded dipole and reflector is

A
C

> /2

/2

< /2

103 Voltage standing wave ratio is

A

Vmin / Vmax

Vmax / Vmin

Vreflected / Vincident

Vmax

104 Antenna is a
A

transducer

filter

Regulator

amplifier

105 The radiation resistance of a half wave dipole close to earth is

A

73

< 73

> 73

Infinity

106 If the directivity is high , the beam width is

A

High

low

constant

Very high

107 Director in yagi-uda antenna is

A

Active element

Driven element

Parasitic element

Identical to dipole

108 Reflector in yagi-uda antenna is

A

Active element

Driven element

Identical to dipole

Parasitic element

109 Log-periodic antenna is

A

Narrow band

Wide band

Frequency independent

Frequency dependent

110 In vertical dipole , the electric field is

A

Parallel to the dipole

Perpendicular to dipole

- directed

circular

111 The effective length of a vertical radiator is

A

Increased by capacitive hat

Increased by loading with lumped

Inductance

Increased by supplying more power

Increased by resistance loading

112 The null-to-null beam width in end-fire array is

A

2/Nd

Sqrt(2 / N d )

2 sqrt( / N d )

2 sqrt(2 / N d )

113 The null-to-null beam width in broad side array is

A

2/Nd

2 sqrt(2 / N d )

2 2 / N d

Sqrt(N d / 2 )

114 The length of resonant dipole is

A

/2

/4

115 The first side lobe level in uniform array is

0.212

0.121

0.312

0.51

116 The side lobe level in binomial array is

A

Zero

-13.5 dB

-20 dB

Zero dB

117 In binomial array the central elements are excited

A

strongly

Weakly

Uniformly

easily

118 In horizontal polarized waves the electric field is

A

Parallel to the ground

Perpendicular to the ground

In -direction

Elliptical

119 The maximum directive gain of current element is

A

1.76 dB

2.15 dB

3 dB

0 dB

120 Band width of an antenna is

A

f0 / Q

Q / f0

f0 Q

f0 / Q

121 Antenna can be used as

A

Sound sensor

Light sensor

Temperature sensor

Colour sensor

122 For far field of z-directed current element

A

H = - sin Az/r
r

H = 0

H = H

H = Hr

123 Induction and far fields have equal magnitudes at

r = / 2

r = / 6

r = /

r=

124 Induction and radiation fields have equal magnitudes at

A

r = v0 /

r = v0 / 2

r = v0 /

r = v0 /

125 If the output signal power level is 1 W , power gain is

A

0 dB

1 dB

10 dB

dB

126 LF antennas are usually used for

A

Vertical polarization

horizontal polarization

Circular polarization

Elliptical polarization

127 The real part of antenna impedance consists of

A

Rr only

Rr and Rl

Rl only

Zero ohms of resistance

128 Power and field patterns are related as

A

P E2

PE

P E

1/ E

129 For radiation pattern measurement the distance of the far field region is
A

r > 2 D2 /

r < D2 /

r= /

r= D/

130 GTEM cell means

A

Geometric transverse
electromagnetic cell

Giga Hertz TEM cell

Grounded TEM cell

Geo TEM cell

131 Whetastone bridge is used to measure antenna impedance at a frequency of

A

Giga hertz

Upto microwave frequency range

Upto millimeter range

Upto 30 MHz

132

If the field measurements are made at r < 2 D /

A

Side lobe levels will be high

Bandwidth will be small

Band width and side lobe levels are

small

No side lobes appear

133 Null-to Null bandwith is

A

Equal to 3 dB bandwith

Greater than 3 dB band width

less than 3 dB band width

Not related to 3 dB band width

134 Antenna efficiency is

A

gp / gd

gd / gp

gp

gd

135 Phase difference is

A

D /
Path difference x
136 If the response of a vertical dipole is 1 for a unity normalized input power , the
polarization is
C

Vertical

Horizontal

Circular

elliptical

137 If the response of RCP helix is zero , the polarization of test antenna is
A

LCP

RCP

Horizontal

Vertical

138 If the response of RCP helix is maximum , the polarization of test antenna is
A

LCP

RCP

Horizontal

Vertical

139 If the response of LCP helix is maximum , the polarization of test antenna is
A

LCP

RCP

Horizontal

Vertical

140 If the response of a horizontal dipole is maximum , the polarization of test antenna is
A

Horizontal

Vertical

Circular

elliptical

141 If the response of any type of antenna is 0.5 for unity normalized power, the
polarization of test antenna is
A

Linear

Horizontal

Vertical

unpolarised

142 The excitation levels of a three element binomial array are

A

1,2,1

1,3,1

1,4,1

2,3,2

143 The excitation levels of a four element binomial array are

A

1,3,1,1

1,2,2,1

1,3,3,1

1,4,4,1

144 The basic transmission loss between transmitter and receiver is

A

10 log ( ( 4 d )/ )2

10 log ( / ( 4 d ))2

10 log ( GTX GRX )

zero

145 Actual transmission loss between transmitter and receiver is

A
C

10 log { ( / ( 4 d ))2 * 1/ ( GT
GR ) }
10 log { ( ( 4 d )/ ) * GT GR }

10 log { ( ( 4 d )/ )2 * 1/ ( GT
GR ) }

10 log { ( / ( 4 d )) * ( GT
GR ) }

146 Friss formula is

A

La = ( / ( 4 d ))2

La = ( ( 4 d )/ )2

La = 10log10( ( 4 d )/ )2 * 1/ (
GT GR )

La = 10log10( ( 4 d )/ )2

147 Noise figure of antenna is

A

Te / T0

1 + (Te / T0 )

1 - (Te / T0 )

1 + (Te / T0 )2

148 Actual transmission loss in dB between transmitter and receiver is

A

Greater than basic transmission

loss

Equal to basic transmission loss

less than basic transmission loss

infinite

149 Schelkunoff polynomial method gives

A

Nulls in the desired direction

Nulls in undesired directions

Desired side lobes

Desired beam width

150 Range of VSWR is

A

0 to 1

1 to

0 to

- to

151 Tchebyscheff polynomial method gives

A

Desired side lobe ratio

Desired beam width

Desired overall pattern

Desired phase function

152 The advantage of uniform linear array is

A

The required number of sources

is one

SLR is small

Number of side lobes are less

Grating lobes are present

153 The current distribution in half-wave dipole is

A

Sinusoidal

constant

Triangular

parabolic

154 When the array length high, the null to-null beam width is
A

Small

High

Constant

infinity

155 Conducting properties of earth are

A

Constant with frequency

Change with frequency

Change with the type of antenna

Change with excitation of antenna

156 In conductor , if charge is not moving , the radiation is

A

Very high

Zero

The same as when charge moves

moderate

157 If a charge is moving with a uniform velocity in an infinite straight wire , the
radiaton is
A

Infinite

Moderate

Zero

high

158 If the charge is moving in a curved wire , radiation

A

Exists

Does not exist

Is infinite

Same as when the wire is straight

159 If the charge oscillates with time in a straight wire , it

A

Radiates

Does not radiate

Stores energy

oscillates

160 If the charge accelerates , there exists

A

No radiation

Radiation

Stored energy

Acceleration of antenna

161 If the charge deccelerates , radiation

A

Is zero

Exists

Does not exist in any antenna

Exists only in some wire antenna

162 The primary equation for electromagnetic radiation in a very thin z-directed wire of
length L
A

L dIz / dt = L L az

L dIz / dt = L L ay

L dIz / dt = L ay

L dIz / dt = L L

163 Radiation with broad frequency spectrum is very strong if

A

pulses are of shorter duration

pulses are of longer duration

Pulses have more amplitude

Pulses have small amplitude

164 For frequency independent antennas , the band width is

A

zero

Finite

Moderate

165 The radiation intensity of an isotropic radiator is

A

Pr / 4 r2

Pr / 4 r

Pr / 4

Pr

166 An omni directional antenna from the following

A

Parabolic dish

Dipole

Horn

Yagi-uda antenna

167 Loop antenna is a

A

Isotropic radiator

Directional radiator

Omni-directional radiator

Point source

168 Broad side arrays are

A

Omni-directional

Point sources

Directional antennas

Isotropic antennas

Only one component

169 In linear polarization , there exists

A
C

Three components
Two components differing by 900

phase

Two components differing by 2700

phase

170 If there exists two orthogonal linear components which are in time phase,
polarization is
A

Linear

Circular

Elliptical

Not present

171 Effective area of an antenna is

A

Ratio of power delivered to load

to power density of incident wave

Ratio of radiation intensity to

power density of incident wave

gp / gd

gd / gp

172 Aperture efficiency , of an antenna is

a
A

The ratio of gp and gd

Maximum effective area to physical

area

Effective area to physical area

Physical area to effective area

173 In far-field region , the angular field distribution is independent of

A

Transmitter power

Distance from the antenna

Angular region

Antenna type

174 Fresnel region is

A

Far-field region

Near-field region

The region of constant field

The region of no field

175 Fraunhofer region is

A

Far-field region

Near-field region

The region of constant field

The region of no field

176 Reactive near-field region exists when

A

R > 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / )

R < 0.62 * sqrt( D2 / )

R < 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / )

R > 0.62 * sqrt( D2 / )

R 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / ) and R <
2D2 /

177 Fresnel region exists when

A

R 0.62 * sqrt( D / )

R 2D2 /

R 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / )

178 Fraunhofer region exists when

A

R > 2D2 /

R < 2D2 /

R 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / )

R 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / )

179 Unit of directivity is

A

Watts

Watts/m2

Watts/m3

nil

180 Unit of solid angle

A

Degrees

Radian

Sterradian

nil

181 If h is the height of an antenna , the number of side lobes are

A

h/

2 h/

2/h

182 Divergence factor of a field from earth is

Reflected field from flat earth /

Reflected field from curved
B surface / reflected field from flat
reflected field from curved
surface
surface
Reflected field from curved earth
incident field from curved earth
C / incident field from curved
D / reflected field from curved
surface
surface
183 If Rr is radiation resistance , e is effective permeability of ferrite core , the
radiation resistance of ferrite loop is
A

Rr (0 / e )2

Rr (e / 0 )2

Rr

Rr 0

184 The resultant field of an array antenna is

185

The product of element pattern

and array factor

Array factor

Sum of element patterns

Element pattern

The excitation required to orient a beam in 0 direction is

A

kd cos 0

-kd cos 0

-kd

kd

186 Super directivity of an array can be obtained by

A

Reducing the spacing

Increasing the spacing

Reducing the number of elements

Decreasing array length

187 Super directivity obtained by reducing the spacing and increasing the number of
elements results in
A

High reactive power and Q

Small Q

low reactive power and Q

High reactive power and lower
Q

188 Circular antennas are most sensitive to

A

Linearily polarized waves

Elliptically polarized waves

Circularly polarized waves

Unpolarised waves

189 Circular antenna has usually a length of

A

/2

/4

190 The horizontal pattern of a circular antenna is

191

Circle

Four equal lobe pattern

Figure-eight pattern

Six equal lobe pattern

Two end fire circular antenna elements with 90 phasing produce

A

Unidirectional pattern

Figure eight pattern

Multidirectional pattern

No radiation pattern

192 Cirular antennas are widely used at

A

VLF

HF

Microwave frequency

UHF

193 Directors in yagi uda antenna

A

Reduces the characteristic

impedance of a driven antenna
element

increases the characteristic

impedance of a driven antenna
element

Has no effect on the characteristic

impedance of driven element

Act as open circuit

194 Directors and reflectors are used to

A

Reduce the impedance

increase the impedance

Increase the gain

Form an array

195 Due to use of parasitic elements the bandwidth of yagi-uda antenna is

A

Increased

Not affected

Made ideal

Limited

196 Yagi-uda antenna has

A

Poor front to back ratio

good front to back ratio

infinite front to back ratio

zero front to back ratio

197 V-antenna yields

A

Bidirectional pattern

Unidirectional pattern

Good signal strength compared to

dipole

Less band width compared to dipole

198 V-antenna is popular for

A

Satellite reception

FM reception

Mobile reception

Radar signal reception

199 If the power gain of an antenna is 0.5 dB , the power ratio is

A

0.216

12.6

1.26

1.06

200 If the voltage gain of an antenna is 1.0 dB , the voltage ratio is

A

1.26

0.126

1.06

1.0

201 If the power gain of an antenna is 30 dB , the power ratio is

A

1.477

1000

100

10

202 If the power gain of an antenna is 20 , the power gain in dB is

A

13

130

20

200

203 If a dipole is tilted forward , the band width becomes

A

Zero

Infinite

More

reduced

204 If a 300 line is terminated in 75 dipole , SWR is

A

0.25

205 The power density at a distance of 1 km from 1 kW isotropic radiator is

A

795 mW / m2

79.5 mW / m2

795 W / m2

79.5 W / m2

206 For radio wave propagation , fresh water is considered to be

A

Very poor

Poor

Very good

average

207 For radio wave propagation , cities are considered to be

A

Poor

Very poor

Very good

good

208 The phase velocity of a wave in medium whose = 0 is

r
A

Finite

V0

209 Antenna radiation efficiency is high when its length is

A

/ 2

3 / 2

210 Antenna resonates when its length is integer multiples of

A

/ 2

/ 4

/ 3

211 For a 100 antenna with 2 A of current , radiated power is

A

400 watts

200 watts

50 watts

25 watts

212 For a perfect conductor the power transmission coefficient is

213

zero

Reflection coeeficient

For a perfect conductor , the power transmission coefficient ||2 is

A

Equal to transmission coefficient

1T

214 The Rayleigh criterion in the case of reflection of electromagnetic wave from semirough surface is
A

Cos i > / 8d

Cos i = / 8d

Cos i < / 8d

Cos i = 0

215 The percent bandwidth of an antenna with an optimum frequency of operation of 500
MHz and - 3 dB frequencies of 300 MHz and 350 MHz is
A

20 %

100 %

500 %

10 %

216 The received power of a receiving antenna whose effective area is 0.2 m2 for an

available power density of 100 W / m2

A

200

20

50

500

217 For an ideal antenna , the directivity is

A

Power gain

1.64

1.5

218 For an ideal antenna , the radiation resistance is

A

73

36.5

293

Input impedance

219 The power gain in dB of isotropic radiator is

A

1.5

1.64

220 The normalized power of a dipole is

A

1.5

Sin2

1.64

221 If the resistance part of antenna is 100 , radiation resistance is 80 , the antenna
efficiency is
A

0.8

10/8

0.4

8/18

222 If is the angle between the axis of a receiving dipole and the direction of electric
field , the polarization loss factor is
A

Sin

cos

tan

sec

223 The effective length of a half wave dipole is

A

0.4

0.45

0.55

225 Effective area of a Hertzian dipole is

A

0.2 2

0.25 2

0.119 2

0.3 2

226 Directive gain is equal to power gain if

A

=1

= gp

= gd

227 Directive gain and directivity are equal for

228

Directional antenna

Dipole

Parabolic dish

Isotropic antenna

For an isotropic antenna operating at = sqrt(4 ) , the effective area is

A

(4 )2

229 Directivity is
inversely proportional to square of
beam width
Directly proportional to square of
C Directly proportional to beam width
D
beam width
230 If the direction of propagation of an electromagnetic wave is in z-direction , the
polarization is in
A

inversely proportional to beam width

z-direction

y-direction

x-direction

Circular polarization

231 If the quality factor of an antenna is 1000 , resonant frequency is 10 MHz its band
width is
A

100 kHz

10 kHz

10 Hz

10 MHz

232 The maximum effective area of an antenna operating at = 10 cm with the

directivity of 100 is
A

1000 cm2

(1/4 ) m2

4 m2

10 m2

233 The radiation resistance of an antenna which radiates 10 kW when a current of 10

ampere flows in it , is
A

100

1,000

10

100 k

234 When an antenna radiates 10 kW in forward and 1 kW in backward directions , the

front-to-back ratio of an antenna is
A

1 dB

10 dB

100 dB

0 dB

235 If a medium has = 81 , = 2 mho/m , f = 10 GHz , it is

r
A

A conductor

A bad conductor

An insulator

A good insulator

236 The radiated electric field is

A

dl

(dl)2

1/ dl

1/(dl)2

237 Poynting vector has the unit of

A

Watts / m3

watts

Watts / m2

Volt-ampere

238 The current element has a directive gain of

A

3/2

2/3

1.64

239 The polarization of horizontal dipole is

A

Vertical

Horizontal

- polarization

elliptical

240 To receive horizontally polarized wave , the receiving antenna should be polarised
A

Vertically

Horizontally

Circularly

Elliptically

241 The skin depth of an ideal conductor is

A

Zero

Finite

Sqrt( )

242 The conducting properties of a medium depends on

A

Only

only

f only

, and f

243 The surface current density of a good dielectric medium is

A

Zero

Infinity

Finite

-1

244 The surface charge density of a good dielectric medium is

245

-1

Infinity

Finite

Zero

In the boundary condition Dn1 - Dn2 = s , the unit of s is

A

C / m3

C / m2

C/m

246 In the boundary condition H H = J , the unit of J

t1
t2
s
s
A

Ampere

Amp/m

Amp/m2

H/m

247 In the boundary condition B - B = 0 , the unit of B is

n1
n2
n1
A

Wb

Wb/m

Tesla/m

Wb/m2

248 In the boundary condition E E = 0 , the unit of E is

t1
t2
t2
A

Volt/m2

Volt/m

Volt

Volt-m

xE

B/

.B

P/E

249 H is

250 The permittivity of a space is

A

>1

251 The electric field of a circularly polarized wave is represented by

A

( ax + j ay ) e j ( t

ax e j ( t

-z)

-z)

( ax + j ay ) e j ( t )

ay e j ( t

-z)

252 A qurter wave line yields

A

Zero impedance

Infinite impedance

Impedance inversion

Real and reactive impedance

253 The tangential electric field at a perfect conductor is

A

Zero

254 An electromagnetic wave when incident on a perfect conductor is

A

Reflected completely

Transmitted completely

Reflected and transmitted

Refracted completely

255 The electric field of elliptically polarized electromagnetic wave is represented by

A

( ax + j ay ) e j ( t

Ex a x e j ( t

-z)

-z)

( Ex ax + j Eyay ) e j ( t

Eyay e j ( t

-z)

256 The transmission line can be converted into

A

A dipole antenna

A dish antenna

A horn

lens

257 The length of the mobile antenna is a

A

/2

/4

>

258 E.H of uniform plane wave is

A

EH

E2

None of these

259 For static magnetic field

A

XB=

XB=J

. B = 0 J

XB=0

-z)

260 Electric field in free space

A

D / 0

D / 0

0 D

/ 0

261 For uniform plane wave in x-direction

A

Ex = 0

Hx = 0

Ex = 0 and Hx = 0

None of these

262 Displacement current density is

A

D/t

J/t

263 Depth of penetration in free space is

A

1/

None of these

264 Complex pointing vector P is

A

P= - E x H*

P= E x H*

P= E x H*

None of these

265 The time varying field is

A

E=-V

E = - V -A/t

E = - V -B

E=-V-D

266 Uniform plane wave is

A

Longitudinal in nature

Transverse in nature

Neither transverse nor longitudinal

Vertically directed

267 The direction of propagation of EM wave is obtained from

A

ExH

E.H

268 An electromagnetic field can exist if it satisfies

A

Gausss law

Faradays law

Coulombs law

All Maxwells equations

269 If = 2.0 mho/m , E=10.0 V/m , the conduction current density is

A

5.0 A/m2

20.0 A/m2

40.0 A/m2

20 A

270 Maxwells equations give the relations between

A

Different fields

Different Sources

Different boundary conditions

None of these

271 The velocity of EM wave is

A

Inversely proportional to

Inversely proportional to

Directly proportional to

Directly proportional to

272 Velocity of a wave in a good conductor is

A

Very small

Very large

Moderate

None of these

273 If E = 2 V/m , of a wave in free space , (H) is

274

275

1 / 60 A/m

60 A/m

120 A/m

240 A/m

If wet soil has = 10-2 1 /m , r =15 , r = 1 , f = 60 Hz , it is a

A

Good conductor

Good dielectric

Semi conductor

None of these

If wet soil has = 10-2 1 /m , r =15 , r = 1 , f = 10 GHz , it is a

A

Good conductor

Good dielectric

Semi conductor

Semi dielectric

276 The cosine of the angle between two vectors is

A
C

Sum of products of the directions

of the two vectors
Product of products of the
directions of the two vectors

Difference of products of the

directions of the two vectors

None of these

277 The electric field intensity E at appoint (1,2,2) due to (1/9) nc located at (0,0,0) is
A

33 v/m

0.333 V/m

C
278

279

0.33 V/m

Zero

If E is a vector , then . x E is
A

Does not exist

None of these

The Maxwells equation .B = 0 is due to

A

B=H

B=H/

Non existence of a monopole

None of these

280 Velocity of EM wave in free space is

A

Independent of f

Increases with increase in f

Decreases with increase in f

None of these

281 The direction of propagation of EM wave is given by

A

The direction of E

The direction of H

The direction of E x H

The direction of E.H

282 For uniform plane wave propagating in z-direction

A

Ex = 0

Hx = 0

H y = 0 , Ey = 0

Hz = 0 , Ez = 0

283 For free space

A

=0

J0

None of these

284 Velocity of propagation of EM wave is

A

Sqrt(0 / 0 )

0 / 0

1/sqrt(0 0 )

0 / 0

285 Electric field for time varying potentials

A

E=-V

E=-V-A

E= V

E=-V+A

286 The intrinsic impedance of a medium whose = 0 , = 9 , = 1 Is

r
r
A

40

120

60

287 For time varying EM fields

A

xH =J

x H = D/t + J

xE =0

None of these

288 The wave length of a wave with a propagation constant = 0.1 + j 0.2
A

10 m

20 m

30 m

25 m

289 The electric field just above a conductor is always

A

Normal to surface

Tangential to source

Zero

290 The normal components of D are

A

Continuous across a dielectric

boundary

Discontinuous across a dielectric

boundary

Zero

291 An antenna is a synonyms to a

A

Generator

Transformer

Regulator

Reflector

292 A unipole is also known as

A

Omnidirectional radiator

Unidirectional director

Line radiator

None of the above

292 The directive gain of an antenna is given by

A

Radiation intensity in a particular

direction / maximum radiated
power

Average radiated power/maximum

radiated power

Radiation intensity in a particular

direction / average radiated power

Average radiated power / radiation

intensity in a particular direction

293 The numeric value of directive gain may lie between

A

- 1 And + 1

0 and 1

0 and

1 and

294 Which of the following constitute the loss resistance of an antenna ?

A

Dielectric loss

Leakage loss in insulation

Loss in earth connection

All of the above

295 In case of antenna the ratio of the power radiated in desired direction to the power
radiated in the opposite direction is known as
A

Transmission efficiency

Front to back ratio

Loss coefficient

None of the above

296 Front-to-back ratio can be increased by

A

Sacrificing gain

Increasing the size of conductor

Using the materials of high

conductivity

All of the above

297 A half wave dipole used at a frequency of 300 MHz has a length of
A

10 m

3m

1m

50 cm

298 A vertical earthed antenna is resonant when its physical height is equal to
A

/2

/4

/8

299 A folded dipole antenna is conveniently connected to

A

Shielded line

Two wire line

Coaxial line

Flat ribbon type transmission line

300 The bandwidth of an antenna is

A

Directly proportional to Q

Inversely proportional to Q

Directly proportional to Q2

Inversely proportional to Q2

1.

2.

3.

Frequency domain representation of periodic signals is done by

A

Fourier Transform

Fourier Series

Laplace Transform

Z-transform

Z transform of unit sample is

A

1/z

Discrete Fourier Transform is

A

4.

5.

Discrete in Frequency
B
Continuous in frequency
domain
domain
C
Can be discrete or
D
None of the above
continuous
Continuous to-discrete conversion is achieved by a process of
A

sampling

filtering

inversion

multiplication

2 kHz sinusoidal signal is to be sampled. What should be the sampling

interval?
A
4 msec
B
0.25 msec
C

6.

2.5 msec

5 msec

z-transform evaluated
on unit circle
C
z-transform evaluated at
origin
Fourier series is a/an

B
D

z-transform evaluated
outside unit circle
None of the above

Infinite series

Discrete time fourier transform is

A

7.

Finite series

C
8.

Waveform dependent
D
None of the above
finite or infinite series
Fourier transform represents following type of signals in frequency
domain
A
Periodic signals
B
Aperiodic signals
C

9.

10.

Quasi-periodic signals

All of the above

For causal system,

A

h(n)=0 for n<0

h(n)=0 for n>0

h(n)=1 for n<0

h(n)=1 for n>0

For an LTI system, if x(n), h(n) and y(n) are input, impulse response and
output of the system, which one of the following is true?
A
y(n)=h(n) x(n)
B
y(n)=h(n)*x(n)
C

h(n)=x(n) y(n)

x(n)= h(n)y(n)

11.

Laplace transform is used for the analysis of

A

Continuous time system

Discrete time system

12.

13.

14.

15.

Both continuous time

D
None of the above
and discrete time
systems
Under force-current analogy ,displacement is analogous to
A

Voltage

conductance

Magnetic flux linkage

capacitance

The Laplace transform of e-at is

A

1/s

1/(s+a)

s/(s+a)

a/(s+a)

Transfer function can be obtained from

A

Analogous table

Standard block system

Output-input ratio

Signal flow graph

Fast Fourier transform algorithm exploits

A

16.

Symmetry property of
WN
C
Both symmetry and
periodicity property of
WN
An impulse train is

Periodicity property of WN

Addition property of WN

A number of pulses spaced

from each other
None of the above

Number of pulses

C
17.

A number of pulses all

D
originating together
The integral of a unit step function is
A

A unit impulse function

A unit pulse function

A ramp function of slope

1
The area of an impulse is

None of the above

infinity

indefinite

Has a period

Has a period 2 ,decays with

increasing x, is an even
function and has zeros at
n,n=(+/-) 1,2,3.

C
18.

19.

The function sinx / x

A

Has a period 2 ,decays

with increasing x and
has zeros at n
,n=1,2,3,4
Has a period /2

20.

21.

22.

The function sinc x is equal to

A

Sinx/x

X sinx

x/sinx

X+sinx

The autocorrelation of a sampling function is a

A

Triangular function

Gate function

Signum function

None of the above

For a periodic waveform, the power spectral density and correlation

function form
A
a Laplace transform pair B
a Fourier transform pair
C

23.

25.

a Hilbert transform pair

The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function of time does not

have
A
dc term
B
Cosine term
C

24.

a z-transform pair

Sine term

Odd harmonic terms

The Fourier series of an odd periodic function contains

A

Odd harmonics only

Even harmonics only

Cosine terms only

Sine terms only

An odd function of

Autocorrelation function is
A

An even function of

C
26.

27.

28.

29.

May be an even or odd

D
Is both an even and odd
function of
function of
The inverse Fourier transform of the function 2/j is
A

Sin t

Cos t

Sgn (t)

u(t)

The period of the function cos (/4)(t-1) is

A

1/8 s

8s

4s

1/4 s

The term energy spectral density is associated with

A

Periodic waveform

Non-periodic waveform

Cosine waveform

Exponential waveform

Principle of superposition is applied to

A

Linear systems only

Non linear systems only

Both linear and non

D
linear systems
For the signum function sgn(t), F(j)=

SECOND ORDER SYSTEM

ONLY

2/ j

C
30.

1/j

C
31.

32.

33.

36.

37.

Non causal system

Causal system

FIR system

Unstable system

y(n)=x(Mn) defines
A

multiplier

compressor

delay

accumulator

If f(t) is an even function, the coefficients Fn in the exponential form of

Fourier series are
A
real
B
imaginary

39.

complex

complex

zeros

zeros

A function will have only sine terms if

A

f(t)=-f(t)

f(-t)=f(t)

f(-t)=-f(t)

None of the above

One unit of delay in time domain is equivalent to

A

z-1 in z-domain

z in z-domain

z+1 in z domain

z-1 in z -domain

Modulation process can be explained by which of the following

properties of Fourier transform?
A
Time shifting
B
Frequency shifting
differentiation

integration

Discrete Fourier transform is a/an

A

Finite duration sequence

Infinite duration sequence

Periodic sequence

Periodic sequence with

period of 2

Steady state value of

system output
C
Transient behavior of
output
If f(t) is in volts, F(j) is in

Initial value of output

None of the above

volts

Volts*sec

Volts/sec

Volts*sec2

Final value theorem is used to find

A

40.

If f(t) is an odd function, the coefficients Fn in the exponential form of

Fourier series are
A
real
B
imaginary

C
38.

2 j

C
35.

Ideal LPF is

C
34.

41.

Undersampling of the signal results in

A

42.

Aliasing in frequency
B
Aliasing in time domain
domain
C
Aliasing in both time
D
Preemphasis of the signal
domain and frequency
domain
Even with Nyquist rate sampling, we cannot recover signal without
distortion ,because
A
Filters are non-ideal
B
Sampling signal is non-ideal
C

43.

44.

45.

46.

Multipliers are non ideal

All of the above

Reconstruction of a signal from its sampled version requires

A

Low pass filter

High pass filter

Notch filter

Band reject filter

The discrete time signal x(n)=(-1)n is periodic with fundamental period

A

The Fourier transform of an exponential signal x(n)=ejot is

A

A constant

A rectangular pulse

An impulse

A series of impulses

The autocorrelation function of a rectangular pulse of duration T is

A

47.

B
a rectangular pulse of
a rectangular pulse of
duration T.
duration 2T.
C
D
a triangular pulse of
a triangular pulse of
duration T.
duration 2T.
The Fourier Transform of a rectangular pulse existing between t = -T
/ 2 to t = +T / 2 is a
A
B
sinc squared function.
sinc function.
C

48.

49.

sine function.

The system characterized by the equation y(t ) = ax(t )+ b is

A

Linear for any value of b

Linear if b>0

Linear if b<0

Non-linear

If G(f) represents the Fourier Transform of a signal g (t), which is real

and odd symmetric in time, then G (f) is
A
complex
B
imaginary
C

50.

sine squared function.

real

Real and non-negative

A band pass signal extends from 1 KHz to 2 KHz. The minimum

sampling frequency needed to retain all information in the sampled
signal is
A
1 kHz
B
2 kHz

C
51.

53.

54.

55.

Negative of each other

Complements of each other

dx(t )/ dt will be
A
dX(f)/df

j2f X(f ).

X(f )/(jf ).

jf X(f)

Inverse Fourier transform of u() is

A

0.5 (t)+1/(t)

(t)+1/(t)

0.5 (t)+1/(2t)

(t)+1/(2t)

The impulse response of a system is h(n) =a n u(n) . The condition

for the system to be BIBO stable is
A

a is real and positive

A is real and negative

|a|>1

|a|<1

If R1 is the region of convergence of x (n) and R2 is the region of

convergence of y(n), then the region of convergence of x (n)
convoluted y (n) is
A
B
R1+R2 .
R1-R2 .
R1R2 .

R1R2 .

The continuous time system described by y(t)= x(t2) is

A
C

57.

4 kHz

The Fourier transform (FT) of a function x (t) is X (f). The FT of

C
56.

Two sequences x1 (n) and x2 (n) are related by x2 (n) = x1 (- n). In the zdomain, their ROCs are
A
The same
B
Reciprocal of each other
C

52.

3 kHz

causal, linear and time

varying.
non causal, non-linear
and time-invariant.

B
D

causal, non-linear and time

varying.
non causal, linear and
time-invariant.

The signals x1(t ) and x2(t ) are both bandlimited to 1 to + 1 and

2 to + 2 respectively. The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal
x1(t ) x2(t ) will be

58.

59.

22

2(1 + 2)

2 1

The signal x(n)=sin(n/4) is

A

aperiodic

Periodic with period 8

Periodic with period 12

Periodic with period 2

Minimum period of discrete time periodic signal is

A

C
60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

Maximum frequency (rad/sample) of discrete time signal is

A

/2

/4

The derivative of unit step function is

A

Unit impulse

Ramp with slope 1

impulse

Rectangular function

If a periodic function f(t) of period T satisfies f(t)=-f( t + T/2) , then in

its Fourier series expansion,
A
B
the constant term will
there will be no cosine
be zero.
terms.
C
D
there will be no sine
there will be no even
terms.
harmonics.
A vertical line in s-plane corresponds to
A

A line in z-plane

A point in z-plane

An ellipse in z-plane

A circle in z-plane

For a right sided sequence, the ROC of its z-transform will be

A

Exterior of a circle

Interior of a circle

Ring

Unit circle in z-plane

For a left sided sequence, the ROC of its z-transform will be

A

Exterior of a circle

Interior of a circle

Ring

Unit circle in z-plane

For a two sided sequence, the ROC of its z-transform will be

A

Exterior of a circle

Interior of a circle

Ring

Unit circle in z-plane

Frequency response and impulse response are a

A

z-transform pair

Fourier transform pair

Inverse z-transform pair

DFT pair

In z-plane, |z|=1 is
A

A circle

A line

A square

A rectangle

The ROC of z-transform can not contain any

A

zeros

Poles and zeros

Discrete Fourier transform represents

poles

71.

72.

Time samples

Period information

Frequency samples

All of the above

In z-transform, if x(n)X(z), then nx(n)

A

-zdX(z)/dz

dX(z)/dz

-zdz

zdX(z)/dz

In computation of N- point DFT, there are

A

73.

74.

75.

76.

N complex
B
multiplications
C
N/2 complex
D
multiplications
Circular convolution is also known as

2N complex multiplications

Linear convolution

Periodic convolution

Simple convolution

None of the above

If x(n)={1,1,1,1}, its 4-point DFT coefficient X(0) is

A

Sampled version of DTFT

Integrated version of DTFT

Same as DTFT

Same as z-transform

DFT is

The frequency of a continuous time signal x (t) changes on

transformation from x (t) to x (a t), a > 0 by a factor
A
a
B
1/a
C

77.

78.

79.

80.

N2 complex multiplications

a2

a0.5

If x(n) is of finite duration, then its z-transform will be possibly

A

Unit circle

ring

Entire z-plane

origin

For DTFT to exist, the ROC must include

A

Unit circle

origin

Point (-1,1)

None of the above

The ROC of z-transform must be

A

A discontinuous region

A connected region

Unit circle

Entire z-plane

For a discrete time signal, dimension of o is

A

degrees

radians

Radian/sample

Degrees/sec

81.

82.

83.

For discrete time signal, high frequencies are closer to

A

/2

Period of DTFT is
A

/2

/4

If we sample continuous signal x(t)=sin(200 t) with T=1/400 second,

discrete time signal will be x(n)=
A
Sin(n/2)
B
Sin(n/4)
C

84.

Sin (n/8)

Sin (/2n)

Discrete Time Fourier Transform is a

A

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

Periodic function in time B

Aperiodic function in time
domain
domain
C
Periodic function in
D
Aperiodic function in
frequency domain
frequency domain
The LTI system with impulse response h(n)=4n u(n) is
A

stable

unstable

Non-causal

FIR system

To generate cos (n/3) from cos (4000 t) by sampling, T must be

A

1200

12000

120

12

If y(n)=log(x(n)), the system is

A

linear

Non-linear

LTI

None of the above

The correlation of the function with itself is called

A

autocorrelation

Cross correlation

Power spectral density

Energy spectral density

Autocorrelation function exhibits

A

Conjugate asymmetry

Nonlinearity property

Compression of signal

Conjugate symmetry

Any periodic waveform can be expressed by

A

Fourier series

Fourier transform

z-transform

Discrete Fourier Transform

Ideal delay system is characterized by

A

y(n)=x(n)

y(n)=x(n+no)

C
92.

93.

y(n)=x(n-no)

y(n)=x(-no)

Integrated to get DFT

DTFT can be
A

Sampled to get DFT

Differentiated to get DFT D

sampling
A

94.

95.

Causes loss of
B
information
C
Is a step for
D
discretization
To prevent aliasing, signal should be

Is non-invertible operation

oversampled

undersampled

Critically sampled

None of the above

Samples of z-transform

All of the above

All of the above

DFT samples are

A
C

96.

None of the above

Equi-spaced on unit
circle
Finite in number

Duration of DFT sequence should be

A

97.

98.

99.

100.

Greater or equal to
B
Less than the duration of
duration of time domain
time domain sequence
sequence
C
Equal to Half the
D
infinite
duration of time domain
sequence
No. of DTFT samples possible on unit circle are
A

finite

infinite

2N

DFT is normally a
A

Real number

Imaginary number

Complex number

Integer number

Cannot be computed

Can be computed

Can be computed for

finite duration sequence

Can be computed for

infinite duration sequence

DFT only

DTFT only

DTFT

FFT is
A
C

101.

DFT computed with less D

z-transform sample only
no. of computations
In force voltage analogy, the quantity analogous to spring constant K is
A

C
102.

1/C

Mechanical impedance is the ratio of

A

103.

104.

105.

Rms force to rms

B
Rms force to rms
velocity
displacement
C
Rms velocity to rms
D
None of the above
displacement
In force current analogy, displacement is analogous to
A

charge

Magnetic flux linkage

Electrostatic energy

voltage

Time rate of change in heat energy is analogous to

A

voltage

charge

current

Voltage gradient

An amplifier with
adjustable gain
C
An amplifier with infinite
gain
In an integral controller,

An integrating amplifier

An amplifier with almost

zero gain

The rate of change of

output is proportional to
input
None of the above

A proportional controller is basically

A

106.

The output is
proportional to input

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

The output is
D
proportional to rate of
change of input
Which control action is called rate control ?
A

proportional

derivative

integral

Proportional plus integral

Which control action can never be used alone?

A

proportional

derivative

integral

Both derivative and integral

For a type I system and unit step input, the steady state error is
A

infinity

1/Kp

For a type I system and unit parabolic input, the steady state error is
A

infinity

1/Kv

For a type 0 system and unit ramp input, the steady state error is
A

C
112.

infinity

1/Kv

The frequency at which phase angle is 180 is called

A

113.

114.

Phase cross over

B
Stability limit frequency
frequency
C
Frequency of limited
D
Gain margin frequency
stability
The system has high gain and phase margins. The system is
A

Very stable

sluggish

Very stable and sluggish

oscillatory

Gain margin is close to 1

Gain margin is close to 1

or phase margin is zero
Integral control action

Gain margin is high and

phase margin is 180

Removes offset

Both A and B

May lead to oscillatory

response
Neither A nor B

A system is highly oscillatory if

A

Gain margin is high

C
115.

116.

The addition of a pole to the open loop transfer function pulls the root
locus
A
To the right
B
To the left
C

117.

Marginally stable

Speeds up the transient

response
C
Increases the stability
margin and speeds up
the transient response
The root locus branches
A

120.

Towards infinity

Highly stable

Increases the stability

margin
None of the above

A lead compensator
A

119.

A system has its two poles on the negative real axis and one pair of
poles lies on j axis. The system is
A
stable
B
unstable
C

118.

Towards zero

Start from open loop

B
Start from open loop zeros
poles and terminate at
and terminate at poles
zeros
C
May start from pole or
D
None of the above
zero and terminate at
another pole or zero
If zeros at infinity are included in count, the number of zeros of G(s)H(s)
is
A
Equal to number of
B
One more than number of
poles
poles
C
One less than number of D
Two more than number of
poles
poles

121.

In root locus analysis, the breakaway and break in points

A

Lie on the real axis

C
122.

Always occur in complex

conjugate pairs
In a minimum phase system,

123.

All poles lie on the real

B
axis
C
All poles and zeros lie in D
the left half plane
The angular location of poles depends on

All zeros lie in the left half

plane
All except one pole or zero
lie in the left half plane

Damping ratio

Capacitance alone

C
124.

126.

medium

large

small

infinite

zero

The distance of poles from origin depends on

128.

Very small

From the view point of noise, bandwidth should be

127.

Undamped natural
frequency
Resistance alone

If a system is to follow arbitrary inputs accurately, the bandwidth

should be
A
large
B
small
C

125.

Either lie on the real axis or

occur in complex conjugate
pairs
None of the above

Undamped natural
frequency
Both A and B

Damping ratio

None of the above

If poles lie in the first quadrant, damping ratio is

A

More than 1

Less than 1

zero

Has a negative dB value

The gain margin for a stable system

A

Has a positive dB value

C
129.

Has a large negative dB

D
Has zero dB value
value
A thermometer requires 1 minute to indicate 98% of its final response
to a step input. If it is a first order system, the time constant is
A
1 minute
B
0.5 minute
C

130.

0.25 minute

0.1 minute

A lead compensator is basically a

A

High pass filter

Low pass filter

Band stop filter

Band reject filter

131.

A lag compensator provides attenuation in

A
C

132.

Very low frequency

range
High frequency range

Low frequency range

None of the above

PID controlled system has

A

133.

P and I actions in
B
forward path and D
action in feedback path
C
All 3 actions in forward
D
path
The ac motor used in servo application is

P and I actions in feedback

path and D action in
forward path
All 3 actions in feedback
path

Two phase induction motor

Synchronous motor

C
134.

135.

Single phase induction

motor
3 phase induction motor

Optical encoders most commonly used in control systems are

A

Absolute encoders

Secondary encoders

Incremental encoders

None of the above

Constant phase angle loci

Nichols chart consists of

A

Constant magnitude loci

136.

Magnitude and phase

D
None of the above
angle loci in logmagnitude versus phase
diagram
As the bandwidth increases, the cost of components
A

Generally decreases

Generally increases

C
137.

138.

139.

140.

May increase or
D
Does not change
decrease
The effects of adding poles and zeros can be determined quickly by
A

Nichols chart

Nyquist plot

Bode plot

Root locus

Magnetic amplifier is used for

A

Voltage amplification

Power amplification

Current amplification

Frequency multiplication

Robotic manipulator arms mostly use

A

Hydraulic actuator

Pneumatic actuator

Electric motor actuator

None of the above

Integral error compensation changes a second order system to

A

First order system

Third order system

C
141.

Fourth order system

Higher order system

The effect of negative feedback on distortion and bandwidth are

A

Both are decreased

Both are increased

142.

Distortion is reduced
D
Distortion is increased and
and bandwidth is
bandwidth is decreased
increased
If feedback factor is , the overall gain of a closed loop system is
approximately
A
1/
B

143.

+A

In a second order system, peak overshoot is independent of

A

Damping factor

Natural frequency

C
144.

145.

Both natural frequency

D
Neither natural frequency
and damping factor
nor damping factor
In a second order undamped system, the poles are on
A

Positive real axis

Imaginary axis

Negative real axis

origin

The polar plot of G(s)=1/[(1+s)(1+2s)]

A

Does not cross real axis

Crosses real axis

C
146.

147.

Crosses real axis at

D
Crosses real axis at =1.4
=0.7 rad/sec
rad/sec
At corner frequency, the phase angle of factor 1/(1+jT) is
A

90

-90

45

-45

In log magnitude Bode plot ,the slope of high frequency asymptote of

(1+jT) is
A
20 dB/ decade
B
10 dB/decade
C

148.

20 dB /octave

10 dB/octave

A conditionally stable system has

A

149.

One phase cross over

B
Two phase cross over
frequency
frequency
C
Two or more phase
D
Zero phase cross over
cross over frequencies
frequency
A system has 12 poles and 2 zeros. Its high frequency asymptote in its
magnitude plot has a slope of
A
-200 dB/decade
B
-240 dB/decade
C

150.

-280 dB/decade

-320 dB/decade

Inaccuracy of parameters

Modeling error can occur due to

A

Neglecting non linear

characteristics

Change of plant
characteristics with time

Any of the above

An abrupt p-n junction diode in thermal equilibrium at T = 300 K is doped such that Ec
EF = 0.21 eV in the n-region and EF- EV = 0.18 eV in the p-region. The built-in potential
barrier Vbi is
A
0.69 V
B
0.83 V
C

0.61 V

0.88 V

A silicon p-n junction at T = 300 K has ND = 1014 cm-3 and NA =1017 cm-3. The built-in
voltage is
A

0.63 V

0.93 V

0.026 V

0.038 V

An p-n junction diode is operating in reverse bias region. The applied reverse voltage, at
which the ideal reverse current reaches 90% of its reverse saturation current, is

59.6 mV

2.7 mV

30.4 mV

12.0 mV

An abrupt silicon pn junction at zero bias and T = 300 K has dopant concentration of NA
=1017 cm-3 and ND = 5 x 1015 cm-3, The Fermi level on n - side is
A

0.1 eV

0.2 eV

0.3 eV

0.4 eV

An ideal p-n junction diode is operating in the forward bias region. The change in diode
voltage, that will cause a increase in current by factor of 9, is
A

83 mV

59 mV

43 mV

31 mV

A transition region in an open circuited p-n junction contains

A

free electrons only

holes only

both free electrons and holes

uncovered immobile impurity ions

In unbiased p-n junction, the junction current at equilibrium is

A
C

due to diffusion of majority

carriers
zero due to equal and opposite
currents crossing the junction

due to diffusion of minority carriers

zero because no charges cross the

junction

In the energy band diagram of an open circuited p-n junction, the energy band of nregion has shifted relative to that of p-region
A

downward by qVbi

upward by qVbi

downwards by ( qVbi )/2

upwards by ( qVbi )/2

10

11

12

The reverse saturation current in germanium diode varies as (where T is

the temperature in deg K)
A

T1.5

T2

1/T

The reverse saturation current in silicon diode varies as (where T is the

temperature in deg K)
A

T1.5

T2

1/T

In a p-n junction diode for constant value of current at room temperature

dV/dT varies approximately at the rate of
A

-2.5 mV/deg C

2.5 mV/deg C

-25 mV/deg C

25 mV/deg C

In a step graded reverse biased junction the width W of the depletion

layer varies as
A

13



1

In a linearly graded reverse biased junction the width W of the depletion
layer varies as
C







1

In any p-n junction diode the transition capacitance CT varies as ( where

is the width of the depletion layer)

C

14





/


1
C
D

The built in potential in a p-n junction diode equals

A

15

A
C
16

B
D


 

 ln

 ln

Pinch off voltage VP for an FET is the drain voltage at which

A
C

17

 


 ln

 ln

significant current starts

B
flowing
all free charges get
D
removed from the channel

drain current becomes zero

avalanche break down takes
place

The % load regulation in a rectifier output circuit is defined as

   
   
A
 100% B
 100%
  +  
 
   
  +  
C
 100% D
 100%

   

18


A
C

value for the half wave rectifier circuit can be given by



B
2
2

2
D
#
#

19
29

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

For
the below
circuit
waveform
for the
input
is given.
The diode in
$ value
for the
half wave
rectifier
circuit
canvoltage
be given
by
circuit has cutin voltage V = 0. Choose the option for the waveform of

output voltage ' .
B
A
2
2

2
C
D
#
#
 ! value for the full wave center tapped rectifier circuit can be given
by


B
A
2
2

2
C
D
#
#
$ value for the full wave center tapped rectifier circuit can be given by


A
B
2
2

2
C
D
#
#
The transformer utilization factor (TUF) for the half-wave rectifier is
A

0.406

0.286

0.693

0.512

The transformer utilization factor (TUF) for thefull-wave rectifier is

A

0.406

0.286

0.693

0.512

The ripple factor () for the half-wave rectifier is

A

1.41

0.48

1.11

1.21

The ripple factor () for the full-wave rectifier is

A

0.48

0.68

0.28

1.21

The rectification efficiency () for the half-wave rectifier is

A

23.1%

40.6%

46.1%

20.1%

The rectification efficiency () for the full-wave rectifier is

A

68.1%

81.2%

40.6%

92.1%

In half wave rectifier, the lowest ripple frequency is

A
C

%/2
2%

B
D

3%

30

31

For the below circuit waveform for the input voltage is given. The diode in
circuit has cutin voltage V = 0. Choose the option for the waveform of
output voltage ' .

In the circuit of the following figure, D1 and D2 are ideal diodes. The
current ( and ( are

0, 4 mA

4 mA, 0

0, 8 mA

8 mA,

32

33

34

35

For the circuit shown the figure given below the input voltage ' . Assume
the RC time constant large and cut-in voltage of diode ) = 0. The
output voltage ' is

In the circuit of the figure given below, the diodes have cut-in voltages of
0.6 V. The diode in ON state are

only D1

only D2

both D1 and D2

none of the above

6.25 k

12.50 k

25 k

None of the above

For the circuit shown in the figure below, diode cut-in voltage ) = 0. The
maximum ripple voltage is 4 V. The minimum load resistance, that can
be connected to the output is

In the voltage regulator circuit in figure given below the maximum load
current (+ that can be drawn is

1.4 mA

2.3 mA

1.8 mA

2.6 mA

36

37

38

A Tunnel diode is p-n diode with

A

very high doping in p-region

very high doping in n-region

very high doping in both

p-region and n-region

low doping in both p-region

and n-region

In a Tunnel diode, the depletion width is order of

A

100 A0

0.1 micron

1 micron

5 micron

In a Tunnel diode, the impurity concentration is of the order of

A

1 in 103

1 in 105

1 in 107

1 in 109

39

The most important application of Tunnel diode is

A

as rectifier

as switching device in digital

circuits

as voltage controllable
D
as oscillator
device
In a Varactor diode using the alloy junction, the transition capacitance is
proportional to (where  is the magnitude of reverse junction voltage)
1

A
B

1
1
D
C

,
C

40

41

42

Zener breakdown results basically due to

A

impact ionization

emission of electrons

strong electric field across the

junction
high thermal energy of the
electrons

The dynamic resistance of the Zener diode

increases with increase of
decreases with the increase of
B
its current
current
is almost independent of
C
D
none of these
current
At 250 C, a Zener diode is rated at 2 Watts, its power rating at 500 C will
be
A

43

44

2 Watts

1 Watts

greater than 2 Watts

much greater than 2 Watts

The ON resistance rd ON , of an FET is the ratio :

A
C

-./
at the origin
0.
-./
in the saturation
0.

B
D

region

45

in the saturation region

-2/
0.

at the origin

The saturation Drain current 3 in an FET equals

A
C

46

-./
0.

33 41

53
7
6

33 891

53
:
6

B
D

33

53 
41
7
6

 33 41

53
7
6

The transconduction ; of an FET in the saturation region equals

A
C

33
53
41
7
6
6
33
53 /
2
41
7
6
6
2

B
D

33
53 
41
7
6
6


< .  >/
6 33 

47

48

Input resistance of a JFET is of order of

A

1 k

10 k

10 M

100 M

Main drawback of a JFET is

A

high input impedance

low input impedance

higher noise

lower gain

49

50

51

52

In a PNP transistor operating in the active region, the concentration of

minority carrier holes in the n-region at collector junction JC is
thermal equilibrium value
A
zero
B
? of emitter
thermal equilibrium
C
concentration of holes in
D
same as junction JE
collector region
As the magnitude of the collector junction reverse bias increases, the
effective base width
A

increases

decreases

remain same

first increases then becomes

constant

Transistor approaches unity when :

(Where @A and @B are the conductivities of Base and Emitter regions
respectively)
@A
@A
=1
1
A
B
@B
@B
@A
@A
1
=5
C
D
@B
@B
In a BJT , as the conductivity of the base increases, the punch through
voltage
A

53

54

55

56

remains same

increases

may increase or decrease

depending on the bias at
junction JE
The dynamic emitter resistance of a BJT operating in the active region is
of the order of
C

decreases

0.01

100

10 k

In a BJT the, F may be expressed in terms of G as

G
G
A
B
1+G
1G
1+G
1G
C
D
G
G
In cut off region operation of BJT
(where JE and JC are the Emitter and Collector junctions respectively)
both JE and JC are
both JE and JC are reversed
A
B
forward biased
biased
JE is forward bias and JC
JC is forward bias and JE is
C
D
is reversed biased
reversed biased
In a BJT, with HI = 1 JK and G = 0.99 the value of HBI is
A
C

0.01 JK
1 JK

0.1 JK

100 JK

57
66

58

59

60

61

62

In a BJT,
The
common
with G
emitter
= 0.98
short
the value
circuitofcurrent
F is gain of a transistor
A

49

98

0.49

980

99

0.99

1.0

1.01

In a BJT, with F = 100 the value of G is

In a BJT, the spreading resistance is in the order of

A

10

100

1 k

base and emitter leads

collector and emitter leads

In a transistor current HAI flows in

emitter, base and collector

leads
In an ideal BJT, the impurity concentration in the emitter (E) , base (B) and
collector (C) are such that
C

base and collector leads

E>C>B

B>C>E

C>E>B

E=C>B

The h parameter equivalent circuit of BJT is valid for

A
C

63

B = G H + HBI

B B = G H + HI

B = G H + HBI NO P-QR /S
1>
Typical values of h-parameters, at about 1 mA collector current , for small
signal audio transistors in CE configuration are:
C

C
65

low frequency, large signal

operation
low frequency, small signal
operation

The Ebers-Moll equation for B in CB configuration is given by

A

64

high frequency, large

signal operation
high frequency, small
signal operation

B = G H + HI NO P-QR /S 1T
W

V = 100 V = 10
XV = 50 V = 1 JY
V = 5 Z V = 0
XV = 20 V = 3 JY

W[

V = 5 Z V = 10
XV = 200 V = 20 JY


V = 100 Z V = 10
XV = 100 V = 10 JY

The modulation of effective base width by collector voltage is known as

Early voltage. Hence, reverse collector voltage
A

increases both and

decreases both and

increases and
decreases

increases and decreases

C
67

The G - cut off frequency of a BJT

A
C

68

69

70

71

72

73

74

is a monotonically
increasing function of the
collector current IC
increases with IC for low
IC reaches maximum and
then decreases
increases with the
increase in base width
increases with the
increase in temperature

is a monotonically decreasing
function of the collector
current IC

is not a function of IC

B
D

increases with the increase in

collector width
increases with the decrease in
base width

A single IC contains more than 110 logic gates. This forms a case of
A

SSI

MSI

LSI

VLSI

J = ; . \

J = ; . \ 

1 mS

1S

100 S

1000 S

1 k

10 k

500 k

100 M

10 k

500 k

10 M

100 M

0.01 V

1V

10 V

100 V

In a JFET the amplification factor J, transconduction ; , and the dynamic

drain resistance \ are related by
;
\
J=
J=
A
B
\
;
The transconductance ; of a JFET is of the order of

The dynamic resistance \ of the JFET is of the order of the

The dynamic resistance \ of the MOSFET is of the order of the
The magnitude of the threshold voltage  for enhancement mode
MOSFET is of the order of

Which is the fastest switching device among the below given

A

JFET

BJT

MOSFET

Triode

75

76

77

78

The JFET can operate in

A

depletion mode only

enhancement mode only

either in depletion mode

or enhancement mode

both in depletion mode or

enhancement mode
simultaneously

The input gate current of FET is

A

a few amperes

a few miliamperes

afew microamperes

negligibly small

Which of the following transistor is most vulnerable against ESD

(Elecrostatic discharge)
A

NPN transistor

PNP transistor

JFET

MOSFET

uses a forward biased junction

A field effect transistor (FET)

A

has three p-n junctions

depends on the variation

depends on the variation the
the magnetic field for its
D
reverse voltage for its
operation
operation
The drain-source output 3 3 characteristic of an n-channel
depletion FET has
3 = ?]^(_('O `a(`b`
A
3 = 0 at 53 = 0
B
at 53 = 0
3 = O;a_('O `a(`b`
C
D 3 is independent of 53
at 53 = 0
C

79

80

81

82

The V-I characteristics of an enhancement mode MOSFET has

A

only an ohmic region

an ohmic region at low

voltages and saturation
region at higher voltages

only a saturation region

an ohmic region at higher

voltages and saturation region
at lower voltages

The output V-I characteristics of a BJT has

A

only an ohmic region

only a saturation region

an ohmic region at low

voltages and saturation
region at higher voltages

an ohmic region at higher

voltages and saturation region
at lower voltages

A Schottky diode clamp is used along with the BJT for

A
C

reducing the power

dissipation

increasing the value of F

reducing the switching time

reducing the base current

84

85

86

For an n-channel JFET having drain source voltage constant if the gatesource voltage is increased (more negative) pinch-off would occur for
high values of drain
saturation value of drain
A
B
current
current
gate current equal to drain
C
zero drain current
D
current
A MOSFET is called
A

2-terminal device

3-terminal device

4-terminal device

5-terminal device

For MOSFETs, the material used for gate structure is

A

highly pure Silicon

high purity Silica

heavily doped
heavily doped amorphous
D
polycrystalline Silicon
Silicon
Consider the following statements:
The Threshold Voltage ( > of a n-MOSFET can be lowered by
1. Using thinner gate oxide
2. Reducing the substrate concentration
3. Increasing the substrate concentration
Of these statements
C

87

88

3 alone is correct

1 and 2 is correct

1 and 3 are correct

2 alone is correct

The Threshold Voltage ( > of a n-MOSFET can be increased by

increasing the channel
decreasing the channel
B
dopant concentration
dopant concentration
reducing the gate oxide
C
D
reducing the channel length
thickness
Which of the following methods of biasing provides the best operating
point stability
A

89

90

two battery bias

collector-to-base bias

fixed bias

self bias

Stability factor S in fixed bias CE amplifier is given by

A
C

91

1
F+1

B
D

F+1

<F + 1>

Stability factor S in self bias CE amplifier is given by

c
<F + 1>
1 + dec
V
<F + 1>
A
B
<F + 1> + cdec
<F + 1> + cdec
V
V
cd
c
d
<F + 1> ec
1 + ec
V
V
C
D
c
c
d
d
<F + 1> + ec
<F + 1> + ec
V
V

92

93

94

The thermal resistance f of collector junction of a transistor is given by

(where g = temperature deviation and h = average power dissipation
h
A
B
g = fh
g =
f
f
D
C
g =
g = fh 
h
In a CE amplifier, the thermal runaway is unconditionally avoided if
HH
HH
A
B
HB =
HB >
2
2
HH
HH
HB =
D
C
HB <
2
2
The parameter V of a typical transistor is of the order of
A

96

97

98

99

100

2.5  10Wl

2.5  10W[

2.5 S

25 S

250 S

2.5 mS

C
95

2.5  10Wk

2.5  10W

The parameter V of a typical transistor is of the order of

With source resistance RS of 1000, the output impedance of a typical CE

amplifier stage is of the order of
A

500

5 k

50 k

500 k

With load resistance of 4 k, the current gain of a typical CB amplifier

stage is of the order of
A

0.98

50

250

In a CE amplifier stage, on introducing a resistor Re in the emitter branch

the input resistance Ri
A

remains same

increases nominally

decreases

increases very much

Ignoring the biasing network, Darlington emitter follower has input

resistance of the order of
A

20 k

200 k

2 M

20 M

The current gain of the amplifier stage is lowest in

A

CB configuration

CE configuration

CC configuration

same in all configurations

101

102

Transistor amplifier stage has lowest input impedance

A

CB configuration

CE configuration

CC configuration

same in all configurations

Current gain of small signal transistor amplifier equals

X
X
B
1 +  m+
1 +  m+


C
D
1 +  m+
1 +  m+
Common collector amplifier has
(where c is input resistance and cI is output resistance)
A

103

A
C
104

107

108

low c and high cI

decreasing emitter circuit

and base circuit
resistances
decreasing emitter circuit
and increasing base circuit
resistances

increasing emitter circuit and

base circuit resistances

increasing emitter circuit and

decreasing base circuit
resistances

is higher than in CE and CB

configuration
is lower than in CE and CB
configuration

B
D

depends strongly on the

source resistance
is independent of the source
resistance

In CC amplifier
A

output is taken from the

collector terminal

input and output signals are in

phase

input resistance is low

voltage gain is relatively high

In the high frequency hybrid model of CE transistor, the conductance

;dnV equals
;
XV
B
A
XV
;
;
V
C
D
V
;
In the high frequency hybrid model of CE transistor, the base
spreading \ddn Oquals
A
C

109

low c and low cI

Output resistance of CC amplifier

A

106

high c and low cI

The current stability of an emitter follower may improved by

A

105

high c and high cI

V \dnV
V / XV

V + \dnV
\dnV / XV

In the high frequency hybrid model of CE transistor, the typical value

of CC is
A

3 pF

100 pF

1000 pF

0.01 F

110

111

112

113

The frequency %o at which the short circuit current gain of a CE amplifier

falls to 12 of its low frequency value is equal to
;dVn
;dVn
A
B
<qH + qV >
2#<qH + qV >
qH + qV
; XV
C
D
;dVn
<qH + qV >

Parameter % of a transistor is approximately given by

;
;
A
B
qV
2#qV
XV
2#q
C
D
%o
;
In the high frequency hybrid model of CE transistor, the conductance
;d$ accounts for
bulk conduction of base
leakage conductance in the
A
B
region
base region
feedback action due to
C
D
none of these
base width modulation
As collector current IC increases the values of %
A

remains constant

decreases

increases, reaches
decreases, reaches minimum
D
maximum and then falls
and then rise
In class-AB amplifier with sinusoidal input , the output current flows for
C

114

116

117

full cycle

slightly Less than half

D
slightly more than half cycle
cycle
In RC coupled two stage CE amplifier, reduction in voltage gain at the
high frequency range results due to
shunt capacitance in the input
A
coupling capacitor Cc
B
circuit
shunt capacitance in the
bypass capacitor in the self
C
D
output circuit
bias circuit
In RC coupled single stage CE amplifier, the lower 3-dB frequency %+ may
be reduced by
reducing the value of
increasing the value of
A
B
coupling capacitor Cc
coupling capacitor Cc
reducing the total
effective shunt
reducing the total effective
C
capacitance in the output D
shunt capacitance in the input
circuit of the hybrid-
circuit of the hybrid- model
model
The upper 3-dB frequency of n-stage amplifier with non-interacting
stages equals
%+
A
B
%+ ,2 1
,2 1
%+
C
D
%+

C

115

half the cycle

118

The presence of emitter circuit bypass resistance adversely affects the

A

119

120

122

123

mid-band response

response over all frequency

range
When multistage amplifier the coupling method which is capable of
providing highest gain is
C

high frequency response

RC coupling

Direct coupling

Transformer coupling

Impedance coupling

In the output of a Push-Pull amplifier most disturbing harmonic distortion

is the
fundamental frequency
A
B
first harmonic
distortion
C

121

low frequency response

third harmonic

fourth harmonic

Which of the following amplifier produces least distortion

A

Class-A

Class-B

Class-C

Class-AB

Which of the following amplifier produces highest distortion

A

Class-A

Class-B

Class-C

Class-AB

Compared to single ended amplifier, a push-pull amplifier offers

less distortion and less
less distortion and more
B
output power
output power
more distortion and less
more distortion and more
D
C
output power
output power
In a class-C amplifier, full cycle conduction of the current can be achieved
by employing
A

124

125

transformers

Push-pull circuit

Tuned circuit

Complementary pair

In a feedback amplifier, de-sensitivity D equals

A

1 + KF

tends to decrease the

output resistance

does not change the

output resistance

C
126

KF

1 KF
1
1 + KF

In a negative feedback amplifier, current sampling

tends to increase the output

resistance
produces same effect on the
output resistance as voltage
sampling

127
134

128

129

FET source at
Frequency
follower
which the
is a gain
negative
of the
feedback
Op-Ampamplifier
is zero dBusing
called
A

Voltage series feedback

Current series feedback

Voltage shunt feedback

Current shunt feedback

BJT RC phase shift oscillator has angular frequency of oscillation equals

3
1
1
B
A
cq 6 + 4
cq
1 1
1
1
C
D
cq 29
cq 6 + 4
In BJT Colpitts oscillator angular frequency of oscillation equals
tu
A
B
v v
tu

1 w. x
tu

vw. vx
z{ y|{

1 + y

C
130

131

yz{ y|{

tu

1

yz{ y|{
vw. vx

For sustained oscillations in BJT RC phase shift oscillator with 3-sections

}
of RC network, the required transistor XV is given by (where  = }~ )
29
XV > 29
A
B
XV > 44 + 23 + 7

29
29
C
D
XV > 44 + 7
XV > 4 23 + 7


Following compensation method in amplifier leads to reduction in
bandwidth
A

Lead compensation

Pole-zero compensation

Miller effect
D
Dominant pole compensation
compensation
In circuit shown in figure below, the input voltage ' is 0.2 V. The output
voltage 'I is
C

132

133

6V

8V

-6 V

-8 V

4V

6V

-3 V

-6 V

Consider the circuit shown below, If ' = 2 V, then output 'I is

135

136

137

138

crossover frequency

Unity gain crossover

frequency

Gain margin

Phase margin

-2 V

-1 v

-0.5 V

0.5 V

cut-off

saturation

normal active

reverse active

For the Op-Amp circuit shown in the figure, 'I is

For the BJT circuit shown, assume that the F of the transistor is very large
and AB = 0.7  . The mode of operation of the BJT is

The circuit below forms

active positive clipper

logarithmic amplifier

active peak detector

active half wave rectifier

0.9 V

1.19 V

2.14 V

2.84 V

For the circuit in figure A = H and F = 50. The value of A is

139

The Ton time for the 555 based astable multivibrator is

A
C

140

143

144

145

146

147

0.69 cA . q

1.44 / <c + 2cA >. q

0.69 <c + cA >. q

1.44cA q

cA . q

1.44 / <c + cA >. q

1.44cA q

On time for the pulse when monostable multivibrator triggered can be

given by
A

142

Frequency of the waveform generated in 555 based astable multivirator

can be given by
A

141

0.69 <c + 2cA >. q

1.34 c. q
c. q

B
D

Relaxation oscillator is one which

1.1 c. q
1.7 c. q

produces non-sinusoidal
output

oscillates continuously

has two stable states

none of the above

A transistor is said to be in quiescent state when

A

it is unbiased

no signal is applied to it

no current is flowing
through it

emitter junction bias equal to

collector junction bias

Effect of cascading several amplifier stages is to

A

reduce the overall gain

increase overall gain and

reduce the frequency
response

reduce overall frequency

response
decrease overall gain and
increase the frequency
response

Comparator circuits are used in

A

summing

integrating

differentiating

converting sine to square

wave

In a multistage amplifier, the intermediate stages are always in

A

CB configuration

CE configuration

CC configuration

any configuration

A CB amplifier is characterized by
A

low Ai , high AV

low Ai , low AV

high Ai , high AV

high Ai , low AV

148

149

150

Capacitor filter is ideal for currents which are

A

small

medium

large

very large

Negative feedback in an amplifier results in

A

more gain, more

bandwidth

more gain, less bandwidth

less gain, more bandwidth

less gain, less bandwidth

Schmitt trigger circuit is also called

A

squaring circuit

blocking oscillator

sweep circuit

astable multivibrator

Resistances can be measured with the help of

A

wattmeters

voltmeters

ammeters

D ohmmeters and resistance bridges

An ammeter is a
A

secondary instrument

absolute instrument

recording instrument

D integrating instrument

The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in

A

series

parallel

series-parallel

D none of the above

A potentiometer may be used for

A

measurement of
resistance

calibration of ammeter

D all of the above

measurement of current

An ohmmeter is a
A

moving iron instrument

moving coil instrument

dynamometer instrument

D none of the above

For measuring a very high resistance we should use

A

Kelvin's double bridge

Wheat stone bridge

Meggar

D None of the above

Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C.
Voltage
A

Small range moving coil

voltmeter

Small range thermocouple

voltmeter

D None of the above

D.C. potentiometer

A direct current can be measured by

A

a D.C. potentiometer
directly

a D.C. potentiometer in
conjunction with a volt
ratio box

D none of the above

Basically a potentiometer is a device for

a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with

a standard resistance

10

11

12

13

14

comparing two voltages

measuring a current

comparing two currents

D measuring a voltage

In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms of

A

known inductance and

resistance

known resistance

D known inductance

known capacitance and resistance

For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the suitable bridge is

A

Wein bridge

Modified De Santy's bridge

Schering bridge

D Any of the above

For measurement of mutual inductance we can use

A

Anderson bridge

Maxwell's bridge

Heaviside bridge

D Any of the above

If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80, the loss angle of the capacitor is
A

10

80

120

D 170

In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth potential is

A

a few volts only

1 kV

5 kV

D 10 kV

15
If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and resistances in the remaining
three arms

16

17

the bridge can always be

balanced

the bridge can be balanced

if the resistances have
D Any of the above
some specific values

the bridge cannot be balanced

Systematic errors are

A

instrumental errors

environmental errors

observational errors

D all of the above

Standard resistor is made from

A

platinum

maganin

C
18

19

20

21

22

spherical type

electrostatic type

D multilayer parallel plate type

25

26

concentric cylindrical type

For measurement of inductance having high value, we should use

A

Maxwell's bridge

Hay's bridge

D Any of the above

Maxwell Wein bridge

Volt box is a component to

A

extend voltage range

compare voltage in a box

D none of the above

measure voltage

Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of

A

electrostatic instrument

moving iron instrument

D electrodynamic instrument

thermocouple instrument

Qualitative results refer to:

24

D nichrome

Commonly used standard capacitor is

23

silver

Results that can be

observed during an
experiment.
Results that require
numerical data.

Results that are difficult to observe

during an experiment.

D none of these is correct.

The unit of sensitivity is

A

Volt

Ohm

Volt/Ohm

D Ohm/Volt

The basic PMMC movement is often called DArsonval movement is used to measure
A

DC only

AC only

Both DC & AC

None of the above

The ratio of the change in output of the instrument to a change in input is known as
A

Precision

Sensitivity

Resolution

Accuracy

The deviation of the true value from the desired value is known as
A

Expected value

Output value

C
27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

Error

D Input value

Which of the following are integrating instruments

A

Ammeters

Voltmeters

Wattmeters

D Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters

Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating instrument

A

Deflecting device

Controlling device

Damping device

D All of the above

A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as _____ by using a low

resistance shunt.
A

ammeter

voltmeter

flux-meter

D flux-meter

A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving system and enables the latter
to
reach its final position quickly
A

deflecting

controlling

damping

D any of the above

A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as flux-meter

A

by using a low resistance

shunt

by using a high series resistance

by eliminating the control

springs

by making control springs of large

moment of inertia

Which of the following devices may be used for extending the range of instruments
A

Shunts

Multipliers

Current transformers

D All of the above

In majority of instruments damping is provided by

A

fluid friction

spring

eddy currents

D all of the above

An ammeter is a
A

secondary instrument

secondary instrument

secondary instrument

D integrating instrument

Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.

36

37

Active

Secondary

D Inverse

Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of

A

Active transducers

Analog transducers

D Primary transducers

39

40

41

42

43

Passive transducers

A strain gauge is a passive transducer and is employed for converting

A

38

Passive

Mechanical displacement
into a change of resistance

Force into a displacement

Pressure into a change of resistance

Force into a displacement

Piezo electric transducers work when we apply _____________ to it.

A

Mechanical force

Illuminations

Heat

Vary unequally depending on the core

position

Vibrations

In a LVDT, the two secondary voltage

A

Are independent of the

core position

Vary equally depending on

the core position

D Are always in phase quadrature

The application of LVDT is

A

Joint motion

Finger movement

Limb movement

D Heart wall motion

The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy.

A

Remains unaltered

Increases

Reaches maximum

D Decreases

Which of the following is a digital transducer

A

Strain gauge

Encoder

Thermistor

D LVDT

The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of

A
C

Self inductance

Reluctance

Mutual inductance

D Permanence

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

S1: Transducer is a device which converts physical into electrical quantity.

S2: Transducer is also called as sensor.
A

S1 is true & S2 is false

S2 is true & S1 is false

Both S1 & S2 are true

Both S1 & S2 are false

The principle of operation of variable resistance transducer is

A

Deformation leads to
change in resistance

Displacement of a contact slider on a

resistance

Coupling of two coils

changes with
displacement

Movement of magnetic field produces

variation in resistance of material

_____________ is the example of photo emissive cell

A

LDR

Photo diode

Photo transistor

D Photo multiplier

B-H Curve is used to determination of:

A

Hysteresis loss

Iron loss

Eddy current loss

D Both (a) and (b

In CRO the time base signal is applied to

A

Y-plates

X-plates

Either X-plate or Y-plate

Both X-plate and Y-plate

The main advantage of crystal oscillator is that its output is

A

A Constant frequency
range

50 Hz to 60 Hz

D Variable frequency

DC

Hays Bridge is suitable for the measurement of:

A

Inductances with Q>10

Inductances with Q<10

Capacitors with high

dissipation factor

Capacitors with low dissipation factor

A 0 - 100 V volteter has 200 scale divisions which can be read to 1/2 division.
Determine the resolutin of the meter in volt.
A

0.60 V

1V

0.92 V

0.25 V

Illumination is measured using which one of the following?

52

Millivoltmeter

Stroboscope

Luxmeter

pH meter

Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?
53

Force

Velocity

Sound

Pressure

Which of the following is a digital transducer?

54

Strain gauge

Encoder

Thermistor

LVDT

The difference between the measured value and the true value is
called
55

gross error

relative error

probable error

absolute error

The device used to indicate the presence of an electric current is

56

Electrometer

Galvanometer

Voltmeter

Coulometer

An average-reading digital multimeter reads 10V when fed with a triangular wave,
symmetric about the time-axis.For the same input an rms-reading meter will read
57
A

20/3

10/3

203

103

A voltmeter should have

58

Low internal resistance

High internal resistance

Electrostatic plates

A sensitive amplifier

The pressure coil of a dynamo meter type wattmeter is

59

Highly inductive

Highly resistive

Purely resistive

Purely inductive

The two inputs of a CRO are fed with two stationary periodic signals. In the X-Y mode,
the screen shows a figure which changes from ellipse to circle and back to ellipse with
its major axis changing orientation slowly and repeatedly. The following inference can
be made from this.
60

The signals are not sinusoidal

The signals are sinusoidal with
their frequencies very close but
not equal

The amplitudes of the signals are very

close but not equal
There is a constant but small phase
difference between the signals

In two watt meter method of power measurement, if one of the watt meter shows
zero reading, then it can be concluded that
61

Power factor is unity

Power factor is zero

Power factor is 0.5 lagging

Power factor is 0.5 leading

A thermocouple
62

A
C

Gets warm when dc flows

through it
Generates ac when heated

B
D

Is a thin, straight, special wire

Generates dc when exposed to
visible light

The shunt type ohm meter is not suitable for high resistance measurements because

63

Very low resistance of the meter

would short the high unknown
resistance

Scale is highly cramped for high

resistance

Full scale value of the meter may D Battery cannot supply the necessary
be exceeded
current for proper meter deflection
The change in value of an analog signal during the conversion process produces what
is called the
64

quantization error

resolution error

D sampling error
Nyquist error
Which of the following performance specifications applies to a sample-and-hold
circuit?
65

66

Aperture time

Aperture droop

Feedback

Acquisition jitter

Telemetry may be defined as,

Drawing graph

Indicating direction

Calculating length

Measuring at a distance

Converting the deflection of an insrument in to impulses of proportional frequency is

known as
67

Frequency modulation

Pulse amplitude modulation system

Impulse counting system

Impulse frequency system

Strain guage converts

68

Mechanical displacement in to a
change in resistance

Resistance in to a change in
mechanical displacement

Current in to a change in
resistance

None of this

In CRT the amount of cathod current, which governs the intensity of the spot, can be
controlled with
69

The spot screw

Holding switch

The control grid

First anode

In oscilloscope tube electron gun the beam is accelerated to the final velocity by a
70

Quadrupole lens

Increasing current

Control grid

Deflection plates

The power factor is the cosine of the angle between

71

Voltage and curent

Current and inductance

Voltage and frequency

All of above

A 1 - mA meter movement with an internal resistance of 100 is to be converted in

to a 0 - 100 mA ammeter. The value of the shunt resistance required is
72

73

9.10

1.01

10

Relation of averae value and the rms value of time varying voltages and currents is

Power factor

Form factor

Phase value

None of this

Desirable value of temperature coefficient of resistance () in resistance temperature

detectors is
74

Low

High

Value does not affect sensitivity

None of this

Unit of deflection sensitivity of CRT is

75

Meter/Volt

Volts

Volts/Meter

Volts/Time

What is crest factor in true rms responding voltmeter

76

Ratio of rms value to peak value

Ratio of value of current to rms value

Ratio of value of current to value

of peak value

Ratio of peak value to rms value

The output voltage of a typical thermocouple is

77

Less than 100 mV

Greater than 1 V

Thermocouples vary resistance,

not voltage

None of this

What is the zero-voltage switch used for?

A

For extremely low-voltage

applications

To provide power to a circuit when

power is lost

To control low-voltage circuits

To reduce radiation of high

frequencies during turn-on of a high
current to a load

78

Temperature sensing can be achieved by the use of

79

Thermocouples

RTDs

thermistors

All of the above

The purpose of compensation for a thermocouple is

80
A

to decrease temperature
sensitivity

to increase voltage output

C
81

82

83

84

85

86

to cancel unwanted voltage

output of a thermocouple

used for high-temperature circuits

Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.

A

Active

Secondary

Passive

Inverse

Which of the following instrument can be used for both ac and dc

A

PMMC type

Moving-iron type

Induction type

None of the above

Electrostatic instruments are mainly employed to measure:

A

Heavy currents

Low voltages

Low currents

High voltages

Measurement range of a voltmeter can be extended by using:

A

High current resistance

Low shunt resistance

High series resistance

Low series resistance

_____________ is the example of photo emissive cell

A

LDR

Photo transistor

Photo diode

Photo multiplier

The instrument which is cheapest for dc measurement is:

A

Moving iron

Hot-wire

PMMC

Electro-dynamo

87

LVDT windings are wound on

A

Steel sheets

Ferrite

Aluminium

Copper

88
Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?

89

Force

Sound

Velocity

Pressure

Swamping of resistance is used to compensate error due to:

A

Stray magnetic field

Large supply variations

C
90

Temperature variations

None of the above

Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of

A

Active transducers

Analog transducers

Passive transducers

Primary transducers

91
Certain type of materials generates an electrostatic charge or voltage when
mechanical force is applied across them. Such materials are called
A

Piezo-electric

Thermo-electric

Photo-electric

Photo-resistive

92
The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of

93

94

Self inductance

Reluctance

Mutual inductance

Permanence

A transducer that converts measurand into the form of pulse is called

A

Active transducer

Digital transducer

Analog transducer

Pulse transducer

An inverse transducer is a device which converts

A
C

95

97

B
D

Electrical energy into thermal energy

Electrical energy into light energy

The internal resistance for milli ammeter must be very low for:
A

96

An electrical quantity into a non

electrical quantity
Electrical quantity into mechanical
quantity

High sensitivity
High accuracy

B
D

Maximum voltage drop across the

meter
Minimum voltage drop across the
meter

Potentiometer is an __ instrument:
A

Indicating

Calibrating

Comparison

Recording

When external magnetic field is

applied
When the junction of two such
crystals are heated

Piezo electric crystal can produce an emf

A
C

When external mechanical force is

applied to i
When radiant energy stimulates
the crystal

98

99

Which of the following bridge is frequency sensitive:

A

Wheatstone bridge

Anderson bridge

Maxwell bridge

Wien bridge

In wire wound strain gauges, the change in resistance is due to

A
C

100

change in diameter of the wire

Change in length of the wire

B
D

Change in both length and diameter

Change in resistivity

Voltmeter should be of very high resistance so that:

It may draw current minimum
A
B
Its range is high
possible
C

Its accuracy is high

Its sensitivity is high

101
The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy.

102

103

104

105

Remains unaltered

Reaches maximum

Increases

Decreases

Direct current is preferred over alternating current for testing of ac transmission lines
and cables because:

Heavy charging currents will be

drawn and so a large sized
transformer is required if tested
with ac

b) Transmission lines and cables

should not be tested with dc

The transformers required for

testing cannot be used for long
distances

All the above

The capacitance microphone is used for the detection of

A

Heart rate

Heart sound

Blood flow

Foot pressure

The application of LVDT is

A

Joint motion

Limb movement

Finger movement

Heart wall motion

A ammeter

A multimeter

A voltmeter

None of the above

A Ohmmeter is basically:

106

Pressure transducer for measuring blood pressure is

A
C

107

Strain gauge transducer only

Strain gauge or capacitive
transducer

B
D

Resistive transducer
Fiber optic transducer

Test electrode is also known as

A

a) Indicator electrode

c) Second electrode

C
108

D d) Primary electrode
b) Reference electrode
A moving iron ammeter coil has few turns of thick wire in order to have:
A
C

109

a) High sensitivity
b) Effective damping

c) Low resistance and large current

carrying capacity

d) Large scale

A thermo-couple instrument can be used for the measurement of:

A

a) Direct current only

c) Both direct current and

alternating current

C
110

111

D d) dc/ac voltage only

b) Alternating current only
Capacitive transducers are normally employed for___________ measurements
A

a) Static

c) Transient

b) Dynamic

d) Both static and dynamic

Which of the following is a digital transducer?

A

a) Strain gauge

c) Thermistor

b) Encoder

d) LVDT

Aluminum is a
1

Diamagnetic material

Ferromagnetic material

Paramagnetic material

Dielectric material

Relative permeability of Aluminum is

2

1.00000065

1.00000079

1.00004

1.0001

Boltzmann constant is
A

1.381 X 1023 J/K

1.381 X 10-23 J/K

1.381 X 1023 V/K

1.381 X 10-23 V/K

Conductivity of Silver used in wave guide is ____mho/meter

A

3.82 X 107

4.10 X 107

5.80 X 107

6.17 X 107

Conductivity of Gold used in wave guide is ____mho/meter

5

3.82 X 107

4.10 X 107

5.80 X 107

6.17 X 107

IEEE microwave frequency band Ku is in ______GHz range

6

8.000 12.000

12.000 18.000

18.000 27.000

27.000 40.000

IEEE microwave frequency band X is in ______GHz range

A

8.000 12.000

12.000 18.000

18.000 27.000

27.000 40.000

A conductor of _____ conductivity and ____ permeability has low intrinsic

impedance.
A
Low, Low
B
Low, High
C

High, High

Principle advantage of microwaves over low frequency is

A
C

10

High, Low

Increased bandwidth

Increased privacy

Ability to use high gain,

D
All of the above
high directivity antenna
Microwave links are preferred for TV transmission because

11

Of small S/N ratio

They produce less phase

distortion
C
They are relatively
D
They are free from impulse
cheaper
noise
Rain drop attenuation in most microwave link is caused due to
A

12

13

14

Scattering of microwaves
B.
Scattering of microwaves by a
by water drops of specific
collection of droplets acting of
size
a single body
C
Absorption of microwave
D
Absorption of microwaves by
by water consequent
water vapour in the
heating of the liquid
atmosphere
Standard mismatching in microwave circuits have SWR from
A

0.5 : 1 to 2 : 1

1 : 0 to 2 : 1

1.2 : 1 to 2 : 1

1.33 : 1 to 2 : 1

In microwave we take the elements as

A

Lumped circuit element

Distributed circuit element

Both a and b

None of the above

Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart

A

15

16

17

Because of earth
B
Because of atmospheric
curvature
attenuation
C
Because of output tube
D
To ensure that the applied dc
power limitations
voltage is not excessive
When the free-space wavelength of a signal equals the cut off
wavelength of guide
A
The group velocity of the
B
The phase velocity of the
signal becomes zero.
signal becomes infinite
C
The wavelength within the D
All of the above
waveguide becomes
infinite
The front end of the amplifier chain in a manufacturer communication
system is kept immersed in liquid nitrogen, to
A
Dissipate heat generated
B
Expand its frequency response
by amplifier
C
Improve its noise figure
D
Reduce the distortion by the
amplifier
Short-term fading in microwave communication links can be overcome by
A

18

Increasing the
B
Changing the antenna
transmitting power
C
Changing the modulation
D
Diversity reception and
scheme
transmission
The wavelength of microwave at 100GHz will be

19

20

3 cm

0.3 cm

0.03 cm

0.3 m

When microwave signals follows the curvature of the this is known as,
A

Ducting

Farady effect

Tropospheric scatter

Ionospheric reflection

Is not good low level amplifier

because of noise
Has a high repeller voltage to
ensure small transition time

Multicavity Klystron
A

Is not microwave device

C
21

Is not suited for pulse

operation
A Reflex Klystron functions as

Microwave oscillator

Microwave amplifier

C
22

23

Both as microwave
D
A high gain cavity
amplifier and oscillator
A Reflex klystron is capable of generating such high frequencies as
A

1000 MHz

10000 MHz

100000 MHz

8 GHz

Cylindrical cavity resonators are not used with klystron because they have
A

Too low Q

24

A shape not permitting

easy adjustment of
resonant frequency
The modes in a reflex klystron

B
D

Harmonically related resonant

frequency
Are difficult to fabricate

25

Give the same frequency

B
Result from excessive transit
but different transit times
time across the resonator gap
C
Are caused by spurious
D
Are just for theoretical
frequency modulation
considerations
Which of the following microwave tube amplifier uses a coaxial magnetic
field and radial electric field?
A
Coaxial magnetron
B
CFA
C

26

Travelling wave
D
Reflex Klystron
magnetron
The secondary cavity in a two cavity klystron is called the
A

Buncher cavity

Catcher cavity

Velocity modulation cavity

None of these

27

28

29

Klystron operates on the principle of

A

Amplitude modulation

Frequency modulation

Pulse modulation

Velocity modulation

The magnetic field intensity (in A/m ) at the centre of a circular coil of
diameter 1 meter and carrying current of 2 A is
A

The polarization of a dielectric material is given by

A

P =r E .
C

P = (r -1 )E .
D

P = (r 1) 0

P = E 0 (r 1)
30

In a travelling electromagnetic wave, E and H vector fields are

A

perpendicular in space .

parallel in space

C
31

E is in the direction of
D
H is in the direction of wave
wave travel
travel.
For a broad side linear array which of the following is not correct
A

32

the progressive phase shift (

) between elements is zero.

the maximum radiation occurs

along the line of array at =
90

remain the same.

decrease by a factor of 2.

In a dielectric-conductor boundary (interface), the tangential component

of electric field is
A
Et
B
2Et
C

34

A wave is incident normally on a good conductor. If the frequency of a

plane electromagnetic
wave increases four times, the skin depth, will
A
Increase by a factor of 2.
B
decrease by a factor of 4.
C

33

the maximum radiation

occurs perpendicular to
the line of the array at
=90
width of principal lobe is
less than that of an end
fire array.

Zero

Infinite

For a transmission line terminated in its characteristic impedance, which

of the following statement is incorrect:

35

36

37

It is a smooth line.

The energy distribution

between magnetic and electric
field is not equal.
C
Standing wave does not
D
Efficiency of transmission of
exist.
power is maximum.
For a line of characteristic impedance, ZO terminated in a load, ZR such
that ZR > ZO , the Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) is given by
A

ZR/Z0

Z0

ZR

Z0/ZR

The lower cut-off frequency of a rectangular wave guide with inside

dimensions (3 4.5 cm) operating at 10 GHz is
A

10 GHz

9 GHz

10/9 GHz

10/3 GHz

The directive gain cannot be stated as

A

38

the ratio of the radiation

B
the function of angles
intensity in that direction
to the average radiated
power.
C
the directivity of an
D
independent of angles
antenna when directive
gain is maximum.
With respect to equi-potential surface pick the odd one out.
A

Potential is same every

where

C
39

40

Potential is different every D

where
The intrinsic impedance of free space is
A

75 ohm

73 ohm

120 ohm

377 ohm

The characteristic impedance is given by

A
C

41

Work done in moving charge

from one point to another is
zero
No current flows on this
surface



Z0 =


 . 

B
D



Zsc. Zoc

Transverse electric wave travelling in z- direction satisfies

A

Ez = 0; Hz = 0

Ez = 0; Hz 0

C
42

43

Ez 0; Hz 0.

73

75 ohm

120 ohm

377 ohm

In an electromagnetic wave, the phase difference between electric and

magnetic field vectors E and B is
A
Zero
B
/2

/4

Consider a transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and the

line is terminated at one end by +j50 ohms, the VSWR produced in the
transmission line will be
A
+1
B
0
C

45

Radiation resistance of a /2 dipole is

C
44

Ez 0; Hz = 0

Infinite

-1

Which one of the following conditions will not guarantee a distortion less
transmission line
A
R=0=G
B
RC = LG
C

46

very low frequency range

D
very high frequency range
(R>>wL, G >> wC)
(R<<wL, G << wC)

In a certain medium E = 10 Cos(
t 3y) ax V/m. What type of medium
is it?
A
Free space
B
Lossy dielectric
C

47

Lossless dielectric

Perfect conductor

Which of the following statements is not true of waves in general?

A

48

It may be a function of
B
It may be sinusoidal or
time only
cosinusoidal
C
It may be a function of
D
For practical reasons, it must
time and space
be finite in extent.
Plane y=0 carries a uniform current of 30 az mA/m. At (1, 10, 2), the
magnetic field intensity is
A
15 ax mA/m
B
15 ax mA/m
C

49

18.85 a y nA/m

A loop is rotating about y-axis in a magnetic field B =B0 sin _t ax Wb/m2 .

The voltage induced in the loop is due to
A
Motional emf
B
Transformer emf
C

50

477.5 a y A/m

A combination of motional D
None of the above
& transformer emf
If D = E and J = E in a given material, the material is

said to be

51

52

Linear

Homogeneous

Isotropic

Linear & Homogeneous

Lorentz force law is

A

F = QE

F = V*B

F= Q(E + V*B)

F = Q (V*B)

For a transmission line terminated by a load, the reflection co-efficient

magnitude and the voltage standing wave ration S are related as:
A
B
S = 1 / (1+| | )
S = 1 / (1 || )
C

53

55

56

S = (1+ | | ) / (1 | | )

For a rectangular wave guide, 2.5cm x 1.2cm, dominant cut off

wavelength is
A
5 cm
B
2.5 cm
C

54

S = (1 | | ) / (1+| | )

2.4 cm

3.7 cm

If a line is terminated in an open circuit, the VSWR is

A

Infinite

-1

A hollow rectangular waveguide acts as a

A

High pass filter

Low pass filter

Band pass filter

Low frequency radiator

Divergence theorem is applicable for

A

static field only

time varying fields only

C
57

both static and time

D
electric fields only
varying fields
A uniform plane wave in air is incident normally on an infinitely thick slab.
If the refractive index of the glass slab is 1.5, then the percentage of the
incident power that is reflected from
the air-glass interface is
A
0%
B
4%
C

58

20 %

10 %

Some unknown material has a conductivity of

 mho/ m, and a
permeability of 4 *
 . The skin depth for the material at 1 GHz
A
15.9 um
B
20.9 um

C
59

61

63

1.386 MHz

15 GHz

20 GHz

rate of energy flow.

direction of polarization

intensity of electric field.

intensity of magnetic field.

In an-filled rectangular wave guide, the cutoff frequency of a TE10 mode is

5 GHz where as that of TE01 mode is 12 GHz. The dimensions of the guide
is
A
3 cm by 1.25 cm
B
1.25 cm by 3 cm
6 cm by 2.5 cm

2.5 cm by 6 cm

Consider a 150 m long air-filled hollow rectangular waveguide with cutoff

frequency 6.5 GHz. If a short pulse of 7.2 GHz is introduced into the input
end of the guide, the time taken by the pulse to return the input end is
A
920 ns
B
460 ns
230 ns

430 ns

A rectangular waveguide is filled with a polyethylene r=2.25 and

operates at 24 GHz. The cutoff frequency of a certain mode is 16 GHz. The
intrinsic impedance of this mode is
A
224.8 ohm
B
337.2 ohm
C

66

C
65

0.6 MHz

Poynting vector gives

C
64

30.9 um

A transmission line with a characteristic impedance 1 Z is connected to a

transmission line with characteristic impedance 2 Z . If the system is being
driven by a generator connected to the first line, then the overall
transmission coefficient will be
 

A
B
 + 
 + 
 

C
D
 + 
 + 
A rectangular waveguide has dimension 1.0 cm0.5 cm, its cutoff
frequency for the dominant mode is
A
5 GHz
B
10 GHz
C

62

The radio wave is incident on layer of ionosphere at an angle of 30 with

the vertical. If the critical frequency is 1.2 MHz, the maximum usable
frequency (MUF) is
A
1.2 MHz
B
2.4 MHz
C

60

25.9 um

421.4 ohm

632.2 ohm

The cross section of a waveguide is shown in fig. It has dielectric

discontinuity as shown in fig. If the guide operate at 8 GHz in the
dominant mode, the standing wave ratio is

67

-3.911

2.268

1.564

4.389

The air filled cavity resonator has dimension a = 3 cm, b = 2 cm, c=- 4 cm.
The resonant frequency for the TM110 mode is
A
5 GHz
B
6.4 GHz
C

68

4.3 cm

8.6 cm

added by 8%

removed by 8%

200 sin(t - z)

sin(t - z)

A lossless transmission line operating at 4.5 GHz has L =2.6 uH m and Z 0=

80. The phase constant and the phase velocity v is
A
B
214 rad/m, 30.8*
 m s
148 rad/m, 274*
 m s
C

73

A lossless line has a voltage wave V(z, t) =10 sin(t - z). The line has
parameter L =0.2 uH /m, C= 0.5 nF /m. The corresponding current wave
is
A
20 sin(t - z)
B
0.5 sin(t - z)
C

72

A 81 lossless planer line was designed but did not meet a requirement.
To get the characteristic impedance of 75 the fraction of the width of
the strip should be
A
added by 4%
B
removed by 4%
C

71

9 GHz

A parallel-plate guide operates in the TEM mode only over the frequency
range0 < f< 3GHz. The dielectric between the plates is Teflon (r =21) .
The maximum allowable plate separation b is
A
3.4 cm
B
6.8 cm
C

70

Two identical rectangular waveguide are joined end to end where a = 2b.
One guide is air filled and other is filled with a lossless dielectric of r . it is
found that up to a certain frequency single mode operation can be
simultaneously ensured in both guide. For this frequency range, the
maximum allowable value of r is
A
4
B
2
C

69

16.2 GHz

919 rad/m, 30.8*

 m s

None of the above

A 60 coaxial cable feeds a 75 + j25 dipole antenna. The voltage

reflection coefficient and standing wave ratio s are respectively

74

0.212 48.55, 1.538

0.486 68.4, 2.628

0.486 41.45 , 2.628

0.212 68.4, 1.538

For a short-circuited coaxial transmission line: Characteristic impedance

Z0 = 35 + j49 , Propagation constant = 1.4 + j5  Length of line l
=0.4 m. The input impedance of short-circuited line is
A
82 + j39
B
41 + j78
C

75

79

21.3

169

7.707

A lossless transmission line with a characteristic impedance of 80 is

terminated by a load of 125 . The length of line is 1.25 . The input
impedance is
A
80
B
51.2
C

78

34 + j23

Consider a 300 quarter-wave long transmission line operating at 1 GHz.

It is connected to 10 V, 50 source at one end and is left open circuited
at the other end. The magnitude of the voltage at the open circuited end
of line is
A
10
B
5
C

77

The quarter-wave lossless 100 line is terminated by load ZL =210. If

the voltage at the receiving end is 60 V, the voltage at the sending end is
A
126
B
28.6
C

76

68+ j46

125

45

Three lossless lines are connected as shown in fig. The input impedance Zin at A is

46 j 69

39 j 57

67 + j 48

61 + j 52

Two /4 transformers in tandem are to connect a 50 line to a 75 load

as shown in fig. P8.6.34. If Z02 =30 and there is no reflected wave to the
left of A, then the characteristic impedance Zo1 is

80

81

82

28

56

49

24.5

Two identical antennas, each of input impedance 74 are fed with three
identical 50 quarter-wave lossless transmission lines as shown in fig. The
input impedance at the source end is

148

106

74

53

The 300 lossless line shown in fig. is matched to the left of the stub. The
value of ZL is

1-j 1.37

1+j 1.37

300+j413

300-j413

A short-circuited stub is connected to a 50 transmission line as shown

in fig. The admittance seen at the junction of the stub and the
transmission line is

83

0.01 j 0.02

0.02 + j0.01

0.04 + j0.02

0.04 j 0.02

Frequencies that encompass the 300- to 3000-MHz range are under

which of the following segments
A
high frequency
B
very high frequency
C

84

transmission delay

inside diameter

velocity factor

standing wave

reflected signal

When the load impedance does not exactly match the line impedance
and the load has reactive components in addition to its resistance, the
line is said to be
A
open
B
shorted
C

88

transit time

Energy that is reflected from the end of an improperly terminated line

back up the line towards the generator is called a
A
harmonic
B
stranded wave
C

87

microwave

Which of the following is not an important transmission line

specification?
A
impedance
B
attenuation
C

86

The time it takes a signal applied at one end of a transmission line to

appear at the other end of the line is called
A
signal time
B
time constant
C

85

ultrahigh frequency

reactive

resonant

In an ideal case where there are no standing waves, the standing wave
ratio is
A
0
B
1
C

100

Infinite

89
Which of the following is not used to offset antenna reactance and to

produce an impedance match?

90

LC network

RC network

92

special lines

Boolean table

frequency response curve

dB loss

reflection coefficient

A stacked collinear antenna consisting of half-wave dipoles spaced from

one another by one-half wavelengths is the
A
broadside array
B
end-fire array
C

95

Which of the following is not found on the linear scales printed at the
bottom of Smith charts?
A
SWR
B
impedance
C

94

PCB lines

Tinier microstrip and striplines made by using monolithic, thin-film, and

hybrid techniques when combined with diodes, transistors, and other
components form what are called
A
microstrip integrated
B
microwave integrated circuits
circuits
C
stripline integrated
D
high-frequency integrated
circuits
circuits
A sophisticated graph that permits visual solutions to transmission line
calculations is the
A
Karnaugh map
B
Smith chart
C

93

L LC network

Special transmission lines constructed with copper patterns on a printedcircuit board that can be used as tuned circuits, filters, or impedancematching circuits are called
A
microchip
B
stripline
C

91

T LC network

wide-bandwidth array

parasitic array

When the characteristic impedance of the transmission line matches the

output impedance of the transmitter and the impedance of the antenna
itself,
A
the SWR will be 10:1
B
the SWR will be 1:10
C

96

minimum power transfer

D
maximum power transfer will
will take place
take place
A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced transmission line of a
specific impedance connected between a load and a source in order to
match impedances is
A
a balun
B
an autotransformer
C

a Q section

dummy load

97

Small wire loop inductors and capacitors are used to provide

A

low-noise amplification

C
98

impedance matching and

D
tuning
Hollow metal conducting pipes designed to carry and constrain the
electromagnetic waves of a microwave signal are
A
wavetraps
B
waveguides
C

99

101

tapered wedge

klystron

horn

Cavity resonator

A three-port microwave device used for coupling energy in only one

direction around a closed loop is a
A
circulator
B
Joint
Terminator

cavity resonator

Which of the following diodes is not typically used in the microwave

region?
A
point-contact
B
standard PN
standard PN

hot carrier

Which of the following diodes does not oscillate due to negativeresistance characteristics?
A
tunnel
B
SCR
Gunn

IMPATT

A thin piece of N-type gallium arsenide or indium phosphide

semiconductor which forms a special resistor when voltage is applied to it
is the
A
tunnel diode
B
PIN diode
C

105

choke joint

microstrip

C
104

microwave tubes

C
103

A waveguide like device that acts as a high-Q parallel resonant circuit is a

C
102

traveling wave tubes

A microwave component which is used to interconnect two sections of

waveguide is the
A
T section
B
curved section
C

100

decoupling to prevent
feedback
signal coupling

Gunn diode

varactor diode

A microwave vacuum tube using cavity resonators to produce velocity

modulation of an electron beam which produces amplification is
A
a klystron
B
magnetron

a cathode-ray tube

traveling-wave tube

106

A ship to ship communication system is affected by fading. A useful

solution which can be used is
A
A more directional
B
Use of space diversity
antenna
C
Use of frequency diversity D
A broadband antenna

107

For the experimental study of small microwave antennas, a free space

environment with minimum interference by external objects, the facilities
required are:
A
RF screens
B
slotted waveguides
C

108

110

111

112

power meter

4 GHz and 6 GHz

6 GHz and 4 GHz

The main disadvantage of using coaxial cable for microwave signals is its
A

High sensitivity

Low distortion

High attenuation

Low selectivity

Which of the following introduces mode partition noise?

A

Fiber transmission

Wave guide

Fiber transmission

stepped index operation

attenuation in glass

micro-bending

impurities

Both coaxial line and wave

guide
Which of the following does not cause losses in optical fibre cables?

Consider the transmission line of length 37.5cm which is terminated into

zero resistance. This line is being excited by a source of 1Ghz which has a
internal impedance of 50ohm. What is the input impedance of the line as
seen by the source?
A
infinite
B
52ohm
C

113

In a typical satellite communication system, which of the following could

be the up-link and down-link frequencies respectively?
A
60 GHz and 40 GHz
B
40 GHz and 60 GHz
C

109

UHF screens

0 ohm

100 ohm

Which device can detect the presence of both forward and backward
waves in a wave guide?
A
directional coupler
B
detector

C
114

116

117

118

120

121

magic T

1 and 2

3 and 4

Which of the following is a microwave source with a cross field structure?

A

Gyrotron

Travelling wave tube

Magnetron

Relfex klystron

Which of the devices has the negative resistance characteristic?

A

PNP transistor

Magnetron

Reflex klystron

Gunn diode

Which of the following devices is a not electron diode?

A

Thermal electron diode

Thomson deletion diode

Thermionic tube diode

Schottky barrier diode

Which of the following uses transferred electron effect for the production
of microwave power amplifier?
A
Metal semi conductor
B
Germanium
C

119

Consider the following statements: The klystron and travelling wave tube
differ from each other
1. in TWT the microwave circuit is non resonant .
2. in klystron the microwave circuit is resonant .
3. TWT uses attenuator .
4. the wave in TWT is a non proper gating wave .
which of the above statements are correct?
A
2 and 3
B
1
C

115

filter

Silicon

Gallium arsenide

Which of the following is a microwave power amplifier?

A

Magnetron

Travelling wave tube

Gunn diode

Reflex klystron

The frequency determining portion of a magnetron is______

A

short line

cathode

open line

Reasonant cavity

MASER finds application in

A

telephones

fiber optics

opto electronics

all the above

122

Consider the following statements: In the case of space wave propagation

the signal strength at the receiver is
1.directly proportional to transmitter and receiver heights
2.inversely proportional to distance between transmitter and receiver
3.directly proportional to frequency
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
3
B
2
C

123

124

125

1 and 3

Which of the following frequency bands fall under microwave frequency?

A

SHF and EHF

UHF

UHF and SHF

SHF and EHF

The gain of a TWT is proportional to_____

A

type of input and output

length of tube

no both A and B

none of the these

Large microwave power may be measured with the help of

A

Calorimeter

thermister

Bolometer

barreter

126

Microwave circuit impedance or admittance can be determined from

readings of
A
Maximum and minimum
B
VSWR
values of crystal current
C
Both (A) and (B) above
D
None of the above

127

Most of the power measuring microwave devices measure

128

Average power

Peak power

Instantaneous power

None of the above

The most fundamental method of frequency measurement is

A
C

129

With an absorption wave

meter
With a slotted line

With a slotted line

By comparison

In laboratory experiments the output from the Reflex Klystron are

modulated by square wave because
A
It is easy to generate a
B
Crystal diode operates in the
square wave
square law region of the V-I
characteristic
C
It prevents frequency
D
Detector circuit is less
modulation
complicated.

130

In order to couple two generators to a waveguide system without

coupling them to each other, one could not use
A
Rat-race
B
E-plane T
C

131

134

Magic T

An inter metallic compound

with particularly good
conductivity
A microwave semiconductor
invented by Faraday

A ferrite is
A

132

Hybrid ring

A non-conductor with
magnetic properties

An insulator which heavily

attenuates magnetic fields
A PIN diode is

A microwave mixer diode

Suitable for use as a

microwave switch.

A metal semiconductor
point-contact diode
C
Often used as a
microwave detector
A duplexer is used to
A

135

Couple two different

B
Allow the one antenna to be
antennas to a transmitter
used for reception or
without mutual
transmission without mutual
interference
interference
C
To prevent interference
D
To increase the speed of the
between two antennas
pulses in pulsed radar
when they are connected
to a receiver
For low attenuation, the best transmission medium is
A
C

136

138

Rectangular waveguide

Ridge waveguide

Coaxial line

A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic field and a radial

electric field. This is the
A
Reflex klystron
B
Coaxial magnetron
C

137

Flexible waveguide

Travelling wave tube

CFA

One of the reason why vacuum tubes eventually fail at microwave

frequencies is that their
A
Noise figure increases
B
Transit time becomes too
short
C
Shunt capacitive
D
Series inductive reactance
reactance become too
become too small
large
Te cavity magnetron uses strapping to

139

Prevent mode jumping

Ensure bunching

Prevent cathode back heating

Improve the phase focusing

effect
A magnetic field is used in the cavity magnetron to
A

140

Prevent anode current in

B
Ensure that the oscillation are
the absence of oscillations
pulsed
C
Help in focusing the
D
Ensure that the electrons will
electron beam, thus
orbit around the cathode.
preventing spreading
The primary purpose of the helix in a travelling wave tube is to
A

141

142

Prevent the electron

B
Reduce the axial velocity of
beam from spreading in
the RF field
the long tube
C
Ensure broad band
D
Reduce the noise figure.
operation
A backward wave oscillator is based on the
A

Rising sun magnetron

Cross Field Amplifier

Coaxial magnetron

Travelling wave tube

A Parametric amplifier must be cooled

A

143

Because parametric
B
amplification generates
lots of heat
C
Because it cannot operate D
at room temperature
A ruby maser amplifier must be cooled

To increase bandwidth

To improve the noise

performance

144

Because maser
B
To increase bandwidth
amplification generates
lots of heat
C
Because it cannot operate D
To improve the noise
at room temperature
performance
A Disadvantage of micro strip compared with strip line is that micro strip
A

145

Does not readily land itself

to printed circuit
techniques
Is bulkier

Is more likely to radiate

Micro strip

Electrical wave guide

Parallel wire Line

Strip Line

Is more expansive and

complex to manufacture
The Transmission system using two ground plane is

146

147

Surface acoustic waves propagates in

A

Gallium Arsenide

Indium Phosphide

Strip Line

Quartz Crystal

Filters

Transmission media like

Strip Line
UHF Amplifiers

Lower Noise

Saw Devices may be used as

A

148

Oscillator as millimetre
Frequencies
The biggest advantage of the TRAPATT Diode over the IMPATT Diode is its
Higher Efficiency

C
149

Ability to operate at
D
Lesser Sensitivity to
higher Frequencies
Harmonics
Indicate which of the following Diodes will Produce highest Pulse Power
Output
A
Varactor
B
Gunn
C

150

RIMPATT

IMPATT

Tunnel

One of the following microwave diode is suitable for Very low power
oscillators Only
A
Tunnel
B
Avalanche
C

152

Indicate which of the following Diodes does not use negative resistance in
its operation
A
Backward
B
Gunn
C

151

SCHOTTKY Barrier

Gunn

IMPATT

A Parametric Amplifier has an Input and Output Frequency of

2.25GHZ,and its pump at 4.5GHz.It is a
A
Travelling wave amplifier
B
Generative Amplifier
C

153

Lower Sideband UpD

Upper Sideband Up-Converter
Converter
A non degenerate a Parametric Amplifier has an input Frequency fi and a
Pump Frequency fp. The idler frequency is
A
fi
B
2fi
C

154

fi fp

fp fi

A Tunnel diode is loosely couple to its cavity in order to

A

Increase the Frequency

Stability

Increase the Available

negative resistance

C
155

Allow Operation at highest

frequency

The Negative resistance in a Tunnel Diode

A

156

Facilitate Tuning

Is maximum at the peak

B
point of the characteristics
Is maximum at valid point D

Is available between the peak

and valid points
C
Maybe improved by reverse
bias
Negative Resistance is obtained with a Gunn Diode because of
A

157

158

159

160

Electron Transfer to a less B

Avalanche breakdown with
mobile energy level
the high voltage gradient
C
Tunnelling across the
D
Electron domains forming at
junction
the junctions
For Gunn Diodes, Gallium Arsenide is Preferred to Silicon because the
former
A
Has a suitable empty
B
Has a higher ion mobility
energy band, which silicon
does not have
C
Has a lower noise at a
D
Is capable of handling higher
highest Frequencies
power densities.
The Ruby laser differs from the Ruby maser in that the former
A

Does not require pumping

Need no resonator

Is an Oscillator

Produces much more powers

The output from a laser is monochromatic : This means that it is

A

Infrared

Polarised

Narrow beam

Single Frequency

If the peak transmitted power in the radar system increases why a factor
of 16,maximum range will be increased by a factor of
A
2
B
4
C

161

16

If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increase by factor of 4,the

maximum range will be increased by a factor of
A
2
B
2
C

162

The Radar cross section of a target (indicate the false statement)

A
C

Depends on the frequency

used
Depends on the aspect of
a target, if this is non
spherical

B
D

Maybe reduced by the special

coating of the target
Is equal to the actual cross
sectional area for small targets

163

164

The If bandwidth of a radar receiver is inversely proportional to the

A

Pulse width

Pulse interval

Pulse repetition frequency

Square root of the peak

transmitted power
The biggest disadvantage of CW Doppler radar is that
A

165

Is does not give the target B

Is does not give the target
velocity
range
C
A transponder is required D
Is does not give the target
at target
position
A solution to the Blind Speed Problem is to
A
C

166

167

168

169

170

Vary the PRF

Use MTI

The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is the

A

Infinitesimal dipole

Isotropic antenna

Elementary doublet

Half wave dipole

Top loading is some time used with an antenna in order to increase its
A

Effective height

Bandwidth

Beam width

Input Capacitance

A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its

A

Circular Polarisation

Maneuverability

Broad bandwidth

Good front to back ratio

When the free space wavelength of a signal equal the cut off wavelength
of the guide (Indicate the false statement)
A
Group velocity of the
B
Phase velocity of the signals
signal become zero
becomes infinite
C
Characteristics impedance D
The wavelength within the
of the guide becomes
waveguide become infinite
infinite
A Signal Propagated in a waveguide has a full wave of electric intensity
change between the two further walls, and no components of the electric
filed in the direction of the propagation. The mode is
A
TE1,1
B
TE1,0
C

171

Change the Doppler

frequency
Use mono pulse

TM2,2

TE2,0

The square of the periodic time orbit is proportional to the cube of the
mean distance between the two bodies is the statement of

172

173

Keplers first law

Keplers second law

Keplers third law

None of the above

Dielectric lens act as

A

Directive antennas

Non-directive antennas

Diploes

Monopoles

If the mouth diameter of a parabolic antenna is 2.5m and if it is operating

at frequency of 10 GHz, the power gain in dB is
A
46.19
B
25
C

174

175

176

177

179

100

10

100

1000

A magnetic dipole is
A

A small circular loop

A piece of wire

A piece of conducting rod

The same as electric dipole

The normalised radiated power of a dipole is

A

1.5

sin2

1.64

The resonant frequency of a rectangular cavity of dimensions a= 3 cm,

b=2cm, d=4cm and operating in TE101 Mode is
A
6 GHz
B
6.25GHz
6.5GHz

6.75GHz

A directional coupler is a _________ Port Device.

A

The match load absorbs _______ incident Power upon it and reflects
_______.
A
NO,NO
B
NO,YES
C

180

The maximum gain of 100 element uniform linear array is

C
178

250

YES,NO

YES,YES

Radio detection and range

The term radar is an acronym for

A

Raster direction and

ranging

C
181

Radio direction and range

Both the amplitude &

phase
phase

182

Amplitude

None of these

IMPATT device has ____layers in order

A

p.n.i,p

n+,p,i,p+

n+,p,i,n+

P+.n.i,p+

Step recovery diode (select the correct statement)

A

Made of Si or GaAs

C
184

Stores the charge under

D
forward bias condition
Applications of Varactor diodes are
A
C

185

Range detection of radio wave

Coherent pulse Doppler radars measures_____ of radar echoes

A

183

Widely used in parametric

amplifier
Active filter

Also known as Snap-off

varactor diode
All of these

Harmonic generator

All of these

Which of the following microwave component has got the combined

characteristic of dielectric, ohmic and radiation losses?
A
Wave guide
B
Micro strip line
C

Coaxial line

Two wire parallel line

Q: 1

Which of the following is the binary representation of F03516 hexadecimal

number?
A
1111000000110111
B
1111000001110101
C

Q: 2

Q: 5

Q: 6

Q: 7

Q:8

1111100000110101

2B

2A

Which of the following is the decimal representation of 6B216 hexadecimal

number?
A
1512
B
1714
C

Q: 4

Which of the following is the hexadecimal representation of 4510 (decimal

number)?
A
2D
B
2C
C

Q: 3

1111000000110101

1514

1614

Perform hex subtraction of 59F 2B8 and the answer is _____.

A

2E7

2E9

2C7

2B7

Find 2s complement of 1001010 and the answer is _____.

A

0110110

0110111

0111110

0110101

M = 1010100 and N = 1000100, M N = _______.

A

10000

110000

100000

10001

M = 1000100 and N = 1010100, M N = _______.

A

1101111

-10000

-1101111

10000

The binary conversion of (0.6875)10 is _______.

A

0.0001

0.0101

0.1011

0.1110

Q:9

Q: 10

Q: 11

Q: 12

Q: 13

Q: 14

Q:15

Q:16

(41.6875)10 = __________________
A

(101001.1010)2

(101001.1011)2

(101000.1011)2

(101000.1011)2

(153.513)10 = __________________
A

(231.416517)8

(230.406517)8

(221.406517)8

(231.406517)8

(10110001101011.111100000110)2 = ________________
A

(26153.7416)8

(26163.7406)8

(26143.7406)8

(26153.7406)8

(10110001101011.11110010)2 = __________________
A

(2C6B.F2)16

(2C6B.F1)16

(2D6B.F2)16

(2C6A.F2)16

(306.D)16 = _________________
A

(001100000110.1100)2

(001100000111.1101)2

(001100000110.1101)2

(011100000110.1100)2

(673.124)8 = ________________
A

(110111011.001010100)2

(110111001.001010101)2

(110111011.001010101)2

(110111111.001010100)2

(11010011)2 + (1101111)2 = ____________

A

(001000010)2

(101000010)2

(101010010)2

(101000011)2

24 kilobytes = _________ bytes

A

24576

24000

24600

24500

Q: 17

Q: 18

ROM memory address map of AT89C51 with 4 KB of ROM is ________

A

0000 to 1FFFH

0000 to 0FFFH

0000 to 2FFFH

0000 to FFFFH

ROM memory address map of DS89C420 with 16 KB of ROM is

________
A
0000 to 1FFFH
B
0000 to 3FFFH
C

Q: 19

Q: 23

Q: 24

0000 to 6FFFH

0000 to 8FFFH

CY =1, AC = 1, P = 1

CY =1, AC = 0, P = 0

What is the content of PSW register after the execution following

instructions in the program for 8051 Microcontroller?
MOV A, #0BFH
ADD A, #1BH
A
40H
B
00H
C

Q: 22

0000 to 4FFFH

What is the status of the CY, AC, and P flags after the execution following
instructions in the program for 8051 Microcontroller?
MOV A, #9CH
ADD A, #64H
A
CY =1, AC = 1, P = 0
B
CY =0, AC = 1, P = 0
C

Q: 21

ROM memory address map of DS5000-32 with 32 KB of ROM is

________
A
0000 to FFFFH
B
0000 to 7FFFH
C

Q: 20

0000 to 2FFFH

41H

01H

Which of the following instruction can be used to select register bank3 in

8051 microcontroller?
A
CLR PSW.4
B
SETB PSW.4
SETB PSW.3
SETB PSW.3
C
CLR PSW.3
D
SETB PSW.3
CLR PSW.4
CLR PSW.4
Which bits of the PSW of 8051microcontroller are user-definable?
A

PSW.4 and PSW.5

PSW.4 and PSW.3

PSW.1 and PSW.3

PSW.1 and PSW.5

In 8051 microcontroller, the program counter is _____ bits wide.

A

12

20

16

Q: 25

Q: 26

Q: 27

Q: 28

Q: 29

________ is the number of I/O pins in 8051 microcontroller.

A

30

32

40

24

________ number of timers are available in 8051 microcontroller.

A

________ on-chip ROM is available in 8031 microcontroller.

A

4K

8K

16 K

0K

The size of stack pointer register in 8051 microcontroller is _______.

A

4 bits

8 bits

12 bits

16 bits

In 8051 microcontroller, with the execution of each PUSH instruction,

stack pointer register is ___________.
A
Incremented by 1
B
Decremented by 1
C

Q: 30

Decremented by 2

Incremented by 2

Decremented by 2

In 8051, on power-up, SP = _____ and the first RAM location used as a

stack ______.
A
7, 8
B
7, 6
C

Q: 32

In 8051 microcontroller, with the execution of each POP instruction, stack

pointer register is ___________.
A
Incremented by 1
B
Decremented by 1
C

Q: 31

Incremented by 2

8, 7

6, 7

In 8051, initially, the program counter is ______ when powered-up.

A

0001H

1000H

0000H

FFFFH

Q: 33

In 8051, the target address in SJMP instruction is within _____ to _____

bytes of memory location from the current address of program counter.
A
-127 to 128
B
-128 to 127
C

Q: 34

Q: 35

Q: 36

Q: 37

Q: 38

0 to 127

On execution of LCALL instruction in 8051, SP is _______.

A

Incremented by 2

Incremented by 1

Decremented by 2

Decremented by 1

On execution of RET instruction in 8051, SP is _______.

A

Incremented by 2

Incremented by 1

Decremented by 2

Decremented by 1

In 8051, ACALL is _______ instruction.

A

2 bytes

3 bytes

1 byte

4 bytes

For an 8051 system of 11.0592 MHz, how long it takes to execute one
machine cycle instruction? (Take 1 machine cycle = 12 clock periods)
A
10.85 s
B
0.1085 s
1.085 s

108.5 s

_____ and _____ ports provide address when 64 K bytes of external

memory is interfaced with 8031.
A
P0 and P2
B
P0 and P1
C

Q: 40

In 8051, LJMP (long jump) is ____ byte/s instruction.

C
Q: 39

0 to 256

P1 and P3

P1 and P2

Which 8051 port/s need pull-up resistors to function as I/O port?

A

P0 and P1

P0

P1 and P2

P1

Q: 41

In 8051, _____ and _____ pins port 3 can be used as RxD and TxD,
respectively.
A
P3.0, P3.1
B
P3.2 and P3.3
C

Q: 42

To copy C to P2.4

To copy CY to P2.4

MOV A, #25H

MOV A, 4

MOV A, #25H

MOV A, 4

MOV A, #25H

MOV A, 4

In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent register

indirect addressing mode?
A
MOV A, R0
B
MOV A, @R0
C

Q: 48

Input or output

In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent direct

addressing mode?
A
MOV A, R0
B
MOV A, @R0
C

Q: 47

In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent register

addressing mode?
A
MOV A, R0
B
MOV A, @R0
C

Q: 46

Neither input nor output

In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent

immediate addressing mode?
A
MOV A, R0
B
MOV A, @R0
C

Q: 45

P3.3 and P3.2

The function of following instruction in 8051 is _______.

MOV C, P2.4
A
Incorrect instruction
B
To copy status of P2.4 to CY
C

Q: 44

In 8051, the instruction JNB P2.5, HERE, assumes that bit P2.5 is an
______.
A
Output
B
Input
C

Q: 43

P3.1, P3.0

MOV A, #25H

MOV A, 4

In 8051, the meaning of MOV A, 7 is ________.

A

To copy R7 into A

Incorrect instruction

To load A with value 7

None of the above

Q: 49

In 8051, the meaning of MOV @R1, B is ________.

A

Q: 50

Copy contents of B into

B
Incorrect instruction
RAM location whose
address is held by R1
C
Copy contents of R1 into
D
Copy B into R1
RAM location whose
address is held by B
In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent
indexed addressing mode?
A
MOV A, R0
B
MOV A, @R0
C

Q: 51

Q: 52

Q: 53

Q: 54

Q: 55

MOVC A, @A+DPTR

In 8051, the instruction MOV A, 40H uses __________ addressing mode.

A

Immediate

Register

Register indirect

Direct

In 8051, the instruction MOV A, #40H uses __________ addressing mode.

A

Immediate

Register

Register indirect

Direct

In 8051, the instruction MOV A, R0 uses __________ addressing mode.

A

Immediate

Register

Register indirect

Direct

In 8051, the instruction MOV A, @R0 uses __________ addressing mode.

A

Immediate

Register

Register indirect

Direct

In 8051, out of 128 byte internal RAM, how many byte locations are bitaddressable?
A
128
B
16
C

Q: 56

MOV A, #25H

64

32

In 8051, which of the following instruction sets bit P0.6?

A

SETB 81H

SETB 80H

SETB 82H

SETB 86H

Q: 57

Q: 58

In which language, program are written in mnemonics?

A

Assembly language

Machine language

High-level language

None of the above

In 8085, instruction OUT 01H does ___________ on execution.

A

Q: 59

Displays program counter B

Displays accumulator content
content at port 01H
at port 01H
C
Displays register B content D
Displays register C content at
at port 01H
port 01H
In 8085, instruction ADD M does ___________ on execution.
A

Q: 60

Add the content of A with B

Add the content of A with that
that of memory location
of memory location pointed
pointed by HL register
by BC register pair
pair
C
Add the content of B with D
Add the content of A with that
that of memory location
of memory location pointed
pointed by HL register
by DE register pair
pair
In 8085, instruction XRI 6AH does ___________on execution.
A

Q: 61

Exclusive-OR 6AH with

B
Exclusive-OR 6AH with the
the contents of B
contents of A
C
Exclusive-OR 6AH with
D
Exclusive-OR 6AH with the
the contents of C
contents of D
In 8085, instruction JC 2025H does ___________on execution.
A

Q: 62

Change the program

B
Incorrect instruction
sequence to 2025H if the
carry flag is reset
C
Change the program
D
Change the stack pointer data
sequence to 2025H if the
to 2025H if the carry flag is set
carry flag is set
In 8085, instruction ANA M does ___________ on execution.
A

Logically AND the

contents of accumulator
with that of memory
location pointed by HL
register pair
Logically AND the
contents of register B with

Logically AND the contents of

accumulator with that of
memory location pointed by
BC register pair

Incorrect instruction

Q: 63

that of memory location

pointed by HL register
pair
In 8085, instruction CPI 4FH does ___________on execution.
A
C

Compare 4FH with the

contents of B
Compare 4FH with the
contents of C

B
D

Compare 4FH with the

contents of A
Incorrect instruction

Q: 64

In 8085, instruction SUI 7FH does ___________ on execution.

A

Q: 65

Subtract 7FH from the

B
Subtract 7FH from the
contents of A
contents of B
C
Subtract A from the
D
Subtract B from the contents
contents of 7FH
of 7FH
In 8085, instruction MOV B, M does ___________ on execution.
A

Q: 66

Copy the content of

B
Incorrect instruction
memory location pointed
by DE register into B
C
Copy the content of
D
Copy the content register B
memory location pointed
into the memory location
by HL register into B
pointed by HL register
In 8085, instruction DCX B does _____________ on execution.
A

Decrement the content of

register pair B

C
Q: 67

Decrement the content of

D
register B
In 8085, instruction SUB M does _____________ on execution.
A

Q: 68

Q: 69

Q: 70

Subtract the content of

memory location pointed
by BC register pair from
accumulator
C
Subtract the content of
memory location pointed
by DE register pair from
accumulator
8085 is _____ microprocessor.

Subtract the content of

memory location pointed by
HL register pair from
accumulator
Incorrect instruction

8-bit

16-bit

20-bit

10-bit

Which one of the following is valid register pair in 8085 microprocessor?

A

HD

BC

HE

BH

In 8085, ____________ address lines are multiplexed with data lines.

A

Q: 71

Decrement the content of

memory location pointed by
register pair B
Incorrect instruction

Higher-order eight address B

Higher-order four address lines
lines
C
Lower-order four address
D
Lower-order eight address
lines
lines
In 8085, ______________ control signal is used to de-multiplex address
lines from data lines.

ALE

S0

INTR

S1

Q: 72

Q: 73

Q: 74

Q: 75

Q: 76

Q: 77

Q: 78

Q: 79

In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for opcode fetch operation?

A

S1 = 1 and S0 = 1

S1 = 0 and S0 = 0

S1 = 1 and S0 = 0

S1 = 0 and S0 = 1

In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for memory read operation?

A

S1 = 1 and S0 = 1

S1 = 0 and S0 = 0

S1 = 1 and S0 = 0

S1 = 0 and S0 = 1

In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for memory write operation?

A

S1 = 1 and S0 = 1

S1 = 0 and S0 = 0

S1 = 1 and S0 = 0

S1 = 0 and S0 = 1

In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for I/O read operation?

A

S1 = 1, S0 = 1, IO / M = 1 B

S1 = 0, S0 = 0, IO / M = 1

S1 = 1, S0 = 0, IO / M = 1 D

S1 = 0, S0 = 1, IO / M = 1

In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for I/O write operation?

A

S1 = 1, S0 = 1, IO / M = 1

S1 = 0, S0 = 0, IO / M = 1

S1 = 1, S0 = 0, IO / M = 1 D

S1 = 0, S0 = 1, IO / M = 1

Which of the following interrupt has highest priority in 8085?

A

TRAP

RST 7.5

RST 5.5

RST 6.5

Which of the following is vectored interrupt in 8085?

A

HLDA

HOLD

RST 7.5

INTR

Which of the following signal/pin is used to interface slow-responding

peripheral with 8085 microprocessor?
A
HOLD
B
READY
C

RST 7.5

INTR

Q: 80

Q: 81

In 8085, MOV C, A instruction is executed in _________ T-states

_________ machine cycles.
A
7 T-states and 2 machine
B
10 T-states and 3 machine
cycles
cycles
C
4 T-states and 1 machine
D
13 T-states and 4 machine
cycle
cycle
AC flag in 8085 is set in arithmetic operation when ___________.
A

Q: 82

Q: 83

Q: 84

Q: 85

Carry is generated from D3 B

Carry is generated from D7 and
and passed on to D4
passed on to D0
C
Carry is generated from D4 D
Carry is generated from D6 and
and passed on to D5
passed on to D7
In 8085, MVI A, 32H instruction is executed in _________ T-states
_________ machine cycles.
A
7 T-states and 2 machine
B
10 T-states and 3 machine
cycles
cycles
C
4 T-states and 1 machine
D
13 T-states and 4 machine
cycle
cycle
S flag in 8085 is set in arithmetic/logical operation when ___________.
A

D6 comes out be 1

D7 comes out be 0

D6 comes out be 0

D7 comes out be 1

Z flag in 8085 is set when ALU operation results in ___________.

A

00H

AAH

11H

FFH

P flag in 8085 is set when arithmetic/logical operation results in

___________.
A
Even number of 1s
B
Odd number of 1s
C

Q: 86

Q: 87

D7 comes out be 1

D7 comes out be 0

In 8085, the instruction IN 84H requires __________ T-states and

_________ machine cycles.
A
7 T-states and 2 machine
B
10 T-states and 3 machine
cycles
cycles
C
4 T-states and 1 machine
D
13 T-states and 4 machine
cycle
cycle
Absolute address decoding technique results into _______ address/es for
each peripheral interfaced microprocessor/microcontroller.
A
Unique
B
Multiple
C

Infinite

Three

Q: 88

Partial address decoding technique results into _______ address/es for

each peripheral interfaced microprocessor/microcontroller.
A
Unique
B
Multiple
C

Q: 89

10

12

10

MOV M, B

STA

In memory-mapped I/O interfacing technique in 8085, which of the

following instruction can be used?
A
IN
B
OUT
C

Q: 93

12

In peripheral I/O interfacing technique in 8085, which of the following

instruction can be used?
A
IN
B
LDA
C

Q: 92

None of the above

In memory-mapped I/O interfacing technique in 8085, ________ address

pins can be used at most to generate address for peripheral/memory.
A
8
B
16
C

Q: 91

In peripheral I/O interfacing technique in 8085, ________ address pins can

be used at most to generate address for peripheral.
A
8
B
16
C

Q: 90

Infinite

STA

None of the above

In 8085, which interfacing technique permits arithmetic and logical

operations directly to be performed on data?
A
Peripheral I/O
B
Memory-mapped I/O
C

Q: 94

Peripheral and memoryD

None of the above
mapped I/O
In peripheral I/O interfacing technique in 8085, _____ input and _____
output devices can be connected at most.
A
255, 256
B
256, 255
C

Q: 95

256, 256

255, 255

In memory-mapped I/O interfacing technique in 8085, __________.

A
C

Memory map is shared

between I/Os and memory
Memory map is 0 to 64K

B
D

I/O map is independent of

memory
I/O map is 0 to 256

Q: 96

Q: 97

Q: 98

HLT instruction in 8085 is ________ byte instruction.

A

One

Two

Four

Three

NOP instruction in 8085 is ________ byte instruction.

A

One

Two

Four

Three

Which of the following statement can be said to be of the kind of indirect

addressing mode?
A
Pass the butter
B
Pass the bowl
C

Q: 99

Give me item no. 17 of

D
I will have what Manish has
menu
In 8085, if accumulator has FFH, carry flag (CY) equal to 0 and now,
INR A instruction is executed, which of the following is true?
A
S = 0, Z = 1, CY =1
B
S = 1, Z = 1, CY =1
C

S = 0, Z = 1, CY =0

S = 1, Z = 1, CY =0

Q:100 In 8085, if accumulator has FFH, carry flag (CY) equal to 0 and now,
ADI 01H instruction is executed, which of the following is true?
A
S = 0, Z = 1, CY =1
B
S = 1, Z = 1, CY =1
C

S = 0, Z = 1, CY =0

S = 1, Z = 1, CY =0

Q:101 In 8085, what is the position of carry flag in flag register?

A

D7

D6

D4

D0

Q:102 In 8085, what is the position of sign flag in flag register?

A

D7

D6

D4

D0

Q:103 In 8085, what is the position of zero flag in flag register?

A

D7

D6

D4

D0

Q:104 In 8085, what is the position of auxiliary carry flag in flag register?
A

D7

D6

D4

D0

Q:105 In 8085, what is the position of parity flag in flag register?

A

D2

D6

D4

D0

Q:106 Which of the following statement can be said to be of the kind of direct
addressing mode?
A
Pass the butter
B
Pass the bowl
C

Give me item no. 17 of

D
I will have what Manish has
menu
Q:107 Which of the following program can display FFH data on a port with
address 01H for 8085?
A
MVI C, FFH
B
MVI B, FFH
OUT 01H
OUT 01H
HLT
HLT
C
MVI D, FFH
D
MVI A, FFH
OUT 01H
OUT 01H
HLT
HLT
Q:108 The result of XRA A instruction for 8085 is _________.
A

00H

FFH

55H

Incorrect instruction

Q:109 Which logical operation is generally used to mask certain bits of

accumulator?
A
And operation
B
Or operation
C

NOT operation

XOR operation

Q:110 Which logical operation is generally used to set certain bits of

accumulator?
A
And operation
B
Or operation
C

NOT operation

XOR operation

Q:111 LXI H, 2050H instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.

A

H = 50H, L = 20H

Incorrect instruction

H = 20H, L = 50H

Data from 2050 H memory

location with copied to A

Q:112 LDAX B instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.

A

Incorrect instruction

Data from memory location

pointed by DE pair copied to
A
Data from register pair BC
copied to A

Data from memory

D
location pointed by BC
register pair copied to A
Q:113 LDAX D instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.
A

Incorrect instruction

Data from memory location

pointed by DE pair copied to
A
Data from register pair DE
copied to A

Data from memory

D
location pointed by DE
register pair copied to A
Q:114 STAX B instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.
A

Incorrect instruction

Data from memory location

pointed by DE pair copied to
A
Data from A copied into
register pair BC

Data from A copied into

D
memory location pointed
by BC register pair
Q:115 STAX D instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.
A

Incorrect instruction

Data from memory location

pointed by DE pair copied to
A
Data from A copied into
register pair DE

Data from A copied into

D
memory location pointed
by DE register pair
Q:116 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on
execution of RLC instruction?
A
D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0
B
D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0
C

D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1

D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1

Q:117 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on

execution of RAL instruction?
A
D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0
B
D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0
C

D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1

D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1

Q:118 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on

execution of RRC instruction?
A
D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0
B
D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0
C

D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1

D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1

Q:119 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on

execution of RAR instruction?
A
D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0
B
D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0
C

D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1

D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1

Q:120 In 8085, if data of accumulator and register B are same, on execution of

CMP B instruction results into __________.
A
Z flag set, CY flag reset
B
Z flag set, CY flag set
C

Z flag reset, CY flag set

Z flag reset, CY flag reset

Q:121 In 8085, if data of accumulator greater than that of register B, on execution

of CMP B instruction results into __________.
A
Z flag set, CY flag reset
B
Z flag set, CY flag set
C

Z flag reset, CY flag set

Z flag reset, CY flag reset

Q:122 In 8085, if data of accumulator greater than that of register B, on execution

of CMP B instruction results into __________.
A
Z flag set, CY flag reset
B
Z flag set, CY flag set
C

Z flag reset, CY flag set

Z flag reset, CY flag reset

Q:123 In 8085, instruction ANI 01H masks ________ bits.

A

D7 to D0

D7 to D1

D0

D1

Q:124 In 8085, instruction ANI 00H masks ________ bits.

A

D7 to D0

D7 to D1

D0

None of the bits

Q:125 In 8085, on execution of PUSH B instruction, SP is _________.

A

Decremented by 2

Decremented by 1

Incremented by 2

Incremented by 1

Q:126 In 8085, on execution of POP B instruction, SP is _________.

A

Decremented by 2

Decremented by 1

Incremented by 2

Incremented by 1

Q:127 In 8085, on execution of POP PSW instruction, SP is _________.

A

Decremented by 2

Decremented by 1

Incremented by 2

Incorrect instruction

Q:128 In 8085, if H = 20H and L = 50H, and execution of PUSH H is followed

with POP PSW. Which of the following is true in this case?
A
A = 50H, Flag register =
B
A = 20H, Flag register
20H
maintain previous state and not
affected
C
A = 20H, Flag register =
D
Accumulator and Flag
50H
registers maintain previous
state and not affected
Q:129 In 8085, on execution of CALL instruction, SP is _______.
A

Decremented by 2

Decremented by 1

Incremented by 2

Incremented by 1

Q:130 In 8085, on execution of RET instruction, SP is _______.

A

Decremented by 2

Decremented by 1

Incremented by 2

Incremented by 1

Q:131 In 8085, the meaning CNC is __________.

A

Incorrect instruction

Call subroutine if CY = 1

Call subroutine if CY = 0

Call subroutine
unconditionally

Q:132 In 8085, the meaning CM is __________.

A

Incorrect instruction

Call subroutine if S = 1

Call subroutine if S = 0

Call subroutine
unconditionally

Q:133 In 8085, the meaning CP is __________.

A

Incorrect instruction

Call subroutine if S = 0

AC

Call subroutine if S = 1

Call subroutine
unconditionally
Q:134 In 8085, DAA instruction uses _____ and _____ flags to perform decimal
adjustment of accumulator.
A
CY, AC
B
CY
CY, S

Q:135 In 8085, LHLD 2050H instruction does _______ on execution.

A

Loads data from memory

location 2050H to L and
2051H to H
Loads data from memory
location 2050H to H and
2051H to L

Copies L with 50H and H with

20H

Copies H with 50H and L with

20H

Q:136 In 8085, SHLD 2050H instruction does _______ on execution.

A

Stores data of H into

B
Copies L with 50H and H with
memory location 2050H
20H
and L into 2051H
C
Stores data of L into
D
Copies H with 50H and L with
memory location 2050H
20H
and H into 2051H
Q:137 In 8085, XCHG instruction does _______ on execution.
A

Content of HL and DE
B
Content of H and D registers
register pairs exchanged
exchanged
C
Content of HL and BC
D
Content of L and E registers
register pairs exchanged
exchanged
Q:138 In 8085, ADC B instruction does _______ on execution.
A

A = A + B + CY flag

B = A + B + CY flag

A=A+B

B=A+B

Q:139 In 8085, if HL register pair is cleared, DAD SP instruction does _______

on execution.
A
Clears SP
B
Places the content of SP in DE
C

Places the content of SP in D

Places the content of SP in BC
HL
Q:140 In 8085, instruction XTHL does _________ execution.
A

Contents of L exchanged
B
Contents of L exchanged with
with memory location
memory location pointed by
pointed by SP and H with
SP
memory location pointed
by SP + 1.
C
Contents of H exchanged
D
Contents of H exchanged with
with memory location
memory location pointed by
pointed by SP and L with
SP
memory location pointed
by SP + 1.
Q:141 Which instruction in 8085 is used to complement carry flag?
A

CMA

STC

CMC

None of the above

Q:142 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to set carry flag?

A

CMA

STC

CMC

None of the above

Q:143 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to copy H and L registers in the

program counter?

SPHL

PCHL

XCHG

None of the above

Q:144 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to copy H and L registers in the

program counter?
A
SPHL
B
PCHL
C

XCHG

None of the above

Q:145 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to enable interrupt?

A

EI

DI

RIM

None of the above

Q:146 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to disable interrupt?

A

EI

DI

RIM

None of the above

Q:147 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to read pending interrupt requests?

A

EI

DI

RIM

None of the above

Q:148 What is the use of SIM instruction in 8085?

A
C

To enable/disable RST
7.5, 6.5, 5.5
To enable TRAP

B
D

To read pending interrupt

requests
To enable INTR interrupt

Q:149 What is the use of 8259A?

A

Programmable
keyboard/display interface
C
Programmable interrupt
controller
Q:150 What is the use of 8279?
A

Programmable
keyboard/display interface
C
Programmable interrupt
controller
Q:151 What is the use of 8155?
A
C

Programmable
keyboard/display interface
Programmable interrupt
controller

B
D

B
D

B
D

Programmable I/O ports and

timer
Direct memory access
controller
Programmable I/O ports and
timer
Direct memory access
controller
Programmable I/O ports and
timer
Direct memory access
controller

Q:152 What is the use of 8237?

A

Programmable
keyboard/display interface
C
Programmable interrupt
controller
Q:153 What is the use of 8255A?
A

Programmable
keyboard/display interface
C
Programmable interrupt
controller
Q:154 What is the use of 8253?

B
D

B
D

Programmable I/O ports and

timer
Direct memory access
controller
Programmable peripheral
interface
Direct memory access
controller

Programmable
B
Programmable interval timer
keyboard/display interface
C
Programmable interrupt
D
Direct memory access
controller
controller
Q:155 Which port in 8255A can be used as individual pins or grouped in two 4bit ports?
A
Port A
B
Port B
C

Port A and Port B

Port C

Q:156 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to output data serially through SOD
line?
A
SIM
B
RIM
C

DI

EI

Q:157 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to input data serially through SOD
line?
A
SIM
B
RIM
C

DI

EI

Q:158 8086 is _______ bits microprocessor.

A

16

10

20

Q:159 The memory addressing capacity of 8086 is ________.

A

220 bytes

216 bytes

212 bytes

210 bytes

Q:160 8086 can address a physical memory with address ranging from _______
to ________.
A
0000H, FFFFH
B
00000H, FFFFFH
C

000H, FFFH

000000H, FFFFFFH

Q:161 What is the maximum size of data segment in 8086?

A

16K

64K

32K

1M

Q:162 In 8086, base address is shifted ______ by _______ bits in the process of
generating physical address.
A
Right, 4
B
Left, 4
C

Right, 8

Left, 8

Q:163 In 8086, BIU performs the address calculation to fetch instruction from
memory using ______ and _______ registers.
A
DS, DI
B
SS, SP
C

ES, SI

CS, IP

Q:164 In 8086, stack physical address is calculated using ______ and _______
registers.
A
DS, DI
B
SS, SP
C

ES, SI

CS, IP

Q:165 In 8086, which of the following register/s is/are used as offset register/s
with DS to generate physical address?
A
IP
B
BX
C

DI

BX, DI, SI

Q:166 In 8086, which of the following register/s is/are used as offset register/s
with ES to generate physical address?
A
IP
B
BX
C

DI

BX, DI, SI

Q:167 In 8086, if DS = 345BH and data segment length to be 12K bytes, what is
the physical address range for data segment?
A
345B0H to 365B0H
B
345B0H to 385B0H
C

345B0H to 375B0H

345B0H to 355B0H

Q:168 In 8086, if CS = 1111H and IP = 1232H, calculate the physical address for
the addressed byte in code segment.
A
12342H
B
11110H
C

23430H

01232H

Q:169 In 8086, if SS = 2526H, IP = 1232H, and SP = 1100H, calculate the

physical address for the addressed byte in stack segment.
A
26580H
B
36260H
C

26360H

37580H

Q:170 In 8086, if SS = 2526H, DS = 3333H, IP = 1232H, DI = 0020H, and SP =

1100H, calculate the physical address for the addressed byte in data
segment.
A
33350H
B
26350H
C

26580H

37580H

Q:171 We can have _______ logical address/es for the given physical address in
8086
A
Only one
B
Only two
C

Only three

One or more than one

Q:172 In 8086, instruction MOV AX, [2345H] represents _______ addressing

mode.
A
Register
B
Immediate
C

Direct

Register indirect

Q:173 In 8086, instruction MOV AL, [BX] represents _______ addressing mode.
A

Register

Immediate

Direct

Register indirect

Q:174 In 8086, instruction MOV BX, 34E3H represents _______ addressing

mode.
A
Register
B
Immediate
C

Direct

Register indirect

Q:175 In 8086, instruction MOV DS, 2300H represents _______ addressing

mode.
A
Register
B
Immediate
C

Direct

Incorrect instruction

Q:176 In 8086, for the instruction MOV AL, 5[SI][BP], the effective address is
_______.
A
5 + BP + SI
B
SI
C

BP + SI

BP

Q:177 In 8086, the instruction MOV AL, 5[SI][BP] represents ___________

addressing mode.
A
Register relative
B
Based indexed
C

Relative based indexed

None of the above

Q:178 Which one of the following statements is true for the instruction MOV
DS: [BP + 7], BL for 8086?
A
DS to be used instead of
B
SS to be used instead of DS
SS
C
DS to be used instead of
D
DS to be used instead of ES
CS
Q:179 Which one of the following statements is true for the instruction MOV
AX, CS:[BX] for 8086?
A
CS to be used instead of
B
DS to be used instead of CS
SS
C
CS to be used instead of
D
SS to be used instead of CS
DS
Q:180 In 8086, the flag is ______ bits register.
A

16

12

10

Q:181 In 8086, how many bits of flag register are used as control flags?
A

Q:182 In 8086, how many bits of flag register are unused?

A

Q:183 In 8086, how many bits of flag register are used as conditional flags?
A

Q:184 In 8086, after the execution of following instruction, find the status of CF
(carry flag) and S (sign flag).
MOV AL, 35H
ADD AL, 0CEH
A
CF = 0, S = 0
B
CF = 1, S = 1
C

CF = 0, S = 1

CF = 1, S = 0

Q:185 In 8086, for near jump instruction, which of the following is true?
A
C

New IP = Current IP + 16bit offset

New IP = 16-bit offset

B
D

New IP = Current IP + 8-bit

offset
New IP = 8-bit offset

Q:186 In 8086, for short jump instruction, which of the following is true?
A
C

New IP = Current IP + 16bit offset

New IP = 16-bit offset

B
D

New IP = Current IP + 8-bit

offset
New IP = 8-bit offset

Q:187 In 8086, instruction JMP BX does ______ on execution.

A

CS = BX

IP = BX

IP = IP + BX

Incorrect instruction

Q:188 In 8086, instruction JMP SI does ______ on execution.

A

DS = SI

IP = SI

IP = IP + SI

Incorrect instruction

Q:189 In 8086, the instruction LOOP label does _______ on execution.

A

CX is decremented and
B
BX is decremented and loop is
loop is exited if CX = 0
exited if BX = 0
C
CX is incremented and
D
BX is incremented and loop is
loop is exited if CX = 0
exited if BX = 0
Q:190 In 8086, the instruction INC [BX] does _________ on execution.
A

BX = BX + 1

BL = BL + 1

Add 1 to the content of

D
Incorrect instruction
memory location pointed
by BX
Q:191 In 8086, the instruction ADC AX, [BX][SI] does ________ on execution.
A
C

AX + CF + (the data with

EA = BX + SI)
AX + (the data with EA =
BX + SI)

B
D

AX + CF + (the data with EA

= BX)
AX + CF + (the data with EA
= SI)

Q:192 In 8086, the instruction SUB CL, BYTE PTR [SI] does ________ on
execution.
A
CX (Byte pointed by SI) B
CL (Byte pointed by SI)
C

CL (Byte pointed by SI) D

Incorrect instruction
CF
Q:193 In 8086, the instruction SBB CH, 7 does ________ on execution.
A

CH 7

CL 7

CH 7 CF

Incorrect instruction

Q:194 In 8086, the instruction DEC WORD [SI] does __________ on execution.
A

Incorrect instruction

(Word pointed by SI) 1

(Byte pointed by SI) 1

(Word pointed by SI) 2

Q:195 For the instruction MUL BL in 8086, the content of BL is multiplied with
___________ and the result is stored in ___________.
A
AL, AX
B
AX, AX
C

AH, AX

None of the above

Q:196 For the instruction MUL CX in 8086, the content of CX is multiplied with
___________ and the result is stored in ___________.
A
AX, DX
B
AX, DX and AX
C

AX, AX

None of the above

Q:197 For the instruction DIV BYTE PTR [BX], the result on execution is
__________.
A
Data in AX is divided by
B
Data in AL is divided by the
the word pointed by BX
byte pointed by BX
C
Data in AH is divided by
D
Data in AX is divided by the
the byte pointed by BX
byte pointed by BX
Q:198 For the instruction DIV WORD PTR [SI], the result on execution is
__________.
A
Double word data in AXB
Double word data in DX-AX
DX is divided by the
is divided by the word pointed
word pointed by SI
by SI
C
Incorrect instruction
D
Data in AX is divided by the
word pointed by SI
Q:199 TEST dest, src instruction in 8086 does __________ on execution.
A

Performs a logical AND of B

the two operands updating
the flag register without
saving the result
Performs a logical OR of
D
the two operands updating

Performs a logical XOR of the

two operands updating the flag
register without saving the
result
Performs a logical AND of the
two operands updating the flag

the flag register without

saving the result

register and saving the result

Q:200 In 8086, if AH = 00H, BL = 5EH, then the result of TEST AH, BL is

__________.
A
Zero flag is set
B
Zero flag is reset
C

Incorrect instruction

Zero flag not affected

Q:201 In 8086, if AL = 8CH, CH = 67H, then the result of XOR AL, CH is

__________.
A
EBH
B
EAH
C

FBH

FAH

Q:202 In 8086, the instruction SHL BX, 1 does on execution ___________.

A

Content of BX is shifted
B
Content of BX is shifted left
left logical by two position
arithmetic by two position
C
Content of BX is shifted
D
Content of BX is shifted left
left logical by one position
arithmetic by one position
Q:203 In 8086, the instruction SAL AL, CL does on execution ___________.
A

Content of AL is shifted
B
Content of AL is shifted right
left arithmetic by the count
arithmetic by the count
specified in CL
specified in CL
C
Content of AL is shifted
D
Content of AL is shifted right
left logical by the count
logical by the count specified
specified in CL
in CL
Q:204 In 8086, which instruction does rotate through carry left?
A

SHR

RCL

ROL

RCR

Q:205 In 8086, which instruction does rotate through carry right?

A

SHR

RCL

ROL

RCR

Q:206 In 8086, which instruction does rotate right not through carry?
A

ROR

RCL

ROL

RCR

Q:207 In 8086, which instruction does rotate left not through carry?
A

ROR

RCL

ROL

RCR

Q:208 In 8086, which control flag is set or reset to decrement or increment

pointer registers in string operations?
A
DF
B
TF
C

CF

IF

Q:209 In 8086, which register is loaded with the count value in string operations?
A

BX

CX

DX

AX

Q:210 In 8086, MOVSB instruction does ____________ on execution.

A

Data in the location

B
Data in the location pointed by
pointed by SI to be moved
DI to be moved to the location
to the location pointed by
pointed by SI, CX = CX 1,
DI, CX = CX 1, SI = SI
SI = SI + 1, DI = DI + 1
+ 1, DI = DI + 1
C
Data in the location
D
Data in the location pointed by
pointed by SI to be moved
SI to be moved to the location
to the location pointed by
pointed by DI, CX = CX 1
DI
Q:211 In 8086, REPE CMPSB instruction does __________ on execution.
A

Compares string pointed

by SP and BP byte by byte
and update ZF
Compares string pointed
by SI and DI byte by byte

Compares string pointed by SI

and BP byte by byte and
update ZF
C
D
Compares string pointed by SI
and DI byte by byte and
update ZF
Q:212 In 8086, for SCASB instruction, the string to be scanned has to be in
__________ and is to be pointed by ___________.
A
Extra, DI
B
Data, SI
C

Extra, SI

Data, DI

Q:213 In 8086, for STOSW instruction, the memory where the data/string to be
stored has to be in __________ and is to be pointed by ___________.
A
Extra, DI
B
Data, SI
C

Extra, SI

Data, DI

Q:214 In 8086, for LODSW instruction, the destination register is _________.

A

AL

AH

SI

AX

Q:215 In 8086, after the execution of following instructions, what will be the
result in AL?
MOV AL, 5

ADD AL, 4
AAA
A
AL = 69H

AL = 09H

AL = 39H

AL = 0AH

Q:216 In 8086, after the execution of following instructions, what will be the
result in AL?
MOV AL, 7
ADD AL, 6
AAA
A
AL = 13
B
AH = 01 AL = 03
C

AL = 6DH

AH = 03 AL = 01

Q:217 In 8086, which instruction is used for ASCII adjust AX after

multiplication?
A
AAM
B
AAA
C

AAD

AAS

Q:218 In 8086, which instruction is used for ASCII adjust AL after addition?
A

AAM

AAA

AAD

AAS

Q:219 In 8086, which instruction is used for ASCII adjust AL after

subtraction?
A
AAM
B
AAA
C

AAD

AAS

Q:220 In 8086, which instruction is used for ASCII adjust AX before division?
A

AAM

AAA

AAD

AAS

Q:221 In 8086, I/O addresses are limited to _________ bits for IN and OUT
instructions.
A
8
B
16
C

12

20

Q:222 In 8086, the instruction IN AX, 67H does ____________ on execution.

A

Gets 16-bit data into AX

B
Gets 8-bit data into AL from
from port with address
port with address 67H
67H
C
Gets 8-bit data into AH
D
None of the above
from port with address
67H
Q:223 In 8086, the instruction CBW does ___________ on execution.
A
C

Copies D7 bit of AL to all

the bits of AH
Copies D7 bit of BL to all

B
D

Copies D7 bit of AH to all the

bits of AL
Copies D7 bit of BH to all the

the bits of BH

bits of BL

Q:224 In 8086, the instruction CWD does ___________ on execution.

A

Copies D15 bit of AX to all B

Copies D15 bit of DX to all the
the bits of DX
bits of AX
C
Copies D15 bit of BX to all D
Copies D15 bit of CX to all the
the bits of CX
bits of BX
Q:225 In 8086, instruction IN AX, 12H does ________ on execution.
A

Copies 12H into AX

Copies 16-bit data from port

with address 12H into AX
C
Copies 12H into AL
D
Copies 8-bit data from port
with address 12H into AX
Q:226 In 8086, instruction IN AL, 45H does ________ on execution.
A

Copies 45H into AL

16

12

20

Copies 16-bit data from port

with address 45H into AX
C
Copies 45H into AH
D
Copies 8-bit data from port
with address 45H into AL
Q:227 8086 has _____ address lines multiplexed with data lines.

Q:228 Status lines S3 = _______ and S4 = _________ in 8086 if the current

segment in use is data segment.
A
1, 1
B
0, 0
C

1, 0

0, 1

Q:229 Status lines S4 = _______ and S3 = _________ in 8086 if the current

segment in use is code segment.
A
1, 1
B
0, 0
C

1, 0

0, 1

Q:230 Status lines S4 = _______ and S3 = _________ in 8086 if the current

segment in use is stack segment.
A
1, 1
B
0, 0
C

1, 0

0, 1

Q:231 Status lines S4 = _______ and S3 = _________ in 8086 if the current

segment in use is extra segment.
A
1, 1
B
0, 0
C

1, 0

0, 1

Q:232 In 8086, _________ and __________ signals are connected with direct
memory access.
A
HOLD, INTR
B
HOLD, HLDA
C
Q:233

Q:234

INTR, READY

DT / R is ______ in transmit and ________ in receive for 8086.

A

1, 0

0, 1

0, 0

1, 1

M / IO is ______ for I/O access and ________ for memory access in

8086.
A
1, 0
B
0, 1
C

Q:235

HLDA, INTR

0, 0

1, 1

RD is ______ for read operation and WR ________ for write operation

in 8086.
A
1, 0
B
0, 1
C

0, 0

1, 1

Q:236 In 8086, TEST pin tested by the _________ instruction and tested
instruction becomes _______ instruction when TEST pin is logic _____.
A
WAIT, NOP, 1
B
NOP, WAIT, 1
C

WAIT, NOP, 0

NOP, WAIT, 0

Q:237 In 8086, _______ is used for interrupt request and ________ is used for
interrupt acknowledge.
A
B
INTR , INTA
INTR , HLDA
C

INTR, INTA

INTA , INTR

Q:238 ________ signal/pin is used to enable high memory bank of the data bus in
8086.
A
B
BHE / S 7
BHE / S 7
C

BHE / S 7

BHE/S7

Q:239 ________ states are inserted when _________ pin is __________ in 8086.
A

WAIT, READY, 0

READY, WAIT, 0

WAIT, READY, 1

READY, WAIT, 1

Q:240 If the operating frequency of 8086 is 10 MHz and for the given
instruction, if machine cycle consists of 4-T states, what is time taken by
machine cycle to complete execution of that instruction?
A
4 s
B
0.4 s
C

40 s

1 s

Q:241 If the operating frequency of 8086 is 10 MHz and for the given
instruction, if machine cycle consists of 4-T states, what is time taken by
machine cycle to complete execution of that instruction when three wait
states are inserted?
A
0.7 s
B
0.4 s
C

70 s

7 s

Q:242 Which pin in 8086 microprocessor is used for maximum mode?

A

MN / MX

MN / MX

MN / MX

MN/MX

Q:243 Which pin in 8086 is used to prevent other bus masters from accessing the
bus?
A
B
LOCK
TEST
C

DEN

None of the above

Q:244 How many minimum address pins are required to be connected/decoded to

interface 2K X 8 memory chip with microprocessor? Assume chip select is
permanently connected to the desired voltage level.
A
13 pins
B
10 pins
C

12 pins

11 pins

Q:245 8086 microprocessor has _________ interrupts.

A

Hardware, software

Software

2.33

Hardware

Hardware, software, and error

generated
Q:246 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the
value of c?
int a =7, b = 3, c;
c = a %b;
A
1
B
2
None of the above

Q:247 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of c?
int a =7, b = 3, c;
c = a/b;

2.33

None of the above

Q:248 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of y?
int k; float x, y; x =8; k = 3;
y = x * (k/4);
A
0
B
6.0
C

8.0

None of the above

Q:249 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of y?
int k; float x, y; x =8; k = 3;
y = (x * k)/4;
A
0
B
6.0
C

8.0

None of the above

Q:250 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of x and y?
int x = 6, y = 8;
y = x++;
A
7, 6
B
7, 7
C

6, 7

7, 8

Q:251 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of x and y?
int x = 6, y = 8;
y = ++x;
A
7, 6
B
7, 7
C

6, 7

7, 8

Q:252 What is the meaning of statement p = z++ in c-language?

A

p = z + 1, z = z + 1

p = z + 1, z = z

p = z, z = z + 1

p = z, z = z

Q:253 What is the meaning of statement p = ++z in c-language?

A

p = z + 1, z = z + 1

p = z + 1, z = z

p = z, z = z + 1

p = z, z = z

Q:254 What is the meaning of statement p += z in c-language?

A

p = z;

p = p + z;

p = p * z;

Incorrect statement

Q:255 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of variable sum?
int n=123, sum=0, digit;

while (n!=0)
{
digit = n %10; sum += digit; n = n/10;
}
A

123

Q:256 In c-language, which looping statement does execute at least once?

A

Do While

While

For

None of the above

Q:257 In c-language, the statement int a[20][20] results into variable a with
_________ number of total elements?
A
40
B
20
C

400

None of the above

Q:258 In c-language, the statement int a[20][20] results into variable a with 1st
index ranging from ____ to ____ and 2nd index ranging from _____ to
_____?
A
0, 19, 0, 19
B
1, 20, 1, 20
C

1, 19, 1, 19

0, 20, 0, 20

Q:259 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to

be of integer type in c-language?
A
scanf(%d, a)
B
scanf(%d, &a)
C

scanf(%ld, &a)

scanf(%f, &a)

Q:260 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to

be of float type in c-language?
A
scanf(%d, a)
B
scanf(%d, &a)
C

scanf(%ld, &a)

scanf(%f, &a)

Q:261 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to

be of long integer type in c-language?
A
scanf(%d, a)
B
scanf(%d, &a)
C

scanf(%ld, &a)

scanf(%f, &a)

Q:262 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to

be of double type in c-language?
A
scanf(%d, a)
B
scanf(%d, &a)
C

scanf(%lf, &a)

scanf(%f, &a)

Q:263 Which statement in c-language is used to proceed with the next value of
iterative variable in for statement?
A
Break
B
Continue
C

Exit

None of the above

Q:264 Which statement in c-language is normally used to prevent from

continuing from one case to another case in switch statement?
A
Break
B
Continue
C

Exit

None of the above

Q:265 How can we declare an integer pointer variable (e.g. y) in c-language?

A

int *y;

int y;

int &y;

None of the above

Q:266 In c-language, how can we point an integer pointer variable (e.g. y) to

point to integer variable (e.g. x)?
A
y = x;
B
y = &x;
C

y = *x;

None of the above

Q:267 In c-language, how can we access the value from a pointer variable (e.g. y)
and can assign it to another variable z?
A
z = *y;
B
z = &y;
C

z = y;

None of the above

Q:268 In c-language, array variable name points to _____ element of the array?
A

Last

1st

Middle

None of the above

Q:269 In c-language, if a and b are integer variable, what will be the result on
execution of following statement?
a = *(&b);
A
Incorrect statement
B
Values of a and b are same
C

a is assigned with address D

Values of a and b are not same
of b
Q:270 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of following
statements?
x = 5; y = 10;
max = (x > y) ? x : (x+y);
A
max = 10
B
max = 5
C

max = 15

Incorrect statement

Q:271 In c-language, file can be opened in _______ mode/s?

A

Read,

Write

Append

All of the above

Q:272 In c-language, how can we declare file pointer?

A

FILE *fp;

FILE fp;

FILE &fp;

None of the above

Q:273 In c-language, what is the effect on execution of following statements?

FILE *fp;
fp = fopen(sample.dat,r );
A
Declares file pointer
B
Declares file pointer variable
variable fp
fp and opens file sample.dat
in read mode
C
Declares file pointer
D
None of the above
variable fp and opens file
sample.dat in write
mode
Q:274 In c-language, what is the effect on execution of following statements?
FILE *fp;
fp = fopen(sample.dat,r );
A
Declares file pointer
B
Declares file pointer variable
variable fp
fp and opens file sample.dat
in read mode
C
Declares file pointer
D
None of the above
variable fp and opens file
sample.dat in write
mode
Q:275 In c-language, what is the effect on execution of following statements?
FILE *fp;
fp = fopen(sample.dat,a );
A
Declares file pointer
B
Declares file pointer variable
variable fp
fp and opens file sample.dat
in read mode
C
Declares file pointer
D
Declares file pointer variable
variable fp and opens file
fp and opens file sample.dat
sample.dat in write
in append mode
mode
Q:276 In c-langauge, which statement is used to read from a file?
A

scanf

fscanf

fopen

None of the above

Q:277 In c-langauge, which statement is used to write into a file?

A

printf

fprintf

fopen

None of the above

Q:278 In c-language, how can we verify the successful opening of a file?

Comparing file pointer

B
Comparing file pointer with
with EOF
EXIT
C
Comparing file pointer
D
None of the above
with NULL
Q:279 In c-langauge, which file function is used to position the file pointer to the
start of the file?
A
rewind
B
fclose
C

fgets

None of the above

Q:280 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of integer
variable?
A
1
B
2
C

Q:281 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of double
variable?
A
1
B
2
C

Q:282 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of float
variable?
A
1
B
2
C

Q:283 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of char
variable?
A
1
B
2
C

Q:284 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for integer variable?
A

0 to 255

0 to 65535

-32768 to 32767

None of the above

Q:285 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for unsigned integer
variable?
A
0 to 255
B
0 to 65535
C

-32768 to 32767

None of the above

Q:286 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for unsigned char
variable?
A
0 to 255
B
0 to 65535
C

-32768 to 32767

None of the above

Q:287 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for char variable?
A

0 to 255

0 to 65535

-128 to 127

None of the above

Q:288 In c-language, compiler automatically assigns _____ to first value in

enumerated data type.
A
0
B
1
C

None of the above

Q:289 Which of the following is/are storage classes available in c-language?

A

Register, auto

Static

Extern

Register, auto, static, extern

Q:290 Which of the following is the valid statement to define constant in clanguage?
A
define MAX 100
B
#define MAX 100
C

# define MAX 100

#define MAX 100;

Q:291 Which one of the following is bitwise shift left operator in c-language?
A

&

<<

>>

Q:292 Which one of the following is bitwise exclusive OR operator in clanguage?

A
&
B
<<
C

>>

Q:293 In c-language, find the value of x on execution of following statements.

float a, b, c, x;
a = 9; b = 12; c =3;
x = a b/3 + c*2 1;
A
10.0

7.0

None of the above

4.0

Q:294 In c-language, find the value of x on execution of following statements.

float a, b, c, x;
a = 9; b = 12; c =3;
x = a b/(3 + c)*(2 1);
A
10.0

7.0

None of the above

4.0

Q:295 In c-language, find the value of x on execution of following statements.

float a, b, c, x;
a = 9; b = 12; c =3;
x = a (b/(3 + c)*2) 1;

10.0

7.0

4.0

None of the above

Q:296 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of following

statements?
int a;
a = (int)21.3/(int)4.5;
A

4.73

5.25

None of the above

Q:297 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of following

statements?
int x;
float y = 27.6;
x = (int)(y + 0.5);
A

28.1

28

27

None of the above

Q:298 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of the following

statements?
for(x=9; x<9 ; x = x 1)
printf(%d, x);
A
printf will never be
B
printf will be executed infinite
executed
times
C
printf will be executed one D
printf will be executed 10
time
times
Q:299 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of the following
statements?
for(x=9; x>=0 ; x = x 1)
printf(%d, x);
A
printf will never be
B
printf will be executed infinite
executed
times
C
printf will be executed one D
printf will be executed 10
time
times
Q:300 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of the following
statements?
for(j=1000; j > 0; j = j 1);
printf(%d, j);
A
printf will never be
executed
C
printf will be executed one
time

B
D

printf will be executed infinite

times
printf will be executed 1000
times

Determine the values of A, B, C that make the sum term A'+ B' +C equal to 0.
A A=0, B=1,C=0

B A=1, B=0,C=0

C A=1, B=1,C=0

D A=1, B=1,C=1

X+X.Y =.
A X

B 1+Y

C Y

D None of these

The circuit shown in Figure represents _________ gate.

A AND.

B NAND.

C OR.

D NOR.

CMOS logic has the property of

A increased capacitance and delay.

B decreased area.

C high noise margin.

D low static power dissipation.

For a 12-bit flash ADC, the number of comparators required are

A 4097

B 2047

C 4095

D None of these

A 32 to 1 multiplexer has the following features.

A 32 outputs, one input and 5 control signals

B 32 inputs, one output and 5 control signals

C 5 inputs, one control signal and 32 outputs

D 5 inputs,32 control signal and one outputs

Given a MOD-12 ripple counter using a J-K flip-flop. If the clock frequency to the counter is 40 KHZ ,
then the output frequency of the counter is.
A 40 khz

B 12 khz

C 3.33 khz

D None of these

The exact number of flip flops requierd to construct a MOD 10 counter is

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A 5

B 10

C 2

D 4

The number of address bits needed to operate a 2K 8-bit RAM are:

A 9

B 11

C 15

D 25

10 A one-to-sixteen demultiplexer requires

A 2 select input line

B 4 select input line

C 5 select input line

D 8 select input line

11 EPROM contents can be erased by exposing it to

12

A Infrared rays.

B Ultraviolet rays.

C Burst of microwaves

D None of these

The Gray code for decimal number 6 is equivalent to

A 1100

B 1001

C 0101

D 0110
13 The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are at logic 0. the gate is either
A a NAND or an EX-OR

B an OR or an EX-NOR

C an AND or an EX-OR

D a NOR or an EX-NOR

14 The speed of conversion is maximum in

A Successive-approximation A/D converter.

B Parallel-comparative A/D converter.

C Counter ramp A/D converter.

D Dual-slope A/D converter.

15 When simplified with Boolean Algebra (x + y)(x + z) simplifies to

A x

B x + x(y + z)

C x(1 + yz)

D x + yz

16 The gates required to build a half adder are

A EX-OR gate and NOR gate

B EX-OR gate and OR gate

C EX-OR gate and AND gate

D Four NAND gates.

17 The code where all successive numbers differ from their preceding number by single bit is
A Binary code.

B BCD.

C Excess 3

D Gray.

18 If the input to T-flipflop is 100 Hz signal, the final output of the three T-flipflops in cascade is

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A 1000 Hz

B 500 Hz

C 333 Hz

D 12.5 Hz.

19
For which of the following ip-ops, the output is clearly dened for all combinaMons oftwo inputs.
A D type flip-flop.

B R-S flip-flop.

C J-K flip-flop.

D none of these

20 The digital logic family which has the lowest propagation delay time is
A ECL

B TTL

C CMOS

D PMOS

21 In digital ICs, Schottky transistors are preferred over normal transistors because of their
A Lower Propagation delay.

B Higher Propagation delay.

C Lower Power dissipation.

D Higher Power dissipation.

22 Which TTL logic gate is used for wired ANDing

A Open collector output

B Totem Pole

C Tri state output

D ECL gates

23 Advanced Low Power Schottky is a part of

A ECL family

B TTL family

C CMOS family

D None of these

24 Shifting a register content to left by one bit position is equivalent to

A division by two.

B addition by two.

C multiplication by two.

D subtraction by two.

25 How many two-input AND and OR gates are required respectively to realize Y=CD+EF+G
A 2,2.

B 2,3.

C 3,3.

D none of these.

26 Which of following can not be accessed randomly

A DRAM.

B SRAM.

C ROM.

D Magnetic tape.

27 Karnaugh map is used for the purpose of

A Reducing the electronic circuits used.

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B To map the given Boolean logic function.

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To minimize the terms in a Boolean

expression.

To maximize the terms of a given Boolean

expression.

28 A full adder logic circuit will have

A Two inputs and one output.

B Three inputs and three outputs.

C Two inputs and two outputs.

D Three inputs and two outputs.

29 The information in ROM is stored

A By the user any number of times.
C By the user using ultraviolet light.

B By the manufacturer during fabrication of the

device.
D By the user once and only once.

30 A weighted resistor digital to analog converter using N bits requires a total of

A N precision resistors.

B 2N precision resistors.

C N + 1 precision resistors.

D N 1 precision resistors.

31 Which of the following memories stores the most number of bits

A 8 K 64 memory

B 8 M1 memory.

C 8 M 32 memory.

64K 6 memory.

32 What is the end address of 8k X 8 memory ,if the starting address is AAOOH?
A B9FFH

B C9FFH

C AAFFH

D B900

33 The Boolean function f(w,x,y,z ) = m (5,7,9 ,11 ,13, 15) is independent of variables.

34

A w

B x

C y

D z and x

The contents of BC register pair after the execution of the following program in an 8085 microprocessor
is ..... LXI H,7585 H
LXI B, 4774 H
PUSH B
XTHL
POP B
HLT
A 7585

B 4774

C 8575

D 7447

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35 Which of these statements are true?

(1) A flip-flop can store 1-bit information
(2) Race condition occurs in a J-K flip flop when both inputs are 1
(3) Master Slave configuration is used in flip flops to stroe 2- bits of data.
(4) A transparent latch consists of a D-type flip-flop.
A

1 & 2 only

C 1,2 and 4

B 1,3 and 4
D 2 and 3

36 Pick up the correct statement(s) from the following:

(P) Open collector outputconfiguration enables to generate OAI logic.
(Q) Power consumption is minimum in CMOS family.
(R ) Minimum two transistors are required to construct dynamic RAM cell.
(S) Single comparator is used in successive approximation type of ADC.
A P,R & S

C Q&S

D R&S

Q&R

37 A 6 bit DAC use binary weighted resistors. If MSB resistor is 10 k ohm, the value of LSB resistor Is
A 40 k ohm

B 80 k ohm

C 640 k ohm

D 320 k ohm

38 As the number of flip flops are increased, the total propagation delay of
ripple counter increases, but that of
synchronous counter remains the same
Both ripple counter and synchronous
C
counter increases.

B Both ripple counter and synchronous counter decreases.

D None of these

39 To convert J K flip flop to D filp flop.

A short both J and K and connect D to it.
C Connect D to K and leave J open.

B Connect D to J Directly and D to K through

inverter.
D Connect D to J and leave K open.

40 The advantage of using dual slope ADC in digital voltmeter is that

A its conversion time is very small.

B its accuracy is very high.

C it does not require a comparator

D None of these

41 The noise margin of a TTL gate is about

A 1.2 V

B 0.2 V

C 0.4 V

D 0.8 V

42
A memory system of size 32 k bytes is reqiured to design using memory chips which have 12 address
lines and 4 data lines each. The number of such chips reqiured to design the memory system is
A 4

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B 8

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C 16

D 32

43 An 8 bit ripple counter uses flip flops with propagation delay of 25 ns each. The maximum clock
frequency which can be used is
A 10 MHz

B 5 MHz

C 20 MHz

D 50 MHz

44 The application of shift registors are :

(1) serial to parallel data conversion
(2) parallel to serial data conversion
(3) Provide delay to the input
A 1,2

B 2,3

C 1,2,3

D none of these.

45 find the correct statement.

A

ROM is a Volatile memory while RAM is a

Non Volatile memory.

C Both ROM and RAM are Non Volatile

B Both ROM and RAM are Volatile

D

RAM is a Volatile memory while ROM is a Non

Volatile memory.

46 For a logic famliy correct relationship is

A VOH > VIH > VOL > VIL

B VIH > VOH > VIL > VOL

C VOH > VIH > VIL > VOL

D None of these

47 A 10 bit ADC is used to convert analog voltage of 0 to 10 V into digital. The resolution is
A 4.88 m V

B 9.775 m V

C 20 m V

D None of these

48 To design a sequential circuit having 11 states, minimum number of memory elements required is
A 5

B 3

C 4

D 11

49 A 4 input NAND gate is to be used as an inverter. Which is preferrable ?

A the three unused inputs are left open

B the three unused inputs are connected to 0

C the three unused inputs are connected to 1

D none of these

50 which are charcterstics of sequential circuits ?

(1) Feed back
(2) output depends on previous inputs
(3) gates are arranged in sequence.
A 1,3

B 1,2

C 2,3

D none of these

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51 The number of address bits needed to operate a EPROM 8192 X 8 is

A 4

B 8

C 12

D 13

52 Which one of the following is D/A conversion technique

A dual slope

B weighted resistor

C Successive-approximation.

D none of these

53 The figure of merit for a logic family is

A fan out X fan in

B propagation delay time X power dissipation

C gain bandwith product

D none of these

54 To count 2500 bottles in cold drink plant, the minimum number of flip flops requered is
A 8

B 10

C 12

D 16

55 One XOR gate can work as

A one bit magnitude comparator
C

both one bit magnitude comparatoe and an

inverter

B an inverter
D none of these

56 which is non-saturating logic family

A CMOS

B TTL

C ECL

D none of these

57 The power dissipation per gate

A increases with frequency

B decreases with frequency

C remain constant with frequency

D none of these

58 Quantzation error occurs in

A D/A converter

B A/D converter

C both D/A and A/D converter

D none of these

59 A binary ladder network D/A converter requires

A resistor of one value only

B resistor of many different values

C resistor of two different values

D none of these

60 If number of bits is N, the % resolution in analog to digital conversion is

A 100/2N+1

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B 100/2N-1

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D 100/2N

C 100/N
61 Internal structure of PLA :
A only AND array programmable

B only OR array programmable

C both OR & AND array programmable

D none of these

62 The accuracy of A/D conversion is generally

A LSB

B 1/2LSB

C 1/4LSB

D none of these

63 Which memory requires periodic recharging

A All RAMS

B Dynamic RAM

C EPROMS

D static RAM

64 If number of information bits is 11, the number of parity bits in Hamming code is
A 2

B 3

C 4

D 5

65 A buffer is
A Always inverting

B Always non-inverting

C inverting or non-inverting

D none of these

66 In--------- function each term is known as min term.

A POS

B Hybrid

C SOP

D none of these

67 In--------- function each term is known as max term

A Hybrid

B SOP and Hybrid

C POS

D SOP

68 Which stack is used in 8085?

A FIFO

B LIFO

C FILO

D None of these

69 Why 8085 is called an 8 bit processor?

A because 8085 has 8 bit address bus.

B because 8085 has 8 bit data bus and 8 bit ALU.

C because 8085 has 8 bit stack pointer

D None of these

70 Which is not a flag of 8085?

A Overflow Flag

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B sign Flag

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C carry Flag

D zero flag

71 In 8085 microprocessor how many I/O devices can be interfaced in I/O mapped
I/O technique?
A Either 256 input devices or 256 output devices B 256 input output devices
C

256 input devices and 256 output devices

D none of these

72 In an 8085 microprocessor, the instruction CMP B has been executed while the contents of
accumulator is less than that of register B. As a result carry flag and zero flag will be respectively
A Reset,Reset

B Set, Reset

C set,set

D reset,set

73 To put the 8085 microprocessor in the wait state

A Lower the HOLD input

B Lower the READY input

C rise the HOLD input

D rise the READY input

74 The TRAP is one of the interrupts available its INTEL 8085. Which one of the following statements is
true of TRAP?
A It is level triggered
B It is edge triggered
C It is level triggered and positive edge
triggered
75 A dynamic RAM consists of

D None of these

A 6 transistors.

B 2 capacitors only.

C 2 transistors and 2 capacitors.

D 1 transistor and 1 capacitor.

76 A PLA can be used

A as a microprocessor.

B as a dynamic memory.

C to realize a combinational logic.

D to realize sequential logic.

77 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
as per the following code.
A. Schottky transistors are preffered over normal transistors in digital circuits.
R. Schottky transistor when used as a switch, switches between cuttoff and active region.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

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Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

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78

The circuit in Fig is used to realize the logic function of

A Inverter.

B NOR gate.

C NAND gate.

D XOR gate.

79 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
as per the following code.
A.Boolean expressions can be easily simplified using K-map.
R. K-map can be drawn for minterms as well as maxterms.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

80 What J-K input condition will always set Q upon the occurrence of the active clock transition?
A J = 0, K = 0

B J = 1, K = 1

C J = 1, K = 0

D J = 0, K = 1

81 The Boolean Expression A'B + AB'+AB is equivalent to.

A AB

B A+B

C AB'

D (A+B)'

82 A ring counter consisting of five Flip-Flops will have

A 5 states

B 32 states

C 16 states

D None of these

83 A device which converts BCD to Seven Segment is called

A Multiplexer

B Demultiplexer

C Encoder

D Decoder

84 The A/D converter whose conversion time is independent of the number of bits is
A Dual slope

B Successive approximation.

C Parallel conversion

D Counter type

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85

A 4-bit synchronous counter uses flip-flops with propagation delay times of 15 ns each. The
maximum possible time required for change of state will be
A 15 ns

B 30 ns

C 45 ns

D 60 ns

86 Boolean Algebra obeys

A Associative law

B Commutative law

C Distributive law

D All of these

87 In a four variable Karnaugh map two adjacent cells give a

A Three variable term

B Single variable term

C Two variable term

D Four variable term

88 Large screen integration refers to

A More than 10 gates on the same chip

B More than 25 gates on the same chip

C More than 75 gates on the same chip

D More than 100 gates on the same chip

89 The minimum number of 2 input NAND gates required to implement boolean function X Y ' Z , if X,Y,Z
are available
A 2
B 3
C 4

D 5

90
If the functions W,X,Y,Z are as follows: W = R+P'Q+ R'S ; X =PQR'S'+ P'Q'R'S'+PQ'R'S' ; Y = RS + (PR +
PQ'+P'Q')' ; Z= R+S+(PQ + P'Q'R'+PQ'S')'

A W=Z, X=Z'

B W=Z, X=Y

C W=Z,X=Y'

D W=Y=Z'

91
The Boolean Expression Y=A'B'C'D+A'BCD'+AB'C'D+ABC'D' can be minimized to

A Y=A'B'C'D + A'BC'+AC'D

B Y = A'B'C'D+ BCD'+AB'C'D

C Y=A'BCD' +'B'C'D+AB'C'D

D Y=A'BCD' + B'C'D + ABC'D'

92 A 2bit binary multiplier can be implemented using

A XOR gates and multiplexer

B 2 input ANDs only

C 4 input NOR and multiplexer

D None of these.

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93
The output Y of a 2-bit comparator is logic 1 whenever the 2 bit input A is greater than the 2 bit input
B. The number of combinations for which the output is logic 1 is
A 4

B 6

C 8

D 10

94 For a binary half subtractor having two inputs A and B , the correct set of logical expressions for the
outputs
D = A-B and X (=borrow) are
A D=AB+A'B, X= A'B

B D= A'B+AB', X = AB'

C D= A'B+AB', X = A'B

D None of these.

95 The following program starts at

Location 0100H
LXI SP, 00FF
LXI H,0107
MVI A,20H
SUB M
The contents of accumulator when the program counter reaches 0209H is
A 20H

B 02H

C 00H

D FFH

96 In an 8085 microprocessor system, the RST instruction will cause an interrupt

Only if an interrupt service routine is not
B Only if a bit in the inturrept mask is made 0.
being executed.
Only if inturrepts have been enabled by an
C
D none of these.
EI instruction
97 If CS = A'15 A14A13 is used as the chip select logic of 4K RAM in an 8085 system, then its memory range
will be
A 3000H - 3FFFH
B 7000H - 7FFFH
A

C 5000H - 5FFFH and 6000H - 6FFFH

98

D 6000H - 6FFFH and 7000H - 7FFFH

The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
as per the following code.
A. A PROM can be used as a synchronous counter.
R. Each memory location in a PROM can be read synchronously.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

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Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

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99

The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
as per the following code.
A. Gray code is used in shaft position encoding.
R. In gray code only a single bit change occurs when going from one code to another.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

100 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
as per the following code.
A.ECL gate has very high speed of operation
R. Trsistors in ECL do not go into saturation region.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

SUJJECT CODE:

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

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The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is caused by

A fast turn-on

B fast turn-off

C large collector-base reverse bias

D large emitter-base forward bias

The breakdown mechanism in a lightly doped p-n junction under reverse biased condition is called
A avalanche breakdown.

B zener breakdown.

C breakdown by tunnelling.

D high voltage breakdown.

For a large values of |VDS|, a FET behaves as

A Voltage controlled resistor.

B Current controlled current source.

C Voltage controlled current source.

D Current controlled resistor.

Space charge region around a p-n junction

A does not contain mobile carriers

B contains both free electrons and holes

C contains electrons only as free carriers

D contains holes only as free carriers

The reverse saturation current of a silicon diode

A doubles for every 10C increase in temperature

B does not change with temperature

C doubles for every 10C decrease in temperature D None of these

6

Transistor is a
A Current controlled current device.

B Current controlled voltage device.

C Voltage controlled current device.

D Voltage controlled voltage device.

In the voltage regulator shown below, if the current through the load decreases,

A The current through R1 will increase.

B The current through R1 will decrease.

C zener diode current will increase.

D zener diode current will decrease.

For a JFET, when VDS is increased beyond the pinch off voltage, the drain current
A Increases

B decreases

C remains constant.

Initially increases and then decreases

N-channel FETs are superior to P-channel FETs, because

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A They have large size

B They consume less power

C Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes D They are easy to fabricate
10 n-type silicon is obtained by

11

A Doping with tetravalent element

B Doping with pentavalent element

C Doping with trivalent element

D Doping with a mixture of trivalent and tetravalent element

The forward characteristic of a diode has a slope of approximately 100mA/V at a desired

point. The approximate incremental resistance of the diode is

A 50

B 20

C 100

D 10

12 When the temperature of a doped semiconductor is increased, its conductivity

A increases

B decreases

C remains constant.

D increases or decreases depending on semiconductor type

13 A zener diode
A Has a high forward voltage rating.

B Has a sharp breakdown at low reverse voltage.

D Has a negative resistance.

Is useful as an amplifier.

14 Field effect transistor has

A large input impedance.

B large output impedance.

C large power gain

D large votage gain.

15 MOSFET can be used as a

A current controlled capacitor

B voltage controlled capacitor

C current controlled inductor

D voltage controlled inductors

16 Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of FET increases
A the mobility decreases

B the transconductance increases

C the drain current increases

D None of these

17 Which of the following is not associated with a p-n junction

A junction capacitance

B charge storage capacitance

C depletion capacitance

D channel length modulation

18 Which of the transistor component is bigger in size?

A Emmiter

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B Collector

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C Base

D All are of equal size

19 In which material do conduction and valence bands overlap ?

A Conductor

B Semiconductor

C Dieelectric

D None of these

20 Hall Effect can be used

A To find type of semi conductor (whether p OR n) B to find carrier concentration
C to measure conductivity

D All of the above

21 Which statement is false as regards Transistors.

A Base is lightly doped.

B Emmiter is moderately doped

C Collector is moderately doped.

D All statements are correct.

22 Thermionic emmision current is given by

A Fermi Dirac distribution

B Maxwell's distribution

C Richardsons Dushman equation

D None of these.

23 In energy band diagram of p-type semiconductor the acceptor energy level is

A Slightly above valence band

in valence band

C Slightly below valence band

D None of these.

24 Fermi level is the amount of energy which

A a hole can have at room temperature
C

B an electron can have at room temperature

must be given to an electron to move to

conduction band

D None of these.

25 Which of the following has highest conductivity ?

A Platinum

B Aluminium

C Tunguston

D Silver

26 When a reverse bias is applied to PN junction, the width of the depletion layer
A Decreases

B increases

C remains constant.

D Initially decreases then remains constant

27 Surface leakage current is a part of

A reverse current

B Forward current

C Forward breakdown

D Reverse breakdown

28 The cut in voltage of a diode is nearly equal to

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A applied forward voltage

B applied reverse voltage

C Barrier potential

D None of these.

29 A varactor diode is
A reverse bised

B forward bised

C biased to breakdown

D unbiased

30 Which of these has highly doped p and n region?

A PIN Diode

B Schottky diode

C Tunnel diode

D None of these

31 Which of these has semiconductor metal junction?

A PIN Diode

B Schottky diode

C Tunnel diode

D None of these

32 Compared to Bipolar Junction Transistor ,a JFET has

A Lower input impedance

B high input impedance and high voltage gain

C higher voltage gain

D high input impedance and low voltage gain

33 Compared to Bipolar Junction Transistor ,a FET has

A Less noisy

B Has better thermal stability

C Has higher input impedance

D All of these

34 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
based on the following statements .
(A) When a photoconductor device is exposed to light,its bulk resistance increases.
(R) When exposed to light, electron hole pair are generated in the photoconducive device.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

35 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
based on the following statements .
(A) A PN junction diode is used as a rectifier
(R) A PN junction diode has low resistance in forward direction and high resistance in reverse direction.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

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Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

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36

The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
based on the following statements .
(A) Intrinsic semiconductor is an insulator at 0 degree Kelvin.
(R) Fermi level in intrinsic semiconductor is in the centre of forbidden energy band.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

37 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
based on the following statements .
(A) When a high reverse voltage is applied to a p-n junction the diode breaks down.
(R) High reverse voltage causes avalanche effect.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

38 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
based on the following statements .
(A) In n-p-n transistor conduction is mainly due to electrons.
(R) In n type materials electrons are majority carriers.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

39
The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
based on the following statements .
(A) The amount of photo electric emission depends on the intensity of incident light.
(R) Photo Electric emission can occur only if frequency of incident light is less than threshold frequency.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false
40

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
based on the following statements .
(A) In intrinsic semiconductor the charge concentration increases with temperature.
(R) At higher temperatures, the forbidden energy gap in semiconductors is lower.
Both A and R are correct and R is correct
explanation of A
C A is true, R is false

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A
D A is false, R is true

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41

The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
based on the following statements .
(A) In p-n-p transistor ,collector current is termed negative.
(B) in a p-n-p transistor holes are majority carriers.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

42 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
based on the following statements .
(A) A Hall effect is used to find the type of semiconductor.
(R) When a semiconductor carrying current I lies in a magnetic field , the force on electrons and holes is
in opposite directions.
Both A and R are correct but R is not correct
Both A and R are correct and R is correct
B
A
explanation of A
explanation of A
C A is true, R is false

D A is false, R is true

43
The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
based on the following statements .
(A) In a BJT, the base region is very thick.
(R) In p-n-p transistor most of holes given off by emmiter diffuse through the base.
A

Both A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

D A is false, R is true

44 The voltage between the emitter and collector of a silicon transistor when the transistor is
biased to be at the edge of saturation is:

45

A 5 volts.

B 10 volts.

C 0.1 volts.

D 0.3 volts.

In a transistor switch, the voltage change from base-to-emitter which is adequate to accomplish the
switching [for silicon transistor] is only about

A 0.2 V.

B 5V

C 0.1 V

D 0.5 V.

46 The cut-in voltage of the aluminium n-type Schottky diode is about

A 0.5 V.

B 0.5 V .

C 0.35 V.

D 0.35 mV.

47 Which of the following has highest conductivity ?

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A copper

B Aluminium

C cast iron

D Mild steel

48 For a NPN BJT transistor to be in saturation mode:

A VE< VB, VC< VB

B VE< VB, VC > VB

C VE> VB, VC< VB

D VE> VB, VC > VB

49 Which of the following statements best describes a forward biased silicon diode?
A

The current through diode is exponentially

related to the diode voltage.

B The voltage acrosss diode is 0 V

C The current through diode is 0 A.

The current through diode is of the form m

Vd, where m is contant and Vd diode voltage

50 Which of the following statement is correct?

(1 ) A P-channel MOSFET uses a n-type substrate or well
(2) Conduction in a MOSFET channel is primarily due to Majority carriers
A only 1

B only 2

C both 1 and 2

D None of these

51 When a BJT is operates under cut-off condition

52

A Both junctions are forward biased

B Both junctions are reverse biased

C CB in forward biased and EB is reverse biased

D None of these

Which is true about LASER diode?

LASER means Light Amplification by stimulated
emission of radiation
C very small dimension

B It is monochromatic coherent light source

D All of these

53 The types of carriers in a semiconductor are

A 1

B 2

C 3

D 4

54 The number of protons in a silicon atom is

A 32

B 28

C 14

D 4

55 The most commonly used semi conductor material is

A Silicon

B Germanium

C Mixture of silicon and Germanium

D None of these

56 Holes act like

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A Poitive charges

B neutral atoms

C Negative charges

D crystals

57 Eddy current loss is

A Proportional to frequency

B independent of frequency

C Proportional to ( frequency)2

D None of these

58 In an n type semiconductor
A Number of free electrons and holes are equal
Number of free electrons is less than number
of holes
59 If for a transistor is 0.98, is equal to

B Number of free electrons is greater than number of holes

D none of these

A 52

B 49

C 48

D 46

60 Consider two well designed npn bipolar junction transistors , QA and QB. They are otherwise identical
except base of QA is doped twice as heavily as the base of QB. The base emitter diode saturation current
in Ebers Moll model, IES in transistor QA will be
A Same as QB

B Less than QB

C Greater than QB

D None of these

61 Which of the following statements are correct:

(1) Input impedance of a MOSFET is higher than that of a JFET.
(2) In MOS transistor, triode region is the saturation region.
(3) GaAsP LED produces light in visible region
A 1 and 2

B 1 and 3

C 2 and 3

D 1, 2 and 3

62 The number of valence electrons in a donor atom is

A 2

B 3

C 4

D 5

63 BJT acts like a switch by operating between these two regions:

A cut-off and saturation

B cut-off and active

C saturation and active

D None of these

64 The power dissipation in transistors is the product of

A Emitter current and VBE voltage

B Emitter current and VCE voltage

C Collector current and VCE voltage

D None of these

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65 For a N type MOSFET , substrate is----------- type

A P type

B N type

C P type or N type depends on fabrication

D none of these

66 Most Negative characteristics of CMOS logic family is

A High power dissipation

B Latch Up

C low speed

D None of these

67 polysilicon can be doped by

A Diffusion

B Implantation

C Addition of dopant gases during deposition

D All these three methods

68 Resistivity of implanted polysilicon primarily depends on

A Implant dose

B anneling temperature

C anneling time

D All these three

69 The merging of a hole and an electron is called

A Recombination

B thermal bonding

C covalent bonding

D None of these

70 When a voltage is applied to a semiconductor crystal,the free electron will flow

A towards positive terminal
C

B towards negative terminal

either towards positive terminal ortowards

negative terminal

D none of these

71 Which diode is used at microwave frequncies?

A Varactor diode

B zener diode

C schottky diode

D PIN Diode

72 Which is the charactristic of FET

73

A It is an unipolar device

B Govern by majority and minority carrier

C Low input resiatance

D None of these

At sufficiently high temperatures some electrons acquire enough kinetic energy to escape from metal surface. This is called

A Thermionic emission

B secondary emission

C Field emission

D Photoelectric emission.

74 In BJT which current is the smallest?

A Collector current

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C Emitter current

D Collector current and emitter current.

75 Which device converts solar radiation into electrical energy?

A LED

B Photo voltaic device

C LDR

D None of these

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