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2008 Physics Chemistry

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Rahul Dubey
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
80 views27 pages

2008 Physics Chemistry

Uploaded by

Rahul Dubey
Copyright
© Attribution Non-Commercial (BY-NC)
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 27

COMl\ION ENTRANCE TEST M 2008

19 _, 04 - 2008

PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY (COMBINED PAPER)

120

150 MINUTES

140 MINUTES

A-I'

147385

IMPORT,ANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

(Candidates are advised to read the following instructions carefully, before answering on OMRanswer sheet.)

1. Ensure that GET No. has been entered and shaded the respective circles on the OMR answer sheet.

2. ENSURE THAT TilE TIMING, MARKS PRINTED ON THE OMR ANSWER SHEET ARE NOT

DAMAGEDI MUTlLATED I SPOILED.

3. This Question Booklet is issued to you by the I"nvigilator after the 2nd Bell, i.e., afLer .10.00 a.m,

4. Enter the Serial Number of this question booklet an the OMR answer sheet.

5. Carefully enter the Version Code of this question booklet on the OM"R answer sheet and SHADE the respective circles completely,

'6. As answer sheets are designed to. suit the Optical Mark Reader (OD.1R) system, please take special care while filling and shading the CET NO. & 'Version Code of this question booklet.

7. DO NOT FORGET TO SIGN AT THE BOTIOM PORTION OF O:MRANS\iVER SHEET IN THE SPACE PROVIDED.

B. Until the 3nl BeH is rung at 10.10 a.m. :



. '

Do not remove the staple present on the right hand side of this question booklet . Do not look inside this question booklet .

• Do, not start answering on the O:MR answer sheet.

9. Moor the 3n1 Bell is rung at 10.10 a.m., remove the staple present on the right hand side of this question booklet

and start answering on the OMR answer sheet. '

10. This question booklet contains 120 questions and each question will have four different options I choices.

1 L During the subsequent 140 minutes: • . Read each question carefully.

• Determine the correct answer from out ofthe four available options I choices given under each question.

• Completely darken I shade the relevant circle witb a BLUE OR BLACK INK BAlLPOINT PEN against the question number on. the OMR answer sheet.

CORRECT METHOD OF SHADING THE CIRCLE ON THE OMR SHEET IS AS SHOWN BELOW:

00.0

12. Please note that even a minute unintended ink dot on the OMR sheet will also be recognised and recorded by the scanner. Therefore, avoid multiple markings of any kind on the OMR answer sheet.

13. Use the space provided on each page of the question booklet for Rough Work AND do not use the OMR answer sheet for the same.

14. After the last bell is rung at 12.30 p.m., stop writing on the OMR answer sheet and affix your LEFT HAND THUMB IMPRESSION on-the Ol\ffi answer sheet as pel' the instructions.

15. Hand over the OMR ANSWER SHEET to the room invigilator as. it is.

16. After separating and retaining the top sheet (KEA Copy), the invigilator will return the bottom sheet replica (Candidate's copy) to you to. carry horne for self-evaluation.

1 I.. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of One year.

SR - 33

Turn Over

p

SR~33

3

SICS·

Turn Over

4

A-I

1. A ray of light enters from a rarer to a denser medium. The angle of incidence is i. Then the reflected and refracted rays are mutually perpendicular to each other. The critical angle for the pair of media i~

1) Sin -1 (Tan i ) 2) Tan -1 (Sin i)
3) Sin -1 (Cot i) 4) Cos -1 (Tan i) 2. A fish in water' (refractive index n) looks at a bird vertically above in the air. If y is the height of the bird and x is the depth of the fish from the surface, then the distance of the bird as estimated by the fish is

1) X+Yll-~J 3) x++<J

2) X +ny

3.

Figure shows a mixture of blue, green and red coloured rays incident normally on a light angled prism. The critical angles of the material of the prism for red, green and blue are 46°, 44° and 43° respectively, The arrangement will separate

430 1) red colour from blue and green

B--..::...:;_-

440 2) blue colour from red and green

G 3) green colour from red and blue

46° R---"'"

4) all the three colours.

. 4.

A convex and a concave lens seperated by distance d are then put in contact. The focal length of the combination

1) decreases 2) increases

3) becomes a

4) remains the same

5,. A convex lens is made of 3 layers of glass of 3 different materials as in the figure. A point

object is placed on its axis. The number of images of the object are

1) 1

2) 2 .3) 3 4) 4

(Space for Rough Work)

SR-SS

-- ----~....__- -~----

5

A-I

,6. If f.1o is permeability of free space and EO is pennittivity of free space, the speed of light in vacuum is given by

1) .J ~lo EO

2) 8:

3) J J.loIEo

4) ~E;:Q '

7. In Young's double slit experiment, a third slit is made in between the double slits .. Then

1) intensity of fringes totally disappears.

2) only bright light is observed on the screen.

3) fringes of unequal width are formed ..

4) contrast between bright and dark fringes is reduced.

S. The maximum number of possible interference maxima when slit separation is equal to 4 times the wavelength of light used in a double slit experiment is

1) 00 2) 9

3) 8

4) 4

9. In a Fraunhofer diffraction experiment at a single slit using a light of wavelength 400 nm, the first minimum is formed at an angle of 30°. The direction e of the first

secondary maximum is given by
1) Sin-1 % 2) $in-1 %
3) Sin-1 X 4) Tan-1 %
. 10.. Maximum diffraction takes place in a given slit for

1) Y - rays '2) ultraviolet light

3) infrared light

4) radio waves

(Space for Rough Work)

SR - 33

Turn Over

6

11. An unpolarised beam of intensity 10 falls on a polaroid. The intensity of the emergent light is

1) 1%

2) 10

3) 1%

4) Zero

12. Which of the following is a dichroic crystal ?

1) Quartz 2) Tourmaline

.3) Mica 4) Selenite

13. Two identical metal spheres charged with +12J1F and -8J1F are kept at certain distance in air. They are brought into contact and then kept at the same distance. The ratio of the magnitudes of electrostatic forces between them before and after contact is

" .

1) '12: 1 3) 24: 1

2) 8: 1 4) 4; 1

14.. A small conducting sphere of radius r is lying concentrically inside a" bigger hollow conducting sphere of radius R. The bigger and smaller spheres are charged "With Q and q (Q > q) and are insulated from each other. The potential difference between the spheres will be

_1 (q _:1_J

1) 4nEO r R

15. The charges Q, + q and + q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l ..

If the net electrostatic potential energy of the system is zero, thenQ is equal to

1) -%

2) -q

3) .+%

4) zero

(Space for Rough Work)

SR~ 33

7

A-I

16.

How many 611F, 1) 9

3) 3

200 V condensers are needed to make a condenser of 18 f.lF, 600 V? 2) 18

4) 27

17. The total energy stored in the condenser system shown in the figure will be

1) 2 pJ 3) 8 ~LJ

2) 4p,J 4) 16 j1J

18. A metal wire is subjected to a constant potential difference. When the temperature of

the metal wire increases, the drift velocity of the electron in it

1) increases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases

2) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases

3) increases, thermal velocity of the electron increases

4) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron increases

19.

The equivalent resistance between the points A and B will be (each resistance is 15 Q) 150

D_.-J"""""'V\Mr--_

150

_ 1) 30.Q

15Q

. 2) 8.Q 3) . 10 Q 4) 40 n

15.Q

20. The terminals of a 18 V battery with an internal resistance of 2,4 n are connected to a circular wire of resistance 24 Q at two points distant at one quarter of the circumference of a circular wire. The current through the bigger arc of the circle will be

1) 0.75 A . . 3)2.25 A

2) 1.5 A 4) 3 A

(Space for Rough Work)

SR-33

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8

A -1

21. The potential difference between A and B in the following figure is

6Q 4 V

A~II~II-·--~B

2 A 12 V 9Q . SQ

1) 32 V 3) 24 V

2)48 V 4) 14 V

22 ..

The magnetic field at the centre 'of a circular current carrying conductor. of radius r is B ,

c

The magnetic field on its axis at a distance r from the centre is B ., The value of

a

B : B will be

c a

1) 1: J2 3) 2.J2: 1

2) 1: 2J2 4) .J2: f

23 ..

Current '1' is flowing in a conductor shaped as shown :in the figure. The radius of the curved part is r and the length of straight portion is very large. The value of the magnetic field at the centre 0 will be

1) 1101 (311: + 1 J 2)

411:r 2

J!L (~-1J

4rrr 2

4)

1101 (11: 1J

4ll"r 2

24. 'Iwo tangent galvanometers A and Bare identical except in their number of turns. They are connected in series. On passing a current through them, deflections of 60°' and 30° are produced, The ratio of the number of turns in A and B is

1) 1: 3 8) 1: 2

2) 3: 1 4) 2: 1

25. The resultant force on the current loop PQRS due to a long cUITe.nt carrying conductor win be

r 1) 10-4N
2) 3,6 x 10-4N
20A 15 em
20 A 1 3) 1 . .8 x lO-4N
4) 5 x 1O-4N
2cm 10 em (Space for Rough Work)

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9

A-I

26.. A certain current on passing through a galvanometer produces a deflection of 100 divisions. When a shunt of one ohm is connected, the deflection reduces to 1 division. The galvanometer resistance is

1) 100.Q 3) 10 Q

2) 99 Q 4} 9.9' Q

27. Two similar circular loops carry equal currents in the same direction. On moving the

coils further apart, the electric current will

1) increase in both

2) decrease in both

3) remain unaltered

4) increases in one and decreases in the second

28. The value of alternating emf E in the given circuit will be

- V R = 80 V_ f-- Vc "" 100 V--.. _._N_.W'N_'''_' __ f!1l-{m [61-4m_, __ IJ f+- V =40V·~

L

@

E, 50 Hz

1) 220 V 3) 100 V

2) 140 V 4) 20 V

29. A current of5,A is flowing at .220 V in the primary coil of a transformer. If the voltage produced in the secondary coil is 2200 V and 50% of power is lost, then the current in the secondary will be

1) 2.5, A 3) 0.25 A

2) 5 A 4) 0.5 A

30. For a series LCR circuit at resonance, the statement which is not true is

1) Peak enel'gy stored by a capacitor = peak energy stored by an inductor

2) Average power = apparent power

3) Wattless current is zero

4) Power factor is zero

(Space for Rough Work)

SR~33

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10

A-l

31. Solar spectrum is an example for 1) line emission spectrum

3) band absorption spectrum

2) continuous emission spectrum 4) line absorption spectrum

32. When a piece of metal is illuminated by a monochromatic light of wavelength L, then stopping potential 18 3Vs. When same surface is illuminated by light of' wavelength 2A., then stopping potential becomes. Vs. The value of threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission will be

1) 4A- 3) %1

2) 8A. 4) 6A.

. 33. 'The maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons in a photoelectric effect does not depend upon

1) wavelength 2) frequency

3) intensity 4) work function

34.. The ratio of minimum wavelengths of Lyman and Balmer series will be

1) 1.25 3) 5

2) 0.25 4) 10

35... Hydrogen atom does not emit X-rays because

1) it contains only a single electron

2) energy levels in it are far apart 3.) its size is very small

4) enetgy levels in it are very close to each other

(Space for Rough Work)

SR-33

---------- ------------

11

A-I

36. If an electron and a proton have the same de-Broglie wavelength, then the kinetic energy of the electron is

1) zero

3) . more than that -of a proton

2) less than that of a proton 4) equal to that of a proton

o

37. 1\;1)'0 protons are kept at a separation of 40A. Fn is the nuclear force and Fe is the

electrostatic force between them. Then

1) Fn »Fe 3) s; «Fe

2) Fn =Fe 4) r; -s;

38. Blue colour of sea water is due to

1) interference of sunlight reflected from the water surface

2) scattering of sunlight by the water molecules

3) image of sky in water

4) refraction of sunlight

39. The ratio of the nuclear radii of elements with mass numbers 216 and 125 is

1) 216: 125 3) 6: 5

2) .J216: Jl25

4) none of these

40. On bombarding U 235 by slow neutron, 200 MeV energy is released. If the power output of atomic reactor is 1.6 MW, then the rate of fission will be

1) 5 x 1022/s

2) 5 x 1016/ s

3) 8 x 1016/s

4) 20 x 1016 ts

(Space for Rough Work)

SR-33

--_- --_

12

A-I

"41. The masses of two radioactive substances are same and their half lives are 1 year and 2 years respectively" The ratio of their activities after 6 years will be

1) 1 :4 2) 1:2
8) 1:3 4) 1:6 42. 92U235 undergoes successive disintegrations with the end product of 82Pb 203. The number of a andf3 particles emitted are

1) ,a = 6; f3 = 4 2) a =6, f3 =0
3) a=8, (3 = ,6 "4) €X =3, f3 =3 43. The most stable particle in Baryon group is

1) neutron 2) omega - particle

3) proton 4) lamda - particle

44. In an unbiased p-n junction

1) Potential at p is more than that at n

2) Potential at p is less than that at n

3) Potential at p is equal to that at n

4) Potential at p is +ve and that at n is -ve

45. To get an output y = 1 from the circuit shown, the inputs A, Band C must be respectively

y

A
B
C
1) 0,1,. 0
3) 1, 0, 1 2) 1, 0, 0 4) 1,. 1, 0

(Space for Rough Work)

SR~33

13

A~ 1

46. Dimensional formula for the universal gravitational constant G is

2) MOLoTo 4) M-1L3T-1

47. A body is projected vertically upwards. The times corresponding to height h while ascending and while descending are t1 and t2 respectively. Then the velocity of projection is (g is acceleration due to gravity)

1) gM 2) gt1t2
t1 + t2
3) g ~tlt2 4) g (t1 + t2)
2 2 4.8. A mass of 10 kg is suspended from a spring balance. It is pulled aside by a horizontal string so that it makes an angle of HOD with the vertical. The new reading of the balance is

1) 20 kg.wt 2) 10 kg .. wt

3) lOJ3 kg.wt 4) 20J3 kg.wt

49. A body weighs 50 grams in air and 40 grams in water .. How much would it weigh in a liquid of specific gravity 1.5?

1) 30 grams 2) 35 grams

3) G5 grams

4) 45 grams

50. A body of mass 4 kg is accelerated upon by a constant force, travels a distance of 5 m in the first second and a distance of 2 m in the third second. The force acting on the body is

1) 2 N 2) 4N

3) 6N

4) aN

(Space for Rough Work)

SR-S,3

Turn Over

-----,----

14

A-I

51. A simple pendulum is suspended from the. ceiling of a lift. When the lift is at rest its time period i~ r. With' ~hat acceleration should the lift be accelerated upwards in order tb

reduce its period to T 12? (g is acceleration- due to gravity).

1) 2g 2) 3 g

3) 4g

4) g

52. I( Y is the ratio of specific heats and R is the universal gas constant, then the molar

specific heat at constant volume C; is given by
1) yR 2) (y -l)R
y
R yR
3) y-l 4) y-·1 53. An ideal gas is taken via path ABCA as shown in

figure. The network done in the whole cycle is

1) 3PIVl

2) -3PIV1

3) 6P1V1

p

P --- C 4 1

54.

Pl __ ~!--, -~ B

L-~:-----~V

4) zero 0 V] 3V]

In which of the processes, does the internal energy of the system remain constant?

1) Adiabatic 2) Isochoric

3) Isobaric

4) Isothermal

55. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is 9 times that of steel. In the composite cylindrical bar shown in the figure, what will be the temperature at the junction of copper

and steel? .

1000e o-c
(J copper I steel )
~18cm -+- 6 cm=-x

1) 75°C 2) 67°C
3) 25°C 4) 33°C (Space for Rough Work)

SR -33

15

A- I

56. The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by y =6Sin2n(2t -O .. Iz ], where x and yare in nun and t is in seconds. The phase difference between two particles 2 mm apart

at any instant is

2) 360 4) 720

5,7. With what velocity should an observer approach a stationary sound SOlITCe so that the apparent frequency of sound should appear double the actual frequency? (v is velocity of

sound). .

1) .%

3) 2 u

2) 3 u 4) v

58. If a black body ,emit~ 0 .. 5 joules of energy per second when it is at 27°C, then the amount of energy emitted by it when it is at 627°C will be

.1) 40.5 J 3) 13.5 J

2) 162J 4) 135J

59. A string vibrates with a frequency of 200 Hz. When its length is doubled and tension is altered, it begins. to vibrate with a frequency of 300 Hz. The ratio of the new tension to the original tension is

1) 9.: 1 3) 3: 1

. 2) 1: 9 4) 1: 3

60. How many times more intense isa 60 dB sound-than a 30 dB sound?

1) 1000. 2) 2

3) 100 4) 4

(Space. for Rough Work)

SR- 33

"-

-- - ----- -------

SR-33

17

CHEMIS

A -1

Turn Over

--_ ------------~--

-

- --

19'

A~ 1

6,1. The correct order in which the first ionisation potential increases is

1) Nfl, K, Be 3) K, Be, Na

2) K, Na, Be 4) Be, Na, K

62. 10 em3 of 0 .. 1 N monobasic acid requires 15 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution whose normality is

1) 1.5 N 2) 0.15 N

3) 0.066 N 4) 0.66 N

63. The IUPAC name for tertiary butyl iodide is

1) 4-Iodobutane 2) 2-Iodobutane

3) I-Iodo, 3-methyl propane

4) 2-Iodo 2-methyl propane

64. When sulphur dioxide is passed in an acidified K 2Cr2 07 solution, the oxidation state of sulphuris changed from

1) + 4 to 0 2) + 4 to + 2

3) + 4 to + 6

4) + 6 to + 4

65. Mass of 0.1 mole of Methane is 1) 1 g

3) 1.6 g

2) 16 g 4) 0.1 g

(Space for Rough Work)

SR-33

Torn. Over

--'_ ----------~-------~-- ---- ---

20

A-I

66. Methoxy methane and ethanol are 1) Position isomers

2) Chain isomers

3) Functional isomers

4) Optical isomers

67. When the azimuthal quantum number has the value of 2, the number of orbitals possible are

1) 7 3) 3

2) 5 4) 0

68. For the reaction Fe203 + 3CO --4 2Fe + 3C02 the volume of carbon monoxide required to reduce one mole of ferric oxide is

1) 22.4 dm3

2) 44.S dm3 4) 11.2 dm3

3) 67.2 dm3

69.. The monomers of BWla-S rubber are 1) vinyl chloride and sulphur

3) styrene and butadiene

2) butadiene

4} isoprene and butadiene

70. An element with atomic number. 21 is a 1) halogen

2) representative element

3) transition element

4) alkali metal

(Space for Rough Work)

SR-33

21

A-I

71. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a molecule of water can have is

1) 1 2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

72. A gas deviates from ideal behaviour at a high pressure because its molecules

1) attract one another 2) show the Tyndall effect

3) have kinetic energy

4) are bound by covalent bonds

73. The reagent used to convert an a1kyne to alkene is

1) Zn I HCl

3) Zn -Hg I nci

2) Sn I HCl 4) Pd I H2

74. When compared to- AGO for the formation of Al{J3' the AGO for the formation of C1'203 is

1) higher

2) lower

3) same

4) unpredicted

75,. In order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%, the pressure of the gas should be

V increased by 10 % 2) increased by 1 %

- 3) decreased by 10 %

4) decreased by 1 %

(Space for Rough Work)

.'

..

SR·· 33

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22

"A-I

76" "Catalytic dehydrogenation of a primary alcohol gives a

1) secondary alcohol 2) aldehyde

.3) ketone

4) ester

77. Excess of pel5 reacts with cone. H2S04 giving

1) chlcrcsulphonic acid 2) thionyl chloride

3) sulphuryl chloride

4) sulphurous acid

78. If one mole of ammonia and one mole of hydrogen chloride are mixed in a closed container to form ammonium chloride gas, then

1) MI > l1u 3.) MI < au

2) MI = l1u

4) there is no relationship

79. The compound. on dehydrogenation gives a ketone. The original compound is

1) primary alcohol 2) secondary alcohol

3) tertiary alcohol

4) carboxylic acid

80. Which is the most easily Iiquifiable rare gas ?

1) Xe 2) Kr

3) Ar 4) Ne

(Space for Rough Work)

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23

A-I

81. Mesomeric effect involves delocalisation of

1) pi electrons 3) protons

2) sigma electrons

4) none of these

82. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired 'd' electrons?

1) Zn2+

2) Fe2+

3) Ni3+

4) CUT

83. One mole of which of the" following has the highest entropy?

1) liquid nitrogen 2) hydrogen gas

3) mercury

4) diamond

84. Which of the following species does not exert a resonance effect?

1) 2) +
C6H5NH2 C6H5NH3
3) C6H ,pH 4) C6H;/JL 85. A complex compound in which the oxidation number of a metal is zero is

1) K4 [Fe (CN)61 3) [Ni (CO )4] -

2) K3 [Fe (CN )6J 4) [Pi (NH3)4]Cl2

(Space for Rough Work)

SR-33

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24

A-I

86. Three moles of pels' three moles of PCl3 and two moles of Cl2 are taken in a dosed vessel. If at equilibrium the vessel has 1 .. 5 moles of PCl5, the number of moles of PCl3 present in it is

1) 5 3) 6

2) 3 4) 4.5

87. How many optically active stereomers are possible £01' butan-2, 3-dial ?

1) 1 2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

88. An octahedral complex is formed when hybrid orbitals of the following type are involved

2) d sp2 4) sp2d2

89. For the reaction 2HI(g) ~H 2(g) +12(g) -Q KJ ; the equilibrium constant depends upon

1) temperature 3) catalyst

2) pressure 4). volume

90. The angle strain .in cyclobutane is 1) 24°44'

3.) 19°22'

2) 29°16' 4) 9,°44'

(Space for Rough Work)

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-- - -------------------

25

A-I

91. The number of nodal planes present in a *s antibonding orbitals is

1) 1 2) . 2

3) 0

4) 3

92. VVhich of the following electrolytic solutions has the least specific conductance ?

1) 0.0.2 N 2) 0. .. 2 N

3) .2 N

4) O.,002N

93.. The overlapping of orbitals in benzene is of the type

1) sp -sp

3.) sp2 _sp2

2) p-p

94. The calculated 'bond order of superoxide ion (02") IS

1) 2.5 3) 1.5

2) 2 4) 1

95. Which of the following can be measured. by the Ostwald.-Walker dynamic method?

1) Relative lowering of vapour pressure

2) Lowering of vapour pressure

3) Vapour pressure of the solvent

4) all of these

(Space for Rough Work)

SR-33

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26

A-I

96. n-propyl bromide on treating with alcoholic KOH produces

1) propane 2) propene

3) propyne

4) propanol

97. Mercury is a liquid metal because

1) it has a completely filled s-orbital

2) it has a small atomic size

3) it has a completely filled d-orbital that prevents d-d overlapping of orbitals

4) it has a completely filled d-orbital that causes d-d overlapping

98. A compound is formed by elements A and B. This crystallises in the cubic structure where the A atoms are at the corners of the cube and B atoms are at the body centres. The simplest formula of the compound is

1) AB

.3) AsB4

2) AsB 4) ABs

99. Anisole can be prepared by the action of methyl iodide on sodium phenate .. The reaction is called

1) Wurtz's reac.tion

2) Williamson's reaction

3) Fittig's reaction

4) Etard's reaction

100. Malleability and ductility of metals can be accounted due to

1) the presence of electrostatic force

2) the crystalline structure in metal

3) the capacity of layers of metal ions to slide over the other

4) the interaction of electrons with metal ions in the lattice

(Space for Rough Work)

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27

A-I

101. An ionic compound is expected to have tetrahedral structure if r-;{_ lies in the range of

1) 0.414 to 0.732 3) 0.155 to 0.225

2) 0.225 to 0.414 4) 0 .. 73:2 to 1

102. Among the following, which is least acidic?

1). phenol 2) O-cresol

3) p-nitrophenol

4) p-chlorophenol

103. A ligand can also be regarded as 1) Lewis acid

3) Lewis base

2) Bronsted base 4) Bronsted acid

.

104. The colour of sky is due to

1) transmission of light

2) wavelength of scattered light

3) absorption of light by atmospheric gases

4) All of these

-

105. Which of the following organic compounds answers to both iodoform test and

Fehling's test?

1) ethanol 2) methanal

3) ethanal

4) propanone

(Space for Rough Work)

)

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28

A -1

106. Helium is used in balloons in place of hydrogen because it is

1) incombustible 2) lighter than hydrogen

3) radioactive

4~ more abundant than hydrogen

107. The basic principle of Cottnell's precipitator is

1) Le-chatelier's principle

2) peptisation

3) neutralisation of charge on colloidal particles

4) scattering of light

-108. When carbon monoxide is passed over solid caustic soda heated to 200°C, it forms

1) Na~03 3) HCOONa

2) NaHC03

4) CH3COONa

109. N 2 + 3H 2 ~ 2NH 3 + heat. What is the effect of the increase of temperature on the

equilibrium of the reaction?

1) equilibrium is shifted to the left

2) equilibrium is' shifted, to the right

3) equilibrium is unaltered

4) reaction rate does not change

no. Hydrogen gas is not liberated when the following metal is added to dil. HCl

1) Ag 3) Mg

2) Zn 4) Sn

(Space for Rough Work)

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111. Consider the Born-Haber 'cycle for the formation of an ionic compound given below and identify the' compound (Z) formed.

M(s) All! M(g) /'Jl2 Mr~) ~~

!XZ(g) tJ.H3 X(g) MI. X(g)
1) M +X-

3), M X

'112. In the brown ring test, the brown colour of the ring is due to

1) ferrous nitrate ' 2) ferric nitrate

3) amixture of NO and N02 4) nitro so ferro us sulphate

113. Amines behave as

1) Lewis acids

2) Lewis base

3) aprotic acid

4) neutral compound

114. Dalda is prepared from oils by 1) oxidation

2) reduction

3) hydrolysis

4) distillation

115. The chemical name of anisole is 1) Ethanoic acid

3) Propanone

2) Methoxy benzene 4) Acetone

(Space for Rough Work)

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116. The number of disulpbide linkages present in insulin are

1) 1 2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

117. 80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms as in

1) 80 g of hydrogen 2) 1 g of hydrogen

3) 10 g of hydrogen

4) 5 g of hydrogen

118. Which metal has a greater tendency to form metal oxide ?

1) Cr .3) Al

2)' Fe 4) Ca

119. Identify the reaction that does not take place in a blast furnace.

1) CaC03~CaO + CO2

2) CaO +8i02 ~CaSi03

3) 2Fe{Jp, + 3C ~ 4Fe + 3C02 4) CO2 +C ~2CO

120. Waxes are esters of

1) glycerol

2) long chain alcohols

3) glycerol and fatty acid

4) long chain alcohols and long chain fatty acids

(Space for Rough Work)

SR·SS

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