CRIMINAL DETECTION

AND INVESTIGATION
Fundamentals of
Criminal
Investigation
 Fundamentals of Criminal Investigation
Investigation - an inquiry, judicial or otherwise for the discovery and collection of facts
concerning the matters involved.
                        - it is the process of inquiring, eliciting, soliciting and getting vital information,
facts, circumstances in order to establish the truth.

Criminal Investigator - a public safety officer who is tasked to conduct the investigation of
all criminal cases as provided for and embodied under the revised penal code, criminals
laws and special laws which are criminal in nature.
                                      - a well trained, disciplined and experienced professional in the field
of criminal investigation.

Custodial Investigation - investigation conducted by law enforcement officers after a

person has been arrested or deprived of his freedom of action.

Neighborhood Investigation - one of the most crucial steps in kidnap for ransom cases
which is often overlooked. The objective is to identify and interview in person all individuals
in the area where the victim was kidnapped or last known sighting area during the window
of opportunity.(last time seen until the time discovered missing.
Crime scene - a venue or place where the alleged crime/incident/event has
been committed.

Corpus delicti - (latin for the body of the crime) - used to describe the
physical or material evidence that a crime has been committed. ex. corpse of
a murder victim.

Confession - is an express acknowledgement by the accused in a criminal

prosecution of the truth of his guilt as to the offense charge.

Admission - refers to statement of facts not directly constituting an

acknowledgement of guilt.

Organized criminal group - a structured group of three or more persons

existing for a period of time and acting in concert with the aim of committing
one or more serious crime or offenses.
Organized crime - a combination of two or more persons who are engaged in a
criminal or virtual criminal activity on a continuing basis for the purpose of profit
or power using gangland style to attain their purpose.

Physical evidence - evidenced addressed to the senses of the court that are
capable of being exhibited, examined or viewed by the court. This includes but
not limited to fingerprints, body fluid, explosives, hazardous chemicals,
soil/burned debris, bombs, electronic parts used in the commission of the crime.

Victimology/victim profiling - a detailed account of the victims lifestyle and

personality, assist in determining the nature of the disappearance, the risk level
of the victim and the type of person who could have committed the crime.
Complete information regarding the victims physical description, normal
behavior patterns, the family dynamics and known friends and acquaintances
should be obtained as soon as possible.

Miranda vs. Arizona - Ernesto Miranda had confessed to rape and kidnapping,
after two hour interrogation. Because the interrogators failed to inform Miranda
of his right to counsel and remain silent, his conviction was overturned.
Chinese water torture - interrogation technique, repeatedly dripping water on the forehead
of the suspect. The goal is to drive the suspect to near insanity thereby obtaining a
confession.

Serial Killer - is someone who murders 3 or more people with "cooling off" periods in
between.

Police Blotter - is an 18" x 12" logbook with hard bound cover that contains the daily
register of all crime incident reports, official summary of arrests and other significant events
reported in a police station. A separate police blotter shall be maintained for offenses
requiring confidentiality like violence against women and children and those cases involving
a child in conflict with the law to protect their privacy pursuant to RA 9262 (anti violence
against women and children act of 2004) and RA 9344 ( juvenile justice and welfare act of
2006).

Actus Reus - proof that a criminal act has occurred.

Sketch - a rough drawing or painting, often made to assist in making a more finished
picture.

Types of Sketches
  1. Floor plan (Birds Eye View)
  2. Elevation Drawing
  3. Exploded View
  4. Respective Drawings
Allan Pinkerton - a Scottish american detective who created the Pinkerton National Detective
Agency, the first detective agency in the US. Pinkerton foiled a plot to assassinate President
Lincoln.

Rouges Gallery - is a police collection of pictures or photographs of criminals and suspects

kept for identification purposes. A compilation of descriptions, methods of operation having
places and names of criminal and their associates.

Mugshot - is a photographic portrait taken after one is arrested.

Criminal investigation - it is the collection of facts in order to accomplish the three fold aims:

3 Fold Aims Of Criminal Investigation

1.To identify the guilty party

2.To locate the guilty party
3.To provide evidence of his guilt

6 Cardinal points of investigation

4.What specific offense was committed

5.How the offense was committed
6.Who committed it
7.Where the offense was committed
8.When it was committed
6. Why it was committed
Tools of an investigator in gathering facts
 
  1. Information - data gathered by an investigator and other
      person including the victim himself and from:
                             1. public records
                             2. private records
                             3. modus operandi file
  2. Interview - skillful questioning of witness and 
      suspects.
  3. Instrumentation - scientific examination of real 
       evidence, application of instruments and         
       method of physical sciences in  detecting crime.                                                 
Phases of investigations
 
  1.Phase 1 - identify the suspect through:
                      1. confession
                      2. eyewitness testimony
                      3. circumstantial evidence
                      4. associate evidence
  2. Phase 2 - locate and apprehend suspect.
  3. Phase 3 - gather and provide evidence to
       establish  the guilt of the accused.
Composition/Organization of an investigation team:
1.Team leader
2.Investigator/recorder
3.Photographer
4.Evidence Custodian
5.Composite illustrator/Artist

Equipment of an Investigator
6.Police line
7.Video camera
8.Voice recorder
9.Camera
10.Measuring device
11.Gloves
12.Flashlight
13.Fingerprint kit
14.Evidence bag
15.Evidence tag
16.Evidence bottles/vials
17.Investigators tickler

Investigators Tickler
18.Investigators checklist
19.Anatomical diagram form
20.Evidence Checklist
21.Turn-over receipt
Standard Methods of Recording Investigative Data:
1.Photographs
2.Sketching crime scenes
3.Written notes (what you have seen/observed)
4.Developing and lifting fingerprints found at the crime scene.
5.Gathering physical evidence
6.Plaster cast
7.Tape recording of sounds
8.Video tape recording of objects
9.Written statement of objects and witnesses.

2 Kinds of Information
  1. Regular sources - ex. citizen, company records
  2. Cultivated sources - ex. paid informant

•Interrogation or questioning witness or suspect who is reluctant to divulge or

reveal information with the goal of extracting a confession or obtaining
information while an Interview is simple questioning of a person who
cooperate with  the investigator.
Types of Interview
  1. Informal (on the scene interview) - conducted by
      police/investigator at the crime scene to get
      description of criminal if seen.
  2. Formal - interview conducted by the investigator
      assigned to the case.

Types of Formal Interview

  1. Normal - for willing or cooperative witness.
  2. Group/Pretext Interview - for hostile witness or
      witness who refuse to cooperate.
  3. Follow Up - additional interview in addition to vital
      points if necessary.

Qualifications of Interviewer
  1. Salesman
  2. Actor
  3. Psychologist
Requisites of an Interview
  1. Establish rapport
  2. Forcefulness of personality
  3. Breadth of interest

Setting of Interview
  1. Background Interview - time and place of
      interview are not a consideration except for busy
      person.
  2. Routine Criminal Cases - interview should be
      carefully planned. Busy person can be interviewed
      at night, privacy is important.
  3. Important Criminal Cases - should be conducted in
      places other than the subjects home/office to
      prevent him/her feeling confident. Investigator
      should get interviewees respect.
    4. Appropriate Time - General rule - (ASAP) as soon
        possible while facts are fresh in the memory of
        interviewees.
Methods of Crime Scene Search
  1. Strip method - the area is blocked out in the form
      of a rectangle. The searchers (3 person is good)
      proceed slowly at the same pace along paths
      parallel to one side of the rectangle.

2. Double Strip Search Method - modification of the

      strip search method. The rectangle is traversed
      first parallel to the base then parallel to a side.
3. Spiral Search Method - The searchers (3 person is
      good) follow each other along the path of a spiral
      beginning on the outside and spiraling in towards
      the center.

4. Zone Search Method - one searcher is assigned

      to each subdivision of a quadrant and then each
      quadrant is cut into another set of quadrants
5. Wheel Search Method - the area is considered to
      be approximately circular. The searchers gather at
      the center and proceed outward along radii or
      spokes. Procedure is repeated several times
      depending on the size of the circle and the number
      of searchers.
Traffic Operation
and Accident
Investigation
 Traffic Operation and Accident Investigation

Traffic - may consist of pedestrians, ridden or herded animals, vehicles, street cars and other
conveyances either singly or together while using the public way for purposes of travel.

Traffic laws - laws which govern traffic and regulate vehicles.

Traffic signs/road signs - are signs erected at the side of the roads to provide information to
road users.

Rules of the road - are the laws and the informal rules that may have developed overtime to
facilitate the orderly and timely flow of traffic.

Right of way - is a strip of land that is granted, through an easement or other mechanism for
transportation purposes such as for a trail, driveway, rail line or highway.
                      - the legal right, established by usage or grant, to pass along a specific route
through property belonging to another.

Traffic signal/Traffic light - a visual signal to control the flow of traffic at intersections.
Highway - any public road. A main road especially one connecting
major town or cities.

Speed limit - define the maximum, minimum or no speed limit and

are normally indicated using a traffic sign.

Hit and run - is the act of causing a traffic accident and failing to
stop and identify oneself afterwards.

Traffic accident - occurs when a vehicle collides with another

vehicle, pedestrian, animal, road debris or other statutory
obstruction such as tree or utility pole.

Mary Ward - worlds first road traffic death including a motor

vehicle, is alleged to have occurred on august 31, 1869, when she
fell out of her cousins steam car and was run over it.
Causes of traffic accidents

 1. Human factors - ex. driver behavior, visual and auditory acuity,
intoxication, decision making ability and reaction speed.

2. Motor vehicle speed.

3. Driver impairment - factors that prevent the driver at their

normal level of skill. Common impairment include
• alcohol use
• physical impairment - ex. poor eyesight
• youth - teens and early twenty aged drivers have the highest
incidence of both accidents and fatalities among all driving age
group.
• old age
• sleep deprivation/fatigue
• drug use - including prescription drug.
4. Road design

5. Vehicle design and maintenance

• seat belts - wearing seat belts reduces the risk of death by
two thirds.
• maintenance - a well designed and maintained vehicle with
good breaks, tires and well adjusted suspension will be more
controllable in an emergency and better equipped to avoid
collision.
• center of gravity - roll overs have become common due to
increased popularity of taller SUV and minivans which have a
higher center of gravity than standard passenger car.
• motorcycles - have little protection.
Skid mark - is the mark a tire makes when a vehicle wheel stops
rolling and slides or spins on the surface of the road.

• skid marks are caused by rubbers deposited on the road.

• one form of trace evidence, when their size and shape can
reveal much about the vehicle speed and forces of
acceleration or deceleration.
• the length of the skid mark is closely related to the vehicle
speed at the instant of breaking, measuring the marks yields
an estimate of original speed.
• Locard exchange principle - was postulated by Edmund
Locard in the 20th century which states that  with contact
between two items, there will be an exchange. Every contact
leaves a trace. Everywhere you go, you take something with
you and you leave something behind.
Skid mark are divided into:

• acceleration marks - created on acceleration if the engine provides more

power that the tire can transmit.
• braking marks - if the brakes "lock-up" and cause the tire to slide.
• yaw marks - if the tire slide sideways.

RA 4136 - Land Transportation and Traffic code of the Philippines.

Coefficient of Friction - is a dimensionless scalar value which describes the ratio

of the force of friction between two bodies and the force pressing them
together.

Rail Adhesion - grip wheels of a train have on the rails.

Split Friction - dangerous condition arising due to varying friction on either side
of a car.

Road Texture - affects the interaction of tires and the driving surface.

Profilograph - devised used to measure pavement surface roughness.

Tribometer - an instrument that measures friction on a surface.

Traffic Waves - "stop waves" "traffic Shocks" - are traveling disturbances in

the distribution of cars on a highway.

Traffic Flow - the total number of vehicles passing a given point in a given
time. Traffic flow is expressed as vehicle per hour.

Traffic Congestion - "traffic jam" - is a condition on roads, streets or highways

that occurs as use increases.

Characteristics of Traffic Congestion

1. Slow speed of vehicles
2. Longer travel time
3. Increased vehicle queuing

Classical Theories of Traffic Flow

1. Free flow
2. Congested traffic
Three-Phase Traffic Theory - is an alternative theory of traffic flow
developed by Boris Kerner between 1996 and 2002.
1. Free flow
2. Synchronized flow
3. Wide moving jam

Pedestrian - is a person traveling on foot whether walking or running.

Gridlock - a traffic jam so bad that no movement is possible.

China - (Beijing-Zhangjiakou province) - is considered the worlds worst

traffic jam ever as traffic congestion stretched more than 100
kilometers including 11 days of gridlock.

Brazil - (Sao Paolo) - has the worlds worst daily traffic jams.

France - (A6 Auto-route) - between Paris and Lyon was considered the
worlds longest traffic jam.
Drug Education
and Vice
Control
 Drug Education and Vice Control
RA no. 9165 - Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.

RA no 6425 - Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972 - the law that was repelled by RA no.
9165.

Dangerous Drugs Board (DDB) - the policy-making and strategy-formulating

body in the planning and formulation of policies and programs on drug
prevention and control.

Duties/Function of the DDB -To develop and adopt a comprehensive,

integrated, unified and balanced national drug abuse prevention and control
strategy.

Composition of the DDB

3 permanent members
2 regular members
12 ex officio members
The 12 ex officio members are the following:

• DOJ secretary or his/her representative

• DOH secretary or his/her representative
• DND secretary or his/her representative
• DOF secretary or his/her representative
• DOLE secretary or his/her representative
• DILG secretary or his/her representative
• DSWD secretary or his/her representative
• DFA secretary or his/her representative
• DECS secretary or his/her representative
• CHED chairman or his/her representative
• National Youth Commission chairman or his/her representative
• PDEA director general
• The DDB is under the office of the President.
• The Department Secretary's representative shall in no case be
lower than Under Secretary.
The Two Regular Members of the DDB are:

 The President of The Integrated Bar of the Philippines (IBP)

The Chairman or President of a non-governmental
organization involved in dangerous drug campaign to be
appointed by the President of the Philippines.

Permanent Consultants of the DDB

Director of the NBI

Chief of the PNP

PDEA - implementing arm of the DDB.

Qualification of the 3 Permanent members of the DDB
- at least 7 years training and experience in the field of dangerous
drugs and in any of the following fields: law, medicine, criminology,
psychology or social work. They are appointed by the President.

•  The President shall designate a Chairman  of the DDB from

among the 3 permanent members who shall serve for 6 years.
• The Chairman of the DDB shall have a rank of Under Secretary.
• Term of office of the permanent members of the DDB - 6 years
and until their successors shall have been duly appointed and
qualified.
• The PDEA shall be headed by a Director General with the rank of
undersecretary.
• The PDEA Director General shall be appointed by the President of
the Philippines.
Duties/Functions of PDEA Director General
  1. Responsible for the general administration and
      management of the agency.
  2. Perform other duties that may be assigned to
      him/her by the President.

 The PDEA Director General and the 2 Deputy Director General must
possess adequate knowledge, training and experience in the field of
dangerous drugs and in any of the following field: law enforcement, law,
medicine, criminology, psychology and social work.

There are 2 PDEA Deputy Director General

  1. One for Administration
  2. One for Operation

 They shall have a rank of Assistant Secretary and both are appointed by
the President of the Philippines upon recommendation of the board.
Mandatory Services of the PDEA
  1. Intelligence and Investigation
  2. International Cooperation and Foreign Affairs
  3. Preventive Education and Community Involvement
  4. Plans and Operation
  5. Compliance, Legal and Prosecution
  6. Administrative and Human Resource
  7. Financial Management
  8. Logistic Management
  9. Internal Affairs

•  PDEA shall establish regional offices.

PDEA Academy -  Shall be established either in Baguio City or Tagaytay City

and in such other places as may be necessary.

•  PDEA Academy shall be headed by a Superintendent with the rank of

Director. He shall be appointed by the PDEA Director General.
3 Pronged Approached in the Solution of Drug
Problems

  1. Law enforcement activities

  2. Preventive Drug Education and Information
      program in school and in communities.
  3. Treatment and Rehabilitation programs for
drug dependent.
Classification of Drugs according to effect
• Depressant - "downers" - a drug reducing functional or nervous activity. Lower
the level of arousal when taken.
• Stimulants - "Uppers" - increase mental  and/or physical function. A substance
that raises the levels of physiological or nervous activity in the body.
• Hallucinogens - "psychedelics" - a drug that causes hallucinations. Psychoactive
drugs that cause subjective change in perception,thought,emotion and
consciousness.

Classification of Drugs according to Pharmacology

• Depressants
• Narcotics
• Tranquilizers
• Stimulants
• Hallucinogens
• Solvents/Inhalants

Classifications of Drugs according to Legal Categorie

• Prohibited Drugs
• Regulated Drugs
• Volatile substances
Golden Triangle of Drug Trafficking
• Laos
• Thailand
• Burma
The Golden Crescent
• Afghanistan
• Pakistan
• Iran
• India
Classification of Drug user/Abuser
• Situational user - those who use drugs to keep them awake or for additional
energy to perform an important work. Such individual may or may not exhibit
psychological dependence.
• Spree user - school age user who take drugs for "kicks", adventure, daring
experience or a means of fun.
• Hardcore addicts - those whose activities revolves almost entirely around drug use
and securing supplies. They show strong psychological dependence on the drug.
• Hippies - Those who are addicted to drugs believing that drug is an integral part of
life.

Commonly abused drugs:

• Sedatives - are depressant drugs which reduce anxiety and excitement such as
barbiturates, tranquilizers and alcohol.
• Stimulants - are drugs which increase alertness and activity such as amphetamine,
cocaine and caffeine.
• Hallucinogen/Psychedelics - drugs which affect sensation, thinking, self awareness
and emotion.
• Narcotics - drugs that relieve pain and often induce sleep. This includes opium and
its derivatives like morphine, codeine and heroin.
• Solvents - volatile substances which are found to be the most commonly abused. 
Primary causes of drug addiction:

• Pride - excessive feeling of self worth or self esteem or sense of

self importance.
• Anger - against, himself,family,friends and society in general.
• Lust - burning sexual desire can distort the human mind to drug
abuse.
• Gluttony - "food trip" in the lingo of junkies.
• Greed - wealth,fame,recognition as exemplified by people under
pressure in their work of art such as musician,actors and
athletes who indulge in rug abuse.
• Envy - to get attention from someone as sign of protest.
• Laziness - "i cant syndrome" incapacity to achieve is a breeding
ground of drug abuse and boredom coupled with poor self
image.
Warning Signs of Commonly Abused Drugs
 
1. Marijuan
•  glassy red eye
• loud talking
• inappropriate laughter followed by sleepiness
• loss of interest, motivation
• weight gain or loss

  2. Depressant
•  contracted pupils
• drunk-like
• difficulty concentrating
• clumsiness
• poor judgement
3. Stimulants - ex. cocaine, amphetamines
•  dilated pupils
• hyperactivity
• euphoria
• irritability
• anxiety
• excessive talking followed by depression or excessive sleeping
• may go long period of time without eating or sleeping
• weight loss
• dry mouth and nose

  4. Inhalants - ex. glues, aerosols, vapors

•  watery eyes
• impaired vision, memory and thought
• secretions from the nose or rashes around the nose and mouth
• head aches and nausea
• appearance of intoxication
• drowsiness
• poor muscle control
• changes in appetite
• anxiety
• irritability
• lots of cans, aerosols in the trash
5 . Hallucinogens - ex. LSD, PCP
•  dilated pupils
• bizarre and irrational behavior including paranoia, aggression, hallucination
• mood swings
• detachment from people
• absorption with self or other objects
• slurred speech
• Confusion

  6. Heroin
•  contracted pupils
• no response of pupils to light
• needle marks
• sleeping at unusual time
• sweating
• vomiting
• coughing, shiffling
• twitching
• loss of appetite
7. Alcohol
•  clumsiness
• difficulty walking
• slurred speech
• sleepiness
• poor judgement
• dilated pupils
• possession of false ID cards

  8. Tobacco/Nicotine
•  smell of tobacco
• stained fingers or teeth

Analgesic - any drugs such as salicylates, morphine or

opiates used primarily for the relief of pain.
Fire Technology
and
Investigation
 Fire Technology and Investigation
Fire - exothermic reaction involving the oxidation of some substance
(fuel) resulting in the release of energy in the form of light and heat.

Fire Quadrangle
• Fuel
• Oxygen
• Heat
• Ignition energy

Triangles of Fire
• Fuel
• Oxygen
• Heat
        - removal of any of these results in the suppression of the
           fire.
 Some major products of combustion
•  water
• carbon dioxide
• carbon monoxide
• oxides of sulfur
Definition of terms
1. Vapor Density - the density of the vapor relative to the density of air and is
calculated by dividing the molecular weight of the gas by that of air.

2. Flash point - the lowest temperature at which liquid fuel produces a flammable
vapor.  

3.   Fire point/flame point - the lowest temperature at which liquid fuel produces

a flammable vapor in sufficient quantity such that if a source of ignition is introduced,
the vapor will ignite and is usually a few degrees above the flash point

4.  Ignition/auto-ignition temperature - the temperature at which a fuel will ignite on

its own with out any additional source ignition.

5.  Thermal inertia - the ease at which a material can be ignited.

6.  Heat release rate - is a measure of the amount of energy a
       specific type of fuel can contribute to the heat flux in a fire.

7.  Heat transfer - the mechanism in which fire can spread from

       its origin to other sources of fuel.
                                                
Methods of heat transfer
• Conductive/conduction heat transfer - heat is transferred by direct contact and
the rate of transfer is dependent on factors such as the thermal conductivity of
the material and the temperature difference between the cooler and warmer
areas.
• Convective/convection heat transfer - transfer of heat through physical
movement of materials and occurs only in liquids and gases. Hot gases rise and
spread heat to nearby ceilings and walls.
• Radiative/radiation heat transfer - heat is transferred if the form of
electromagnetic energy directly from one object to another. ex. infrared
radiation from the sun.
8.   Combustion - or burning - is the sequence of  exothermic chemical
reaction between fuel and an oxidant accompanied by the  production of
heat and conversion of chemical species. The result of the heat can result
in the form of either glowing or flame.

•  Glowing combustion - occurs when solid fuels are not capable of

producing sufficient quantities of gas  during pyrolysis to sustain a
flame. If access to the oxidant (air) is limited, glowing combustion may
result.
• Flaming combustion -commonly recognized type of fire and occurs with
gaseous fuel sources only. The color of the flame can give some
indication of the composition of the fuel.
• Spontaneous combustion - the ignition of organic matter with out
apparent cause, typically through heat generated internally by rapid
oxidation.A process whereby a material self heats.
• Explosive combustion - can occur when vapors, dust of gases, premixed
with appropriate amount of air are ignited. 
Definition of Terms:

Arson - intentional or malicious destruction of property by fire.

Fire analysis - the process of determining the origin, cause and responsibility  as well
as the failure analysis of fire or explosion.

Fire cause - the circumstances or agencies that bring a fuel and an ignition source
together with proper air or oxygen.

Fire spread - the movement of fire from one place to another.

Flash fire - a fire that spreads with extreme rapidity such as the one that races over
dust, over the surface of flammable liquids or through gases.

Fuel load - the total quantity of combustible contents of the building, spaces or fire
area, including interior finish and trim expressed in heat units or the equivalent weight
in wood.
Point of origin - the exact physical location where a heat source and fuel comes in contact with
each other and a fire begins.

Rekindle - a return to flaming combustion after incomplete extinguishment of a fire reigning at

some time after being put out.

Spalling - chipping or pitting of concrete or masonry surfaces.

Definition of terms - (RA no.9514)

Abatement - any act that would remove or neutralize fire hazard.

Administrator - any person who acts as agent of the owner and manages the use of a building
for him.

Blasting Agent - any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off
explosives.

Cellulose nitrate or Nitro cellulose - a highly combustible and explosive compound produced
by the reaction of nitric acid with a cellulose material.

Cellulose nitrate plastic (Pyroxylin) - any plastic substance,materials or compound having

cellulose nitrate as base.
Combustible/Flammable or Inflammable - Descriptive of materials that are easily set on
fire.

Combustible fiber - any readily ignitable and free burning fiber such as cotton, oakum,
rags, waste cloth, waste paper, kapok, hay, straw, Spanish moss, excelsior,and other
similar materials commonly used in commerce.

Combustible liquid - any liquid having a flash point at or above 37.8 degrees Celsius or
100 degrees Fahrenheit.

Corrosive liquid - any liquid which causes fire when in contact with organic matter or
with certain chemicals.

Curtain board - a vertical panel of non-combustible or fire resistive materials attached to

and extending below the bottom chord of the roof trusses, to divide the underside of
the roof into separate compartments so that heat and smoke will be directed upwards
to a roof vent.

Cryogenic - descriptive of any material which by its nature or as a result of its reaction
with other elements produces a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate
surroundings.
Damper -  a normally open device  installed inside an air duct system which automatically
closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire.

Distillation - the process of first raising  the temperature to separate the more volatile from
the less volatile parts and then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce
as nearly purified substance.

Duct system -  a continuous passageway for the transmission of air.

Dust - a finely powdered substance which when mixed with air in the proper proportion and
ignited will cause an explosion.

Electrical arc - an extremely hot luminous bridge formed by passage of an electric current
across a space between two conductors or terminals due to the incandescence of the
conducting vapor.

Ember - a hot piece or lump that remains after a material has partially burned and is still
oxidizing without the manifestation of flames.

Finishes - materials used as final coating of a surface for ornamental or protective purposes.
Fire - the active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light of
combustion.

Fire Trap - a building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or because it
lacks adequate exits or fire escapes.

Fire Alarm - any visual or audible signal produced by a device or system to warn
the occupants of the building or the fighting element of the presence or danger of
fire to enable them to undertake immediate action to save life and property and to
suppress the fire.

Fire door - a fire restrictive door prescribed for openings in fire separation walls or
partitions.

Fire Hazard - any condition or act which increases or may cause an increase in the
probability of the occurrence of fire or which may obstruct,delay,hinder or
interfere with firefighting operations and the safeguarding of life and property.

Fire Lane - the portion of a roadway or public way that should be kept opened and
unobstructed at all times for the expedient operations of firefighting units.
Fire Protective and Fire Safety Device - any device intended for the
protection of buildings or persons to include but not limited to built in
protection system such as sprinklers and other automatic extinguishing
system, detectors for heat, smoke and combustion products and other
warning system components, personal protective equipment such as fire
blankets, helmets, fire suits, globes and other garments that may be put on
or worn by persons to protect themselves during fire.

Fire Safety Constructions - refers to design and installations of   walls,

barriers, doors, windows, vents, means of egress etc. integral to and
incorporated into a building or structure in order to minimize danger to life,
from smoke, fire, fumes or panic before the building is evacuated.

Flash Point - the minimum temperature at which any material gives off
vapor in sufficient concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air.

Forcing - a process where a piece of metal is heated prior to changing its

shape or dimensions.

Fulminate - a kind of stable explosive compound which explodes by

percussion.
Hazardous operation/process - any act of manufacturing, fabrication,
conversion etc., or produces materials which are likely to cause fires or
explosions.

Horizontal exit - passage way from one building to another or through or

around a wall in approximately the same floor level.

Hose Box - a box or cabinet where fire hoses, valves and other equipment
are stored and arranged for firefighting.

Hose Reel - a cylindrical device turning on an axis around which a fire hose
is connected.

Hypergolic fuel - a rocket or liquid propellant which consist of combinations

of fuels and oxidizers which ignite simultaneously on contact with each other.

Industrial Baking and Drying - the industrial process of subjecting

materials to heat for the purpose of removing solvents or moisture from the
same or to fuse certain chemical salts to form a uniform glazing the surface
of materials being treated.
Jumper - a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in an
electrical system.

Occupancy - the purpose for which a building or portion thereof is used or intended to be
used.

Occupant - any person actually occupying and using a building or portions thereof by virtue
of a lease contract with the owner or administrator or by permission or sufferance of the
latter.

Organic Peroxide - a strong oxidizing organic compound which release oxygen readily. It
causes fire
when in contact with combustible materials especially under conditions of high temperature.

Overloading - the use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consume
electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.

Owner - the person who holds the legal right of possession or title to a building or real
property.

Oxidizing Material - a material that readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate
or support combustion.
Pressurized or Forced Draft Burning Equipment - type or burner where the fuel is
subjected to pressure prior to discharge into the combustion chamber and /or
which includes fans or other provisions for the introduction of air above normal
atmosphere pressure into the same combustion chamber.

Public Assembly Building - any building or structure where 50 0r more people

congregate, gather or assemble for any purpose.

Public Way - any street, alley or other strip of land unobstructed from the ground
to the sky, dedicated for public use.

Pyrophoric - descriptive of any substance that ignites spontaneously when

exposed to air.

Refining - a process where impurities or deleterious materials are removed from a

mixture in order to produce a pure element of compound. It shall also refer to
partial distillation and electrolysis.

Self Closing Doors - automatic closing doors that are designed to confine smoke
and heat and delay the spread o fire.
Smelting - melting or fusing of metallic ores or compounds so as to
separate impurities from pure metals.

Sprinkler System - an integrated network of hydraulically designed piping

installed in a building, structure or area with outlets arranged in a
systematic pattern which automatically discharges water when activated by
heat or combustion products from a fire.

Standpipe System - a system of vertical pipes in a building to which fire

hoses can be attached on each floor, including a system by which water is
made available to the outlet as needed.

Vestibule - a passage hall or ante chamber between the outer doors and
the interior parts of a house or building.

Vertical Shaft - a enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor
to floor as well as from the base to the top of the building.
RA no.9514 - Revised Fire Code of the Philippines
of 2008 (Dec. 19, 2008).

PD. 1185 - known as the fire code of the

Philippines, was enacted into law 1977, repealed
by RA no. 9514.

RA no. 9263 - Bureau of Fire Protection and

Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
Professionalization Act of 2004.
BFP Powers/Functions

  1. Preventions and suppression of all destructive

      fires on
          a. buildings
          b. houses
          c. other structure
          d. forest
          e. land transportation vehicles
          f. ships/vessels
          g. petroleum industry installations
          h. plane crashes and similar incidents
  2. Enforcement of the Fire Code of the Philippines
  3. Investigate all causes of fire
  4. File proper complaints with the prosecutors office

•note: Vessel/Ship must be docked at piers or wharves or anchored in major

seaport.
BFP Organization
• Headed by a Chief who shall be assisted by a Deputy Chief. It shall composed of a
Provincial, District, City and Municipal stations.
•In large provinces, district offices may   be established to be headed by a district fire
marshal.
•In large cities and municipalities, district offices may be established with subordinate fire
stations headed by a district fire marshal.
•There shall be at least one fire station in every provincial, capital, city and municipality.
•The local government unit shall provide the site of the fire station.

BFP Key Positions

• The Chief of the Fire Bureau - rank is Director.
•The Deputy Chief of the Fire Bureau - rank is Chief Superintendent.
•Assistant Regional Director for Fire Protection - rank is Senior Superintendent.
•District Fire Marshall of NCR District Offices - rank is Senior Superintendent.
•Provincial Fire Marshall - rank is Superintendent.
•District Fire Marshall of Province - rank is Chief Inspector.
•Chief of City/Municipal Fire Station - rank is Senior Inspector.
Key Positions – Qualifications

1. Municipal Fire Marshal - should have the rank of Senior Inspector.

    a. Must have finished at least 2nd year Bachelor of Laws or earned
at least 12 units in a masters degree program in public
administration, management, engineering, public safety, criminology
or other related discipline.
    b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary training of career
courses for such position as may be established by the fire bureau.

2. City Fire Marshal - should have the rank of Chief Inspector.

    a. Must have finished at least 2nd year Bachelor of Laws or earned
at least 24 units in a masters degree program in public
administration, management, engineering, public safety, criminology
or other related disciplines.
    b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary training or career
courses for such position as may be established by the fire bureau.
3. District Fire Marshal/Provincial Fire Marshal/Assistant Regional Director for
Administration/Assistant Regional Director for Operations/Chief of Directorial Staff - should
have the rank of Superintendent.
    a. Must be a graduate of Bachelor of Laws or a
        holder of a Masters degree in public
        administration, management, engineering,
        public safety, criminology, or other related
        disciplines.
    b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary
        training or career courses for such position as
        may be established by the fire bureau.

4. District Fire marshal for the NCR/Regional Director for Fire Protection/Director of the
Directorate of the National Headquarters Office - should have at least the rank of Senior
Superintendent.
    a. Must be a graduate of Bachelor of Laws or a
        holder of masters degree in public administration,
        management, engineering, public safety,
        criminology, or other related disciplines.
    b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary
        training or career course for such position as may
        be established by the fire bureau.
5. Deputy Chief for Administration and Deputy Chief for Operation of the Fire
Bureau - should have the rank of Chief superintendent.
    a. Must be a member of the Philippine Bar or must
        be a holder of a masters degree in public
        administration, management, engineering,
        public safety, criminology or other related
        disciplines.
    b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary
        training or career courses as may be established
        by the fire bureau.

6. Chief of the Fire Bureau - should have the rank of Director.

    a. Must be a member of the Philippine Bar or a
        masters degree in public administration,
        management, engineering, public safety,
        criminology or other related discipline.
    b. Must satisfactory passed the necessary
        the training or career courses for such position
        as may be established by the fire bureau.
Police Report
Writing
(Technical English)
 Police Report Writing (Technical English)
Definition of Terms:

 Affidavit - summary judgment. The kind of affidavit necessary to support a summary judgement
is that affidavit from which it may be clearly drawn that certain facts pleaded by either party are
certain, undisputed and indubitable which dispense with the hearing or trial of the case.(PNP
definition).

After operation report - it is a report that may be rendered after any successful police operation
that leads to the arrest of any member or some members of syndicated crime group.

After soco report - it is a report rendered by the team leader of the SOCO that conducted the
scene of the crime operations, processing or investigation.

Agents report - it is a report rendered by a documented agent who answers an intelligence

requirement.

Police Report - report made by the police containing the initial statement made by the victim at
the time she or he reported the crime. A police report consists of a testament, specific details of
the event and names of people involved.
Agreement - Proposal. A proposal remains an offer even if not answered
and irrespective of the length of time that has passed. It only becomes an
agreement when accepted by the other party.(PNP definition).

Book of account - a book containing charges and showing a continuous

dealing with persons generally. To be admissible in evidence, it must be kept
as an account book and the charges made in the usual course of business.

Case officer - the person responsible for and in charge of the investigation of
the case.

Police blotter - a record or log where all types of operational and under
cover dispatches shall be recorded containing the 5 "W" and 1 "H"(Who,
What, Where, When, Why, and How of an information.

Spot report - refers to an immediate initial investigative or incident report

addressed to higher headquarters pertaining to the commission of the
crime, occurrence of natural or man-made disaster or unusual incidents involving
loss of lives and damage of properties.
Tactical interrogation report - the report rendered by an
interrogator which contain the following information:
• Personal and family background
• Educational background
• Professional background
• Criminal activities, associates/armaments
• Plans

Summary of information (SOI) - an intelligence report rendered

regarding any illegal activity or violation of laws being observed by
intelligence operatives within a given area of responsibility. This is
the usual basis of case operations hence, information received
should be cared, validated, countered checked, analyzed and
evaluated.
Index Crime - are very serious crimes that happen frequently or
regularly that they can serve as index of the crime situation. Index
Crime is basically anything that is physically pursued by the person
committing the crime while non index crimes consists of non physical
confrontation.

Non Index Crime - refers to all crime not classified as index crime.
These crimes are mostly victimless.

Crime Solution Efficiency - means the number of crimes solved after

the arrest of the suspects and filing of charges against them.

Crime Clearance Efficiency - means the number of crimes considered

solved because the suspects have been identified and charged but
they remain at large.
Crime Incidence - the number of crimes  reported as index
or non index crimes within a given period.

Crime Volume - is a basic indicator of the frequency of

known criminal activity. It represents the number of
reported offenses.

Crime Trend - represents the percentage change in crime

based on data reported in a prior equivalent period.

Crime Rate - the measure that gives an index of crime

occurring in a particular jurisdiction for a specific time
period.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
True or False
The "true or false" question is comprised of a
statement, which is the question or stem, and two
answer choices -- true or false. It is used to measure
your ability to recognize the correctness of the
statements and to test critical thinking. In this
question, the answer is "true" only if the statement is
completely true. The stem usually contains keywords
such as "always" and "never." For example: "Lightning
is always followed by thunder. (A) True (B) False"
Odd One Out
The “odd one out” question lists several answers
in a particular pattern and asks you to choose
the answer that does not fit or match the other
answers. This type of question is used to test the
ability to think about patterns and relationships
between ideas. For example: "Which one of the
following does not fit? (A) banana (B) apple (C)
broccoli (D) orange"
Negative Questions
Another question you may see is the "negative"
question. Careful reading is important because this
question examines whether you are reading the
questions and answers carefully. The "negative"
question specifically asks you to choose the answer
that is not correct. For example: "Which of the
following statements about the moon is NOT true? (A)
The moon is inhabited. (B) The moon orbits the Earth.
(C) The moon is full of craters."
Best Answer
The "best answer" question is a difficult one to answer
because more than one answer might seem true, but
the correct answer is the one that is most true. Such
questions are used when an exact answer is less likely,
and they test critical thinking skills. Keywords in the
question, like "best" and "most likely," indicate that
you must choose the best answer out of the list of
seemingly correct responses. For example: "Which of
the following is the best way to eat healthy?"
Multiple Answer and Combined Response
Two types list two or more possible answer choices. Both test critical
thinking skills and ask the test taker to recall several ideas at once. In
the "multiple answer" type, the choices may include two or more
correct answers, and you need to choose all of the correct answers. For
example, if the correct answers are A and B, then you choose both A
and B. The other type is the "combined response" question. Again, the
answers include two or more correct choices, but only one choice is the
correct answer -- the one that lists all the choices. For example: "Which
of the following is classified as a fruit? (A) apple (B) orange (C) tomato
(D) both A and B (E) A, B and C"
1.    What legal doctrine was established
in the case Mapp vs. Ohio?

A.  Archipelagic Doctrine
B.  Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine
C.  Miranda Doctrine           
D.  Eclectics Doctrine
E.  None of these
1.    What legal doctrine was established
in the case Mapp vs. Ohio?

A.  Archipelagic Doctrine
B.  Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine
C.  Miranda Doctrine           
D.  Eclectics Doctrine
E.  None of these
2.    The testimony of witnesses reduced
in writing while under oath is generally
called

A.  Admission
B.  Declaration
C.  Information
D.  Deposition
2.    The testimony of witnesses reduced
in writing while under oath is generally
called

A.  Admission
B.  Declaration
C.  Information
D.  Deposition
3.    Human sources of information who
voluntarily provide facts to the detectives
are generally known as

A.  Informers
B.  Suspects
C.  Informants
D.  Respondents
3.    Human sources of information who
voluntarily provide facts to the detectives
are generally known as

A.  Informers
B.  Suspects
C.  Informants
D.  Respondents
4.    Proof beyond reasonable doubt is the
weight and sufficiency of evidence
needed to convict the defendant in

A.  administrative cases
B.  civil cases
C.  criminal cases
D.  all of the above
4.    Proof beyond reasonable doubt is the
weight and sufficiency of evidence
needed to convict the defendant in

A.  administrative cases
B.  civil cases
C.  criminal cases
D.  all of the above
5.    The stage of criminal interview
purposely done to clarify information
already gathered or to gather additional
facts about the case is the:

A.  initial interview
B.  follow-up interview
C.  concluding interview
D.  preliminary interview
5.    The stage of criminal interview
purposely done to clarify information
already gathered or to gather additional
facts about the case is the:

A.  initial interview
B.  follow-up interview
C.  concluding interview
D.  preliminary interview
6.    The prosecutor is the proper
authority to subscribe in the

A.  Affidavit
B.  Complaint
C.  Joint affidavit
D.  Information
6.    The prosecutor is the proper
authority to subscribe in the

A.  Affidavit
B.  Complaint
C.  Joint affidavit
D.  Information
7.    Any person arrested, detained or
under custodial investigation shall at all
times be assisted by

A.  Prosecutor
B.  police officer
C.  counsel
D.  complaint
7.    Any person arrested, detained or
under custodial investigation shall at all
times be assisted by

A.  Prosecutor
B.  police officer
C.  counsel
D.  complaint
8.    Remuneration gain is the main
motive of

A.  Informants
B.  Criminals
C.  Informers
D.  Witnesses
8.    Remuneration gain is the main
motive of

A.  Informants
B.  Criminals
C.  Informers
D.  Witnesses
9.    As established by our Supreme Court
through the case People vs. Galit, the first
step in arresting an offender is

A.  show the warrant of arrest

B.  inform the nature and cause of
accusation
C.  identify yourself as a law enforcer
D.  give the Miranda warning
9.    As established by our Supreme Court
through the case People vs. Galit, the first
step in arresting an offender is

A.  show the warrant of arrest

B.  inform the nature and cause of
accusation
C.  identify yourself as a law enforcer
D.  give the Miranda warning
10.  Planned and coordinated legal search
conducted to locate physical evidences at
the locus criminis refers to

A.  Crime scene search

B.  Intelligence
C.  Instrumentation
D.  Covert operation
10.  Planned and coordinated legal search
conducted to locate physical evidences at
the locus criminis refers to

A.  Crime scene search

B.  Intelligence
C.  Instrumentation
D.  Covert operation
11.  A self-incriminatory statement not
tantamount to acknowledgement of
criminal guilt is called

A.  Complaint
B.  Admission
C.  Confession
D.  Deposition
11.  A self-incriminatory statement not
tantamount to acknowledgement of
criminal guilt is called

A.  Complaint
B.  Admission
C.  Confession
D.  Deposition
12.  The fundamentals responsibility of the
officer in charge of protecting the crime scene
is 
A.  interrogating the witnesses
B.  engaging in the search for traces left by the
search for traces left by the criminal
C.  removal  of evidence which may prone
important to the case
D.  preserving the site of the crime in the
same physical condition as it was left by the
perpetrator
12.  The fundamentals responsibility of the
officer in charge of protecting the crime scene
is 
A.  interrogating the witnesses
B.  engaging in the search for traces left by the
search for traces left by the criminal
C.  removal  of evidence which may prone
important to the case
D.  preserving the site of the crime in the
same physical condition as it was left by the
perpetrator
13.  Which of the following is NOT among
the rules to be observed in questioning a
suspect?

A.  simplicity of the question

B.  one question at a time
C.  accepted applied answer
D.  saving faces
13.  Which of the following is NOT among
the rules to be observed in questioning a
suspect?

A.  simplicity of the question

B.  one question at a time
C.  accepted applied answer
D.  saving faces
14.  One of the following is an art, which
deal with the identity and location of the
offender and provides evidence of his
guilt through criminal proceedings.

A.  information
B.  interrogation
C.  instrumentation
D.  criminal investigation
14.  One of the following is an art, which
deal with the identity and location of the
offender and provides evidence of his
guilt through criminal proceedings.

A.  information
B.  interrogation
C.  instrumentation
D.  criminal investigation
15.  The declaration made under a
consciousness of an impending death is
called

A.  Res gestae  
B.  Declaration against interest
C.  Dying declaration
D.  all of these
15.  The declaration made under a
consciousness of an impending death is
called

A.  Res gestae  
B.  Declaration against interest
C.  Dying declaration
D.  all of these
16.  A police officer testifying to the fact
that he observed the defendant assault
the victim is presenting to the court ____
evidence.

A.  circumstantial evidence
B.  direct evidence
C.  artificial evidence
D.  real evidence
16.  A police officer testifying to the fact
that he observed the defendant assault
the victim is presenting to the court ____
evidence.

A.  circumstantial evidence
B.  direct evidence
C.  artificial evidence
D.  real evidence
17.  A standard arrow to designate the
north must be indicating to facilitate
proper orientation. This is known as
 
A.  map      
B.  wind whirl       
C.  compass direction    
D.  window 
17.  A standard arrow to designate the
north must be indicating to facilitate
proper orientation. This is known as
 
A.  map      
B.  wind whirl       
C.  compass direction    
D.  window 
18.  The profession and scientific
discipline directed to the recognition,
identification, individualization and
evaluation of physical science by
application of natural sciences in matters
of law and science.
A.  chemist   
B.  scientist   
C.  toxicologist   
D.  criminalistics 
18.  The profession and scientific
discipline directed to the recognition,
identification, individualization and
evaluation of physical science by
application of natural sciences in matters
of law and science.
A.  chemist   
B.  scientist   
C.  toxicologist   
D.  criminalistics 
19.  The number of person who handle
the evidence from the scene of the crime
and between the times of the
commission of the crime up to the final
disposition of the case.

A.  time of disposition   
B.  chain of custody 
C.  time of custody
D.  time of disposal
19.  The number of person who handle
the evidence from the scene of the crime
and between the times of the
commission of the crime up to the final
disposition of the case.

A.  time of disposition   
B.  chain of custody 
C.  time of custody
D.  time of disposal
20.  A technique useful in investigation
with the application of instrumental
detection of deception is called

A.  ballistic test 
B.  questioned document test
C.  fingerprint testing 
D.  polygraph testing
20.  A technique useful in investigation
with the application of instrumental
detection of deception is called

A.  ballistic test 
B.  questioned document test
C.  fingerprint testing 
D.  polygraph testing
21.  The warrant of arrest is good only for

A.  10 days
B.  15 days
C.  20 days
D.  none of these
21.  The warrant of arrest is good only for

A.  10 days
B.  15 days
C.  20 days
D.  none of these
22.  The effectiveness of this tool in
investigation depends on the craft, logic,
and psychological insight of the initiator
in interpreting the information relevant to
the case is called

A.  instrumentation
B.  information
C.  interrogation
D.  interview
22.  The effectiveness of this tool in
investigation depends on the craft, logic,
and psychological insight of the initiator
in interpreting the information relevant to
the case is called

A.  instrumentation
B.  information
C.  interrogation
D.  interview
23.  The systematic classification of the
fundamentals or basic factors of a
criminal method is called

A.  corpus delicti
B.  modus operandi
C.  methodology
D.  all of the above
23.  The systematic classification of the
fundamentals or basic factors of a
criminal method is called

A.  corpus delicti
B.  modus operandi
C.  methodology
D.  all of the above
24.  It is a type of reconstruction of crime
wherein collected information is analyzed
carefully thereby developing a theory of
the crime.

A.  deductive reasoning
B.  physical reconstruction
C.  inductive reasoning
D.  mental reconstruction
24.  It is a type of reconstruction of crime
wherein collected information is analyzed
carefully thereby developing a theory of
the crime.

A.  deductive reasoning
B.  physical reconstruction
C.  inductive reasoning
D.  mental reconstruction
25.  The defense of the suspect that he
was present in a place other than the
crime scene during the estimated time
when the crime was committed is called

A.  Defense
B.  Allegation
C.  Alibi
D.  Statement
25.  The defense of the suspect that he
was present in a place other than the
crime scene during the estimated time
when the crime was committed is called

A.  Defense
B.  Allegation
C.  Alibi
D.  Statement
26.  These are hints that suggest lines of
investigative actions and information that
is valuable in expanding the universe of
suspects, identifying prime suspects and
finding the guilty person. This is called

A.  Information
B.  Investigative leads
C.  Corpus delicti
D.  Modus operandi
26.  These are hints that suggest lines of
investigative actions and information that
is valuable in expanding the universe of
suspects, identifying prime suspects and
finding the guilty person. This is called

A.  Information
B.  Investigative leads
C.  Corpus delicti
D.  Modus operandi
27.  Complaint document is filed by the

A.  Police to the prosecutor's office

B.  Offended party directly to the court
C.  Fiscal against the offended party
D.  Prosecutor directly to the court
27.  Complaint document is filed by the

A.  Police to the prosecutor's office

B.  Offended party directly to the court
C.  Fiscal against the offended party
D.  Prosecutor directly to the court
28.  That  type  of reasoning used in
reconstruction of  the  crime whereby
 the detective assumes a theory based  on
 collected information is regarded as

A.  deduction approach
B.  logical reasoning
C.  inductive approach
D.  positive approach
28.  That  type  of reasoning used in
reconstruction of  the  crime whereby
 the detective assumes a theory based  on
 collected information is regarded as

A.  deduction approach
B.  logical reasoning
C.  inductive approach
D.  positive approach
29.  The  lawful  act  of restraining a
person  believed  to  have committed  a
crime and placing him under custody  is
 termed as

A.  Imprisonment
B.  Restraint
C.  Arrest
D.  Detention
29.  The  lawful  act  of restraining a
person  believed  to  have committed  a
crime and placing him under custody  is
 termed as

A.  Imprisonment
B.  Restraint
C.  Arrest
D.  Detention
30.  The use of scientific instruments,
methods and processes while detecting
and investigating crimes is technically
called

A.  Criminal Justice
B.  Forensic Science
C.  Criminalistics 
D.  Instrumentation
30.  The use of scientific instruments,
methods and processes while detecting
and investigating crimes is technically
called

A.  Criminal Justice
B.  Forensic Science
C.  Criminalistics 
D.  Instrumentation
31.  Preponderance of evidence is the
weight and sufficiency of evidence
needed to convict a person in

A.  Murder cases
B.  Civil cases
C.  Criminal cases
D.  None of these
31.  Preponderance of evidence is the
weight and sufficiency of evidence
needed to convict a person in

A.  Murder cases
B.  Civil cases
C.  Criminal cases
D.  None of these
32.  The two forms of arrest are arrest by
actual restraint and

A.  By forcible surrender

B.  By detention
C.  By voluntary submission
D.  By virtue of a warrant
32.  The two forms of arrest are arrest by
actual restraint and

A.  By forcible surrender

B.  By detention
C.  By voluntary submission
D.  By virtue of a warrant
33.  In portrait parle method the witness
provides a vivid physical appearance of
the offender. Portrait parle means

A.  Oral discussion
B.  Verbal description
C.  Photographic files
D.  Facial appearance
33.  In portrait parle method the witness
provides a vivid physical appearance of
the offender. Portrait parle means

A.  Oral discussion
B.  Verbal description
C.  Photographic files
D.  Facial appearance
34.  The application of the same or
substantially the same pattern, plan,
system of a particular offender in
committing a crime is known as

A.  Premeditation
B.  plan
C.  modus operandi
D.  all of the above
34.  The application of the same or
substantially the same pattern, plan,
system of a particular offender in
committing a crime is known as

A.  Premeditation
B.  plan
C.  modus operandi
D.  all of the above
35.  The method employed by peace
officers to  trap and catch malefactor in
inflagrante delicto is known as

A.  modus operandi
B.  “buy-bust”
C.  Entrapment
D.  Instigation
35.  The method employed by peace
officers to  trap and catch malefactor in
inflagrante delicto is known as

A.  modus operandi
B.  “buy-bust”
C.  Entrapment
D.  Instigation
36.  An effort made to determine what
actually occurred and what the
circumstances of a crime were is called

A.  physical construction
B.  crime scene investigation
C.  mental reconstruction    
D.  crime reconstruction
36.  An effort made to determine what
actually occurred and what the
circumstances of a crime were is called

A.  physical construction
B.  crime scene investigation
C.  mental reconstruction    
D.  crime reconstruction
37.  Which of the following is under the
Field Laboratory Work of the SOCO?

A.  Macro-etching
B.  DNA examination
C.  Casting
D.  DNA typing
37.  Which of the following is under the
Field Laboratory Work of the SOCO?

A.  Macro-etching
B.  DNA examination
C.  Casting
D.  DNA typing
38.  “Releases the crime scene to the
officer on case” is the function of

A.  evidence custodian
B.  team leader
C.  sketcher
D.  technician
38.  “Releases the crime scene to the
officer on case” is the function of

A.  evidence custodian
B.  team leader
C.  sketcher
D.  technician
39.  “The xerox copy signed by Rose” is an
example of

A.  document evidence
B.  direct evidence
C.  secondary evidence
D.  positive evidence
39.  “The xerox copy signed by Rose” is an
example of

A.  document evidence
B.  direct evidence
C.  secondary evidence
D.  positive evidence
40.  Evidence which the law does not
allow to be contradicted is known as

A.  competent evidence
B.  conclusive evidence
C.  expert evidence
D.  substantial evidence
40.  Evidence which the law does not
allow to be contradicted is known as

A.  competent evidence
B.  conclusive evidence
C.  expert evidence
D.  substantial evidence
41.  An interrogation technique where to
police officers are employed, a relentless
investigator and a king-hearted man is
called

A.  shifting the blame

B.  mutt and jeff
C.  tom and jerry
D.  none of the above
41.  An interrogation technique where to
police officers are employed, a relentless
investigator and a king-hearted man is
called

A.  shifting the blame

B.  mutt and jeff
C.  tom and jerry
D.  none of the above
42.  What law enumerated and provided
definition of the differ­ent felonies in the
Philippines?

A.  RA 8177
B.  RA 6975
C.  RA 8353
D.  None of these
42.  What law enumerated and provided
definition of the differ­ent felonies in the
Philippines?

A.  RA 8177
B.  RA 6975
C.  RA 8353
D.  None of these
43.  The following are authorized to issue
a valid search warrant, except:

A.  Appellate Judge
B.  Presiding Judge of MCTC
C.  Chief Prosecutor
D.  RTC Judge
43.  The following are authorized to issue
a valid search warrant, except:

A.  Appellate Judge
B.  Presiding Judge of MCTC
C.  Chief Prosecutor
D.  RTC Judge
44.  Which of the following detective
system prioritized on information that are
bought?

A.  American System
B.  English System
C.  French System
D.  All of these
44.  Which of the following detective
system prioritized on information that are
bought?

A.  American System
B.  English System
C.  French System
D.  All of these
45.  In crime reconstruction, gathering
information first then developing a theory
on how the crime was committed is one
approach, otherwise known as:

A.  Deductive reasoning
B.  Inductive reasoning
C.  Productive reasoning
D.  Pragmatic reasoning
45.  In crime reconstruction, gathering
information first then developing a theory
on how the crime was committed is one
approach, otherwise known as:

A.  Deductive reasoning
B.  Inductive reasoning
C.  Productive reasoning
D.  Pragmatic reasoning
46.  The branch of medicine, which deal
with the application of medical
knowledge to the purpose of law and in
the Administration of justice.

A.  Nursing
B.  Medico Legal
C.  Legal
D.  None of these
46.  The branch of medicine, which deal
with the application of medical
knowledge to the purpose of law and in
the Administration of justice.

A.  Nursing
B.  Medico Legal
C.  Legal
D.  None of these
47.  It pertains to law, arising out of, it
also refer anything conformable to the
law.

A.  Legal
B.  Rule
C.  Sanction
D.  All of these
47.  It pertains to law, arising out of, it
also refer anything conformable to the
law.

A.  Legal
B.  Rule
C.  Sanction
D.  All of these
48.  One of the following denotes things
belonging to the court of law or use in
court or legal proceeding or something
fitted for legal or legal argumentation.

A.  Jurisdiction
B.  Jurisprudence
C.  Law or Legal
D.  None of these
48.  One of the following denotes things
belonging to the court of law or use in
court or legal proceeding or something
fitted for legal or legal argumentation.

A.  Jurisdiction
B.  Jurisprudence
C.  Law or Legal
D.  None of these
49.  The legal maxim which means “both
drivers displayed negligence”

A.  Res Ipsa Loquitor

B.  Pare Delicto
C.  Inflagrante Delicto
D.  Locus criminis
49.  The legal maxim which means “both
drivers displayed negligence”

A.  Res Ipsa Loquitor

B.  Pare Delicto
C.  Inflagrante Delicto
D.  Locus criminis
50.  Which of the following is useful in the
investigation of hit and run accidents?

A.  Motor vehicle registers

B.  Employees of the body fender shops
C.  Records of accidents and stolen
vehicles
D.  all of the above
50.  Which of the following is useful in the
investigation of hit and run accidents?

A.  Motor vehicle registers

B.  Employees of the body fender shops
C.  Records of accidents and stolen
vehicles
D.  all of the above
 Thank You
and God bless!!