1.

Quinoline alkaloids are biosynthesized via

which one of the following pathways?

(A) Shikimic acid - tyrosine

(B) Shikimic acid - tryptophan
(C) Shikimic acid - cathinone
(D) Shikimic acid - phenylalanine
2. Khellin is an active constituent of which one of the
following plants?
(A) Prunus serona
(B) Tribulus terrestis
(C) Ammi visnaga
(D) Vanilla planifolia
3. Which one of the following compounds is useful for the
stimulation of cell division and release of lateral bud
dormancy?
(A) Zeatin
(B) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
(C) Indoleacetic acid
(D) Picloram
 4. A powdered drug has the following microscopic characters:
Anther cells, arenchyma, pollen grains, phloem fibers, volatile
oil cells and stone cells. The powder is obtained from which of
the followings?
(A) Clove bud powder

(B) Clove bud powder with stalk

(C) Mother Clove

(D) None of the above

5. Which of the following ergot alkaloids is water soluble and
shows blue fluorescence?

(A) Ergosine

(B) Ergotamine

(C) Ergocristine

(D) Ergometrine
6. Goldbeater's skin test is used to detect the presence of which on
of the following classes of compounds?

(A) Tannins

(B) Steroids

(C) Glycerides

(D) Resins
7. Phenylethyl isoquinoline is the precursor of which of the
following alkaloids?

(A) Colchicine

(B) Papaverine

(C) Emetine

(D) Cephaline
8. Arrange the following fatty acids in decreasing order of
their unsaturation
(highest to lowest):
[P] Stearic [Q] Oleic acid [R] Linolenicacid [S] Linoleic acid

(A) P>Q>R>S

(B) S>R>P>Q

(C) R>S>Q>P

(D) Q>P>R>S
9. Each Of the following options lists a phytoconstituent, its
phytochemical grouping, pharmacological activity and
corresponding semisynthetic analogue. Find a
MISMATCHING option.
(A) Podophyllotoxin, lignan, anticancer, etoposide

(B) Sennoside, anthraquinone, laxative, sinigrin

(C) Atropine, alkaloid, anticholinergic, homatropine

(D) THC. terpenophenolic, psychoactive, nabilone

10. Which of the following mechanisms is NOT related to
platelet aggregation inhibitory action?

(A) ADP receptor antagonism

(B) Glycoprotein II b/III a receptor antagonism

(C) Phosphodiesterase inhibition

(D) Prostacvclin inhibition

11. Which of the following species is being inactivated by the
enzyme Dipeptidyl peptidase-4?

(A) Oxytocin

(B) Vasopressin

(C) Incretin

(D) Glucagon
 12. Two genetic types of Cannabis i.e. drug type and Hemp type
are cultivated.
[p] Drug type cannabis is rich in (-)A-trans-tetra hydro cannabinol .
[Q] Hemp type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol
[R] Drug type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol -
[S] Hemp type cannabis contains elongated bast fibres

(A) P is true, Q is true, R is true, S is true

(B) P is true, Q is false, R is false, S is true

(C) P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true

(D) P is false, Q is false, R is true, S is false

13 .Inhibition/induction of which of the following Cytochrome
P450enzyme system is most likely to be involved in important
drug-drug interactions?

(A) CYP3A4

(B) CYP2D6

(C) CYP2C9

(D) CYP1A2
14. Choose the correct statement about the given four
diseases?
[P] Cardiomyopathy ],Q] Rheumatoid arthritis
[R] Myasthenia gravis [S] Ulcerative colitis

(A) Q & S are autoimmune disorders

(B) P & Q are autoimmune disorders
(C) P & R are not autoimmune disorders
(D) R & S are not autoimmune disorders
15. Most of the emergency contraceptives have one of the
following active ingredients?

(A) Estradiol

(B) Norethindron

(C) Misoprostol

(D) Levonorgesterel
16. Antiretroviral Raltegravir is unique, because of which of
its following actions?

(A) Integrase inhibition

(B) CCR5 Co-receptor antagonism

(C) Fusion inhibition

(D) Reverse transcriptase inhibition

17. Which one of the followings is NOT an example of G-
protein coupled receptor?

(A) Muscarinic cholinergic receptor

(B) Alpha adrenorceptor

(C) Nicotinic cholinergic receptor

(D) Beta adrenorceptor

18. Which of the following statements is FALSE for
artemisinin?
(A) It is a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide

(B) It is a drug of choice in prophylaxis of malaria

(C) It does not cure relapsing malaria
(D) It is useful in treatment of cerebral falciparum malaria
19. Which of the following antibiotics produces concentration
dependent bactericidal action and also possesses post-
antibiotic effect?
(A) Ceftazidime

(B) Azithromycin

(C) Amikacin

(D) Piperacillin
20. What is chemotaxis?

(A) Toxicity of chemicals

(B) Taxonomy of chemicals
(C) Inhibition of Inflammation
(D) Movement of leucocytes in inflammation
21. Which of the followings used in the treatment of
rheumatoid arthritis is NOT a biologic response modifier?

(A) Anakinra

(B) Leflunomide

(C) Etanercept

(D) Infliximab
22. Which of the followings is a noncompetitive inhibitor of
the enzyme reverse transcriptase in HIV?

(A) Lamivudine

(B) Nevirapine

(C) Abacavir

(D) Tenofovir
23. Which one of the followings is a beta lactamase inhibitor?

(A) Cyclodextrins

(B) Embonic acid

(C) Cephalosporanic acid

(D) Clavulanic acid

24. Neural tube defects may occur by which one of the
following anti-seizure drugs?

(A) Ethosuximide

(B) Vigabatrin

(C) Valproic acid

(D) Primidone
25. Which one of the following drying methods is commonly
used in pharma industry for drjing of soft shell capsules?

(A) Truck drying

(B) Fluid bed drying

(C) Vacuum drying

(D) Microwave drying
26. If C is the concentration of dissolved drug and Cs is the
saturation concentration. In which case the sink conditions
are said to be maintained?
(A) C < 20% of Cs

(B) C > 20% of Cs

(C) C < 10% of Cs

(D) C >10% of Cs
27. All of the followings are indications for use of ACE
inhibitors EXCEPT for one. Identify that.
(A) Hypertension

(B) Myocardial infarction

(C) Left ventricular dysfunction

(D) Pheochromocytoma
28. Which water is used for hand washing in a change room
of pharmaceutical manufacturing plant?

(A) Potable water

(B) Purified water

(C) Disinfectant water

(D) Soap water

29. Which one of the followings does NOT afford a
macromolecular inclusion compound?
(A) Zeolites

(B) Dextrins

(C) Silica gels

(D) Cyclodextrins
 30. Which condition does not apply as per Indian law while
conducting single dose bioavailability study of an immediate
release product?
(A) Sampling period should be at least three t1/2 e i

(B) Sampling should represent pre-exposure, peak exposure and post-exposure phases

(C) There should be at least four sampling points during elimination phase

(D) Sampling should be continued till measured AUC is at least equal to 80% of AUC
31. Which of the following isotherm are produced when the heat
of condensation of successive layers is more than the heat of
adsorption of first layer?
(A) Type III and IV

(B) Type II and V

(C) Type I and III

(D) Type III and V

32. The minimal effective flow rate of air in Luminar Flow
hood should be not less than how many cubic feet per
minute?
(A) 10

(B) 50

(C) 100

(D) 1000
33. Which of the following pumps is used in handling of
corrosive liquids?

(A) Turbine pump

(B) Volute Pump

(C) Air binding pump

(D) Baltic pump

 34. Convert 90% v/v alcohol to Proof strength. Choose the
correct answer.
(A) 57.77° under proof

(B) 57.77° over proof

(C) 47.41° over proof

(D) 47.41° under proof

 35. What is the Heat of vaporization of water at 100:

(A) 2790 cal/ mole

(B) > 7290 cal / mole

(C) 7920 cal/mole

(D) 9720 cal/mole

36. Which of the followings act as a non-ionic emulsifying
agent?

(A) Triethanolamine oleate

(B) Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate

(C) N- Cetyl -N- ethylmorpholinium ethosulfate

(D) Dioctyl sulphosuccinate
37. Which of the following Schedules include shelf life of
drugs?

(A) Schedule F

(B) Schedule M

(C) Schedule G

(D) Schedule P
38. By addition of which of the followings the shells of soft
gelatin capsules may be made elastic?

(A) Polyethylene glycol

(B) Sorbitol

(C) Propylene glycol

(D) Dibutyl phthalate

39. Department of Transport Test (DOT) is performed for
which of the followings?

(A) Strip packing

(B) Aerosols

(C) Injection packing

(D) Glass containers

40. How many mL of 50% (w/v) dextrose solution and how
many mL of 5% (w/v) dextrose solution are required to
prepare 4500 mL of a 10% (w/v) solution?
(A) 500 mL of 50% and 4000 mL of 5%

(B) 1000 mL of 50% and 3500 mL of 5%

(C) 4000 mL of 50% and 500 mL of 5%

(D) 1500 mL of 50% and 3000 mL of 5%
41. P-Glycoprotein pump is responsible for which one of the
followings?

(A) Transporting the drugs from the enterocytes into the gut lumen

(B) Transporting the drugs from gut lumen into enterocytes

(C) Transporting the drugs from oral mucosa into blood capillaries

(D) Transporting the drugs from Peyer's patches into the gut lumen.
 42. The first stage of wetting on addition of a granulating
agent to the powders is
characterized by which one of the followings?
(A) Capillary state

(B) Pendular state

(C) Funicular state

(D) Droplet state

43. The degree of flocculation of a suspension is 1.5 and the
sedimentation volume is 0.75. What will be the ultimate
volume of deflocculated suspension?
(A) 2.0

(B) 1.5

(C) 0.75

(D) 0.5
 44. A drug is administered to a 65 Kg patient as 500 mg
tablets every 4 hours. Half- life of the drug is 3 h, volume of
distribution is 2 liter/Kg and oral bioavailability of the drug
is 0.85. Calculate the steady state concentration of the drug?
(A) 5.05mcg/ml

(B) 4.50 mcg/ml

(C) 3.53 mcg/ml

(D) 3.00 mcg/ml

 45. Statement [X] : Hofmeister series grades coagulating power
of electrolytes as per their ionic size.
Statement [Y] : The relative coagulating power is given by:
[P] Al+++ > Ba++ [Q] Li- > F- [R] NH4+ > Na+ Choose the
correct statement :
(A) Statement X is true but P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
(B) Statement X is false and P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
(C) Statement X is true and Q and R are false in Statement Y
(D) Statement X is false and P is false in Statement Y
46. Larger values of Ky in the Heckel Plot indicate formation
of what quality of tablets?

(A) Harder tablets

(B) Softer tablets

(C) Fluffy tablets

(D) Brittle tablets

47. Which is NOT applicable to protein binding?

(A) Klotz reciprocal plot

(B) Sandberg modified equation

(C) Blanchard equation

(D) Detli plot
48. According to USP, the speed regulating device of the
dissolution apparatus should be capable of maintaining the
speed within limits of what % of the selected speed?

(A) 1%

(B) 2%

(C) 4%

(D) 5%
49. Which statement is NOT true for steam distillation?

(A) It is also called differential distillation

(B) It can be used for separation of immiscible liquids

(C) It can be applied for volatile substances

(D) It can be used for separation of miscible liquids

50. What is Primogel?

(A) Substituted HPMC for direct compression

(B) Modified microcrystalline cellulose for direct compression

(C) Hydro gelling polymer for gel formation

(D) Modified starch for disintegration