Biomedical Science MCQ PDF

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79 Chapters
773 Verified Questions
 Biomedical Science
MCQ PDF
Cou
Biomedical Science is an interdisciplinary field that combines principles of biology,

chemistry, and medicine to understand the mechanisms of human health and disease.

This course covers topics such as anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, molecular biology,

microbiology, and pathology, focusing on how these sciences contribute to medical

research, diagnosis, and treatment. Students develop skills in laboratory techniques,

data analysis, and scientific communication, preparing them for careers in healthcare,

research, diagnostics, and the biotechnology industry. Through theoretical learning and

practical experience, the course provides a robust foundation for understanding how

scientific discoveries translate into advances in medical practice.

Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock

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79 Chapters
773 Verified Questions
773 Flashcards
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Page 2
 Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by the term 'de facto direct-to-consumer advertising'?
A) When a professional pharmacy body advertises in a popular magazine about a
particular medicine.
B) When a professional nursing body advertises in a nursing journal about a particular
medicine.
C) When a pharmaceutical company provides information about specific
characteristics of a particular medication in the popular media but does not mention
the name of the medication.
D) When a professional pharmacy body provides information about specific
characteristics of a particular medication in the popular media but does not mention
the name of the medication.
Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following health professionals can decrease the incidence of
polypharmacy?
A) Medical practitioner
B) Pharmacist
C) Nurse
D) All of the above
Answer: D

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Page 3
 Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the drug order is unclear,the health professional should:
A) ask a colleague to interpret the writing.
B) check what other medications the patient is taking and have an educated guess.
C) question the prescriber about what was intended.
D) withhold the medication.
Answer: C

Q2) Pharmacy medicines are substances that:

A) are available for use but require restriction of manufacture, supply, distribution,
possession and use to reduce abuse, misuse and physical or psychological
dependence.
B) require professional advice from a pharmacist and should be available from a
pharmacy or, where a pharmacy service is not available, from a licensed person.
C) are provided on the order of persons permitted by legislation to prescribe and should
be available from a pharmacist on prescription.
D) have a 2 potential for causing harm, the extent of which can be reduced through the
use of distinctive packaging with strong warnings and safety directions.
Answer: B

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Page 4
 Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The doctor tells the health professional to administer excessive doses of opioid
analgesic and sedative drugs to relieve the client's intractable pain,but not to tell the
client's family.Which ethical principle would be breached if the health professional gives
the drugs but does not tell the family?
A) Veracity
B) Confidentiality
C) Justice
D) Beneficence
Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following is an instrument that is used to uphold the right of autonomy?
A) Therapeutic privilege
B) Non-voluntary euthanasia
C) Informed and valid consent
D) A not for resuscitation (NFR) order
Answer: C

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Page 5
 Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health

Professionals in Medicine Adherence, Education and

Advocacy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been
diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most
helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.

Q2) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights
in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by
adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False

Q3) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all
that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment
Page 6regimen

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 Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health

Professionals in Medicine Management

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following healthcare workers have some prescribing rights,are able to
order context-specific pathology and radiology tests,and are able to make limited
referrals?
A) assistant in nursing
B) registered nurse
C) nurse practitioner
D) nurse researcher

Q2) The evolution of nurses into practitioners with prescribing abilities is an example of
how roles have changed in relation to drug therapy.
A)True
B)False

Q3) Which of the following health professionals treat clients having temporary or
permanent physical disability by physical treatment modalities (such as
exercise,massage,splinting and electrical stimulation)that often require supplementary
drug therapy?
A) Prescriber
B) Nurse
C) Physiotherapist
D) Paramedic

Page 7
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 Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of

Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nasal preparations are not absorbed systemically.
A)True
B)False

Q2) Following use of a nebuliser unit:

A) dismantle the unit, rinse and shake to allow to dry.
B) pack it away in the client's bedside drawer.
C) dismantle the unit, rinse and towel dry.
D) leave it hanging by the client's bedside.

Q3) There is a risk of damage to the large sciatic nerve when administering a drug by
intramuscular injection into the gluteus muscle.
A)True
B)False

Q4) Suppositories,in general,when inserted into the lower third of the rectum:
A) always have a fast onset of action.
B) avoid the hepatic first pass.
C) are useful for ulcerative colitis.
D) are for laxative use only.

Q5) What effect does exercise have on absorption of a drug that is administered by
intramuscular injection? Page 8

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 Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.

Q2) New Zealand is the only country worldwide that has a comprehensive medicinal
policy at the Commonwealth level.
A)True
B)False

Q3) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines
Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the
community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines
management

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Page 9
 Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and

Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathomimetic agents such as adrenaline,noradrenaline and dopamine,which
are commonly used in critical care areas,cannot be given through a peripheral vein
because:
A) it would be difficult for the nurse to control the flow rate of a peripheral infusion.
B) a volumetric pump cannot be connected to a peripheral intravenous line.
C) there is greater risk of infection around the cannula site.
D) the agents can cause permanent necrosis of extremities.

Q2) A health professional is required to practice within the policies and procedures of
the health care agency and to follow the legal framework of government legislation.
A)True
B)False

Q3) Medication ordered at particular time intervals should be given on time to:
A) ensure that health professionals provide their care efficiently.
B) maintain consistent blood levels of the medication.
C) ensure that medications are not wasted.
D) ensure that patients have a structured approach to their care.

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Page 10
 Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.

Q2) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the
same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.

Q3) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.

A)True
B)False

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Page 11
 Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug

Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug
reaction.
A)True
B)False

Q2) A type A adverse drug reaction is:

A) a long-term effect that involves an interaction between circulating antibodies and a
medication.
B) a delayed effect that occurs when a medication binds onto the surface of blood cells
and induces an antibody reaction.
C) a predictable result based on the pharmacological profile of the medication.
D) an aberrant or idiosyncratic effect that is not predicted by the known pharmacology
of a medication.

Q3) A conscious client with respiratory depression should be placed in a:

A) flat position.
B) semi-upright position.
C) side position.
D) prone position.

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Page 12
 Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits

and Risks of Drug Treatment

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the correct formula for measuring population absolute risk?
A) Multiply the absolute risk for the incidence of an adverse event by the prevalence of
the use of the medication in the population.
B) Divide the absolute risk by the prevalence of use in a small subset of the population.
C) Multiply the absolute risk for the incidence of a statistically significant adverse event
by the likelihood of the medication being taken as directed.
D) Divide the possibility of an adverse event occurring by the number of persons likely to
be taking the medication.

Q2) An example of a medication that has been scrutinised for risk-benefit analysis is:
A) insulin.
B) warfarin.
C) alendronate.
D) prednisone.

Q3) Another name for absolute risk is risk difference.

A)True
B)False

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Page 13
 Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and
New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix

Q2) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group
called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.

Q3) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.

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Page 14
 Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Sample Questions
Q1) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption
through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously

Q2) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.

Q3) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a
tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False

Q4) Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:

A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.

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 Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a single dose of a drug with a half-life of 8 hours,how much of the drug remains
after 16 hours?
A) 50 per cent
B) 12.5 per cent
C) 100 per cent
D) 25 per cent

Q2) Drugs are metabolised by the liver to make them more:

A) amphipathic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophilic.
D) hydrophobic.

Q3) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:

A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.

Q4) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.

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Page 16
 Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs

Q2) When suxamethonium and thiopentone are mixed in the same syringe,the
drug-drug interaction that results is:
A) summation.
B) chemical drug incompatibility.
C) potentiation.
D) augmentation.

Q3) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.

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Page 17
 Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Competitive inhibition slows down the rate of normal chemical reactions because:
A) the normal substrate is malfunctioning.
B) the target enzyme binds temporarily with a look-alike substrate rather than its actual
substrate.
C) it takes a long time for the enzyme to develop memory or recognition of the
competing substances.
D) it causes enzyme confusion.

Q2) In general,a medicine that acts by chemical or physical means can be identified by
its dose,which is considerably higher than that required by medicines that act by
interacting with a receptor or enzyme system.
A)True
B)False

Q3) Which one of the following statements about pharmacodynamics is true?

A) A partial agonist can be as effective as an antagonist.
B) Ion channels do not have receptors.
C) Second messenger systems always involve G-proteins.
D) The antiasthma agent theophylline acts via a tyrosine kinase-linked receptor.

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Page 18
 Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of hypersensitivity reaction is characterised by antibody-antigen
complexes that precipitate out of the blood and lodge in tissues such as skin and
joints,inducing an inflammatory response?
A) Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B) Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C) Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D) Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

Q2) The final decision to approve a drug for marketing in Australia and New Zealand
rests with the:
A) Medicines Assessment Advisory Committee.
B) ministerial council (health).
C) Australian Drug Evaluation Committee.
D) Pharmaceutical Society.

Q3) The ability of a drug to produce an effect at a receptor is referred to as:

A) affinity.
B) specificity.
C) efficacy.
D) potency.

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Page 19
 Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many human enzymes have been associated with drug metabolism and
polymorphisms?
A) Less than 20
B) More than 20
C) A minimum of 50
D) None

Q2) Two techniques used in gene therapy include in vitro and vector methods.
A)True
B)False

Q3) One trial that clearly illustrated problems with gene therapy was among children
with severe combined immunodeficiency. What was the serious secondary effect
believed to be a result of this form of therapy?
A) Progression to HIV
B) Increased mortality from the initial diagnoses
C) Leukaemia
D) Heart failure

Q4) Cost-effectiveness is a potential barrier to genetic-based therapies.

A)True
B)False

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Page 20
 Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug

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Sample Questions
Q1) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and
unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False

Q2) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of
drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state

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Page 21
 Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to a young adult,which of the following tends to increase in the elderly?
A) The rate of gastric emptying
B) Plasma protein concentration
C) Metabolic processes
D) Adipose tissue levels

Q2) Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area,age and
bodyweight.
A)True
B)False

Q3) In neonates and infants,drug absorption through the skin is:

A) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
B) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
C) reduced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
D) reduced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.

Q4) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due
to variation in the volume of body fluid?

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Page 22
 Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy

Q2) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?

A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate

Q3) AZ is a 62-year-old farmer who is brought in to the emergency department for the
management of organophosphate poisoning.How should this be managed?
A) Administration of vitamin K
B) Administration of atropine
C) Administration of diphenhydramine
D) Administration of dicobalt edetate

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Page 23
 Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to facilitate the pooling of stomach contents and hinder their movement into
the duodenum,an unconscious person undergoing gastric lavage needs to be
positioned:
A) on their back.
B) on their right side.
C) on their left side.
D) in a semi-recumbent position

Q2) For which principle associated with the management of clinical drug overdose is
gastric lavage a component?
A) Client assessment
B) Life support
C) Drug decontamination and detoxification
D) Drug neutralisation and elimination

Q3) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over
all others is:
A) life support.
B) patient assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.

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Page 24
 Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.

Q2) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:

A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.

Q3) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?

A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors

Q4) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C

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 Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following could be perceived as a benefit associated with
anabolic-androgenic steroid use?
A) Mood swings
B) Premature completion of long bone growth
C) Increased skeletal muscle mass
D) An altered blood lipid profile

Q2) One rationale given for misuse of narcotic agents by sportspeople is to:
A) induce anabolic effects.
B) produce euphoria.
C) promote aggression.
D) increase blood oxygen-carrying capacity.

Q3) Which one of the following is considered a banned substance by WADA?

A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Diuretics

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Page 26
 Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart

Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in autonomic nervous system

(ANS)function?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Vasopressin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dobutamine

Q3) The parasympathetic division is activated in an emergency or stressful situation.

A)True
B)False

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Page 27
 Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a second messenger?
A) Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
B) Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)
C) Calcium ion
D) All of the above

Q2) Which of the following effects will occur with \(\alpha _{1}\) receptor stimulation?
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Vasodilation
C) Increased bile secretion
D) None of the above

Q3) Which of the following receptors are located presynaptically and are found on all
adrenergic nerve terminals?
A) ₁
B) ₂
C) ₁
D ₂

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Page 28
 Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents can be used to reverse the effects of acetylcholine?
A) Cholinergic receptor stimulation
B) Suxamethonium
C) Tubocurarine
D) Atropine

Q2) How many subtypes of muscarinic receptors have been identified?

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

Q3) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are useful in the treatment of:

A) Alzheimer's disease.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) anxiety.
D) depression.

Q4) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.

A)True
B)False

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Page 29
 Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid

Q2) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.

Q3) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above

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Page 30
 Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which route of administration is preferred is hypovolaemic shock occurs?
A) Intravenous
B) Oral
C) Rectal
D) Transdermal

Q2) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.

A)True
B)False

Q3) In comparison to second-generation antihistamines,first-generation antihistamines

cause more:
A) orthostasis.
B) nausea.
C) sedation.
D) vomiting.

Q4) Which secondary messenger is associated with H₁ receptor activation?

A) IP₃
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D

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Page 31
 Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for:
A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.

Q2) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:

A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.

Q3) Common eicosanoids include:

A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.

Q4) 5-HT₃ receptor antagonists have been used for:

A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.

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 Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

Q2) Endothelin receptor antagonists have been used for the treatment of:
A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) ischemic valve disease.
C) peripheral vascular disease.
D) none of the above.

Q3) Nitric oxide is a highly stable gas used for the management of cyanide poisoning.
A)True
B)False

Q4) Which secondary messenger is associated with endothelin receptors?

A) IP₃
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D

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Page 33
 Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter is:
A) dopamine.
B) glutamate.
C) serotonin.
D) GABA.

Q2) Which description best matches the role of the thalamus?

A) A sorting area for sensory and motor impulses that relays the information to the most
appropriate brain region
B) An area involved in appetite, body temperature, thirst and hormone release
C) The area involved in the primary perception and interpretation of sensation as well as
the initiation of skeletal muscle movement
D) A region involved in equilibrium, postural control and coordinated movement

Q3) Which part of the human brain is not considered part of the brainstem?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Midbrain
C) Pons
D) Cerebrum

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Page 34
 Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antipsychotic drug groups is associated with
photosensitivity,therefore requiring protection from the sun?
A) The butyrophenones
B) The phenothiazines
C) The dibenzodiazepines
D) The thioxanthenes

Q2) When switching from one antipsychotic medication to clozapine,the other

antipsychotic medication is reduced over:
A) one day, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
B) two days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
C) four days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
D) seven days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.

Q3) Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic agent?

A) Trifluoperazine
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Haloperidol
D) Clozapine

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Page 35
 Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) More than how many weeks of continuous treatment with benzodiazepines results in
dependence and tolerance?
A) One week
B) Two to four weeks
C) Four to six weeks
D) Six to eight weeks

Q2) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.

Q3) Which of the following benzodiazepine agents would be suitable for a plane journey
where the traveller is having trouble getting to sleep?
A) Clobazam
B) Diazepam
C) Triazolam
D) Nitrazepam

Q4) Which benzodiazepine agent would be considered suitable for a person who has
problems with early morning awakening?
A) Triazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Temazepam
D) Flunitrazepam

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Page 36
 Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The potential role of antiseizure drugs in the management of bipolar disorder is to:
A) elevate the synaptic levels of noradrenaline and serotonin.
B) antagonise the effects of GABA.
C) substitute for sodium ion in neuronal processes.
D) stabilise the erratic firing in pathways associated with mood.

Q2) All of the following antidepressants are suitable forms of therapy for a woman with
postpartum depression who is breastfeeding,EXCEPT for:
A) paroxetine.
B) fluoxetine.
C) sertraline.
D) fluvoxamine.

Q3) The potentially fatal 'serotonin syndrome' is associated with SSRI therapy for
depression.Which of the following signs or symptoms are not linked to serotonin
syndrome?
A) Weight gain
B) Hyperthermia
C) Sweating
D) Euphoria or drowsiness

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Page 37
 Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative

Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To ensure a uniform concentration of levodopa,the dose should be taken:
A) with milk.
B) before exercise.
C) immediately before breakfast and one hour after the evening meal.
D) at the same time each day and in a consistent manner in relation to food.

Q2) What is the rationale for giving levodopa and carbidopa as combination therapy for
Parkinson's disease?
A) Levodopa increases the therapeutic effect of carbidopa.
B) Carbidopa inhibits the breakdown of levodopa, increasing distribution to the central
nervous system.
C) Both preparations are required to increase the availability of dopamine in the
peripheries.
D) Levodopa increases the half-life of carbidopa.

Q3) Neuroleptic drug-induced Parkinsonian symptoms are often treated with:

A) an antimuscarinic agent.
B) a serotonin receptor agonist.
C) an antiemetic agent.
D) an increase in neuroleptic dose.

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Page 38
 Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drug mechanisms of action is desirable in the management of
seizures?
A) The stabilisation of the nerve membrane
B) Inhibiting the action of glutamate
C) The enhancement of GABA activity
D) All of the above

Q2) As well as an antiseizure agent,phenytoin is also used for treating:

A) dysrhythmia.
B) ADHD.
C) migraine.
D) Parkinson's disease.

Q3) Barbiturates remain in use for seizure management because:

A) they have few serious adverse effects.
B) their antiseizure activity is greater than their sedating activity.
C) physical dependence does not occur.
D) they are safe for use in patients with chronic kidney disease.

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Page 39
 Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Sample Questions
Q1) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid:
A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.

Q2) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:

A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.

Q3) In order to promote maximum benefit for the treatment of narcolepsy,modafinil

should be taken as a daily dose:
A) in the morning, or as two divided doses in the morning and at noon.
B) in the mid-afternoon.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.

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Page 40
 Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the equivalent dose of pethidine when compared with 10 mg of morphine?
A) 25-50 mg of pethidine
B) 50-75 mg of pethidine
C) 75-100 mg of pethidine
D) 100-125 mg of pethidine

Q2) The reason that methadone is used to help wean people off heroin is that:
A) methadone has a long half-life, which contributes to weak withdrawal symptoms.
B) methadone is administered orally, reducing syringe use.
C) methadone binds to opioid receptors, leaving few receptors available for a heroin
'high'.
D) all of the above.

Q3) The opioid receptors most involved in mediating analgesia are:

A) delta and epsilon.
B) kappa and delta.
C) mu and epsilon.
D) mu and kappa.

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Page 41
Chapter 40: Anti-inflammatory, Antipyretic and Non-opioid

Analgesic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin needs to be stopped approximately ________ before planned surgery and
some complex dental procedures because of the possibility of increased bleeding.
A) two days
B) seven days
C) two weeks
D) seven weeks

Q2) Which enzyme is the target for inhibition by the NSAIDs?

A) Cyclo-oxygenase
B) Phospholipase A
C) Adenylate cyclase
D) 5-Lipoxygenase

Q3) NSAIDs may not be suitable for use in individuals with renal impairment because
they:
A) increase sodium excretion.
B) increase body temperature.
C) reduce the glomerular filtration rate.
D) reduce pepsin levels in the stomach.

Q4) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.

Page 42to paracetamol overdose? Why?

Q5) Which individuals may be more susceptible

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 Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Sample Questions
Q1) In treating an acute migraine attack,sumatriptan should not be given with
ergotamine because the combination may lead to:
A) excessive bronchoconstriction.
B) excessive vasoconstriction.
C) gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) excessive diuresis.

Q2) Which of the following is true of ergotamine for migraine prophylaxis?

A) Caffeine enhances its absorption and onset of action.
B) No more than five doses should be taken in any one week.
C) Doses should be closely monitored due to the risk of rebound headaches and
dependence.
D) All of the above.

Q3) Preventive therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.

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Page 43
 Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an
inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction

Q3) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on
the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels

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Page 44
 Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic
absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration

Q2) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine

Q3) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of
which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA

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Page 45
 Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) High levels of which of the following lipoproteins can be beneficial?
A) VLDL
B) HDL
C) LDL
D) IDL

Q2) In considering therapy with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors,it is important for the
client to have regular:
A) liver function tests.
B) renal function tests.
C) blood clotting tests.
D) respiratory function tests.

Q3) What is an accumulation of lipid,collagen fibres and foam cells called?

A) Stoma
B) Atheroma
C) Sarcoma
D) Haematoma

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Page 46
 Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hormone that affects blood pressure by facilitating an increased excretion of
sodium and water is:
A) aldosterone.
B) ADH (vasopressin).
C) ANF.
D) oestrogen.

Q2) Calcium channel blockers have which of the following effects?

A) Depressed cardiac contractility
B) Depressed cardiac conduction
C) Reduced vascular tone
D) All of the above

Q3) Which of the following medications used for hypertensive emergencies dilates both
arteries and veins?
A)Hydralazine
B)Minoxidil
C)Sodium nitroprusside
D)Diazoxide

Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.

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Page 47
 Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To avoid tolerance associated with continuous use of nitrate patches,the patient
should be advised to:
A) only apply the patches in the morning and evening.
B) only apply the patches when the angina symptoms become apparent.
C) have a nitrate-free period from the patches for about 12 hours each day.
D) only apply the patches at bedtime.

Q2) Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that:

A) is used widely in the management of angina.
B) is relatively selective for cerebral blood vessels.
C) increases cardiac workload.
D) is most beneficial when it is administered prophylactically.

Q3) Which two factors can be the root cause of angina pectoris?
A)Vasospasm and atherosclerotic plaque
B)Vasodilation and atherosclerotic plaque
C)Vasospasm and hypolipidaemia
D)Vasodilation and hypolipidaemia

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Page 48
 Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic

Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The benefit of ________ for the treatment of thrombosis is that it is
clot-specific,thereby reducing the risk of generalised haemorrhage.
A) warfarin
B) urokinase
C) streptokinase
D) tissue plasminogen activator

Q2) Which one of the following is an endogenous substance known to inhibit

coagulation?
A) cAMP
B) Thromboxane A₂
C) ADP
D) von Willebrand factor

Q3) To reverse anticoagulation caused by heparin,________ is usually administered.

A) prostaglandin
B) warfarin
C) tranexamic acid
D) protamine

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Page 49
 Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mannitol infusion bag appears to crystallise.What should the health professional
know about this phenomenon?
A)The bag should be discarded immediately.
B)This is normal if the temperature of the bag is too high-the bag should be chilled.
C)This is normal if the temperature of the bag is too low-the bag should be warmed.
D)The infusion should proceed with no action taken.

Q2) Which of these diuretics promotes potassium retention?

A) Spironolactone
B) Frusemide
C) Chlorothiazide
D) Ethacrynic acid

Q3) The purpose of the nephron includes:

A)maintaining homeostasis.
B)eliminate waste.
C)forming filtrate.
D)all of the above.

Q4) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary
tract infections or urinary catheters.

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Page 50
 Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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9 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the left side of the heart fails,what symptoms result?
A)Splenic congestion
B)Peripheral oedema
C)Pulmonary congestion
D)Hepatic congestion

Q2) According to guidelines developed by the National Heart Foundation and Cardiac
Society of Australia and New Zealand,what is the first medication to consider for heart
failure?
A)-blockers
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)ACE inhibitors
D)Aldosterone antagonist

Q3) The current optimal drug therapy in the management of heart failure is:
A) the cardiac glycoside digoxin.
B) the dopamine agonist dobutamine.
C) a non-selective \(\beta\)-blocker.
D) an ACE inhibitor and a diuretic.

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Page 51
 Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are mechanisms of action of the class I antidysrhythmics?
A)They have local anaesthesia properties.
B)They have a high affinity for blocking active sodium channels.
C)They affect phase four of the action potential.
D)All of the above.

Q2) Which is an example of a prodysrhythmic agent?

A)Fexofenadine
B)Clarithromycin
C)Haloperidol
D)All of the above

Q3) Which electrolyte is not responsible for maintaining a normal heart rhythm?
A)Calcium
B)Potassium
C)Sodium
D)Magnesium

Q4) Atropine is especially useful in what sort of dysrhythmia?

A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Pre-ventricular contraction
D)AV conduction block

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 Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intravenous potassium should never be administered:
A) through a peripheral line.
B) through the subclavian vein.
C) as a bolus through the side arm of the intravenous line.
D) through the jugular vein.

Q2) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?

A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment of severe hyperkalaemia?

A)Peritoneal dialysis
B)Intravenous frusemide
C)Oral ion exchange resin
D)Intravenous glucose with insulin given concurrently

Q4) Mild hypokalaemia should be treated in what manner?

A)Dietary supplementation
B)Oral potassium supplementation
C)Slow-release oral potassium
D)Parenteral potassium

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 Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the follow is standard therapy in non-myeloid anaemia?
A) Ferrous sulfate
B) Folic acid
C) Erythropoietin
D) Parenteral B₁₂

Q2) The form of erythropoietin for clinical use:

A) may induce a hypertensive state during therapy.
B) is extracted from human urine.
C) induces a rise in haemoglobin levels within two days of starting therapy.
D) contains iron supplements in order to facilitate haemoglobin production.

Q3) Which one of the following is considered a cause of anaemia?

A) Vitamin D₃ deficiency
B) Exposure to anabolic steroids
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Elemental iron overload

Q4) Which food is a natural source of folic acid?

A) Brussel sprouts
B) Chocolate
C) Limes
D) Barley

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 Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhaled corticosteroids should be considered as part of the medication regime for
asthma if the person is using their \(\beta_{2}\) agonists more than:
A) one time each month.
B) three times each month.
C) three to four times each week.
D) two times each month.

Q2) Which patient would most likely need a respiratory surfactant?

A)A premature infant
B)An infant born at term
C)A toddler
D)A preschool age child

Q3) Which one of the following respiratory illnesses affects approximately 10% of adult
Australians?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Emphysema
D) Cystic fibrosis

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Page 55
 Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract

Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To which drug group do many cough suppressants belong?
A) NSAIDs
B) Narcotics
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Dopamine antagonists

Q2) Which substances are responsible for the symptoms of upper respiratory illnesses?
A)Prostaglandins and mast cells
B)Prostaglandins and histamine
C)Antihistamines and mast cells
D)Antihistamines and leukotrienes

Q3) Cough suppressants should not be given to children under ________ years of age.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2

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Page 56
 Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ranitidine is an example of which class of medicines?
A) Proton pump inhibitor
B) H₂ antagonist
C) Antacid
D) Prostaglandin

Q2) Prostaglandin analogues used in the treatment of peptic ulcers:

A) inhibit histamine production.
B) inhibit acetylcholine production.
C) inhibit acid production.
D) stimulate mucus formation.

Q3) Prostaglandin analogues such as misoprostol are contraindicated in:

A) clients also receiving the NSAID aspirin.
B) pregnancy.
C) conjunction with alcohol consumption.
D) clients also receiving the NSAID indomethacin.

Q4) Omeprazole is an example of a:

A) proton pump inhibitor.
B) H₂ antagonist.
C) prostaglandin analogue.
D) cytoprotective.

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 Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sennosides are best administered:
A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.

Q2) Which of the laxative groups acts directly on the wall of intestines to stimulate
defecation?
A) Lubricants
B) Stimulant laxatives
C) Osmotic laxatives
D) Faecal softeners

Q3) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel
syndrome.

Q4) A first line therapy for chronic constipation would be:

A) stimulant laxatives such as senna.
B) faecal softeners such as docusate.
C) osmotic laxatives such as glycerol.
D) lubricants such as liquid paraffin.

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Page 58
 Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most effective drug in treating severe nausea associated with
chemotherapy?
A) Ondansetron
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Domperidone
D) Cisapride

Q2) Which is true of the chemoreceptor trigger zone?

A) It is situated inside the blood-brain barrier.
B) It resides within the medulla.
C) It is a sensory relay area.
D) It controls vomiting but not nausea.

Q3) Which of the following antiemetic agents may cause extrapyramidal side effects?
A) Prochlorperazine
B) Domperidone
C) Ondansetron
D) Dolasetron

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Page 59
 Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vein might be used for parenteral nutrition?
A) Subclavian
B) Antecubital
C) Basilic
D) Cephalic

Q2) Which complication would be least common with an enteral feed?

A) Electrolyte imbalance
B) Entry of feed into the lungs
C) Clogging of the tube
D) Intracranial penetration

Q3) Which of the following measures would not improve the management of diarrhoea
during enteral feeding?
A) Select a feed with a high fat content.
B) Decrease the rate of feed.
C) Remove the feed from the refrigerator about half an hour before administration.
D) Administer an iso-osmolar feed rather than a hyperosmolar feed.

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Page 60
 Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the indication for clomiphene?
A) Contraception
B) Ovulatory failure
C) Treatment of ovarian cancers
D) Treatment of growth disorders

Q2) Acromegaly is treated using:

A) lanreotide.
B) somatropin.
C) lisuride.
D) domperidone.

Q3) Ergot alkaloids are used to treat prolactin hypersecretion.Their mechanism of action
is to:
A) activate dopamine receptors in the pituitary.
B) inhibit prolactin-releasing hormone from the pituitary.
C) increase the production of growth hormone, which is produced by the same cells in
the pituitary gland.
D) act on the nipples to desensitise them to stimulation.

Q4) Bromocriptine is no longer recommended for inhibition of postpartum lactation.

A)True
B)False

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 Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinical effects of thionamides for hyperthyroid states do not become apparent
until stores of thyroid hormones become depleted,which takes about ________ days
after the start of therapy.
A) 2 to 3
B) 5 to 7
C) 7 to 14
D) 21 to 28

Q2) Radioactive iodide may be used to treat hyperthyroidism because it:

A) inhibits conversion of L-thyroxine to L-triiodothyronine.
B) reduces synthesis of thyroid hormones.
C) destroys functional thyroid tissue.
D) depletes thyroid hormone stores.

Q3) Which one of the following physiological responses is not associated with thyroid
hormones?
A) The facilitation of normal musculoskeletal growth
B) Glucose storage in the liver
C) The normal development of the nervous system
D) Normal lactation

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Page 62
 Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ideal glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA_1c)level is ________ per cent
or less.
A) 7.0
B) 8.0
C) 9.0
D) 10.0

Q2) A drug group that tends to raise blood glucose levels is the:
A) anabolic steroids.
B) oral contraceptives.
C) NSAIDs in high dosage.
D) monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

Q3) All of the following are hormones produced by the pancreas EXCEPT:
A) insulin.
B) glucagon.
C) somatropin.
D) statin.

Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.

A)True
B)False

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Page 63
 Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Sample Questions
Q1) The glucocorticoids have a role in the therapy associated with:
A) diabetes mellitus.
B) osteoporosis.
C) hypovolaemic shock.
D) hypertension.

Q2) During spironolactone therapy,the blood levels of ________ should be monitored.

A) sodium
B) potassium
C) urea
D) calcium

Q3) A specific immune-related effect associated with glucocorticoid action is:

A) destabilisation of T lymphocytes.
B) increased protein synthesis.
C) increase in neutrophil and macrophage response.
D) reduction in the size and substance of the lymph nodes and spleen.

Q4) Which of the following is an example of a long-acting corticosteroid?

A) Dexamethasone
B) Cortisone
C) Prednisone
D) Budesonide

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 Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Sample Questions
Q1) The AAS nandrolone may be used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.

Q2) What is the efficacy rate for emergency contraception when used within 72 hours?
A) 70 per cent
B) 80 per cent
C) 90 per cent
D) 100 per cent

Q3) The SERM tamoxifen is used in the treatment of:

A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.

Q4) An adverse effect NOT associated with androgenic drug use is:
A) increased libido.
B) increased aggressiveness.
C) testicular hypertrophy.
D) liver disorders.

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 Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following foods inhibit absorption of calcium due to high phytic acid
content?
A) Unrefined cereals
B) Green vegetables
C) Strawberries
D) Cow's milk

Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about vitamin D?

A) Deficiency in the vitamin leads to an increase in bone mineralisation.
B) It is absorbed via the gastrointestinal system from vegetable products and some fish.
C) It is essential in the regulation of calcium and phosphorous in the body.
D) It can be made as long as the skin has enough exposure to UV rays.

Q3) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood
calcium levels.

Q4) The mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates is to:

A) release calcium from bones.
B) inhibit bone breakdown and resorption.
C) increase the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptors on parathyroid gland cells.
D) raise the blood levels of oestrogen.

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Page 66
 Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Sample Questions
Q1) A characteristic of gout is that:
A) it manifests as a form of arthritis.
B) it is more prevalent in women.
C) the risk of developing it can be reduced by eating foods such as sardines or offal.
D) it is not associated with any genetic predisposition.

Q2) Which of the following tests is undertaken before using colchicine for gout
prophylaxis?
A) A complete blood count
B) A liver function test
C) An electrocardiogram
D) An exercise tolerance test

Q3) To minimise the increased incidence of acute gouty attacks at the start of
allopurinol treatment,________ should be given concurrently for the first two months
of treatment.
A) colchicine or an NSAID
B) probenecid
C) an intra-articular injection of methylprednisolone
D) a urinary alkaliser such as sodium bicarbonate

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Page 67
 Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) an overview of obesity
A) Statistics show 25 per cent of Australian children are obese.
B) The World Health Organization has declared obesity an epidemic.
C) Australia ranks third in obesity, behind New Zealand and the United States.
D) All of the above statements are true.

Q2) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.

Q3) Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates feeding?

A) Serotonin
B) Noradrenaline
C) Peptide YY
D) Neuropeptide Y

Q4) When food intake equals energy consumed by the body's cells,the person is said to
be in:
A) a malnourished state.
B) an obese state.
C) energy balance.
D) a sedentary state.

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Page 68
 Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The actions of streptomycin and amikacin:
A) are considered first-line agents for tuberculosis.
B) are ineffective for the bactericidal phase.
C) interfere with protein synthesis.
D) are best mediated by the oral route.

Q2) If a microbe has developed resistance to a certain antimicrobial preparation,the

prescriber should:
A) increase the frequency of the dose of the antimicrobial.
B) increase the dose of the antimicrobial.
C) determine which antimicrobial the microbe may be sensitive to.
D) prescribe topical preparations only.

Q3) It is recommended that surgical prophylaxis with antibiotics is not undertaken with
a:
A) mastectomy.
B) coronary bypass surgery.
C) splenectomy.
D) large bowel resection.

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Page 69
 Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Sample Questions
Q1) The actions of the sulfonamides and trimethoprim:
A) are considered bactericidal.
B) are identical, as they interrupt the process at the same point.
C) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis.
D) are not influenced by folic acid stores.

Q2) A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is called:

A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.

Q3) During treatment with selected sulfonamides,a client may experience diarrhoea.This
usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.

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Page 70
 Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a person commences therapy with tetracycline,they should be advised to:
A) cease therapy when they feel better.
B) avoid ingestion just before bedtime.
C) take it with meals.
D) regard abdominal pain as a tolerable side effect and not to bother their health
professional about it.

Q2) Which one of the following is NOT a common adverse effect of treatment with
penicillin?
A) Photosensitivity
B) Nausea or vomiting
C) Oedema
D) The appearance of a rash or urticaria

Q3) Cross-sensitivity can occur between penicillin and which other drugs?
A) Cephalosporins
B) Carbapenems
C) -lactams
D) All of the above

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Page 71
 Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most active agent for leprosy is:
A) dapsone.
B) rifampicin.
C) thalidomide.
D) streptomycin.

Q2) Which of the following factors would cause favourable conditions for tuberculosis to
spread?
A) Social inequity
B) Overcrowding
C) Exposure to livestock/wildlife that may be infected
D) All of the above

Q3) A pregnant patient with Hansen's disease can be safely treated with thalidomide.
A)True
B)False

Q4) Treatment for tuberculosis consists of a bactericidal phase and a sterilising phase.
A)True
B)False

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Page 72
 Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of an antiseptic is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.

Q2) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.

A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing

Q3) What is the indication of topical silver preparations?

A) Burns
B) Acne
C) Eczema
D) Warts

Q4) An example of a sterilant is:

A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.

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 Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The species of malaria that causes the most infections is:
A) P. ovale
B) P. malariae
C) P. vivax
D) P. falciparum

Q2) Which antibiotic is sometimes used in malaria treatment?

A) Amoxycillin
B) Doxycycline
C) Azithromycin
D) Cephalexin

Q3) Which anthelmintic medication could also be classified as an antibiotic?

A) Ivermectin
B) Praziquantel
C) Tinidazole
D) Mefloquine

Q4) Tapeworms are:

A) cestodes.
B) nematodes.
C) cathodes.
D) trematodes.

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 Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only recognised use of foscarnet is treatment of CMV:
A) in otherwise healthy patients.
B) in pregnant patients.
C) in paediatric patients.
D) secondary to HIV.

Q2) The DNA polymerase inhibitor aciclovir can suppress the symptoms of several viral
infections except:
A) chickenpox.
B) herpes type I.
C) measles.
D) Epstein-Barr infections.

Q3) Enteric-coated capsules of the reverse transcriptase inhibitor didanosine,which can

inhibit the replication of the HIV virus,should be taken:
A) on an empty stomach about 30 minutes before food.
B) with the midday meal.
C) with a fatty meal.
D) with a glass of milk.

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Page 75
 Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are qualities of subcutaneous mycoses? Select all that apply.
A) It is most common in northern countries.
B) It can be grossly disfiguring.
C) It involves skin, fascia and bone.
D) It is caused by dermatophytes.
E) Is commonly referred to as candidiasis.

Q2) Tinea barbae affects the:

A) nails.
B) beard.
C) groin.
D) head.

Q3) The benefit of combining PEG with interferon is:

A) the dose interval is reduced.
B) influenza-type symptoms are reduced.
C) it can be produced by recombinant DNA technology.
D) it increases the activity of interferon.

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Page 76
 Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals need to remain within a medical facility for about ________ minutes
after vaccination.
A) 5
B) 15
C) 60
D) 90

Q2) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.

Q3) When administering non-human antisera to provide temporary immunity for viral or
bacterial infection,make sure that ________ is available in case of anaphylaxis.
A) hydrocortisone
B) promethazine
C) noradrenaline
D) adrenaline

Q4) The current hepatitis A vaccine is:

A) an inactivated virus.
B) a recombinant virus.
C) a capsular antigen.
D) a surface antigen.

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Page 77
 Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would erythropoietin be given to a patient undergoing cancer treatment?
A) To counteract anaemia
B) To minimise nausea
C) To control pain
D)To protect against bone loss

Q2) Which of the following drug groups directly targets the intracellular cascade of
reactions leading to proliferation and survival of cancerous cells?
A) S-phase inhibitors
B) Monoclonal antibodies
C) Radioactive samarium
D) Protein kinase inhibitors

Q3) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents such as doxorubicin and dactinomycin should only
be administered:
A) orally.
B) intrathecally.
C) subcutaneously.
D) intravenously.

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Page 78
 Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which topical preparation would be most difficult to completely absorb?
A) Gel
B) Lotion
C) Cream
D) Ointment

Q2) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.

Q3) Which drug is absolutely prohibited in pregnancy?

A) Tetracycline
B) Azelaic acid
C) Metronidazole
D) Isotretinoin

Q4) Useful drugs in the management of baldness are those that:

A) act as oestrogen receptor antagonists.
B) stimulate the release of luteinising hormone.
C) inhibit the metabolism of testosterone.
D) have progestogenic activity.

Q5) Dandruff can be caused in part by a fungal infection.

A)True
B)False

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 Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that can affect the rate of topical drug absorption into the eyeball include all
of the following EXCEPT:
A) the pH of the environment.
B) corneal integrity.
C) the age of the person.
D) blinking.

Q2) One effect of parasympathetic stimulation of the eye is:

A) pupil dilation.
B) vasodilation.
C) relaxation for far vision.
D) increased production of aqueous humour.

Q3) Which one of the following is an accessory structure of the eye?

A) Iris
B) Ciliary bodies
C) Lacrimal apparatus
D) Sclera

Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.

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Page 80
 Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Valerian has been shown to have significant effects on:
A) sleep.
B) libido.
C) depression.
D) tachycardia.

Q2) Red clover should be avoided in individuals with:

A) asthma.
B) breast cancer.
C) epilepsy.
D) clotting deficiency.

Q3) Which herbal medicine should be avoided in people with schizophrenia?

A) Evening primrose
B) Aloe vera
C) Echinacea
D) Garlic

Q4) Red clover can be used in which conditions? Select all that apply.
A) Whooping cough
B) Osteoporosis
C) Menopause
D) Pregnancy

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