Rahul’s a blue print o f success

PRACTICE MCQs ON CSR FOR J&K

1. Which category of government servants is exempted from producing a

medical certificate at the time of appointment?
(a) Apprentices
(b) Retired employees
(c) Handicapped persons eligible for appointment
(d) Temporary employees
2. Who certifies the medical fitness of Gazetted Officers for the first pay bill?
(a) Drawing and Disbursing Officer
(b) Competent authority where certificate is submitted
(c) Accountant General
(d) Administrative Department
3. A candidate declared blind under service rules must have:
(a) Visual acuity less than 6/18
(b) Visual acuity not exceeding 6/60 in the better eye
(c) Hearing loss more than 60 decibels
(d) Loss of mobility due to bone defect
4. Who certifies an orthopaedically handicapped candidate for government
appointment?
(a) Chief Medical Officer
(b) Department of Orthopaedics (Head of Dept.)
(c) Local Tehsildar
(d) Civil Surgeon
5. For a matriculate employee, which document is valid for confirming date of
birth?
(a) School Leaving Certificate
(b) Medical Board Certificate
(c) Matriculation Certificate
(d) Affidavit from a Magistrate
6. Can a government servant request alteration of date of birth after entry into
service?
(a) Yes, anytime during service
(b) No, never
(c) Only within 5 years of entry into service in case of genuine mistake
(d) Only before confirmation
7. For illiterate employees, who issues the date of birth certificate outside
municipal limits?
(a) Headmaster
(b) Tehsildar
(c) Panchayat Head
(d) Medical Board
8. The minimum age for direct recruitment into Government service (except
special services) is:
(a) 16 years
(b) 17 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 21 years

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9. The general maximum age for government recruitment is:
(a) 30 years
(b) 32 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 38 years
10. For physically handicapped candidates, the maximum recruitment age is:
(a) 30 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 37 years
(d) 40 years
11. Ex-servicemen may be recruited to civil non-gazetted posts up to:
(a) 38 years
(b) 42 years
(c) 45 years
(d) 48 years
12. What is ‘lien’ in government service?
(a) Right to salary
(b) Claim on pension
(c) Title to hold a permanent post
(d) Allowance entitlement
13. Can lien on a tenure post be suspended?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Only with consent of employee
(d) Only for foreign service
14. When does suspended lien revive?
(a) On transfer
(b) On promotion
(c) On reversion to original post
(d) On resignation
15. Which authority can suspend lien?
(a) Accountant General
(b) Competent authority making the appointment
(c) Finance Department
(d) Public Service Commission
16. Salary of an officer begins from:
(a) Date of appointment order
(b) Date of taking charge
(c) Date of medical certificate
(d) Date of pay bill=
17. Local allowance is primarily granted based on:
(a) Length of service
(b) Remoteness and harsh conditions of area
(c) Grade of officer
(d) Family size
18. Border allowance is admissible for employees posted:
(a) 8 kms from Line of Actual Control
(b) 10 kms from Border Roads
(c) Any frontier post
(d) Any hilly area

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19. Risk allowance is not admissible during:
(a) Casual leave
(b) Special casual leave
(c) Deputation or suspension
(d) Normal duty
20. Temporary Move Allowance is admissible to employees of:
(a) Police Department
(b) Moving offices between Jammu & Srinagar
(c) Border Security Offices
(d) Remote area projects
21. City compensatory allowance is admissible to state employees:
(a) Only within J&K
(b) Posted outside J&K
(c) Only in Class C cities
(d) Only Gazetted Officers
22. Maximum period of deputation under normal rules is:
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years
23. Deputation allowance (general rule) is:
(a) 5–10% of basic pay
(b) 15–20% of basic pay
(c) Fixed at Rs. 500
(d) Variable by cadre
24. During deputed training within the State, an employee receives:
(a) Only stipend
(b) Full pay/presumptive pay
(c) No pay, only TA
(d) Half pay
25. Training allowance for refresher courses lasting more than 8 weeks is:
(a) Rs. 100/month
(b) Rs. 300/month
(c) Rs. 400/month
(d) Rs. 500/month
26. Honorarium cannot ordinarily exceed:
(a) 1 week’s pay
(b) 2 weeks’ pay
(c) 1 month’s pay
(d) 3 months’ pay
27. Government servants may accept fees for University/Board exam duties if:
(a) No sanction is required
(b) Head of Department sanctions it
(c) They are Gazetted Officers only
(d) PSC approves
28. Which payment is always treated as “fee”?
(a) Payment from Consolidated Fund of J&K
(b) Payment from Consolidated Fund of India
(c) Payment from non-government party directly
(d) Salary from parent department

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29. A Department proposes a change in duties of a permanent post that will
effectively raise its salary. Which approval is indispensable before
implementing this change?
(a) Head of Department (HoD)
(b) Finance Department only
(c) Government sanction
(d) Public Service Commission concurrence
30. A full-time public officer is asked by proper authority to do additional tasks
within his branch of duty. He claims extra remuneration. Is he entitled?
(a) Yes, if tasks exceed 20% of normal hours
(b) Yes, if approved by HoD
(c) No, whole-time is paid for; no extra claim
(d) Only if Finance concurs
31. Which set of conditions is necessary to grant an honorarium to an official?
(a) Routine office work + HoD sanction
(b) Special work outside ordinary duties + no interference with duties +
sanction of competent authority
(c) Any extra work beyond 10 hours/week + written consent
(d) Peer review + HoD countersign
32. A non-Government organisation directly pays a Government servant for work
it assigned to him. How should the payment be treated?
(a) Honorarium
(b) Bonus
(c) Fee
(d) Reward under Sch. III
33. Which of the following may an official receive without special permission?
(a) Consultancy fee from a PSU
(b) Premium for an essay in public competition
(c) Token honorarium for workshop within office hours
(d) Any training stipend from a foreign university
34. An officer wants to accept a fee from a private body for work done. Which
complete set of pre-conditions is required?
(a) HoD’s oral consent and fee < ₹10,000
(b) Appointing authority’s sanction in writing, HoD’s certificate of no detriment,
and approval of acceptance and amount by appointing authority
(c) HoD certificate plus Finance okay
(d) PSC clearance plus HoD consent
35. If the private body’s work must be performed during Government time, how is
the fee handled?
(a) Officer keeps full fee
(b) Officer keeps 50%
(c) Fee credited to Government, with discretionary grant (part/whole) to officer
by sanctioning authority
(d) Treated as honorarium automatically
36. For work like Superintendent/Supervisor/Practical Examiner with
University/Board, what is required to receive remuneration?
(a) Always Finance approval
(b) Sanction of Head of Department, and University/Board must obtain
concurrence of the head of institution/office before offering
(c) Only a self-declaration of free time

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 (d) DA adjustment only
37. Which statement is correct?
(a) Permanent posts can be created by HoD with Finance ex post facto
(b) No permanent post may be created without prior Government sanction
(c) Temporary post always has consolidated pay
(d) Temporary post pay is always the cadre time scale
38. A temporary post is added to a cadre to perform ordinary work of existing
cadre posts. What is the default pay rule?
(a) Consolidated pay higher than cadre scale
(b) Time-scale of the service concerned; incumbent draws ordinary time-scale
pay
(c) Lump sum honorarium
(d) Pay equals average of cadre
39. Which is not treated as “deputation” under Art. 52-B?
(a) Temporary transfer to a Municipal body in public interest
(b) Transfer to a PSU wholly owned by State on temporary basis
(c) Officer who secures appointment in a PSU by direct recruitment/own
accord
(d) Transfer to another State Government on temporary basis
40. An employee on deputation may elect to draw which of the following (option
once exercised is generally final, with specified triggers for re-option)?
(a) Only parent pay scale
(b) Only borrowing post’s scale
(c) Either (i) the borrowing post pay (as fixed under rules), or (ii) parent basic
pay + personal pay (if any) + deputation allowance
(d) Parent pay + DA at borrowing rates + deputation allowance
41. Which case does not qualify for deputation allowance as a matter of course?
(a) From one State Dept/Cadre to another State Dept/Cadre
(b) To a State-owned Corporation on difficult posting approved by General
Dept (Services)
(c) To a Statutory Body at a distant out-of-way place per 52-D(2)(a) with
approval
(d) To an Autonomous Body with increased duties/responsibilities per 52-
D(2)(c)
42. For deputations on/after 1-4-1987, with valid authorization per 52-D(2)(d),
which rates apply?
(a) 10% (max ₹100) same station; 10% (max ₹200) elsewhere
(b) 5% of Basic Pay (max ₹250) same station/within 13 km/home town; 10%
(max ₹500) other places
(c) Flat ₹500 everywhere
(d) 6% everywhere (1982 rate)
43. An employee with basic pay ₹2,400 in parent Dept opts for borrowing-post
pay. What is the maximum permissible increase in pay under Art. 52-C(vii)?
(a) 10% of basic pay
(b) 12 ½ percent of basic pay or ₹330, whichever is more
(c) Flat ₹330
(d) 20% of basic pay=

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44. If an officer’s parent basic pay + deputation allowance would exceed the
maximum of the borrowing post’s scale, then:
(a) Allowance is reduced to keep within the max; deputation can continue
indefinitely
(b) No DA from the date parent basic =/exceeds the borrowing max;
deputation limited to 6 months from the date of exceedance, then reversion
(c) Parent Department must raise scale
(d) Cap ignored if HoD agrees
45. Base rule for rent payable by Government servants for Government
residences is:
(a) 10% of emoluments or 8% of capital cost, whichever higher
(b) 10% of emoluments or 6½% per annum of capital cost (whichever is less);
later Government Instructions (1982, 1987) reduced % used where rent is
computed on pay
(c) Flat ₹250 for all units
(d) 5% of emoluments only
46. Which of the following counts as “emoluments” for rent assessment under
Rule 55-C Notes?
(a) Dearness Allowance
(b) Travelling Allowance
(c) Special pay and compensatory allowances (other than DA/TA); fixed
additions; in some cases pension; subsistence grant (with adjustment)
(d) Foreign allowance only
47. Government residential building is (exceptionally) let to a private individual.
Rent should be:
(a) 6½% of capital cost
(b) 15% per annum of capital cost or market rentable value—whichever is
higher (fittings at 15% of capital cost)
(c) 10% of emoluments
(d) Flat ₹400/month
48. For furnished Government quarters, what is the general rule for furniture rent,
and what special flat rates apply to moving offices accommodation?
(a) 10% of furniture value; no flats
(b) 15% per annum of furniture value, capped at ₹50/month per house; for
moving offices: ₹20 (3-room), ₹12 (2-room), ₹6 (1-room), ₹5 (mess) per
head
(c) 6½% of furniture cost only
(d) ₹50 flat for all
49. Who is entitled to a gardener free of charge under the rules?
(a) Any rent-free occupant
(b) Residential quarters yielding ≥ ₹400 p.m. rent with ≥ 2 kanals of land
(lawns/flower beds); or a group (≤4 buildings) collectively ≥ ₹400 with
minimum garden areas; special group basis for certain deputed officers
(c) Only Ministers
(d) Only officers outside J&K
50. Monthly standard rent rounding under Rule 55-H provides that amounts:
(a) Always round to nearest rupee
(b) >₹5 and ≤₹10 and not in whole rupees → nearest half-rupee; >₹10 and
not whole rupees → nearest rupee
(c) Truncate paise only

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 (d) Bankers’ rounding
51. A Government servant officiates in a higher post for 3 weeks. What officiating
allowance is payable?
(a) Full for 3 weeks
(b) Half for 3 weeks
(c) None; but if the period exceeds 4 weeks, allowance is for the whole period
(d) Only DA difference
52. An officer appointed to officiate in a post on the same scale as his lien post
claims higher pay. Is it admissible?
(a) Yes, because duties differ
(b) No; “greater importance” is not satisfied when the new post is in the
same/identical scale
(c) Yes if HoD certifies complexity
(d) Yes if period > 4 weeks
53. While officiating in a temporary higher post, an officer is moved to another
higher time-scale post. How is initial pay fixed?
(a) Treat lower officiating/temporary pay as substantive for fixation in the
higher post
(b) Fall back to substantive lien pay
(c) Treat DA as basic
(d) Use average of last three months
54. If the competent authority fixes an officiating salary below the minimum of the
time-scale under Rule 67C, the period counts as:
(a) Effective officiation for increment in that post
(b) Not effective officiation; on confirmation, initial pay under Art. 77(b) and
next increment after usual period from confirmation
(c) Ad hoc service with full weightage
(d) Leave without pay
55. An order confirming X is later found contrary to executive instructions and
prejudices an identifiable person. What must the authority do before
cancelling?
(a) Cancel directly; no process needed
(b) Issue notice to show cause to the affected party and then cancel if
warranted
(c) Refer to PSC
(d) Wait for court order
56. An officer on deputation opts for the borrowing post’s scale in an organisation
that follows GoI DA/ADA. How should DA/ADA be paid?
(a) Full DA/ADA of borrowing employer with no adjustment
(b) Only the balance: DA/ADA at borrowing rates minus the DA/ADA merged
in parent pay at the 1982 revision
(c) DA of parent Dept only
(d) No DA at all
57. Under Rule 71, how many minimum yearly instalments must ordinarily
separate the minimum and maximum of a time scale?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six

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58. When does an increment accrue under Rule 72?
(a) On the day it is earned
(b) From the date following that on which it is earned
(c) At the end of financial year
(d) On confirmation
59. What must a competent authority state while ordering withholding of
increment under Rule 73?
(a) Only the reason
(b) Only the future increment impact
(c) The period withheld and whether future increments are postponed
(d) Nothing; it is discretionary
60. If increment in an officiating post is withheld, how is substantive pay treated?
(a) It is suspended
(b) It is ignored
(c) It may be allowed if it exceeds officiating pay
(d) It merges with officiating pay
61. In case of probationary Assistant Engineers, when is the second increment
admissible?
(a) Immediately after one year
(b) After six months
(c) Only after satisfactory probation confirmation
(d) Automatically after first increment
62. What is the default rule about future increments after grant of an advance
increment?
(a) They are frozen
(b) They accrue as if reached in the ordinary course
(c) They are postponed by two years
(d) They require new sanction
63. If advance increment is granted for acquiring a higher qualification, from which
date is it due?
(a) Date of appointment
(b) Date of declaration of results
(c) First of financial year
(d) Date of next increment
64. An employee opts to draw advance increment from normal due-date instead
of date of result. What happens to increment schedule?
(a) It resets
(b) It freezes
(c) The date of increment remains unchanged
(d) He loses the benefit
65. Can advance increments be granted as reward for a single occasion of
excellence?
(a) Yes
(b) No, only for persistent outstanding performance
(c) Only with Finance approval
(d) Only in writing
66. Advance increment beyond maximum of scale is treated as?
(a) DA
(b) Personal pay
(c) Honorarium

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 (d) Special allowance
67. Under sterilisation incentive rules, special increment is granted as:
(a) Honorarium
(b) DA
(c) Personal pay not to be absorbed
(d) Temporary allowance
68. Which age group restriction applies for sterilisation increment?
(a) Male <60; Female <50
(b) Male ≤50, Wife 20–45; Female ≤45, Husband ≤50
(c) Both spouses <40
(d) No restriction
69. If recanalisation occurs after sterilisation, what happens to increment?
(a) Continues
(b) Reduced by half
(c) Withdrawn from date of recanalisation
(d) Converted to DA
70. Stagnation personal pay under Rule 74-C applies to employees with:
(a) Any scale
(b) Scale not exceeding Rs. 950 p.m.
(c) All gazetted officers
(d) Only temporary staff
71. Stagnation personal pay is counted for:
(a) DA only
(b) DA, TA, Leave Salary, Pension etc.
(c) Only pension
(d) None
72. Under Rule 74-CC, how many stagnation increments can be granted after 1-
4-1987?
(a) Unlimited
(b) Two
(c) Maximum of three, one every two years
(d) None
73. Reduction to a lower stage in time scale can be ordered for:
(a) Permanent duration
(b) Unspecified duration
(c) Specified period only
(d) Till retirement
74. When reduced, authority must specify:
(a) Date, stage, period and effect on increments
(b) Only stage and pay
(c) Only date and cause
(d) Nothing
75. If appellate authority sets aside an order of withholding increment, what pay is
given?
(a) None
(b) As drawn during penalty
(c) Difference between entitled and actually drawn pay
(d) DA only
76. A post vacated due to reduction should not be substantively filled for:
(a) 3 months

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 (b) 1 year
(c) 6 months
(d) Until retirement
77. Crossing efficiency bar requires:
(a) Automatic increment
(b) Specific sanction of competent authority
(c) Head of Office note
(d) Annual review
78. Cases of stoppage at efficiency bar must be reviewed:
(a) Every three years
(b) Annually
(c) Biannually
(d) Never
79. For deputed State Govt servant drawing parent scale + deputation allowance,
who sanctions crossing of bar?
(a) Borrowing department
(b) Parent State Government
(c) Central Govt
(d) Either
80. Sanction for crossing efficiency bar must normally be issued within:
(a) 1 year
(b) 9 months
(c) 6 months from due date
(d) 3 months
81. When appointment involves greater responsibilities, initial pay is fixed at:
(a) Same as substantive
(b) Next above substantive pay
(c) Minimum of new scale
(d) Average of two posts
82. On own-request appointment to lower post with maximum less than
substantive pay, what is initial pay?
(a) Minimum
(b) Same as substantive
(c) Maximum of lower post
(d) Half of substantive
83. Provisional substantive appointment pay counts as:
(a) Temporary pay only
(b) Substantive pay for fixation
(c) DA
(d) Honorarium
84. If temporary post converted into permanent post with different scale, pay fixed
at:
(a) Same as temporary
(b) Minimum of permanent scale
(c) Personal pay
(d) Average of both
85. In case of stepping up anomaly where junior gets more due to revised rules,
senior’s pay is stepped up when?
(a) On confirmation
(b) From date junior promoted

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 (c) From next increment
(d) Never
86. Stepping up of pay requires which condition?
(a) Senior in different cadre
(b) Posts in different scales
(c) Both junior and senior must be in same cadre and identical posts
(d) No condition
87. Under Rule 269, leave applications must be submitted to:
(a) Head of Office only
(b) The officer competent to sanction the leave
(c) Accountant General directly
(d) Department of Personnel & Training
88. A Gazetted Officer’s leave application must include:
(a) Reason for leave only
(b) Expected joining date
(c) Relevant Article/Section of CSR under which leave is claimed
(d) Medical report
89. For a non-gazetted officer’s leave, the sanctioning authority must:
(a) Only check availability of substitute
(b) Examine the Service Book and rules to confirm admissibility
(c) Forward directly to AG
(d) Seek Finance approval
90. If a Gazetted officer wishes to discontinue GPF subscription during leave, he
must:
(a) Apply to HoD
(b) Apply to Finance Department
(c) Inform the Accountant General (J&K) before proceeding on leave
(d) Inform Treasury Officer
91. Privilege leave application (Rule 271) requires a declaration that:
(a) Officer will not apply for casual leave
(b) Officer has no intention of taking furlough/private leave for 3 months post-
return
(c) Officer is medically fit
(d) Officer will not resign during leave
92. What happens if officer later applies for furlough within 3 months despite
declaration?
(a) Application automatically rejected
(b) He must explain change of mind
(c) He loses privilege leave benefit
(d) Disciplinary action follows
93. Medical certificate for leave (Rule 272) must specify:
(a) Only number of days
(b) Nature of illness and why leave is indispensable
(c) Merely “sick leave”
(d) Expected retirement date
94. Under Rule 272-A, when must a Medical Officer refuse to recommend sick
leave?
(a) If illness <7 days
(b) If leave would affect public service
(c) If officer has no reasonable prospect of returning to duty

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 (d) If officer is on probation
95. Medical certificates (Rule 272-B) cannot be treated as:
(a) Evidence of identity
(b) Automatic claim to leave not otherwise admissible under rules/contract
(c) Substitute for Service Book
(d) Proof of pay
96. Leave can be granted retrospectively from:
(a) Date application received
(b) Date officer rejoins
(c) Date on which leave is admissible
(d) Sanction date only
97. Before granting leave to a Gazetted officer, the authority must:
(a) Check Service Book
(b) Obtain admissibility report from Accountant General
(c) Forward to Finance Dept.
(d) Seek concurrence of DOPT
98. Exceptionally, the leave sanctioning authority may issue provisional sanction
(Rule 275 Note 3). What is its status?
(a) Final sanction
(b) Provisional, subject to AG verification
(c) Automatically lapses
(d) Requires CM approval
99. Who certifies admissibility of leave for non-gazetted staff?
(a) AG
(b) DOPT
(c) Head of Office (maintaining leave account in Service Book)
(d) Public Service Commission
100. For study leave of non-gazetted staff, authority must obtain:
(a) PSC sanction
(b) Certificate of admissibility from AG J&K
(c) Declaration from officer
(d) Medical certificate
101. Leave to government servants lent to foreign service (Rule 277-A) requires:
(a) Approval of borrowing employer only
(b) AG J&K certification of leave and leave salary admissible
(c) Head of Office approval
(d) DOPT sanction
102. Leave allowance is payable:
(a) In advance for full period
(b) Quarterly
(c) At end of each calendar month (arrears basis)
(d) On resumption only
103. Gazetted officer normally draws leave salary from:
(a) Any treasury
(b) Same treasury where he drew pay before leave
(c) New posting station
(d) Accountant General directly
104. If leave is followed by transfer, where can the undrawn portion be taken?
(a) Only old treasury
(b) At new post’s treasury

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 (c) At any central treasury
(d) Directly from AG
105. Before returning from leave abroad, officer must:
(a) Present medical certificate
(b) Produce Last Pay Certificate from Mission abroad
(c) Submit bond of indemnity
(d) Apply afresh for posting
106. A Gazetted officer signing his leave bill personally must:
(a) Submit only identity proof
(b) Appear in person or furnish a life certificate from responsible
officer/trustworthy person
(c) Submit income tax return
(d) Execute bond
107. If officer authorises an agent to draw leave salary, what safeguard applies?
(a) Nil
(b) Agent must furnish life certificate or execute bond of refund
(c) HoD attestation
(d) Police verification
108. Who authorises payment of leave salary of a Gazetted servant?
(a) Treasury Officer
(b) Accountant General
(c) Head of Office
(d) Finance Secretary
109. Stamp duty on indemnity bonds under Rule 281 is charged as per:
(a) Court Fees Act
(b) Indemnity Bond rates in First Schedule of Stamp Act in force
(c) General Financial Rules
(d) Service Regulations
110. Non-gazetted officer’s leave allowances can be drawn:
(a) Anywhere with AG approval
(b) Only at treasury/chest where salary is paid, under signature of HoD
(c) At Secretariat
(d) From Finance Dept.
111. Who certifies life of non-gazetted officer for leave allowance?
(a) Accountant General
(b) Treasury Officer
(c) Head of Office
(d) District Magistrate
112. A government servant proceeding abroad on leave must obtain:
(a) Sanction from Foreign Ministry
(b) Leave salary certificate from AG J&K
(c) Treasury clearance
(d) GPF no-dues certificate
113. From when is leave salary payable in foreign currency?
(a) From grant of leave
(b) From date officer leaves India
(c) From date of visa stamping
(d) After 15 days of departure

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114. Pay/allowances up to relief date and leave salary for period spent in India are
drawn:
(a) Abroad
(b) Through disbursing officer in India (in arrears)
(c) In advance from AG
(d) By Head of Dept.
115. What document must officer returning from foreign leave attach to first pay bill
in India?
(a) GPF slip
(b) Last Pay Certificate from Mission abroad
(c) Fitness certificate
(d) Passport copy

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S. No. Ans. Explanations
1. C Explanation: As per the rules, handicapped persons (blind, deaf/dumb, orthopaedically
handicapped) are exempted from producing medical certificates. Instead, they submit a
certificate from the concerned medical department confirming their disability.
2. B Explanation: For Gazetted Officers, the competent authority that receives the medical
certificate attaches it to the first pay bill. For Non-Gazetted staff, the Drawing and
Disbursing Officer does this.
3. B Explanation: A blind person is defined as having total absence of sight OR visual
acuity not exceeding 6/60 (20/200) in the better eye OR severe field limitation.
4. B Explanation: Blind: Ophthalmology HoD, Deaf/Dumb: ENT HoD, Orthopaedically
Handicapped: Orthopaedics HoD.
5. C Explanation: For matriculate and above, only the matriculation or equivalent certificate
from a recognized board/university is acceptable.
6. C Explanation: Requests for alteration must be made within 5 years of entry into service
and must prove a genuine mistake.
7. B Explanation: For persons outside municipal areas, the Tehsildar issues the DOB
certificate in prescribed format.
8. C Explanation: Rule 37 fixes minimum age at 18 years on 1st January of recruitment
year.
9. C Explanation: General category maximum age is 35, with relaxations for PH, SC/ST,
and in-service candidates.
10. C Explanation: The maximum age for PH is 37 years, providing a 2-year relaxation over
general category.
11. D Explanation: The maximum age for ex-servicemen is relaxed up to 48 years for non-
gazetted and certain scheduled posts.
12. C Explanation: Lien means a permanent right of a government servant to hold a
substantive post.
13. B Explanation: Lien on tenure posts cannot be suspended under any circumstances.
14. C Explanation: Suspended lien revives when the officer reverts to his parent post.
15. B Explanation: The appointing authority can suspend lien if officer is on foreign service
or tenure post for 3+ years.
16. B Explanation: Salary begins only when charge of office is assumed.
17. B Explanation: Local allowance is given for remoteness, inaccessibility, weather, lack of
amenities, etc.
18. A Explanation: Border allowance applies to postings within 8 kms from the LAC.
19. C Explanation: Risk allowance cannot be drawn during suspension, deputation, training
or tours.
20. B Explanation: TMA is a special allowance for staff of moving offices during bi-annual
Darbar Move.
21. B Explanation: CCA is paid at 10% (later 6%) of basic pay to J&K employees posted
outside the state.
22. C Explanation: Deputation can be sanctioned for 3 years, extendable by 1 year, total not
exceeding 4 years.
23. A Explanation: Deputation allowance is generally 5% within station and 10% outside,
subject to ceilings.
24. B Explanation: During training within State, employees get the pay they would have
drawn otherwise.
25. B Explanation: Refresher courses beyond 8 weeks fetch Rs. 300/month as training
allowance.
26. C Explanation: Honorarium/bonus is generally capped at one month’s pay unless
specially sanctioned.
27. B Explanation: With HoD sanction, they can accept exam remuneration; question paper
setting/marking needs no sanction.

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28. C Explanation: Any payment from non-Government sources to a government servant is
treated as “fee.”
29. C Explanation: Rule 45 mandates that any increase having the effect of raising the
salary of a permanent appointment requires Government sanction. HoD/Finance
may advise, but the legal trigger is Government sanction.
30. C Explanation: Rule 46: the officer’s whole-time is paid for by Government; he may
be employed in any manner required within his branch of duty without claim for
additional remuneration (also see reference to rr. 358–359).
31. B Explanation: Rules 47 & 48: Honorarium/bonus requires competent authority’s
sanction; the work must be special and outside ordinary office duties and must
not interfere with normal duties.
32. C Explanation: Government Instructions under Rule 48: Payments from a source
other than the Consolidated Fund are “fees.” If a Government Department first
receives payment and then pays officials from the Consolidated Fund, those
subsequent payments are honorarium.
33. B Explanation: Rule 49: An official may receive (a) premium for essays/plans in
public competition and (b) rewards for arrest/information in justice
administration or rewards under statute without special permission.
34. B Explanation: Rule 50(a) (as recast SRO-393/1973): (1) Knowledge of HoD & written
sanction of appointing authority, (2) HoD certifies no detriment, (3) acceptance
and amount approved by appointing authority.
35. C Explanation: Rule 50(b): If done during time otherwise for Government service, fee is
credited to Government; the sanctioning authority may grant part/whole to the
officer.
36. B Explanation: Note 3 under Rule 50 (SRO-56/1966): Such work is permitted with HoD
sanction, provided the University/Board obtained prior concurrence. Confidential
work (setting papers/marking) outside working hours needs no sanction.
37. B Explanation: Rule 51: Government’s prior sanction is mandatory for any
new permanent appointment. Articles 52/52-A govern temporary posts; temporary
pay depends on market minimum (52) or work/incumbent status (52-A), with
classification in Notes 1–2.
38. B Explanation: Note 2(a) to Rule 52-A: Such posts are temporary additions to the
cadre and are in the time-scale of the service, ordinarily without extra
remuneration; incumbents draw ordinary time-scale pay.
39. C Explanation: Rule 52-B(b): Appointments by promotion/direct recruitment outside
parent cadre, or absorption in PSU, are not deputation. The others fit 52-
B(a) definition.
40. C Explanation: Rule 52-C(iii): Option to draw new post pay or parent basic +
personal pay + deputation allowance. Fresh option allowed on specified events (e.g.,
pro-forma promotion, revision of scales, etc.).
41. A Explanation: Rule 52-D(1): Deputation between State Government
Departments/Cadres does not qualify. For Corporations/Statutory/Autonomous
bodies, case-wise approval under 52-D(2)(d) may allow DA.
42. B Explanation: Note 2 to Rule 52-D (SRO-372/1987): 5% (max ₹250) within same
station/home-town/≤13 km; 10% (max ₹500) otherwise. Treated as pay for Leave
Salary and TA (per “Explanation” following Note 2).
43. B Explanation: Rule 52-C(vii)(a): For basic pay above ₹2,200, cap is 12½% or ₹330,
whichever is more. (Other slabs: >₹1,000 → 15% or ₹220, ≤₹1,000 → 20%.)
44. B Explanation: Rule 52-D(3): Pay + DA cannot exceed the borrowing post’s max/fixed
pay. If parent basic itself ≥ max, no DA and deputation restricted to 6 months from
that date; reversion follows.
45. B Explanation: Rule 55-C(i): 6½% of capital cost or 10% of emoluments, whichever
is less (with special provisos and notes). Government Instructions later revised pay-
based rates (e.g., 1982: 6%→3% tiers; 1987: 4%, 2%, 1% tiers), while flat

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 rates continued.
46. C Explanation: Note 3 to Art. 55-C: Emoluments include pay/presumptive
pay, special pay, compensatory & other allowances (excluding DA/TA), fixed
additions, and, Note 4: pension (originally sanctioned, incl. pension
equivalent); Note 5: couple rule; Note 2: Ladakh compensatory allowance
excluded.
47. B Explanation: Rule 55-BB: 15% of capital cost or rentable value, whichever
higher; fittings also at 15%. There is a proviso permitting lesser rent in deserving
cases with Chief Minister’s approval.
48. B Explanation: Rule 55-G(ix): 15% p.a. of furniture value, cap ₹50/month/house. rule
55-G(X)(a): special flat ratesfor moving offices (with listed furniture scale).
49. B Explanation: Rule 55-F(i) & (ii): defines entitlement. 55-F(iii) further nuances for rent-
free buildings and dignitaries; group basis allowed (also for certain deputationists).
50. B Explanation: Rule. 55-H: Sets two-tier rounding: (i) >₹5–≤₹10 → nearest half-
rupee (¼ rule), (ii) >₹10 → nearest rupee (½ rule).
51. C Explanation: Rule 56 Note 3: No officiating allowance if period does not exceed 4
weeks; if it exceeds 4 weeks, allowance is payable for the whole period.
52. B Explanation: Rule 66(1)–(2): Higher pay requires assumption
of duties/responsibilities of greater importance; not deemed so if the scale is the
same/identical.
53. A Explanation: Rule 66 Note 1 (SRO-358/1963): When moving between
officiating/temporary posts, fixation in the new higher post treats the lower
officiating/temporary pay as substantive pay for that purpose.
54. B Explanation: Rule 67 Note 3: If pay is fixed below scale minimum, the officer is not
treated as having effectively officiated for increment purposes in that post.
55. B Explanation: Rule 67-B(b): Orders of confirmation contrary to executive
instructions may be cancelled if they prejudice an identifiable person, but a show-
cause notice is obligatory. (For orders contrary to statutory rules, cancellation can be
straightway—167-B(a)—still, fair process is prudent.)
56. B Explanation: Government Instructions under Rule 52-D (SRO-27/1983): To avoid
unintended gain, DA/ADA payable equals (borrowing rates) – (merged DA/ADA in
parent pay at 1982 revision). If the officer draws own scale while on deputation,
DA/ADA follows parent rules.
57. C Explanation: Rule 71(a) – Unless special orders exist, progression from minimum to
maximum must not take less than five equal yearly instalments.
58. B Explanation: Rule 72 – Increment accrues the day after it is earned; since 1-1-1976,
it is aligned to the first of the month in which it falls due.
59. C Explanation: Rule. 73(1) – The authority must specify duration and effect on future
increments.
60. C Explanation: Rule 73(2) – During withholding, substantive pay may be drawn
if greater than officiating pay.
61. C Explanation: Note 2 to Rule 73 – Second increment of Rs. 25 p.m. is withheld
until probation is satisfactorily completed.
62. B Explanation: Govt. Instruction 1 – Advance increments place the officer on the same
footing as if naturally reached.
63. B Explanation: Explanation under Rule 74 – For qualifications, due from result
declaration date.
64. C Explanation: Govt. Instruction 2 – If opted from normal due-date, increment cycle is
preserved.
65. B Explanation: Govt. Instruction 4 – One-off achievements should be recognised
by certificates/cash award, not increments.
66. B Explanation: Govt. Instruction 3 – Increment beyond maximum is personal pay,
counted for DA, leave, pension.
67. C Explanation: Govt. Instruction 5 – It remains fixed, not absorbed into future

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 increments.
68. B Explanation: Clause (b) of Instruction – Strict age conditions apply.
69. C Explanation: Clause (v) – Benefit ceases on recanalisation.
70. B Explanation: Rule 74-C(i)(b) – Limited to scales ≤ Rs. 950 p.m.
71. B Explanation: Rule 74-C(i)(c) – Explicitly counts for all service benefits.
72. C Explanation: Rule 74-CC – One every 2 years, maximum 3.
73. C Explanation: Rule 75 Explanation – Must be specified, not permanent or indefinite.
74. A Explanation: Rule. 75 Explanation (a)(i–iii) – Must include date, period, stage, and
impact on increments.
75. C Explanation: Rule 75-A(a) – Restores entitled pay retrospectively.
76. B Explanation: Note to Rule 75-A – Post cannot be filled substantively for one year.
77. B Explanation: Rule 76 – Increment above efficiency bar needs specific sanction.
78. B Explanation: Govt. Instruction 1 to Rule 76– Review every year for improvement.
79. B Explanation: Govt. Instruction 2(a) to Rule 76 – Parent State Govt is authority.
80. C Explanation: Govt. Instruction 3 to Rule 76– Decision must be issued within six
months of due date.
81. B Explanation: Rule 77(a)(i) – Next stage above substantive pay.
82. C Explanation: Rule 77(a)(iii).
83. B Explanation: Note 2 to Rule 77 – Provisional substantive is treated as substantive for
pay fixation.
84. B Explanation: Note 6 to Rule 77 – Treated as new post, entitled to minimum of
permanent scale.
85. B Explanation: Govt. Instruction under Rule 77-B – Senior’s pay equalised from date
junior promoted.
86. C Explanation: Govt. Instruction No. 1 – Same cadre, identical posts, identical
scales mandatory.
87. B Explanation: Rule 269 – Leave is applied to, and granted by, the competent
authority. This ensures jurisdictional propriety.
88. C Explanation: Rule 270 – Gazetted officers must quote the CSR provision justifying
their entitlement, unlike non-gazetted staff.
89. B Explanation: Art. 270 – Service Book acts as the primary record for admissibility
verification.
90. C Explanation: Note under Rule 270 – Intimation must reach AG J&K.
91. B Explanation: Rule 271 – Ensures continuity post-privilege leave. Exception: officers
retiring within 3 months.
92. B Explanation: Rule. 271 – Declaration is not an absolute bar, but requires explanation.
93. B Explanation: Rule 272 – Certificate must show necessity and medical grounds.
94. C Explanation: Rule 272-A – Opinion of permanent unfitness should be recorded.
95. B Explanation: Rule 272-B – Certificates don’t override contractual/rule-based limits.
96. C Explanation: Rule 273 – Leave may be effective retrospectively, aligning with
admissibility.
97. B Explanation: Rule 275 – AG verifies entitlement before sanction.
98. B Explanation: Provisional sanction allows officer to proceed, but AG’s later check can
modify.
99. C Explanation: Rule 276(b) – HoD maintains Schedule VIII leave account.
100. B Explanation: Rule. 276(c) – Mandatory for study leave.
101. B Explanation: Rule 277-A ensures financial correctness when on foreign service.
102. C Explanation: Rule 278 – Payable monthly, with option of money order (deducting
commission).
103. B Explanation: Rule 279 – Continuity is preserved unless leave followed by transfer.
104. B Explanation: Rule 279 – Salary post-transfer is drawn at new post’s treasury.
105. B Explanation: Note 2 to Rule 279 – LPC is required to avoid double-drawal.
106. B Explanation: Rule 280 – Prevents fraudulent claims.

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107. B Explanation: Rule 280 – Bond/life certificate ensures payment validity.
108. B Explanation: Note 2 to Rule 280 – Authority of AG J&K required.
109. B Explanation: Rule 281 – Ensures uniformity with Stamp Act.
110. B Explanation: Rule 282 – HoD responsible for correctness.
111. C Explanation: Rule 282 – HoD certifies officer is alive.
112. B Explanation: Rule 283-A – Certificate required to draw abroad.
113. B Explanation: Rule 283-A(c) – Paid from departure.
114. B Explanation: Rule 283-A(c) – Domestic portion is still paid locally.
115. B Explanation: Rule 283-A(e) – Ensures proper adjustment on re-entry.

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