SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11

BÌNH PHƯỚC KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI OLYMPIC

NĂM HỌC 2022-2023

I. LISTENING (3.0 points)

Part 1: Listen to a writer talking about the history of Bali and complete the notes with NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS. (2.0 points – 0.4/each)

Date Event Importance for art

farmers from China built temples ornamented with wood and stone
3000 BC
(1) ______ in Bali

artists employed by the ruling families and focused

14th century introduction of (2) ______
on epic narratives

establishment of Dutch
1906 art became expression of opposition to (3) ______
East Indies Company

1920s encouraged use of new materials, techniques, and

beginning of (4) ______
subjects
started to describe the (5) ______ of Balinese
1945 beginning of independence
history as well as the everyday life of their people
Your answers:
1. 4.
2. 5.
3.

Part 2: You will hear a radio program about the arts. For questions 1-5, choose the letter A, B, C or D
to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions. (1.0 point- 0.2/each)
6. Tonight’s program will focus on ______.
A. training priorities in broadcasting companies
B. courses for those hoping to work in the media
C. career prospects for existing media employees
D. employment opportunities in London colleges
7. What is the main aim of the organization called Cinemax?
A. Recruiting scriptwriters for the film industry.
B. Providing courses in media studies.
C. Organizing a local film festival.
D. Getting young people interested in cinema.
8. How does Nigel feel about the input from the consultant?
A. He is pleased that he ignored her advice.
B. He is keen to acknowledge her contribution.
C. He feels that she was over-critical.
D. He is glad she rewrote some sections.
9. Nigel explains that consultants were brought in because ______.
A. they may provide funds for future projects
B. they provided some expensive equipment
C. the team members were lacking in confidence
D. the organizers had invested heavily in the project
10. Looking to the future, Nigel says he is ______.
A. aware of the need to remain flexible
 B. less enthusiastic about working in film making
C. hoping to do some further work on his first script
D. keen to become a full-time scriptwriter
Your answers:
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

II. USE OF LANGUAGE: (7.0 points)

Part 1: Phonetics: (1.0 point – 0.1/each)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from the rest.
11. A. crooked B. wicked C. naked D. cooked
12. A. endure B. feature C. procedure D. measure
13. A. champion B. moustache C. machinery D. champagne
14. A. book B. took C. goose D. good
15. A. worm B. worse C. work D. more

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress.
16. A. protect B. prolong C. process D. provide
17. A. guarantee B. circumstance C. discipline D. primary
18. A. possibility B. disappointed C. manufacture D. petroleum
19. A. private B. provide C. arrange D. advise
20. A. resurface B. knowledge C. technical D. export
Your Answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2: Vocabulary & Structures: (5.0 points – 0.125/each)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
21. While _____ to help him with his essay, I got impatient because he wouldn’t pay attention to what I
was saying.
A. I am trying B. trying C. having tried D. I try
22. I don’t think we have very much _____ , we are very different people.
A. together B. in common C. the same D. similar
23. You haven’t heard all the facts so don’t _____ to conclusion.
A. dash B. jump C. spring D. fly
24. Are you _____ the mood _____ a walk on the beach?
A. on/of B. on/for C. in/of D. in/for
25. She _____ her neighbor’s children for the broken window.
A. accused B. complained C. denied D. blamed
26. The decimal numeral system is one of the _____ ways of expressing number.
A. most world’s useful B. useful world’s most
C. world’s most useful D. useful most world’s
27. In spite of her abilities, Laura has been _____ overlooked for promotion.
A. repetition B. repetitive C. repeatedly D. repeat
28. _____ gene in the human genome to be thoroughly understood, many human diseases could be cured
or prevented.
A. Each B. Since C. Were each D. If each
29. People are advised to _____ smoking because of its harm to their health.
A. cut down B. cut down on C. cut off D. cut in
30. Drinking water _____ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the
enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. including C. made up of D. composed of
31. Harry’s new jacket doesn’t seem to fit him very well. He _____ it on before he bought it.
A. must have tried B. should have tried
C. needn’t have tried D. might have tried
32. He set one alarm – clock for five o’clock and the other for five past so as to _____ that he did not
oversleep.
A. assure B. insure C. ensure D. reassure
33. She has two sons, _____.
A. none of them work near her house. B. none of whom work near her house.
C. neither of whom works near her house. D. neither of them works near her house.
34. By the time the boss comes back from England, the work _____.
A. will have been finishing B. will be finishing
C. will have been finished D. will be finished
35. They go to the seaside _____ they should be disturbed by the noise of city.
A. in order that B. so that C. for D. lest
36. “Do you remember John Williams?” - “No, I don’t. But the name _____.”
A. holds water B. cleans the air C. calls the shots D. rings the bell
37. I don’t suppose you like pineapple, _____?
A. do I B. do you C. don’t I D. don’t you
38. Remember to appreciate what your friends do for you. You shouldn’t take them _____.
A. as a rule B. for granted C. out of habit D. as usual
39. It’s a pity we didn’t visit Tom when we had the chance. I _____ him before he left the country.
A. would like to see B. should like to see
C. would like having seen D. would like to have seen
40. Fifteen _____ by five is three.
A. divided B. dividing C. been divided D. is divided
41. The problems _____ Tony has seem insurmountable.
A. he B. that C. what D. when
42. Have some brandy; it’ll calm your _____.
mind B. nerves C. head D. brain
43.When I arrived on the spot, I found out that I _____ the heavy gas bottle on my back because the
campsite now had electric cookers.
A. needn't have carried B. didn't need to carry
C. can't have carried D. might not have carried
44. UNESCO _____ United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
A. stands for B. brings about C. gets across D. takes after
45. Farmers can enrich the soil by using _____.
A. fertile B. fertilizers C. fertilize D. fertility
46. Remember to appreciate what your friends do for you. You shouldn't take them _____.
A. out of habit B. as usual C. for granted D. as a rule
47. I don't think this record will ever _____.
A. get out B. run off C. catch on D. put down
48. Why did Berth ask you _____ a bicycle?
A. that you had B. do you have C. if you had D. that if you had
49. She _____ modern art. She visits all the local exhibitions.
A. looks down on B. goes in for
C. fixes up with D. comes up against
50. Are you taking _____ this semester?
A. home economic B. home economics
C. house economics D. house economic
51. In some parts of the world, the indigenous population has been completely _____.
A. wiped up B. wiped away C. wiped out D. wiped off
52. I would appreciate _____ it a secret.
A. you to keep B. that you keep C. that you will keep D. your keeping
53.The boy is _____ to solve the problem.
A. clever enough B. enough clever C. so clever D. such clever
54.The judge _____ the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.
A. accused B. convicted C. sentenced D. prosecuted
55.The _____ exam in February prepared pupils for the real thing in June.
A. false B. mock C. fake D. unreal
56.You _____ too much emphasis on your academic success. Be relaxed!
A. offer B. take C. give D. put
57.After so many years, it is great to see him _____ his ambitions.
A. realize B. get C. possess D. deserve
58.Minh and Cuong were badly injured in the last match, so _____ of them can play in this match.
A. neither B. none C. either D. both
59.The government are doing a _____ of people’s changing habits.
A. plan B. project C. survey D. research
60. Some top Vietnam attractions _____ Trang An, Tam Coc – Bich Dong and Van Long wetland in Ninh
Binh will be seen in the new movie of Kong.
A. including B. to include C. included D. to be included
Your Answers:
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

Part 3: Error correction: (1.0 point- 0.2/each)

Each of the following sentences has one mistake. Find and correct it.
61. Almost American Indian cultures have been agricultural societies since 2000 BC.
62. Would you like to contribute for our earthquake fund?
63. The violence is a very great problem in the world.
64. Now that the stress of examinations are over, we can go somewhere for our holiday.
65. Passengers are advised not to leave their luggage attended.
Your Answers:
Error Correction
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.

III. READING (5.0 points – 0.2/each)

Part 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
MONEY IN SPORT
Today, the distinction between the professional and the (66) _____ is purely a matter of sporting
success. Most athletes start their career by winning competitions for non - professionals before deciding
to (67) _____ themselves to their chosen sport. However, for a long time, it used to be believed that
getting paid for a sporting (68) _____ destroyed the ancient Olympic (69) _____ of people simply trying
to do their best for the love of the sport.
In fact, even participants in ancient Olympic (70) _____ were able to make large amounts of money
from winning. At the games themselves, only a laurel wreath was (71) _____ to the winner, but back in
his (72) _____ town, he could become very rich.
During most of the 20th century, professionals were disallowed from entering the Olympics. This gave
the wealthy an advantage since they could afford to train and compete without needing to earn money. In
1988, the IOC (which (73) _____ for International Olympic Committee) decided to allow professionals to
take (74) _____ in the Olympics. Only boxing and football still restrict the (75) _____ of professionals
allowed to compete. Boxing does not allow professionals at all, while Olympic football teams are allowed
up to three professionals on the side.
66. A. champion B. umpire C. amateur D. volunteer
67. A. concentrate B. focus C. devote D. aim
68. A. action B. performance C. activity D. recreation
69. A. suggestion B. thought C. belief D. ideal
70. A. sessions B. acts C. plays D. events
71. A. awarded B. earned C. gained D. rewarded
72. A. birth B. native C. original D. home
73. A. stands B. takes C. means D. goes
74. A. place B. account C. part D. sides
75. A. amount B. number C. degree D. quantity
Your Answers:
66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

Part 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes
extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact
causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an
environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be
adapted. Food resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a
species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting
in competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species.
The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses
have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time - a mass
extinction. One of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the
demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that
occurred 225 million years ago, when approximately 95 percent of all species died. Mass extinctions can
be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close
interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the
plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, even affect organisms not living in
the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction.
One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have
tended to be more intense every 26 million years. The periodic extinction might be due to intersection of
the earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also
speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others
may survive for no particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or
inability to adapt. If so, some of revolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random
events.
76. The word “it” refers to _______.
A. a species B. 99 percent C. extinction D. environment
77. The word “ultimately” is closest meaning to _______.
A. exceptionally B. eventually C. unfortunately D. dramatically
78. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history?
A. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.
B. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
C. They are no longer in existence.
D. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
79. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change?
A. Temperature changes B. Introduction of new species
C. Competition among species D. Availability of food resources
80. The word “demise” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. recovery B. change C. death D. help
81. Why is “plankton” mentioned?
A. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the ocean
B. To point out that certain species could never become extinct.
C. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction.
D. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species
82. According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that _______.
A. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history
B. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history
C. extinctions on Earth have generally been massive
D. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed
83. The word “finding” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. research method B. ongoing experiment
C. scientific discovery D. published information
84. Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in paragraph
3?
A. The theory is no longer seriously considered.
B. evidence to support the theory has recently been found.
C. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.
D. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it.
85. In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival?
A. It may depend on chance events.
B. It reflects the interrelationship of many species.
C. It does not vary greatly from species to species
D. It is associated with astronomical conditions.
Your Answers:
76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

Part 3: Read the passage and choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings
below. There are MORE headings than needed. Write your answers in the spaces provided.

List of Headings
i The positive side of drugs promotion
ii Who is responsible for the increase in promotions?
iii Not all doctors are persuaded
iv Choosing the best offers
v An example of what doctors expect from drug companies
vi Gifts include financial incentives

A A few months ago, Kim Schaefer, sales representative of a major global pharmaceutical
company, walked into a medical center in New York to bring information and free samples of her
company’s latest products. That day she was lucky - a doctor was available to see her. “The last rep
offered me a trip to Florida. What do you have?” the physician asked. He was only half joking.

B What was on offer that day was a pair of tickets for a New York musical. But on any given day,
what Schaefer can offer is typical for today’s drugs rep - a car trunk full of promotional gifts and gadgets,
a budget that could buy lunches and dinners for a small country, hundreds of free drug samples and the
freedom to give a physician $200 to prescribe her new product to the next six patients who fit the drug’s
profile. And she also has a few $1,000 honoraria to offer in exchange for doctors’ attendance at her
company’s next educational lecture.

C Selling pharmaceuticals is a daily exercise in ethical judgment. Salespeople like Schaefer walk the
line between the common practice of buying a prospect’s time with a free meal, and bribing doctors to
prescribe the drugs. They work in an industry highly criticized for its sales and marketing practices, but
find themselves in the middle of the age-old chicken-or-egg question - businesses won’t use strategies
that don’t work, so are doctors to blame for the escalating extravagance of pharmaceutical marketing? Or
is it the industry’s responsibility to decide the boundaries?
D The explosion in the sheer number of salespeople in the field - and the amount of funding used to
promote their causes - forces close examination of the pressures, influences and relationships between
drug reps and doctors. Salespeople provide much-needed information and education to physicians. In
many cases the glossy brochures, article reprints and prescriptions they deliver are primary sources of
drug education for healthcare givers. With the huge investment the industry has replaced in face-to-face
selling, salespeople have essentially become specialists in one drug or group of drugs - a tremendous
advantage in getting the attention of busy doctors in need of quick information.

E But the sales push rarely stops in the office. The flashy brochures and pamphlets left by the sale
reps are often followed up with meals at expensive restaurants, meetings in warm and sunny places, and
an inundation of promotional gadgets. Rarely do patients watch a doctor write with a pen that isn’t
emblazoned with a drug’s name, or see a nurse use a tablet not bearing a pharmaceutical company’s logo.
Millions of dollars are spent by pharmaceutical companies on promotional products like coffee mugs,
shirts, umbrellas, and golf balls. Money well spent? It’s hard to tell. “I’ve been the recipient of golf balls
from one company and I use them, but it doesn’t make me prescribe their medicine,” says one doctor. “I
tend to think I’m not influenced by what they give me.”
(Source: https://ieltsonlinetests.com)
86: Paragraph A ________
87: Paragraph B ________
88: Paragraph C ________
89: Paragraph D ________
90: Paragraph E ________

86. v 87. vi 88. ii 89. i 90. iii

IV. WRITING: 5.0 points

Part 1:Finish the second sentence in each pair in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
before it. (1.0 point – 0.2/each)
91. You won’t reach the station in less than twenty minutes.
 It will take ........................................................................................................................
92. The collision didn’t damage my car much.
 Not a great ........................................................................................................................
93. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh.
 The very ...........................................................................................................................
94. I took my car to the garage last Saturday and they repaired it.
 I had .................................................................................................................................
95. Although Christopher was the stronger of the two, his attacker soon overpowered him.
 Despite his ........................................................................................................................

Part 2: Write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence. Use the word given in brackets and other words as necessary. Do not change the
form of the given word. (1.0 point – 0.2/each)
96. Dickens’ last novel was unfinished when he died. (WITHOUT)
 ...........................................................................................................................................
97. John was shocked to hear that he had failed his driving test. (CAME)
 ...........................................................................................................................................
98. He is likely to come. (PROBABILITY)
 ...........................................................................................................................................
99. Mathew didn’t listen to what his doctor told him. (NOTICE)
 ...........................................................................................................................................
100. I don’t feel like going to the party. (MOOD)
 ...........................................................................................................................................
Part 3: Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic. (3.0 points)
Many people say that though nowadays there are more people, especially the young, doing
volunteer work, they do it just because of following the trend, not for their own interest or for the
benefits of the community.
To what extent do you agree with the statement above?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
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 --THE END—

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ KIỂM TRA ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG OLYMPIC
MÔN ANH KHỐI 11 – NH 22-23

I. LISTENING: 3.0 points

Part 1: 2.0 points – 0.4/each
1. carvings and statues 4. tourism
2. Hinduism 5. myths and legends
3. colonization/ colonisation

Part 2: 1.0 points – 0.2/each

6. B 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. A

II.USE OF LANGUAGE: 7.0 points

Part 1: Phonetics (1.0 point – 0.1/each)

11.D 12.A 13.A 14.C 15.D 16.C 17.A 18.D 19.A 20.A

Part 2:(5.0 points – 0.125/each)

21.B 22.B 23.B 24.D 25.D 26.C 27.C 28.C 29.B 30.A
31.B 32.C 33.C 34.C 35.D 36.D 37.B 38.B 39.D 40.A
41.B 42.B 43.A 44.A 45.B 46.C 47.C 48.C 49.B 50.B
51.C 52.D 53.A 54.C 55.B 56.D 57.A 58.A 59.C 60.A

Part 3: (1.0 point – 0.2/each) : chọn dc lỗi thì dc 0.1

Error Correction
61. almost most
62. for to
63. The violence violence
64. are is
65. attended unattended

III READING (5.0 points – 0.2/each)

Part 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

66.C 67.C 68.B 69.D 70.D 71.A 72.D 73.A 74.C 75.B
Part 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
76.A 77.B 78.C 79.B 80.C 81.D 82.A 83.C 84.D 85.A

Part 3: Read the passage and choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of
headings below. There are MORE headings than needed.

86. v 87. vi 88. ii 89. i 90. iii

IV. WRITING: 5.0 points

Part 1:Finish the second sentence in each pair in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
before it. (1.0 point – 0.2/each)
91. It will take you at least twenty minutes to reach the station.
92. Not a great deal/ amount of damage was done/ caused to my car (by the collision)
93. The very thought of his face at that moment makes me laugh.
94. I had my car repaired at the garage last Saturday.
95. Despite his (superior) strength, Christopher was soon overpowered by his attacker.

Part 2: Write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence. Use the word given in brackets and other words as necessary. Do not change the
form of the given word. (1.0 point – 0.2/each)
96. Dickens died without finishing / having finished / being able to finish his last novel.
97. It came as surprise/ a shock to John to hear that he had failed the driving test.
98. In all probability, he will come/ is coming.
There is a high/ distinct/ strong probability that he will come/ of his coming.
99. Mathew took no notice of his doctor’s advice.
100. I’m not in the right mood for going to the party.
I’m in no mood to go/ for going to the party.

Part 3: Essay: 3.0 points

1. Content: 1.0 point
a. Providing main ideas and details.
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively.
2. Organization and presentation: 0.5 point
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity.
b. The essay is well-structured.
3. Language: 1.0 point
a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures.
b. Good use of grammatical structures.
4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: 0.5 point
a. Intelligible handwriting.
b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.