PRACTICE TEST

PRACTICE TEST 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. ghost B. office C. long D. modern
Question 2. A. chemistry B. teach C. speech D. exchange
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. control B. apply C. danger D. provide
Question 4. A. tradition B. disaster C. reference D. musician
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Many children ________ to the city zoo last week.
A. go B. have gone C. goes D. went
Question 6. Tony works for your company, ________?
A. does he B. did he C. didn’t he D. doesn’t he
Question 7. Laura is ________ than any other student in my class.
A. more intelligent B. the most intelligent
C. as intelligent D. the more intelligent
Question 8. The doctor advised me ________ too late at night.
A. to stay up B. not to stay up
C. not staying up D. stay up
Question 9. Tomorrow we’ll go to Noi Bai Airport to meet Alisa, ________ comes from Malaysia.
A. who B. whom C. whose D. that
Question 10. If you come to England, it will be a good ________ for you to improve your English.
A. opportunity B. advantage C. experience D. possibility
Question 11. ________ in big cities is controlled by red, yellow, and green lights.
A. Traffic B. Delivery
C. Transportation D. Communication
Question 12. Jonathan is talking with his friend.
Jonathan: “I’ve passed my final exam with high marks.”
- Joan: “________”
A. I think so. B. That’s a good idea.
C. Congratulations! D. I’m sorry.
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.

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 MEKONG DELTA ECOTOUR
Join our (13) ________ tour to explore the Mekong Delta:
- Cai Be Floating Market: (14) ________ the daily life of the people on the river.
- Cham River Village: Visit a weaving workshop and learn about local people's (15) ________ skills.
- Arts and crafts market: Buy locally made souvenirs.
- Evening meal: Enjoy traditional foods which (16) ________ by the host family.
Question 13. A. eco-friendly B. environmentally-friendly
C. sustainable D. environmental-friendly
Question 14. A. Discover B. Appreciate C. Observe D. Experience
Question 15. A. woven B. weaving C. weave D. wove
Question 16. A. cooked B. cooking C. were cooked D. are cooked
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
Vong, a small village in Ha Noi, is famous for its speciality: com (young sticky rice flakes). To make com,
artisans follow a series of steps. ________
a. They wrap the final product in two layers of leaves to preserve its fragrance before selling it to consumers.
b. They preserve the techniques by passing them down to their sons. \
c. In the past, people made com by hand, but now they use machines for some steps to shorten the process.
A. b-c-a B. a-b-c C. c-a-b D. b-a-c
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. Firstly, Com is famous speciality of HaNoi autumn.
B. However, Com Lang Vong still famous for its speciality of HaNoi autumn.
C. Com Lang Vong is well known in Viet Nam as a speciality of HaNoi autumn.
D. Then people should enjoy Com because it is a famous speciality of Ha Noi autumn.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Singapore is an island city of about three million people. It's a beautiful city with lots of parks and open spaces.
It's also a very (19) ________ city.
Most of the people live in (20) ________ flats in different parts of the island. The business district is very
modern with (21) ________ high new office buildings. Singapore also has some nice older sections. In
Chinatown, there (22) ________ rows of old shop houses. The government buildings in Singapore are very
beautiful and date from the colonial days. Singapore is famous (23) ________ its shops and restaurants. There
are many good shopping centers. Most of the goods are duty free. Singapore's restaurants sell Chinese, Indian,
Malay and European food, and the prices are quite (24) ________.
Question 19. A. large B. dirty C. small D. clean
Question 20. A. high-rise B. tail-rise C. skyscraper D. low-rise
Question 21. A. lot B. lots of C. few D. much
Question 22. A. is B. will be C. were D. are
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Question 23. A. in B. on C. at D. for
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. “Where do you usually spend your holiday?” he asked me.
A. He asked me where I usually spent my holiday.
B. He asked me where I did usually spent my holiday.
C. He asked me if I usually spent my holiday.
D. He asked me where did I usually spent my holiday.
Question 26. It’s two years since I last spoke to her.
A. I haven’t spoke to her for two years.
B. I haven’t spoken to her since two years.
C. I haven’t spoken to her for two years ago.
D. I haven’t spoken to her for two years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. Due / bad weather, / flight / Ha Noi/ put off.
A. Due to the bad weather, the flight to Ha Noi was put off.
B. Due to the bad weather, the flight to Ha Noi was taken off.
C. Due to the bad weather, the flight to Ha Noi was turned up.
D. Due to the bad weather, the flight to Ha Noi was put on.
Question 28. Minh / spend / 2 hours / do / homework / every day.
A. Minh spends 2 hours to do his homework every day.
B. It spends 2 hours doing his homework every day.
C. Minh spends 2 hours for doing his homework every day.
D. Minh spends 2 hours doing his homework every day.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. The paint is dry and safe to touch.

B. The paint is still wet, so please do not touch it.
C. You are encouraged to touch the paint.
D. The paint is not for public use.

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Question 30. What does the notice say?

MUSIC CLUB STARTING AGAIN SOON

First meeting next Thurs 4 pm.
Come and join us!

A. You have to join the club before you can go to the first meeting.
B. Anyone can go along to the music club next Thursday.
C. There is a new music club beginning soon that you can attend.
D. After the first meeting, we can start the music club again.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Protecting the environment is very important for our planet. We need to take care of nature to keep the Earth
clean and healthy. There are many simple things we can do to help the environment. For example, we can
recycle paper, plastic, and glass. Recycling helps to reduce waste and save resources. Another way to protect
the environment is to save water. We should turn off the tap when brushing our teeth and take shorter showers.
Also, using less electricity can help. Turning off lights when we do not need them and using energy-efficient
bulbs can make a big difference.
In addition, planting trees is also very good for the environment. Trees clean the air and provide homes for
animals. They also help to keep the climate stable. We can all plant a tree in our garden or join a community
tree-planting event. Using public transport, walking, or riding a bike instead of driving a car helps reduce
pollution. Cars produce a lot of harmful gases that pollute the air. By choosing other ways to travel, we can
keep the air clean and reduce our carbon footprint. Everyone can help protect the environment. By making
small changes in our daily lives, we can make a big difference for our planet.
Reference: https://oceana.org
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. How to plant trees successfully. B. Ways to protect the environment.
C. The importance of recycling. D. The benefits of public transport.
Question 32. What does the word “They” in the 2nd paragraph refer to?
A. Resources B. Showers C. Trees D. Animals
Question 33. The word “stable" in the 2nd is CLOSEST in meaning to ________.
A. sustainable B. refillable C. eco-friendly D. organic
Question 34. According to the passage, why should we use water efficiently?
A. To keep rivers always full B. To save the natural resources
C. To reduce waste in ocean D. To protect the environment
Question 35. Which activity is NOT mentioned as a way to help the environment in the passage?
A. using less electricity B. using public transport
C. recycling paper D. limiting household waste

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Question 36. The word “reduce" in the 1st is OPPOSITE in meaning to ________.
A. increase B. improve C. widen D. prevent
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
When I was at school, I had to learn how to have a well-balanced life (37) ________. Below are some of the
typical things I did.
Firstly, I managed my time properly. I started to plan my schedule, made a weekly work list and gave priority
to some of my work. (38) ________.
In addition, I communicated with my family, friends, and teachers about my busy schedule and problems, so
they would offer me additional support.
I also took breaks appropriately because they helped me keep away from stress and anxiety, and gave my brain
a rest and improved my mood.
(39) ________. I got at least eight hours of sleep a day. I played football with my classmates twice a week and
went for a walk with my grandparents early every morning.
Besides, I also tried to follow a healthy diet. I ate a lot of fruit and vegetables. I ate little fattening foods and
(40) ________.
A. avoided junk foods like chips, cookies, pizza, etc.
B. in order to reduce stress and anxiety
C. Finally, I looked after my physical health.
D. This helped me concentrate my efforts on my most important tasks.
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. persuade B. scary C. soap D. season
Question 2. A. effect B. remind C. pocket D. level
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. answer B. listen C. connect D. finish
Question 4. A. pollution B. continue C. enormous D. disappear
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Nobody went to the party, ______?
A. does he B. do they C. didn’t they D. did they
Question 6. Ho Chi Minh is ______city in my country.
A. larger B. as large as C. the largest D. largest
Question 7. ______ Friday morning, there is a meeting between 11 a.m. and 1 p.m.
A. In B. For C. On D. At
Question 8. She did her test ______ last week, so she got a good mark.
A. carefully B. careful C. careless D. carelessly
Question 9. Tet is a festival ______ occurs in late January or early February.
A. whom B. when C. where D. which
Question 10. The Internet brings us many benefits in life, but it has some ______.
A. drawbacks B. advantages C. limitations D. profits
Question 11. Books are considered as a wonderful ______ of entertainment.
A. tool B. device C. way D. source
Question 12. Two students are talking to each other.
Hoa: “I suggest going camping next Sunday.” - Lan: “______”
A. That’s a fine day B. That’s a good idea.
C. That’s a reason D. That’s a good trip
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
Welcome to Hon Tam, in Nha Trang-the most beautiful (13) ______ in Viet Nam!
Hon Tam is famous for its clean, long beaches with white sand. It attracts thousands of tourists every year,
who come to see the beautiful coral reefs.
Here in Hon Tam, you (14) ______ spend all day swimming. Favourite leisure activities include sunbathing,
kayaking, or diving in the sea. You can never feel (15) ______!
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We offer ecotours to Hon Tam, but tourists are advised not to damage the coral reefs when (16) ______. You
can also buy beautiful local-made souvenirs to take home and help local businesses!
Call us at 0929292929 and book your tour today!
Question 13. A. destination B. position C. site D. scene
Question 14. A. must B. may C. can D. should
Question 15. A. bored B. boring C. tedious D. boredly
Question 16. A. to dive B. diving C. dive D. dive
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
Denby is a village in the county of Derbyshire, England. It is the home of the famous Denby Pottery, which
is made from the finest local clay. ______
a. Today Denby is also a tourist attraction.
b. Going around the village, we can see artisan’s hand-craft pottery collections.
c. They still use some of the original techniques passed down through generations.
A. c-a-b B. a-c-b C. b-a-c D. b-c-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. Visitors can make pottery in workshops or find out about the history of pottery in the museum.
B. In Denby products, we can see their beauty and function which make them world-famous.
C. People in Denby are very friendly and warm-hearted.
D. The atmosphere is so fresh that everyone wants to enjoy life here.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
The relationship between students and teachers is less formal (19) the USA than in many other countries.
American students do not stand up (20) their teachers enter the room. Students are encouraged to ask questions
during class, to stop in the teacher's office for extra help, and to phone if they are absent. Most teachers (21)
students to enter class late or leave early if necessary. (22) the lack of formality, students are still expected to
be polite to their teachers and fellow classmates. When students want to ask questions, they usually (23) hands
and wait to be called on. When a test is being given, talking to a classmate is not only rude but also risky.
Most American teachers consider that students (24) are talking to each other during a test are cheating.
Question 19. A. in B. on C. at D. of
Question 20. A. when B. where C. that D. whether
Question 21. A. let B. allow C. make D. encourage
Question 22. A. Though B. In spite C. Despite D. Because of
Question 23. A. rise B. arise C. raise D. put
Question 24. A. whom B. whose C. which D. who
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. “I’m working in a restaurant now.” she said
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A. She said she was working in a restaurant then.
B. She said I was working in a restaurant then.
C. She said she was working in a restaurant now.
D. She said she is working in a restaurant then.
Question 26. People say that they bought this house last year.
A. It was said that they bought this house last year.
B. It is said that they bought this house last year.
C. It is said that to buy this house last year.
D. It said that they bought this house last year.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. This is / first time / I / go / Korea.
A. This is the first time I went to Korea.
B. This is the first time I have gone to Korea.
C. This is the first time I has gone to Korea.
D. This is the first time I go to Korea.
Question 28. It / say / he / buy/ this house/ last month.
A. It was said that he bought this house last month.
B. It is said that he bought this house last month.
C. It is said that to buy this house last month.
D. It said that he bought this house last month.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. You can walk on the grass and play games there.

B. The grass should be kept clean and free of trash.
C. You should not walk on the grass to help keep it healthy.
D. The grass is for sitting and relaxing only.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

"No food or drink is allowed inside this area.

Please finish your snacks before entering."

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A. Only food is not allowed; drinks are fine.
B. You can eat and drink inside this area.
C. Do not bring food or drinks inside. Finish them first.
D. You can bring food but no drinks are allowed.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Cell phones are an integral part of our society and their main use is communication. They keep students in
touch with the rest of the world by giving them the power to b interact with it. In the old days, if you forgot
your lunch, you were at the mercy of the office calling home for you. Now, students have the ability to solve
their own problems and handle certain emergencies on their own.
Cell phones also allow students to keep in touch with students at other schools orfriends that don't go to school.
While not directly beneficial to education, better relationships can lead to higher self-esteem and reduce
isolation, which is good for everybody. In the same way, camera phones allow students to capture the kinds
of memories that help build a solid school culture, and, in some cases, can act as documentation of misbehavior
in the same way that store cameras provide evidence and deter bad behavior.
Academically, the cell phone can record a video of a procedure of explanation that may need to be reviewed
later. It could be used to record audio of a lecture, as well, > for later review. And just imagine if classes could
be easily taped for students who are ' absent. What if they could even be streamed and seen from home
instantly?
Question 31. Which does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Cell phones will be used as textbooks.
B. How to use some electronic devices in education.
C. Cell phones can be used as an excellent record.
D. How cell phones are used in communication and education.
Question 32. The word “integral” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. main B. necessary C. unimportant D. easy
Question 33. According to paragraph 1, with the cell phone, now students can ______.
A. handle the household chores B. solve their own problems
C. record their lectures D. cook their lunch
Question 34. According to the passage, cell phones help students to do all of the following EXCEPT?
A. write their assignment B. record audio of a lecture
C. keep in touch with their friends D. capture the kinds of memories
Question 35. The word “taped” in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. streamed B. reviewed C. recorded D. seen
Question 36. How can a cell phone help students academically?
A. deter bad behavior B. keep in touch with students
C. record a video D. call home
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Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
England's traditions have been around for hundreds, even thousands of years. English cuisine is among the
deep-rooted traditions that English people are proud to keep alive.
Typical English cuisine has developed over many centuries, and people say that fish and chips is the most
English dish of all. (37) ______. The earliest fish and chip shop opened in London during the 1860s. Since
then people have considered fish and chips to be England's national dish, and it is now a common takeaway
in the United Kingdom.
(38) ______. People in different places may add peas, vinegar, lemon, or ketchup. Fish and chips is served hot
as the main dish in England. (39) ______ in fish and chips, it is healthier than other takeaway dishes.
Now there are fish and chip shops in many countries, and it is becoming more and more popular in other
countries too. (40) ______ is the way English people keep themselves associated with the past.
A. The basic ingredients of the dish are fried fish served with chips
B. Preserving and promoting fish and chips
C. Although there is oil and carbohydrates
D. It is believed that fish and chips appeared in England in the 19th century.
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. problem B. love C. box D. hobby
Question 2. A. celebrate B. capture C. conserve D. compose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. market B. depart C. bamboo D. around
Question 4. A. national B. detective C. adventure D. romantic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. If I _____ rich, I _____ around the world.
A. will be - travel B. am - will travel
C. were - would travel D. would be - traveled
Question 6. Would you like _____ milk in your coffee?
A. any B. some C. a few D. a little
Question 7. Look at these students! They _____ too much noise.
A. is making B. make C. are going to make D. are making
Question 8. Jean cloth _____ from cotton in the 18lh century.
A. made B. is made C. is being made D. was made
Question 9. You’re interested in fashion so much, _____?
A. are you B. do you C. aren’t you D. don’t you
Question 10. You should have a dictionary to _____ the words that you don’t know their meanings.
A. look after B. look up C. look for D. look into
Question 11. It’s important to _____ the wonders of the world so that future generations can see them with
their own eyes.
A. destroy B. remain C. damage D. preserve
Question 12. Linda is talking with her friend.
Linda: “I’m sorry to break your favourite flower vase.”
Mary: “_____.”
A. Never mind B. Everything is ok C. Not too bad D. Just a vase
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
FLORIDA SWIMMING POOL POSTER
OPENING HOURS:

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 Monday-Saturday: 8:00-22:00
Sunday: 9:00-17:00
1. No diving.
2. No running.
3. No eating or drinking (13) _____ the pool.
4. Use steps (14) _____ into the pool.
5. Children should be with (15) _____ adult at all times.
6. (16) _____ the lifeguard.
Question 13. A. in B. on C. into D. at
Question 14. A. going B. to go C. go D. to going
Question 15. A. the B. ∅ C. an D. a
Question 16. A. Follow B. Adapt C. Respect D. Ignore
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
Most Vietnamese families have customs and traditions that they have observed for many generations. Firstly,
they worship their ancestors, and they celebrate their death anniversaries every year. _____
a. Secondly, they take part in many national and regional festivals, for example, the Mid Autumn Festival and
the New Harvest Festival.
b. That's the way they show their gratitude to their ancestors and teach their young children about traditions.
c. Thirdly, they celebrate many holidays during the year such as Tet and National Day.
A. b-c-a B. a-c-b C. b-a-c D. c-b-c
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. They also show their interests in all festivals and holidays.
B. Next, celebrating holidays can make generations close to each other.
C. Finally, every generation can live happily together.
D. In this way, they keep their traditions alive and pass them down to the next generation.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
A new study shows that women can reduce their chances of developing heart disease (19) _____ jogging for
about three hours every week. The researchers at Harvard Medical University in Boston have just reported the
results of the study in the New England Journal of Medicine. The study is the first to show the (20) _____ of
jogging in the development of heart disease in women. Only (21) _____ earlier studies have examined the
effects of jogging on the heart, but nearly all have been done on men. The new study involves more than
72,000 women between the (22) _____ of forty and sixty-five during a period of eight years. The researchers
have found that women (23) _____ jog at least three hours a week have a thirty to forty percent lower chance
of having a heart attack (24) _____ those who do not.
Question 19. A. by B. to C. of D. in
Question 20. A. effect B. effectiveness C. affect D. effective
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Question 21. A. a little B. a few C. many D. much
Question 22. A. ages B. years C. period D. old
Question 23. A. who B. which C. how D. those
Question 24. A. among B. in C. as D. than
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. “Why don’t you take a day off tomorrow?” she said to me.
A. She suggested that I taking a day off the following day.
B. She advised me taking a day off the following day.
C. She suggested that I take a day off the following day.
D. She advised that I should takes a day off the following day.
Question 26. I started to work at this restaurant in 2015.
A. I have worked at this restaurant since 2015.
B. I worked at this restaurant since 2015.
C. I have worked at this restaurant for 2015.
D. I have started to work at this restaurant since 2015.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. They / not / sure / how / operate / new system.
A. They’re not sure how operating the new system.
B. They’re not sure how to operating the new system.
C. They’re not sure how to operate the new system.
D. They’re not sure how operate the new system.
Question 28. The film / be / boring / I / fall asleep.
A. The film was such boring that I fell asleep.
B. The film was so boring that I fell asleep.
C. The film was too boring that I fell asleep.
D. The film was boring enough that I fell asleep.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. The restroom is working properly and is available for everyone to use.

B. The restroom is open and ready for use by anyone who needs it.
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C. The restroom is being repaired or cleaned and cannot be used right now.
D. The restroom is only for people with special permission to use.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

"No entry allowed without a valid pass.

You must show your pass to enter the building."

A. You need a valid pass to enter. Show it to get in.

B. You can enter the building without a pass.
C. Passes are not needed for entering the building.
D. The building is open to everyone.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
In the Mekong Delta, Long Dinh village in Tien Giang province is famous for its traditional craft of weaving
sedge mats. The mats' high quality makes them popular domestically, and they are also exported to markets
worldwide. In spite of Its well- established reputation for this traditional craft, mat weaving only started here
some 50 years ago. It was first introduced by immigrants from Kim Son, a famous mat-weaving village in
Ninh Binh province. However, the technique of weaving sedge mats in Long Dinh, as compared with other
places, is somewhat different. Long Dinh branded mats are thicker and have more attractive colours and
patterns.
Weaving sedge mats is similar to growing rice. Long Dinh mat production mainly occurs during the dry
season, from January to April. Weavers have to work the hardest in May and June; otherwise, when the rainy
season starts in July, they will have to put off finishing their products till the next dry season. No matter how
much work it requires, Long Dinh mat producers stick with this occupation, as it brings a higher income than
growing rice.
This trade provides employment for thousands of local labourers. At present, nearly 1,000 households in Long
Dinh village live on weaving mats. To better meet market demands, Long Dinh mat weavers have created
many kinds of products besides the traditional sedge mats.
Question 31. What can be the title of the passage?
A. Growing Rice in Tien Giang Province
B. A Sedge Mat Craft Village in Ninh Binh Province
C. Growing Rice in Ninh Binh Province
D. A Sedge Mat Craft Village in Tien Giang Province
Question 32. The word ‘reputation” in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. fame B. opinion C. connection D. beauty
Question 33. According to the passage, Long Dinh mat production mainly occurs _____.
A. from April to January B. during the rainy season
C. from January to July D. during the dry season
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Question 34. All of the following are true about the craft in Long Dinh EXCEPT that _____.
A. it has had the reputation for more than 50 years
B. it has the origin in Kim Son, Ninh Binh
C. the mats have attractive colours and designs
D. the technique is a little bit different from that in other regions
Question 35. In order to meet market demands, the artisans in Long Dinh village.
A. live on weaving mats
B. try to produce various types of products
C. employ thousands of local labourers
D. stop producing the traditional sedge mats
Question 36. The word “put off” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. cancel B. delay C. continue D. finish
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
Learning today is very different from my grandfather's time. (37) _____. Besides learning from teachers and
textbooks, (38) _____. It provides us with various online sources (39) _____. Google helps us find the answers
to almost any questions we have. The Internet also allows us to pursue our own interests. Learning has become
more independent. Although most children in my village have fewer private learning facilities than the
students in the city, we are still luckier than my grandfather's generation. (40) _____.
A. such as documents, clips, and programmes
B. we use the Internet
C. We have TVs to watch at home and a library and computers at school
D. It is easier and more convenient
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________
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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. health B. appear C. ready D. heavy
Question 2. A. hour B. hand C. home D. hat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. suggest B. describe C. party D. erupt
Question 4. A. computer B. develop C. advantage D. disagree
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. The students are looking forward _____ the result of the final examination.
A. receive B. to receive C. receiving D. to receiving
Question 6. Look at the dark clouds. I’m sure it _____ soon.
A. will rain B. is raining C. is going to rain D. rains
Question 7. Ms. Young gets up early every morning _____ she has enough time to practise yoga.
A. because B. although C. but D. so
Question 8. In the year of 2025, over 1,000 new houses _____ for the poor in this area.
A. built B. will build C. will be built D. build
Question 9. The people who live in _____ Scotland are called the Scots.
A. ∅ B. an C. a D. the
Question 10. We are very _____ on collecting the photos of Korean idols.
A. bored B. fond C. keen D. excited
Question 11. The trip to the National Gallery has been _____ until next Friday.
A. put off B. looked into C. turned up D. found out
Question 12. Tuan and Linh are talking about their exams in front of the school gate.
Tuan: “I’ve passed all my final examinations!”
Linh: “_____!”
A. Oh my god B. Congratulations C. Best wishes D. I’m well, thanks
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
Newspaper round before school
We need young people to (13) _____ newspapers (14) _____ Mon, Wed and Fri mornings. The paper round
takes 30 minutes in the village of Cranbrook. This work must be done before 8 a.m. and you must have (15)
_____ own bike.

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Interested? More info (16) _____ Cranbrook post office.
Question 13. A. send B. deliver C. distribute D. wrap
Question 14. A. at B. in C. on D. of
Question 15. A. your B. his C. our D. my
Question 16. A. in B. at C. by D. with
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
My sister Jane is very untidy. She and I share the same room, but I have to clean it every day.
a. Whenever she's at home, she lies in bed reading or playing computer games. _____
b. She often puts her dirty clothes on my bed.
c. I'd like to have my own room, but it's impossible now.
A. a-b-c B. a-c-b C. c-a-b D. c-b-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. I feel uncomfortable when sharing the room with her.
B. She will try to keep the room tidy.
C. She always makes me annoyed.
D. I hope she can change her way one day.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Our arrival in New York was spectacular. Its skyscrapers and the Statue of Liberty make a beautiful sight.
New York has a (19) _____ of over seven million and it is probably the world's most famous city. The
inhabitants of the "Big Apple" come (20) _____ many different countries. There are more nationalities in New
York (21) _____ in any other place on the earth. It also has more tourists than any other city except London,
especially in the summer. (22) _____ come from all over the world and have a wonderful time. There are so
many (23) _____ for them to get enthusiastic about - whether it's some of the best museums in the world (24)
_____ the charming little streets of Greenwich Village.
Question 19. A. by B. to C. of D. in
Question 19. A. attraction B. impression C. population D. people
Question 20. A. from B. by C. for D. in
Question 21. A. than B. rather C. of D. to
Question 22. A. Visit B. Visitors C. Workers D. Goers
Question 23. A. attraction B. place C. area D. sights
Question 24. A. or B. and C. but D. so
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. “If I were you, I wouldn’t spend most of my time chatting on Facebook”, he said.
A. He suggested me not to spend most of my time chatting on Facebook.
B. He advised me to spend most of my time chatting on Facebook.
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C. He suggested me spending most of my time chatting on Facebook.
D. He advised me not to spend most of my time chatting on Facebook.
Question 26. She doesn’t go to China with us.
A. She wishes she went to China with us.
B. She wishes she goes to China with us.
C. She wishes she didn’t go to China with us.
D. She wishes she would go to China with us.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. Firefighters / spend / two hours / release / driver / the wreckage.
A. Firefighters spent two hours to release the driver from the wreckage.
B. Firefighters spend two hours to releasing the driver from the wreckage.
C. Firefighters spent two hours releasing the driver from the wreckage.
D. Firefighters spent two hours release the driver from the wreckage.
Question 28. He / use / play / piano / when / he / have / free time.
A. He used to play the piano when he had free time.
B. He used to playing the piano when he had free time.
C. He use to play the piano when he had free time.
D. He used to played the piano when he had free time.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. You can smoke anywhere, including in this area.

B. Smoking is only allowed in specific areas that are marked for it.
C. Smoking is not allowed at all in this area to keep it clean and safe.
D. Smoking is encouraged and welcome in this area.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

Caution:
The floor is wet. Please walk carefully to avoid slipping

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A. There is no need to be careful on the floor.
B. The floor is wet. Stand still and avoid moving.
C. The floor is always wet and slippery.
D. The floor is wet. Walk carefully to avoid slipping.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
HEARTY BREAKFAST
Americans, in general, are big eaters and one of the greatest pleasures of the day is sitting down to a hearty
breakfast. Most neighborhood diners and cafeterias offer breakfast specials. Some can be as simple as buttered
toast with coffee. Others can almost be equivalent to a full-course meal which can provide enough calories for
the entire day. The breakfast special is offered daily and runs usually from seven until eleven in the morning
after which the prices change and everything is ordered a la carte.
Some fast-food restaurants offer an "ail-you-can-eat" buffet breakfast which may include more than thirty
choices of every breakfast item imaginable. For a set price one can get as many refills as one wants. A complete
breakfast will cost less than five dollars with tips included.
Some regional favorites also add variety to the American breakfast. In the south, grits with butler may replace
hash browns, and hot spicy biscuits and gravy seasoned with bits ; of meat make up a meal in themselves.
Fortified with a hearty breakfast, Americans find it ' easier to face the challenges of another day.
Question 31. At what time during the day are “breakfast specials” usually offered?
A. Usually from 7 a.m. to 11 a.m. B. Usually from 6 a.m. to noon.
C. They are served all day. D. Usually from 7 a.m. to 3 p.m.
Question 32. The word “offer” is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. provide B. purchase C. prepare D. discount
Question 33. About how much will a complete breakfast cost with tips included?
A. Five dollars B. Less than five dollars
C. More than five dollars D. It depends on how many refills of coffee you have.
Question 34. Which of the following is popular for breakfast in the southern states of America?
A. Buttered toast with coffee B. A la carte
C. Grits with butter D. French toast
Question 35. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Some regional favorites also add variety to the American breakfast.
B. Buffet breakfast which may include more than twenty choices of every breakfast item.
C. The breakfast special is offered only on the weekends.
D. Americans find it difficult to face the challenges of another day.
Question 36. The word “challenges” is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. comfort B. limits C. difficulties D. aims
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
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B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
Not long ago, (37) _____ in the lives of the Vietnamese. Wherever there was open space, the local people
could start their own market. There, (38) _____ from local home-made and home-grown products to those
that the sellers bought wholesale from somewhere and resold them for a profit. Since the locals went there
nearly every day, they knew one another, and the sellers even remembered the customers' preferences.
Then supermarkets came and soon became popular. (39) _____. First, they offer a cool and large shopping
site. Shoppers can spend hours in them without worrying about heat or rain. Second, they provide shoppers
with a wide range of goods, from foods and kitchenware to cosmetics and pet care products. (40) _____.
Nowadays, many supermarkets even offer home-delivery service and online shopping, which makes shopping
even easier.
A. you could find almost everything
B. People do not have to move from shop to shop to collect all the things they need
C. open-air markets played an important part
D. There are many reasons to explain their popularity
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. book B. pool C. school D. soon
Question 2. A. thank B. those C. thick D. through
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. advice B. machine C. Chinese D. listen
Question 4. A. consider B. develop C. embroider D. understand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. The life of a teenager these days is _____ than that’s in the past.
A. more stressful B. stressful C. most stressful D. much stressful
Question 6. Mrs. White never goes to work by bus, _____?
A. doesn’t he B. does he C. doesn’t she D. does she
Question 7. We decided _____ in Ho Chi Minh City for three days.
A. stay B. staying C. to stay D. to staying
Question 8. I wish I _____ a chance to meet BTS - a famous music band next year.
A. can have B. have C. have had D. would have
Question 9. The children came to class late _____ it rained heavily.
A. in spite of B. although C. because D. because of
Question 10. We like the food in Hoi An because it is delicious and _____.
A. expensive B. exciting C. affordable D. fashionable
Question 11. Visiting the old quarters in Hanoi is my _____ experience during my stay here.
A. believable B. typical C. forgettable D. memorable
Question 12. “Could you help me to get some water?” - “_____.”
A. It doesn’t matter B. With pleasure C. It’s a pleasure D. Never mind
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
Welcome to Hoi An villages in Quang Nam, Viet Nam! Hoi An villages are famous for their beautiful
vegetable and herb gardens. They are also well-known (13) _____ the coconut palms near Thu Bon River and
traditional crafts such as (14) _____ lanterns. Here in Hoi An villages, you can spend the morning gardening
on the local farms. (15) _____ leisure activities include riding bicycles through the villages, travelling on
basket boats and visiting craft villages. We offer an eco-tour to Hoi An villages, and tourists are encouraged
to use green transport such as bicycles to avoid polluting the environment. You can also buy local products

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and beautiful (16) _____ to help local businesses! Call us at 0929292929 and book your tour today!
Question 13. A. in B. with C. by D. for
Question 14. A. colourful paper B. paper colourful C. colour paper D. paper colour
Question 15. A. Another B. Other C. Others D. The other
Question 16. A. lacquerwares B. potteries C. sculptures D. crafts
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
I had a brilliant experience by the sea with my class last year. _____
a. In the afternoon, an instructor taught some of us snorkelling and it was exhilarating.
b. It was also wonderful to see a coral reef and many types of colourful fishes swimming around.
c. We joined team-building activities in the morning.
A. a-c-b B. c-a-b C. b-a-c D. c-b-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. It’s the best experience I’ve ever had.
B. I enjoy swimming very much.
C. Therefore, I want to have a team building activity again.
D. Besides, I am really interested in swimming.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Different countries have different traditional clothes. Ao Dai is known as the traditional Vietnamese clothes.
It can be (19) _____ with various colors, and patterns such as flowers, nature and others. Wearing Ao Dai,
women find themselves more (20) _____. Ao Dai symbolizes many personalities of Vietnamese women:
gentleness, diligence, kindness and bravery. Therefore, it's very proud for women to put (21) _____ the special
clothes. Students and teachers wear Ao Dai on Mondays to join in the ceremony. Moreover, y it is on wedding
days that the brides and grooms wear Ao Dai to represent the tradition of Vietnam. Not only Vietnamese (22)
_____ also foreign tourists try wearing Ao Dai when they visit Vietnam. They have good comments and
congratulations on it. Protecting and preserving its beauty and nature are the duties of all Vietnamese citizens.
Besides, Ao Dai is a beneficial and comfortable (23) _____ women can choose for any event and party.
Although there are a large number of new trends in fashion, Ao Dai always (24) _____ an important role in
the spiritual life of Vietnamese people.
Question 19. A. designing B. design C. designed D. to design
Question 20. A. attract B. attractive C. attractively D. attraction
Question 21. A. on B. off C. out D. in
Question 22. A. so B. as C. but D. and
Question 23. A. custom B. fashion C. costume D. clothes
Question 24. A. brings B. plays C. puts D. takes
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
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Question 25. Tom asked his classmate: “Are you joining US for the party this weekend?”.
A. Tom asked his classmate if he is joining them for the party that weekend.
B. Tom asked his classmate if was he joining them for the party that weekend.
C. Tom asked his classmate if he was joining them for the party that weekend.
D. Tom asked his classmate if is he joining them for the party that weekend.
Question 26. I do not visit my grandparents very often because they live far away.
A. If my grandparents do not live far away, I would visit them very’ often.
B. If my grandparents did not live far away, I would visit them very often.
C. If my grandparents live far away, I will not visit them very’ often.
D. If my grandparents did not live far away, I will visit them very often.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. It / generous / Tommy / pay / all / meals / we / have / yesterday.
A. It was very generous on Tommy to pay for all the meals we had yesterday.
B. It is very generous of Tommy to pay for all the meals we have yesterday.
C. It is very generous of Tommy paying for all the meals we had yesterday.
D. It was very generous of Tommy to pay for all the meals we had yesterday.
Question 28. My father / prefer / read / newspaper / watch TV.
A. My father prefers to read newspapers more than watching TV.
B. My father prefers reading newspapers to watch TV.
C. My father prefers reading newspapers than watching TV.
D. My father prefers reading newspapers to watching TV.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. You can use this door anytime you want to enter.

B. This door is only for use in emergencies when you need to leave quickly.
C. Everyone should use this door to enter the building.
D. This door is locked and cannot be opened at all.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

"No cell phones allowed in this area.

Please turn off your phone or put it on silent."

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A. You must have permission to use the phone in this area.
B. You may not turn off your phone if you are not using it.
C. Cell phones are only for emergency use here.
D. Cell phones must be turned off or silenced in this area.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Chu Van An High School is one of the oldest and most prestigious state schools in Viet Nam. Established in
1908 by the French, the school was located beside the West Lake, and was originally named after the location
it was in. It is a very pleasant, spacious school with great views of the lake from the classroom windows.
In 1943, the school was moved to Ninh Binh, and was not moved back to Ha Noi until 1945. In that year, the
school was renamed Chu Van An, after a famous Vietnamese Confucianism teacher of the Tran Dynasty.
Professor Nguyen Gia Tuong became the first Vietnamese principal of the school. Many famous people like
ex-Prime Minister Pham Van Dong, DoctorTonThatTung, and poet Xuan Dieu used to be the school's
students.
Today the school is still located in the same area, and has maintained its prestige, as well as its reputation as
one of the top schools in Ha Noi. It is very difficult to be admitted to the school. Every year, there are around
three thousand applicants but only about five 2 hundred are admitted.Those applicants have to take an entrance
examination conducted 2 by the Department of Education and Training of Ha Noi.
Question 31. The passage mainly discusses _____.
A. Chu Van An, the teacher B. Chu Van An School in the future
C. Chu Van An School: Then and now D. How to establish Chu Van An High school
Question 32. When was the school established?
A. in 1908 B. in 1943 C. in 1945 D. in 1990
Question 33. All of the following are true about the school EXCEPT _____.
A. the school was originally named after the location it is in.
B. the school admits three thousand students every year.
C. the school has a view of the West Lake.
D. the school is large.
Question 34. The word “prestigious” in the 1st paragraph is CLOSEST meaning to _____.
A. respectful B. famous C. spectacular D. generous
Question 35. Who used to be Chu Van An High school’s student?
A. Professor Nguyen Gia Tuong B. Doctor Ton That Tung
C. Poet Tran Dang Khoa D. Artist To Ngoc Van
Question 36. The word “admitted “in the last paragraph is OPPOSITE meaning to _____.
A. allowed B. rejected C. permitted D. considered
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
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from 37 to 40.
The Dolomites - Paradise at Your Feet
If you haven't decided on where to travel this holiday, consider the Dolomites!
The Dolomites are a mountain range in Italy. (37) _____ in 2009. The Dolomites are part of the Alps,
stretching from the Adige River to the Piave River valley. This mountain range has a total area of about
141,900 hectares. (38) _____. It is easy to get access to most parts of the Dolomites.
The Dolomites are a majestic site. They are widely regarded as being (39) _____. There are steep rocky cliffs,
sharp peaks, narrow and deep valleys, and white snow on the mountaintop. (40) _____.
The Dolomites are a popular place for winter skiing, mountain climbing, hiking, and cycling any time of the
year. An annual bicycle race covering seven mountain passes on the Dolomites occurs in the first week of
July.
So do not hesitate to book a tour to the Dolomites to see and do these things for yourself!
A. It has 18 peaks over 3,000 metres high
B. It was recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site
C. Their natural scenery attracts tourists from many parts of the world
D. among the most attractive mountain landscapes in the world
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. spread B. cream C. bread D. head
Question 2. A. pleasure B. seafood C. surprise D. bus
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. village B. mountain C. island D. arrange
Question 4. A. remember B. generate C. assignment D. pollutant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Tom can speak three languages, ______?
A. can he B. doesn’t he C. can’t he D. isn’t he
Question 6. Techniques to make conical hats in this village have been ______ from generation to generation.
A. got on B. given up C. passed down D. taken in
Question 7. I have lived in this town ______ two years.
A. in B. for C. ago D. since
Question 8. Tourists are impressed by the ______ of Ha Long Bay.
A. beauty B. beautify C. beautiful D. beautifully
Question 9. If I were you, I ______ harder to pass the entrance exam.
A. will study B. would study C. studied D. can study
Question 10. My uncle ______ his car when it started to rain.
A. was washing B. has washed C. washes D. washed
Question 11. It’s said that Ha Long Bay is one of the ______ of Vietnam.
A. cultures B. wonders C. things D. parts
Question 12. John: “Would you like to go Olli for dinner with my family?” - Peter: “______”
A. I agree with you B. Yes. I’d love to C. Never mind D. That’s right
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
CITY MUSEUM - Holiday job
Do you want to (13) ______ some extra money this summer? Do you speak (14) ______ language?
We need French, Spanish (15) ______ German speakers to work for us (16) ______ the City Museum shop
from Tuesday to Saturday.
Send your CV to citymuseum@shopjob.lkj.
Question 13. A. do B. earn C. gain D. achieve

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Question 14. A. some B. a C. another D. any
Question 15. A. and B. or C. with D. nor
Question 16. A. at B. to C.by D. in
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
I haven't had many exciting experiences like that before. ______
a. We put up the tents and did unforgettable team-building activities.
b. We got to a beautiful site in Ninh Binh.
c. We also hired bikes and cycled around the area.
A. b-c-a B. a-c-b C. b-a-c D. a-b-c
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. It was so relaxing.
B. I am looking forward to seeing them.
C. I will come back in the future.
D. I will never forget it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Today, childhood is spent mostly indoors watching television, playing video games and (19) ______ the
Internet. When children go outside, it tends to be for scheduled events like a soccer match or a fishing derby.
These events are held under the watch of adults.
The shift to an indoor childhood has accelerated in (20) ______ past decade, with a significant decline in
spontaneous outdoor activities such as bike riding, swimming and touch football, according to some studies
by the National Sporting Goods Association. (21) ______, a child is six times more likely to play a video
game on a typical day than to ride a bike.
Indoor childhood has brought about some changes which can be seen in children's bodies. In the 1960s, 4%
of kids were obese. Today, 16% are overweight. The changes can also be seen in their (22) ______. Studies
indicate that children (23) ______ spend plenty of time outdoors have a longer attention span than those who
watch (24) ______ television and play video games.
Question 19. A. surfing B. taking C. looking D. making
Question 20. A. an B. the C. ∅ D. a
Question 21. A. Although B. Before C. Because D. In addition
Question 22. A. muscles B. bodies C. thoughts D. brains
Question 23. A. whom B. who C. he D. they
Question 24. A. a lot of B. some C. many D. few
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. “Please don’t tell anyone my new address, Tom,” said Jane.
A. Jane asked Tom not to tell anyone her new address.
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B. Jane told Tom to tell everyone her new address.
C. Jane reminded Tom to tell everyone her new address.
D. Jane didn’t want Tom to know her new address.
Question 26. The girl is my younger sister. You talked to her yesterday.
A. The girl whose you talked to yesterday is my younger sister.
B. The girl whom you talked to yesterday is my younger sister.
C. The girl that is my younger sister you talked to yesterday.
D. The girl is my younger sister which you talked to yesterday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. She / give / scholarship / have / excellent / results.
A. Because of she had excellent study results, she was giving a scholarship.
B. Although she was given a scholarship, she had excellent study results.
C. She was given a scholarship because of his excellent study results.
D. She was given a scholarship because of her excellent study results.
Question 28. He / worked / this / company / five years.
A. He has worked in this company for five years.
B. He worked in this company for five years.
C. He has worked in this company five years ago.
D. He has worked in this company for five years ago.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. Anyone, including visitors and staff, can park here without restrictions.
B. Only employees or staff members are allowed to park in these spaces.
C. Parking is not allowed in this area under any circumstances.
D. The parking area is open to all people, without any specific rules.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

’’The restroom is temporarily closed for maintenance.

It will open as soon as the work is finished"

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A. The restroom is closed for maintenance and will open later.
B. The restroom is open but being cleaned.
C. The restroom is always open.
D. You can use the restroom in a different building.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Obesity increases a person's risk of cancer, heart disease and other diseases. About 2.6 billion people globally
- 38% of the world population - are already overweight or obese. But on current trends that is expected to rise
to more than 4 billion people (51%) in 12 years' time, according to research by the World Obesity Federation.
Obesity among children and young people is likely to increase faster than that among adults. By 2035 it is
expected to be at least double the rate seen in 2020 - it will rise by 100% among boys under 18, but go up
even more sharply, by 125%, among girls the same age. Switzerland, Norway, Finland, Iceland and Sweden
are among the best prepared countries to deal with obesity while Niger, Nigeria, Somalia and Central African
Republic s are examples of the world's poorest countries that are the least prepared. Professor Louise Baur,
the federation's president, says that the sharpest increases in obesity will be seen in low- and middle-income
countries where lack of preparedness and resources will create a perfect storm that will negatively impact
obese people the most.
The rising obesity globally is caused by factors such as climate change, Covid restrictions and chemical
pollutants, as well as the promotion of unhealthy foods. It is suggested that governments should restrict the
marketing of foods that are high in fat, salt or sugar, and provide healthy food in schools.
Question 31. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The great future of overweight young children
B. More than half of people to be obese by 2035.
C. How the world’s poorest countries flight against obesity?
D. The reasons why many children are obese now.
Question 32. How many percentage of the world population are obese now?
A. 51% B. 38% C. 49% D. 62%
Question 33. Which of the following is true according to the passage, EXCEPT ______?
A. Obesity increases a person’s risk of cancer.
B. Girls are more likely to be obese than boys.
C. There are the sharpest increases in obesity will be seen in low- and middle-income countries.
D. The rising obesity globally is only caused by Covid restrictions.
Question 34. According to paragraph 3, which countries have prepared best to deal with obesity?
A. Finland B. Niger C. Japan D. Central African Republic
Question 35. The word “obese” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. too fat B. overweight C. heavy D. skinny
Question 36. The word “restrict” in paragraph 4 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
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A. support B. permit C. limit D. increase
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
The two most popular types of tours now are package and self-guided tours. When you buy a package tour,
(37) ______. You will get a notice about the places of, your visit, the detailed itinerary, and the cost. They
will protect you if something goes J wrong during the trip. (38) ______. It offers a convenient option for
people who are elderly, who do not want to spend much time searching on their own, or who are not confident
about using online apps. One disadvantage of this type is you have to follow a fixed itinerary.
Nowadays, (39) ______which require them to do everything on their own. They have to look for a destination,
work out an itinerary, and estimate the cost. They then hunt for tickets and accommodation, usually homestay.
This type of holiday may require people more time and effort, but it is cheaper and more flexible than a
package holiday. (40) ______. However, to have a smooth trip and avoid trouble, these travellers should be
good at using apps.
A. more young people choose self-guided tours
B. a travel agency takes care of almost everything for you
C. This type of holiday saves time and reduces stress for travellers
D. It gives travellers more freedom to decide where to go and how much time and money to spend at a place
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 7
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. child B. fill C. milk D. pink
Question 2. A. technique B. chemist C. children D. headache
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. enjoy B. consist C. beauty D. succeed
Question 4. A. capable B. different C. difficult D. delightful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Hurricane Andrew swept through southern Florida ______ 1992.
A. for B. on C. at D. in
Question 6. I ______ from her since she left school.
A. don’t hear B. haven’t heard C. didn’t hear D. hasn’t heard
Question 7. Of all the shoes that I have tried on, these ones are ______.
A. comfortable B. less comfortable C. more comfortable D. the most comfortable
Question 8. If more chemicals are released into the environment, many species ______ extinct.
A. will become B. are becoming C. becomes D. became
Question 9. This shopping mall, which ______ two years ago, attracts a lot of shoppers.
A. built B. was built C. will be built D. was building
Question 10. Giving lucky money to the young at Tet is a common ______ in many Asian countries.
A. practice B. behaviour C. tradition D. habit
Question 11. This restaurant is ______ for its excellent dishes and service.
A. proud B. certain C. famous D. different
Question 12. Mary: “That’s a very nice skirt you’re wearing.” - Jolie: “______”
A. You’re welcome. B. That’s all right.
C. Don’t mention it. D. Thank you.
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
8 TIPS TO STAY SAFETY ONLINE
1. Be nice (13) ______ people online
2. Take care with what you share
3. (14) ______ personal information private
4. Check your privacy settings

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5. Know how (15) ______ posts
6. Keep your password (16) ______
7. Never meet anyone in person you have only met online
8. If you see anything online that you don't like or you find upsetting, tell someone you trust
Question 13. A. to B. with C. of D. for
Question 14. A. Make B. Keep C. Remain D. Sustain
Question 15. A. reporting B. report C. to report D. reported
Question 16. A. safe B. safeless C. safeness D. unsafe
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
I had a hard 10-day course in an army camp in Son Tay last summer. Everything was different from my life
at home. ______
A. We had to wake up at 5 a.m. and attend classes which were like training courses for soldiers.
B. In the evening, we read books or worked in teams with many exciting activities.
C. We also joined a performance that had the theme: environmental protection.
A. b-c-a B. c-b-a C. a-b-c D. a-c-b
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. After that, I attended such a strict but exciting course like this.
B. Finally, I can attend an exciting course.
C. I also felt disappointed about it.
D. I have never attended such a strict but exciting course like this.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Owning a pet can be a great (19) ______. It is a chance to love and care for a living creature. By watching and
looking at its growth and behavior, you will discover that having a pet can be exciting and (20).
It is also said that owning a pet reaps benefits to your health. You will have lower blood pressure and lower
cholesterol levels. Owning a pet gives you a greater sense of well-being and (21) ______ your stress level.
Different types of pets need different kinds of care. Some pets are easy to look (22) ______ while others are
difficult. Pets are not toys and a certain amount of work is needed if you want to take care of (23) ______
properly. You must be willing to spend a part of each day to meet your pet's needs.
(24) ______ pets, big or small, depend on their owners for food, housing and protection. Although love is very
important, it alone is not enough.
Question 19. A. activities B. way C. task D. pleasure
Question 20. A. amusing B. amuse C. amused D. amusingly
Question 21. A. decreases B. make C. increase D. cause
Question 22. A. at B. for C. after D. into
Question 23. A. it B. them C. they D. their
Question 24. A. A B. Much C. All D. Any
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. “What time did you go to bed last night, Mike?” his mother asked.
A. Mike’s mother asked him what time he had gone to bed last night.
B. Mike’s mother asked him what time he has gone to bed the previous night.
C. Mike’s mother asked him what time he had gone to bed the previous night.
D. Mike’s mother asked him what time he went to bed last night.
Question 26. The house belongs to my grandparents. It was built in 1975.
A. The house which it belongs to my grandparents was built in 1975.
B. The house who belongs to my grandparents was built in 1975.
C. The house which belongs to my grandparents was built in 1975.
D. The house what belongs to my grandparents was built in 1975.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. Linda / go / cooking class / every Wednesday evening.
A. Linda went to the cooking class every Wednesday evening.
B. Linda goes the cooking class every Wednesday evening.
C. Linda will go to the cooking class every Wednesday evening.
D. Linda goes to the cooking class every Wednesday evening.
Question 28. She / tell / me / quiet / because / baby / sleep.
A. She tells me to be quiet because the baby was sleeping.
B. She told me be quiet because the baby was sleeping.
C. She told me to be quiet because the baby is sleeping.
D. She told me to be quiet because the baby was sleeping.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. You can make noise and talk loudly in this area.

B. This area is for quiet and no loud noises are allowed.
C. Making noise is encouraged and allowed in this area.
D. The area is not watched, so noise is not controlled.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

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 Seavista Restaurant
Opening this weekend.
Free food for children.

A. The restaurant is old.

B. The restaurant has great food.
C. Guests don’t have to pay for children’s meals.
D. The restaurant is only open at the weekend.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Ke Ga Cape, which is about twenty-five kilometres from the city of Phan Thiet, is often overlooked by the
majority of travellers coming to Viet Nam. Therefore, the peacefulness of this coastal area has been preserved.
If you want to experience the 'real', unspoiled side of Viet Nam, we highly recommend that you add Ke Ga
Cape to your 'places' to visit' list.
Once you've arrived at Ke Ga Cape, its attractions are immediately obvious. Most j travellers are attracted by
the sight of its untouched cliffs spreading out along the coast J and the sound of the casuarina trees rustling in
the breeze. On sunny days, you will be enthralled by the harmonious tones of the sea and sky, and the sight of
clouds embracing the mountain peaks. You can also admire the splendid sunrise, and later go for a walk to
enjoy the mesmerizing sunset. The red-yellow rays of the sun reflected in the waves paint an enchanting
picture of the pristine Ke Ga Cape. Sometimes, it may be hard for you to distinguish where the sky ends and
the sea begins.
If you want to get to Ke Ga Lighthouse, taking a canoe is highly recommended because it is quick, convenient,
and safe. Ke Ga Lighthouse is worth a visit during your Viet Nam tour, if you want to experience daily life in
a fishing village. The locals are very friendly, warm-hearted, and sincere. Not surprisingly, they will often
invite you to join them for a meal of their freshly caught seafood, which will definitely awaken your taste
buds.
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Ke Ga Cape - a travel destination in Vietnam.
B. The ways to preserve Ke Ga Cape.
C. How Ke Ga Cape attract tourists from all over the world.
D. Some interesting activities in Ke Ga Cape.
Question 32. What attracts most travellers to Ke Ga Cape?
A. the harmonious tones of the sea and sky.
B. the sight of clouds embracing the mountain peaks.
C. cliffs spreading out along the coast.
D. The red-yellow rays of the sun reflected in the waves.
Question 33. If you want to get to Ke Ga Lighthouse, you are highly recommended to take ______.
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A. a bus B. a train C. a plane D. a canoe
Question 34. What are the locals in Ke Ga Lighthouse like?
A. loyal and funny B. warm-hearted and quick
C. friendly and sincere D. safe and convenient
Question 35. The word “enchanting” is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. attractive B. ugly C. special D. exciting
Question 36. The word “warm-hearted” is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. kind B. useful C. gentle D. unfriendly
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
Braj Kachru was a Professor of Linguistics (37) ______. The term refers to the fact that English has become
a global means of communication with a lot of varieties.
In 1985, Kachru proposed a model of the different uses of English around the world. (38) ______. The first
of these circles is the Inner Circle, which consists of the traditional English- speaking countries, (39) ______.
In these regions, English is the first language, and their speakers provide the standards of English.
The next circle is the Outer Circle where English is not the first language but the second or official language.
The countries in this circle include India, Singapore, the Philippines, Pakistan, Malaysia, etc. The speakers of
these places follow the standards which the countries in the Inner Circle provide.
The last circle is the Expanding Circle. (40) ______. Some of the countries in the Expanding Circle are Brazil,
Japan, Russia, and Viet Nam. Speakers of English in these places follow the rules which the people in the
Inner Circle have established.
A. who invented the term 'World Englishes'
B. People in this circle speak English as a foreign language
C. such as the UK, the USA, Australia, New Zealand, and Canada
D. There are three concentric circles in the model
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 8
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. natural B. pagoda C. landscape D. damage
Question 2. A. sauce B. skirt C. sugar D. steam
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. college B. degree C. language D. subject
Question 4. A. contestant B. destruction C. paradise D. appearance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. She had to prepare a lot for the meeting, ______?
A. had she B. didn’t she C. hadn’t she D. did she
Question 6. When I was a child, I ______ fly a kite in the field near my house.
A. use to B. am used to C. was used to D. used to
Question 7. I wish I ______ able to speak more than a language.
A. is B. were C. am D. was
Question 8. The bicycle ______ my parents gave me on my birthday was stolen yesterday.
A. which B. who C. what D. whom
Question 9. She suggested that we ______ money for the poor in the neighbourhood.
A. raising B. should raise C. to raise D. would raise
Question 10. She has just won the first prize in the singing contest. She is ______ about that.
A. out of this world B. once in a blue moon
C. the sky’s the limit D. over the moon
Question 11. My father loves ______ sightseeing in new places in the central part of Vietnam.
A. making B. going C. looking D. taking
Question 12. Nga: “How about going to the movie theater tonight?” - Hieu: “______.”
A. I am glad you like it B. Great idea
C. You’re welcome D. Well done
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
GREAT BARRIER REEF TOUR, AUSTRALIA
* Dive with us to (13) ______ the most beautiful coral reef in the world
* Swim in (14) ______ with colourful fish
* Watch 3D documentaries (15) ______ about sea animals and the coral reef, and what you can do to (16)

36
______ it
* Price: Only $99/adult & $59/child
* Time: 9 a.m. - 5 p.m. every day
Question 13. A. investigate B. discover C. explore D. detect
Question 14. A. deep blue sea B. blue deep sea C. sea blue deep D. blue sea deep
Question 15. A. learn B. to learn C. learning D. to learning
Question 16. A. reserve B. conserve C. maintain D. protect
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
You can do a lot of things with this small smartphone! ______
a. Besides standard text messaging and phone calls, it can keep you connected through emails, video calls,
and social networking apps.
b. Its camcorder will record important moments, so you can share them with friends.
C. This light, stylish phone has a special self-portrait feature that helps you send great photos of yourself right
away.
A. b-a-c B. c-b-a C. c-a-b D. b-c-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. To sum up, smartphones bring a lot of benefits to our lives.
B. Moreover, smartphones also have some disadvantages.
C. However, smartphones may cause many troubles.
D. Then, smartphones bring a lot of benefits to our lives.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Traditionally, rural villages in Vietnam (19) ______ handicrafts when they were not busy (20) ______ planting
or harvesting crops. Over time, (21) ______ villages developed the expertise to make specialized products and
so particular villages became famous for such things as weaving, woodwork, lacquer work and metal products.
With I industrialization, many villagers moved to the cities but maintained their craft skills and networks to
produce products for the city market, (22) ______, craft villages make furniture, grow flowers or make utensils
for the urban population. Other villages changed from (23) ______ traditional crafts to producing different
products desired by an industrialized (24) ______.
Question 19. A. produced B. produce C. have produced D. will produce
Question 20. A. in B. with C. of D.by
Question 21. A. much B. lot of C. many D. a
Question 22. A. however B. so C. for example D. and
Question 23. A. make B. to making C. to make D. making
Question 24. A. society B. social C. sociable D. socially
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
37
Question 25. She said to him, “You should stop smoking.”
A. She warned him not to stop smoking.
B. She said to him you should stop smoking.
C. She advised him to stop smoking.
D. She asked him if he should stop smoking.
Question 26. No game show on VTV3 is as popular as “Olympia".
A. “Olympia" is not the most popular game show on VTV3.
B. "Olympia" is not as popular as other game shows on VTV3.
C. "Olympia" is the most popular game show on VTV3.
D. "Olympia" is as popular as other game shows on VTV3.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. The woman / live / next door / donate / thousands of dollars / local charities / every year.
A. The woman who lives next door donates thousands of dollars to local charities every year.
B. The woman lives next door donates thousands of dollars to local charities every year.
C. The woman who lives next door donating thousands of dollars to local charities every year.
D. The woman which lives next door donates thousands of dollars to local charities every year.
Question 28. Those students / volunteer / provide meals / schoolchildren / remote areas.
A. Those students volunteered to provide meals with schoolchildren in remote areas.
B. Those students volunteered to provide meals for schoolchildren in remote areas.
C. Those students volunteered provide meals for schoolchildren in remote areas.
D. Those students volunteered providing meals for schoolchildren in remote areas.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. Dogs are welcome everywhere and can go anywhere.

B. Dogs are not allowed to enter or be in this area.
C. You may bring dogs here if they are on a leash.
D. Only small dogs are allowed in this area.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

38
 IMPORTANT NOTICE
Class 10A English is in Room 4 today.
(2.30 start, as usual)

A. This lesson is in a different place today.

B. This lesson is not happening today.
C. This lesson begins a bit later today.
D. This lesson is only for class 10A.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Bamboo is an amazing plant. Did you know it is actually grass? In fact, giant bamboo is the largest member
of the grass family. Some types can grow an incredible 90 centimetres in just one day. Some bamboo plants
can grow to over 30 metres tall, which is as tall as a gum tree.
You probably know that bamboo is the favourite food of pandas, but chimpanzees, gorillas and elephants eat
it too.
Bamboo is also extremely useful to people. It is a very valuable construction material because it is so strong.
In fact, whole houses can be built from bamboo. In some parts of the world, bamboo is used as scaffolding
(the frame used to support building work).
The range of things that can be made from bamboo is huge. Furniture, cooking utensils, and musical
instruments can all be made from bamboo. Bamboo fibres can be used to produce a soft, cotton-like material
for T-shirts and underwear. Bamboo fibres are also used to make paper. Bamboo can even be used to make
bicycle frames and boats.
Question 31. Bamboo is a type of ______.
A. tree B. wood C. bush D. grass
Question 32. The word “useful” is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. helpless B. harmful C. helpful D. kind
Question 33. Which of the following are true EXCEPT ______.
A. bamboo plants can grow to over 30 metres tall
B. gorillas and elephants like to eat bamboo
C. bamboo can be used to make furniture, cooking utensils, and musical instruments
D. people use bamboo fibers to make boats
Question 34. According to the text, which part of a bicycle can be made from bamboo?
A. the frame B. the wheels C. the pedals D. the seat
Question 35. The main purpose of this text is.
A. to encourage people to use bamboo more often
B. to list everything that can be made from bamboo
C. to give interesting facts and uses for bamboo
39
D. to outline where bamboo is mainly grown and used
Question 36. The word “huge” is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. various B. limited C. different D. small
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
If you want to learn English more quickly, lots of reading is important. When you read i in English, (37)
______.
When you read, try to figure out the meaning of a new word from the words around it. Even if you are not
always correct, it is good to practise thinking about what a new word might mean. (38) ______. The more
words you understand, the better you will be able to read. A dictionary - hard copy or online version - (39)
______. You should keep a list of new words, their definitions, and a sentence for each word which shows
how to properly use it. You can keep this vocabulary list in a notebook you always have with you. (40) ______.
A. You may need to learn the meaning of a word or phrase
B. you can improve your vocabulary, grammar, and: writing at the same time
C. This helps you to revise what you have learnt wherever you are
D. can help you find the meanings of words which are new to you
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 9
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. park B. start C. card D. catch
Question 2. A. culture B. student C. distance D. mistake
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. protect B. offer C. reduce D. persuade
Question 4. A. position B. family C. century D. wonderful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. She went to Tay Ho village in Hue ______ she could buy some bai tho conical hats.
A. although B. so that C. so as to D. therefore
Question 6. There are a lot of people who ______ work in remote areas nowadays.
A. voluntarily B. volunteers C. volunteered D. voluntary
Question 7. Simon hasn’t read that book before, ______?
A. did he B. does he C. is he D. has he
Question 8. She’s the woman ______ sister looks after the baby for us.
A. which B. who C. that D. whose
Question 9. After the spacecraft ______ into space, the crew started to observe the Earth.
A. travels B. had travelled C. was travelling D. has travelled
Question 10. Classical music isn’t my ______. I prefer K-pop.
A. cup of tea B. hot potato C. flesh and blood D. piece of cake
Question 11. She gave me a new handkerchief on which she ______ some beautiful flowers.
A. embroidered B. carved C. moulded D. knitted
Question 12.
Laura: Thank you for helping me with my project. - Jenny: “______”
A. It was an excellent project. B. Congratulations!
C. Well, I like it. D. You’re welcome.
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
SAPA TREKKING TOUR, VIET NAM
* A three-day walk of 20 kilometres a day through the mountains (13) ______ the north of Viet Nam
* Enjoy some of (14) ______ scenery
* Stay with local people (15) ______ about their culture and (16) ______ local food

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* Price: $80/adult (children not allowed)
* Starts every Wednesday and Sunday
Question 13. A. on B. at C. during D. in
Question 14. A. the country’s most beautiful B. the most country’s beautiful
C. country’s most beautiful D. most country’s beautiful
Question 15. A. learning B. learn C. to learn D. learnt
Question 16. A. enjoy B. try C. prepare D. exchange
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
My mum first learnt sewing skills from my grandmother. She got her job as a tailor when she was 16.
____________
a. Now she owns a small tailor shop in the village.
b. Though sometimes she has to work late at night, she finds her job rewarding because she can satisfy her
customers.
c. She has such an excellent sense of style that many ladies love the clothes she makes.
A. b-c-a B. a-c-b C. c-b-a D. a-b-c
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. I think my mum has had a successful career in tailoring.
B. My mum is a very talented tailor.
C. This job gives my mum a lot of money.
D. Finally, my mum can make her own clothes.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
There are a lot of disadvantages of living in a big city, and air pollution is among (19) ______ most serious
problems. Firstly, air pollution comes from the factories in the city. Big cities attract a lot of both inside and
outside investments, (20) ______ the number of factories is increasing quickly. This makes the air extremely
(21) ______ by smoke from factories. Secondly, that there are too many means of transportation also makes
this problem worse. Exhaust from cars, and motorbikes is one of the factors (22) ______ make the air polluted.
To conclude, air pollution, which is expected (23) ______ more and more people get many serious (24) ______
such as lung cancer, tuberculosis and so on, is a big drawback of city life.
Question 19. A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 20. A. therefore B. however C. so D. but
Question 21. A. pollutants B. pollute C. pollution D. polluted
Question 22. A. that B. where C. who D. when
Question 23. A. to making B. making C. make D. to make
Question 24. A. happiness B. diseases C. benefits D. accidents
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
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Question 25. Because of the bad weather, the plane couldn’t touch down.
A. As the weather was not bad, the plane could touch down.
B. Because the weather was bad, the plane couldn’t touch down.
C. Since the weather is bad, the plane couldn’t touch down.
D. The plane could touch down due to the bad weather.
Question 26. You can improve your English pronunciation by talking to native English speakers.
A. Unless you improve your English pronunciation, you can talk to native English speakers.
B. If you talk to native English speakers, you can improve your English pronunciation.
C. Unless you talk to native English speakers, you can improve your English pronunciation.
D. If you improve your English pronunciation, you can talk to native English speakers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. They / very happy / share / stories / family and neighbors.
A. They are very happy sharing their stories with their family and neighbors.
B. They are very happy to share their stories with their family and neighbors.
C. They are very happy share their stories with their family and neighbors.
D. They are very happy that to share their stories with their family and neighbors.
Question 28. I / wish / there / not / environmental / problems / city.
A. I wish there won’t be environmental problems in our city.
B. I wish there hadn’t environmental problems in our city.
C. I wish there aren’t environmental problems in our city.
D. I wish there weren’t environmental problems in our city.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. You are allowed to eat and drink here without any restrictions.
B. Eating and drinking are not permitted in this area at all times.
C. You can bring drinks but not food into this area.
D. Food is permitted but drinks are not allowed in this area.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

"Please keep your bus ticket with you at all times.

The transport officers might ask to see it during your journey."

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A. You need to keep your bus ticket with you. Officers might check it.
B. Transport officers will give you a bus ticket.
C. You do not need a bus ticket for the journey.
D. You can get your bus ticket from the transport officers.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Sleep is very important. Did you know that sleep is more important than food? A person who does not sleep
dies at a younger age than a person who does not eat. Let's say you go to sleep 12 hours later than you usually
do. It will take your body about three weeks to return to normal. We spend about one-third of our lives in
sleep. That's about 121 days a year!
How much sleep do we need? We are all different. A baby needs 16 hours of sleep every day. Children 6 to
12 years old need an average of 10 to 12 hours of sleep. A teenager needs ' 9 to 10 hours of sleep. An adult
needs an average of 7 to 8 hours a night. There are some people who need only 3 hours of sleep. Others need
10 hours of sleep. After the age of 50, the average sleep time goes down to 6.5 hours a night. We need less
sleep as we get older. Most people have some nights when they cannot sleep. About one in three Americans
has a problem with sleep. Many of these people cannot fall asleep or stay asleep. The name of this problem is
insomnia. The word insomnia means "no sleep." Some people say, "I didn't sleep all night." They may sleep
lightly and wake up several times. In the morning, they only remember the times they were awake, so they
think they were awake all night.
This is not a new problem. Many famous people in history had insomnia. Some of these people had special
ideas to make them sleep. Benjamin Franklin, the famous statesman and inventor, had four beds. He moved
from one to the other to fall asleep. King Louis XIV of France had 413 beds and hoped to fall asleep in one
of them. Mark Twain, the famous American writer, had a different way. He lay on his side across the end of
the bed!
Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. How to stay healthy and keep fit.
B. Sleep more to make you healthier.
C. General knowledge about sleep.
D. Different people need different hours of sleep every day.
Question 32. How many hours of sleep do people at the age of 10 need?
A. 16 hours B. 10 to 12 hours C. 9 to 10 hours D. 7 to 8 hours
Question 33. The phrase “goes down” is in OPPOSITE meaning to ______.
A. increases B. decreases C. changes D. improves
Question 34. The phrase “wake up” is in CLOSEST meaning to ______.
A. fall asleep B. stop dreaming C. stop sleeping D. try to sleep
Question 35. According to paragraph 2, which problem do Americans have?
A. insomnia B. sleep too much C. have a night mare D. stay asleep
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Question 36. Which of the following are true, EXCEPT ______.
A. Many famous people in history had insomnia.
B. We don’t sleep much as we get older.
C. Mark Twain moved from one to the other to fall asleep.
D. We spend about 121 days a year to sleep.
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
Plants and animals are an essential part of Earth's ecology. When we speak about a specific habitat and time,
we refer to them as flora and fauna. (37) ______. They are fascinating to study due to their beauty and
significance to human life.
First, the flora and fauna on Earth create an ecological balance, making life possible (J for humans. Flora
releases oxygen for humans. The carbon dioxide we breathe out is vital to plants. Humans also rely on plants
and animals for food, medicine, and water.
Second, plants and animals combine to create a food chain. In the food chain, (38) ______. They feed on
plants and, in turn, are the prey of other animals. Their droppings become fertilisers for plants.
(39) ______. People love and appreciate the natural beauty, the relaxed feeling in green spaces and water
areas.
However, plants and animals are facing habitat loss, pollution, and climate change. To protect them, we should
raise people's awareness of their significance, (40) ______, and build nature reserves for our wildlife.
A. Flora refers to plants and fauna refers to animals
B. stop hunting, plant more trees
C. the animals play an important part
D. Finally, plants and animals add a lot of beauty to our Earth
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. lonely B. sky C. empty D. lovely
Question 2. A. whale B. what C. white D. who
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. stupid B. weather C. neighbour D. decide
Question 4. A. colourful B. beautiful C. direction D. countryside
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Karen has a job now, so she no longer depends _______ her parents for financial support.
A. in B. up C. on D. of
Question 6. Alex still doesn’t know how _______ his budget when living alone in Hue city.
A. managed B. manage C. managing D. to manage
Question 7. Would you mind _______ here, Henry?
A. not smoking B. not to smoke C. not smoke D. to not smoke
Question 8. The Internet has helped students study more _______.
A. effect B. effective C. effectively D. effectiveness
Question 9. People use the Internet for ___ purposes: education, communication, entertainment and
commerce.
A. many B. a C. much D. a lots of
Question 10. They are the children _______ won the match last week.
A. which B. when C. who D. whom
Question 11. It’s time to say goodbye, but I’m _______ meeting you all again soon.
A. looking forward to B. getting on with
C. keep up with D. put up with
Question 12. Joe: “What a beautiful picture you have painted.” - Mary: “_______.”
A. I don’t like painting B. Thanks. It’s nice of you to say so
C. Yes. It’s ugly D. Yes. It’s very expensive
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
ANNOUNCEMENT OF SCHOOL SPORTS DAY
The School Athletics Department is pleased to announce:
♦ All athletes (13) _______ to report at the school field by 8:00 AM (14) _______ June 10.

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♦ Each team must prepare and submit their entry list for each event. Each athlete is allowed (15) _______ in
a maximum of three events.
♦ The school will distribute trophies and medals for the winners in each category.
♦ (16) _______ you have any inquiries regarding the event schedule or rules, please contact the Athletics
Department.
Question 13. A. expect B. expecting C. are expected D. have expected
Question 14. A. on B. in C. at D. for
Question 15. A. to participate B. participate C. participating D. participated
Question 16. A. Unless B. Whenever C. If D. As
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
Nowadays delivery people are commonly seen in our city. Of all the delivery people who deliver us parcels,
our family likes Mr Nam the most. _______
a. Mr Nam is about 40 years old and he is a kind, friendly, and responsible person.
b. If I am not at home, he usually leaves the parcel with our neighbour and then I transfer money to him by
online banking.
c. Before he brings a parcel to our house, he always calls to check if we are at home.
A. b-a-c B. c-b-a C. a-c-b D. b-c-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. Then he always smiles with my father.
B. Furthermore, he wants to open his own company in the future.
C. My father sometimes talks to him and he happily shares about his life and work.
D. I really admire him because of his great achievements to society.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
One of (19) _______ important discoveries of the nineteenth century was a method of using natural gas for
cooking and heating. Large amounts of natural gas are found in the United States, usually several thousand
feet below the surface of (20) _______ Earth.
For many years after natural gas first discovered, it was thought to have no value. Finally, therefore, people
began (21) _______ its uses and to find ways of storing it and of moving it from place to place.
Today natural gas is stored in large tanks and used for lighting, cooking, and heating. In (22) _______ ways,
natural gas is one of our finest (23) _______. It is cheap and can be used for cooking without making the room
hot. It can be moved (24) _______ from one place to another through long pipelines, some of which are
hundreds of miles in length.
Question 19. A. more B. the most C. as D. most
Question 20. A. the B. a C. an D. ∅
Question 21. A. to understand B. understand C. to understanding D. understood
Question 22. A. much B. any C. many D. a lot
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Question 23. A. energies B. powers C. pollutants D. fuels
Question 24. A. easy B. easiness C. easier D. easily
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. They expect that the professor will arrive this morning.
A. It is expected that the professor will arrive this morning.
B. It expected that the professor would arrive this morning.
C. It is expect that the professor will arrive this morning.
D. It is expected that the professor would arrive this morning.
Question 26. My friend told me, “Would you like to have a picnic this weekend?”
A. My friend invited me to have a picnic that weekend.
B. My friend suggested having a picnic that weekend.
C. My friend advised me having a picnic that weekend.
D. My friend reminded me to have a picnic that weekend.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. Everyone / be / delight / that / they / passed / examination /.
A. Everyone were delighted that they passed the examination.
B. Everyone was delighted that they passed the examination.
C. Everyone are delighting that they passed the examination.
D. Everyone is delighting that they passed the examination.
Question 28. If / I / be / you, / I / read / English papers / improve / reading skill.
A. If I were you, I should improve my reading skill.
B. If you were me, you should read English papers to improve your reading skill.
C. If I am you, I will read English papers to improve my reading skill.
D. If I were you, I would read English papers to improve my reading skill.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. You can park your car in any place here without rules.
B. Do not park your car here; it is not allowed.
C. Only customers can park in this area.
D. You can park your car in any spot you like.
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Question 30. What does the notice say?

End-of-term school party!

Classroom 11A All students welcome
Friday 17th Bring food!
Mrs. Harrison

A. To attend this party, you need to be a student from Classroom 3B.

B. Mrs. Harrison will bring something to the party for students to eat.
C. Everyone at the school is invited to the party on the 17th.
D. The party will take place after Friday 17th.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
English is one of the most popular languages in the world. It comes second in the number of speakers after
Chinese. In Vietnam, more and more people are studying English and they consider it a key to success.
However, not everyone knows how to learn English effectively.
The best way to improve the four skills: speaking, listening, reading, and writing is to practice regularly. You
should make use of every opportunity to speak English with friends in class or at English-speaking clubs or
ourselves in front of the mirror. Learning by heart all the words does not help much if you do not read a lot
because you will easily forget what you have learned. Reading books, listening to the radio, and watching
films are better ways to memorize words. Besides English learners should not be so shy because making
mistakes is unavoidable in learning foreign languages. Practicing speaking a lot is a good way to correct your
mistakes.
Question 31. How many skills are mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
Question 32. The word “improve” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. enhance B. better C. boost D. worsen
Question 33. A good way to correct your mistakes is _______.
A. avoiding speaking English B. stopping learning English
C. practicing speaking English a lot D. forgetting learning English
Question 34. According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. You should never speak English with yourselves.
B. English learners should be shy if they make mistakes.
C. Making mistakes is important in learning foreign languages
D. Many Vietnamese people consider English a key to success.
Question 35. The word “memorize” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to _______.
A. remember B. forget C. communicate D. remind
Question 36. The passage is mainly about.
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A. people who study English in Viet Nam
B. how to learn English effectively
C. how to read books, listen to the radio and watch films
D. how to learn English ineffectively
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
When you turn 15, you should start thinking seriously about your career. However, making career choices can
be challenging, especially in this changing world.
Assembly workers and ticket sellers, (37) _______, are being replaced by machines. However, technology has
also created new jobs, such as software engineers and online teachers. Besides, beauty jobs like nail artists
and hairdressers are becoming popular (38) _______.
Computer skills have become a must for many jobs. (39) _______. People also collaborate with each other so
often that teamwork and communication skills are now increasingly important.
Many teenagers are willing to take vocational courses instead of going to university. Training can be both
face-to-face and online. Opportunities to learn new skills are open to everyone provided that they have
inquiring minds.
(40) _______. It's a good idea for you to work well in teams, keep on learning and have good computer skills.
By doing so, you can move confidently on your career path.
A. whose jobs are repetitive
B. For example, doctors need to keep digital medical records of their patients
C. In the future, there may be even more changes in the world of work
D. because people want to take better care of themselves
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 11
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. head B. bean C. meal D. team
Question 2. A. sociable B. ocean C. receive D. special
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. inform B. arrange C. computer D. native
Question 4. A. destruction B. enjoyment C. mechanic D. interview
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. ______ behaving badly, he was punished by his parents.
A. Although B. Despite C. Because of D. Because
Question 6. This watch costs too much, ______?
A. doesn’t it B. isn’t it C. does it D. is it
Question 7. There used to be a huge stadium ______ is now a modem leisure centre.
A. there B. what C. which D. where
Question 8. I’m hungry, but there isn’t ______ food left in the fridge.
A. a lot B. a C. some D. any
Question 9. If Emily ______ sick today, she would be able to go to school.
A. isn’t B. weren’t C. wasn’t D. didn’t
Question 10. This time tomorrow I ______ with my cousin in London on Viber.
A. will chat B. am chatting C. chat D. will be chatting
Question 11. Please read the ______ carefully before you use this machine.
A. instructions B. advices C. labels D. information
Question 12. Linda: “Would you like to come with US for lunch?” - Jolie: “______”
A. Yes, so do I. B. Yes, I’d love to. C. Yes, it is. D. Yes, I do.
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE MID-TERM TESTS
The school administrators would like (13) ______
➢ All students (14) ______ present by 7:30, from Dec 26 up to Dec 29.
➢ (15) ______ cheating during your tests.
➢ Bringing along mobile devices means (16) ______ your tests.
Question 13. A. to announce B. announce C. to announcing D. announced

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Question 14. A. must B. required C. have to be D. receive
Question 15. A. Without B. Not C. No D. Hardly
Question 16. A. stopping B. to stop C. stop D. to stopping
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
I live in a coastal town. It used to be a beautiful and liveable place. _______
a. Besides, the beaches are polluted and pickpockets happen frequently.
b. I think the local government should invest in better public amenities such as parks and sports facilities.
c. Now, it's a concrete jungle with big and ugly buildings.
A. b-c-a B. c-b-a C. a-c-b D. c-a-b
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. People are with a safe and clean atmosphere.
B. The city will look more modem and attract more tourists.
C. They should also clean up the beach and increase the security in the town.
D. I also try to protect the environment in my town.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Alexander McQueen
Alexander McQueen is one of the world's most famous clothes designers. He started (19) _______in an
expensive clothes shop in London where he made clothes for people like Prince Charles and the Russian leader
Mikhail Gorbachev. (20) _______the 1990s, he decided to work on his own and he opened his own fashion
business.
(21) _______rich and famous people became his customers and the clothes (22) he made for them were often
unusual. Magazines and newspapers liked to write articles about his clothes and about him. (23) _______, he
wasn't always pleasant to journalists so they didn't always write nice things about him. But McQueen never
cared what anyone said about him. Unfortunately, he (24) _______in 2010 when he was only 41 years old.
Question 19. A. to working B. work C. worked D. working
Question 20. A. In B. On C. At D. For
Question 21. A. Much B. Many C. A lot D. A
Question 22. A. whose B. who C. which D. whom
Question 23. A. However B. Therefore C. Furthermore D. In fact
Question 24. A. dies B. died C. die D. dying
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. You are not allowed to leave the room without permission.
A. You mustn’t leave the room without permission.
B. You might leave the room without permission.
C. You needn’t leave the room without permission.
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D. You don’t have to leave the room without permission.
Question 26. Science and technology have completely changed human life.
A. Human life has been completely changed by science and technology.
B. Human life have been changed completely by science and technology.
C. Human life have been completely changed by science and technology.
D. Human life has changed by science and technology completely.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. It / first / time / he / stay / up / late / study / exam.
A. It is first time he stayed up late to study for the exam.
B. It is the first time for him to stay up late to study for the exam.
C. It is the first time he stays up late to study for the exam.
D. It is the first time he has stayed up late to study for the exam.
Question 28. Respect / our ancestors / one / traditions / our people
A. To respect our ancestors is one of the traditions on our people.
B. Respect our ancestors is one tradition of our people.
C. Respecting our ancestors was one of the traditions of our people.
D. Respecting our ancestors is one of the traditions of our people.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. The elevator is working well and you can use it.

B. The elevator is not working and you cannot use it.
C. The elevator is being repaired and will work again soon.
D. The elevator is for special use only and not for everyone.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

Don't keep this soup in the fridge for more than two
days after opening it.

A. If you open this soup, only keep it in the fridge for two days.
B. You must open and eat this soup in the next two days.

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C. Put this soup in the fridge as soon as you open it.
D. If you open this soup, you shouldn’t keep it in the fridge.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
You can do a few things to make homework less stressful. First, be sure you understand what you have to do
in your assignment. Write it down in your notebook if you need to and don't be afraid to ask questions about
what is expected.
Second, use any extra time you have at school to work on your homework. Many schools have libraries that
are specifically designed for students to study or to get their homework done.
Third, pace yourself. You need to plan your time. If it is a heavy homework day, you ) will need to devote
more time to your homework.
Whenever you need your help, the first person you should ask for help is your teacher. Sometimes, it is good
to have someone explain something that you are not completely sure of. In addition, you might also be able to
get some help from another student. If there is a friend who is a good student, think about asking that person
to study with you.
Question 31. The word “stressful” in the first paragraph is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. annoying B. relaxing C. tiring D. wasteful
Question 32. In order to make homework less stressful, the first thing to do is _______.
A. to remember the deadline
B. to understand what you have to do in your assignment
C. to go to school library as soon as possible
D. to know what you can do it for you
Question 33. If you have any extra time at school, you should _______.
A. spend time with your friends
B. use it to make your day planner
C. use it to understand the assignment
D. study or get your homework done
Question 34. The word “devote” in the third paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to _______.
A. reduce B. spend C. develop D. waste
Question 35. When a student needs some help, the first person to ask for help is _______.
A. the best student at school B. his teacher
C. a member in his family D. his friend
Question 36. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Students can follow some advice to avoid worrying about homework.
B. Students should ask their teachers for help when they need it.
C. Students might get some help from their friends.
D. Students can do their homework in school libraries.
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Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
Sardinia is the second largest island in Italy. (37) _______. One of the crafts that make the island well-known
is basket weaving. This is considered one of the most remarkable handicrafts on the island because it (38)
_______.
Baskets are usually woven by Sardinian women. They have handed down the techniques from generation to
generation. The shapes and dimensions of the baskets are different according to the technique, the area of
production, and the kind of material used. (39) _______.
In the past, people hung the baskets on the walls of their houses or displayed them on shelves like artwork.
Today the baskets are used (40) _______. People really appreciate the craft because nowadays it is
increasingly rare to find good quality baskets like these. Sardinian people believe that basket weaving is a
dying skill and they hope to preserve it in the future.
A. They use various natural materials such as willow, palm, straw, and hay
B. It is famous for its beautiful nature and a variety of ancient crafts
C. combines manual skills and natural resources
D. in homes or for decorative purposes
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. pressure B. sentence C. membership D. repeat
Question 2. A. chapter B. chemical C. exchange D. church
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. attend B. option C. produce D. become
Question 4. A. cinema B. position C. family D. popular
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. She left her keys in the room before leaving home, ______?
A. hasn’t she B. wasn’t she C. isn’t she D. didn’t she
Question 6. She studied hard, ______ she passed the exam.
A. so B. if C. because D. as
Question 7. It has been 10 years since we last ______ the film.
A. see B. saw C. have seen D. had seen
Question 8. I ______ tennis a lot, but I don’t play very often now.
A. get used to playing B. am used to play
C. used to play D. used to playing
Question 9. It’s very hot today. I wish I ______ on the beach now.
A. am B. will be C. were D. was
Question 10. If you don’t use the computer, please ______.
A. turn it on B. turn it off C. put it on D. take it off
Question 11. In the morning, Sandra usually eats a loaf of bread and drinks a ______ coffee.
A. bottle B. cup C. head D. bunch
Question 12. Eden and Edward are chatting after work. Eden suggests eating out.
Eden: “Shall we eat out tonight?” - Edward: “______”
A. That’s a great idea B. It is very kind of you
C. You are very welcome D. That’s all right
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
TRANG AN SCENIC LANDSCAPE COMPLEX
Quick facts
• Recognised as (13) ______ first mixed World Heritage Site in 2014

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• Famous for its beautiful (14) ______ and long cultural history
• Consists (15) ______ three protected areas
Natural beauty and biodiversity
• Beautiful limestone mountains, valleys, and rivers
• More than 600 types of plants and 200 types of animals
Cultural heritage
• Caves showing how early humans lived over a period of 30,000 years
• Hundreds of temples and (16) ______ pagodas
Current condition
• The landscape is not changed or damaged by human activities.
• Most of the site is still kept in its natural state, e.g. the original style of architecture.
Question 13. A. the B. a C. an D. no article
Question 14. A. view B. scene C. sight D. landscape
Question 15. A. in B. of C. for D. by
Question 16. A. historian B. historic C. history D. historically
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
I have been on an unforgettable summer course in America. ______
a. The most special experience was my visit to the top of Rockefeller Centre because I could view the whole
city below.
b. In the evening, we played board games and billiards.
c. We had an enjoyable campus tour, attended English classes, and joined team activities.
A. b-a-c B. c-a-b C. c-b-a D. a-b-c
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. That was the first time I travelled without my parents, so I felt like I grew up a lot after the trip.
B. I think the bad weather will make me disappointed.
C. I have never prepared for this kind of trip before.
D. Maybe, I will take part in this course in the future.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Lunar New Year, more commonly known by its shortened name Tet, (19) ______ is the most important and
(20) ______ holiday and festival in Viet Nam. Tet takes place from (21) ______ first day of the first month of
the Lunar calendar (around late January or early February) until at least the third day. Many Vietnamese (22)
______ for Tet by cooking special foods and cleaning the house. There are lots of customs practised during
Tet, like visiting a person's house on the first day of the New Year, wishing New Year's greetings (23) ______
giving lucky money to children and elderly people. During Tet, Vietnamese visit their relatives and temples
(24) ______ forget the trouble of the past year and hope for a better upcoming year.
Question 19. A. who B. which C. that D. whom
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Question 20. A. popular B. dangerous C. difficult D. boring
Question 21. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 22. A. prepare B. preparation C. preparative D. preparing
Question 23. A. or B. so C. but D. and
Question 24. A. in order to B. so that C. because of D. due to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. “We will move to this flat next week,” said the girl.
A. The girl said that they will move to that flat the following week.
B. The girl said that they would move to that flat the following week.
C. The girl said that they would move to this flat next week.
D. The girl said that we would move to that flat the following week.
Question 26. This is the first time I have gone out for a picnic.
A. I have ever gone out for a picnic.
B. I have never gone out for a picnic before.
C. I had never gone out for a picnic before.
D. I never go out for a picnic.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. John / is / old / understand / the problem.
A. John isn’t old enough understand the problem.
B. John isn’t old enough to understand the problem.
C. John is so old to understand the problem.
D. John isn’t too old understand the problem.
Question 28. They / decide / learn English / go / study / Australia
A. They decided learning English before going to study in Australia.
B. They decided and learned English before going to study in Australia.
C. They decided to learn English before go to study in Australia.
D. They decided to learn English before going to study in Australia.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

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A. Security cameras are not being used in this area.
B. Security cameras are watching and recording in this area.
C. There are no security cameras around this building.
D. Security cameras are only active during the night.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

"The cafe will have live music on Friday nights starting at 7 PM.
Enjoy music while you dine."

A. Live music will be played on Saturday nights.

B. The cafe will have live music on Friday nights starting at 7 PM.
C. Music will be played only in the morning.
D. The cafe will not have live music this month.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Every one of us produces garbage of one kind or another. Some of the garbage is \ thrown into the sea. Some
is burnt or buried under the ground. Every year we need to find about 800,000 cubic metres of empty land just
to bury the garbage.
This is the same as filling one football stadium with garbage up to 20 metres high. This garbage damages the
environment. Although a lot of garbage is buried in the ground, some of it gets blown about in the wind. Also,
when garbage is burnt, poisonous gases are given off into the air. The garbage thrown into the sea will pollute
the water.
What can we do about these problems? One very easy answer is to produce less garbage. We can recycle
things made from glass and paper as well as tin cans. People can refuse to take the plastic bags from the shops
and supermarkets by bringing with them ; their own bags or baskets when they go shopping.
The government should tell people about the dangers of garbage pollution. Education is perhaps the most
important factor for keeping our environment healthy for s the future.
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, poisonous gases are given off when we ______.
A. throw the garbage into the sea B. recycle the garbage
C. bum the garbage D. blow the garbage about
Question 32. According to paragraph 3, when we go shopping, we should ______.
A. use our own baskets or bags B. tell other people about recycling
C. buy less food D. ask for more plastic bags
Question 33. All of these can be recycled EXCEPT ______.
A. glass B. paper C. tin cans D. poisonous gases
Question 34. Which is probably the most important way to protect the environment?
A. recycle more garbage B. educate people
C. throw more garbage into the ocean D. stay away from shops
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Question 35. The word “poisonous” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. toxic B. clean C. healthy D. pleasant
Question 36. The word “dangers” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. risks B. threats C. disadvantages D. benefits
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
The local newspaper carried out a survey with city dwellers about (37) ______. Most participants in the survey
talked about the city's traffic. First, they wanted stricter traffic laws to stop drivers from ignoring traffic lights
and breaking speed limits. (38) ______. In addition, they hoped their city would improve its public transport
system. (39) ______. There should be bus lines that reach almost all areas in the city, so it would be easy for
people to get around. They said that good public transport could also save the city money. The local authority
wouldn't need to construct new parking lots and widen roads to cater for the increasing number of private cars.
Finally, the survey participants suggested the local authority build traffic apps. The apps could recommend to
drivers (40) ______. The sooner the government started implementing these, the more convenient it would be
to travel around the city.
A. how to make the city a more liveable place
B. For example, buses should be clean and have air conditioners
C. This would help reduce road accidents
D. the best routes to avoid traffic congestion
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 13
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. tidy B. sight C. mineral D. describe
Question 2. A. therefore B. throw C. thick D. thought
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. baby B. novel C. picture D. remind
Question 4. A. entertain B. pollution C. computer D. collection
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. It’s very noisy in the new neighbourhood; ______, we enjoy living there.
A. therefore B. but C. so D. however
Question 6. Sarah is the ______ student in this class.
A. very intelligent B. most intelligent C. more intelligent D. less intelligent
Question 7. He will sell traditional handicraft at the market next week, ______?
A. will he B. didn’t he C. doesn’t he D. won’t he
Question 8. ______ Sun, which is one of millions of stars in the universe, provides us with heat and light.
A. The B. A C. An D. Ø
Question 9. The man ______ came to my house yesterday starred in a very famous film.
A. what B. whose C. who D. which
Question 10. Ha Long city is famous ______ its beautiful beaches.
A. in B. of C. for D. with
Question 11. Living ______ are much lower here than in big cities like Hanoi or Ho Chi Minh City.
A. salary B. expenses C. prices D. payment
Question 12. Hoa: “Shall I help you with a suitcase?” - Mai: “______”
A. Not a chance B. What a pity. C. I can’t agree more. D. That’s very kind of you.
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
Want to be (13) ______ tour guide?
• Are you over 18 and (14) ______ in travelling and (15) ______ different cultures?
• Apply to SGV Vocational School. We provide tour guide training courses all year round.
• No qualifications needed
• Low (16) ______
• Apprenticeships provided

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Question 13. A. an B. a C. the D. another
Question 14. A. interesting B. interested C. interest D. interestingly
Question 15. A. surveying B. seeking C. discovering D. exploring
Question 16. A. price B. expense C. cost D. rate
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
I was one of the few children in my village who was still at school at the age of 15. Every day, I got up early
and walked to school. ______
a. Learning then depended mostly on our teachers and textbooks.
b. I learned simply by taking notes during class, memorising them, and doing the homework.
c. We had no library or lab and the nearest bookshop was six kilometres away.
A. b-c-a B. c-a-b C. c-b-a D. a-c-b
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. I felt so bored that I wanted to live in the city.
B. Life then was simple.
C. I promise, I will try to study hard to have a better future.
D. Life here was so complex.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Health and fitness are some of the most important aspects of life. Without these, life will be very unhappy and
dreadful.
There are many ways to (19) ______ your health and fitness. Certain activities should be followed daily like
regular physical exercise. It can be (20) ______ simple activity as climbing stairs instead of taking a lift or
elevator, (21) ______ more than taking a car to go to different places. It is important to eat proper and clean
food at the right time. The food should also be rich in nutrition (22) ______ high in fibre, low in fat, high
protein content and have (23) ______ vitamins. Proper sleeping pattern is also important to keep healthy. Try
to go to bed at the same time each night and sleep at least 7 hours per day.
For any of these activities, it is important to be self-motivated. The fitness activities should be a part of your
daily (24) ______, and this will benefit you by improving your lifestyle. It is important to maintain the health
and fitness of not just our physical self but our mental self as well, to have a happy and fulfilled life.
Question 19. A. maintain B. make C. keep D. stay
Question 20. A. some B. a C. an D. a lot of
Question 21. A. walk B. walking C. to walk D. walked
Question 22. A. and B. although C. because D. such as
Question 23. A. more B. less C. much D. fewer
Question 24. A. action B. routine C. condition D. meal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
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Question 25. “Please give me some advice tomorrow, Tom,” said Jane.
A. Jane told Tom to give her some advice tomorrow.
B. Jane asked Tom to give her some advice the following day.
C. Jane asked Tom give her some advice the following day.
D. Tom told Tom to give me some advice tomorrow.
Question 26. Water these plants or they will die.
A. If you did not water these plants, they will die.
B. If you water these plants, they will die.
C. If you don’t water these plants, they will die.
D. If you are watering these plants, they will die.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. weather / cold / they / go finishing.
A. The weather was too cold that they couldn’t go fishing.
B. The weather was too cold for them to go fishing.
C. The weather was such cold that they couldn’t go fishing.
D. The weather was so cold that they could go fishing.
Question 28. Past / children / not have / many / form / entertainment
A. From the past, children not have many forms of entertainment.
B. In the past, children didn’t have many forms of entertainment.
C. In the past, children don’t have many forms of entertainment.
D. For the past, children didn’t have many forms of entertainment.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. You are allowed to take photos in this area.

B. Photography is not allowed in this area at any time.
C. You can take photos if you have permission.
D. Taking photos is encouraged and permitted here.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

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 “The local swimming pool is having a water safety course
for children on Saturday morning. Sign up now!”

A. The water safety course for children will be held on Saturday morning.
B. Sign up now for the children’s course.
C. The course is held in the afternoon for teenagers.
D. Registration begins next month for the children’s course.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
The lifestyle of people living in urban areas of big cities like Ho Chi Minh City and Hanoi is different from
that of people living in rural areas of villages etc. Life in the city is often modern and complicated. City life is
busy and most adults are working. The lifestyle is competitive and the daily routine consists of work till the
evenings and then spending time with family or friends at night. Most of the inhabitants in the city work at
many different positions like secretaries, doctors, teachers, government workers, factory i workers and street
vendors etc. The cost of living in the urban areas is more than that in Ji the countryside. Because of this reason,
people tend to work hard to make ends meet.
80% of the Vietnamese population lives in rural areas and villages which are scattered ị throughout the
lowland’s areas and along the coastal line. In these areas, the way people live on a daily basis is in strong
contrast to life in urban areas and larger cities. People work in groups and take up jobs as farmers and
fishermen. Everybody is helpful to one another and is involved in a variety of activities such as raising
livestock, making handicrafts and farming etc. Along the coastal line, fishermen are very dependent upon the
sea as it is their only means of livelihood. These fishermen are thus very hardworking and worship their work.
Those people residing in the central highlands or northern mountains live by growing a number of things like
rice, coffee, rubber trees and tea etc.
Question 31. The text is mainly about ______.
A. lifestyle in the countryside
B. lifestyle in the city
C. lifestyle in the city and in the countryside
D. lifestyle of young people
Question 32. People in the city tend to work hard to make ends meet because of ______.
A. the variety of jobs B. many modern-day amenities
C. busy daily routine D. the higher cost of living
Question 33. According to the text, Vietnamese people mostly live in ______.
A. urban areas B. rural areas and villages
C. both urban and rural areas D. suburban area
Question 34. According to the text, the following things are the jobs of people in the countryside EXCEPT
______.
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A. raising livestock and farming B. street vendors
C. making handicrafts D. growing rice, coffee, rubber trees and tea
Question 35. The word “make ends meet” in the first paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to_____.
A. earn money B. succeed in life C. save money D. make a decision
Question 36. The word “dependent” in the second paragraph is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. generous B. self-reliant C. reliable D. responsible
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
Twenty years ago, people tried to leave the suburbs for cities but nowadays many people are reluctant to make
such a move. They say that compared to suburban areas, (37) ______.
The high cost of living is the first disadvantage. The bigger the city is, the higher the living cost is.
Accommodation and petrol are expensive. (38) ______. Apart from that, city people seem to suffer from more
noise and air pollution. The densely populated neighbourhoods, busy traffic, and big construction sites make
cities noisy and dusty. These are harmful to people's health, such as increasing their stress levels, disturbing
their sleep and making them suffer from breathing problems.
(39) ______. House prices are high in the city, so people tend to live in smaller houses or in apartment blocks.
Many cities lack spaces for outdoor activities; therefore, teenagers often hang out at shopping malls or in
entertainment complexes (40) ______.
The cities' authorities are trying to overcome these problems. However, they still have a long way to go before
they can reduce living costs and pollution, and increase green space to make all cities in the world more
liveable places.
A. city life has many drawbacks B. instead of doing sports outdoors
C. Lack of space is another drawback of city life D. Food and drinks are also pricey
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. proud B. about C. around D. would
Question 2. A. what B. whom C. where D. which
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. letter B. careful C. agree D. sister
Question 4. A. educate B. entertain C. volleyball D. chemistry
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. If we ______ enough time, we’ll study this exercise more carefully.
A. will have B. have C. had D. would have
Question 6. He shows me where ______ tickets.
A. buy B. to buy C. buys D. buying
Question 7. It’s a secret. You ______ let anyone know about it.
A. may not B. needn’t C. mightn’t D. mustn’t
Question 8. The artist, ______ painting you have bought, is a friend of my father’s.
A. whom B. whose C. from whose D. from whom
Question 9. The blue house is ______ than the green one.
A. far the largest B. largest far C. large far D. far larger
Question 10. The trip to the National Gallery has been ______ until next Friday.
A. put off B. looked into C. turned up D. found out
Question 11. Phong always gets up early every morning ______ he’s not late for his work.
A. so that B. even though C. because D. as soon as
Question 12. Daisy: “Would you like to drink some more tea?” - Linda: “______”
A. You are totally right B. Yes, I like you
C. Yes, please D. No, I don’t like.
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
Dear Customers,
It is my pleasure (13) ______ you that our new store 'Stationery City' is now open for business in your area.
We offer a wide range of office equipment and furniture. We would like to offer you our special introductory
discount of 40% off all purchases (14) ______ 13th November. We can also offer you a loyalty scheme which
could (15) ______ you thousands on your office costs. Please see our website www.stationerycity.com for

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(16) ______ details.
Thank you for your attention.
Question 13. A. informing B. inform C. to informing D. to inform
Question 14. A. before B. after C. on D. in
Question 15. A. earn B. profit C. waste D. save
Question 16. A. farther B. further C. supplementary D. complimentary
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
Nowadays, electronic devices are becoming more and more popular in modern classrooms. ____
a. First, teachers can use electronic devices to teach interactive lessons, provide real-time feedback to students,
etc.
b. Some schools use digital textbooks and educational software instead of traditional print materials.
c. Second, Students can use them to access online resources, cooperate with their) classmates, and complete
assignments online.
A. b-a-c B. c-b-a C. a-c-b D. b-c-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. Then, we can use electronic devices in classrooms.
B. In conclusion, I think they are very useful and convenient in classrooms.
C. Moreover, students can have a lot of outdoor activities.
D. To me, I like using electronic devices when I have free time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
When travelling, hostels are usually the cheapest places to stay. They (19) ______ five to thirty dollars a night.
The 7,000 youth hostels around the world vary greatly: some are beautiful and comfortable, but others are not!
All of them, however, are usually ' clean and safe. Hostels are always full (20) ______ other people travelling
cheaply, (21) ______ they are good places to meet people and exchange information. There are usually ten or
more beds in a room. Women and men sleep (22) ______. In hostels, each visitor must bring his or her own
sleeping bag and towel. (23) ______ hostels also require you (24) ______ the hostel during the day.
Question 19. A. pay B. price C. cost D. take
Question 20. A. in B. with C. by D. of
Question 21. A. so B. but C. because D. although
Question 22. A. separate B. separation C. separately D. separating
Question 23. A. A lot B. Some C. Much D. A
Question 24. A. leave B. to leave C. leaving D. to leaving
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. Although they are poor, they are very generous.
A. In spite of their poverty, they are very generous.
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B. In spite of their poor, they are very generous.
C. In spite of they are poor, they are very generous.
D. In spite of their poverty but they are very generous.
Question 26. “Why don’t we travel to Phu Quoc Island by ferry?” they said.
A. They asked why we didn’t travel to Phu Quoc Island by ferry.
B. They suggested travelling to Phu Quoc Island by ferry.
C. They wished that we travelled to Phu Quoc Island by ferry.
D. They wanted to travel to Phu Quoc Island by ferry.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. He / not / have / eyes / tested / a year.
A. He last had his eyes tested for a year.
B. He didn’t have any tests on his eyes since a year.
C. He hasn’t had his eyes tested for a year.
D. The last time he has tested his eyes was a year ago.
Question 28. If / you / speak / English / we / offer / you / job.
A. If you can speak English, we could offer you the job
B. If you could speak English, we would offer you the job.
C. If you could speak English, we will offer you the job.
D. If you spoke English, we will offer you the job.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. Dogs are always allowed to be in the pool area.

B. Dogs are sometimes allowed in the pool area.
C. Dogs can swim in the pool whenever they like.
D. Dogs cannot be in the pool area at any time.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

BOOKSHOP-CLOSED AFTERNOONS

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A. The bookshop is closed all day.
B. The bookshop is open in the morning.
C. The bookshop is open in the afternoon.
D. The bookshop is closed in the morning.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Eating a balanced diet means choosing a wide variety of foods and drinks from all s the food groups. It also
means eating certain things in moderation, namely saturated fat, cholesterol, refined sugar, and salt. The goal
is to take in nutrients you need for health at the recommended levels. You can get the most nutrients by
choosing foods with a high-nutrient density. Nutrient-dense foods provide substantial amounts of vitamins
and minerals and relatively few calories, such as fresh fruit and vegetables, lean meat and fish, and whole
grains and beans.
Low-nutrient dense foods have few vitamins but lots of calories, such as candy bars, soda, donuts and onion
rings. Vegetable sources of protein, such as nuts, beans, and whole grains are great choices and offer vitamins,
minerals and healthy fibres. The best protein choices are poultry and fish. For those who love red meat, you
should stick with the leanest cuts, choose moderate portion sizes, and make it only an occasional part of your
diet. Developing healthy eating habits is not as confusing or as restrictive as you may imagine. The first
principle of a healthy diet is simply to eat a wide variety of foods. This is important because different foods
make different nutritional contributions. Fruits, vegetables, grains, and legumes-foods high in complex
carbohydrates, fibre, vitamins, and minerals, low in fat and free of cholesterol-should make up the bulk of the
calories you consume. The rest should come from low-fat dairy products, lean meat and poultry, and fish.
Question 31. The following things are low-nutrient dense foods EXCEPT ______.
A. candy bars B. soft drinks
C. donuts and onion rings D. peanuts
Question 32. Which are the best protein choices?
A. nuts, beans, and whole grains B. poultry and fish
C. donuts and onion rings D. green vegetables
Question 33. Eating a wide variety of foods is important because ______.
A. they offer vitamins, minerals and healthy fibres
B. they make up the bulk of the calories
C. you can get the most nutrients by choosing them
D. different foods make different nutritional contributions
Question 34. The word “moderation" in the first paragraph is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. balance B. excess C. avoidance D. limitation
Question 35. The word “consume" in the second paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. collect B. eat C. need D. consider
Question 36. The text is mainly about ______.
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A. a healthy lifestyle B. a of variety of nutritious foods
C. healthy eating habits D. a balanced diet
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
We can manage our time effectively (37) ______. Firstly, it is important to set clear and realistic goals and
prioritise tasks accordingly. This means that you must identify what is the most important and urgent and
allocate time and resources accordingly. Next, creating a schedule or to-do list can be helpful in staying on
track and (38) ______ within the time allotted. Thirdly, it is important to learn to say no to distractions and
time- wasting activities such as checking social media. Instead, you should focus on the task at hand and work
efficiently to complete it. Additionally, (39) ______ for self-care activities t can help increase productivity
and prevent burnout. Finally, it is essential to regularly review and adjust your schedule to ensure that you are
making progress towards your goals and accommodating yourself to any working conditions in your life. By
following these tips, you can make the most of your time, be more productive, and (40) ______.
A. ensuring that all tasks are completed
B. by following some of these strategies
C. achieve success in all aspects of your life
D. taking regular breaks and scheduling time
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 15
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. begin B. secure C. temporary D. rewarding
Question 2. A. routine B. future C. tourist D. talent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. prevent B. protect C. pollute D. cancel
Question 4. A. interview B. recognise C. motivate D. entertain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. When we reached the airport, we found that all the flights ____ due to the storm.
A. was cancelled B. had been cancelled
C. cancelled D. had cancelled
Question 6. We ____ four quizzes and five tests so far this semester.
A. have had B. are having C. had D. will have
Question 7. I really admire the professor ____ I met at the conference.
A. whose B. where C. which D. whom
Question 8. He visited his grandmother yesterday, ____?
A. didn’t he B. hasn’t he C. isn’t he D. doesn’t he
Question 9. We have English class ____ Mondays and Tuesdays.
A. in B. on C. at D. from
Question 10. We heard the news as soon as we ____ the car radio.
A. went over B. switched on C. grew up D. turned down
Question 11. Maria felt ____ when she heard her brother shouting while she was studying.
A. sick B. confident C. relaxed D. annoyed
Question 12. Linda: “Would you mind opening the window?” - Jane: “____”
A. I agree with you. B. Yes, you can. C. Not at all. D. Yes, I’d love to.
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
Dear Mr Peterson,
I would like (13) ____ a change in our delivery service policy to your attention. Until now, we have always
provided free delivery for (14) ____ order. However, (15) ____ increasing fuel prices, we regret that this
service will now only be available for orders of (16) ____ £100. I want to take this opportunity to thank you
for your most valued custom.

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Question 13. A. brought B. bring C. bringing D. to bring
Question 14. A. any B. an C. a lot of D. several
Question 15. A. thanks to B. for fear of C. due to D. despite
Question 16. A. above B. over C. under D. approximate
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
I fell in love with Vancouver's natural habitats. ____
a. I like swimming in the Kitsilano pool, which is the longest outdoor swimming pool in North America.
b. I can go hiking in the summer and snowboarding in the winter in the mountains.
c. Sometimes I pack my favourite foods and go to Kitsilano Beach to get a bit of sunshine.
A. b-a-c B. c-b-a C. b-c-a D. a-c-b
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. I spent a lot of time exploring this place with my friends.
B. In addition, it is the most wonderful destination in the world.
C. Next, you should visit Vancouver one day in the future.
D. In short, Vancouver is worth visiting if you want to enjoy nature.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
When dining in a typical Korean restaurant with locals, get ready to share your food! s Doing it in the Korean
way means eating from the (19) ____ bowl, since sharing and common dining are a big part of their culture.
Sitting around the big round table, with (20) ____ small, different dishes called "banchan" on top of it and
usually one big grill in the middle of the table to grill your own meat, is not a sign of a lazy chef but an
opportunity (21) ____ the ritual.
Since the (22) ____ is to eat straight from the bowl without having your own plate, seeing other people's
spoons dipped in the same pot shouldn't surprise you. So, feel free to stick your chopsticks in that kimchi
shouting: my germs!
Compared (23) ____ the western customs of consuming the food, the biggest difference is that you have your
personal plate (24) ____ you place the food, which is not shared with the rest once it is on your plate. Also,
the habit is to usually eat only one big, main dish, with possibly one or two side dishes, while Koreans have a
variety of small bites.
Question 19. A. similar B. different C. separate D. same
Question 20. A. much B. lots of C. a D. any
Question 21. A. enjoying B. to enjoy C. enjoy D. to enjoying
Question 22. A. traditionally B. traditionalist C. tradition D. traditional
Question 23. A. with B. over C. at D. from
Question 24. A. who B. which C. that D. where
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
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Question 25. Life in the countryside isn’t as stressful as life in the city.
A. Life in the city is less stressful than that in the countryside.
B. Life in the countryside is more stressful than that in the city.
C. Life in the city is more stressful than life in the countryside.
D. Life in the countryside is so as stressful as life in the city.
Question 26. You are not allowed to leave the room without permission.
A. You mustn’t leave the room without permission.
B. You might leave the room without permission.
C. You have right to leave the room without permission.
D. You don’t have to leave the room without permission.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. All flights / Noi Bai / International Airport / cancel / fog.
A. All flights from Noi Bai International Airport were cancelled because fog.
B. All flights from Noi Bai International Airport were cancelled because of fog.
C. All flights from Noi Bai International Airport were cancelled despite of fog.
D. All flights from Noi Bai International Airport were cancelled in spite of fog.
Question 28. It/ be/ such/ good movie/ that/ she/ watch/ twice/
A. It is such good movie that she has watched it twice.
B. It is such a good movie that she has watched it twice.
C. It is such good movie that she watched it twice.
D. It is such a good movie that she had watched it twice.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. Return your cart anywhere in the parking lot.

B. Return the cart to the designated cart area.
C. Keep the cart in your car until you get home.
D. Return the cart at the store entrance.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

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 Announcement:
Library Hours
Monday - Friday: 9 AM - 6 PM
Saturday: 10 AM - 4 PM
Closed on Sundays

A. The library is open every day of the week.

B. The library closes at 6 PM on weekdays.
C. The library opens at 9 AM on Saturdays.
D. The library is open on Sundays.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Twitter is a social network that allows users to send and receive short messages, called tweets. Tweets can be
up to 140 characters long. You can send tweets from your computer or even from your mobile phone. While
some social networking services like Facebook or MySpace are more complicated, Twitter is fairly simple to
use. To send or receive messages you just have to create an account on Twitter. You can only send texts to
Twitter, images are not allowed. Your messages on Twitter can be private, meaning only your friends can
read them or you could make them public, meaning they can be seen by everyone. Recently, Twitter has also
been used in business. Companies use Twitter to inform people about new products or just to post something
that is on sale. Twitter has become very popular. Since its birth in 2006, over one hundred million people
around the world have been using it regularly.
Question 31. This passage is mainly about ____.
A. a new product B. a new company C. an account D. a social network
Question 32. According to the passage, Twitter is ____ to use.
A. expensive B. complicated C. simple D. cheap
Question 33. The word “private” is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. individual B. public C. special D. social
Question 34. You can do three following activities on Twitter EXCEPT ____.
A. send messages B. receive messages
C. send images D. introduce new products
Question 35. It can be inferred from the passage that Twitter has now ____.
A. been only nation-wide popular B. been worldwide popular
C. not been popular D. been only used in business
Question 36. The word “regularly” is OPPOSITE in meaning to ____.
A. frequently B. commonly C. rarely D. sometimes
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
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from 37 to 40.
Chi, a student at a specialised high school in Ha Noi, needs to have a well-balanced life because she wants to
excel in her studies, pursue her passions and hobbies, etc. (37) ____.
Firstly, Chi starts each day by planning her schedule and setting priorities for the day, making sure to allocate
time for studying, extracurricular activities, and socialising. She also takes breaks throughout the day to relax
and recharge.
In addition, Chi dedicates time to her hobbies, (38) ____. She believes that pursuing her passions brings her
joy and a sense of fulfilment.
Chi also (39) ____ and makes an effort to stay in touch even when she is busy with schoolwork. She
understands the importance of building and maintaining strong relationships with them.
Finally, Chi gives priority to her physical and mental health. (40) ____. She also practises mindfulness and
meditation to manage stress and maintain a positive mindset.
By following these practices, we believe that Chi is on her way to achieving a fulfilling and well-balanced
life.
A. spends time with her family and friends regularly
B. Below are some of the things she often does to achieve a well-balanced life
C. such as reading, listening to music, and doing sports
D. She gets enough sleep, eats a balanced diet, and does exercise regularly
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 16
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. adapt B. apply C. access D. aware
Question 2. A. sculpture B. lantern C. pottery D. treat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. answer B. admire C. advise D. adjust
Question 4. A. develop B. understand C. imagine D. consider
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. He _____ more confident since he joined the club.
A. is becoming B. becomes C. has become D. become
Question 6. The Great Walls of China _____ thousands of years ago.
A. is built B. was built C. is building D. was building
Question 7. I look forward _____ you on Tuesday after work.
A. see B. to seeing C. to see D. seeing
Question 8. Her mother, _____ has been working for thirty years, is retiring next month.
A. whose B. whom C. that D. who
Question 9. Peter is the _____ student in the class. He learns almost all subjects well.
A. more intelligent B. as intelligent C. most intelligent D. intelligently
Question 10. Nam is not very good _____ English.
A. in B. at C. with D. to
Question 11. He was offered the job thanks to his _____ performance during his job interview.
A. impressive B. impression C. impress D. impressively
Question 12. Jen: “Shall we eat out tonight at Diamond Restaurant?” - Erwin: “_____”
A. That’s a good idea. B. It’s very kind of you.
C. You’re welcome. D. That’s alright.
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
Writers wanted!
Magazine is looking (13) _____ writers for (14) _____ website. Pay is based on the number of people (15)
_____ read your articles. You may also receive free tickets to events and free products to test.
♦ This is (16) _____ great opportunity to get valuable work experience.
♦ We want people who are: chatty, interesting, passionate, skilled

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♦ Contact us at info@wowee.com
Question 13. A. for B. at C. down D. up
Question 14. A. our B. their C. my D. its
Question 15. A. who B. whom C. which D. whose
Question 16. A. ∅ B. the C. an D. a
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
This is such a kid-friendly place. _____
a. The whole city is like an adventure playground.
b. At weekends, I take my daughters to the mind-blowing museum, explore a rainforest, or play outdoor games
with them.
c. There are hundreds of activities to entertain children.
A. b-a-c B. b-c-a C. c-a-b D. a-c-b
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. Vancouver is a perfect place for family life.
B. Vancouver is a good place for people who want to explore the nature.
C. Vancouver is a perfect destination for foreign tourists.
D. Vancouver is such a wonderful place for education.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
UNESCO has given an award to a festival (19) _____ South Korea. It decided (20) _____ South Korea's Lotus
Lantern Festival to its list of intangible (21) _____ heritage. The festival is one of 25 things the UN added to
its heritage list this year.
The South Korean festival (22) _____ in spring to celebrate Buddha's birthday. It symbolises lighting up the
world to make things fair for everyone. The festival dates back 2,000 years. There was an ancient temple in
57 BC that royals visited to see lotus lanterns. Today, it is one of Korea's biggest festivals. People (23) _____
temples with lanterns made of paper and bamboo. Villages, towns and cities hold parades where people carry
lanterns through the streets. A spokesperson said: "We will try to make the festival a cultural (24) _____ that
can be loved by people around the world."
Question 19. A. on B. at C. in D. with
Question 20. A. adding B. add C. to add D. added
Question 21. A. cultural B. culture C. culturally D. cultures
Question 22. A. held B. is held C. holds D. is hold
Question 23. A. celebrate B. decorate C. honour D. hang
Question 24. A. value B. site C. wonder D. heritage
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. Tom said, “I want to visit my friends this weekend.”
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A. Tom said he wants to visit his friends this weekend.
B. Tom said he wanted to visit his friends this weekend.
C. Tom said he wants to visit his friends that weekend.
D. Tom said he wanted to visit his friends that weekend.
Question 26. Peter usually had lunch in the canteen, but he doesn’t now.
A. Peter got used to having lunch in the canteen.
B. Peter usually has lunch in the canteen now.
C. Peter is used to have lunch in the canteen.
D. Peter used to have lunch in the canteen.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. She/ go back / the village/ where/born/ grow up
A. She goes back to a village where she was born and grew up.
B. She goes back to the village where she was born and grown up.
C. She is going back to village where she was born and grew up.
D. She went back to the village where she was born and grew up.
Question 28. I wish / can/ go camping/ you/ tomorrow
A. I wish I can go camping with you tomorrow.
B. I wish I can go to the camp with you tomorrow.
C. I wish I could go camping with you tomorrow.
D. I wish I could going to camp with you tomorrow.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. Wash your hands only if they look dirty before eating.

B. It is fine to eat without washing your hands first.
C. Wash your hands before you eat to keep everything clean and safe.
D. Wash your hands after eating, not before you start.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

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 DAN’S ICE CREAMS
Buy one, get one free!
(Special offer 12-2 p.m. only)

A. The ice cream shop is open for only 2 hours.

B. Two ice creams will cost the same as one.
C. You can get free ice creams all afternoon.
D. You can only buy 2 ice creams at a time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Earth Hour is an annual event which asks you to switch off all your lights for one hour. The aim is to involve
as many people as possible in positive change for our planet.
What is Earth Hour?
Earth Hour is organised by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and it's a big event usually at the end of
March every year. On this evening, people 'go dark' - that is, switch off lights in their homes, schools and
businesses all at the same time for one hour. Earth Hour started in Australia in 2007, when 2.2 million people
in Sydney turned off all unnecessary lights for an hour. Since then, it has grown into an international event,
and many countries around the world have taken part. Famous buildings that have gone dark for Earth Hour
include the Sydney Opera House and Harbour Bridge, the Petronas Towers in Kuala Lumpur, the Houses of
Parliament and Buckingham Palace in London, the Eiffel Tower in Paris, the Forbidden City in Beijing and
New York's Empire State Building.
What’s the idea behind Earth Hour?
The idea is to raise awareness of environmental issues and call for action to protect nature, so that people
enjoy healthy, happy and sustainable lives now and in the future.
It's true that switching off the lights for just one hour saves only a small amount of power. But this is only the
beginning. On one level, participating in Earth Hour makes people think about the problem of climate change
and what we can do in everyday life to protect nature.
What does ‘60+’ mean?
The logo of Earth Hour is '60+'. The number 60 is for the 60 minutes of Earth Hour, and the plus invites people
to keep on taking action even after Earth Hour is finished. In fact, people who join Earth Hour say that taking
part makes them want to do more for the environment. The climate activist Greta Thunberg says that 'Earth
Hour is every hour of everyday.
Question 31. When is Earth Hour?
A. annual event B. at the end of March every year
C. in 2007 D. 60 minutes
Question 32. What do people do for Earth Hour?
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A. Switch off non-essential lights.
B. Watch TV to participate in the campaign.
C. Raise awareness of environmental issues
D. Switch on the lights at famous buildings.
Question 33. The word “go dark” in the second paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to _____ .
A. walking in the dark B. living in the dark
C. switch off lights D. turn on lights
Question 34. According to the passage, which of these have gone dark for Earth Hour EXCEPT _____?
A. The Petronas Towers
B. The Eiffel Tower
C. The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
D. The Sydney Opera House
Question 35. According to paragraph 3, how does Earth Hour help the planet?
A. It makes people switch off lights in their homes, schools and businesses.
B. It helps people know more about climate change.
C. It encourages people to use more electricity.
D. It raises people’s awareness of environmental issues
Question 36. What is the main idea of the text?
A. Ways to save electricity
B. An introduction of Earth Hour
C. How to protect the environment
D. Some interesting stories about Earth Hour
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
London, the capital city of England and the United Kingdom, is situated on the River Thames, which meanders
through the city. It is renowned for its numerous bridges. Among the bridges, the oldest one is London Bridge,
which was originally built of wood but reconstructed in stone in 1217. However, (37) _____, which was
designed to blend in with the nearby Tower of London. ______
London is a thriving commercial and cultural centre with many significant financial organisations such as the
Bank of England and the London Stock Exchange. They are located in the area called the City. Docklands,
the former port in east London, has been redeveloped as a business centre. (38) _____. Due to the high cost
of housing near the city centre, many people working in London prefer to live in the suburbs and commute to
work by train or bus. London's transportation system is well-connected, with various modes of transportation
available, including the red London buses, (39) _____, commonly known as 'the Tube'.
(40) _____. Although some people from other parts of Britain view it as very noisy and dirty, many others
visit London only for the 'bright lights' - the theatres around Shaftesbury Avenue or the shops on Oxford
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Street. People also take their children to visit Buckingham Palace, where the royal family lives, and the clock
tower, from which Big Ben tolls the hour. Young people, on the other hand, are lured to the pubs and comedy
clubs of Covent Garden, live music concerts, and the stalls of Camden Market.
A. The West End boasts theatres, cinemas, museums, and stores
B. London is now a cosmopolitan, multicultural city which has attracted people from around the globe
C. the most unique bridge is Tower Bridge
D. black taxi cabs, and the London Underground
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 17
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. mood B. flood C. spoon D. moon
Question 2. A. classmate B. pressure C. embarrass D. missing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. decide B. enjoy C. rebel D. review
Question 4. A. apartment B. loyalty C. resident D. confidence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. “_____ products did you sell?” - “Maybe 100. I don’t remember.”
A. How many B. How much C. When D. What
Question 6. Some students in my class prefer _____ TV to playing sports.
A. watched B. to watch C. watch D. watching
Question 7. Jack _____ working for the local newspaper 2 months ago.
A. stops B. stopped C. had stopped D. has stopped
Question 8. The teacher didn’t seem to be happy about our tasks, _____?
A. didn’t they B. did they C. didn’t he D. did he
Question 9. He tried hard, _____ he couldn’t win a gold medal at the Olympics.
A. nor B. because of C. but D. in spite of
Question 10. My favourite item of clothing is the blue T-shirt _____ my mother bought for me.
A. which B. who C. whom D. what
Question 11. My brother’s hobby is _____ old postcards.
A. composing B. including C. taking D. collecting
Question 12. Mr. Harry: “Your pronunciation is getting better now, John.” - John: “_____”
A. Oh, you’re right. B. Thank you. It’s encouraging,
C. Never mind. D. Don’t worry about it!
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
CALLING ALL MODELS
Think you could be a model? If so, we'd like to meet you!
Working as (13) _____ successful fashion model isn't easy but it is very exciting and could be a great
opportunity. Girls and boys should be over 16 with a minimum (14) _____ of 172 cm and 182 cm respectively.
If you are (15) _____ 16 and do not yet have the required height, we will still be interested in meeting you,

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(16) _____ you must bring a parent.
Question 13. A. Ø B. the C. an D. a
Question 14. A. height B. tall C. peak D. weight
Question 15. A. below B. beneath C. under D. prior to
Question 16. A. so B. and C. nor D. but
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
Keeping a journal or using a tracking app on your phone is a great way to get your goals. _____
a. Once these small goals become part of your routine, you can gradually add new goals.
b. For example, limiting eating out to twice a week or incorporating weightlifting into your exercise routine.
c. By doing this, you can monitor your progress and ensure that you stay on track.
A. b-c-a B. c-b-a C. c-a-b D. a-c-b
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. To me, a tracking app is very useful to my life.
B. With these goals, you will meet and make a lot of friends.
C. These small goals are easier to achieve and will eventually lead to meeting your main goal.
D. However, it can cause many troubles for users.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Air-travel is the most modern form of (19) transport and it (20) in the 20th century. Millions of people use
airplanes for a variety of reasons. It is also extremely expensive to (21) air-travel facilities. Some travel for
business, others go on holiday (22) air and others use cargo planes to move their products from country to
country very (23). Some courier companies now have their own fleet of planes ready to carry parcels and post
more efficiently. There are different types of passenger services - some are cheap and provide a 'no-frills'
service which is good for short journeys. Other airlines provide passengers with a luxurious flying experience.
Airports are getting busier and it is evident that (24) passengers and businesses than ever are using airplanes
to get to their destinations.
Question 19. A. main B. private C. public D. personal
Question 20. A. was developed B. is developed C. developed D. will developed
Question 21. A. take off B. bring up C. set up D. look for
Question 22. A. in B. on C. by D. at
Question 23. A. quick B. quickly C. quicker D. quickness
Question 24. A. more B. less C. fewer D. much
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. He started learning French six years ago.
A. It is six years since he has learnt French.
B. He has learned French for six years.
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C. He hasn’t learnt French for six years.
D. It was six years ago did he start learning French.
Question 26. “Why don’t you meet to discuss how to organise the fair?”
A. He suggested to meeting to discuss how to organise the fair.
B. He suggested that we shouldn’t meet to discuss how to organise the fair.
C. He suggested that we should meet to discuss how to organise the fair.
D. He suggested to meet to discuss how to organise the fair.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. When / her parents / come / home, / she / study / her room.
A. When her parents came home, she studied in her room.
B. When her parents were coming home, she was studying in her room.
C. When her parents were coming home, she studied in her room.
D. When her parents came home, she was studying in her room.
Question 28. I / sometimes come / see my friend / borrow/book
A. I came sometimes to see my friend and borrow a book.
B. I sometimes will come to see my friend and borrow a book.
C. I sometimes come to see my friend and borrow a book.
D. To see my friend sometimes I come to borrow a book.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. The shallow water is only for children.

B. Do not dive here.
C. Diving is allowed here, so you should dive into the water.
D. Swimming is not allowed here, so you cannot enter the water.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

From 1 October.
Please do not enter the pool
before you have used the shower.

A. The pool is closed on October 1st.

B. You need to wash before you swim.
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C. There will be a new shower at the pool.
D. You must dry off before entering the pool.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Around the world, there are some jobs that may seem quite strange and surprising to you.
A. Train pushers
In Japan, the railway system is huge and everyone there uses trains. This makes them overcrowded most of
the time. During rush hour, railway station attendants called 'pushers' or 'oshiya' do the strangest job in the
world - they push passengers into trains. They have to do this because of the large number of commuters who
wish to arrive at their desired locations on time. That's why they must endure the pain of squeezing themselves
inside the train.
B. Cleaners of the world's highest building
Have you ever wondered how the world's tallest building, Burj Khalifa, in Dubai, is cleaned? It takes a team
of 36 window cleaners a total of three months to clean the s tower's reflective windows. Working from a height
of more than 800 metres, the cleaners face huge challenges especially during bad weather. They must be the
bravest cleaners in the world.
C. Golf balls divers
Every year in the UK, millions of golf balls get lost in the water around golf courses. This gave rise to the
demand for golf ball divers whose job is to dive deep into the lakes ' and ponds around golf courses to find
the lost balls. Most of them are professional scuba divers, but they spend long hours crawling around in mud
and carrying heavy buckets. On average, they find 5,000 balls per lake. After cleaning them, they resell or
recycle the balls. Sounds dangerous, doesn't it?
Question 31. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Typical Jobs B. Well-paid Jobs
C. Unusual Jobs D. Low-paid Jobs
Question 32. The word overcrowded in paragraph A is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. packed B. sparse C. empty D. unlimited
Question 33. According to paragraph A, what do ‘oshiya’ do during rush hour?
A. They count the number of commuters.
B. They endure the pain inside the train.
C. They push passengers into trains.
D. They pay attention to each commuter.
Question 34. The word bravest in paragraph B is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. most dangerous B. most scared
C. most courageous D. happinest
Question 35. How long does it take to clean the building Burj Khalifa, in Dubai?
A. 800 days B. three months C. 36 weeks D. 5000 hours
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Question 36. All of the following are said about golf ball divers EXCEPT _____.
A. the majority of them are professional scuba divers.
B. they resell or recycle the balls after cleaning them.
C. their job is to find lost golf balls underwater.
D. they earn a lot of money from their job.
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
I live in a smalltown of Millbrook in the rolling hills of upstate New York. (37) _____. Despite its small size,
Millbrook has a rich history and vibrant cultural scene (38) _____ on its charming Main Street. It is home to
a diverse range of residents, from young families to retirees, and boasts a strong sense of community spirit.
Every year, residents come together for events like the Millbrook Farmers Market and the Millbrook Literary
Festival, (39) _____. In spite of its rural setting, Millbrook is well-connected to nearby cities like
Poughkeepsie and New York City, making it an attractive place to live for those seeking a peaceful retreat
from urban life. (40) _____.
A. It is a liveable community of just over 1,500 residents
B. Overall, Millbrook is a warm and welcoming community with a strong sense of place and identity
C. which celebrate the town's agricultural heritage and literary tradition
D. with numerous galleries, restaurants, and boutiques
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

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11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 18
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. find B. think C. drive D. mind
Question 2. A. tense B. decision C. skill D. house
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. survive B. defend C. appeal D. struggle
Question 4. A. essential B. dangerous C. regular D. medical
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. She went to the bookshop ______ she wanted to buy a comic book.
A. although B. because C. despite D. because of
Question 6. London is a large city. Its ______ is smaller than Tokyo or Shanghai.
A. populate B. popular C. populous D. population
Question 7. My friends are interested ______ art and architecture.
A. up B. in C. from D. for
Question 8. He advised me ______ all the facts before doing the project.
A. considered B. considering C. consider D. to consider
Question 9. Can you speak ______ other languages?
A. few B. much C. some D. any
Question 10. Alexander Fleming, ______ discovered penicillin, received the Nobel Prize in 1945.
A. that B. which C. who D. whom
Question 11. Antony has lived ______ Seoul for four years.
A. on B. in C. at D. of
Question 12. Nam: “I think we should all recycle our rubbish.” - Nick: “______.”
A. Yes, I agree B. Yes, I’m glad too C. I’m fine thanks D. No, thanks
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
Babysitter wanted
 for (13) ______ twins
 occasional weekday evenings for up to six hours. Would be suitable (14) ______ a student with (15) ______
experience.
 £4.50 (16) ______ hour
 Phone Jane on 719 873 466

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Question 13. A. 2-year-old B. 2-years-old C. two-years-old D. two year old
Question 14. A. with B. for C. in D. about
Question 15. A. little B. many C. some D. an
Question 16. A. an B. each C. every D. a
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
Last night I had an amazing dream. ______
a. I was so happy because I could take a photo with him.
b. In my dream, while I was walking on the street, I met my idol, Hieu Thu Hai.
c. He was very friendly and handsome, and he also hugged me.
A. b-a-c B. c-b-a C. a-c-b D. b-c-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. I was so scared that I shouted loudly.
B. Finally, I agreed to receive the gift and said thanks to him.
C. After that, I had a big breakfast with him.
D. Later I woke up and wondered if it was all a dream.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Over the last 5 years, more and more students from the school have taken part in environmental projects, such
as tree planting and improving the school grounds. But, no matter how much we do, there's always more that
can be done to (19) ______ the place where we live.
This year students from the Conservation Club plan to work with local people to make a community garden
near the school. As Tim, a student, says: "No one (20) ______ to live in an unattractive area. If we work
together, we can turn these areas into spaces that we can enjoy (21) ______ time in. "This kind of local action
is not just about (22) ______ environment. It also helps people get to know (23) ______ neighbours and it can
help build strong communities.
If you core (24) ______ the state of your town and you are interested in taking port in the project, please
contact the school for further information.
Question 19. A. assist B. improve C. contribute D. enjoy
Question 20. A. stays B. stay C. wants D. want
Question 21. A. giving B. doing C. spending D. paying
Question 22. A. the B. ∅ C. a D. an
Question 23. A. her B. his C. its D. their
Question 24. A. at B. in C. about D. on
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. “Let’s help the homeless in the neighbourhood.” Maria said.
A. Maria suggested to help the homeless in the neighbourhood.
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B. Maria suggested help the homeless in the neighbourhood.
C. Maria suggested helping the homeless in the neighbourhood.
D. Maria suggested having helped the homeless in the neighbourhood.
Question 26. He got up early in order to catch the plane.
A. He got up early but he missed catching the plane.
B. He got up early so that he could catch the plane.
C. He wanted to catch the train but he couldn’t get up early.
D. He never caught the plane as he got up early.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. She / publish / first poem / time / eight
A. She was publishing her first poem by the time she is eight.
B. She published her first poem by the time she had been eight.
C. She had published her first poem by the time she was eight.
D. She has published her first poem by the time she has been eight.
Question 28. Suggest / we / improve / quality / tourism / services
A. It is suggested we must improve the quality of tourism services.
B. It is suggesting we need improve the quality of tourism services.
C. I suggest that we should improve the quality of tourism services.
D. I suggest that we will improve the quality of tourism services.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. Only pets with short fur are allowed here.

B. No pets are allowed here unless you have permission.
C. Only big pets are allowed; small pets are not allowed.
D. Pets and other animals are not allowed here.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

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 Hounslow Cinema: Special Offer
Buy tickets to four films and you don't need
to pay for the next one!
Every day until 5:30 p.m.

A. You can watch up to four films for free.

B. You must buy 5 tickets to get it free.
C. Cheap tickets are available for groups of four in the evenings.
D. The fifth film you see during the daytime is free.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
Spoken by 68 million people in the world, Italian is the only official language of two countries (Italy and...can
you guess the second one? The answer is at the end of this passage!) and one of the official languages of the
European Union, the Vatican, and Switzerland.
As we have mentioned before, from a linguistic perspective Italian is a neo-Latin known as romance language,
and its history is intertwined with poetry and literature. We owe to Dante Alighieri and his Divina Commedia
- written in his native Florentine language - the standardisation of Italian, which soon became the commonly
spoken language among educated people all over the not-yet-become country.
Despite its celebrity, Italian is not the only language spoken in Italy. The Italian state recognizes not less than
12 linguistic minorities, even though only three are actually in use in public schools in the areas of interest:
French in the Vailed Aosta, German in the Bolzano province, and Slovenian in the Trieste province. In
addition, Italy is the land of another great linguistic abundance: dialects. According to the UN, 29 dialects
are spoken in the country, with the National Statistic Institute estimating that 14% of Italians only speak a
local dialect, and another 32,2% alternatively use Italian and a dialect depending on context.
The mix of Italian and dialects is not only part of the daily lives of many Italians, but also influences a big
part of Italian literature both of ancient and modern times. Some examples include Carlo Goldoni, Carlo
Emilio Gadda or, more recently, Andrea Camilleri, author of the Commissario Montalbano saga.
And now, the solution to our riddle is... the little Republic of San Marino! Did you guess?
Question 31. What is the best title of the passage?
A. People in Italy and their customs B. Italian language and literature
C. Italian is an international language D. The most spoken language
Question 32. From a linguistic perspective, Italian is ______.
A. a Latin language B. romance language C. intertwined with poetry D. Florentine language
Question 33. The word “celebrity” in the 3rd paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. speciality B. festivity C. popularity D. nationality
Question 34. The word “abundance” in the 4th paragraph is OPPOSITE in meaning to
A. shortage B. costume C. anxiety D. diversity
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Question 35. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. There are other languages spoken in Italy.
B. Over one tenth of Italians only speak a local dialect.
C. Andrea Camilleri used dialects in his work.
D. Italian is an official language of the US.
Question 36. According to the passage, Italy is the only official language of Italy and
A. Republic of San Marino B. European Union C. the Vatican D. Switzerland
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
Edinburgh is the capital city of Scotland. It has enormous historical significance. Located on the east coast of
Scotland, Edinburgh proudly offers a window to the past. For many people, this city is (37) ______.
Edinburgh has been Scotland's royal city since 1437. Most of Edinburgh's sights are within two districts: the
old town and the new town. The mediaeval Royal Mile stretching for over a mile from Edinburgh Castle to
the Palace of Holyrood house dominates the city's central area. The Royal Mile is one of the largest, longest
and most splendid streets for buildings in Britain.
To millions of visitors, (38) ______. Princess Street is in Edinburgh's new town, directly below the castle.
Next to Princess Street, in the shadow of Edinburgh Castle, lies the green Princess ' Street Gardens. (39)
______.
(40) ______. The world-famous Edinburgh Fringe Festival (a series of arts festivals held in August) draws
thousands and thousands of visitors to the city annually. Therefore, Edinburgh is really a place no traveller
should ignore.
A. This is one of the most delightful gardens in Britain
B. an exciting mix of something traditional and something modern
C. Edinburgh Castle is a must-see because there are many treasures
D. Edinburgh is also a cultural centre
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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 19
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. please B. house C. mouse D. practise
Question 2. A. delicious B. facility C. city D. place
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. temple B. household C. account D. farmer
Question 4. A. importance B. violence C. buffalo D. grandparent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Those fashionable jeans were expensive, _____?
A. were they B. was it C. weren’t they D. wasn’t it
Question 6. If I _____ you, I would take part in that English course.
A. will be B. were C. have been D. am
Question 7. He drives _____ than his younger brother so you can rely on him.
A. carefully B. the most carefully C. more carefully D. as carefully
Question 8. She often plays _____ piano in her free time.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 9. I am the boy _____ is wearing a white T-shirt.
A. whose B. whom C. who D. which
Question 10. My memory is poor. I can’t learn these new words _____.
A. in mind B. in heart C. of mind D. by heart
Question 11. Hurry up, or you won’t _____ the last bus.
A. miss B. keep C. catch D. go
Question 12. Nam: “Would you like me to wash the dishes for you?”
Nick: “_____. That’s very kind of you.”
A. Yes, please B. No, you won’t C. You’re right D. Nothing special
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
Come and join our lunchtime yoga class with experienced yoga teacher Divya Bridge!
When? (13) _____ Tuesday at 1:30 p.m.
Where? (14) _____ Room 7
How much? £10 for four 30-minute classes
What to bring? (15) _____ clothes. Divya will provide the yoga mats

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How to join? Write to Sam at Sam.Holden@example.com
We can only take a (16) _____ of 20 in the room, so book now!
Question 13. A. Each B. Most C. Every D. All
Question 14. A. the B. a C. an D. about
Question 15. A. fashionable B. comfortable C. expensive D. cheap
Question 16. A. minimum B. number C. maximum D. minority
Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
The One Pillar Pagoda is a historic Buddhist temple in Ha Noi. It is located in the western part of the city,
near Ho Chi Minh's Mausoleum. _____
a. Months later, when the Queen gave birth to a boy, the Emperor ordered the construction of a pagoda
supported by only one pillar to look like the lotus seat in his Í dream.
b. One night, he dreamt that he met a man, who was sitting on a great lotus flower in a square-shaped pond on
the western side of Thang Long Citadel and this man gave the King a baby boy.
c. Legend has it that Emperor Ly Thai To of the Ly Dynasty, who had no children, used to go to pagodas to
pray to Buddha for a son.
A. a-c-b B. b-a-c C. c-b-a D. b-c-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. One Pillar Pagoda is situated in Ba Dinh District, on a street named after the pagoda itself.
B. The One Pillar Pagoda, also known by names such as Dien Huu Pagoda.
C. According to a theory, the pagoda was built in the style of a lotus emerging out of the water.
D. The design of the One Pillar Pagoda is very special.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Different types of hobbies offer different types of benefits. First, if you are (19) _____ physical hobbies, for
example, hiking, camping, swimming, yoga, you can increase both your heart rate and brain function; lose
weight, build muscle and (20) _____ bones. Second, it's advisable for you to spend your time on some hobbies
like gardening, listening to music, painting or drawing, cooking and photography because they can improve
your mental health, decrease stress by relaxing your mind after daily life of hard work. Hobbies are also (21)
_____ great way to socialize and expand your relationship; to improve confidence level, boost self-esteem,
and improve the quality of life. Last but not least, some hobbies can provide a way to save or make money.
(22) _____, to save money you can refurbish items you find at a garage sale or grow your own vegetables. To
make money, you can sell the photographs you (23) _____ or the cakes you bake.
Hobbies are essential to having a well-rounded life. Saving some time for yourself to enjoy a hobby can
provide the physical, mental, emotional, social and economic benefits that make life (24) _____, relaxing, and
fun!
Question 19. A. interest in B. keen to C. fond of D. crazy with
Question 20. A. upgrade B. strengthen C. reduce D. support
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Question 21. A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 22. A. Therefore B. However C. Furthermore D. For example
Question 23. A. make B.do C. take D. have
Question 24. A. the more meaningful B. the most meaningful
C. most meaningful D. more meaningful
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. It isn’t necessary to bring skis as they are included in the package.
A. You have to bring skis as they are included in the package.
B. You need to bring skis as they are not included in the package.
C. You must bring skis as they are not included in the package.
D. You don’t have to bring skis as they are included in the package.
Question 26. She hasn’t played the piano for five years.
A. The last time she played the piano five years ago.
B. She played the piano five years ago.
C. The last time she played the piano was five years ago.
D. She doesn’t play piano five years ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. You / go / the gym / twice / week / stay healthy.
A. You should to go to the gym twice a week to stay healthy.
B. You ought go to the gym twice a week to stay healthy.
C. You should go to the gym twice a week to stay healthy.
D. You had better going to the gym twice a week to stay healthy.
Question 28. I / interest / read / article / global wanning / the newspaper.
A. I was very interested to read your article about global wanning in die newspaper.
B. I was very interesting to read your article about global warming in the newspaper.
C. I was interested in reading your article of global wanning in the newspaper.
D. I was very interesting in reading your article of global wanning in the newspaper.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

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A. The door should always be open and you should never lock.
B. You should always make sure to close the door after use.
C. Only close the door at specific times when allowed.
D. You should leave the door closed at all times.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

Please turn off your phone during the movie.

This helps everyone enjoy the show.

A. Keep your phone on.

B. Use your phone during the movie.
C. Turn off your phone while the movie is playing.
D. Leave your phone at home.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
There is a saying that if you have not visited Ha Long Bay, you have not yet been to Viet Nam. On the other
hand, we can say that if you have not visited Ha Long Bay, you have not yet seen the most beautiful place in
the world. It takes us around 4 hours by bus to travel 180 km from Ha Noi towards the northeast to Ha Long
Bay.
Ha Long Bay has been twice recognized by UNESCO as a World Heritage Site in 1994 and in 2000, and also
that Ha Long Bay is in second place in the worldwide competition of the World's Seven Natural Wonders.
1,969 limestone islands of various shapes, sizes, and in different green and amazing colours rise above the
sea level in an area of more than 1,500 square kilometres that creates this world heritage site. Ha Long Bay
still keeps its historical and cultural values.
Ha Long Bay is attractive and beautiful throughout the four seasons: spring, summer, autumn, and winter.
Travelling on small sailboats among hundreds of limestone islands, one may visit the amazing Surprise Cave,
the floating fishing village, and see how the locals live, which are top of the list of things to do here. On Titov
Island, one may swim and relax on the beach or enjoy a kayaking programme to the nearby Luon Cave and
much more.
The experience of visiting Ha Long Bay is unforgettable, where you will see something that will stay in your
mind and eyes for years. You will enjoy meeting Vietnamese people and tasting their delicious food. You will
have fresh air all day and night, especially if you wake up early in the morning and watch the sunrise on the
deck coming slowly through the islands. Be sure not to miss visiting Ha Long Bay in your lifetime.
Question 31. What is the possible title of the passage?
A. Experiences of visiting Ha Long Bay
B. The beauty of Ha Long Bay
C. The popularity of visiting Ha Long Bay
D. Ha Long Bay - A famous destination in Vietnam
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Question 32. People spend about _____ to travel from Hanoi to Ha Long Bay by bus.
A. two hours B. three hours C. four hours D. five hours
Question 33. The word “various” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. different B. similar C. unique D. changeable
Question 34. One of the features of Ha Long Bay is _____.
A. 1,969 limestone islands of various shapes, sizes
B. hundreds of limestone islands in only green colour
C. the limestones are above the sea level in an area of more than 2000 square kilometres
D. it is as attractive throughout the spring and summer
Question 35. As mentioned in the text, tourists can enjoy the following things when travelling to Ha Long
Bay except _____.
A. fresh seafood in the bay
B. a kayaking programme to the nearby Luon Cave
C. a luxurious cruise around Ha Long Bay
D. a small sailboat among hundreds of limestone islands
Question 36. The word “unforgettable” in paragraph 4 is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. usual B. memorable C. normal D. wonderful
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
I went to Singapore on my own for a ten-day summer course. There were about 15 students from China,
Malaysia, Cambodia, India, and Iran in the course. We were all so surprised about the cleanliness and
discipline of the country. (37) _____. We worked in groups of five from different countries to search for a
location on a map that the school staff gave us. The time we spent doing the activity together was really
memorable. (38) _____. After four hours of walking, taking the bus and metro as well as getting lost, we
arrived at the destination. Over the remaining days, (39) _____. We worked on projects and culture workshops.
We discussed and shared our own traditions and customs. During the time here, we also visited the Botanic
Gardens, took photos in the orchard garden and explored Chinatown (40) _____. At the weekend, we went to
the Discovery Centre. We were impressed by the attraction and interactive gallery as well as the brilliant
learning experiences we had. After the trip, I felt proud of myself for being able to go without my parents and
leaving my comfort zone.
A. we attended English lessons
B. On the second day of the course, we had special team-building activities
C. where we bought souvenirs for our parents and friends
D. We discussed how to find the place
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________
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 PRACTICE TEST
PRACTICE TEST 20
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. change B. habit C. balance D. fatty
Question 2. A. design B. preserve C. physical D. basic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. inform B. decide C. practice D. admit
Question 4. A. telephone B. tradition C. recycle D. achievement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. If it snows this winter, we ______ skiing in the mountains.
A. went B. could go C. would go D. will go
Question 6. London ______ an underground train system since the nineteenth century.
A. have had B. had C. has had D. has
Question 7. Excuse me? Can you ______ English?
A. speech B. speak C. speaking D. spoken
Question 8. The book ______ I like is on the table.
A. who B. whom C. which D. where
Question 9. The bus collects us ______ 5 o’clock.
A. at B. in C. on D. with
Question 10. The craft of conical hat making in Hue is usually ____ from generation to generation.
A. dealt with B. lived on C. turned off D. passed down
Question 11. According to the weather ______, it will be raining tonight.
A. prediction B. information C. announcement D. forecast
Question 12. Mary: “Thank you for a lovely evening. - Peter: “______.”
A. You’re welcome B. Have a good day C. Cheers D. Thanks
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 16.
The French teacher wanted to teach children (13) ______ the ages of 3 and 12. Applicants (14) ______ have
teaching experience. £15 (15) ______ hour. Company LinguaFun is a language school that (16) ______
modern language classes to students of all ages. Location: Singapore.
Question 13. A. between B. among C. in D. from
Question 14. A. should B. must C. may D. can
Question 15. A. the B. a C. each D. per
Question 16. A. sets up B. opens C. offers D. serves
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Question 17. Put the sentences (a-c) in the correct order, then fill in the blank to make a logical text.
Origami is the art of paper folding. I love doing it on my own in my free time. ______
a. Furthermore, doing origami helps me to relax after school.
b. With just some sheets of paper, I can create almost anything: flowers, birds, or fans.
c. Origami can help me boost my creativity.
A. b-a-c B. c-a-b C. c-b-a D. b-c-a
Question 18. Choose the sentence that can end the text (in Question 17) most appropriately.
A. Origami is the traditional Japanese art of paper folding.
B. In conclusion, making origami has several benefits beyond just creating beautiful designs.
C. Next, origami requires a lot of patience and persistence.
D. I hope you enjoy learning how to do origami.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 24.
Online shopping Is one of the (19) ______ growing areas of the Net, which offers users many (20) ______
over traditional shopping. Customers have access to a wider range of the best goods than In any shopping
centre; there are no queues or parking problems shops are (21) ______ 24 hours a day and purchases are
delivered to your door. What's more, prices and competitive, and online price comparison services enable you
(22) ______ the most suitable items. (23) ______ sites search the net for a product and then show you how
much different online stores are charging. Once you have decided what you (24) ______, and who you are
going to buy It from, simply click on the "add to shopping basket" icon on your smartphone.
Question 19. A. fastest B. faster C. fast D. most fast
Question 20. A. disadvantages B. advantages C. problems D. chances
Question 21. A. opening B. open C. opened D. to open
Question 22. A. find B. found C. finding D. to find
Question 23. A. Every B. Each C. Much D. A lot of
Question 24. A. are going to buy B. buy C. have bought D. bought
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
the original sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 25. Antony has decided to study English. He wants to get a good job in the future.
A. Antony decides to study English in order to he can get a good job in the future.
B. Antony decides to study English although he can get a good job in the future.
C. Antony has decided to study English so that he can get a good job in the future.
D. Antony decides to study English so as that he can get a good job in the future.
Question 26. “Can I have a day off tomorrow?” asked Emma.
A. Emma asked that she could have a day off tomorrow.
B. Emma asked if she can have a day off tomorrow.
C. Emma asked that if she could have a day off tomorrow.
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D. Emma asked if she could have a day off the next day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is made from the given
cues in each of the following questions.
Question 27. The / new / hospital / big / the / old.
A. The new hospital is not as big as the old one.
B. The new hospital is not bigger as the old one.
C. The new hospital is more bigger than the old one.
D. The new hospital is as big than the old one.
Question 28. It / take / me / one hour / go / work / bicycle.
A. It took me one hour to go to work by bicycle.
B. It took I one hour to go to work by bicycle.
C. It took me one hour going to work by bicycle.
D. It took my one hour to go work by bicycle.
Read the following sign or notice and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 29. What does the sign say?

A. Running is not encouraged here, so you should run as much as you can.
B. Running is allowed in some specific places, but not here.
C. Only children are allowed to run here; adults should walk.
D. Running is not allowed in this area, so you need to walk instead of running.
Question 30. What does the notice say?

The gym will be closed for cleaning

on Saturday from 8 AM to 10 AM.

A. The gym is open on Saturday.

B. The gym opens early on Saturday.
C. The gym closes at 10 AM every day.
D. The gym is closed for cleaning on Saturday.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 36.
President Ho Chi Minh was a great leader of Vietnam. He was born in 1890 in a small village in central
Vietnam. As a young man, he travelled to many countries to learn about ' the world, and to find ways to
vanquish the French colonial empire and the American Empire, who attacked his country.
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In 1945, Ho Chi Minh declared Vietnam's independence from France and became the country's first president.
He worked tirelessly to build a new Vietnam, one that was free from foreign domination and that would
provide a better life for all Vietnamese people. Moreover, under Ho Chi Minh's leadership, Vietnam made
great progress in education. The literacy rate increased from just 10% in 1945 to over 90% by the time of his
death in1969.This was a remarkable achievement, especially given the difficult situation that the country
faced.
On the other hand, Ho Chi Minh was also a great diplomat. He was able to build strong relationships with
other countries which helped Vietnam to defend itself against foreign attacks.
Today, Ho Chi Minh is remembered as a national hero in Vietnam. His image appears on the Vietnamese
currency, and many streets and buildings are named in his honour. His spirit continues to inspire the
Vietnamese people to work towards a better future for their country.
Question 31. Which of the following is the best title of the passage?
A. President Ho Chi Minh and his family background.
B. President Ho Chi Minh’s image on the Vietnamese currency.
C. Did Vietnam gain independence by itself?
D. President Ho Chi Minh’s great contributions to Viet Nam
Question 32. According to the passage, what did the French colonial empire and American Empire do?
A. travelled to many countries B. attacked Vietnam
C. learnt about the world D. vanquished the country
Question 33. The word “vanquish” in the 1st paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. defeat B. resign C. bond D. rule
Question 34. According to the second paragraph, which of the following is NOT true?
A. No one was the Vietnamese president before Ho Chi Minh.
B. Vietnam was declared to be independent from France in 1945.
C. Under Ho Chi Minh’s leadership, Viet Nam had a better education.
D. The illiteracy rate increased by around 80% before Ho Chi Minh’s death.
Question 35. The word “achievement” in the 2nd paragraph is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. success B. account C. failure D. genius
Question 36. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that.
A. many streets are named Ho Chi Minh
B. President Ho Chi Minh is highly respected
C. there are many presidents in Vietnam
D. Vietnamese like their currency a lot
Four phrases/ sentences have been removed from the text below. For each question, mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks
from 37 to 40.
We went camping at Ba Vi National Park, 60 kilometres to the west of Ha Noi. Our teacher chose this location
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as it is not far from Ha Noi and is (37) ______. It is home to hundreds of wildlife species, so we had a chance
to get into a real natural habitat.
We went there on a coach. We set off early and because the road was a bit bumpy and tricky, we were tired
when we arrived. After about two hours, we finally reached the campsite in Ngoc Hoa cave area. (38) ______.
We explored the rich nature in the Botanical Garden, trying to take deep breaths of the fresh air and enjoying
the diversity of the flora there. We took photos of the places we saw. (39) ______. We sat around the fire and
sang and danced. We also had team-building activities, which were exciting and memorable. On the next day,
we went trekking to Thuong Temple - a national cultural monument at Tan Vien Peak. We learnt much (40)
______ from our guide.
We tried Lam rice, hill chicken and milk products - the specialities of the area. We were so impressed by the
trip's activities, scenery and the food of the area.
A. famous as a mountainous ecological tourism centre
B. about the culture associated with the legend Son Tinh and Thuy Tinh
C. At night, we burnt wood for a campfire.
D. We set up our camps before exploring the park.
Question 37. __________ Question 38. __________
Question 39. __________ Question 40. __________

ANSWER SHEET

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31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

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