20-07-2025

5301CMD303361250005 MD

PHYSICS

1)

How much length of a very thin wire is required to obtain a solenoid of length ℓ0 and inductance L :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) In a coil of resistance 10 Ω, the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it,
is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in Weber is

:-

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 2

3) A boat is moving due east in a region where the Earth's magnetic field is 5.0 × 10–5 N/A m due
north and horizontal. The boat carries a vertical aerial 2 m long. If the speed of the boat is 1.50 m/s,
the magnitude of the induced emf in the wire of the aerial is :-

(1) 0.75 mV
(2) 0.50 mV
(3) 0.15 mV
(4) 1 mV

4) A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to its plane as shown in figure. Electric field is induced :-

(1) In AD, but not in BC

(2) In BC, but not in AD
(3) Neither in AD nor in BC
(4) In both AD and BC

5) A conducting rod of length 2l is rotating with constant angular speed w about its perpendicular
bisector. A uniform magnetic field exists parallel to the axis of rotation. The e.m.f. induced

between two ends of the rod is :-

(1) B ωl2

(2)
B ωl2

(3)
B ωl2
(4) Zero

6) As shown in the figure a metal rod makes contact and complete the circuit. The circuit is
perpendicular to the magnetic field with B = 0.15 tesla. If the resistance is 3Ω, force needed to move

the rod as indicated with a constant speed of 2m/sec is :-

(1) 3.75 × 10–3 N

(2) 3.75 × 10–2 N
(3) 3.75 × 102 N
(4) 3.75 × 10–4 N

7) A uniform but time-varying magnetic field B(t) exists within a circular region of radius 'a' and is
directed into the plane of the paper as shown in Fig. The magnitude of the induced electric field at
the point P at a distance 'r' from the centre of the circular region :-

(1) is zero
(2) decreases as 1/r
(3) increases as r
(4) decreases as 1/r2

8) A coil of mean area 500 cm2 having 1000 turns is held perpendicular to a uniform field of 0.4
gauss. The coil is turned through 180º in 1/10sec. The average induced e.m.f. :-

(1) 0.04 V
(2) 0.4 V
(3) 4 V
(4) 0.004V

9) An inductor coil stores energy U when current is I and dissipates energy at the rate of P. The coil
is connected to a battery. Time constant of the circuit is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) In the branch AB of a circuit, as shown in the figure, a current I = (t + 2) A is flowing, where t is

the time in second. At t = 0, the value of (VA – VB) write will be :-

(1) 3v
(2) –3v
(3) –5v
(4) 5v

11) A bulb and an open coil inductor are connected to an AC source through a key as shown in
figure. The switch is closed and after sometime, an iron rod is inserted into the interior of the
inductor. The glow of the bulb :-

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) is unchanged
(4) can't be determined

12) Two inductors L1 and L2 are connected in parallel and a time varying current flows as shown. The

ratio of currents i1/i2 at any time t is :-

(1) L1/L2
(2) L2/L1

(3)

(4)

13) A small square loop of wire of side ℓ is placed inside a large square loop of side L (L >> ℓ). If the
loops are coplanar and their centres coincide, the mutual inductance of the system is directly
proportional to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The current in a LR circuit builds up to th of its steady state value in 4s. The time constant of
this circuit is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A step-down transformer is connected to 2400 volts line and 80 amperes of current is found to
flow in output load. The ratio of the turns in primary and secondary coil is 20 : 1. If transformer
efficiency is 100%, then the current flowing in primary coil will be :-

(1) 1600 A
(2) 20 A
(3) 4 A
(4) 1.5 A

16) Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils
depends upon :-

(1) currents in the coils

(2) materials of the wires of the coils
(3) relative position and orientation of the coils
(4) rates at which the currents are changing in the coils

17) A circular coil of 500 turns of wire has an enclosed area of 0.1 m2 per turn. It is kept
perpendicular to a magnetic field of induction 0.2 T and rotated by 180° about a diameter
perpendicular to the field in 0.1 sec. How much charge will pass when the coil is connected to a
galvanometer with a combined resistance of 50 ohms :-

(1) 0.2 C
(2) 0.4 C
(3) 2C
(4) 4C

18) A straight wire of length L is bent into a semicircle. It is moved in a uniform magnetic field with
speed v with diameter perpendicular to the field. The induced emf between the ends of the wire is :-

(1) BLv
(2) 2BLv
(3) 2πBLv

(4)

19) A uniform magnetic field exists in a region given by . A rod of the length 5 m
–1
along y-axis moves with a constant speed of 1 m s along x axis. Then the induced emf in the rod will
be :-

(1) 0
(2) 25 V
(3) 20 V
(4) 15 V

20) If a current of 2A give rise a magnetic flux of 5 × 10–5 weber/turn through a coil having 100
turns, then the magnetic energy stored in the medium surrounding by the coil is :-

(1) 5 joule
(2) 5 × 10–7 joule
(3) 5 × 10–3 joule
(4) 0.5 joule

21) A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is moving with a uniform speed v = 2 m/s in a uniform
magnetic field B = 4.0T directed into the paper. A capacitor of capacity C = 10 µF is connected as

shown in figure. Then.

(1) qA = + 80 µC and qB = – 80 µC
(2) qA = – 80 µC and qB = + 80 µC
(3) qA = 0 = qB
(4) Charage stored in the capacitor increases exponentially with time.

22) Two solenoids have identical geometrical construction and same number of truns but one is
made of thick wire and other of thin wire. Which of the following quantities are different for two
solenoids :–
(a) Self inductance.
(b) Rate of joule heating if the same current goes through them.
(c) Magnetic potential energy if the same current goes through them.
(d) Time constant.

(1) b, d
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) All above

23) Find the current passing through battery immediately after key (K) is closed. It is given that
initially all the capacitors are uncharged. (Given that R = 6Ω and C = 4µF)

(1) 1 A
(2) 5 A
(3) 3 A
(4) 2 A

24) The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the
magnetic flux ϕ linked with the primary coil is given by ϕ = ϕ0 + 4t, where ϕ is in webers, t is time in
seconds and ϕ0 is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is :-

(1) 30 volts
(2) 90 volts
(3) 120 volts
(4) 220 volts

25) The flux linked with a coil at any instant 't' is given by : ϕ = 10t2 – 50 t + 250
The induced emf at t = 3s is-

(1) – 190 V
(2) – 10 V
(3) 10 V
(4) 190 V

26) Consider the situation shown in figure. The wires P1Q1 and P2Q2 are made to slide on the rails
with the same speed 5 cm/s. Find the electric current in the 19 Ω resistor if (a) both the wires move
towards right and (b) if P1Q1 moves towards left but P2Q2 moves towards right.

B = 0.5T

(1) 0.05 mA, zero

(2) 1A, zero
(3) 2 mA, 0.1 mA
(4) 0.1 mA, 1A

27) A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2Ω is connected to a source of voltage 2V. The
current reaches half of its steady state value in :-

(1) 0.05s
(2) 0.1s
(3) 0.15s
(4) 0.3s

28) In the non-resonant circuit, what will be the nature of the circuit for frequencies higher than the
resonant frequency :–

(1) resistive
(2) capacitive
(3) inductive
(4) none of these

29) Assertion :- The dc and ac both can be measured by a hot wire instrument.
Reason :- The hot wire instrument is based on the principle of heating effect of current.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

30) When 10V, dc is applied across a coil current through it is 2.5 A, if 10V, 50 Hz A.C. is applied
current reduces to 2 A. Calculate reactance of the coil.

(1) 3 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) 1 Ω
(4) 4 Ω

31) Power consumption in given circuit will be, if current through the ammeter is i :-

(1) i2R
(2)

(3)

(4) Zero
32) The plot given below is of the average power delivered to an LRC circuit versus frequency. The
quality factor of the circuit is :

(1) 5
(2) 2.4
(3) 2.8
(4) 1.2

33) The value of alternating emf E in the circuit will be

(1) 100V
(2) 220V
(3) 140V
(4) 20V

34) Energy dissipates in LCR circuits in:

(1) L only
(2) R only
(3) C only
(4) All of these

35) A capacitor of capacitance μF is connected to an ac source of 200 V; 50 Hz. Then the rms
current in the circuit is:

(1) 0.1 A
(2) 0.2 A
(3) 0.4 A
(4) 0.6 A

36) In series LCR circuit, the rms voltage across L, C and R are V1, V2 and V3 respectively, then the
rms voltage of source is always.

(1) V1 + V2 + V3
(2)

(3)

(4) More than (V1 + V2 + V3)

37) In the series LCR circuit as shown in figure, the heat developed in 80 seconds and amplitude of

wattless current is :

(1) 4000 J, 3A
(2) 8000 J, 3A
(3) 4000 J, 4A
(4) 8000 J, 5A

38) An alternating current is given by the equation i = i1 sinωt + i2 cosωt. The rms current will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) In an a. c. circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f. and current are given by e = 100 sin 30 t

i = 20 sin
In one cycle of a.c., the average power consumed by the circuit and the wattless current are,
respectively.

(1)

(2)

(3) 50, 0
(4) 50, 10

40) A black box is connected across an ac source of emf V = 100 sin(100 s–1t) in volt. Phase of the

current in the circuit is ahead of the phase of the source voltage by . The peak current is observed
to be . The black box consists of :-

(1) Only a resistance of 50Ω

(2) Only a capacitance of 0.2 mF
(3) A series combination of a resistance of 50Ω and an inductance of 0.2 mH
(4) A series combination of a resistance of 50Ω and a capacitance of 0.2 mF

41) The resonance frequency of a circuit consisting of a coil of inductance 2μH and capacitance of
2μF is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Find the reading of voltmeter-

(1) 10 volt
(2) 0 volt
(3) 5 volt
(4) 20 volt

43) In a certain circuit current changes with time according to . RMS value of current
between t = 2 to t = 4s will be :-

(1) 3A
(2)
(3)

(4)

44) In the circuit shown in the figure, the A.C. source gives a voltage V = 20 cos ( 2000 t) volt,
neglecting source resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter readings will be:
(1) 0V, 1.4 A
(2) 5.6V, 1.4 A
(3) 0V, 0.47 A
(4) 1.68V, 0.47 A

45) The graph shows variation of I with f for a series R-L-C network. Keeping L and C constant. If R
increases.

(a) Maximum current (Im) increases

(b) Sharpness of the graph decreases
(c) Quality factor decreases
(d) Band width increases

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) c,d,a
(4) All

CHEMISTRY

1) Less reactivity of ketone is due to

(1) + I inductive effect decrease positive charge on carbonyl carbon atom

(2) Steric effect of two bulky alkyl groups
(3) sp2 hybridised carbon atom of carbonyl carbon atom
(4) Both (1) and (2)

2) CH3CHO and CH3COCH3 can not be distinguished by :-

(1) Fehling solution

(2) Grignard reagent
(3) Schiff's reagent
(4) Tollen's reagent

3) The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are
A. Tollens' reagent B. Schiff's reagent
C. HCN D. NH2OH
E. NaHSO3
Choose the correct options from the given below :

(1) B and C
(2) A and D
(3) B and E
(4) E and D

4) Consider the following reaction sequence The product ‘B’ will be :

(1) Butanoic acid

(2) 2-Methylbutanoic acid
(3) Pentanoic acid
(4) 3-Methylpentanoic acid

5) A) C2H5OH
B) CH3CHO
C) CH3COCH3
D) C6H5CHO
E) C6H5CH2CHO
From the above, the number of compounds which not only give yellow ppt with NaOH + I2 but also
give red ppt with Fehling’s reagent are_______

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 0
(4) 1

6) Number of compound which can be oxidised by Tollen's reagent :-

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

7) Which one is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Match list-I and list-II

List-I List-II
(Reaction) (Substrate used)
a Etard reaction i Benzoyl chloride
b Reimer-Tiemann reaction ii Phenol
c Rosenmund's reaction iii Toluene
d Stephen's reaction iv Acetonitrile
Choose the correct answer from the option given below
(1) a- i , b- ii , c- iii , d- iv
(2) a- iii , b- ii , c- iv , d- i
(3) a - iii , b - ii , c- i , d- iv
(4) a - i , b - ii , c - iv , d - iii

9) In the Cannizzaro reaction given below :

Product in this reaction is ?

(1) Ph–CH2OH + CH3OH
Ө ⊕
(2) PhCOO Na + CH3OH
Ө ⊕
(3) Ph–CH2OH + HCOO Na
(4) PhCOOӨNa⊕ + HCOOӨNa⊕

10) Which of the following is wrong statement.

(1) Aldehydes and ketones react with HCN to yield cyanohydrin, catalysed by base
The NaHSO3 addition on carbonyl compound gives water soluble product and which can be
(2)
converted back to the original carbonyl compound by treating it with dil. acid.
(3) Aldehyde and ketone reacts with NH2–NH2 to give hydrazone
(4) Aldehydes and ketone reacts with CH3NH2 to give oxime.

11) Identify X in the following reaction.

(1)

(2) CH3MgBr

(3)

(4)

12) Assertion (A): The reagents used in Wolff Kishner reduction is Zn-Hg/conc.HCl.

Reason(R): Wolff kishner reduction is used to convert

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A false but R is true
13)
Which is correct about y :-

(1) It gives fehling solution

(2) It gives tollens test
(3) It gives 2,4 D.N.P test
(4) It does not give lodoform test

14)
The product (C) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Which is most reactive towards hydrolysis.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The compound A with following sequence of reaction gave benzoic acid.

The compound A is

(1) Nitrobenzene
(2) Benzylamine
(3) Aniline
(4) Benzaldehyde

17) In following given reaction

CH3COOH + PCl5 → (A) (B)

Product B would be :-

(1)

(2) CH3COC6H5
(3) CH3CH(OH)CH3

(4)

18) Cinnamaldehyde can be obtained by Aldol condensation of :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

19)
compound 'B' is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Match the column

Column-I(Transformations) Column-II(Reagents)

(a) R–COOH → R–CH2OH (p)

(b) (q) Cl2/Red P, H2O

Ph–COOH →

(c) (r) P2O5, Δ

R–CH2COOH→

(d) CH3COOH→ (CH3CO)2O (s) B2H6/H3O⊕

(1) a-p, b-s, c-r, d-q
(2) a-r, b-p, c-s, d-q
(3) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-p
(4) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r

21) (A), (B) and (C) are three dicarboxylic acids such that :
(A) carboxylic acid + CO2↑
(B) acid anhydride + H2O↑
(C) cyclic ketone + H2O + CO2↑
then:

(1) A – adipic acid, B – malonic acid, C – succinic acid

(2) A – malonic acid, B – adipic acid, C – succinic acid
(3) A – adipic acid, B – succinic acid, C – malonic acid
(4) A – malonic acid, B – succinic acid, C – adipic acid

22) The compound which will not reduce Felhing's solution is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) HCOOH

23) The compound with will decarboxylate most easily on heating is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Benzamide on reaction with in presence of aqueous NaOH gives

(1) Sodium benzoale

(2) Benzyl amine
(3) Aniline
(4) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol

25) An organic compound (A) with molecular formula gives an orange red precipitate with 2,
4-DNP and it also reduces Tollen's reagent. Compound A is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
26) Which of the following is least reactive towards SNAE reaction ?

(1) Acid halide

(2) Ester
(3) Amide
(4) Acid anhydride

27) The major product formed in the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) The compound that does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction but gives a positive
carbylamine test is :

(1) aniline
(2) pyridine
(3) N-methylaniline
(4) triethylamine
29) In the following reaction, the product

is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The reagent used for separation of acetaladehyde and acetophenone is -

(1) NaHSO3
(2) C6H5NHNH2
(3) NH2OH
(4) NaOH + I2

31)

Which of the following is correct for given reaction:

(1) Product 'A' is insoluble in base

(2) Product 'B' is insoluble in base
(3) Product 'A' is soluble in base
(4) Both (2) and (3)

32) Which of the following reaction does not give primary amine as a product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
33) Para nitroaniline in good yield is obtained by the following method

(1) Aniline is trated with nitration mixture

(2) Aniline is subjected to acetylation
(3) Aniline is treated with HNO2 at low temperature
(4) Aniline is subjected to acetylation, nitration and hydrolysis in succession

34) Cellulose on hydrolysis yields

(1) Beta-D-Fructose
(2) alpha -D-Glucose
(3) alpha -D-Fructose
(4) Beta-D-Glucose

35)
X and Y are

(1) Isomers
(2) primary amines
(3) Homologues
(4) Both 2 and 3

36) Product C is

(1) 3-nitrotoluene
(2) Toluene
(3) Nitrobenzene
(4) Benzene

37) Which of the following amine does not show carbylamine test :

(1)

(2) CH3CH2CH2NH2
(3)

(4) CH3CH2–NH2

38) Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation of

(1) Primary amines

(2) Secondary amines
(3) Aromatic amines
(4) Primary aliphatic amines

39) CH3—CH2—CN A B C
The correct structure of C is

(1) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH3

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3—CH2—CH=CH2

40) Assertion : Maltose is a non reducing sugar

Reason : On hydrolysis sucrose bring the change in sign of rotation from dextro (+) to
laevo ( ̶ )

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation
(3) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct
(4) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong

41) The disaccharide held together by a glycosidic linkage between C1 of -D-glucose and C2 of -D-
fructose is

(1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
(3) Lactose
(4) Amylose

42) Number of chiral carbons present in β – D – (+) –glucopyranose is

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 3

43) Which of the following pairs are C - 2 epimers?

(1) Glucose-Galactose
(2) Glucose-Mannose
(3) Glucose-Fructose
(4) Glucose-Allose

44) Identify the correct statement(s) among the following.

I. Number of chiral carbons in β-D(+) glucose are four.
II. Number of -OH groups present β-D(+) glucose are five.
III. β-D(+) glucose contains pyranose ring.

(1) II and III only

(2) II only
(3) I, II and III
(4) I and III only

45) Compound A gives D-galactose and D-glucose on hydrolysis. The compound A is :

(1) Amylose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Maltose
(4) Lactose

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to DNA ?

(1) Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA

(2) DNA as basic substance present in nucleus was first identified by Friedrich Meischer in 1869
Due to base pairing if the sequence of bases in one strand is known then the sequence in other
(3)
strand can be predicted
(4) DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides

2) Choose correct set of characters for euchromatin

i) Loosely packed
ii) Densely packed
iii) Light stain
iv) Dark stain
v) Inactive chromatin
vi) Active chromatin

(1) i, iii, v
(2) ii, iv, vi
(3) i, iii, vi
(4) ii, iv, v

3) Read the given following statements and choose the correct statements:
(a) Among the two nucleic acids, the RNA is a better genetic material.
(b) For the transmission of genetic information, RNA is better.
(c) by 1926, the quest to determine the mechanism for genetic inheritance had reached the
molecular level.
(d) Griffith observed that heat-killed S strain bacteria injected into mice did not kill them
(e) Discovery of nuclein by Meischer and the perposition for principles of inheritance by Mendel
were almost at the same time
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) (b), (c), (d) only

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
(3) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
(4) (a), (c) only

4) Read the following statements and choose the correct statements :-

(a) Protease, RNase and DNase enzyme did not affect transformation.
(b) Avery, Macleod and McCarty concluded that DNA is the hereditary material, but not all
biologists were convinced.
(c) The biochemical nature of genetic material was not defined from the Griffith's experiment.
(d) Viral coats were removed from the bacteria by blending.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a),(b) and (c) only
(4) (b),(c) and (d) only

5) Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerases catalyze polymerization only in one direction (5' to 3')
(2) DNA polymerases can initiate the process of replication on their own
(3) In eukaryotes replication of DNA takes place in s-phase of cell cycle..
(4) A failure in cell division after DNA replication results into polyploidy.

6) Which of the following is not a feature of double helix model of DNA ?

(A) Two chains have parallel polarity.
(B) Distance between two strands are uniform.
(C) There are roughly 10 base pair in each turn of DNA.
(D) Adenine forms two hydrogen bond with guanine from opposite strand

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) A and D
(4) B and C

7) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I:- DNA replication initiate randomly at any place in DNA.
Statement-II :- The discontinuously synthesised fragments are later joined by the enzyme DNA
ligase.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

8) Which of the following are correct for DNA double-helix structure.

A. It is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the bases project outside.
B. The two chains have anti-parallel polarity.
C. The bases in two strands are paired through H-bonds forming base pairs.
D. The two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion.

(1) A, B, C & D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A only

9) Select the true and false statements

(i) If the DNA molecule has 2000 base pairs then the number of sugar will be 6000 and of phosphate
will be 3000
(ii) A nucleotide molecule consist of a nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and a phosphate molecule
(iii) Site of DNA replication in a eukaryotic cell is cytoplasm
(iv) Semiconservative replication of DNA has been proved in bacteria as well as in plants

(1) T,T,F,T
(2) F,T,F,T
(3) T,T,F,F
(4) F,T,T,F

10) Select the correct option :

Statement-I : The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix.
Statement-II : The pitch of DNA helix is 34 nm.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

11) Statement-I : Polynucleotide chains of DNA are complementary to each other.

Statement-II : The length of DNA is usually defined as number of nucleotides present in it.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

12) How many of the following are incorrect :-

A- Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides.
B- DNA acts as genetic material in most of the organisms.
C- RNA functions as a genetic material in some viruses, messenger, as adapter, structural and in
some cases as a catalytic molecule.
D- DNA is not only the most abundant genetic material but also it is most interesting molecule in the
living system.
E- For a double stranded DNA, the ratios between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine
is constant and equals one.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

13) Find a set of incorrect statements

a. RNA is labile, easily degradable and reactive as compared to DNA
b. Presence of thymine at the place of uracil confers additional stability to DNA
c. Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate, viruses having DNA genome mutate and evolve faster
d. DNA can easily express the characters directly without the help of mRNA.

(1) b & d
(2) c & d
(3) b & c
(4) a & c

14) Watson and Crick's double helix model of DNA was based on :
(A) Griffith's experiment
(B) Chargaff's rule
(C) X-ray diffraction of DNA given by Wilkins and franklin
(D) Hershey and chase experiment
Which of the following praises are correct

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

15) (A) Lambda bacteriophage have 48502 base pairs in it's DNA.
(B) Escherichia coli have 4.6 × 106 base pairs in it's DNA.
(C) Bacteriophage ϕ × 174 have 5386 base pairs in it's DNA.
(D) Haploid DNA of human have 3.3 × 109 base pairs
How many of these statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

16) A molecule that can act as genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except:-

(1) It should be able to express itself in form of mendelian characters.

(2) It should be chemically and structurally unstable
(3) It should provide scope for slow changes that are required for evolution
(4) It should be able to generate its replica

17)

Which of these is the incorrect statement w.r.t nucleosome ?

(1) Repeating units of chromatin

(2) Seen as ‘beads-on-string’ structure when viewed under electron microscope (EM)
(3) Consists of 400 bases
(4) None of the above

18) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the process of replication in E.Coli ?

(1) In replication at the template with polarity 3'→5' is discontinuous.

(2) Replication at the template with polarity 5'→3' is discontinuous.
(3) Replication at the template with polarity 3'→5' is continuous.
(4) In E. coli the process of replication requires a set of catalysts (enzymes).

19)

Find out the correct statement about Hershey and Chase experiment?

Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but not
(1)
radioactive protein
(2) Viruses grown on radioactive sulfur contained radioactive DNA but not radioactive protein
(3) They worked with the bacteria that infect plants
(4) When bacteriophage attaches to the bacteria, its protein enters the bacterial cell.

20) Which of the following option is incorrect?

(1) DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications

(2) DNA being complementary double-stranded resists changes by evolving a process of repair
(3) RNA being a catalyst is reactive and unstable
(4) Metabolism, translation and splicing have evolved around DNA
21) Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : Energetically replication is a very expensive process.
Statement-II : Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual purposes.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

22) Statement-I :- The length of DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell comes out to be
approximately 2.20 metre.
Statement-II :- In E.coli DNA is held with some proteins in a region termed as nucleoid.

(1) Both Statement I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and II are correct

23) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : In RNA every nucleotide residue has an additional OH group present at 2' position in
the ribose.
Statement-II : The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiment of
Griffith.
In the light of above statements choose the correct option.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

24) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In one strand of DNA if it has a free phosphate moiety at 3' -end of sugar, which is
referred to as 3’-end of the chain.
Statement II: In one Strand of DNA if it has a free OH group at 5' end of sugar which is referred to
as 5' -end of the the chain.
In the light of above Statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

25) Assertion : DNA is dependent on RNA for synthesis of proteins.

Reason : In eukaryotes DNA is wrapped around histone octamer to form nucleosome.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

26) The given figure shows the structure of nucleosome with their parts labelled as A, B & C.
Identify A, B and C.

(1) A – DNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer

(2) A – H1 histone; B – DNA; C – Histone octamer
(3) A – Histone octamer; B – RNA; C – H1 histone
(4) A – RNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer

27) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion (A) : A piece of DNA if needed to be propagated during recombinant DNA procedures,
requires a vector.
Reason (R) : The vectors provide origin of replication.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

28) Assertion (A) :- The elucidation of structure of DNA remained elusive for a very long period of
time.
Reason (R) :- Due to technical limitation it was difficult to isolate intact DNA.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but R is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

29) Assertion A: E. coli completes its replication process in 18 minutes due to a high rate of
polymerisation.
Reason R: The average rate of polymerisation in E. coli is approximately 2000 base pairs per second.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

30) Which of the following correctly represents a replicating fork ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) During Messelson and Stahl’s Experiment after 40 min. which option is correct :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Choose the correct statement from the following with respect to chloroplast.

(1) There is no clear division of labour within chloroplast

(2) Chloroplast has membranous system consisting of grana, stroma lamellae and matrix stroma
Membrane system is responsible for trapping the light energy and also for the synthesis of ATP
(3)
and NADPH
(4) More than one options are correct

33) Select the incorrect statements :

(a) There is a complete one-to-one overlap between the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a and the
action spectrum of photosynthesis.
(b) Except the blue and red region, the photosynthesis does not take place at the other wavelengths
of the visible spectrum.
(c) The maximum absorption by chlorophyll a is in the blue and red regions of the visible spectrum.

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) only c

34) Select the correct of statements :

(a) The single chlorophyll a molecule forms the reaction centre.
(b) The LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules bound to protein.
(c) In PS-I the reaction centre chorophyll a has an absorption peak at 700nm.
(d) The reaction centre of PS-I is called P680.

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d

35) Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II

(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II
(3) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesised during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
(4) Stroma lamellae lack PS II and NADP reductase

36) Select the incorrect statements :

(a) The photosystems are named (PS-I & PS-II) in the sequence in which they function during the
light reaction.
(b) The reaction centre of PS-II is called P700.
(c) The antennae pigments help to make photosynthesis more efficient by absorbing different
wavelengths of light.
(d) The reaction centre is same in both the photosystems.

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d

37) (A) Water splitting

(B) Reduction of carbon dioxide
(C) Use of ATP
(D) Formation of ATP and NADPH
(E) Oxygen release
Which of the above processes are not included in the photochemical phase (light Reaction) of
photosynthesis ?

(1) A, B and C
(2) C and E
(3) B, D and E
(4) B and C

38) Identify the correct set of statements :

(a) Increase in incident light beyond a point cause the breakdown of chloroplyll and a decrease in
photosynthesis.
(b) The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is a 3-C molecule phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) and is
present in bundle sheath cells.
(c) To make one molecule of glucose, 6 turns of Calvin Cycle are required.
(d) The regeneration step requires two ATP for phosphorylation to form one RuBP.
Choose the correct answer from options given below:

(1) a, b and c only

(2) a and c only
(3) b and d only
(4) a, b, c and d all

39) Select the incorrect statement from the following.

At high intensities, both C3 and C4 plants shows increase in the rate of photosynthesis by
(1)
increasing CO2.
C4 plants shows saturation at
(2)

C3 plants shows saturation beyond

(3)

Productivity of tomatoes and bell pepper cannot be increased by enriching environment with
(4)
CO2.

40) Identify the incorrect statement about proton gradient in ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis?

Proton gradient is created because protons in the stroma increase in number, while in the
(1)
lumen there is accumulation of protons.
(2) Breakdown of proton gradient leads to synthesis of ATP.
(3) Proton gradient created across the thylakoid membrane.
Proton gradient is broken due to the movement of proton to the stroma through the CF0 channel
(4)
of the ATP synthase.

41) Identify the correct statements regarding photosynthesis:

1. The first stable product of C3 plants is a 3-carbon compound, PGA.
2. Chlorophyll b is the reaction centre in PS-I.
3. Photorespiration produces ATP.
4. C4 plant use the C3 pathway or the Calvin cycle as the main biosynthetic pathway.

(1) 1 and 3
(2) 2 and 4
(3) 1 and 4
(4) All of the above
42) Assertion : Protons produced by the splitting of water accumulate within the lumen of
thylakoid.
Reason : Splitting of water molecule take place on inner side of the membrane of thylakoid.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) Read following statements carefully and select appropriate answer.

Assertion (A) :- Oxygen is not evolved in bacterial photosynthesis.
Reason (R) :- Hydrogen donor in bacterial photosynthesis is H2S instead of H2O.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

44) Which of the following is correctly labelled for the given figure ?

(1) A : PSII : B : PSI : C : e– acceptor : D : LHC

(2) A : LHC : B : e– acceptor : C : PSI : D : PSII
(3) A : PSI : B : PSII : C: e– acceptor : D : LHC
(4) A : e– acceptor : B : LHC : C : PSII : D : PSI

45) In the given graph, what does A, B represent?

 A - Absorption spectrum,
(1)
B- Action spectrum (Chl. a)
A - Action spectrum,
(2)
B - Absorption spectrum (Carotenoids)
A - Absorption spectrum,
(3)
B - Action spectrum (Chl. b)
A - Action spectrum,
(4)
B - Absorption spectrum (Chl. a)

46) The moist surface of the bucal cavity contain

(1) Keratinised epithelium

(2) Non kertinised epithelium
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Transitional epithelium

47) Haversian canals are found in the :

(1) Bones of birds

(2) Bones of mammals
(3) Bones of frog
(4) Cartilage

48) Which one of the following is not a character of compound epithelium?

(1) It is multilayered
(2) Limited role in secretion and absorption
(3) They cover the dry surface of the skin like epidermis
(4) Found in inner lining of blood vessels and lymph vessels

49)

Cartilage present at tip of nose :-

(1) Elastic cartilage

(2) Hyaline cartilage
(3) Calcified cartilage
(4) White fibrous cartilage

50) __________ forms a diffusion boundary in our body

(1) Compound epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium

51) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the option given along with its correct location and
function?

Tissue Location Function

1. B Simple squamous epithelium Fallopian tube Transport of gamete
2. C Simple cuboidal epithelium Wall of blood vessels and air sac of lungs Diffusion boundary
3. D Compound epithelium Skin Protection
4. A Simple columnar epithelium Tubular part of nephron Secretion
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) Match the following

Column - I Column - II

Receptors present in brain

a Opioids (i)
only

Receptors present
b Cannabinoids (ii) in gastrointestinal tract
and brain

Interfere with the transport of

c Cocaine (iii)
the neurotransmitter dopamine
 Effect on
d Marijuana (iv) cardiovascular system of the
body
(1) a - (ii) , b(i), c- (iii), d - (iv)
(2) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
(3) a - (iv), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (i)
(4) a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (iii)

53)
Identify A, B and C :-

(1) A → LSD, B → Cocaine, C → Heroine

(2) A → Cocaine, B → LSD, C → Morphine
(3) A → Cocaine, B → Cannabinoids, C → LSD
(4) A → Cannabinoids, B → Cocaine, C → Morphine

54) Find the correct statement about tobacco smoking-

(A) Nicotine inhibits secretion of adrenal medulla.
(B) Smoking is associated with increased incidence of cancer of lungs and throat.
(C) Smoking increases carbon monoxide content in blood and decreases the concentration of
haembound oxygen.
(D) Smoking decreases blood pressure.

(1) A and D
(2) B and D
(3) A and B
(4) B and C

55) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): According to theory of biogenesis, life comes only from pre-existing life.
Reason (R): Experiment showed that in pre-sterilised flasks, life did not come from killed yeast.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

56) Statement A : Cocaine is obtained from plant Cannabis sativa.

Statement B : Cannabis sativa is Native to South America.

(1) Both Statements A and Statement B are correct.

(2) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect.
(3) Statement B is correct but Statement A is incorrect.
(4) Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect.

57) Assertion : High fever and chills recurr every three to four days in Malaria patient.
Reason : A toxic substance, haemozoin, is released by the rupture of liver cells.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

58) The__A___carcinogens present in tobacco smoke have been identified as a major cause
of __B___cancer.
Fill in the blanks with correct option :

(1) A -Chemical, B - Prostate

(2) A -Chemical, B - Lung
(3) A - Physical , B – Lugs
(4) A - Physcisl , B - Cervical

59) Assertion: Crack is a potent stimulant of CNS, producing sense of euphoria and increased
energy.
Reason: It interferes with the transport of neurotransmitter dopamine.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

60) Assertion A: Organ transplants require tissue and blood group matching to prevent graft
rejection.
Reason R: The cell-mediated immune response, mediated by T-lymphocytes, can differentiate
between 'self' and 'nonself', leading to rejection of unmatched transplants.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

61) Which of the following imaging technique use strong magnetic fields to accurately detect
pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue and detect cancer ?

(1) FNAC
(2) CT-Scan
(3) MRI
(4) Pap smear

62) Assertion : In case of AIDS immunity is weaken.

Reason : HIV attack T helper cells.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

63) Study the diagram given and choose the incorrect statement:

(1) A: retrovirus replicates outside the cell

(2) B: viral DNA is produced by the host Reverse transcriptase
(3) C: viral DNA incorporates into the host genome
(4) D: New viral RNA is produced by the infected cell

64) Statement-I: The period between 12 - 18 years of age may be thought of a adolescence period.
Statement-II: Adolescence is accompanied by several biological and behavioural changes.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct
(4) Only Statement-II is correct

65) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I :- Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant
withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of drugs is abruptly discontinued.
Statement-II :- Withdrawal syndrome is manifested in the form of reckless behaviour, vandalism
and violence.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

66) In full blown AIDS, opportunistic infections are especially caused by :-

(1) Mycobacterium
(2) Toxoplasma
(3) Viruses and fungi
(4) All of the above

67) Tumour are caused due to-

(1) Loss of contact inhibition

(2) Uncontrolled proliferation of cells
(3) Failure of regulation of cell division
(4) All of the above

68) Statement-I : The first use of drugs or alcohol may be out of curiosity or experimentation.
Statement-II : Major cause for youth starting drugs or alcohol habits is to get rid of infection.

(1) Both statement I and II are true

(2) Both statement I and II are false
(3) Only statement I is true
(4) Only statement II is true

69) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement A: After getting into the body of the person, the HIV enters into macrophages where
DNA genome of the virus replicates to form viral RNA with the help of the enzyme reverse
transcriptase.
Statement B: A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay
(ELISA).

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

70) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ionising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays can cause DNA damage leading to
neoplastic transformation.
Statement II: The chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke are not a significant cause of lung
cancer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

71) The drug used for treatment of allergy is:

(1) Antibiotics
(2) Antihistamines
(3) Antivirals
(4) Interferons

72) Match column I and column II and choose correct option from followings :-

Column-I Column-II

Elastic fibre in I -
A H-Zone i
Band

Sarcoplasmic Light central area

B ii
Reticulum of A-band.

Part of meromyosin
C Z-line iii
protein.

Store house of Ca+2

D Cross Arm iv
ions
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

73) Identify the parts labelled A, B and C in given diagram :-

(1) A = Actin, B = Myosin, C= Troponin

(2) A = Troponin, B = Tropomyosin, C = F-actin
(3) A = Actin binding site, B = Troponin, C = Cross arm
(4) A = Actin binding site, B = ATP binding site, C = Cross arm

74) Identify the correct statement :-

(1) All voluntary muscle are non striated in nature

(2) All involuntary muscle are striated in nature
(3) All striated muscle are voluntary in nature
(4) All non striated muscle are involuntary in nature

75) Given diagram represents

(1) Smooth muscle

(2) Cardiac muscle
(3) Skeletal muscle
(4) Voluntary muscle

76) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(a) Each actin (thin) filament is made of two 'G' (globular) actins helically wound to each other
(b) Each G actin is a polymer of monomeric F (Filamentous) actins
(c) Another protein, troponin also run close to the 'F' actin throughout its length
(d) In the resting state a subunit of troponin masks the active binding sites for myosin on the actin
filaments
(e) Each meromyosin has two parts, a globular head with a short arm (HMM) and a tail (LMM)

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) c, d and e
(4) a, b and e

77) Which statement correct for muscle contraction :-

(1) H zone increase

(2) Length of A band remain constant
(3) Length of I band increase
(4) Length of two Z lines increase

78) Following are the events of muscular contraction, arrange them in correct order?
(A) Action potential generates in the sarcolemma
(B) Hydrolysis of ATP
(C) Myosin head pulls the attached actin filaments
(D) Release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm
(E) Shortenins of sarcomere

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) A → C → D → B → E
(3) A → D → B → C → E
(4) A → C → B → D → E

79) The muscle fatigue occurs due to accumulation of:

(1) Ca++
(2) CO2
(3) Lactic acid
(4) Creatine phosphate

80) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are example of :-

(1) Homologous organ

(2) Analogous organ
(3) Homoplastic organ
(4) Vestigial organ

81) 'Marsupial mole' and kangaroo are the examples of :-

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Both (1) & (3)

82) The first non-cellular form of life could have originated around :

(1) 4 billion years back

(2) 3 billion years back
(3) 2 billion years back
(4) 0.5 billion years back

83) The golden age of reptiles :

(1) Archaeozoic era

(2) Proterozoic era
(3) Coenozoic era
(4) Mesozoic era

84) During evolution sea weeds existed probably before how many years :-

(1) 320 million years

(2) 200 million years
(3) 100 million years
(4) 350 million years

85) The biggest dinosaur had about 20 feet height and huge, fearsome, dagger - like teeth. The name
of it is

(1) Ichthyosaurus
(2) Triceratops
(3) Tyrannosaurus
(4) Stegasaurus

86)

Which one is correct out of the following options ?

(1) The fossils of Triceratops was older than the fossils of Stegosaurus
(2) The fossils of Stegosaurus was older than the Triceratops
(3) The fossils of Pteranodon was older than the crocodilian
(4) The fossils of crocodilia was older than the fossils of Archaeopteryx.

87) When we are looking at star into a clear night sky, we are actually peeping into past,
Above sentence indicates that

(1) we can go into the past,

(2) Distance between earth and stars is very large
(3) In past earth was also a gaseous cloud
(4) In future earth will become star

88) Process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and
literally radiating to other areas of geography is called as :-

(1) Parallel evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Adaptive convergence
(4) Adaptive radiation

89) In the given figure which one of the following represent the correct example of convergent
evolution ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
90)

Read the following statements (A-D) and choose the correct option :-
(A) Big-Bang theory attempts to explain to us the origin of life.
(B) The earth was supposed to have been formed about 4.5 billion years back.
(C) Explosion in the dense entity was imaginable in physical terms.

(D) Life appeared 500 million year after the formation of earth
(1) A and C correct
(2) Only D correct
(3) A, B and D correct
(4) A and C incorrect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 3 4 4 1 2 1 3 2 2 2 4 2 3 3 2 4 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 1 3 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 4 1 2 3 3 1 1 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 3 2 4 1 4 3 3 4 1 4 3 4 2 3 4 4 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 2 3 2 3 2 1 4 1 4 4 4 4 4 1 3 4 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 2 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 3 4 2 3 4 3 2 3 1 1 2 2 3 2 4 1 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 3 4 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 4 1 1 2 3 4 2 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 1 4 2 2 4 1 3 3 1 2 4 1 4 3 2 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 1 3 4 4 3 4 4 2 3 4 4 2 1 2 3 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 4 1 3 2 2 4 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Ans :- (3)

2)

Ans :- (4)

3)

Ans :- (3)

4)

Ans :- (4)

5)

Ans :- (4)

6) Induced current in the circuit

Magnetic force acting on the wire

External force needed to move the rod with constant velocity

= 3.75 × 10–3 N

7)

Ans :- (2)

8)

Ans :- (1)

9)

Ans :- (3)
Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to find the time constant of an LR (inductor-resistor)
circuit when the energy stored in the inductor and the power dissipated in the resistor are
known. It requires expressing the time constant in terms of energy U and power P.

Underlying Concept: The problem is based on the concepts of energy stored in an inductor
and power dissipation in a resistor within an LR circuit. The time constant of an LR circuit
relates the inductance and resistance as . By linking energy stored and power dissipated
to these parameters, we can find the time constant.

Relevant Formulas: Energy stored in the inductor: Power dissipated in the resistor:

Time constant: where is inductance, is resistance, and is current.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Starting with , the cancels out, leaving .

Recognizing , we get . Multiplying both sides by 2 gives .

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the time constant of an LR circuit is . Using the ratio
of energy to power often helps relate these quantities without directly knowing or .

Common Mistakes: Mixing up stored energy formulas or forgetting to cancel can lead to
incorrect expressions. Also, confusing the power dissipated in the resistor with power stored
in the inductor is a common error.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that do not include the factor 2 in the
numerator don't account for the in the energy formula. For example, alone ignores this
factor and leads to incorrect time constant values.

10)

Ans :- (2)

11)

Ans :- (2)

12)

Ans :- (2)
13)

Ans :- (4)

14)

Ans :- (2)

15)

Ans :- (3)

16)

Ans :- (3)

17)

Ans :- (2)

18)

Ans :- (4)

19) e =

e= ⇒ e = –25 V

20)

Ans :- (3)

21)

Ans :- (1)

22)

Ans :- (1)

23)

Ans :- (1)

24)
Ans :- (3)

25)

Ans :- (2)

26)

Ans :- (1)

27)

Ans :- (2)

28) XL ∝ ω, XC ∝
For f > fr, XL > CC
∴ circuit → inductive

29) Concept :
Based on Hot Wire Instrument and Heating Effect of Current.
Formula :
• Joule's law of heating: H = I2Rt
• Both AC and DC produce the same heating effect When passing through the hot Wire,
allowing the instrument to measure both currents.
Explanation :
• Hot wire instruments measure current by the expansion of the wire due to heating.
• Since both AC and DC produce heating, they can measure both types of currents.
• Hence, both assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.
Final Answer: (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.

30) For 10 V D.C. ∵V = IR

∴ Resistance of coil R =

For 10 V A.C. ↚ V = I Z ⇒

∵ ⇒ ⇒ = 52 – 42 ⇒ XL= 3 Ω

31) Power केवल R पर consume होती है अतः P = i2R

32) Q =
33)

34) NCERT Reference: XII, Part I, Page No. 252

35) NCERT Reference: XII, Part I, Page No. 239

36) NCERT Reference: XII, Part I, Page No. 245

37)

<P> =

= 50 Watt
Heat developed = <P> × t = 50 × 80 = 400 J

Wattles current =

38) i = i1sinωt + i2sin(ωt + 90)

39)
Wattless currect = irms sinϕ

40) Since current is leading the source voltage, this shows that circuit is of capacitive nature.

However, current leads in phase by , therefore, box also consists of resistance in series with
the capacitance.

∴ tan =

⇒ XC = = R ...........

Imax =
 41)

Ans :- (1)

42)

Ans :- (2)

43)

Ans :- (3)

44)

Ans :- (2)

45)

Ans :- (1)

CHEMISTRY

46) Both (1) and (2)

47)

CH3–CHO

Fehling
1. +ve –ve
Solution
Grignard
2. +ve +ve
reagent
3. Schiff reagent +ve –ve
Tollen’s
4. +ve –ve
reagent

48)
49)

Ans : (2)

50)

Ans : (4)

51)

Ans : (1)

52)

Ans : (4)

53) Ans : (3)

54)

55) Aldehydes and ketone reacts with CH3NH2 to give oxime.

56)

Ans : (1)

57)

Ans : (4)

58) y is which gives 2,4-D.N.P.test.

59)

60) Reactivity towards Alkaline Hydrolysis µ Electrophilicity of Carbonyl group ∝ –M ∝ –I

61)

Ans : (3)

62) CH3COOH + PCl5 →

63)

Ans : (4)

64)

Ans : (3)

65) a → B2H6/H3O⊕
b → NH3/Δ
c → Cl2/Red P, H2O
d → P2O5, Δ

66)

Ans : (4)

67)

Ans : (1)

68)

Ans : (2)

69)

Ans : (3)

70)

Ans : (2)

71) Ans : (3)

Amide

72) Benzaldehyde reacts with excess of MeOH in presence of dry HCl gas to form the
corresponding dimethylacetal.
73) Aniline does not show FCR but gives positive carbyl amine test.
Ph–NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH Ph–NC + 3KCl + 3H2O

74)

75)

Ans : (1)

76)

77)

Ans : (4)

78)

Ans : (4)

79)

Ans : (4)
80)

Ans : (4)

81)

Ans : (1)

82) Ans : (3)

only primary amine given carbylamine test.

83)

Ans : (4)

84)

85)

Ans : (3)

86) Sucrose is made up of C1 of -D-glucose and C2 of -D-fructose.

87)

Ans : (1)

88)

Ans : (2)

89)

Ans : (1)

90) Ans : (4)

Lactose : It is a disaccharide of β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose with C1 of galactose and C4 of
 glucose link.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XII Pg. No. # 96,97 Para- 6.1.1

92)

Ncert Pg No: 83

93) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 84, 87 & 88

94) NCERT Pg. # 85,86

95) NCERT Page No. 90, 91

96)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 81

97) NCERT Pg.# 106

98) XII-NCERT Pg. 97

99) NCERT_99_2021-22

100) NCERT Pg. # 81

101) NCERT Pg. # 80

102) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 95,96,97

103) Ncert Pg No. 103, 97

104) NCERT-XII Pg. No.-97

105) NCERT, Pg. # 80

106) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87

107)

NCERT Pg no. 83

108) NCERT Pg#90

109)

Ncert Pg No: 101

110) Ncert Page 104.

111) NCERT Pg. # 90

112)

NCERT Pg. # 83(E)/92(H)

113) XII NCERT Pg # 97, 101

114) NCERT _ Pg. No. 80,81

115) NCERT XII Pg#83,87 (E), 92,97 (H)

116) Nucleosome is a structural unit of a eukaryotic chromosome which consists of a length of

DNA coiled around a core of histones and are thought to be present only during interphase of
cell cycle. In the given figure of nucleosome structure, the parts marked as A, B and C are
respectively DNA, H1 histones and histone octamer.

117) NCERT XI, Pg.No.# 107

118) NCERT Pg. # 81(E)/90(H)

119) The assertion is true as E. coli can replicate its 4.6 × 10^6 base pairs of DNA within 18
minutes, which implies a high rate of polymerisation. The reason is also true and explains the
assertion correctly, as the rate of polymerisation must be approximately 2000 base pairs per
second to complete the replication process in the given time frame. Hence, both A and R are
true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

120) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 107 (Fig. 6.8)

121) NCERT, Pg. # 89

122) Ncert Page 136.

123) NCERT Page - 210,211

124) NCERT Page No. - 211

125) Soln/Explanation :- Cyclic photophosphorylation involves only PS-I, so flow of electrons

occurs only in cyclic manner. Thus correct answer is option -2

126) NCERT Page No. - 211

127)

NCERT Pg. No. 139

128) NCERT Page no. 218-219.

129) NCERT Page no. 223

130) NCERT XI, Page # 141

131) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 147,148

132)

Ncert Page 214 (Ncert 2022).

133) Module P. No. 139

134) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 212

135) NCERT Page No. 209, 13.3

136) [NCERT Pg : 101]

137) Allen module page no. 148

138)

NCERT Pg # 102
 139)

The correct answer is 1. Elastic cartilage.

• Elastic cartilage is flexible and resilient, making it ideal for structures that need to bend
and recover their shape, like the tip of the nose, the external ear, and the epiglottis.

140)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

141)

Old NCERT XI Page # 101

142)

Pg. No. 143 XII-NCERT

143)

Explain Question : Identify drugs based on their effects: interference with dopamine, causing
hallucinations, or acting as analgesics.

Concept : Drugs and their Effects

Solution : The correct answer is option 2.

A → Interfere with dopamine: Cocaine (stimulant that increases dopamine)

B → Hallucination: LSD (hallucinogen)

C → Analgesic: Morphine (pain-reliever)

So the correct matching is:

A → Cocaine, B → LSD, C → Morphine

Final answer : 2

144) Solution:
(B) Smoking is associated with increased incidence of cancer of lungs and throat: This is
correct. Smoking is a major risk factor for cancers, especially lung and throat cancer, due to
the carcinogenic substances found in tobacco smoke.

A. (C) Smoking increases carbon monoxide content in blood and decreases the concentration of
hemoglobin-bound oxygen: This is also correct. Carbon monoxide in tobacco smoke binds to
hemoglobin more readily than oxygen, reducing the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood, which
can lead to decreased oxygen levels in tissues.

Regarding the other options:

A. (A) Nicotine inhibits secretion of adrenal medulla: This is incorrect. Nicotine actually
stimulates the adrenal medulla to release adrenaline (epinephrine).
B. (D) Smoking decreases blood pressure: This is incorrect. Smoking usually causes an increase
in blood pressure, as nicotine stimulates the release of adrenaline, which can lead to
vasoconstriction and elevated blood pressure.

145) NCERT Page#111 (ENGLISH)

146) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 143

147)

NCERT Pg. 135

148) NCERT Pg. # 141(E),155(H)

149) Explanation:
The assertion is correct because crack cocaine is a potent CNS stimulant, which leads to
euphoria and increased energy.

The reason is also true because crack interferes with dopamine transport, which enhances
dopamine levels in the brain, leading to the euphoric effects. This mechanism explains the
assertion.

The correct answer is 1. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason
is a correct explanation of the assertion.

150) The assertion is true as organ transplants do indeed require tissue and blood group
matching to prevent the recipient's immune system from rejecting the graft. The reason is also
true and is the correct explanation for the assertion. The cell-mediated immune response,
which is mediated by T-lymphocytes, plays a crucial role in graft rejection by distinguishing
between 'self' and 'nonself'. If the transplanted tissue is recognized as 'nonself', the immune
system will attack it, leading to rejection. Therefore, both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A.

151)

NCERT Page no. 157

152)

NCERT Pg. # 154

153)

NCERT Pg. 139

 154) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 160, Para-8.5.1

155) NCERT-Pg. # 161

156) Module

157) NCERT Pg # 141

158) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 144

159) NCERT, Pg. # 140

160) Statement I: Correct. Ionising radiations such as X-rays and gamma rays can indeed
cause DNA damage, which can lead to the transformation of normal cells into cancerous
neoplastic cells.
Statement II: Incorrect. The chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke have been
identified as a major cause of lung cancer, making this statement false.

161) Antihistamines counteract histamines released during allergic reactions.

162)

Explanation :
The question asking about match Column I and Column II and choose the correct option.

Concept :
The question based on Structural organisation of muscle fibre.

Solution :

A. A. H-Zone — ii. Light central area of A-band

B. B. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum — iv. Store house of Ca²⁺ ions

C. C. Z-line — i. Elastic fibre in I-band

D. D. Cross Arm — iii. Part of meromyosin protein

Final Answer : (3)

163)

Structure of contractile protein (Myosin monomer) Fig. (20.3)(b)

164) NCERT Pg. No. 218, 219

165) NCERT XI (E)Pg.# 105, fig. 7.7(c)

NCERT XI (H)Pg.# 105, fig. 7.7(c)

166)

Let's analyze each statement:

(a) Each actin (thin) filament is made of two 'G' (globular) actin helically wound to each other:
This is incorrect. It's two strands of F-actin (which are made of G-actin) plus troponin and
tropomyosin.
(b) Each G actin is a polymer of monomeric F (Filamentous) actins: Definitely incorrect. G-
actin is the monomer, F-actin is the polymer.
(c) Another protein, troponin also run close to the 'F' actin throughout its length: Technically
incorrect. Troponin is periodically bound, not running continuously.
(d) In the resting state a subunit of troponin masks the active binding sites for myosin on the
actin filaments: Correct.
(e) Each meromyosin has two parts, a globular head with a short arm (HMM) and a tail
(LMM): Correct.
So the correct answer is option 1.

167)

Question Explanation:
Identify the correct statement regarding muscle contraction.
Solution Explanation:
The actin filaments slide past the myosin filaments.
The sarcomere shortens.
The I band (containing only actin) shortens.
The H-zone (containing only myosin shortens or disappears.
The A band (containing myosin and overlapping actin) remains the same length.
The distance between two Z-lines decreases.
Final Answer:
Option (2) Length of A band remain constant

168) NCERT-XI, Page No. 307

169)

The muscle fatigue occurs due to accumulation of lactic acid.

170)

NCERT XII, Page # 115

171) Explaining the Question:

Marsupial mole and kangaroo are the examples of-
Concept:
Evolution

Solution:
Marsupial mole and kangaroo are examples of adaptive radiation and divergent evolution.

Adaptive Radiation : The process to evolution of different species in a given sea graphical
area starting from a point and literally recharting to other areas of habitat.

Convergent Evolution : When same structure developed along different directions due to
Adaptation to different needs.

Final Answer:
Option (4)

172)

NCERT(XII) Pg# 128 Para: 7.1

173) Mesozoic era = golden age of reptiles .

174)

Module 7

175) Explaining the Question:

Type of dinosaur

Concept:
Brief account of evolution

Solution:
The Biggest Dinosaur had about 20 feet height and huge, fearsome, dagger like teeth. The
name of it is Tyrannosaurus.

Final Answer:
Option (3) Tyrannosaurus

176)

NCERT (XII) Page no. 114

177) The correct answer is 2. Distance between earth and stars is very large.
"Peeking into the past" : When we look at a star, we are seeing the light it emitted in the
past. This is because it takes time for the light to travel the vast distance between the star and
Earth.
178) Explaining the Question:
Definition of Adaptive radiation.

Concept:
Evidences of evolution

Solution:
Process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and
literally radiating to other areas of geography is called as Adoptive Radiation.

Final Answer:
Option (4) Adaptive radiation

179) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 118

180) NCERT XII, Pg # 127(E), 137(H)