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PG - TRB: ENGLISH

SUBJECT: UNIT - IX
TOPIC(S): FULL TEST
TIME: 1 Hr NO.OF.QUESTIONS: 100

1. The Indo-European language family originated in which region, according to most linguists?
A) Central Asia B) Anatolia
C) The Pontic-Caspian Steppe D) Mesopotamia
2. Sanskrit belongs to which branch of the Indo-European family?
A) Celtic B) Germanic C) Indo-Iranian D) Slavic
3. The Romance languages (like Spanish, French, and Italian) evolved from which language?
A) Greek B) Latin C) Old English D) Sanskrit
4. Which branch of Indo-European does the extinct language Hittite belong to?
A) Celtic B) Anatolian C) Slavic D) Baltic
5. What is the common feature of all Indo-European languages?
A) Written in Latin script
B) Use of root-based morphology
C) Origin in the Indian subcontinent
D) Derived from Old English
6. Which of the following languages is part of the Baltic group of the Indo-European family?
A) Finnish B) Estonian C) Lithuanian D) Hungarian
7. Which language is the oldest literary language in the Indo European family?
A) Greek B) Latin C) Sanskrit D) Persian
8. Which language is spoken mainly in Greece and Cyprus in the modern period?
A) Greek B) Armenian C) Latin D) Albanian

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9. Which group of languages are divided into East Germanic, North Germanic, and West
Germanic, with English belonging to the West Germanic group?
A) Celtic B) Germanic C) Italic D) Iranian
10. What does ESL stand for?
A) English Study Language
B) English as a Second Language
C) English as a School Language
D) English for Specific Learning
11. English is considered a lingua franca because:
A) It is the easiest language to learn
B) It is the native language of all countries
C) It is widely used as a common means of communication among speakers of different first
languages
D) It has no grammar rules
12. English is widely used in scientific writing because:
A) It has simpler grammar
B) It is spoken by all scientists
C) It is a neutral and widely accepted academic medium
D) It avoids technical vocabulary
13. Old English is also known as:
A) Middle English B) Anglo-Saxon
C) Norman English D) Celtic English
14. Old English was mainly influenced by:
A) Latin and Norse B) French and Greek
C) Celtic and Spanish D) Italian and German
15. Old English belongs to which language family?
A) Romance B) Semitic C) Indo-Aryan D) Germanic
16. Which of the following poets is known from Old English literature?
A) John Milton B) William Langland
C) Caedmon D) Thomas More
17. Which of the following is an Old English word for "king"?
A) Cyning B) Ríce C) Hlaford D) Thegn

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18. Old English nouns are declined based on:
A) Number, gender, and mood
B) Number, gender, and case
C) Person, tense, and aspect
D) Voice, number, and degree
19. In Middle English, the word “yclept” means:
A) Forgotten B) Cursed C) Named or called D) Married
20. The word "queynte" in Chaucer's time meant:
A) Strange or clever B) Beautiful C) Violent D) Silent
21. Which of the following is a feature of Middle English?
A) Strong inflections like Old English
B) Complete use of modern syntax
C) Decline of grammatical gender and inflections
D) No use of French vocabulary
22. Which language had the greatest influence on Middle English vocabulary?
A) Celtic B) Latin C) Norse D) Norman French
23. What is the name of the Middle English poem featuring allegorical visions and social critique,
attributed to William Langland?
A) Sir Gawain and the Green Knight B) Le Morte d’Arthur
C) Piers Plowman D) Pearl
24. Which of these is a major dialect of Middle English?
A) Southern B) Eastern C) Highland D) Northumbrian
25. What does the term "churl" in Middle English usually mean?
A) A priest B) A noble C) A commoner or peasant D) A knight
26. He Gawain poet is also thought to have written which of the following?
A) Piers Plowman B) The Owl and the Nightingale
C) Pearl D) The Vision of Tundale
27. What was the effect of the Norman Conquest on the English language?
A) English became extinct
B) English borrowed many words from French
C) English adopted the Cyrillic alphabet
D) English completely replaced Latin
28. What genre does The Book of Margery Kempe belong to?
A) Religious vision literature B) Travel narrative
C) Autobiography D) Courtly romance

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29. What was a “manuscript” in the Middle English period?
A) A printed book B) A handwritten document
C) A magical charm D) A law code
30. In Middle English poetry, what is a "bob and wheel"?
A) A type of song
B) A narrative structure
C) A metrical device with a short line followed by a rhyming quatrain
D) A moral allegory
31. Which playwright's works had a major influence on Early Modern English vocabulary and
style?
A) John Milton B) Geoffrey Chaucer
C) William Shakespeare D) Christopher Marlowe
32. The Great Vowel Shift was a major phonological change during the transition from:
A) Old English to Middle English
B) Latin to English
C) Middle English to Modern English
D) Early Modern English to Present-day English
33. Which of the following words is a loanword that entered English during the Early Modern
period, especially from Latin or Greek?
A) Knight B) Robot C) Democracy D) Bread
34. The King James Bible (1611) is an important example of:
A) Middle English prose B) Old English verse
C) Early Modern English prose D) American English
35. “Banjo” is derived from:
A) African B) Spanish C) Portuguese D) Native American
36. “Yoga” comes from:
A) Tamil B) Sanskrit C) Hindi D) Urdu
37. The word “alphabet” is borrowed from:
A) Latin B) Greek C) Egyptian D) Arabic
38. The word “lust” used to mean:
A) A strong desire B) Immoral behavior
C) Laziness D) Hatred
39. The term “broadcast” originally referred to:
A) Radio transmission B) Telecommunication
C) Scattering seeds D) Publishing newspapers

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40. Which word shows both semantic shift and technological influence?
A) Virus B) Meat C) Knight D) Silly
41. Biblical allusions in English literature often reference which of the following?
A) Greek mythology B) Christian narratives
C) Norse legends D) Hindu epics
42. The phrase “For the love of money is a root of all kinds of evil”—from the King James Bible—
influenced:
A) Charles Dickens B) William Wordsworth
C) Jane Austen D) Thomas Hardy
43. Shakespeare coined which phrase still used today?
A) “Cold comfort” B) “Big cheese”
C) “Living the dream” D) “Think outside the box”
44. Allusion to Shakespeare’s Macbeth often evokes:
A) Innocent love B) Dark ambition and guilt
C) Religious devotion D) Comic relief
45. Milton’s portrayal of Satan has sparked discussion on:
A) Comedy B) Ambiguous heroism
C) Scientific progress D) Economic theory
46. Milton’s use of blank verse influenced writers like:
A) Geoffrey Chaucer B) Percy Bysshe Shelley
C) Rudyard Kipling D) Beowulf poet
47. Johnson’s Dictionary (1755) was influential because it:
A) Invented new words B) Standardized definitions and usage
C) Ignored pronunciation D) Focused on slang
48. Johnson’s Rambler and Idler essays influenced the development of:
A) The novel’s flight B) Modern periodical essays
C) Gothic horror D) Haiku in English
49. “Wisdom is justified of her children” originates from:
A) King James Bible B) Shakespeare
C) Milton D) Johnson
50. Which Shakespeare quote expresses inner turmoil and doubt?
A) “All the world’s a stage…” B) “To be, or not to be…”
C) “Friends, Romans, countrymen…” D) “A dish fit for the gods.”

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51. Modern English vocabulary is primarily derived from:
A) Latin B) Old Norse
C) French and Germanic sources D) Slavic languages
52. The word “ballet” in Modern English is borrowed from:
A) Spanish B) French C) Greek D) Italian
53. The vocabulary of Modern English is known for:
A) Monolingual purity B) Simplicity
C) Rich borrowing from many languages D) Limited word formation
54. The Great Vowel Shift occurred during:
A) Old English B) Middle English
C) Modern English D) Anglo-Saxon period
55. Modern English dictionaries began to appear in:
A) Old English period B) Middle English period
C) 17th-18th centuries D) After 1950
56. How many vowel sounds are there in Received Pronunciation (RP)?
A) 5 B) 12 C) 20 D) 24
57. Which of the following is a voiced consonant?
A) /s/ B) /f/ C) /b/ D) /t/
58. Which of these is a diphthong?
A) /iː/ B) /æ/ C) /aɪ/ D) /ʌ/
59. The study of the physical properties of speech sounds is called:
A) Phonology B) Syntax C) Phonetics D) Morphology
60. Phonology deals with:
A) Meaning of words B) Physical production of speech
C) Patterns and rules of sounds D) Writing systems
61. Which organ is primarily responsible for voice production?
A) Tongue B) Lungs C) Larynx D) Lips
62. Which of the following is not a place of articulation?
A) Bilabial B) Alveolar C) Glottal D) Modal
63. What is the manner of articulation for /m/?
A) Fricative B) Plosive C) Nasal D) Lateral

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64. The phonetic symbol /ʃ/ represents the sound in:
A) Measure B) Ship C) Sip D) Cheap
65. Which symbol represents a short vowel?
A) /ɑː/ B) /iː/ C) /ʌ/ D) /uː/
66. Elision means:
A) Inserting a sound B) Omitting a sound
C) Changing a sound D) Emphasizing a sound
67. What is an allophone?
A) A phoneme that changes meaning B) A variation of a phoneme
C) A grammatical unit D) A kind of morpheme
68. Which of these is a high front unrounded vowel?
A) /iː/ B) /uː/ C) /ɑː/ D) /e/
69. Which vowel is unrounded and central?
A) /iː/ B) /uː/ C) /ə/ D) /ɔː/
70. Which of the following is the smallest meaningful unit in a language?
A) Word B) Phoneme C) Morpheme D) Syllable
71. What kind of morpheme is “-ed” in the word “walked”?
A) Free morpheme B) Derivational morpheme
C) Inflectional morpheme D) Lexical morpheme
72. What is the main difference between derivational and inflectional morphemes?
A) Inflectional changes the word class
B) Derivational adds grammatical information
C) Derivational changes the meaning or category of a word
D) Inflectional creates new words
73. Which language type uses mostly affixes to express grammatical relationships?
A) Isolating B) Agglutinative C) Fusional D) Analytic
74. The word 'email' is formed by:
A) Derivation B) Clipping C) Blending D) Compounding
75. Which process created the word blog?
A) Blending B) Clipping C) Back-formation D) Acronym
76. What does semantics study in linguistics?
A) Word pronunciation B) Sentence structure
C) Meaning of words and sentences D) Sound patterns

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77. If two words are pronounced the same but have different meanings and spellings (e.g., "bare"
and "bear"), they are:
A) Homonyms B) Homophones C) Homographs D) Synonyms
78. What is the term for the study of meaning in context?
A) Syntax B) Morphology C) Pragmatics D) Semantics
79. When someone says “I speak in my own way,” they are referring to their:
A) Dialect B) Idiolect C) Jargon D) Sociolect
80. A dialect can differ from the standard language in:
A) Vocabulary B) Pronunciation
C) Grammar D) All of the above
81. Which of the following fields is most concerned with how people learn a second language?
A) Sociolinguistics B) Second Language Acquisition (SLA)
C) Morphology D) Phonetics
82. One major goal of applied linguistics is to:
A) Discover universal grammar
B) Improve communication in real-life settings
C) Preserve ancient languages only
D) Classify world languages
83. The Post-Method Approach in ELT suggests:
A) A fixed set of rules and techniques
B) Rejection of all previous methods
C) Flexibility, teacher autonomy, and context-sensitive teaching
D) Return to grammar-translation
84. The Silent Way, developed by Caleb Gattegno, encourages:
A) Teacher-centered instruction
B) Translation into the native language
C) Learner autonomy and minimal teacher talk
D) Memorizing grammar charts
85. Who is associated with the concept of "interlanguage" in second language acquisition?
A) Stephen Krashen B) Noam Chomsky
C) Larry Selinker D) H. Douglas Brown
86. Which method is based on behaviorist psychology and emphasizes habit formation through
repetition and drills?
A) Audio-Lingual Method B) Natural Approach
C) Grammar-Translation Method D) Task-Based Learning

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87. Transfer in SLA refers to:
A) Changing schools
B) Applying rules from the first language to the second language
C) Memorizing new vocabulary
D) Moving from grammar to conversation
88. According to Noam Chomsky, humans have an innate ability to learn languages called:
A) Social Learning Theory B) Audio-Motor Unit
C) Language Acquisition Device (LAD) D) Monitor Model
89. Which of the following is a common instrument to measure second language proficiency?
A) TOEFL B) IELTS C) CEFR D) All of the above
90. Which approach views SLA as occurring through social interaction within a cultural context?
A) Structuralism B) Behaviorism
C) Sociocultural theory D) Functional grammar
91. In needs analysis, what do syllabus designers aim to discover?
A) The teacher’s experience
B) The students’ grammar level only
C) The learners’ goals, preferences, and language requirements
D) The textbook price
92. Spiral syllabus design involves:
A) Completing a topic once and moving on
B) Returning to topics with increasing complexity
C) Teaching only what the teacher knows
D) Using only a textbook
93. Digital materials include:
A) Only PDFs B) Printed workbooks
C) Apps, websites, videos, and e-books D) Posters
94. The term “graded material” refers to:
A) Content sorted by test results
B) Materials arranged by difficulty or level
C) Only grammar-based worksheets
D) Teacher performance feedback
95. In ELT, the term “materials” refers to:
A) Only textbooks B) Any tool used to support language learning
C) Audio files only D) Paper-based worksheets only

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96. What is the main purpose of language testing?
A) To entertain learners B) To measure language proficiency or performance
C) To teach grammar rules D) To write essays
97. A test that requires learners to produce language, like writing an essay, is:
A) Objective B) Subjective C) Discrete-point D) Diagnostic
98. Which of the following tests measures a learner’s general ability in the target language,
regardless of the course content?
A) Achievement test B) Placement test
C) Proficiency test D) Diagnostic test
99. A portfolio assessment is:
A) A timed grammar test
B) A type of diagnostic test
C) A collection of students’ work over time to show progress
D) A computer-generated quiz
100. A morpheme is the smallest unit of:
A) Sound B) Meaning C) Grammar D) Syntax

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Answer key:

SUBJECT: UNIT - IX
TOPIC(S): FULL TEST

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C C B B B C C A B B C A B A D C A B C A

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A D C A C C B C D C C C C C A B B A C A

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

B A A B B B B B A B C B C B C C C C C C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

C D C B C B B A C C C C B D A C B C B D

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

B B C C C A B C D C C B C B B B B C C B

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