11-04-2025

9610EMD12NAEN2600201 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle of mass 100 g is projected at time t = 0 with a speed ms–1 at an angle 45° to the
horizontal as given in the figure. The magnitude of the angular momentum of the particle about the
starting point at time t = 2s is (Take g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 800 kg m2/s

(2) 1600 kg m2/s
(3) 40 kg m2/s
(4) 80 kg m2/s

2) Train A is moving along two parallel rail tracks towards north with speed 72 km/h and train B is
moving towards south with speed 108 km/h. Velocity of train B with respect to A and velocity of
ground with respect to B are respectively (in m/s) :

(1) 30 m/s south, 50 m/s north

(2) 50 m/s south, 30 m/s south
(3) 50 m/s south, 30 m/s north
(4) 50 m/s north, 50 m/s south

3) A circular current carrying loop of radius R is bent about its diameter by 90° and placed in a

magnetic field
Which of the following statement is correct?

(1)
Magnetic moment of the loop is
(2) Torque acting on the loop is zero
(3) Angular acceleration of the loop is non-zero
(4) Both (1) and (2)

4) The effective resistance between A and B will be

(1) 2R

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A diatomic gas follows , for the given process molar heat capacity of gas will be -

(1)

(2) 2R
(3) 4R

(4)

6) A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of density ρ1. It is falling through a liquid
of density ρ2 (ρ2 < 1). Assume that the liquid applies a viscous force on the ball that is proportional to
the square of its speed v, i.e., Fviscous = –Kv2(K > 0). The terminal speed of ball is :

(1) Vg(ρ1 – ρ2)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) From the top of tower 40m high, a projectile is thrown up with a velocity of m/s, at an angle
45° with the horizontal. Then match the following quantities in there respective S.I. unit is

(A) Time of flight (P) 45

(B) Horizontal range (Q) 40

(C) Maximum height (R) 4

(D) Time when the velocity of projectile is minimum (S) 1

(T) 2
(1) A-T, B-Q, C-P, D-S
(2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-T
(3) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
(4) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S

8) In a vernier calliper, if 50 vernier scale divisions equal to 49 main scale divisions and zero error in
the instrument is 0.04 mm then how many main scale divisions are there in 1 cm ?

(1) 40
(2) 5
(3) 20
(4) 10

9) Light is incident on a glass slab as shown in figure. If θ1 is increased slightly, what happens to θ2 ?

(1) θ2 also increases slightly

(2) θ2 is unchanged
(3) θ2 decreases slightly
(4) θ2 changes abruptly, since the ray experiences total internal reflection

10) In a particular system the units of length mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1 s
respectively. The unit of force in this system will be equal to

(1) 0.1 N
(2) 1 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 100 N

11) 8 small droplets coalesce to form a big drop of radius 1 cm. If surface tension of liquid is 0.07
N/m then final change in surface energy. (approx)

(1) 88 × 10–2 J
(2) 88 × 10–4 J
(3) 88 × 10–6 J
(4) 88 × 10–8 J

12) A thin conducting wire (PQR) in the form of circular arc with its plane vertical is moving in a
horizontal magnetic field B as shown in the figure. The potential difference developed across the
wire when its speed is v, is
(1) BvR
(2) BvR

(3)

(4)

13) A 10 kg block is on an inclined plane of angle 30° with a coefficient of friction µ = 0.3. What is
the force required to move the block up the incline with an acceleration of 2m/s2 ?

(1) 90 N
(2) 97 N
(3) 85 N
(4) 94.46 N

14) Find flux passing out from cube of side L where linear charge densities of line charges kept in
cube are 2λ and –3λ/2 as shown in the figure.

(1)

(2) 0

(3)

(4)

15) An object moves at a constant speed along a circular path in a horizontal plane with centre at
the origin. When the object is at x = +2m, its velocity is m/s. The objects acceleration (a) at x =
–2m will be.

(1) m/s2
(2) m/s2
(3) m/s2
(4) m/s2

16) A small block of mass 2kg slides down a smooth quarter circular track of radius 2m released
from top. It further moves on rough horizontal surface compresses the spring by 2m before coming
to rest. Find the value of coefficient of friction if spring constant is 10N/m.
(1) 0.5
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.2

17) Statement-I : Rotation of the earth shows effect on the value of acceleration due to gravity (g).
Statement-II : The effect of rotation of the earth on the value of ‘g’ at the equator is minimum and
that at the pole is maximum.

(1) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true

(2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(3) Both statements are true
(4) Both statements are false

18) The velocity of light in a medium is half its velocity in air. If a ray of light emerges from such a
medium into air, the angle of incidence, at which it will be totally internally reflected, is

(1) 15°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

19) Temperature of source and sink for heat engine is 327°C and 127°C respectively. Efficiency of
heat engine is

(1) 25%
(2) 33.33%
(3) 50%
(4) 66.66%

20) When a single nuclei of 92U235 is fissioned, then 200 MeV energy is released. Number of fissions
that must occur per second to produce a power of 1 MW are

(1) 1.5 × 1010

(2) 3.1 × 108
(3) 1.5 × 1014
(4) 3.1 × 1016

21) In the circuit shown in figure neglecting source resistance the voltmeter and ammeter reading
will respectively, will be
(1) 0V, 3A
(2) 150V, 3A
(3) 150V, 6A
(4) 0V, 8A

22) In the experimental set up of meter bridge shown in the figure, the null point is obtained at a
distance of 40 cm from A. If a 10Ω resistor is connected in series with R1, the null point shifts by 10
cm. The resistance that should be connected in parallel with (R1 + 10)Ω such that the null point
shifts back to its initial position is

(1) 40 Ω
(2) 60 Ω
(3) 20 Ω
(4) 30 Ω

23) Anita strikes a billiard ball (200 g) at 2 m/s, and it hits another identical ball at rest elastically.
After the collision, Anita’s ball moves at 1 m/s at an angle of 60°. What is the velocity of the second
ball?

(1) 1.5 m/s

(2)
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) 0.5 m/s

24) Ohm’s law is valid if

(1) V is directly proportional to I3

(2) The relation between V and I depends on the sign of V for the same absolute value of V
(3) The relation between V and I is non-unique
(4) V depends on I linearly

25) A tuning fork resonated with a sonometer wire of length 1 m stretched with a tension of 6N.
When the tension in the wire is changed to 54 N, the same tuning fork produces 12 beats per second
with it. The frequency of the tuning fork is _________ Hz.
(1) 18 Hz
(2) 2 Hz
(3) 9 Hz
(4) 6 Hz

26) The speed of boat in still water is 10 km/hr. If the boat crosses a 2 km wide river in 15 min along
the shortest possible path, the speed of flow of water in the river is

(1) 3 km/hr
(2) 4 km/hr
(3) 6 km/hr
(4) 5 km/hr

27) Consider the following statements.

(A) Paramagnetic substances when placed in a magnetising field, acquire a feeble magnetisation in
the same sense as the applied field.
(B) Relative permeability µr for diamagnetic substances is slightly greater than 1.
Which of the following option is correct?

(1) Statement 'A' is correct while statement 'B' is incorrect

(2) Statement 'B' is correct while statement 'A' is incorrect
(3) Both statements 'A' and 'B' are correct
(4) Both statements 'A' and 'B' are incorrect

28) In the circuit shown in figure the maximum output voltage V is

(1) 0V
(2) 5V
(3) 10V

(4)
V

29) In the circuit shown, charge on the 2 μF capacitor is:

(1) 15 μC
(2) 9 μC
(3) 6 μC
(4) 30 μC

30) In photoelectric experiment, the saturation current depends on

(1) Frequency of photon

(2) Stopping potential
(3) Intensity of photon
(4) All of these

31) Match List I with List II

Chose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

32) In figure a system of four capacitors connected across a 10 V battery is shown. Charge that will
flow from switch S when it is closed is:

(1) 5 μC from b to a
(2) 20 μC from a to b
(3) zero
(4) 5 μC from a to b

33) Equations y1 = 2A cos2 ωt & y2 = A(sin ωt + cosωt) represent the motion of two particle :

(1) only one of these is S.H.M.

(2) ratio of maximum speeds is 2 : 1
(3) ratio of maximum speeds is 1 : 1
(4) ratio of maximum accelerations is 1 : 4

34) A long solenoid of length 1 m and having 1000 turn carries a current of 5A. The magnetic field
near one end of the solenoid is

(1) 6.28 × 10–3 T

(2) 3.14 × 10–3 T
(3) 62.8 × 10–3 T
(4) 31.4 × 10–3 T

35) A coil of resistance 300 Ω is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux ϕ (in Wb) linked with
the coil varies with time t (in s) as ϕ = 40t3 + 15t2 + 30t – 20. Value of induced current in the coil at t
= 3 s is

(1) 4 A
(2) 5 A
(3) 2 A
(4) 1 A

36) The potential energy of electric dipole (shown in figure) in uniform electric field is (assume
electric potential equal to zero at infinity)

(1)

(2) Zero
(3) depends on the value of electric field
(4) 2qEa

37) The escape velocity of a body projected from the surface of earth is ve. If the body is projected at
an angle q to the horizontal surface of earth, then the escape velocity would be

(1) ve
(2) ve cosθ
(3)

(4)

38) A hollow sphere is rolling without slipping on a horizontal plane. The ratio of the translational
kinetic energy to the rotational kinetic energy is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The spring is stretched by 2cm from natural length to increase its potential energy to 25J. How
much more it must be stretched to further increase its potential energy by 75J.

(1) 4 cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 2 cm
(4) 8 cm

40) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(A) AC generator (I) Presence of both L and C
(B) Transformer (II) Electromagnetic induction
(C) Resonance phenomenon to occur (III) Quality factor
(D) Sharpness of resonance (IV) Mutual Induction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

41) An electron in an atom makes transition from the energy state –E to –2.5E. The wavelength of
the emitted photon is (Symbols have their usual meanings)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

42) A lens forms a diminished and erect image of an object. The magnification . Find ratio of
distances between object and focus and focus and image :

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

43) Current 'I' in the circuit will be.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A 1 kg block is compressed with spring of spring constant k = 100 N/m by 20 cm as shown. Now
a block of mass 3 kg moving with speed 2m/sec collides with 1 kg at mean position of oscillating
block & sticks to this oscillating 1 kg bock, then new amplitude of combined mass will be :

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 5 cm

45) In YDSE, when a glass plate of refractive index 1.5 and thickness t is placed in the path of one of
the interfering beams (wavelength l), intensity at the position where central maximum occurred
previously remains unchanged. The minimum thickness of the glass plate is

(1) 2λ
(2) (2/3)λ
(3) λ/3
(4) λ

CHEMISTRY

1) An alkaloid contains 17.28% of nitrogen and its molecular mass is 162. The number of nitrogen
atoms present in one molecule of the alkaloid is -

(1) five
(2) four
(3) three
(4) two

2) Calculate mass of the final solution obtained on heating a solution comprising of 0.5 moles of urea
in 2000 g of H2O to a temperature of 101°C if

(1) 250g
(2) 280g
(3) 1030g
(4) 530g

3) If the molar conductance values of Ca2+ and Cl– at infinite dilution are respectively 118.88 ×10–4
m2 mho mol–1 and 77.33×10–4 m2 mho mol–1 then that of CaCl2 is :
(in m2 mho mol–1)

(1) 118.88 × 10–4

(2) 154.66 × 10–4
(3) 273.54 × 10–4
(4) 196.21 × 10–4

4) Which of the following compound will not give Iodoform Test :-

(1) CH3—CH2—OH

(2)

(3)

(4)
5) Which of the following compounds is highly reactive towards decarboxylation:

(1) CH3–CH2–COOH
(2) CH3–CO–CH2–COOH

(3)

(4)

6)
Identify A & B respectively

(1) CH3–CH3 and CH2=CH2

(2) CH2=CH2 and CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3 and CH3–CH3
(4) CH3–CH3 and CH3–CH2–CH3

7) Incorrect order of atomic radii for the following

(1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

(2) C < Si < Ge < Sn < Pb
(3) O < S < Se < Te
(4) F < Cl < Br < I

8) Assertion (A) : CO2 is a gaseous molecule while SiO2 is a three dimensional-network solid.
Reason (R) : CO2 molecules are held by strong Van der Waal’s forces while SiO2 is an ionic solid.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

9) Statement-I : Interstitial compounds are usually non stoichiometric and are neither typically
ionic nor covalent.
Statement-II : Interstitial compounds have high melting points, higher than those of pure metal.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.

10) For the reaction which statement is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The standard free energy change (ΔG°) is related to equilibrium constant (K) as:

(1) ΔG° = –2.303 RT log K

(2) ΔG° = 2.303 RT log K
(3) ΔG° = RT log K
(4) ΔG° = –RT log K

12) In the reaction,

4 NH3 (g) + 5 O2 (g) → 4 NO(g) + 6 H2O (l),
When 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion

(1) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced

(2) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
(3) all the oxygen will be consumed
(4) all the ammonia will be consumed

13) Match the statements given in Column-I and Column-II

(1) a → p; b → q; c → r; d → s
(2) a → q; b → s; c → p; d → r
(3) a → p; b → q; c → s; d → r
(4) a → r; b → s; c → q; d → p

14) Find True(T), False(F) statement among the following:

(P) Primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines
(Q) Ortho nitrophenol have more boiling point than para nitrophenol
(R) Pyridene is more basic than pyrrole
(S) Phenol is more acidic than m-methoxy phenol
(1) TFTF
(2) TTFT
(3) TFFT
(4) TFTT

15) The correct stability order for the following carbocation is :-

(1) IV > I > III > II

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) I > III > IV > II

16) Statement-I : Sodium and potassium dichromate are strong oxidising agent. Statement-II :
Potassium dichromate is used as a primary standard in volumetric analysis.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.

17) Select correct statement for Cr×6NH3×Cl3 and Cr×5NH3×Cl3

(1) In both complex compounds secondary valency is satisfied by only NH3

(2) In both complex compounds Cl– are satisfying only primary valency
(3) In both complex compounds primary valency is satisfied by only Cl–
(4) In both complex compounds all Cl– are ionizable

18) The hybridization state of the central atom in the complexes [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Fe(CN)6]4– and
[Co(NO2)6]3– are :

(1) d2sp3, sp3d2 and dsp2 respectively

(2) d2sp3, sp3d2 and sp3d2 respectively
(3) d2sp3, sp3d2 and d2sp3 respectively
(4) all d2sp3

19) The unit of equivalent conductance is :-

(1) ohm cm
(2) ohm–1 cm2 g equiv–1
(3) ohm–1 cm2 g equiv
(4) ohm–2 cm–2 g equiv
20) Select the correct statement: -

(1) For ideal solutions (Liquid A & B) A–A interactions = B–B interactions = A–B interactions.
Entropy change between solution and vapour is smaller than the entropy change between pure
(2)
solvent and vapour.
(3) Boiling point of the solution is larger than that of the pure solvent.
(4) All are correct.

21) The value of entropy in the universe is:

(1) constant
(2) decreasing
(3) increasing
(4) zero

22) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : t-butyl methyl ether is prepared by reaction of t-butyl bromide with methoxide ion.
Reason (R) : This reaction follows SN2 mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.

23) Which of the following statements is true about the disaccharide given below?

(1) Ring A is pyranose with β-glycosidic linkage

(2) Ring A is furanose with β-glycosidic linkage
(3) Ring B is furanose with α-glycosidic linkage
(4) Ring B is furanose with β-glycosidic linkage

24) Identify the correct order of reactivity for the following pairs towards the respective NSR
mechanism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (C) only
(4) (A), (B) and (C)

25) The inner orbital complex which exhibits both geometrical as well as optical isomerism.

3+
(1) [Cr(en)3]
(2) [IrF3(H2O)2(NH3)]
(3) [NiCl2(en)2]
3–
(4) [Co (CN)2(ox)2]

26) The correct order in which O—O bond length increases in the following is

(1) O3 < H2O2 < O2

(2) O2 < O3 < H2O2
(3) O2 < H2O2 < O3
(4) H2O2 < O2 < O3

27) Ortho-Nitrophenol is less soluble in water than p- and m- Nitrophenols because

(1) Melting point of o-Nitrophenol is lower than those of m- and p- isomers

(2) o-Nitrophenol is more volatile in steam than m- and p- isomers.
o-Nitrophenol shows intramolecular
(3)
H-bonding
o-Nitrophenol shows intermolecular
(4)
H-bonding

28) Which among the following reactions will be favoured at low pressure ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) What happens when NH4Cl is added to solution of NH4OH?

(1) pH increases
(2) pH decreases
(3) pH remains same
(4) pH may increase or decrease

30) The difference between heats of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume for the
reaction, 2C6H6(ℓ) + 15O2(g)
12CO2(g) + 6H2O(ℓ) at 25°C
in kJ is :

(1) +7.43
(2) +3.72
(3) –7.43
(4) –3.72

31) When KMnO4 is reduced with oxalic acid in acidic solution, the oxidation number of Mn changes
from: -

(1) 7 to 2
(2) 7 to 4
(3) 7 to 6
(4) 6 to 2

32) Number of compounds which can show geometrical isomer is/are :-

(i) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

33)
P should be
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

34) How many stereoisomers does this molecule have?

CH3CH = CHCH2CHBrCH3

(1) 8
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6

35) Which one of the following conversions involves change in both hybridisation and shape?

(1) CH4 → C2H6

(2) NH3 →
BF3 →
(3)
+
(4) H2O → H3O

36) Which of the following has the largest size?

(1) S2–
(2) Se2–
(3) O2–
(4) Te2–

37) The five successive ionization enthalpies of an element are 800, 2427, 2658, 25024 and 32824 kJ
mol–1. The number of valence electrons in the element is

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

38) A vessel at 1000 K contains carbon dioxide with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of CO2 is converted
to CO on addition of graphite. Calculate the value of Kp if total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm.

(1) 18 atm
(2) 0.36 atm
(3) 1.8 atm
(4) 0.3 atm

39) The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is –13.6 eV.
The energy of the level corresponding to n = 5 is :

(1) –0.54 eV
(2) –5.40 eV
(3) –0.85 eV
(4) –2.72 eV

40) The violet coloured compound formed when sulphur containing sodium fusion extract is treated
with sodium nitroprusside is

4–
(1) [Fe(CN)5NOS]
2–
(2) [Fe(CN)5NO]
2–
(3) [Fe(CN)3NOS]
4–
(4) [Fe(CN)5SCN]

41) Which of the following reaction does not give amine as a major product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Identify products A and B

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The electron gain enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine respectively, are

(1) –333, –349, –325 and –296

(2) –349, –333, –325 and –296
(3) –296, –325, –333 and –349
(4) –333, –325, –349 and –296

44) What is the geometry of the iron ion (Fe2+) in Mohr's salt (FeSO4·(NH4)2SO4·6H2O)?

(1) Linear
(2) Tetrahedral
(3) Octahedral
(4) Square planar

45) In the preparation of Mohr's salt, why is it important to keep the solution in a slightly acidic
medium?

(1) To prevent the precipitation of iron(III) hydroxide

(2) To ensure that ammonium sulfate forms the double salt with iron(II)
(3) To oxidize iron(II) to iron(III)
(4) To neutralize sodium bisulfite during the reaction

BIOLOGY

1) The net requirement of assimilatory power for the formation of 6 hexose molecules in maize plant
is :-

(1) 72 ATP, 48 NADPH

(2) 180 ATP, 72 NADPH
(3) 90 ATP, 60 NADPH
(4) 108 ATP, 72 NADPH
2) Read the following statements :-
(I) Jan Ingenhousz showed that it is only the green parts of plants that could release oxygen.
(II) Julius Von Sachs did his experiments on red algae.
(III) First action spectrum of photosynthesis was described by T.W. Engelmann (IV) Cornelius
Van Niel proved that in all photosynthetic organisms, H2O is hydrogen donor.
(V) Experiment of Joseph Priestley revealed the essential role of light in the growth of living
organisms.
Which of the above statements are correct? Choose the option from the following :-

(1) I, II, IV
(2) I, III
(3) II, III, V
(4) I, III, IV

3) Identify the correct statements regarding chemiosmotic hypothesis :

(a) Splitting of the water molecule takes place on the inner side of the membrane. (b) Protons
accumulate within the lumen of the thylakoids.
(c) Primary acceptor of electron transfers the electrons to an electron carrier.
(d) NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane.
(e) Protons increase in number in stroma.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) a, c & e
(2) a, b & d
(3) b, c & d
(4) b, c & e

4) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II
(1) Human urine (a) Cytokinin
(2) Gibberella fujikuroi (b) Auxin
(3) Herring sperm DNA (c) Ethylene
(4) Ripening fruits (d) Abscisic acid
(5) Aged leaves of plants (e) Gibberellins
(1) 1-e, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b, 5-a
(2) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-a
(3) 1-a, 2-e, 3-b, 4-d, 5-c
(4) 1-b, 2-e, 3-a, 4-c, 5-d

5) Plants bend towards light because :-

(1) They need light for photosynthesis.

(2) They need light for respiration
(3) Cell on the shadow side elongate more.
(4) Light attracts them
6) Match the column I with column II.

Column-I Column-II
Hydrolysis of C-C, C-halide
(a) Ligases (i)
or P-N bonds
S reduced + S’ oxidised ®
(b) Transferases (ii)
S oxidised + S’ reduced
(c) Lyases (iii) Leaving double bonds
Joining of C-O, C-S, C-N, P-
(d) Oxidoreductases (iv)
O bonds
(e) Hydrolases (v) S-G + S’ → S + S’-G
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-v, e-i
(3) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-v, e-iii

7) By analysing the diagram, choose the correct option with respect to A, B, C, D & E from the given
options:

(1) The reaction is exothermic and A has the maximum potential energy.
(2) The reaction is endothermic and B has the maximum potential energy
(3) The reaction is exothermic and C has the maximum potential energy.
(4) The reaction is endothermic and C has the maximum potential energy

8) In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous base is linked to the –OH of:

(1) 2'C pentose sugar

(2) 3'C pentose sugar
(3) 5'C pentose sugar
(4) 1'C pentose sugar

9) The wild type E. coli cells are growing in normal medium with glucose. They are transferred to a
medium containing only lactose as sugar. Which of the following changes take place?

(1) The lac operon is induced

(2) E.coli cells stop dividing
(3) The lac operon is repressed
(4) All operons are induced

10) There will be some "untranslated regions (UTR)" in the mRNA that help in affectively carrying
out the process of translation. They are present at?

(1) Only 5’ end of mRNA.

(2) Only 3’ end of RNA
(3) Just before start codon and just after stop codon.
(4) Just before 5’ and just after 3’ ends.

11) Match the following genetic experiments with their conclusions :-

Column-A Column-B
Griffith’s Demonstrated the phenomenon of
(A) (1)
experiment transformation
Hershey and
(B) (2) Proved DNA is the genetic material
Chase experiment
Meselson and
Showed DNA replication is semi-
(C) Stahl’s (3)
conservative
experiment
(D) Watson and Crick (4) Proposed the double helix model of DNA
(1) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(4) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

12) Statement-I: The site of protein synthesis is ribosome, which binds to mRNA and provide
platform for joining of amino acids.
Statement-II: The tRNA binds to specific amino acid at one end and pairs through
H-bonding with codes on mRNA through its anticodons

(1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect

(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct

13) There is no replication of DNA during :-

(1) S-Phase
(2) G2-Phase
(3) Interkinesis
(4) Both (2) & (3)

14) Identify the following diagram & select the answer which give correct identification of the stage
with its characteristics.
(1) Anaphase-II: Splitting of the centromeres of each chromosome
Anaphase-I: Homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at
(2)
their centromere.
(3) Metaphase : chromosomes align at the equator.
(4) Telophase-II: Cytokinesis follows resulting in the formation of tetrad of cells.

15) How many of the following statements are correct?

(a) The genetic material is basically naked, not enveloped by a nuclear membrane in prokaryotes.
(b) Eukaryotes have something unique in the form of inclusions. (c) Active transport is an energy
dependent process, in which ATP is utilised e.g., Na+/K+ Pump.
(d) The cell wall of a young plant cell, the secondary wall is capable of growth.
(e) In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the transport of a number of ions and other materials against
concentration gradients into the vacuole, hence their concentration is significantly higher in the
vacuole than in the cytoplasm.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

16) Assertion: Lysosomes are capable of digesting carbohydrate, proteins, lipids and nucleic acid.
Reason: Lysosomal vesicles are very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes.

(1) Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are not correct
(3) Assertion is correct and the Reason is not correct.
(4) Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is the explanation of Assertion.

17) According to this, the quasi-fluid nature of ___A___ enables lateral movement of ___B___ within
the overall bilayer. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as its fluidity.

(1) A → lipid, B → cholesterol

(2) A → sugar, B → protein
(3) A → lipid, B → protein
(4) A → protein, B → lipid

18) Read the following statements (A–E).

A. The Ministry of Environment and Forests in India launched the Ganga Action Plan to
reduce river pollution.
B. Fermentation by yeast is used to produce beverages such as beer and wine.
C. Streptokinase is used as a 'clot buster' in medical treatments.
D. Bacillus thuringiensis is commonly used in the production of ethanol.
E. Biogas plants generate methane in large amount and carbon dioxide as by-products.
How many statements are correct

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

19) Statement-I: Autosome Linked Dominant traits are the traits whose encoding gene is present
on any one of the autosomes, and the wildtype allele is recessive to its mutant allele, i.e., the mutant
allele is dominant.
Statement-II: With autosome Linked Dominant traits, both males and females are equally affected

(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

20) Given figure depicts.

(1) Syndrome due to aneuploidy of autosome

(2) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
(3) Individual has 47 chromosomes
(4) All of these

21) A boy is colourblind. His sister is normal and non-carrier :-

(i) What are the chances that both his parents are normal ?
(ii) What are the chances of mother being carrier?
(iii) What are the chances of his younger brother being colour blind ?

(1) (i) → 100%, (ii) → 100%, (iii) → 100%

(2) (i) → 100%, (ii) → 100%, (iii) → 50%
(3) (i) → 50%, (ii) → 50%, (iii) → 50%
(4) (i) → 100%, (ii) → 50%, (iii) → 100%

22) How many net gain of ATP from aerobic respiration of Acetyl CoA.

(1) 36
(2) 38
(3) 24
(4) 12

23) Statement-I: Respiration is amphibolic pathway, because it involved both anabolism and
catabolism.
Statement-II: Carbohydrate directly enter into respiratory pathway without changing into simple
form

(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct

(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-I is correct

24) Which statement is incorrect among them?

(1) Energy is obtained by oxidation of some macromolecules

(2) Saprophytes depends upon decaying matter for food, which oxidized to give energy.
Energy is required for metabolism, transportation and Reproduction but not for the absorption
(3)
and breathing.
(4) Carbon skeleton produced during photosynthesis may used for the synthesis for protein

25) How many of the following statements are correct?

(A) Stratification is an important functional component of an ecosystem
(B) Day-length does not contribute to regulation of the rate of function of a pond ecosystem.
(C) Macro-consumers are not essential parts of the ecosystem
(D) A food web can be represented by an ecological pyramid

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3

26) Statement-I: Ecological pyramids can represent the number of organisms, biomass, or energy
at different trophic levels.
Statement-II: The pyramid of energy is always inverted because energy always flows up the trophic
levels without loss.
Which of the following is correct?

(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.

(2) Only Statement-I is correct.
(3) Only Statement-II is correct.
(4) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II is correct.

27) The double fertilization is the only characteristic of :-

(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms

28) Assertion: Female gametophyte or embryo sac is embedded in nucellus.

Reason: Nucellus provides nutrition to the developing embryo sac.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

29) Consider the following four statements

(a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only.
(a) Most of the plants like water hyacinth is pollinated by water
(b) Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
(c) Vallisneria flowers are pollinated by water under the water surface.

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (b) and (d)
(3) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a) and (c)

30) According to Tilman, how does species richness show more stability:-

(1) Areas with more species show more year to year variation in total biomass.
(2) Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity.
(3) Provide resistance to invasions by endemic species.
(4) All of these

31) Read the following statements with respect to dinoflagellates.

(A) These organisms are mostly marine.
(B) Can show mixotrophic mode of nutrition
(C) They have photosynthetic pigments.
(D) Toxins released by dinoflagellates, may kill other marine animals such as fishes.
Select the correct one(s).

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only

(2) (B) only
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only
(4) (B) and (C) only
32) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement-I: In addition to proteins, a virus also contains DNA along with RNA.
Statement-II: Viruses can reproduce only within living cells and are obligatory intracellular
parasites.

(1) Only statement-I is correct.

(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Both statements-I and II are correct
(4) Both statements-I and II are incorrect

33) Observe the given diagram.

Select the correct feature for the organism given in above diagram.

It has two flagella; one lies longitudinally and the other transversely in a furrow between the
(1)
wall plates.
(2) Instead of a cell membrane, it has a protein rich layer called pellicle.
(3) They possess cellulosic cell wall
(4) It possesses pigments identical to those present in higher plants.

34) In a hypothetical population initially there were 1000 inidividuals per unit area at a perticular
time, by reproduction 30 new members were added to the population and 40 individuals were
immigrated to that area under study along with there 20 individuls died during this duration and 30
individuals migrated to a new area. Considering these information what would be the persent
population density?

(1) No change in population density

(2) 1020 individuals/Unit area
(3) 1120 individuals/Unit area
(4) Data not sufficient

35) Assertion: The prickly pear cactus introduced into Australia in the early 1920s caused havoc.
Reason: In Australia, during early 1920s there were no cactus feeding predator.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

36) Match the following columns –

Column-A Column-B
(1) Resource partitioning (A) Gause
(2) Competitive exclusion (B) Darwin
(3) Struggle for existence (C) Mac Arthur
(1) 1 - C, 2 - B, 3 - A
(2) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C
(3) 1 - C, 2 - A, 3 - B
(4) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - B

37) is the floral formula of related with:

(1) Sunflower
(2) Petunia
(3) Brassica
(4) Allium

38) Free central placentation is present in :

(1) Argemone
(2) Dianthus
(3) Lemon
(4) Pea

39) Among china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, guava, cucumber, onion and tulip, how many plants
have INFERIOR ovary?

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Six
(4) Three

40) Which one of the following plants shows perianth and versatile stamens ?

(1) Pisum sativum

(2) Allium cepa
(3) Solanum nigrum
(4) Triticum aestivum

41) Which of the following is true about the ground tissue system?

(1) It is composed of xylem and phloem.

(2) It includes the epidermis, pericycle, and pith.
(3) It forms the main bulk of the plant body.
(4) It is absent in monocot roots.
42) Assertion: In monocot stems, vascular bundles are closed.
Reason: Monocot stems lack cambium, so they do not show secondary growth.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true

43) Which one of the following is a correct statement.

(1) Pteridophytic gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage.

(2) In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is free living.
(3) Antheridia and archegonia absent in pteridophytes
(4) Pteridophytes are precursor to the seed habit

44) Select the correct statement :-

(1) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous.

(2) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
(3) Sequoia is one of the tallest tree.
(4) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate.

45) Which option is not related with phaeophyceae?

(1) Gelatinous coating of algin.

(2) Gametes are pear shaped and bear two laterally attached flagella.
(3) The food is stored as floridean starch.
(4) They possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls.

46) How many of the following statements are correct?

(A) Vital capacity = TV + ERV + IRV
(B) The branching network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli comprise the lungs.
(C) Change in volume of pulmonary cavity will be seen in thoracic cavity.
(D) Respiratory organ in spider is book lung.
Choose from the given options :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

47) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I (SITE) Column-II (pO2)

(a) Systemic artery (i) 104 mm Hg
(b) Tissues (ii) 95 mm Hg
(c) Alveoli (iii) 159 mm Hg
(d) Atmospheric air (iv) 40 mm Hg
(1) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i
(2) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(3) a – i, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii
(4) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i

48)
Identify the given diagram and its respective characteristic.

(1) Metaphase-II → 2 equatorial plates

(2) Metaphase-I → 4 equatorial plates
(3) Metaphase-II → 1 equatorial plates
(4) Metaphase-I → 2 equatorial plates

49) Arrange the events of prophase-I in their correct sequence :-

(A) Chromosomes gradually visible
(B) Synaptonemal complex
(C) Synapsis
(D) Assembly of meiotic spindle
(E) X-shaped structures formed
Choose the correct option :-

(1) A → C → B → E → D
(2) A → B → C → E → D
(3) D → A → C → B → E
(4) A → D → C → B → E

50) Statement-I: Notochord is present only in larval tail of urochordate.

Statement-II: Notochord extend from head to tail and found only in the embryonic stage of
cephalochordate.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
51) Match the following columns and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II
(a) Ichthyophis (i) Presence of mammary glands
(b) Chameleon (ii) Fully ossified endoskeleton
(c) Psittacula (iii) Dual life
(d) Macropus (iv) Creeping or crawling locomotion
(1) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(2) a–i, b–iii, c–iv, d–ii
(3) a–ii, b–iv, c–i, d–iii
(4) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv

52) Choose the most appropriate option regarding the given diagram.

(1) A jawless vertebrate

(2) Most primitive chordate
(3) Devoid of scales and paired fins.
(4) All of the above are true.

53) How many are include in multicellular glands?

Thyroid gland, Salivary gland, Gastric gland, Pituitary gland, Goblet cells, Paneth cells.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

54) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II
A. Areolar connective tissue I. Skin
B. Dense regular connective tissue II. Bone and cartilage
C. Dense irregular connective tissue III. Beneath the skin
D. Specialised connective tissue IV. Tendon
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

55) How many of the following statements are correct? (a) Insulin is a steroid hormone.
(b) TSH is secreted from the corpus luteum.
(c) Tetraiodothyronine is an emergency hormone.
(d) The pineal gland is located on the anterior part of the forebrain.
(e) Cretinism is a hypothyroid condition in which the child’s physical, mental and sexual growth is
affected.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

56) (A) Increase alertness

(B) Pupillary constriction
(C) Piloerection
(D) Increase heart beat
(E) Increase respiratory rate
(F) Sweating
Which of the following are effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline?

(1) All except C

(2) All except B and F
(3) All except B
(4) All except B, E and F

57) Prolonged (A) leads to a complex disorder called diabetes mellitus which is associated with loss
of (B) through urine and formation of harmful compounds known as (C). Diabetic patients are
successfully treated (D) therapy.
A, B, C and D in the above given lines are :-

(1) Hyperglycemia, glucose, ketone bodies, insulin

(2) Hypoglycemia, glycogen, ketone bodies, insulin
(3) Hypoglycemia, glucose, ketone bodies, insulin
(4) Hyperglycemia, adrenaline, acetone bodies, insulin

58) Which of the following statement are incorrect. (a) Starch and glycogen are storage forms of
energy.
(b) Inulin is a polymer of fructose.
(c) In polysaccharide chain, the right end is called the non-reducing end and the left end is called the
reducing end.
(d) Cellulose forms helical secondary structure.
(e) Exoskeleton of arthropods have a complex polysaccharide called chitin.

(1) b & c
(2) c & d
(3) d only
(4) None of them

59) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II
a. Water i. 3%
b. Protein ii. 70-90%
c. Carbohydrates iii. 2%
d. Lipids iv. 5-7%
e. Nucleic acids v. 10-15%
(1) a-(v), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv), e-(i)
(2) a-(ii), b-(v), c-(i), d-(iii), e-(iv)
(3) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(v), e-(ii)
(4) a-(v), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii), e-(i)

60) How many of the following are not primary metabolites

Curcumin, Glutamic acid, Scents, GLUT-4, Inulin, Insulin, Spice, flavonoids, Arachidonic acid,
Lecitin, drugs, essential oil.

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 8

61) A procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium is called.

(1) Recombination
(2) Ligation
(3) Transformation
(4) None of the above

62) How many of the following are the restriction sites present in pBR322.
Hind II, EcoR V, Hind III, Bam HI, Pst II, PstI, PvU II, Sal I, EcoR I

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 9

63) Arrange the following steps of recombinant DNA technology

(I) Transformation
(II) Ligases join foreign DNA to plasmid
(III) Recombinant DNA molecule
(IV) Cells divide
(V) Same restriction enzyme cutting both foreign DNA and vector DNA at specific point

(1) V → II → III → I → IV
(2) V → II → I → III → IV
(3) III → II → V →I →IV
(4) I → II →III→ IV

64) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column I Column II
Directional Transfer of genes from one
A. (i)
selection population to other.
Stablization Individual acquire value other
B. (ii)
selection than mean character value
Individual acquire mean
C. Genetic drift (iii)
character value
Frequency of a gene change by
D. Gene flow (iv)
random chance
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

65) How many statements are true in the following?

(i) Cranial bones are 8 in number.
(ii) Axial skeleton comprise 80 bones.
(iii) Axial skeleton consists of skull, vertebral column, sternum ribs, hyoid and ear ossicle. (iv)
Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

66) Glenoid cavity is the character of :-

(1) Clavicle
(2) Scapula
(3) Humerus
(4) Radius

67) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II
A. Biological product I. Transgenic mice
B. Vaccine safety II. Phenylketonuria
C. Toxicity testing III. Cystic fibrosis
D. Biological models IV. Transgenic Animals
(1) A–IV, B–III, C–II-D–I
(2) A–II, B–I, C–IV-D–III
(3) A–III, B–I, C–IV-D–II
(4) A–I, B–II, C–III-D–IV

68) At present about ________ recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use the
world over. In India, ______ of these are presently being marketed

(1) 12,30
(2) 900,230
(3) 30,12
(4) 230,900

69) The clone having the mutated gene will not appear on the photographic film as :-

(1) The probe has complementarity with the mutated gene.

(2) The probe will not have comple-mentarity with the mutated gene.
(3) The probe has complementarity with the normal gene
(4) Both (2) & (3)

70) Select the incorrect statement among the following :-

(1) Cockroaches are dioecious.

(2) Excretion is performed by Malpighian tubules.
(3) Mosaic vision in cockroach is characterised by high resolution but less sensitivity.
The female reproductive system consists of two large ovaries, lying laterally in the 2nd-6th
(4)
abdominal segments.

71) Assertion: Frog is a ureotelic animal.

Reason: It excretes uric acid.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

72) Match column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II Column-II

Reduction
in their
number can 1.5-3.5
A. Eosinophils a. lead to i. lac/mm3 of
excessive blood
blood loss
from body.
 Resist
infections
and are 5-5.5
B. Lymphocytes b. associated ii. million/mm3
with of blood
allergic
reactions.
Responsible
for immune 20-25% of
C. Platelets c. iii.
responses TLC
of the body.
Biconcave 6-8% of
D. RBCs d. iv.
in shape. TLC
(1) A → c, i; B → b, ii; C → a, iii; D → d, iv
(2) A → a, i; B → b, iv; C → c, ii; D → d, iii
(3) A → b, iv; B → a, iii; C → d, i; D → a, ii
(4) A → b, iv; B → c, iii; C → a, i; D → d, ii

73) Observe the given diagram and recognize the labels correctly.

A → Bundle of HIS, B → AVN,

(1)
C→Bundle Branch, D→ Purkinje Fibers
A → AVN, B → Purkinje Fibers,
(2)
C → Bundle Branch, D → Bundle of HIS
A → AVN, B → Bundle of HIS,
(3)
C→Purkinje Fibers, D→ Bundle Branch
A → AVN, B → Bundle of HIS,
(4)
C→Bundle Branch, D→ Purkinje Fibers

74) Match the following :-

A. Mycoplasmas I. Spiral
B. Bacteria II. 3-5 mm
C. Viruses III. spherical
D. Spirillum IV. 0.3 mm
E. Coccus V. 0.02-0.2 mm
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I, E-V
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V
(3) A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I, E-IV
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-V, D-I, E-III

75) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II
Ciliary
(a) Euglena (i)
movement
Contains
(b) Paramoecium (ii) plenty of
mitochondria
Flagellar
(c) Red muscles (iii)
movement
Depend upon
White anaerobic
(d) (iv)
muscles process for
energy.
(1) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i
(2) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv
(3) a–i, b–iii, c–iv, d–ii
(4) a–i, b–iv, c–ii, d–ii

76) Statement-I: Heroin is extracted from the latex of poppy plant.

Statement-II: Heroin is a depressant and slows down body functions.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

77) Assertion: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ.

Reason: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro-environments for the development and
maturation of
T-lymphocytes.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not explanation
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

78) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II
Houseflies act as
(a) Sporozoites (i)
mechanical carriers
(b) Gametocytes (ii) Develop in human RBCs
 Most infectious human
(c) Rhino virus (iii)
aliments
Entamoeba
(d) (iv) Mature infective stage
histolytica
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

79) Many fungi belonging to genera _____, _____ and ________ are responsible for ringworms which is
one of the most common infectious diseases in man.

(1) Microphyton, Trichosporum, Epidermosporum

(2) Wucheria, Trichophyton, Ascaris
(3) Salmonella, Microspores, Wuchereria
(4) Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton

80) Assertion (A): The brain stem consists of forebrain and midbrain in human beings.
Reason (A): Brain stem forms the connections between the brain and the spinal cord.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the following options:

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

81) Identify the correct sequence with respect to generation and conduction of nerve impulse.
(A) Rise in permeability to K+ followed by K+ efflux.
(B) Stimulus applied on the polarised membrane.
(C) Rapid influx of Na+.
(D) Reversal of polarity (depolarisation).
(E) Restoration of membrane potential.

(1) C → D → A → B → E
(2) A → C → B → E → D
(3) B → C → D → A → E
(4) B → D → A → E → C

82) Assertion (A): Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects are uricotelic animals.
Reason (R): Uric acid is readily soluble & is generally excreted by diffusion across body surface.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

83) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II
Glucose in
A. Uremia I.
urine
Urea in
B. Ketonuria II.
blood
Inflammation
C. Glycosuria III.
of glomeruli
Insoluble
D. Renal calculi IV. mass of
oxalates
Ketone
E. Glomerulone-phritis V. bodies in
urine
(1) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-V, E-II
(3) A-V, B-I, C-II, D-III, E-IV
(4) A-II, B-V, C-I, D-IV, E-III

84) Statement-I: The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired
bulbourethral glands.
Statement-II: Secretin of male accessory glands constitute the seminal plasma which is rich in
fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

85) Match the column-I with column-II

Column I Column II
Mons Tiny finger like
A. (i)
pubis structure
A membrane
Labia
B. (ii) partially cover
majora
vagina
Fleshy folds of
C. Clitoris (iii)
tissue
A cushion of fatty
D. Hymen (iv)
tissue
(1) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
(2) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
(3) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i
(4) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv

86) Which of the following structures secrete milk?

(1) D → Lactiferous duct
(2) C → Ampulla
(3) A → Nipple
(4) B → Mammary alveolus

87) The glandular tissue of breasts is divided into _____mammary lobes.

(1) 20-30
(2) 15-20
(3) 30-40
(4) 40-60

88) After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become embedded in the Sertoli cells, and are finally
released from the seminiferous tubules by the process called :-

(1) Spermatogenesis
(2) Spermiation
(3) Insemination
(4) Spermiogenesis

89) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II
A. AI (i) In lab, sperm is directly injected into the ovum
B. ICSI (ii) In vitro fertilization occurs here
C. GIFT (iii) Semen from a healthy donor is artificially introduced into the vagina
D. E.T. (iv) Ovum from a donor is transferred into the fallopian tube
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

90) Which option includes all sexual transmitted diseases ?

(1) Hepatitis-B, AIDS, haemophilia

(2) AIDS, cholera, syphilis
(3) Gonorrhoea, Hepatitis-B, chlamydiasis
(4) Malaria, AIDS, Trichomoniasis
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 4 1 1 2 3 3 3 1 3 2 4 3 2 1 2 2 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 2 4 4 3 1 2 3 3 3 1 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 2 1 3 1 3 4 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 3 4 4 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 2 3 3 4 1 3 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 1 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 2 4 3 3 3 4 1 3 2 4 4 2 2 4 3 3 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 3 3 3 2 4 4 2 2 3 2 4 2 1 3 1 2 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 3 3 3 2 2 4 1 2 1 4 3 1 1 3 1 2 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 2 2 2 2 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 4 3 2 4 3 2 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

L = mv⊥r
After 2sec, particle will be at topmost point

r⊥ = H =

L = m(ucosθ)

L = 40 kg m2/s

2) Taking north as positive direction and south as negative direction.

VA = 20 m/s
VB = –30 m/s
Velocity of B w.r.t A
VB/A = –50 m/s
Velocity of ground w.r.t. B
VG/B = 30 m/s

3) Hint : and
Magnetic moment of loop

Now, torque
= Zero

4)

Due to symmetry, the two middle resistance can be removed.

Hence, the new circuit will be :
New, resistance

5)
For diatomic gas (f = 5)
PV–3 = C (x = –3)

6)

Fnet = 0
mg – (Vρ2g + )=0
Vρ1g – Vρ2g – =0

7) uy = sin45° = 10m/s
ux = cos45° = 10m/s
H = 40m (Height of tower)

– H = uyt – gt2
– 40 = 10t – 5t2
5t2 – 10t – 40 = 0
5t2 – 20t + 10t – 40 = 0
5t(t – 4) + 10(t – 4) = 0
(5t + 10)(t – 4) = 0
t = 4s
R = uxt = 10 × 4 = 40m

Hmax =
Time when it has minimum velocity
=

8)

Least count is given by,

LC = 1 MSR – 1 VSR

LC = 1 MSR – MSR

0.01 = ⇒ MSR = 0.5 mm

0.05 cm have 1 division thus 1 cm have 20 divisions.

9)
As θ1 increases, α also increases. So,
(90 – α) decreases and hence θ2 decreases.

10) n1u1 = n2u2

n2 = n1

n2 = 1

n2 = 1
n2 = 0.01 × 0.1 × 100 = 0.1

11) W = TΔA

= 4πR2T

= 4 × × 10–4 × 7 × 10–2 × [2 – 1]
= 88 × 10–6 J

12)

Hint : Induced emf e = BvI

Here Ieff = PR =
Here induced emf = BvIeff
=
13)

The forces acting on the block include :

• Gravitational force along the incline :
mg sinq = 10 × 9.8 × sin30 = 49 N
• Friction force :
ffriction = µmg cosθ = 0.3 × 10 × 9.8 × cos30 ≈ 25.46
The total force required to move the block is:
Ftotal = ma + mg sinθ + ffriction
Ftotal = 10 × 2 + 49 + 25.46 = 20 + 49 + 25.46 Ftotal = 94.46 N

14) Charge enclosed by cube

According to Gauss’s theorem

15)
Centripetal acceleration is given as

At x = –2, from figure we can clearly see that

m/s and m/s2

16) Wall = ΔK
Wg + Wf + Wsp = 0

mgR – µmgx – Kx2 = 0 (x = 2m)

µ = 0.5

17) Variation in acceleration due to gravity with rotation

g’ = g – rω2 cos2l
at pole l = 90°
∴ g’ = g
at equator λ = 0°
∴ g’ = g – ω2r
effect of rotation is maximum at equator
18)

⇒ ic = 30°

19)

%η = 33%

20) P = 1MW = 106W

E = 106W × 1 sec. = 106 J

no. of fission =
no. of fission = 3.1 × 1016

21)

XL = XC circuit is in resonance
Vapplied = VR

Potential difference across LC combination at resonance is zero. So voltmeter reading is zero.

22) ... (i)

= 1 ⇒ R1 + 10 = R2 …(ii)

+ 10 = R2

10 = ⇒ R2 = 30Ω
& R1 = 20Ω

R = 60 Ω

23)
24)

According to Ohm’s law, V ∝ I or V = RI

Where the constant of proportionality R is called the resistance of the conductor.
From the above relation it is clear that Ohm’s law is valid if V depends on I linearly.

25) Frequency of tuning fork

For T = 6N and L = 1m

... (i)
For T = 54N and L = 1m

... (ii)

, Given f2 – f1 = 12
∴ f1 = 6 Hz

26)
vbr = 10km/hr

vbr cosθ = vbg

10 cosθ = 8

θ = 37°(from the normal to upstream)

vr = vbr sinθ
vr = 10 sin37°

vr = = 6km/hr

27)

For diamagnetic substance

µr < 1

28)

For +ve half cycle

D1 → open circuit (R.B)
D2 → short circuit (F.B)
Its equivalent circuit

29) Let q1, q2 and Q be the charge on the capacitors of 3 μF, 2 μF and 5 μF respectively.

⇒ 5V0 = 3(6 – V0) + 2(6 – V0)

⇒ 5V0 = 18 – 3V0 + 12 – 2V0
⇒ 10V0 = 30 ⇒ V0 = 3V
∴ q2 = 2(6 – V0) = 6μC

30) I ∝ ne ∝ nphoton ∝ Intensity

31) Ampere – Maxwell law

Faraday law

Gauss’ law for electricity

Gauss’ law for magnetism

32)
(Qa + Qb)i = (–12 + 12)μC = 0
Finally:

(Qa + Qb)f = –15 + 10 = –5μC

So, 5 μC charge from b → a

33) y1 = A(1 + cos2ωt)

y1 = A + A cos2ωt
(vmax)1 = A × 2ω

y2 = 2Asin(wt + )
(vmax)2 = 2Aω
Ratio = 1 : 1

34) Magnetic field near one end of a long solenoid is

= 3.14 × 10–3 T

35) Hint : Induced emf

Induced current

At t = 3 ⇒ |ε| = 120 × 9 + 30 × 3 + 30
= 1200 V

Induced current

36)

→ electric potential at the location of +q

→ electric potential at the location of –q
∵

37) Escape velocity does not depend upon angle of projection.

38)

(for pure rolling vcm = ωR)

39)

U1 = 25J
U2 = 25 + 75 = 100 J
U ∝ x2

x=4
∴ Further extended by 4 – 2 = 2cm

40) Theoretical

41)

ΔE = 2.5E – E
ΔE = 1.5E
Energy of photon = ΔE
42)

The lens is concave

Distance between object and image = 3x

⇒
Distance between object and focus

Distance between image and focus

Thus, required ratio is 8 : 1

See the diagram,

43)

As here D1 → forward biased (short circuit)

D2 → Reversed biased (open circuit)
So : equivalent circuit

Req = 10 + 5 = 15Ω

Therefore direction of current is opposite to that given in circuit diagram.

44)

At mean position
Velocity of 1 kg block just before collision will be :
 Now at the time of collision just before and after collision . Hence from momentum
conservation

1(2) – 3(2) =

Now,

⇒ ⇒ A' = 20cm

45) If after placing the plate, intensity at the position of central maxima position remains
unchanged, then it means first maxima takes position of central maxima. In case of minimum
thickness of plate 2, path difference created by the plate should be equal to λ.
i.e.,t(µ – 1) = λ

CHEMISTRY

46) Suppose one molecule of the alkaloid contains x N-atoms.

Then % of N = (Given)

∴x=2

47)
x = 250
Solution = 250 + 30 = 280 g

48) CaCl2 = λ° Ca2+ + 2λ°Cl–

= (118.88 × 10–4) + 2(77.33 × 10–4)
= 273.54 × 10–4 m2 mho mol–1

49) Acid and acid derivative does not give Iodoform test due to strong –M effect.

50)
β – keto acid is highly reactive for decarboxylation
51)

52)

B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

53)

O=C=O
2p 2p
effective overlapping

54) Interstitial compounds exhibit high melting point because of efficient packaging in
interstitial space by small size atom.

55) For a given reaction,

57) O2 will be limiting reactant. Hence, all oxygen will be consumed.

58)

a → q (Clemmenson reduction)
b → s (NAR)
c → p (reduction by LiAlH4)
d → r (specific reduction of ester)
59)
So the statement is false

So this is false.

60)
(Stabilized by 2° carbocation and +M of –O group)

(Stabilized by 2° carbocation)

(Stabilized by 3° carbocation)

(Stabilized by 1° carbocation and +M of –O group)

So, stability order ⇒ I > IV > III > II

61)

Sodium and potassium dichromate are strong oxidising agent and potassium dichromate is
used as a primary standard in volumetric analysis.

62)

Cr×6NH3×Cl3 ® [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
Secondary valence ‘6’ satisfied by only NH3, all Cl¯ satisfy only primary valency.
Cr ×5NH3 ×Cl3 ® [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
Secondary valence ‘6’ satisfied by five NH3 and one Cl¯ while other two Cl¯ satisfy primary
valency.
63)

64) Λe = κ
= ohm–1 cm2 g equiv–1

67)

70)

[Cr(en3)]3+; Hyb. : d2sp3; does not exhibit geometrical isomerism but exhibits optical isomerism.
[IrF3(H2O)2(NH3)]; Hyb. : d2sp3; exhibits geometrical isomerism but does not exhibit optical
isomerism.
[NiCl2(en)2]; Hyb.: sp3d2; exhibits both geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism.
[Co(CN)2(ox)2]3–; Hyb. : d2sp3; exhibits both geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism.

71) Bond orders of O—O are : O3 (1.5), H2O2 (1), O2 (2). Greater the bond order, shorter is the
bond length.

72) o-Nitrophenol is less soluble in water than

p- and m-nitrophenols because o-nitrophenol shows intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

73) On lowering pressure equilibrium shifts in direction where higher gaseous moles are
present.

74) Addition of salt (WB + SA) to a weak base decreases the pH.

75)

ΔH–ΔU = ΔngRT
= (–3)RT = (–3) (8.314 × 10–3) (298)

76) In acidic medium

79) is an alkene having different substituents at each sp2 carbon atom

thus geometrical isomers are possible i.e., cis- and trans. Since the given alkene also has a
chiral centre, therefore, each geometrical isomer has a pair of enantiomers. Thus, in all, there
are 2 × 2 = 4 stereoisomers.
 80)

Compound /ion Hybridisation Shape

CH4 sp3 Tetrahedral
C2H6 sp3
Tetrahedral
Trigonal
NH3 sp3
pyramidal
sp3 Tetrahedral
BF3 sp2 Trigonal planar
sp3 Tetrahedral
H2O sp3 V-shaped
Trigonal
H3O+ sp3
pyramidal

81) As we move down the group, ionic size increases. Thus, Te2– has the largest size.

82) There is a sudden jump after 3rd I.E. due to attainment of noble gas configuration. So, the
number of valence electrons in this element are 3. Thus, option (1) is correct.

83)
x = 0.3 atm

84)

85)

S2– + [Fe(CN)5NO]2– → [Fe(CN)5NOS]4–

From sodium Violet
extract
 87)

88) : Cl > F > Br > I

89) In Mohr's salt, the iron(II) ion (Fe2+) is surrounded by six water molecules in its crystal
structure, forming an octahedral geometry. This is typical of Fe2+ in coordination compounds
where it is usually coordinated with six ligands (in this case, water molecules). (The iron ion is
at the center of the octahedral arrangement with the water molecules occupying the six
vertices.)

90) The solution must be kept in a slightly acidic medium to prevent the precipitation of
iron(III) hydroxide (Fe(OH)3) and to ensure the reduction of iron(III) to iron(II), which can then
react with ammonium sulfate to form Mohr's salt.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XI, Page # 146

The net requirement of assimilatory power for the formation of 1 hexose molecule in maize
plant = 30 ATP & 12 NADPH
The net requirement of assimilatory power for the formation of 6 hexose molecules in maize
plant = 180 ATP & 72 NADPH

92) NCERT-XI, Page # 134

(II) Julius von Sachs (1864) was a German botanist who worked on green plants, not red
algae.
(IV) Cornelius Van Niel (1930s) studied purple and green sulfur bacteria and discovered that
not all photosynthetic organisms use H₂O as the hydrogen donor.
(V) Joseph Priestley (1770s) discovered that plants release oxygen, which is essential for the
survival of animals.

93) Incorrect Statements:(c) & (d)

(c) The primary acceptor located towards the outer side of the membrane transfers its electron
to an H+ carrier.
(e) Protons do not increase in the stroma, they increase in the lumen.
94) NCERT-XI, Page # 175

95)

NCERT-XI, Page # 174

Plants bend toward the light because cells on the shaded side elongate more, this happens just
because of the action of the hormone Auxin. When only one part is receiving the light, the
Auxin hormone through diffusion moves to the part which is receiving less sunlight and helps
in the elongation of cells that are receiving less sunlight.

96) NCERT-XI, Page # 117

97)

98) A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1’ C pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic

linkage to form a nucleoside

99)

NCERT-XII, Page # 101

If E. coli bacteria grow in a normal glucose medium and when transferred to a medium
containing lactose, then the lac operon is induced. Lactose acts as an inducer that deactivates
the repressor.

100)

NCERT-XII, Page # 99
An mRNA also has some additional sequences that are not translated and are referred as
untranslated regions (UTR). The UTRs are present at both 5' -end (before start codon) and at
3' -end (after stop codon).

101) NCERT-XII, Page # 89

102) NCERT-XII, Page # 99

 103) NCERT-XI, Page # 121
DNA replication occurs in S-phase only.

104) NCERT-XI, Page # 127

105)

Correct Statements: (a), (c), (e)

Incorrect Statements: (b), (d)
(b) Inclusions (storage granules) are not unique to eukaryotes.
Prokaryotic cells also have inclusion bodies, such as gas vacuoles, glycogen granules, and
sulfur granules, for storage.
(d) The primary cell wall in young plant cells is capable of growth, not the secondary wall.
The secondary wall is rigid and does not grow once it is deposited.

106) NCERT-XI, Page # 96

107) NCERT-XI, Page # 94

108) NCERT-XII, Page # 152,154,155,157,158

109) NCERT-XII, Page # 73

110)

NCERT-XII, Page # 76

111)

112) Each Acetyl CoA molecule enters the Krebs cycle, generating:

Step Products Formed ATP Equivalent

Krebs Cycle 3 NADH 3 × 3 = 9 ATP
1 FADH₂ 1 × 2 = 2 ATP
1 ATP (or GTP) 1 ATP
Total ATP Yield 12 ATP per Acetyl CoA
113) Carbohydrates do not directly enter the respiratory pathway without changing into a
simple form.
They must first be broken down into simple sugars (like glucose) before entering glycolysis.

114) Energy is also required for absorption and breathing.

115) Correct Statements: (A) Only 1

Incorrect Statements: (B), (C), (D)
(B) Day-length (Photoperiod) plays a crucial role in regulating photosynthesis, temperature,
and biological cycles in aquatic ecosystems.
(C) Macro-consumers (heterotrophs, like herbivores and carnivores) are essential for
maintaining energy flow and nutrient cycling in ecosystems.
(D) A food web cannot be represented by a single ecological pyramid because it involves
multiple interlinked chains.

116) NCERT-XII, Page # 212

Statement-II is False.
"The pyramid of energy is always upright because energy is lost at each trophic level."

117) NCERT-XII, Page # 18

The double fertilization is the only characteristic of Angiosperm.

118) NCERT-XII, Page # 9

119) Correct Statements: (b) and (d)

Incorrect Statements: (a) and (c)
(a) Water hyacinth (Eichhornia) is not pollinated by water; instead, it is pollinated by insects.
(c) Vallisneria uses water for pollination (Hydrophily), but it occurs at the water surface
(Epihydrophily), not underwater.

120) NCERT-XII, Page # 221

121) NCERT-XI, Page # 15

Dinoflagellates are photosynthetic not mixotrophic.

122) NCERT-XI, Page # 20

Statement-I is incorrect
In addition to proteins, viruses also contain genetic material, that could be either RNA or DNA.

123) NCERT-XI, Page # 15

The given figure depicts the organism Euglena.
The pigments of euglenoids are identical to those present in higher plants.
124)

N(t+1) = Nt [(B + I) – (D + E)]

= 1000 + [(30 + 40) – (20 + 30)]
= 1000 + [70 – 50]
= 1000 + 20 = 1020 individuals/Unit area

125) NCERT-XII, Page # 197

126) NCERT-XII, Page # 199

127)
is the floral formula of Asteraceae family. e.g., Sunflower

128) NCERT-XI, Page # 65

129) NCERT-XI, Page # 63

Plants with an Inferior Ovary (Epigynous Flowers): Guava, Cucumber

130) Poaceae family shows perianth and versatile stamens i.e., Triticum aestivum

131) NCERT-XI, Page # 72

132) NCERT-XI, Page # 76

133) NCERT-XI, Page # 32

134) NCERT-XI, Page # 32

135) NCERT-XI, Page # 32,33

136) NCERT-XI, Page # 185, 186, 187

A → Correct , B → Correct , C → Incorrect →Change in volume of thoracic cavity will be seen
in change in pulmonary cavity.
D → Correct

137) NCERT-XI, Page # 187

(a) Systemic artery = 95 mm Hg
(Oxygenated blood)
(b) Tissues = 40 mm Hg
(c) Alveoli = 104 mm Hg
(d) Atmospheric air = 159 mm Hg

138) NCERT-XI, Page # 127

Diagram shows metaphase-I of miosis-I where 2 equatorial plates can be seen.

139) NCERT-XI, Page # 126

A → Leptotene where chromosomes are gradually visible.
B and C → Synapsis is followed by synaptonemal complex formation in zygotene.
D → Assembly of meiotic spindle in diakinesis.
E → X-shaped structures called chiasmata are visible during diplotene

140) NCERT-XI, Page # 46

Statement-I i.e. Notochord is found only in the larval tail of urochordate is correct.
Whereas statement-II is incorrect i.e. notochord extend from head to tail and found only in the
embryonic stage of cephalochordate because in cephalochordate notochord extend from head
to tail and is persistent throughout their life.

141) NCERT-XI, Page # 48,49,50,51

Ichthyophis :- Example of amphibia
These are the animals that show dual mode of life i.e. they can live in aquatic as well as
terrestrial habitat.
Chameleon : - Example of Reptilia
These are the animals that show creeping or crawling mode of locomotion.
Psittacula :- Example of Aves
These animals possess fully ossified endoskeleton.
Macropus :- Example of mammal.
These animals possess characteristic mammary glands for feeding their young ones.

142) NCERT-XI, Page # 47,52

Given diagram is Petromyzon a cyclostome which is jawless vertebrate.
Their body is devoid of scales and paired fin. They are the most primitive chordate (as given in
NCERT summary).

143) NCERT-XI, Page # 102

Thyroid gland, Pituitary gland, Salivary gland, Gastric gland are multicellular glands.
Goblet cells, Paneth cells unicellular glands.

144)

Old NCERT-XI, Page # 103,104

Areolar connective tissue is a type of loose connective tissue has cells and fibres loosly
arranged in semifluid ground substance it is present beneath the skin.
Dense regular connective tissue — The collagen fibres are present in rows between many
parallel bundles of fibres, present in tendon.
Dense irregular connective tissue has fibroblast and many fibres (mostly collagen) that are
oriented differently found in skin.
Specialised connective tissue — Bone and cartilage have specialised matrix.

145) NCERT-XI, Page # 241,242,246.

(a) Insulin is a proteinaceous hormone
(b) TSH is secreted from the Thyroid gland
(c) Adrenalin is an emergency hormone
(d) The pineal gland is located on the dorsal side of the forebrain.

146) NCERT-XI, Page # 244

The adrenal medulla secretes two hormones called adrenaline or epinephrine and
noradrenaline or norepinephrine. These are commonly called as catecholamines. Adrenaline
and noradrenaline are reapidly secreted in response to stress of any kind and during
emergency situations and are called emergency hormones or hormones of fight or flight. These
hormones increase alertness, pupillary dilation, piloerection (raising of hairs), sweating etc.
Both the hormones increase the heart beat, the strength of heart contraction and the rate of
respiration. Catecholamines also stimulate the breakdown of glycogen resulting in an
increased concentration of glucose in blood. In addition, they also stimulate the breakdown of
lipids and proteins.

147) NCERT-XI, Page # 246

Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a complex disorder called diabetes mellitus which is
associated with loss of glucose through urine and formation of harmful compounds known as
ketone bodies. Diabetic patients are successfully treated with insulin therapy.

148) NCERT-XI, Page # 110

In polysaccharide chain, the right end is the reducing end and the left end is called the non-
reducing end. Starch forms helical secondary structure.

149)

NCERT-XI, Page # 109

Water – 70-90%
Protein – 10-15%
Nucleic acids – 5-7%
Carbohydrates – 3%
Lipids – 2 %
Ions – 1%

150) NCERT-XI, Page # 108

Primary metabolites – identifiable functions and known role in physiological functions.
Secondary metabolites - Human welfare & ecological importance.

151) NCERT-XII, Page # 169

Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host
bacterium.

152) NCERT-XII, Page # 169

PstI, Pvu I, EcoR I, Cla I, Hind III, BamHI, SalI, PvU II are the restriction sites present in
pBR322.

153) NCERT-XII, Page # 167

Diagrammatic representation of recombinant DNA technology →

154) NCERT-XII, Page # 120,121

Directional selection :- When more individuals acquire value other than the mean character
value.
Stabilisation selection :- More individuals acquire mean character value.
Genetic drift :- If the frequency of a gene change by chance, it is called genetic drift.
Gene flow :- Transfer of gene from one population to other is known as gene migration and if
it happens multiple times, it is known as gene flow.

155) NCERT-XI, Page # 224,225

Page # 224 (Para-2 & 3), 225 (Para-1)
Axial skeleton comprises 80 bones distributed along the main axis of the body. The skull,
vertebral column, sternum and ribs constitute axial skeleton. The skull is composed of two sets
of bones – cranial and facial, that totals to 22 bones. Cranial bones are 8 in number. They form
the hard protective outer covering, cranium for the brain. The facial region is made up of 14
skeletal elements which form the front part of the skull. A single U-shaped bone called hyoid is
present at the base of the buccal cavity and it is also included in the skull. Each middle ear
contains three tiny bones – Malleus, Incus and Stapes, collectively called Ear Ossicles. The
skull region articulates with the superior region of the vertebral column with the help of two
occipital condyles (dicondylic skull). Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax.
156) NCERT-XI, Page # 226 (Para-2)
Each half of pectoral girdle consists of a clavicle and a scapula. Scapula is a large triangular
flat bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax between the second and the seventh ribs.
The dorsal, flat, triangular body of scapula has a slightly elevated ridge called the spine which
projects as a flat, expanded process called the acromion. The clavicle articulates with this.
Below the acromion is a depression called the glenoid cavity which articulates with the head of
the humerus to form the shoulder joint. Each clavicle is a long slender bone with two
curvatures. This bone is commonly called the collar bone.

157) NCERT-XII, Page # 213

Biological Product — Phenylketonuria

Vaccine safety — Transgenic mice.
Toxicity testing — Transgenic animals
Biological models — Cystic fibrosis

158) NCERT-XII, Page # 210

At present about 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use the world
wide. In India, 12 of these are presently being marketed

159) NCERT-XII, Page # 212

The probe will not have complementarity will the mutated gene but with the normal gene.

160) Old NCERT-XI, Page # 113

Mosaic vision in cockroach is characterised by less resolution but more sensitivity.

161) NCERT-XI, Page # 83

The frog excretes urea & thus is a ureotelic animal.

162) NCERT-XI, Page # 194,195

1. Eosinophils resist infections and are associated with allergic reactions. Eosinophils
constitute 6-8% of ILC
2. Lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses of the body.
Lymphocytes constitute 20-25% of ILC
3.Reduction in number of platelets can lead to coagulation disorders and excessive blood loss.
1.5-3.5 lac/mm3 of blood
4. RBCs are biconcave in shape and are involved in gaseous transport.
5-5.5 million/mm3 of blood

163) NCERT-XI, Page # 198

164) NCERT-, Page # 88
(A) Mycoplasma — 0.3 mm
(B) Bacteria — 3-5 mm
(C) Viruses — 0.02 - 0.2 mm
(D) Spirillum — Spiral
(E) Coccus — Spherical

165) NCERT- XI, Page # 217, 218, 223

Module-E, Page no – 231, 241
(a) Euglena → Flagellar movement helps in locomotion of protozoans like Euglena.
(b) Paramoecium → Cilia helps in locomotion as well as movement of food through the
cytopharynx.
(c) Red muscles → Contain plenty of mitochondria which can utilise the large amount of oxygen
stored in them for ATP production.
(d) White muscles → Mitochondria are few in number and depend on anaerobic process for
energy

166) NCERT XII Page # 142-143

Morphine is extracted from latex of poppy plant.
Heroin is chemically diacetylmorphine.
Heroin is a depressant and slow down body functions.

167) NCERT XII Page # 138

Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not explanation
Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are
produced

168) NCERT XII, Page # 131-132

(a) Sporozoites – Mature infective stage.
(b) Gametocytes-Develop in human RBC
(c) Rhino virus – Most infectious human aliment.
(d) Entamoebia histolytica – Houseflies act as mechanical carrier.
169) NCERT XII, Page # 133
Many fungi belonging to genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are
responsible for ringworm which is one of the most common infectious diseases in man.

170) NCERT-XI, Page # 236 [Hindbrain]

Assertion is false-
(A) → The brain stem consists of midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata. Forebrain is not a
part of the brain stem-
(R) → Brain stem forms the connection between the brain and spinal cord.

171) NCERT-XI, Page # 232, 233

The correct sequence of generation and conduction of impulse –
A. Stimulus applied on the polarised membrane.
B. Rapid influx of Na +

C. Reversal of polarity (depolarisation)

D. Rise in permeability to K+ followed by K+ efflux.
E. Restoration of membrane potential.

172) NCERT-XI, Page # 205

Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects excrete nitrogenous wastes as uric acids in the form of
pellet or paste with a minimum loss of water are uricotelic animals.

173) NCERT-XI, Page # 213-214

Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to accumulation of urea in blood a condition called Uremia.

174) NCERT-XII, Page # 28

Both statement I and II are correct

175) NCERT-XII, Page # 30

A. Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair.
B. The labia majora are fleshy folds of tissue.
C. The clitoris is a tiny finger like structure which lies at the upper junction of two labia
minora above the urethral opening.
D. Hymen is membrane that partially covered vaginal opening.

176) NCERT-XII, Page # 31

177) NCERT-XII, Page # 31
The glandular of is breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobes. So in both breast number of
mammary lobes is 30-40.

178) NCERT-XII, Page # 31

1. Spermatogenesis — formation of male gamete (sperm).
2. Spermiation — Sperm released from the seminiferous tubules.
3. Insemination — Transfer of sperms into the female genital tract.
4. Spermiogenesis — The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa (sperms)

179) NCERT-XII, Page # 48 A. AI → Artificial insemination

B. ICSI → Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
C. GIFT → Gamete intra fallopian transfer
D. E.T → Embryo transfer

180) NCERT-XII, Page # 47

1. Haemophilia → genetic disorder
2. Cholera → Bacterial disease
4.Malaria → Protozoal disease