24-08-2025

1902CMD303021250031 MD

PHYSICS

1) The vector form of Biot-Savart law for a current carrying element is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) For a conductor carrying current i is shown in diagram then magnetic field at point O will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The magnetic field at centre, P will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 4μ0π

4)

Equal currents are flowing in three long infinitely wires along positive x, y and z directions. The
magnetic field at a point (0, 0, –a) would be
( i = current in each wire) :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Magnetic field at origin 'O' due to given current distribution is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) For a hexagonal conductor carrying current i is shown in diagram then magnetic field at point O
will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

7) The equation of the line where the magnetic field is zero due to system of two perpendicular

infinitely long current carrying straight wires, is :-

(1) x = y
(2) x = 2y
(3) x = 3y
(4) 3x = y

8) Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. They carry steady equal currents flowing out of
the plane of the paper, as shown. The variation of the magnetic field B along the XX' is given by :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) For a conductor carrying current i is shown in diagram then magnetic field at point O will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) In figure, infinite conducting rings each having current i in the direction shown are placed
concentrically in the same plane as shown in the figure. The radius of rings are r, 2r, 2²r, 2³r ........ ∞.
The magnetic field at the centre of rings will be :
(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) In the given figure magnetic field at the centre of ring (O) is T. Now it is turned through
o
90 about XX' axis, so that two semicircular parts are mutually perpendicular. Then find the value of
magnetic field (in Tesla) at centre :-

(1) 8
(2)
(3) 4
(4)

12) Figure shows a circular loop with radius 'r'. The resistance of arc ABC is 5Ω and that of ADC is
10Ω. Magnetic field at the centre of the loop is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Radius of a current carrying coil is ‘R’. The ratio of magnetic field at centre to a axial point
which is distance away from the centre of the coil is :

(1) 2
(2) 8
(3)
(4) 4

14)

Value of for the closed path shown in diagram from highest to lowest.

(1) c > b > a

(2) a > c > b
(3) a > b > c
(4) b > a > c

15) Current i is flowing uniformly at surface of hollow cylindrical conductor of radius is R if magnetic
field at a distance 2R is B0, then magnetic field at a distance R/2 from centre of cylinder will be:

(1) 4B0

(2)

(3) 0
(4) 16B0

16) A long straight wire of radius 'a' carries a steady current i. The current is uniformly distributed
over its cross-section of radius 'a'. Then magnetic field at a distance 2a from its axis is B then
magnetic field at a distance a/4 from its axis will be:

(1)

(2) B
(3) B/2
(4) zero

17) A hollow cylinderical wire carries a current I, having inner and outer radii 'R' and 2R
respectively. Magnetic field at a point which 3R/2 distance away from its axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18)

A toroidal solenoid has 3000 turns and a mean radius of 10 cm. It has a soft iron core of relative
permeability 2000. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field in the core when a current of 1 A is
passed through the solenoid?

(1) 0.012 T
(2) 0.12 T
(3) 1.2 T
(4) 12 T

19) A charged particle is projected in a magnetic field . The acceleration of the

particle is found to be . the value of x will be :

(1) 2
(2) –2
(3) 4
(4) –4

20) If a charge of mass m & charge Q is moving in region (i) with speed v0 as shown as uniform
magnetic field exists of region (ii), then which option is correct ?

(1)
If ; then charge will enter (iii)

(2)
If ; then charge will come in (i) again

(3)
If ; then charge will not enter (iii)
(4) Both (2) & (3)

21) A particle of charge q and mass m is moving along the x-axis with a velocity v and enters a
region of electric field E and magnetic field B as shown in figure below for which figure the net force
on the charge may be zero ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) A proton (mass m and charge +e) and an ∝-particle (mass 4m and charge +2e) are projected
with the same kinetic energy at right angles to the uniform magnetic field. Which one of the
following statements will be true

(1) The ∝-particle will be bent in a circular path with a small radius that for the proton
(2) The radius of the path of the ∝-particle will be greater than that of the proton
(3) The ∝-particle and the proton will be bent in a circular path with the same radius
(4) The ∝-particle and the proton will go through the field in a straight line

23) A particle of charge per unit mass ∝ is projected from origin with a velocity in a uniform
magnetic field . If the particle passes through (0, y, 0) then y is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A charge having q/m equal to 108 C/kg and with velocity 4 × 105 m/s enters into a uniform
magnetic field B = 2T at an angle 30o with direction of field.
Then radius of curvature will be :

(1) 2 cm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 4 mm

25) When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a0​ towards
west. When it is projected towards north with a speed v0​ it moves with an initial acceleration 3a0​
toward west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A particle of charge –q and mass m enters a uniform magnetic field (perpendicular to paper
inwards) at P with a velocity v0 at an angle ∝ and leaves the field at Q with velocity v at angle β as

shown in figure. Which option is incorrect ?

(1) ∝ = β
(2) v = v0

(3)
Particle remains in the field for time
(4) None

27)

A proton accelerated by a potential difference 500 kV moves through a transverse magnetic field of
0.51 T as shown in figure. The angle θ through which the proton deviates from the initial direction of
its motion is :
(1) 15o
(2) 30o
(3) 45o
(4) 60o

28) Magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop of area A is B. The magnetic moment of the loop
will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A and B are two wires carrying a current I in the same direction. x and y are two electron beams
moving in the same direction. There will be :-

(1) Attraction between A and B, repulsion between x and y

(2) Repulsion between A and B, attraction between x and y
(3) Attraction between A and B & x and y
(4) Repulsion between A and B & x and y

30) Two magnets A and B are identical and these are arranged as shown in the figure. Their length
is negligible in comparison with the separation between them. A magnetic needle is placed between
the magnets at point P which gets deflected through an angle θ under the influence of magnets. The

ratio of distances d1​ and d2​ will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Same current i = 2A is flowing in a wire frame as shown in figure. The frame is a combination of
two equilateral triangles ACD and CDE of side 1m. It is placed in uniform magnetic field B = 4T
acting perpendicular to the plane of frame. The magnitude of magnetic force acting on the frame is :

(1) 24 N
(2) zero
(3) 16 N
(4) 8 N

32) A conducting wire bent in the form of a parabola y2 = 2x carries a current i = 2 A as shown in
figure. This wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field tesla. The magnetic force on the wire
is (in newton) :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight
conductor XY carrying a current I1, the net force on the loop will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying
same current 'i' along the same direction as shown in figure. Magnitude of force per unit length on
the middle wire 'B' is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35)

An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the
centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to:

(1)
(2) B/v
(3)
(4) v/B

36)

A loop in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side ℓ is suspended between the pole piece of a
permanent magnet such that is in plane of the loop. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque
acts on it, side ℓ of the triangle is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A bar magnet of length 14 cm and magnetic moment M is broken into two parts of lengths 6 cm
and 8 cm. They are put at right angles to each other with opposite poles together. The magnetic
moment of the combination is….
(1)

(2) 1.4 M
(3) 2.8 M

(4)

38) A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is bent in the form of quadrant of circular arc. The new
magnetic moment is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) M

39)

A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in
equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by 60o is W. Now the torque required to keep the
magnet in this new position is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The graph for an alloy of paramagnetic nature is shown in Fig. The curie constant is, then

(1) 57K
(2) 2.8 × 10–3 K
(3) 570 K
(4) 17.5 × 10–3 K

41) The magnetic moment of magnet of mass 75 gm is 9 × 10–7 Am2. If the density of the material of

magnet is then intensity of magnetization will be

(1) 0.9 A/m

(2) 0.09 A/m
(3) 9 A/m
(4) 90 A/m

42) The coercivity of a bar magnet is 100A/m. It is to be demagnetised by placing it inside a solenoid
of length 100 cm and number of turns 50. The current flowing the solenoid will be

(1) 4A
(2) 2A
(3) 1A
(4) zero

43) Relation between permeability μ and magnetising field H for a sample of iron is

where unit of H is A/m. Find value of H for which magnetic induction of 1.0
2
Wb/m can be produce.

(1) 200
(2) 300
(3) 400
(4) 500

44) Following plots show Magnetization (M) vs Magnetising field (H) and Magnetic susceptibility
vs temperature (T) graph:
Which of the following combination will be represented by a diamagnetic material ?

(1) (a), (c)

(2) (a), (d)
(3) (d), (d)
(4) (b), (c)

45)
The figure gives experimentally measured B vs. H variation in a ferromagnetic material. The
coercivity and saturation, retentivity, respectively, of the material are:

(1) 150 A/m, 1.0 T and 1.5 T

(2) 1.0 T, 50 A/m and 1.5 T
(3) 1.5 T, 50 A/m and 1.0 T
(4) 1.5 T, 50 A/m and 1.0 T

CHEMISTRY

1) (A) and (B) are respectively

(1)
both

(2)
both

(3)
and
(4)
and

2) Which of the following get dehydrated most easily :-

(1) 1–Phenyl–2–butanol
(2) 1–Phenyl–1–butanol
(3) 2–Phenyl–1–butanol
(4) 2–Phenyl–2–butanol

3)

Product B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

4)
Total number of possible alkenes obtained in reaction?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 3

5) Most reactive for decarboxylation is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Correct order of reactivity towards electrophilic addition reactions (EAR) is :-

(1) CH2=CH2>CH3–CH=CH2>(CH3)2C=CH2
(2) CH2=CH2>CH3–CH=CH2<(CH3)2C=CH2
(3) CH2=CH2<(CH3)2C=CH2<CH3–CH=CH2
(4) CH2=CH2<CH3–CH=CH2<(CH3)2C=CH2

7) Correct reactivity order of decarboxylation is

(1) I > II > III

(2) I > III > II
(3) III > II > I
(4) III > I > II

8)

Predict the product ‘C’ obtained in the following reaction of 1-butyne :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9)
Wrong statement about the product is

(1) A and B have the same functional group

(2) A and B are position isomers.
(3) A and B show chain isomerism
(4) Mixed ether is the isomer of both A and B

10) The major product formed in the reaction

is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The major product obtained in the reaction is

Major product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which of the following group is ortho para director :-

(1)
(2)

(3) –C ≡ N

(4)

13) For the reaction

Product B is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Assertion :- In friedel craft's reaction of 1-chloropropane with benzene gives isopropyl benzene
as product.
Reason :- The primary carbocation rearranges to form secondary carbocation.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is NOT a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both assertion & reason are false

16) Assertion (A):– When CH3Cl and AlCl3 are used in F.C.R. the electrophile is Cl⊕ .
Reason (R):– The first attack on benzene is of Cl⊕.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are False

17) Assertion : Rates of nitration of benzene and hexadeuterobenzene are different.

Reason : C–H bond is stronger than C–D bond.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Electrophile attacks the following :

in which cases will attack at meta position

(1) II and IV
(2) I, II and III
(3) III and IV
(4) I only

19)
the number of chiral carbons in 'A' are

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Assertion (A) :- 2-Bromopentane react with alcoholic KOH to form 2-pentene.
Reason (R) :- Alcoholic KOH follows E1, mechanism.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

21) Assertion :– Addition of HBr in presence of peroxide on alkene is free radical addition. This
reaction is not shown by HCl.
Reason :– Due to less bond energy of HCl than HBr, homolysis of HCl can not occur.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct

(2) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(3) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

22) The product 'B' is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The most suitable reagent to differentiate ethyne and ethene is :

(1) Br2 in CCl4

(2) NaHCO3
(3) NaOH
(4) NaNH2

24) Which of the following is not electrophilic addition reaction ?

+
(1) Addition of H /H2O on alkene
(2) Addition of dihydrogen on alkenes
(3) Addition of halogen (X2) on alkenes
(4) Addition of hydrogen halides (HX) on alkenes

25) For the reaction,

The product (C) is :

(1) CH2=CH2

(2)

(3) H–C ≡ C–H

(4)

26) An alkene A on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and pentan-3-one. The IUPAC name of A is.

(1) 3-ethyl-3-pentene
(2) 3-ethylidene pentane
(3) 3-ethyl pent-2-ene
(4) 1,1-diethyl prop-1-ene

27) For the reaction : The incorrect statement is :

(1) A and B are chain isomers

(2) A and B are position isomers
(3) A is 1-bromo-3-methyl butane
(4) B is 2-bromo-2-methyl butane

28) For the reaction :

Consider statements :-

(a) Product A is

(b) Product A is
(c) Product B is CH3–CH2–CH=O
(d) Product B is
The correct statements are :

(1) b, d
(2) a, c
(3) only b
(4) only a

29) Least reactive towards alkane is :

(1) F2
(2) Cl2
(3) Br2
(4) I2

30)

Arrange the following in correct order of reactivity towards Br2/hυ –

(A) CH4
(B) CH3CH3
(C) CH3CH2CH3

(D)

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) D > C > B > A
(3) B > C > A > D
(4) C > B > D > A

31) Which is the major product of the following given reaction?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Iodination of methane can be carried out in presence of –

(1) HIO3
(2) HBrO3
(3) HCIO3
(4) HCl

33)
and Y is :

(1) Positional isomer

(2) Homomer
(3) Homolog
(4) Functional isomer

34) Which of the following reaction is proceed with free radical mechanism.

(1)
+ HBr →
(2)
+ HCl

(3)
+ H2O

(4)
+ HBr

35) 3CH3–C≡CH ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) What will be the product (P) in the following reaction

(1) Tertiary alcohol

(2) Sec-alcohol
(3) Primary alcohol
(4) t-Butyl alcohol

37)

1, 1, 2, 2, tetra bromo-ethane What is A :-

(1) Ethyne
(2) Propene
(3) I-Butene
(4) Acetone

38) When CH3CH2CHCl2 is treated with NaNH2, the product formed is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) (Major product) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Product formed when acetylene is passed through red hot fe tube is :-

(1) Cyclohexane
(2) Benzene
(3) Ethane
(4) Neoprene

41) Friedel craft reaction of benzene with ethylene in presence of HCl and anhydrous AlCl3 gives:-

(1) Styrene
(2) Toluene
(3) Ethyl benzene
(4) 1, 1-Diphenyl ethylene

42) Which of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Nitration of Toluene is :-

(1) Nucleophilic substitution

(2) Nucleophilic addition
(3) Electrophilic addition
(4) Electrophilic substitution

44)
Product of the following reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 and 2 both

45) major product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

BIOLOGY

1) The sugar present in ATP is :-

(1) Ribose
(2) Hexose
(3) Glucose
(4) Deoxyribose

2)

Atomic model of DNA suggested by

(1) Kossel
(2) Altman
(3) Meischer
(4) Watson and Crick

3) The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA in chromosomes by Taylor was
shown in :

(1) E.Coli
(2) Vicia faba
(3) λ phage
(4) Mangifera indica

4) A classical example of point mutation is :-

(1) Down syndrome

(2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Klinfelter syndrome
(4) Turner syndrome
5) Main enzyme of transcription–

(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase

(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

6) Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon. This property of Genetic code is known as :

(1) Degenerate
(2) Unambiguous
(3) Universal
(4) ambiguous

7) The amino acid acceptor arm of the t-RNA is at its........

(1) DHU loop

(2) loop
(3) 3' end
(4) 5' end

8) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Both nucleic acid (DNA and RNA) have the ability to direct their duplication.
(2) RNA is labile and easily degradable.
(3) Presence of uracil at the place of thymine provide additional stability to DNA.
(4) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate.

9) In "QB bacteriophage" genetic material is :-

(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) Protein
(4) Lipid

10) Transcription unit in DNA is –

(1) Promoter
(2) Structural gene
(3) Terminator
(4) All

11) Mature eucaryotic m–RNA is recognised by

(1) Shine dalgarno sequence at 5' end

(2) 7–methyl guanosine at 5' end and polyadenine bases at 3' end
(3) Anti shine dalgarno sequence at 5' end
(4) Presence of coding and noncoding sequence

12) One strand of DNA (non template) has base sequence CAG, TCG, GAT. What will be the
sequence of bases in m-RNA :-

(1) AGC, CTA, CTA

(2) GTC, AGC, CTC
(3) CAG. UCG. GAU
(4) GAC. TAG. CTA

13) The most abundant RNA of cell is :-

(1) r-RNA
(2) t-RNA
(3) m-RNA
(4) None of these

14) Portion of gene which is transcribed but not translated is :-

(1) exon
(2) intron
(3) cistron
(4) codon

15) Which is soluble RNA :-

(1) hnRNA
(2) rRNA
(3) mRNA
(4) tRNA

16) DNA acts as a template for synthesis of :-

(1) RNA
(2) DNA
(3) Both '1' and '2'
(4) Protein

17) Correct order of molecular weight is :-

(1) DNA < r-RNA < t-RNA

(2) DNA < m-RNA < r-RNA
(3) t-RNA < m-RNA < DNA
(4) t-RNA < DNA < m-RNA
18) How many of compounds given below represent nucleosides (X) and nucleotides (Y). :
Adenylic acid, cytidine, AMP, dCMP, Guanosine, dAMP

(1) X = 4, Y = 2
(2) X = 3, Y = 3
(3) X = 2, Y = 4
(4) X = 1, Y = 5

19) Synthesis of RNA molecule is terminated by a signal recognized by :-

(1) Sigma factor

(2) Beta factor
(3) Alpha factor
(4) Rho factor

20) The total number of sense codons present in genetic code is :-

(1) 64
(2) 61
(3) 3
(4) 20

21) Consider the following statements and choose the correct option :-
(a) Six codons do not code for any amino-acid.
(b) Codon is read in m-RNA in a contiguous fashion.
(c) Three codons function as stop codons.
(d) The initiator codon AUG codes for methionine.
Option :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) are wrong

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are wrong
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are wrong
(4) (a) is wrong

22) DNA replication is :-

(1) Bidirectional process

(2) Semiconservative process
(3) Semidiscontinuous process
(4) All of these

23) Sex determination mechanism in honey bee is-

(1) ZZ - ZW type
(2) XX - XO type
(3) XX - XY type
(4) Haplodiploid mechanism

24) Isotopes used for proving semi conservative mode of replication are by Meselson and Stahl :-

(1) N14 and P31

(2) P32 and S35
(3) N14 and N15
15 3
(4) N and 1H

25) Which of the following experimental techniques was used by Meselson & stahl in order to prove
semi-conservative model of DNA replication ?

(1) X - ray crystallography

(2) Autoradiography
(3) Centrifugation
(4) Chromatography

26)

RNA can acts as

(a) Genetic material (b) Messenger
(c) Adapter molecule (d) Structural molecule
(e) Catalytic molecule

(1) b,c and e only

(2) a, d and e only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) a, b, c, d and e

27)

Read the following statements :-

(i) Eukaryotic gene is split-gene as along with exons, introns are also present
(ii) The split gene arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of eukaryotic genome
(iii) The presence of introns is reminiscent of antiquity in eukaryotes
(iv) The process of splicing suggest the dominance of RNA-world

Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (iii), (iv) only

28) Which one is correctly matched ?

(1) RNA Polymerase - I - ScRNA

(2) RNA Polymerase - II - SnRNA
(3) RNA Polymerase - III - 5.8 SrRNA
(4) RNA Polymerase - II - HnRNA

29) Given below in the diagrammatic sketch of the transcription unit. Identify the parts labelled A, B,

C and D. Select the right option about them.

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Antisense Sense
(1) Promoter Pribnow box
Strand strand
Sense Antisense
(2) Terminator Promoter
strand strand
Antisense Sense
(3) Promoter Terminator
strand strand
Sense Antisense
(4) Promoter Terminator
strand strand
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) The histone protein that is present between nucleosomes is _____

(1) H1
(2) H4
(3) attaches to DNA strands
(4) All of these

31)

The functional location of which of the following enzyme is nucleolus :-

(1) RNA polymerase - I

(2) DNA polymerase
(3) RNA polymerase - III
(4) Peptidyl transferase

32)

At the time of DNA replication deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate serves dual purposes which are :-

(1) These are acting as substrate

(2) They provide energy for polymerisation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

33)

If genetic code is non-degenerate and quadraplate and 7 codons are nonsense codon then how many
amino acid may be represented from this genetic code :-

(1) 256
(2) 263
(3) 249
(4) 200

34) A typical nucleosome contains how much amount of DNA?

(1) 100 bp
(2) 146 bp
(3) 200 bp
(4) 346 bp

35) If normal E. Coli is allow to grow for 80 minutes in 15NH4Cl medium then what would be the
proportion of hybrid and heavy density DNA molecules:-

(1) 1 : 7
(2) 7 : 1
(3) 14 : 2
(4) 1 : 4

36) Select the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) Cistron is segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide.

(2) The coding sequence or expressed sequences are defined as exons
(3) Introns or intervening sequences appears in mature or processed RNA
(4) Split gene arrangement is present in eukaryotes.

37) Select the incorrectly matched pair

(1) Initiation codon – AUG

(2) Stop Codon – UAA, UAG, UGA
(3) Methionine - AUG
(4) Anticodon - mRNA

38) The transforming principle in Griffith’s experiment was established

(1) When live S-strain of S. pneumoniae were injected in Mice.

(2) When live R-strain of S. pneumoniae were injected in Mice.
(3) When heat killed R-strain of S. pneumoniae were injected in Mice.
(4) When heat killed S-strain of S. pneumonia were injected with R-strain in Mice

39) Methyl Guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5’ end of hnRNA in a process called as

(1) Splicing
(2) Capping
(3) Tailing
(4) Cutting

40) Study the given pedigree chart and choose the correct statement.

(1) The trait under study is dominant

(2) Both parents are homozygous
(3) The trait can be X-linked recessive disease haemophilia
(4) The trait depicted is autosomal recessive like cystic fibrosis

41) Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: mRNA carries genetic information provided by DNA.
Statement B: In ribosomes. rRNA has structural role.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

42) The three-dimensional structure of the tRNA was proposed to be

(1) Inverted L-shaped

(2) Clover-leaf like
(3) Double-helical
(4) Y-shaped

43) Which enzyme was used in polymerising RNA with defined sequences in a template independent
manner during decoding of genetic code?

(1) Poly A polymerase

(2) Guanyl transferase
(3) Severo ochoa (Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzyme)
(4) Taq polymerase

44) What is the rate of polymerisation in E. coli

(1) 20,000 bp per second

(2) 2000 nucleotides per second
(3) 2000 bp per minute
(4) 2000 bp per second

45) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) DNA act as genetic material

(2) RNA act as genetic material
(3) RNA act as genetic material when DNA is not present
(4) RNA may act as genetic material even when DNA is present

46) All the following diseases are spread by mosquito except :-

(1) Chikungunya
(2) Dengue
(3) Chicken pox
(4) Filariasis

47) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(a) Health is affected by genetic disorders, life-style and infections.
(b) Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good health.
(c) Health is only "absence of disease" or "physical fitness".
(d) In allergic reactions, adrenaline is the life-saving drug.

(1) a, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, b, c, d

48) When people are healthy they are?

(a) More efficient at work
(b) Decreases productivity
(c) Brings economic prosperity
(d) Increases longevity of people
(e) Increases infant and maternal mortality
How many statements are correct about healthy people :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) All are correct

49) Which of the following humour shows "Hot personality" in person according to good humour
hypothesis of Hippocrates ?

(1) Yellow bile

(2) Black bile
(3) Blood
(4) Phlegm

50) How many pair is/are correctly matched ?

(a) Malaria – Female Anopheles
(b) Diphtheria – Mycobacterium leprae
(c) Plague – Yersinia pestis
(d) Pneumonia – Rhino virus

(1) a & b
(2) b & c
(3) b & d
(4) a & c

51) Primary response which is of ____(A)____ intensity. Subsequent encounter with the same
pathogen elicit a ___(B)___intensified ___(C)___ response.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) High Low Anamnestic
(2) Low High Primary
(3) Low High Secondary
(4) High Low Primary

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) Fill in the blanks in the different columns of the table given below :-

Causal organism
Disease Medium of transfer
and part it infects

Droplets from sneezing

(i) Common cold A
of infected persons

Trichophyton, skin, Using towels of infected

(ii) B
nails and scalp individuals

Droplets/aerosols released
(iii) Pneumonia C by infected persons,
sharing meals

Wuchereria Lymphatic
(iv) Filariasis D
vessels
(A) : Rhinovirus, Nose and respiratory passage
(B) : Ringworm
(1)
(C) : Haemophilus influenzae , Alveoli of lungs
(D) : Contaminated food and water
 (A) : Coryza virus, Alveoli of lungs
(B) : Ringworm
(2)
(C) : Streptococcus pneumoniae, Nose and respiratory passage
(D) : Culex, mosquito mainly
(A) : Rhinovirus, Nose and respiratory passage not lungs (B) : Ascariasis
(3) (C) : Haemophilus influenzae , Lungs
(D) : Culex, mosquito mainly
(A) : Rhinovirus, Nose and respiratory passage not lungs
(B) : Ringworm
(4)
(C) : Haemophilus influenzae, Alveoli of lungs
(D) : Culex, mosquito mainly

53)

Active artificial immunization is induced by administration of :-

(a) Bacterial products (b) Toxoids

(c) Dead microbes (d) Antitoxins

(1) a & b only
(2) a, b & c only
(3) b & d only
(4) c & d only

54) Choose incorrect statement for pathogen.

(1) All parasites are pathogen but all pathogen are not parasite.
(2) Pathogens have to adapt to life within environment of host.
(3) Pathogens cause morphological and functional damage to body.
(4) Disease causing organism is called as pathogen.

55) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Health was once considered a balance of certain 'humors' as per early Greeks and the
Indian Ayurveda system of medicine.
Statement II: The 'good humor' hypothesis of health was supported by the discovery of blood
circulation by William Harvey and the demonstration of normal body temperature in persons with
'blackbile'.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

56) Plasmodium enters the human body as :-

(1) Female Anopheles mosquito

(2) Sporozoite
(3) Trophozoite
(4) Haemozoin

57) Widal test is used for the diagnosis of :

(1) Typhoid
(2) Malaria
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Tuberculosis

58) Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into
the body contain :-

(1) Activated pathogens

(2) Harvested antibodies
(3) Gamma globulin
(4) Attenuated pathogens

59) Principle of vaccination is based on –

(1) Discrimination between self-non self

(2) Diversity
(3) Immunological memory
(4) Specificity

60) Which is correct match-

(1) Immunization- providing immunity artificially.

(2) Natural Immunity- Vaccine
(3) Toxoid- Killed organism
(4) Attenuated vaccine- killed organism

61)

A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering :-

(1) Weakened germs

(2) Dead germs
(3) Preformed antibodies
(4) Wide spectrum antibiotics

62) Saliva of mouth and tears of eye are included under which barrier ?

(1) Physiological barrier

(2) Physical barrier
(3) Cellular barrier
(4) Cytokine barrier
63) Which of following are the cells of cellular barrier of innate immunity ?

(1) PMNL
(2) Monocyte
(3) B-Lymphocyte
(4) Both (1) & (2)

64) 50 percent of the lymphoid in human body is constituted by

(1) MALT of major tracts

(2) lymph glands
(3) lymph nodes
(4) bone marrow and thymus gland

65) N.K. cells are type of :-

(1) Erythrocytes
(2) Neutrophils
(3) Lymphocytes
(4) Monocytes

66) Interferons are :

(1) Antiviral proteins

(2) Secreted by bacteria infected cells to produce Translation inhibition protein by itself
(3) Bacteria specific
(4) All of the above

67) Which one of the following is not the criteria for successful organ transplantation ?

(1) Use of immunosuppressants

(2) Tissue matching
(3) Hormone therapy
(4) Blood group matching

68)

Which of the following statement is false for the structure marked 'A' in the given figure ?
(1) It is related with immunity
(2) It is located near the heart and beneath the breastbone
(3) Here 'B'-lymphocytes differentiates into antigen sensitive lymphocytes
(4) It is included in primary lymphoid organ

69) Grafts from just any source – an animal, another primate or any human being cannot be made
since the grafts would be rejected by mainly :

(1) Helper T-cells

(2) Suppressor T-cells
(3) B-cells
(4) Cytotoxic T-cells

70) Which antibody is called secretary antibodies:-

(1) IgE
(2) IgA
(3) IgG
(4) IgM

71) A person without Thymus would not be able to

(1) Reject a tissue transplant

(2) Receive a tissue transplant
(3) Develop an inflammatory response
(4) Show phagocytosis

72)

How many of the below are incorrect about given diagram :-

 (a) It is antigen
(b) T-cells them selves do not secrete but help B-cell produce them.
(c) Ionic bond present
(d) H2L2 molecule
(e) Glycoprotein molecule
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

73)

Which of the following lymphoid organ does not provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with
the antigen, which then proliferate to become effector cells

(1) Tonsils
(2) Peyer's patches
(3) Bone marrow
(4) Spleen

74)

Which of the following is not a difference between IgG and IgM?

(1) IgM is a pentamer while IgG is a monomer

(2) IgG is formed early during the primary response, IgM is formed later
(3) IgG can cross the placenta, IgM usually does not
(4) IgG has two antigen binding sites, IgM has ten

75) Which of the following lymphoid organ are called primary lymphoid organ.

(1) Bone marrow

(2) Thymus
(3) Spleen
(4) Both (1) and (2)

76) Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta OR through mother's milk
to the infant is categorised as:

(1) Active immunity

(2) Passive immunity
(3) Cellular immunity
(4) Innate non-specific immunity

77) _____ produces an army of proteins in response to pathogens into our blood to fight with them.

(1) Antibody
(2) Antigen
(3) B-lymphocytes
(4) Helper T-cell

78) Gambusia is a fish which is being introduced into the ponds in order to check the vector borne
diseases such as :

(1) dengue
(2) malaria
(3) chikungunya
(4) all of these

79) Which is related with ringworm ?

(a) Microsporm (b) Trichophyton (c) Epidermophyton

(1) a
(2) a, b
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, c

80) Ringworm is associated with :-

(1) Trichophyton
(2) Epidermophyton
(3) Dry and scaly lesions
(4) All

81) In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic
vessels?

(1) Elephantiasis
(2) Ascariasis
(3) Ringworm disease
(4) Amoebiasis

82) Which of the following statement is correct?

I. When the mosquito is bites human sporozoites are injected with bite.
II. Parasites/sporaozites reach the liver though blood.
III. The parasite reproduce sexually in liver cell bursting the cell.
IV. The parasite reproduce asexually in red blood cells bursting the red blood cells.
V. Fertilisation and development take place in the mosquito's liver.
VI. Mature infective stage escape from stomach and migrate to the mosquito salivary gland.

(1) I, II, IV & VI

(2) I, II, IV & V
(3) I, II, III, IV & V
(4) All

83) Which pyrogen is associated with malaria ?

(1) Hemozoin
(2) Biliverdin
(3) Hemoglobin
(4) Plasmodium

84) Malignant malaria is caused by

(1) Plasmodium vivax

(2) Plasmodium malariae
(3) Plasmodium falciparum
(4) Plasmodium ovale

85) Identify the likely A, B, C, D in the following life cycle.

Options :-

A B C D

(1) Gametocyte Salivary gland Liver Sporozoites

(2) Sporozoites Salivary gland Liver Gametocyte

(3) Sporozoites Liver Salivary gland Gametocyte

(4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocytes Salivary gland

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Houseflies act as mechanical carriers in which disease ?

(1) AIDS
(2) Amoebic dysentery
(3) Ringuorm
(4) Malaria

87) How many of the following is/are not correct about pneumonia?
(a) It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae
(b) Infects the alveoli of the lungs
(c) Symptoms of pneumonia include fever, chills, cough and headache.
(d) In severe cases the lips and finger nails may turn pinkish

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) All are correct

88) How many of the following are not characteristics of common cold ?
A. Caused by retroviruses.
B. Infection of nose, respiratory passage and lungs.
C. Nasal conjestion and nasal discharge.
D. Usually last for 3-7 days
E. Lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour in sever conditions.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) All

89) Select the diseases which caused by bacterial infection

(1) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Hepatitis–B

(2) Hepatitis–B, Ringworm, Trichomoniasis
(3) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Tetanus
(4) Diptheria, Smallpox, AIDS

90) How many of the disease in the list given below are autoimmune disorders :-
Myasthenia gravis, I.D.D.M, osteoarthritis, Albinism, Hemophilia. Hashimoto disease

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 1 1 1 3 2 3 4 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 3 3 4 4 2 4 1 3 1 2 3 3 3 3 1 2 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 4 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 2 4 1 4 1 3 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 4 4 2 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 4 2 3 3 1 1 4 2 4 1 2 4 3 3 1 2 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 4 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 4 2 2 2 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 1 2 4 3 3 3 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 4 3 3 4 3 4 4 1 1 3 3 3 1 3 4 4 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 3 4 4 3 3 2 2 4 3 4 2 1 4 2 1 4 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 4 1 3 1 3 3 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 2 3 4 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 1 3 3 2 3 2 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Correct answer is .

2) Correct answer is .

3) Correct answer is .

4) Correct answer is .

5) Correct answer is

6) Correct answer is

7) correct answer is x = 3y

8) Correct answer is .

9) Correct answer is

10) Correct answer is

11) Correct answer is 8

12) Correct answer is

13) Correct answer is 8.

14) correct answer is a > c > b.

15) Correct answer is 0.

16) correct answer is B/2.

17)

correct answer is .

18) correct answer is 12 T

19) Correct answer is –2.

20) correct answer is Both (b) & (c).

21)
Correct answer is 2.

22) The ∝-particle and the proton will be bent in a circular path with the same radius.

23) correct answer is .

24) Correct answer is 1 mm.

25) Correct answer is .

26) Correct answer is None

27) Correct answer is 30o.

28) Correct answer is .

29) Attraction between A and B, repulsion between x and y.

30) correct answer is .

31) Correct answer is 24 N.

32) Correct answer is .

33) Correct answer is .

34) Correct answer is .

35) Correct answer is .

36) Correct answer is

37) Correct answer is .

38) Correct answer is .

39) Correct answer is .

 40) Correct answer is 57K.

41) Correct answer is 0.09 A/m.

42) Correct answer is 2A.

43) Correct answer is 500.

44) Correct answer is (a), (c).

45) 1.0 T, 50 A/m and 1.5 T.

CHEMISTRY

46)

Correct answer is and .

47)

Correct answer is 2–Phenyl–2–butanol.

48)

Correct answer is

49)

Correct answer is 3.

50)

Correct answer is

51)
 CH2=CH2<CH3–CH=CH2<(CH3)2C=CH2

52)

Correct answer is I > II > III.

53)

Correct answer is 3.

54)
A and B are not chain isomers. A and B are isomers of CH3—CH2—O—CH3
(i.e. mixed ether)

55) Explain Question – The question asks for the major product formed when p-methyl
cumene is reacted with a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and concentrated sulfuric acid
(nitration).

Concept – Electrophilic substitution reaction (ESR), Nitration, Directing Effects of

Substituents, Activating and Deactivating Groups, Ortho, Para Directors, Steric Effects.

Solution –
This is an Electrophilic substitution reaction (ESR). The nitrating mixture generates the
electrophile, NO₂⁺.

A. The reactant is p-methyl cumene, which has a methyl group (-CH₃) and an isopropyl group
(-CH(CH₃)₂) at the para position to each other on the benzene ring.
B. Both the methyl group (+I, +H) and the isopropyl group (+I, +H) are activating groups and
ortho, para directors.
C. When multiple activating groups are present, the directing effect is determined by the group
that is more activating or less sterically hindering at the available positions.
D. The incoming electrophile (NO₂⁺) will attack these positions. Due to the presence of the bulky
isopropyl group, the position ortho to it will experience more steric hindrance. The most
favorable position is ortho of CH3.

The major product will be formed by substitution at ortho to methyl.

Final Answer – Option (2)

56)

Explain Question – The question asks for the major product formed when 1,3-
dichlorobenzene is reacted with fuming sulfuric acid (SO3 / H2SO4).

Concept – Electrophilic substitution reaction (ESR), Sulfonation, Directing Effects of

Substituents, Activating and Deactivating Groups, Meta Directors, Ortho, Para Directors.

Solution –
The reaction is the sulfonation of 1,3-dichlorobenzene with fuming sulfuric acid, which
provides the electrophile SO3. This is an Electrophilic substitution reaction (ESR). The reactant
is 1,3-dichlorobenzene, which has two chlorine atoms (-Cl) attached to the benzene ring at
positions 1 and 3. The chlorine atom is electron-withdrawing through induction (-I) but
electron-donating through resonance (+M). The inductive effect is stronger, making chlorine
overall deactivating, but it is an ortho, para director.

Therefore, the major product is 3,5-dichlorobenzenesulfonic acid.

Final Answer – Option (2)

57)
Correct answer :

58) Question is Asking About:

Product 'B' of Reaction.

Concept:
Friedal craft reaction and chlorination (Halogenation) of Toluene.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

​Hence, option (2) is correct.

59)

60) OR
61)

⇒ When Benzene is treated with alkyl halide [R-X] in the presence of Lewis Acid AlCl3 then
Alkyl Benzene is formed and reaction is called as FRIEDAL CRAFT'S REACTION.
⇒ AlCl3 is used to generate [ Electrophile]
⇒ R - x + AlCl3 - [ Electrophile].
Here is (carbocation) hence rearrangement is possible.

⇒
⇒ Here attack first.

62) Explaination: Identify the correct statement.

Concept:
(1) Isotopic effect.
(2) C –D bond is stranger then C – H Bond.
Solution:
Assertion: C–H bond break in fast step.
So, if 'H' is replace by 'D' or 'T' then also rate of reaction remains unchanged means isotopic
effect is absent.
Therefore rate of nitration of benzene and hexa-deutero bezene are same.
Hence assertion is false.
Reason: C – D bond is stronger then C – H bond.
Hence reason is also false.
Final Answer: Option (4)

63)

64) A is
65)

66)

Reason is wrong because HCl has more bond energy.

67)

68) Asking About :- Reagent to difference hate ethene and ethyne

Concept :- Acid-Base reaction feasibility
Soln / Explanation :-
Since terminal alkyne is strong base then ammonia hence reacts with NH3 the form salt.

Only those reactions are possible in which strong acid displaces weaker acid from its salt but
vice-versa is not true
- Alkenes being weaker acid then HH3 hence no reaction takes place.

No reaction.

69)

It is free radical addition.

70) Asking About :- Product (c) of reaction

Concept :- EAR and E-2 reaction.
Soln / Explanation :-
71) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
We have to find out the alkene which an ozo noly sin gives mixture of ethanal and pentan-3-
one.

Concept: Ethanal

Pentan - 3 - one
3 - ethanal bent - 2 -one
60% by mass
CH3OH is 60g and 40g is water

Final answer-

72) Asking About :- Incorrect statement for product (A) & (B) of reaction
Concept :- EAR and FRAR.
Soln / Explanation :-
- A & B are position isomers not chain isomers.

73) Question Explanation :

Product 'A' and 'B' of reaction.

Concept :
This question is based EAR of Alkynes.

Solution :

Hence,
Option (1) is correct : b, d

74)

Correct answer is I2.

75)
Correct answer is D > C > B > A.

76)

Correct answer is .

77)

Correct answer is HIO3.

78)

Correct answer is Homomer.

79)

Correct answer is + HBr

80)

Correct answer is

81)

Correct answer is Primary alcohol.

82)

Correct answer is Ethyne.

83)

Correct answer is .
 84)

Correct answer is .

85) Explain Question : Product of reaction when acetylene is passed through red hot Fe tube
Concept : This Question is based on Trimerisation reaction

Solution :
Final Answer option (3)

86) Explain Question : Product of reaction of Benzene with ethylene in presence of HCl and
anhydrous AlCl3
Concept : This Question is based on Friedel craft reaction

Solution :
Final Answer option (3)

87)

Correct answer is 3.

88) Aromatic compound show E.S.R

89)

90) Steric hinderence min.

BIOLOGY
91)

Correct answer is Ribose.

92)

Altman

93)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87

94) NCERT XII, Pg. # 97

95)

DNA dependent RNA polymerase

96)

correct answer is Degenerate.

97)

Correct answer is 3' end.

98)

Presence of uracil at the place of thymine provide additional stability to DNA.

99) NCERT XII Pg. # 103, line 2

100)

Correct answer is All.

101)

7–methyl guanosine at 5' end and polyadenine bases at 3' end.

102)

Correct answer is CAG. UCG. GAU.

103)

Correct answer is r-RNA .

104)

Correct answer is intron.

105)

Correct answer is tRNA.

106)

Correct answer is Both '1' and '2' .

107)

Correct answer is t-RNA < m-RNA < DNA.

108)

Correct answer is X = 2, Y = 4.

109)

Correct answer is Rho factor.

110)

Correct answer is 61.

111)

Correct answer is (a) is wrong.

112) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 106

113)

The correct answer is:

4. Haplodiploid mechanism
In honey bees, the sex determination system is haplodiploid. Females are diploid (having two
sets of chromosomes), while males are haploid (having only one set of chromosomes). Female
bees are produced from fertilized eggs, while male bees (drones) are produced from
unfertilized eggs.
 114)

Correct answer is N14 and N15

115) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 105

Centrifugation

116) Solution:
The correct answer is Option 4: a, b, c, d and e.
Explanation: RNA can perform multiple functions, and it plays a vital role in various
biological processes:

A. (a) Genetic material: RNA can act as genetic material in some viruses (e.g., retroviruses like
HIV), where RNA carries genetic information instead of DNA.
B. (b) Messenger: mRNA (messenger RNA) is the template for protein synthesis and carries
genetic information from DNA to ribosomes.
C. (c) Adapter molecule: tRNA (transfer RNA) acts as an adapter molecule that helps in
translating the genetic code into proteins by bringing the appropriate amino acids to the
ribosome.
D. (d) Structural molecule: rRNA (ribosomal RNA) is a structural component of ribosomes, which
are essential for protein synthesis.
E. (e) Catalytic molecule: Some RNA molecules, known as ribozymes, have catalytic properties
and can catalyze specific biochemical reactions, similar to enzymes.

Thus, RNA can act as all of the mentioned options, making Option 4 the correct answer.

117) NCERT XII Pg.# 111

118) Correct answer is RNA Polymerase - II - HnRNA.

119)

Correct answer is 4.

120)

Correct answer is H1

121)

Correct answer is RNA polymerase - I.

122)

Correct answer is Both (1) and (2)

123)
 Correct answer is 249

124) Explanation:

A. A nucleosome is the basic unit of chromatin structure, consisting of DNA wrapped around
histone proteins.
B. Each nucleosome contains 146 base pairs (bp) of DNA tightly wrapped around a histone
octamer, plus ~54 bp of linker DNA, making a total of ~200 bp per nucleosome.
C. This packaging helps in DNA compaction and gene regulation.

Correct answer is Option 3 (200 bp)

125)

Solution:
After 4 generations (80 minutes / 20 minutes per generation), starting with normal DNA in ¹⁵N
medium:

A. Generation 1: All hybrid (¹⁴N–¹⁵N).

B. Generation 2: 2 hybrid, 2 heavy (¹⁵N–¹⁵N).

C. Generation 3: 2 hybrid, 6 heavy.

D. Generation 4: 2 hybrid, 14 heavy.

The ratio of hybrid to heavy DNA is 2 : 14, which simplifies to 1 : 7.Answer: 1 (1 : 7)

126)

Introns or intervening sequences appears in mature or processed RNA

127)

Anticodon - mRNA

128)

When heat killed S-strain of S. pneumonia were injected with R-strain in Mice

129)

Correct answer is Capping.

130)
The trait depicted is autosomal recessive like cystic fibrosis

131)

Both statements are correct

132)

Inverted L-shaped

133)

Severo ochoa (Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzyme)

134)

Ncert Pg No: 106, 2021-22

135)

RNA may act as genetic material even when DNA is present

136)

correct answer is Chicken pox.

137) Correct Answer:

3. a, b, d
Explanation:
(a) Health is affected by genetic disorders, lifestyle, and infections: This is true. All
three factors play a significant role in determining an individual's health status.
(b) Balanced diet, personal hygiene, and regular exercise are very important to
maintain good health: This is also true. These practices contribute to physical and mental
well-being.
(d) In allergic reactions, adrenaline is the life-saving drug: This is true. Adrenaline
(epinephrine) is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) as it helps to open
airways and reverse other dangerous symptoms.
• Why (c) is incorrect:
(c) Health is only "absence of disease" or "physical fitness": This is a limited and
incorrect view of health.
Health is defined by the World Health Organization as "a state of complete physical, mental
and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity." It encompasses more
than just the absence of illness or physical fitness.

138) Explanation : (a) More efficient at work: Healthy people are generally more efficient at
work because they experience fewer sick days and are more focused and productive.
number of correct statements:
(a) More efficient at work.
(c) Brings economic property
(d) Increases longevity of people

There are three correct statements.

Answer : (3)

139)

Correct answer is Black bile.

140) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 147, Para-8.1

141)

Correct answer is 3

142)

Correct answer is 4.

143)

Correct answer is a, b & c only.

144) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 146

145) Statement I: Correct. Health was indeed considered as a balance of certain 'humors' by
early Greeks and in the Indian Ayurveda system of medicine, which is a historical perspective
on health. Statement II: Incorrect. The 'good humor' hypothesis was actually disproved by the
discovery of blood circulation by William Harvey and the use of thermometers to demonstrate
normal body temperature in persons with 'blackbile', not supported.

146)

Correct answer is Sporozoite.

147)

Typhoid

148)

Attenuated pathogens
149)

Immunological memory

150)

Immunization- providing immunity artificially.

151)

Preformed antibodies

152)

Explain Question :
Saliva of mouth and tears of eyes are included under which barrier?

Concept :
Saliva and tears act as physiological barriers that protect the body by killing or washing away
microbes.

Solution :
Saliva and tears contain antimicrobial substances like lysozyme, which break down bacterial
cell walls–making them part of the physiological barrier of innate immunity.

Final Answer :
Option (1) Physiological barrier

153)

NCERT-XII, Hint Pg. # 150

154)

MALT of major tracts

155)

Lymphocytes

156)

Correct answer is Antiviral proteins.

157)

Correct answer is Hormone therapy.

158)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 159

159)

Cytotoxic T-cells

160)

Correct answer is IgA

161)

Reject a tissue transplant.

162)

Correct answer is Two.

163)

164)

165)

166)

Passive immunity

167)

correct answer is B-lymphocytes

168) Explanation : Gambusia fish, also known as Gambusia affinis, are introduced into ponds
and other water bodies to control the larvae of mosquitoes, which are vectors for diseases like
¿dengue, malaria, and chikungunya. These fish feed on mosquito larvae, helping to :reduce the
population of mosquitoes that spread these diseases.
The correct answer is 4. all of these.
 169)

correct answer is a, b, c

170)

correct answer is all

171)

NCERT Pg. # 149

172) NCERT page no. 148, XII

173)

correct answer is Hemozoin

174)

correct answer is Plasmodium falciparum.

175)

Correct answer is 3

176) NCERT Pg. 132

177)

NCERT Pg. No. 147

178) NCERT XII - 147, Para-8.1

179)

correct answer is Typhoid, Pneumonia, Tetanus

180) Explanation:
The autoimmune disorders in the list are:

A. Myasthenia gravis: The body's immune system attacks acetylcholine receptors at

 neuromuscular junctions, causing muscle weakness.
B. I.D.D.M. (Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus) or Type 1 Diabetes: The immune system
attacks the beta cells in the pancreas that produce insulin.
C. Hashimoto disease: The immune system attacks the thyroid gland, leading to
hypothyroidism.

Correct Answer: 2. Three