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ANSWER KEY
1. Answer: A. magnitude and direction.
Explanation: Vector quantities (e.g., force, velocity) require both magnitude (size) and direction
for complete description. Scalars (e.g., mass, time) use magnitude only.
2. Answer: D. constant velocity if the resultant force exerted on it is zero.
Explanation: Newton's first law states that an object maintains constant velocity (including zero)
if the net force is zero. Acceleration occurs only if net force is non-zero.
3. Answer: C. Distance is always greater than or equal to the magnitude of displacement,
while the magnitude of the displacement is always less than or equal to distance.
Explanation: Distance (scalar, path length) ≥ displacement (vector, straight-line change in
position). Displacement magnitude is shortest path.

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4. Answer: B. The acceleration is constant.
Explanation: Uniform acceleration implies constant rate of change of velocity. Velocity may
change, but acceleration remains steady.
5. Answer: D. 12 m
Explanation: The resultant magnitude of two vectors (4 m, 3 m) ranges from |4-3| = 1 m to 4+3
= 7 m. 12 m is impossible.
6. Answer: C. 240 m
Explanation:
Initial velocity u=v−at=30−(5×4)=10 m/s
Distance after 8 s: s=ut+12at2=(10×8)+12(5)(64)=80+160=240 m
7. Answer: B. The linear acceleration of the object is zero.
Explanation: Linear equilibrium requires net force = 0, so acceleration = 0 (Newton's second
law).
8. Answer: D. frictional force.
Explanation: Surface irregularities interlocking cause friction, opposing relative motion.
9. Answer: C. On its way down, work done by gravity is positive.
Explanation: Gravity does positive work when displacement aligns with force (downward
motion). Kinetic energy increases downward, potential energy decreases.
10. Answer: A. the sum of its kinetic and potential energies.
Explanation: Mechanical energy (conserved in ideal oscillations) is E=KE+PE
11. Answer: D. 4 N
Explanation:
Fnet​ =ma=2×1.5=3N (right).
Assuming F2​ =1N opposes F1​ : F1−F2=3⇒F1−1=3⇒F1=4 N
12. Answer: C. 7.0 kg m/s
Explanation:
Initial momentum: (→).
Final momentum: (←).
Impulse (magnitude 7.0 kg·m/s).

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13. Answer: C. effort.
Explanation: Effort is the applied force to overcome a load in simple machines.
14. Answer: C. The directions of wave motion and vibration of particles are parallel for
longitudinal waves but perpendicular for transverse waves.
Explanation: Transverse waves (e.g., light): particles vibrate perpendicular to wave direction.
Longitudinal waves (e.g., sound): particles vibrate parallel.
15. Answer: B. object in air minus the buoyant force.
Explanation: Apparent weight = true weight (in air) - buoyant force (upward force by fluid).
16. Answer: B. 1/(sinθ+μcosθ)
Explanation:
AMA = Load / Effort.
Load along incline: mgsinθ.
Friction: μmgcosθ.
Effort F=mgsinθ+μmgcosθ.
AMA = mg/F=1/(sinθ+μcosθ1​ )
17. Answer: A. 60%
Explanation:
IMA = Radius(wheel) / Radius(axle) = 40 cm / 8 cm = 5.
AMA = Load / Effort = (6×10)/20=60/20=3
Efficiency = AMA/IMA×100%=35×100%=60%
18. Answer: D. 4.33 m/s to the positive x-axis
Before:m1u1 + m2u2 = 86 + 123 = 48 + 36 = 84 kg m/s
After:m1v1 + m2v2 = 84 + 12v2 = 32 + 12v2
Set equal:
32 + 12v2 = 84
12v2 = 84 - 32 = 52
v2 = 52 / 12 ≈ 4.333 m/s in the positive x-direction (since positive)
Answer: D. 4.33 m/s to the positive x-axis
19. Heat capacity is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a given
substance (of a given mass) by 1°C.
Latent heat is for phase change without temperature change.
Quantity of heat is general.
Specific heat capacity is per unit mass.

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 Answer: B. heat capacity.
20. - Reflection: speed and wavelength remain the same (in the same medium) but direction
changes. So A is false.
- Refraction: speed and wavelength change (as the wave enters a different medium). So B is
false.
- Destructive interference: the amplitude of the resultant wave is less than the amplitude of
each wave (or could be zero). So C is false.
- Diffraction: is more pronounced when the gap is narrow compared to the wavelength. So D is
true.
Answer: D.
21. For a square plate, the area expansion coefficient is twice the linear expansion coefficient.
So the formula for area expansion is:
A=A0​ (1+βΔT) where β=2α.
Therefore, A=A0​ (1+2αΔT).
Answer: C.
22. The pressure due to a column of mercury is P=ρgh
Given P = 103.36 kPa = 103360 Pa
So, h=P/ρg=10103360​ /13.6×103=
Calculate:
103360 / 136000 = 0.76 m = 76 cm
23. Gauge pressure Pgauge​ =ρgh=1030×10×100=1.03×106 Pa.
Absolute Pabs​ =Patm​ +Pgauge​ =1.00×105+1.03×106=1.13×106 Pa.
Answer: A
24. Explanation:
1. Heat ice from -20°C to 0°C: Q1​ =mcice​ ΔT=5×2100×20=210,000J.
2. Melt ice at 0°C: Q2​ =mLf​ =5×336,000=1,680,000J.
3. Heat water from 0°C to 10°C: Q3​ =mcwater​ ΔT=5×4200×10=210,000J.
4. Total Q= Q=Q1​ +Q2​ +Q3​ =2,100,000J=2.10×106J.
Answer: A
25. An electric field is a region where a charged particle experiences an electric force.
Answer: B
26. Speed of sound stiffness/density
Option C is contextually correct when comparing different media (e.g., cold helium vs. hot air).
Answer: C

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27. Based on typical configurations, R2​ is in parallel with the series combination
of R3​ and R4​ (effective combination is R3​ +R4​ ).
Thus, R2 is parallel to R3​ +R4​ .
Answer: B
28. E=kQ/r2=(9×109)×4.0/(2.0)2=36×109/4=9.0×109 N/C
Answer: C
29. Resistance R∝length/areaR∝length/area.
New length = 2L, new area = A/2.
Rnew​ =R×(2L/L)×(A/(A/2))=6×2×2=24Ω.
Answer: B
30.

31. The projection of a⃗ on b⃗ is acosα, not abcosα. So, A is correct.

Answer: A
32. A. Real images can be magnified but virtual images cannot. (Both can be magnified, so false)
B. Virtual images can be magnified but real images cannot. (False, both can be)
C. Virtual images can be displayed on a screen unlike the real ones. (False, real images can be
displayed, virtual cannot)
D. Real images can be displayed on a screen unlike the virtual ones. (Correct)
Answer: D
33. Explanation:
This equation is derived from kinematics. Starting with vf​ =vi​ +at, solve for vi​ =vf​ −at.
Substitute into s=vi​ t+1/2​ at2:
s=(vf​ −at)t+1/2​ at2=vf​ t−1/2​ at2.

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Option D is valid. Other options are incorrect due to missing terms or factors.
34.

35.

36.

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37. Component providing centripetal force for a mass whirled in a horizontal circle:
A. Tsinθ
Explanation:
The tension T has a vertical component (Tcosθ) balancing gravity and a horizontal component
(Tsinθ) providing the centripetal force for circular motion.
38. B. Gravitational force makes planets revolve around the Sun.
Explanation:
Gravitation governs orbital motion. Option A incorrectly attributes nuclear stability to the weak
force (it's the strong force). Option C confuses weak and strong forces in radioactive processes.
Option D misassigns nucleon binding to electromagnetism (it's the strong force).
39.

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40.

41.

42.

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43. Primary focus in mechanical engineering:
A. Dynamics, Thermodynamics, Force, and Stress
Explanation:
Mechanical engineering emphasizes mechanics (dynamics, force, stress) and energy
(thermodynamics). Other options include irrelevant topics like nuclear physics or optics.
44. Correctly matched defense technology:
D. Infrared device uses heat emission to identify objects.
Explanation:
Infrared devices detect thermal radiation. Option A misdescribes radar (it detects echoes, not
propulsion). Options B and C misassign radar functionality to missiles and drones.
45. Correct statement about phase changes:
C. During liquid to gas, heat energy is absorbed while temperature remains constant.
Explanation:
Phase changes occur at constant temperature. Vaporization (liquid to gas) absorbs heat. Option
A describes freezing (heat released), B describes condensation (heat released), and D
incorrectly states temperature change during freezing.
46. Question 46
A ball is thrown horizontally from a building of height hh with initial speed vovo​ . Which
statement is correct?
B. Its horizontal component acceleration is zero.

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Explanation:
Horizontal motion has no acceleration (assuming no air resistance), so velocity is constant.
Vertical motion has acceleration due to gravity (gg), so velocity changes.
47.

48.

49. The flow rate of a fluid is defined as:

B. the volume of the fluid crossing an area per unit time taken.
Explanation:
Flow rate is typically defined as volume per unit time (e.g., m³/s).
50. Solids are incompressible compared to liquids and gases because:
A. their atoms are relatively fixed distance apart and held together.
Explanation:

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In solids, atoms/molecules are tightly packed in a rigid structure, allowing minimal compression.
51. Correct statement about magnets:
C. If you cut a bar magnet into two, each piece has both north and south poles.
Explanation:
Magnetic poles always occur in pairs; cutting a magnet creates two smaller dipoles.
52.

53.

54.

55. Magnetic field created by a long straight current-carrying wire:

D. forms circular pattern around the wire.
Explanation:

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Magnetic field lines form concentric circles around a straight current-carrying wire.
56. Doping a pure semiconductor with a group III element results in:
B. P-type semiconductor.
Explanation:
Group III elements (e.g., Boron) have three valence electrons, creating "holes" (positive charge
carriers).
57. Plastic is used to cover wires because:
D. Since every electron in plastic is tightly bound to the parent atom, it becomes poor
conductor.
Explanation:
Insulators like plastic have tightly bound electrons, preventing current flow and providing safety.
58. Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The I-V curve of a semiconductor diode shows distinct regions:
Forward Bias Region: Once the applied voltage exceeds the cut-in voltage (typically ~0.7V for
silicon), current rises rapidly due to majority charge carriers.
Reverse Bias Region: A small leakage current (due to minority carriers) flows until
the breakdown voltage is reached, where current surges.
Option C is correct: The rapid rise after the cut-in voltage occurs in the forward bias region.
Why others are incorrect:
A: Forward bias current is due to majority carriers, not minority carriers.
B: Reverse bias current is due to minority carriers, not majority carriers.
D: The rapid increase after breakdown voltage occurs in the reverse bias region, not forward
bias.
59. Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The circuit described is a half-wave rectifier (common diode-resistor setup for AC).
Initial condition: Terminal "a" is positive, "b" is negative.
First half-cycle (positive at "a"): Diode is forward-biased, allowing current to flow through the
load resistor RLRL​ , developing voltage across it.

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Second half-cycle (negative at "a"): Diode is reverse-biased, blocking current flow.
Option A is correct: It accurately describes the first half-cycle.
Why others are incorrect:
B: Incorrectly implies no current flows in the second half-cycle (true), but the option is not the
best match for the initial condition.
C: Incorrectly states the diode is forward-biased in the second half-cycle.
D: Incorrectly states the diode is reverse-biased in the first half-cycle.
60.

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