29-06-2025

1015CMD303361250035 MD

PHYSICS

1) PQRS is a square loop made of uniform conducting wire. If the current enters the loop at P and

leaves at S, then the magnetic field will be :-

(1) Maximum at the centre of the loop

(2) Zero at the centre of loop
(3) Zero at all points inside the loop
(4) Zero at all points outside of the loop

2) Find magnetic field at point P in given figure :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) An infinitely long straight wire is bent as shown in figure. The circular portion has a radius of 10
cm with its center O at a distance r from the straight part. The value of r such that the magnetic

field at the center O of the circular portion is zero will be

(1)
cm

(2)
cm

(3)
cm

(4)
cm

4) A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm carries a current of A.
What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the centre of the coil :

(1) 1 gauss
(2) 2 gauss
(3) 3 gauss
(4) 4 gauss

5) Find net magnetic field at centre of square.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Find net magnetic field at point O.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

7) In the hydrogen atom, the electron is making 6.6 × 10+15 rps the radius of the orbit is 0.53 × 10–10
metre, then magnetic field produced at the centre of the orbit is :-

(1) 140 Tesla

(2) 12.5 Tesla
(3) 1.4 Tesla
(4) 0.14 Tesla

8) A long straight wire along the z-axis carries a current I in the negative z-direction. The magnetic
vector field at a point having coordinates (x, y) in the z = 0 plane is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9)
In the given figure, magnetic field at point O will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

10) The magnetic field intensity due to a thin wire carrying current I (shown in figure) is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A square of side L meters lies in x-y plane in a region, where the magnetic field is given by B=B0

T, where B0 is a constant. The magnitude of flux passing through the square is :-

2
(1) 2B0L Wb
2
(2) 3 B0L Wb
2
(3) 4 B0L Wb
(4) B0L2 Wb

12) An electron accelerated through a potential difference V passes through a uniform transverse
magnetic field and experiences a force F. If the accelerating potential is increased by 3V, the
electron in the same magnetic field will experience a force of

(1) F
(2) 3F
(3) 2F
(4) F

13) A conducting circular loop carrying current I is placed in a uniform magnetic field normally into
the plane of the loop as shown in figure. The loop will have the tendency to

(1) Contract
(2) Expand
(3) Move towards positive x-axis
(4) Move towards negative x-axis

14) For a current carrying solid cylinder of uniform current density and of radius R, there are two
points P1 and P2, one is inside and other is outside as shown in figure. If magnetic field at P1 and P2
are equal, then (r1 and r2 are the distance of P1 and P2 from axis of cylinder)

(1) R =
(2) R =
(3) R =
(4) R =

15) The coercivity of a bar magnet is 100 A/m. It is to be demagnetised by placing it inside a solenoid
of length 100 cm and no. of turns 50. The current flowing in solenoid will be.

(1) 4A
(2) 2A
(3) 1A
(4) Zero

16) A negative charged particle is revolving in a circle of radius r. Out of the following, which one
figure represents the correct direction of and . ( is angular momentum of particle, is magnetic
dipole moment)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
17) Two electrons moving with different speeds enter in a uniform magnetic field in the direction
perpendicular to the field. They will move along circular paths :

(1) of same radius

(2) with larger radii for the faster electron.
(3) with smaller radii for the faster electron.
(4) either (2) or (3) depending on the magnitude of magnetic field.

18) If C0 is the capacitance between two adjacent plates, find the capacitance of the combination

between A and B :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2C0

19) Three capacitors A, B and C are connected to a battery of 25 volt as shown in the figure. The

ratio of charges on capacitors A, B and C will be :

(1) 5 : 2 : 3
(2) 5 : 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 5 : 3
(4) 2 : 3 : 5

20) A circuit is shown in the figure below. Find out the charge of the condenser having capacity 5μF

(1) 4.5 micro coulomb

(2) 6.0 micro coulomb
(3) 9.0 micro coulomb
(4) 30 micro coulomb
21) A condenser of 2μF capacity is charged steadily from 0 to 5 coulomb, which of the following
graphs correctly represent the variation of potential difference across its plates with respect to
charge on the condenser :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Four equal capacitors, each with a capacitance (C) are connected to a battery of E.M.F. 10 volts
as shown in the adjoining figure. The mid point of the capacitor system is connected to earth. Then

the potentials of B and D are respectively :

(1) +10 volts, zero volts

(2) +5 volts, –5 volts
(3) –5 volts, +5 volts
(4) Zero volts, 10 volts

23) The equivalent capacitance between point A and B is :

(1) C/4
(2) C/2
(3) C
(4) 2C

24) An air parallel plate capacitor has capacity C. When the area and distance between the plates is

doubled, the capacitance is C1, then is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) An infinite number of identical capacitors each of capacitance 1μF are connected as in adjoining

figure. Then the equivalent capacitance between A and B is :

(1) 1 μF
(2) 2 μF

(3)
μF
(4)

26) Consider the circuit shown in the figure the ratio of charge on the capacitors 2 μF and 6 μF will

be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery as shown in figure. Consider two situations :
 (i) Key K is kept closed and plates of capacitors are moved apart using insulting
handle.
(ii) Key K is opened and plates of capacitors are moved apart using insulating handle.
Choose the correct option(s) :

(1) In (i) Q remains same but C changes

(2) In (ii) V remains same but C changes
(3) In (i) V remains same and hence Q changes
(4) In (ii) Q remains same and V remain same

28) The plot represents the flow of current through a wire at different times. The ratio of charges

flowing through the wire at different times is :

(1) 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 4
(3) 1 : 4 : 3
(4) 1 : 4 : 2

29) The equivalent resistance between A and B is :

(1) 10 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 15 Ω
(4) None

30) Resistance of 6Ω each are connected in the manner show in given figure. With the current 0.5 A

as shown in figure, the potential difference VP – VQ is :

(1) 3.6 V
(2) 6.0 V
(3) 3.0 V
(4) 7.2 V

31) A wire when connected to 220 V mains supply has power dissipation P1. Now the wire is cut into
two equal pieces which are connected in parallel to the same supply. Power dissipation in this case
is P2. The P2 : P1 is :

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 3

32) A galvanometer gives a full deflection when a current of 0.2 mA is passed through it. The
resistance of the galvanometer is 1000 Ω. To convert it to an ammeter of range 2 amp, the shunt
resistance required is :

(1) 0.1 Ω
(2) 0.01 Ω
(3) 1 Ω
(4) 0.2 Ω

33) The resistance of galvanometer coil is 0.1 KΩ. the current for full scale deflection is 100 μA. The
value of the resistance put in series to convert it into a voltmeter of range 0.1 volt is :

(1) 1000 Ω
(2) 100 Ω
(3) 10 Ω
(4) 900 Ω

34) A wire of resistance R is stretched till its radius is half of the original value. Then, the resistance
of the stretched wire is :

(1) 2R
(2) 4R
(3) 8R
(4) 16R

35) The colour code of a resistance is given below : The value of

resistance and tolerance, respectively are :

(1) 470 Ω, 5%
(2) 470 kΩ, 5%
(3) 47 Ω, 5%
(4) 4.7 Ω, 5%
36) A battery of emf 10V and internal resistance 3Ω is connected to a resistor. If the current in the
circuit is 0.5 A, what is the resistance of the resistor?

(1) 10Ω
(2) 17Ω
(3) 15Ω
(4) None of these

37) Two particles A and B of masses mA and mB respectively and having the same charge are moving
in a plane. A uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of the particle are
υA and υB respectively and the trajectories are shown in the figure. Then :

(1) mAυA < mBυB

(2) mAυA > mBυB
(3) mA < mB and υA < υB
(4) mA = mB and υA = υB

38) Figure represents four position of a current carrying coil in magnetic field directed towards
right, represent the direction of area of vector of the coil. The correct order of potential energy is :

(1) I > III > II > IV

(2) I < III < II < IV
(3) IV < I < III < II
(4) III > II > IV > I

39) A square loop ABCD carrying current I, placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor

XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A pair of stationary and infinitely long bent wires are placed in the XY plane as shown in the
figures. The wire carrying a current of 10 amp each as shown the segments L and M are along x-
axis, the segments P and Q are parallel to y-axis such that OS = OR = 0.02 m. The magnitude of

magnetic induction at the origin is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) In the given Fig. the two parallel wires PQ and ST are at 30 cm apart. The currents flowing in
the wires are according to Fig. The force acting over a length of 5 m of the wires is :

(1) 5 × 10–4 N, (attraction)

(2) 1 × 10–4 N, (attraction)
(3) 5 × 10–4 N, (repulsion)
(4) 1 × 10–4 N, (repulsion)

42) A wire loop formed by joining two semicircular wires of radii R1 and R2 carries a current as
shown in the following diagram. The current in the loop is I. What will be the magnetic moment of
loop ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) In a certain region of space, electric field and magnetic field are perpendicular to each other
an electron enters in the region perpendicular to the direction of and both and moves
undeflected, the velocity of electron is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same direction in a
certain region. If an electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is pointed along the
direction of fields, then the electron :

(1) will turn towards right of direction of motion

(2) speed will decrease
(3) speed will increase
(4) will turn towards left of direction of motion

45) The net magnetic moment of two identical magnets each of magnetic moment M0, inclined at 60°

with each other is :

(1) M0
(2) M0
(3) M0
(4) 2 M0

CHEMISTRY

1)
Compare acidic strength :-

(1) a > c > d > b

(2) d > a > c > b
(3) d > c > a > b
(4) d > c > b > a

2) Incorrect stability order is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which of the following does not shows tautomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Tautomerism is not exhibited by :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) Which of the following has smallest heat of hydrogenation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

Which is temporary effect

(1) Inductive
(2) Mesomerie
(3) Hyperconjugation
(4) Electromeric

7) Which of the following will show zero inductive effect ?

(1) –H
(2) –D
(3) –CH3

(4)

8) Which is least stable :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which of the following species are antiaromatic?

(1) III and IV

(2) I and III
(3) I and II
(4) I and IV

10) Which of the following compounds has localized lone pair?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Which of the following is not aromatic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which will be the least stable resonating structure:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Arrange the following in increasing order of stability :

(1) I < II < III

(2) II < I < III
(3) I < III < II
(4) II < III < I

14) Which of the following anion is most stabilised ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All have same stability

15) (A) and (B) are respectively

(1)
both

(2)
both

(3)
and

(4)
and

16) P, [Major] P is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) both are correct

(4) None

17) How many compounds are formed upon the oxidative ozonolysis of the following compound :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

18) A+B
The products A and B are

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

19) Product
The product of above reation will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Which alkene on ozonolysis gives and

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–CH=CH–CH2–CH3
(3) CH3–CH2–CH=CH–CH3

(4)

21) Reactivity order of the following alkenes for hydrochlorination (HCl) is

(I) CH2=CH–CH3
(II) (CH3)2C=CH2
(III) CH2=CH2

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > III > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) III > I > II
22)

(1) Identical
(2) Position isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Metamers

23) Give reactivity order towards EAR.

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(3) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)
(4) (iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i)

24)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Which of the following does not decolourise reddish brown solution of Br2/CCl4:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26)
Schemes: A, B and C is :-

(1) simple hydration

(2) hydroboration oxidation, mercuration-demercuration, acidic hydration
(3) acidic hydration, hydroboration, oxidation, mercuration-demercuration
(4) mercuration=demercuration, acidic hydration, hydroboration oxidation

27) Which of the following will produce acetone ?

CH3C ≡ CH
(1)

CH3 – C ≡ CH
(2)

CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(3)

(4)
CH ≡ CH

28) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

29)

Which of the following option represent correct order of acidic nature.

(1) LiOH < NaOH < KOH < RbOH

(2) BeO < MgO < CaO < SrO
(3) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO
(4) N2O3 > N2O5

30)

IF3 is formed in :-

(1) 1st excited state of iodine

(2) 2nd excited state of iodine
(3) Ground state of iodine
(4) All wrong

31)

Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

(P) Zn+2 (a) Odd e– molecules

(Q) BeH2 (b) Follow octet rule

(R) NO2 (c) Hypovalent

(S) NH3 (d) Pseudo inert ion

Select correct code :

P Q R S

(1) b a c d

(2) d c a b

(3) d c b a

(4) d b c a
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Which overlap results in the formation of strongest bond :

(1) s–s
(2) p–p (co-axial)
(3) s–p
(4) p–p(co-lateral)

33) In which of the following molecules all bond lengths are not equal :-

(1) NF3
(2) BF3
(3) PCl5
(4) CF4

34) molecule has number of σ and π bonds...

(1) 7σ + 4π bonds
(2) 7σ + 3π bonds
(3) 12σ + 6π bonds
(4) 13σ + 5π bonds

35) HClO4 molecule contain :-

(1) 3 dπ-pπ bond

(2) 2 dπ-pπ bond
(3) 4 dπ-pπ bond
(4) 1 pπ-pπ bond

36) Choose zero, +ve and –ve overlapping respectively from the following ?

(a) (b)

(c)

(1) a, b & c
(2) b, c & a
(3) c, b & a
(4) a, c & b
37) Which is the incorrect order of bond angle ?

(1) BF3 = BCl3 = BBr3

(2)
(3) OF2 > OCl2> OBr2
(4) CO2 > BF3 > CH4

38) Assertion (A) : Group 17 elements (Halogens) have very high negative electron gain
enthalpies.
Reason (R) : They can attain stable noble gas electronic configuration by picking up an electron.

Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(4) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.

39) Which of the following molecules are expanded octet

SF6, BeCl2, BF3, XeF4

(1) BeCl2, SF6

(2) SF6, XeF4
(3) SF6, BF3
(4) XeF4, BeCl2

40) Hybridization of Central atom CO2, XeF2, respectively are :-

(1) sp3d, sp, sp3

(2) sp, sp3d2, sp3
(3) sp, sp3d, sp2
(4) sp2, sp3, sp3d

41) Correct match the column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(Molecule) (Shape)

(a) XeF4 (p) Trigonal planar

(b) BF3 (q) Bent

(c) PCl5 (r) Square planar

(d) H2O (s) Trigonal bipyramidal

(1) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s
(2) a-r, b-p, c-s, d-q
(3) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q
(4) a-q, b-p, c-r, d-s

42) Which of the following is the correct order of relative stability

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) Which of the following is the correct order of dipole moment.

(1) CCl4 > NH3 > NF3

(2) CO2 > SO2 > H2O
(3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(4) NH3 > PCl5 > H2O

44) Which of the following represent correct order of electron gain enthalpy.

(1) F > Cl > Br > I

(2) Cl > F > Br > I
(3) S > Se > O
(4) Both (2) and (3)

45) Select the correct statement is-

(A) Ionisation enthalpy are always positive for neutral atom
(B) The second ionisation enthalpy will be higher than the first ionisation enthalpy.
(C) Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals are highest in each period.
(D) Ionisation enthalpy of noble gases are highest in each period.

(1) A, C are correct

(2) A, B, D are correct
(3) A, B, C, D are correct
(4) C, D are correct

BIOLOGY

1) Serum of any animal containing antibody for specific antigen is called :-

(1) Antibiotic
(2) Vaccine
(3) Anti-serum
(4) Agglutination

2) Which of following antibody will be produced during allergic reaction ?

(1) IgA
(2) IgE
(3) IgM
(4) IgD

3) Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) T-cells help the B-cells to produce antibody

(2) T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also stimulate B-cells to produce the same.
(3) Health is affected by genetic factors, life style, balanced diet and vaccination
(4) Gambusia is used to control diseases like malaria, elephantiasis and dengue.

4) Saliva of mouth and tears of eye are included under which barrier ?

(1) Physiological barrier

(2) Physical barrier
(3) Cellular barrier
(4) Cytokine barrier

5) The "second line of defence" of the body is :-

(1) Mucus membrane

(2) Macrophage
(3) T-killer cell
(4) B-memory

6) Rheumatoid arthritis is a :-

(1) Bacterial infection

(2) Auto-immune disorder
(3) Viral infection
(4) Allergy

7)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Ability of the host to fight the disease causing organisms conferred by the immune system is
called autoimmunity
(b) Primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of Natural killer cells.
(c) Passive immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response.
(d) Vaccination is based on the property of memory of the immune system.
Options :-

(1) Statement a, b and d only

(2) d only
(3) Statement a, c and d only
(4) Statement a, b, c and d

8) How many of the following are correct about given diagram

(a) is anamnestic response

(b) Memory cells are responsible for
(c) Memory cells are responsible for
(d) IgM is responsible for

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

9) Match the following :-

Column I Column II

(A) Common cold (i) Dry & Scaly lesions

(B) Typhoid (ii) Haemophilus influenzae

Stool with mucous & blood

(C) Pneumonia (iii)
clots

(D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus

(E) Ringworm (v) Salmonella typhi

(F) Amoebiasis (vi) Haemozoin

(1) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii
(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iv, E–iii, F–v
(3) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–iii, F–i
(4) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–i, E–vi, F–iii

10) Choose incorrect statement for treatment of cancer:-

(1) In radio therapy tumor cells are irradiated lethally

Chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill cancerous cell but have side effect like hair loss,
(2)
anemia etc
 Most of cancer are treated by using only single technique either surgery or radiotherapy or
(3)
chemotherapy
(4) α-interferon helps in destroying tumors

11) Which of the following gene is absent in a normal cell ?

(1) Proto-oncogene
(2) Tumor-suppressor gene
(3) Gene related to program cell death
(4) Oncogene

12) Assertion (A) : Cancerous cells just continue to divide giving rise to masses of cells called
tumors.
Reason (R) : Cancer cell appears to have lost property of contact inhibition.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

13) Which one of the following group is not of infectious disease :-

(1) Cancer, Allergy, Rheumatoid arthritis

(2) Dysentery, Plague, Diphtheria
(3) Polio, Pneumonia, Tetanus
(4) Smallpox, Ringworm, Common cold

14)

Match the disease in column-I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/treatment) in

column-II.

Column-I Column-II

a Amoebiasis i Treponema pallidum

b Diphtheria ii Use only sterilized food

c Cholera iii DPT vaccine

Use oral rehydration

d Syphilis iv
therapy
(1) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(3) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
15) Select an incorrect statement regarding the diagram shown below:-

(1) Many fungi belonging to 3 genera are responsible for this.

(2) It is one of the most common infectious disease.
Appearance of moist, scaly lesions on some parts of body such as skin, nails and scalp are the
(3)
secondary symptoms of the disease.
(4) These lesion are accompanied by intense itching.

16) Site of formation of gametocytes and fertilisation in the life cycle of Plasmodium is :

(1) Human blood and gut of mosquito

(2) Stomach of mosquito
(3) Salivary glands of mosquito
(4) RBCs of humans

17) Haemozoin is a:

(1) Precursor of hemoglobin

(2) Toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
(3) Toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
(4) Toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells

18) Which of the following is the infective stage of the malarial parasite (Plasmodium) to
mosquitoes?

(1) Gametocyte
(2) Merozoite
(3) Trophozoite
(4) Sporozoite

19) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, stools with excess mucus and blood clots are the
symptoms of

(1) Filariasis
(2) Amoebiasis
(3) Jaundice
(4) Typhoid

20)

Take a glance of a part of the life cycle of Plasmodium given below as events A, B, C and D along
with their description.

Events Description
 Parasites reproduce
sexually in the red
blood cells, bursting
A
the red blood cells
and causing cycles
of fever

Sexual stages
(gametocytes)
B
develop in
R.B.C. of Human.

Fertilization and
development take
C
place in stomach
of mosquito

Mature infective
stages (gametocyte)
escape from the
D stomach wall and
migrate to the
mosquito salivary
glands
How many of the above events are correctly described?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

21) Which one of the following sets include all the viral diseases ?

(1) Ringworm, AIDS, Common cold

(2) Typhoid, Tuberculosis, Dengue
(3) Dengue, AIDS, Common cold
(4) Dysentery, AIDS, Leprosy

22) How many statements are correct about common cold?

(A) It is caused by rhino virus
(B) Alveoli of the lungs are filled with fluid
(C) Symptoms are nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache,
tiredness etc.
(D) It usually lasts for 3–7 days.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

23) Which of the folowing two statements are correct for kidney transplant ?
(a) Immuno suppresent drugs used for long time despite kidney properly transplanted
(b) Graft rejection may be due to cell mediated immunity
(c) B-cells are responsible for graft rejection
(d) Acceptance and rejection of graft depends on specific interferon.

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (c)

24) Screening of blood for which disease prior to blood transfusion not possible?

(1) AIDS
(2) Hepatitis-B
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Anaphylactic shock

25) Which of the following is not correct about pneumonia ?

(A) It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
(B) Infects the alveoli of the lungs.
(C) Symptoms of pneumonia include fever, chills, Cough and headache.
(D) In all cases the lips and finger nails turn blue to grayish in colour.

(1) A, B, D
(2) B and D
(3) D only
(4) A, B, C, D

26)

(1) A–IgA, B–Heparin, C–Steroids

(2) A–IgA, B–Steroids, C–Histamine
(3) A–IgE, B–Histamine, C–Steroid
(4) A–IgG, B–Steroids, C–Histamine

27) Which of the following drugs are used in the treatment of allergy and quickly reduce the
symptom of allergy ?
(A) Antihistamine (B) Adrenaline (C) Steroid (D) Chloroquine
(1) A only
(2) A and B only
(3) A,B and C only
(4) A,B,C and D

28) Which of the following is not seen in bronchial asthama?

(1) Spasm of bronchiole wall

(2) Mucous closes both bronchi and bronchiole
(3) Mainly caused because of excess IgE production
(4) Wheezing sound is produced during inspiration

29) Toxoids may be included in :

(1) Natural active immunity

(2) Artificial active immunity
(3) Natural passive immunity
(4) Artificial passive immunity

30) Which of the following is matched incorrectly:-

(1) Small pox ⇒ Live vaccine

(2) Isograft ⇒ Between identical twins
(3) Opsonization ⇒ By IgA & IgE
(4) HLA ⇒ Gene present on chromosome 6

31) Which of the following combination is not correct?

(1) First line of defence – Mucosa, skin

(2) Second line of defence – NK cells, T-cells
(3) Third line of defence – Antibodies
(4) Phagocytic barrier – Monocytes, neutophils

32) Which one is not correct ?

(1) Interferons are secreted by virus infected cells.

(2) Acquired immunity is characterised by memory.
(3) Good humour hypothesis was developed by William Harvey.
(4) MALT constitute 50% of the total lymphoid tissue in human body.

33) HIV factory is :-

(1) T-Helper cell

(2) T-Killer cell
(3) Macrophage
(4) CD4 cell

34) Production of different type of Alcoholic drinks depends on :-

(1) Type of raw material used for fermentation

(2) The type of processing (with or without distillation)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Type of factory

35) Trichoderma, Baculovirus and Dragon flies are:-

(1) Plant pests

(2) Used as biocontrol agents
(3) Broad spectrum larvicides
(4) Source of antibiotics

36) Which industrial products are synthesized from microbes.

(A) Antibiotic
(B) Fermented beverages
(C) Enzyme and chemicals
(D) Bioactive molecule

(1) (A), (C), (D) only

(2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(3) (A), (C) only
(4) (A), (B), (C) only

37) Enzyme which is produced by the bacterium Streptococcus and modified by genetic engineering
is used as a "clot buster" for removing clots from the blood vessels of patients who have undergone
myocardial infaction leading to heart attack is :-

(1) Pectinases
(2) Streptokinase
(3) Polygalacturonase
(4) Adenosine deaminase

38) The vitamin whose content increases following the conversion of milk into curd by lactic acid
bacteria is :

(1) Vitamin B1
(2) Vitamin B5
(3) Vitamin B9
(4) Vitamin B12

39) By which process floating debris and grit are removed in STPs respectively ?

(1) Filteration and Sedimentation

(2) Filteration and Distilation
(3) Sedimentation and Filteration
(4) Only Filteration

40) Statement-I : The greater the BOD of waste water, less is its polluting potential.
Statement-II : A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to serve
as the inoculum.
In the light of the above statements, find the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I & II are correct
(4) Both statement-I & II are incorrect

41) Which among these breeds only once in its life time

(1) Pacific salmon fish

(2) Pelagic fish
(3) Bamboo plant
(4) Both (1) and (3)

42) A population with finite resources shows a logistic growth curve where the correct sequence of
events will be:

(1) Deceleration phase Acceleration Asymptote

(2) Acceleration phase Lag phase Stationary phase
(3) Lag phase Acceleration phase Deceleration Asymptote
(4) Stationary phase Acceleration phase Lag phase Asymptote

43)

a = Logistic plot, b = Exponential plot,

(1)
c = Carrying capacity
a = Exponential plot, b = Logistic plot,
(2)
c = Carrying capacity
a = Carrying capacity, b = Exponential plot,
(3)
c = Logistic plot
a = Carrying capacity, b = Logistic plot,
(4)
c = Exponential plot

44) The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation :

(1)
dN/dt = rN

(2)
dt/dN=Nr

(3)
dN/dt = rN
(4) dN/dt = rN

45) If in a pond there were 50 water Hyacinth plant last year and through reproduction 10 new
plants are added, taking the current population to 60. What is the birth rate for this plant-

(1) 0.4 offspring per plant per year

(2) 0.2 offspring per plant per year
(3) 0.5 offspring per plant per year
(4) 0.167 offspring per plant per year

46) Assertion : In an area, if there are 200 Parthenium plants and one huge banyan tree with large
canopy, biomass is more meaningful measurement of N (Population Density).
Reason : In this case, number is meaning less which underestimates the enormous role of banyan
tree in that community.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

47) When the population density reaches the carrying capacity that stage is called as :-

(1) Exponential phase

(2) Acceleration phase
(3) Deceleration phase
(4) Asymptote phase

48) Under the normal conditions the most important factors influencing population growth are :

(1) Natality and Immigration

(2) Mortality and Emigration
(3) Natality and Mortality
(4) Immigration and Emigration

49) Statement-I: Competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources
that are limited.
Statement-II: If two species compete for the same resources they could avoid competition by
resource partitioning.

(1) Both statements-I and II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct
(3) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Both statements-I and II are incorrect.

50) Assertion (A) : The size of population for any species is not a static parameter.
Reason (R) : Size of population depends upon food availability, predation pressure and adverse
weather.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

51) Due to efforts of Mr. Ramdeo Mishra, the government of India established the.....(1972) which in
later years, paved the way for the establishment of the Ministry of Environment and Forests (1984) :-

(1) CEPHERI
(2) NEERI
(3) CAZRI
(4) NCEPC

52) Identify A, B and C in the ecological hierarchy:

A B C
(1) Population Ecosphere Biosphere
(2) Ecosystem Landscape Biosphere
(3) Population Ecosystem Biosphere
(4) Ecosphere Population Ecosystem
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) In above diagram four areas are given. Which area has
maximum and minimum species diversity respectively.
(1) Maximum = B, Minimum = D
(2) Maximum = A, Minimum = B
(3) Maximum = A, Minimum = D
(4) Maximum = C, Minimum = D

54) Match the following column correctly :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Endemic species (i) Lion in forest

(B) Key-stone species (ii) Mycorrhizal fungi

(C) Critical link species (iii) Prosopis in Aravali hills

(D) Dominant species (iv) Kangaroo in Australia

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

55) Trees occupy top vertical strata or layer in a forest, shrubs the second and herbs and grasses
occupy the bottom layers, it dipicts :

(1) Stratification
(2) Succession
(3) Migration
(4) Heirarchy

56) Fill in the blanks A, B, C, and D respectively.

Name of
Species A Species B
interaction
+ + Mutualism
– – A
+ – B
+ – Parasitism
+ 0 C
– 0 D
(1) A: Commensalism, B: Predation, C: Amensalism, D: Competition
(2) A: Predation, B: Parasitism, C: Commensalism, D: Amensalism
(3) A: Competition, B: Predation, C: Commensalism, D: Amensalism
(4) A: Competition, B: Predation, C: Amensalism, D: Commensalism

57) Assertion : Fig tree and fig wasp show mutualism.

Reason : Fig wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence and fig fruit provides suitable egg-laying sites.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

58) The prickly pear cactus introduced in Australia in the early 1920s caused havoc by spreading
rapidly in to millions of hectares of rangeland because :-

(1) There was no competition

(2) Due to less interspecific competition
(3) Absence of Natural predator
(4) Avaibility of high nutrient

59) Which is the potent force in organic evolution :

(1) Inter-species competition

(2) Predation
(3) Intra-species competition
(4) Mutualism

60) Assertion: Five closely related species of warblers living on the same tree can avoid competition
and co-exist.
Reason: They exhibit behavioral differences in their foraging activities.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements

61) Assertion : Cuscuta is a parasitic plant that is commonly found growing on hedge plants.
Reason : It lost its chlorophyll, leaves and derive its nutrition from host plant.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

62) Which adaptation of parasite do not help to sustain their life in host body ?

(1) Loss of unnecessary sense organ

(2) Presence of adhesive organ or suckers to cling the host
(3) Loss of digestive system
(4) Low reproductive capacity

63) Biodiversity decreases when we move from

(1) Poles to equator

(2) Higher to lower altitudes
(3) Arctic to temperate areas
(4) Tropical to temperate areas

64) What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid ?

(1) Vanishing population

(2) Stable population
(3) Declining population
(4) Expanding population

65)

(1) A - Representing mutualism

(2) B - Showing Gause competitive exclusion principle
(3) C - showing resources partitioning
(4) D - showing commensalism

66) Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and
the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
The above statement is related to

(1) Connell’s field experiment

(2) MacArthur’s experiment
(3) Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’
(4) Interference competition

67) Match the following column-I & column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Sea anemone (a) Barnacle

(ii) Grazing cattle (b) Clawn fish

(iii) Mango tree (c) Egrets birds

(iv) Whale (d) Orchid

(1) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c

68) Lichen, Fig-wasp, Mycorrhiza, Pronuba moth–Yucca plant, Epiphyte–Mango, Barnacle – Whale,
Sea anemone – Clownfish
How many of above showing mutualism ?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Two

69) Assertion : Plants need the help of insects and animals for pollinating their flowers and
dispersing their seeds.
Reason : Plants offer reward in the form of pollen and nectar for pollinators and juicy and nutritious
fruits for seed dispersers.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

70) Statement-I : The most spectacular and evolutionarly facinating examples of mutualism are
found in plant-animal relationship.
Statement-II : Lichen represent an intimate mutualistic relationship between a fungus and
Cynobacteria.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.
(3) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true.

71)
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to the above given figure ?

One petal of the flower bears an uncanny resemblance to the female bumble bee in size, colour
(1)
and markings.
(2) The female bumble bee is a critical link species which helps in pollination of the flower.
(3) The flower employs 'Sexual deceit' to get pollination done by a particular species of bumble bee.
(4) Male bumble pseudocopulates with the flower.

72) In the rocky intertidal communities of American pacific coast, when all the starfishes were
removed, more than 10 species of invertebrates got extinct within a year. The main reason for this
extinction was :
(a) Exploitation
(b) Interspecific competition
(c) Intraspecific competition
(d) Predation

(1) b and d
(2) a and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) only b

73) Read statements (A–D)

(A) Sparrow eating seeds is no less a predator
(B) Magnitude of ‘r’ for Norway rat is 0.015
(C) Calotropis produces cardiac glycoside that's why no cattle is grazing on this plant
(D) Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to predators
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Three

74) Which statement is incorrect regarding functions of predators ?

(1) Predators act as conduit for energy transfer across trophic levels
(2) Predators over exploits its prey
(3) Predators keep prey populations under control
(4) Predators maintain species diversity in a prey community

75)

Read the following sentences :-

(I) E.coli cloning vector pBR322 have several restriction sites, ori, antibiotic resistance genes and
rop.
(II) Competent bacterial cells can not take up the plasmid.
(III) In elution, the separated bands of DNA are cut out from agarose gel and extracted from the gel
piece.
(IV) The down stream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product.

(1) All senstences are correct

(2) (I) and (III) are correct
(3) Except (II), all are correct
(4) Only (III) is correct

76) If we ligate a desired gene at PvuI site in pBR322, then recombinants will :

(1) Loose the tetracycline resistance

(2) Not grow on tetracycline
(3) Grow on ampicillin
(4) Not grow on ampicillin

77) Which of the following you will not prefer for the formation of rDNA ?

(1) Choice of vector whose origin support high copy number

(2) Use of same restriction enzyme for cleaving vector and desired gene
(3) Bacterial cells must first be made competent to take up the DNA
(4) Presence of more than one restriction sites of a restriction enzyme

78) For mass scale production of a transgenic product transforment host cells are cultured in a
stirred tank type of Bioreactor. The stirring process is to ensure.

(1) Uniform pH across the tank

(2) Uniform temperature across the culture medium.
(3) Uniformity in product quality obtained anywhere from the tank
(4) Uniform mixing of culture medium & oxygen abailabilty

79) Choose the right combination of components required to set up a polymerase chain reaction
(PCR) from the following :

(1) Template DNA, two primers, dNTPs & DNA ligase

(2) Template DNA, two primers, NTPs & DNA ligase
(3) Template RNA, two primers, NTPs & Taq DNA polymerase
(4) Template DNA, two primers, dNTPs & Taq DNA polymerase
80) Arrange the following statements in particular order that how process of recombinant DNA
technology takes place :-
(a) isolation of DNA
(b) ligation of DNA fragment into a vector
(c) culturing the host cells in medium
(d) isolation of desired DNA fragment
(e) fragmentation of DNA by restriction enzyme
(f) extraction of desired product

(1) a,c,d,e,b,f
(2) a,f,d,b,c,e
(3) a,e,d,b,c,f
(4) a,d,b,f,e,c

81) The tumour inducing (Ti) plasmid of ___(a)___ bacteria has now been modified into a cloning
vector which is ____(b)___ to the plant.
Correct for a & b.

(1) a – salmonella, b – pathogenic

(2) a – agrobacterium, b – non-pathogenic
(3) a – agrobacterium, b – pathogenic
(4) a – VIR, b – T-DNA

82) The construction of the first recombinant DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a gene
encoding antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid of which of the following organism ?

(1) Bacillus thuringiensis

(2) Salmonella typhimurium
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) Escherichia coli

83) Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy

Adenosine
(b) deaminase (ii) Cellular defence
deficiency

Detection of HIV
(c) RNAi (iii)
infection

(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

 (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Read the following statement:

Statement I :- RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.
Statement II :- Strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce protein that kill all the types of insects.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false

85) Assertion : Patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocyte.

Reason : Lymphocytes are not immortal.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true.
(4) Assertion & Reason both are false

86) Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II

(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency

(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato

(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones

(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

87) Match column I with column II

Column I Column II

(a) Basmati rice (i) Second amendment

Use of bioresources without proper

(b) GEAC (ii)
authorization

Indian patents
(c) (iii) Validity of GM research
bills

(d) Biopiracy (iv) 27 varieties

(1) a-(ii); b-(i); c-(iii); d-(iv)
(2) a-(iv); b-(i); c-(iii); d-(ii)
(3) a-(iv); b-(iii); c-(i); d-(ii)
(4) a-(i); b-(ii); c-(iii); d-(iv)

88) At present, about ___I___ recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use the world
over. In India ___II___ of these are presently being marketed.

I - 30
(1)
II - 12
I - 12
(2)
II - 30
I - 70
(3)
II - 25
I - 50
(4)
II - 18

89) Assertion (A): After using the radioactive probe technique, followed by autoradiography, it was
noted that the clone having the mutated gene did not appear on the photographic film.
Reason (R): The single stranded DNA or RNA. tagged with a radioactive molecule (probe) shows
complementarity with the mutated gene.

(1) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) (A) and (B) both are true but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) A is true, (R) is false.
(4) (A) false. (R) is true.

90) Transposons can be used during which one of the following ?

(1) Gene silencing

(2) Autoradiography
(3) Gene sequencing
(4) Polymerase Chain Reaction
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 1 1 1 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 4 1 2 2 3 4 1 3 2 1 4 4 1 2 2 1 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 4 2 2 4 1 4 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 1 2 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 3 1 3 2 1 1 3 1 2 2 3 4 1 1 3 2 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 3 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 3 4 1 1 3 3 1 3 1 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 1 4 3 3 3 4 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 2 2 4 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 1 1 4 3 3 2 1 3 1 3 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 4 3 2 3 3 1 2 1 2 4 2 2 3 4 4 4 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 2 2 1 2 3 1 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
As potential difference is same between A & B due to length of two paths current distribution

at A is such that i1 = , i2 = so magnetic field at centre is zero.

2)

Bp = (sin60° – sin30°)

0
3) (B )net = 0 so

r=

4)

Explaining the Question : We have to find the magnetizing magnetic field not center of

circular coil if wire consisting 100 terms each of radius 8:0cm carries current

Concept : This question is based on biot - savart law

Solution : Farmula B =

B=
B = 10–4 T
∴ 10–4T = 1gauss
B = 1 gauss
Final answer : Option (1)

5)

6)
∵ BAB = BPQ = BRS = 0

7)

12.5 Tesla

8)

9)

B due to

B due to straight wire =

Bnet = B1 – B2 – B3
10)

Barc =

Bst.wire =
Bnet = Barc + Bst.wire

11) Asking about:

magnitude of a flux passing through the square
Concept:
magnetic flux
Solution:
ϕ=

ϕ =

Correct option : (3)

12)

Fm = qvB
Fm ∝ v

13)

⇒ magnetic force on each element of loop is out words

⇒ = 0 So (Fnet)loop = 0

14)
At P1, B1 =

At P2, B2 =
B1 = B2

15)

2A

16)
Since charge is negative direction of is down (↓) & as charge is negative is in up (↑).

17)

18)

19) ∵

V5 : V20 =

V5 = × 25 = 20 volt

V20 = × 25 = 5 volt = V8 = V12

∴ QA = CV = (5 μF) (20)
QB = CV = (8μF) (5)
QC = CV = (12μF) (5)
QA : QB : QC = 5 : 2 : 3
20) V3 : V7 = 7 : 3

V7 = × 6 = 1.8 volt
∴ V5 = 1.8 volt

∴ Q5 = C5V5 = (5 × 10–6) (1.8)

= 9 × 10–6 coulomb

21) ∵ Q = CV ⇒ Q V so straight line

∵ = 2.5 × 106 volt

22) Potential difference across each capacitor is 2.5 V

VB = +5 V
VD = –5V

23)
Rearrange circuit using point potential method

Balanced wheat stone bridge in upper part.

So, CAB = 2C

24)
25) Equivalent circuit

26) V4 : V2 = 1 : 2

⇒
V6 : V3 = 1 : 2

27) Ans. (C), (D)

∵ d↑ ⇒ C↓
(i) V = constant ⇒

(ii) Q = constant ⇒

28) Area in current-time graph gives the charge flow.

Q1 = 1 × 1 = 1
Q2 = 2 × 2 = 4

Q3 = ×2×2=2

29) All 4Ω resistances are short circuited in diagram so

Rnet = 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10Ω

30) Req = 2 + 4 = 6Ω
∴ VP – VQ = I × Req = 0.5 × 6 = 3 volt
31)

∴ P2 : P1 = 4 : 1

32)

33) – 100 = 900 Ω

34) Stretching means volume constant

So
∴ R' = 16R

35) R = 47 × 101 + 5% = 470 Ω, 5%

36)

37) Use

38) Potential energy U = – MB cosθ

U1 = – MBcos (180°) = +MB
U2 = – MB cos (90°) = 0
U3 = – MB cos (obtuse angle)
= +ve but less than MB
U4 = – MB cos (Acute angle) = –ve
∴ U1 > U3 > U2 > U4

39) Force on arm AB due to current in conductor XY is

acting towards XY in the plane of loop. Force on arm CD due to current in conductor XY is

acting away from XY in the plane of loop.

∴ Net force on the loop = F1 – F2
 40) BLR = BMS = 0

∴ Net field B =

41)

42) M = NIA

43) ∵ Particle moves undeflected

∴ Fnet = 0
∴ qE = qυB

44) Force on electron due to electric field

Force on electron due to magnetic field

Since and are in the same direction total force on the electron,

Electric field opposses the motion of the electron, hence speed of the electron will decrease.

45)
⇒

CHEMISTRY

46)
Carboxylic acid is more acidic then phenol and acidic strength

47)

Stability of C⊕ ∝
Stability of Co ∝ +M / Resonance / +H.C. / +I
Stability of C– ∝ –M / Resonance / –I

48)

49)

50)

51)

Electromeric

52)

–H

53)

54)

III and IV
55)

56)

57)

2nd have incomplete octet

58)

I < III < II

59)

60) and

61)

62)

63)

64)
65)

66) EAR ∝ stability of carbocation

67)

68) Reactivity toward EAR ∝ Stability of carbocation

(ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)

69)

70)

71)

hydroboration oxidation, mercuration-demercuration, acidic hydration

72)

CH3C ≡ CH

73)

Peroxide effect
 74)

AN ∝ oxidation state

75) Concept - (Excited State of Iodine)

Iodine's ground state has only one unpaired electron. To form IF3, iodine needs three unpaired
electrons. which occurs in the first excited state.
Final Answer - Option (1)

76)

P Q R S

(2) d c a b

77) More directional characters, in p-orbital.

78) In PCl5 axial B.L. > equatorial B.L.

79)

13σ + 5π bonds

80)
sp3, 3pπ-dπ bonds

81)

NCERT, Pg. # 115

82)

OF2 > OCl2> OBr2

83) NCERT-XIth Pg#86, PART-I

84) SF6(12e–), XeF4 (12 e–)

NCERT-XI Pg#101, PART-I

85)
 sp, sp3d, sp2

86) (BO ∝ stability)

NCERT-XI Pg#110, PARA-I

87) NCERT-XI 2019, Pg#131

88) [μ ΔEN] for diatomic molecule.

NCERT-XI 2019, Pg#108

89) NCERT-XI PART-I, Pg#87

90) NCERT-XI Pg#85

BIOLOGY

91)

Anti-serum

92)

NCERT Pg. No. 153

93) Explanation:
T-helper cells do not produce antibodies. They play a key role in stimulating B-cells to produce
antibodies, but they do not produce antibodies themselves.
The incorrect statement is: 2. T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also
stimulate B-cells to produce the same.

94)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 150

95)

Macrophage

96)

NCERT-XII, Hint Pg. # 153

97)

NCERT Pg. # 152 (E)

98)

Two

99) Explain Question: Match each disease with its correct causative agent or characteristic
symptom.
Concept: This Question is based on Protozoan diseases,Viral Diseases,Bacterial Diseases
Solution:
The correct answer is option 1.
Let's match the correct causative agent or characteristic symptom-
Common cold (A) → Rhino virus (iv) → Caused by rhinovirus, leading to nasal congestion and
sore throat.
Typhoid (B) → Salmonella typhi (v) → Bacterial infection causing high fever, weakness, and
stomach pain.
Pneumonia (C) → Haemophilus influenzae (ii) → Bacterial infection affecting lungs, leading to
breathing difficulties.
Malaria (D) → Haemozoin (vi) → Caused by Plasmodium, producing haemozoin, responsible for
fever cycles.
Ringworm (E) → Dry & Scaly lesions (i) → Fungal infection causing itchy, scaly skin patches.
Amoebiasis (F) → Stool with mucous & blood clots (iii) → Caused by Entamoeba histolytica,
leading to dysentery.
This matches with : A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii
Final answer: 1

100)

Most of cancer are treated by using only single technique either surgery or radiotherapy or
chemotherapy

101)

Oncogene

102)

Both Assertion & Reason are correct & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

103)

Cancer, Allergy, Rheumatoid arthritis

104) NCERT, MODULE

105) NCERT page: 149

106)

Human blood and gut of mosquito

107) NCERT conceptual Pg No: 131, 132

108)

NCERT Page no.148

109)

Amoebiasis

110)

Two

111) Allen module

112)

Three

113)

(a) and (b)

114)

Anaphylactic shock

115) Explanation :
(A) It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae: This is correct. Pneumonia is commonly
caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae along with other bacteria, viruses, or fungi.
(B) Infects the alveoli of the lungs: This is correct. Pneumonia does infect the alveoli,
leading to inflammation and fluid buildup.
(C) Symptoms of pneumonia include fever, chills, cough, and headache: This is correct.
These are typical symptoms of pneumonia.
(D) In all cases, the lips and fingernails turn blue to grayish in color: This is incorrect.
While cyanosis (blue/gray coloring) may occur in severe cases due to reduced oxygen levels, it
is not a universal symptom of pneumonia.
Final Answer : (3)

116) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 153, Para. # 8.2.5

117) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 153, Para–8.2.5

118)

Wheezing sound is produced during inspiration

119)

Artificial active immunity

120)

Opsonization ⇒ By IgA & IgE

121)

Second line of defence – NK cells, T-cells

122)

Good humour hypothesis was developed by William Harvey.

123)

Macrophage

124)

Both (1) and (2)

125)

Used as biocontrol agents

126)

NCERT Pg. # 182

127)
Streptokinase

128) NCERT Pg. # 181

129)

Filteration and Sedimentation

130)

Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

131)

Both (1) and (3)

132)

Lag phase Acceleration phase Deceleration Asymptote

133)

a = Exponential plot, b = Logistic plot, c = Carrying capacity

134) Question is Asking About:

The equation that expresses logistic population growth.

Concept:
The logistic growth model describes a population that grows rapidly at first but slows as the
population sizes approaches the caring capacity of the environment.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
The correct equation for logistic growth is

Hence, option (3) is correct.

135)

0.2 offspring per plant per year

136) NCERT Pg. No. 228

137) NCERT XII, Page # 230

 138)

Natality and Mortality

139) NCERT Pg. 234 and 235

140)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

141) NCERT Pg. # 218

142)

(3) Population Ecosystem Biosphere

143)

Maximum = A, Minimum = D

144)

A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

145)

Stratification

146)

A: Competition, B: Predation, C: Commensalism, D: Amensalism

147) NCERT Page No. # 237, 238 [E]

NCERT Page No. # 260, 261 [H]

148)

Absence of Natural predator

149)

Inter-species competition

150)
 If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion

151) NCERT XII Pg. # 236

152)

NCERT XII Pg.: 235

153)

Tropical to temperate areas

154)

Asking about: The type of human population represented by a given age pyramid.

Concept: Age pyramids provide visual representations of the distribution of different age
groups in a population. These pyramids help identify the growth patterns of a population:

A. Vanishing population: An age pyramid with a very narrow base and a larger proportion
of older individuals, suggesting low birth rates and high death rates.

B. Stable population: A relatively balanced pyramid, with a roughly equal number of

individuals in each age group, indicating low and stable birth and death rates.

C. Declining population: An age pyramid with a narrow base (fewer young people),
indicating low birth rates and possibly high death rates, leading to a shrinking
population.

D. Expanding population: A pyramid with a broad base (many young people), indicating
high birth rates and rapid population growth.

Solution or Explanation: An age pyramid with a narrow base (fewer young people),
indicating low birth rates and possibly high death rates, leading to a shrinking population

Answer:
Option 3: Declining population

155) NCERT Page 199.

156) NCERT pg : 235

157) NCERT Pg. # 201

158) Explanation:
● Lichen (algae + fungus): Mutualism, where both the fungus and algae benefit from the
association. The algae perform photosynthesis and provide food, while the fungus offers a
suitable habitat.
● Fig-wasp: Mutualism, as the fig tree is pollinated by the wasp, and the wasp larvae use the
fig for development.
● Mycorrhiza: Mutualism, where fungi assist in nutrient and water absorption for plants, and
in return, the plants provide carbohydrates to the fungi.
● Pronuba moth–yucca plant: Mutualism, as the moth pollinates the yucca while laying its
eggs inside the plant’s flowers, providing reproductive benefits for both.

159) NCERT Pg. # 237 (E)

NCERT Pg. # 260 (H)

160) NCERT Pg. # 201, 202

161) Question:
Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the above-given figure?
Correct Answer: 2. The female bumble bee is a critical link species which helps in pollination
of the flower.
Explanation:
1. Option 2 (The female bumble bee is a critical link species which helps in pollination of the
flower): This is incorrect. In the case of sexual deceit, it is typically male bumble bees that are
tricked into pollinating the flower, not the female bees. The male bee attempts to mate with
the flower, inadvertently transferring pollen.

162) NCERT Pg. # 234

163) NCERT XIIth Pg # 233,234

164) NCERT XII Pg.# 233

165)

Except (II), all are correct

166)

Not grow on ampicillin

167) Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given options is not preferred when
creating recombinant DNA (rDNA). In simpler terms, it wants to know which factor would
cause problems or complications in the process of making rDNA.
Underlying Concept: Recombinant DNA technology involves joining DNA fragments from
different sources. Key steps include cutting DNA with restriction enzymes, inserting the
desired gene into a vector, and transferring it into bacterial cells. Vectors with a single
restriction site for the enzyme simplify insertion, while multiple sites can lead to unwanted
fragmentation. Competent bacterial cells are necessary to take up recombinant plasmids, and
vectors that replicate to produce many copies increase yield.
Tips and Tricks: Remember: a single unique restriction site on the vector for the cloning
enzyme helps ensure that the vector is cut only once, preventing fragmentation.
Common Mistakes: Assuming multiple restriction sites on the vector are beneficial-actually,
they cause the vector to break into pieces, complicating the cloning process.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: "Choice of vector whose origin supports high copy
number" is generally preferred to get many copies of rDNA. "Use of same restriction enzyme
for cleaving vector and desired gene" ensures compatible ends for ligation. "Bacterial cells
must be made competent" is essential for uptake of recombinant DNA. Therefore, these
choices are correct practices, leaving "Presence of more than one restriction sites of a
restriction enzyme" as the unsuitable option.

168)

NCERT XII, Pg # 204

169)

NCERT XII, Pg # 202

170)

NCERT XII, Pg # 201

171)

NCERT XII, Pg # 200

172) The correct answer is:

2. Salmonella typhimurium
Explanation:
The first recombinant DNA experiments involved the linking of a gene (such as an antibiotic
resistance gene) to a plasmid, and one of the earliest breakthroughs in recombinant DNA
technology was carried out with Salmonella typhimurium. Researchers, including Paul Berg,
were able to create recombinant DNA by inserting a gene for antibiotic resistance into
plasmids in bacteria like Salmonella. These early experiments were pivotal in demonstrating
the feasibility of gene transfer and recombinant DNA techniques.
While Escherichia coli is also frequently used in recombinant DNA technology, the specific
historical context in which the first recombinant DNA was constructed involved Salmonella
typhimurium.

173) (a) Bt cotton → (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis

(b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency → (i) Gene therapy
(c) RNAi → (ii) Cellular defence
(d) PCR → (iii) Detection of HIV infection

174) NCERT XII Pg # 180

175) NCERT Pg: 211

176)

Solution:
(a) Protoplast fusion → (ii) Pomato
(b) Plant tissue culture → (i) Totipotency
(c) Meristem culture → (iv) Virus-free plants
(d) Micropropagation → (iii) Somaclones
Correct option: (2)

177) XII OLD NCERT Pg # 214

178)

I - 30
II - 12

179)

A is true, (R) is false.

180) Transposons, also known as jumping genes, are segments of DNA that can move from one
location to another within a genome. They are often used in gene silencing and other genetic
manipulation techniques. Transposons can be used to insert or disrupt genes in specific
locations, which is useful in studying gene function and regulating gene expression.