Periodic Properties 1

1
PERIODIC PROPERTIES

Level 1
: Periodic Table
1. Which is not similar characteristic(s) about the electronic configuration of Be, Mg, Ca?
(a) All the atoms have a pair of s-electrons in their outermost energy level
(b) All the atoms contain a pair of p-electrons in their outermost energy level
(c) All are alkaline earth metals
(d) All are of second group of the periodic table
2. The elements with atomic number 117 and 120 are yet to be discovered. In which group
would you place these elements when discovered ?
(a) 17 , 2 (b) 16 , 4 (c) 15 , 3 (d) 18 , 2
3. The most electropositive element possesses the electronic configuration :
(a) [He] 2 s1 (b) [Ne] 3 s 2 (c) [Xe] 6 s1 (d) [Xe] 6 s 2
4. Which one of the following elements shows both positive and negative oxidation states?
(a) Cesium (b) Fluorine (c) Iodine (d) Xenon
5. The number of elements present in fifth period is :
(a) 18 (b) 32 (c) 8 (d) 24
6. Which of the following arrangements shows the correct order of decreasing paramagnetism?
(a) N > Al > O > Ca (b) N > O > Al > Ca
(c) O > N > Al > Ca (d) O > N > Ca > Al
7. The outer electronic structure of lawrencium (atomic number 103) is :
(a) Rn 5 f 13 7 s 2 7 p 2 (b) Rn 5 f 136 d 1 7s1 7 p 2
(c) Rn 5 f 14 7 s1 7 p 2 (d) Rn 5 f 14 6 d 1 7 s 2
8. The elements with the lowest atomic number that has a ground state electronic configuration
of (n - 1) d 6 ns 2 is located in the :
(a) fifth period (b) sixth period (c) fourth period (d) third period
 2 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

9. Which of the following sets of atomic numbers corresponds to elements of group 16 ?

(a) 8, 16, 32, 54 (b) 16, 34, 54, 86
(c) 8, 16, 34, 52 (d) 10, 16, 32, 50
10. The atomic numbers of the metallic and non-metallic elements which are liquid at room
temperature respectively are :
(a) 55, 87 (b) 33, 87 (c) 35, 80 (d) 80, 35
11. In the periodic table, metallic character of the elements shows one of the following trend :
(a) Decreases down the group and increases across the period
(b) Increases down the group and decreases across the period
(c) Increases across the period and also down the group
(d) Decreases across the period and also down the group
12. Nucleus of an element contains 9 protons. It’s valency would be :
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
13. Transition metals are not characterized by :
(a) fixed valency (b) coloured compound
(c) high melting and boiling points (d) tendency to form complexes
14. Sodium generally does not shown oxidation state of +2, because of its :
(a) high first ionisation potential (b) high second ionization potential
(c) large ionic radius (d) high electronegativity
15. Which of the following pairs of molecules have the almost identical bond dissociation energy?
(a) F2 and H 2 (b) N 2 and CO (c) F2 and I 2 (d) HF and O 2
16. According to modern periodic law the properties of elements repeat at regular intervals when
the elements are arranged in order of :
(a) decreasing atomic number (b) increasing atomic weight
(c) increasing atomic number (d) decreasing atomic weights
17. Give the symbol of the elements of lowest atomic number that has three 2p electrons :
(a) Mg (b) P (c) N (d) Si
18. In the fourth period of the periodic table, how many elements contain one or more 4d
electrons?
(a) 2 (b) 18 (c) 0 (d) 6
19. Assuming that elements are formed to complete the seventh period, what would be the atomic
number of the alkaline earth metal of the eighth period?
(a) 113 (b) 120 (c) 119 (d) 106
20. Which of the following represents an excited state of an atom?
(a) [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 2 3 d 8 (b) [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s1 3 d 5
(c) [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 2 3 d 1 (d) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 5 3 s1
21. Choose the correct statement regarding transition elements?
(a) Transition elements have low melting points
(b) Transition elements do not have catalytic activity
(c) Transition elements exhibit variable oxidation states
(d) Transition elements exhibit inert pair effect
Periodic Properties 3
22. Which one of the following is a different pair?
(a) Li, Na (b) Be, Ba (c) N, As (d) O, At
23. The element having electronic configuration [Kr]4 d 4 f ,5s 5 p ,6 s 2 belongs to :
10 14 2 6

(a) s-block (b) p-block (c) d-block (d) f-block

24. Which element is named after the name of a planet ?
(a) Hg (b) Po (c) Pu (d) Ra
25. Zn and Cd metals do not show variable valency because :
(a) They have only two electrons in the outermost subshells
(b) Their d-subshells are completely filled
(c) Their d-subshells are partially filled
(d) They are relatively soft metals
26. An element whose IUPAC name is ununtrium (Uut), belongs to :
(a) s-block element (b) p-block element
(c) d-block element (d) Transition element
27. Which of the following is not a representative element ?
(a) Tellurium (b) Tantalum
(c) Thallium (d) Astatine
28. Period number and group number of "Tantalum" ( Z = 73) are respectively :
(a) 5, 7 (b) 6, 13 (c) 6, 5 (d) None of these
29. Which of the following pair of elements belong to the same period?
(a) Mg and Sb (b) Ca and Zn
(c) Na and Ca (d) Ca and Cl
30. Consider the following electronic configuration of an element(P) :
[Xe]4 f 14 5d 1 6 s 2
Then correct statement about element ' P ' is :
(a) It belongs to 6th period and 1st group (b) It belongs to 6th period and 2nd group
(c) It belongs to 6th period and 3rd group (d) None of these
31. Which of the following metal is most electropositive (metallic) in nature ?
(a) Be (b) Rb (c) Mn (d) Tl
32. Which of the following species contains maximum ' d xy ' orbital electrons ?
(a) Cr (b) Fe 3+ (c) Cu + (d) Both (a) and (b)
33. Which of the following graph is correct representation between atomic number (Z) and
magnetic moment of d-block elements? [Outer electronic configuration : (n - 1)d x ns1 or 2 ]
Magnetic

Magnetic

Magnetic

Magnetic
moment

moment

moment

moment

(a) (b) (c) (d)

z z z z
34. If IUPAC name of an element is "Unununium" then correct statement regarding element is that:
(a) it is a inner transition element (b) it belongs to 8th period in periodic table
(c) it is transition element (d) it is a non-transition element
 4 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

35. Which property decreases from left to right across the period and increases from top to bottom
in group?
(i) Atomic radius (ii) Electronegativity (iii) Ionisation energy (iv) Metallic character
(a) (i) only (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
36. Consider the following information about elements P and Q :
Period number Group number
P 2 15
Q 3 2
Then formula of the compound formed by P and Q is :
(a) PQ (b) P3Q 2 (c) P2Q 3 (d) PQ 2
37. Which electronic configuration must represent an atom in an excited state?
(a) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 1 (b) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 2
(c) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 2 ,3 s1 (d) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 5
38. A compound contains three elements A, B and C. If the oxidation number of A = +2, B = +5
and C = –2, then possible formula of the compound is :
(a) A 3( B 4 C ) 2 (b) A 3( BC 4 ) 2 (c) A 2( BC 3 ) 2 (d) ABC 2
39. Consider the following four elements, which are represented according to long form of
periodic table.
Y
W X Z
Here W , Y and Z are left, up and right elements with respect to the element ‘X’ and ‘X’ belongs
to 16th group and 3rd period. Then according to given information the incorrect statement
regarding given elements is :
(a) Maximum electronegativity : Y (b) Maximum catenation property : X
(c) Maximum electron affinity : Z (d) Y exhibits variable covalency
40. Which of the following sequence represents atomic number of only representative elements?
(a) 55, 12, 48, 53 (b) 13, 33, 54, 83 (c) 3, 33, 53, 87 (d) 22, 33, 55, 66
41. The ground state electronic configurations of the elements, U , V , W , X , and Y (these symbols
do not have any chemical significance) are as follows :
U 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 3
V 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s1
W 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 2
X 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 3 d 5 4 s 2
Y 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 3 d 10 4 s 2 4 p 6
Determine which sequence of elements satisfy the following statements :
(i) Element forms a carbonate which is not decomposed by heating
(ii) Element is most likely to form coloured ionic compounds
(iii) Element has largest atomic radius
(iv) Element forms only acidic oxide
Periodic Properties 5
(a) V W Y U (b) V X Y W
(c) V W Y X (d) V X W U
42. When magnesium burns in air, compounds of magnesium formed are magnesium oxide and :
(a) Mg 3N 2 (b) MgCO 3
(c) Mg(NO 3 ) 2 (d) MgSO 4
43. Which of the following ions is most unlikely to exist?
(a) Li - (b) Be - (c) B - (d) F -
44. A, B and C are hydroxy-compounds of the elements X, Y and Z respectively. X, Y and Z are in
the same period of the periodic table. A gives an aqueous solution of pH less than seven. B
reacts with both strong acids and strong alkalies. C gives an aqueous solution which is strongly
alkaline.
Which of the following statements is/are true ?
I : All the three elements are metals.
II : The electronegativities decrease from X to Y to Z.
III : The atomic radius decreases in the order X, Y and Z.
IV : X, Y and Z could be phosphorus, aluminium and sodium respectively.
(a) I, II, III only correct (b) I, III only correct
(c) II, IV only correct (d) II, III, IV only correct
45. La (lanthanum) having atomic number 57 is a member of :
(a) s-block elements (b) p-block elements
(c) d-block elements (d) f-block elements
46. If the aufbau principle had not been followed, Ca (Z = 20) would have been placed in the :
(a) s-block (b) p-block (c) d-block (d) f-block
47. What is the atomic number of the element with the maximum number of unpaired 4 p
electrons?
(a) 33 (b) 26 (c) 23 (d) 15
48. The electronic configuration of four elements are :
(I) [Kr]5s1 (II) [Rn]5 f 14 6 d 1 7 s 2
(III) [Ar]3 d 10 4 s 2 4 p 5 (IV) [Ar]3 d 6 4 s 2
Consider the following statements :
(i) I shows variable oxidation state
(ii) II is a d-block element
(iii)The compound formed between I and III is covalent
(iv) IV shows single oxidation state
Which statement is True (T) or False (F)?
(a) FTFF (b) FTFT (c) FFTF (d) FFFF
49. If period number and group number of any representative element(s) are same then which of
the following statement is incorrect regarding such type element(s) in their ground state?
(Period number and group number are according to modern form of periodic table)
(a) The possible value of principal quantum number is 2
(b) The possible value of azimuthal quantum number is zero
 6 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(c) The possible value of magnetic quantum number is 1

(d) The species could be paramagnetic
50. Which of the following properties of the alkaline earth metals increase from Be to Ba?
(i) Atomic radius (ii) Ionisation energy (iii) Nuclear charge
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
51. Which of the following is the incorrect match for the position of element in periodic table?
(a) [Ar]3 d 5 4 s1 ® 4 th period, 6 th group
(b) [Kr]4 d 10 ® 5 th period, 12 th group
(c) [Rn]6d 2 7 s 2 ® 7 th period, 3 th group
(d) [Xe]4 f 14 5d 2 6 s 2 ® 6 th period, 4 th group
52. Which orbital is filled immediately before the 4 f subshell?
(a) 6s (b) 5p (c) 5d (d) 4d
53. Which of the following element is not suitable in traid formation among them ?
(a) H (b) Li (c) Na (d) K
54. If transition element ‘ X ’ has maximum unpaired electrons in their (n - 1) d-subshell in ground
state, then which of the following statement is incorrect regarding element ‘ X ’ is :
(a) ‘ X ’ has symmetrical distribution of electron density.
(b) ‘ X ’ may belong to 6 th group.
(c) ‘ X ’ may belong to 7 th group.
(d) ‘ X ’ always have 5 unpaired electrons in its ground state.
55. Representative elements X, Y and Z are p-block and same period elements. If order of their
magnetic moment in ground state is X > Y > Z. Then which of the following statement is
incorrect regarding given elements ?
(a) X may belong to 15 th group. (b) Y may belong to 14 th group.
(c) Z may belong to 16 th group. (d) Z may belong to 13 th group.
56. Consider the following information about element ‘P’ and ‘Q’
Period number Group number
P 2 15
Q 3 2
Then formula of the compound formed by P and Q element is :
(a) PQ (b) P3Q 2 (c) P2Q 3 (d) PQ 2
57. Which of the elements whose atomic numbers are given below, cannot be accommodated in
the present set up of the long form of the periodic table?
(a) 107 (b) 118 (c) 126 (d) 102
58. The element with atomic number 57 belongs to :
(a) s-block (b) p-block (c) d-block (d) f-block
59. Consider the following electronic configuration of an element ( P )
[Xe] 4 f 14 5d 1 6 s 2
Then correct statement about element ‘ P ’ is :
Periodic Properties 7
(a) It belongs to 6 th period and 1 st group (b) It belongs to 6 th period and 2 nd group
(c) It belongs to 6 th period and 3 rd group (d) None of these
60. An element with electronic configuration [Xe]4 f 14 5d 7 6 s 2 is :
(a) an alkaline earth metal. (b) a transition element
(c) an inert gas (d) a rare earth element.
61. An element whose IUPAC name is ununtrium (Uut) belongs to :
(a) s-block (b) p-block (c) d-block (d) f-block
62. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Lothar Meyer classification ?
(a) The elements present at the peaks are chemically very reactive.
(b) Alkaline earth metals are present at the descending position of the curve.
(c) Representative elements are present at the bottom of curve.
(d) Halogens occupy ascending position of curve.
63. If IUPAC name of an element is “unununium” then correct statement regarding the element is :
(a) It is a inner transition element. (b) It belongs to 8th period is periodic table.
(c) It is a transition element. (d) It is a non-transition element.
64. Which of the following element belongs to ‘ f ’ Block element ?
(a) La (b) Ac (c) Ce (d) Hf
65. Consider the following electronic configuration of an element (P):[Xe]4 f 14 5d 1 6 s 2
Then correct statement about element ‘P’ is :
(a) It belongs to 6 th period and 1st group
(b) It belongs to 6 th period and 2 nd group
(c) It belongs to 6 th period and 3 rd group
(d) None of these

: Atomic/Ionic Radius
66. Which of the following anion has smallest radius?
(a) H - (b) F - (c) Cl - (d) Br -
67. The ionic radii of Li + , Be 2+ and B 3+ follow the order :
(a) Be 2+ > B 3+ > Li + (b) Li+ > B 3+ > Be 2+
(c) B 3+ > Be 2+ > Li+ (d) Li+ > Be 2+ > B 3+
68. Among Na + , Ne and F - which is largest in size ?
(a) Na + (b) Ne (c) F - (d) all are equal
69. Which of the following atom or ion has smallest size?
(a) F (b) F - (c) O (d) N
70. The single covalent radius of P is 0.11 nm. The single covalent radius of Cl will be :
(a) smaller than P (b) greater than P (c) same as P (d) twice of P
71. Which of the following is arranged in decreasing order of size?
(a) Mg 2+ > Al 3+ > O 2- (b) O 2- > Mg 2+ > Al 3+
(c) Al 3+ > Mg 2+ > O 2- (d) Al 3+ > O 2- > Mg 2+
 8 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

72. The correct order of increasing atomic radius of the following elements is :
(a) S < O < Se < C (b) O < C < S < Se
(c) O < S < Se < C (d) C < O < S < Se
73. The correct order of increasing radius of the elements Si, Al, Na and P is :
(a) Si < Al< P < Na (b) P < Si < Al < Na
(c) Al < Si < P < Na (d) Al < P < Si < Na
2+ 4+
74. The size of the species, Pb, Pb , Pb decreases as :
(a) Pb 4+ > Pb 2+ > Pb (b) Pb > Pb 2+ > Pb 4+
(c) Pb > Pb 4+ > Pb 2+ (d) Pb 4+ > Pb > Pb 2+
75. Incorrect order of radius is :
(a) Sr 2+ < Rb + < Br - < Se 2- (b) Nb 5+ < Zr 4+ < Y 3+
(c) Co > Co 2+ > Co 3+ > Co 4+ (d) Ba 2+ < Cs+ < Se 2- < As 3-
76. The correct order of atomic/ionic radii is :
(a) Sc > Ti > V > Cr (b) Co > Ni > Cu > Zn
(c) S 2- > Cl - > O 2- > N 3- (d) None of these
77. The radius of which ion is closest to that of Li+ ion?
(a) Na+ (b) Be 2+ (c) Mg 2+ (d) Al 3+
78. The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is:
(a) Na + > Mg 2+ > Al 3+ > Li + > Be 2+ (b) Na + > Li + > Mg 2+ > Al 3+ > Be 2+
(c) Na + > Mg 2+ > Li + > Al 3+ > Be 2+ (d) Na + > Mg 2+ > Li + > Be 2+
79. In which of the following pair, both the species are isoelectronic but the first one is large in size
than the second?
(a) S 2- , O 2- (b) Cl - , S 2- (c) F - , Na + (d) N 3- , P 3-
80. The correct order of ionic size of N 3- , Na + , F - , Mg 2+ and O 2- is :
(a) Mg 2+ > Na + > F - > O 2- < N 3- (b) N 3- < F - > O 2- > Na + > Mg 2+
(c) Mg 2+ < Na + < F - < O 2- < N 3- (d) N 3- > O 2- > F - > Na + < Mg 2+
81. The order of increasing ionic radius of the following is :
(a) K + < Li+ < Mg 2+ < Al 3+ (b) K + < Mg 2+ < Li+ < Al 3+
(c) Li+ < K + < Mg 2+ < Al 3+ (d) Al 3+ < Mg 2+ < Li+ < K +
82. If the ionic radii of K + and F - are nearly the same (i.e., 1.34 Å), then the atomic radii of K and
F respectively are :
(a) 1.34 Å, 1.34 Å (b) 0.72 Å, 1.96 Å
(c) 1.96 Å, 0.72 Å (d) 1.96 Å, 1.34 Å
83. Incorrect order of ionic size is :
(a) La 3+ > Gd 3+ > Eu 3+ > Lu 3+ (b) V 2+ > V 3+ > V 4+ > V 5+
+ + 2+ 3+
(c) Tl > In > Sn > Sb (d) K + > Sc 3+ > V 5+ > Mn 7+
84. If the difference in atomic size of Na - Li = x, Rb - K = y , Fr - Cs = z :
(a) x = y = z (b) x > y > z
(c) x < y < z (d) x < y < z
Periodic Properties 9
85. The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is :
(a) Li + > Be 2+ > Na + > Mg 2+ (b) Na + > Li + > Mg 2+ > Be 2+
(c) Li + > Na + > Mg 2+ > Be 2+ (d) Mg 2+ > Be 2+ > Li + > Na +
86. Species with maximum radius is :
(a) N 3- (b) Ne (c) Al 3+ (d) Na +
- 2-
87. The radii of F , F , O and O are in the order of :
(a) O 2- > F - > F > O (b) F - > O 2- > O > F
(c) O 2- > O > F - > F (d) O 2- > F - > O > F
88. The incorrect order of radius is :
(a) K + > Li + > Mg 2+ > Al 3+ (b) Sc 3+ < K + < S 2-
(c) Ni > Cu < Zn (d) All are correct
89. The correct order of atomic/ionic radii is :
(a) Sc > Ti > V > Cr (b) Co > Ni > Cu > Zn
(c) S 2- > Cl - > O 2- > N 3- (d) None
90. The radius of which ion is closest to that of Li + ion ?
(a) Na + (b) Be 2+ (c) Mg 2+ (d) Al 3+
91. Which of the following is correct order for ionic radii ?
(a) I - > Se 2 > Br - > O 2- > F - (b) Se 2- > I - > Br - > O 2- > F -
2- 2-
- -
(c) I > Br > Se > O > F -
(d) Br - > I - > Se 2- > O 2- > F -
92. If covalent bond length of A 2 = 0.7 Å and that of B 2 is 1.3 Å than which of the following is
correct ?
(a) Actual size of A( g) < 0.35 Å (b) Actual size of B( g) < 0.65 Å
(c) Size of A -1 ( g) > 0.35 Å (d) Size of B -1 ( g) < 0.65 Å
93. In which of the following pair size of I element is higher than II element ?
(a) Sc, Zn (b) Sc, La (c) Cu, Ag (d) Hf, La

: Ionisation Energy
94. The first, second and third ionisation energies (E 1 ,E 2 and E 3 ) for an element are 7 eV, 12.5
eV and 42.5 eV respectively. The most stable oxidation state of the element will be:
(a) +1 (b) +4 (c) +3 (d) +2
95. Element having highest I.P. value is:
(a) Ne (b) He (c) Be (d) N
96. The order of ionisation potential between He + ion and H-atom (both species are in gaseous
state) is:
(a) I.P. (He + ) = I.P. (H) (b) I.P. (He + ) < I.P. (H)
(c) I.P. (He + ) > I. P. (H) (d) cannot be compared
97. Which of the following metal is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy?
(a) Cr (Z=24) (b) V (Z=23)
(c) Mn (Z=25) (d) Fe(Z=26)
 10 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

98. Second ionization potential of Li, Be and B is in the order :

(a) Li > Be > B (b) Li > B > Be
(c) Be > Li > B (d) B > Be > Li
99. The ionization energy of boron is less than that of beryllium because :
(a) beryllium has a higher nuclear charge than boron
(b) beryllium has a lower nuclear charge than boron
(c) the outermost electron in boron occupies a 2p-orbital
(d) the 2s and 2p-orbitals of boron are degenerate
100. The first four I.E. values of an element are 284, 412, 656 and 3210 kJ mol -1 . The number of
valence electrons in the element are :
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four
101. The first I.E. of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order :
(a) Na < Mg < Al < Si (b) Na < Al < Mg < Si
(c) Na < Al < Si < Mg (d) Na > Mg > Al > Si
102. The ionization energy will be higher when the electron is removed from :
(a) s-orbital (b) p-orbital (c) d-orbital (d) f-orbital
103. Which of the following isoelectronic ion has the lowest ionization energy?
(a) K + (b) Cl - (c) Ca 2+ (d) S 2-
104. Amongst the following elements, the highest ionization energy is :
(a) [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 1 (b) [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 3
(c) [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 2 (d) [Ar ] 3 d 10 4 s 2 4 p 3
105. The ionization potentials of Li and K are 5.4 and 4.3 eV respectively. The ionization potential
of Na will be :
(a) 9.7 eV (b) 1.1 eV
(c) 4.9 eV (d) cannot be calculated
106. Which of the following electronic configuration is associated with the biggest jump between
the second and third ionization energies?
(a) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 2 (b) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s1
(c) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 (d) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 1
107. The second ionization energy is maximum for :
(a) boron (b) beryllium (c) magnesium (d) aluminium
108. A large difference between the fourth and fifth ionization energies indicates the presence of :
(a) 5 valence electrons in an atom (b) 6 valence electrons in an atom
(c) 4 valence electrons in an atom (d) 8 valence electrons in an atom
109. For which of the following reaction DH° value is equal to the first ionization energy of Ca is ?
(a) Ca + ( g) ¾® Ca 2+ ( g) + e (b) Ca( g) ¾® Ca + ( g) + e
(c) Ca( s) ¾® Ca + ( g) + e (d) Ca( g) ¾® Ca 2+ ( g) + 2 e
110. Ionization enthalpy of an atom is equal to :
(a) electron gain enthalpy of the cation (b) electronegativity of the ion
(c) ionization enthalpy of the cation (d) none of these
Periodic Properties 11
111. From the ground state electronic configuration of the elements given below, pick up the one
with highest value of second ionization energy :
(a) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 (b) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s1
(c) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 (d) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 5
112. An element has successive ionization enthalpies as 940 (first), 2080, 3090, 4140, 7030, 7870,
16000 and 19500 kJ mol -1 . To which group of the periodic table does this element belong?
(a) 14 (b) 15
(c) 16 (d) 17
113. The second ionization potential of elements is invariable higher than first ionization potential
because :
(a) The size of cation is smaller than its atom
(b) It is easier to remove electron from cation
(c) Ionization is an endothermic process
(d) None of above
114. The first, second and third ionisation energies ( E 1 , E 2 & E 3 ) for an element are 7eV, 12.5eV
and 42.5eV respectively. The most stable oxidation state of the element will be :
(a) +1 (b) +4 (c) +3 (d) +2
115. Which of the following electronic configurations represents a sudden large gap between the
values of second and third ionisation energies of an element?
(a) 1s 2 , 2 s 2 2 p 3 (b) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 3
(c) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2 3 p 1 (d) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 2 p 6 ,3 s 2
116. Which of the following anionic species has maximum ionisation energy?
(a) O - (b) S - (c) Se - (d) Te -
117. The correct order of I.E. 2 . is:
(a) Na > F > O > N (b) O > F > Ne > N
(c) Ne > O > F > N (d) O > Ne > F > N
118. Which of the following transformation requires least energy ?
(a) F(-g ) -® F(g ) + e - (b) P(-g ) ¾® P(g ) + e -
(c) S(-g ) -® S(g ) + e - (d) Cl (-g ) -® Cl (g ) + e -
119. The correct values of ionization enthalpies (in kJ mol -1 ) of Si, P, Cl and S respectively are :
(a) 786, 1012, 999, 1256 (b) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(c) 786, 1012, 1256, 999 (d) 786, 999, 1012, 1256
120. The IP1 , IP2 , IP3 , IP4 and IP5 of an elements are 7.11, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively
the element is likely to be :
(a) Na (b) Si (c) F (d) Ca
121. Correct order of IE is :
(a) Cu < Zn < Ga (b) Ga < Cu < Zn
(c) Zn < Ga < Cu (d) Zn < Cu < Ga
122. Order of second ionisation potential of C, N, O and F is :
(a) C > N > O > F (b) O > N > F > C (c) O > F > N > C (d) F > O > N > C
 12 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

123. In which of the following species 2 nd I. E . < I st I. E . :

(a) Be (b) Ne
(c) Na + (d) None of these
124. Which of the following magnetic moment value corresponds to maximum ionisation energy of
Mn species ?
(a) 8 (b) 15
(c) 35 (d) 24
125. Which of the following species has highest ionisation energy ?
(a) Na + (b) Mg +
(c) Na (d) Mg 2+
126. III rd ionisation energy is minimum for :
(a) N (b) O (c) P (d) S
127. Element having highest I.P. value is :
(a) Ne (b) He (c) Be (d) N
128. Four elements A, B, C and D have electronic configurations given below, which one has highest
ionisation energy ?
(a) A = [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 2 (b) B = [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 3
(c) C = [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 5 (d) D = [Ne] 3 d 10 4 s 2 4 p 3
129. Select the incorrect order of ionization energy ?
(a) F > B > Ga > Al (b) N > P > S > Se
(c) Be > Li > Na > K (d) Ca > Be > K > Na
130. Successive first five ionisation energies of a particular element is 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2
(in eV) respectively. The element is likely to be :
(a) Na (b) Si
(c) F (d) Ca
131. Which one of the following statement is incorrect in relation to ionisation enthalpy.
(a) Ionisation enthalpy increases for each successive electron.
(b) The greatest increase in ionisation energy is experienced by removal of electron from core
noble gas configuration.
(c) End of valence electrons is marked by a big jump in ionisation enthalpy.
(d) Generally removal of electron from orbital bearing lower n value is easier than from orbital
having higher n value.
132. Which of them is correct representation of IE of 3 rd period elements ?

IE IE

(a) (b)

Atomic number Atomicnumber

Periodic Properties 13

IE IE

(c) (d)

Atomic number Atomicnumber

133. Which of the following ion requires maximum ionisation energy ?

(a) O - (b) S - (c) Se - (d) Te -
134. Which of the following is correct order of I.E. ?
(a) N 2 > CO (b) N 2 > O 2 (c) N > O > O 2 (d) All are correct
135. Which of the following is correct order of Ionization energy of {O , O -1 , S, S -1 } ?
(a) O > S > O - > S - (b) O > S > S - > O - (c) S - > O - > O > S (d) S - > S > O - > O
136. Arrange the following in correct order of their III rd Ionization energy {C, N, O, F}:
(a) C < O < N < F (b) N < C < O < F
(c) C < N < F < O (d) None of these
137. Select which of the following is incorrect order of I.E. ?
(a) Cu > Ag > Au (b) Cu < Zn > Ga
(c) Hg > Zn > Cd (d) Tl > Ga > In
138. Successive first five ionisation energies of a particular element is 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2
(in eV) respectively. The element is likely to be :
(a) Na (b) Si (c) F (d) Ca

: Electron Affinity
139. The amount of energy released on the addition of an electron in outermost shell of an atom is
called :
(a) ionization enthalpy (b) hydration enthalpy
(c) electronegativity (d) electron gain enthalpy
140. To which of the following atom, addition of electron is most difficult?
(a) Radon (b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen (d) Radium
141. Which of the following processes involves absorption of energy?
(a) S( g) + e - ¾® S - ( g) (b) S - + e - ¾® S 2- ( g)
(c) Cl( g) + e - ¾® Cl - ( g) (d) None of these
142. Arrange N, O and S in order of decreasing electron affinity :
(a) S > O > N (b) O > S > N
(c) N > O > S (d) S > N > O
143. Among the following configurations, the element which has the highest electron affinity is :
(a) [Ne] 3 s1 3 p 2 (b) [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 5
(c) [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 4 (d) [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 6 3 d 5 4 s1
 14 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

144. The increasing order of electron affinity of the electronic configurations of element is :
(I) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 5 (II) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 3
(III) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 5 (IV) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s1
(a) II< IV < III< I (b) I< II< III< IV
(c) I< III< II< IV (d) IV < III< II< I
145. Second electron gain enthalpy :
(a) is always negative (b) is always positive
(c) can be positive or negative (d) is always zero
146. The element having very high ionization enthalpy but zero electron affinity is :
(a) H (b) F (c) He (d) Be
147. Which of the following represents correct order of electron affinity?
(a) Cl > F > S > O (b) F > O > S > Cl
(c) F > Cl > S > O (d) Cl > S > O > F
148. The process requiring absorption of energy is :
(a) N ¾® N - (b) F ¾® F - (c) Cl ¾® Cl - (d) H ¾® H -
149. Which of the following elements will gain one electron more readily in comparison to other
elements of their respective group?
(a) S (b) Na (c) F (d) N
150. Select the correct statement :
(a) O( g) ¾® O 2- ( g) is exothermic step. (b) Mg 2+ ( g) ¾® Mg( g) is endothermic step.
(c) N( g) ¾® N - ( g) is endothermic step. (d) Fe 2+ ( g) ¾® Fe 3+ ( g) is exothermic step.
151. Which of the following represent the correct order of EA ?
(a) O > C > N > Br > Cl > F (b) Cl > F > O > C > N > Be
(c) Cl > O > F > C > N > Be (d) O > C > Cl > N > Be > F
152. Which of following will have the most negative electron gain enthalpy and which the least
negative ? F, P, S, Cl
(a) P, Cl (b) Cl, F (c) Cl, S (d) Cl, P
153. Consider the following electron addition process
H1 H2
(i) O ¾ D¾ ¾® O - ¾ D¾ ¾® O 2-
DH 3 DH 4
(ii) S ¾ ¾ -
¾® S ¾ ¾ ¾® S 2-
H5 H6
(iii) P ¾ D¾¾® P - ¾ D¾¾® P 2-
Then which of the following statement is incorrect regarding given information :
(a) DH 5 is less negative than DH 3 and DH 1
(b) DH 1 is less negative than DH 3
(c) DH 2 is more positive than DH 4
(d) None of these
154. The correct order of electron affinities are :
(a) Cl > F > O > P > N (b) Cl > O > F > N > P
(c) F > Cl > O > N > P (d) Cl > F > O > N > P
155. The process requiring absorption of energy is :
(a) N ¾® N - (b) F ¾® F - (c) Cl ¾® Cl - (d) H ¾® H -
Periodic Properties 15
156. Which of the following is the correct order for electron gain enthalpy ?
(a) P < O < S < F (b) O < P < S < F
(c) F < S < P < O (d) P < S < O < F
157. If electron affinity of an element is 6 eV/atom and ionisation energy is 16.4 eV/atom then
electronegativity of element on Pauling scale is :
(a) 2.5 (b) 3.5 (c) 4.0 (d) 3.0
158. The second electron gain enthalpies (in kJ/mol) of oxygen and sulphur respectively are :
(a) -780 , + 590 (b) -590 , + 780
(c) +590 , + 780 (d) +780 , + 590
159. Which of the following is correct order of electron affinity ?
(a) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba (b) N > P > As > Sb > Bi
(c) Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe > Rn (d) Cl > F > Br > I

: Electronegativity
160. The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order :
(a) C < N < Si < P (b) Si < P < C < N
(c) N < C < P < Si (d) C < Si < N < P
161. Which of the following order is incorrect ?
(a) Electronegativity of central atom : CF4 > CH 4 > SiH 4
(b) Hydration energy : Al 3+ > Be 2+ > Mg 2+ > Na+
(c) Electrical conductance : F(-aq.) > Cl (-aq.) > S(2aq
-
.)

(d) Magnetic moment : Ni 4+ > V 3+ > Sr 2+

162. Correct expression of "Allred and Rochow's" scale is :
Z
(a) Electronegativity = 0.744 eff. + 0.359
r2
r2
(b) Electronegativity = 0.359 + 0.744
Z eff.
Z
(c) Electronegativity = 0.359 eff. + 0.744
r
Z eff.
(d) Electronegativity = 0.359 2 + 0.744
r
163. Select correct order of electronegativity on different scale (where c p = EN on pauling scale,
c m = EN on mulliken scale) :
(a) c p > c m (b) c p = c m
(c) c m > c p (d) can’t predict
164. Select correct order of bond polarity
(a) N — H > P — H > As — H > Sb — H
(b) C — H bond in CH 4 < C — H bond in CH 2F2
(c) N — H > O — H > F — H
(d) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI
 16 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

165. The element having highest electronegativity :

(a) Has period number 3 and group number 16
(b) Has electronic configuration [Ne] 3 s 2 3 p 5
(c) Has 7 valence electrons and belongs to same period as that of Li
(d) Has 6 electrons in their p-subshell and belongs to same period as that of Mg
166. Calculate the bond length of C — X bond if C — C bond length is 1.54 Å and X — X bond
length is 1.2 Å and electronegativities of C and X are 2.0 and 3.0 respectively.
(a) 2.74 Å (b) 1.37 Å (c) 1.46 Å (d) 1.28 Å
167. If electron affinity of an element is 6 eV/atom and ionisation energy is 16.4 eV/atom then
electronegativity of element on Pauling scale is :
(a) 2.5 (b) 3.5 (c) 4.0 (d) 3.0

: Hydration Energy
168. The hydration energy of Mg 2+ ions is lesser than that of :
(a) Al 3+ (b) Ba 2+
(c) Na + (d) None of these
169. Among the following, which has the maximum hydration energy?
(a) OH - (b) NH +4
(c) F - (d) H +
170. Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing radius?
(a) K + ( aq) < Na + ( aq) < Li + ( aq) (b) Na + ( aq) < K + ( aq) < Li + ( aq)
(c) K + ( aq) < Li + ( aq) < Na + ( aq) (d) Li + ( aq) < Na + ( aq) < K + ( aq)
171. Which of the following compounds has a negative enthalpy of solution?
(a) KCl (b) KBr
(c) KF (d) KI

: Lattice Energy
172. Amongst sodium halides (NaF, NaCl, NaBr and NaI), NaF has the highest melting point
because of :
(a) High oxidising power (b) Lowest polarity
(c) Maximum lattice energy (d) Minimum ionic character
173. Among the following oxides, which has the maximum lattice energy?
(a) MgO (b) CaO
(c) SrO (d) BaO
174. Which of the following compounds has a positive enthalpy of solution?
(a) LiF (b) LiCl
(c) LiBr (d) LiI
175. Born-Haber cycle can be used to estimate :
(a) Lattice energy of ionic crystals (b) Electron gain enthalpy
(c) Electronegativity (d) Both (a) and (b)
Periodic Properties 17
176. Consider following sequence of reaction
DH
1
NaCl(s) ¾¾¾¾® Na+(g) + Cl–(g)

n1H2O DH2 n2H2O DH3

DH4

Na+(aq) + Cl–(aq)
or or
Na+(H2O)n1 Cl–(H2O)n2
According to given information which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) DH 1 is negative whereas DH 2 and DH 3 are positive
(b) DH 2 is negative while DH 1 is positive
(c) DH 4 = DH 1 + n 1 DH 2 + n 2 DH 3
(d) n 1 < n 2
177. CaO will be exist due to :
(a) Less I.E (b) More E.A
(c) More L.E (d) (b) and (c) both

: Nature of Oxide
178. Which of the following is different from other three oxides?
(a) MgO (b) SnO (c) ZnO (d) PbO
179. Select the amphoteric substance in the following :
(a) SO 3 (b) NaOH (c) CO 2 (d) Al(OH) 3
180. Which of the following compound is most acidic?
(a) Cl 2O 7 (b) P4 O 10
(c) SO 3 (d) B 2O 3
181. Which one of the following orders present the correct sequence of the increasing basic nature
of the given oxides ?
(a) Al 2O 3 < MgO < Na 2O < K 2O (b) MgO < K 2O < Al 2O 3 < Na 2O
(c) Na 2O < K 2O < MgO < Al 2O 3 (d) K 2O < Na 2O < Al 2O 3 < MgO
182. Which of the following is weakest basic oxide ?
(a) Fe 2O 3 (b) FeO (c) BaO (d) Na 2O
183. Incorrect order of basic character :
(a) Ag 2O > PbO (b) MgO > ZnO
(c) Fe 2O 3 > Al 2O 3 (d) Ag 2O > Cu 2O
184. Which of the following set of hydroxides is amphoteric ?
(a) Al(OH) 3 , LiOH (b) Be(OH) 2 , Mg(OH) 2
(c) B(OH) 3 , Be(OH) 2 (d) Be(OH) 2 , Zn(OH) 2
185. An element ‘ X ’ which belongs to the first short period has the outer electronic configuration
ns 2np 1 . What is the formula and acid-base character of its oxide ?
(a) XO 3 basic (b) X 2O 3 amphoteric
(c) X 2O 3 acidic (d) XO 2 acidic
 18 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

186. Correct order of basic strength of the following oxides :

(a) SO 3 > MnO > NO > K 2O (b) MnO > SO 3 > K 2O > NO
(c) K 2O > MnO > NO > SO 3 (d) NO > SO 3 > MnO > K 2O

: Miscellaneous
187. In which of the following arrangements, the order is NOT according to properly indicated
against it.
(a) Al 3+ < Mg 2+ < Na + < F - : Increasing order of ionic size
(b) B < C < N < O : Increasing order of ionisation enthalpy
(c) I < Br < F < Cl : Increasing order of electron gain enthalpy
(d) Li < Na < K < Rb : Increasing order of metallic radius
188. The correct order of stability of Al + , Al 2+ , Al 3+ is :
(a) Al 3+ > Al 2+ > Al + (c) Al 2+ > Al 3+ > Al +
(c) Al 2+ > Al + > Al 3+ (d) Al 3+ > Al + > Al 2+
189. The ionic mobility of alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is maximum :
(a) Na + (b) K + (c) Li + (d) Rb +
190. Which of the following order are correct for property indicated in brackets ?
(a) Cl > S > O > N (electron affinity)
(b) Si > Mg > Al > Na (first ionisation enthalpy)
(c) HClO 4 > HBrO 4 > HIO 4 (acidic nature)
(d) All of these
191. Which of the following order is correct for the properly mentioned in brackets ?
(a) S 2- > Cl - > K + > Ca 2+ (I. E .)
(b) C < N < F < O (2nd I.E.)
(c) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl (Electronegativity)
(d) Na + > Mg 2+ > Li + (Ionic radius)
192. Which of the following order is correct ?
(a) Ca < Mg < Na < K : order of I. E 1
(b) O < S < F < Cl : order of electron affinity
(c) N < O < S < P : order of atomic size
(d) N < O < S < F : order of electronegativity
193. Which of the following is incorrect order ?
(a) Sc < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of oxidation states.
(b) Sc > Y > La ; order of I.E.
(c) Sc > Ti > V > Cr : order of atomic size
(d) Cu > Ag > Au : order of I.E.
194. Which of the following configuration has highest magnetic moment?
(a) d 4 (b) d 2 (c) d 5 (d) d 7
195. Which of the following element can exhibit more than one oxidation state ?
(I) Cr (II) Pb (III) Sr (IV) Rb
Periodic Properties 19
(a) I Only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) All
196. Select the correct graph for given property for chalcogen family :

Ionisation energy
Atomic radius

(a) (b)

O S Se Te O S Se Te
Atomic number Atomicnumber

Electronegativity
Electron affinity

(c) (d)

O S Se Te O S Se Te
Atomic number Atomic number

197. Which of the following properties of the alkaline earth metals increase from Be to Ba ?
(i) Atomic radius (ii) Ionization energy (iii) Nuclear charge
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
198. Consider two electronic configuration of K(Potassium) :
I : K = 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s1
II : K = 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 3 d 1
Find the effective nuclear charge experienced by last electron in (I) and (II) respectively :
(a) 2.20, 7.40 (b) 2.20, 1.00 (c) 2.20, 2.20 (d) 6.20, 7.40
199. Which one of the following arrangement represents incorrect order ?
(a) O < S < F < Cl : electron gain enthalpy.
(b) Al < Mg < P < S : order of I. E 1
(c) O 2- < F - < Na + < Mg 2+ : order of Z Effective
(d) Mg 2+ < Na + < F - < O 2- : order of size
200. Consider the following sequence of reaction
DH5

DH
4 1 DH DH
2 3 DH
X– ¬¾¾¾¾ X ¾¾¾¾® X+ ¾¾¾¾® X2+ ¾¾¾¾® X3+

DH6

If electronic configuration of element X is [Ne] 3 s1 , then which of the following order is

Incorrect regarding given enthalpies ?
(a) |DH 4|=|DH 5| (b) |DH 2|>|DH 1| (c) |DH 2|>|DH 3| (d) |DH 1|=|DH 6|
 20 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

201. A element X belongs to fourth period and fifteenth group of periodic table. Which one of the
following is true statement regarding outer (valence shell) electronic configuration of X. It
has:
(a) Partially filled d-orbitals and completely filled s-orbital.
(b) Completely filled s-orbital and completely filled p-orbital.
(c) Completely filled s-orbital and half-filled p-orbital.
(d) Half-filled d-orbital and completely filled s-orbital.
202. Which of the following property does not associate with an element having Z = 80 (Z = atomic
number) ?
(a) It is having higher ionisation energy then its upper elements of same group
(b) It belongs to 12 th group
(c) It belongs to 6 th period
(d) It is transition metal
203. Select incorrect order for the property mentioned in bracket :
(a) Zn > Cd < Hg : Ionisation energy (b) F < Cl > Br : Electron affinity
(c) Ni < Cu < Zn : Atomic size (d) F - ( aq) > Cl - ( aq) > I - ( aq) : Ionic mobility
204. Which statement is true for the following reaction ?
Fe 2+ ¾® Fe 3+ + e -
(a) Exothermic in nature. (b) Electronegativity of the cation decreases.
(c) Magnetic moment undergoes a change. (d) Magnetic behaviour undergoes a change.
205. Which of the following order is incorrect as per the property directed ?
(a) Li + > Mg 2+ > Al 3+ : Order of ionic radii.
(b) S > Se > O : Order of electron gain enthalpy.
(c) Si < P < Cl < S : 2 nd ionisation energy
(d) S 2- > Cl - > K + > Ca 2+ : Ionisation energy
206. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) A element which has high electronegativity value always have high electron gain enthalpy.
(b) Electron gain enthalpy is the property of an isolated atom.
(c) Electronegativity is a property of a bonded atom.
(d) Both electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy are usually directly related to nuclear
charge and inversely related to atomic size.
207. Which of the following species show maximum paramagnetism ?
(a) Cr 3+ (b) Fe 3+ (c) Cu 2+ (d) Co 3+
208. Which of the property has irregular change from atomic number 6 to 8 ?
(a) Atomic radius (b) Ionization energy
(c) Effective nuclear charge (d) Electronegativity
209. Which of the following order is incorrect ?
(a) Electronegativity of central atom : CF4 > CH 4 > SiH 4
(b) Hydration energy : Al 3+ > Be 2+ > Mg 2+ > Li + > Na +
(c) Acidic behaviour of oxides : B 2O 3 > P4 O 10 > SO 3 > Cl 2O 7
(d) Magnetic moment : Ni 4 + > V 3+ > Sr 2+
Periodic Properties 21
210. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) van der Waal’s radius of iodine is less than its covalent radius.
(b) All isoelectronic ions of corresponding elements belong to the same period of the periodic
table.
(c) IE 1 of N-atom is higher than the of O-atom, while IE 2 of O-atom is higher than that
N-atom.
(d) The electron affinity of fluorine is greater than that of chlorine.
211. Select incorrect order for A( g) and B ( g) where salt AB ( s) = A + B - is most ionic :
(a) Ionization energy of A < B (b) Atomic size of A < B
(c) Electron affinity of A < B (d) Electronegativity of A < B
212. Which of the following statement is false about the element “sulphur” ?
(a) It belongs to chalcogens family.
(b) It is surrounded by metals, non-metals and metalloids in the periodic table.
(c) It has highest electron affinity in its group.
(d) It has most catenation power in its group.
213. Which pairs of elements show single oxidation state (other than zero) in their stable
compounds ?
(a) Cs, Pb (b) F, Ga (c) N, S (d) Zn, Fe
214. Two elements A and B have following electronic configuration
A = 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2
B = 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6
If expected compound formed by A and B is A x B y then sum of x and y is :
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
215. The electronic configuration of four elements are :
(I) [Kr ] 5s1 (II) [Rn]5 f 14 6 d 1 7 s 2 (III) [Ar ]3 d 10 4 s 2 4 p 5 (IV) [Ar ]3 d 6 4 s 2
Consider the following statement and identify true (T) or false (F) :
(I) I shows variable oxidation state
(II) II is a d-block element
(III) The compound formed between I and III is covalent
(IV) IV shows single oxidation state
(a) FTFF (b) FTFT
(c) FFTF (d) FFFF
216. Configuration of Br is : [Ar ]3 d 4 s 4 p the electronic configuration of Br 2+ would be
- 10 2 6

identical with the element :

(a) Se (b) As (c) Ga (d) Ge
217. Number of atomic orbitals present between 7s to 8p orbital :
(a) 7 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
- -
218. If the last e that enters in Sc is shielded by each inner e upon an extent 50%. Then z eff for
that e - is :
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 3 (d) 4
 22 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

219. Give the all four quantum numbers of last e - of lanthenum ( z = 57) atom
1 1 1 1
(a) 5, 2 , 0 , + (b) 4 , 3 , 0 , + (c) 6 , 1, - 1, + (d) 7 , 1, 0 , +
2 2 2 2
220. The electronic configuration of atomic number Uup would be:
(a) [Rn] 5 f 14 6 d 10 7 s 2 7 p 3 (b) [Rn] 5 f 14 6 d 10 7 s1 7 p 4
(c) [Rn] 4 f 14 5d 10 6 s 2 6 p 3 (d) [Rn] 5 f 14 6 d 1 7 s 2 7 p 3
221. Select incorrect order for the property mentioned in bracket :
(a) Zn > Cd < Hg : Ionisation energy
(b) F < Cl > Br : Electron affinity
(c) Ni < Cu < Zn : Atomic size
(d) F - ( aq) > Cl - ( aq) > I - ( aq) : Ionic mobility
222. Which of the following order is incorrect ?
(a) Electronegativity of central atom : CF4 > CH 4 > SiH 4
(b) Hydration energy : Al 3+ > Be 2+ > Mg 2+ > Li + > Na +
(c) Acidic behaviour of oxides : B 2O 3 > P4 O 10 > SO 3 > Cl 2O 7
(d) Magnetic moment : Ni 4 + > V 3+ > Sr 2+
223. Which of the following process is not exothermic ?
(a) Lattice energy (b) Hydration energy
(c) Electron affinity (d) Ionization potential
224. Consider the following reaction’s :
(i) O( g) + e - ¾® O - ( g), DH 1 (ii) F( g) + e - ¾® F - ( g), DH 2
(iii) Cl( g) + e - ¾® Cl - ( g), DH 3 (iv) O - ( g) + e - ¾® O 2- ( g)
Then according to given information the correct statement is :
(a) DH 1 is more negative than DH 2
(b) DH 3 is less negative than DH 1 and DH 2
(c) DH 1 and DH 2 are negative while DH 3 and DH 4 positive
(d) DH 1 is less negative than DH 2
225. Uniquely match Column-I to Column-II

Column-I Column-II
(i) F > Cl > Br > I (P) decreasing order of E.N.
(ii) I - > I > I + (Q) decreasing order of size
2- - +
(iii) O <O <O<O (R) increasing order of electron affinity
(iv) O > C > B (S) Magnitude of DH eg

(a) i(R), ii(Q), iii(P), iv(S) (b) i(P), ii(Q), iii(R), iv(S)
(c) i(Q), ii(P), iii(S), iv(R) (d) i(P), ii(Q), iii(S), iv(R)
226. The incorrect statement is :
(a) Zirconium(Zr) and Hafnium (Hf ) have almost same size
Periodic Properties 23
(b) Correct order of ionisation energy of coinage metal’s in Cu > Ag < Au
(c) Carbon atom in CCl 4 is more electronegatively than carbon atom in CF4
(d) Pb 2+ is more stable than Pb 4+
227. Choose the correct statement :
(a) H + is the largest size cation in the periodic table
(b) van der Waal’s radius of chlorine is less than covalent radii
(c) ionic mobility of hydrated Li + is greater than that of hydrated Na +
(d) He atom in having highest I.E. in the periodic table
228. Mark the correct statement’s out of the following :
(a) BeCl 2 < AlCl 3 < CCl 4 < PCl 5 : Lewis acidic character order
(b) Mg 2+ < I - < O 2- < N 3- : ionic radius order
(c) Cl < F < Br < I : electron affinity order
(d) Mg < Al < Na : Second I.P. order
229. Consider the following species with respect to true or false order :
(i) Na 2O > MgO > ZnO > P4 O 10 : Basic property
(ii) Na < Si > Mg < Al : First ionization potential
(iii) F > Cl > Br : Electron affinity
(iv) Te 2- > I - > Cs + > Ba 2+ : Ionic size
(a) T T T T (b) T T F T (c) T F T T (d) T F F T
230. Which of the following is incorrect order ?
(a) Atomic radius : F < O < F - < O 2-
(b) 2 nd ionisation energy : C < N < F < O
(c) Electron affinity : I < Br < F < Cl
(d) Z eff (effective nuclear charge) : Al < Al + < Al 3+ < Al 2+
 24 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 2
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as assertion and reason, while
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following responses.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(C) If assertion is true but the reason is false
(D) If assertion is false but the reason is true
(E) Both assertion and reason are false
1. Assertion : In CsF salt, size of Cs + is slightly higher than size of F - .
Reason : Cs + is largest monoatomic cation and F - is smallest anion.
2. Assertion : First electron affinity of all elements is positive.
Reason : Successive electron affinity of all elements is negative.
3. Assertion : Helium atom has highest ionisation energy among all the elements.
Reason : Helium is smallest atom among all the elements.
4. Assertion : F - ion has highest hydrated radius among the other halide ions.
Reason : Ionic radius of F - is smallest in the periodic table.
5. Assertion : Magnitude of electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is less than that of fluorine
but greater than that of nitrogen.
Reason : Ionisation enthalpy order is as follows : N>O<F.
6. Assertion : Formation of Cl - ion is exothermic whereas O 2- ion formation is
endothermic.
Reason : EA 2 of oxygen is endothermic and greater than its exothermic EA 1 value of
oxygen.
7. Assertion : Electron gain enthalpy of N is +ve while that of P is –ve.
Reason : Smaller atomic size of N in which there is a considerable electron-electron
repulsion and hence the additional electron is not accepted easily.
8. Assertion : The formation of F(-g ) from F(g ) is exothermic, whereas that of O (2g-) from O (g )
is endothermic.
Reason : The addition of second electron to a monovalent anion is difficult because
both have the same charge and experience more repulsion.
9. Assertion : Na + and Al 3+ are isoelectronic but ionic radius Al 3+ is less than that of Na + .
Reason : The magnitude of effective nuclear charge on the outershell electrons in Al 3+
is greater than that in Na + .
10. Assertion : The third period contains only 8 electrons and not 18 like 4th period.
Reason : In III period filling starts from 3 s1 and complete at 3 p 6 whereas in IV period
it starts from 4 s1 and complete after 3 d 10 and 4 s 2 .
Periodic Properties 25
11. Assertion : Cs and F2 combines violently to form CsF.
Reason : Cs is most electropositive and F is most electronegative.
12. Assertion : Second E.A. for halogens is almost zero.
Reason : Fluorine has maximum value of electron affinity.
13. Assertion : F atom has less electron affinity than Cl atom.
Reason : Additional electrons are repelled more strongly by 3p electrons in Cl atom
than by 2p electrons in F atom.
14. Assertion : Among the halogens bond energy of F2 is minimum.
Reason : Among halogens F atom is small in size.
15. Assertion : The first ionization energy of Be is greater than that of B.
Reason : 2p-orbital is lower in energy than 2s-orbital.
16. Assertion : Noble gases have highest ionization enthalpies in their respective periods.
Reason : Noble gases have stable closed shell electronic configuration.
17. Assertion : Helium and beryllium have similar outer electronic configuration of the type
ns 2 .
Reason : Both are chemically inert.
18. Assertion : The first ionization enthalpy of aluminium is lower than that of magnesium.
Reason : Ionic radius of aluminium cation is smaller than that of magnesium cation.
19. Assertion : First ionisation energy for nitrogen is lower than oxygen.
Reason : Across a period, effective nuclear charge decreases. (AIIMS 2005)
20. Assertion : The ionic size of Mg 2+ > Al 3+ .
Reason : In isoelectronic species, greater the nuclear charge, less is the size.
(AIIMS 2008)
21. Assertion : Removal of s-electron is relatively difficult than removal of p-electron of the
same main shell.
Reason : s-electrons are closer to the nucleus than p-electrons of the same shell and
hence, are more strongly attracted by nucleus. (AIIMS 2012)
 26 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 3
1. In the modern long form of periodic table, elements are arranged in the increasing order of :
(Kerala CEE 2001)
(a) atomic mass (b) atomic number
(c) mass number (d) metallic character
(e) number of neutrons
2. Eka aluminium and eka silicon are known as : (Kerala CEE 2002)
(a) gallium and germanium (b) aluminium and silicon
(c) iron and sulphur (d) proton and silicon
(e) neutron and magnesium
3. The atomic number of an element is derived from : (Kerala CEE 2004)
(a) number of electrons (b) number of protons
(c) number of neutrons (d) number of isotopes
(e) number of nucleons
4. What is the name of the element with atomic number 105? (MP PMT 2005)
(a) Kurchatovium (b) Dubnium
(c) Nobelium (d) Holmium
5. The electronic configuration of four elements are :
(I) [Xe] 6 s1 (II) [Xe]4 f 14 , 5d 1 , 6 s 2
(III) [Ar] 4 s 2 , 4 p 5 (IV) [Ar]3 d 7 , 4 s 2
Which one of the following statements about these elements is not correct?
(Kerala CEE 2006)
(a) I is a strong reducing agent
(b) II is a d-block element
(c) III has high electron affinity
(d) The compound formed between I and III is ionic
6. Atomic radii of F and Ne (in Å) are given by : (BCECE 2006)
(a) 0.72, 0.71 (b) 0.72, 1.6
(c) 1.6, 1.58 (d) 0.71, 0.72
7. The long form of periodic table is based on : (BHU 2007)
(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass
(c) electronic configuration (d) effective nuclear charge
8. The discovery of which of the following group of elements gave death blow to the Newland’s
law of octaves? (Manipal 2008)
(a) Inert gases (b) Alkaline earth metals
(c) Rare earths (d) Actinides
9. Element with atomic number 38, belongs to : (MP PMT 2008)
(a) II A group and 5 th period (b) II A group and 2 nd period
(c) V A group and 2 nd period (d) III A group and 5 th period
Periodic Properties 27
10. An element with atomic number 112 has been made recently. It should be :
(Haryana PMT 2008)
(a) an actinide (b) a transition metal
(c) a noble gas (d) a lanthanide
11. An element with atomic number 21 is a : (Karnataka CET 2008)
(a) halogen (b) representative element
(c) transition element (d) alkali metal
12. Total number of rare earth elements is: (BHU 2008)
(a) 8 (b) 32
(c) 14 (d) 10
13. An element X belongs to fourth period and fifteenth group of the periodic table. Which one of
the following is true regarding the outer electronic configuration of X ?
(Kerala CEE 2008)
(a) It has partially field d-orbitals and completely filled s-orbitals
(b) It has completely filled s-orbital and completely filled p-orbitals
(c) It has completely filled s-orbital and half filled p-orbitals
(d) It has half filled d-orbitals and completely filled s-orbitals
(e) It has completely filled d , s and p-orbitals
14. In the graph given below, the one which represents an alkali metal with the higher atomic
number is : (Kerala CEE 2008)
Z
First lonisation energy
in arbitrary units

X M
L

Atomic number
(a) X (b) Y
(c) Z (d) L
(e) M
15. The atomic numbers of vanadium (V), chromium (Cr), manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe) are
respectively 23, 24, 25 and 26. Which one of these may be expected to have the highest second
ionisation enthalpy? (RPMT 2008)
(a) V (b) Cr
(c) Mn (d) Fe
16. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(Punjab PMET 2008)
 28 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Column I (Successive IE)

Column II (Elements)
IE 1 IE 2 IE 3
A. 1312 — — 1. H
B. 520 7297 11810 2. Li
C. 900 1758 14810 3. Be
D. 800 2428 3660 4. B
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4
17. The correct order of decreasing second ionisation enthalpy of Ti(22), V(23), Cr(24) and
Mn(25) is : (CBSE AIPMT 2008)
(a) Cr > Mn > V > Ti (b) V > Mn > Cr > Ti
(c) Mn > Cr > Ti > V (d) Ti > V > Cr > Mn
18. Which two elements in the periodic table would you expect to combine in the most violent
fashion? (Kerala CEE 2008)
(a) H and O (b) Cl and F
(c) Mg and N (d) P and O
(e) Cs and F
19. Which metal has a greater tendency to form metal oxide? (Karnataka CET 2008)
(a) Cr (b) Fe
(c) Al (d) Ca
20. Ionic radius is : (BCECE 2008)
(a) inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge
(b) inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
(c) directly proportional to effective nuclear charge
(d) directly proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
21. The oxide of an element whose electronic configuration is 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p 6 , 3 s1 will be :
(Karnataka CET 2009)
(a) amphoteric (b) basic
(c) acidic (d) neutral
22. The correct order of electron affinities of N, O, S and Cl is : (AIIMS 2009)
(a) N < O < S < Cl (b) O < N < Cl < S
(c) O » Cl < N » S (d) O < S < Cl < N
23. Which represents the correct order of first ionisation potential of third period elements?
(AFMC 2009)
(a) Na > Mg > Al > Si (b) Na < Mg < Al < Si
(c) Na < Si < Al < Mg (d) Na < Al < Mg < Si
Periodic Properties 29
24. In which of the following arrangements, the order is not according to the property indicated
after it in bracket? (Manipal 2009)
(a) Al 3+ < Mg 2+ < Na + < F - (Increasing ionic size)
(b) B < C < N < O (Increasing first ionisation energy)
(c) I < Br < F < Cl (Increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(d) Li < Na < K < Rb (Increasing metallic radius)
25. The atom of smallest radius among the following is : (J & K CET 2009)
(a) Na (b) K
(c) Br (d) Li
26. Increasing order of ionic size for the ions, F - , O 2- , Na + , Al 3+ is : (AMU 2009)
2- - + 3+ 3+ + - 2-
(a) O < F < Na < Al (b) Al < Na < F < O
2- 3+
-
(c) O < Na < F < Al (d) Al 3+ < F - < Na + < O 2-
27. The first ionisation energies of the elements of the first transition series (Ti ® Cu) :
(Manipal 2009)
(a) increase as the atomic number increases
(b) decrease as the atomic number increases
(c) do not show any change as the addition of electrons takes place in the inner (n - 1)
d-orbitals
(d) increase from Ti to Mn and then decrease from Mn to Cu
28. What does the electronic configuration 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p 5 , 3 s1 indicate? (Guj. CET 2010)
(a) Ground state of fluorine
(b) Excited state of fluorine
(c) Excited state of neon
(d) Excited state of the O -2 ion
29. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s 2 2 s 2 , 2 p 6 , 3 s 2 , 3 p 6 , 3 d 10 , 4 s 2 , 4 p 6 , 4 d 10 ,
5s 2 , 5 p 3 . From which group of the periodic table it belongs? (Karnataka CET 2010)
(a) 2 nd (b) 5 th
rd
(c) 3 (d) 7 th
30. Mg and Li are similar in their properties due to : (VMMC 2010)
(a) same e/m ratio (b) same electron affinity
(c) same group (d) same ionisation potential
31. The diagonal partner of element B is : (Odisha JEE 2010)
(a) Li (b) Al
(c) Si (d) Mg
32. The element with the electronic configuration as [Ar] 3 d 10 , 4 s 2 , 4 p 3 represents a :
(JCECE 2010)
(a) metal (b) non-metal
(c) metalloid (d) transition element
33. Which of the following has the highest electron affinity? (AFMC 2010)
(a) F - (b) O - (c) O (d) Na
 30 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

34. Generally, the first ionisation energy increases across a period, but there are some exceptions.
One which is not an exception is : (Karnataka CET 2010)
(a) Na and O (b) Na and Mg
(c) Mg and Al (d) Be and B
35. In periodic table, the basic character of oxides : (WB JEE 2010)
(a) increases from left to right and decrease from top to bottom
(b) decreases from right to left and increases from top to bottom
(c) decreases from left to right and increases from top to bottom
(d) decreases from left to right and increases from bottom to top
36. The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order (AFMC 2010)
(a) C, N, Si, P (b) N, Si, C, P
(c) Si, P, C, N (d) P, Si, N, C
37. Ease of formation of the cation is favoured by : (RPMT 2010)
(a) lower value of ionisation potential (b) lower value of electron affinity
(c) higher value of electron affinity (d) lower value of electronegativity
38. Which one of the following is correct order of the size? (Haryana PMT 2010)
- + + -
(a) I > I >I (b) I > I > I
(c) I + > I - > I (d) I - > I > I +
39. Among the following, third ionisation energy is highest for : (AMU 2010)
(a) magnesium (b) boron
(c) beryllium (d) aluminium
40. Atom of which of the following elements has the greatest ability to attract electrons?
(Kerala CEE 2010)
(a) Silicon (b) Sulphur (c) Sodium (d) Nitrogen
(e) Chlorine
41. Electron affinity is maximum for : (Manipal, UP CPMT 2010)
(a) Cl (b) F (c) Br (d) I
42. Which of the following orders regarding ionisation energy is correct? (WB JEE 2010)
(a) N > O > F (b) N < O < F
(c) N > O < F (d) N < O > F
43. The property of attracting electrons by the halogen atoms in a molecule is called :
(JCECE 2010)
(a) ionisation potential (b) electron affinity
(c) electronegativity (d) electron attraction
44. The number of naturally occurring p-block elements that are diamagnetic is :
(Karnataka CET 2011)
(a) 18 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 7
45. The correct order of decreasing electronegativity values among the elements I-beryllium,
II-oxygen, III-nitrogen and IV-magnesium is : (Kerala CEE 2011)
(a) II > III > I > IV (b) III > IV > II > I
(c) I > II > III > IV (d) I > II > IV > III
(e) II > III > IV > I
Periodic Properties 31
46. Which ion has the largest radius? (DUMET 2011)
(a) Se 2- (b) F
(c) O 2- (d) Rb +
47. The electron affinity of halogens are F = 322, Cl = 349, Br = 324, I = 295 kJ mol -1 . The
higher value for Cl as compared to that of F is due to: (AIIMS 2012)
(a) weaker electron-electron repulsion in Cl (b) higher atomic radius of F
(c) smaller electronegativity of F (d) more vacant p-subshell in Cl
48. Which of the following is correct? (WB JEE 2012)
2+ 2-
(a) Radius of Ca < Cl < S -
(b) Radius of Cl < S < Ca 2+
- 2-

(c) Radius of S 2- < Cl = Ca 2+ (d) Radius of S 2- < Cl < Ca 2+

49. Which of the following is not a periodic property? (Odisha JEE 2012)
(a) Atomic mass (b) Atomic volume
(c) Covalent radius (d) Electronegativity
50. The atomic number of the element with highest ionization energy among the following is :
(COMEDK 2012)
(a) Z = 16 (b) Z = 14
(c) Z = 13 (d) Z = 15
51. Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of least negative to most
negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F and O? (COMEDK 2012)
(a) Al < Ca < O < C < F (b) Al < O < C < Ca < F
(c) C < F < O < Al < Ca (d) Ca < Al < C < O < F
+ 2+
52. Sodium forms Na ion but it does not form Na because : (AIIMS 2013)
(a) very low value of 1 st and IInd IE
(b) very high value of 1 st and IInd IE
(c) high value of 1 st IE and low value of IInd IE
(d) low value of 1 st IE and high value of IInd IE
53. The electron affinity of Be is similar to : (UP CPMT 2013)
(a) He (b) B (c) Li (d) Na
54. The correct order of decreasing first ionisation potential is : (UP CPMT 2013)
(a) Ca > K > Rb > Cs (b) Cs > Rb > K > Ca
(c) Ca > Cs > Rb > K (d) K > Rb > Cs > Ca
55. Whose name is not associated with the development of periodic table? (WB JEE 2014)
(a) Prout’s (b) Newlands
(c) Rutherford (d) Lothar Meyer
56. Magic numbers are : (WB JEE 2014)
(a) principal quantum number (b) azimuthal quantum number
(c) magnetic quantum number (d) 2, 8, 18, 32
57. The plot of square root of frequency of X-ray emitted against atomic number led to the
suggestion of which law/rule? (MHT CET 2014)
(a) Periodic law (b) Modern periodic law
(c) Hund’s rule (d) Newland’s law
 32 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

58. The only liquid non-metal present in periodic table is : (WB JEE 2014)
(a) chlorine (b) mercury
(c) bromine (d) fluorine
59. Maximum number of unpaired electrons are in : (Manipal 2014)
(a) Na + (b) F (c) N (d) O 2-
(e) B
60. Which of the following pairs contain metalloid elements in the periodic table?
(Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) Na and K (b) F and Cl
(c) Ca and Mg (d) As and Si
(e) Cu and Ag
61. Amongst the following, select the element having highest ionisation enthalpy.
(MHT CET 2014)
(a) Sodium (b) Potassium
(c) Beryllium (d) Magnesium
62. The correct arrangement for the ions in the increasing order of their radius is :
(Karnataka CET 2014)
(a) Na + , Cl - , Ca 2+ (b) Ca 2+ , K + , S 2-
(c) Na + , Al 3+ , Be 2+ (d) Cl - , F - , S 2-
63. The correct order of acidic strength is : (Manipal 2014)
(a) Cl 2O 7 > SO 2 > P4 O 10 (b) CO 2 > N 2O 5 > SO 3
(c) Na 2O > MgO > Al 2O 3 (d) K 2O > CaO > MgO
64. Which one of the following is the correct order of the size of the ions? (EAMCET 2014)
2+ 2-
+
(a) Na > Mg > F > O -
(b) O > F > Na > Mg 2+
2- - +

(c) Mg 2+ > Na + > F - > O 2- (d) O 2- > F - > Mg 2+ > Na +

65. Elements A, B and C belong to the same period in the long form of the periodic table. The
nature of the oxides of A, B and C is amphoteric, basic and acidic respectively. The correct
order of the atomic number of these elements is : (EAMCET 2014)
(a) C > B > A (b) C > A > B
(c) A > B > C (d) B > A > C
66. Atomic numbers of vanadium, chromium, nickel and iron are 23, 24, 28 and 26 respectively.
Which one of these is expected to have the highest second ionization enthalpy?
(COMEDK 2014)
(a) Cr (b) V
(c) Fe (d) Ni
67. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented?
(CBSE 2014)
(a) H - > H + > H (b) Na + > F - > O 2-
(c) F - > O 2- > Na + (d) Al 3+ > Mg 2+ > N 3-
68. In which of the following options, the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation
of property indicated against it? [NEET 2016 (Phase -1)]
Periodic Properties 33
(a) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
(b) Al 3+ < Mg 2+ < Na + < F - (increasing ionic size)
(c) B < C < N < O (increasing first ionization enthalpy)
(d) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
69. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (AMU 2016)
(a) The second ionization potential of Mg is greater than the second ionization potential of
Na.
(b) The first ionization potential of Al is less than the first ionization potential of Mg.
(c) The first ionization potential of Na is less than the first Ionization potential of Mg.
(d) The third ionization potential of Mg is greater than that of Al.
70. The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No. 63) Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No.
65) are: (NEET 2016)
7 2 7 1 2 9 2
(a) [Xe] 4 f 6 s ,[Xe]4 f 5d 6 s and [Xe]4 f 6 s
(b) [Xe]4 f 7 6 s 2 ,[Xe]4 f 8 6 s 2 and [Xe]4 f 8 5d 1 6 s 2
(c) [Xe]4 f 6 5d 1 6 s 2 ,[Xe]4 f 7 5d 1 6 s 2 and [Xe]4 f 9 5d 1 6 s 2
(d) [Xe]4 f 6 5d 1 6 s 2 ,[Xe]4 f 7 5d 1 6 s 2 and [Xe]4 f 8 5d 1 6 s 2
71. Which of the following atoms should have the highest 1st electron affinity?
(WB JEE 2017)
(a) F (b) O
(c) N (d) C
72. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following
family/group and electronic configuration? (NEET 2017)
14 10 2 2
(a) Carbon family, [Rn] 5 f 6 d 7 s 7 p
(b) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5 f 14 6 d 10 7 s 2 7 p 4
(c) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5 f 14 6 d 10 7 s 2 7 p 6
(d) Halogen family, [Rn] 5 f 14 6 d 10 7 s 2 7 p 5
73. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature ? (NEET 2018)
(a) MgO (b) BeO (c) BaO (d) CaO
74. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionization enthalpy is :
(NEET 2019)
(a) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne (b) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
(c) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne (d) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
75. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is :
(NEET 2019)
(a) 5 f > 6 p > 4 d > 5 p (b) 5 f > 6 p > 5 p > 4 d
(c) 6 p > 5 f > 5 p > 4 d (d) 6 p > 5 f > 4 d > 5 p
 34 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

ANSWERS
Level 1
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)

11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d)

21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)

31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c)

41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (b)

51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (a)

61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (a)

71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (c)

81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (c)

91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (c)

101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (d) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (a)

111. (b) 112. (c) 113. (a) 114. (d) 115. (d) 116. (b) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (c) 120. (b)

121. (b) 122. (c) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (d) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (c) 129. (d) 130. (b)

131. (d) 132. (b) 133. (b) 134. (d) 135. (b) 136. (b) 137. (a) 138. (b) 139. (d) 140. (a)

141. (b) 142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (b) 146. (c) 147. (a) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (c)

151. (b) 152. (d) 153. (d) 154. (a) 155. (a) 156. (a) 157. (c) 158. (d) 159. (d) 160. (b)

161. (c) 162. (d) 163. (c) 164. (b) 165. (c) 166. (d) 167. (c) 168. (a) 169. (d) 170. (a)

171. (c) 172. (c) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (d) 176. (c) 177. (c) 178. (a) 179. (d) 180. (a)

181. (a) 182. (a) 183. (d) 184. (d) 185. (c) 186. (c) 187. (b) 188. (d) 189. (d) 190. (d)
Periodic Properties 35
191. (b) 192. (b) 193. (d) 194. (c) 195. (b) 196. (c) 197. (b) 198. (b) 199. (b) 200. (c)

201. (c) 202. (d) 203. (d) 204. (c) 205. (d) 206. (a) 207. (b) 208. (b) 209. (c) 210. (c)

211. (b) 212. (b) 213. (a) 214. (d) 215. (d) 216. (b) 217. (a) 218. (b) 219. (a) 220. (a)

221. (d) 222. (c) 223. (d) 224. (d) 225. (b) 226. (c) 227. (d) 228. (d) 229. (d) 230. (d)

Level 2
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)

11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (E) 20. (A)

21. (A)

Level 3
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b)

11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (e) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (e) 19. (d) 20. (a)

21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)

31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (e)

41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d)

51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (d)

61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (a) 68. (c,d) 69. (a) 70. (a)

71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (b)
 36 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Hints and Solutions

: Level 1
26. (b) Ununtrium for atomic number = 113; for Z > 86, pd. no. = 7
113 [Rn]7 s 2,5 f 14 ,6 d10 ,7 p1
p-block
27. (b) Tantalum ( Z = 73 ) is a transition element.
28. (c) Period number Group number Element
5 7 Tc
6 13 Tl
6 5 Ta
30. (c) [Xe]4 f 14 5 d1 6 s 2
Atomic number = 71 Period number = 6th Group number = 3rd
31. (b) Rubidium is most electropositive in nature.
32. (c) (a) Cr : 4 s1 3 d5 (each d-orbital has 1e- )
(b) Fe 3+ : 4 s 0 3 d5 (each d-orbital has 1e- )
+ 0 10
(c) Cu : 4 s 3 d (each d-orbital has 2e- )
33. (d) Magnetic moment = n(n + 2 ) BM
N : Number of unpaired e-
As atomic number increases in d-block element number of unpaired e- first increases upto middle then
decreases.
34. (c) "Unununium" : At. number = 111
It is a transition element. Period number = 7th; Group number = 11
35. (d) Atomic radius and metallic character decreases from left to right across the period and increases from
top to bottom down the group.
36. (c) P is trivalent non-metal Q is divalent metal hence formula of compound is P2Q3.
37. (c) 1s 2,2 s 22 p 2,3 s1 (Excited state)
38. (b) Sum of oxidation numbers of all atoms in a neutral molecule is zero.
® A3( B 4C )2 : + 2 ´ 3 + 2 ´ [ 4 ´ 5 - 2] = 42 ¹ 0
® A3( BC 4 )2 : +2 ´ 3 + 2 ´ [ +5 - 8] = 0
® A2( BC 3 )2 : +2 ´ 2 + 2 ´ [ +5 - 6] = +2 ¹ 0
® ABC 2 : +2 + 5 + ( -2 ) ´ 2 = +3 ¹ 0
Periodic Properties 37
39. (d) W : Phosphorus Y : Oxygen X : Sulphur Z : Chlorine
Electronegativity : O > Cl > S > P Catenation : S > P > O > Cl
Electron Affinity : Cl > O > S > P Oxygen exhibits covalency of two only
41. (b) (i) Alkali metal carbonates do not decompose even at red hot ® V
(ii) Transition metal ions having unpaired d-electrons are coloured in aq. sol./compounds ® X
(iii) In case of Kr van der Waals’ radius is considered, which is largest atomic radius ® Y
(iv) Si atom has only acid SiO 2 ® W
48. (d) (I) [Kr]5 s1, shows only single oxidation state +1
(II) [Rn]5 f 14 6 d1 7 s 2, it is f -block element (Z = 103)
(III) The compound formed between I and III is ionic.
(IV) [Ar]3 d6 4 s 2, ( Z = 26 ) Fe shows variable oxidation state.
49. (c) Possible elements Period number Group number Electronic configuration
(i) H 1 1 1s1
(ii) Be 2 2 1s 22 s 2
50. (b) Atomic radius and nuclear charge increases from top to bottom because number of shell and atomic
mass increases down the group.
51. (d)
(a) [Ar]3 d5 4 s1 ® Cr(24) ® 4 th period, 6 th group
(b) [Kr]4 d10 ® Pd(46) ® 5 th period, 12 th group
(c) [Rn]6 d27 s 2 ® Th(90) ® 7 th period, 3 rd group
(d) [Xe] 4 f 14 5 d26 s 2 ® Hf(72) ® 6 th period, 4 th group
52. (c) One e- goes to 5d sub-shell before the 4 f sub-shell
The electronic configuration of La ( Z = 57 ) Þ [ Xe]54 6 s 25 d1 4 f 0
Ce ( Z = 58 ) Þ [ Xe]54 6 s 2 5 d1 4 f 1
53. (a) H Li Na K
Atomic mass 1 7 23 39
Li, Na, K form triad.
56. (c) P is trivalent non-metal Q is divalent metal hence formula of compound is P2Q 3.
57. (c) In present set up of long form of periodic table element with atomic no. > 118 can not be
accommodated.
58. (c) [ Xe]54 6 s 25 d1 (last e- inters to d-orbital)
59. (c) [ Xe] 4 f 14 5 d1 6 s 2
Atomic Number = 71
Period Number = 6 th
Group Number = 3 rd
60. (b)[ Xe]4 f 14 5 d7 6 s 2 Þ Osmium, is a transition element (Atomic no. = 76)
61. (b) It belongs to p-block and 13th groups.
Z 113 114 115 116 117 118
th th th th th
Period No. 13 14 15 16 17 18 th

62. (c) Transition elements are present at the bottom of the Lothar Meyer curve.
63. (c) Z = 111
 38 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Period = 7th
group = 11th
It is a transition element.
65. (c) It is the electronic configuration of atomic number 71 element which belongs to 6 th period and 3 rd
group and it is lanthenoid element.
75. (d) In (a) and (b) use (z / e) concept for isoelectronic specie.
In (c) size of neutral atom is greater than its cation.
In (d) Se 2- and As 3- related with 4th period, while Ba 2+ and Cs+ related with 6th period. (These are
not isoelectronic species.)
76. (a) (a) Sc > Ti > V > Cr (size decrease initially in 3d-series)
(b) Correct order : Zn > Cu > CO » Ni
(c) Correct order : S 2- > Cl - > N 3- > O 2-
77. (c) Due to diagonal relationship radius of Li+ is close to Mg 2+ ion.
83. (a) Correct order : La 3+ > Gd 3+ > Eu 3+ > Lu 3+
84. (b) As value of principal quantum number (n ) increases difference between energy shells decreases.
85. (b) Na + > Li + > Mg 2+ > Be 2+ (Order of size)
86. (b) Ne has their van der Waals radius.
87. (d) The correct order of radii is O 2- > F - > O > F.
89. (a) (a) Sc > Ti > V > Cr (Size decrease initially in 3-d series)
(b) Correct order : Zn > Cu > CO » Ni
(c) Correct order : S2- > Cl - > N 3- > O 2-
90. (c) Due to diagonal relationship radius of Li + is close to Mg 2+ ion.
2- 2-
91. (a) I- > Se
142 Br3- > O
>4 142 F
>4
3
-
( n= 5)
n= 4 n= 2
( isoelectronic ) ( isoelectronic)

(n = number of shells)
92. (c) Order of size cation < neutral < anion
93. (a) Sc > Zn in size because in d-block element moving L ¾® R Z eff ­ \ size¯
117. (c) The correct order of IE 2 is Ne > O > F > N
118. (b) If we consider the opposite process :
(a) F( g ) + e- ¾® F(-g ) ; DH1
-
(b) P( g ) + e ¾® P(-g ) ; DH 2
(c) S( g ) + e- ¾® S(-g ) ; DH 3
-
(d) Cl( g ) + e ¾® Cl(-g ) ; DH 4
Order of energy releases is : DH 4 > DH1 > DH 3 > DH 2
So, P(-g ) -® P( g ) + e- ; Requires least energy.
120. (b) Difference between IP4 and IP5 is greater indicating presence of 4 valence electrons thus element is
silicon.
121. (b) Ga < Cu < Zn
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾®
IE ­
Periodic Properties 39
C N O F
122. (c) IE1 IE1 IE1 IE1

C+ N+ O+ F+
(2s2 2p1) (2s2 2p2) (2s2 2p3) (2s2 2p4)

The correct order of 2 nd I.E. will be O > F > N > C.

123. (d) Always successive I.E. is greater than previous I.E. therefore IE 2 > IE1.
124. (a) Successive I.E. is always greater than previous I.E.
In case of Mn Þ [ Ar ]18 3 d5 4 s 2

Magnetic moment Unpaired e- Oxidation state

(a) 8 2 Mn 5+
(b) 15 3 Mn 4+
(c) 35 5 Mn 2+ / Mn
(d) 24 4 Mn 3+

126. (c) Each successive and p is always greater than previous one
I
(a) N . E1
¾ I¾ . E2
¾® N + ¾ I¾ . E3
¾® N 2+ ¾ I¾ ¾® N 3+
2s 2 2 p3 2s 2 2 p2 2s 2 2 p1 2s 2 2 p0
III
I. E3
(b) O . E1
¾ I¾ . E2
¾® O + ¾ I¾ ¾® O 3+
¾® O 2+ ¾ ¾
2s 2 2 p4 2s 2 2 p3 2s 2 2 p2 2s 2 2 p1
III
I. E3
(c) P . E1
¾ I¾¾® P + . E2
¾ I¾ ¾® P 3+
¾® P 2+ ¾ ¾
3 s 2 2 p3 3 s 2 3 p2 3 s 2 3 p1 3 s 2 3 p0
II
I. E3
(d) S . E1
¾ I¾¾® S+ . E2
¾ I¾ ¾® S3+
¾® S2+ ¾ ¾
3 s 2 3 p4 3 s 2 3 p3 3 s 2 3 p2 3 s 2 3 p1
rd
* hence III ionisation energy is minimum for ‘P’.
128. (c) (a) A = [Ne] 3 s 23 p 2 Þ Silicon
(b) B = [Ne] 3 s 23 p 3 Þ Phosphorus
(c) C = [Ne] 3 s 23 p 5 Þ Chlorine
(d) D = [Ne] 3 d10 4 s 2 4 p 3 Þ Arsenic
Chlorine (Cl) possess highest value of ionisation energy among them.
129. (d) Be > Ca > Na > K (is the correct order of ionization energy)
130. (b) High jump between IE 4 and IE 5
\no. of valance = 4
Gen. confi. ns 2np 2
\ element = Si
131. (d) For lower value of n, Z eff is high therefore IE required will also be high.
132. (b) IE of 3 rd period element
Na < Mg > Al > Si < P > S < Cl < Ne
Na < Al < Mg < Si < S < P < Cl < Ne
 40 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

133. (b) S ¾ (¾¾

EGE)
® S-
( IE)

134. (d) N 2 > CO in I.E. because in N 2 last electron present in B.M.O and in CO last electron present in slightly
A.B.M.O.
N 2 > O 2 because in N 2 last electron present in B.M.O and in O 2 last electron present in A.B.M.O. N > O
because 2 p 3 electronic configuration is more stable then 2 p 4 of oxygen atom.
O O– S S–
135. (b) 2s22p4 2s22p5 3s23p4 3s23p5

O > S > S- > O -

¯
EA of S > O
\ I.E. of S- > O -
C N O F

136. (b) I.E1 2s222p 2s22p3 2s22p4 2s22p5

I.E2 2s22p1 2s22p2 2s22p3 2s22p4

I.E3 2s2 2s22p1 2s22p2 2s22p3

\ more penetration of ‘ s ’ orbital than ‘ p’ orbital

\ N < C < O < F is the correct order of I. E 3
137. (a) Cu Ag Au
3 d10 4 s1 3 d10 5 s1 4 f 14 5 d10 6 s1
In Au, poor screening is provided by 4 f subshell e- .
\ Z eff increases and ionization energy also increases.
\ Au > Cu > Ag is correct order.
138. (b) High jump between IE 4 and IE 5
\ no. of valance = 4
Gen. confi. ns 2np 2
\ element = Si
147. (a) Correct order of electron affinity is : Cl > F > S > O
Electron affinity of 2nd period non-metals is less than that of respective 3rd period non-metals.
148. (a) Nitrogen has stable 2 p 3 configuration and also due to high e- charge density at outermost orbital it
requires energy to add one extra e- in its outer most shell i. e. , its first electron gain enthalpy is positive.
149. (a) Among S, Na, F and N, EA of ‘S’ is maximum in its own group.
150. (c) O( g ) ¾® O 2-( g ) DH = + ve
Mg 2+( g ) ¾® Mg( g ) DH = - ve
N( g ) ¾® N -( g ) DH = + ve
Fe 2+( g ) ¾® Fe 3+( g ) DH = + ve
151. (b) Cl > F > O > C > N > Be ( correct order of EA)
Periodic Properties 41
152. (d) Cl ® [Ne]3 s 23 p 5
P ® [Ne]3 s 23 p 3 ¾® stable half-filled configuration
Most negative electron gain enthalpy ® Cl
Least negative electron gain enthalpy ® P
H1 H2
153. (d) (i) O ¾ D¾¾® O - ¾ D¾¾® O 2-
H3 H4
(ii) S ¾ D¾¾® S- ¾ D¾¾® S2-
H5 H6
(iii) P ¾ D¾¾® P - ¾ D¾ ¾® P 2-
(a) DH 5 is less negative than DH 3 and DH1 due to half field stable configuration.
(b) DH1 is less negative than DH 3 due to more electron -electron repulsion in O-atom than in S-atom.
(c) DH 2 is more positive than DH 4 due to more electron-electron repulsion in O - -ion than in S- ion.
154. (a) Electron affinity of 3rd period element is higher than 2nd period element in respective group because
in atoms of 2nd period electron electron-electron repulsion arises more on accepting electron.
155. (a) Nitrogen has stable 2 p 3 configuration and also due to high e- charge density at outermost orbital it
requires energy to add one extra e- in its outer most shell i. e. , its first electron gain enthalpy is positive.
156. (a) P < O < S < F (Correct order of electron affinity)
157. (c) E.N. on Mullikan scale
IE + EA 6 + 16.4 22.4
= (in eV ) Þ = = 11.2 eV
2 2 2
Mullikan scale 11.2
EN on Pauling scale = = =4
2.8 2.8
158. (d) Successive electron gain enthalpies is always positive.
O - has higher positive value of electron gain enthalpy than S-m because more energy required to
overcome the electronic repulsion between small sized O - ion and the incoming electron.
159. (d) Correct order of E.A. is (Be < Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba), (N < P < As < Sb < Bi), (Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe < Rn),
(Cl > F > Br > I)
162. (d) According to Allred and Rochow scale
Z
(c) EN( AR) = 0.359 eff. + 0.744 ( r : radius in Å)
r
cm
163. (c) c p = ; so c m > c p.
2.8
164. (b) Polarity µ|DEN |
(a) N — H > Sb — H > As — H > P — H
( 3.0 ) ( 2.1 ) (1.8 ) ( 2.1 ) (1.9 ) (2.1) ( 2.1 ) ( 2.1 )

(b) EN of carbon atom in CH 2F2 > CH 4 due to more positive charge on carbon atom in CH 2F2.
(c) F — H > O — H > N — H
( 4.0 ) ( 2.1 ) ( 3.5) ( 2.1 ) ( 3.0 ) ( 2.1 )

(d) Li + . . . F - > Li — Cl > Li > Br > Li > I

(1.0 ) ( 4.0 ) (1.0 ) ( 3.0 ) (1.0 ) ( 2.8 ) (1.0 ) ( 2.5)

166. (d) Applying Stevenson’s formula,

1.54 1.2
rC— X = + - 0.09 (3.0 - 2.0 ) = 1.28 Å
2 2
 42 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

167. (c) E.N. on Mullikan scale

IE + EA 6+16.4 22.4
= (in eV) Þ = = 11.2 eV
2 2 2
Mullikan scale 11.2
E.N. on Pauling scale = = =4
2.8 2.8
174. (a) LiF is sparingly soluble at room temperature due to its high lattice energy.
Ca( g ) ¾ I¾
. E.
¾ ® Ca 2+( g ) endo ü
177. (c) E. A 1 + E. A 2 2- ý + ve
O( g ) ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® O ( g ) endo þ
Mg 2+( g ) + O 2-( g ) ¾ I¾
. E.
¾ ® MgO( s ) exo } - ve
+7
180. (a) Oxidation state of non-metal increases acidic nature of oxide increase Cl 2 O7 is most acidic.
181. (a) As metallic character increases basic nature of oxides increases.
1
182. (a) Positive charge density µ
Basic nature
Cu 2O > Ag 2O
183. (d) ¬¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
¾¾
Basic nature­ P.P.¯

184. (d) Oxides and hydroxides of Be and Zn are amphoteric in nature.

185. (c) X : Boron 2 s 22 p1
B 2O 3, oxides of non-metal are acidic in nature.
1 1
186. (c) Basic strength µ µ
Oxidation state E . N .
+1 +2 +2 +6
\ K 2O > MnO > NO > SO 3
Here K 2O is more basic than MnO ;
MnO is more basic than NO because E.N. of N is more than Mn and less the oxidation state more will be
basic character.
187. (b) Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy
B<C<O < N

2p4 < 2p3 ® Stability order of orbital

3+
188. (d) Al ¾® stable in liquid and solid phase
+
Al ¾® stable in gas phase
¾® Al 3+( aq ) + 2 Al
3 Al +( aq ) ¾ Disporportionation
¾¾¾¾¾
3+ + 2+
Al >Al >Al
¬¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾ ¾
Stability ­
1
189. (d) Ionic mobility µ
Hydrated size of ions
Charge
Hydration µ
Size
191. (b)
(a) Ca 2+ > K + > Cl - > S2-
(c) B > Tl > In > Ga > Al (Electronegativity)
(d) Na + > Li + > Mg 2+ (Ionic radius)
Periodic Properties 43
192. (b) O < S < F < Cl : order of electron affinity
193. (d) Au > Cu > Ag : correct order of I.E.
194. (c) d5 configuration has highest five unpaired electrons therefore d5 has highest magnetic moment that is
35 B.M.
195. (b) Cr and Pb can exhibit more than one oxidation state whereas Sr (Alkali earth metal) can show only +2
and Rb (Alkali metal) can show only +1 oxidation state.
196. (c) (a) O < S < Se < Te Size
(b) O > S > Se > Te Ionisation Energy
(c) O < S > Se > Te Electron Affinity
(d) O > S > Se > Te Electronegativity
197. (b) Atomic radius and nuclear charge increases from top to bottom because number of shell and atomic
mass increases down the group.
198. (b) When electronic configuration of K = 1s 22 s 22 p 6 3 s 23 p 6 4 s1
Z * = Z - s = 19 - (0.85 ´ 8 + 1 ´ 10 ) = 2.20
When electronic configuration of K = 1s 22 s 22 p 6 3 s 23 p 6 3 d1
Z * = Z - s = 19 - (1.00 ´ 18 ) = 1.00
199. (b) Al < Mg < P < S (Correct order of I. E1)
200. (c) (a) |DH 4|=|DH 5|[( DH eg )X = ( DH IE )X - ]
(b), (c) ® DH 3 > DH 2 > DH1 [Successive IE always higher than previous I.E.]
(d) |DH1|=|DH 6| [( DH IE )X = ( DH eg )X + ]
201. (c) The element is Arsenic(As).
As (33) = 1s 22 s 22 p 6 3 s 23 p 6 3 d10 4 s 2 4 p 3
202. (d) Z = 80
Element = mercury (Hg)
belongs to 12 th group, 6 th period
IE order for its group
Zn > Cd < Hg = Hg > Zn > Cd
Hg is a d-block element but not be transition element.
203. (d) F -( aq ) < Cl -( aq ) < I-( aq ) :
1
Ionic mobility µ
Size of hydrated ion
204. (c) Fe 2+ ¾® Fe 3+ + e-
Reaction is endo thermic because successive ionisation energy is always positive.
As positive charge on cation increases, its electronegative value also increases.
magnetic behaviour magnetic moment
Fe 2+ paramagnetic 4( 4 + 2 ) = 24 = 2 6 B. M.
3+
Fe paramagnetic 5(5 + 2 ) = 35 B.M.
 44 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

205. (d) For lower value of n, Z eff. is high therefore IE required will also be high.
206. (a) F : highest EN
Cl : highest EGE
207. (b) Cr 3+ : 3 d3 4 s 0 (3 unpaired electrons)
Fe 3+ : 3 d5 4 s 0 (5 unpaired electrons)
Cu 2+ : 3 d9 4 s 0(1 unpaired electrons)
Co 3+ : 3 d6 4 s 0 (4 unpaired electrons)
208. (b) Atomic radius C>N>O
Effective nuclear charge C<N<O
Ionization energy C<N>O
Electronegativity C<N<O
209. (c) Acidic behaviour of non-metallic oxides µ positive charge on central atom
\ correct order :
+3 +5 +6 +7
B 2O 3 > P4O10 > SO 3 > Cl 2O7
210. (c) IE1 : N > O
1 s 2 2s 2 2 p3 1 s 2 2s 2 2 p4

IE 2 : N+ > O+
1 s 2 2s 2 2 p2 1 s 2 2s 2 2 p3

Half-filled configuration is more stable than partially filled configuration.

211. (b) For most ionic bond A + B - , “ A” must have larger size so that its ionisation energy should be low. Where
as “B” has small size and high electron gain enthalpy.
O
212. (b) P S Cl
Se

213. (a) Cs being alkali metal always shows +1 oxidation state.

Pb, due to inert pair effect, shows +2 stable oxidation state.
214. (d) A = 1s 22 s 22 p 6 3 s 2, maximum oxidation state for cation formation = +2
B = 1s 22 s 22 p 6 3 s 23 p 3, maximum oxidation state for anion formation = -3
compound formed = A 2+ B 3- = A3B 2
x + y = 3 +2 = 5
215. (d) (I) [Kr ] 5 s1 shows only single oxidation state +1
(II) [Rn ]5 f 14 6 d1 7 s 2, It is f -block element ( Z = 103 )
(III) The compound formed between I and III is ionic
(IV) [ Ar ]3 d6 4 s 2 ( Z = 26 ) Fe shows variable oxidation state
216. (b) Br 2+ is isoelectronic with arsenic (As) both having 33 electrons.
Periodic Properties 45
217. (a)

1s

2s 2p

3s 3p 3d

4s 4p 4d 4f

5s 5p 5d 5f 5g

6s 6p 6d 6f 6g

7s 7p 7d 7f

8s 8p 8d

9s 9p

10s

No. of orbitals b/w 7s and 8p = 5 f , 6 d, 7 p, 8 s, 5 g, 6 f , 7 d

\ equal to = 7
218. (b) Sc = 1s 22 s 22 p 6 3 s 23 p 6 |3 d1
50 ö
Z eff = z - s = 21 - æç18 ´ 1 ´ ÷ = 21 - 9 = 12
è 100 ø
219. (a) Electronic configuration of La(57) is (Xe) 6 s 2 5 d1 4 f 5 d 6 p, last e- enters in 5d orbital
1
\ Quantum numbers are 5, 2, 0, + .
2
220. (a) Uup means 115 Atomic Number
\ electronic configuration
[Rn ]86 7 s 2 6 d1 5 f 14 6 d9 7 p 3
or
[Rn ]86 5 f 14 6 d10 7 s 2 7 p 3
221. (d) F -( aq ) < Cl -( aq ) < I-( aq )
1
Ionic mobility µ
Size of hydrated ion
222. (c) Acidic behaviour of non-metallic oxides a positive charge on central atom
\ correct order :
+3 +3 +3 +3
B 2O 3 < P4O10 < SO 3 < Cl 2O7
223. (d) Lattice energy ¾® exothermic process
Hydration energy ¾® exothermic process
Electron affinity ¾® exothermic process
 46 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Ionization potential ¾® endothermic process

.. - -
224. (d) : O
. .( g ) + e ¾® O ( g )
More repulsion then release less energy.
O -( g ) + e- ¾® O 2-( g )
Very large repulsion then absorbed more energy
F + e- ¾® F + E , DH 2
Cl + e- ¾® Cl - + E , DH 3
More energy release in Cl to Cl - as compared to F to F - .
225. (b) F > Cl > Br > I ¾® Decreasing order of E.N.
I- > I > I+ ¾® decreasing order of size
O 2- < O - < O < O + ¾® increasing order of electron affinity
O > C > B ¾® decreasing order of magnitude of DH eg
226. (c) Size ¾® Zr = Hf
I. E . ¾® Cu > Ag < Au
Cl F
3.03 4.0
Cl—C—Cl < F—C—F
less more
+ve
Cl F
+ve
2+ 4+
Pb is more stable the Pb due to inert pair effect.
227. (d)
(a) H + is the lowest size cation
(b) V.W.R. radius of Cl is more than covalent radii
(c) Ionic mobility of hydrated Li + is lesser than that of hydrated Na +
(d) He atom is having highest I.E.
228. (d) Na Al Mg
2 p6 3 s1 2 p6 3 s 2 3 p1 2 p6 3 s 2

® Na < Al < Mg ® First I.P.

® Na > Al > Mg ® Second I.P.
229. (d) (i) Basic property of oxide a metallic character
\ Na 2O > MgO > ZnO > P4O10 of order of basic character
(ii) Na Mg Al Si
3 s1 3s2 3 s 2 3 p1 3 s 2 3 p2

\ Order of first ionization potential Na < Al < Mg < Si

(iii) Order of electron affinity Cl > F > Br
(iv) Order of ionic size Te 2- > I- > Cs + > Ba 2+
230. (d) Correct order of Z eff is Al < Al + < Al 2+ < Al 3+

: Level 2
13. Due to small size of F atom added electron is replaced more strongly by 2p electrons than in case of Cl
atom.
Periodic Properties 47
19. In a period from left to right, effective nuclear charge increases and size decreases, as a result ionisation
energy increases. But elements of II A and VA group on the account of their half-filled and completely filled
orbitals have high IE than the elements of III A and VI A group.
20. The ionic size of Mg 2+ is larger than Al 3+ .
Both the species are isoelectronic and in case of isoelectronic species as nuclear charge increases, attraction
force between electron of valence shell and nucleus increases which results in decreases in ionic size.
21. Reason is the correct explanation of assertion as s-subshell has more penetration power than p-subshell.

: Level 3
1. (b) Modern periodic law may be stated that physical and chemical properties of elements are the periodic
function of their atomic numbers. Elements are arranged according to increasing atomic numbers.
2. (a) Gallium and germanium were not discovered at the time when Mendeleev proposed his periodic table.
Mendeleev named these elements as eka-aluminium and eka-silicon because he believed that they
would show similar properties as aluminium and silicon respectively.
3. (b) Atomic number of element = Number of protons = Number of electrons (in a neutral atom).
4. (b) The element with atomic number 105 is dubnium (Db). In IUPAC nomenclature, b is known as
Un-nil-pentium.
Db (105 ) = [Rn ]86 5 f 14 6 d3 7 s 2
5. (b) [Xe] 4 f 14 , 5 d1 , 6 s 2 is not a d-block element. It is lutetium and is present in lanthanide series, so lutetium
is a f -block element is (n -1) f 1-14 (n - 1) s 2p 6d0-1ns 2.
6. (b) Atomic radius decreases in a period from left to right, hence fluorine has a very less atomic radius
(covalent atomic radius = 0.72 Å).
But inert gases (like Ne) are monoatomic gases, hence their covalent atomic radius cannot be found. In
fact, their calculated atomic radius is the van der Waals’ radius, which is found almost double to
covalent radius, hence the van der Waals’ radius of neon (Ne) is about 1.60 Å.
7. (c) The long form of periodic table is based on electronic configuration of elements, i. e. , Bohr-Bury
concept.
8. (a) With the discovery of inert gases (group zero in Mendeleev’s periodic table), the law of octaves lost its
original significance since, it was now the ninth element which had properties similar to the first one,
which is not in accordance to the law.
9. (a) The electronic configuration of an element with atomic number 38 is
X (38) = 1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p 6 , 3 s 2, 3 p 6 , 3 d10 , 4 p 6 , 5 s 2
or 1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p 6 , 3 s 2, 3 p 6 , 3 d10 , 4 s 2,4 p 6 , 5 s 2
Hence, it belongs to II A group and 5th period. It is strontium (Sr).
10. (b) The electronic configuration of given element with atomic number 112 is [Rn ]86 5 f 14 , 7 s 2, 6 d10.
As it has completely filled orbitals, thus it belongs to transition series.
11. (c) The electronic configuration of element with atomic number 21 is
1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p 6 , 3 s 2, 3 p 6 , 4 s 2,3 d1
Since, this element contains partly filled d-orbital, so it is a d-block element which are also known as
transition elements.
12. (c) Lanthanides (total 14) are called rare earth elements. Hence, total number of rare earth elements is
14.
 48 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

13. (c) The electronic configuration of X can be written as

X = 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 2 3 d10 4 p 3
So element X has completely filled s and d orbitals and half filled p-orbitals.
14. (e) From the graph, it is clear that the atomic number is highest for metal M and lowest for metal X.
15. (b) V(Z = 23)= [Ar]3 d3 , 4 s 2 Cr(Z=24)=[Ar]3d5, 4 s1
Mn(Z=25) =[Ar]3 d5, 4 s 2Fe(Z=26) [Ar]3 d6 , 4 s 2
Since, Cr has stable configuration of its Cr + (3 d5 exactly half-filled), thus it has the highest second
ionisation enthalpy.
16. (d) Successive ionisation energies of the given elements are as follows:
IE1 IE 2 IE 3
1
H 1s 1312.0 — —
2 1
Li 1s ,2 s 518.0 7314 11810
Be 1s 2,2 s 2 899.9 1758 14810
B 1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p1 801 2460 3644
17. (a) The second ionisation energies of the first transitions series increase almost regulatory with increase
in atomic number. However, the value for Cr is sufficiently higher than those of its neighbour, i. e. , Mn
this is due to stable configuration of Cr + (3 d5 exactly half-filled.)
18. (e) There is a larger difference between the electronegativities of Cs and F, thus forces of attraction will be
strongest between them. Hence, they react violently.
19. (d) Greater the stability of oxide, greater is the ease of its formation. Generally, ionic oxides are more
stable than covalent oxides and among the given metals, only Ca form ionic oxide. Hence, Ca has
greater tendency to form oxide.
1
20. (a) Ionic radius µ
Z eff
Z eff = effective nuclear charge
Z eff is calculated as follows:
Z eff = Z - screening constant (s)
This value of screening constant is based upon the number of electrons in valence shell as well as in
penultimate shells.
21. (b) The given element is sodium, which is an alkali metal and alkali metal oxides are strongly basic.
22. (a) Generally, electron affinity increases as we move from left to right in a period and decreases as we go
down in a group. But electron affinities of second period elements (such as N, O) are less negative as
compared to corresponding third period element. This is because of the small atomic size of second
period elements.
Hence, the correct order of electron affinities is N < O < S < Cl.
23. (d) Generally, ionisation potential increases, as we move from left to right in a period. However, the
ionisation potential of II group elements is higher than that of the III A group elements. This is because
of the fully-filled s-orbitals in II group elements.
Hence, the correct order of ionisation potential is
Na < Al < Mg < Si
24. (b) IE increases on moving from left to right but, the order of IE1 of B, C, O and N is as
B<C<O<N
Periodic Properties 49
Because IE1 of N (1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p 3) is more than that of O (1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p 4) due to the presence of extra stable
half-filled 2p-subshell of N.
25. (c)
Atom Atomic size (pm)
Na 186
K 226
Br 114
Li 152

As metallic radius >> Covalent radius.

26. (b) For isoelectronic species,
1
Atomic size µ
atomic number
Thus, the correct order would be
Al 3+ < Na + < F - < O 2-
(13) (11) (9) (8)
27. (a) The first ionisation energies of the elements of 3d-transition series increases as the atomic number
increases. The increasing ionisation enthalpies are due to increased nuclear charge with increase in
atomic number which reduces the size of the atom making the removal of outer electron difficult.
28. (c) The atomic number of neon is 10.
Ground state, Ne (10) – 1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p 6
Excited state, Ne (10) – 1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p 5, 3 s1
Hence, 1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p 5, 3 s1electronic configuration indicates the excited state of neon.
29. (b) The given configuration shows valence shell configuration as 5 s 2, 5 p 3
It has five electrons in the valence shell.
® It belongs to group VA (or 15) of periodic table.
30. (a) Mg and Li are similar in their properties due to the similar electronegativity and polarizing power, i.e,.
they have same charge/radius (e/m) ratio.
31. (c) Element of second period show similarity in properties with the elements of third period that are
placed diagonally opposite. This type of similarity is called diagonal relationship, e. g. ,
Li Be B C

Na Mg Al Si
32. (c) Electronic configuration reveals that the p-orbital of the element is not complete. Therefore, it is a
p-block element. Moreover, the atomic number of the element is 33 (As). Therefore, it is a metalloid.
33. (c) F - and O - ions have stable arrangement of electronic configuration, thus they will not accept further
electron while O needs to achieve stable arrangement, thus it has maximum electron affinity. Further,
Na is a metal, thus it does not have any electron affinity.
34. (b) Na belongs to I A group and Mg belongs to II A group. On moving from left to right in a period, first
ionisation energy increases, thus IE of Mg is greater than the IE of Na.
IE order – Mg > Na
35. (c) On moving along a period, the tendency to lose electrons decreases and thus, the metallic character
decreases. Since, the oxides of non-metals are acidic. Thus, it can be said, along a period from left to
 50 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

right, basic character decreases while on moving downward, basic character increases due to increase
in metallic character.
36. (c) On moving along a period from left to right in the periodic table, electronegativity increases (due to
decrease in size). While on moving downward in a group, electronegativity decreases. Thus, the
correct order of electronegativity is
Si < P < C < N
(1.8) (2.1) (2.5) (3.0)
37. (a) Lower the value of ionisation potential, higher will be the ease of formation of the cation.
Ionisation enthalpy (IE) The minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from an
isolated gaseous atom (X) in its ground state is called the ionisation enthalpy.
X ( g ) ¾® X +( g ) + e- , D iH = + ve
Hence, lower value of ionisation enthalpy indicates that the formation of cation is more favoured.
38. (d) The size of the cation is always smaller than that of its parent atom and size of the anion is always
larger than that of its parent atom.
1
\ Size of the cation µ
magnitude of positive charge
Size of the anion µ magnitude of negative charge
Hence, the correct order of the size is I - > I > I + .
39. (c) The electronic configuration of the given elements is as
2 2 1
12Mg = [Ne]3 s 5B = [He]2 s , 2 p
2 2 1
4 Be = [He]2 s 13 Al = [Ne]3 s , 3 p
From the electronic configuration, it is clear that third ionisation energy of Mg and Be is higher as
compared to Al and B as in them, the third electron have to be removed from the stable inert gas
configuration.
Between Mg and Be, third IE of Be is high because of its smaller size than Mg as both lie in the same
group.
40. (e) Halogens have very strong tendency to accept an additional electron and their electron gain
enthalpies are therefore high.
41. (a) Generally, electron affinity decreases down the group and increases in a period. However, the electron
affinity of Cl is more than F because of the smaller size of F, due to which there is a greater repulsion
between the incoming electron and electrons present in valence shell of F-atom.
Hence, Cl has the maximum electron affinity among halogens.
42. (c) Ionisation energy is the energy required to remove an electron from outer shell of an atom. Since, on
moving from left to right in a period, size decreases, thus larger amount of energy is required to
remove an electron, i. e. , ionisation energy increases.
Although, the size of O-atom is smaller as compared to N but the ionisation energy of N is higher. This is
because in case of N, the electron is to be removed from stable half-filled 2 p 3 orbital. Thus, the order of
ionisation energy is O < N < F or N > O > F.
43. (c) The property of attracting electrons by an atom of a molecule is called electronegativity. However,
electron affinity is the amount of energy linerated when an electron is added to an isolated gaseous
atom.
44. (b) Noble gases are naturally occurring diamagnetic p-block elements (viz. He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe and Rn).
45. (a) Electronegativity increases along a period and decreases in a group. Thus, the order is II > III > I > IV.
Electronegativity of O = 3.5, N = 3.0, Be = 1.5, Mg = 1.2
Periodic Properties 51
46. (a) On moving down, the group, atomic radius increases, while it decreases on moving from left to right.
However, for isoelectronic species, the atomic radius decreases with increase in atomic number.
Further, larger the charge on the anion, greater is their radius.
Hence, on considering all the factors, Se 2- would possesses larger ionic radius.
47. (a) Electron affinity value of Cl is higher than that of F as Cl belongs to third period (have larger size)
while F belongs to second period (have small size). In Cl, electron-electron repulsion forces are
weaker than that of F and hence, the extra electron which is to be added experience less electronic
repulsions.
48. (a)

Species Atomic number Number of electrons

Ca 2+ 20 20 - 2 = 18
–
Cl 17 17 + 1 = 18

In case of isoelectronic species, for increase in atomic number, decrease in size is shown.
Thus, order of radius will be
Ca 2+ < Cl < S 2-
49. (a) Atomic mass is not a periodic property.
50. (d) For element with Z = 15,
electronic configuration is 1s 22 s 22 p 6 3 s 23 p 3
Due to exactly half-filled configuration of 3p-orbital, the element will have the highest ionization
energy.
51. (d) Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative from top of bottom in a group while it becomes more
negative from left to right within a period.
52. (d) Na (11) = 1s 2, 2s 2, 2p 6, 3s1
It readily gives one electron to attain stability, thus value of 1 st IE is less.
Na + = 1s 2, 2s 2, 2p 6
But to form Na 2+ ion, electron is to be isolated from a stable arrangement for which IE is very high.
Hence, to form Na 2+ ion, second IE is extremely high.
53. (a) Electron affinity is the amount of energy given out when an electron is added to an isolated gaseous
atom. Its value depends on the electronic configuration of valence shell.
On writing and comparing the electronic configuration of given elements, we get which of them has
electron affinity value closer to Be.
Be(4) = 1s 2, 2s 2 He(2) = 1s 2
B(5) = 1s 2, 2s 2, 2p1
Li(3) = 1s 2, 2s1 Na(11) = 1s 2, 2s 2, 2p 6, 3s1
Q Electronic configuration of valence shell of Be and He is same
\ Electron affinity of Be is similar to that of He.
1
54. (a) Ionisation potential µ
atomic size
As the atomic size increases down the group but decreases in a period.
\ The correct order of decreasing first ionisation potential is Ca > K > Rb > Cs.
55. (c) Prout’s suggested that the atoms of all the elements are made up of hydrogen atom.
Newlands arranged the increasing order of their atomic weights.
 52 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Lothar Meyer plotted the curve between atomic volumes (i. e. , atomic weight/density)
(Rutherford is associated with structure of atom.)
56. (d) 2, 8, 18 or 32, these particular numbers are called the magic numbers.
57. (b) Moseley gave a modern periodic law.
‘the square root of the frequency of a line of X-ray spectrum is related to the atomic number Z of the
target material as,
= a( Z - b)
where, a = proportionality constant
Z = atomic number
b = another constant
(It has the same value for all the lines of X-ray spectrum)
58. (c) The only liquid non-metal is bromine. Mercury is liquid metal at room temperature. While chlorine
and fluorine are non-metallic gases.
59. (c) (a) Na + , no unpaired electron (1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p 6 )
(b) F, one unpaired electron (1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p 5 )
(c) N, three unpaired electrons (1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p 3 )
(d) O 2- , no unpaired electron (1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p 3 )
(e) B, one unpaired electron (1s 2, 2 s 2, 2 p1 )
60. (d) Na and K – Alkali metals
F and Cl – Halogens
Ca and Mg – Alkaline earth metals
Cu and Ag – Transition metals
61. (c) Ionisation enthalpy increases on moving from left to right in a period and decreases on moving down
in a group. Thus, order of ionisation enthalpy is Be > Mg > Na > K.
62. (b) Since, Ca 2+ , K + , S2- have same number of electrons so, they are isoelectronic ions, as we know that the
ion having greater number of protons will be smallest in size. Thus, the increasing order of ionic radii
is
Ca 2+ < K + < S2-
63. (a) In a period, on moving from left to right along the same period, acidic nature of oxides increases.
Hence, Cl 2O7 > SO 2 > P4O10
64. (b) For isoelectronic species,
1
Ionic radius µ
atomic number
Thus, the correct order will be
2-
8O > 9 F - > 11Na + > 12Mg 2+
65. (b) A B C
Amphoteric Basic Acidic
On moving left to right along the same period, acidic nature of oxide increases. Basically, basic nature
of oxides changes from amphoteric to acidic on moving along a period.
B < A < C in atomic number.
66. (a) Second ionization enthalpy of Cr is highest because after the removal of 1st electron, Cr acquires a
stable half-filled d5 configuration thus, removal of 2nd electron is very difficult.
67. (a) Best answer is (a) Controversial
Periodic Properties 53
68. (c,d) Incorrect option are (c) & (d)
Correct order of increasing 1st I.E. ¾® B < C < O < N
correct order of increasing electron gain
Enthalpy ¾® I < Br < F < Cl (in magnitude)
Values (in kJ/mol) ¾® 296, 325, 333, 349
69. (a) The second ionization potential of Mg is less than the second ionization potential of Na.
70. (a) 63 Eu ® [ Xe] 4 f 7 6 s 2
7 1 2
63 Gd ® [ Xe]4 f 5 d 6 s
9 0 2
65 Tb ® [ Xe]4 f 5 d 6 s
71. (a) Order of electron affinity : F>O>C>N
72. (a) The electronic configuration of the element with Z = 114 (flerovium) is [Rn ] 5 f 14 6 d10 7 s 27 p 2.
Hence, it belongs to carbon family which has the same outer electronic configuration.
73. (b) In metals, on moving down the group, metallic character increases, so basic nature increases hence
most acidic will be BeO.
74. (c) As we move across a period, ionisation enthalpy increases, because of increased nuclear charge and
decrease in atomic radii. However, abnormal values are observed for Be, N and Ne due to extra stability
of half filled and fully filled orbitals. Thus, the actual order is Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne.
75. (b) Higher the value of (n+l) for an orbital, higher is its energy. However, if two different types of orbitals
have same value of (n+l), the orbital with lower value n has lower energy. Therefore, decreasing order
of energy of the given orbitals is 5 f > 6 p > 5 p > 4 d.
 54 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

2
CHEMICAL BONDING (ELEMENTARY)

Level 1
: Introductory Questions
1. The combination of atoms take place so that :
(a) they can gain two electrons in the outermost shell
(b) they get eight electrons in the outermost shell
(c) they acquire stability by lowering of energy
(d) they get eighteen electrons in the outermost shell.
2. The ionic bonds X + Y - are formed when :
(I) electron affinity of Y is high (II) ionization energy of X is low
(III) lattice energy of XY is high (IV) lattice energy of XY is low
Choose the correct code :
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) All
3. In the Born-Haber cycle for the formation of solid common salt (NaCl), the largest
contribution comes from:
(a) the low ionization potential of Na (b) the high electron affinity of Cl
(c) the low DH vap of Na(s) (d) the lattice energy
4. Which condition favours the bond formation (where Fa = force of attraction and Fr = force of
repulsion) ?
(a) Maximum potential energy and Fa < Fr (b) Minimum potential energy and Fa > Fr
(c) Minimum potential energy and Fa = Fr (d) None of the above

: Lewis Dot Structures

5. N 2O has a linear, unsymmetrical structure that may be thought of as a hybrid of two resonance
forms. If a resonance form must have a satisfactory Lewis structure, which two of the five
structures shown below are the two resonance forms of N 2O ?
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 55
+ +

: :
:

:
:
(a) :NººN==O: (b) :N==N==O : (c) :N==N—O : (d) :NººN==O:
6. Which of the following molecular species/compound is not hypovalent ?
(a) CH +3 (b) B 2H 6 (c) NH +2 (d) AlF3
7. N 2CO has three possible structures ;
ONCN (nitrosyl cyanide), ONNC (nitrosyl isocyanide) NOCN (isonitrosyl cyanide).
Which of the following structure has lowest potential energy ?
(a) ONCN (b) ONNC
(c) NOCN (d) All have same energy
8. Which of the following statement is correct for NO -3 ion ?
(a) Sum of all formal charges = +1
(b) Formal charge on one of the oxygen atom = -2
(c) Formal charge on nitrogen atom = +1
1
(d) Average formal charge on oxygen atom = -
3
9. Which of the following Lewis dot structure of CO 2 is incorrect ?
: :

: :

: :

: :
(a) :O—CººO : (b) O==C==O: (c) : OººC—O : (d) None of these
10. According to Lewis dot structure the number of bond pairs around central atom is greater than
four for which of the following anion?
(a) CO 2-
3 (b) NO -3 (c) PO 3-
4 (d) None
11. Which of the following pair has electron deficient compounds ?
(a) BCl 3 , AlCl 3 (b) AlCl 3 , AlF3 (c) SF2 , Cl 2O (d) NaBH 4 , ICl
12. An oxide of chlorine which is an odd electron molecule is :
(a) ClO 2 (b) Cl 2O 6 (c) Cl 2O 7 (d) Cl 2O
13. Which of the following is hypovalent species ?
(a) AlF3 (b) SiCl 4 (c) AlCl 3 (d) SF4
14. Which of the following species are hypervalent ?
(1) ClO -4 (2) BF3 (3) SO 2-
4 (4) CO 2-
3
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1,3 (c) 3, 4 (d) 1,2
15. The pair in which phosphorous atoms have a formal oxidation state of +3 is :
(a) orthophosphorous and pyrophosphorous acids
(b) pyrophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids
(c) orthophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids
(d) pyrophosphorous and pyrophosphoric acids
16. Molecule following Lewis octet rule is :
(a) BCl 3 (b) PCl 3 (c) ICl 3 (d) AlCl 3
17. Which of the following sets does not contain isoelectronic species ?
(a) BO 33- , CO 23- , NO -3 (b) SO 23- , CO 23- , NO -3
(c) CN - , N 2 , C 22- (d) PO 34- , SO 24- , ClO -4
18. Which of the following follow octet rule ?
(a) SF4 (b) AlF3 (c) Boric acid (d) BCl 3
 56 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

19. Which of the following Lewis dot structure of CO 2 is incorrect ?

·· ·· ··
· · ·
(a) · O — C ºº O · (b) O == C == O ·
·· ·· ··
··
· ·
(c) · O ºº C — O · (d) None of these
··

: Ionic Bond
20. Solid NaCl is a bad conductor of electricity because :
(a) in solid NaCl, there are no ions
(b) solid NaCl is covalent
(c) in solid NaCl, there is no mobility of ions
(d) in solid NaCl, there are no electrons
21. An ionic compound A+ B – is most likely to be formed when :
(a) the ionization energy of A high and electron affinity of B is low
(b) the ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity of B is high
(c) both, the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B are high
(d) both, the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B are low
22. A compound contains three elements A, B and C, if the oxidation of A =+ 2, B =+ 5 and
C = - 2, the possible formula of the compound is :
(a) A 3( B 4 C ) 2 (b) A 3( BC 4 ) 2 (c) A 2( BC 3 ) 2 (d) ABC 2
23. Which pair of atoms form strongest ionic bond?
(a) Al and As (b) Al and N
(c) Al and Se (d) Al and O
24. In which of the following species the bonds are non-directional ?
(a) NCl 3 (b) RbCl (c) BeCl 2 (d) BCl 3
25. A bond formed between two like atoms cannot be :
(a) ionic (b) covalent (c) coordinate (d) metallic
26. An electrovalent compound does not exhibit space isomerism because of :
(a) presence of oppositively charged ions (b) high melting points
(c) non-directional nature of the bond (d) crystalline nature
27. Two elements A and B have following electronic configuration.
A = 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2
B = 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 3
If expected compound formed by A and B is A x B y then sum of x and y is :
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
28. Which of the following is not correct stability order of cation ?
(a) Pb 2+ < Sn 2+ (b) Pb 4 + < Pb 2+ (c) Sn 4 + < Sn 2+ (d) Pb 4 + < Sn 4 +
29. The correct statement for the molecule, CsI 3 is :
(a) it contains Cs + and I -3 ions
(b) it contains Cs 3+ and I - ions
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 57
(c) it contains Cs + , I - lattice and I 2 molecule
(d) it is a covalent molecule
30. Incorrect order of stability of cation is :
(a) Ge 2+ < Sn 2+ < Pb 2+ (b) Ge 4 + < Sn 4 + < Pb 4 +
(c) Sn 2+ < Sn 4 + (d) Pb 4 + < Pb 2+
31. Stable oxidation state of Tl, Pb, Bi elements are respectively :
(a) +1 , + 2 , + 3 (b) +3 , + 4 , + 5 (c) +3 , + 2 , + 1 (d) +5 , + 4 , + 3
32. Which of the following order of stability of cation is incorrect ?
(a) As 3+ > Sb 3+ (b) Ge 2+ < Sn 2+ (c) Ga 3+ > In 3+ (d) Pb 4 + < Pb 2+

: Lattice Energy
33. The lattice energies of KF, KCl, KBr and KI follow the order :
(a) KF > KCl > KBr > KI (b) KI> KBr > KCl > KF
(c) KF > KCl > KI> KBr (d) KI> KBr > KF > KCl
34. Which set of compounds in the following pair of ionic compounds has the higher lattice
energy?
(i) KCl or MgO (ii) LiF or LiBr (iii) Mg 3N 2 or NaCl
(a) KCl, LiBr, Mg 2N 2 (b) MgO, LiBr, Mg 3N 2
(c) MgO, LiF, NaCl (d) MgO, LiF, Mg 3N 2
35. The incorrect order of lattice energy is :
(a) AlF3 > MgF2 (b) Li 3N > Li 2O
(c) NaCl > LiF (d) TiC > ScN
36. Which ionic compound has the largest amount of lattice energy?
(a) NaF (b) AlF3 (c) AlN (d) MgF2
37. The order of increasing lattice energy of the following salt is :
(a) NaCl < CaO < NaBr < BaO (b) NaBr < NaCl < BaO < CaO
(c) NaCl < NaBr < BaO < CaO (d) NaBr < NaCl < CaO < BaO
38. Which combination will give strongest ionic bond ?
(a) Na + and Cl - (b) Mg 2+ and Cl - (c) Na + and O 2- (d) Mg 2+ and O 2-
39. Among the following isostructural compounds, identify the compound, which has the highest
lattice energy :
(a) LiF (b) LiCl (c) NaCl (d) MgO
40. For which of the following ionic compounds, DH f is negative only due to lattice energy ?
(i) NaF (ii) MgO (iii) Li 3N (iv) Na 2S
(a) Only (iv) (b) Only (iii), (iv)
(c) Only (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) All of these
41. Select the correct reason for given statement ‘‘Flouride of Al is ionic while chloride of Al is
covalent’’.
(a) IE of Al in AlF3 > AlCl 3 (b) EA of Flourine > Chlorine
(c) Lattice energy of AlF3 > AlCl 3 (d) EA of Flourine < Chlorine
 58 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

42. Select the incorrect order :

(a) AlF3 > MgO > MgF2 : Lattice energy
(b) Li > Na > Al > Mg : Electron affinity
(c) SF6 > PF5 > SiF4 : Lewis acidic character
(d) SiCl 4 > SiBr 4 > SiI 4 : Decreasing order of electronegativity of Si
43. In which of the following solvents, KI has highest solubility ?
(a) C 6 H 6 (e = 0) (b) (CH 3 ) 2 CO (e = 2)
(c) CH 3OH(e = 32) (d) CCl 4 (e = 0)
44. Which of the following substance has the highest melting point ?
(a) NaCl (b) KCl (c) MgO (d) BaO
45. In which of the following ionic compounds, DH f is negative only due to lattice energy ?
(i) NaF (ii) MgO (iii) Li 3N (iv) Na 2S
(a) Only (iv) (b) Only (iii), (iv)
(c) Only (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) All of these
46. Arrange the following in increasing order of lattice energy MgF2 , CaF2 , ZrO 2 :
(a) MgF2 > CaF2 > ZrO 2 (b) ZrO 2 > MgF2 > CaF2
(c) ZrO 2 > CaF2 > MgF2 (d) CaF2 > MgF2 > ZrO 2
47. Which ionic compound has the largest amount of lattice energy ?
(a) NaF (b) AlF3 (c) AlN (d) MgF2
48. In which of the following ionic compounds, DH f is negative only due to lattice energy ?
(i) NaF (ii) MgO (iii) Li 3N (iv) Na 2S
(a) Only (iv) (b) Only (iii), (iv)
(c) Only (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) All of these

: Covalent Bond
49. Which pair of elements can form multiple bond with itself and with oxygen?
(a) F, N (b) N, Cl (c) N, P (d) N, C
50. Which of the following is a covalent compound?
(a) Al 2O 3 (b) AlF3
(c) AlCl 3 (d) Al 2(SO 4 ) 3
51. Which of the following is an example of super octet molecule?
(a) ClF3 (b) PCl 5 (c) IF7 (d) All the three
52. Which of the following molecule is theoretically not possible?
(a) SF4 (b) OF2 (c) OF4 (d) O 2F2
53. The phosphate of a metal has the formula MHPO 4 . The formula of its chloride would be :
(a) MCl (b) MCl 2
(c) MCl 3 (d) M 2Cl 3
54. The compound that has the highest ionic character associated with the X — Cl bond is :
(a) PCl 5 (b) BCl 3 (c) CCl 4 (d) SiCl 4
55. The bond having the highest bond energy is :
(a) C == C (b) C == S (c) C == O (d) P == N
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 59
56. Which of the following species is neither hypervalent nor hypovalent ?
(a) ClO -4 (b) BF3 (c) SO 2-
4 (d) CO 2-
3
57. In which of the following species central atom is NOT surrounded by 8 valence electrons?
(a) BF4- (b) NCl 3
(c) PCl+4 (d) SF4
58. Which atom can have more than eight valence electrons when it is forming covalent bonds?
(a) H (b) N (c) F (d) Cl
59. Which bond is expected to be the least polar?
(a) O—F (b) P—F (c) Si—N (d) B—F
60. Which set contains only covalently bonded molecules?
(a) BCl 3 , SiCl 4 , PCl 3 (b) NH 4 Br, N 2H 4 , HBr
(c) I 2 , H 2S, NaI (d) Al, O 3 , As 4
61. Which molecule does not exist?
(a) OF2 (b) OF4 (c) SF2 (d) SF4
62. Which of the following does not contain any coordinate bond ?
(a) NH 4 Cl (b) Na + [BF4 ]-
(c) H 3O + (d) CO 2-
3

63. A : tetracyanomethane B : carbondioxide

C : benzene D : 1, 3-buta-di-ene
Ratio of number of s and p bonds is in order :
(a) A = B < C < D (b) A = B < D < C
(c) A = B = C = D (d) C < D < A < B
64. In a compound
NC ‚ M(CO) 3
C==C ƒ
NC ƒ ‚ C 2H 5
the number of sigma and pi bonds respectively are :
(a) 19, 11 (b) 19, 5 (c) 13, 11 (d) 7, 3
65. Which of the following does not contain any co-ordinate bond?
(a) H 3O + (b) BF 4- (c) HF 2- (d) NH+4
66. Which of the following molecules does not have co-ordinate bonds?
(a) PH+4 (b) NO 2 (c) O 3 (d) CO 2-
3
67. Which of the following bonds have lowest bond energy?
(a) C—C (b) N —N (c) H—H (d) O—O
68. The bond having the minimum bond energy is :
(a) C — C (b) O — O (c) S — S (d) P — P
69. Which of the following pair consists of only network solid ?
(a) SiO 2 , P4 O 10 (b) SiO 2 , diamond
(c) P4 O 10 , SiO 3 (d) P4 O 10 , P4 O 6
70. Which one is electron deficient compound ?
(a) NH 3 (b) ICl (c) BCl 3 (d) PCl 3
 60 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

71. Which of the following compound not have polar and non-polar bond ?
(a) CH 3 — CH == CH 2 (b) CH 3COOH
(c) O 3 (d) H 2O 2
72. Which property given in bracket is changed if C-atom is replaced by S ?
(a) CF4 (non-planar) (b) COCl 2 (polar)
(c) CO 2 (planar) (d) CO 2-
3 (non-polar)

73. Which of the following has maximum number of vacant orbital(s) in valence shell of
underlined atom ?
(a) BeH 2 (b) BH 3 (c) AlCl 3 (d) SiF4

: Valence Bond Theory

74. The fluorine molecule is formed by :
(a) p-p orbitals (sideways overlap) (b) p-p orbitals (end-to-end overlap)
(c) sp-sp orbitals (d) s-s orbitals
75. Which of the following overlap results in the formation of bond ?
s-orbital p-orbital s-orbital p-orbital p-orbital p-orbital
– +
(a) (b) (c) (d)
+ –

76. Which of the following overlaps is incorrect (assuming Z-axis is internuclear axis) ?
(A) 2 p y + 2 p y ¾® p-Bond formation (B) 2 p x + 2 p x ¾® s -Bond formation
(C) 3 d xy + 3 d xy ¾® p-Bond formation (D) 2 s + 2 p y ¾® p-Bond formation
(E) 3 d xy + 3 d xy ¾® d-Bond formation (F) 2 p z + 2 p z ¾® s-Bond formation
(a) A, B, C (b) C, F (c) B, E (d) B, C, D
77. Which of the following overlapping is not present in XeO 3 molecule ?
(a) sp 3 + p x (b) sp 3 + p y (c) d xz + p x (d) sp 3 + s
78. How many sigma bonds are in a molecule of diethyl ether, C 2H 5OC 2H 5 ?
(a) 14 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d) 16
79. Which combination of orbitals will form p-bond, if internuclear axis is x-axis ?
(a) p x + p x (b) d xy + d xy
(c) d x 2 - y 2 + d x 2 - y 2 (d) d yz + d yz
80. If d xz orbital of atom A and p x orbital of atom B form p-bond along a particular molecular
axis, then which bond will be formed along same molecular axis by combination of ( d xy + d xy )
orbitals of ( A) and ( B ) atom :
(a) s-bond (b) p-bond
(c) d-bond (d) Can't be predicted
81. Which of the following is correct order of s-bond strength ?
(I) 2 s - 2 s (II) 2 s - 2 p (III) 2 p - 2 p (IV) 3 s - 3 s
(a) I > II > III > IV (b) III > II > I > IV
(c) IV > I > II > III (d) III > I > II > IV
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 61
82. Which of the following overlap gives a s-bond along x-axis as internuclear axis ?
(a) p z and p z (b) s and p z
(c) s and p y (d) d x 2 - y 2 and d x 2 - y 2
83. Which of the following orbital combination can not form p-bond ?
(a) p x + p x sideways overlapping (b) d x 2 - y 2 + p y sideways overlapping
(c) d xy + d xy sideways overlapping (d) d yz + p y sideways overlapping
84. If two different non-axial d-orbitals having ‘xz’ nodal plane form p-bond by overlapping each
other, then internuclear axis will be :
(a) x (b) y
(c) z (d) They don’t form p-bond
85. Assuming pure 2s and 2 p orbitals of carbon are used in forming CH 4 molecule, which of the
following statement is false?
(a) Three C—H bonds will be at right angle.
(b) One C—H bond will be weaker than other three C—H bonds.
(c) The shape of molecule will be tetrahedral.
(d) The angle of C—H bond formed by s- s overlapping will be uncertain with respect to other
three bonds.
86. The strength of bonds formed by 2 s-2 s, 2 p-2 p and 2 p - 2 s overlap has the order :
(a) s- s > p- p > p- s (b) s- s > p- s > p- p
(c) p- p > p- s > s- s (d) p- p > s- s > p- s
87. Which of the following statements is incorrect for sigma and p-bonds formed between two
carbon atoms?
(a) Sigma-bond is stronger than a p-bond
(b) Bond energies of sigma and p-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol
(c) Free rotation of surrounding atoms about a sigma-bond is allowed but not in case of a
p-bond
(d) Sigma-bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a p-bond has no primary
effect in this regard
88. Assuming the bond direction to the z-axis, which of the overlapping of atomic orbitals of two
atom (A) and (B) will result in bonding?
(I) s-orbital of A and p x -orbital of B (II) s-orbital of A and p z orbital of B
(III) p y -orbital of A and p z orbital of B (IV) s-orbital of both (A) and (B)
(a) I and IV (b) I and II
(c) III and IV (d) II and IV
89. Which of the following orbital may form neither p nor d-Bond ?
(a) d xy (b) d z 2
(c) d x 2 - y 2 (d) d yz
90. In which of the excitation state of chlorine ClF3 is formed ?
(a) In ground state (b) In third excitation state
(c) In first excitation state (d) In second excitation state
 62 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

91. p y -orbital can not form p-bond by lateral overlap with :

(i) d xz orbital (ii) d x 2 - y 2 orbital (iii) d xy orbital (iv) p z orbital
(a) i, ii, iii (b) iii (c) i, ii, iv (d) iii, iv
92. Which pair of overlapping can not form covalent bond simultaneously between two atoms ?
(a) If p y + p y Þ s-bond, then p x + p x Þ p-bond
(b) If p z + p z Þ s-bond, then d xy + d xy Þ p-bond
(c) If p y + p y Þ p-bond, then d xz + d xz Þ p-bond
(d) If d x 2 - y 2 + d x 2 - y 2 Þ s-bond, then d xz + d xz Þ p-bond
93. Nitrogen forms N 2 but phosphorous do not forms P2 but it exist as P4 the reason for this is:
(a) Triple bond present between phosphorous atoms
(b) pp-pp bonding is weak in phosphorous
(c) pp-pp bonding is strong
(d) Multiple bond is formed easily
94. Which of the following orbital combination can not form p-bond ?
(a) p x + p x sideways overlapping (b) d x 2 - y 2 + p y sideways overlapping
(c) d xy + d xy sideways overlapping (d) d yz + p y sideways overlapping
95. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) A s-bond is weaker than a p-bond.
(b) There are four co-ordinate bonds in the NH +4 ion.
(c) The covalent bond is directional in nature.
(d) HF is less polar than HCl.
96. Which of the following is not correctly match between given species and type of overlapping?
(a) XeO 3 : There (dp-pp) bonds. (b) H 2SO 4 : Two (dp-pp) bonds.
(c) SO 3 : There (dp-pp) bonds. (d) HClO 4 : Three (dp-pp) bonds.
97. p y orbital can form p-bond by lateral overlapping with :
(a) d zx orbital (b) d x 2 - y 2 orbital (c) d xy orbital (d) p z orbital
98. Which of the following orbital cannot form d-bond ?
(a) d x 2 - y 2 (b) d xy (c) d z 2 (d) d yz
99. How many S — S bonds, S — O — S bonds, s-bonds, p-bonds are present in trimer of sulphur
trioxide ?
(a) 0, 3, 16, 2 (b) 0, 6, 12, 16 (c) 0, 3, 12, 6 (d) 0, 4, 12, 6
100. Number of identical Cr — O bonds in dichromate ion Cr 2O 72- is :
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
101. Which p-orbital overlapping would give the strongest bond ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

102. Which cannot be explained by VBT ?

(a) Overlapping (b) Bond formation
(c) Paramagnetic nature of oxygen (d) shapes of molecules
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 63
103. Example of pp-pp bonding is :
(a) BF3 (b) SO 2 (c) SO 3 (d) All of these
104. Select the overlapping which has maximum bond strength (internuclear axis —z-axis) ?
(a) 2 s — 2 s (b) 2 p z — 2 p z (c) 3 d xz — 2 p x (d) 3 d xy — 3 d xy
105. According V.B.T, which of the following atomic orbitals overlapping will produce formation of
N 2 molecule?
(if z-axis is molecular axis)
(I) 2 s - 2 s (II) 2 p x - 2 p x (III) 1s - 1s (IV) 2 p z - 2 p z
(V) 2 p z - 2 p z
(a) I, II and V (b) II , IV and V (c) I, III and V (d) I, II and III
106. Which of the following orbital combination results in p-bond formation (given that x-axis is
internuclear axis) ?
(a) p y + d x 2 - y 2 (b) s + p z (c) d z 2 + d z 2 (d) None of these
107. Which molecular specie has maximum number of pp-dp bonds ?
(a) I(CN) -2 (b) PO 3-4 (c) SO 2-4 (d) ClO +2

: VSEPR Theory
108. In which of the following species maximum atom lie in same plane?
(a) XeF2O 2 (b) PCl 5 (c) AsH +4 (d) XeF4
109. Correct statement regarding molecules SF4 , CF4 and XeF4 are:
(a) 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of central atom respectively
(b) 1, 0 and 1 lone pairs of central atom respectively
(c) 0, 0 and 2 lone pairs of central atom respectively
(d) 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of central atom respectively
–
110. The geometrical arrangement of orbitals and shape of I 3 are respectively :
(a) trigonal bipyramidal geometry, linear shape
(b) hexagonal geometry, T-shape
(c) triangular planar geometry, triangular shape
(d) tetrahedral geometry, pyramidal shape
111. Which of the following statements is incorrect for PCl 5 ?
(a) Its three P—Cl bond lengths are equal (b) It involves sp 3 d hybridization
(c) It has an regular geometry (d) Its shape is trigonal bipyramidal
112. Molecular shapes of SF4 , CF4 and XeF4 are :
(a) the same with 2,0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively
(b) the same, with 1,1 and 1 lone pair of electrons, respectively
(c) different, with 0,1 and 2 lone pair of electrons, respectively
(d) different with 1,0 and 2 lone pair of electrons, respectively
113. The structure of the noble gas compound XeF4 is :
(a) square planar (b) distorted tetrahedral
(c) tetrahedral (d) octahedral
 64 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

114. The molecule possessing maximum number of non-bonding electron pairs (l.p.) around the
central atom is :
(a) XeOF4 (b) XeO 2F2
+
(c) XeF3 (d) XeO 3
115. Which is the following pairs of species have identical shapes?
(a) NO+2 and NO -2 (b) PCl 5 and BrF5
(c) XeF4 and ICl -4 (d) TeCl 4 and XeO 4
116. The shapes of XeF4 , XeF5- and SnCl 2 are :
(a) octahedral, trigonal bipyramidal and bent
(b) square pyramidal, pentagonal planar and linear
(c) square planar, pentagonal planar and angular
(d) see-saw, T-shaped and linear
117. Which is not correctly matched?
(a) XeO 3 —Trigonal bipyramidal (b) ClF3 —bent T-shape
(c) XeOF4 —Square pyramidal (d) XeF2 —Linear shape
118. Amongst NO –3 , AsO 3– 2- – 2–
3 , CO 3 , ClO 3 and SO 3 , the non-planar species are :

(a) CO 2– 2–
3 , SO 3 (b) AsO 3– – 2–
3 , ClO 3 , SO 3

(c) NO –3 , CO 2–
3 (d) SO 2– –
3 , NO 3

119. The geometry of ammonia molecule can be best described as :

(a) nitrogen at one vertex of a regular tetrahedron, the other three vertices being occupied by
three hydrogens
(b) nitrogen at the centre of the tetrahedron, three of the vertices being occupied by three
hydrogens
(c) nitrogen at the centre of an equilateral triangle, three corners being occupied by three
hydrogens
(d) nitrogen at the junction of a T, three open ends being occupied by three hydrogens
120. Which molecular geometry is least likely to result from a trigonal bipyramidal electron
geometry?
(a) Trigonal planar (b) See-saw
(c) Linear (d) Bent T-shaped
121. Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and
F if it is false :
(I) The order of repulsion between different pair of electrons is l p - l p > l p - b p > b p - b p
(II) In general, as the number of lone pair of electrons on central atom increases, value of
bond angle from normal bond angle also increases
(III)The number of lone pair on O in H 2O is 2 while on N in NH 3 is 1
(IV)The structures of xenon fluorides and xenon oxyfluorides could not be explained on the
basis of VSEPR theory
(a) TTTF (b) TFTF
(c) TFTT (d) TFFF
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 65
122. Which species is planar?
(a) CO 2-
3 (b) SO 2-
3
(c) ClO -3 (d) BF4-
123. What is the geometry of the IBr 2- ion?
(a) Linear
(b) Bent shape with bond angle of about 90°
(c) Bent shape with bond angle of about 109°
(d) Bent shape with bond angle of about 120°
124. What is the shape of the ClF3 molecule?
(a) Trigonal planar (b) Trigonal pyramidal
(c) T-shaped (d) Tetrahedral
125. Which species has the same shape as NH 3 ?
(a) SO 2-
3 (b) CO 2-
3
(c) NO -3 (d) SO 3
126. According to VSEPR theory, in which species do all the atoms lie in the same plane?
1. CH+3 2. CH -3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
127. Which of the following species/molecules does not have same number of bond pairs and lone
pairs?
(a) OCN - (b) H 2O (c) C 2H 2Cl 2 (d) O 3
128. Which of the following statement is correct about I +3 and I -3 molecular ions ?
(a) Number of lone pairs at central atoms are same in both molecular ions.
(b) Hybridization of central atoms in both ions are same.
(c) Both are polar species.
(d) Both are planar species.
129. In which of the following molecular shape d z 2 -orbital must not be involved in bonding ?
(a) Pentagonal planar (b) Trigonal planar
(c) Linear (d) Square planar
130. The correct statement regarding SO 2 molecule is:
(a) two pp - dp bonds
(b) molecule has 2 lone pair, 2s bonds and 2p bonds
(c) two pp - pp bonds
(d) one pp - pp and one pp - dp bond
131. A molecule XY 2 contains two s, two p-bonds and one lone pair of electron in the valence shell
of X. The arrangement of lone pair as well as bond pairs is :
(a) square pyramidal (b) linear
(c) trigonal planar (d) unpredictable
 66 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

132. In which of the following pairs, both the species have the same hybridisation ?
(I) SF4 , XeF4 (II) I -3 , XeF2 (III) ICl +4 ,SiCl 4 (IV) ClO -3 ,PO 34-
(a) I, II (b) II, III (c) II, IV (d) I, II, III
133. Which of the following possess two lone pair of electrons on the central atom and square
planar in shape ?
(I) SF4 (II) XeO 4 (III) XeF4 (IV) ICl -4
(a) I, III (b) II, IV (c) III, IV (d) All
134. Select pair of compounds in which both have different hybridization but have same molecular
geometry :
(a) BF3 , BrF3 (b) ICl Q
2 , BeCl 2

(c) BCl 3 , PCl 3 (d) PCl 3 , NCl 3

135. The species having no pp - pp bond but has bond order equal to that of O 2 is :
(a) ClO -3 (b) PO 3-
4 (c) SO 2-
4 (d) XeO 3
136. N — N bond length is minimum in :
(a) N 2O (b) N 2O 3 (c) N 2O 4 (d) N 2O 5
137. Which of the following single bond have lowest bond energy ?
(a) C — C (b) N — N (c) H — H (d) O — O
138. Select the value of E for AB 3E molecule, which is non-planar as well as non-polar (where A =
central atom ; B = Surrounding atoms ; E = Number of lone pairs) :
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) None of these
139. In which of the planar compound, central atom has equal number of its shared and unshared
electrons ?
(a) XeF2 (b) XeO 3 (c) XeF4 (d) XeO 2F2
140. Which species has the maximum number of lone pair of e - on the central atom ?
(a) ClO -3 (b) XeF4 (c) N 2O (d) I -3

: Hybridisation
141. How many sp 2 and sp-hybridised carbon atoms are present respectively in the following
compound ?
H
H

H
H
(a) 4, 2 (b) 6, 0 (c) 3, 3 (d) 5, 1
142. Which one of the following is the correct set with respect to molecule, hybridization and
shape?
(a) BeCl 2 , sp 2 , linear (b) BeCl 2 , sp 2 , triangular planar
(c) BCl 3 , sp 2 , triangular planar (d) BCl 3 , sp 3 , tetrahedral
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 67
143. The hybridization of the central atom in ICl +2 is :
(a) dsp 2 (b) sp (c) sp 2 (d) sp 3
144. The state of hybridization of the central atom is not the same as in the others :
(a) B in BF3 (b) O in H 3O + (c) N in NH 3 (d) P in PCl 3
145. The number of sp 2 — s sigma bonds in benzene are :
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) none of these
146. The hybridization of the central atom will change when :
(a) NH 3 combines with H+ (b) H 3BO 3 combines with OH –
(c) NH 3 forms NH -2 (d) H 2O combines with H+
147. CH 3 —CH 2 —CH == CH 2 has hybridisation:
(a) sp , sp , sp 2 , sp 2 (b) sp 3 , sp 3 , sp 2 , sp
(c) sp 3 , sp 3 , sp 2 , sp 2 (d) sp 3 , sp 2 , sp 2 , sp
148. What is the state of hybridisation of Xe in cationic part of solid XeF6 ?
(a) sp 3 d 3 (b) sp 3 d 2 (c) sp 3 d (d) sp 3
149. During the complete combustion of methane CH 4 , what change in hybridisation does the
carbon atom undergo?
(a) sp 3 to sp (b) sp 3 to sp 2 (c) sp 2 to sp (d) sp 2 to sp 3
150. The hybridisation of central iodine atom in IF5 , I -3 and I+3 are respectively :
(a) sp 3 d 2 , sp 3 d , sp 3 (b) sp 3 d , sp 3 d , sp 3 (c) sp 3 d 2 , sp 3 d 2 , sp 3 (d)sp 3 d , sp 3 d 2 , sp 3
151. In which of the following combination hybridisation of central atom (*) does not change?
* * *
(a) H 2O + C O 2 (b) H 3 B O 3 + OH - (c) BF3 + N H 3 (d) None of these
152. Which of the following species used both axial set of d-orbitals in hybridisation of central
atom?
(a) PBr 4+ (b) PCl -4 (c) ICl -4 (d) None of these
153. Which bonds are formed by a carbon atom with sp 2 -hybridisation?
(a) 4p-bonds (b) 2p-bonds and 2s-bonds
(c) 1p-bonds and 3s-bonds (d) 4s-bonds
154. What are the hybridisation of the carbon atoms labeled C 1 and C 2 , respectively in glycine?
C1 C2
(a) sp 2
sp 2 H H O
(b) sp 2 sp 3 H N C C O H
1 2
(c) sp 3 sp 2
H
(d) sp 3 sp 3
155. The H—O—H bond angles in H 3O+ are approximately 107°. The orbitals used by oxygen in
these bonds are best described as :
(a) p-orbitals (b) sp-hybrid orbitals
2
(c) sp -hybrid orbital (d) sp 3 -hybrid orbital
 68 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

156. Choose the correct code of characteristics for the given order of hybrid orbitals of same atom,
sp < sp 2 < sp 3
(i) Electronegativity (ii) Bond angle between same hybrid orbitals
(iii) Size (iv) Energy level
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (iii), (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
157. Which is correct statement?
As the s-character of a hybrid orbital decreases
(I) The bond angle decreases (II) The bond strength increases
(III) The bond length increases (IV) Size of orbitals increases
(a) (I), (III) and (IV) (b) (II), (III) and (IV)
(c) (I) and (II) (d) All are correct
158. Which of the following is incorrectly match ?
Hybridisation Geometry Orbitals use
3
(a) sp d Trigonal bipyramidal s + p x + p y + p z + dz 2
(b) sp 3 d 3 Pentagonal bipyramidal s + p x + p y + p z + d x 2 - y 2 + d z 2 + d xy
(c) sp 3 d 2 Capped octahedral s + p x + p y + p z + d x 2 - y 2 + dz 2
(d) sp 3 Tetrahedral s + p x + p y + pz
159. Which of the following species used both axial set of d-orbital in Hybridisation of central
atom?
(a) PBr 4r (B) PCl r
4 (c) ICl s
4 (d) None of these
160. In which of the following reaction, adjacent bond angle increases in molecular species around
underline atom ?
(a) BrF3 + F - ¾® BrF4- (b) BF3 + F - ¾® BF4-
(c) XeF4 + PF5 ¾® [XeF3 ]+ [PF6 ]- (d) XeF4 + F - ¾® XeF5-
161. Which of the following orbitals can not undergo hybridisation ?
(i) 3d, 4s (ii) 3d, 4d (iii) 3d, 4s & 4p (iv) 3s, 3p & 4s
(a) only ii (b) ii & iv
(c) ii & iii (d) i, ii & iv
162. The species in which the N-atom is in a state of sp hybridization is :
(a) NO 2 (b) NO -31 (c) NO -2 (d) NO +2
163. Species with maximum number of (dp-pp) bond is :
(a) XeO 3 (b) XeOF4
(c) XeO 2F2 (d) XeO 4-
6
164. Which of the following molecule is planar and uses d-orbitals in hybridisation ?
(a) IF6- (b) XeO 2F2
(c) NO +2 (d) XeF5-
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 69

: Molecular Geometry/Shape
165. Among the species given identify the isostructural pairs :
(a) [NF3and BF3 ] (b) [BF4- and NH +4 ]
(c) [BCl 3and BrCl 3 ] (d) [NH 3 and NO -3 ]
166. 0.01 mole of H 3PO x is completely neutralised by 0.56 gram of KOH hence :
(a) x = 3 and given acid is dibasic
(b) x = 2 and given acid is monobasic
(c) x = 3 and given acid is monobasic
(d) x = 4 and given acid forms three series of salt
167. In the solid state phosphorus pentachloride exists as :
(a) PCl 5 (b) PCl+4 Cl - (c) PCl+4 PCl -6 (d) PCl 5 . Cl 2
168. The ratio of s-bond and p-bond in tetracyano ethylene is :
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) None of these
169. Bonds present in N 2O 5 (nitrogen pentaoxide) are :
(a) only ionic (b) only covalent
(c) covalent and co-ordinate (d) covalent and ionic
170. The pair of species with similar shape is :
(a) PCl 3 , NH 3 (b) CF4 , SF4
(c) PbCl 2 , CO 2 (d) PF5 , IF5
171. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of the allene molecule, C 3H 4 ?
(a) The central carbon is sp hybridized
(b) The terminal carbon atoms are sp 2 hybridized
(c) The planes containing the CH 2 groups are mutually perpendicular to permit the
formations two separate p-bonds
(d) All are correct
172. Number of S — S bond in H 2S n O 6 is :
(a) n (b) (n - 1) (c) (n - 2) (d) (n + 1)
173. How many S — S bonds, S — O — S bonds, s-bonds, p-bonds are present in trimer of sulphur
trioxide?
(a) 0, 3, 16, 2 (b) 0, 3, 12, 6
(c) 0, 6, 12, 16 (d) 0, 4, 12, 6
174. Number of identical Cr —O bonds in dichromate ion Cr 2O 72– is :
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
175. The nodal plane in the p-bond of ethene is located in :
(a) the molecular plane
(b) a plane parallel to the molecular plane
(c) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects the carbon-carbon s bond
at right angle
(d) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains the carbon-carbon bond
 70 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

176. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural?

NO –3 , CO 2– –
3 , ClO 3 , SO 3

(a) NO –3 , CO 2–
3 (b) SO 3 , NO –3
(c) ClO –3 , CO 2–
3 (d) CO 2– –
3 , ClO 3
177. In the electronic structure of H 2SO 4 , the total number of unshared electrons is :
(a) 20 (b) 16 (c) 12 (d) 8
178. Which of the following xenon compound has the same number of lone pairs as in I -3 ?
(a) XeO 4 (b) XeF4
(c) XeF2 (d) XeO 3
179. The shape of XeF3+ is :
(a) Trigonal planar (b) Pyramidal
(c) Bent T-shape (d) See-saw
180. Which of the following shape are not possible for possible value of ' n' in XeFn molecule ?
(a) Linear (b) Square planar
(c) Trigonal planar (d) Capped octahedral
181. BeCl 2 is not isostructural with :
(a) ICl -2 (b) C 2H 2 (c) XeF2 (d) GeCl 2
182. Which statement is true about the most stable Lewis structure for CS 2 ?
(a) There are no lone pairs in molecule
(b) All bonds are double bonds
(c) The central atom does not have an octet of electrons
(d) A sulfur atom must be the central atom for the structure to be stable
183. SbF5 reacts with XeF4 and XeF6 to form ionic compounds [XeF3+ ][SbF6- ] and [XeF5+ ][SbF 6- ]
then molecular shape of [XeF3+ ] ion and [XeF5+ ] ion respectively :
(a) Square pyramidal, T-shaped (b) Bent-T-shape, square pyramidal
(c) See-saw, square pyramidal (d) Square pyramidal, see-saw
184. Species having maximum ‘Cl—O’ bond order is :
(a) ClO -3 (b) ClO 3 (c) ClO 2 (d) ClO -2
185. Which of the following species contains minimum number of atoms in ‘XY’ plane?
(a) XeF5- (b) SF6 (c) IF7 (d) All
186. The molecule ML x is planar with 7 pairs of electrons around M in the valence shell. The value
of x is :
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
187. Choose the correct option for the following molecule in view of chemical bonding :
Cl ‚ H
C==C==C==C ƒ
H ƒ ‚ Cl
(a) non-planar (b) m ¹ 0
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) m = 0
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 71
188. Which of the following species has same molecular shape as that of solid XeF6 ?
(a) XeO 2F2 (b) TeF5- (c) NH +4 (d) BrF6-
189. In which of the following species, center of tetrahedron geometry has no atom ?
(a) SiH 4 (b) P4 (c) PH +4 (d) AsO 3-
4

: Dipole Moment
190. BF3 and NF3 both are covalent compounds but NF3 is polar whereas BF3 is non-polar. This is
because :
(a) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
(b) N —F bond is more polar than B —F bond
(c) NF3 is pyramidal whereas BF3 is planar triangular
(d) BF3 is electron deficient whereas NF3 is not
191. Dipole moment of NF3 is smaller than :
(a) NH 3 (b) CO 2 (c) BF3 (d) CCl 4
192. Which of the following molecules will have polar bonds but zero dipole moment?
(a) O 2 (b) CHCl 3 (c) CF4 (d) none of these
193. Which has maximum dipole moment?
Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Cl Cl Cl

194. Which of the following compound is planar and non-polar ?

(a) XeO 4 (b) SF4
(c) XeF4 (d) CF4
195. H 2O has a net dipole moment while BeF2 has zero dipole moment because :
(a) F is more electronegativity than oxygen
(b) Be is more electronegativity than oxygen
(c) H 2O molecule is linear and BeF2 is bent
(d) BeF2 molecule is linear and H 2O is bent
196. Correct set of species with zero dipole moment is :
(i) CO 2 (ii) COCl 2 (iii)CH 2Cl 2 (iv)BCl 3
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
197. Which pair of molecules are polar species?
(a) CO 2 and H 2O (b) BF3 and PCl 3
(c) SO 2 and SCl 2 (d) CS 2 and SO 3
198. In which molecule does the chlorine atom has positive partial charge?
(a) HCl (b) BrCl (c) OCl 2 (d) SCl 2
 72 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

199. Which of the following species has polar and non-polar bonds but molecule as a whole is
non-polar ?
OH

(a) H 2S 4 O 6 (b) (SCN) 2 (c) (d) Si 2H 6

OH
: Bond Length
200. Least stable hydride is :
(a) stannane (b) silane
(c) plumbane (d) germane
201. The lowest O — O bond length in the following molecule is :
(a) O 2F2 (b) O 2 (c) H 2O 2 (d) O 3
202. Which of the following fact is directly explained by the statement ‘oxygen is a smaller atom
than sulphur’ ?
(a) H 2O boils at a much higher temperature than H 2S
(b) H 2O undergoes intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(c) H 2O is liquid and H 2S is gas at room temperature
(d) S—H bond is longer than O—H bond
203. Which of the following compound has maximum "C — C" single bond length ?
(a) CH 2CHCCH (b) HCCCCH
(c) CH 3CHCH 2 (d) CH 2CHCHCH 2

: Bond Angle
204. Which one of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle?
(a) OH 2 (b) SH 2 (c) NH 3 (d) SO 2
205. Largest bond angle is present in :
(a) BBr 3 (b) BCl 3
(c) BF3 (d) none of these
206. The correct order of H — M — H bonds angle is :
(a) NH 3 < PH 3 < SbH 3 < BiH 3 (b) AsH 3 < SbH 3 < PH 3 < NH 3
(c) NH 3 < PH 3 < BiH 3 < SbH 3 (d) BiH 3 < SbH 3 < AsH 3 < PH 3
207. The correct increasing order of adjacent bond angle among BF3 , PF3 and ClF3 :
(a) BF3 < PF3 < ClF3 (b) PF3 < BF3 < ClF3
(c) ClF3 < PF3 < BF3 (d) BF3 = PF3 = ClF3
208. Among the following species, the least angle around the central atom is in :
(a) O 3 (b) I -3 (c) NO -2 (d) PH 3
209. The bond angles of NH 3 , NH+4 and NH -2 are in the order :
(a) NH -2 > NH 3 > NH +4 (b) NH +4 > NH 3 > NH -2
(c) NH 3 > NH -2 > NH +4 (d) NH 3 > NH +4 > NH -2
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 73
210. The H—C—H bond angle in CH 4 is 109.5°, due to lone pair repulsion, the H—O—H angle in
H 2O will :
(a) remain the same (b) increase (c) decrease (d) become 180°
211. The molecule having the largest bond angle is :
(a) H 2O (b) H 2S (c) H 2Se (d) H 2Te
212. The compound MX 4 is tetrahedral. The number of Ð XMX angles in the compound is :
(a) three (b) four
(c) five (d) six
213. The "O — N$ — O" bond angle is largest in :
(a) N 2O (b) NO +2 (c) NO -2 (d) NO -3
214. Which of the following is the correct order for increasing bond angle ?
(a) NH 3 < PH 3 < AsH 3 < SbH 3 (b) H 2O < OF2 < Cl 2O
+ + + +
(c) H 3Te < H 3Se < H 3S < H 3O (d) BF3 < BCl 3 < BBr 3 < BI 3
215. Which of the following set contains species having same angle around the central atom?
(a) SF4, CH 4 , NH 3 (b) NF3 , BCl 3 , NH 3
(c) BF3 , NF3 , AlCl 3 (d) BF3 , BCl 3 , BBr 3
216. Which of the following compound has the smallest bond angle ( X — A — X ) in each series
respectively?
(A) OSF2 OSCl 2 OSBr 2
(B) SbCl 3 SbBr 3 SbI 3
(C) PI 3 AsI 3 SbI 3
(a) OSF2 , SbCl 3 and PI 3 (b) OSBr 2 , SbI 3 and PI 3
(c) OSF2 , SbI 3 and PI 3 (d) OSF2 , SbCl 3 and SbI 3
217. Compound having maximum bond angle is :
(a) BBr 3 (b) BCl 3 (c) BF3 (d) None of these

: Molecular Forces
218. Which of the following attraction is strongest ?
–
(a) Cl H—Cl (b) CHCl3 CHCl3

H2O – H2O
(c) CCl4 (d) Cl
219. Which is distilled first?
(a) Liquid H 2 (b) Liquid CO 2
(c) Liquid O 2 (d) Liquid N 2
220. The molecular size of ICl and Br 2 is approximately same, but b.p. if ICl is about 40°C higher
than that of Br 2 . It is because :
(a) ICl bond is stronger than Br—Br bond (b) IE of iodine < IE of bromine
(c) ICl is polar while Br 2 is nonpolar (d) I has larger size than Br
221. Which of the following order of molecular force of attraction among given species is incorrect?
(a) HI> HBr > Cl 2 (b) CH 3Cl > CCl 4 > CH 4
(c) n-pentane > iso-pentane > neo-pentane (d) OH 2 > O(CH 3 ) 2 > OBr 2
 74 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

222. Which gas should not be collected over water because of its high solubility in water?
(a) H 2 (b) N 2 (c) CH 4 (d) HCl
223. Low melting point is expected for a solid :
(a) Ionic solid (b) Metallic solid
(c) Molecular solid (d) Covalent solid
224. Which substance has the strongest London dispersion forces?
(a) SiH 4 (b) CH 4 (c) SnH 4 (d) GeH 4
225. Which of the following compounds has the lowest boiling point?
(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI
226. When the substances Si, KCl, CH 3OH and C 2H 6 are arranged in order of increasing melting
point, what is the correct order?
(a) Si, KCl, CH 3OH, C 2H 6 (b) CH 3OH, C 2H 6 , Si, KCl
(c) KCl, Si, C 2H 6 , CH 3OH (d) C 2H 6 , CH 3OH, KCl, Si
227. Which substance has the highest melting point?
(a) CO (b) CO 2 (c) SiO 2 (d) P4 O 10
228. The incorrect order of boiling point is :
(a) H 2O > CH 3OH (b) N(CH 3 ) 3 > NH(CH 3 ) 2
(c) H 3PO 4 > Me 3PO 4 (d) CH 3N 3 > HN 3
229. Iodine molecules are held in the solid lattice by .......................
(a) London forces (b) dipole-dipole interactions
(c) covalent bonds (d) coulombic force
230. Carbon dioxide is gas, while SiO 2 is solid because :
(a) CO 2 is a linear molecule, while SiO 2 is angular
(b) van der Waals' forces are very strong in SiO 2
(c) CO 2 is covalent, while SiO 2 is ionic
(d) Si cannot form stable bonds with O, hence Si has to form a 3D lattice
231. The structure of aluminium bromide is best represented as :
Br
120°
(a) 120° Al Br (b) [AlBr 2 ]+ [AlBr 4 ]-

Br
Br Br Br Br

(c) Al Br (d) Al Al

Br Br Br Br
232. Which of the following pair consists of only network solid ?
(a) SiO 2 , P4 O 10 (b) P4 O 10 , SO 3
(c) P4 O 10 , P4 O 6 (d) Diamond, SiO 2
233. Strong force of attraction between species is :
(a) ion-dipole attraction
(b) dipole-dipole attraction
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 75
(c) dipole-induced dipole attraction
(d) instantaneous dipole-induced dipole attraction
234. Which of the following have maximum boiling point ?
(a) CH 4 (b) CF4 (c) CCl 4 (d) CD 4
235. Low melting point is expected for a solid :
(a) ionic solid (b) metallic solid (c) molecular solid (d) covalent solid

: Hydrogen Bond
236. The correct order of boiling point is :
OH OH OH
F Cl Br

(I) (II) (III)

(a) I > II > III (b) III > II > I (c) II > I > III (d) III > I > II
237. Which of the following is not true about H 2O molecule?
(a) The molecule has m = 0
(b) The molecule can act as a base
(c) Shows abnormally high boiling point in comparison to the hydrides of other elements
of oxygen group
(d) The molecule has a bent shape
238. The boiling points at atmospheric pressure of HF , H 2S, NH 3 can be arranged in the following
order :
(a) HF > NH 3 > H 2S (b) HF > H 2S > NH 3
(c) HF < H 2S < NH 3 (d) HF < NH 3 < H 2S
239. The correct order of strength of H-bond in the following compound :
(a) H 2O > H 2O 2 > HF > H 2S (b) HF > H 2O 2 > H 2O > H 2S
(c) HF > H 2O > H 2S > H 2O 2 (d) HF > H 2O > H 2O 2 > H 2S
240. Which compound does not have electrovalent, covalent, co-ordinate as well as hydrogen
bond?
(a) [Cu(H 2O) 4 ]SO 4 × H 2O (b) [Zn(H 2O) 6 ] SO 4 × H 2O
(c) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]SO 4 × H 2O (d) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 3
241. Which statement is correct?
(a) m.p. of H 2O, NH 3 are maximum in their respective group due to intermolecular
H-bonding
(b) b.p. of CH 4 out of CH 4 , SiH 4 , GeH 4 and SnH 4 is least due to weak intermolecular
force of attraction
(c) formic acid forms dimer by H-bonding
(d) all are correct
242. Which of the following molecules are expected to exhibit intermolecular H-bonding?
(I) Acetic acid (II) o-nitrophenol
(III) m-nitrophenol (IV) o-boric acid
 76 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Select correct alternate :

(a) I, II, III (b) I, II, IV
(c) I, III, IV (d) II, III, IV
243. Which of the following compounds can form H-bonding with each other ?
(a) CH 3COOH and H 2O (b) Phenol and CH 4
(c) CHF3 and acetone (d) PH 3 and HF
244. For H 2O 2 , H 2S, H 2O and HF the correct order of decreasing extent of hydrogen bonding is :
(a) H 2O > HF > H 2O 2 > H 2S (b) H 2O > HF > H 2S > H 2O 2
(c) HF > H 2O > H 2O 2 > H 2S (d) H 2O 2 > H 2O > HF > H 2S
245. In the absence of hydrogen bonding, the boiling point of water have been :
(a) 100ºC (b) 0ºC (c) -80° C (d) 373ºC
246. In which of the following compound intermolecular hydrogen bonding is absent ?
(a) orthoboric acid (b) orthophosphoric acid
(c) orthodichloro benzene (d) None of these

: Miscellaneous
247. Which of the following is non-existent ?
(a) AlF63- (b) CoF63- (c) BF63- (d) SiF62-
248. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are same group elements, belongs to 2 nd and 3 rd period, where atomic number of ‘Y’
is half of atomic number of ‘X’. Select correct statement.
(a) XY 2 and XY 3 both are non-planar
(b) XY 2 and XY 3 both are non-polar
(c) XY 2 and XY 3 both have same number of pp-dp bond(s)
(d) XY 2 and XY 3 both have same number of pp-pp bond(s)
249. In which of the following species bond angle with respect to central atom is found to be
greater than 109°28' ?
(a) SO 2-
4 (b) BF4- (c) XeO 3 (d) (C 2H 5 ) 2 O
250. The incorrect order is :
(a) Thermal stability : HF > HCl > HBr (b) Lewis base character : NH 3 > PH 3 > PF3
(c) % p-character : NO +2 > NO -3 > NH +4 (d) Bond angle : NBr 3 > NCl 3 > NH 3
251. Which of the following species cannot form co-ordinate bond with BF3 ?
•• ••
(a) PH 3 (b) NH 3 (c) OH (d) Mg 2+
252. The incorrect order of bond dissociation energy will be :
(a) H — H > Cl — Cl > Br — Br (b) Si — Si > P — P > Cl — Cl
(c) C — C > N — N > O — O (d) H — Cl > H — Br > H — I
253. Which pair of elements can form multiple bond with itself and oxygen ?
(a) F, N (b) N, Cl (c) N, P (d) N, C
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 77

Level 2
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as assertion and reason, while
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following responses.
(A) If assertion is true but the reason is false.
(B) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(C) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(D) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
1. Assertion : Multiple bond between two bonded atoms can have more than three bonds.
Reason : Multiple bond between two bonded atoms can not have more than two
p-bonds.
2. Assertion : 2 nd period elements do not involve in excitation of electron.
Reason : 2 nd period elements do not have vacant 2d-orbitals.
3. Assertion : In SO 3 molecule bond dissociation energy of all S == O bonds are not
equivalent.
Reason : SO 3 molecule is having two types of (2 pp - 3 pp) and (2 pp - 3 dp) pi-bonds.
4. Assertion : PH +4 ion is having tetrahedron geometry.
Reason : P-atom is unhybridised in PH +4 ion.
5. Assertion :
All diatomic molecules with polar bond have dipole moment.
Reason :
Dipole moment is a vector quantity.
6. Assertion :
Water is a good solvent for ionic compounds but poor for covalent compounds.
Reason :
Hydration energy of ions releases sufficient energy to overcome lattice energy
and break hydrogen bonds in water while covalent compounds interact so
weakly that even van der Waals' forces between molecules of covalent
compounds cannot be broken.
7. Assertion : Xe -atom in XeF2 assumes sp-hybrid state.
Reason : XeF2 molecule does not follow octet rule.
8. Assertion : The atoms in a covalent molecule are said to share electrons, yet some covalent
molecules are polar.
Reason : In polar covalent molecule, the shared electrons spend more time on the
average near one of the atoms.
9. Assertion : CCl 4 is a non-polar molecule.
Reason : CCl 4 has polar bonds.
10. Assertion : Geometry of ICl 3 is tetrahedral.
Reason : Its shape is T-shape, due to the presence of two lone pairs.
 78 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

11. Assertion : The covalency of carbon is four in excited state.

Reason : The four half-filled pure orbitals of carbon form same kind of bonds with an
atom as those are with hybridised orbitals.
12. Assertion : The shape of XeF4 is square-planar.
Reason : In an octahedral geometry, a single lone pair can occupy any position but a
second lone pair will occupy the opposite position to the first lone pair.
13. Assertion : B 2 molecule is diamagnetic.
Reason : The highest occupied molecule orbital is of type. (AIIMS 2005)
14. Assertion : SeCl 4 does not have a tetrahedral structure.
Reason : Se in SeCl 4 has two lone pairs. (AIIMS 2005)
15. Assertion : C — H bond in ethyne is shorter than C — H bonds in ethene.
Reason : Carbon atom in ethane is sp hybridized while it is sp 2 in ethyne.
(AIIMS 2007)
16. Assertion : H–S–H bond angle in H 2 S is closer to 90° but H–O–H bond angle in H 2 O is
104.5°.
Reason : Lone pair-lone pair repulsion is stronger in H 2 S than in H 2 O. (AIIMS 2007)
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 79

ANSWERS
Level 1
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)

11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)

21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b)

31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (c)

41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (c)

51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (a)

61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (c)

71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (c)

81. (b) 82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (d) 85. (c) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (c)

91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (c) 100. (b)

101. (c) 102. (c) 103. (d) 104. (b) 105. (b) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (d) 109. (d) 110. (a)

111. (c) 112. (d) 113. (a) 114. (c) 115. (c) 116. (c) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (b) 120. (a)

121. (b) 122. (a) 123. (a) 124. (c) 125. (a) 126. (a) 127. (d) 128. (d) 129. (b) 130. (d)

131. (c) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (a) 137. (d) 138. (d) 139. (c) 140. (d)

141. (b) 142. (c) 143. (d) 144. (a) 145. (b) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (a)

151. (c) 152. (c) 153. (c) 154. (c) 155. (d) 156. (b) 157. (a) 158. (c) 159. (c) 160. (a)

161. (b) 162. (d) 163. (a) 164. (d) 165. (b) 166. (b) 167. (c) 168. (b) 169. (c) 170. (a)

171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (b) 174. (b) 175. (a) 176. (a) 177. (b) 178. (c) 179. (c) 180. (c)

181. (d) 182. (b) 183. (b) 184. (b) 185. (b) 186. (b) 187. (d) 188. (b) 189. (b) 190. (c)

191. (a) 192. (c) 193. (b) 194. (c) 195. (d) 196. (a) 197. (c) 198. (c) 199. (d) 200. (c)
 80 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

201. (d) 202. (d) 203. (c) 204. (b) 205. (d) 206. (d) 207. (c) 208. (d) 209. (b) 210. (c)

211. (a) 212. (d) 213. (b) 214. (c) 215. (d) 216. (d) 217. (d) 218. (d) 219. (a) 220. (c)

221. (d) 222. (d) 223. (c) 224. (c) 225. (b) 226. (d) 227. (c) 228. (d) 229. (a) 230. (d)

231. (d) 232. (d) 233. (a) 234. (c) 235. (c) 236. (b) 237. (a) 238. (a) 239. (b) 240. (d)

241. (d) 242. (c) 243. (a) 244. (d) 245. (c) 246. (c) 247. (c) 248. (d) 249. (d) 250. (c)

251. (d) 252. (b) 253. (d)

Level 2
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (B)

11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A)
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 81

Hints and Solutions

: Level 1
du ö
4. (c) æç ÷ =0
è dr ø eq.
Fa = Fr
7. (a) ONCN (Nitrosyl cyanide)
:

:O==N—CººN:
Structure with least formal charge will be more stable.
:

: O :(–1)
8. (c) NOs
: :

: :

3 :O—N==O
(–1) (+1) (0)
9. (b) CO 2 can be represented as.
: :: :

(a) :O—CººO :
: :: :

(b) O==N==O :

(c) : OººC—O :

All are correct.

11. (a) BCl 3 and AlCl 3 are hypovalent compound.
12. (a) Cl 2O 17 + 16 = 33 electrons
13. (c) Hypovalent term is used for covalent molecular species, \ AlF3 is not hypovalent because it is ionic,
SiCl 4 is not hypovalent because its C.A having 8 electron, SF4 is not hypovalent because its C.A having
10 electron. AlCl 3 is hypovalent having 6 electron at C.A and it is covalent compound.
14. (b) In ClO -4, no. of e- at Cl atom = 7 + 7 = 14e- . In SO 2- -
4 , No. of e at ‘S’ atom = 6 + 6 = 12e
-

-
These are more than 8e , therefore hypervalent.
+3 +3
15. (a) Orthophosphorous acid H 3PO 3 Pyrophosphorous acid H 4P2O 5
+4 +5
hypophosphoric acid H 4P2O 6 Pyrophosphoric acid H 4P2O7
16. (b) AlCl 3 , BCl 3 ® Hypovalent
ICl 3 ® Hypervalent
 82 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Cl Cl Cl

B Al I—Cl P
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
17. (b) (a) BO 33- , CO 23- , NO 3- Þ All have 32 electrons in them
(b) SO 23- , CO 23- , NO -3 Þ SO 2- 2- -
3 have 42 electrons in them while CO 3 , NO 3 have 32 electrons in them
(c) CN - , N 2, C 22- Þ All have 14 electrons in them
(d) PO 34- , SO 24- , ClO -4 Þ All have 50 electrons in them
18. (b) AlF3 is an ionic compound and Al 3+ and F - both ions have complete octet.
19. (b) CO 2 represented as (i) and (ii) not represented as (iii) because at ‘O’ atom number of electron > 8
which is not possible for correct Lewis dot structure.
.. .. .. ..
(i) : O
. . — C ºº O : (ii) : O ºº C — O
.. : (iii) O
. . == C == O
.. :

22. (b) A 2+ + BC 43- Þ A3( BC 4 )2

23. (d) Among non-metals given, O-atom has high electron affinity and strong ionic bond is formed between Al
and O-atom.
28. (a) Pb 2+ < Sn 2+ correct order because of inert pair effect.
29. (a) CsI3 contain Cs + and I-3 ions Cs is alkali metal, \ Can bear +1 O.S.
30. (b) According to inert pair effect the correct order of stability of cation is Ge 4+ > Sn 4+ > Pb 4+ .
31. (a) Due to inert pair effect lower oxidation state of Tl, Pb, Bi is more stable.
32. (a) On moving down the group from top to bottom lower oxidation state gradually becomes stable.
Hence As 3+ > Sb 3+ is incorrect order of stability of cation.
q+ × q-
35. (c) LE µ + -
r +r
(a) AlF3 > MgF2 [Charge on cation]
(b) Li 3N > Li 2O [Charge on anion]
(c) NaCl > LiF [Size of cation and anion]
(d) TiC > ScN [Charge on cation and anion]
Charge of cation ´ charge of anion
36. (c) Lattice energy µ
Interionic distance
37. (b) Order of lattice energy
NaBr < NaCl < BaO < CaO
|Q +||Q -1|
Q Lattice energy µ
r+ + r-
38. (d) Lattice energy released in case of MgO is maximum giving highest contribution to ionic nature or ionic
bond.
42. (c) Correct order of Lewis acidic character : PF5 > SiF4 > SF6. Although, S has vaccant 3d-orbitals but it
cannot accept co-ordinate bond from Lewis base due to steric crowding factor as S-atom is already
bonded to six F-atoms.
1 q1q2
43. (c) F =
4pe 0 r 2
E­, solubility ­
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 83
44. (c) Melting point of Ionic compound µ Lattice Energy
M.P. ® MgO
45. (c) Formation of O 2- , N 3- , S2- is a endothermic process so there value of electron gain enthalpy is
positive. Thus DH f is negative only due to lattice energy.
46. (b) ZrO 2 MgF2 CaF2
+4, 2 ( -2 ) +2, 2 ( -1) +2, 2 ( -1)
= 4´4 = 2 ´2 = 2 ´2
= 16 =4 =4
Compare by size
\ ZrO 2 > MgF2 > CaF2
Charge of cation ´ charge of anion
47. (c) Lattice Energy µ
Inter ionic distance
48. (c) Formation of oxide, nitride and sulphide (S2- ) is endothermic process while formation of flouride (F - ) is
exothermic process.
54. (d) In SiCl 4 difference between electronegativity of Si (1.8) and chlorine (3.0) is higher than in other given
compounds.
55. (c) More effective axial and sideways overlapping between atomic orbitals of carbon and those of oxygen
atom is higher due to smaller size of oxygen atom. Oxygen is more electronegative than oxygen atom,
due to these factors CO has highest bond energy.
56. (d)
O
F
(a) Cl (14e- , hypervalent), (b) B — F (6e- , hypovalent)
O O F
O
O
O
C
(c) S -
(d) O O (8e- )
O O (12e , hypervalent)
O
F
F
57. (d) In S molecule central S-atom is surrounded by 10 valence electrons and it is hypervalent
F compound.
F
58. (d) Due to presence of vacant d-orbital excitation occurs in Cl-atom and it can have more than eight
valence electrons when it is forming hypervalent compound like HClO 4.
59. (a) Bond polarity is directly related to difference of electronegativity of bonded atoms.
60. (a) The set of compounds BCl 3 , SiCl 4 , PCl 3 are predominatly covalent compounds. NH 4Br and NaI ionic
compounds and Al contains metallic lattice.
61. (b) Maximum covalency of oxygen atom is three, hence OF4 does not exist.
O–
62. (d) CO 2-
3 O==C
O–
68. (b) Due to inter electronic repulation between lone pairs on both oxygen atoms bond energy of O—O bond
is less.
 84 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

69. (b) SiO 2, diamond ® due to polymeric structure.

70. (c) BCl 3 Þ 6 electrons
H O Polar
H sp3 sp2 sp2 H H H
71. (b) H—C—C== C H—C—C—O—H O== O+—O– O—O
H H H H
Polar Non-polar Polar Polar Non-polar Polar Non-polar
Polar Polar
Polar Polar
72. (d) CF4 (non-planar) SF4 (non-planar)
COCl 2 (polar) SOCl 2 (polar)
CO 2 (planar) SO 2 (planar)
CO 2-
3 (non-polar) SO 2-
3 (polar)
73. (c)
Þ

2s2 2p 2s
2 vacant
orbital
Þ

2s2 2p1 2s
1 vacant
orbital

3s2 3p 3d 4s 3p
6 vacant
orbitals

3s2 3p2 3d 4s 3p 3d
5 vacant
orbitals
76. (d) Incorrect overlaps (if internulcear axis = Z) :
(B) 2 px + 2 px Þ p-bond; (C) 3 dxy + 3 dxy Þ d-bond; (D) 2 s + 2 p y Þ No bond formation.

O
78. (a) H C C H Number of s-bonds = 14
H C H H C H
H H H H
x
p-bond

z
80. (c) dxz + px ¾®

dxy px
\ Molecular axis is z-axis.
z axis
dxy + dxy ¾ ¾¾ ® form d-bond
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 85
81. (b) Correct order 21p4444
- 2 p > 2s 2
- 24444
p > 2 s - 2 s3> 3 s - 3 s
In same shell more the directional
character more will be strength of s-bond

x -axis
82. (d) dx 2 - y 2 + dx 2 - y 2 ¾ ¾¾ ® s-bond

83. (b) dx 2 - y 2 + p y (side wise overlap) ® Non-bonding.

84. (d) Two different non-axial d-orbitals will lie in planes perpendicular to each other hence, such d-orbital
will not form p-bond.
2
85. (c) C: 2s2 2p
2s2 2p2
C( Ing rounds tate)
2p

C( Ine xciteds tate)

2s 2p
In the unhybridized state of carbon, 2 p orbitals are 90° to one another and each one will overlap with 1s
orbital of three hydrogen atoms, thus three C—H bonds are formed which are 90° to one another. For
the fourth hydrogen atom, its 1s orbital may overlap with non-directional 2s orbital of the carbon and
this s-bond will be stronger than sC—H bonds formed by 2 p —1s overlap. In such situation CH 4
molecule can never has tetrahedral geometry.
89. (b) dz 2 can form neither p nor d-bond but it can form s-bond.

90. (c) Cl:

G.S. 3s2 3p5

E.S.1:

Firstexcitation Covalency=3
91. (c) p-bond INA
py + dxz ¾® 7
py + dx 2 - y 2 ¾® 7
py + dxy ¾® 3 along x-axis
py + pz ¾® 7

+ +
92. (b) + Þ p-bond
– –

py py
Inter nuclear axis ¾® x / z
Inter nuclear axis ® x
dxy + dxy ¾ ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ¾® s-bond.
93. (b) In phosphorous 3pp-3pp overlapping is ineffective.
94. (b) dx 2 - y 2 is axial d-orbital, it always form s-bond.

95. (c) Covalent bond is directional in nature.

 86 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

O
96. (c) S
O O
Hybridization of ‘S’ atom = sp 2
\ Number of pp-pp bond = 1
\ Number of dp-pp bond = 2
y y
++ p
+ –
97. (c)
x – +
x
– – p

py dxy
98. (c) dxy , dyz , dzx can form d-bond
dx 2 - y 2 can form d-bond
but, dz 2 can not form d-bond
99. (c) (SO 3 )3 O O
S — S bonds = 0
S
S — O — S bonds = 3 O O
s-bonds = 12 O O
p-bonds = 6 S S
O O O
O O
100. (b) O Cr Cr O
O
–1O O–1
\ Identical bonds are = 6

101. (c)
s
p

\ s > p in bond strength

102. (c) VBT cannot explain paramagnetic nature of oxygen.
103. (d) In BF3, SO 2, SO 3 molecule all contains pp-pp bond.
1
104. (b) Bond strength µ µ Directional Property ; s > d > p
Size
2 pz - 2 pz > 2 s - 2 s 3 dxy - 3 dxy 3 dxz - 2 px
> >
s Bond d p
( Directional property)

105. (b)
2s 2px 2py 2pz
N:

p p s

N:
2s 2px 2py 2pz
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 87
106. (d) If x is internuclear axis then
p y + dx 2 - y 2 : Non-bonding
s + pz : Non- bonding
dz 2 + dz 2 : Non-bonding
107. (c)
I(CN)2–
N

C PO43– SO42– ClO2+

I– O
O O
C P S Cl+
sO Os sO Os
O O
N Os
No. of pp-dp bonds = 0 No. of pp-dp bonds = 1 No. of pp-dp bonds = 2 No. of pp-dp bonds = 1

r
F Cl H
O Cl F F
108. (d) Xe P Cl As Xe
O Cl H H F F
F Cl H

Maximum atoms that ® 3 4 3 5

can lie in a plane
··
119. (b) In N H 3 central atom is nitrogen which is sp 3 hybridized hence, it will be at the centre of tetrahedron
with H-atoms at three vertices.
120. (a) In trigonal by pyramidal geometry lone pair electrons cannot occupy axial positions.
121. (b) (ii) (F) In general as the number of lone pair of electrons on central atom increases, value of bond
angle from normal bond angle decreases due to lp - lp > lp - bp
(iv) (F) Structures of xenon fluorides and xenon oxy fluoride are explained on the basis of VSEPR theory.
In SOBr2, S—O bond has maximum bond length in comparison to S—O bond lengths in SOF2 and
SOCl 2, because in SOBr2, S—O bond has been formed by hybrid orbital containing less s-character.
122. (a)
O
sp3 3
(a) (Trigonal planar) (b) C sp (Trigonalplanar)
C O O
O O O
F
3 sp3
(c) Cl sp (Trigonal pyramidal) (d) B (Tetrahedral)
O O F F
O F
 88 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Br

I 1
123. (a) IBr : X = 2 + [7 - 2 + 1] = (2s-bonds + 3 lone pairs) sp 3-hybridisation, Shape ® Linear
2
Br
F
1
124. (c) ClF3 F Cl X =3+ [7 - 3] = (3s-bonds + 2 lone pairs) (sp 3d-hybridisation)
2
F
Shape ® Bent - T - shape
125. (a) NH 3 -® Trigonal pyramidal
(a) SO 2-
3 -® Trigonal pyramidal (b) CO 2-
3 -® Trigonal planar
(c) NO -3 -® Trigonal planar (d) SO 3 -® Trigonal planar

H
C
126. (a) C H H
H H H
(sp 3 -hybrid) (sp 3 -hybridised)
(Trigonal planar) (Trigonal pyramidal)

127. (d)
–
(a) O—CººN Bond pairs = 4, Lone pairs = 4
O
(b) Bond pairs = 2, Lone pairs = 2
H H

H Cl
(c) C==C Bond pairs = 6 Lone pairs = 6
H Cl

(d) O==O ® O Bond pairs = 3 Lone pairs = 6

I
+
128. (d) I I I–

I I
Hyb. : sp 3 Hyb. : sp 3d
mD ¹ 0 mD = 0
Planar Planar
129. (b) (a) Pentagonal planar ® sp 3d3[ s + px + p y + pz + dx 2 - y 2 + dz 2 + dxy ]
(b) Trigonal planar ® sp 2[ s + Any two p]
(c) Linear ® sp 2[ s + any one p]
® sp 2[ s + any two p]
® sp 3[ s + px + p y + pz ]
® sp 3d[ s + px + p y + pz + dz 2 ]
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 89
(d) Square planar ® sp 3d2[ s + px + p y + pz + dx 2 - y 2 + dz 2 ]
134. (b) BF3 sp 2 Trigonal planar
3
BrF3 sp d Bent ‘ T’ shape
ICl Q
2 sp 3d Linear
BeCl 2 sp Linear
BCl 3 sp 2 Trigonal planar
PCl 3 sp 3 Pyramidal
NCl 3 sp 3 Pyramidal

135. (d)
O

Cl P
(a) B.O. of Cl—O = 1.67 (b) B.O. of P—O = 1.25
O O O O
O O
O

S Xe
(c) B.O. of S—O = 1.5 (d) B.O. of Xe—O = 2.0
O O
O O O
O
Bond order of O — O in O 2 = 2.0
136. (a) N — N bond length is minimum in N 2O.
137. (d) O — O single bond have lowest bond energy due to lp-lp repulsion due to small size of oxygen.
138. (d)

s lp Hybridization Geometry
2
AB 3 3 0 sp Trigonal planar Planar Non-polar
3
AB 3E 3 1 sp Pyramidal Non-planar Polar
AB 3E 2 3 2 sp 3d T-shape Planar Polar

139. (c) Planar/Non-planar Shared e- Unshared e-

XeF2 Planar 2 6
XeO 3 Non-planar 6 2
XeF4 Planar 4 4
XeO 2F2 Non-planar 6 2
140. (d)

Cl F F
s
(a) O (1 l.p.) (b) Xe (2 l.p.)
O F F
O

(c) : N ºº N : ® O (0 l. p. ) (d) [I — I — I] (3 l.p.)

 90 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

··
146. (b) N H 3 + H+ ¾® NH +4
sp3 sp3

2NH 3
sp 3 º NH + NH
sp 3
–
2
sp
+
4
3

H 3BO 3 + OH ¾® [B(OH)4 ]–
-

sp2 sp3

H 2O + H +
sp 3 ºH O sp
3
3
+

2
153. (c) By sp -hybridisation.
Hybridisation orbital = 3 [3s-bonds], Unhydrised orbital = 1 [1p-bond]
H H O

154. (c) H N C
1
C
2
O H

H
(sp3) (sp2)

155. (d) sp3-Hybridisation

O
H H
H

Cl Cl sp3d2
159. (c) Is
Cl Cl dx2–y2 dz2

160. (a) BrF3 + F - ¾® BrF4-

( Bent-T shape) ( Square planar )

Bond angle < 90 ° Bond angle = 90 °

161. (b) 3d, 4d can not participate in hybridisation because more energy difference.
3s, 3p and 4s can not participate in hybridisation because more energy difference.
O
162. (d) N sp2 –O —N sp2
O O O

2 r
–O — N == O sp O == N == O sp
163. (a)

XeO 3 XeOF4 XeO 2F2 XeO 4-

6

Hybridization sp 3 sp 3d2 sp 3d sp 3d2

pp-dp 3 1 2 2
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 91
164. (d)
– + –
IF6 XeO2F2 NO2 XeF5
F F
F F O + F F
Is Xe O == N ==O Xe–
F F O
F F F F
sp3d3 sp3d sp3d3
Capped octahedral See saw sp (doesn’t used of pentagonal
non-planar non-planar orbital in hybridisation) planar
linear planar

s r
F H
N F
B F B N
165. (b) (a) F F F (b) F F H H
F
Pyramidal Trigonal planar
F H
Tetrahedron Tetrahedral

Cl
Cl N s
B Cl B Cl O
(c) (d) H H N O
Cl H O
Trigonalplanar Cl Pyramidal Trigonal planar
Bent-T-Shape

NººC CººN
168. (b) C C
NººC CººN
s-bonds = 9 ; p-bonds = 9

p p

H H

171. (d) C C C

H H

179. (c) XeF3+ hybridisation of Xe : sp 3d

F

Xe—F Shape : Bent T

F
180. (c) In XeFn, possible value of n is 2, 4, 6, 8, then compound should be XeF2 (linear), XeF4 (square planar),
XeF6 (capped octahedral). So in this case trigonal planar molecule does not possible.
 92 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

181. (d)

Ge
(a) [Cl — I — Cl] (b) H—CC—H (c) F—Xe—F (d)
Linear Cl Cl
Bentshape
Linear Linear

182. (b) CS2 S C S

Total lone pairs = 4 Total double bond = 2
All the atoms have complete octet Sulphur is the central atom.
F
|
183. (b)[XeF3+ ]: Xe—F Bent-T-shape (sp 3d-hybridisation)
|
F

F F
[XeF5+ ]: Xe Square pyramidal (sp 3d2-hybridisation)
F | F
F
184. (b) (a) ClO -3 B.O. = 1.66
(b) ClO 3 B.O. = 2 (max.)
(c) ClO 2 B.O. = 1.75
(d) ClO -2 B.O. = 1.5
–
F F
185. (b) (a) XeF5- Xe F Number of atoms in XY-plane =6
F F

F
F F
S
(b) SF6 F F Number of atoms in XY-plane = 5

F
F F
I F
(c) IF7 F F Number of atoms in XY-plane = 5

F
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 93

Cl H
187. (d) C C C C
H Cl

hence, m = 0
188. (b) XeF6 ¾® [ XeF5]+ [F - ] Shape of [ XeF5]+ is square pyramidal and also TeF5- have square pyramidal
shape.
189. (b)
H P H O

Si P* As

H H P P H H –O O–

H P H O–
+
SiH4 P4 PH4 AsO4–3
194. (c)
O F F
F F F
(a) Xe (b) S (c) Xe (d) C
F F F F F
O O
O F F

Non-polar Polar Non-polar Non-polar

Non-planar Non-planar Planar Non-planar

O F Be F
195. (d) H H 180°

Cl

196. (a) O C O is linear and B is trigonal planar hence net polarity of both
Cl Cl
molecules is zero.
197. (c) The net polarity of angular molecules SO 2 and SCl 2 is not equal to zero.
198. (c)
d+ d– d+ d–
(a) H — Cl [ EN(Cl) > EN(H)] (b) Br— Cl [ EN(Cl) > EN(Br)]

O S
(c) Cl Cl [ EN(O) > EN(Cl)] (d) Cl Cl [ EN(S) < EN(Cl)]
 94 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

199. (d)
H
<180° O

O CºN H
O S
H d+5 H
d+5 S S—O Si
O—S S S H
H NºC Si
O H
O H
O H
H
mD ¹ 0 mD ¹ 0 mD ¹ 0 mD ¹ 0

200. (c) Stability order of carbon family hydride Silane > German > Stannane > Plumbane
202. (d) As size of sulphur is higher than that of oxygen atom, hence bond length of S—H bond is higher than
that of O—H bond.
203. (c)
* * * *
(a) CH 2 == CH— C ºº CH (b) HC ºº C— C ºº CH
3 sp sp sp
sp
* * * *
(c) H 2 C — C H == CH 2 (d) H 2C == C H — C H == CH 2
3 2 2
sp sp sp sp2
– +
213. (b) (a) N = N = O (There is no O — N$ — O bond angle)
O

(b) O N O (c)
N (d)
N
180° O <120° O O 120° O
214. (c) Correct order of bond angle:
(a) NH 3 < PH 3 < AsH 3 < SbH 3 (As E.N. value of C.A. ­ bond angle¯)
(b) OF2 < OH 2 < OCl 2
(c) H 3Te + < H 3Se + < H 3S+ < H 3O +
(d) BF3 = BCl 3 = BBr3 = BI3
216. (d) Order of decreasing bond angle.

S S S
(a) On the basis of electronegativity of halogens
O Br O Cl O F
Br Cl F

Sb Sb Sb
(b) On the basis of electronegativity of halogens
I I Br Br Cl Cl
I Br Cl

P As Sb
(c)
I I I I I I
I I I
Involvement of s-orbital in hybridisation decreases downward in a group
217. (d) In BBr3, BCl 3 and BF3 no l.p present and all hybrid orbitals are equivalent hybrid orbital.
\ Bond angle remain same because same hybridisation.
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 95
218. (d) Strength of molecular forces :
Ion-dipole > dipole-dipole > ion-induced dipole>dipole-induced dipole > London forces.
221. (d) Correct order of molecular force : H 2O > O Br2 > O(C H 3 )2
123 14243
H-bonds Dipole-dipole
µ molecular mass

222. (d) HCl is highly soluble in water because it ionise in water and form ion-dipole interaction with water.
223. (c) Among given solid, molecular solid is weak, hence, it has low melting point.
224. (c) London dispersion force µ molecular mass of covalent molecule.
225. (b) HCl has least boiling point among all halogen acids because it contains V.W. force never contains
H-bond HCl
144 < HBr
244 < HI 23.
3 < 1HF
V.W. force H-bond

226. (d) C 2H 6 < CH 3 — OH < KCl < Si

(Molecular lattice) (Molecular lattice) (Ionic lattice) (Covalent lattice)
(with H-bonding)

227. (c) CO, CO 2 and P2O 5 are covalent compounds having their molecular lattice. But SiO 2 is a covalent
compound having 3-dimensional network structure and it has covalent lattice, so M.P. of SiO 2 is
maximum.
228. (d) Correct order of B.P.
CH 3N 3 < HN 3
Among CH 3N 3 there are dipole-dipole interaction while among HN 3 intermolecular H-bonding occurs.

229. (a) I—I I—I

London forces between two I2 molecules in solid lattice.

231. (d) AlBr3 become more stable by forming bridge bonding it do not form back bond.
\ AlBr3 form Al 2Br6 dimer.
232. (d) Diamond and SiO 2 both contain network solid structure.
233. (a) Strength of weak forces
ion-dipole > dipole-dipole > dipole-induced dipole > instantaneous dipole-induced dipole attraction.
234. (c) All molecules are non-polar
Boiling point µ van der Waals forces µ molecular size.
235. (c) Among given solid, molecular solid is weak, hence it has low melting point.
239. (b) Strength of H-bonding is higher in H 2O, than H 2O 2 because the amount of formal negative charge on
oxygen atom in case of water is more than that of H 2O 2.
H
d– O Od– –
H H
Od–
H
243. (a)
O
|| d+ d-
(a) CH 3 — C — O — H . . . . . . O — H (b), (c), (d) ® No scope of hydrogen bonding
|
H
244. (d) Extent of H-bonding µ No. of H-bond
 96 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

no. of H-bonds.
H 2O 2 ¾® 6
H 2O ¾® 4
HF ¾® 1
H 2S ¾® No. of H-bond
\ H 2O 2 > H 2O > HF > H 2S

245. (c) Forces of attraction are minimum at –80°C thus water is most volatile at this temperature.
246. (c) (a) H 3BO 3 ¾® Intermolecular H-bonding
(b) H 3PO 4 ¾® Intermolecular H-bonding
Cl
Cl
(c) ¾® No H-Bonding.

247. (c) BF63- do not exist due to absence of d-orbitals in case of boron.
248. (d) X = Sulphur, Y = Oxygen
XY2 = SO 2 XY3 = SO 3
SO 2 Planar Polar pp-pp (1) dp-pp (1)
SO 2 Planar Non-polar pp-pp(1) dp-pp (2)
O

249. (d) (a) S Hyb. of S : sp 3 ; B. A . = 109 °28'

O–
–O
O
–
F

B
(b) F Hyb. of B : sp 3 ; B. A . = 109 °28'
F
F

(c) Xe O Hyb. of Xe : sp 3 ; B. A . < 109 °28'

O
O
O
(d) C2H5 C2H5 Hyb. of O : sp 3 ; B. A . > 109 °28'

[Repulsion between surrounding large sized Alkyl group]

250. (c) HF > HCl > HBr As bond length ­
B.D.E. ¯ T.S. ¯
Chemical Bonding (Elementary) 97
NO +2 < NO 3- < NH +4
2 3
Þ ¾ (¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
sp) ( sp ) ( sp )
¾®
% p-character ­

251. (d) H 3P : ¾® BF3

H 3N : ¾® BF3
H O : ¾® BF3
••
Mg 2+ cannot form co-ordinate bond with BF3.
252. (b) C — C > S — S > Si — Si > P — P
N — N > O — O order of bond dissociation energy.
253. (d) ‘N’ can form multiple bond with itself and can form multiple bond with oxygen and ‘C’ also can form
multiple bond with itself and can form multiple bond with oxygen.

: Level 2

F F
12. (C) Xe Hybridisation of Xe : sp 3d2, shape: square planar

F F

13. (A) The total number of electrons in B 2 = 10

* *
B 2 = s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2, s 2 s 2, p2 px2 » p2 p1y
It has two unpaired electrons.
\ It is paramagnetic and the highest occupied molecular orbital is of p type.
14. (A) SeCl 4 has see-saw geometry, i. e. , distorted trigonal pyramidal geometry (VSEPR theory). In this,
molecule has only one lone pair and hence, it undergoes sp 3d hybridization.
Cl
Cl
Se
Cl Cl
2
15. (D) The carbon atom is sp hybridised in ethane and sp hybridized in ethyne.
sp2 sp2 sp sp
H — C == C — H H — C ºº C — H
| |
H H
16. (A) Lone pair-bond pair repulsion, is strong in H 2S as bond pair-bond pair repulsion becomes weak with
increase in size of central atom.
 98 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

3
CHEMICAL BONDING (ADVANCED)

Level 1
: Introductory Question
1. On decreasing internuclear distance below the optimum distance (where potential energy is
minimum), there is steep increase in potential energy due to :
(a) Increase in force of attraction between electrons and nucleus
(b) Increase in stability of bonded atoms
(c) Equal probability of finding bonding electrons near to either of nuclei
(d) Increase in interelectronic and internuclear repulsions

: Lewis Acid-Base
2. Which of the following halide is inert towards hydrolysis at room temperature?
(a) SiCl 4 (b) PCl 3
(c) NCl 3 (d) NF3
3. Amongst the following trihalides, which one is least basic?
(a) NF3 (b) NCl 3 (c) NBr 3 (d) NI 3
4. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) PH 3 is more basic than NH 3 (b) PH 3 is less basic than NH 3
(c) PH 3 is equally basic as NH 3 (d) PH 3 is amphoteric while NH 3 is basic
5. Which of the following molecule can act as lewis acid as well as lewis base ?
(a) CO 2 (b) SO 2 (c) SO 3 (d) NH 3
6. Lewis acid-base interaction does not occur at room temperature in :
(a) Al(OH) 3 + KOH (b) CO 2 + H 2O (c) I 2 + I - (d) NH 3 + CCl 4
7. Which of the following is Lewis acid-Lewis base interaction ?
(i) B(CH 3 ) 3 and N(CH 3 ) 3 form addition compound
(ii) H 3BO 3 and C 2H 5OH form addition compound
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 99
(iii) Ammonium ion is formed by protonation of ammonia molecule
(iv) BF3 and NH 3 form addition compound
(a) Only (ii), (iii) are correct (b) Only (iv) is correct
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct (d) All are correct
8. Incorrect order of Lewis acidic character is :
(a) AlCl 3 > AlBr 3 > AlI 3 (b) PCl 5 > SiCl 4 > AlCl 3
(c) SF6 > SF4 > CCl 4 (d) SiF4 > SiCl 4 > SiBr 4
9. Which of the following molecule is not hydrolysed by its reaction with water ?
(a) PCl 3 (b) NCl 3 (c) ClF5 (d) CO 2
10. In protonation of H 2O change is observed in :
(a) hybridisation state of oxygen atom (b) shape of molecule
(c) hybridisation and shape both (d) none of these
11. Among the following trihalide which one is least basic ?
(a) NF3 (b) NCl 3 (c) NBr 3 (d) NI 3
12. Acidic character of liquid HF increases on addition of which of the following compound ?
(a) SiF4 (b) SF6
(c) BF3 (d) (a) and (c) both
13. The correct order of increasing extent of hydrolysis is :
(a) CCl 4 < MgCl 2 < AlCl 3 < SiCl 4 < PCl 5
(b) CCl 4 < AlCl 3 < MgCl 2 < PCl 5 < SiCl 4
(c) CCl 4 < SiCl 4 < PCl 5 < AlCl 3 < MgCl 2
(d) CCl 4 < PCl 5 < SiCl 4 < AlCl 3 < MgCl 2
14. Inorganic benzene reacts with HCl to form a compound B 3N 3H 9 Cl 3 . The protonation occurs
at :
(a) B-atom
(b) N-atom
(c) First at B-atom then rearranges into N-atom
(d) First at N-atom then rearranges into B-atom
15. Select correct statement about hydrolysis of BCl 3 and NCl 3 :
(a) NCl 3 is hydrolysed and gives HOCl but BCl 3 is not hydrolysed
(b) Both NCl 3 and BCl 3 on hydrolysis gives HCl
(c) NCl 3 on hydrolysis gives HOCl but BCl 3 gives HCl
(d) Both NCl 3 and BCl 3 on hydrolysis gives HOCl
16. Which of the following does not act as Lewis acid ?
(a) BF3 (b) SnCl 4 (c) CCl 4 (d) SF4
17. Compare lewis acidic character of CCl 4 , CO 2 , SO 2 and SO 3 :
(a) SO 3 > CCl 4 > CO 2 > SO 2 (b) SO 3 > SO 2 > CO 2 > CCl 4
(c) CCl 4 > SO 3 > SO 2 > CO 2 (d) SO 3 > CCl 4 > SO 2 > CO 2
18. Which of the following species do not behave as Lewis acid ?
(a) PCl 5 (b) SF4 (c) XeF2 (d) IF7
 100 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

19. B 3N 3H 6 + Solution of hydrochloric acid ¾® ?

Select correct statement for above reaction :
(a) No reaction
(b) B 3N 3H 6 shows substitution reaction and produces B 3N 3Cl 6
(c) B 3N 3H 6 shows addition reaction and produces B 3N 3H 9 Cl 3 in which Cl is bonded to boron
(d) B 3N 3H 6 shows addition reaction and produces B 3N 3H 9 Cl 3 in which Cl is bonded to
nitrogen
20. Incorrect order is :
(a) Lewis basic character : NH -2 > NH 3 > NF3
(b) Lewis acidic character NO 2+ > CO 2
(c) Lewis basic character : PH 3 > PF3
(d) Lewis acidic : SO 2 > SO 3

: Resonance
21. The correct order of ‘S—O’ bond length is :
(a) SO 23- > SO 24- > SO 3 > SO 2 (b) SO 23- > SO 24- > SO 2 > SO 3
(c) SO 24- > SO 23- > SO 2 > SO 3 (d) SO 24- > SO 23- > SO 3 > SO 2
22. What is not true about resonance?
(a) The resonating structures are hypothetical
(b) The unpaired electrons in various resonating structures are same
(c) Hybrid structure is most energetic
(d) Hybrid structure is least energetic
23. Which of the following conditions is not correct for resonating structures?
(a) The contributing structures must have the same number of unpaired electrons
(b) The contributing structures should have almost similar energies
(c) The contributing structures should be so written that unlike charges reside on atoms that
are far apart
(d) The positive charge should be present on the electropositive element and the negative
charge on the electronegative element
24. A molecule may be represented by three structures having energies E 1 , E 2 and E 3 ,
respectively. The energies of these structures follow the order E 3 < E 2 < E 1 , respectively. If the
experimental bond energy of the molecule is E 0 , the resonance energy is :
(a) ( E 1 + E 2 + E 3 ) - E 0 (b) E 0 - E 3
(c) E 0 - E 1 (d) E 0 - E 2
25. The correct order of increasing C—O bond strength of CO, CO 23- , CO 2 is :
(a) CO 23- < CO 2 < CO (b) CO 2 < CO 2-
3 < CO
(c) CO < CO 2-
3 < CO 2 (d) CO < CO 2 < CO 2-
3
26. Resonance structures can be written for :
(a) O 3 (b) NH 3
(c) CH 4 (d) H 2O
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 101
27. The correct order of Cl — O bond order is :
(a) ClO 3- < ClO 4- < ClO 2- < ClO - (b) ClO - < ClO 4- < ClO 3- < ClO -2
(c) ClO - < ClO 2- < ClO 3- < ClO -4 (d) ClO -4 < ClO -3 < ClO -2 < ClO -
28. How many resonance forms can be written for the nitrate ion, (NO -3 )?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

: Hybridisation
29. Two hybrid orbitals have a bond angle of 120°. The percentage of s-character in the hybrid
orbital is nearly:
(a) 25% (b) 33% (c) 50% (d) 66%
30. The state of hybridisation of central atom in dimer of BH 3 and BeH 2 is :
(a) sp 2 , sp 2 (b) sp 3 , sp 2 (c) sp 3 , sp 3 (d) sp 2 , sp 3
31. In NO 2 molecule N atom undergoes in :
(a) sp 3 hybridization (b) sp 2 hybridization
(c) sp hybridization (d) sp 2 d hybridization
32. Consider the following reaction :
MX 4 + X ¢2 ¾® MX 4 X ¢2
If atomic number of M is 52, X and X ¢ are halogens and X ¢ is more electronegative than X, then
choose correct statement regarding given information:
(a) Both X ¢ atoms occupy axial positions which are formed by overlapping of p and d-orbitals
only
(b) All M — X bond lengths are identical in both MX 4 and MX 4 X ¢2 compounds
(c) Central atom ‘ M ’ does not use anyone valence non-axial set of d-orbital in hybridization of
final product
(d) Hybridization of central atom ‘ M ’ remains same in both reactant and final product.
33. Select the incorrect match :

Statement Shape Example

(a) B o n d p a i r h a s > 7 5 % HF
p-character

(b) Reduction in axial bond angle SF4

i s m o r e t h a n t h a t of i n
equatorial bond angle
(c) Two axial d-orbitals and one XeF5-
non-axial d-orbital are used in
hybridization
(d) Two p-orbitals are used in SnCl 2
hybridization
 102 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

34. In which of the following species, d-orbitals having xz and yz two nodal planes involved in
hybridization of central atom?
(a) IO 2F2- (b) ClF4- (c) IF7 (d) None of these
35. The correct order of increasing s-character (in percentage) in the hybrid orbitals of following
molecules/ions is :
(I) CO 2–
3 (II) XeF4 (III) I –3 (IV) NCl 3 (V) BeCl 2
(a) II< III< IV < I< V (b) II< IV < III< V < I
(c) III< II< I< V < IV (d) II< IV < III< I< V
–
36. The shape of MnO 4 ion and the hybridisation of Mn in MnO -4 is :
(a) tetrahedral, sp 3 (b) tetrahedral, d 3 s
(c) square planar, dsp 2 (d) square planar, sp 3
37. In C — C bond is C 2H 6 undergoes heterolytic fission, the hybridisation of two resulting carbon
atoms is/are :
(a) sp 2 both (b) sp 3 both (c) sp 2 , sp 3 (d) sp , sp 2
38. Hybridisation of the underlined atom changes when :
(a) AlH 3 changes to AlH -4 (b) H 2O changes to H 3O +
(c) NH 3 changes to NH +4 (d) All of these
39. What % of s-character is used by the carbon atom in the orbital which is directed to hydrogen
atom in CH 2F2 molecule ?
[H — C$ — H bond angle in CH 2F2 is 111.9° (cos 1119. ° = -0.3729)]
(a) 27.1% (b) 37.29% (c) 29% (d) 29.99%
40. %S character of bonding orbital of sulphur in H 2S is (bond angle H — S — H = 92° ,
cos 92° = -0.035) :
(a) 25% (b) 3.38% (c) 20% (d) 33.33%
41. In which reaction, hybridisation of underlined atom remains unchanged ?
(a) Combustion of C H 4 (b) Solidification of PCl 5 vapour
(c) SiF6 vapour is passed through liq. HF (d) A l (OH) 3 ppt. dissolves in NaOH
42. Total number of sp-hybridized atom(s) present in P(NCS) 3 :
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 10

: Molecular Geometry/Shape
43. Identify the correct sequence of increasing number of p-bonds in the structure of the following
molecules :
(I) H 2S 2O 6 (II) H 2S 2O 3 (III) H 2S 2O 5
(a) I, II and III (b) II, I and III (c) II, III and I (d) I, III and II
44. C 2H 2 is isostructural with :
(a) H 2O 2 (b) NO 2 (c) SnCl 2 (d) CO 2
45. The shapes of nitrite and nitrile respectively are :
(a) Linear and angular (b) Angular and linear
(c) Both angular (d) Both linear
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 103
46. Linear structure is expected for :
+
(I) NCO - (II) CS 2 (III) N O 2 (IV) Solid BeH 2
(a) all the four (b) (II), (III) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (III) (d) (II) and (III)
47. Among the oxides of nitrogen, N 2O, NO and NO 2 , molecules with unpaired electrons are :
(a) N 2O and NO (b) NO and NO 2
(c) N 2O and NO 2 (d) NO 2 and its dimer
48. Which of the following pair consists of only network solid ?
(a) SiO 2 ,P4 O 10 (b) P4 O 10 ,SO 3
(c) P4 O 10 ,P4 O 6 (d) Diamond,SiO 2
49. Which of the following ion does not have S—S linkage?
(a) S 2O 2-
8 (b) S 2O 2–
6 (c) S 2O 2–
5 (d) S 2O 2–
3
50. Among KO 2 , KAlO 2 , CaO 2 and NO+2 , unpaired electron is present in :
(a) NO+2 and CaO 2 (b) KO 2 and KAlO 2
(c) KO 2 only (d) CaO 2 only
51. Structure of S 2Cl 2 is analogous to :
(a) SOCl 2 (b) CO 2 (c) H 2S (d) H 2O 2
52. Number of P—H, P—O — P, P—O—H and P — O bonds in sodium dihydrogen
pyrophosphate respectively are :
(a) 1, 1, 1, 2 (b) 0, 1, 2, 2 (c) 0, 1, 2, 4 (d) 2, 0, 0, 2
53. Molecule having non-polar as well as polar bonds but the molecule as a whole is polar :
(a) S 2F2 (b) N 2O 4 (c) Si 2H 6 (d) I 2Cl 6
54. Choose the correct statement regarding SeOCl 2 molecule :
(a) It does not contain plane of symmetry
^ ^
(b) ‘ Cl — Se— Cl’ bond angle is greater than ‘ Cl — Se— O’ bond angle
(c) Lone pair has greater than 33.3% s-character
(d) Central atom used one d-orbital in bonding
55. In which species, X—O bond order is 1.5 and contains pp — dp bond(s).
(a) IO 2F2- (b) HCOO - (c) SO 2-
3 (d) XeO 2F2
56. Which of the following species has polar and non-polar bonds but molecule as a whole is
non-polar ?
(a) S 2O 2-
3 (b) (SCN) 2 (c) Be 2Cl 4 (d) Si 2H 6
·
57. The incorrect statement(s) regarding C X 3 species is :
(a) If electronegativity of surrounding element ‘X’ is less than 2.5, then central carbon atom
used almost 33% s-character in their hybrid bonding orbitals.
(b) If electronegativity of surrounding element ‘X’ is greater than 2.5, then central carbon
atom used almost 25% s-character in their hybrid bonding orbitals.
(c) If ‘X’ is ‘F’, then species should be polar and pyramidal.
(d) If ‘X’ is H, then species should be polar and planar.
 104 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

58. Consider following compounds :

(I) H 3 X — NCS (II) H 3Y — NCS (III) (H 3 X ) 2 O (IV) (H 3Y ) 2 O
The incorrect statement regarding the compounds given is :
(a) If Y is carbon in compounds (II) and (IV), then both are bent.
(b) If X is silicon in compounds (I) and (III), then both are linear.
(c) If X is carbon and Y is silicon then compound (I) is more basic than compound (II).
(d) If X is silicon and Y is carbon then X ¾ O$ ¾ X bond angle compounds (III) is greater than
Y ¾ O$ ¾ Y bond angle in compounds (IV).
59. The incorrect statement about carbene (CH 2 ) is :
(a) In singlet carbene, carbon is sp 2 -hybridized whereas in triplet carbene, carbon is sp-
hybridized.
(b) Triplet carbene is less stable than singlet carbene.
(c) Stability order of singlet halocarbenes is : CHF > CHCl > CHBr .
(d) None of the above.
60. The lowest O—O bond length among the following molecules is in :
(a) O 2F2 (b) O 2 (c) H 2O 2 (d) O 3
61. Among CHCl 3 , CH 4 and SF4 the molecules do not having regular geometry are :
(a) CHCl 3 only (b) CHCl 3 and SF4
(c) CH 4 only (d) CH 4 and SF4
62. When iodine is dissolved in aqueous potassium iodide, the shape of the species formed is :
(a) linear (b) angular (c) triangular (d) see-saw
63. Which of the following set of species have planar structures?
·
(a) I 3- , C H 3 , ClO –3 , SiF62– (b) I+3 , ICl -4 , Al 2Cl 6 , TeCl 4
(c) SCl 2 , N 2O 5 , SF4 , XeOF4 (d) I 2Cl 6 , XeF2 , BrF4– , XeF5–
64. Which of the following compounds have the same no. of lone pairs with their central atom?
(I) XeF5– (II) BrF3 (III) XeF2 (IV) H 3S+ (V) Triple Methylene
(a) IV and V (b) I and III
(c) I and II (d) II, IV and V
65. Given the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statements is true
and F if it is false :
(I) (CH 3 ) 2 P(CF3 ) 3 is non-polar and (CH 3 ) 3 P(CF3 ) 2 is polar molecule.
^
(II) CH 3 P CH 3 bond angles are equal in (CH 3 ) 3 P(CF3 ) 2 molecule.
(III) PF3 will be more soluble in polar solvent than SiF4 .
(a) TTF (b) FFT (c) FFF (d) FTT
66. The correct sequence of polarity of the following molecules
(1) Benzene (2) Inorganic Benzene
(3) PCl 3F2 (4) PCl 2F3
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 105
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
(a) P NP NP P (b) NP NP NP P
(c) NP P NP P (d) NP P P NP
(Where, P = polar, NP = non-polar)
67. Which of the following structure(s) is/are non-planar?
(a) Na 3B 3O 6 (b) I 2Cl 6
(c) Sheet silicate (d) Inorganic graphite layer
68. Nodal planes of p-bond(s) in CH 2 ==C ==C ==CH 2 are located in :
(a) all are in molecular plane
(b) two in molecular plane and one in a plane perpendicular to molecular plane which
contains C—C s-bond
(c) one in molecular plane and two in plane perpendicular to molecular plane which contains
C—C s-bonds
(d) two in molecular plane and one in a plane perpendicular to molecular plane which bisects
C—C s-bonds at right angle
69. Which of the following have X —O— X linkage?
(where X is central atom) :
(i) Cr 2O 72– (ii) S 2O 2–
3 (iii) Pyrosilicate (iv) Hyponitrous acid
(a) (i) (iii) (b) (iiii) (iv) (c) (i) (iii) (iv) (d) (i) (ii)
70. Select the correct statement :
(a) HSO –5 ion has one S—O—H linkage.
(b) Number of B—O—B linkages in Borax is equal to number of P—O—P linkages in P4 O 10 .
(c) Hybridization of both sulphur in H 2S 2O 5 (pyrosulphurous acid) is same but oxidation
state of both sulphur are different.
(d) Tetra-polyphosphoric acid has four P—O—P and no P—P linkage.
71. Oxidation state of ‘ S’ in peroxodisulphuric acid and sodium tetrathionate :
(a) +6 , + 5, 0 (b) +6 , + 6 , + 6 (c) +6 , + 4 , + 2 (d) +6 , + 2 , 0
72. Structure of Na 2[B 4 O 5(OH) 4 ].8H 2O contains :
(a) two triangular and two tetrahedral units
(b) three triangular and one tetrahedral units
(c) all tetrahedral units
(d) all triangular units
73. Which of the following molecular species is not linear ?
(a) (CN) 2 (b) OCN - (c) XeF2 (d) S 2-
3
74. Incorrect match is :
Electron geometry Possible molecular shape from
respective electron geometry
(a) Tetrahedron — Bent
(b) Trigonal bipyramidal — Triangular planar
(c) Octahedron — Square pyramidal
(d) Pentagonal bipyramidal — Pentagonal planar
 106 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

75. Which of the following orbital of central atom does not involve in bonding in XeO 3F2
molecule?
(a) d zx (b) d yz (c) d xy (d) d x 2 - y 2
76. In which of the following molecular species four halogen atoms lie in a plane ?
(a) SF4 (b) CCl 4 (c) XeF5+ (d) IF7
77. Both thiocyanogen (SCN) 2 and Cyanogen (CN) 2 , have structures respectively :
(a) Linear, Zig-zag (b) Zig-zag, Linear
(c) Square planar, Bent (d) Cyclic, Linear
78. Which of the following acid is dibasic and do not have identical non-metal bond ?
(a) H 2S 2O 5 (b) H 4 P2O 5 (c) H 2S 2O 3 (d) H 2N 2O 2
+
79. The shape of XeF3 is :
(a) Triangular planar (b) Pyramidal (c) Bent T-shape (d) See-saw
80. Select correct statement :
(a) C 3O 2 has non-linear structure
(b) NH 3 and H 3O + both have pyramidal shape
(c) CO 2 is isostructural with SnCl 2
(d) All of these
81. Which of the following is planer paramagnetic species ?
(a) NO 2 (b) ClO 3 (c) CF3 (d) None of these
82. Which of the following compound has maximum halogen atoms is same plane ?
(a) PCl 2F3 (b) F2C == CF2 (c) Cl 2C == C == CCl 2 (d) XeF5-
83. In which of the following molecular species maximum flourine atoms lie in the same plane ?
(a) SiF4 (b) ClF4+ (c) TeF5- (d) SOF4
84. The geometry with respect to the central atom of the following molecules are :
(SiH 3 ) 3 P; Me 3N; N(SiH 3 ) 3
(a) Pyramidal, Pyramidal, Planar (b) Pyramidal, Planar, Pyramidal
(c) Pyramidal, Pyramidal, Pyramidal (d) Planar, Pyramidal, Pyramidal

: Dipole Moment
85. Which of the following pair of molecules posses have permanent dipole moment?
(a) NO 2 and CO 2 (b) NO 2 and O 3
(c) SiF4 and CO 2 (d) SiF4 and NO 2
86. The dipole moment of HCl is 1.03 D , if H— Cl bond distance is 1.26 Å, what is the percentage
of ionic character in the H—Cl bond?
(a) 60% (b) 39% (c) 29% (d) 17%
87. The dipole moment of o, p and m-dichlorobenzene will be in the order :
(a) o> p > m (b) p > o > m
(c) m > o > p (d) o > m > p
88. Which of the following molecules has highest dipole moment?
(a) BF3 (b) NH 3 (c) NF3 (d) B 2H 6
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 107
89. In terms of polar character, which of the following order is correct?
(a) NH 3 < H 2O < HF < H 2S (b) H 2S < NH 3 < H 2O < HF
(c) H 2O < NH 3 < H 2S < HF (d) HF < H 2O < NH 3 < H 2S
90. The correct order of dipole moment is :
(a) CH 4 < NF3 < NH 3 < H 2O (b) NF3 < CH 4 < NH 3 < H 2O
(c) NH 3 < NF3 < CH 4 < H 2O (d) H 2O < NH 3 < NF3 < CH 4
91. In which of the following molecule µ (observed) is found to be greater than µ(theoretical) :
Cl NO2 OH
Cl NO2 Cl
(a) CHCl 3 (b) (c) (d)

92. Among the following, the molecule with highest dipole moment is :
(a) CH 3Cl (b) CH 2Cl 2
(c) CHCl 3 (d) CCl 4
93. Which of the following compounds has dipole moment approximately equal to that of
chlorobenzene?
(a) o-dichlorobenzene (b) m-dichlorobenzene
(c) p-dichlorobenzene (d) p-chloronitrobenzene
94. For which of the following molecules significant m ¹ 0 ?
Cl CN OH SH

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Cl CN OH SH
(a) (3) and (4) (b) Only (1) (c) (1) and (2) (d) Only (3)
95. If molecule MX 3 has zero dipole moment the sigma bonding orbitals used by M (atomic no.
< 19) are :
(a) pure p (b) sp (c) sp 2 (d) sp 3
96. Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing dipole moment ?
(a) CH 3Cl > CH 3F > CH 3Br > CH 3I (b) CH 3F > CH 3Cl > CH 3Br > CH 3I
(c) CH 3Cl > CH 3Br > CH 3I > CH 3F (d) CH 3F > CH 3Cl > CH 3I > CH 3Br
97. Which of the following orbital combination can not form p-bond ?
(a) p x + p x sideways overlapping (b) d x 2 - y 2 + p y sideways overlapping
(c) d xy + d xy sideways overlapping (d) d yz + p y sideways overlapping
98. Molecular species which is polar and non-planar ?
(a) SO 2 (b) ClO -4 (c) N 2F2 (d) H 2PO -2

: Bond Length
99. The strongest P—O bond is found in the molecule :
(a) F3PO (b) Cl 3PO (c) Br 3PO (d) (CH 3 ) 3 PO
 108 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

100. O 2F2 is an unstable yellow orange solid and H 2O 2 is a colourless liquid, both having O—O
bond. O—O bond lengths in H 2O 2 and O 2F2 respectively are :
(a) 1.22 Å, 1.48 Å (b) 1.48 Å, 1.22 Å
(c) 1.22 Å, 1.22 Å (d) 1.48 Å, 1.48 Å
101. In which of the following compound the bond length of the S—O bond is maximum?
(a) SOCl 2 (b) SOBr 2
(c) SOF2 (d) All have same length
102. Which one of the following molecule will have all equal X—F bond length? (where X = central
atom)
(a) SOCl 2F2 (b) SeF4 (c) PBr 2F3 (d) IF7
103. Consider the following information (X = F or Cl)

Molecule P—X (axial) bond length P—X (Equitorial) bond length

PF5 a b
PF4 CH 3 c d
PF3(CH 3 ) 2 e f
PCl 5 g h

According to given information choose the incorrect order of bond length :

(a) g > a > d > b (b) g > e > f > b (c) f > d > a > b (d) c > f > d > b
104. In which of the following cases C—C bond length will be highest?
(a) CH 3 —CF3 (b) FCH 2 —CH 2F
(c) F2CH—CHF2 (d) CF3 —CF3
105. Select the incorrect statement about N 2F4 and N 2H 4 :
(I) In N 2F4 , d-orbitals are contracted by electronegative fluorine atoms, but d-orbital
contraction is not possible by H-atom in N 2H 4
(II) The N —N bond energy in N 2F4 is more than N —N bond energy in N 2H 4
(III)The N —N bond length in N 2F4 is more than that of in N 2H 4
(IV)The N —N bond length in N 2F4 is less than that of in N 2H 4
Choose the correct code :
(a) I, II and III (b) I and III (c) II and IV (d) II and III
106. In which of the following chemical species all bond length are equal ?
(a) IO 5-
6 (b) BrF3 (c) SF4 (d) IF7
107. Which of the following single bond have lowest bond energy ?
(a) C — C (b) N — N (c) H — H (d) O — O
108. Correct order of P — P bond length in the following compound in :
(a) P2F4 < P2(CF3 ) 4 < P2H 4 < P2(CH 3 ) 4 (b) P2F4 < P2H 4 < P2(CH 3 ) 4 < P2(CF3 ) 4
(c) P2F4 < P2(CF3 ) 4 < P2(CH 3 ) 4 < P2H 4 (d) P2H 4 < P2(CF3 ) 4 < P2F4 < P2(CH 3 ) 4
109. In which of the following molecular species all bond length are equal ?
(a) IO 5-
6 (b) BrF3 (c) SF4 (d) IF7
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 109
110. Consider the following compounds and select correct order of S — F bond length :
F F
F a F
b S == O S
(i) (ii) c (where a , b and c are ‘ S — F’ bond length)
F F
F F
(a) a > b = c (b) a > b > c (c) a > c > b (d) b > c > a
111. Select the correct statement :
(a) B — F bond length in BF3 > BF4- (b) N — H bond length in NH 3 > NH 2-
(c) P — H bond length in PH 3 > PH +4 (d) C — H bond length in CH +3 > CH 4

: Bond Angle
112. Ð FAsF bond angle in AsF3Cl 2 molecule is :
(a) 90º and 180° (b) 120° (c) 90° (d) 180°
113. Which of the following has largest bond angle ?
(a) H 2O (b) F2O (c) Cl 2O (d) H 2S
114. The incorrect order of bond angle is :
. .
(a) ClO 2 > OCl 2 (b) NO -2 < NO 2 (c) CH 3 > CF3 (d) O(SiH 3 ) 2 < ClO 2
115. The correct order of equatorial FSF bond angle in the following compound.
(I) SF4 (II) OSF4 (III) H 2CSF4
(a) (III) > (II) > (I) (b) (I) > (III) > (II)
(c) (I) > (II) > (III) (d) (II) > (III) > (I)
116. Incorrect order of bond angle is :
(a) OCl 2 > SF2 > AsH 3 > H 2Se (b) NH 3 > PF3 > PH 3 > H 2S
(c) XeO 4 > ClO 4- > SO 24- > CF4 (d) N(SiH 3 ) 3 > O(SiH 3 ) 2 > OMe 2
117. Minimum F — S$ — F bond angle present in :
(a) SSF2 (b) SF6 (c) SF2 (d) F3SSF
118. The correct order of increasing bond angles is :
(a) OF2 < ClO 2 < H 2O < Cl 2O (b) OF2 < H 2O < Cl 2O < ClO 2
(c) OF2 < H 2O < ClO 2 < Cl 2O (d) ClO 2 < OF2 < H 2O < Cl 2O
119. The correct order of bond angles is :
(a) NO –2 > NO+2 > NO 2 (b) NO+2 > NO –2 > NO 2
(c) NO 2 > NO+2 > NO –2 (d) NO+2 > NO 2 > NO –2
120. Which one is correct for bond angle?
(a) PF3 > PCl 3 (b) OCl 2 == ClO 2
(c) NF3 > NH 3 (d) PCl 3 > PF3
121. In molecules of the type AX 2L n (where L represents lone pairs and n is its number) there
exists a bond between element A and X. The Ð X A X bond angle.
(a) Always decreases if n increases (b) Always increases if n increases
(c) Will be maximum for n=3 (d) generally decreases if n decreases
 110 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

122. The correct order of bond angle (smallest first) in H 2S, NH 3 , BF3 and SiH 4 is :
(a) H 2S < SiH 4 < NH 3 < BF3 (b) NH 3 < H 2S < SiH 4 < BF3
(c) H 2S < NH 3 < SiH 4 < BF3 (d) H 2S < NH 3 < BF3 < SiH 4
123. Which order of bond angle is not correct ?
(a) Bond angle H — S — H < H — O — H
(b) Bond angle F — O — F < Cl — O — Cl
(c) Bond angle Me — O — Me > H — O — H
(d) Bond angle Cl — Sn — Cl > Cl — Hg — Cl
124. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is :
(a) ClO -2 < Cl 2O < ClO 2 (b) Cl 2O < ClO 2 < ClO -2
(c) ClO 2 < Cl 2O < ClO -2 (d) Cl 2O < ClO -2 < ClO 2
125. In which of the following reaction, adjacent bond angle increases in molecular species around
underline atom ?
(a) BrF3 + F - ¾® BrF4- (b) BF3 + F - ¾® BF4-
(c) XeF4 + PF5 ¾® [XeF3 ]+ [PF6 ]- (d) XeF4 + F - ¾® XeF5-
126. Select incorrect order between given compound’s :
(a) COCl 2 > CoF2 : XCX bond angle (b) NO 2F > NO 2Cl : ONO bond angle
(c) SO 2F2 < SOF2 : FSF bond angle (d) N 2F2 > N 2(CH 3 ) 2 : N — N bond length
127. Correct order of bond angle is :
. . – + .
(a) CH 3 > CF3 (b) CH 3 > CH 3 (c) CH 4 > CF4 (d) CH 4 > CH 3
128. In which of the following compound bond angle is lower in cation as compare to anion ?
(a) PCl 5( s) (b) I 2(l) (c) ICl 3(l) (d) N 2O 5( s)
129. The correct order of bond angle is :
(a) NO -2 > NO +2 > NO -3 (b) NO +2 > NO -2 > NO -3
(c) NO -3 > NO +2 > NO -2 (d) NO +2 > NO -3 > NO -2
130. Correct order of FXF$ bond angle (X = central atom) in CF4 , POF3 and SO 2F2 is :
(a) SO 2F2 < POF3 < CF4 (b) POF3 < CF4 < SO 2F2
(c) CF4 < SO 2F2 < POF3 (d) POF3 < SO 2F2 < CF4
131. In which of the following molecule, the number of adjacent bond angles are maximum in the
anionic part of solid state ?
(a) PBr 5 (solid) (b) N 2O 5 (solid) (c) PCl 5 (solid) (d) Cl 2O 6 (solid)
132. p-character is maximum in the lone pair present at central atom :
(a) ClO -3 (b) BrO -3
(c) IO -3 (d) All have equal p-character

: Fajan's Rule (Ionic and Covalent Character in a Bond)

133. In an ionic compound A+ X – the degree of covalent bonding is greatest when :
(a) A + and X - ion are small
(b) A + is small and X - is large
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 111
(c) A + and X - ions are approximately of the same size
(d) X - is small and A + is large
134. In which of the following species the bonds are non-directional?
(a) NCl 3 (b) RbCl (c) BeCl 2 (d) BCl 3
135. Which of the following when dissolved in water forms a solution which is non-conducting?
(a) Green vitriol (b) Chile or Indian salt petre
(c) Alcohol (d) Potash alum
136. Which of the following statements about LiCl and NaCl is wrong?
(a) LiCl has lower melting point than NaCl
(b) LiCl dissolves more in organic solvents whereas NaCl does not
(c) LiCl would ionise in water less than NaCl
(d) Fused LiCl would be less conducting than fused NaCl
137. Which of the following substances has the highest melting point?
(a) NaCl (b) KCl (c) MgO (d) BaO
138. The stability of ionic crystal principally depends on :
(a) high electron affinity of anion forming species
(b) the lattice energy of crystal
(c) low I.E. of cation forming species
(d) low heat of sublimation of cation forming solid
139. In which of the following solvents, KI has highest solubility?
(a) C 6 H 6 (Î = 0) (b) (CH 3 ) 2 CO(Î = 2)
(c) CH 3OH(Î = 32) (d) CCl 4 (Î = 0)
140. Amongst LiCl, BeCl 2 , MgCl 2 and RbCl the compounds with greatest and least ionic character,
respectively are :
(a) LiCl and RbCl (b) RbCl and BeCl 2
(c) RbCl and MgCl 2 (d) MgCl 2 and BeCl 2
141. The compound with the highest degree of covalent character is :
(a) NaCl (b) MgCl 2 (c) AgCl (d) CsCl
142. The salt having the least solubility in water is :
(a) BaCl 2 (b) Ba(NO 3 ) 2 (c) MgSO 4 (d) BaSO 4
143. The solubility of Na 2SO 4 , BeSO 4 ,MgSO 4 and BaSO 4 in water follow the order :
(a) BaSO 4 > BeSO 4 > MgSO 4 > Na 2SO 4 (b) Na 2SO 4 > BeSO 4 > MgSO 4 > BaSO 4
(c) BeSO 4 > MgSO 4 > BaSO 4 > Na 2SO 4 (d) MgSO 4 > BeSO 4 > Na 2SO 4 > BaSO 4
144. Solubility of alkali metal fluorides increases down the group.” Select correct explanation for
given statement :
(a) Hydration energy increases and lattice energy decreases down the group
(b) Both energy decrease down the group but decrease in hydration energy is rapid
(c) Both energy decrease down the group but decrease in lattice energy is rapid
(d) Both energy increase down the group but increase in hydration energy is rapid
145. Covalency favoured in the following case :
(a) smaller cation (b) larger anion
(c) large charge on cation and anions (d) all of these
 112 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

146. The melting point of RbBr is 682°C while that of NaF is 988°C. The principal reason for this
fact is :
(a) the molar mass of NaF is smaller than that of RbBr
(b) the bond in RbBr has more covalent character than the bond in NaF
(c) the difference in electronegativity between Rb and Br is smaller than the difference
between Na and F
(d) the internuclear distance, r c + r a is greater for RbBr than for NaF
147. The incorrect order is :
(a) Covalent character : PbCl 2 > CaCl 2 > SrCl 2 > BaCl 2
(b) Thermal stability : PbF4 > PbCl 4 > PbBr 4 > PbI 4
(c) Melting point : KF > KCl > KBr > KI
(d) Boiling point : CHCl 3 > CH 3Cl > CCl 4
148. If CdI 2 is pink in colour, the CdCl 2 will be ‘ ¾¾¾ ’ coloured.
(a) yellow (b) red
(c) blue (d) cannot be predicted
149. Which of the following orders are correct?
(I) Thermal stability : BeSO 4 < MgSO 4 < CaSO 4 < SrSO 4 < BaSO 4
(II) Basic nature : ZnO > BeO > MgO > CaO
(III)Solubility in water : LiOH > NaOH > KOH > RbOH > CsOH
(IV) Melting point : NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl > LiCl
(a) (I), (IV) (b) (I), (II) and (IV)
(c) (II), (III) (d) All correct
150. Correct order of solubility is/are :
(I) CaCO 3 > SrCO 3 > BaCO 3 (II) Li 2CO 3 < Na 2CO 3 < K 2CO 3
(III) K 2CO 3 < Rb 2CO 3 < Cs 2CO 3 (IV) Na 2CO 3 > K 2CO 3 > Rb 2CO 3
(a) II, IV (b) I, IV
(c) II, III,IV (d) I, II, III
151. On heating to 400-500°C, relatively unstable hydrides and carbonates decompose. Which of
the following will decompose when heated to 400-500°C ?
(I) LiH (II) NaH (III) Li 2CO 3 (IV) Na 2CO 3
(a) II, III (b) I, II, III (c) I, III (d) III, IV
152. Incorrect order of covalent character is :
(a) AgI > AgBr > AgCl (b) AgCl > KCl > CsCl
(c) AlCl 3 > BeCl 2 > MgCl 2 (d) HgCl 2 > CdCl 2 > ZnCl 2
153. Which of the following order is incorrect against indicated properties ?
(a) Covalent character : HgI 2 > HgBr 2 > HgCl 2 > HgF2
(b) Solubility in water : BeC 2O 4 > BaC 2O 4 > SrC 2O 4 > CaC 2O 4
(c) Melting Point : AlCl 3 > MgCl 2 > NaCl
(d) Dipole moment : CF4 = SiH 4
154. Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound :
(a) FeCl 2 (b) SnCl 2 (c) AlCl 3 (d) MgCl 2
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 113
155. CO 2 is not isostructural with :
(a) ICl -2 (b) C 2H 2 (c) XeF2 (d) GeCl 2
156. Correct order of stability of following halides :
(a) PbI 4 > PbBr 4 > PbCl 4 > PbF4 (b) PbI 4 > PbF4 > PbCl 4 > PbBr 4
(c) PbF4 > PbCl 4 > PbBr 4 > PbI 4 (d) PbBr 4 > PbI 4 > PbCl 4 > PbF4
157. Which compound is thermally most stable ?
(a) SiF4 (b) SiCl 4 (c) SiBr 4 (d) SiI 4
158. The most water soluble compound is :
(a) AgNO 2 (b) PbI 2 (c) Ba(MnO 4 ) 2 (d) CaCO 3
159. AlCl 3 is covalent while AlF3 is ionic. This can be justified on the basis of :
(a) The valence bond theory (b) Fajan's rule
(c) The molecular orbital theory (d) Hydration energy
160. Among LiCl, BeCl 2 , BCl 3 and CCl 4 the covalent bond character varies as :
(a) LiCl < BeCl 2 > BCl 3 > CCl 4 (b) LiCl > BeCl 2 < BCl 3 < CCl 4
(c) LiCl < BeCl 2 < BCl 3 < CCl 4 (d) LiCl > BeCl 2 > BCl 3 > CCl 4

: Molecular Forces
161. The boiling points of noble gases are illustrative of the operation of forces of the type :
(a) ion-dipole (b) dipole-induced dipole
(c) ion-induced dipole (d) London dispersion forces
162. Among the following, which has the lowest enthalpy of fusion ?
(a) Fluorine (b) Hydrogen (c) Chlorine (d) Helium
163. Which of the following solid has maximum melting point ?
(a) NaCl (b) Ice (c) Dry ice (d) SiO 2
164. The melting point of AlF3 is 104°C and that of SiF4 is – 77°C (it sublimes) because :
(a) there is a very large difference in the ionic character of the Al – F and Si – F bonds
(b) in AlF3 , Al 3+ interacts very strongly with the neighbouring F - ions to given a three
dimensional structure but in SiF4 no such interaction is possible
(c) the silicon ion in the tetrahedral SiF4 molecule is not shielded effectively from the fluoride
ions whereas in AlF3 , the Al 3+ ion is shielded on all sides
(d) the attractive forces between the SiF4 molecules are strong whereas those between the
AlF3 molecule are weak
165. The correct order of boiling point is :
(a) T2 < D 2 < H 2 (b) n -pentane < neo-pentane
(c) Xe < Ar < He (d) m -nitrophenol > o -nitrophenol
166. Solubility of inert gases increases as atomic number increases due to increase in :
(a) Dipole-dipole interaction
(b) Dipole-induced dipole interaction
(c) Induced dipole-instantaneous dipole interaction
(d) Hydrogen bonding
 114 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

167. The hydride having less melting point :

(a) BeH 2 (b) MgH 2 (c) CaH 2 (d) BaH 2

: Hydrogen Bonding
168. Out of the two compounds shown below, the vapour pressure of B at a particular temperature
is expected to be :
OH OH

and
O2N NO2

(A) (B)
(a) higher than that of A
(b) lower than that of A
(c) same as that of A
(d) can be higher or lower depending upon the size of the vessel
169. The crystal lattice of ice is mostly formed by :
(a) ionic forces (b) covalent bonds
(c) intramolecular H-bonds (d) covalent as well as H-bonds
170. The boiling points of methanol, water and dimethyl ether are respectively 65° C, 100° C and
34.5° C. Which of the following best explains these wide variations in b.p.?
(a) The molecular mass increases from water (18) to methanol (32) to diethyl ether (74)
(b) The extent of H-bonding decreases from water to methanol while it is absent in ether
(c) The extent of intramolecular H-bonding decreases from ether to methanol to water
(d) The density of water is 1.00 g mL -1 , methanol 0.7914 g mL –1 and that of diethyl ether is
0.7137 g mL –1
171. In ice, the length of H-bonds :
(a) is less than that of covalent bonds
(b) is greater than that of covalent bonds
(c) is same as that of covalent bonds
(d) can be less greater or same as that of covalent bonds
172. The correct order of the strength of H-bonds is :
(a) H ¼ F > H ¼ O > H ¼ N (b) H ¼ N > H ¼ O > H ¼ F
(c) H ¼ O > H ¼ N > H ¼ F (d) H ¼ F > H ¼ N > H ¼ O
173. o-nitrophenol can be easily steam distilled whereas p-nitrophenol cannot. This is because of :
(a) strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding in o-nitrophenol
(b) strong intramolecular hydrogen bonding in o-nitrophenol
(c) strong intramolecular hydrogen bonding in p-nitrophenol
(d) dipole moment of p-nitrophenol is larger than that of o-nitrophenol
174. What is not true about ice?
(a) It has open cage like structure
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 115
(b) It has less density than water
(c) Each O atom is surrounded by 4 H atoms
(d) Each O atom has four H-bonds around it
175. When ice melts to form liquid water at 0° C, there is a contraction in volume. This is due to :
(a) the molecules contracting in size
(b) a partial disruption of the hydrogen bonded network of ice on melting
(c) the absorption of heat during the melting process
(d) the dissolving of air into the water during the melting process
176. Which of the following is not a best representation of the H-bond?
H H
O
(a) O H N H (b) H
Cl
H
H H
(c) H O H N (d) None

H
177. The H-bonds in solid HF can be best represented as :
H H H H
(a) H—F----H—F----H—F (b)
F F F F
F F H H
(c) H H H (d) F F F F
F H H
178. The type of molecular forces of attraction present in the following compound is :
OH
NO2

HO
(a) Intermolecular H-bonding (b) Intramolecular H-bonding
(c) van der Waals' force (d) All of these
179. Which of the following interaction lies in the range of 8 - 42 kJ/mol ?
(a) H 2 ...H 2O (b) HCl...HCl (c) F - ...HF (d) HCN...NH 3
180. Boric acid is polymeric due to :
(a) Its acidic nature (b) The presence of hydrogen bond
(c) Its geometry (d) Its monobasic nature
181. Which of the following is arranged order of increasing boiling point ?
(a) H 2O < CCl 4 < CS 2 < CO 2 (b) CO 2 < CS 2 < CCl 4 < H 2O
(c) CS 2 < H 2O < CO 2 < CCl 4 (b) CCl 4 < H 2O < CO 2 < CS 2
182. Which of the following compound used maximum number of non-axial d-orbitals in
hybridization of central atom ?
(a) XeF4 (b) XeO 3F2 (c) XeF5- (d) XeO 3
 116 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

183. Which property is due to H-bonding ?

(i) High boiling point of water (ii) Solubility of NH 3 in H 2O
(iii) Polar nature of halogen acid (iv) High viscosity of H 3PO 4
(a) (i), (ii) & (iv) (b) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i) & (ii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

: Back Bonding
184. In which of the following compounds B — F bond length is shortest?
(a) BF4- (b) BF3 ¬ NH 3
(c) BF3 (d) BF3 ¬ N(CH 3 ) 3
185. Both N(SiH 3 ) 3 and NH(SiH 3 ) 2 compounds have trigonal planar skeleton. Incorrect statement
about both compounds is :
$ bond angle in NH(SiH 3 ) 2 > SiNSi
(a) SiNSi $ bond angle in N(SiH 3 ) 3
(b) N—Si bond length in NH(SiH 3 ) 2 > N — Si bond length in N(SiH 3 ) 3
(c) N—Si bond length in NH(SiH 3 ) 2 < N — Si bond length in N(SiH 3 ) 3
(d) Back bonding strength in NH(SiH 3 ) 2 > Back bonding strength in N(SiH 3 ) 3
186. The incorrect statement regarding O(SiH 3 ) 2 and OCl 2 molecule is/are :
(a) The strength of back bonding is more in O(SiH 3 ) 2 molecule than OCl 2 molecule
(b) Si — O$ — Si bond angle in O(SiH 3 ) 2 is greater than Cl — O$ — Cl bond angle in OCl 2
(c) The nature of back bond in both molecules is (2 p p -3d p )
(d) Hybridisation of central O-atom in both molecules is same
187. Among the following molecules N—Si bond length is shortest in :
(a) N(SiH 3 ) 3 (b) NH(SiH 3 ) 2
(c) NH 2(SiH 3 ) (d) All have equal N—Si bond length
188. Which of the following molecule has weakest (pp - dp) back bonding ?
(a) OCl 2 (b) N(SiH 3 ) 3
(c) SiF4 (d) O(SiH 3 ) 2
189. “Hybridisation of central atom does not always change due to back bonding”. This statement is
valid for which of the following compounds ?
(i) CCl -3 (ii) CCl 2 (iii) (SiH 3 ) 2 O (iv) N(SiH 3 ) 3
(a) (i), (ii) (b) (i), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) (d) All
190. The geometry with respect to the central atom of the following molecules are :
N (SiH 3 ) 3 ; Me 3N; (SiH 3 ) 3 P
(a) planar, pyramidal, planar
(b) planar, pyramidal, pyramidal
(c) pyramidal, pyramidal, pyramidal
(d) pyramidal, planar, pyramidal
191. Incorrect statement regarding BF2NH 2 molecule is :
(a) FBF bond angle < 120° (b) HNH bond angle > 109°28'
(c) Exhibits intermolecular H-bond (d) Hybridization of N-atom is sp 3
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 117
192. Which compound doesn't have back bond ?
(a) P4 O 10 (b) [B 3O 3(OH) 3 ] (c) B 3N 3H 6 (d) ClO -4
193. In which of the following compound, bond angle is not affected by back bonding ?
(a) BF3 (b) OCl 2 (c) O(SiH 3 ) 2 (d) None of these
194. Back bonding is not present in which of the following molecule ?
(a) P4 O 10 (b) P2F4 (c) Si 3O 6-
9 (d) None
195. Which one is least basic among the following trihalide ?
(a) NF3 (b) NCl 3 (c) NBr 3 (d) NI 3

: Bridge Bond
196. The number of three centre two electron bonds in a molecule of diborane is :
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
197. In which of the following compounds octet is complete and incomplete for all atoms :
Al 2Cl 6 Al 2(CH 3 ) 6 AlF3 Dimer of BeCl 2 Dimer of BeH 2
(a) IC IC IC C C
(b) C IC IC C IC
(c) C IC C IC IC
(d) IC C IC IC IC
(Note : C for complete octet and IC for incomplete octet.)
198. In which of the following molecular species both s-dative and p-dative bonds are present ?
(a) BF4- (b) Be 2Cl 4
(c) NH +4 (d) [BeF4 ]2-
199. In which of the following molecular species both s dative and p dative bond are present ?
(a) BF4s (b) Be 2Cl 4 (c) NH r
4 (d) [BeF4 ]2-
200. Which of the following set of molecules contain three centre two electrons bond ?
(a) (BeCl 2 ) n ,(BeH 2 ) n , B 2H 6 (b) (BeCl 2 ) n ,(BeH 2 ) n , Al 2Me 6
(c) (BeH 2 ) n , B 2H 6 , Al 2Me 6 (d) (BeCl 2 ) n , Al 2Me 6 , B 2H 6
201. In which of the following species terminal bonds are stronger than the bond present between
central atoms ?
(a) Ga 2H 6 (b) N 2H 4 (c) Al 2H 6 (d) B 2H 6

: Odd Electron Species

202. Incorrect order of bond angle is :
+
(a) NO 2 > NO 2 > NO -2 (b) BF3 > NF3 > PF3
(c) ClO 2 > Cl 2O > ClO -2 (d) PF3 > PCl 3 > PBr 3
203. Hybridization of central atom changes for which of the following molecule when undergoes
dimerization?
(a) CF3 (b) ClO 3 (c) NO 2 (d) CH 3
 118 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

204. Which of the following statement is not correct for

NO 2 ,NO +2 ,NO -2 ?
(a) NO 2 is paramagnetic.
(b) NO +2 is linear, NO 2 is bent and bond angle is slightly less than 120º.
(c) NO +2 ion has the shortest and strongest bonds among these.
(d) NO -2 ion has longest and weakest bond among these.
205. Correct order of bond angle is :
. .
(a) CH 3 > CF3 (b) CH -3 > CH +3
.
(c) CH 4 > CF4 (d) CH 4 > CH 3
206. In which of the following conversion both hybridisation as well as shape changes with respect
to central atom?
+
(a) CH 3 ® C 2H 6 (b) NH 3 ® NH 4
(c) H 2O ® H 3O + (d) All of these
.
207. The shape of methyl radical (CH 3 ) is :
(a) linear (b) pyramidal
(c) planar (d) spherical
208. Which of the following order of boiling point is incorrect ?
(a) F2 < Cl 2 < Br 2 < I 2 (b) PH 3 < AsH 3 < NH 3 < SbH 3
(c) NH 3 < H 2O < HF (d) HCl < HBr < HI < HF

: Molecular Orbital Theory

209. The incorrect statement regarding molecular orbital(s) is :
(a) If there is a nodal plane perpendicular to the internuclear axis and lying between the
nuclei of bonded atoms then corresponding orbitals is antibonding M.O.
(b) If a nodal plane lies in the inter-nuclear axis, then corresponding orbitals is pi( p) bonding
M.O.
(c) The s-bonding molecular orbital does not contain nodal planes containing the internuclear
axis
(d) The d-bonding molecular orbital possesses three nodal planes containing the internuclear
axis.
210. Which of the following species absorb maximum energy in its HOMO-LUMO electronic
transition?
(a) O 2 (b) N -2 (c) C 2 (d) N 2
211. If P to T are second period p-block elements then which of the following graph show correct
relation between valence electrons in P2 to T 2 (corresponding molecules) and their bond order
is :
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 119
Bond order R2

Bond order
S2 T2
Q2 S2
Q2 R2
(a) P2 T2 (b)
P2

Valenceelectron Valenceelectron

P2

Bond order
Bond order

P2
R2 T2
Q2
(c) S2 (d) Q2 S2
T2
R2
Valence electron Valenceelectron

212. Which of the following facts given is not correct ?

(I) Bond length order : H -2 = H +2 > H 2
1
(II) O +2 ,NO,N -2 have same bond order of 2
2
(III) Bond order can assume any value including zero upto four
(IV) NO -3 and BO -3 have same bond order for X — O bond (where X is central atom)
(a) I, II & III (b) I & IV
(c) II & IV (d) I & II
213. N 2 and O 2 are converted to monocations N +2 and O +2 respectively, which is wrong statement :
(a) In N +2 , the N —N bond weakens
(b) In O+2 , the O—O bond order increases
(c) In O+2 , the paramagnetism decreases
(d) N +2 becomes diamagnetic
214. In which of the following transformations, the bond order has increased and the magnetic
behaviour has changed?
(a) C+2 ® C 2 (b) NO+ ® NO
(c) O 2 ® O+2 (d) N 2 ® N +2
215. H.O.M.O. (Highest Occupied Molecular Orbital) of CO molecular is :
(a) Non-bonding M.O. with slight antibonding character
(b) Non-bonding M.O. with slight bonding character
(c) Pure non-bonding M.O.
(d) None of the above
216. Which of the following is a positive overlap which leads to bonding ?
+ – +
+
(a) + z (b) z
–
+ –
–
 120 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

+ + – + – +
(c) (d)
– + – + –
–
px px

217. Which of the following molecules does not have coordinate bonds ?
(a) H 3O + (b) NO -3 (c) O 3 (d) CO 2-
3
218. The correct arrangement of the species in the decreasing order of the bond length between
carbon and oxygen in them is :
(a) CO , CO 2 , HCO -2 , CO 23- (b) CO 2 , HCO -2 , CO 2 , CO
(c) CO 23- , HCO -2 , CO 2 , CO (d) CO , CO 23- , CO 2 , HCO -2
219. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence :
(a) Al < Ga < In < Tl (b) Tl < In < Ga < Al
(c) In > Tl > Ga > Al (d) Ga < In < Al < Tl
220. Which pair of species does not exist due to absence of ‘ d’-orbital ?
(a) BF63- , AlF63- (b) NCl 5 , PCl 5
(c) BF63- , NCl 5 (d) AlF63- , PCl 5
221. Which of the following pair of molecular species is not isostructural ?
(a) IF6+ , XeO 46 - (b) ClO 2 , SO 2
(c) XeO 2F2 , CIF4+ (d) NO +2 , ClO +2
222. If s-p mixing of orbitals is absent in following molecule, then in which of the following
molecule only s-bond is present ?
(a) B 2 (b) C 2 (c) N 2 (d) O 2
+
223. Which of the following property is different between NO and O 2 ?
(a) sp-mixing (b) Magnetic behaviour
(c) Bond order (d) s-and p-bond
224. Select correct order for I.E. :
(a) CO > N 2 (b) N 2 > CO (c) N 2 < O 2 (d) N < O
225. Which of the given compound has ionic lattice and also attracted by external magnetic field ?
(a) CsO 2 (b) CaC 2 (c) BF3 (d) Li 2
226. The correct order of increasing C — O bond length of CO , CO 23- , CO 2 is :
(a) CO 23- < CO 2 < CO (b) CO 2 < CO 23- < CO
(c) CO < CO 23- < CO 2 (d) CO < CO 2 < CO 23-
227. In which of the following pairs of molecules / ions, both the species are not likely to exist ?
(a) H -2 , He 22+ (b) H +2 , He 22-
(c) H -2 , He 22- (d) H 22- , He 2
228. Select the ion which have maximum X — O bond order ( X = central atom)
(a) BO 3-
3 (b) CO 2-
3 (c) NO -2 (d) NO -3
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 121
229. Which ion has maximum P — O bond length ?
O O

(a) P (b) P
–O O– H O–
O– O–
O

(c) P (d) All have same length

H O–
H
230. Species with maximum CO bond energy is :
(a) CO (b) CO 2 (c) CO 2-
3 (d) C 2O 2-
4
231. Ion which has minimum Cl — O bond length is :
(a) ClO -4 (b) ClO -3 (c) ClO -2 (d) ClO -
232. Which of the following species must have maximum number of electrons in ‘ d xy ’ orbital ?
(a) Cr (b) Fe 3+ (c) Cu + (d) both (a) and (b)
233. Which of the following combination of atomic orbitals leads to formation of antibonding
molecular orbital ?
+ +
– +
Molecular axis Molecularaxis
(a) + ¾¾¾¾¾® (b) + + ¾¾¾¾¾®
+ –
– –

+ – – +
Molecularaxis
+ ¾¾¾¾¾®
(c) (d) None of these
– + + –

234. Which of the following pair of molecular species has same bond order ?
(a) N +2 and O +2 (b) F2 and Ne 2 (c) O 2 and B 2 (d) C 2 and N 2
235. The bond energy order of He +2 and HeH + is :
(a) He +2 > HeH + (b) HeH + + He +2
(c) HeH + > He +2 (d) Can’t be predicted
236. Which of the following species does not contain dative s-bond ?
(a) COCl 2 (b) LiAlH 4 (c) NaBH 4 (d) NH 4 Cl
237. Which of following have equal bond orders?
(i) O -2 (ii) CN - (iii) NO + (iv) CN +
(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (ii) & (iii) (c) (iii) & (iv) (d) (i) & (iv)

: Miscellaneous
238. Which of the following bonds has the highest energy ?
(a) Se — Se (b) Te — Te (c) S — S (d) O — O
 122 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

239. Which of the following pairs have nearly identical values of bond energy ?
(a) O 2 and H 2 (b) N 2 and CO (c) F2 and I 2 (d) O 2 and Cl 2
240. Boron can not form which one of the following anions?
(a) BF63- (b) BH -4 (c) B(OH) -4 (d) BO -2
241. Which of the given statement is correct regarding IO 2F2- ?
(a) Number of pp-pp bond equal to one.
(b) Maximum three halogen atoms can lie in a plane.
(c) d x 2 - y 2 orbital is involved in hybridisation.
(d) I — O bond order is two
242. Select correct alternative :
(a) Bond angle : ClF3 < PF3 < BF3
(b) Bond length of S — O bond : SO 24- > SO 23-
(c) Thermal stability : F2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2
(d) Bond length of N — O bond : NO +2 > NO -2
243. Which of the following give paramagnetic gas on decomposition ?
(I) Pb(NO 3 ) 2 (II) LiNO 3 (III) NaNO 3 (IV) NH 4 NO 2
Correct code is :
(a) II, III (b) I, II (c) I, II, III (d) III , IV
244. Select correct order of property in given options :
(a) Melting point : Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li
(b) Dissociation in water : LiCl > CsCl > RbCl
(c) Bond energy : (B(OH) 4 ) - > H 3BO 3
(d) Reactivity towards lewis acid : NH 3 < NF3
245. Which of the following pairs have nearly identical values of bond energy ?
(a) O 2 and H 2 (b) N 2 and CO (c) F2 and I 2 (d) O 2 and Cl 2
246. Which of the following molecules does not have coordinate bond ?
(a) H 3O + (b) NO -3 (c) O 3 (d) CO 2-
3
247. Which of the following order is incorrect against indicated properties ?
(a) Covalent character : HgI 2 > HgBr 2 > HgCl 2 > HgF2
(b) Insolubility in water : BaCO 3 > SrCO 3 > CaCO 3 > BeCO 3
(c) Melting Point : AlCl 3 > MgCl 2 > NaCl
(d) Dipole moment : NH 3 > NF3 > NH 4+
248. Which of the following is the wrong statement ?
(a) Ozone is diamagentic (b) ONCl and ONO - are isoelectronic
(c) O 3 molecule is bent (d) Ozone is violet-black in solid state
249. Select the pair of element which has maximum reducing and maximum oxidising property
respectively :
(a) Li and F2 (b) Li and I 2
(c) Cs and F2 (d) Cs and I 2
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 123
250. Both BF3 and BHF2 compounds have trigonal planer geometry. Incorrect statement about both
compounds is :
$ bond angle in BHF2 > FBF
(a) FBF $ bond angle in BF3
(b) B — F bond length in BHF2 > B — F bond length in BF3
(c) B — F bond order in BHF2 > B — F bond order in BF3
(d) Back bond strength in BHF2 > Back bonding strength in BF3
251. Which of the following property is/are not correctly matched?
(a) Basic strength : Cs 2O < Rb 2O < K 2O < Na 2O
(2) Thermal stability : Na 2O 2 < K 2O 2 < Rb 2O 2 < Cs 2O 2
(3) Solubility in water : NaHCO 3 < KHCO 3 < RbHCO 3 < CsHCO 3
(4) Lattice energy : NaF < NaCl < NaBr < Nal
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
252. The incorrect match is :
(a) Al 2Cl 6 ¾® 3 centre 4e - bridge bond
(b) Al 2(CH 3 ) 6 ¾® all C atoms are sp 3 hybridized
(c) I 2Cl 6 ¾® non-planar
(d) Al 2Cl 6 ¾®non-planar
253. In which of the following compound oxidation state of metal changes on thermal
decomposition?
(a) FeC 2O 4 (b) SnC 2O 4 (c) Fe 2(SO 4 ) 3 (d) FeSO 4
+ 3-
254. Correct structure of molecular species obtained by adding H to PO 5 ion is :
O O

P P
(a) (b)
H—O O—O– O– O—O—H
O– O–
H
O O—O

P P
(c) (d) O– O—H
O– O—O–
O– O–
255. Which point represents bond formation condition as per the graph given below ?

Potential B
energy internuclear
distance
D

C
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
256. BF3 does not react with :
(a) F - (b) NH 3 (c) H 2O (d) CCl 4
 124 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

257. Consider the following compounds and select the incorrect statement from the following.
(NH 3 , PH 3 , H 2S, SO 2 , SO 3 , BF3 , PCl 5 , H 2 )
(a) Five molecules out of given compounds involves in hybridisation.
(b) Four molecules are non-planer in structure.
(c) Three molecules are hypervalent compounds.
(d) Two molecules involves (dp-pp) bonding as well as also involves in ( pp-pp) bonding.
m
258. In natural molecule XeO n Fm , central atom has no lone pair and ratio of is two, then which
n
of the following orbitals does not participate in bonding (n and m are natural numbers).
(a) d z 2 (b) p z (c) d x 2 - y 2 (d) None of these
259. Which of the overlapping can not form two type of bonds either (s , p) or ( p , d) or (s , d) ?
(a) s + s (b) p x + p x (c) d xy + d xy (d) d x 2 - y 2 + d x 2 - y 2
260. Incorrect order is :
(a) Bond energy of B — F bond : BF2OH > BF2NH 2
(B) Bond energy of B — O bond : B(OH) 3 > B(OH) -4
(c) Bond angle H — O — B : BF2OH > B (OH) -4
(d) N — Si bond length : NH(SiH 3 ) 2 > N(SiH 3 ) 3
261. In which of the following molecular species all bonds do not have equal energy ?
(a) NH +4 (b) O 3 (c) I -3 (d) None
262. 3H 4 SiO 4 ¾ Pyrolysis
¾ ¾¾® cyclic compound ¾ Excess
¾¾® ‘ P ’
-3H 2O of NaOH

Find out the value of expression | x + y| for product ‘ P ’.

where, x = Total number of monovalent oxygen atom(s).
y = Number of shared oxygen atom(s) by each tetrahedron unit.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) None of these
263. Peroxo bond (— O — O —) is present in :
(i) Na 2O 2 (ii) CrO 5 (iii) PbO 2 (iv) SrO 2
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (c) (i), (ii), (iii) (d) (ii), (iii), (iv)
264. Correct order of adjacent bond angle :
(a) IO -3 > XeO 3 > BrF5 > XeF4 (b) XeO 3 > IO -3 > XeF4 > BrF5
(c) XeO 3 > IO 3- > BrF5 > XeF4 (d) XeF4 > IO -3 > XeO 3 > BrF5
265. Incorrect order for following structures :
H
O O x4
q1 x1
O O
Cl x2 Cl Cl x3
q4
O q2 O O q3 O
O O O
(a) q 2 > q 1 (b) q 4 > q 3 (c) x 1 > x 2 (d) x 1 > x 4
266. For which molecular species, all bond lengths are same.
(a) IF4+ (b) IF2- (c) IF3 (d) IF5
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 125
267. Which of the following combination of atomic orbitals does not form p-bond in XeO 3F2
molecule ?
(a) d xy + p x (b) d yz + p y (c) d xz + p z (d) d yz + p x
268. Which of the following statement does not support to the fact that “NH 3 is stronger lewis base
than PH 3 ” ?
(a) Lone pair at nitrogen in NH 3 molecule is more directional than lone pair at phosphorous in
PH 3 molecule.
(b) Negative charge density at N-atom in NH 3 is higher than at P-atom in PH 3 .
(c) Lone pair at P-atom in PH 3 is delocalized.
(d) NH 3 is better reducing agent than PH 3 .
269. Which of the following statement is incorrect about CO 2- 3 ion ?
(a) Average formal charge on each oxygen atom is 0.67 unit.
(b) It is planar and non-polar.
(c) All C — O bond lengths are equal.
(d) Nodal plane of C ¾¾ p
® O bond lies perpendicular to molecular plane of CO 2-
3 ion.
270. In which of the following molecule back bonding is not present ?
(a) Si 3O 6-
9 (b) H 5B 3O 2-
8 (c) P4 O 6 (d) Be 2Cl 4
271. Which of the following statement is correct regarding species?
(I) BaO 2 (II) O 2[BF4 ] (III) RbO 2
(a) III > I > II : Order of O — O bond length
(b) II > I > III : Order of O — O bond order
(c) II > III > I : Order of O — O bond dissociation energy
(d) I > II = III : Number of unpaired electrons present in anti bonding MO.
272. Which of the following oxy acid is non-polar ?
(a) H 2SO 5 (b) H 3B 3O 6 (c) H 3PO 5 (d) H 2S 2O 8
 126 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 2
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as assertion and reason, while
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following responses.
(A) If assertion is true but the reason is false
(B) If assertion is false but reason is true
(C) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(D) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
1. Assertion : C 3O 2 is non-planar molecule.
Reason : Terminal p-bonds of the molecule are lying in different planes.
2. Assertion : BF3 undergoes in partial hydrolysis.
Reason : Due to strong back bonding in BF3 only two fluoride groups have come out on
nucleophilic attack by H 2O.
3. Assertion : The central carbon atom in F2C == C == CF2 and both carbon atoms in
F2B — C ºº C — BF2 are sp-hybridized.
Reason : Both molecules are planar.
4. Assertion : Formation of PH +4 ion is relatively difficult in comparison to NH +4 ion.
Reason : Lone pair of phosphorus atom in PH 3 resides in stereochemically inactive pure
s-orbital.
5. Assertion : Bond dissociation energy of B — F bond in BF3 molecule is lower than C — F
bond in CF4 molecule.
Reason : Atomic size of B-atom is larger than that of C-atom.
6. Assertion : PF3 is stronger Lewis base than PH 3 .
Reason : l.p. of P-atom in PF3 molecule is present in sp 3 -hybrid orbital, whereas l.p. of
P-atom in PH 3 is present in almost pure s-orbital.
7. Assertion : NiO is less basic than CaO.
Reason : Ni 2+ is pseudo noble gas configuration cation whereas Ca 2+ is noble gas
configuration cation.
8. Assertion : When two gaseous OF molecules are allowed to cool, then they undergo
dimerisation through O-atom.
Reason : Dimer-form of OF molecule (i.e., O 2F2 ) is having one peroxy linkage in its
structure.
9. Assertion : Bond dissociation energy of N—F bond in NF3 molecule is lower than that of in
NCl 3 molecule.
Reason : Interelectronic repulsion exists between small size N and F atoms in N—F bond
of NF3 molecule.
10. Assertion : If d x 2 - y 2 and p y orbitals come close together along z-axis, they can form p-
bond by sideways overlapping.
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 127
Reason : Both orbitals do not have electron density along z-axis.
11. Assertion : $ bond angle is higher than HOCl
HOF $ .
Reason : Oxygen is more electronegative than chlorine.
12. Assertion : NaCl is more ionic than NaI.
Reason : Chlorine is more electronegative than iodine.
13. Assertion : PbI 4 doesn't exist and converts into PbI 2 and I 2 spontaneously at room
temperature but PbCl 4 needs heating to convert into PbCl 2 and Cl 2 .
Reason : Pb 2+ is more stable than Pb 4+ due to inert pair effect.
14. Assertion : Dipole moment of NF3 is less than that of NH 3 .
Reason : Polarity of N—F bond is less than that of N—H bond.
15. Assertion : Solubility of n-alcohol in water decreases with increase in molecular weight.
Reason : The hydrophobic nature of alkyl chain increase.
16. Assertion : Nitrogen is inactive at room temperature but becomes reactive at elevated
temperature (on heating or in the presence of catalyst).
Reason : In nitrogen molecule, there is delocalization of electrons.
17. Assertion : The p-isomer of dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than o- and m-
isomer.
Reason : p- isomer is symmetrical and thus shows more closely packed structure.
18. Assertion : Na 2SO 4 is soluble in water while BaSO 4 is water insoluble.
Reason : Lattice energy of BaSO 4 exceeds its hydration energy.
19. Assertion : N 2 and NO + both are diamagnetic substances.
Reason : NO + is isoelectronic with N 2 .
20. Assertion : Bond order can assume any value including zero.
Reason : Higher the bond order, shorter is the bond length and greater is the bond
energy.
21. Assertion : C 3O 2 has linear structures.
Reason : Each C atom in C 3O 2 is sp-hybridised.
22. Assertion : H bonding occurs in H 2O due to larger size of O-atom.
Reason : The size of O- atom is larger than H atom.
23. Assertion : (CH 3 ) 3 N geometry is pyramidal but in case (SiH 3 ) 3 N it is planar.
Reason : The maximum covalency of Si is six but that of C is four.
24. Assertion : Superoxides of alkali metals are paramagnetic.
Reason : Superoxides contain the ion O –2 which has one unpaired electron in its
anti-bonding molecular orbital.
25. Assertion : The HF2- ion exists in the solid state & also in liquid state but not in aqueous state.
Reason : The magnitude of hydrogen bonds among HF molecules is weaker than that in
between HF and H 2O.
26. Assertion : If d x 2 - y 2 and p y -orbitals come close together along z-axis, then they can form
p -bond by sideways overlapping.
Reason : Both orbitals do not have electron density along z-axis.
 128 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

27. Assertion : The H-bond present in NH 3 dissolved in water is best represented by :

H
|
H — N — H - - - -O — H and not by H — N - - - - - H — O
| | | |
H H H H
Reason : The O—H bond polarity is more compared to that of N—H bond.

Level 3
1. Which of the following overlaps leads to lateral bonding in O 2 ? (JCECE 2005)
p-orbital
s-orbital s-orbital p-orbital
(a) (b)

p-orbital p-orbital d-orbital d-orbital

(c) (d)

2. The correct order of C–O bond length among CO, CO 23- , CO 2 is : (CBSE PMT 2007)
(a) CO 2 < CO 23- < CO (b) CO < CO 23- < CO 2
(c) CO 23- < CO 2 < CO (d) CO < CO 2 < CO 23-
3. In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structural? (CBSE PMT 2007)
(a) SF 4 and XeF 4 (b) SO 2-
3 and NO 3
-

(c) BF3 and NF3 (d) BrO –3 and XeO 3

4. Which of the following represents pp - dp back donation? (MP PMT 2007)
O
(a) C C (b) O S O

O
Cl

Cl S Cl
(c) (d) Both (b) and (c)
Cl
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 129
5. If Na + ion is larger than Mg 2+ ion and S 2- ion is larger than Cl - ion, which of the following
will be stable salt in water? (Manipal 2008)
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Sodium sulphide
(c) Magnesium chloride (d) Magnesium sulphide
6. The correct order of increasing bond length of C — H, C — O, C — C and C == C is :
(CBSE PMT 2008)
(a) C — C < C == C < C — O < C — H
(b) C — O < C — H < C — C < C == C
(c) C — H < C — O < C — C < C == C
(d) C — H < C == C < C — O < C — C
7. Arrange the following ions in the order of decreasing X–O bond length, where X is the central
atom in SiO 44 - > ClO -4 > PO 34- > SO 24- (Kerala CEE 2008)
(a) ClO 4- > SO 24- > PO 34- > SiO 44 - (b) SiO 44 - > PO 34- > SO 24- > ClO -4
(c) SiO 44 - > PO 34- > ClO -4 > SO 24- (d) SiO 44 - > SO 24- > PO 34- > ClO -4
(e) SO 24- > PO 34- > ClO 4- > SiO 44 -
8. The dipole moment of HBr is 1.6 × 10 -30 C – m and interatomic spacing is 1 Å. The percent
ionic character of HBr is : (Haryana PMT 2008)
(a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 27
9. Molecular shapes of SF 4 , CF 4 and XeF 4 are : (Kerala CEE 2008)
(a) the same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively on the central atom
(b) the same with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electron respectively on the central atom
(c) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively on the central atom
(d) different 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively on the central atom
(e) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively on the central atom
10. The angular shape of ozone molecule (O 3 ) consists of : (CBSE PMT 2008)
(a) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds (b) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds
(c) 1 sigma and 1 pi bond (d) 2 sigma and 1 pi bond
11. The molecular shapes of SF 4 , SiF 4 and ICl -4 are : (Haryana PMT 2008)
(a) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms, respectively.
(b) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms, respectively.
(c) the same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons on the central atoms, respectively.
(d) the same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms, respectively.
12. For O 2 molecule, molecular orbitals having lowest energy is : (COMEDK 2008)
(a) s * 2 p z (b) p2 p y (c) s * 2 p x (d) s2 p z
13. Which one of the following graphs represent the correct order of boiling points (b.p.) of
ethane (1), ethyl alcohol (2) and acetic acid (3)? (EAMCET 2008)

bp bp
(a) (b)

1 2 3 1 2 3
 130 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

bp bp
(c) (d)

1 2 3 1 2 3
14. Among the following, the compound that contains ionic, covalent and coordinate linkage is :
(Karnataka CET 2009)
(a) NH 4 Cl (b) NaCl
(c) CaO (d) NH 3
15. In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order: (CBSE PMT 2009)
(a) MCl > MI > MBr > MF (b) MF>MCl>MBr>MI
(c) MF>MCl>MI>MBr (d) MI>MBr>MCl>MF
16. Dipole moments of HCl = 1.03 D, HI = 0.38 D. Bond length of HCl = 1.3 Å and HI = 1.6 Å.
The ratio of fraction of an electric charge, existing on each atom in HCl and HI is :
(EAMCET 2009)
(a) 1.2 : 1 (b) 2.7 : 1 (c) 3.3 : 1 (d) 1 : 3.3
17. 2 p x atomic orbital undergoes linear combination with: (COMEDK 2009)
(a) 2p y orbital (b) 2p x orbital
(c) both 2p y and 2p x orbital (d) 2p z orbital
18. The molecular geometry of BF 3 is : (Kerala CEE 2009)
(a) tetrahedral (b) pyramidal
(c) square planar (d) trigonal planar
(e) linear
19. Tye type of hybridisation on the five carbon atoms from left to right in the molecule
CH 3 — CH == C == CH — CH 3 are : (Kerala CEE 2009)
(a) sp 3 , sp 2 , sp 2 , sp 2 , sp 3 (b) sp 3 , sp , sp 2 , sp 2 , sp 3
(c) sp 3 , sp 2 , sp , sp 2 , sp 3 (d) sp 3 , sp 2 , sp 2 , sp , sp 3
(e) sp 3 , sp , sp , sp 2 , sp 3
20. Out of N 2 O, SO 2 , H 2 O, N -3 , I +3 and I -3 the linear species are : (Odisha JEE 2009)
(a) NO -2 , I +3 , H 2 O (b) N 2 O
(c) N 2 O, I -3 , N -3 (d) N 3- , I +3 , SO 2
21. Correct order of bond angels for the following molecules is : (Odisha JEE 2009)
(a) NH 3 > PCl 3 > BCl 3 (b) BCl 3 > NH 3 > PCl 3
(c) BCl 3 > PCl 3 > NH 3 (d) PCl 3 > BCl 3 > NH 3
22. The five d-orbitals are designated as dx z d xy , d yz , d x 2 - y 2 and d z 2 . Choose the correct
statement. (AMU 2009)
(a) The shapes of the first three orbitals are similar but that of the fourth and fifth orbitals are
different.
(b) The shapes of all five d-orbitals are similar.
(c) The shapes of the first four orbitals are similar but that of the fifth orbital is different.
(d) The shapes of all the five d-orbitals are different
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 131
23. The ‘d ’ orbital involved in the hybridization in the PCl 5 molecule is : (J & K CET 2009)
(a) 3 d x 2 - y 2 (b) 3 d z 2 (c) 3d xy (d) 4 d x 2 - z 2
24. The molecule which has the highest bond order is : (Kerala CEE 2009)
(a) C 2 (b) N 2 (c) B 2 (d) O 2
(e) F 2
25. The correct statement with regards to H +2 and H -2 is : (Karnataka CET 2009)
(a) Both H +2 and H -2 do not exist. (b) H -2 is more stable than H +2 .
(c) H +2 is more stable than H -2 . (d) Both H +2 ad H -2 are equally stable.
26. According to MO theory which of the following lists the nitrogen species in terms of increasing
bond order? (CBSE PMT 2009)
(a) N -2 < N 2 < N 22- (b) N 22- < N -2 < N 2
(c) N 2 < N 22- < N -2 (d) N -2 < N 22- < N 2
27. Which of the following has strongest hydrogen bonding? (Manipal 2009)
(a) Ethyl amine (b) Ammonia
(c) Ethyl alcohol (d) Diethyl ether
28. NH 3 has higher boiling point than expected because : (Manipal 2009)
(a) it forms NH 4 OH with water
(b) it has strong intermolecular hydrogen bonds
(c) it has intermolecular hydrogen bonds
(d) its density decreases on freezing
29. Between the two compounds shown below, the vapour pressure of B at a particular
temperature is expected to be : (Manipal 2009)
OH OH
and
N2O NO2
A B
(a) higher than that of A
(b) lower than that of A
(c) same as that of A
(d) can be higher or lower depending upon the size of the vessel
30. Which of the following has electrovalent linkage? (MP PMT 2010)
(a) CaCl 2 (b) AlCl 3 (c) SiCl 4 (d) PCl 3
31. Which of the following substance has the highest melting point? (VMMC 2010)
(a) BaO (b) MgO (c) KCl (d) NaCl
32. The higher lattice energy corresponds to : (AMU 2010)
(a) MgO (b) CaO (c) SrO (d) BaO
33. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, the central atoms have sp 2 hybridization?
(CBSE PMT 2010)
(a) NO -2 and NH 3 (b) BF3 and NO -2
(c) NH -2 and H 2O (d) BF3 and NH -2
 132 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

34. The type of hybridization of nitrogen atom in NH 3 is : (COMEDK 2010)

(a) sp 2 (b) sp 3
(c) dsp 2 (d) sp
35. The hybridization of the central atom in BrF 5 molecule is : (Kerala CEE 2010)
(a) sp 3 (b) dsp 3
(c) sp 3 d 2 (d) d 3 sp 3
3
(e) dsp
36. Which one of the following conversions involves change in both hybridization and shape?
(Karnataka CET 2010)
(a) CH 4 ® C 2 H 6 (b) NH 3® NH +4
(c) BF 3 ® BF4- (d) H 2 O ® H 3 O +
37. Which of the following is paramagnetic with bond order 0.5?
(Manipal 2010; VMMC 2010)
(a) F 2 (b) H +2 (c) N 2 (d) O -2
38. Peroxide ion
(I) has completely filled anti-bonding molecular orbitals.
(II) is diamagnetic.
(III) has bond order one.
(IV) is isoelectronic with neon.
Which of these are correct? (Karnataka CET 2010)
(a) II and III (b) I, II and IV
(c) I, II and III (d) I and IV
39. Which of the following molecules may exist? (COMEDK 2010)
(a) He 2 (b) Be 2 (c) Ne 2 (d) C 2
40. Maximum number of H-bonds in one molecule of water is : (Manipal 2010)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
41. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a covalent compounds?
(Karnataka CET 2011)
(a) No definite geometry
(b) Insoluble in polar solvent
(c) Small difference in electronegativity between the combining atoms
(d) Low melting point
42. Non-zero dipole moment is shown by : (Odisha JEE 2011)
Cl

(a) CCl 4 (b) CO 2 (c) H 2 O (d)

Cl
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 133
43. Dipole moment of
X

is 1.5 D. Then dipole moment of the following (CBSE PMT 2011)

X

is :
X X
X
(a) 1.5 D (b) 2.35 D (c) 1 D (d) 3 D
44. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is : (JCECE 2011)
(a) CH 3 Cl (b) NF 3 (c) BF 3 (d) ClO 2
45. Which of the following fluoride of xenon has zero dipole moment? (AMU 2011)
(a) XeF 2 (b) XeF 3
(c) XeF 4 (d) XeF 6
46. Which of the two ions from the list given below, have the geometry that is explained by the
same hybridization of orbitals, NO -2 , NO -3 ,NH -2 , NH +4 , SCN - ? (CBSE PMT 2011)
(a) NH +4 and NO -3 (b) SCN - and NH -2
(c) NO -2 and NH -2 (d) NO -2 and NO -3
47. Among the following molecules : SO 2 , SF 4 , ClF 3 , BrF 5 and XeF 4 which of the following
shapes does not describe any of the molecules mentioned? (Kerala CEE 2011)
(a) Bent (b) Trigonal bipyramidal
(c) See-saw (d) T-shape
(e) Square pyramidal
48. When O 2 is converted into O +2 , (KCET 2011)
(a) both paramagnetic character and bond order increase.
(b) bond order decreases.
(c) paramagnetic character increases.
(d) paramagnetic character decreases and the bond order increases.
49. Bond order in nitrogen molecule is : (COMEDK 2011)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
50. Which of the following pairs may form stable coordinate bonds? (Karnataka CET 2012)
(a) NH 3 , H 2 O (b) NH 3 , BF 3
(c) NaOH, HCl (d) BF 3 , BCl 3
51. Bond polarity of diatomic molecule is because of : (AIIMS 2012)
(a) difference in electron affinities of two atoms
(b) difference in electronegativities of two atoms
(c) difference in ionization potentials
(d) All of the above
 134 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

52. CO is practically non-polar since : (WB JEE 2012)

(a) the s-electron drift from C to O almost nullified by the p-electron drift from O to C
(b) the s-electron drift from O to C is almost nullified by the p-electron drift from C to O
(c) the bond moment is low
(d) there is triple bond between C and O
53. Which one of the following pairs isostructural (i . e. , having the same shape and hybridization)?
(CBSE PMT 2012)
(a) [BCl 3 and BrCl 3 ] (b) [NH 3 and NO -3 ]
(c) [NF 3 and BF 3 ] (d) [BF4- and NH +4 ]
54. The geometry of ammoium ion is : (Kerala CEE 2012)
(a) trigonal planar (b) square planer
(c) tetrahedral (d) square pyramidal
(e) octahedral
55. All the four sigma bonds in perchlorate ion are : (AMU 2012)
(a) sp 3 -sp 3 bond (b) sp 3 -p bond
(c) sp 2 -sp 2 bond (d) sp 2 -p bond
56. The C–H bond and C–C bond in ethane are formed by which of the following types of overlap?
(Karnataka CET 2012)
(a) sp 2 -s and sp 2 –sp 2 (b) sp-s and sp-sp
(c) p-s and p-p (d) sp 3 -s and sp 3 -sp 3
57. Which one of the following is the correct statement? (Kerala CEE 2012)
(a) O 2 molecule has bond order 2 and is diamagnetic.
(b) N 2 molecule has bond order 3 and is paramagnetic.
(c) H 2 molecule has bond order zero and is diamagnetic.
(d) C 2 molecule has bond order 2 and is diamagnetic.
(e) He +2 ion has bond order zero and is diamagnetic.
58. The paramagnetic behaviour of B 2 is due to the presence of : (WB JEE 2012)
(a) 2 unpaired electrons in p b MO.
*
(b) 2 unpaired electrons in p MO.
*
(c) 2 unpaired electrons in s MO.
(d) 2 unpaired electrons in s b MO.
59. Which of the following molecules/ions does not contain unpaired electrons? (AFMC 2012)
(a) O 2-
2 (b) B 2
(c) N -2 (d) O 2
60. Intramolecular hydrogen bond exists in : (Kerala NEET 2012)
(a) ortho nitrophenol (b) ethyl alcohol
(c) water (d) diethyl ether
(e) para chlorophenol
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 135
61. Which of the following is electron-deficient? (Kerala CEE 2013)
(a) (BH 3 ) 2 (b) PH 3
(c) (CH 3 ) 2 (d) (SiH 3 ) 2
62. Covalent compounds have low melting point because (Karnataka CET 2013)
(a) Covalent molecules are held by weak van der Waal’s force of attraction.
(b) Covalent bond is less exothermic
(c) Covalent bond is weaker than ionic bond
(d) Covalent molecules have definite shape
63. Which of the following is a polar molecule? (Kerala CEE 2013)
(a) SiF 4 (b) XeF 4 (c) BF 3 (d) SF 4
64. Which of the following will have the maximum dipole moment? (WB JEE 2013)
(a) CH 3 F (b) CH 3 Cl
(c) CH 3 Br (d) CH 3 I
65. The outer orbitals of C in ethene molecule can be considered to be hybridized to give three
equivalent sp 2 orbitals. The total number of sigma (s) and pi(p) bonds in ethene molecule is :
(COMEDK 2013)
(a) 3 sigma (s) and 2 pi (p) bonds (b) 4 sigma (s) and 1 pi (p) bond
(c) 5 sigma (s) and 1 pi (p) bond (d) 1 sigma (s) and 2 pi (p) bonds
66. Which one of the following molecules contain no p-bond? (NEET 2013)
(a) CO 2 (b) H 2 O (c) SO 2 (d) NO 2
67. The number of p-bonds in CH 2 == CH — CH == CH — C ºº CH is (Karnataka CET 2013)
1p 1p 2p

(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3

3
68. In which of the following pair both the species have sp hybridization? (COMEDK 2013)
(a) SiF 4 , BeH 2 (b) NF3 , H 2O
(c) NF 3 , BF 3 (d) H 2 S, BF 3
69. Which of the following represents the given mode of hybridization sp 2 -sp 2 -sp -sp from left to
right? (WB JEE 2013)
(a) H 2C == CH — C ºº N (b) CH ºº C — C ºº CH
CH2
(c) H 2C == C == CH 2 (d) CH2
70. The ion which is not tetrahedral in shape is : (AIIMS 2013)
(a) BF4- (b) NH +4
2+
(c) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ] (d) NiCl 2-
4
71. Shape of SF2Cl 2 molecule is : (WB JEE 2013)
(a) tetrahedral (b) octahedral
(c) square pyramidal (d) trigonal bipyramidal
72. Which of the following is paramagnetic? (NEET 2013)
(a) CO (b) O -2
(c) CN - (d) NO +
 136 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

73. In which of the following ionization processes the bond energy increases and the magnetic
behaviour changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic? (COMEDK 2013)
(a) O 2 ® O +2 (b) C 2 ® C +2
(c) NO ® NO + (d) N 2 ® N +2
74. The pair of species that has the same bond order in the following is : (COMEDK 2013)
+ - -
(a) CO, NO (b) NO , CN
(c) O 2 , N 2 (d) O 2 , B 2
75. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in : (Karnataka CET 2013)
(a) ethyl chlorine (b) triethyl amine
(c) ethanol (d) diethyl ether
76. The hydrogen bond is shortest in : (Kerala CEE 2013; AMU 2016)
(a) S––H----S (b) N––H----O
(c) S––H----O (d) F––H----O
(e) F––H----F
77. XeF 2 is isostructural with : (Kerala CEE 2013)
(a) SbCl 3 (b) BaCl 2
(c) TeF 2 (d) ICl -2
78. In the ozone molecule shown above, the formal charges of oxygen atoms, 1, 2, 3 are
respectively, (JCECE 2014)
1
O
2 O O 3
(a) 0, –1, +1 (b) 0, +1, –1
(c) +1, 0, –1 (d) –1, 0, +1
79. Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment? (CBSE PMT 2014)
(a) CO 2 (b) CH 4 (c) NH 3 (d) NF 3
80. Which of the following is a polar molecule? (CBSE PMT 2014)
(a) BF 3 (b) SF 4
(c) SiF 4 (d) XeF 4
81. Pick up the incorrect statement : (COMEDK 2014)
(a) Dipole moment of ammonia is due to orbital dipole and resultant dipole in the same
direction
(b) In BF 3 bond dipoles are higher but dipole moment is zero
(c) Dipole moment is vector quantity
(d) O 2 , H 2 show bond dipole due to polarisation
82. Which one of the following has the lowest dipole moment? (Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) CH 3 F (b) CH 3 Cl
(c) CH 3 I (d) CHCl 3
(e) CH 3 Br
83. Which one of the following exhibits the maximum covalent character? (EAMCET 2014)
(a) FeCl 2 (b) AlCl 3
(c) MgCl 2 (d) SnCl 2
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 137
84. Identify the molecule which has a permanent dipole-moment : (R-PMT 2014)
(a) H 2S (b) CO 2 (c) CCl 4 (d) Cl 2
85. The number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons respectively in NH 3 molecule are :
(Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) 4 and 0 (b) 3 amd 0
(c) 3 and 1 (d) 2 and 2
(e) 5 and 0
86. The percentage of s-character in the hybridised orbitals of B in BF 3 is : (Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 33.3
(e) 21.5
87. The structure of XeF 6 is experimentally determined to be distorted octahedron. Its structure
according to VSEPR theory is : (WB JEE 2014)
(a) octahedron (b) trigonal bipyramidal
(c) pentagonal bipyramidal (d) tetragonal bipyramidal
2 3
88. Both sp and sp hybrid orbitals are involved in the formation of : (Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) CH 2 == CH — C ºº C — H (b) CH 3 — CH 2 — CH 2 — CH 3
(c) CH 2 == CH — C ºº N (d) CH 2 == CH 2
(e) CH 2 == CH — CO — CH 3
89. If E = the number of lone pairs of electrons on Xe,
B = the number of bonding pairs of electrons,
S = shape of the molecule,
then, what is the correct set of E , B and S of XeF 4 ? (EAMCET 2014)
E B S
(a) 3 3 Octahedral
(b) 3 3 Square planer
(c) 2 4 Square planer
(d) 4 2 Square planer
90. The pair of compounds having identical shapes for their molecules is :
(Karnataka CET 2014)
(a) CH 4 , SF 4 (b) BCl, ClF 3
(c) XeF 2 , ZnCl 2 (d) SO 2 , CO 2
91. The bond order for O +2 and C 2 respectively are : (Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) 2.5, 2 (b) 3, 2 (c) 2, 2.5 (d) 2, 3
(e) 3, 3
92. Which one of the following paramagnetic? (Manipal 2014)
(a) NO (b) NO + (c) NO - (d) N 2
93. Which of these represents the correct order of their increasing bond order?
(COMEDK 2014)
(a) C 22- < He +2 < O +2 < O -2 (b) He +2 < O -2 < O +2 < C 22-
(c) O -2 < O +2 < C 22- < He +2 (d) O +2 < C 22- < O -2 < He +2
 138 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

94. In which of the following compounds there is no H-bonding? (R-PMT 2014)

(a) CuSO 4 × 5H 2O (b) NH 4 OH
(c) HF (d) C 6 H 5NO 2
95. Which one of the following is an electron-precise compound? (R-PMT 2014)
(a) Methane (b) NH 3
(c) Diborane (d) H 2O
96. The structure of XeF 6 is experimentally determined to be distorted octahedron. Its structure
according to VSEPR theory is : (WB JEE 2014)
(a) octahedron (b) trigonal bipyramidal
(c) pentagonal bipyramidal (d) tetragonal bipyramidal
97. Bond order of which among the following molecules is zero? (MHT CET 2014)
(a) F 2 (b) O 2 (c) Be 2 (d) Li 2
98. Decreasing order of stability of O 2 and ions of it : (CBSE PMT 2015 Re Exam.)
(a) O 2 > O +2 > O 22- > O -2 (b) O -2 > O 22- > O +2 > O 2
(c) O +2 > O 2 > O -2 > O 22- (d) O 22- > O 2- > O 2 > O +2
99. Which of the following options represents the correct bond order?
(CBSE PMT 2015 Cancelled)
(a) O -2 < O 2 < O +2 (b) O -2 < O 2 < O +2
(c) O -2 < O 2 < O +2 (d) O -2 < O 2 < O +2
100. The correct bond order in the following species is : (CBSE PMT 2015 Cancelled)
(a) O 22+ < O -2 < O +2 (b) O +2 < O -2 < O 22+
(c) O 2-1 < O 2+ < O 2+2 (d) O +22 < O +2 < O -2
101. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural? (NEET 2015)
(a) NH 3 , PH 3 (b) XeF4 , XeO 4
(c) SiCl 4 , PCl +4 (d) Dimond, silicon carbide
102. The shape of XeF6 is : (K-CET 2016)
(a) Distorted octahedral (b) Pyramidal
(c) Square planer (d) Square pyrimidal
103. Main axis of diatomic molecule is Z. The orbitals. P x and P y overlap to form :
(K-CET 2016)
(a) s - molecular orbital (b) No bond is formed
(c) p - molecular orbital (d) d - molecular orbital
104. HCl gas is covalent and NaCl is an ionic compound. This is because : (K-CET 2016)
(a) Hydrogen is a non-metal
(b) Electronegativity difference between H and Cl is less than 2.1
(c) Sodium is highly electro positive
(d) HCl is a gas
105. The correct order of increasing ionic character is : (K-CET 2016)
(a) BeCl 2 < MgCl 2 < BaCl 2 < CaCl 2 (b) BeCl 2 < MgCl 2 < CaCl 2 < BaCl 2
(c) BeCl 2 < BaCl 2 < MgCl 2 < CaCl 2 (d) BaCl 2 < CaCl 2 < MgCl 2 <BeCl 2
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 139
106. Structure of BrF3 is : (AMU 2016)
(a) Trigonal bipyramidal (b) Perfect T-shaped
(c) Bent T-shaped (d) Trigonal planer
107. The bond order of which of the following molecules/ion( s) is 3 : (AMU 2016)
(a) O 2 and NO + (b) N 2 and NO +
+
(c) N 2 and NO (d) N 2 and NO +
108. Hybridization and shape of BrF5 is : (AMU 2016)
(a) sp 3 d , Trigonal bipyramidal (b) sp 3 d 2 , Trigonal bipyramidal
(c) dsp 2 , square planar (d) sp 3 d 2 , square pyramidal
109. Match the compound given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column II
and mark the correct option. [NEET (Phase-1)2016]
Column-I Column-I
(A) XeF6 (i) distorted octahedral
(B) XeO 3 (ii) square planar
(C) XeOF4 (iii) pyramidal
(D) XeF4 (iv) square pyramidal
Code :
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
110. Consider the molecules CH 4 , NH 3 and H 2O. Which of the given statement is false?
[NEET (Phase-1) 2016]
(a) The H—C—H bond angle is CH 4 is larger than the H—N—H bond angle is NH 3
(b) The H—C—H bond angle is CH 4 the H—N—H bond angle in NH 3 and the H—O—H bond
angle in H 2O are all greater than 90°.
(c) Then H—O—H bond angle in H 2O is larger than the H—C—H bond angle in CH 4
(d) The H—O—H bond angle in H 2O is smaller than the H—N—H bond angle in NH 3
111. Predict the correct order among the following : [NEET (Phase-1) 2016]
(a) lone pair — bond pair > bond pair — bond pair > lone pair — lone pair
(b) lone pair — lone pair > lone pair — bond pair > bond pair — bond pair
(c) lone pair — lone pair > bond pair — bond pair > lone pair — bond pair
(d) bond pair — bond pair > lone pair — bond pair > lone pair — lone pair
112. The hydrogen bond is strongest in : (AMU 2016)
(a) O — H ...... S (b) S — H ...... O
(c) F — H ...... F (d) F — H ...... O
113. HCl gas is covalent and NaCl is an ionic compound. This is because : (K-CET 2016)
(a) Hydrogen is a non-metal
(b) Electronegativity difference between H and Cl is less than 2.1
(c) Sodium is highly electro positive
(d) HCl is a gas
 140 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

114. The increasing order of bond order of O 2 , O 2+ , O 2- and O 2-

2 is : (K CET 2016)
(a) O 22- , O -2 , O +2 , O 2 (b) O 22- , O -2 , O 2 , O +2
(c) O +2 , O 2 , O -2 , O 22- (d) O 2 , O +2 , O -2 , O 22-
115. Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and isostructural? (NEET 2016)
(a) ClO -3 ,SO 23- (b) CO 23- ,NO -3
(c) ClO -3 ,CO 23- (d) SO 23- ,CO 23-
116. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are: (NEET 2016)
(a) square planar, sp 3 d 2 (b) octahydral, sp 3 d 2
(c) trigonal bipyramidal, sp 3 d (d) planar triangle, sp 3 d 3
117. Among the following, which one is a wrong statement? (NEET 2016)
(a) I +3 has bent geometry (b) PH 5 and BiCl 5 do not exist
(c) pp - dp bonds are present in SO 2 (d) SeF4 and CH 4 have same shape
118. Which of the following structures of a molecule is expected to have three bond pairs and one
lone pair of electrons? (Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) Trigonal Planar (b) Tetrahedral
(c) Octahedral (d) Pyramidal
119. Which of the following is the correct electron dot structure of N 2O molecule?
(Karnataka CET 2017)
.. .. .. ..
(a) :N == N == O
.. (b) :N — N == O:
.. + ..
–
(c) :N == N == O: (d) :N ºº N == O
.. :

120. The magnetic nature of elements depends on the presence of unpaired electrons. Identify the
configuration of transition elements which shows highest magnetic moment?
(Karnataka CET 2017)
2 8
(a) 3 d (b) 3 d
(c) 3 d 7 (d) 3 d 5
121. The ground state magnetic property of B 2 and C 2 molecules will be: (WB JEE 2017)
(a) B 2 paramagnetic and C 2 diamagnetic
(b) B 2 diamagnetic and C 2 paramagnetic
(c) both are diamagnetic
(d) both are paramagnetic
122. The species, having bond angles of 120° is: (NEET 2017)
(a) ClF3 (b) NCl 3
(c) BCl 3 (d) PH 3
123. Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order? (NEET 2017)
(a) O 2 ,NO + (b) CN - ,CO
(c) N 2 ,O -2 (d) CO,NO
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 141
124. Among CaH 2 ,BeH 2 ,BaH 2 , the order of ionic character is : (NEET 2018)
(a) BeH 2 < CaH 2 < BaH 2 (b) CaH 2 < BeH 2 < BaH 2
(c) BeH 2 < BaH 2 < CaH 2 (d) BaH 2 < BeH 2 < CaH 2
+ -
125. Consider the following species : CN , CN , NO and CN. Which one of these will have the
highest bond order ? (NEET 2018)
(a) NO (b) CN -
(c) CN + (d) CN
126. Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF63- ion ? (NEET 2018)
(a) Ga (b) Al
(c) B (d) In
127. In the structure of ClF3 , the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is :
(NEET 2018)
(a) one (b) two
(c) four (d) three
128. The maganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral, due to (NEET 2019)
(a) the p-bonding involves overlap of d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese
(b) the p-bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese
(c) there is no p-bonding
(d) the p-bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of manganese.
129. Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only p bonds according to Molecular
Orbital Theory? (NEET 2019)
(a) Be 2 (b) O 2
(c) N 2 (d) C 2
 142 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

ANSWERS
Level 1
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)

11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)

21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)

31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)

41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (c)

51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (b)

61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c)

71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (b)

81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (a)

91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (c) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (b)

101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (b) 105. (b) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (c) 109. (a) 110. (c)

111. (c) 112. (a) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (d) 118. (b) 119. (d) 120. (d)

121. (c) 122. (c) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (a) 126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (d) 130. (a)

131. (c) 132. (a) 133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (c) 136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (b) 139. (c) 140. (b)

141. (c) 142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (c) 145. (d) 146. (d) 147. (d) 148. (d) 149. (a) 150. (d)

151. (a) 152. (c) 153. (c) 154. (c) 155. (d) 156. (c) 157. (a) 158. (c) 159. (b) 160. (c)

161. (d) 162. (d) 163. (d) 164. (b) 165. (d) 166. (b) 167. (a) 168. (a) 169. (d) 170. (b)
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 143

171. (b) 172. (a) 173. (b) 174. (d) 175. (b) 176. (c) 177. (c) 178. (d) 179. (d) 180. (b)

181. (b) 182. (c) 183. (a) 184. (c) 185. (b) 186. (d) 187. (c) 188. (a) 189. (a) 190. (b)

191. (d) 192. (d) 193. (a) 194. (d) 195. (a) 196. (b) 197. (c) 198. (b) 199. (b) 200. (c)

201. (b) 202. (d) 203. (d) 204. (b) 205. (a) 206. (a) 207. (c) 208. (c) 209. (d) 210. (d)

211. (a) 212. (b) 213. (d) 214. (a) 215. (a) 216. (c) 217. (d) 218. (c) 219. (a) 220. (c)

221. (d) 222. (a) 223. (a) 224. (b) 225. (a) 226. (d) 227. (d) 228. (c) 229. (a) 230. (a)

231. (a) 232. (c) 233. (d) 234. (a) 235. (c) 236. (a) 237. (b) 238. (c) 239. (c) 240. (a)

241. (b) 242. (a) 243. (c) 244. (b) 245. (c) 246. (d) 247. (c) 248. (b) 249. (a) 250. (b)

251. (a) 252. (c) 253. (d) 254. (b) 255. (c) 256. (d) 257. (b) 258. (d) 259. (a) 260. (d)

261. (d) 262. (b) 263. (a) 264. (b) 265. (d) 266. (b) 267. (d) 268. (d) 269. (d) 270. (c)

271. (c) 272. (b)

Level 2
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)

11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (D)

21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (B)
 144 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 3
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (e) 10. (d)

11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)

21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)

31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d)

41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (a,c) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (b)

51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (a)

61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (c)

71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (c) 76. (e) 77. (e) 78. (c) 79. (c) 80. (b)

81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (d) 87. (c) 88. (e) 89. (c) 90. (c)

91. (a) 92. (a,c) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (c)

101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (b) 104. (b) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (b) 108. (d) 109. (b) 110. (c)

111. (b) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (d) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (d)

121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (b) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (b) 129. (d)
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 145

Hints and Solutions

: Level 1
10. (b) During protonation hybridisation remains same but shape changes.

:
:

O + H+ ¾® O
H H H H+
H
(V shape) (Pyramidal)
sp3 sp3
.. .. .. ..
11. (a) NF3 < NCl 3 < NBr3 < NI3
Correct order of Lewis base strength in nitrogen halides.
12. (d) SiF6 + 2F - ¾® SiF62-
SF6 + F - ¾® No reaction
BF3 + F - ¾® BF4-
Due to complex formation F - concentration decreases, ionization of HF p H + + F - increases.
13. (a) Aqueous hydrolysis of CCl 4 is not possible due to absence of vacant orbital in carbon, while hydrolysis
of MgCl 2, AlCl 3 , SiCl 4 and PCl 5 is possible. Ease of hydrolysis is proportional to the ease of attack of
H 2O molecule on central atom.
CCl 4 < MgCl 2 < AlCl 3 < SiCl 4 < PCl 5

H H Cl
H + B– + H –
H + B + H
N N H N N H
14. (b) +3HCl
B– + B– Cl B + B– H
–
H N H H N Cl

H H H
15. (c) BCl 3 + 3H 2O ¾® H 3BO 3 + 3HCl
NCl 3 + 3H 2O ¾® NH 3 + 3HOCl
 146 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

+
d- OH2
d-
3+
Cl d H2O –HCl Cl +2H2O HO
d- B—Cl –B B—OH B—OH + 2HCl
Cl Cl Cl Cl HO
Cl
H
– H 2O
d
+ N3 d
+ N +
N+
Cl d
+ Cl Cl Cl–— OH2 Cl Cl–— OH N + HOCl
Cl Cl Cl Cl H
Cl

+2H2O
2HOCl + N
H H
H
16. (c) CCl 4 ¾® Due to absence of vacant d-orbital.
+6 +4 +4 +4
17. (b) SO 3 > SO 2 > CO 2 > CCl 4
more the positive charge more will be L.A character.
18. (c) PCl 5 behave as L.A
SF4 behave as L.A
XeF2 not behave as L.A
XeF2 + F -1 ¾® XeF3- \ Can not exist
Stable Unstable

IF7 behave as L.A

H H Cl
H H
H B H
N N + – B
H N N H
19. (c) +HCl
B B B H
H N H H B
LA LB N
Cl Cl
H
LA LB H H

20. (d) S 4+ < S 6+ Sulphur atom is more electronegative in SO as compare to that of SO .

3 2
O O O O
O
O
s S s
S O O
21. (b) s s
O O O
4 6
B. O. = = 1.33 B. O. = = 1.5
3 4
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 147
éB. L. µ 1 ù
êë B. O. úû
\ SO 3 > SO 24- > SO 2 > SO 3
2-
14243
Bent's Rule

O O O

28. (c) N N N
O O O O O O
Number of resonating structures = 3
3 H sp3 H
H sp
30. (b) 2BH3 ® B2H6 B B
H H
H
H
sp2 sp2
2BeH2 ® Be2H4 H—Be Be—H

H
32. (c) MX 2 + X ¢2 ¾® MX 4 X ¢2 ( M = Te )
X'
X X ® Hybridization of Te : sp 3d2( spx p y pz dx 2 - y 2 dz 2 )
Te
® Axial positions are formed by hybrid orbitals.
X X ® All M—X bond lengths are identical.
X'
X
X ® Hybridization of Te : sp 3d( º spx p y + pz dz 2 )
M ® All M — X bond lengths are not identical
X
X
33. (b) In see-saw structure, as lone pair lies in equatorial position, hence there is more reduction in
equatorial bonds than in axial bonds.
34. (c) IO 2F2- : Hyb. sp 3d, [ º spx p y pz dz 2 ]
ClF4- : Hyb. sp 3d2 [ º spx p y pz dx 2 - y 2 dz 2 ]
IF7 : Hyb. sp 3d3 .[ spx p y pz dx 2 - y 2 dxy dz 2 ]
dxy : orbital has two nodal planes xz and yz
35. (a) CO –3 XeF4 I–3 NCl 3 BeCl 2
sp
2 sp3 d2 sp3 d sp3 sp

¾® CHr
37. (c) C 2H 6 ¾ Heterolytic
¾¾¾ 3 + CH 3
s
Fission
¯ ¯
sp 2 sp 3
38. (a)
(a) AlH 3 ¾® AlH -4
sp2 sp3
 148 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(b) H 2O ¾® H 3O +
sp3 sp3

(c) NH 3 ¾® NH 4+
sp3 sp3
S
39. (a) cos q =
S -1
% of S = 27.1%
S
40. (b) cos 92 ° =
S -1
S
-0.035 = Þ -0.035 S + 0.035 = S
S -1
0.035 = S(1.035 )
0.035
S= = 0.0338
1.035
%S = 3.38%
41. (c) CH 4 + O 2 ¾® CO 2 + H 2O
sp3 sp

PCl 5( s ) ¾® [PCl 4 ]+ + [PCl 6 ]-

sp3 sp3 sp3d 2

SiF6 + HF ¾® No Lewis acid base interaction

Al(OH )3 + NaOH ¾® [ Al(OH )4 ]-
sp2 sp3

sp3
sp sp
P
N == C == S
42. (b) S == C == N ; Total number of sp-hybridised atom = 6
N == C == S sp2
O O S O O
½½ ½½ ½½ ½½ ½½
43. (c) HO — S — S —OH HO — S — OH HO — S — S —OH
··
½½ ½½ ½½ ½½
O O O O
(I) (II) (III)
53. (c)
< 180º Non-polar bond : S—S
µ
S F Polar bond : S—F
mD ¹ 0
µ
F
S

m2 m1 Non-polar bond : N—N

O O
N N Polar bond : N—O
O O mD = 0
m1 m2
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 149
m Non-polar bond : Si—Si
H Polar bond : Si—H
m H H m mD = 0
Si

Si
H H m
m H
m
m2 m2 Non-polar bond : Absent
m1 m3 m3 m1 Polar bond : I—Cl
Cl Cl Cl
I I mD = 0
mR mR1 mR1 mR
Cl Cl
m1 m3 Cl m m1
3
m2 m2

F
55. (a) O– pp -pp bond(s) = 0
I
pp -dp bond(s) = 1
O Bond order of (I—O) = 1.5
F
O pp -pp bond(s) = 1
H C pp -dp bond(s) = 0
O– Bond order of (C—O) = 1.5

F pp -pp bond(s) = 0
O
Xe pp -dp bond(s) = 1
O Bond order of (S—O) = 1.33
F

pp -pp bond(s) = 0
S
– pp -dp bond(s) = 2
O O–
O Bond order of (Xe—O) = 2.0

<180º

S –II CººN H
S H
+IV
S Cl Si H
56. (d) – S Cl Be Be Cl H Si
O O– NººC Cl
O H
µD¹0 µD=0 H
µD¹0 But has no non-polar bond µD=0
 150 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

57. (d) Þ Hyb. of carbon : sp 3 , hence % s-character in C—F bond » 25%

C
F F ® Non-planar
® Polar
F

Þ H Hyb. of carbon : sp 2, hence % s-character in C—H bond » 33%

C H
H ® Planar
® Non-polar

142º 180º 2pp-3dp back bonding

H3C O C
58. (b) N C S H3Si N C S H3C H3Si 140º
SiH3
:

110º
Bent Linear CH3
Bent Bent
59. (b) Triplet carbene is more stable than singlet carbene.

– –
F
F F F F
Cl Cl Cl
Xe BrF4– Br F Xe
63. (d) I I
F F F F
Cl Cl Cl F
sp3d
sp3d2 sp3d3
sp3d2 Linear: It is planar as three
square planar pentagonal planar
Planar points are in same plane

64. (c) XeF5- : 2 lone pairs ; pentagonal planar

BrF3 : 2 lone pairs ; Bent-T-shape
XeF2 : 3 lone pairs ; Linear
H 3S+ : 1 lone pairs ; Pyramidal
­­
CH 2 : 2 unpaired es ; Linear
(No lone pair)

CF3 CF3
CH3 CH3
65. (d) (I) F3C P H3C P
CH3 CH3
CF3 CF3
m¹0 m=0
CF3
CH3
(II) H3C P CH3^
PCH3 bond angles are equal
CH3
CF3
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 151
F

P Si
(III) F F F F
F F
m¹0 m=0
(Polar) (NoP olar)

66.(b)

m=0 m¹ 0

In sheet silicates although one SiO 4–

4 tetrahedron is linked to other three tetrahedrons but the
layer/sheet obtained is not planar, as fourth oxygen atom is projecting away from sheet.
3–
O
Cl Cl Cl
B
67. (c) O O I I

B B Cl Cl Cl
O O O
Planar Planar
B : sp2 I : sp3d2
(a) (b) (c)

B B B
N N N N
B B B B
N N N

each layer is planar as both B and N are sp2 hybridized

(d)

I III

H H
II
68. (b) C C C C
H H

2– 2–
O O S O– O–
H—O—N
69. (a) Cr Cr S Si Si
==

O O O O O
O– O O– N—OH
O O O O– O–
2– 2– Pyrosilicate Hyponitrous acid
Cr2O7 S2O3
 152 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

O
½½
70. (c) H — O — O — S— O –
½½
O
(HSO –5 )
No. of B —O —B linkages = 5; No. of P—O —P linkages = 6

OH 2– O

P
B
O O O
O O O
2Na+ HO—B O B—OH ×8H2O O==P P==O

O O O O
B P

OH O
(Borax) (P4O10)
O O
+3
½½ ½½ +5
Pyrosulphurous Acid : H —O — S — S —OH
3 ··
sp3
½½sp
O
Tetra Polyphosphoric Acid : (H 6P4O13 )
O O O O
½½ ½½ ½½ ½½
H —O — P —O — P —O — P —O — P —OH ;
½ ½ ½ ½
OH OH OH OH
No. of P—O —P linkages = 3
73. (d)
(a) N ºº C — C ºº N (b) – O — C ºº N
(Linear) (Linear)

(c) Xe (d) S
S S
(Bent shape)
F
(Linear)

74. (b) In trigonal bipyramidal geometry lone pairs (if present) never placed at axial positions.
(axial)

(axial)
(Trigonal bipyramidal (Trigonal planar shape
geometry) is not possible)
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 153
pz + dz2
F
p O sp3
75. (d) O p Xe sp3d
p O
F
dxy/d yz /dzx

p-bond is formed by 2pp-3dp overlapping and dx 2 - y 2 orbital does not form p-bond.
F
F F
76. (c) F
F
Xe+

XeF5+ contain four halogen atoms that lie in same plane.

F
F
Cl F
F
F Sn
(1) (2) (3) I
S Cl F
F Cl
Cl F
F
F
F

N
ºº
77. (b) N ºº C — C ºº N C
S
¯ ¯ Shape ® Zig-zag
sp-Hybridisation
S
Shape ® linear
C
ºº
N
O O

78. (b) HO—P P—O—H

O
H H
79. (c) XeF3+
+
F

Xe—F

F
BentT -shape
Bent T-shape
80. (b) C 3O 2 is linear structure.
CO 2 is linear but SnCl 2 is bent shape.
 154 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

81. (a)

(a) N Plane, Paramagnetic

O O

Cl
(b) O O Non-planer, Paramagnetic
O

C
(c) F Non-planer, paramagnetic
F
F

F
Cl
82. (d) (a) F P Maximum three Halogen atoms lie in a plane
Cl
F
F‚ F
(b) C == C ƒ Maximum four Halogen atoms lie in a plane
Fƒ ‚F
Cl
Cl
(c) C == C == C Maximum two Halogen atoms lie in a plane
Cl Cl

F F
(d) Xe F Maximum five Halogen atoms lie in a plane
F F

83. (c) SiF4 ¾® Tetrahedral

ClF4+ ¾® See-Saw shape
TeF5- ¾® Square pyramidal, maximum four florine atom lie in the same plane.
SOF4 ¾® Trigonal pyramidal
84. (a) (SiH 3 )3 P : ¾® No back bonding
\ sp 3-hybridisation
\ Shape will be pyramidal
Me 3N : No back bonding
\ sp 3-hybridisation
\ Shape will be pyramidal
N(SiH 3 )3 ¾® Back bonding present
\ sp 2-hybridisation
\ Shape will be planar
89. (b) As electronegativity difference of bond increases, polar character also increases.
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 155

91. (d) ® C
Cl Cl
Cl

Due to steric repulsion among Cl-atoms observed ÐCl C Cl is found to be greater than expected.

Cl
>60º Cl

Bond angle between both C—Cl bonds is greater than 60º due to steric repulsion between both
Cl-atoms, hence m D(observed ) < m D (Theoretical)

O2N
>60º NO
2

Observed bond angle between both C—NO 2 bonds is found to be greater than 60º due to steric
repulsion, between NO 2 groups, hence m D (observed) < m D (Theoretical)
H
O
Cl

Observed bond angle between C—O and C—Cl bond is found to be less than 60º due to
intramolecular H-bonding present in it, hence, m D (observed) > m D (Theoretical)
O—H S—H

94. (a) m¹0 m¹0

O—H S—H

X
95. (c) Symmetrical geometry m = 0
M
X X
M = B, Al
BX 3 or AlX 3
Hyb. Þ sp 2
 156 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

CH 3Cl > CH 3F CH 3Br > CH 3I

96. (a) >
Distance Charge
dominant dominant
97. (b) dx 2 - y 2 is axial d-orbital, it always form s -bond.
98. (d)
F F
O– O–
N N
S S P
O O O O N N H O
O H
mD ¹0 F F
mD =0 mD =0 mD ¹0 mD ¹0
planar
non-planar planar planar non-planar

H F
O O
100. (b) x1=1.48Å x2 = 1.22 Å, x1 > x2
O O
H F
According to Bent's Rule in O 2F2, there is more p-character in O — F bond in comparison to O —H bond
in H 2O 2; hence s-character in O —O bond is greater in O 2F2.

101. (b)
S S S
O F O Cl O Br
F Cl Br
According to Bent’s Rule
F
Cl
102. (a) Þ O S : both S—F bonds are of equal length.
Cl
F
F
F
Þ Se Þ Equatorial Se—F bond is shorter than axial Se—F bond
F
F
F
Br
ÞF P Þ Equatorial P—F bond is shorter than axial P—F bond
Br
F
F
F F
Þ I F Þ Equatorial I—F bond is longer than axial I—F bond.
F F
F
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 157
103. (c) a = 1.577Å b = 1.534Å c = 1.612Å d = 1.543Å e = 1.643Å
f = 1.553Å g = 2.19Å h = 2.04Å
F F F Cl
a F c F H3C e g Cl
F P b H3C P d P F Cl P h
F F f Cl
H3C
F F F Cl
® According to Bent's Rule : f > d > b and
h > f as rCl > rF
g > e as rCl > rF
104. (b) According to Bent’s Rule more electronegative substituents attached to hybrid orbital that contains
more p-character. Hence, more p-character, longer will be bond length.

F H
105. (b) N F N H
F N H N
F H

It can be explained on the basis of Bent’s rule. In N 2F4 , N —N bond has more s-character hence
bond length decreases.
While in N 2H 4 , N —N bond has less s-character (i.e., more p-character), hence bond lengths
106. (a) IO 5-
6
O
O ‚ || ƒ O - -
I
-
O ƒ | ‚ O-
O-
All bond length are equal due to ionic species.
107. (d) O — O single bond have lowest bond energy due to lp-lp repulsion due to small size of oxygen.
108. (c) From Bent’s rule
.. .. .. .. .. .. .. ..
F — P — P — F < F3C — P — P — CF3 < H 3C — P — P — CH 3 < H — P — P — H
| | | | | | | |
F F F3C CF3 H 3C CH 3 H H
–5
O
O O
I
109. (a) (a) All bond length are equal due to resonance.
O O
O
F

(b) Br—F Axial Bond Length > Equitorial Bond Length

F
 158 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

F
F
(c) S Axial Bond Length > Equitorial Bond Length
F
F
F
F
F
(d) I F Axial Bond Length < Equitorial Bond Length
F
F
F
F F
F a F a
b S == O S
110. (c) c
F F
F F
* For same substitutents axial bonds are longer than equatorial bonds.
because of presence of more p-character in axial bonds than in equatorial bonds.
* In SOF4 bond ‘ b’ has less p-character than bond ‘ c’ in SF4.
Therefore order of bond length : a > c > b.
111. (c) PH 3, according to Drago’s Rule, there is no hybridisation. Pure p-orbitals participates in overlapping.
Therefore, PH 3 is having greater bond length than PH +4.
O O– O F

Xe Cl S C
116. (c, d) O O O O –
O O– F F
O O O F
ÐOXeO = 109 º28' ÐOClO = 109 º28' ÐOSO = 109 º28' ÐFCF = 109 º28'
Þ Order of bond angle O(SiH 3 )2 > N(SiH 3 )2 > OMe 2
F F
F
F F S
S F S
S
S F S—F
117. (d) F F F F F
F
ÐFSF<109°28' ÐFSF<90° ÐFSF<109°28' ÐFSF<90°
H F

122. (c) S N Si B
H q H H H H H F F
H H
sp3 sp3 sp3 sp2
107° 109°28' 120°
B. A . = q << 109 °28'
q » 92 °

123. (d) Þ sp2 Sn Cl — Hg — Cl

Cl Cl ¯
sp
B.A < 120° B.A = 180°
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 159

124. (a) Cl
O O–
3
Þ sp
Þ Bond angle <109°28'

O
Cl O
Þ sp 3
Þ Bond angle >109°28'

Cl
O O
Þ sp 2
Þ Bond angle = 118 °
125. (a) BrF3 + F - ¾® BrF4-
( Bent-T shape) ( Square planar )

Bond angle < 90 ° Bond angle = 90 °

126. (c) From Bent’s rule
O O
q1 > q2
(a) C C
Cl q1 Cl F q2 F

F Cl
q1 > q2
(b) N N
O q1 O O q2 O

O O O
q1 > q2
(c) S S
F q1 F F q2 F
sp3 sp3

F CH3
(d) N == N < N == N
F CH3
More repulsion

C C
H H F F
127. (a) H F
Hybridisation
sp2 sp3

B.A. » 120° > » 109°28'

 160 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

128. (b) PCl 5( s ) ¾® PCl 4+ PCl 6- I2( e) ¾® I3+ I-3

(109 °28 ') ( 90 °) ( »109 °28 ') (180 °)

ICl 3( e) ¾® ICl 2+ ICl 4- N 2O 5( s ) ¾® NO +2 NO -3

( »109 °28 ') ( 90 °) (180 °) (120 °)

129. (d)

r O–
O == N == O N == O N
O O
O–
q = 180° q = 120° q < 120°
Hyb. of N : sp Hyb. of N : sp2 Hyb. of N : sp2
Order of bond angle : NO +2 > NO -3 > NO -2
130. (a) Þ p-character in S — F bond of SO 2F2 is higher than p-character in P — F bond of POF3 because most of
s-character of sp 3 hybridized orbitals of S-atom in SO 2F2 has been shifted to S == O bonds hence.
q 3 > q 2 > q1
O O F

S < P < C
O q1 F F q2 F F q3 F
F F F
131. (c)
(a) PBr5 Þ PBr4+ + Br - (solid state)
(b) N 2O 5 Þ NO +2 + NO -3 (solid state)
O

N Hyb. = sp 2, BA = 120 ° [3]

O O–
(c) PCl 5 Þ PCl +5 + PCl -6
–
Cl
Cl
Hyb. = sp3 d
Cl P BA = 120°[3]
Cl BA = 90°[6]
Cl
(d) Cl 2O 6 Þ ClO +2 + ClO -4
O

Cl Hyb. = sp3
–O O BA = 109°28'[4]
O
132. (a)

Cl Br I
O O– O O– O O–
O O O
1
Bond angle ¯ (B. A . ) µ
Size of C. A.
% s-character of bond pair ­
% s-character of lone pair ¯
% p-character of lone pair ­
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 161
144. (c) Although both hydration and lattice energies of alkali metal fluorides decrease down the group and
hydration energy dominates over lattice energy, therefore, solubility increases down the group.
148. (d) In CdI2, Pink colour is due to polarization of I– by Cd 2+ has pseudonoble gas configuration. In CdCl 2,
extent of polarization of Cl – by Cd 2+ is relatively less, hence specific colour cannot be predicted.
152. (c) f µ Charge density
BeCl 2 >AlCl 3 >MgCl 2
¬¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾ ¾
Covalent character ­
153. (c) Melting point NaCl > MgCl 2 > AlCl
154. (c) AlCl 3 has maximum covalent character as polarising power of Al 3+ is highest among the given
compounds.
155. (d) O == C == O has linear structure
ICl -2 has linear structure
C 2H 2 has linear structure
XeF2 has linear structure
GeCl 2 has bent / angular / V-Shape Structure.
156. (c) PbF4 > PbCl 4 > PbBr4 > PbI4 is the correct order of stability because
I- Br - Cl - I-
S.R.A. Moderate Weak Non
R.A. R.A. R.A.
1
157. (a) Thermal stability µ Bond strength µ
Bond length
B.L. SiF4 < SiCl 4 < SiBr4 < SiI4
Thermal stability > > >
158. (c) Among these Ba(MnO 4 )2 is most soluble in water because all permanganate salts are soluble in water.
159. (b) Conceptual fact
160. (c) Applying Fajan's rule : More the positive charge more will be polarising power of cation and more will
be covalent character in LiCl and BeCl 2 but in BCl 3 and CCl 4 more E.N. difference in BCl 3.
\ more ionic, less covalent than CCl 4.
+ +2 +3 +4
\ LiCl < BeCl 2 < BCl 3 < CCl 4
165. (d)
(a) T2 > D 2 > H 2 [BP µ mol.wt.]
1
(b) n-pentane > neo-pentane [BP µ VWf µ contact area µ ]
Branching
(c) Xe > Ar > He [BP µ mol.wt.]
OH OH

NO2

(d)
NO2
Intermolecular Intramolecular
H-bonding H-bonding
166. (b) H 2O is a dipole which induce dipole on inert gas atoms, so the interaction between water and inert gas
is dipole-induced dipole interaction. As atomic number increases, size increases, van der Waal forces
increases.
167. (a) BeH 2 is covalent hydride and has low melting point than MgH 2 (covalent hydride) and CaH 2, BaH 2
(ionic hydrides).
 162 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

168. (a) Compound (B) exhibits intramolecular H-bonding has more vapour pressure than compound (A)
involved in intermolecular H-bonding.
H H
O

H
174. (d)
O O
H H H H
H O
O H
H
176. (c) NH 3 is stronger Lewis base than H 2O and H 2O has more acidic H-atom than NH 3.
H
O O
Intramolecular H-bond
N
O
Intermolecular H-bond
178. (d)
HO
OH

NO2

OH
179. (d)
(a) H 2. . . . . H 2O Dipole-induced dipole interaction (van der Waals' force) energy < 8 kJ/mol
(b) H—Cl.....H—Cl Dipole-dipole interaction (van der Waals' force) < 8 kJ/mol
(c) F – . . . . . HF Ion-dipole H-bond (very strong H-bond energy) > 42 kJ/mol
(d) HCN. . . . . NH 3 H-bond energy ranges from 8-42 kJ/mol
180. (b) Hydrogen bonding is present in polymeric H 3BO 3 (solid).
181. (b) order of B.Pt.
H2O>CCl4>CS2>CO2

H-bond v.w.f. of attraction

182. (c) (a) XeF4 ¾® sp 3d2[ spx p y pz dz 2 , dx 2 - y 2 ]

(b) XeO 3F2 ¾® sp 3d [ spx p y pz dz 2 ]
(c) XeF5- ¾® sp 3d2[ spx p y pz dz 2 , dx 2 - y 2 , dxy ]
(d) XeO 3 ¾® sp 3 [No d-orbital involved]
183. (a) (iii) is not correct because polar nature of HX is due to EN difference between bonding atoms.
184. (c) Only in BF3 pp - pp back bonding is possible due to which B —F bond length is shortest. In other
compounds, p-orbital at boron is not vacant hence, pp - pp back bonding is not possible.
Water molecules are hexagonally closed packed in ice with the help of H-bonds, hence due to
existance of voids/interstitial spaces it has cage like structure with less density than water.
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 163
185. (b) ® In NH(SiH 3 )2 electron density or lone pair at N-atom is involved in back bonding only with two
empty 3d-orbitals of two silicon atoms while in N(SiH 3 )3 it is involved with three empty 3d-orbitals of
three silicon atoms.
® Strength of back bonding in NH(SiH 3 )2 is higher than in N(SiH 3 )3 hence N—Si bond length in
NH(SiH 3 )2 is less than that of in N(SiH 3 )3 .
186. (d)

Hybridisation of O-atom : O Hybridisation of O-atom

sp 2 due to more extent of Cl 111º Cl remains sp 3 , because of less
O (2 pp -3dp ) back bonding effective (2 pp -3dp ) b a c k
H3Si 144º SiH3
bonding due to d-orbital
resonance

187. (c) More stronger the back bond, smaller will be the bond length.
H é Strongest back bond ù
N SiH3
H ê\ Smallest bond length ú
ë û

H3Si
190. (b) N SiH3 N P
H3Si CH3 CH3 H3Si SiH3
CH3 SiH3
due pp-pp back bonding Hybridisation : sp2 No back bonding
Hybridisation of Nitrogen : sp2 pyramidal shape pyramidal shape
planar shape

F H F H
191. (d) BF2NH 2 B N B N
F H F H

* Both boron and nitrogen are sp 2-hybridised.

* FBF bond angle < 120 ° (VSPER theory)
* HNH bond angle is less than 120° but greater than 109 °28' due to back bonding.
* Due to presence of H-atom attached to nitrogen this molecule can exhibits intermolecular
H-bonding.
192. (d) P4O10 ; B 3O 3(OH )3 ; B 3N 3H 6 ¾® Back Bond.
ClO -4 ¾® Delocalisation of p-electrons. via. Resonance.
193. (a)
F

(a) B F Bond angle remains same (120º)

F
In (b) OCl 2 and (c) O(SiH 3 )2 bond angle increases due to back bonding.
 164 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

194. (d)
O Back bond
¯­
P Back bond
Back bond –O O–
O O Si
O F F O
O O
O == P P == O P—P –O O–
O F F Si Si
O
–O O O–
P
||
O
1
195. (a) Basic strength µ
-I effect
Cl Cl Cl CH3 CH3 CH3
197. (c) (i) Al Al (ii) Al Al
Cl Cl Cl CH3 CH3 CH3
(complete octet) (3c-2e) bond
(incomplete octet)
(iii) AlF3 ¾® Al 3+ + 3F –
(ionic compound) 2 s 22 p 6 2 s 22 p 6
(octet complete) (octet complete)
Cl
(iv) Cl—Be Be—C (Incompleteoctet)
Cl
(Incompleteoctet)

H
(v) H—Be Be—H (Incomplete octet)
H
(3c – 2e–) bond
198. (b)
F– H+ F
Cl
(a) B (b) Cl—Be Be—Cl (c) N (d) Be
F F Cl H H F F
F H F
In Be 2Cl 4 octet of Be was not complete, so back bond also formed along with bridge bond.
s® dative
Cl
p-dative p-dative
199. (b) Cl Be Be
Cl
Cl
200. (c) Þ In (BeCl 2 )n there are 3C — 4 e bridge bonds through which BeCl 2 molecules are polymerized while
in rest species monomers are bonded through 3C — 2 e bridge bonds.
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 165
201. (b)
Ht Hb Ht

Ga Ga
(a)
Ht Hb Ht

Bond energy : Ga --- H b --- Ga > Ga — H t

(3c – 2e–) (2c – 2e–)
H H
(b) N—N
H H
é 1 ù
Bond energy : N — N < N — H êBond energy µ
ë Bond length úû
H Hb Ht
t
Al Al
(c)
Ht Hb Ht

Bond energy : Al --- H b --- Al > Al — H t

(3c – 2e–) (2c – 2e–)
Ht Hb Ht

B B
(d)
Ht Hb Ht

Bond energy : B --- H b --- B > B — H t

(3c – 2e–) (2c – 2e–)
:

202. (d) %P ­­ P < P < P

F F Cl Cl Br Br
F Cl Br
% P character increases in PF3 , as EN of F is maximum so bond angle is minimum in PF3.
.
203. (d) 2CF3 ¾® C 2F6
( sp3 ) ( sp3 )
.
2ClO 3 ¾® Cl 2O 6
( sp3 ) ( sp3 )
.
2NO 2 ¾® N 2O 4
( sp2 ) ( sp2 )
.
2CH 3 ¾® C 2H 6
( sp2 ) ( sp2 )
.
204. (b) NO 2 N
O 134° O
 166 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

. H C
205. (a) H—C F F
H F
hyb= sp2 hyb= sp3
q=120° q<120°
208. (c) NH 3 < HF < H 2O is the correct order of boiling point.
211. (a) Species : P2: (B 2 ) Q2:(C 2 ) R 2: (N 2 ) S2(O 2 ) T 2 : (F2 )
Bond order 1.0 2.0 3.0 2.0 1.0
Total No. of 6 8 10 12 14
valence e -s
214. (a)
(a) C+2 -® C2 (b) NO+ -® NO
BO = 1.5 BO = 2 BO = 3 BO = 2.5
Paramagnetic Diamagnetic Diamagnetic Paramagnetic

(c) O2 -® O 2+ (d) N2 -® N+2

BO = 2 BO = 2.5 BO = 3 BO = 2.5
Paramagnetic Paramagnetic Diamagnetic Paramagnetic

215. (a) According to coulsion model, H.O.M.O. (Highest Occupied Molecular Orbital) of CO molecule is
non-bonding M.O. with slight antibonding character.
+ +

216. (c) INA= z/y

– –
px px 2pp-2pp
p-bond
O
217. (d)
C
–O O–

O O
218. (c)
C B.O. = 1.33 C B.O. = 1.5
–O O– H O–
¬
CO 2 O == C == O B.O. = 2 C == O B.O. = 3
1
B. O . µ
B. L .
219. (a) ¾ ¾Al¾< ¾
Ga < In < Tl
¾ ¾ ¾¾®
Lower O.S. Stability ­

220. (c) Boron and Nitrogen ¾® Second period (absence of ‘ d’-orbital)

coordination number ¾® 4
+
221. (d) O == N == O (linear shape)
222. (a) B 2 Þ s1s 2, s * 1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, s2 pz2
without s-p mixing.
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 167
223. (a) NO O +2
-
No. of e 15 15
B.O. 2.5 2.5
Magnetic Para- Paramagnetic
behaviour magnetic
s- and p-bond – –
sp-mixing Present Absent
224. (b) N 2 and CO are isoelectronic. To convert N 2 ¾® N +2 electron is removed from bonding MO which is
evidenced by decrease in bond order. While to convert CO ¾® CO + , requires less energy than in case
of N 2 because bond order of CO increases.
CO( g ) ¾® CO +( g ) : I. E . = 1352 kJ/mol
N 2( g ) ¾® N +2( g ) : I. E . = 1503 kJ/mol
225. (a) CsO 2 is ionic and paramagnetic
CaC 2 is ionic and diamagnetic
BF3 is covalent and diamagnetic
Li 2 is metallic and diamagnetic
226. (d) CO CO 2-3 CO 2
B.O. = 3 1.5 2.0
\ B. L. order is CO 23- < CO 2 < CO
227. (d) If any molecular species having B.O equals to zero then not exist.
2 -1
H -2 B. O. = = 0.5 exist
2
2 -0
He 22+ B. O. = = 1.0 exist
2
1 -0
H +2 B. O. = = 0.5 exist
2
4 -2
He 22- B. O. = = 1.0 exist
2
2 -1
H -2 B. O. = = 0.5 exist
2
H 22+ B. O. = 0 not exist
2 -0
He 2 B. O. = = 0 exist
2
228. (c) Bond Order
BO 33- = 1 ; CO 23- = 1.33 ; NO -2 = 1.5 ; NO -3 = 1.33
1
229. (a) Bond length µ
Bond order
230. (a) Bond energy µ Bond order
CO CO 2 CO 2-
3 C 2O 2-4
Bond order 3 2 1.33 1.5
1
231. (a) Bond length µ
Bond order
ClO -4 ClO -3 ClO -2 ClO -
Bond order 1.75 1.66 1.5 1.0
232. (c)
(a) Cr : 4 s1 3 s 5 (each d-orbital has 1e- )
3+ 0 5
(b) Fe : 4 s 3 d (each d-orbital has 1e- )
 168 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(c) Cu + : 4 s 0 3 d10 (each d-orbital has 2e- )

+
– + –
Molecularaxis +
233. (d) (i) + ¾¾¾¾¾®
Samephase –
+ – overlapping +
– p-B.M.O.

+
+
Molecularaxis
(ii) + + ¾¾¾¾¾® +

–
–

N.B.M.O.

+ – – +
+ – +
Molecular axis
+ ¾¾¾¾¾®
(iii) Same phase
– + + – overlapping – +

p-B.M.O.

234. (a)

Chemical species O +2 N +2 F2 Ne 2 O2 B2 C2 N2
Bond order 2.5 2.5 1 0 2 1 2 3
3 -2 1
235. (c) He +2 = BO =
2 2
+ 2 -0
HeH BO = =1
2
\ HeH + > He +2
236. (a)
O

C
(a)
Cl Cl
(Phosgene)
–
H
(b) LiH + AlH 3 ¾® Li +[ AlH 4 ]- or Li + Al
( Lewis base) ( Lewis acid)
H H
H
–
H
(c) NaH + BH 3 ¾® Na +[BH 4 ]- or Na + B
( Lewis base) ( Lewis acid)
H H
H
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 169
+
H

(d) N Cl–
H H
H
237. (b) (i) O -2
= 8 + 8 + 1 = 17 e- (B. O. = 1.5 )
(ii) CN - = 6 + 7 + 1 = 14e- (B. O. = 3.0 )
(iii) NO + = 7 + 8 - 1 = 14e- (B. O. = 3.0 )
(iv) CN + = 6 + 7 - 1 = 12e- (B. O. = 2.0 )
\ CN - and NO + have same bond order.
S— S >Se— Se >O— O >Te — Te
238. (c) ¬¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾ ¾
Bond energy ­

239. (c) Cl 2 > Br2 > F2 ³ I2 (data based)

240. (a) B ¾® Due to absence of vacant d-orbital its max. covalency is 4.
So BF63- does not exist.
(dp – pp)
241. (b) IO 2F2- ¾® F
O
I
O–
F
sp 3dz 2
I — O B. O. is 1.5
Maximum number of halogen atom that can lie in axial plane is three.
242. (a)
(a) ClF3 ¾® B. A . < 90 °
PF3 ¾® B. A . » 98 °
BF3 ¾® B. A . = 120 °
(b) SO 2-
4 B. O. ¾® 1.5
SO 2- 2-
3 B. O. ¾® 1.33 So B.L. of SO 4 < SO 3
2-

(c) Thermal stability ¾® Cl 2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

(d) B.O. of NO +2 = 2
So B.L. of NO +2 < NO -2
B.O. of NO -2 ¾® 1.5
D 1
243. (c) Pb(NO 3 )2 ¾¾ ® PbO + 2NO 2 + O 2
2
D 1
2LiNO 3 ¾¾® Li 2O + 2NO 2 + O 2
2
D 1
NaNO 3 ¾¾ ® NaNO 2 + O 2
2
D
NH 4NO 2 ¾¾ ® N 2 + 2H 2O
244. (b)
(a) Melting Point : Cs < Rb < K < Na < Li
(b) Solubility : LiCl > CsCl > RbCl
(c) [B(OH )4 ]- is sp 3 and H 3B 3 is sp 2. Hence bond energy of [B(OH )4 ]- is lesser than B(OH )3.
245. (c) F2 and I2 have nearly identical value of bond energy.
246. (d) In CO 2-
3 coordinate bonds are absent.
 170 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

247. (c) Melting point NaCl > MgCl 2 > AlCl 3

248. (b) (i) O 3 is diamagnetic because all e- are paired
(ii) ONCl No. of e- = 8 + 7 + 17 = 32 e-
ONO - No. of e- = 8 + 7 + 8 + 1 = 24 e-
\ not isoelectronic

(iii) O 3 molecule is bent O correct.

O O
(iv) ozone is violet -Black in solid state correct
249. (a) Li has maximum reducing nature due to high hydration energy.
F2 has maximum oxidising nature due to low bond dissociation energy and high hydration energy.
250. (b)
F F
B F B H

F F
Less extent of More extent of
back bonding of back bonding

Bond order of B — F bond »1.3 Bond order of B — F bond »1.3

therefore, B — F bond length in BHF2 < B — F bond length in BF3
1
251. (a) Þ Basic character of metal oxide µ
Polarization
Basic Strength : Na 2O < K 2O < Rb 2O < Cs 2O
Þ Lattice Energy : NaF > KF > RbF > CsF

Cl
252. (c) Cl Cl 3 center 4e- bridge bond
Al Al
Cl Cl non-planar molecules.
Cl
D
253. (d) (i) FeC 2O 4 ¾¾ ® FeO + CO 2 + CO
D
(ii) SnC 2O 4 ¾¾ ® SnO + CO 2 ­ + CO ­
D
(iii) Fe 2(SO 4 )3 ¾¾ ® Fe 2O 3 + 3SO 3 ­
D
(iv) FeSO 4 ¾¾® Fe 2O 3 + SO 2 ­ + SO 3 ­
O O

P Hr P
254. (b) O– O—O– ¾¾® O– O—O—H
O– O–

[PO53– ] (More resonance

stabilised)
255. (c) At point C, Fatt = Frep and potential energy is minimum.
256. (d) BF3 being hypovalent act as a lewis acid therefore it reacts with lewis bases like F - , NH 3 and H 2O.
More over CCl 4 is not a lewis acid due to absence of vacant d-orbital with carbon atom.
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 171
257. (b) Molecules involves in hybridisation (NH 3 , SO 2, SO 3 , BF3 , PCl 5 )
molecules having non-planar structure
(NH 3 , PH 3 , PCl 5 )
Molecules which are hypervalent
(SO 2, SO 3 , PCl 5 )
Molecules involves in dp-dp bonding as well as pp-pp bonding.
(SO 2, SO 3 )
258. (d) Molecular formula XeO 2F4
Orbitals involve in hybridisation = sp 3d2( s, px , p y , pz , dz 2 and dx 2 - y 2 )
259. (a)
x-axis s bond
¾¾¾¾®

(a) s + s ¾ x¾
/ y / z axis
¾¾ ¾® s bond (b) px + px y-axis
¾¾¾¾® p bond

z-axis
¾¾¾¾® p bond

x-axis p bond x-axis s bond

¾¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾®

(c) dxy + dxy y-axis (d) dx2 – y2 + dx2 – y2 y-axis

¾¾¾¾® p bond ¾¾¾¾® s bond

z-axis z-axis
¾¾¾¾® d bond ¾¾¾¾® d bond

260. (d)
OH OH
F F more p-character
s
B B
(a) B OH B NH2 (b)
OH
F F HO OH HO OH
Less p-character
(less bond energy) (Back bonding) (No back bonding)
(B.O. > 1) (B.O. = 1)

H SiH3
(sp2) OH
F
sB q2 N N
(c) B O H
q1 (d) SiH3 SiH3 SiH3 SiH3
F H HO O
OH (sp3) (More % s-character)
(q1 > q2)
(Less bond length)

H + s
I
261. (d) N O I
H H
O O
H I
In each molecular species all bonds are of equal energy.
 172 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

–O O–
Si
O O
262. (b) Compound ‘ P ’ is – O– x = 6, y = 2
O
Si Si
O
–O O–

O
O O
263. (a) (i) Na 2O 2 ¾® 2Na +
+ O 22- peroxo (ii) Cr here 2 peroxo linkage are present.
O O
(iii) PbO 2 is normal oxide (iv) SrO 2 ¾® Sr 2+ + O 22- peroxo
F

F F F F
Xe Xe Xe q3 = 90°
264. (b) O
q1 O O– q2 O F F F F q4 = 90°
O O
B

q1 > q 2 because there is more

S-character in Xe — O bond than in 1 — O bonds
265. (d) x1 > x4; because of
(i) bond order of x1 less than 1.75 but greater than 1.0 but bond order of x4 is equal to one.
(ii) x4 is more longer due to steric crowding between two ClO 3 groups bonded to ‘O’ atom.
266. (b) All bond lengths are not same in ­F4+ , ­ F3 , ­ F5 because of unsymmetrical distribution of substituents
around their respective central atom.
267. (d) As dyz and px lie in perpendicular plane, therefore; they undergo zero overlapping i. e. , do not form
bond.
H1
268. (d) NH 3 ¾ D¾ ¾®[N ] + 3[H]
H2
PH 3 ¾ D¾¾®[P] + 3[H] and DH1 > DH 2 , therefore, PH 3 is better reductant than NH 3.
O
269. (d) p
Nodal plane of C ¾¾ ® O lies in molecular plane of CO 2-
3 ion
– S –
O O
270. (c) Except P4O 6, in all other molecules back bonding is present.
271. (c) Order of bond dissociation energy µ bond order
O 22- = 1.0 (B. O. )
O -2 = 1.5(B. O. )
O +2 = 2.5(B. O. )
OH

B
O O

272. (b)
HO—B B—OH
O
Non-polar
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 173

: Level 2
F F
3. C C C : Non-planar
F sp2 sp sp2 F

F F
B C C B : Planar
F sp2 sp sp sp2 F

O
11. (B) In H Cl , O is more electronegative than Cl. Hence, its will contain mores s character in hybrid orbital
hence bond angle will be more than expected. Hence, bond angle is HOCl is greater than HOF.
13. (D) Pb 4+ + 4I- ¾® PbI2 + I2
Oxidizing strong
agent reducing agent

hence, PbI4 does not exist

Pb 4+ + 4Cl - ¾® PbCl 4 ¾ above
¾¾® PbCl 2 + Cl 2
oxidizing not good unstable 50 °C
agent red, agent
like I –

Since Cl 2 is a strong oxidizing agent, hence Cl - is poor reducing agent, therefore PbCl 4 does from but
decomposes on heating.
··
23. (A) In (CH 3 )3 N, N is sp 3 hybridized, having pyramidal structure because of absence of vacant orbital on
carbon atom therefore no back bonding is possible.
In (SiH 3 )3 N, N is sp 2 hybridized, on the basis of pp - dp back bonding (SiH 3 )3 N resulting into triangular
planar structure
Covalency of both C and Si is four.
26. (B) This combination can not form p-bond by sideways overlapping due to different sign of y along z-axis.
y y

Along z-axis
x Non-bonding

dx2–y2 p
y

27. (B) The correct representation of hydrogen bonding is H — N ---- H — O

H H
NH 3 +H 2O ¾® NH+ 4 +OH
-

and ammonia never acts as acid in aqueous medium.

NH 3 +H 2O ¾® NH –2 +H 3O+
 174 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

: Level 3
1. (c) p-orbitals form bond by lateral overlapping.
2. (b) A bond length is the average distance between the centers of nuclei of two bonded atoms. A multiple
bond (double or triple bond) is always shorter than the corresponding single bond.
The C-atom in is sp 2-hybridized as shown
The C-atom in CO 2 is sp-hybridized with bond distance carbon oxygen is 122 pm.
O = C = O « +O ºº C - O - « -C ºº O +
The C-atom in CO is sp-hybridized with C — O bond distance is 110 pm.
: C ºº O +
3 2
3. (a) (a) SF4 = square planar (sp d , two lone pair)
XeF4 = square planar (sp 3, one lone pair)
(b) SO 2- 3
3 = pyramidal (sp , one lone pair)

NO -3 = trigonal planer (sp 2)

(c) BF3 = trigonal planer (sp 2)
NF3 = pyramidal (sp 3 one lone pair)
(d) BrO -3 = pyramidal (sp 3, one lone pair)
XeO 3 = pyramidal (sp 3, one lone pair)
4. (d) Structures given in options (b) and (c) show the pp-dp back bonding.
5. (d) Higher the lattice energy, lower the solubility. Out of the combinations possible, the lattice energy of
MgS (bi-bi ionic solid) is highest.
6. (d) C — H : 109 pm
C == C : 134 pm
C — O : 143 pm
C — C : 154 pm
\ Bond length order is
C — H < C == C < C — O < C — C
7. (d) O — H bond length is the shortest among be octahedral.
8. (b) Charge of electron = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 C
Dipole moment of HBr = 1.6 ´ 10 -30 C-m
Inter-atomic spacing = 1Å = 1 ´ 10 -10 m
dipole moment of HBr ´ 100
% ionic character in HBr =
Inter spacing distance ´ q
1.6 ´ 10 -30
= ´ 100
1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ 10 -10
= 10 -30 ´ 10 29 ´ 100 = 10 -1 ´ 100
= 0.1 ´ 100 = 10%
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 175
F F
F F F
9. (e)
S Xe
C
F F F F F F
F
SF4 CF4 XeF4
1 L.p, see saw 0 L.p 2 L.p, square
geometry Tetrahedral planar

10. (d) In case of single bond, there is only one s bond, in case of double bond, there is one s and one p bond
while in case of triple bond, there is one s and two p bonds. Thus, angular shape of ozone (O 3) contains
2s and 1p bond as
11. (a)

Molecule Structure Hybridisation of Lone pair

central atom
F
F
SF4 S sp 3d one
F
F
F
SiF4 F Si F sp 3 Zero
F
–
Cl Cl
ICl -4 I sp 3d2 two
Cl Cl

12. (d) s2 pz has lowest energy among given orbitals for O 2 molecule.
13. (c) In both ethyl alcohol (2) and acetic acid (3), hydrogen bonding is present and the extent of H – bonding
is more in acetic acid than ethyl alcohol due to formation of ring.
Thus, acetic acid has higher boiling point than ethyl alcohol. Ethane (1) has lowest boiling point due to
absence of H – bonding. Hence, the graph showing correct order of boiling points is

bp

1 2 3
14. (a) In NH 4Cl there are 3N — H covalent bonds,
1N ® H coordinate bond and NH +4 — Cl - ionic bond.
 176 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

+
H
–
H¬ N H Cl
H
15. (d) According to Fajan’s rule,
\ Order of covalent character is
MI > MBr > MCl > MF
16. (c) m = e ´ d
where, e = magnitude of electric charge.
d = distance between particles (here bond length)
m
\ e=
d
eHCl m HCl dHI
or = ´
eHI dHCl m HI
1.03 ´ 1.6
= = 3.3 :1
1.3 ´ 0.38
17. (b) The combining atomic orbitals must have proper orientation so that they are able to overlap to a
considerable extent. Hence, 2 px orbital cannot combine with 2 p y or 2 pz .
18. (d) In BF3, no. of s -bonds at B atoms = 3
no. of lp on B atom = 0
\ Total electron pairs = 3
\ Hybridisation is sp 2 and BF3 is trigonal planar in shape.
19. (c) CH 3 — CH == C == CH — CH 3 are
sp 3 sp 2 sp sp 2 sp 3
It is an allene type molecule.
\ Central C is sp hybridised.
20. (c) N 2O : hence it is linear.
With 2bp and 3lp around central atom it is linear.
With 2bp (stereo active pairs) around the central atom, it is linear.
21. (b) BCl 3 is trigonal is shape where bond angle is 120°. In NH 3 and PCl 3 (both are having pyramidal
geometry), through the centre atom has equal number of lone pairs and bond pairs, the valence shell of
P is relatively bigger and bond angle is lower.
22. (c) First four orbital contain four lobes, while fifth orbital consists of only two lobes. The lobes of dxy orbital
lie between x and y axes. Similar is the case for dyz and dzx . Four lobes of orbital are lying along x and y
axes while two lobes of orbital are lying along z-axis.
23. (b) PCl 5 molecule has trigonal bipyramidal shape and the P-atom is sp 3d hybridized. The d-orbital involved
is 3 dz 2 .
24. (b) O 2 : KKs(2 s )2s *(2 s )2s(2 pz )2(p2 px2 = p2 p 2y ) (p * 2 p1x = p * 2 p1y )

Species B2 C2 N2 O2 F2
Sum of e- 10 12 14 16 18
Bond order 1 2 3 4 5
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 177
wrt N 2 : bond order is 3.
25. (c) H +2 : (s1s1 )
1 1 *
\ B.O. = (1 - 0 ) = H -2 :(s1s )2(s 1s1 )
2 2
1 1
\ B.O. = (2 - 1) =
2 2
Even though the bond order of H +2 and H -2 are equal but H +2 is more stable than H -2 as in the later, an
*
electron is present in the higher energy antibonding (s 1s) orbital.
26. (b) N 2(7 + 7 = 14 ) B.O. = 3
N -2(7 + 7 + 1 = 15 ) N 22-(7 + 7 + 2 = 16 )
e- ¯ or ­ by one but B.O. always ¯ by 0 . 5
Hence, the increasing order of B.O. is,
N 22- < N -2 < N 2 w.r.t. N 2 molecule
27. (c) Ethyl alcohol forms stronger H – bond than ethyl amine or ammonia due to greater electronegativly of
oxygen than nitrogen atom. Diethyl ether, however, does not form H-bonds, since it does not have a
H-atom attached to O-atom.
28. (b) Ammonia has higher boiling point than excepted due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
29. (a) Due to intermolecular H-bonding in o-nitrophenol, it exists as a monomer while due to intermolecular
H- bonding in p–nitrophenol, it exists as an associated molecule.
30. (a) In CaCl 2, Ca — Cl bonds are electrovalent or ionic because of the higher electronegativity difference
between Ca and Cl-atom.
31. (b) Melting points depend upon lattice energy, NaCl and KCl have unit charge on their ions while MgO and
BaO have two units of charge, therefore lattice energies of MgO and BaO are expected to be larger than
those of NaCl and KCl.
Since, Mg 2+ is smaller than Ba 2+ , therefore, MgO has the higher lattice energy and hence, has the lattice
energy and hence, has the higher melting point.
1
32. (a) Lattice energy µ charge of ion µ
size of ion
On moving downward, the size of alkaline earth metals increases due to increase in number of shells.
Thus, Mg has the smallest size.
Hence, lattice energy is higher for MgO.
33. (b) For sp 2 hybridization, there must be 3s-bonds along with a lone pair of electrons.
(i) NO -2 Þ 2s + 1 lp = 3, i. e. , sp 2 hybridization
(ii) NH 3 Þ 3s + 1 lp = 4, i. e. , sp 3 hybridization
(iii)BF3 Þ 3s + 1 lp = 3, i. e. , sp 2 hybridization
(iv)NH -2 Þ 2s + 2 lp = 4, i. e. , sp 3 hybridization
(v) H 2O Þ 2s + 2 lp = 4, i. e. , sp 3 hybridization
Thus, among the given pairs, only BF3 and NO -2 have sp 3 hybridization.
 178 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

34. (b) N is NH 3 is sp 3 hybridised.

N
H H
H
35. (c) The number of electron pairs for a neutral molecule is given by the formula.
1
Number of e- pairs = No. of bonded atoms + [Group no. of central atom – Valency of central atom]
2
1
= 1 + [7 - 5] = 5 + 1 = 6
2
Thus, bromine is sp 3d2 hybridized.
36. (c) (a) CH 4 ¾® CH 3 — CH 3
4 bp+ 0 lp 4 bp 4 bp
Hybridisation sp3 sp3 sp3
Structure Tetrahedral Tetrahedral

(b) NH 3 ¾® NH+
4
3 bp+1 lp 4 bp
Hybridisation sp3 sp3
Structure Pyramidal Tetrahedral

(c) BF3 ¾® BF4–

3 bp 4 bp
Hybridisation sp2 sp3
Structure Trigonal planar Tetrahedral

(d) H 2O ¾® H 3O +
2bp+ 2lp 3 bp+1 lp
Hybridisation sp3 sp3
Structure Angular Pyramidal

37. (b) H +2 = s1s1 (According to molecular orbital theory)

Bond order
H +2 is paramagnetic due to the presence of one unpaired electron.
38. (a) Peroxide ion is O 2-
2
* * * *
O 22-(18 ) = s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2, s 2 s 2, s2 pz2, p2 px2 » p2 p 2y , p 2 px2 » p 2 p 2y
N b - N a 10 - 8
Bond order = = =1
a 2
O 2-
2 is diamagnetic due to the absence of unpaired electrons, and the number of anti-bonding electron
pairs in O 2-
2 ion is four.
40. (d) One water molecule is joined to four water molecules – two with H – atoms and other two with O –
atoms. Thus, the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a molecule of water can have four as
shown below:
H
H O
d+ d
H O Hd+
d d d d
O H H H O
d+ d+
H O H H
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 179
41. (a) Covalent bonds are directional. Therefore, covalent compounds have definite shape (geometry), e. g. ,
acetylene is linear, methane is tetrahedral in shape.
42. (c) H 2O has non-zero dipole moment. Remaining all have m = 0 due to cancellation of vectors.
X

43. (a) m1 =0(asitissymmetrical)

For m=0(asitissymmetrical)
X X

Hence, for
m will be 1.5 D

X X
X
44. (c) The molecules having distorted geometry have dipole moment and those having regular geometry have
zero dipole moment.
Q NH 3 , CH 3Cl and ClO 2 have distorted geometry.
\ They have dipole moment.
Q BF3 has regular triangular planar geometry and thus, the dipole moment of BF3 is zero.
45.(a,c) Symmetrical structure have a zero dipole moment. Among the given, XeF4 has square planar structure
and XeF2 is linear.

F F
These have dipole moment is zero. Xe
F F

46. (d) NO -2 ® sp 2
NO -3 ® sp 2
NH -2 ® sp 3
NH +4 ® sp 3
SCN - ® sp
NO -2 and NO -3 both have the same hybridization.
47. (b) Because
SO 2— Bent
SF4 – See-saw
ClF 3 – T-shaped
BrF 5 – Square pyramidal
XeF 4 – Square planar
 180 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

48. (d) O +2 has one unpaired electron whereas O 2 has two unpaired electrons.
10 - 5 10 - 6
B.O. of O +2 = = 2 .5 Þ B.O. of O 2 = =2
2 2
Therefore, during conversion of O 2 into O +2, paramagnetic character decreases and bond order
increases.
50. (b) NH 3 and BF 3 have stable coordinate bond due to the presence of lone pair of electrons on N and
electron deficiency on B.
H F H F

H N +B F ¾® H N ¾® B F

H F H F
51. (b) Polarity is due to the difference in electronegativities of two atoms or molecules.
p
¬¾
p
52. (a) C == O
s

In CO molecule, C — O s-moment and O — C p-moment cancels each other. So that, it is non-polar.

53. (d) If number of bond pairs and lone pairs are same for the given pairs, they are isostructural.
(a) BCl 3 and BrCl 3
(b) NH 3 and NO -3
(c) NF3 and BF3
(d) BF4- and NH +4
Thus, BF4- and NH +4 are isostructural.
54. (d) NH +4 ion sp 3 hybridisation, structure tetrahedral.
H
N+
H H
H
55. (b) In perchlorate ion,
O–
Cl
O O O
Central Cl-atom is sp 3 hybridised. So, all the four sigma bonds are sp 3 - p bonds.
H( s ) H( s )
| |
56. (d) H — C —3— C —3— H
sp
( s) | | sp ( s)
H( s ) H( s )

* *
58. (a) B 2 = 5 + 5 = 10 e- = s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2, s 2 s 2, p2 p1x » p2 p1y
Due to the presence of 2 unpaired bonding electrons p b MO, B 2 shows paramagnetic behaviour.
59. (a) (Number of electrons = 18 does not contain unpaired e- )
* * * * *
O 22- = s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2, s 2 s 2, s 2 pz2, p2 p 2y , s 2 px2 » s 2 p 2y
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 181
O
N O
(Intramolecular
hydrogen bonding)
60. (a) OH

o-Nitrophenol

61. (a) Boron hydrides are electron deficient compound.

62. (c) Covalent compounds have low melting point because covalent bond is weaker than ionic bond.
63. (d) SF4 has sp 3d hybridisation and see-saw shape with
F
F (4 bp + 1 lp) and resultant .
:S
F
F
64. (b) Although F is the most electronegative, it is expected to have maximum dipole moment however it is
too smaller in size to overpowers its electronegative effect (m = e ´ d), hence its dipole moment is lower
than CH 3Cl.
H s p
s H
65. (c) C =s= C
H s s H
5s-bond and 1p-bond
66. (b) All the molecules have O-atom with one pairs but in H 2O the H-atom has no vacant orbital for
p-bonding. That’s why it does not have any p-bond.
In all other given molecules, the central atom because of the presence of vacant orbitals, is capable to
form p-bonds.
67. (c) The number of p-bonds in
CH 2 == CH — CH == CH — C ºº CH is four.
1p 1p 2p

68. (b) NF3 and H 2O are sp 3 hybridization

69. (a) (a) H 2C ==CH — C ºº N
­ ­ ­ ­
sp2 sp2 sp sp

(b) C H ºº C — C ºº C H
­ ­ ­ ­
sp sp sp sp

(c) H 2C == C == C H 2
­ ­ ­
sp2 sp sp

(d) H 2C == C H — C H == C H 2
­ ­ ­ ­
sp2 sp2 sp2 sp2

70. (c) BF4- , NH 4+ , NiCl 24- all are tetrahedral in shape but [Cu(NH 3 )] 2+ is not tetrahedral but square planar.
 182 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

3d 9 4s 4p
2+
Cu
2+
[Cu(NH3)4] ×× ×× ×× ××

NH3 NH3 NH3 NH3

ì
í
î
dsp2 hybridisation
(square planar)

2+
NH3 NH3
Cu
NH3 NH3
71. (d) Hybridisation = (6 + 4 - 0 + 0 ) = 5
Thus, the type of hybridization is sp 3d leading to trigonal bipyramidal shape.
72. (b) Paramagnetic species contains unpaired electrons in its molecular orbital electronic configuration.
Molecular orbital configuration of the given species is as
* *
CO(6+8=14)= s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2, s 2 s 2, p2 px2 » p2 p 2y , s2 p 2y
(All the electrons are paired so it is diamagnetic).
* * *
O -2(8 + 8 + 1 = 17 ) = s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2, s 2 s 2, s2 pz2, p2 px2 » p 2 p1y
It contains one unpaired electron. So it is paramagnetic.
CN –(6 + 7 + 1 = 14 ) = same as CO (diamagnetic)
NO +(7 + 8 - 1 = 14 ) = same as CO (diamagnetic)
Thus, among the given species only O -2 is paramagnetic.
74. (a) CO = 6 + 8 = 14 electrons
NO + = 7 + 8 - 1 = 14 electrons
Both have electronic configuration
s1s 2, s * 1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2s 2, s2 pz2, p2 px2, p2 p 2y
10 - 4
So both have bond order = =3
2
75. (c) Hydrogen bonding is maximum C 2H 5OH (ethanol).
76. (e) Strength of hydrogen and between H – – – F is the strongest and hence, it has the shortest bond.

77. (d) F Xe F sp 3d, Linear

–
Cl I Cl sp 3d, Linear

Sb
Cl Cl sp 3, Pyramidal
Cl
Te
sp 3, V-shaped
F F
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 183
1
78. (c) O1 = 6 - 2 - (6 ) = 6 - 2 - 3 = 1
2
1
O 2 = 6 - 4 - (4) = 6 - 4 - 2 = 0
2
1
O 3 = 6 - 6 - (2 ) = 6 - 6 - 1 = -1
2
79. (c) CO 2 and CH 4 have zero dipole moment as these are symmetrical in nature. Between NH 3 and NF3, NH 3
has greater dipole moment
80. (b) Symmetrical molecules are generally non–polar although they have polar bonds. This is because bond
dipole. BF3, SiF4 and XeF4 being symmetrical as non–polar. SF4 is unsymmetrical because of the
presence of a lone pair of electrons. Due to which it is a polar molecule.
81. (d) O 2, H 2 do not show bond dipole as they are homoatomic molecules hence, are non-polar.
H + – H
d d
82. (d) H C X Cl C Cl
H Cl
The C — X ( X = F, Cl, Br and I) bond is polar because halogen are more electronegative than carbon.
Hence all the bond moments are in one direction in case of CH 3X but not the CHCl 3.
83. (b) Smaller cation and larger anion shows more covalent character (Fajans’ rule). Smallest ion is Al 3+ .
Hence, AlCl 3 has maximum covalent character.
85. (c) Electronic configuration of 7 N = 1s 2, 2 s 22 p 3 and 1 H = 1s1
´´ ´´
H · ´N ´ · H Þ H — N— H
´ |
H
H
86. (d) B in BF3 molecule is sp 2-hybridized. Hence, the s-character of B is 33.3 %
88. (e) (a) CH 2 == CH — C ºº C — H
sp 2 sp 2 sp sp

(b) CH 3 — CH 2 — CH 2 — CH 3
sp 3 sp 3 sp 3 sp 3

(c) CH 2 = CH — C ºº N
sp 2 sp 2 sp sp

(d) CH 2 == CH 2
sp 2 sp 2

(e) CH 2 == CH — CO — CH 3
sp 2 sp 2 sp 2 sp 3
(involves both sp and sp 3 hybrid orbital)
2
 184 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

89. (c) For XeF4 (square planer)

F F

Xe

F F

E = 2 lone pairs on Xe
B = 4 bond pairs of electrons. Hybridisation sp 3d2 because 2 lone pairs of electrons.
90. (c)
Compound Shape
CH 4 Tetrahedral
SF4 See-saw
BCl 3 Triangular planar
ClF3 T-shaped
XeF2 Linear
ZnCl 2 Linear
SO 2 Bent
CO 2 Linear
Nb -Na
91. (a) Bond order =
2

Species No. of electrons M.O. Configuration B.O.

O +2 15 s1s 2, s * 1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, s2 pz2, (p2 px2 = p2 p 2y ), 2.5

(p2 p1x = p * 2p 0y )
C2 12 s1s 2, s * 1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, (p2 px2 = p2 p 2y ) 2

92. (a,c) Paramagnetic species contain unpaired electrons in their molecular orbital electronic configuration.
* * * *
NO (7 + 8 = 15 ) = s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2, s 2 s 2 s2 pz2, p2p 2x » p2 p1y , p 2 p1x » p 2 p y (paramagnetic)
* *
NO +(7 + 8 - 1 = 14 ) = s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2, s 2 s 2 s2 pz2, p2 px2 » p2 p 2y (diamagnetic)
* * *
NO -(7 + 8 + 7 + 8 + 1 = 16 ) = s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2, s 2 s 2, s2 pz2, p2 px2 » p2 p 2y , p 2 p1y (paramagnetic)
N 2 (7 + 7 = 14) = Same as NO +
Hence, both NO and NO – are paramagnetic.
93. (b) He +2 : s2 s 2, s * 1s1
1 1
B.O. = (N b - N a ) = (2 - 1) = 0.5
2 2
C 22- : s1s 2, s * 1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, (p2 px2 = p2 p 2y ), s2 pz2
1 6
B.O. = (10 - 4 ) = = 3.0
2 2
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 185
O +2 = s1s 2, s * 1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, s2 pz2, (p2 px2 = p2 p 2y ), p * 2 p1x
1 5
B.O. = (10 - 5 ) = = 2.5
2 2
O -2 = s1s 2, s * 1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, s2 pz2, (p2 px2 = p2 p 2y ),(p * 2 px2 = p * 2 p1y )
1 3
B.O. = (10 - 7 ) = = 1.5
2 2
Thus, the correct order of increasing bond order is He +2 < O -2 < O +2 < C 22-
* *
97. (c) (a) F 2 molecule = s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2 s 2 s 2, s2 pz2
* *
p2 px2 » 2 p 2y , p 2 px2 » s 2 p 2y
1 1
Bond order = (N b - N a ) = (10 - 6 ) = 2
2 2
* *
(b) O 2 molecule = s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2, s 2 s 2, s2 pz2
* *
p2 px2 » 2 p 2y , p 2 p1x » p 2 p1y
1
Bond order = (10 - 6 ) = 2
2
* *
(c) Be 2 molecule = s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2, s 1s 2
1
Bond order = ( 4 - 4 ) = 0
2
*
(d) Li 2 molecule = s1s 2, s 1s 2, s2 s 2
1
Bond order = ( 4 - 2 ) = 1
2
Therefore, Be 2 molecule
98. (c) Given species: O 2, O -21 , O +21 , O 22-
Total number of electrons
O 2 ® 16 e- O -21 ® 16 e-
+1
O 2 ® 15 e -
O 22- ® 18 e-

O +21 O2 O -21 O -22

Bond order 2.5 2 1.5 1

Stability µ B.O.
* Stability order [O 2+1 > O 2O 2-1 > O 22- ]
100. (c) According to molecular orbital theory (MOT)

O -2 O +2 O +22
-
No. of e 17 15 14
Bond order 1.5 2.5 3.0

101. (b) (i) Hybridisation of NH 3 [s = 3, lp = 1]

sp 3 geometry: tetrahedral
 186 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

N (pyramidal) P (pyramidal)
H H H H H H
(ii) Structure of XeF4 is square planar.
F F
Xe sp3d2 hybridisation
F F
(square planar)
Structure of XeO 4 is tetrahedral.
O

Xe sp3hybridisation
O O O
So XeF4 and XeO 4 are not isostructural.
(iii) Structure of SiCl 4 is tetrahedral.
Cl

Si sp3hybridisation
Cl Cl
Cl
Structure of PCl +4 is tetrahedral.
Cl

P+ sp3 hybridisation
Cl Cl Cl
(iv) Diamond and SiC both are isostructural because both have tetrahedral arrangement and central
atom is sp 3 hybridised.
102. (a) Distorted octahedral
103. (b) No bond is formed as no overlap is possible between Px and Py .
104. (b) Electronegativity difference between H and Cl is less than 2.1
105. (b) Ionic character is decided by Fazan’s rule. Larger is the size of cation more will be ionic character.
106. (c) Due to the presence of two lone pair of electrons on bromine, it has bent T-shaped.
107. (b) Isoelectronic species have same bond order
N 2 and NO + Þ 14 electrons Þ B. O. = 3
108. (d) In BrF5, Bromine has sp 3d2 hybridization, square pyramidal shape due to the presence of 1 lone pair of
electron.
F
F F
Br
F F
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 187
109. (b) XeF6 ¾® sp 3d3 ¾® distorted octahedral
F
F F
Xe

F F F
3
XeO 3 ¾® sp ¾® pyramidal
Xe
O O
O
XeOF4 ¾® sp 3d2 ¾® square pyramidal
F F
Xe
F F
O

XeF4 ¾® sp 3d2 ¾® square planar

F F
Xe
F F
H

110. (c) CH 4 ¾® sp 3 ¾® C Bond angle = 109 °28¢

H H
H

NH 3 ¾® sp 3 ¾®
N Bond angle = 109 °28¢
H H
H

O
H 2O ¾® sp 3 ¾® H H Bond angle = 109 °28¢
111. (b) The order of repulsion force according to VSEPR theory :
lone pair — lone pair > lone pair — bond pair > bond pair — bond pair
112. (c) The hydrogen bond is strongest in F — H ....F due to small size and high electronegativity of fluorine.
113. (b) Electronegativity difference between H and Cl is less than 2.1
114. (b) O 22- , O 2- , O 2, O +2
Increasing bond order : 1.0, 1.5, 2.0, 2.5
115. (b) iso electronic ¾® same valence electron
iso structural ¾® same structure
 188 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Cl S Both pyramidal but - valence

– electron are not same
O O O –O O
–
O
O O

C N Both trigonal planar and

– – –
O O– O O isoelectronic

F F
Geometry electron pair arrangement
116. (a) Xe
space aromatic arrangement
F F

Geometry ® octahedral hybridization ® sp 3d2

F H
+ S | F |
I
|

O O Se C
| H | H
|

|
117. (d) I I F
|

One pp-pp
One pp-dp F H
See saw Tetrahedral
Different shapes
118. (d) A molecule with three bond pairs and one lone pair of electrons like NH 3 is sp 3 hybridised with
tetrahedral geometry and trigonal pyramidal structure.
..
N
H H
H
NH3
(Tetrahedralstructure)

– .. + + .. –
119. (d) :N==N==O:
.. :N==N==O:
..

120. (d) 3 d2 Þ ;unpaired electrons =2

3 d8 Þ ;unpaired electrons =2

3 d7 Þ ;unpaired electrons =3

3 d5 Þ ;unpaired electrons =5

Magnetic moment = n(n + 2 )

where, n = number of unpaired electrons
Thus, higher the number of unpaired electrons, higher will be the magnetic moment.
So, 3 d5 configuration will have highest magnetic moment.
Chemical Bonding (Advanced) 189
121. (a) B 2 molecule: s1s 2, s *1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, p2 p1x » p2 p1y
(Two unpaired electrons hence, paramagnetic)
C 2 molecule: s1s 2, s *1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, p2 px2 » p2 p 2y
No unpaired electron hence, diamagnetic.
122. (c) BCl 3-Trigonal planar, sp 2-hybridised, 120° angle.
123. (b) Molecular orbital electronic configurations and bond order values are:
O 2: s1s 2, s *1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, s2 pz2, p2 px2 = p2 p 2y , p * 2 p1x = p * 2 p1y
1 1
B.O. = ( N b - N a ) = (10 - 6 ) = 2
2 2
NO +: s1s 2, s *1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, s2 pz2, p2 px2 = p2 p 2y
1
B.O. = (10 - 4 ) = 3
2
CN - : s1s 2, s *1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, p2 px2 = p2 p 2y , s2 pz2
1
B.O. = (10 - 4 ) = 3
2
CO : s1s 2, s *1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, p2 px2 = p2 p 2y , s2 pz2
1
B.O. = (10 - 4 ) = 3
2
N 2: s1s 2, s *1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, p2 px2 = p2 p 2y , s2 pz2
1
B.O. = (10 - 4 ) = 3
2
O –2 : s1s 2, s *1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, s2 pz2, p2 px2 = p2 p 2y , p * 2 px2 = p * 2 p1y
1
B.O. = (10 - 7 ) = 1.5
2
NO: s1s 2, s *1s 2, s2 s 2, s * 2 s 2, s2 pz2, p2 px2 = p2 p 2y , p * 2 p1x
1
B.O. = (10 - 5 ) = 2.5
2
124. (a) BeH 2 < CaH 2 < BaH 2
On moving down the group, metallic character of metals increases. So, ionic character of metal
hydrides increases. Hence, BeH 2 will be least ionic.
125. (b) NO : (s1s )2,(s * 1s )2,(s2 s )2,(s * 2 s )2,(s2 pz )2,(p2 px )2 = (p2 p y )2, (p * 2 px )1 = (p * 2 p y )0
10 - 5
B. O . = = 2.5
2
CN - :(s1s )2,(s * 1s )2,(s2 s )2,(s * 2 s )2,(p2 px )2 = (p2 p y )2, (s2 pz )2
10 - 4
B. O . = =3
2
CN :(s1s )2,(s * 1s )2,(s2 s )2,(s * 2 s )2,(p2 px )2 = (p2 p y )2,(s2 pz )1
9 -4
B. O . = = 2.5
2
CN + :(s1s )2,(s * 1s )2,(s2 s )2,(s * 2 s )2,(p2 px )2 = (p2 p y )2
8 -4
B. O . = =2
2
Hence, CN - has highest bond order.
 190 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

126. (c) Boron does not have vacant d-orbitals in its valence shell, so it cannot extend its covalency beyond 4.
i. e. , ‘B’ cannot form the ions like MF63- .
127. (b) The structure of ClF3 is :
F

—
..
Cl — F

—
..
F
Hence, Cl have 2 lone pairs of electrons.

128. (b)

In manganate and permanganate ions, p-bonding takes place by overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with
d-orbitals of manganese.
129. (d) Be 2(8 ) : KKs(2 s )2s * (2 s )2
O 2(16 ) : KKs(2 s )2s * (2 s )2s(2 pz )2p(2 px )2
p(2 p y )2p * (2 px )1 p * (2 p y )1
N 2(14 ) : KKs(2 s )2s * (2 s )2p(2 px )2p(2 p y )2
s(2 pz )2
C 2(12 ) : KKs(2 s )2s * (2 s )2p(2 px )2p(2 p y )2
Therefore, C 2 contains 2 p bonds as it has 4 electrons in two pi-molecular orbitals.
Co-ordination Compounds 191

4
CO-ORDINATION COMPOUNDS

Level 1
: Classification of Ligands
1. The common features among the species CN - , CO and NO + are :
(a) bond order three and diamagnetic
(b) bond order three and weak field ligands
(c) paramagnetic and strong field ligands
(d) paramagnetic and p-acceptor ligands
2. Ni 2+ ion can be estimated by using dimethyl glyoxime and forms a cherry-red precipitate. The
complex is stabilized by :
(a) ionic bonds (b) coordinate covalent bonds
(c) dative p-bonds (d) hydrogen bonds
2+
3. Ammonia forms the complex [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ] with copper ions in alkaline solution but not in
acidic solution. The reason for this is that :
(a) in alkaline solution Cu(OH) 2 is precipitated which is soluble in excess of alkali
(b) copper hydroxide is amphoteric substance
(c) in acidic solution hydration protects Cu 2+ ions
(d) in acidic solution protons are coordinated with ammonia molecules forming NH+4 ions
4. Select the wrong statement about alums :
(a) its aqueous solution gives test of three types of ions
(b) its aqueous solution is acidic in nature
(c) its constituent ions retain their identity in aqueous solution
(d) its constituent ions loose their identity in aqueous solution
5. Match the compounds given in column-I with the oxidation state of cobalt present in it (given
in column-II) and assign the correct code.
 192 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Column-I Column-II
(Complexes) (Oxidation state of Co)
(P) [Co(NCS)(NH 3 ) 5 ]SO 3 (1) +4
(Q) [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]SO 4 (2) 0
(R) Na 4 [Co(S 2O 3 ) 3 ] (3) +1
(S) [Co 2(CO) 8 ] (4) +2
(5) +3

Codes :
P Q R S
(a) 5 2 4 5
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 5 1 4 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
6. Which of the following ligand does not act as p-acid ligand ?
(a) N 2 (b) CO
(c) C 2H 4 (d) O 2-
2
7. Which of the given compound is flexidentate as well as ambidentate ligand ?
(a) S 2O 2-
3 (b) CN - (c) OCN - (d) EDTA 4-
8. Which of the following ambidentate ligand can act as flexidentate ligand ?
(a) SCN - (b) OCN - (c) SO 2-
3 (d) None of these

: Synergic Bonding
9. In the isoelectronic series of metal carbonyl, the CO bond strength is expected to increase in
the order :
(a) [Mn(CO) 6 ]+ < [Cr(CO) 6 ] < [V(CO) 6 ]- (b) [V(CO) 6 ]- < [Cr(CO) 6 ]<[Mn(CO) 6 ]+
(c) [V(CO) 6 ]- <[Mn(CO) 6 ]+ < [Cr(CO) 6 ] (d) [Cr(CO) 6 ]<[Mn(CO) 6 ]+ < [V(CO) 6 ]-
10. Which is not true about metal carbonyls?
(a) Here CO acts as a Lewis base as well as Lewis acid
(b) Here metal acts as Lewis base as well as Lewis acid
(c) Here dp - pp back bonding takes place
(d) Here pp - pp back bonding takes place
11. Correct sequence of CO bond order in given compounds is :
(P) Fe(CO) 5 (Q) CO (R) H 3B ¬ CO (S) [Mn(CO) 5 ]-
(a) P>R>S>Q (b) S>P>R>Q
(c) Q>S>P>R (d) R>Q>P>S
12. Decrease in bond order of ligand is higher in :
p p p p
(a) M s
CO (b) M s
N2 (c) M s
PPh3 (d) M s
PF3
Co-ordination Compounds 193
13. CO bond length is longest in :
(a) [Mn(CO) 6 ]+ (b) [V(CO) 6 ]- (c) Cr(CO) 6 (d) [Ti(CO) 6 ]2-

: Oxidation State
14. What is the oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(H 2O) 5(NO)]2+ ion?
(a) +2 (b) +3 (c) +1 (d) 0
15. The oxidation state of iron in Na 4 [Fe(CN) 5(NOS)] is :
(a) +1 (b) +2 (c) +3 (d) zero

: Coordination Number
16. The coordination number of a central metal atom in a complex is determined by :
(a) the number of only anionic ligands bonded to the metal ion
(b) the number of monodentate ligands around a metal ion bonded by pi-bonds
(c) the number of monodentate ligands around a metal ion bonded by s and pi-bonds both
(d) the number of monodentate ligands around a metal ion bonded by s-bonds
17. Which statement about coordination number of a cation is true?
(a) Metal ions exhibit only a single characteristic coordination number.
(b) The coordination number is equal to the number of ligands bonded to the metal atom.
(c) The coordination number is determined solely by the tendency to surround the metal
atom with the same number of electrons as one of the rare gases.
(d) For most cations, the coordination number depends on the size, and charge of the cation.
18. Incorrect match for given complex compound/ion and its characteristics :
(a) [CrBrCl(en) 2 ]Br Ionization and optical isomerism
(b) [CoBr 3(H 2O) 3 ] Fac-mer and hydrate isomerism
(c) [PtCl 2(NH 3 ) 4 ][Co(SCN) 4 ] Linkage isomerism and paramagnetic character
(d) [Co(ox) 3 ]3- Inner orbital complex and optical isomerism
19. Find IUPAC name of the hydrate isomer of CrCl 3 × 6H 2O, which is having lowest electrical
conductivity.
(a) Hexaaquachromium(III)chloride
(b) Tetraaquadichloridochromium(III)chloridedihydrate
(c) Pentaaquachloridochromium(III)chloridemonohydrate
(d) Triaquatrichloridochromium(III)trihydrate
20. Consider the complex [Co(NH 3 ) 4 CO 3 ] ClO 4 , in which coordination number, oxidation
number and number of d-electrons on the metal are respectively.
(a) 6, 3, 6 (b) 6, 2, 7 (c) 5, 3, 6 (d) 5, 3, 7

: Sidwick's Rule of EAN

21. If EAN of central metal cation M 2+ in a non-chelating complex is 36 and atomic no. of metal M
is 26, then the number of monodentate ligand in this complex are :
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) none of these
 194 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

22. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent?

(a) Mn(CO) 5 (b) Fe(CO) 5 (c) Mn 2(CO) 10 (d) Fe 2(CO) 9
23. An effective atomic number of Co(CO) 4 is 35 and hence is less stable. It attains stability by :
(a) oxidation of Co (b) reduction of Co
(c) dimerisation (d) both (b) and (c)
24. Which of the following pair the EAN of central metal atom is not same?
(a) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3– and [Fe(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (b) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ and [Cr(CN) 6 ]3–
(c) [FeF6 ]3– and [Fe(CN 6 )]3– (d) [Ni(CO) 4 ] and [Ni(CN) 4 ]2–
25. If complex compound, [Fe( p - C 5H 5 ) x ( p - C 3H 5 ) y (CO) z ] is following the Sidwick’s rule of
EAN then value of expression ‘ ‘ x + y + z ’ ’ is :
(Where x , y and z are natural numbers)
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
y
26. Select correct set of value of x , y respectively if complex [Mn (CO) x ( h - C 5H 5 )] follows EAN
rule.
(a) 2, 5 (b) 4, 1 (c) 3, 5 (d) 3, 3
27. For complex compound, [Cr(CO) x ( p - B 3N 3H 6 ) y ], the sum of ( x + y) is :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
28. Which of the following pair the EAN of central metal atom is not same ?
(a) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- and [Fe(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (b) [Cr (NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ and [Cr(CN) 6 ]3-
(c) [FeF6 ]3- and [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- (d) [Ni(CO) 4 ] and [Ni(CN) 4 ]2-
29. Which of the following follow EAN rule?
Cl Cl Cl Cl

(a) —–MoººMo—– (b) —–Mo—Mo—–

Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl
Cl
(c) —–Mo—Mo—– (d) —–Mo—Mo—–
Cl
Cl Cl Cl
30. Which of the given complex species is following E.A.N. Rule ?
(a) [Ca(EDTA )]2- (b) [Cr(en) 3 ]3+
(c) [CoBrCl(trien)]+ (d) [Ni(dmg ) 2 ]
31. EAN of the central metal atom/ion are equal in :
* * * *
(a) [Ni(CO)]4 ,[Fe(CN) 6 ]4- (b) [Ni(en) 2 ]2+ ,[Fe(H 2O) 6 ]2+
* * * *
(c) [Co(CN) 6 ]3- ,[Fe(CN) 6 ]3- (d) [Ni(en) 2 ]2+ ,[Fe(H 2O) 6 ]3+
Co-ordination Compounds 195
32. If E.A.N.of central metal cation M 2+ in a non-chelating complex is 36 and atomic no. of metal
M is 26, then the number of monodentate ligand is in this complex are :
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) None of these
33. [Mn(CO) 4 NO] is diamagnetic because :
(a) Mn metal is diamagnetic in free state
(b) Mn is in +1 oxidation state in this complex
(c) NO is present as positive ligand
(d) All of the above
34. Choose the correct option regarding the following complex compound which follows (F) and
does not follow (NF) the Sidgwick EAN rule :
(I) [(Ph 3P) 2 PdCl 2PdCl 2 ] (II) [NiBrCl(en)]
(III) Na 4 [Fe(CN) 5 NOS] (IV) Cr(CO) 3(NO) 2
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (I) (II) (III) (IV)
(a) NF NF NF NF (b) F F NF F
(c) NF NF F F (d) NF NF F NF
35. If CO ligands are substituted by NO in respective neutral carbonyl compounds then which of
the following will not be correct formula ?
(a) Cr(CO) 3(NO) 2 (b) Fe(CO) 2(NO) 2
(c) Cr(NO) 4 (d) Ni(CO) 2(NO) 2
36. Which of the following species can act as reducing agent ?
(a) [Co(CO) 4 ]- (b) Mn(CO) 6 (c) Mn(CO) 5 (d) Cr(CO) 6
37. Incorrect match is :
(a) [V(CO) 6 ] : Oxidizing agent (b) [Mn(CO) 6 ]+ : Stable complex
(c) [Co(CO) 4 ]2- : Reducing agent (d) [Mn(CO) 5 ]- : Stabilizes by dimerization

: IUPAC Nomenclature
38. The correct name of the complex ion [CoCl(ONO)(en) 2 ]+ is :
(a) chlorobis(ethylenediamine)nitrito-O-cobaltate (III) ion
(b) chlorodiethyldiaminenitrito-O-cobalt (III) ion
(c) chloronitrito-O-diethyldiamine cobaltate (III) ion
(d) chlorobis(ethylenediamine)nitrito-O-cobalt (III) ion
39. IUPAC name of [Fe(O 2 )(CN) 4 Cl]4– is :
(a) chlorotetracyano dioxoferrate (II)ion (b) chlorotetracyano peroxoferrate (II)ion
(c) chlorotetracyano superoxoferrate (II)ion (d) tetracyanochloro superoxoferrate (II)ion
40. The IUPAC name of the Wilkinson’s catalyst [RhCl(P Ph 3 ) 3 ] is :
(a) chlorotris(triphenylphosphine) rhodium (I)
(b) chlorotris(triphenylphosphine) rhodium (IV)
(c) chlorotris(triphenylphosphine) rhodium (0)
(d) chlorotris(triphenylphosphine) rhodium (VI)
 196 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

41. The correct formula of diammine dichlorodicyano chromate (III) is :

(a) [CrCl 2(CN) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]3+ (b) [CrCl 2(CN) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]3–
(c) [CrCl 2(CN) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ] (d) [CrCl 2(CN) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]–
42. The IUPAC name for K 2[Cr(CN) 2 O 2(O 2 )NH 3 ] is :
(a) Potassium amminedicyanotetraoxo chromium (III)
(b) Potassium amminedicyanodioxygendioxo chromate (IV)
(c) Potassium amminedicyanosuperoxoperoxo chromate (III)
(d) Potassium amminedicyanodioxoperoxo chromate (VI)
43. IUPAC name of H 2[PtCl 6 ] is :
(a) hydrogen hexachloroplatinate (IV) (b) dihydrogen hexachloroplatinate (IV)
(c) hydrogen hexachloroplatinic (IV) acid (d) hexachloroplatinic (IV) acid.
44. The IUPAC name for [PtCl(NH 2CH 3 )(NH 3 ) 2 ]Cl is :
(a) diamminechloro(methylamine)platinum(II)chloride
(b) (dimethylamine)chlorodiamminoplatinum(II)chloride
(c) bis(ammine)chloro(methylamine)platinate(II)chloride
(d) diaminechloro(mehylamine)platinum(II)chloride
45. The IUPAC nomenclature for the complex Na[PtBrCl(NO 2 )(NH 3 )] is :
(a) Sodium amminechlorobromonitro-N-platinum(II)
(b) Sodium nitrochlorobromoammine-N-platinate(II)
(c) Sodium amminebromochloronitro-N-platinate(II)
(d) Sodium amminebromochloronitro-N-platinum(II)
46. The IUPAC name of Xe[Pt F6 ] is :
(a) Hexafluoroplatinate(VI)xenon (b) Xenonhexafluoroplatinate(V)
(c) Xenonhexafluoroplatinate(VI) (d) Xenoniumhexafluoroplatinum(V)
47. What is the correct IUPAC name of [Ni(en) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]Cl 2 ?
(a) Diaminebis(ethylenediamine)nickel(II)chloride
(b) Diamminebis(ethylenediamine)nickel(II)chloride
(c) Diamminebis(ethylenediammine)nickel(II)chloride
(d) Diaminebis(ethylenediammine)nickel(II)chloride
48. Correct IUPAC name of complex compound [Co(NCS)(NH 3 ) 5 ][Zn(CN) 4 ] :
(a) Pentaamminethiocyanato-N-cobalt (III) tetracyanidozinc(II)
(b) Pentaamminethiocyanato-S-cobalt (III) tetracyanidozincate(II)
(c) Pentaamminethiocyanato-N-cobalt(II) tetracyanidozincate(II)
(d) Pentaamminethiocyanato-N-cobalt(III) tetracyanidozincate(II)
49. Select the correct IUPAC name of prussian blue :
(a) Iron(II) hexacyanoferrate(II) (b) Iron(II) hexacyanoferrate(III)
(c) Iron(III) hexacyanoferrate(II) (d) Iron(III) hexacyanoferrate(III)
50. Correct IUPAC name of complex compound [Co(NCS)(NH 3 ) 5 ][Zn(CN) 4 ].
(a) Pentaamminethiocyanato-N-cobalt (III) tetracyanidozinc(II)
(b) Pentaamminethiocyanato-S-cobalt (III) tetracyanidozincate(II)
(c) Pentaamminethiocyanato-N-cobalt(II) tetracyanidozincate(II)
Co-ordination Compounds 197
(d) Pentaamminethiocyanato-N-cobalt(III) tetracyanidozincate(II)
51. Which of the following complex compound is ‘‘Pentaaquacyanidoiron (III)
trichloridotricyanido cobaltate (III)’’ ?
(a) [Fe(CN)(H 2O) 5 ][CoCl 3(CN) 3 ] (b) [Fe(CN)(H 2O) 5 ]2[CoCl 3(CN) 3 ]3
(c) [Fe(CN) 2(H 2O) 4 ]3[FeCl 3(CN) 3 ]2 (d) [Fe(CN)(H 2O) 5 ]3[CoCl 3(CN) 3 ]2
52. Select correct IUPAC name of K[Co(CH 3NH 2 ) 2 Cl 4 ] complex compound.
(a) Potassium tetrachloridodi(methylammine)cobaltate(III)
(b) Potassium tetrachloridodi(methylamine)cobaltate(III)
(c) Potassium tetrachloridodimethylaminecobaltate(III)
(d) Potassium tetrachloridodimethylamminecobaltate(III)
53. Which of the following pair of IUPAC name is not matched with its formula ?
(a) [Fe(H 2O) 5(NO + )]SO 4 : Pentaaquanitrosoniumiron(I)sulphate
(b) Li[AlH 4 ] : Lithiumtetrahydridoaluminate(III)
(c) Na[Ag(CN) 2 ] : Sodiumdicyanidoargentate(I)
(d) Na 2[Fe(CN) 5(NO + )] : Sodiumpentacyanidonitrosylferrate(II)
54. The IUPAC name of Wilkinson’s catalyst is :
(a) chloridotris (triphenyl phosphine) rhodium (I)
(b) chloridotris (triphenyl phosphine) rhodium (IV)
(c) chloridotris (triphenyl phosphine) rhodium (0)
(d) chloridotris (triphenyl phosphine) rhodium (VI)
55. The IUPAC name of the complex compound [CoCl 2(en) 2 ]Cl is :
(a) Dichloridobis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt(III) chloride
(b) Dichloridobis(ethane-1, 2-diammine)cobalt(III) chloride
(c) Dichloridobis(ethylenediammine)cobalt(III) chloride
(d) Bis(ethylenediamine)dichlorido cobalt(III) chloride
56. Find IUPAC name of the hydrate isomer of CrCl 3 × 6H 2O , which is having lowest electrical
conductivity.
(a) Hexaaquachromium(III)chloride
(b) Tetraaquadichloridochromium(III)chloridedihydrate
(c) Pentaaquachloridochromium(III)chloridemonohydrate
(d) Triaquatrichloridochromium(III)trihydrate

: Werner's Coordination Theory

57. A six coordinate complex of formula CrCl 3 .6H 2O has green colour. A 0.1 M solution of the
complex when treated with excess of AgNO 3 gave 28.7g of white precipitate. The formula of
the complex would be :
(a) [Cr(H 2O) 6 )]Cl 3 (b) [CrCl(H 2O) 5 ]Cl 2 × H 2O
(c) [CrCl 2(H 2O) 4 ]Cl× 2H 2O (d) [Cr(H 2O) 3 Cl 3 ]
58. A complex has a composition corresponding to the formula CoBr 2Cl.4NH 3 . What is the
structural formula if conductance measurements show two ions per formula unit? Silver
nitrate solution given an immediate precipitate of AgCl but no AgBr.
 198 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(a) [CoBrCl(NH 3 ) 4 ]Br (b) [CoCl(NH 3 ) 4 ]Br 2

(c) [CoBr 2Cl(NH 3 ) 4 ] (d) [CoBr 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]Cl
59. Mixture X of 0.02 mole of [Co(NH 3 ) 5 SO 4 ]Br and 0.02 mole of [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Br]SO 4 was
prepared in 2 litre of solution :
1 litre of mixture X + excess of AgNO 3 ® Y
1 litre of mixture X + excess of BaCl 2 ® Z
Number of moles of Y and Z respectively are :
(a) 0.01, 0.02 (b) 0.02, 0.01 (c) 0.01, 0.01 (d) 0.02, 0.02
60. A platinum complex of ammonia and chlorine produces four ions per molecule in the solution.
It is :
(a) [Pt(NH 3 ) 5 Cl]Cl 3 (b) [Pt(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 4
(c) [Pt(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 4 ] (d) [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]Cl 2
61. Select the compound having maximum conductivity in aqueous medium.
(a) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 (b) [Cr(NH 3 ) 5 Cl]Cl 2
(c) [Cr(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]Cl (d) [Cr(NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ]
62. 100 mL 0.01 M solution of complex compound Ir Br 3 5NH 3 was treated with excess AgNO 3
solution and precipitate of AgBr was obtained, then number of moles of AgBr obtained is :
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.001 (c) 0.02 (d) 0.002
63. Which of the following compound gives one mole AgCl precipitate with 100 mL of a 10 M
solution of AgNO 3 ?
(a) CoCl 3 × 6NH 3 (b) CoCl 3 × 5NH 3 (c) CoCl 3 × 4NH 3 (d) All of these
64. On adding excess of AgNO 3 solution into 0.01 mole complex compound PtBr 4 × xNH 3 , 0.03
moles yellow precipitate was obtained, then value of ‘ x’ is :
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
65. Select correct statement for Cr × 6NH 3 × Cl 3 and Cr × 5NH 3 × Cl 3
(a) In both complex compounds secondary valency is satisfied by only NH 3
(b) In both complex compounds Cl - are satisfying only primary valency
(c) In both complex compounds primary valency is satisfied by only Cl -
(d) In both complex compounds all Cl - are ionizable
66. A compound has the empirical formula CoCl 3 × 5NH 3 . When an aqueous solution of this
compound is mixed with excess silver nitrate, 2 mole of AgCl precipitate per mole of
compound. On reaction with excess HCl, no NH +4 is detected. Hence, it is:
(a) [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl 2 ]Cl (b) [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl]Cl 2
(c) [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl 3 ] (d) [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]Cl × NH 3

: Valence Bond Theory

67. There are four complexes of Ni. Select the complex(es) which will be attracted by magnetic
field :
(I) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2– (II) [NiCl 4 ]2– (III) Ni(CO 4 ) (IV) [Ni(H 2O) 6 ]2+
(a) I only (b) IV only
(c) II, III and IV (d) II and IV
Co-ordination Compounds 199
68. Which of the following complex is an outer orbital complex?
(a) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (b) [Mn(CN) 6 ]4–
(c) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (d) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4–
69. Which of the following complex is an outer orbital complex ?
(a) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (b) [Mn(CN) 6 ]4-
(c) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (d) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4-
70. The magnetic moment of [MnX 4 ]2– is 5.9 BM. The geometry of the complex ion is :
(X = monodentate halide ion)
(a) tetrahedral (b) square planar (c) both are possible (d) none of these
71. The geometry of [Ni(CO) 4 ] and [NiCl 2(PPh 3 ) 2 ] are :
(a) both square planar
(b) tetrahedral and square planar respectively
(c) both are tetrahedral
(d) square planar and tetrahedral respectively
72. [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]2+ and [Fe(CN) 6 ]4– differ in :
(a) geometry, magnetic moment (b) geometry, hybridization
(c) magnetic moment, colour (d) hybridization, number of d-electrons
73. Which of the following order is correct in spectrochemical series of ligands?
(a) Cl – < F – < C 2O 2– –
4 < NO 2 < CN
–
(b) NO –2 < C 2O 2– – –
4 < Cl < F < CN
–

(c) C 2O 2– – – –
4 < F < Cl < NO 2 < CN
–
(d) F – < Cl – < NO –2 < CN – < C 2O 2–
4

74. The species with spin only magnetic moment of 24 BM is :

(a) [CoF3(H 2O) 3 ] (b) [CoCl 4 ]2– (c) [NiCl 4 ]2– (d) [Ni(H 2O) 6 ]2+
75. For the complexes showing the square pyramidal structure, the d-orbital involved in the
hybridisation is :
(a) d x 2 - y 2 (b) d z 2 (c) d xy (d) d xz
76. Which of the following aquated metal ions has the highest paramagnetism?
(a) [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (b) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]2+ (c) [Cu(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (d) [Zn(H 2O) 2 ]2+
77. The hybridization states of the central atom in the complexes [Fe(CN) 6 ]3– , [Fe(CN) 6 ]4– and
[Co(NO 2 ) 6 ]3– are :
(a) d 2 sp 3 , sp 3 d 2 and dsp 2 respectively (b) d 2 sp 3 , sp 3 d 2 and sp 3 d 2 respectively
(c) d 2 sp 3 , sp 3 d 2 and d 2 sp 3 respectively (d) all d 2 sp 3
78. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Complex Number of unpaired electrons
(a) [FeF6 ]3– 5
(b) [Cr(en) 3 ]2+ 2
3+
(c) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ] 4
2+
(d) [Mn(H 2O) 6 ] 5
 200 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

79. Which of the following complexes have a maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(a) [Ni(CO) 4 ] (b) [Co(NH 3 ) 4 (NO 2 ) 2 ]+
(c) [Ag(CN) 2 ]– (d) [CuBr 4 ]2–
80. The degeneracy of d-orbitals is lost under :
(I) Strong field ligand (I) Weak field ligand
(III) Mixed field ligand (IV) Chelated ligand field
Choose the correct code :
(a) I, II and IV (b) I and II
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) I, II and III
81. The complex ion [Fe(CN) 6 ]4– contains :
(a) total of 36 electrons on Fe 2+ cation
(b) sp 3 d 2 hybrid orbitals with octahedral structure
(c) total of 104 electrons
(d) six sigma bonds
82. In [Pt(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ], pt —Cl bond length is 2 Å and Cl—Cl distance is 2.88 Å then the compound
is :
(a) tetrahedral (b) square pyramidal
(c) cis-square planar (d) trans-square planar
2–
83. The magnetic moment of [NiX 4 ] ion is found to be zero. The ion is :
(X = monodentate anionic ligand)
(a) sp 3 hybridised (b) spd 2 hybridised
(c) dsp 2 hybridised (d) d 2 sp hybridised
84. The hybridised orbitals used by silver in the complex [Ag(NH 3 ) 2 ]+ are of the type :
(a) sp 2 (b) sp (c) sp 3 (d) dsp 2
85. Select the correct match
(a) [Mn(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ : inner orbital complex (b) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+ : outer orbital complex
(c) [PtCl 4 ]2- : diamagnetic complex (d) K 3[Cu(CN) 4 ] : paramagnetic complex
86. Which of the following complex compound is paramagnetic?
(a) [Ni(dmg ) 2 ] (b) [Fe(H 2O) 5(NO)]SO 4
(c) Na 2[Fe(CN) 5(NO)] (d) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
87. In which complex, d z 2 orbital of inner shell is not used in the hybridization of central metal
cation?
(a) Fe(CO) 5 (b) [Cu(NH 3 ) 5 ]2+ (c) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (d) [IrF6 ]3-
88. Arrange the following cyano complexes in decreasing order of their magnetic moment.
(a) [Cr(CN) 6 ]3- > [Mn(CN) 6 ]3- > [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- > [Co(CN) 6 ]3-
(b) [Mn(CN) 6 ]3- > [Cr(CN) 6 ]3- > [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- > [Co(CN) 6 ]3-
(c) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- > [Cr(CN) 6 ]3- > [Mn(CN) 6 ]3- > [Co(CN) 6 ]3-
(d) [Co(CN) 6 ]3- > [Cr(CN) 6 ]3- > [Mn(CN) 6 ]3- > [Fe(CN) 6 ]3-
Co-ordination Compounds 201
89. The magnetic moments of complexes given below are in the order :
(I) [Ni(CO) 4 ] (II) [Mn(CN) 6 ]4- (III) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (IV) [CoF6 ]3-
(a) I > II > III > IV (b) I < II < III < IV (c) IV > II > I > III (d) IV < II < I < III
90. The magnetic moment of a complex ion is 2.83 B.M. The complex ion is :
(a) [V(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (b) [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (c) [Cu(CN) 4 ]2- (d) [MnCl 4 ]2-
91. The diamagnetic species is :
(I) [Cu(CN) 4 ]3- (II) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (III) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (IV) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3-
(a) I, III (b) I, II (c) III, IV (d) only IV
92. Which of the following complex is an outer orbital complex ?
(a) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (b) [Mn(CN) 6 ]4- (c) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (d) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4-
93. The species having four unpaired electrons is :
(a) [Co(CN) 6 ]4- (b) [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (c) [FeCl 4 ]2- (d) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]3+
94. Which of the characteristic is not common between [Cu(en) 2 ]2+ and [Ni(dmg ) 2 ] ?
(a) Geometry of complexes (b) Hybridization of central metal cation
(c) Magnetic behaviour (d) Number of stereoisomers
95. Which of the following species is ‘‘diamagnetic’’ ?
(a) [NiCl 4 ]2- (b) K 3[Fe(CN) 6 ] (c) [Ni(CO) 4 ] (d) [Co(CN) 6 ]4-
96. Which of the following outer orbital complex has highest magnetic moment ?
(a) [Mn(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 2 (b) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 (c) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 2 (d) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3
97. Which complex is diamagnetic ?
(a) Na 3[Co(OX ) 3 ] (b) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (c) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- (d) [Mn(CN) 6 ]3-
98. Which complex compound has highest value of C.F.S.E. ?
(a) K 2[PtCl 4 ] (b) K[Pt(NH 3 )Cl 3 ] (c) [Pt(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ] (d) [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 ]Cl 2
99. In which of the following complex hybridization of central metal is not same as that of donor
atom of ligand?
(a) [Ni(PF3 ) 4 ] (b) [Fe(dmg ) 2 ] (c) [Zn(en) 2 ]2+ (d) [Ni(PMe 3 ) 4 ]2+
100. The oxidation number, coordination number and magnetic moment for the complex are
[Cr(C 2O 4 ) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]- respectively.
(a) O. N. = +3 , C. N. = 6 , M. M. = 15 B. M. (b) O. N. = +1, C. N. = 6 , M. M. = 15 B. M.
(c) O. N. = +3 , C. N. = 6 , M. M. = 3 B. M. (d) O. N. = +3 , C. N. = 6 , M. M. = 24 B. M.
101. Which of the following complex is an outer orbital complex ?
(a) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (b) [Mn(CN) 6 ]4- (c) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (d) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4-
102. Pair of complexes, which do not have equal number of unpaired electron(s) ?
(a) [Co(CO) 4 ]- ,[Ni(CN) 4 ]4 - (b) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+ ,[NiF6 ]2-
(c) [Ni(en) 3 ]2+ [Cr(CN) 6 ]4 - (d) [Co(CN) 6 ]4 - ,[Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
103. In which of the following pairs both the complexes have same geometry ?
(a) [NiCl 4 ]2- ,[Ni(CN) 4 ]2- (b) [CoF6 ]3- ,[Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
(c) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]+ ,[Ni(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ (d) [Ni(CO) 4 ],[Ni(CN) 4 ]2-
 202 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

104. Pair of complexes, which do not have equal number of unpaired electron(s) ?
(a) [Co(CO) 4 ]- ,[Ni(CN) 4 ]4 - (b) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+ ,[NiF6 ]2-
(c) [Ni(en) 3 ]2+ ,[Cr(CN) 6 ]4 - (d) [Co(CN) 6 ]4 - ,[Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
105. Spin only magnetic moment of which of the following complex ion is 4.9 B.M. ?
(a) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (b) [Fe(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (c) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (d) [NiF6 ]2-
106. Which of the following complex compound is low spin, inner orbital, diamagnetic complex ?
(a) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 2 (b) K 3[Fe(CN) 6 ] (c) K 2[PtCl 6 ] (d) [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 3
4- 3-
107. Different characteristics between [NiF6 ] and [IrF6 ] complexes is :
(a) Magnetic behaviour (b) Type of hybridisation
(c) High spin complex (d) Geometry of complexes
108. Arrange the following cyano complexes in increasing order of magnetic moment.
(a) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 - < [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- < [Mn(CN) 6 ]3- < [Cr(CN) 6 ]3-
(b) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- < [Cr(CN) 6 ]3- < [Mn(CN) 6 ]3- < [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 -
(c) [Mn(CN) 6 ]3- < [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- < [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 - < [Cr(CN) 6 ]3-
(d) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- < [Cr(CN) 6 ]3- < [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 - < [Mn(CN) 6 ]3-
109. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(a) [Cr(CO) 6 ] Paramagnetic Octahedral, sp 3 d 2
(b) [Fe(CO) 5 ] Paramagnetic Trigonal bipyramidal, sp 3 d
(c) [Co(CO) 4 ] Paramagnetic Square planar, dsp 2
(d) [Ni(CO) 4 ] Diamagnetic Square planar, dsp 2
110. Select correct statement(s) regarding [Ni(DMG) 2 ] complex compound :
(a) It acts as oxidising agent because Ni 2+ cation is having E.A.N. 34.
(b) It is extra stabilized by hydrogen bonding
(c) It’s IUPAC name is Bis(dimethylglyoximato)nickelate (II)
(d) It’s ligand contains two different donar sites
111. In which of the following complex ion the value of magnetic moment (spin only) is 3 BM and
outer d-orbitals is used in hybridization.
(a) [Mn(CN) 6 ]4- (b) [Fe(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
(c) [Co(CO) 4 ] (d) [Cu(H 2O) 6 ]2+
112. The inner orbital complex which exhibits both geometrical as well as optical isomerism.
(a) [Cr(en) 3 ]3+ (b) [IrF3(H 2O) 2(NH 3 )]
(c) [NiCl 2(en) 2 ] (d) [Co(CN) 2(ox) 2 ]3-
113. Select correct statement regarding [Ni(DMG) 2 ] complex compound.
(a) It acts as oxidising agent because Ni 2+ cation is having EAN 34.
(b) It is extra-stabilized by hydrogen bonding.
(c) It’s IUPAC name is Bis (dimethylglyoximato) nickelate (II).
(d) It’s ligand contains two different donar sites.
Co-ordination Compounds 203
114. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4– and [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- — both are octahedral and diamagnetic with d 2 sp 3 -
hybridisation
(b) Ni(CO) 4 and [Ni(CN) 4 ]2- — both are tetrahedral and diamagnetic with sp 3 -hybridisation
(c) Ni(CO) 4 and [Co(CO) 4 ]– — both are tetrahedral and diamagnetic
(d) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+ and [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]3+ — both are paramagnetic and metal is d 2 sp 3 -hybridised
115. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Compound) List-II ( of Central atom)
(A) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (1) sp 3
(B) [PtCl 4 ]2– (2) sp 3 d 2
(C) [Ni(CO) 4 ] (3) dsp 2
(D) [Co(ox) 3 ]3– (4) d 2 sp 3

A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2
116. Match List-I (Species) with List-II (Hybrid orbitals used by the central atom in their formation)
and select the correct answer :
List-I List-II
(A) Ni(CN) 3–
5 (1) sp 3

(B) CuCl 3–
5 (2) dsp 2
(C) AuCl –4 (3) sp 3 d 2
z

(D) ClO –4 (4) d 2 2 sp 3

x -y

A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
117. Which of the following is correctly matched?
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(a) [Cr(CO) 6 ] Paramagnetic Octahedral, sp 3 d 2
(b) [Fe(CO) 5 ] Paramagnetic Trigonal bipyramid, sp 3 d
(c) [Co(CO) 4 ]– Diamagnetic Tetrahedral, sp 3
(d) [Ni(CO) 4 ] Diamagnetic Square planar, dsp 2
 204 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

118. The hybridization of the complex [CrCl 2(NO 2 ) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]– is :

(a) sp 3 d 2 (b) d 2 sp 3
(c) sp 3 d (d) cannot be predicted
119. Which of the following statement is not true for the reaction given below?
[Cu(H 2O) 4 ]2+ + 4NH 3 º [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ + 4H 2O
(a) It is a ligand substitution reaction.
(b) NH 3 is a relatively strong field ligand while H 2O is a weak field ligand.
(c) During the reaction, there is a change in colour from light blue to dark blue.
(d) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ , has a tetrahedral structure and is paramagnetic.
120. Which of the following match is incorrect ?
Complex compounds Type of hybridization
(a) [V(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ : d 2 sp 3
(b) [CrCl 3(NMe 3 ) 3 ] : d 2 sp 3
(c) [Cu(CN)(NO 2 )(NH 3 )(py)] : dsp 2
(d) K 3[Co(ox) 3 ] : sp 3 d 2

: Crystal Field Theory

121. [PdCl 2(PMe 3 ) 2 ] is a diamagnetic complex of Pd (II) . How many unpaired electrons are
present in analogous complex of Ni (II) ?
(a) Zero (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
122. Magnetic moment (spin only) of octahedron complex having CFSE= – 0.8 D O and surrounded
by weak field ligands can be:
(a) 15 BM (b) 8 BM (c) (a) & (b) both (d) None of these
123. Consider the following complex : [Co(NH 3 ) 5 CO 3 ]ClO 4
The coordination number, oxidation number, no. of d-electrons and number of unpaired
d-electrons on the metal are respectively :
(a) 6, 2, 7, 3 (b) 7, 2, 7, 1
(c) 5, 3, 6, 4 (d) 6,3, 6, 0
124. Consider the following complex : [Co(CO 3 )(NH 3 ) 5 ]ClO 4
Mark the correct option :
Coordination Oxidation No. of Unpaired
no. no. d-electrons d-electrons
(a) 6 3 6 0
(b) 7 2 7 1
(c) 7 1 6 4
(d) 6 2 7 3

125. The magnetic moments of complexes given below are in the order :
(I) [Ni(CO) 4 ] (II) [Mn(CN) 6 ]4– (III) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (IV) [CoF6 ]3–
Co-ordination Compounds 205
(a) I> II> III> IV (b) I< II< III< IV (c) IV > II> I> III (d) IV < II< I< III
126. Which is low spin complex?
(a) [Fe(CN 6 )]3– (b) [Co(NO 2 ) 6 ]3– (c) [Mn(CN) 6 ]3– (d) All of these
127. Which of the following are diamagnetic?
(I) K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] (II) K 3[Cr(CN) 6 ] (III) K 3[Co(CN) 6 ] (IV) K 2[Ni(CN) 4 ]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) I, II and IV (b) I, III and IV (c) II and III (d) I and IV
128. The spin magnetic moment of cobalt in Hg[Co(SCN) 4 ] is :
(a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 15 (d) 24
129. The species having tetrahedral shape is :
(a) [PdCl 4 ]2– (b) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2 (c) [Pd(CN) 4 ]2– (d) [NiCl 4 ]2–
130. Which one of the following has lowest value of magnetic behaviour?
(a) [Cr(CN) 6 ]3– (b) [Mn(CN) 6 ]3–
(c) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3– (d) [Co(CN) 6 ]3–
131. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) [CoF6 ]3– and [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ both are paramagnetic complexes.
(b) [CoF6 ]3– and [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ both are high spin complexes.
(c) [CoF6 ]3– is octahedral while [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ has a pentagonal pyramidal shape.
(d) [CoF6 ]3– is outer orbital complex while [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ is inner orbital complex.
132. The magnetic moment of a complex ion is 2.83 BM. The complex ion is :
(a) [V(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (b) [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]3+
(c) [Cu(CN) 4 ]2– (d) [MnCl 4 ]2–
133. Which of the following complex compound(s) is/are paramagnetic and low spin?
(I) K 3[Fe(CN 6 )] (II) [Ni(CO) 4 ]0 (III) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (IV) [Mn(CN) 6 ]4–
Choose the correct code :
(a) I only (b) II and III (c) I and IV (d) IV only
134. The diamagnetic species is :
(a) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]2+ (b) [Ni(H 2O) 6 ]2+
(c) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (d) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+
135. The species which has four unpaired electron is :
(a) [Co(CN) 6 ]4– (b) [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (c) [FeCl 4 ]2– (d) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]3+
136. Which of the following is a low-spin (spin-paired) complex?
(a) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (b) [Ti(H 2O) 6 ]3+
(c) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (d) [Fe(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
137. The structure of K[PtCl 3(C 2H 4 )] and hybridisation of Pt respectively are :
(a) square planar, sp 2 d 2 (b) square planar, dsp 2
(c) tetrahedral, sp 3 (d) octahedral, d 2 sp 3
 206 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

138. For which of the following types of ions is the number of unpaired electrons in octahedral
complexes fixed at the same number as in the free ion no matter, how weak or strong the
crystal field is?
(a) d 3 (b) d 4 (c) d 5 (d) d 6
139. Among the following pairs of complexes, in which case the D 0 value is higher for the first one?
(a) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ and [Co(CN) 6 ]3– (b) [CoF6 ]3– and [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
(c) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]2+ and [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (d) [Rh(H 2O) 6 ]3+ and [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+
140. Dimethyl glyoxime forms a square planar complex with Ni 2+ . This complex should be :
(a) diamagnetic
(b) paramagnetic having 1 unpaired electron
(c) paramagnetic having 2 unpaired electrons
(d) ferromagnetic
141. What is the magnetic moment (spin only) and hybridisation of the brown ring
complex [Fe(H 2O) 5 NO]SO 4 ?
(a) 3 BM, sp 3 d 2 (b) 3 BM, d 2 sp 3 (c) 15 BM, sp 3 d 2 (d) 15 BM, d 2 sp 3
142. Choose incorrect stability order :
(a) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ <[Cu(en) 2 ]2+ <[Cu(trien)]2+
(b) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]3+ <[Fe(NO 2 ) 6 ]3– <[Fe(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
(c) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+ < [Rh(H 2O) 6 ]3+ <[Ir(H 2O) 6 ]3+
(d) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]1+ <[Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ <[Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
143. Aqueous solution of Ni 2+ contains [Ni(H 2O) 6 ]2+ and its magnetic moment is 2.83 BM. When
ammonia is added in it, comment on the magnetic moment of solution :
(a) It will remain same
(b) It increases from 2.83 BM.
(c) It decreases from 2.83 BM.
(d) It cannot be predicted theoretically
144. The correct order of energies of d-orbitals of metal ion in a square planar complex is :
(a) d xy = d yz = d zx > d x 2 - y 2 = d x 2 (b) d x 2 - y 2 = d z 2 > d xy = d yz = d zx
(c) d x 2 - y 2 > d z 2 > d xy = d yz = d zx (d) d x 2 - y 2 > d xy > d z 2 > d zx = d yz
145. Which of the following is true about the complex [PtCl 2(H 2O)(NH 3 )] ?
(a) It exhibits geometrical isomerism (b) It is paramagnetic complex
(c) Its geometry is tetrahedron (d) Platinum is sp 3 hybridised
146. The crystal field stabilisation energy of [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 is :
(a) - 7.2 D 0 (b) - 0.4 D 0 (c) - 2.4 D 0 (d) - 3.6 D 0
147. The magnitude of crystal field stabilisation energy in octahedral field depends on :
(I) the nature of the ligand
(II) the charge on the metal ion
(III) whether the metal is in the first, second or third row of the transition elements
(a) I, II, III only correct (b) I, II only correct
(c) II, III only correct (d) III only correct
Co-ordination Compounds 207
148. Complex compound [Cr(NCS)(NH 3 ) 5 ][ZnCl 4 ] will be :
(a) colourless and diamagnetic
(b) green coloured and diamagnetic
(c) green coloured and shows coordination isomerism
(d) diamagnetic and shows linkage isomerism
149. The most stable ion is :
(a) [Fe(C 2O 4 ) 3 ]3– (b) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3–
(c) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4– (d) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]3+
150. In the complex K 2Fe[Fe(CN) 6 ] :
(a) both Fe atoms are in the same oxidation state
(b) both Fe atoms are in different oxidation state
(c) the coordination number of ion is 4
(d) the complex is a high spin complex
151. In Na 2[Fe(CN) 5 NO], sodium nitroprusside :
(a) oxidation state of Fe is +2 (b) this has NO+ as ligand
(c) both are correct (d) none is correct
152. An aqueous solution of titanium chloride, when subjected to magnetic measurement,
measured zero magnetic moment. Assuming the octahedral complex in aqueous solution, the
formulae of the complex is :
(a) [Ti(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 2 (b) [Ti(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 4
(c) [TiCl 3(H 2O) 3 ] (d) [TiCl 2(H 2O) 4 ]
153. Amongst the following, the most stable complex is :
(a) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (b) [Co(ox) 3 ]3-
(c) [Co(ONO) 6 ]3- (d) [CoF6 ]3-
154. For an octahedral complex, whcih of the following d-electron configuration will give maximum
CFSE ?
(a) High spin with d 6 configuration (b) Low spin with d 4 configuration
(c) Low spin with d 5 configuration (d) High spin with d 7 configuration
155. For octahedral complex, which of the following d n configurations of metal cation cannot exist
in high spin and low spin forms ?
(a) d 3 and d 8 (b) d 3 and d 5 (c) d 3 and d 6 (d) d 4 and d 8
156. Which of the following order of stability of complex ion is Incorrect ?
(a) [Fe(C 2O 4 ) 3 ]3- > [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (b) [Fe(edta)]- > [Fe(en) 3 ]3+
(c) [Ni(en) 2 ]2+ > [Ni(DMG) 2 ] (d) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- > [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 -
157. Which of the following is tetrahedral paramagnetic complex ?
(a) K 2[PtCl 4 ] (b) K 2[MnCl 4 ] (c) K 2[ZnCl 4 ] (d) K 2[HgI 4 ]
158. In an octahedral crystal field, the t 2g orbitals are :
(a) raised in energy by 0.4 D o (b) lowered in energy by 0.4 D o
(c) raised in energy by 0.6 D o (d) lowered in energy by 0.6 D o
 208 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

159. Identify the complex which are expected to be coloured.

(a) [Ti(NO 3 ) 4 ] (b) Na 2[CdCl 4 ] (c) K 3[VF6 ] (d) [Sc(H 2O) 6 ]3+
160. Select the complex having highest value of stability contant ( K s )
(a) [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ (b) [Pt(NH 3 ) 3 Cl]+ (c) [Pt(NH 3 )Cl 3 ]- (d) [PtCl 4 ]2-
161. Select the Incorrect match
(a) Fe 3+ + [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 - ® Blue colour ppt.
(b) Fe 3+ + [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- ® Red brown colouration
(c) Fe 2+ + [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- ® Blue colour ppt.
(d) Fe 2+ + [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 - ® Red brown colouration
162. The complex ion having minimum wavelength of absorption in the visible region is :
(a) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (b) [CoCl(NH 3 ) 5 ]2+
(c) Cis - [CoCl 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]+ (d) Trans - [CoCl 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]+
163. Incorrect order of stability is :
(a) [Co(ox) 3 ]3- > [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (b) [PtF6 ]2- > [NiF6 ]2-
(c) [Ni(trien)]2+ > [Ni(en) 2 ]2+ (d) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ > [Ni(dmg ) 2 ]
164. Select two isomers having colour violet and green respectively
(a) [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 2 ;[Cr(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 3
(b) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 3 ; [Co(H 2O) 4 Cl 2 ]Cl × 2H 2O
(c) [Co(ONO)(H 2O) 5 ]Cl 2 ; [Co(NO 2 )(H 2O) 5 ]Cl 2
(d) [Pt(Br)(NH 3 ) 3 ]NO 2 ;[Pt(NO 2 )(NH 3 ) 3 ]Br
165. In which of the following splitting of d-orbitals of metal atom/ion electrons are incorrectly
distributed ?
¼¿ ¼ ¼ ¼¼
2- 2+
(a) [NiCl 4 ] (b) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]

¼¿¼¿ ¼¿¼¿¼¿
¼¼¼
(c) [CoF6 ]3- (d) [Co(SCN) 4 ]2-

¼¿¼¿¼¿ ¼¿¼¿
166. The value of CFSE ( D o ) for complexes given below follow the order.
(I) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (II) [Rh(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (III) [Ir(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
(a) I < II < III (b) I > II > III
(c) I < II > III (d) I = II = III
167. Find out wrong statement for an octahedral complex.
(a) Central metal cation with d 6 configuration is diamagnetic in strong ligand field.
Co-ordination Compounds 209
(b) Central metal cation with d 5 configuration has one unpaired electron in both weak and
strong ligand field.
(c) Central metal cation with d 8 configuration has two unpaired electrons in weak, strong and
also in mixed ligand field.
(d) Central metal cation with d 4 , d 5 , d 6 and d 7 configuration have different number of
unpaired electrons in weak and strong ligand field.
168. Select correct pair of co-ordination compounds in which first complex compound/ion is more
stable than second compound/ion.
(a) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2- ,[Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (b) [PdBr 2(NH 3 ) 2 ],[PdBr(ONO)(NH 3 ) 2 ]
(c) [Co(SCN) 4 ]2- ,[CoF6 ]3- (d) [Cr(NH 3 ) 2(en) 2 ]3+ ,[Cr(en) 3 ]3+
169. Coloured compound among the following is :
(a) Na 2[CdCl 4 ] (b) K 3[Cu(CN) 4 ]
(c) Na 2[CuCl 4 ] (d) [Cu(CH 3CN) 4 ]BF4
170. Select incorrect match between compound and reason for its observed colour
(a) KMnO 4 : Charge transfer spectrum (b) [Fe(H 2O) 5(NO)] SO 4 : d - d-transition
(c) Ag 2PO 4 : Polarization (d) HgI 2 : Polarization
171. Among the following pair of complexes, in which case the value of D o is higher for the first
one?
(a) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ and [Co(CN) 6 ]3- (b) [CoF6 ]3- and [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
(c) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]2+ and [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (d) [Rh(H 2O) 6 ]3+ and [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+
172. Amongst TiF62- ,CoF63- ,Cu 2Cl 2 and NiCl 2-
4 the colourless species are :
(a) CoF63- and NiCl 24- (b) TiF62- and CoF63-
(c) Cu 2Cl 2 and NiCl 2-
4 (d) TiF62- and Cu 2Cl 2
173. Correct relationship between pairing energy ( P ) and C.F.S.E. ( D o ) in complex ion;
[Ir(H 2O) 6 ]3+ is :
(a) D o < P (b) D o > P (c) D o = P (d) Cannot comment
174. Which of the following order of CFSE is incorrect ?
(a) [Cr(NO 2 ) 6 ]3- > [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ > [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]3+
(b) [PtF4 ]2- > [PdF4 ]2- > [NiF4 ]2-
(c) [Ni(DMG) 2 ] < [Ni(en) 2 ]2+
(d) [Co(EDTA)]- > [Co(en) 3 ]3+
175. For an octahedral complex, which of the following d-electron configuration will give maximum
CFSE ?
(a) High spin ; d 6 (b) Low spin ; d 5
4
(c) Low spin ; d (d) High spin ; d 7
176. If colour of [Ni(H 2O) 2(en) 2 ]2+ is blue-purple then what would be the colour of [Ni(en) 3 ]2+ ?
(a) Green (b) Pale blue
(c) Deep blue (d) Violet
 210 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

177. Which of the following hydrate isomer of CrCl 3 × 6H 2O absorb shorter wavelength in visible
spectrum ?
(a) [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 3 (b) [CrCl(H 2O) 5 ]Cl 2 × H 2O
(c) [CrCl 2(H 2O) 4 ]Cl × 2H 2O (d) [CrCl 3(H 2O) 3 ] × 3H 2O
178. CFSE value of [Fe (H 2O) 5(NO)]SO 4 (Brown ring complex) is :
(a) -0.8 D o (b) -0.4 D o
(c) -18
. Do (d) -2.4 D o
179. Which of the following complex ion absorb visible light ?
(a) [Sc(H 2O) 3(NH 3 ) 3 ]3+ (b) [Ti(en) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]4+
(c) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (d) [Zn(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+
180. Which of the following statement is not true for the reaction given below ?
[Cu(H 2O) 4 ]2+ + 4NH 3 p [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ + 4H 2O
(a) It is a ligand substitution reaction
(b) NH 3 is relatively strong field ligand while H 2O is a weak field ligand
(c) During the reaction, there is a change in colour form light blue to dark blue
(d) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ has tetrahedral structure and is paramagnetic
181. From the stability constant (hypothetical values) given below predict which is the strongest
ligand ?
(a) Cu 2+ + 4NH 3 p [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ K = 4.5 ´ 10 11
(b) Cu 2 + 4CN - p [Cu(CN) 4 ]2- K = 2.0 ´ 10 27
(c) Cu 2+ + 2en p [Cu(en) 2 ]2+ K = 3 ´ 10 15
(d) Cu 2+ + 4H 2O p [Cu(H 2O) 4 ]2+ K = 9.5 ´ 10 8
182. What is electronic arrangement of metal atom/ion in octahedral complex with d 4
configuration, if D 0 < pairing energy?
(a) t 24g e g0 (b) e g4 t 20g (c) t 23g e1g (d) e g2t 22g
183. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) Bis(glycinatio)Zinc(II) is optically active
(b) [NiCl 4 ]2– and [PtCl 4 ]2– have different shape
(c) [Ni(CN) 4 ]4– is square planar complex
(d) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2– and [Ni(CO) 4 ] have the same magnetic moment
184. Give the correct of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it
is false.
(I) Co(III) is stabilised in presence of weak field ligands, while Co(II) is stabilised in presence
of strong field ligand.
(II) Four coordinated complexes of Pd(II) and Pt(II) are diamagnetic and square planar.
(III)[Ni(CN) 4 ]4– ion and [Ni(CO) 4 ] are diamagnetic tetrahedral and square planar respectively.
(IV) Ni 2+ ion does not form inner orbital octahedral complexes.
(a) TFTF (b) TTTF
(c) TTFT (d) FTFT
Co-ordination Compounds 211
185. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(I) [FeF6 ]3– (A) 1.73 BM
(II) [Ti(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (B) 5.93 BM
(III) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (C) 0.00 BM
2+
(IV) [Ni(H 2O) 6 ] (D) 2.83 BM
(V) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4– (E) 3.88 BM

(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V) (I) (II) (III) (IV) (V)
(a) B A C D E (b) B A E D C
(c) B C D E A (c) D E A B C
186. The value of ‘spin only’ magnetic moment for one of the following configuration is 2.84 BM.
The correct one is :
(a) d 4 (in strong field ligand)
(b) d 2 (in weak field ligand)
(c) d 3 (in weak as well as in strong field ligand)
(d) d 5 (in strong field ligand)
187. The correct order of magnetic moments (spin values in BM) among is :
(a) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 - >[CoCl 4 ]2– >[MnCl 4 ]2– (b) [MnCl 4 ]2– >[Fe(CN) 6 ]4– >[CoCl 4 ]2–
(c) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4– >[MnCl 4 ]2– >[CoCl 4 ]2– (d) [MnCl 4 ]2– >[CoCl 4 ]2– >[Fe(CN) 6 ]4–
188. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The stability constant of [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ is greater than that of [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+
(b) The cyano complexes are far more stable than those formed by halide ions
(c) The stability of halide complexes follows the order I – < Br – < Cl –
(d) The stability constant of [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ is greater than that of [Cu(en) 2 ]2+
189. Set of d-orbitals which is used by central metal during formation of MnO –4 ?
(a) d x 2 - y 2 , d z 2 , d xy (b) d xy , d yz , d xz (c) d x 2 - y 2 , d xy , d xz (d) d x 2 - y 2, d z 2 , d xz
190. FeSO 4 is a very good absorber for NO, the new compound formed by this process is found to
contain number of unpaired electrons :
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 6
191. A [M(H 2O) 6 ]2+ complex typically absorbs at around 600 nm. It is allowed to react with
ammonia to form a new complex [M(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ that should have absorption at :
(a) 800 nm (b) 580 nm (c) 620 nm (d) 320 nm
192. An ion M 2+ , forms the complexes [M(H 2O) 6 ]2+ , [M(en) 3 ]2+ and [MBr 6 ]4– , match the
complex with the appropriate colour :
(a) Green, blue and red (b) Blue, red and green
(c) Green, red and blue (d) Red, blue and green
 212 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

193. The CFSE for [(CoCl) 6 ]4 – complex is 18000 cm –1 . The D for [CoCl 4 ]2– will be :
(a) 18000 cm –1 (b) 16000 cm –1 (c) 8000 cm –1 (d) 2000 cm –1
194. MnO –4 is of intense pink colour, though Mn is in ( +7) oxidation state, it is due to :
(a) Oxygen gives colour to it
(b) Charge transfer when Mn( +7) gives its electron to oxygen and oxidise to Mn ( +8)
temporarily
(c) Charge transfer when oxygen gives its electron to Mn ( +7) changing in Mn ( +6)
(d) None is correct explanation
195. In which of the following complex ion the value of magnetic moment (spin only) is 3 B.M.
and outer d-orbitals is used in hybridization:
(a) [Fe(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (b) [Mn(CN) 6 ]4–
(c) [CuCl 5 ]2- (d) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+
196. Which of the following order of CFSE is incorrect ?
(a) [Co(en) 3 ]3+ >[Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ >[Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+
(b) [PtCl 4 ]2– >[PdCl 4 ]2– >[NiCl 4 ]2–
(c) [Ni(DMG) 2 ]<[Ni(en) 2 ]2+
(d) [Co(ox) 3 ]3– <[Co(en) 3 ]3+
197. For which of the following d n configuration of octahedral complexes, can not exist in both
high spin and low spin forms :
(I) d 3 (II) d 5 (III) d 6 (IV) d 8
(a) I, II & III (b) II, III & IV
(c) I & IV (d) None of these
198. In which complex, d z 2 orbital of inner shell is not used in the hybridization of central metal
cation ?
(a) Fe(CO) 5 (b) [Cu(NH 3 ) 5 ]2+ (c) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (d) [IrF6 ]3-
199. Which of the following complex is an outer orbital complex ?
(a) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (b) [Mn(CN) 6 ]4- (c) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (d) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4-
200. If bidentate ligand, ethylene diamine(en) is progressively added in green aqueous solution of
[Ni(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 2 in the molar ratio between en : Ni as 1 : 1, 2 : 1 and 3 : 1 then their associated
spin only magnetic moment (in B.M. unit) are respectively :
(a) 8 , 8 , zero (b) 8 , 3 , zero
(c) 8 , 3 , 3 (d) 8 , 8 , 8
201. Maximum paramagnetism is shown by :
(a) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- (b) [Cr(CN) 6 ]3- (c) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4- (d) [Mn(CN) 6 ]3-
202. Which of the following complex/complex ion is inner orbital complex as well as low spin
complex/complex ion ?
(a) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ (b) [IrF6 ]3-
(c) [Ag(S 2O 3 ) 2 ]3- (d) [Ni(CO) 4 ]
Co-ordination Compounds 213

: Isomerism
203. Which of the following pairs of complexes are isomeric with each other but their aqueous
solutions exhibit different molar conductivities?
(a) [PtCl 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]Br 2 and [PtBr 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]Cl 2
(b) [CoCl 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]NO 2 and [CoCl(NO 2 )(NH 3 ) 4 ]Cl
(c) [Co(NO 2 )(NH 3 ) 5 ]Cl 2 and [Co(ONO)(NH 3 ) 5 ]Cl 2
(d) [CoBr(NH 3 ) 5 ]SO 4 and [Co(SO 4 )(NH 3 ) 5 ]Br
204. The compounds [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 3 , [Cr(H 2O) 5 Cl]Cl 2 ×H 2O and [Cr(H 2O) 4 Cl 2 ]Cl×2H 2O exhibit :
(a) linkage isomerism (b) geometrical isomerism
(c) ionization isomerism (d) hydrate isomerism
205. Which one of the following pairs of isomers and types of isomerism are correctly matched?
(i) [Co(NH 3 ) 5(NO 2 )]Cl 2 and [Co(NH 3 ) 5(ONO)]Cl 2 …(Linkage)
(ii) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ][PtCl 4 ] and [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 ][CuCl 4 ]…(Coordination)
(iii) [PtCl 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]Br 2 and [PtBr 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]Cl 2 …(Ionization)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
206. The two compounds pentaamminesulphatocobalt (III) bromide and
pentaamminesulphatocobalt (III) chloride represent :
(a) linkage isomerism (b) ionization isomerism
(c) coordination isomerism (d) no isomerism
207. Select the correct code about complex [Cr(NO 2 )(NH 3 ) 5 ][ZnCl 4 ] :
(I) IUPAC name of compound is pentaamminenitrito-N-chromium (III) tetrachlorozincate(II)
(II) It shows geometrical isomerism
(III) It shows linkage isomerism
(IV) It shows coordination isomerism
(a) III, IV (b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
208. Which of the following order is representing increasing order of geometrical isomers of given
complexes ?
(a) [M( AA )b 2c 2 ]n± ; [Ma 2b 2c 2 ]n± ; [Ma 3bcd]n± ; [Ma 2bcde]n±
(b) [M( AA )b 2c 2 ]n± ; [Ma 3bcd]n± ; [Ma 2b 2c 2 ]n± ; [Ma 2bcde]n±
(c) [Ma 3bcd]n± ; [Ma 2b 2c 2 ]n± ; [M( AA )b 2c 2 ]n± ; [Ma 2bcde]n±
(d) [Ma 2b 2c 2 ]n± ; [M( AA )b 2c 2 ]n± ; [Ma 3bcd]n± ; [Ma 2bcde]n±
209. Consider the following balanced reactions :
(i) K 2[PtCl 4 ] + 2NH 3 ® ‘ X ’ + 2KCl
(ii) [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 ](NO 3 ) 2 + 2KCl ® ‘ Y ’ + 2NH 3 + 2KNO 3
Both X and Y have same molecular formula Pt × 2NH 3 × Cl 2 and X is more soluble in polar
solvent such as ehtanol while Y is soluble in non-polar solvent like petroleum, ether and CCl 4 .
Complex X and Y are :
(a) ionization isomers (b) geometrical isomers
(c) solvate isomers (d) co-ordination isomers
 214 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

210. Complex ion/compound having only two stereoisomers :

(a) [CrBr 2(H 2O)(NH 3 ) 3 ] (b) [Zn(gly) 2 ]
(c) [PtBrCl(CN)(H 2O)] -
(d) [Co(en)(NH 3 ) 4 ]3+
211. Which type of isomerism is not exhibited by complex [CrCl 2(H 2O) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]Br ?
(a) Ionization isomerism (b) Hydrate isomerism
(c) Geometrical isomerism (d) Optical isomerism
212. Select correct match :
(a) [Co(ox)(H 2O) 3(NH 3 )]Br : Optical isomerism
(b) [Cr(SCN)(H 2O) 3(en)](C 2O 4 ) : Ionization isomerism
(c) [ZnBr(CN)(SCN)(NH 3 )]- : Geometrical isomerism
(d) [CoBrCl(H 2O) 4 ][Ag(CN) 2 ] : Co-ordination isomerism
213. Which of the following complex compound does not show stereoisomerism ?
(a) [PdBrCl(NO 2 )(NH 3 )]- (b) [Zn(SCN)(H 2O)(gly)]
(c) [Co(acac) 3 ] (d) [PtBr(H 2O)(en)]
214. [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]Br 2 complex can show :
(a) Hydrated as well as ionization isomerism
(b) Ionization as well as geometrical isomerism
(c) Linkage as well as geometrical isomerism
(d) Ionization as well as optical isomerism
215. Which of the following type of isomerism is not exhibited by [Co(H 2O) 3(NH 3 ) 2(NO 3 )]Br 2 ?
(a) Linkage isomerism (b) Ionization isomerism
(c) Hydrate isomerism (d) Geometrical isomerism
216. Select incorrect match.
(a) [Co(acac) Br 2(H 2O) 2 ] : One pair of enantiomers
(b) [IrBr 4 (en)]- : Does not exhibit cis-trans isomerism
(c) [ZnBrCl(CN)(NO 2 )]2- : Number of stereoisomers = 2
(d) [Cr(en) 3 ]3+ : Number of stereoisomers is equal to number of geometrical
isomers.
217. Which kind of isomerism is exhibited by octahedral [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Br 2 ]Cl ?
(a) Geometrical and ionization (b) Geometrical and optical
(c) Optical and ionization (d) Geometrical only
218. Select incorrect statement about complex [Cr(NH 3 ) 5(NO 2 )][Zn(SCN) 4 ].
(a) It show coordination isomerism
(b) It show optical isomerism
(c) It show linkage isomerism
(d) IUPAC name is pentaammine nitrito-N-chromium(III)tetrathiocyanato-S-zincate(II)
219. Which of the following statement is false ?
(a) Optical isomerism cannot be observed in [M abcd ]n± tetrahedral complexes.
Co-ordination Compounds 215
(b) Geometrical isomerism does not exist while optical isomerism exists in complex
[Fe(C 2O 4 ) 3 ]3- .
(c) Both cis-form and trans form is optically inactive in [PtCl 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ complex ion.
(d) [Pt(en) 2 ]2+ show geometrical isomerism as well as optical isomerism.
220. Select correct pair of complexes that exhibit same type of isomerism.
(a) [CoBr(NH 3 ) 5 ]Cl 2 ,[IrBr 3(H 2O) 3 ]
(b) [Cr(NO 2 ) 2(en) 2 ]+ ,[Rh(SCN)(H 2O)(ox) 2 ]2-
(c) [Pt(gly)(NH 3 )(H 2O)]+ ,[Zn(gly)(NH 3 ) 2 ]+
(d) [CoCl 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]+ ,[CrBr(H 2O) 5 ]Br 2
221. Which of the following forms maximum number of isomers ?
(a) [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]+ (b) [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl]2+
(c) [Ir(PR 3 ) 2 H(CO)]2+ (d) [Ru(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]+
222. Which of the following will have three stereoisomeric forms ?
(i) [Cr(NO 3 ) 3(NH 3 ) 3 ] (ii) K 3[Co(C 2O 4 ) 3 ]
(iii) K 3[CoCl 2(C 2O 4 ) 2 ] (iv) [CoBrCl(en) 2 ]
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) (c) (iv) only (d) all four
223. Select correct pair of complexes that exhibit same type of isomerism.
(a) [CoBr(NH 3 ) 5 ]Cl 2 ,[IrBr 3(H 2O) 3 ]
(b) [Cr(NO 2 ) 2(en) 2 ]+ ,[Rh(SCN)(H 2O)(ox) 2 ]2-
(c) [Pt(gly)(NH 3 )(H 2O)]+ ,[Zn(gly)(NH 3 ) 2 ]+
(d) [CoCl 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]+ ,[CrBr(H 2O) 5 ]Br 2
224. Possible isomerism in complexes [Co(NH 3 ) 3(NO 2 ) 3 ] and [Co(NH 3 ) 5(NO 2 )]Cl 2 , respectively
are :
(a) linkage and optical (b) geometrical and linkage
(c) optical and ionization (d) linkage and geometrical
225. Which of the following co-ordination ion/compound does not exhibit structural isomerism?
(a) [PtBrCl(H 2O) 4 ]SO 4 (b) [CoBr(NH 3 ) 5 ][Cd(CN) 4 ]
(c) [Co(ox)(H 2O) 4 ]Br (d) [Ir(ONO) 3(H 2O) 3 ]
226. Which of the following co-ordination compound has three stereoismers ?
(a) [Cd(gly)(H 2O)(NH 3 )]+ (b) [PtBr 2(H 2O) 2 ]
(c) [Cr(en) 3 ]3+ (d) [CoBr(NO 2 )(en) 2 ]+
227. Complex showing cis-trans isomerism is :
(a) [Pt(NH 3 ) 3 Cl]Cl (b) [Zn(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ] (c) K 3[Fe(C 2O 4 ) 3 ] (d) [Co(gly) 3 ]
2+
228. [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ] + en ¾® X + 2NH 3
[Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ] + 2en ¾® Y + 4NH 3
[Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ] + 3en ¾® Z + 6NH 3
Which of them show optical as well as geometrical isomerism ?
(a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) All of these
 216 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

229. Select the complex compound which does not show stereoisomerism?
(I) [M(en) 2 ] (II) [M(en)(gly )] (III) [M(gly )(NH 3 ) 2 ] (IV) [M(gly ) 2 ]
(a) All I,II,III,IV (b) Only I,II,III
(c) Only II,III,IV (d) Only II, III
230. Which of the following paramagnetic complex ion exhibits optical activity ?
(a) [Co(ox) 3 ]3- (b) [Zn(gly ) 2 ]
(c) [Ni(NH 3 ) 2(en) 2 ]2+ (d) [FeF3(H 2O) 2(NH 3 )]
231. Which of the following complexes cannot exhibit both geometrical and optical isomerism ?
(A) [Ru(en) 3 ]3+ (B) [Co(H 2O)Cl 3 ]
(C) [Pt Br Cl(H 2O)NH 3 ] (D) [CoBr 2(en) 2 ]+
Correct code is :
(a) A, B, C (b) B, C (c) C, D (d) only B
232. Which of the following co-ordination compound has three stereoisomers ?
(a) [Cd(gly)(H 2O)(NH 3 )]+ (b) [Pt Br 2(H 2O) 2 ]
(c) [Cr(en) 3 ]3+ (d) [Co Br(NO 2 )(en) 2 ]+
233. Which one of the following can show optical isomerism ?
(a) FeSO 4 × 7H 2O (b) K 3[Cr(C 2O 4 ) 3 ]
(c) K 3[Fe(CN) 6 ] (d) [Cr(NH 3 ) 4 (H 2O) 2 ]Cl 3
234. Consider the following two reactions :
K1
Cd 2+ ( aq.) + 2H 2NCH 2CH 2NH 2 ¾ ¾ ®A
K
Cd 2+ ( aq.) + 2CH 3CH(NH 2 )CH(NH 2 )CH 3 ¾ ¾
¾2
®B
According to given information the correct statement is are :
(a) A is optically active while B is optically inactive.
(b) A is optically inactive while B is optically active.
(c) both are optically inactive.
(d) both are optically active.
235. Select the complex compound which show geometrical as well as optical isomerism.
(a) [Cr(H 2O) 4 (NH 3 ) 2 ]3+ (b) [Ni(en) 3 ]2+
(c) [CoBrCl(en) 2 ]+ (d) [Zn(gly ) 2 ]
236. Which of the following complex ion has a pair of enantiomers ?
(a) [Zn(bcac)(en)]+ (b) [PtBrCl(CN)(SCN)]2-
(c) [Ir(acac) 2(H 2O)(NH 3 )]+ (d) [CrCl 3(SCN)(H 2O) 2 ]-
237. Complex compound with coordination number two and +1 oxidation state of central metal
cation can exhibit :
(a) ionization isomerism (b) hydrate isomerism
(c) geometrical isomerism (d) linkage isomerism
238. Which of the following complex is non-ionisable and has two geometrical isomers ?
(a) PtCl 4 × 3NH 3 (b) PtCl 4 × 6NH 3
(c) PtCl 4 × 2NH 3 (d) PtCl 4 × 4NH 3
Co-ordination Compounds 217
239. Which of the following complex is optically inactive ?
(a) [Co(en) 3 ]Cl 3 (b) cis - [Co(NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ]
(c) cis - [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl (d) cis - [Co(en)(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl
240. Complex compound/ion which exhibits optical activity is :
(a) [CoBr 3(H 2O) 2(NH 3 )] (b) [IrBr 4 (en)]-
(c) [PtBr 2(NO 2 ) 2(en)] (d) [Cr(CN) 3(NO 2 )(en)]-
241. For complex ion/compound formation reactions
(I) Co 3+ ( aq) + EDTA 4 - ¾® P
NH 4OH
(II) Ni 2+ ( aq) + dmg (excess) ¾ ¾¾ ¾® Q
(III) Zn 2+ ( aq) + gly (excess) ¾® R
(IV) Pt 4+ ( aq) + en (excess) ¾® S
Which of the following complex ion/compound does not exhibit optical activity ?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
242. Which one of the following forms maximum number of isomers ?
(a) [Co(en) 2(SCN) 2 ]+ (b) [Pt(NH 3 )Cl(NO 2 )py]
(c) [Ir(ox) 3 ]3- (d) [Ru(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]+
243. The total number of coordination isomers possible for the following compounds respectively
are :
[Co(en) 3 ][Cr(C 2O 4 ) 3 ]
[Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ][CuCl 4 ]
[Ni(en) 3 ][Co(NO 2 ) 6 ]
(a) 4, 4, 4 (b) 2, 2, 2
(c) 2, 2, 4 (d) 4, 2, 3
244. Select the incorrect match :
(a) [Co(NO 2 )(H 2O)(en) 2 ]Cl 2 , [CoCl(NO 2 )(en) 2 ]Cl × H 2O: Hydrate isomerism
(b) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ][PtCl 4 ], [CuCl(NH 3 ) 3 ][PtCl 3(NH 3 )]: Co-ordination isomerism
(c) [Ni(CN)(H 2O)(NH 3 ) 4 ]Cl, [NiCl(H 2O)(NH 3 ) 4 ]CN: Ionization isomerism
(d) [Cr(NO 2 )(NH 3 ) 5 ][ZnCl 4 ], [Cr(NO 3 )(NH 3 ) 5 ][ZnCl 4 ]: Linkage isomerism
245. Select incorrect statement about complex [Cr(NO 2 )(NH 3 ) 5 ][Zn(SCN) 4 ] :
(a) It shows co-ordination isomerism
(b) It shows optical activity
(c) It shows linkage isomerism
(d) IUPAC name of the compound is Pentaaminenitrito-N-chromium(III)
tetrathiocyanato-S-zincate(II)
246. Which of the following isomerism, exhibited by [CrCl 2(OH) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]– ?
(a) Ionization (b) Geometrical
(c) Hydrate (d) Linkage
247. Which kind of isomerism is exhibited by octahedral [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Br 2 ]Cl ?
(a) Geometrical and ionization (b) Geometrical and optical
 218 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(c) Optical and ionization (d) Geometrical only

248. A metal complex of coordination number six having three different types of ligands a, b and c
of composition Ma 2 b2 c 2 can exist in several geometrical isomeric forms; the total number of
such isomers is :
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9
249. How many geometrical isomers and stereoisomers are possible for
[Pt(NO 2 )(NH 3 )(NH 2OH)(Py)]+ and [Pt(Br)(Cl)(I)(NO 2 )(NH 3 )(Py)] respectively?
(a) 3 and 15 (b) 3 and 30 (c) 4 and 15 (d) 4 and 30
250. Complexes given below show :
Pph3 Cl Pph3 Pph3 Cl Cl
Pt Pt Pt Pt
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Pph3
(a) Optical isomerism (b) Coordinate isomerism
(c) Geometrical isomerism (d) Bridge isomerism
251. Fac and Mer isomerism is associated with which of the following general formula?
(a) [M( AA) 2 ] (b) [M( AA) 3 ] (c) [MABCD] (d) [MA 3 B 3 ]
252. Which of the following will have two stereoisomeric forms?
(I) [Cr(NO 3 ) 3(NH 3 ) 3 ] (II) K 3[Fe(C 2O 4 ) 3 ] (III) [CoCl 2(en) 2 ]+ (IV) [CoBrCl(ox) 2 ]3–
(a) I only (b) I and II (c) III and IV (d) All of these
Å
253. Three arrangements are shown for the complex [CoBr 2(NH 3 ) 2(en)] . Which one is wrong
statement?
r Br r Br r
Br
Br H3N Br
Co en Co en en Co
H3N H3N NH3
NH3 Br NH3
(I) (II) (III)
(a) I and II are geometrical isomers (b) II and III are optically active isomers
(c) I and III are optically active isomers (d) II and III are geometrical isomers
254. Which of the following is not optically active?
(a) [Co(en) 3 ]3+ (b) [Cr(Ox) 3 ]3–
(c) cis-[CoCl 2(en) 2 ]+ (d) trans-[CoCl 2(en) 2 ]+
255. Where among the following metal complexes the one which exhibits optical activity is :
(AA ==bidentate ligand; A , X == monodentate ligand)
(a) cis-[MA 4 X 2 ] (b) trans-[MA 4 X 2 ] (c) cis-[M( AA) 2 X 2 ] (d) trans-[M( AA) 2 X 2 ]
256. The optically active species among the following is :
(a) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (b) [Co(CN) 6 ]3– (c) [Co(gly) 3 ] (d) [Ru(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
257. Cis-trans isomerism is exhibited by :
(a) [PtCl(NH 3 ) 3 ]+ (b) [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+
(c) [PtCl 4 ]2– (d) [PtCl 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]
Co-ordination Compounds 219
258. Which of the following will show optical isomers?
(I) cis-[Co(NH 3 ) 2(en) 2 ]3+ (II) trans-[IrCl 2(C 2O 4 ) 2 ]3–
(III) [Rh(en) 3 ]3+ (IV) cis-[Ir(H 2O) 3 Cl 3 ]
(a) I, III only correct (b) II, IV only correct
(c) I, III, IV only correct (d) III only correct
259. The complex with a maximum number of stereoisomers is :
(a) [PtCl 3(C 2H 4 )]– (b) [CuBr 2Cl 2 ]2–
(c) [Co(C 2O 4 ) 3 ]3– (d) [Cr(NH 3 ) 2(en) 2 ]3+
260. A complex with the composition [MA 3 B ]n ± is found to have no geometrical isomers. The
possible structure(s) of the complex is (Where A and B are monodentate ligands)
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Square planar
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Cannot be predicted
261. Which of the following isomerism is not possible for complexes having molecular formulae ?
(I) Pt(SCN) 2 × 3PEt 3 , (II) CoBr × SO 4 × 5NH 3 (III) FeCl 2 × 6H 2O
(a) Optical (b) Linkage
(c) Ionisation (d) Hydrate
262. Which of the following isomersm is not possible for complexes having molecular formulae :
(i) Pt(SCN) 2 × 3PEt 3 (ii) CoBr × SO 4 × 5NH 3 (iii) FeCl 2 × 6H 2O
(a) Optical (b) Linkage (c) Ionisation (d) Hydrate
263. Which of the following has largest number of isomers ?
(a) [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]+ (b) [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl]2+
(c) [Ir(PR 3 ) 2 H(CO)]2+ (d) [Ru(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]+
264. Consider the following isomerism :
(i) Ionization (ii) Hydrate (iii) Coordination (iv) Geometrical (v) Optical
Which of the above isomerisms are exhibited by [Cr(NH 3 ) 2(OH) 2 Cl 2 ]– ?
(a) (i) and (v) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii), (ii) and (i) (d) (iv) and (v)
265. Consider the following complexes :
(1) trans-[Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]+ (2) cis-[Co(NH 3 ) 2(en) 2 ]3+
3+
(3) trans-[Co(NH 3 ) 2(en) 2 ] (4) NiCl 2–
4
(5) TiF62– (6) CoF63–
Choose the correct code :
(a) (1), (2) are optically active, (3) is optically inactive
(b) (2) is optically active; (1), (3) are optically inactive
(c) (4), (5) are coloured and (6) is colourless
(d) (4) is coloured and (5), (6) are colourless
266. Which of the following can show geometrical isomerism?
(a) [Pt(NH 2 — CH — CH —NH 2 ) 2 ]2+ (b) [Co(en) 2 NH 3Cl]2+
½ ½
CH 3 CH 3
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
 220 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

267. Which of the following complex compound exhibits cis-trans isomerism?

(a) [CoCl(NH 3 ) 4 (H 2O)] (b) [CoCl 3(NH 3 ) 3 ]
(c) [CoCl 2(NH 3 ) 4 ] (d) All of these
268. Which of the following will have three stereoisomeric forms?
(i) [Cr(NO 3 ) 3(NH 3 ) 3 ] (ii) K 3[Co(C 2O 4 ) 3 ]
(iii) K 3[CoCl 2(C 2O 4 ) 2 ] (iv) [CoBrCl(en) 2 ]
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) (c) (iv) only (d) All four
269. A coordination complex of type MX 2Y 2 (M-metal ion; X , Y -monodentate ligands), can have
either a tetrahedral or a square planar geometry. The maximum number of possible isomers in
these two cases are respectively :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 1 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 2
n±
270. The ratio of cis and trans-isomers of the complex [Ma 2 bcde] is :
(a) 5 : 3 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 7 : 3 (d) 3 : 1
271. [PdCl 2(PMe 3 ) 2 ] is a diamagnetic complex of Pd(II). How many total isomers are possible of
analogous paramagnetic complex of Ni(II)?
(a) Zero (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
272. Complex compounds(s) which is optical active and does not depend upon the orientation of
the ligands around metal cation :
(i) [CoCl 3(NH 3 ) 3 ] (ii) [Co(en) 3 ]Cl 3
(iii) [Co(C 2O 4 ) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]– (iv) [CrCl 2(NH 3 ) 2(en)]+
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) only (ii)
273. Choose the correct code regarding, possible number of geometrical isomers exhibited by
following complexes :
(I) [CrCl 2(NO 2 ) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]– (II) [Co(NO 2 ) 3(NH 3 ) 3 ]
(III) [PtCl(NO 2 )(NH 3 )(py)] (IV) [PtBrCl(en)]
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (I) (II) (III) (IV)
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 5 2 4 0
(c) 3 2 0 1 (d) 5 2 3 0
n±
274. How many geometrical isomers are possible for complex [Mab( AB ) 2 ] ?
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6
275. [CoCl 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]+ + Cl – ¾¾® [CoCl 3(NH 3 ) 3 ]+ NH 3 . If in this reaction two isomers of the
product are obtained, which is true for the initial (reactant) complex :
(a) compound is in cis-form (b) compound is in trans-form
(c) compound is in both (cis and trans) form (d) can’t be predicted
276. Select the correct statement about given square planar complex.
C6H5 H
C—H2N NH2—C
H Pt H
C6H5 C—H N NH2—C CH3
2
H CH3
Co-ordination Compounds 221
(a) It has no geometrical isomer.
(b) It is optically active because it does not have plane of symmetry.
(c) It is optically inactive because square planar complex have plane of symmetry.
(d) It is optically active because it has symmetric carbon.
277. Select the correct code regarding total number of space isomers for the following compounds :
(I) [Ma 3 b2 c]n ± (II) [M( AB ) 3 ]n ± (III) [Ma 2 b2 c 2 ]n ±
(I) (II) (III) (I) (II) (III)
(a) 4 4 6 (b) 4 3 5
(c) 3 3 5 (d) 3 4 6
278. How many geometrical isomers are possible in [Pd 2+ (NH 2 —CH(CH 3 )—CO –2 ) 2 ]?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 6
279. Total number of stereoisomers of [Co( acac) 2 BrCl)]- are :
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 2
280. Which of the following complex compound exhibits geometrical isomerism ?
(a) [Fe(DMG) 2 ] (b) [Be(gly) 2 ]
(c) [PdClBr(gly)] (d) [Cd(NH 3 )Cl(gly)]
281. In which case racemic mixture is obtained on mixing its mirror images (d & l form) in 1 : 1
molar ratio?
(a) trans - [Co(gly) 3 ] (b) [Ni(DMG) 2 ]
(c) cis - [Cu(gly) 2 ] (d) [Zn(en)(gly)]+
282. Which of the following compound show optical isomerism?
(a) cis - [CrCl 3(NHl 3 ) 3 ] (b) cis - [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]+
(c) [Co(en) 3 ]3+ (d) trans - [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]+
283. Which of the following complex ion has a pair of enantiomers ?
(a) [Zn(bcac) (en)]+ (b) [PtBrCl(CN)(SCN)]2-
(c) [Ir(acac ) 2(H 2O)(NH 3 )]+ (d) [CrCl 3(SCN)(H 2O) 2 ]-

: Applications of Coordination Compounds

284. Coordination compounds have great importance in biological systems. In this context which of
the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Carboxypeptidase–A is an enzyme and contains zinc
(b) Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and contains iron
(c) Cyanocobalamin is B 12 and contains cobalt
(d) Chlorophylls are green pigments in plants and contain calcium
285. Which one of the following platinum complexes is used in cancer chemotherapy?
(a) cis-[PtCl 2(NH 3 ) 2 ] (b) trans-[PtCl 2(NH 3 )]
(c) [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ (d) [Pt(Cl 4 )]2–
 222 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

286. The cyanide complex of silver formed in the silver extraction in Mac-Arthur’s Forrest
cyanide process is :
(a) [Ag(CN) 2 ]– (b) K 2[Ag(CN) 3 ] (c) [Ag(CN) 4 ]2– (d) Na 3[Ag(CN) 4 ]
287. Complexes formed in the following methods are :
(I) Mond’s process for purification of nickel
(II) Removal of unreacted AgBr from photographic plate
(III) Removal of lead poisoning from the body
I II III
–
(a) Ni(CO) 4 [Ag(CN) 2 ] [Pb(EDTA)]2-
(b) Ni(CO) 4 [Ag(S 2O 3 ) 2 ]3– [Pb(EDTA)]2–
(c) Ni(CO) 6 [Ag(S 2O 3 ) 2 ]3– [Pb(EDTA)]4–
(d) Ni(CO) 6 [Ag(S 2O 3 )]– [Pb(EDTA)]2–

288. Metal cation present in sodium nitroprusside is also present in :

(a) Chlorophyll (b) Vitamin B 12
(c) cis-platin (d) Haemoglobin
289. Select incorrect statement.
(a) cis - [Pt(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ] is an anticancer compound.
(b) Cobalt cation is present in Vitamin B 12 .
(c) Mn cation is present in chlorophyll.
(d) EDTA 4- is used to estimate Ca 2+ and Mg 2+ cations.
290. Incorrect match is :
(a) EDTA 4- : Estimation of Hardness of water
(b) DMG : Analysis of Ni 2+ ( aq)
(c) Na 2H 2EDTA : Lead poisoning
(d) [RhCl(PPh 3 ) 3 ]: Wilkinson’s catalyst
291. Metal cation present in Haemoglobin is also present in :
(a) Chlorophyll (b) Vitamin B 12
(c) cis-platin (d) Sodium Nitroprusside
292. Select correct statement.
(a) Lead poisoning is removed by carbon mono oxide by complex formation.
(b) Hardness of water is estimated by EDTA 4- .
(c) Ag + does not form cyano complex with excess KCN.
(d) TiCl 3( aq) is colourless while TiCl 4 ( aq) is coloured.
293. Incorrect match is :
(a) [Rh(PPh 3 ) 3 Cl]: Wilkinson’s catalyst
(b) [Co(CO) 4 ]- : Bond order of Co — CO bond is greater than one
(c) [Zn(NH 3 ) 4 ][Be(OH) 4 ]: colorless complex
(d) [Cr(CN) 6 ]3- : Inner orbital low spin complex
Co-ordination Compounds 223

: Miscellaneous
294. Coordinate covalent bond is absent in :
..
(a) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4- (b) adduct of NH 3 and BH 3
..
(c) H 3O + (d) PCl 3
295. Which of the given option is incorrect ?
(a) Potash alum and Ferric alum are isomorphous species.
(b) Carbonate is acting as bidentate ligand in [Co(NH 3 ) 4 CO 3 ]+
(c) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ is heteroleptic and positively charged complex ion.
(d) None of these
296. Find IUPAC name of the hydrate isomer of CrCl 3 × 6H 2O , which is having lowest electrical
conductivity ?
(a) Hexaaquachromium(III)chloride
(b) Tetraaquadichloridochromium(III)chloridedihydrate
(c) Pentaaquachloridochromium(III)chloridemonohydrate
(d) Triaquatrichloridochromium(III)trihydrate
297. 100 mL 0.01 M solution of complex compound IrBr 3 5NH 3 was treated with excess AgNO 3
solution and precipitate of AgBr was obtained, then number of moles of AgBr obtained is :
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.001 (c) 0.02 (d) 0.002
298. Consider the following complexes :
(1) K 2PtCl 6 (2) PtCl 4 × 2NH 3 (3) PtCl 4 × 3NH 3 (4) PtCl 4 × 5NH 3
Their electrical conductances in aqueous solutions are respectively :
(a) 256, 0, 97, 404 (b) 404, 0, 97, 256 (c) 256, 97, 0, 404 (d) 404, 97, 256, 0
299. Which of the following complex is non-ionisable and has two geometrical isomers ?
(a) PtCl 4 × 3NH 3 (b) PtCl 4 × 6NH 3 (c) PtCl 4 × 2NH 3 (d) PtCl 4 × 4NH 3
300. Which of the following is not a coordinate compound ?
(a) Fehling's reagent (b) Tollen's reagent
(c) Bayer's reagent (d) Wilkinson's catalyst
 224 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 2
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as assertion and reason, while
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following responses :
(A) If assertion is true but the reason is false
(B) If assertion is false but reason is true
(C) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(D) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(E) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
1. Assertion : In N 2 molecule, any N-atom can coordinate with central atom/ion.
Reason : N 2 molecule can also act as ambidentate ligand.
2. Assertion : In N 2H 4 , any one N-atom can coordination with central metal cation in a
coordination compound.
Reason : N 2H 4 can also act as ambidentate ligand.
3. Assertion : [Ti(H 2O) 6 ]4+ is coloured while [Sc(H 2O) 6 ]3+ is colourless.
Reason : d -d transition is not possible in [Sc(H 2O) 6 ]3+ .
4. Assertion : Acidified [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ and [Cu(H 2O) 4 ]2+ both react with K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] to
give brown ppt.
Reason : Both complexes are blue in colour of little different shade.
5. Assertion : [Fe(EDTA)]– complex is octahedral in shape.
Reason : EDTA is a hexadentate ligand and undergoing sp 3 d 2 hybridisation.
6. Assertion : Tetrahedral complexes with chiral structure exhibit optical isomerism.
Reason : They lack plane of symmetry.
7. Assertion : Zeise’s salt is a p-bonded organometallic compound.
Reason : Zeise’s salt contain C 2H 4 molecules as one of the ligand.
8. Assertion : [CoCl 3(NH 3 ) 3 ] does not give white precipitate with AgNO 3 solution.
Reason : [CoCl 3(NH 3 ) 3 ] complex is optically inactive.
9. Assertion : Transition metal ion forming octahedral complexes undergo sp 3 d 2 or d 2 sp 3
hybridisation.
Reason : Strong field ligands force the unpaired electrons of central metal ion to pair up
causing d 2 sp 3 hybridisation whereas weak field ligands do not affect electronic
configuration of the metal ion undergoes in sp 3 d 2 hybridisation.
10. Assertion : Complex ion [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ is readily oxidized to [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ .
Reason : Unpaired electron in complex ion [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ is present in 4p orbital.
11. Assertion : Hydrazine is a neutral ligand.
Reason : It has two N as donor atoms and behaves as a chelating ligand.
12. Assertion : Potassium ferrocyanide is diamagnetic, whereas potassium ferricyanide is
paramagnetic.
Co-ordination Compounds 225
Reason : Crystal field splitting in ferrocyanide ion is greater than that of ferricyanide
ion. (AIIMS 2005)
13. Assertion : [CoF6 ]3- is paramagnetic.
Reason : Co 3+ has 3 d 6 outer electronic configuration. The unpaired electrons do not
pair up because of weak field provided by F - . (BHU 2008)
14. Assertion : CO and CN are referred as p acid ligands.
Reason : In CO and CN vacant p type orbitals are present. (AIIMS 2009)
15. Assertion : K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] is diamagnetic and [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 3 is paramagnetic.
Reason : Hybridisation of central metal in is sp 3 d 2 , while in [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]Cl 3 is d 2 sp 3 .
(AIIMS 2009)
16. Assertion : If b 4 for [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ 2.1 ´ 10 13 , its instability constant is 4.76 ´ 10 -14 .
Reason : Overall dissociation equilibrium constant varies inversely with formation
constant. (AIIMS 2009)

Level 3
1. Which of the following is p acid ligand ? [CEET (Haryana) 1996]
(a) NH 3 (b) CO (c) F - (d) Ethylene diamine
2. Which of the following shall form an octahedral complex ? (DPMT 2000)
(a) d 4 (low spin) (b) d 8 (high spin)
(c) d 6 (low spin) (d) all of these
3. How many isomers are possible for [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ] ? [Odisha (JEE) 2001]
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 1
4. Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C — O bond? (CBSE PMT 2001 M)
(a) Mn(CO) +6 (b) Cr(CO) 6
(c) V(CO) -6 (d) Fe(CO) 5
5. Which of the following species represents the example of dsp 2 -hybridisation ?
[Karnataka CET 2001; Haryana (PMT) 2002]
(a) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3– (b) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2–
(c) [Ag(CN) 2 ]– (d) [Co(CN) 6 ]3–
6. The complex used as an anticancer agent is : (AIIMS 2003)
(a) mer-[Co(NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ] (b) cis-[PtCl 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]
(c) cis-K 2[PtCl 2Br 2 ] (d) Na 2CoCl 4
7. Transition metal ions form complexes readily because of : (CPMT 2003)
(a) small cation size (b) vacant d-orbitals
(c) high ionic charge (d) all are correct
8. Which of the following is not considered as an organometallic compound ? (AIIMS 2004)
(a) cis-platin (b) Ferrocene (c) Zeise’s salt (d) Grignard reagent
 226 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

9. Dimethyl glyoxime gives a red precipitate with Ni 2+ which is used for its detection. To get this
precipitate readily, the best pH range is : (AIIMS 2004)
(a) < 1 (b) 2-3 (c) 3-4 (d) 9-11
10. Which of the following does not have optical isomer? (AIIMS 2004)
(a) [Co(NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ] (b) [Co(en) 3 ]Cl 3
(c) [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl (d) [Co(en)(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl
11. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? [Karnataka (CET) 2004]
(a) In K 3[Fe(CN) 6 ], the ligand has satisfied only the secondary valencies of ferric ion
(b) In K 3[Fe(CN) 6 ], the ligand has satisfied both primary and secondary valencies of ferric ion
(c) In K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ], the ligand has satisfied both primary and secondary valencies of ferrous
ion
(d) In [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]SO 4 , the ligand has satisfied only the secondary valency of copper
12. Which one of the following does not have a metal-carbon bond? (CBSE PMT 2004)
(a) Al(OC 2H 5 ) 3 (b) C 2H 5MgBr
(c) K[Pt(C 2H 4 )Cl 3 ] (d) Ni(CO) 4
13. The diamagnetic species is : (AIIMS 2005)
2– 2–
(a) [Ni(CN) 4 ] (b) [NiCl 4 ]
(c) [CoCl 4 ]2– (d) [CoF6 ]2–
14. The ligands in anti-cancer drug cis platin are : (AIIMS 2005)
(a) NH 3 , Cl (b) NH 3 , H 2O
(c) Cl, H 2O (d) NO, Cl
15. The expected spin only magnetic moments for [Fe(CN) 6 ]4– and [FeF6 ]3– are : (DPMT 2009)
(a) 1.73 and 1.73 BM (b) 1.73 and 5.92 BM
(c) 0.0 and 1.73 BM (d) 0.0 and 5.92 BM
16. The magnitude of crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE or D i ) in tetrahedral complexes is
considerably less than in the octahedral field. Because : (AIPMT 2009)
(a) there are only four ligands instead of six so the ligand field is only 2/3 the size hence the
D i is only 2/3 the size.
(b) the direction of the orbitals does not coincide with the direction of the ligands. This
reduces the crystal field stabilization energy (D i ) by further 2/3
(c) both point (a) and (b) are correct
(d) both points (a) and (b) are wrong.
17. Which of the following complex ions is expected to absorb visible light ? (AIPMT 2009)
(a) [Ti(en) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]4+ (b) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
(c) [Zn(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ (d) [Sc(H 2O) 3(NH 3 ) 3 ]3+
[At. no. : Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24]
18. In which of the following pairs both the complexes show optical isomerism ? (AFMC 2009)
(a) cis - [Cr(C 2O 4 ) 2 Cl 2 ]3– , cis - [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]
(b) [Co(en) 3 ]Cl 3 , cis - [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl
(c) [PtCl (dien)]Cl, [NiCl 2Br 2 ]2–
(d) [Co(NO 3 ) 3(NH 3 ) 3 ], cis - [Pt (en) 2 Cl 2 ]
Co-ordination Compounds 227
19. Which one of the following has an optical isomer ? (AFMC 2010)
(a) [Co(H 2O) 4 (en)]3+ (b) [Zn(en) 2 ]2+
(c) [Zn(en)(NH 3 ) 2 ]2+ (d) [Co(en) 3 ]3+
20. Which of the following configuration of ions has zero CFSE in both strong and weak ligand
fields ? (DPMT 2010)
10 8 6 4
(a) d (b) d (c) d (d) d
21. Which of the following complex has minimum magnitude of D o ? (DPMT 2010)
3– 3+
(a) [Cr(CN) 6 ] (b) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]
(c) [CoCl 6 ]3– (d) [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]3+
22. In Fe(CO) 5 , the Fe ¬ CO s bond results by the overlap between filled sp-hybrid orbital of
C-atom of CO molecule and vacant : (DPMT 2010)
(a) d 2 sp 3 -hybrid orbital of Fe (b) sp 3 -hybrid orbital of Fe
(c) dsp 3 -hybrid orbital of Fe (d) dsp 2 -hybrid orbital of Fe
23. The existence of two different coloured complexes with the composition [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ] + is
due to : (AIPMT 2010)
(a) Ionisation isomerism (b) Linkage isomerism
(c) Geometrical isomerism (d) Coordination isomerism
24. Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C — O bond ? (AIPMT 2011)
(a) Mn(CO) +6 (b) Cr(CO) 6 (c) V(CO) –6 (d) Fe(CO) 5
25. Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour ?
(AIPMT 2011)
(a) [Ti(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (b) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
(c) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (d) [Zn(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+
26. The complexes [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ][Cr(CN) 6 ] and [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ][Co(CN) 6 ] are the examples of which
type of isomerism? (AIPMT 2011)
(a) Geometrical isomerism (b) Linkage isomerism
(c) Ionisation isomerism (d) Coordination isomerism
27. The complex, [Pt(py)(NH 3 )BrCl] will have how many geometrical isomers? (AIPMT 2011)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 0
28. Which of the following may exist both as diastereoisomer and enantiomer? (DUMET 2011)
(a) [Pt(en) 3 ]4+ (b) [Pt(en) 2 ClBr ]2+
(c) [Ru(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]0 (d) [PtCl 2Br 2 ]0
29. Number of isomeric forms (constitutional and stereoisomers) for [Rh(en) 2 (NO 2 )(SCN)] +
are: (DUMET 2011)
(a) three (b) six (c) nine (d) twelve
30. Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour ?
(AIPMT 2012)
2+ 2+
(a) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ] (b) [Zn(NH 3 ) 6 ]
(c) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (d) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
 228 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

31. Compounds [PtCl 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]Br 2 and [PtBr 2(NH 3 ) 4 ]Cl 2 , shows the following type of isomerism.
(AFMC 2012; AMU 2012)
(a) Hydrate isomerism (b) lonisation isomerism
(c) Linkage isomerism (d) Coordination position isomerism
32. Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism? (Manipal 2012)
3- 3+
(a) [Co(CN) 6 ] (b) [Cr(C 2O 4 ) 3 ]
(c) [ZnCl 4 ]2- (d) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+
33. The complex showing a spin-only magnetic moment of 2.82 BM is : [AMU (Med.) 2013]
(a) Ni(CO) 4 (b) [Ni(Cl 4 )]2–
(c) Ni(PPh 3 ) 4 (d) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2–
34. The structure of diamagnetic nickel complex, [Ni(CN) 4 ]2– is : [AMU (Med.) 2013]
(a) trigonal bipyramidal (b) tetrahedral
(c) square planar (d) distorted octahedral
35. Which is diamagnetic ? (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) [CoF6 ]3- (b) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2- (c) [NiCl 4 ]2- (d) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3-
36. Among the following which is a paramagnetic complex ? (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ (b) [Pt(en)Cl 2 ]
(c) [CoBr 4 ]2- (d) [Mo(CO) 6 ]
(At. no.: Mo = 42 , Pt = 78)
37. The anion of acetyl acetone (acac) forms Co(acac ) 3 chelate with Co 3+ . The rings of the chelate
are : (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) five membered (b) four membered
(c) six membered (d) three membered
38. In a particular isomer of [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]0 , the Cl — Co — Cl angle is 90°, the isomer is known
as : (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) optical isomer (b) cis-isomer
(c) position isomer (d) linkage isomer
4
39. Crystal field splitting energy for high spin d octahedral complex is :
(Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) -1.2 D o (b) -0.6 D o (c) -0.8 D o (d) -1.6 D o
40. An excess of AgNO 3 is added to 100 mL of a 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetra aqua chromium
(III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be : (NEET 2013)
(a) 0.003 (b) 0.01 (c) 0.001 (d) 0.002
41. A magnetic moment at 1.73 BM will be shown by one among of the following : (NEET 2013)
(a) TiCl 4 (b) [CoCl 6 ]4 -
(c) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ (d) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2-
42. The coordination number of platinum in [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]2+ ion is : (UP CPMT 2013)
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
Co-ordination Compounds 229
43. Which of the following ligands is not a chelating agent? (WB JEE 2013)
(a) EDTA (b) en (c) Oxalate (d) Pyridine
44. The oxidation number of Co in [Co(NH 3 ) 3(NO 2 ) 3 ] is : (WB JEE 2013)
(a) + 3 (b) 0 (c) -3 (d) + 6
45. The IUPAC name of Ni(CO) 4 is : (Manipal 2013)
(a) tetracarbonylnickelate (0) (b) tetracarbonylnickel (II)
(c) tetracarbonynickel (0) (d) tetracarbonylnickelate (II)
0
46. In a particular isomer of [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ] , the Cl-Co-Cl angle is 90°, the isomer is known as :
(NEET 2013)
(a) Linkage isomer (b) Optical isomer
(c) cis-isomer (d) Position isomer
47. The complex used as an anticancer agent is : (AIIMS 2013)
(a) meso-[Co(NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ] (b) cis-[PtCl 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]
(c) cis-K 2[PtCl 2Br 2 ] (d) Na 2CoCl 4
48. Which of the following is diamagnetic complex ? (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- (b) [Co(F6 )]3-
(c) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2- (d) [NiCl 4 ]2-
49. Which among the following is a paramagnetic complex? (Karnataka NEET 2013)
3+
(a) Mo(CO) 6 (b) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]
(c) [Pt(en)Cl 2 ] (d) [CoBr 4 ]2-
(At. No. of Mo = 42, Pt = 78)
50. What is the oxidation number of Fe in Fe(CO) 5 ? (UP CPMT 2013)
(a) + 3 (b) Zero (c) + 2 (d) + 5
51. The charge on the central metal ion in the complex Ni(CO) 4 is : (Kerala CEE 2013)
(a) + 2 (b) + 4 (c) 0 (d) + 3
52. Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent ? (AIPMT 2014)
(a) mer-[Co(NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ] (b) cis-[PtCl 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]
(c) cis-K 2[PtCl 2Br 2 ] (d) Na 2[CoCl 4 ]
53. Among the following complexes the one which shows zero crystal field stabilisation energy
(CFSE) is : (AIPMT 2014)
(a) [Mn(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (b) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]3+
(c) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]2+ (d) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+
54. Which of the following compounds show optical isomerism?
I. cis-[Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]+ II. trans-[Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]+
III. cis-[Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]+ IV. [Co(en) 3 ]3+
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) III and IV (d) I, III and IV
(e) I, II, III and IV
 230 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

55. How many isomers are possible in [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ] ? (UK PMT 2014)
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 1
56. Which of the following complexes have lowest molar conductance? (MHT CET 2014)
(a) CoCl 3 × 3 NH 3 (b) CoCl 3 × 4 NH 3
(c) CoCl 3 × 5 NH 3 (d) CoCl 3 × 6 NH 3
57. In which one of the pairs of ion given, there is an ion that forms a coordination compound with
both aqueous sodium hydroxide and ammonia and an other ion that forms a coordination
compound only with aqueous sodium hydroxide? (Karnataka CET 2014)
(a) Pb 2+ , Cu 2+ (b) Zn 2+ , Al 3+
(c) Cu 2+ , Zn 2+ (d) Al 3+ , Cu 2+
58. Select the diamagnetic complex ion amongst the following complexes (Atomic number of Fe =
26, Co = 27) (MHT CET 2014)
(a) [K 3Fe (CN) 6 ] (b) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ] Cl 3
(c) K 3[FeF6 ] (d) K 3[CoF6 ]
59. The hybridization of central metal ion in K 2[Ni (CN) 4 ] and K 2[NiCl 4 ] are respectively :
(Kerala CEE 2014)
2 3 3 3
(a) dsp , sp (b) sp , sp
(c) dsp 2 , dsp 3 (d) sp 3 , sp 3 d 2
3 2 2 2
(e) sp d , d sp
60. Select the correct statement. (Karnataka CET 2014)
(a) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ is paramagnetic
(b) [MnBr 4 ]2- is tetrahedral
(c) [CoBr 2(en) 2 ]- exhibits linkage isomerism
(d) [Ni (NH 3 ) 6 ]2+ is not an inner orbital complex
61. In [CoF6 ]3- , Co 3+ uses outer d-orbitals ( 4 d) in sp 3 d 2 hybridisation. The number of unpaired
electrons present in complex ion is : (EAMCET 2014)
(a) 0 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 3
62. Crystal field theory does not explain which of the following property of coordination
compounds? (EAMCET 2014)
(a) The covalent character of the bond between metal and the ligand
(b) Magnetic property
(c) Colour
(d) Structure of coordination compounds
63. Zeigler-Natta catalyst is : (Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) ZnCl 2 (b) Et 3 Al + TiCl 4
(c) Cu / ZnO - Cr 2O 3 (d) Pt
(e) V 2O 5
64. In Ni(CO) 4 , hybridisation of nickel atom is : (UK PMT 2014)
2 3
(a) sp (b) sp
(c) dsp 2 (d) sp 3 d
Co-ordination Compounds 231
65. The name of complex ion, [Fe(CN) 6 ]3- is: (NEET 2015)
(a) Tricyanoferrate (III) ion (b) Hexacynidoferrate (III) ion
(c) Hexacyanoiraon (III) ion (d) Hexacyanitoferrate (III) ion
66. The hybridization involved in complex [Ni(CN) 4 ]2- is (At. No. Ni = 28) (NEET 2015)
(a) d 2 sp 2 (b) d 2 sp 3
(c) dsp 2 (d) sp 3
67. The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M in the complex
[M(en) 2(C 2O 4 )]Cl (where en is ethylenediamine) is: (NEET 2015)
(a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 6
68. Number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl will be : (en = ethylenediamine)
(NEET 2015)
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 2 (d) 1
69. Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the
following will not give test for chloride ions with selver nitrate at 25° C ? (NEET 2015)
(a) CoCl 3 × 5NH 3 (b) CoCl 3 × 6NH 3
(c) CoCl 3 × 3NH 3 (d) CoCl 3 × 4NH 3
70. Which of these statements about [Co(CN) 6 ]3- is true? (NEET 2015)
(a) [Co(CN) 6 ]3- has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration
(b) [Co(CN) 6 ]3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration
(c) [Co(CN) 6 ]3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration
(d) [Co(CN) 6 ]3- has four unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.
71. AlF3 is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is due to the formation of: (NEET 2016)
(a) K[AlF3H] (b) K 3[AlF3H 3 ]
(c) K 3[AlF6 ] (d) AlH 3
72. The number of unpaired electrons in [NiCl 4 ]2- , Ni(CO) 4 and [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+ respectively are:
(WB JEE 2017)
(a) 2, 2, 1 (b) 2, 0,1
(c) 0, 2,1 (d) 2, 2,0
73. The co-ordination number and the oxidation state of the element ‘ M ’ in the complex
[M( en) 2(C 2O 4 )]NO 2 (where, en is ethane-1,2-diamine) are respectively:
(Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) 6 and 2 (b) 4 and 2
(c) 6 and 3 (d) 4 and 3
74. Square planar complex of the type M AXBL (where A , B , X and L are unidentate ligands) shows
following set of isomers: (Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) two cis and one trans (b) Two trans and one cis
(c) two cis and two trans (d) three cis and one trans
 232 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

75. According to crystal field theory, the M—L bond in a complex is: (Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) purely ionic (b) purely coordinate
(c) purely covalent (d) partially covalent
76. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO 3 in excess is treated with
the complexes: CoCl 3 × 6NH 3 , CoCl 3 × 5NH 3 , CoCl 3 × 4NH 3 respectively is: (NEET 2017)
(a) 3AgCl, 1AgCl, 2AgCl (b) 3AgCl, 2AgCl, 1AgCl
(c) 2AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl (d) 1AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl
77. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the
complexes of Co 3+ is: (NEET 2017)
(a) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+ , [Co( en) 3 ]3+ ,[Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
(b) [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+ , [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ ,[Co( en) 3 ]3+
(c) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ , [Co( en) 3 ]3+ , [Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+
(d) [Co( en) 3 ]3+ , [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+ ,[Co(H 2O) 6 ]3+
78. Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN) 6 ]3- . (NEET 2017)
3 2
(a) It is sp d hybridised and tetrahedral.
(b) It is d 2 sp 3 hybridised and octahedral.
(c) It is dsp 2 hybridised and square planar.
(d) It is sp 3 d 2 hybridised and octahedral.
79. The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl 2( en) 2 ] is : (NEET 2018)
(a) geometrical isomerism (b) coordination isomerism
(c) ionization isomerism (d) linkage isomerism
80. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ?
(NEET 2018)
(a) CrO 2-
4 (b) Cr O
2 7
2-
(c) MnO -
4 (d) MnO 2-
4
81. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO) 4 ] are : (NEET 2018)
(a) square planar geometry and diamagnetic
(b) tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(c) square planar geometry and paramagnetic
(d) tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
82. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO) 5 is : (NEET 2018)
(a) tetranuclear (b) mononuclear (c) trinuclear (d) dinuclear
83. What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] based on
crystal field theory? (NEET 2019)
(a) e 4 t 22 (b) t 24 e g2
(c) t 26g e g0 (d) e 3t 23
Co-ordination Compounds 233

ANSWERS
Level 1
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (a)
71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (a)
91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (a) 97. (a) 98. (d) 99. (b) 100. (a)
101. (a) 102. (d) 103. (b) 104. (d) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (d) 108. (a) 109. (c) 110. (b)
111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (d) 120. (d)
121. (c) 122. (c) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (b) 126. (d) 127. (b) 128. (c) 129. (d) 130. (d)
131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (c) 136. (d) 137. (b) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (a)
141. (c) 142. (b) 143. (a) 144. (d) 145. (a) 146. (c) 147. (a) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (a)
151. (c) 152. (b) 153. (b) 154. (c) 155. (a) 156. (c) 157. (b) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (a)
161. (d) 162. (a) 163. (d) 164. (b) 165. (c) 166. (a) 167. (b) 168. (a) 169. (c) 170. (b)
171. (d) 172. (d) 173. (b) 174. (c) 175. (b) 176. (d) 177. (a) 178. (a) 179. (c) 180. (d)
181. (b) 182. (c) 183. (c) 184. (d) 185. (b) 186. (b) 187. (d) 188. (d) 189. (b) 190. (c)
191. (b) 192. (b) 193. (c) 194. (c) 195. (c) 196. (c) 197. (c) 198. (b) 199. (a) 200. (d)
201. (b) 202. (b) 203. (d) 204. (d) 205. (b) 206. (d) 207. (b) 208. (b) 209. (b) 210. (b)
211. (b) 212. (d) 213. (d) 214. (b) 215. (a) 216. (c) 217. (a) 218. (b) 219. (d) 220. (b)
 234 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

221. (a) 222. (a) 223. (b) 224. (b) 225. (c) 226. (d) 227. (d) 228. (b) 229. (b) 230. (c)
231. (d) 232. (d) 233. (b) 234. (b) 235. (c) 236. (c) 237. (d) 238. (c) 239. (b) 240. (c)
241. (b) 242. (a) 243. (d) 244. (d) 245. (b) 246. (b) 247. (a) 248. (b) 249. (b) 250. (c)
251. (d) 252. (b) 253. (b) 254. (d) 255. (c) 256. (c) 257. (d) 258. (a) 259. (d) 260. (c)
261. (a) 262. (a) 263. (a) 264. (d) 265. (b) 266. (c) 267. (d) 268. (a) 269. (a) 270. (b)
271. (b) 272. (d) 273. (d) 274. (d) 275. (a) 276. (b) 277. (d) 278. (c) 279. (b) 280. (c)
281. (a) 282. (c) 283. (c) 284. (d) 285. (a) 286. (a) 287. (b) 288. (d) 289. (c) 290. (c)
291. (d) 292. (b) 293. (d) 294. (d) 295. (c) 296. (b) 297. (d) 298. (a) 299. (c) 300. (c)

Level 2
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A)

11. (A) 12. (E) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (A) 16. (C)

Level 3
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a)

11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (a)

21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)

31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (c)

41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (b)

51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (a,b)

61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (c)

71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (d)

81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (c)

Co-ordination Compounds 235

Hints and Solutions

: Level 1
OH –
3. (d) Cu 2+( aq ) + 4NH 3 º [Cu(NH 3 )4 ]2+
OH+
Cu 2+( aq ) + 4NH 3 º Cu 2+ + 4NH+
4 (No complex formation)]
As NH 3 combines with H of acid and changes to NH+
+
4 which have no donor site.
4. (d) Alum is a ‘‘Double salt’’ and it’s constituent ions do not loose their identity in aqueous solution.
6. (d) Due to absence of vacant atomic orbital as well as p * molecular orbital, O 2-
2 does not as p acid ligand.
–
S
M
7. (a)
S
–
O O
O
8. (c) SCN , OCN , SO 23- all are a ambidentate ligand, but only SO 2-
- -
3 can act as flexidentate ligand.
O O

S S
–O O– ® M –O O–
M
As monodentate ligand
As bidentate ligand

9. (b) CO bond strength is reciprocal to the extent of back donation involved in synergic bonding
i.e., M º CO
10. (d) CO is called p-acid ligand. In metal carbonyl complexes, there is donation of an electron pair from
carbon to the empty orbital of metal and then simultaneously a back p-bonding is formed by sideways
overlap of a filled orbital on the metal with empty antibonding p *2py orbital of CO.
1
11. (d) CO bond order µ
Extent of back bonding ( M ® CO)
Correct sequence of CO bond order :
H 3B ¬ CO > CO > Fe(CO)5 > [Mn(CO)5]-
(CO bond order > 3.0) B.O. = 3.0 CO bond order <3.0 (CO bond order <3.0)
 236 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET
p
12. (b) (a) [M s
CO] In such complex CO donates electron pair from NBMO having slight ABMO
character, so its sigma bond order increases.
p
(b) [M s
N2] In such complex N 2 donates electron pair from BMO, which results in more
decrement of sigma bond order.
1
13. (d) (Bond length) CO µ
(Bond order)CO
1
(Bond order) CO µ
Back donating tendency to metal atom / ion
Among given complexes, [ Ti(CO )6 ]2- : Ti 2- have highest electron donating tendency.
18. (b)[CoBr3(H 2O)3 ] : It does not exhibit hydrate isomerism.
19. (b)[Cr(H 2O)4 Cl 2]Cl × 2H 2O ; hydrate isomer of complex [Cr(H 2O )6 ]Cl 3 has lowest electrical conductivity,
because it gives only two ions on ionisation in aqueous medium.
III III
20. (a) [Co(NH 3 )4 CO 3 ]+ ClO -4 , CO --3 is working as bidentate ligand, have coordination number of Co = 6.
22. (a) Mn(CO)5 + e ¾® [Mn(CO)5]–
less stable more stable, as EAN of Mn = 36 (Kr)
(O.A.)
25. (d) Ligand (s) One ligand donate 2e-
p - C 5H 5 6 e-
p - C 3H 5 4 e-
CO 2 e-
If [Fe (p - C 5H 5 )x (p - C 3H 5 )y (CO )2]
Complex compound following Sidewick’s rule then
26 - (2 ) + 6 (1) + 4 (1) + 2 (1) = 36
x + y + z = 1 +1 +1 = 3
26. (c) [Mn +1(CO )x ( hy - C 5H 5 )]
h5 - C 5H -5 = 6 e- donor
EAN = 25 - 1 + 3 (2 ) + 6 ´ 1 = 36
So, x = 3, y = 5
27. (b) E.A.N of Cr = 36 = 24 + 2 x + 6
\ x = 3, y = 1 ; x + y = 4
The value of y can not be greater than one in order to obey E.A.N. of Cr = 36
28. (d) (a) [Fe(CN )6 ]3- EAN = 35
[Fe(NH 3 )6 ]3+ EAN = 35
(b) [Cr(NH 3 )6 ]3+ EAN = 33
[Cr(CN )6 ]3- EAN = 33
3-
(c) [FeF6 ] EAN = 35
[Fe(CN )6 ]3- EAN = 35
(d) [Ni(CO )4 ] EAN = 36
[Ni(CN )4 ]2- EAN = 34
Co-ordination Compounds 237
30. (c) [Ca(EDTA )]2- 20 - 2 + (6 ´ 2 ) = 30
[Cr(en )3 ]3+ 24 - 3 + (2 ´ 2 ´ 3 ) = 33
[CoBrCl(trien)]+ 27 - 3 + 2 + 2 + ( 4 ´ 2 ) = 36
[Ni(dmg )2] 28 - 2 + ( 4 ´ 2 ) = 34
*
31. (a) [Ni(CO )]4
EAN = 28 - 0 + 2 ´ 4 = 28 + 8 = 36
*
[Fe(CN )6 ]4-
EAN = 26 - 2 + 6 ´ 2 = 26 - 2 + 12 = 36
+1
33. (c) [Mn(CO)4(NO - )] : Paramagnetic due to presence of unpaired e-s in NO -
–1 -1
[Mn(CO)4(NO + )] : No unpaired e - either on ligands or on Mn hence it is diamagnetic
34. (c) (I) [(Ph 3P)2PdCl 2PdCl 2]; EAN of Pd = 46 - 2 + 4 ´ 2 = 52
(II) [NiBrCl(en)]; EAN of Ni = 28 - 2 + 8 = 34
(III) Na 4[Fe(CN)5NOS];
EAN of Fe = 26 - 2 + 5 ´ 2 + 2 = 36 [Kr]
(IV) Cr(CO)3(NO)2; EAN of
Cr = 24 - 0 + 3 ´ 2 + 3 ´ 2 = 36[Kr]
35. (d) Ligand NO is 3e- donar hence three CO ligands can be substituted by two NO ligands.
36. (b) Mn(CO)6 can act as reducing agent because the metal corbonyl is stable when EAN is equal to nearest
noble gas configuration.
-
¾® [Mn(CO)6 ]+
-e
[Mn(CO)6 ] ¾ ¾
EAN = 37 EAN = 36
(Less stable) ( More stable)
-
+1 e
37. (d) (a) [ V(CO )6 ] ¾ ¾¾ ® [ V(CO )6 ]-
EAN = 35 EAN = 36
(oxidising agent)
(b) [Mn(CO )6 ]+ EAN = 36 (stable complex)
-
(c) [Co(CO )4 ]2- ¾ ¾¾
-1 e
® [Co(CO )4 ]-
EAN = 37 EAN = 36
(reducing agent)
(d) [Mn(CO )5]- ¾ ¾¾¾¾ Dimerisation
® [Mn 2(CO )10 ]2-
EAN = 36 EAN = 37
(more stable) (less stable)
\ No dimerisation occur
38. (d) The correct name is chlorobis(ethylenediamine)nitritocobalt (III).
43. (d) H 2[PtCl 6 ] is an acid, not salt hence its name : Hexachloroplatinic(IV)acid.
47. (b) NH 3 ¾® ammine
en ¾® ethylene diamine
+3 +2
48. (d)[Co(NCS)(NH 3 )5][Zn(CN)4 ]
Pentaamminethiocyanato-N-cobalt(III) tetracyanidozincate(II).
 238 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

49. (c) Prussian Blue : Fe 4[Fe(CN)6 ]3 or Fe 3+[Fe 2+(CN)6 ]4-

Iron(III) hexacyanoferrate(II)
51. (d) In ‘‘Pentaaquacyanido Iron (III) trichloridotricyanido cobaltate (III)’’
Complex cation is [Fe III(CN)(H 2O)5]2+ and complex anion is [Co IIICl 3(CN)3 ]3-
Therefore complex is [Fe(CN)(H 2O)5]3[CoCl 3(CN)3 ]2
52. (b) K[Co(CH 5NH 2 )2Cl 4 ]
Potassium tetrachloridodi(methylamine)cobaltate(III)
53. (d) Na 2[Fe(CN)5(NO + )] = Sodiumpentacyanidonitrosyliumferrate(II)
54. (a) Wilkinson’s catalyst : [Rh(PPh 3 )3 Cl]
chloridotris (triphenyl phosphine) rhodium (I)
56. (b)[Cr(H 2O )4 Cl 2]Cl × 2H 2O ; hydrate isomer of complex [Cr(H 2O )6 ]Cl 3 has lowest electrical conductivity,
because it gives only two ions on ionisation in aqueous medium.
61. (a) Conductivity µ number of ions in aqueous medium
[Cr(NH 3 )6 ]Cl 3 ® [Cr(NH 3 )6 ]3+ + 3Cl -
[Cr(NH 3 )5Cl]Cl 2 ® [Cr(NH 3 )5Cl]2+ + 2Cl -
[Cr(NH 3 )4 Cl 2]Cl ® [Cr(NH 3 )4 Cl 2]+ + Cl -
[Cr(NH 3 )3 Cl 3 ] ® Does not ionize
63. (d) 100 mL of a 10 M solution of AgNO 3 = 1 mole AgNO 3
1 mole
[Co(NH 3 )6 ]Cl 3 ¾AgNO
¾¾® One mole AgCl
3

1 mole
¾¾®One mole AgCl
[CoCl (NH 3 )5] Cl 2 ¾AgNO
3

1 mole
¾¾®One mole AgCl
[CoCl 2(NH 3 )5]Cl 2 ¾AgNO
3

(Above reaction AgNO 3 is a limiting reagents)

64. (d) PtBr4 × xNH 3 + AgNO 3 solution ¾® AgBr ¯
0.01 mole Excess 0.03 moles
\ The value of x = 5
i. e. , complex is [Pt Br(NH 3 )5]Br3
65. (c) Cr × 6NH 3 × Cl 3 ¾® [Cr(NH 3 )6 ]Cl 3
Secondary valency ‘6’ satisfied by only NH 3 , all Cl - satisfy only primary valency.
Cr × 5NH 3 × Cl 3 ¾® [Cr(NH 3 )5Cl]Cl 2
Secondary valency ‘6’ satiesfied by five NH 3 and one Cl - while all three Cl - satify primary valency.
excess HCl
excess
66. (b)[Co(NH 3 )5Cl]Cl 2 + AgNO 3 ¾ ¾¾ ® [Co(NH 3 )5Cl](NO 3 )2 + 2 AgCl ¯ ¾ ¾¾¾ ¾® No - NH+
4
2 mole White ppt.

3d 4s 4p 4d
72. (c) Fe 2+ in [Fe(H 2O)6 ]2+

Hyb. : sp3d2
Colour : Pale green m = 4.9 B. M. ; octahedral
Co-ordination Compounds 239
3d 4s 4p
Fe 2+ in [Fe(CN)6 ]4–

Hyb. : d2sp3
Colour : Yellow; m = 0; octahedral
79. (d) Ni(CO)4 ; m eff = 0
[Co(NH 3 )4(NO 2 )2]+ ; m eff = 0
[Ag(CN)2]; m eff = 0
[CuBr4 ]2– ; m eff = 1.732 BM
80. (c) Degenerate d-orbitals undergo splitting under ligand field created by strong, weak or mixed ligands.
85. (c) [Mn(NH 3 )6 ]2+ , NH 3 act as WFL for Mn 2+ so d5, WFL outer orbital complex.
[Co(H 2O )6 ]3+ , H 2O act as SFL for Co 3+ so d6 , SFL outer orbital complex.
K 3[Cu(CN )4 ], d10 always diamagnetic
87. (b)[Cu(NH 3 )5]2+ ® geometry with C. N . = 5 is sq. pyramidal, dsp 3 hybridisation and dx 2 - y 2 orbital is used
in hybridisation.
(a) Fe(CO )5 ® dz 2 sp 3
(c) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]2+ ® d2sp 3
(d) [IrF6 ]3- ® d2sp 3
88. (a) [Cr(CN )6 ]3- Cr 3+ in strong ligand field = t23g eg0 = 3 unpaired electron
[Mn(CN )6 ]3- Mn 3+ in strong ligand field = t24g eg0 = 2 unpaired electron
[Fe(CN )6 ]3- Fe 3+ in strong ligand field = t25g eg0 = 1 unpaired electron
[Co(CN )6 ]3- Co 3+ in strong ligand field = t26g eg0 = Zero unpaired electron
®
89. (b) (I) [Ni(CO )4 ] m = 0 BM
®
(II) [Mn(CN )6 ]4- m = 3 BM
®
(III) [Cr(NH 3 )6 ]3+ m = 15 BM
®
(IV) [CoF6 ]3- m = 24 BM
Order of magnetic moment : I < II < III < IV
®
90. (a) m = 2.83 BM Þ Number of unpaired e- must be = 2
(a) [ V(H 2O )6 ]3+ Number of unpaired e- =2
(b) [Cr(H 2O )6 ]3+ Number of unpaired e- =3
(c) [Cu(CN )4 ]2- Number of unpaired e- =1
(d) [MnCl 4 ]2- Number of unpaired e- =5
®
91. (b) (I) [Cu(CN )4 ]3- m = 0 (Diamagnetic)
®
(II) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+ m = 0 (Diamagnetic)
®
2+
(III) [Ni(NH 3 )6 ] m = 8 BM (Paramagnetic)
®
(IV) [Fe(CN )6 ]3- m = 3 BM (Paramagnetic)
2+
92. (a) (a) [Ni(NH 3 )6 ] Hyb. = sp 2d2 (Outer orbital complex)
(b) [Mn(CN )6 ]4- Hyb. = d2sp 3 (Inner orbital complex)
(c) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+ Hyb. = d2sp 3 (Inner orbital complex)
 240 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(d) [Fe(CN )6 ]4- Hyb. = d2sp 3 (Inner orbital complex)

4-
93. (c) (a) [Co(CN )6 ] Number of unpaired e- = 1
(b) [Cr(H 2O )6 ]3+ Number of unpaired e- = 3
2-
(c) [FeCl 4 ] Number of unpaired e- = 4
(d) [Fe(H 2O )6 ]3+ Number of unpaired e- = 5
94. (c) (a) Geometry of complexes ® Both square planer
(b) Hybridisation of central metal cation ® dsp 2
(c) Magnetic behaviour [Cu(en )2]2+ ® Paramagnetic ; [Ni(dmg )2] ® Diamagnetic
(d) Number of stereoisomers = 0.
95. (c) Comples species Magnetic behaviour
2-
(a) [NiCl 4 ] Paramagnetic
(b) K 3[Fe(CN )6 ] Paramagnetic
(c) [Ni(CO )4 ] Diamagnetic
(d) [Co(CN )6 ]4- Paramagnetic
96. (a) [Mn(NH 3 )6 ]Cl 2
It is a outer orbital complex

Mn 2+( d5 ) ­ ­ ­ ­ ­ sp 3d2 - hyb n

M. M. = 35 B. M.
+3
97. (a) Na 3[Co(OX )3 ] is a inner orbital complex having d2sp 3 hybridization and diamagnetic.
98. (d) In [Pt(NH 3 )4 ]Cl 2, Pt 2+ surrounded by four strong ‘‘NH 3’’ ligands.
99. (b) (a) [Ni(PF3 )4 ] Ni : sp 3 Hybridization
P : sp 3 Hybridization
(b) [Fe(dmg )2] Fe : dsp 2 Hybridization
N-atom of dmg : sp 3 Hybridization
2+
(c) [Zn(en )2] Zn : sp 3 Hybridization
N-atom of en : sp 3 Hybridization
2+
(d) [Ni(PMe 3 )4 ] Ni : sp 3 Hybridization
P : sp 3 Hybridization
100. (a) [Cr(C 2O 4 )2(NH 3 )2]-1
O. N .(Cr ) = +3, C. N . = 6, M. M. = 15 BM
No. of unpaired electron = 3.
101. (a) (a) [Ni(NH 3 )6 ]2+ Hyb. : sp 3d2 (OOC)
4-
(b) [Mn(CN )6 ] Hyb. : d2sp 3 (IOC)
(c) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+ Hyb. : d2sp 3 (IOC)
4-
(d) [Fe(CN )6 ] Hyb. : d2sp 3 (IOC)
102. (d)[Co (CN )6 ]4-
Co 2+ , d7 , SFL
Co-ordination Compounds 241
eg
¼
¼¿¼¿ ¼ ¼ ¼ Do

¼¿¼¿¼¿ t2g
Unpaired e–= 1
[Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]3+
Cr 3+ , d 3 , SFL
eg

¼¼¼ Do

¼ ¼ ¼ t2g
Unpaired e–= 3
103. (b) (a) [NiCl 4 ]2- ,[Ni(CN )4 ]2-
Hybr. sp 3 , dsp 2
Geometry-Tetrahedral, square planar
(b) [CoF6 ]3- ,[Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+
Hybr. sp 3d2 , d2sp 3
Geometry-octahedral, octahedral.
(c) [Cu(NH 3 )4 ]+ ,[Ni(NH 3 )4 ]2+
Hybr. sp 3 , dsp 2
Geometry-Tetrahedral, square planar.
(d) [Ni(CO )4 ],[Ni(CN )4 ]2-
Hybr. sp 3 , dsp 2
Geometry-Tetrahedral, square planar.
105. (b) Complex ions m eff (in B.M.)
2+
(a) [Cr(NH 3 )6 ] 2.8
(b) [Fe(NH 3 )6 ]2+ 4.9
(c) [Co(H 2O )6 ]3+ 0
(d) [NiF6 ]2- 0
106. (c) [Ni(NH 3 )6 ]Cl 2 paramagnetic, outer orbital complex, sp 3d2
K 3[Fe(CN )6 ] paramagnetic, inner orbital complex, d2sp 3
K 2[PtCl 6 ] diamagnetic, inner orbital complex, d2sp 3
[Cr(H 2O )6 ]Cl 3 paramagnetic, inner orbital, d2sp 3
107. (d)[NiF6 ]2- ® Low spin complex [IrF6 ]3- ® spin of complex not defined.
Both complex are dimagnetic, d2sp 3 hybridised and have octahedral geometry.
 242 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

108. (a) Number of unpaired electrons

(a) [Fe(CN )6 ]4- 0 (t26g eg0 )
3-
(b) [Fe(CN )6 ] 1(t25g eg0 )
(c) [Mn(CN )6 ]3- 2 (t24g eg0 )
3-
(d) [Cr(CN )6 ] 3 (t23g eg0 )
2
109. (c) [Co(CO )4 ] ® Paramagnetic, dsp (square planar)
II
111. (d)[Mn(CN)6 ]4- : Hyb. : d2sp 3 , m eff = 3 B. M .
III
[Fe(NH 3 )6 ]3+ : Hyb. : d2sp 3 , m eff = 3 B. M .
[Co(CO)4 ]: Hyb : dsp 2, m eff = 3 B. M
[Cu(H 2O)6 ]2+ : Hyb. : sp 3d2, m eff = 3 B. M
112. (d)[Cr(en)3 ]3+ ; Hyb. : d2sp 3 ; does not exhibit geometrical isomerism but exhibits optical isomerism.
[IrF3(H 2O)2(NH 3 )]; Hyb. : d2sp 3 ; exhibits geometrical isomerism but does not exhibit optical
isomerism.
[NiCl 2(en)2]; Hyb. : sp 3d2; exhibits both geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism.
[Co(CN)2(ox)2]3- ; Hyb. : d2sp 3 ; exhibits both geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism.
115. (b) C 2O 2–
4 is a bidentate ligand, hence due to chelation D 0 is high, and [Co(ox)3 ]
3–
is an inner-orbital
complex having d2sp 3-hybridization.

4s 4p
eg
3d
118. (b) D0

t2g

Hence, hybridization : d2sp3

119. (d) In [Cu(NH 3 )4 ]2+ , Cu 2+ is dsp 2 hybridized, hence structure is square planar and complex is
paramagnetic.
120. (d) K 3[Co(ox)3 ] is inner orbital complex with d2sp 3-hybridisation.
132. (a) V 3+ in [V(H 2O)6 ]3+
3d 4s 4p
m Exp = 2(2 + 2 ) = 2.83 BM

3d 4s 4p
133. (c) Fe 3+ in [Fe(CN)6 ]3–

d2sp3

Þ low spin complex m = 1.732 BM

3d 4s 4p
Ni in [Ni(CO)4 ] m=0

sp3
Co-ordination Compounds 243
3d 4s 4p
Cr 3+ in [Cr(NH 3 )6 ]3+

d 2sp3

Þ low and high spin complex is applicable for d4 to d7

configuration.
3d 4s 4p
Mn 2+ in [Mn(CN)6 ]4–

d 2sp3

Þ low spin complex m = 1.732 BM

139. (d) In complexes [Rh(H 2O)6 ]3+ and [Co(H 2O)6 ]3+ , central metal cations have same oxidation state as well
as same ligands and they fall in same group, but D 0 of [Rh(H 2O)6 ]3+ > D 0 of [Co(H 2O)6 ]3+ because
Rh 3+ has high Z eff value than CO 3+ .
3d 4s 4p
140. (a) Ni2+
3d 4s 4p
Ni2+ in [Ni (dmg)2]
m=0 dsp2
141. (c) Number of unpaired electrons = 3
m eff = 3.9 BM
type of hybridisation = sp 3d2
142. (b) Increasing stability order :
(a) [Cu(NH 3 )4 ]2+ < [Cu(en)2]2+ < [Cu(trien)]2+
Their formation entropy increases in the same order, because denticity of ligand increases
(b)[Fe(H 2O)6 ]3+ < [Fe(NO 2 )6 ]3– < [Fe(NH 3 )6 ]3+
NO –2 is stronger ligand than NH 3
(c) [Co(H 2O)6 ]3+ < [Rh(H 2O)6 ]3+ < [Ir(H 2O)6 ]3+
Z eff value increases from Co 3+ to Ir 3+
(d)[Cr(NH 3 )6 ]1+ < [Cr(NH 3 )6 ]2+ < [Cr(NH 3 )6 ]3+
Oxidation state of Cr atom increases from +1 to +3
143. (a) [Ni(H 2O)6 ]2+ + 6NH 2
sp3 d2 Hyb.
º [Ni(NH 3 )6 ]2+ + 6H 2O
sp3 d2 Hyb.
m eff = 2.8 BM m eff = 2.8 BM

145. (a) [PtCl 2(NH 3 )(OH)2]; Pt-oxidation state +2 ;

Valence configuration = 5 d8
Complex is diamagnetic and exhibits geometrical isomerism.
148. (c) Due to the cationic part of the complex, it is green, because there are three unpaired electrons in t2g
orbitals of Cr 3+ cation, both cationic and anionic parts are complex ions, hence, coordination
isomerism will be exhibited by it.
152. (b)[Ti(H 2O)6 ]Cl 4
Coordination number 6 Þ octahedral complex
Ti is in +4 oxidations state Þ no unpaired electrons
Þ magnetic moment = 0 B. M.
 244 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

153. (b) Stability order : [Co(ox )3 ]3- > [Co(H 2O)6 ]3+ > [Co(ONO)6 ]3- > [CoF6 ]3-
For a given metal cation and fixed co-ordination number, 5 or 6 membered chelated complex is found
to be more stable than complex with monodentate ligand.
154. (c) (a) High spin with d6 configuration t24g and eg2 CFSE = -0.4 D o
(b) Low spin with d4 configuration t24g and eg0 CFSE = -1.6 D o
(c) Low spin with d5 configuration t25g and eg0 CFSE = -2 D o
(d) High spin with d7 configuration t25g and eg2 CFSE = -0.8 D o
155. (a) In d3 and d8 octahedral complexes number of unpaired e-s at central metal atom/ion never changes,
therefore for such octahedral complexes terms high spin and low spin not used.
156. (c) As number of stable rings increases stability of complex compound also increases due to chelation
effect.
Number of rings in [Ni (en )2]2+ = 2
Number of rings in [Ni(dmg )2] = 4
157. (b) K 2[PtCl 4 ] Diamagnetic square planar d8 , SFL, C. N. = 4
K 2[MnCl 4 ] Paramagnetic tetrahedral d5, WFL, C. N . = 4
K 2[ZnCl 4 ] Diamagnetic tetrahedral d10 , C. N . = 4
K 2[HgI4 ] Diamagnetic tetrahedral d10 , C. N . = 4
158. (b) Lowered in energy by 0.4 D o
159. (c) In K 3[ VF6 ]
3+
23 V = 3 d2 (two electrons in d-robitals) thus show colour.
while others have d0 and d10 configuration thus they are colourless.
160. (a) Stability constant ( K s ) µ strength of ligand
strength of ligand N donor > Cl donor.
1
162. (a) D o (splitting energy) µ
l (Absorbed)
Basic strength of ligand C > N > O > X (halogen) donor.
163. (d)[Ni(NH 3 )6 ]2+ > [Ni(dmg )2]
D o < D sq. planar
164. (b) Observed colour Violet Green
Absorbed complementory colour Yellow Red
D Splittion energy of [Co(H 2O)6 ]Cl 3 > [Co(H 2O)4 Cl 2]Cl × 2H 2O

Weak
Field ligands
5 unpaired e–
166. (b) d5 configuration
Strong field
Ligands
1 unpaired e–

168. (a) [Ni(CN )4 ]2- is square planar complex. Thus CFSE released in it is more than octahedral complex
leading to more stability.
169. (c) Na 2[CuCl 4 ] has Cu 2+ = 3 d9 configuration while other compounds have d10 configuration.
170. (b)[Fe(H 2O)5(NO)] SO 4 ® Brown ring complex. [Due to charge transfer phenomenon]
171. (d) Correct order of D o (splitting energy)
Co-ordination Compounds 245
(a) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+ < [Co(CN )6 ]3-
(b) [CoF6 ]3- < [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+
(c) [Co(H 2O)6 ]2+ < [Co(H 2O)6 ]3+
(d) [Rh(H 2O )6 ]3+ > [Co(H 2O )6 ]3+
172. (d) TiF62- ® Colourless (d0 configuration)
CoF63- ® Coloured (d6 configuration)
Cu 2Cl 2 ® Colourless (d10 configuration)
NiCl 2- 8
4 ® Coloured (d configuration)
3+
173. (b)[Ir(H 2O )6 ] : D o > P
174. (c) [Ni(DMG )2] contains four rings due to chelation effect of DMG and due to H-Bonding.
175. (b) (a) High spin : d6 Þ t24g eg2 CFSE = -0.4 D o
5 5 0
(b) Low spin : d Þ t2g eg CFSE = -2.0 D o
(c) Low spin : d4 Þ t24g eg0 CFSE = -1.6 D o
(d) High spin : d7 CFSE = -0.8 D o
176. (d) D o of [Ni(en )3 ]2+ is more w.r.t. [Ni(H 2O )2(en )2]2+ .
So [Ni(en )3 ]2+ absorb more frequency colour for d - d transition. So possibly its colour is violet.
1
177. (a) Splitting energy µ D abs µ
l abs
H 2O has more splitting energy than Cl - , therefore [Cr(H 2O )6 ]Cl 3 absorbs shorter wave length.
178. (a) CFSE = - 0.4 D o (t2g es - ) + 0.6 D o ( eg es - )
For Brown ring complex = - 0.4 D o(5 ) + 0.6 D o(2 ) = - 0.8 D o.
179. (c) [Cr(NH 3 )6 ]3+ show colour due to partially filled d-orbital. While other complexes have d0 configuration
and thus they are colourless.
180. (d)[Cu(NH 3 )4 ]2+ has square planar structure and is paramagnetic.
181. (b) Strongest the ligand, greater will be the stability constant.
eg

182. (c) D0 P > D0

Metal atom/ion
in spherical field t2g
of six ligands Metal atom/ion
(d4 configuration) in octahedral
field
183. (c) [Ni(CN)4 ]4– ; sp 3; Tetrahedral complex.
184. (d) (I) Both CO 2+ and Co 3+ are stabilized in the presence of strong field ligands due to higher CFSE values.
(II) Because of higher Z eff value on the valence shell of Pd 2+ and Pt 2+ cations they, always from inner
orbital complex.
(III) [Ni(CO)4 ] ; sp 3 , tetrahedral, m = 0 BM
[Ni(CN)4 ]4– ; sp 3 , tetrahedral, m = 0 BM
(IV) Ni 2+ in the octahedral field.
 246 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

eg

3d
D° D°

t2g
Ni2+
in weak field Ni2+
in strong field
Þ i.e., electronic distribution remains unaffected.
3d 4s 4p 4d
185. (b) (I) Fe3+in[FeF6]3–

sp3d2

m = 5(5 + 2) = 5.93 BM

3d 4s 4p 4d
(II) Ti 3+ in [Ti(H 2O)6 ]3+

d2sp3

m = 1(1 + 2 ) = 1.732 BM

3d 4s 4p
(III) Cr3+in[Cr(NH3)6]3+

d2sp3
m = 3(3 + 2 ) = 3.88 BM
3d 4s 4p 4d
(IV) Ni 2+ in [Ni(H 2O)6 ]2+

sp3d2

m = 2(2 + 2 ) = 2.83 BM
3d 4s 4p
(V) Fe2+in[Fe(CN)6]4–

d2sp3
m=0
189. (b) Hybridisation of Mn in MnO –4 : d3s
4s 4p
t2g
3d dxy dyz dzx
Hyb. d3s
MnVII in spherical
field of four eg
2–
O ligands
dx2–y2 dz2
MnVII in
tetrahedral field
Co-ordination Compounds 247
190. (c) Fe 2+( aq ) + NO + SO 2– 2+
4 ( aq ) ® [Fe(H 2O)5(NO)] +SO 4
2–

m eff = 3.89 BM
Hence, no. of unpaired electrons = 3
191. (b) As NH 3 is stronger ligand than H 2O, hence CFSE value for [ M(NH 3 )6 ]2+ > CFSE of [ M(H 2O)6 ]2+
therefore, absorption shifts to smaller wavelength. Also difference between splitting power of NH 3 and
H 2O is not very high.
4
193. (c) D t = D 0
9
4
\ D t for [CoCl 4 ]2– = ´ 18000 cm –1 = 8000 cm –1
9
195. (c) [CuCl 5]2- ; sp 3d-hybridisation (outer orbital complex) (Magnetic moment = 3 B.M.)
[Fe(NH 3 )6 ]3+ , [Mn(CN)6 ]4- and [Co(NH 3 )6 ]2+ are inner orbital complexes and are also
paramagnetic in nature having magnetic moment of 3 B.M.
196. (c) [Ni(DMG)2] < [Ni(en)2]2+ is incorrect order of C.F.S.E. because stability of chelated complex is directly
related to number of stable rings.
197. (c) Octahedral complexes having metal cation with d3 and d8 configuration can not be defined in terms of
high and low spin complex.
198. (b)[Cu(NH 3 )5]2+ ¾® geometry with C.N. = 5 is sq. pyramidal, dsp 3 hybridisation and dx 2 - y 2 orbital is
used in hybridisation.
(a) Fe(CO )5 ¾® dz 2 sp 3
(c) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]2+ ¾® d2sp 3
(d) [IrF6 ]3- ¾® d2sp 3
199. (a)
(a) [Ni(NH 3 )6 ]2+ Hyb. : sp 3d2 (OOC)
4-
(b) [Mn(CN )6 ] Hyb. : d2sp 3 (IOC)
3+
(c) [Co(NH 3 )6 ] Hyb. : d2sp 3 (IOC)
4-
(d) [Fe(CN )6 ] Hyb. : d2sp 3 (IOC)
200. (d) All the octahedral complexes of Ni 2+ are outer orbital complex having sp 3d2 hybridisation with
configuration as t26g eg2 having 2 unpaired electron (u = 8 B. M. ) irrespective of the nature of ligand.
201. (b) Cr 3+ = t23g eg0
(3 unpaired electrons)
202. (b)[IrF6 ]3- , d2sp 3 octahedral
Ir 3+ , d6, high nuclear charge on metal of lower transition series always forms low spin inner orbital
complex irrespective of the nature of ligand.
203. (d) º [CoBr(NH ) ] + SO ;
[CoBr(NH 3 )5]SO 4 3 5
2+ 2–
4 Total charges = 4

[Co(SO )(NH ) ]Br º [Co(SO )(NH ) ] + Br ;

4 3 5 4 3 5
+ –
Total charges = 2
hence, both have different molar conductivities.
206. (d) Complexes [Co(SO 4 )(NH 3 )5]Br and [Co(SO 4 )(NH 3 )5]Cl are not any isomers to each other.
207. (b) (I) IUPAC name is Pentaamminenitrito-N-chromium(III) tetrachlorozincate (II)
(II) It does not exhibit geometrical isomerism
(III) It shows linkage isomerism due to presence of ambidentate ligand NO –2
(IV) Its coordination isomers are :
[CrCl(NH 3 )5][ZnCl 3(NO 2 )],
 248 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

[CrCl 2(NH 3 )4 ][ZnCl 2(NO 2 )NH 3 ]

[Zn(NO 2 )(NH 3 )3 ][CrCl 4(NH 3 )2]
208. (b)[M( AA )b 2c 2]n± ; Total GI = 3 [1 cis + 2 trans]
[Ma 3bcd]n± ; Total GI = 4 [1 cis + 3 trans]
[Ma 2b 2c 2]n± ; Total GI = 5 [1 cis + 4 trans]
[Ma 2bcde]n± ; Total GI = 9 [6 cis + 3 trans]
209. (b) Þ The formula for complex compounds ‘ X ’ and ‘ Y ’ is
[PtCl 2(NH 3 )2]
Þ As compound is neutral co-ordination compound therefore it does not exhibit ionization isomerism,
solvate isomerism and co-ordination isomerism.
Þ Complex compound exhibit geometrical isomerism.
–
Cl II NH3 H3N II Cl–
Pt Pt
–
Cl NH3 Cl– NH3
Cis (polar) Trans (non-polar)

210. (b)[CrBr2(H 2O)(NH 3 )3 ] ; No. of stereoisomers = 3, cis = 1 trans = 2

[Zn(gly )2] ; No. of stereoisomers = 2, both are in d and I forms
-
[PtBrCl(CN)(H 2O)] ; No. of stereoisomers = 3, all are geometrical isomers
[Co(en)(NH 3 )4 ]3+ ; No. of stereoisomers = 0
211. (b)[CrBrCl 2(H 2O)(NH 3 )2]× H 2O is not hydrate isomer of the complex [CrCl 2(H 2O)2(NH 3 )2]Br.
212. (d) Þ [Co(ox )(H 2O )3(NH 3 )]Br : Does not exhibit structural and optical isomerism but it can exhibit
geometrical isomerism.
Þ [Cr(SCN)(H 2O)3(en)](C 2O 4 ) : It can exhibit linkage and geometrical isomerism.
Þ [ZnBr(CN)(SCN)(NH 3 )]- : It exhibits optical isomerism.
Þ [Co(BrCl)(H 2O)4 ][Ag(CN)2] : and [CoCl(CN)(H 2O)4 ][AgBr(CN)] are co-ordination isomers.
213. (d) Þ[PdBrCl(NO 2 )(NH 3 )]- Hyb. of Pd 2+ : dsp 2, complex has plane of symmetry hence does not exhibit
optical isomerism. But it exhibits geometrical isomerism and number of geometrical isomers = 3.
Þ The complex : [Zn(SCN)(H 2O)(gly)] exhibits optical isomerism
Number of stereoisomers = 2

H2 – –
H2C—N II
SCN NCS II N—CH2
Zn Zn
–
C—O– OH2 H2O O—C==O
O
d-form l-form
3
Hybridization of zinc : sp
Þ The complex : [Co(acac)3 ] exhibits optical isomerism
Number of stereoisomers = 2
Co-ordination Compounds 249

acac
acac
acac
acac Co Co
acac
acac

d l
Þ The complex [PtBr(H 2O )(en )] does not exhibit geometrical and optical isomerism, because it
contains plane of symmetry.
+
H2
N II
Br
Pt
N OH2
H2

214. (b)[Pt(NH 3 )4 Cl 2]Br2

Ionization isomer
[Pt(NH 3 )4 ClBr]Cl × Br
Geometrical isomers
+2 +2
NH3 NH3
H3N Cl H3N Cl

Pt Pt

H3N Cl Cl NH3
NH3 NH3
Cis-isomer Trans-isomer

215. (a) [Co(H 2O)3(NH 3 )2(NO 3 )]Br2 ® Cannot show linkage isomerism as it does not have ambidentate
ligand.
216. (c) [Cr(en )3 ]3+ Geometrical isomer = 0, Optical isomers = 2
Total Stereo isomers = 2
217. (a) [Co(NH 3 )4 Br2]Cl : [Ma 4b 2]±n
NH3 Br
Br NH3 NH3 NH3
M M
Br NH3 NH3 NH3
NH3 Br
(Cis) (Trans)
[Co(NH 3 )4 Br2] Cl,[Co(NH 3 )4 BrCl] Br ; Ionization Isomerism
218. (b)[Cr(NH 3 )5(NO 2 )][Zn(SCN)4 ] cannot show optical isomerism.
[Cr(NH 3 )5(NO 2 )]+2 Þ [Ma 5b]±n
[Zn(SCN)4 ]-2 Þ [Ma 4 ]± n
219. (d)[M( AA )2]n± does not show geometrical isomerism but can show optical isomerism.
 250 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

220. (b)[Cr(NO 2 )2(en)2]+ ,[Rh(SCN)(H 2O)(ox)2]2-

Both exhibit linkage isomerism through NO 2 and ONO and SCN and NCS linkage respectively.
221. (a)
(a) [Co(en )2Cl 2]+ » [M( AA )2b 2]n±
Total structural isomers = 0
Total geometrical isomers = 2
Total optical isomers = 3
Total stereoisomers = 3
(b) [Co(NH 3 )5Cl]2+ » [Ma 5b]± n
Total structural isomers = 0
Total geometrical isomers = 0
Total optical isomers = 0
Total stereoisomers = 0
(c) [Ir(PR 3 )H(CO )]2+ » [Ma 2bc ]n± (Square planer)
Total structural isomers = 0
Total geometrical isomers = 2
Total optical isomers = 0
Total stereoisomers = 2
(d) [Ru(NH 3 )4 Cl 2]+ » [Ma 4b 2]± n
Total structural isomers = 0
Total geometrical isomers = 2
Total optical isomers = 0
Total stereoisomers = 2
222. (a) (i) [Cr(NO 3 )3(NH 3 )3 ] (ii) K 3[Co(C 2O 4 )3 ]
Geometrical isomers = 2 Geometrical isomers = 0
Optical isomers = 0 Optical isomers = 2
Total stereoisomers = 2 Total stereoisomers = 2
(iii) K 3[CoCl 2(C 2O 4 )2] (iv) [Co(Br )(Cl )(en )2]
Geometrical isomers = 2 Geometrical isomers = 2
Optical isomers = 3 Optical isomers = 3
Total stereoisomers = 3 Total stereoisomers = 3
224. (b)[Co(NH 3 )3(NO 2 )3 ]Cl 2 complex exhibits geometrical isomerism (G.I.)
Geometrical isomers = 2 (1 cis + 1 trans )
Optical isomers = 0
Space isomers = 2
[Co(NH 3 )5NO 2]Cl 2 complex shows linkage and ionization isomerism.
225. (c) (a) Ionization isomerism (b) Co-ordination isomerism
(c) No isomerism (d) Linkage isomerism
Co-ordination Compounds 251
226. (d) Complexes No. of stereoisomers
+
(a) [Cd(gly)(H 2O)(NH 3 )] 2
(b) [PtBr2(H 2O)2] 2
3+
(c) [Cr(en)3 ] 2
(d) [CoBr(NO 2 )(en)2]+ 3
227. (d) (a) Square planar [Pt(NH 3 )3 Cl]Cl, Ma 3b does not show cis trans isomerism.
(b) [Zn(NH 3 )2Cl 2], tetrahedral does not show cis trans isomerism.
(c) K 3[Fe(C 2O 4 )3 ], M(AA)3 does not show cis trans isomerism.
(d) Co(gly)3 ; M(AB)3 show cis trans isomerism.
228. (b) X = [Ni(en )(NH 3 )4 ]2+ neither G.I. nor OI
Y = [Ni(en )2(NH 3 )2]2+ G.I. as well as OI
Z = [Ni(en )3 ]2+ does not show G.I. while show OI
229. (b) When symmetrical bidentate ligand present in C.N. 4 it does not show SI.
230. (c) [Co(ox)3 ]3- ,[Zn(gly)2] : are diamagnetic
[FeF3(H 2O)2(NH 3 )] : does not exhibit optical activity due to presence of plane of symmetry.
[Ni(NH 3 )2(en)2]2+ : is paramagnetic and its cis form is optically active.
231. (d)[Co(H 2O)Cl 3 ] do not show both geometrical and optical isomerism as it has plane of symmetry.
232. (d) Complexes Hyd. of central No. of stereoisomers
metal cation
(a) [Cd(gly)(H 2O)(NH 3 )]+ sp 3 2
(b) [PtBr2(H 2O)2] dsp 2 2
(c) [Cr (en)3 ]3+ d2sp 3 2
+ 2 3
(d) [Co Br(NO 2 )(en)2] d sp 3
233. (b) K 3[Cr(C 2O 4 )3 ] Þ [Cr(C 2O 4 )3 ]3-
O
C
O O C==O
C—O O
Cr
C—O
O O O
C—C
O O
3 rings in different plane absence of plane of symmetry.
\ optically active
K1
234. (b) Cd 2+( aq. ) + 2 en ¾ ¾ ® [Cd(en )2]2+
Optically active ligand
2+ K2
¾® [Cd(bn)2]2+
Cd ( aq. ) + 2bn ¾ ¾
Optically active ligand
 252 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(A) (B)
H2 H2 CH3
N N CH3
* *
H2C CH2 CH—NH2 NH2—CH
Cd2+ Cd2+
H2C CH2 * *
HC—NH2 NH2—CH
N N
H2 H2 H3C CH3
Symmetrical ligands Symmetrical ligands
(Optically inactive) (Optically active centre present)
236. (c) (a) [Zn(bcac)(en)]+ Td geometry does not show optical isomerism.
(b) [PtBrCl(CN)(SCN)]2- sq. planar does not show optical isomerism.
(c) [Ir(acac)2(H 2O)(NH 3 )]+ cis isomer will show optical isomerism.
(d) [CrCl 3(SCN)(H 2O)2]- does not show optical isomerism.
237. (d) a ® Cationic monodentate ligand
b ® Neutral mondentate ligand
c , e ® Anionic monodentate ligand
d ® Ambidentate anionic ligand
[Mac ]e shows ionization isomerism
[Md 2]- shows linkage isomerism
[M(H 2O )a ]c 2 and [Mac ]c × H 2O will show hydrate isomerism.
238. (c) PtCl 4 × 3NH 3 ¾® [Pt(NH 3 )3 Cl 3 ]Cl
PtCl 4 × 6NH 3 ¾® [Pt(NH 3 )6 ]Cl 4
PtCl 4 × 2NH 3 ¾® [Pt(NH 3 )2Cl 4 ]
PtCl 4 × 4NH 3 ¾® [Pt(NH 3 )4 Cl 2]Cl 2
239. (b) Ma 3b 3 is always optically in active.
240. (c) cis -[M( AA )b 2c 2] is optically active as it do not have P.O.S. AA = symmetrical bidentate ligand.
241. (b) Ni 2+( aq ) with DMG (dimethylglyoxime) form square planar complex which is obtically inactive. While
[Co(EDTA )]- , [Zn(gly)2]2+ and [Pt(en)3 ]4+ are optically active as they do not have P.O.S.
242. (a) [Co(en)2(SCN)2]+ has largest number of isomers. It shows cis and trans form and its cis form is optically
active. Also SCN - is ambidentate ligand, thus it also shows linkage isomerism.
243. (d) [Co(en)3 ][Cr(C 2O 4 )3 ],[Co(C 2O 4 )(en)2][Cr(C 2O 4 )2(en)],
[Cr(C 2O 4 )(en)2] [Co(C 2O 4 )2(en)],
[Cr(en)3 ][Co(C 2O 4 )3 ], Total coordination isomers = 4
[Cu(NH 3 )4 ][CuCl 4 ], [CuCl(NH 3 )3 ][CuCl 3(NH 3 )]
Total coordination isomers = 2
[Ni(en)3 ][Co(NO 2 )6 ], [Ni(NO 2 )2(en)2][Co(NO 2 )4(en)],
[Co(NO 2 )2(en)2][Ni(NO 2 )4(en)], [Co(en)3 ][Ni(NO 2 )6 ]
Total no. of coordination isomers = 4
244. (d) NO -3 ion never acts as ambidentate ligand.
245. (b) Complex [Cr(NO 2 )(NH 3 )4 ][Zn(SCN)4 ] can not shows optical activity.
246. (b) [CrCl 2(OH)2(NH 3 )2] show cis and trans isomerism, cis isomer is optically active.
249. (b) No. of geometrical isomers
Co-ordination Compounds 253
[Pt(NO 2 )(NH 3 )(NH 2OH)(Py)]+ = 3 and No. of stereoisomers for
[Pt(Br)(Cl)(I)(NO 2 )(NH 3 )(Py)] = 15 + 15
0 0
–
NH3 –
NH3
O2 N NH3 O2 N NO2–
252. (b) (I) Cr 3+ Cr 3+
– –
O2 N –
NH3 O2 N NH3
NO2 NH3
Facial (or cis) Meridional (trans)
Optically inactive Optically inactive
Þ Two stereoisomers
3– mirror 3–
OX OX
+
(II) OX Fe3 Fe OX

OX OX
d-form l-form
Þ Two stereoisomers
Cl– Cl–
+ mirror +
Cl–
+

Cl– Cl–
+
(III) en Co3 Co 3+ en en Co 3+ en

en en Cl–
trans-form
cis-d-form cis-l-form (meso-form)
Þ Three stereoisomers
Cl– Cl– Br–
3– mirror 3– 3–
–
Br Br–
+
(IV) ox Co3 Co 3+ ox ox Co 3+ ox

ox ox Cl–
trans-form
cis-d-form cis-l-form (meso-form)
Þ Three stereoisomers
253. (b) II and III are geometrical isomers as II is trans while III is cis of the given complex.
254. (d) Trans complex is optically inactive.
A A
260. (c) M
B A
Þ In this square planar complex, only one configuration is possible. Hence, geometrical isomerism is
not observed.
 254 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

M
A A
A
Þ Tetrahedral complexes never show geometrical isomerism.
261. (a) (I) [Pt(SCN)(3PEt 3 )](SCN): Exhibits only linkage isomerism.
(II) [CoBr(NH 3 )5]SO 4 : Exhibit only ionization isomerism.
(III) [Fe(H 2O)6 ]Cl 2: Exhibits only hydrate isomerism.
262. (a) (i) Pt(SCN )2
NH3 Mirror
NH3 NH3 Cl
NH3 H3N H3N NH3
3+ 3+ 3+
265. (b) en Co
3+
Co en en Co en Co
H3N NH3
en en NH3 Cl

d-form l-form opticallyinactive opticallyinactive

2+ 2+
NH3 NH3
Cl H3C CH3
en Co 3+ en Co3+ en C—NH2 NH2—C
266. (c) H H
CH3 Pt2+ CH3
en Cl C—NH2 NH2—C
H H
cis-form trans-form cis-form
H3C H
C—H2N NH2—C
H CH3
H Pt CH3
C—H2N NH2—C
H3C H
trans-form
– – – –
Cl Cl Cl Cl
–
H3N Cl H3N NH3
H3N OH2 H3N NH3
267. (d) Co+ Co+ Co 3+ Co 3+
H3N – H3N –
H3N NH3 H3N NH3 Cl Cl
NH3 –
NH3 OH2 Cl
cis trans cis trans
(a) (b)
Cl– Cl–
H3N Cl– H3N NH3
Co 2+ Co 2+
H3N NH3 H3N NH3
NH3 Cl–
cis trans
(c)
Co-ordination Compounds 255
3– 3– 3–
Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
268. (a) xo Co3+ Co3+ ox ox Co3+ ox

ox
ox Cl
d-form l-form meso-form

3– 3– 3–
Br Br Br
Cl Cl
en Co3+ Co3+ en en Co3+ en

en
en Cl
d-form l-form meso-form

269. (a) In tetrahedral all the position are adjacent to one another hence only one isomer is possible

X Y X Y
M M Two isomers

X Y Y X
cis trans

a n± a n± a n± a n± a n± a n±
a b a b a b a c a c a d
270. (b) M M M M M M
d c e c c e d b e b e c
e d d e d b
cis cis cis cis cis cis

No. of cis-isomers = 6
They are :
a n± a n± a n±
b c b d b d
M M M
e d e c c e
a a a
trans trans trans
No. of trans-isomers = 3

271. (b)[NiCl 2(PMe 3 )2]

3d 4s 4p
2+
Ni in [NiCl 2(PMe 3 )2]
sp3 Hyb.
Structure : Tetrahedral
 256 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Cl 2–

Ni2+ No isomer is possible.

Cl PMe3
PMe3
272. (d) (i) [CoCl 3(NH 3 )3 ] : Both cis and trans forms are optically inactive
3+ 3+
en en
+
(ii) en Co3 Co3
+
en

en en
(d-form) (l-form)
Orientation of the ligands does not affect asymmetric of the complex.
– –
NH3 NH3
NH3
(iii) ox Co3+ ox Co3+ ox

ox NH3
(cis-form) (trans-form)
optically active optically inactive
Orientation of NH 3 molecules determine asymmetric character of the complex.
+ + +
Cl Cl Cl
en Cl en NH3 en NH3
(iv) Cr Cr Cr
NH3 NH3 NH3
NH3 Cl Cl
(cis-form) (trans-form) (trans-form)
optically active optically inactive optically active
Hence, orientation of ligands determine asymmetric nature of the complex.
273. (d) (I) [CrCl 2(NO 2 )2(NH 3 )2]–
– – –
NO2 NO2 NO2
Cl NO2 Cl NH3 Cl NO2
III III
Cr Cr Cr
Cl NH3 H3N Cl H3N Cl
NH3 NO2 NH3
cis trans trans
– –
NO2 NH3
Cl NH3 Cl NO2
Cr Cr
Cl NH3 Cl NO2
NO2 NH3
trans trans
Co-ordination Compounds 257
Þ No. of Geo. Iso.
a n± b n± a n± a n±

A b A a A b B b
274. (d) M M M M
B B B B B A A B
A A B A
cis-form cis-form trans-form trans-form
a n± a n±

A A A B
M M
B B B A
b b
trans-form trans-form

+
Cl Cl Cl
H3N Cl H3N Cl H3N Cl
275. (a) Co 3+ + Cl– Co and Co
H3N NH3 H3N NH3 H3N Cl
NH3 Cl NH3
cis-form trans-form cis-form

276. (b) The complex does not contain any element of symmetry hence the configuration is asymmetric,
therefore, it is optically active.
a a a
b a c b b c
277. (d) (I) M M M
b a b a b a
c a a
cis-form trans-form trans-form

Þ All are optically inactive; No. of stereoisomers = 3

B A
A A A B
(II) M M
B B B A
A B
cis-form trans-form
optically active optically active

Þ Both are optically active; No. of stereoisomers = 4

b b b b c
a b a c a b a c a b
(III) M M M M M
a c c a c a a c a b
c b c b c
cis-form
optically active trans-form
optically inactive
 258 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Þ No. of stereoisomers = 6

H3C H2 H2 H H H2
C—N –
C—N II N—C II O—C==O
278. (c) H Pd CH3 H3C Pd H
– – – N—C
O==C—O O—C==O O==C—O
cis
H2 CH3
trans

H H2 H2 H
C—N II N—C
H3C Pd CH3
– –
O==C—O O—C==O
cis

Me Br
C==O III
Cl
HC Co
279. (b) Me Me
C—O– O
Br
C==O O==C
Me O– HC III
HC
C Co
C Me C—O– –
O—C
Me CH Me Cl Me
cis-form trans-form
optically active opticallyinactive
\ No. of stereoisomers = 3
280. (c) [Pd(Cl)(Br)(gly)] is square planer complex hence it can exhibits geometrical isomerism.
281. (a) Trans [Co(gly)3 ] is optically active complex, hence equimolar mixture of ‘ d ’ and ‘ l ’ form on mixing
gives racemic mixture.
282. (c) Compound [Co(en)3 ]3+ can show optical isomerism.
Mirror
3+ 3+
A A
A A
A A
Co Co
A A
A A
A A
l-form d-form
283. (c) (a) [Zn(bcac) (en )]+ Td geometry does not show O.I.
(b) [PtBrCl(CN )(SCN )]2- sq. planar does not show O.I.
(c) [Ir(acac )2(H 2O )(NH 3 )]+ cis isomer will show O.I.
(d) [CrCl 3(SCN )(H 2O )2]- does not show O.I.
287. (b) (I) Mond’s process for purification of Ni -[Ni(CO)4 ]
(II) Removal of unreacted AgBr from photographic plate— [Ag(S2O 3 )2]3–
(III) Removal of lead poisoning from body—[Pb(EDTA)]2-
288. (d) Haemoglobin contain metal Fe 2+
Sodium nitroprusside : Na 2[Fe(CN )5NO]
cis platin : cis -[Pt(NH 3 )2Cl 2]
Vitamin B12 : Co Metal
Chlorophyll : Mg metal
Co-ordination Compounds 259
290. (c) CaH 2 EDTA salt is used to remove lead poisoning
291. (d) Haemoglobin contain metal Fe 2+
Sodium nitroprusside : Na 2[Fe(CN )5NO]
cis platin : cis -[Pt(NH 3 )2Cl 2]
Vitamin B12 : Co Metal
Chlorophyll : Mg metal
292. (b) EDTA 4- can form complex with Mg 2+ and Ca 2+ ions. Hard water mainly contain Mg 2+ and Ca 2+ salt.
293. (d)[Cr(CN )6 ]3- : Hybridization : d2sp 3 High or low spin is not defined because Cr 3+ is an example of d3
system of configuration.
..
294. (d) In PCl 3, no coordinate covalent bond is present.
295. (c) [Cr(NH 3 )6 ]3+ is homoleptic and positively charged complex ion.
296. (b)[Cr(H 2O )4 Cl 2]Cl × 2H 2O, hydrate isomer of complex [Cr(H 2O )6 ]Cl 3 has lowest electrical conductivity,
because it gives only two ions on ionisation in aqueous medium.
297. (d) IrBr3 5NH 3 Þ Ir 3+ CN = 6
Correct formula : [Ir(NH 3 )5Br ]Br2
100
nComplex = 0.01 ´ = 0.001 moles
1000
[Ir(NH 3 )5Br ] Br2 + 2AgNO 3 ¾® 2 AgBr + 2NO -3 + [Ir(NH 3 )5Br ]2+
1 mole complex ¾® 2 moles AgBr
0.001 mole complex ¾® 0.002 mole of AgBr
298. (a) (i) K [PtCl ] a 2K r + [PtCl ]2- (3 Ions)
2 6 6

(ii) [Pt(NH 3 )2Cl 4 ] a No dissociation (0 Ions)

(iii) [Pt(NH 3 )2Cl 3 ]Cl a [Pt(NH 3 )3 Cl 3 ]+ + Cl - (2 Ions)
(iv) [PtCl(NH 3 )5]Cl 3 a [PtCl(NH 3 )5]3+ + 3Cl - (4 Ions)
\ order of electrical conductance : iv > i > iii > ii
299. (c) PtCl 4 × 3NH 3 ¾® [Pt(NH 3 )3 Cl 3 ]Cl
PtCl 4 × 6NH 3 ¾® [Pt(NH 3 )6 ]Cl 4
PtCl 4 × 2NH 3 ¾® [Pt(NH 3 )2Cl 4 ]
PtCl 4 × 4NH 3 ¾® [Pt(NH 3 )4 Cl 2]Cl 2
300. (c) Bayer’s reagent : 1% KMnO 4.
 260 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

: Level 2
2. (A)N 2H 4 can only act as monodentate ligand.
NH2
M ; Three membered (unstable) ring. Hence it acts as monodentate ligand only.
NH2
3. (B) Both [Ti(H 2O)6 ]4+ and [Sc(H 2O)6 ]3+ are colourless, due to absence of free electrons in 3d subshell.
5. (A) EDTA is hexadentate ligand. When it forms complex with a metal cation, the hybridisation of central
atom will be d2sp 3.
&& 2 — NH
11. (A) NH && 2 Neutral ligand
It does not act as bidentate because when it acts as bidentate, because when it acts as bidentate a three
membered ring (chelat complex) will be formed, that will be highly strained.
+3
12. (E) K 4[Fe(CN )6 ]
3d 4s 4p
Fe2+ in the
presence of CN–
n = 1 paramagnetic, d2sp3 hybridisation
+3
K 3[Fe(CN )6 ]
3d 4s 4p
Fe3+ in the
presence of CN–
n = 0 paramagnetic, d2sp3 hybridisation
Crystal field splitting in ferrocyanide is less than ferricyanide ion because higher the oxidation state of
the metal, greater the crystal field splitting.
13. (C) In complex [CoF6 ]3- ,
Oxidation number of Co = +3
Electronic configuration of
Co 3+ = 1s 2, 2 s 22 p 6 , 3 s 23 p 6 3 d6
3d6 4s 4p 4d
3+
In Co

In Co 3+ number of unpaired electrons is four, and F - is the ligand of weak field. Hence, it does not pair
up the electrons of d-orbital.
3d6 4s 4p 4d
3-
So, In[CoF6 ]

Fourunpaired Twelveelectrons
electrons donatedbysixligands
So, In[CoF6 ]3- is paramagnetic.
Co 3+ has 3 d6 outer electronic configuration, but four unpaired electrons do not pair up because of weak
field provided by F - .
14. (D)The ligands having vacant p-type orbitals have a tendency to receive back donated p-electrons, thus
these are called p-acid ligands or p-acceptor ligands, e.g., CO and CN have lone pair as well as p or
Co-ordination Compounds 261
*
p-orbitals which take part in the formation of p-bond with central metal atom as observed in case of
carbonyls.
15. (A) In K 4[Fe(CN )6 ], Fe is present as Fe 2+ .
Fe = 3 d6 , 4 s 2, Fe 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d6 , 4 s 0
3d 4s 4p
4–
[Fe(CN)6] = [Ar]

d2sp3 hybridisation
Since, all elecrons are paired, it is diamagnetic in nature.
In [Fe(H 2O )6 ]Cl 3, Fe is present as Fe 3+
Fe 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d5, 4 s 0
[Fe(H 2O )6 ]3+ = [ Ar ]

Five unpaired electrons sp3d2

Since, it contains five unpaired electrons, it is paramagnetic in nature.
1
16. (C) Formation constant, b4 =
dissociation constant
dissociation constant also called as instability constant.
1
= = 2 .1 ´ 1013
4 .76 ´ 10 -14

: Level 3
3. (b) It shows geometrical isomerism. One form is trans, the other form cis shows optical isomerism also and
exists in d- and l-forms. So, total stereoisomers are 3.
4. (a) As + ue charge on the central metal atom increases, the less readily the metal can donate electron
density into the p * orbitals of CO ligand to weaker the C — O bond.
Hence, the C — O bond would be strongest in Mn(CO )+6.
12. (a) Triethoxyaluminium has no Al–C linkage
O CH2CH3
Al O CH2CH3
O CH2CH3
2+ 8
13. (a) Ni has d configuration. These electrons get paired in the presence of CN - ions. Therefore, complex
ion is diamagnetic.
14. (a) The complex cis-platin, [Pt(NH 3 )2Cl 2] is anti-cancer.
15. (d) In [Fe(CN)6 ]4– complex ion, Fe 2+ has 3 d6 configuration. These 6 electrons get paired and magnetic
moment is zero. In [FeF6 ]3– complex ion, Fe 3+ has d5 configuration. All the electrons remain unpaired.
It is an outer orbital complex and hybridisation is sp 3d2.
Magnetic moment = n(n + 2 ) = 5(5 + 2 )
= 35 = 5.92 BM
 262 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

17. (b) Ti 4+ and Sc 3+ have d0 configuration whereas Zn 2+ has d10 configuration. These are colourless species.
Cr 3+ has d3 configuration. Due to d-d transitions, it is coloured.
18. (b) Read in optical isomerism of type [ M( AA )2 B 2] and [ M( AA )3 ]. Here AA is a symmetrical didentate
ligand such as ‘en’.
19. (d) Read in optical isomerism of type [ M( AA )3 ]. Here AA is symmetrical didentate ligand.
21. (c) In [Cr(CN)6 ]3– complex ion , Cr 3+ = d3 = t23g
In [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+ complex ion, Co 3+ = d6 = t26g (low spin)
3–
In [CoCl 6 ] complex ion , Co = d = t24g eg2
3+ 6
(high spin)
In [Cr(H 2O)6 ]3+ complex ion , Cr 3+ = d3 = t23g
Minimum CFSE is for [CoCl 6 ]3 that is t24g eg2
For t23g : CFSE = 3 ´ 0.4 = 1.2
For t26g : CFSE = 6 ´ 0.4 = 2.4
For t24g eg2 : CFSE = 4 ´ 0.4 - 2 ´ 0.6 = 0.4
22. (c) Fe atom has 3 d6 4 s 2 configuration. These 8 electrons get paired and occupy four d-orbitals. Two
d-orbitals remain vacant. Hybridisation on Fe atom is d2sp 3.
23. (c) The existence of two different coloured complexes is due to geometrical isomerism as cis and trans
forms are present.
26. (d) When the cation and anion both are complex ions, the coordination compound exhibit coordination
isomerism.
Thus, the given examples are of coordination isomerism.
27. (b) M( ABCD ) type complex have three geometrical isomers as
py NH3 py Br py NH3
Pt Pt Pt
Cl Br ; Cl NH3 ; Br Cl ;
28. (b)[Pt(en )2ClBr ]2+ can exit both as diastereoisomer and enatiomers.
Cl Cl Cl
Br Br
en Pt Pt en en Pt en
en en
cis Br
(+) (–) (+)

29. (d) Ambidentate ligand NO 2 and SCN will give two different isomers.
ON O NO2 NO2 ONO
SCN SCN NCS NCS
en Rh en Rh en Rh en Rh
en en en en
I II III IV
Co-ordination Compounds 263
I to IV each will have two isomers (d and l) each
NO2 ONO ONO

en Rh en en Rh en en Rh en

SCN SCN NCS

NO2

en Rh en total isomeric forms - 12

NCS
31. (b) Since, the complexes [PtCl 2(NH 3 )4 ] Br2 and [PtBr2(NH 3 )4 ] Cl 2 have the same molecular formula but on
ionisation they give different ions, they exhibit ionisation isomerism.
[PtCl 2(NH 3 )4 ]Br2 s [PtCl 2(NH 3 )4 ]2+ + 2Br -
[PtBr2(NH 3 )4 ]Cl 2 s [PtBr2(NH 3 )4 ]2+ + 2 Cl -
3+
32. (b)[Cr(C 2O 4 )3 ] shows optical isomerism because its mirror image is not superimposable.
33. (b) m = n(n + 2 )
or 2.82 = n(n + 2 )
or n =2
Thus, there are 2 unpaired electrons. Ni 2+ has 3 d8 configuration and 2 unpaired electrons. These
electrons remain unpaired due to the weak ligand (Cl – ).
Cl
Cl NH3
90°

Co
38. (b)

H3 N NH3
NH3
cis-isomer
39. (b) CFSE = ( -0.4 x + 0.6 y ) D o
where x = no. of electrons occupying t2g orbitals
y = no. of electrons occupying eg orbitals
= ( -0.4 ´ 3 + 0.6 ´ 1) D o (Q High spin d4 = t23g e1g )
= -0.6 D o
40. (c) [Cr(H 2O )4 Cl 2] Cl + AgNO 3 ¾® [Cr(H 2O )4 Cl 2] NO 3 + AgCl
ppt
One mole of the complex compound contains one mole of ionizable Cl-atom.
100 ´ 0.01
Mole of complex = = 10 -3
1000
So mole of AgCl = 0.001
41. (c) Cu 2+ = 3 d9
or m = n(n + 2 ) = 1(1 + 2 ) = 3 = 1.73 B.M.
42. (c) Coordination number = number of monodentate ligands.
 264 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

In [Pt(NH 3 )4 Cl 2]2+
Number of monodentate ligands = 4 NH 3 + 2 Cl - = 6
43. (d) Pyridine is a monodentate ligand. Pyridine coordinates with a metal only from site, i.e., the lone pair
on N.
Thus, it is monodentate ligand. While the other three are chelating ligands, i.e., these are attached to a
central metal ion by bonds from two or more donor atoms.
44. (a) Oxidation state of NH 3 = 0 and NO 2 = - 1.
So, [Co(NH 3 )3(NO 2 )3 ]
x + (0 )3 + ( -1) 3 = 0
Þ x -3 = 0 Þ x = +3
45. (c) The IUPAC name of Ni(CO) 4 is tetracarbonyl nickel (0).
46. (d) In [Ni(NH 3 )2Cl 2], Ni 2+ is in sp 3 hybridization, thus tetrahedral in shape. Hence the four ligands are not
different to exhibit optical isomerism.
\ Correct choice : (d)
47. (b) cis-platin, i.e., cis-[PtCl 2(NH 3 )2] is anticancer agent. It destroys cancer cells. So, used as antitumour
agent.
48. (c) Ni +2 ¾¾® 3d8 =

CN - is a strong ligand and causes pairing of 3d electrons of Ni 2+ .

\ It is diamagnetic.
49. (d) Co 2+ Þ [ Ar ] 4 s 0 3 d7 , Br - is a weak ligand.
50. (b) Let the oxidation state of Fe in Fe(CO )5 be x.
Fe(CO )5 (Q oxidation state of CO = 0)
x +0 ´5 = 0
Þ x =0
In metal carbonyls, oxidation state of metal is always zero.
51. (c) Let in [Ni(CO )4 ], oxidation state (charge) of Ni is x.
[Ni(CO )4 ]
Þ x + (0 ´ 4 ) = 0 (Q oxidation state of CO = 0)
\ x =0
In metal carbonyl, oxidation state of metal is always zero.
53. (b) H 2O is a weak ligand.
Hence, D o < P
CFSE = ( -0.4 x + 0.6 y ) D o
For [Fe(H 2O )6 ]3 + , Fe 3+ = t23g eg2 = - 0.4 ´ 3 + 0.6 ´ 2 = 0
( 3d 5 )
54. (c) Only those complex exhibit optical isomerism which have atleast one or more bidentate or
polydentate group ( s ) and absence of plane of symmetry (symmetry elements). Among the given
complex II, III and IV have bidentate ligand (en) but in case of (II) symmetry is present, so it does not
extibit optical isomerism
Co-ordination Compounds 265
Cl
en Co en

Cl
trans-[Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ] +
Thus, only cis - [Co(en )2Cl 2]+ and [Co(en )3 ]3+ can exhibit optical isomerism.
55. (b) It will form cis and trans-isomers. Its cis-isomer will show optical isomerism
Cl
en
en Co en Co en

Cl Cl Cl
Cis-isomer Trans-isomer

en en
en Co Co en
Cl
Cl Cl Enantiomer Cl
Dextro leavo
Although cis-isomer and dextro-isomer are same but these are aligned to different properties, that’s
why these are counted separately.
56. (a) Molar conductance is the conducting power of all the ions produced by dissolving 1 g-mole of an
electrolyte. Therefore, molar conductance µ number of ions produced.

Werner complex Modern-notation Ionisation

(a) CoCl 3 × 3NH 3 [Co(NH 3 )3 Cl 3 ] [Co(NH 3 )3 Cl 3 ] (No ionisation)
(b) CoCl 3 × 4NH 3 [Co(NH 3 )4 Cl 2]Cl [Co(NH 3 )4 Cl 2]+ + Cl - (3 ions)
(c) CoCl 3 × 5NH 3 [Co(NH 3 )5Cl]Cl 2 [Co(NH 3 )5Cl]2+ + 2 Cl - (3 ions)
(d) CoCl 3 × 6NH 3 [Co(NH 3 )6 ]Cl 3 [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+ + 3 Cl - (4 ions)

From the above table it is clear that, molar conductance of the complexes will be in the following
order
a < b< c < d
57. (b) Zn 2+ , Al 3+
(i) Zn(OH )2 + 2 NaOH ¾¾® Na[Zn(OH )4 ]2- + 2Na +
ZnCl 2 + 4NH 3 ¾¾® Zn(NH 3 )4 + Cl 2
Anhydrous Tetrammine zinc chloride

(ii) Al(OH )3 + NaOH ¾¾® [ Al(OH )4 ]-

Al 3+ + 3NH 3 ¾¾® Al(NH 3 )3
58. (a, b)
Coordination compound/ion having unpaired electron is paramagnetic in nature while if it has all the
electrons paired, it is diamagnetic.
(a) K 3[Fe(CN )6 ] i.e., [Fe(CN )6 ]3- ion
26 Fe = [ Ar ] 3 d6 , 4 s 2 Þ Fe 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d5, 4 s 0
266 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

3d 6 4s 0 4p 0
=
3–
[Fe(CN) 6 ] =

CN – CN – CN – CN – CN – CN –
(b) [Co(NH 3 )6 ] Cl 3 i.e., [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+ ion
27 Co = [ Ar ] 3 d7 , 4 s 2 Þ Co 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d6 , 4 s 0

3d 6 4s 0 4p 0
=
3+
[Co(NH 3 ) 6 ] =

NH 3 NH 3 NH 3 NH 3 NH 3 NH 3
(c) K 3[FeF6 ] i.e., FeF63- ion
26 Fe = [ Ar ] 3 d , 4 s Þ Fe 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d5, 4 s 0
6 2

3d
=
3–
[FeF 6 ] =

4s 0 4p 0 4d 0

F– F– F– F– F– F–
(d) K 3[CoF6 ] i.e., CoF63- ion
27 Co = [ Ar ] 3 d7 , 4 s 2 Þ Co 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d6 , 4 s 0
3d
=
4s 0 4p 0 4d 0

3–
[CoF 6 ] =

F– F– F– F– F– F–

Therefore, [K 3Fe(CN )6 ][Co(NH 3 )6 ] Cl 3 is diamagnetic in nature.

Co-ordination Compounds 267
59. (a) In both the complexes Ni is present as Ni 2+ .
Ni 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d8 , 4 s 0 , 4 p 0

CN - being strong field ligand pair up the unpaired electrons of Ni 2+ and hence 4 CN - ions will occupy
one 3d, one 4 s and two 4 p orbitals, i.e., hybridisation is dsp 2.
But Cl - is a weak field ligand and not capable to pair up the unpaird electrons of Ni 2+ . Hence, the
orbitals available for it are one 4 s and three 4 p i.e., hybridisation of the complex is sp 3.
60. (a,b)
(a) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]2+ in this ion, Co is present as Co 2+ × NH 3, being strong field ligand, pair up the
unpaired electrons. Electronic configuration of Co 2+ = 3 d7 , 4 s 0 , 4 p 0
3d 4s 4p

Electronic configuration of Co 2+ in [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+ =

3d 4s 4p

d2sp3 hybridisation
4d

1 unpaired electron
Due to the presence of one unpaired electron, [Co(NH 3 )6 ]+ is paramagnetic.
(b) [MnBr4 ]2- in this ion, Mn is present as Mn 2+ × Br, being weak field ligand, leave unpaired electrons
of the metal ion as such. Electronic configuration of
Mn 2+ = 3 d5, 4 s 0 , 4 p 0.
3d
2+ 5 0 0
Electronic configuration of Mn = 3d , 4s , 4 p =

Electronic configuration of Mn 2+ in [MnBr4 ]2- =

4s 4p

sp3 hybridisation
Due to sp 3 hybridisation, shape of [MnBr4 ]2- is tetrahedral.
(c) Linkage isomerism occurs when two or more atoms in a monodentate ligand may function as a
donor.
Therefore, [CoBr2(en )2]- does not exhibit linkage isomerism.
(d) [Ni(NH 3 )6 ]2+ in this ion, Ni is present as Ni 2+ . Electronic configuration of Ni 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d8 , 4 s 0
3d 4s
=
 268 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

NH 3 is a strong field ligand, but cannot pair up electrons as if it pair up electron then hybridisation
comes out to be dsp 3d which is not possible. Hence, here no pairing of e- takes places.
3d
Electronic configuration of Ni in [Ni(NH 3 )6 ]2+ =
4s 4p 4d

sp3d2 hybridisation
Since, (n -1)d, i.e., 3d orbital does not take part in hybridisation, it is not an inner orbital complex.
It is an outer orbital complex.
61. (b)[CoF6 ]3-
Here, Co is present in + 3 oxidation state
7 2 3+
27 Co = [ Ar ] 3 d , 4 s Þ Co = [ Ar ] 3 d6 , 4 s 0
4s

F being a weak ligand is unable to pair up its unpaired electrons thus, occupy 4 s, 4 p, and 4 d empty
orbitals as
3d
[CoF6 ]3- =

4s 4p 4d

sp3d2 hybridisation
Hence, number of unpaired electrons in complex ion is 4.
62. (a) The crystal field theory can explain the spectra i.e., colour, magnetic property and structure of
coordination compounds. However the position of intensities of spectral bands (or covalent character
of covalent bonds) cannot be explained on the basis of this theory.
63. (b) A mixture of triethyl aluminium, Et 3Al and titanium tetrachloride, TiCl 4 is called Zeigler-Natta catalyst
for the polymerisation of ethene.
64. (b) In Ni(CO) 4, nickel is present in 0 oxidation state. Here, the ligand is (CO) It is a strong ligand, so it can
pair the unpaired electrons. Hence, the 4 s electrons go to the 3d orbital and now this 3d-orbital is
completely filled, but 4 s and 4 p are still available, these four orbitals form a degenerate set of orbitals
and hybridisation is sp 3.
Ni = [ Ar ] 4 s 2, 3 d8

Ni =
COligandpullthe4 selectronto3 dorbital

sp3hybridisation
Co-ordination Compounds 269
CO

Ni
OC CO
CO
sp3 hybridisation
(tetrahedral)
65. (b)[Fe(CN )6 ]3-
Hexacyanidoferrate (III) ion
66. (c) [Ni(CN)4 ]2-
Oxidation state of Ni is +2
x -4 =2
x = +2
Ni 2+ ® [ Ar ] 3 d8 4 s 0

3d 4s 4p 4d
Due to presence of strong field ligand all unpaired electrons are paired up.
3d 4s 4p 4d

CN – CN – CN – CN –
Hybridisation of [Ni(CN)4 ]2- is dsp 2.
67. (c) [ M(en)2(C 2O 4 )]Cl
oxidation state of M = +3
Coordination number of M = 6
Sum of oxidation state + coordination number = 3 + 6 = 9
68. (a)
Cl
Cl

cis en Co optically active

en

Cl

trans en Co en optically active

Cl
[Co(en)2Cl 2]Cl
Possible isomers
(i) Geometrical isomers
(ii) In trans form plane of symmetry present, so trans form is optically inactive but cis is optically
active. Total number of stereoisomer = 2 + 1 = 3
 270 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

69. (c) Octahedral complex means it contains '6' coordinate bond. In CoCl 3 × 3NH 3 , ' Cl' cannot be outside
from coordination sphere.
70. (c) [Co(CN )6 ]3- : Oxidation number of Co = +3
Co 3+ ® 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 sp 6 3 d6 4 s 0 4 p 0

As CN - is strong field ligand so there is no unpaired electrons and will be low spin.
HF
71. (d) AlF3 + KF ¾ ¾ ¾® K 3[AlF6 ]
(maximum C.N. of Al 3+ is six so it form AlF63- )
72. (b) In [NiCl 4 ]2- , Ni is in+2 oxidation state.
3d 4s
Ni 2+ :[Ar ]3 d8 4 s 0
Cl - is a weak field ligand, thus pairing of electrons does not take place.
[NiCl 4 ]2-
3d 4s 4p

– – – –
Cl Cl Cl Cl
sp3 hybridisation
Unpaired electrons =2
In Ni(CO)4 , Ni is in zero oxidation state.
Ni : [Ar]3 d8 4 s 2
3d 4s

CO is strong field ligand and causes pairing of electron of 4s to 3d.

Ni(CO)4 :
3d 4s 4p

CO CO CO CO
sp3hybridisation
Unpaired electron=0
In [Cu(NH 3 )4 ]2+ , Cu is in +2 oxidation state.
Cu 2+ :[Ar] 3 d9 4 s 0
[Cu(NH 3 )4 ]2+ :
3d 4s 4p

NH3 NH3 NH3 NH3

sp3 hybridisation
Unpaired electron=1
73. (c) Let the oxidation state of metal ‘ M ’ be x.
For complex, [ M (en )2(C 2O 4 )]NO 2
x + 0 - 2 = +1
x = +3
Also, ethylenediamine and C 2O 2- 4 both are bidentate ligands. Thus, coordination number will be ‘6’.
74. (a) Square planar complex of type M AXBL will show two-cis and one-trans isomers.
Co-ordination Compounds 271
A B A X A X

M M M

L X L B B L
trans cis cis
These above three isomers are formed by fixing the position of one ligand, A.
75. (a) According to crystal field theory, the bonding in a complex is purely electrostatic or ionic.
76. (b)[Co(NH 3 )6 ]Cl 3 + 3AgNO 3 ¾¾® 3AgCl ¯ +[Co(NH 3 )6 ](NO 3 )3
[Co(NH 3 )5Cl]Cl 2 + 2AgNO 3 ¾¾® 2AgCl ¯ +[Co(NH 3 )5Cl](NO 3 )2
[Co(NH 3 )4 Cl 2]Cl + AgNO 3 ¾¾® AgCl ¯ +[Co(NH 3 )4 Cl 2]NO 3
77. (d) Increasing order of crystal field splitting energy is : H 2O < NH 3 < en
Thus, increasing order of energy for the given complexes is:
[Co(H 2O)6 ]3+ < [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+ < [Co(en )3 ]3+
hc
As, E =
l
Thus, increasing order of wavelength of absorption is:
[Co(en )3 ]3+ < [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+ < [Co(H 2O)6 ]3+
78. (b)[Mn(CN)6 ]3-
Let oxidation state of Mn be x.
x + 6 ´ ( -1) = -3
x = +3
Electronic configuration of Mn: [Ar] 4 s 23 d5
Electronic configuration of Mn 3+ : [Ar]3 d4
CN - is a strong field ligand thus, it causes pairing of electrons in 3d-orbital.
3d 4s 4p
[Mn(CN)6 ]3- :[Ar]
CN – CN – CN – CN – CN – CN –

d 2sp3 hybridisation
3- 2 3
Thus, [Mn(CN)6 ] has d sp hybridisation and has octahedral geometry.
79. (a) [CoCl 2( en )2], exhibit geometrical isomerism, as the coordination number of Co is 6 and this compound
has octahedral geometry.
Cl Cl
Cl
en Co en en Co

Cl en
trans-form cis-form
(optically inactive) (optically inactive)
80. (d) In CrO 2-
4 Cr +6(n = 0 ) diamagnetic
In Cr2O72- +6
Cr (n = 0 ) diamagnetic
In MnO -4 Mn +7 (n = 0 ) diamagnetic
In MnO 2-4 Mn +6(n = 1) paramagnetic
In MnO 2-4 , one unpaired electron (n ) is present in d-orbital so, d-d transition is possible.
 272 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

81. (b) Ni(28 ):[ Ar ] 3 d8 4 s 2

Q CO is a strong field ligand, so, unpaired electrons get paired.
sp3-hybridisation

In [Ni(CO )4 ]:

CO CO CO CO
Thus, the complex is sp 3 hybridised with tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic in nature.
CO

Ni
OC CO
CO
82. (b) Based on the number of metal atoms present in a complex, they are classified as :
e. g. , : Fe(CO )5 : mononuclear
Co 2(CO )8 : dinuclear
Fe 3(CO )12 : trinuclear
83. (c) In K 4[Fe(CN)6 ] complex, Fe is in +2 oxidation state.
3d 4s
Fe 2+ :
h

As CN - is a strong field ligand, it causes pairing of electrons therefore, electronic configuration of Fe 2+

in K 4[Fe(CN)6 ] is t 26g eg0 .
Metallurgy 273

5
METALLURGY

Level 1
: General Principles Involved in Metallurgy
1. Highly electropositive metal(s) can not be commercially extracted by carbon reduction process
at high temperature because these :
(a) matals combine with carbon to form covalent carbide
(b) metals combine with carbon to form ionic carbide
(c) DG f of highly electropositive metal oxide is having low negative value
(d) metal oxides are not reduced by carbon
2. Consider the following reactions at 1000ºC.
D
(I) Zn(s) + 1 2 O 2(g) ¾¾ ® ZnO(g); DGº = -360 kJ mol -1
D
(II) C(s) + 1 2 O 2(g) ¾® CO(g); DGº = -460 kJ mol -1
and choose the correct statement at 1000ºC.
(a) ZnO is more stable than CO (b) ZnO can be reduced to Zn by C
(c) ZnO and CO are formed at equal rate (d) ZnO can not be reduced to Zn by C
3. Which of the following pair of ores cannot be converted into corresponding metals by
pyrometallurgy ?
(a) Ag 2S,ZnS (b) Cu 2S,HgS
(c) MnO 2 ,SnO 2 (d) None of these
4. Ellingham diagram represents:
(a) change of DG with temperature (b) change of DH with temperature
(c) change of DG with pressure (d) change of ( DG - TDS) with temperature
5. The process of the isolation of a metal by dissolving the ore in a suitable chemical reagent
followed by precipitation of the metal by a more electropositive metal is called:
(a) hydrometallurgy (b) electrometallurgy
(c) zone refining (d) electrorefining
 274 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

6. The process of the isolation of a metal by dissolving the ore in a suitable chemical reagent
followed by precipitation of the metal by a more electropositive metal is called :
(a) hydrometallurgy (b) electrometallurgy
(c) zone refining (d) electrorefining
7. In the alumino-thermite process, Al acts as :
(a) an oxidising agent (b) a flux
(c) solder (d) a reducing agent
8. Which of the following reaction forms the basis of Goldschmidt alumino-thermite process?
(a) 2Al+ N 2 ® 2AlN (b) 2Al+ 3Cl 2 ® 2AlCl 3
(c) 2Al+ 6HCl ® 2AlCl 3 + 3H 2 (d) 2Al+ Fe 2O 3 ® Al 2O 3 + 2Fe
9. The extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by :
(a) electrolytic reduction
(b) roasting followed by reduction with carbon
(c) roasting followed by reduction with another metal
(d) roasting followed by self-reduction
10. Thermite is a mixture of :
(a) Fe powder and Al 2O 3 (b) Al powder and Fe 2O 3
(c) Cu powder and Fe 2O 3 (d) Zn powder and Cr 2O 3
11. If a metal has low oxygen affinity then the purification of metal may be carried out by:
(a) liquation (b) distillation (c) zone refining (d) cupellation
12. Neutral refractory material used in furnaces is :
(a) Graphite (b) CaO (c) SiO 2 (d) MgO
13. Which of the following pair of ores can not be converted into corresponding metals by
pyrometallurgy ?
(a) Ag 2S, ZnS (b) Cu 2S, HgS
(c) MnO 2 , SnO 2 (d) None
14. XCl 2 (excess) + YCl 2 ¾® XCl 4 + Y ¯;
D 1
YO ¾¾® O 2 + Y , Ore of Y would be :
>400 ° 2
(a) Siderite (b) Cinnabar
(c) Malachite (d) Hornsilver
15. A sulphide ore is first converted into its oxide before reduction. This is done because :
(a) a sulphide ore cannot be reduced to metal at all
(b) no reducing agent is found suitable for reducing a sulphide ore
(c) the enthalpy of formation of CO 2 is more than that of CS 2
(d) a metal oxide is generally less stable than the metal sulphide
16. Choose the correct code regarding Roasting process.
(I) It is the process of heating ore in air to obtain the oxide
(II) It is an exothermic process
(III) It is used for hydrated oxide and oxysalt ore
(IV) It is used after the concentration of ore
Metallurgy 275
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
17. Carbon cannot be used in the reduction of Al 2O 3 because :
(a) it is non-metal
(b) the heat of formation of CO 2 is more than that of Al 2O 3
(c) pure carbon is not easily available
(d) the heat of formation of Al 2O 3 is too high
18. On heating quick lime with coke in an electric furnace, we get :
(a) Ca and CO 2 (b) CaCO 3
(c) CaO (d) CaC 2
19. Boron can be obtained by various methods but not by :
(a) thermal decomposition of B 2H 6 (b) pyrolysis of BI 3 (van Arkel)
(c) reducing BCl 3 with H 2 (d) electrolysis of fused BCl 3
20. Select correct statement :
(a) The decomposition of an oxide into oxygen and metal vapour entropy increases.
(b) Decomposition of an oxide is an endothermic change.
(c) To make DG° negative, temperature should be high enough so that T DS° > DH °.
(d) All are correct statements.
21. The oxide of a metal ( R ) can be reduced by the metal ( P ) and metal ( R ) can reduce the oxide of
metal (Q ). Then the decreasing order of the reactivity of metal ( P ),(Q ) and ( R ) with oxygen is:
(a) P > Q > R (b) P > R > Q
(c) R > P > Q (d) Q > P > R
22. Consider the following metallurgical processes :
(I) Heating impure metal with CO and distilling the resulting volatile carbonyl (b.p. 43°C)
and finally decomposition at 150°–200°C to get the pure metal
(II) Heating the sulphide ore in air until a part is converted to oxide and then further heating
in the absence of air to let the oxide react with unchanged metal sulphide
(III)Electrolysis of the molten electrolyte containing approximately equal amounts of the
metal chloride and NaCl to obtained the metal
The processes used for obtaining magnesium, nickel and copper are respectively :
(a) (I), (II) and (III) (b) (II), (III) and (I)
(c) (III), (I) and (II) (d) (II), (I) and (III)
23. When alumina is heated with carbon in nitrogen atmosphere, the products are :
(a) Al + CO (b) Al + CO 2
(c) Al + CO + CO 2 (d) AlN + CO
24. MgO is used as a refractory material because :
(a) It has high melting point
(b) It is a good conductor of heat
(c) It is a good electrical insulator
(d) All of these
 276 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

25. The Elingham diagram for Zn, Mg and C converting into corresponding oxides is shown below:

–200
–400
O C + O2®CO­
®2Zn
–600 2Zn+O 2
DG°
O
–800 Mg
®2
O2
g+
–1000 2M

0
500 1000 1500 2000
T
at 1100ºC, which reaction is spontaneous to a maximum extent ?
(a) MgO + C ¾® Mg + CO (b) ZnO + C ¾® Zn + CO
(c) MgO + Zn ¾® Mg + ZnO (d) ZnO + Mg ¾® MgO + Zn

: Ores and their Concentration

26. Which of the following set of elements mostly occur as sulphide ores ?
(a) Zn, Cu, Na (b) Zn, Cu, Pb
(c) Fe, Al, Ti (d) Cu, Ag, Au
27. Which one contains both Ca and Mg?
(a) Limestone (b) Dolomite (c) Chalk (d) Feldspar
28. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Column-I (Metals) Column-II (Ores)
(A) Tin (1) Calamine
(B) Zinc (2) Cassiterite
(C) Titanium (3) Cerrusite
(D) Lead (4) Rutile
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
29. Which of the following is not an ore of magnesium?
(a) Carnallite (b) Magnesite
(c) Dolomite (d) Gypsum
30. Which one of the following is not an ore of aluminium?
(a) Bauxite (b) Corundum
(c) Epsomite (d) Cryolite
31. Cinnabar is the ore of :
(a) Zn (b) Cd (c) Hg (d) Ag
32. Which of the following minerals does not contain iron?
(a) Magnetite (b) Magnesite
(c) Haematite (d) Limonite
Metallurgy 277
33. Which one of the following types of metals is expected to occur in the native state?
(a) The alkali metals (b) The alkaline earth metals
(c) The noble metals (d) The rare earth metals
34. Which one of the following elements is most abundant in earth crust?
(a) Aluminium (b) Silicon (c) Carbon (d) Oxygen
35. The two most abundant metals in the earth crust are :
(a) Al, Zn (b) Ag, Au (c) Fe, Cu (d) Fe, Al
36. A mineral is usually associated with a large amount of unwanted material called :
(a) Gangue (b) Flux (c) Slag (d) Ore
37. The metal which mainly occurs as oxide ore in nature is :
(a) Silver (b) Lead
(c) Aluminium (d) Copper
38. Three most occurring elements into the earth crust are :
(a) O, Si, Al (b) Si, O, Fe (c) Fe, Ca, Al (d) Si, O, N
39. Froth floatation process for the concentration of sulphide ores is an illustration of the practical
application of:
(a) adsorption (b) absorption
(c) sedimentation (d) coagulation
40. Froth floatation process is used for the concentration of the ore of :
(a) Fe (b) Al (c) Cr (d) Cu
41. Haematite ore is concentrated by :
(a) gravity separation method (b) froth floatation process
(c) amalgamation (d) hand picking
42. Electromagnetic separation is used in the concentration of :
(a) Copper pyrite (b) Bauxite (c) Cassiterite (d) Cinnabar
43. Which one of the following is not a method of concentration of ore?
(a) Electromagnetic separation (b) Smelting
(c) Gravity separation (d) Froth floatation process
44. Chemical leaching is useful in the concentration of :
(a) Copper pyrite (b) Bauxite (c) Cassiterite (d) Galena
45. The ore which is concentrated wetting by oil is :
(a) oxide ore (b) sulphate ore
(c) carbonate ore (d) sulphide ore
46. Rutile is separated from chlorapatite by :
(a) Froth floatation method (b) Levigation
(c) Magnetic separation method (d) Electrostatic separation method
47. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by reduction of Cu 2O
with:
(a) FeS (b) CO (c) Cu 2S (d) SO 2
48. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched?
(a) van Arkel method — Zirconium (b) Kroll’s process — Titanium
(c) Froth Floatation — Cerussite (d) Distillation — Zinc
49. Most abundant metal in earth crust is:
(a) Al (b) O (c) Fe (d) Si
 278 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

50. Among the following statements, the incorrect statement is :

(a) calamine and cerrusite are carbonate ores.
(b) rutile and cuprite are oxide ores.
(c) zinc blende and pyrites are sulphide ores.
(d) malachite and azurite are sulphate ores of Cu.
51. Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and
F if it is false.
(i) Every mineral is an ore but every ore is not a mineral.
(ii) Slag is product formed during extraction of metal by combination of flux and impurities.
(iii) Highly pure metals can be obtained by zone refining.
(iv) Carnallite is an ore of magnesium and sodium.
(a) TTTF (b) FTTF (c) FTTT (d) TFTF
52. Find the incorrectly matched pair?
Column-I (ores) Column-II (metals)
(a) Sylvine (1) Potassium
(b) Malachite (2) Magnesium
(c) Cinnabar (3) Mercury
(d) Fluorite (Flourspar) (4) Calcium
53. Froth floatation process used for the concentration of sulphide ore :
(a) is based on the difference in wettability of different minerals.
(b) uses sodium ethyl xanthate, C 2H 5OCS 2Na as collector.
(c) uses NaCN as depressant in the mixture of ZnS and PbS when ZnS forms soluble complex
and PbS forms froth.
(d) All are correct statements.
54. When ZnS and PbS minerals are present together, then NaCN is added to separate them in the
froth floatation process as a depressant, because :
(a) Pb(CN) 2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
(b) ZnS forms soluble complex Na 2[Zn(CN) 4 ]
(c) PbS forms soluble complex Na 2[Pb(CN) 4 ]
(d) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN
55. Leaching of Ag 2S is carried out by heating it with a dilute solution of :
(a) NaCN only (b) HCl
(c) NaOH (d) NaCN in presence of O 2
56. Leaching is commercially carried out for in the concentration of :
(a) Galena (b) Argentite
(c) Copper pyrites (d) Tin stone
57. NaCN is sometimes added in the forth flotation process as depressant when ZnS and PbS
minerals are expected because :
(a) Pb(CN) 2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
(b) ZnS forms soluble complex Na 2[Zn(CN) 4 ] while PbS forms froth
Metallurgy 279
(c) PbS forms soluble complex Na 2[Pb(CN) 4 ] while ZnS forms froth
(d) NaCN is never added in froth floatation process
58. Which of the following substance acts as collector in froth floatation method ?
(a) Sodium xenate (b) Sodium pyrophosphate
(c) Sodium nitroprusside (d) Sodium ethyl xanthate
59. Which one of the following is not a method of concentration of ore?
(a) Smelting (b) Electromagnetic separation
(c) Gravity separation (d) Froth floatation process
60. The incorrect statement is :
(a) Calamine and siderite are carbonate ores.
(b) Argentite and cuprite are oxide ores.
(c) Zinc blende and iron pyrites are sulphide ores.
(d) Malachite and azurite are carbonate ores of copper.
61. During concentration of Tin stone separation of wulframates of Fe II and Mn II is based on the
fact :
(a) SnO 2 is paramagnetic (b) SnO 2 is diamagnetic
(c) FeWO 4 and MnWO 4 are paramagnetic (d) Both (b) and (c)
62. In the presence of PbS and ZnS in a mineral, the froth floatation process requires NaCN
because :
(a) ZnS goes into soluble layer of complex [Zn(CN) 4 ]2-
(b) Zn(CN) 2 is precipitated
(c) PbS forms soluble layer of complex Na 2[Pb(CN) 4 ]
(d) ZnS form insoluble layer of complex [Zn(CN) 4 ]2-

: Extraction of Metals
63. Consider the following reactions :
D
2 XS + 3O 2 ¾® 2 XO + 2SO 2
D
2 XO + XS ¾® 3‘ X ’ + SO 2
Then ‘X’ can not be :
(a) Hg (b) Pb (c) Zn (d) None
64. In the alumino-thermite process, Al metal acts as :
(a) oxidising agent (b) reducing agent
(c) catalyst (d) flux
65. Extraction of aluminium from bauxite ore, reduction is carried out by:
(a) carbon (b) magnesium
(c) electrolysis (d) hydrogen
66. Chromium is obtained by reducing concentrated chromite ore with:
(a) red hot coke (b) gaseous hydrogen
(c) aluminium powder (d) carbon monoxide
 280 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

67. The element which is recovered from electrolytic process is:

(a) iron (b) lead
(c) aluminium (d) zinc
68. Magnesium is manufactured by electrolysing fused magnesium chloride using:
(a) a nickel cathode and a graphite anode
(b) the iron container as anode and a nickel cathode
(c) the iron container as cathode and a graphite anode
(d) the nickel container as cathode and iron anode
69. Copper is extracted from sulphide ore using the method :
(a) carbon reduction (b) carbon monoxide reduction
(c) auto reduction (d) none of these
70. In the extraction of copper, metal is formed in the Bassemer converter due to reaction :
(a) Cu 2S+ 2Cu 2O ® 6Cu+ SO 2 (b) Cu 2S ® 2Cu+ S
(c) Fe + Cu 2O ® 2Cu+ FeO (d) 2Cu 2O ® 4Cu+ O 2
71. Silica is added to roasted copper ore during extraction in order to remove :
(a) cuprous sulphide (b) ferrous oxide (c) ferrous sulphide (d) cuprous oxide
72. Calcium is extracted by the electrolysis of :
(a) Fused mixture of CaCl 2 and CaF2 (b) CaCl 2 fused salt solution
(c) Used mixture of CaCl 2 and NaF (d) Ca 2(PO 4 ) 2 fused salt solution
73. Lead is mainly extracted by:
(a) Carbon reduction method
(b) Self-reduction method
(c) Electrolytic reduction
(d) Leaching with aqueous solution of NaCN followed by reduction
74. In which of the following metallurgy, no reducing agent is required from out side?
(a) Mercury from cinnabar (b) Zinc from zinc blende
(c) Iron from haematite (d) Aluminium from Bauxite
75. Aluminium is used as a reducing agent in the reduction of :
(a) Cr 2O 3 (b) SnO 2
(c) ZnO (d) HgO
76. Bessemerisation is carried out for:
(a) Fe, Cu (b) Cu, Al
(c) Al, Ag (d) Fe, Al
77. Silver can be separated from lead by :
(a) fractional crystallisation (b) amalgamation
(c) cupellation (d) addition of zinc (Parke’s method)
78. A solution of Na 2SO 4 in water is electrolysed by using inert electrodes. The products obtained
at cathode and anode are respectively:
(a) O 2 ; H 2 (b) O 2 ; Na (c) H 2 ; O 2 (d) O 2 ; SO 2
79. The metal X is prepared by the electrolysis of fused chloride. It reacts with hydrogen to form a
colourless solid from which hydrogen gas is released on treatment with water. The metal is :
(a) Al (b) Ca (c) Cu (d) Zn
Metallurgy 281
80. The function of fluorspar in the electrolytic reduction of alumina dissolved in fused cryolite
(Na 3 AlF6 ) is :
(a) as a catalyst
(b) to lower the temperature of the melt and to make the fused mixture very conducting
(c) to decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the anode
(d) none of the above
81. In the extraction of copper from copper pyrites, iron is removed as :
(a) FeSO 4 (b) FeSiO 3
(c) Fe 3O 4 (d) Fe 2O 3
82. The material mixed before ore is subjected for smelting in the extraction of iron are :
(a) coke and silica (b) coke and limestone
(c) limestone and silica (d) coke, limestone and silica
83. The maximum temperature 1550°C is obtained in the ……… region of the blast furnace used
in the extraction of iron.
(a) reduction (b) fusion
(c) combustion (d) slag formation
84. The iron obtained from the blast furnace is called :
(a) pig iron (b) cast iron
(c) wrought iron (d) steel
85. Which metal can not obtained by electrolysis of their aqueous salt solution?
(a) Silver (b) Magnesium
(c) Copper (d) Platinum
86. In which of the following pair of metals, both are commercially extracted from their respective
ores by carbon reduction method?
(a) Zn, Cu (b) Fe, Cu
(c) Sn, Zn (d) Al, Ag
87. Formation of metallic copper from the sulphide ore in the commercial metallurgical process
involves.
3
(a) Cu 2S+ O 2 ¾® Cu 2O + SO 2 ; Cu 2O + C ¾® 2 Cu+ CO
2
3
(b) Cu 2S+ O 2 ¾® Cu 2O + SO 2 ; 2Cu 2O + Cu 2S ¾® 6Cu+ SO 2
2
(c) Cu 2S+ 2O 2 ¾® CuSO 4 ; CuSO 4 + Cu 2S ¾® 3Cu+ 2SO 2
3
(d) Cu 2S+ O 2 ¾® Cu 2O + SO 2 ; Cu 2O + CO ¾® 2Cu+ CO 2
2
88. There are following extraction process of silver but not :
(a) as a side product in electrolytic refining of copper
(b) Parke’s process in which Zn is used to extract silver by solvent extraction from molten lead
(c) by reaction of silver sulphide with KCN and then reaction of soluble complex with Zn
(d) by heating Na[Ag(CN) 2 ]
 282 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

89. In the extraction of aluminium

Process X : applied for red bauxite to remove iron oxide (chief impurity)
Process Y : (Serpeck’s process) : applied for white bauxite to remove Z (chief impurity) then,
process X and impurity Z are :
(a) X = Hall and Heroult’s process and Y = SiO 2
(b) X = Baeyer’s process and Y = SiO 2
(c) X = Serpeck’s process and Y = iron oxide
(d) X = Baeyer’s process and Y = iron oxide
90. Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and
F if it is false.
(i) In Gold schmidt thermite process aluminium acts as a reducing agent.
(ii) Mg is extracted by electrolysis of aq. solution of MgCl 2
(iii) Extraction of Pb is possible by carbon reduction method
(iv) Red Bauxite is purified by Serpeck’s process
(a) TTTF (b) TFFT
(c) FTTT (d) TFTF
91. FeCr 2O 4 (chromite) is converted to Cr by following steps :
I II III
Chromite ¾® NaCrO 4 ¾® Cr 2O 3 ¾® Cr
Reagents in I, II and III step might be :
I-Step II-Step III-Step
(a) Na 2CO 3 /air, D C C
(b) NaOH/air, D C, D Al, D
(c) Na 2CO 3 /air, D C, D C, D
(d) conc. H 2SO 4 , D NH 4 Cl, D C, D
92. The electrolysis of pure alumina is not feasible because :
(a) it is bad conductor of electricity and its fusion temperature is high
(b) it is volatile in nature
(c) it is decomposed when fused
(d) it is amphoteric
93. Which of the following reaction does not occur in Bessemer’s converter?
(a) 2Cu 2S+ 5O 2 ¾® 2CuSO 4 + 2CuO
(b) 2Cu 2S+ 3O 2 ¾® 2Cu 2O + 2SO 2 ­
(c) 2CuFeS 2 + O 2 ¾® Cu 2S+ 2FeS+ SO 2
(d) FeO + SiO 2 ¾® FeSiO 3
94. What products are formed during, the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl?
(I) Cl 2( g) (II) NaOH( aq) (III) H 2( g)
(a) I only (b) I and II only
(c) I and III only (d) I, II and III
95. During the electrolysis of carnallite, MgCl 2 is decomposed and not KCl. This is because of :
(a) lower decomposition voltage of MgCl 2 than that of KCl
Metallurgy 283
(b) reverse reaction MgCl 2 + 2K ¾® Mg + 2KCl if KCl is decomposed under other
experimental condition
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
96. The reduction of an oxide by aluminium is called :
(a) Beeyer's process
(b) Goldschmidt's aluminothermite process
(c) Hall's process
(d) van Arkel process
97. Incorrect statement in electrolysis of Al 2O 3 by Hall-Heroult process is :
(a) Cryolite Na 3[AlF5 ] lowers the m.pt. of Al 2O 3 and increases its electrical conductivity
(b) Al is obtained at cathode and CO 2 at anode
(c) Li 2CO 3 can be used in place of cryolite (Na 3 AlF6 )
(d) MgF2 can be used in place of flourspare (CaF2 )
98. In poling, hydrocarbon released from green wood pole does not react with which of the
following metal oxide ?
(a) SnO 2 (b) FeO
(c) Cu 2O (d) PbO
99. Which of the following flux is used to remove acidic impurities in metallurgical process ?
(a) Silica (b) Lime stone
(c) Borax (d) Sodium carbonate
100. Which of the following ores are correctly matched against reduction method ?
(a) Self reduction : Cu 2S, ZnS
(b) Electrolytic reduction : Al 2O 3 , Fe 2O 3
(c) Goldschmidt alumino thermite : MgCl 2 , Cr 2O 3
(d) Carbon reduction : SnO 2 , Fe 2O 3
101. In order to refine blister copper it is melted in a furnace and it is stirred with green logs of
wood. The purpose is :
(a) To expel the dissolved gases present in blister copper.
(b) To reduce the metallic oxide impurities with hydrocarbon gases liberated from green log of
wood
(c) to bring the impurities to surface and oxidise then
(d) to increase the carbon content in copper.
102. Which one the following reaction occurs during smelting in blast furnace at lowest
temperature in the extraction of iron ?
(a) CaO + SiO 2 ¾® CaSiO 3 (b) Fe 2O 3 + 3C ¾® 2Fe + 3CO
(c) 3Fe 2O 3 + CO ¾® 2Fe 3O 4 + CO 2 (d) CO 2 + C ¾® 2CO

: Refining of Metals
103. Impure aluminium is purified by :
(a) Baeyer’s process (b) Hall’s process
(c) Hoop’s process (d) Serpeck’s process
 284 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

104. Which is not correctly matched?

(a) Spiegleisan : Mn + Fe + C
(b) Dow’s sea water process : Ca(OH) 2
(c) Parke’s process : Ag
(d) Liquation : spelter (Impure Zn)
105. Incorrect match is :
(a) Purification of Al metal : Baeyer’s method
(b) Polling : Reduction of Cu 2O
(c) FeCr 2O 4 (chromite ore) : NaOH/Na 2CO 3
(d) Ag : Mac Arthur cyanide process
106. Refining of tin cannot be done by:
(a) cupellation (b) liquation
(c) poling (d) electrorefining
107. Which method is not correct given for refining of crude metals?
(a) Distillation : zinc and mercury
(b) Liquation : tin and lead
(c) van Arkel : Zirconium and titanium
(d) Mond process : lead and mercury
108. Aluminium metal is purified by :
(a) Hoope’s process (b) Hall’s process
(c) Serpeck’s process (d) Baeyer’s process
109. High purity copper metal is obtained by :
(a) carbon reduction (b) hydrogen reduction
(c) electrolytic reduction (d) thermite reduction
110. Poling process is used for:
(a) The removal of Cu 2O from Cu (b) The removal of Al 2O 3 from Al
(c) The removal of Fe 2O 3 from Fe (d) All of these
111. In zone refining method, the molten zone :
(a) consists of impurities only
(b) contains more impurity than the original metal
(c) contains the purified metal only
(d) moves to either side
112. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
(a) Copper — Oxidative refining (b) Nickel — Kroll's process
(c) Mercury — Distillation (d) Lead — van Arkel method
113. Formation of Ni(CO) 4 and subsequent its decomposition into Ni and CO makes basis of
Mond’s process ;
T1 T2
Ni+ 4CO ¾® Ni(CO) 4 ¾® Ni+ 4CO, T1 and T 2 are :
(a) 100°C, 50°C (b) 50°C, 100°C
(c) 50°C, 230°C (d) 230°C, 50°C
Metallurgy 285
114. In the electrolytic refining of copper, Ag and Au are found :
(a) on anode (b) in electrolyte solution
(c) in anode mud (d) in cathode mud
115. Electrolyte solution in electrolytic refining of lead contains :
(a) H 2SiF6 only (b) PbSiF6 only
(c) H 2SiF6 in presence of gelatin (d) H 2SiF6 and PbSiF6 in presence of gelatin
116. Blister copper is :
(a) pure copper (b) ore of copper
(c) alloy of copper (d) impure copper
117. Percentage of silver in the alloy german silver is :
(a) 2.5% (b) 1.5%
(c) 10% (d) 0%
118. AgCl on fusion with sodium carbonate, gives :
(a) Ag 2CO 3 (b) Ag 2O
(c) Ag (d) Ag 2C 2
119. An alloy which does not contain copper is :
(a) bronze (b) magnalium
(c) brass (d) bell metal
120. Stainless steel contains iron and :
(a) Zn (b) Cu
(c) Al (d) Cr
121. Axles are made by heating rods of iron embedded in charcoal powder. The process is known
as :
(a) tempering (b) annealing
(c) nitriding (d) case hardening
122. Nitriding is a process of heating steel in atmosphere of :
(a) ammonia (b) oxygen
(c) carbon dioxide (d) air
123. Bassemer converter is used in the refining of :
(a) pig iron (b) steel
(c) wrought iron (d) cast iron
124. Which of the following elements constitutes a major impurity in pig iron?
(a) Carbon (b) Oxygen
(c) Sulphur (d) Silicon
125. In the leaching of Ag 2S with NaCN, a stream of air is also passed. It is because of :
(a) reversible nature of reaction between Ag 2S and NaCN
(b) to oxide Na 2S formed into Na 2SO 4 and sulphur
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
126. In van Arkel method, if I 2 is introduced at 1700 K over impure metal, the product will be :
(a) iodide of the metal
(b) no reaction takes place
 286 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(c) impurities react with iodine

(d) none of these
127. The method of zone refining of metals is based on the principle of :
(a) Greater mobility of the pure metal than that of impurity
(b) Higher melting point of the impurity than that of the pure metal
(c) Greater noble character of the solid metal than that of the impurity
(d) Greater solubility of the impurity in the molten state than in the solid
128. Blister copper is refined by stirring molten impure metal with green logs of wood because such
a wood liberates hydrocarbon gases (like CH 4 ). This process X is called ……… and the metal
contains impurities of Y is ………
(a) X = cupellation, Y = CuO 2
(b) X = polling, Y = Cu 2O
(c) X = polling, Y = CuO
(d) X = cupellation, Y = CuO
129. The anode mud in the electrolytic refining of silver contains :
(a) Zn, Cu, Ag, Au (b) Zn, Ag, Au
(c) Cu, Ag, Au (d) Au only
130. The method of electrolytic refining is not suitable in the extraction of :
(a) Aluminium (b) Copper
(c) Mercury (d) Silver
131. Match Column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(P) Nitriding (I) Process of heating steel to redness and
then cooling it very slowly
(Q) Annealing (II) Process of heating steel in presence of
NH 3 and producing hard coating of Iron
Nitride on the surface of steel
(R) Tempering (III) Process of heating steel to redness and
then cooling it suddenly by plunging it
into water or oil
(S) Quenching (IV) Process of heating quenched steel to a
temperature well below redness and
then cooling it slowly

P Q R S P Q R S
(a) II I III IV (b) II I IV III
(c) I II IV III (d) I II III IV
132. ‘Softening of lead’ means :
(a) conversion of lead to PbO
(b) conversion of lead to Pb 3O 4
Metallurgy 287
(c) removal of impurities (metallic) from lead
(d) washing lead with HNO 3 followed by alkali solution
133. In the purification of impure nickel by Mond's process, metal is purified by :
(a) Electrolytic reduction
(b) Vapour phase thermal decomposition
(c) Thermite reduction
(d) Carbon reduction
134. Correct match is :
(a) Bayer's method — Na 2CO 3
(b) Matte — 98% Cu 2S + 2% FeS
(c) van Arkel method — AgI
(d) Thomas slag — Raw material for cement industry
135. Van Arkel method of purification of metals involves converting the metal to a :
(a) volatile stable compound (b) volatile thermally unstable compound
(c) non-volatile stable compound (d) none of the above
136. Select the correct match :
Column-I (Method of conc.) Column-II (Ores)
X Magnetic separation (A) Ag 2S
Y Froth flotation method (B) FeCr 2O 4
Z Leaching (C) Al 2O 3 × 2H 2O
X Y Z X Y Z
(a) (A) (B) (C) (b) (B) (A) (C)
(b) (C) (A) (B) (d) (B) (C) (A)
137. Which of the given metal is obtained as anode mud during electrolytic refining of impure
copper ?
(a) Zn (b) Ag (c) Cr (d) Ni

: Miscellaneous
138. Which of the given metallurgical operation is not correctly matched with physical
phenomenon ?
Metallurgical operation Physical phenomenon
(a) Froth floatation method Adsorption
(b) Levigation Density difference
(c) Liquation Boiling point
(d) Zone refining Fractional crystallisation
139. The process of dissolution of metalic ore into a suitable chemical reagent followed by
precipitation of the metal by more electropositive metal is called :
(a) Hydrometallurgy (b) Electrometallurgy
(c) Zone refining (d) Electro-refining
 288 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 2
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
The questions given below consist of “Assertion” and their “Reason”. Use the following key to
choose the appropriate answer.
(A) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, and reason is the CORRECT explanation of
the assertion
(B) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, but reason is NOT the CORRECT explanation
of the assertion
(C) If assertion is CORRECT but reason is INCORRECT
(D) If assertion is INCORRECT but reason is CORRECT
1. Assertion : PbSiF6 + H 2SiF6 + gelatine is taken as electrolyte in electrolytic refining of
lead.
Reason : Discharge potential of Pb 2+ is less than H + .
2. Assertion : Nitriding is the process of heating steel in presence of N 2 to form iron nitrides.
Reason : The surface of steel becomes hard after nitriding process.
3. Assertion : Ores are generally converted into oxides, prior to reduction.
Reason : Metal oxides can be easily reduced.
4. Assertion : In the extraction of Ag, complex Na[Ag(CN) 2 ] is reacted with Zn.
Reason : Zn is d-block transition metal.
5. Assertion : Thermite mixture Fe 2O 3 + Al (powder) is used in the welding.
Reason : Al is a good reductant.
6. Assertion : In froth floatation process sodium ethyl xanthate is used as collector.
Reason : Sulphide ores are water soluble.
7. Assertion : Cryolite is used in electrolytic extraction of Al from alumina.
Reason : It dissolves alumina.
8. Assertion : CuFeS 2 is concentrated by froth floatation method.
Reason : CuFeS 2 is main ore of copper.
9. Assertion : In the electrolytic reduction of Al 2O 3 , cryolite is used.
Reason : Cryolite is an ore of aluminium.
10. Assertion : Wrought iron is more malleable and ductile than steel.
Reason : It contains slightly less percentage of carbon.
11. Assertion : Lead, tin and bismuth are purified by liquation method.
Reason : Lead, tin and bismuth have low m.p. as compared to impurities.
12. Assertion : Al 2O 3 is converted into Al by reduction with carbon at high temp.
Reason : Carbon has greater affinity for oxygen than aluminium.
Metallurgy 289
13. Assertion : Reduction of ZnO with carbon is done at 1100°C.
Reason : DG° is negative at this temperature thus, process is spontaneous.
14. Assertion : Desilverisation of lead is done by Parke’s method.
Reason : When lead-silver alloy is poor in silver, zinc is added to molten ore.
15. Assertion : All the ores are mineral.
Reason : Ores contains metals in combined state.
16. Assertion : Extraction of iron metal from iron oxide ore is carried out by heating with coke.
Reason : The reaction,
3
Fe 2O 3( s) ¾® Fe( s) + O 2( g)
2
is a spontaneous process. (AIIMS 2005)

Level 3
1. Among the following groups of oxides, the group containing oxides that cannot be reduced by
carbon to give the respective metal is : (AFMC 2000)
(a) Cu 2O, SnO 2 (b) Fe 2O 3 , ZnO
(c) CaO, K 2O (d) PbO, Fe 3O 4
2. Which of the following processes involves the smelting process ? (AFMC 2001)
(a) ZnCO 3 ¾® ZnO + CO 2 (b) Fe 2O 3 + 3C ¾® 2Fe + 3CO
(c) 2PbS+ 3O 2 ¾® 2PbO + 2SO 2 (d) Al 2O 3 × 2H 2O ¾® Al 2O 3 + 2H 2O
3. The flux used in the extraction of iron from haematite is : (CPMT 2002)
(a) SiO 2 (b) limestone
(c) coke (d) calcium phosphate
4. Which of the following is true ? (BHU 2003)
(a) A mineral cannot be an ore. (b) All minerals are ore.
(c) An ore cannot be a mineral. (d) All ores are minerals.
5. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by reduction of Cu 2O
with : (AIIMS 2003)
(a) FeS (b) CO
(c) Cu 2S (d) SO 2
6. The method of zone refining of metals is based on the principle of : [CBSE (PMT) 2003]
(a) greater mobility of the pure metal than that of the impurity.
(b) higher melting point of the impurity than that of the pure metal.
(c) greater noble character of the solid metal than that of the impurity.
(d) greater solubility of the impurity in the molten state than in the solid.
7. Silver is obtained from Na[Ag(CN) 2 ] by reaction with: (CPMT 2004)
(a) Fe (b) Na
(c) Zn (d) Au
 290 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

8. The most important ore of tin is : (AFMC 2005)

(a) cassiterite (b) cryolite
(c) cerussite (d) None of these
9. Match the following columns. (Kerala CEE 2005)

Column I Column II
A. Aluminium 1. Bauxite
B. Copper 2. Dolomite
C. Potassium 3. Pyrites
D. Magnesium 4. Pitchblende
E. Radium 5. Sylvine

Codes
A B C D E
(a) 1 3 4 5 2
(b) 1 3 4 2 5
(c) 4 5 2 1 3
(d) 4 2 1 5 3
(e) 1 3 5 2 4
10. Of the following which cannot be obtained by the electrolysis of the aqueous solution of their
salts ? (BHU 2006)
(a) Ag (b) Mg and Al (c) Cu (d) Cr
11. Which of the metals is thrown as anode mud during electrolytic refining ? (BHU 2006)
(a) Zn (b) Fe (c) Ag (d) Na
12. Apatite is an ore of : (MHT CET 2006)
(a) fluorine (b) chlorine
(c) bromine (d) iodine
13. Which of the following statements about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before
reduction is not true ? [CBSE (PMT) 2007]
(a) The D f G° of the sulphide is greater than those of CS 2 and H 2S.
(b) The D f G° is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide.
(c) Roasting of sulphide to oxide is thermodynamically feasible.
(d) Carbon and hydrogen are not suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides.
14. Sulphide ores of the metals are usually concentrated by froth floatation process. Which of the
following sulphide ores offers an exception and is concentrated by chemical leaching ?
[CBSE (PMT) 2007]
(a) Galena (b) Copper pyrite
(c) Sphalerite (d) Argentite
15. Which of the following does not contain silicon? (MHT CET 2007)
(a) Kaoline (b) Agate (c) Ruby (d) Quartz
Metallurgy 291
16. What are the metal ions present in carnallite? (AFMC 2008)
(a) Mg, K (b) Al, Na
(c) Na, Mg (d) Zn, Mg
17. The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called :
(J&K CET 2008)
(a) smelting (b) roasting
(c) calcination (d) froth floatation
18. Roasted tin stone ore after washing with water is known as : (Manipal 2008)
(a) block tin (b) white tin
(c) black tin (d) granulated tin
19. Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
A. Feldspar 1. Ag 3SbS 3
B. Asbestos 2. Al 2O 3 × H 2O
C. Pyrargyrite 3. MgSO 4 × H 2O
D. Diaspore 4. KAlSi 3O 8
5. CaMg 3(SiO 3 ) 4

Codes (EAMCET 2009)

A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 5 2 1 (b) 4 5 1 2
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 5 4 1
20. Gravity separation process is used for the concentration of : (AFMC 2009)
(a) calamine (b) haematite
(c) chalcopyrite (d) bauxite
21. Which one of the following ores is concentrated by chemical leaching method?
(Kerala CEE 2009)
(a) Galena (b) Copper pyrite
(c) Cinnabar (d) Argentite
(e) Copper glance
22. The ore that is concentrated by froth floatation process is : (Karnataka CET 2009)
(a) cinnabar (b) bauxite
(c) malachite (d) zincite
23. Hydro-metallurgical process of extraction of metals is based on : (Odisha JEE 2009)
(a) complex formation (b) hydrolysis
(c) dehydration (d) dehydrogenation
24. The autoreduction process is not used in the metallurgy of : (J&K CET 2009)
(a) Hg (b) Cu
(c) Pb (d) Fe
 292 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

25. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (J&K CET 2009)

(a) Hydrogen is used to reduce NiO
(b) Zirconium is refined by van Arkel method
(c) The sulphide ore galena is concentrated by froth floatation
(d) In the metallurgy of iron, the flux used is SiO 2
26. In aluminium extraction by the Baeyer's process, alumina is extracted from bauxite by sodium
hydroxide at high temperature and pressures.
Al 2O 3( s) + 2OH - ( aq) ¾® 2 Al 2O -2 ( aq) + H 2O(l)
Solid impurities such as Fe 2O 3 and SiO 2 are removed and then Al(OH) -4 is reprecipitated.
2 Al(OH) -4 ¾® Al 2O 3 × 3H 2O( s) + 2OH - ( aq)
In the industrial world [WB JEE 2009]
(a) carbon dioxide is added to precipitate the alumina
(b) temperature and pressure are dropped and the supersaturated solution seeded
(c) Both (a) and (b) are practised
(d) the water is evaporated
27. In the equation ,
4 M + 8CN – + 2H 2O + O 2 ¾® 4[M(CN) 2 ]– + 4 OH –
The metal M is : (AFMC 2010)
(a) copper (b) iron (c) gold (d) zinc
28. Which of the following is used in thermite welding ? [AMU (Engg.) 2010]
(a) TiO 2 + 4Na ¾® Ti +2Na 2O (b) 2Al+ Fe 2O 3 ¾® Al 2O 3 + 2Fe
(c) SnO 2 + 2C ¾® Sn+ 2CO (d) Cr 2O 3 + 2Al ¾® Al 2O 3 + 2Cr
29. Which of the following metals has the largest abundance in the earth’s crust? (WB JEE 2010)
(a) Aluminium (b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium (d) Sodium
30. Which of the following is not an ore of magnesium? (RPMT 2010)
(a) Gypsum (b) Dolomite (c) Magnesite (d) Carnallite
31. Calcium ammonium nitrate is known as : (VMMC 2010)
(a) Nangal fertiliser (b) Chile saltpetre
(c) Thomas slag (d) Sindri
32. In the equation;
4 M + 8CN - + 2H 2O + O 2 ¾® 4[M(CN) 2 ]- + 4OH -
identify the metal M. (AFMC 2010)
(a) Copper (b) Iron
(c) Gold (d) Zinc
33. These are the extraction processes of silver except : (Manipal 2010)
(a) as a side product in electrolytic refining of copper
(b) parke's process in which Zn is used to extract silver by solvent extraction from molten lead
(c) by reaction of silver sulphide with KCN and then reaction of soluble complex with Zn
(d) by heating Na[Ag(CN) 2 ]
Metallurgy 293
34. When AgCl is treated with KCN : (WB JEE 2010)
(a) Ag is precipitated (b) a complex ion is formed
(c) double decompostion takes place (d) no reaction takes place
35. Impurities present in the ore react to form a fusible substance known as :(Odisha JEE 2010)
(a) flux (b) gangue
(c) nugget (d) mineral
36. Carbon can reduce ferric oxide to iron at a temperature above 983 K because : (KCET 2010)
(a) carbon monoxide formed is thermodynamically less stable-man ferric oxide
(b) carbon has a higher affinity towards oxygen than iron
(c) free energy change for the formation of carbon dioxide is less negative than that for ferric
oxide
(d) iron has a higher affinity towards oxygen than carbon
37. In zone refining method, the molten zone : (AIIMS 2010)
(a) contains impurities
(b) contains purified metal only
(c) contains more impurity than the original metal
(d) moves to either side
38. Which one of the following does not occur as sulphide ore? (Kerala CEE 2011)
(a) Zn (b) Cr (c) Ag (d) Fe
(e) Hg
39. Which one of the following statements is false? (Karnataka CET 2011)
(a) During roasting, moisture is removed from the ore
(b) The ore is freed from almost all non-metallic impurities
(c) Calcination of ore is carried out in the absence of any blast of air
(d) The concentrated zinc blende is subjected to calcination during its extraction by
pyrometallurgy
40. Carbon cannot reduce Fe 2O 3 to Fe at a temperature below 983 K because :
(Karnataka CET 2011)
(a) free energy change for the formation of CO is more negative than that of Fe 2O 3
(b) CO is thermodynamically more stable than Fe 2O 3
(c) carbon has higher affinity towards oxygen than iron
(d) iron has higher affinity towards oxygen than carbon
41. The following reactions take place in the blast furnace in the preparation of impure iron.
Identify the reaction pertaining to the formation of the slag : (AIPMT 2012)
(a) Fe 2O 3( s) + 3CO( g) ¾® 2Fe(l)+ 3CO 2( g)
(b) CaCO 3( s) ¾® CaO( s)+ CO 2( g)
(c) CaO( s)+ SiO 2( s) ¾® CaSiO 3( s)
(d) 2C( s)+ O 2( g) ¾® 2CO( g)
42. Aluminium is extracted from alumina ( Al 2O 3 ) by electrolysis of a molten mixture of :
(AIPMT 2012)
(a) Al 2O 3 + HF + NaAlF4 (b) Al 2O 3 + CaF2 + NaAlF4
(c) Al 2O 3 + Na 3 AlF6 + CaF2 (d) Al 2O 3 + KF + Na 3 AlF6
 294 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

43. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction
of cuprous oxide with : (AIPMT 2012)
(a) copper (I) sulphide (Cu 2S) (b) sulphur dioxide (SO 2 )
(c) iron sulphide (FeS) (d) carbon monoxide (CO)
44. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron? (AIPMT 2012)
(a) Malachite (b) Cassiterite
(c) Pyrolusite (d) Magnetite
45. Identify the ore not containing iron. (UP CPMT 2012)
(a)Limonite (b) Siderite
(c) Carnallite (d) Chalcopyrite
46. Which of the following is an oxide ore? (Odisha JEE 2012)
(a) Malachite (b) Haematite
(c) Copper glance (d) Zinc blende
47. The process of zone refining is used in the purification of : [Karnataka (CET) 2013]
(a) Al (b) Ge (c) Cu (d) Ag
48. Principle of paper chromatography is based on : [AMU (Med.) 2013]
(a) solid-liquid partition chromatography
(b) liquid-liquid partition chromatography
(c) liquid-solid adsorption chromatography
(d) liquid-liquid sorption chromatography
49. The ore chromite is : [WB (JEE) 2013]
(a) FeCr 2O 4 (b) CoCr 2O 3
(c) CrFe 2O 4 (d) FeCr 2O 3
50. The metal oxide which can not be reduced to metal by carbon is : (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) Al 2O 3 (b) PbO (c) ZnO (d) Fe 2O 3
51. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a byproduct. This is a colourless gas with choking
smell of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain.
Its aqueous solution is acidic, acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The
gas X is : (NEET 2013)
(a) CO 2 (b) SO 3 (c) H 2S (d) SO 2
52. The ore of aluminium is : (UP CPMT 2013)
(a) caraallite (b) malachite (c) galena (d) bauxite
53. The formula of malachite ore is : (Manipal 2013)
(a) Fe 3O 4 (b) Mn 3O 4 (c) NiAs (d) Cu(OH) 2 × CuCO 3
54. Azurite is an ore of : (WB JEE 2013)
(a) gold (b) silver (c) copper (d) zinc
55. NaCN is sometime added in the froth floatation process as a depressant, when ZnS and PbS
mineral are extracted because : (AIIMS 2013)
(a) ZnS forms soluble complex Na 2[Pb(CN) 4 ] while PbS forms froth
(b) Pb(CN) 2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
(c) PbS forms soluble complex Na 2[Pb(CN) 4 ] while ZnS forms froth
(d) NaCN is never added in froth floatation process
Metallurgy 295
56. The process of converting hydrated alumina into anhydrous alumina is called :
(CBSE AIPMT 2013)
(a) roasting (b) smelting
(c) dressing (d) calcination
57. Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of : (AFMC 2013)
(a) Cu and Hg (b) Zn and Hg
(c) Cu and Al (d) Fe and Pb
58. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method? (AIPMT 2013)
(a) Ni and Fe (b) Ga and In
(c) Zr and Ti (d) Ag and Au
59. Sphalerite is concentrated by : (Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) gravity separation (b) froth floatation
(c) magnetic separation (d) hydraulic washing
(e) leaching
60. Which one of the following methods is used in the concentration of sulphide ore ?
(EAMCET 2014)
(a) Froth floatation (b) Smelting
(c) Roasting (d) Leaching
61. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (Karnataka CET 2014)
(a) A furnace lined with haematite is used to convert cast iron to wrought iron
(b) Collectors enhance the wettability of mineral particles during froth floatation
(c) In vapour phase refining, metal should from a volatile compound
(d) Copper from its low grade ores is extracted by hydrometalhrrgy
62. Which among the following metals is refined by electrolytic method ? (MHT CET 2014)
(a) Aluminium (b) Bismith
(c) Tin (d) Lead
63. The following set of reactions are used in refining zirconium.
Zr (impure) + 2I 2 ¾ 523K
¾¾® ZrI 4 ¾1800K¾¾® Zr (pure) + 2I 2
This method is known as : (Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) distillation (b) liquation
(c) Hall-Heroult method (d) van Arkel method
(e) Mood's process
64. Which among the following metals is employed to provide cathodic protection to iron?
(MHT CET 2014)
(a) Zinc (b) Nickel
(c) Tin (d) Lead
65. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction
of cuprous oxide with: (NEET 2015)
(a) copper (I) sulphide (b) sulphur dioxide
(c) iron (II) sulphide (d) carbon monoxide
 296 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

66. Match items of Column I with the items of column II and assign the correct code:
(NEET 2016)

Column I Column II
(A) Cyanide process (i) Ultrapure Ge
(B) Froth floatation process (ii) Dressing of ZnS
(C) Electrolytic reduction (iii) Extraction of Al
(D) Zone refining (iv) Extraction of Au
(v) Purification of Ni

Code :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
(b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(c) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
67. The matal extracted by leaching with cyanide is : (Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) Cu (b) Al
(c) Na (d) Ag
68. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN - ion. Silver is later recovered by:
(NEET 2017)
(a) distillation (b) zone refining
(c) displacement with Zn (d) liquation
69. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce
alumina? (NEET 2018)
(a) Fe (b) Zn (c) Mg (d) Cu
Metallurgy 297

ANSWERS
Level 1
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)

11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (d)

21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (c)

31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (d)

41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (d)

51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (b)

61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (a)

71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (b)

81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (d)

91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (d)

101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (c) 104. (d) 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (a) 109. (c) 110. (a)

111. (b) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (d)

121. (d) 122. (a) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (a) 127. (d) 128. (b) 129. (d) 130. (c)

131. (b) 132. (c) 133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (b) 136. (b) 137. (b) 138. (c) 139. (a)

Level 2
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (A)

11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (C)
298 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 3
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (e) 10. (b)

11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (b)

21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)

31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (d)

41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (a)

51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (a)

61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (c)
Metallurgy 299

Hints and Solutions

: Level 1
D
2. (b) From given reactions, Free energy of the reaction : ZnO(g) + C(s) ¾¾® Zn(g) + CO(g), is negative.
1000ºC
14. (b) SnCl 2 + HgCl 2 ¾® SnCl 4 + Hg
( XCl 2 ) ( YCl 2 ) ( XCl 4 ) (Y )
D 1
HgO ¾¾¾® Hg + O 2
>400°C 2
HgS : Cinnabar
20. (d) See Ellingham diagram.
50°C 230°C
22. (c) (I) Ni + 4CO ¾® [Ni(CO 4 )] ¾¾® Ni + 4CO ­
(impure) (volatile) (pure)

3 D
(II) Cu 2S + O 2 ¾® Cu 2O + SO 2
2
high
Cu 2S + 2Cu 2O ¾¾® 6Cu + SO 2
temp.

electrolysis
(III) MgCl 2( s ) ¾¾¾¾® Mg 2+(l ) + 2 Cl -(l )
At cathode : Mg 2+ + 2 e- ¾® Mg( s )
At anode : 2 Cl -(l ) ¾® Cl 2( g ) + 2 e-
25. (d) At 1100ºC, DG° for reaction ZnO + Mg ¾® MgO + Zn
has highest negative value, therefore it is maximum spontaneous.
54. (b) ZnS + 4NaCN º
4Na + + [Zn(CN )4 ]2- + S2-
water soluble
Air
55. (d) Ag 2S + 4NaCN ¾® 2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Na 2S
2Na[Ag(CN)2] + æç Zn ö÷ ¾® Na 2[Zn(CN)4 ] + 2Ag ¯
è dust ø

56. (b) Leaching is carried out for the concentration of argentite (Ag 2S).
(i) Ag 2S+ 4NaCN ¾ Air
¾¾® 2Na[Ag(CN)2]- +Na 2S ¾ Air
¾¾® Na 2SO 4 +S
57. (b) Depressant is a substance that is added to suppress the floating characteristic of metal sulphide present
as an impurity.
 300 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

PbS+ ZnS ¾ 4NaCN

¾¾ ¾® Na 2[Zn(CN)4 ]+PbS
(Impurity) Soluble complex

58. (d) Sodium ethyl xanthate acts as collector for sulphide ore.
S
CH2 CH2 O C Na
Ss
Hydrophobic end Hydrophillic end

59. (a) Smelting is not a method of concentration. It is slag formation process.

60. (b) Argentite ( Ag 2S) is sulphide ore.
61. (d) SnO 2 is diamagnetic
Sn 4+ ¾® d10 configuration
Mn II and Fe II ¾® paramagnetic
62. (a) NaCN acts as a depressant and form water soluble complex with ZnS
ZnS + 4NaCN ¾® 2Na + + [Zn(CN )4 ]2- + S2-
Water soluble

63. (c) Zn is extracted from its sulphide ore by roasting followed by carbon reduction
Hg, Pb and Cu are extracted by self reduction from their sulphide ores.
66. (c) Cr metal is commercially extracted by Al-reduction method.
D
90. (d) (i) Cr2O 3 + 2Al (R. A. ) ¾® Al 2O 3 + 2Cr; DH = - ve
(ii) Mg is extracted by electrolysis of fused MgCl 2 and NaCl
3
(iii) PbS + O 2 ¾® PbO + SO 2
2
PbO + C ¾® Pb + CO
(iv) Red Bauxite is purified by Baeyer’s process
NaOH/air, D C, D Al, D
91. (b) Chromite ¾¾¾¾¾® NaCrO 4 ¾¾® Cr2O 3 ¾¾® Cr
96. (b) The reduction of metal oxides by aluminium powder is called Gold schmidt's aluminothermite process.

Cr2O 3 + Al powder ¾ Mg
¾ powder+BaO
¾¾¾¾ ¾2 ® 2Cr + Al O +Heat
2 3
(3 part) 24444
(1 part) lgnition mixture (Molten)
14444 3
Thermite mixture

97. (d) Mg 2+ cation will be preferentially discharged than Al 3+ at cathode.

98. (b) PbO, SnO 2 and Cu 2O reacts with hydrocarbon gases to produce their respective metals.
99. (b) Acid impurities + Basic flux ¾® Slag
SiO 2 + CaO ¾® CaSiO 3 (Calcium Silicate)
100. (d) Self reduction of ZnS is not thermodynamically feasible.
Electrolytic reduction of Fe 2O 3 is not possible.
101. (b) To reduce the metallic oxide impurities with hydrocarbon gases liberated from green log of wood.
102. (c) The conversion of Fe 2O 3 into Fe 3O 4 occurs at 300–400ºC range ion reduction zone.
104. (d) From spelter pure zinc is obtained either by distillation or by electrolytic refining.
105. (a) Purification of Al metal : Hoope’s Method
107. (d) Mond process : Purification of Ni
D D
Ni( Impure) + CO ¾¾ ® Ni(CO )4 ¾¾ ® Ni + CO ­
( Vapour ) ( Vapour )

108. (a) Others are purification methods of bauxite ore.

Metallurgy 301
110. (a) When impure metal has impurity of its own metal oxide, then Poling process is used, e. g., impure Cu
and Sn are purified by this method.
D 1
118. (c) 2AgCl + Na 2CO 3 ¾® 2NaCl + Ag 2CO 3 ¾¾ ® 2 Ag + O 2 + CO 2 ­
2
129. (d) Metals, which are less reactive than Ag, remain in anode mud, and metals which are more reactive than
Ag metal will be in electrolyte solution.
133. (b) Ni + 4CO ¾ 50
¾° to
¾60¾
°C
¾® [Ni(CO)4 ] ­ ¾ ¾200
¾to¾
230 °C
¾¾ ¾® Ni + 4CO ­
(Impure) Volatile compound Thermal decompotion Pure

134. (b) Roasted mass obtained from roasting step is called matte. (98% Cu 2S+2% FeS)
T1
135. (b) M + 2I2 ¾ ¾ ® MI 4
Volatile thermally
unstable compound

136. (b) Al 2O 3 × 2H 2O ¾® Leaching

Ag 2S ¾® froth flotation
FeCr2O 4 ¾® Magnetic separation method
137. (b) Ag is present as anode mud during electrolytic refining of copper due to its high reduction potential.
138. (c) Liquation is based on difference in melting point.
139. (a) Hydrometallurgy : The process of the isolation of a metal by dissolving the ore in a suitable chemical
reagent followed by precipitation of the metal by more electropositive metal.

: Level 2
16. (C) Iron is obtained from Fe 2O 3 by heating Fe with a mixture of coke and CaCO 3 in a blast furnace in which
CO formed reduce Fe 2O 3 to Fe.
Fe 2O 3 + CO ¾® Fe + CO 2
3
Fe 2O 3( s ) ¾® Fe( s ) + O 2( g )3
2
is not spontaneous as for this reaction both DH and DS are negative so, DG will be positive.

: Level 3
3. (b) In answer (b) metal oxide is being converted into metal by carbon.
5. (c) Cu 2O and Cu 2S react to give copper. It is called auto reduction.
8. (a) The chief ore of tin is cassiterite or tin stone, SnO 2.
9. (e)

Metal Ore
Aluminium Bauxite (Al 2O 3 × 2H 2O)
Copper Dolomite (CuFeS2)
Potassium Pyrites (KCl)
Magnesium Pitchblende (MgCO 3 × CaCO 3 )
Radium Pitch Blende

12. (a) Apatite is [CaF2 × 3Ca 3(PO 4 )2], i. e. , it is an ore of fluorine with calcium.
15. (c) Ruby is an mineral of aluminium, i. e. , Al 2O 3. It does not contain silicon.
16. (a) Formula of carnallite is KCl × MgCl 2 × 6H 2O so, carnallite contains K and Mg.
 302 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

17. (a) The process in which metal is obtained in fused state is called smelting. During roasting and calcination
metal oxides are formed while froth floatation process is used to concentrate the ore.
18. (c) Tin stone (SnO 2) after roasting and washing is called black tin.
19. (b) Feldspar (orthoclase) (KAlSi 3O 8)
It is used in the manufacture of porcelain.
Asbestos [CaMg 3(SiO 3 )4]
It is used for fireproof sheets, cloths etc.
Pyargyrite (Ruby silver) (Ag 3S × H 2O)
It is an ore of silver.
Diaspore (Al 2O 3 × H 2O)
It is an ore of aluminum.
20. (b) Gravity separation method is used when there is large difference between the densities of gangue and
the ore particles.
Hence, heavy oxide ores like haematite is concentrated by this process.
21. (d) Gold and silver ores arc concentrated by leaching. In this method the ore is treated with a suitable
reagent in which ore is soluble but impurities do not. Thus, impurities are removed by filtration.
Among galena (PbS), copper pyrites (CuFeS2), cinnabar (HgS), argentite (Ag 2S) and copper glance
(Cu 2S), argentite being silver ore is concentrated by chemical leaching method as
Ag 2S + 4NaCN ¾¾® 2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Na 2S
Argentite Soluble Insoluble

22. (a) Froth floatation is used for the concentration of sulphide ores only. Thus, cinnabar, i. e. , HgS is
concentrated by this method. Bauxite (Al 2O 3 × 2H 2O), malachite (CuCO 3 × Cu(OH)2) and zincite (ZnCO 3)
cannot be concentrated by this method.
23. (a) Hydrometallurgical process of extraction of metals is based on complex formation. For example, Ag 2S
is converted into Na[Ag(CN)2]. When Zn is added, Ag is displaced.
24. (d) 2HgS + 3O 2 ¾® 2HgO + 3SO 2
2HgO + HgS ¾® 3Hg + SO 2
2Cu 2S + 3O 2 ¾® 2Cu 2O + 2SO 2
Cu 2S + 2Cu 2O ¾® 6Cu + SO 2
2PbS + 3O 2 ¾® 2PbO + 2SO 2
2PbO + PbS ¾® 3Pb + SO 2
This method is used for less electropositive metals.
25. (d) CaO acts as a flux as it combines with silica present as an impurity (gangue) to form a fusible slag,
CaSiO 3.
26. (c) Both (a) and (b) are practised.
27. (c) It is the cyanide method for the extraction of silver and gold.
28. (b) In thermite welding, Fe 2O 3 is reduced with Al.
29. (a) Aluminium is the most abundant metal and third most abundant clement in earth’s crust.
30. (a) Dolomite (MgCO 3 × CaCO 3), magnesite (MgCO 3) and carnallite (KCl × MgCl 2 × 6H 2O) are ores of
magnesium.
Note : Gypsum (CaSO 4 × 2H 2O) is an ore of calcium.
31. (a) Calcium ammonium nitrate (CAN), Ca(NO 3 )2 × NH 4NO 3 is known as nitrolime stone or Nangal
fertiliser.
32. (c) Least reactive metals like silver (Ag) and gold (Au) are obtained by cyanide process. In this process, the
impure metal is treated with NaCN (solution) and air is passed. Metal is converted into soluble complex
as
4Au + 8CN - + 2H 2O + O 2 ¾® 4[Au(CN)2]- + 4OH -
Soluble

From this soluble complex, metal is displaced by using more electropositive metal like Zn.
Metallurgy 303
2[Au(CN)2]- + Zn ¾® [Zn(CN)4 ]2- + 2Au ¯
Soluble ppt

33. (d) Silver is not obtained by heating Na[Ag(CN)2]. It is obtained by treating Na[Ag(CN)2] with more
electropositive metal Zn, which replaces Ag from it.
2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Zn ¾® Na 2[Zn(CN)4 ] + 2Ag ¯
34. (b) AgCl + 2KCN ¾® K[Ag(CN)2] + KCl
35. (b) Flux + Gangue ¾® Slag
36. (c) Above 983 K, free energy change for the formation of CO 2 is more negative than that for ferric oxide.
Thus, above this temperature, carbon has a higher affinity towards oxygen than iron.
37. (c) Zone refining process is based upon the fact that impurities are more soluble in melt than in the original
metal. Hence, molten zone contains more impurities than the original metal.
38. (b) Chromium does not exist as sulphide ore.
39. (d) Zinc blende is heated in a regular supply of air in a furnace at a temperature below the melting point of
the metal (roasting).
2ZnS + 3O 2 ¾® 2ZnO + 2SO 2
40. (d) Iron has higher affinity towards oxygen than carbon. So, it cannot reduce Fe 2O 3 to Fe at a temperature
below 983 K.
45. (c) Limonite: Fe 2O 3 × 3H 2O ores of iron
Siderite FeCO 3
Carnallite KCl × MgCl 2 × 6H 2O
Chalcopyrite CuFeS2 ore of iron
Hence, carnallite is not an iron containing ore.
46. (b)
Ore Formula Nature
A. Malachite CuCO 3 × Cu(OH)2 Carbonate ore
B. Haematite Fe 2O 3 Oxide ore
C. Copper glance Cu 2S Sulphide ore
D. Zinc blende ZnS Sulphide ore

52. (d) (a) Carnallite KCl × MgCl 2 × 6H 2O

(b) Malachite CuCO 3 × Cu(OH 2 )
(c) Galena PbS
(d) Bauxite Al 2O 3 × 2H 2O
\ Ore of aluminium is bauxite.
53. (d) Malachite is an ore of copper. The molecular formula of malachite ore is CuCO 3 × Cu(OH)2.
54. (c) The composition of an azurite is Cu(OH)2 × CuCO 3 hence, it is an ore of copper.
55. (a) In froth floatation process, depressant prevents the formation of froth. It is used to separate two
sulphide ores by preventing the formation of froth of one sulphide ore with air bubbles and allowing
the other to form the froth, e.g. NaCN is used as a depressan! to separate lead sulphide (Pbs) ore from
zinc sulphide (ZnS) ore. This is due to the reason that NaCN forms a zinc complex, Na 2[Zn(CN)4 ] on
the surface of ZnS thereby preventing it from the formation of froth. Under these conditions only PbS
forms a froth and hence can be separated from ZnS.
56. (d) Calcination is a process in which ore is heated generally in the absence of air to expel water from a
hydrated oxide or carbon dioxide from a carbonate.
57. (a) Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of Cu and Hg.
2Cu 2S + 3O 2 ¾® 2Cu 2O + 2SO 2
2Cu 2O + CuS ¾® 6Cu 2 + SO 2
 304 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

2HgS + 3O 2 ¾® 2HgO + 3SO 2

D
2HgO ¾¾ ® 2Hg + O 2
58. (c) Zr and Ti are purified by van Arkel method. This method is very useful for removing all the oxygen and
nitrogen present in the form of impurity in certain metals like Zr and Ti.
Zr + 2I2 ¾ 600
¾¾ °C
® ZrI4 ¾1800
¾¾ ¾°C
® Zr + 2I2
59. (b) Sphalerite also known as Blende or Zinc blende is a major ore of zinc (ZnS). If is sulphide ore. Hence,
can be concentrated by froth floatation.
60. (a) Froth floatation process is widely used for the concentration of sulphide ore. This method is based
upon the fact that the surface of sulphide ores is prefrentially wetted by oil while that ofgangue is
prefreritialiy wetted by water.
61. (b) In froth floatation method, the substances like pine oil, xanthates and fatty acids arc added as
collectors. These substances attach themselves by polar groups to drain the minerals which then
become water repellanl and thus pass on into the froth. Thus, in other words, collectors enhance the
non wettability of mineral acids.
62. (a) Metals like Na, K, Mg, Ca, Al, etc., are reduced by electrolytic method.
63. (d) van Arkel process was the first industrial process used the for commercial production of zirconium. It
primarily involves the formation of the metal iodides and their subsequent decomposition to yield pure
metal.
64. (a) Cathodic protection of iron involves using another more reactive metal or a sacrificial anode. Since, in
electrochemical series, Zn is placed above Fe, so it is used for such action.
65. (a) Self reduction
Cu 2S + 2Cu 2O ¾® 6Cu + SO 2 ­
66. (c) Cyanide process ¾® Leaching process of Au
O2
Au + 2NaCN Au(CN)-2 + Na +
( aq.)

Froth floatation process ¾® Pressing of ZnS

(It is applicable for concentration of sulphide are)
Electrolytic reduction ¾® Extraction of Al)
Zone refining ¾® Purification of Si, Ge
68. (c) Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching the metal with CN - and the metals silver and gold are
later recovered by displacement method.
4 M( s) + 8CN (-aq) + 2H 2O( aq) +O 2( g ) ¾¾® 4[ M(CN)2](-aq) + 4OH(-aq)
2[ M(CN)2](-aq) + Zn ( s) ¾¾® 2 M( s) + [Zn(CN )4 ](2aq
-
)

69. (c) Any metal oxide with lower value of DG° is more stable than a metal oxide with higher DG° . This
implies that the metal oxide placed higher in the diagram can be reduced by the metal involved in the
formation of the oxide placed lower in the diagram.
The relative tendency of the various metals to act as reducing agents is :
Ca > Mg > Al > Cr > Zn > Fe > Cu. Thus, Mg being more reducing in nature, can reduce aluminium
oxide (alumina).
Hydrogen and its Compounds 305

6
HYDROGEN AND ITS COMPOUNDS

Level 1
1. Hydrogen resembles with halogens in many respects for which several factors are responsible.
Of the following factors which one is most important in this respect ?
(a) Its tendency to lose an electron to form a cation.
(b) Its tendency to gain a single electron in its valence shell to attain stable electronic
configuration.
(c) Its low negative electron gain enthalpy value.
(d) Its small size.
2. Why does H + ion always get associated with other atoms or molecules ?
(a) Ionisation enthalpy of hydrogen resembles that of alkali metals.
(b) Its reactivity is similar to halogens.
(c) It resembles both alkali metals and halogens.
(d) Loss of an electron from hydrogen atom results in a nucleus of very small size as compared
to other atoms or ions. Due to small size it cannot exist free.
3. Metal hydrides are ionic, covalent or molecular in nature. Among LiH, NaH, KH, RbH, CsH, the
correct order of increasing ionic character is:
(a) LiH > NaH > CsH > KH>RbH (b) LiH < NaH < KH < RbH < CsH
(c) RbH > CsH > NaH > KH > LiH (d) NaH > CsH > RbH > LiH > KH
4. Which of the following hydrides is electron-precise hydride ?
(a) B 2 H 6 (b) NH 3
(c) H 2 O (d) CH 4
5. Radioactive elements emit a ,b and g-rays and are characterised by their half-lives. The
radioactive isotope of hydrogen is:
(a) Protium (b) Deuterium
(c) Tritium (d) Hydronium
6. Consider the reactions;
(A) H 2 O 2 + 2HI ¾® I 2 + 2H 2 O
 306 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(B) HOCl + H 2O 2 ¾® H 3O + + Cl - + O 2
Which of the following statements is correct about H 2 O 2 with reference to these reactions?
Hydrogen peroxide is .......... .
(a) an oxidising agent in both (A) and (B)
(b) an oxidising agent in (A) and reducing agent in (B)
(c) a reducing agent in (A) and oxidising agent in (B)
(d) a reducing agent in both (A) and (B)
7. The oxide that gives H 2 O 2 on treatment with dilute H 2 SO 4 is .......... .
(a) PbO 2 (b) BaO 2 × 8H 2 O
(c) MnO 2 (d) TiO 2
8. Which of the following equations depicts the oxidising nature of H 2 O 2 ?
(a) 2MnO -4 + 6H + + 5H 2O 2 ¾® 2Mn 2+ + 8H 2O + 5O 2
(b) 2Fe 3+ + H 2O 2 ¾® 2Fe 2+ + 2H + + O 2
(c) 2I - + 2H + + H 2O 2 ¾® I 2 + 2H 2O
(d) KIO 4 + H 2O 2 ¾® KIO 3 + H 2O + O 2
9. Which of the following equation depicts reducing nature of H 2 O 2 ?
(a) 2[Fe(CN) 6 ] 4 - + 2H + + H 2O 2 ¾® 2[Fe(CN) 6 ] 3- +2H 2 O
(b) I 2 + H 2O 2 + 2OH - ¾® 2I - + 2H 2O + O 2
(c) Mn 2+ + H 2O 2 ¾® Mn 4 + + 2OH -
(d) PbS + 4H 2O 2 ¾® PbSO 4 + 4H 2O
10. Hydrogen peroxide is .......... .
(a) an oxidising agent (b) a reducing agent
(c) both an oxidising and a reducing agent (d) neither oxidising nor reducing agent
11. Which of the following reactions increases production of dihydrogen from synthesis gas?
1270 K
(a) CH 4 ( g) + H 2 O( g) ¾ ¾¾
Ni
® CO( g) + 3H 2 ( g)
1270 K
(b) C( s) + H 2 O( g) ¾ ¾¾® CO( g) + H 2 ( g)
673 K
(c) CO( g) + H 2 O( g) ¾Catalyst
¾ ¾® CO 2 ( g) + H 2 ( g)
1270 K
(d) C 2 H 6 + 2H 2O ¾ ¾¾
Ni
® 2CO + 5H 2

12. When sodium peroxide is treated with dilute sulphuric acid, we get .......... .
(a) sodium sulphate and water
(b) sodium sulphate and oxygen
(c) sodium sulphate, hydrogen and oxygen
(d) sodium sulphate and hydrogen peroxide
13. Hydrogen peroxide is obtained by the electrolysis of .......... .
(a) water (b) sulphuric acid
(c) hydrochloric acid (d) fused sodium peroxide
14. Which of the following reactions is an example of use of water gas in the synthesis of other
compounds ?
Hydrogen and its Compounds 307
1270 K
(a) CH 4 ( g) + H 2 O( g) ¾ ¾¾
Ni
® CO( g) + H 2 ( g)
673 K
(b) CO( g) + H 2 O( g) ¾Catalyst
¾ ¾® CO 2 ( g) + H 2 ( g)
1270 K
(c) C n H 2n + 2 + nH 2 O( g) ¾ ¾¾
Ni
® nCO + (2n + 1) H 2
Cobalt
(d) CO( g) + 2H 2 ( g) ¾Catalyst
¾¾® CH 3 OH(l)

15. Which of the following ions will cause hardness in water sample ?
(a) Ca 2+ (b) Na + (c) Cl - (d) K +
16. Which of the following compounds is used for water softening ?
(a) Ca 3 (PO 4 ) 2 (b) Na 3 PO 4
(c) Na 6 P6 O 18 (d) Na 2 HPO 4
17. Elements of which of the following group(s) of periodic table do not form hydrides?
(a) Groups 7, 8, 9 (b) Group 13
(c) Groups 15, 16, 17 (d) Group 14
18. Only one element of .......... forms hydride.
(a) group 6 (b) group 7
(c) group 8 (d) group 9
19. In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen from water gas (CO + H 2 ), which of the
following is the correct statement ?
(a) CO is removed by absorption is aqueous Cu 2 Cl 2 solution.
(b) H 2 is removed through occlusion with Pd.
(c) CO is Oxidized to CO 2 with steam in the presence of a catalyst, followed by absorption of
CO 2 in alkali.
(d) CO and H 2 are fractionally separated using differences in their densities.
20. Incorrect statement about ortho and para hydrogen :
(a) Para hydrogen is present in pure state at low temperature (OK)
(b) The ratio of ortho : Para hydrogen at room temperature is 3:1
(c) Entropy of ortho hydrogen is more than para hydrogen at high temperature.
(d) 100 % pure ortho hydrogen may be obtained at high temperature
21. Incorrect statement for heavy water is :
(a) It is used as moderator in nuclear reactor
(b) It gives deuteromathane when react with Al 4 C 3
(c) Ionic compounds are more soluble in D 2 O than in H 2 O
(d) Bond energy of D 2 O is higher than that of H 2 O
22. Which of the following hydrides is electron deficient ?
(a) KH (b) CaH 2
(c) BeH 2 (d) NaH
23. When temporary hard water containing Mg(HCO 3 ) 2 is boiled, the ppt. formed is of :
(a) MgCO 3 (b) MgO
(c) Mg(OH) 2 (d) None of these
 308 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

24. In which of the following reaction hydrogen peroxide is a reducing agent ?

(a) 2FeCl 2 + 2HCl + H 2 O 2 ® 2FeCl 3 + 2H 2 O
(b) Cl 2 + H 2 O 2 ® 2HCl + O 2
(c) Hl + H 2 O 2 ® 2H 2 O + I 2
(d) H 2 SO 3 + H 2 O 2 ® H 2 SO 4 + H 2 O
25. Out of the following metals which will give H 2 on reaction with NaOH ?
I : Zn, II : Mg, III : Al, IV : Be
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) I, III, IV (c) II, IV (d) I, III
26. Which of the following is not true ?
(a) Ordinary water is electrolysed more rapidly than D 2 O
(b) D 2 O freezes at lower temperature than H 2 O
(c) Reaction between H 2 and Cl 2 is much faster than D 2 and Cl 2
(d) Bond disociation energy for D 2 O is greater than H 2 O
27. Which of the following incorrect ?
(a) Ionic product D 2 O > H 2 O
(b) Solubility of inorganic substances H 2 O > D 2 O
(c) Mass D 2 O > H 2 O
(d) Heat of fusion D 2 O > H 2 O
28. H 2 O 2 can be obtained when following react with H 2 SO 4 except with :
(a) PbO 2 (b) BaO 2 (c) Na 2 O 2 (d) KO 2
29. Which one of the following removes temporary hardness of water ?
(a) Slaked lime (b) Plaster of paris (c) CaCO 3 (d) Hydrolith
30. Hydride gap in periodic table is form :
(a) Group 7 to group 9 (b) Group 5 to group 7
(c) Group 4 to group 6 (d) Group 7 to group 10
31. The ortho and para-hydrogens possess :
(a) Same physical properties but different chemical properties
(b) Different physical properties but same chemical properties
(c) Same chemical and physical properties
(d) Different physical and chemical properties
32. What is the false about H 2 O 2 ?
(a) Acts both as oxidising and reducing agent
(b) It is an antiseptic and germicide for working wounds, teeth and ears under the name
perhydrol
(c) H 2 O 2 is prepared by adding ice cold dilute H 2 SO 4 (20%) on Na 2 O 2
(d) Two OH bonds of H 2 O 2 lie in the same plane.
33. Hydrogen gas will not reduce :
(a) heated curpic oxide (b) heated feric oxide
(c) heated stannic oxide (d) heated aluminium oxide
34. Which is correct about the reaction between H 2 O 2 and O 3 ?
(a) It is a case of mutual reduction
(b) O 3 will oxidise H 2 O 2 into O 2
Hydrogen and its Compounds 309
(c) It is not a redox reaction
(d) H 2 O 2 being a stronger oxidising agent will decompose ozone into oxygen
35. Which of the following can distinguish H 2 O 2 from H 2 O ?
(a) The boiling point of H 2 O 2 is greater than H 2 O
(b) The dipole moment of H 2 O 2 is greater than H 2 O
(c) H 2 O 2 solution turn litmus paper to colourless
(d) all of the above
36. Which physical constant for H 2 O has higher magnitude than D 2 O ?
(a) Boiling point (b) temperature of maximum density
(c) dielectric constant (d) bond dissociation energy
37. Identify Incorrect statement regarding H 2 O 2 :
(a) It can be prepared by acidifying BaO 2 and hydrolyzing H 2 S 2 O 8 and H 2 SO 5
(b) It is thermodynamically stable
(c) It has non planar strucutre
(d) It is oxidizing as well as reducing agent
38. Hydrogen adsorbed by Palladium is known as :
(a) Atomic (b) Nascent
(c) Occulded (d) Heavy
39. In aqueous solution, H 2 will not reduce :
(a) Fe 3+ (b) Cu 2+
(c) Ag +
(d) Zn 2+
40. Polyphosphates are used as water softening agents because they :
(a) form soluble complexes with anionic species
(b) precipitate anionic species
(c) form soluble complexes with cationic species
(d) precipitate cationic species
41. H 2 O < H 2 O 2 Order is incorrect for :
(a) Boiling point (b) Acidic nature
(c) Dipole moment (d) Strength of H-bond
42. Which of the following is not a peroxide ?
(a) Na 2 O 2 (b) CaO 2
(c) PbO 2 (d) H 2 O 2
43. In which of the following method of the removal of hardness, Ca +2 and Mg 2+ are not separated
from sample of hard water ?
(a) By boiling of temporary hard water (b) Addition of sodium carbonate
(c) Using sodium hexa meta phosphate (d) Synethetic resins and zeolite method
44. In what respect electronic configuration of hydrogen and halogens are similar ?
(a) Hydrogen and halogens have one electron in their outermost shell.
(b) Hydrogen and halogens have one electron less than the noble gas configuration
(c) Hydrogen and halogens can lose one electron to form positive ions.
(d) Hydrogen and halogen shown noble gas configuration.
 310 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

45. Which of the following properties of hydrogen is incorrect ?

(a) Like halogens hydrogen exists as a diatomic gas.
(b) Like halogens, hydrogen exhibits –1 oxidation state in its compounds with metals
(c) Like halogens, hydrogen is liberated at cathode.
(d) The ionisation energy of hydrogen is quite close to halogens.
46. In which of the following properties hydrogen does not shown similalrity with alkali metals ?
(a) Electropositive character (b) Reducing nature
(c) Electronic configuration (ns1 ) (d) diatomic nature of molecule
47. Which of the following is not an isotope of hydrogen ?
(a) Protiumn (b) Ortho-para hydrogen
(c) Deuterium (d) Tritium
48. The isotopes of hydrogen have different physical properties due to difference in mass. They
have almost same chemical properties with a difference in their rates of reactions which is
mainly due to
(a) their different enthalpy of bond dissociation
(b) different electronic configurations
(c) different atomic masses
(d) different physical properties.
49. Which of the following metals does not liberate hydrogen from acids ?
(a) Fe (b) Cu (c) Mg (d) Zn
50. Which set of properties has same value for D 2 & H 2 ?
(I) Bond length (II) Bond energy (III) Boiling point
(a) Only I (b) Only I & II (c) Only II, III (d) Only II

Level 2
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as assertion and reason, while
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following responses.
(A) If assertion is true but the reason is false
(B) If assertion is false but reason is true
(C) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(D) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(E) Both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion : In alkaline medium, H 2 O 2 reacts with potassium ferricyanide.
Reason : H 2 O 2 is a strong reducing agent. (AIIMS 2012)
2. Assertion : Anhydrous BaO 2 is used for preparing H 2 O 2 .
Reason : Hydrated BaO 2 is not available. (AIIMS 2013)
Hydrogen and its Compounds 311

Level 3
1. Hydrogen can be prepared by the action of dil. H 2 SO 4 on : (AIIMS 2007)
(a) copper (b) iron (c) lead (d) mercury
2. How many neutrons are present in tritium nucleus ? (RPMT 2007)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 0
3. Which one of the following is correct order ? (P2 : Protium, H 2 ) (MP PMT 2007)
I. T2 > D 2 > P2 (order of BP) II. T2 > D 2 > P2 (order of BE)
III. T2 = D 2 = P2 (order of BL) IV. T2 < D 2 < P2 (order of reactivity with Cl 2 )
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II, III and IV
(c) I and II (d) II, III and IV
4. Radioactive isotope of hydrogen is : (RPMT 2007)
(a) uranium (b) deuterium (c) tritium (d) None of these
5. If 1 L 1 mg of CaCl 2 and 12 mg of MgSO 4 are present in 2 L of water, what is its hardness (in
gram CaCO 3 /ppm) ? (EAMCET 2008)
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 203
6. Which one of the following processes will produce hard water ? (RPMT 2008)
(a) Saturated of water with CaCO 3 (b) Saturated of water with MgCO 3
(c) Saturated of water with CaCO 4 (d) Addition of Na 2 SO 4 to water
7. Which of the following is not correct regarding the electrolytic preparation of H 2 O 2 ?
(AIIMS 2008)
(a) Lead is used as cathode (b) 50% of H 2 SO 4 is used
(c) Hydrogen is liberated at anode (d) Sulphuric acid undergoes oxidation
8. Match the following columns : (UP CPMT 2008)

Column I Column II
A. 10 vol of H 2O 2 1. Perhydrol

B. 20 vol of H 2O 2 2. 5.358 N

C. 30 vol of H 2O 2 3. 1.785 M

D. 100 vol of H 2O 2 4. 3.03% M

The correct match is :

A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
9. Which one of the following statements in incorrect with regard to ortho and para dihydrogen ?
(Kerala CEE 2009)
(a) They are nuclear spin isomers
(b) The ortho isomer has zero nuclear spin whereas the para isomer has one nuclear spin
 312 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(c) The para isomer is favoured at low temperature

(d) The thermal conductivity of the
10. Which one of the following is non-reducing ? (J & K CET 2009)
(a) H 2 S (b) H 2 Te
(c) H 2 Se (d) H 2 O
11. How many ‘mL’ of perhydrol is required to produce sufficient oxygen which can be used to
completely convert 2 L of SO 2 gas ? (EAMCET 2009)
(a) 10 mL (b) 5 mL (c) 20 mL (d) 30 mL
12. Blackened oil painting can be restored into original form by the action of : (WB JEE 2009)
(a) chlorine (b) BaO 2 (c) H 2 O 2 (d) MnO 2
13. The degree of hardness of water is usually expressed in terms of : (AMU 2010)
(a) ppm by weight of MgSO 4
(b) g/L of CaCO 3 and MgCO 3 present
(c) ppm by weight of CaCO 3 irrespective of whether it is actually present
(d) ppm of CaCO 3 actually present in water
14. Para and Ortho hydrogen differ in : (RPMT 2010)
(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass
(c) spins of protons (d) number of neutrons
15. Ortho and para hydrogen have : (WB JEE 2010)
(a) identical chemical properties but different physical properties
(b) identical physical and chemical properties
(c) identical physical properties but different chemical properties
(d) different physical and chemical properties
16. Which of the following is responsible for the permanent hardness of water ? (UP CPMT 2010)
(a) Calcium bicarbonate (b) Sodium chloride
(c) Magnesium bicarbonate (d) Calcium sulphate
17. Semi-water gas is a mixture of : (UP CPMT 2010)
(a) CO + H 2 (b) CO + N 2
(c) CO + H 2 + N 2 (d) H 2 + CH 4
18. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by adding : (AFMC 2010)
(a) Na 2 CO 3 (b) K (c) Ca(OCl)Cl (d) Cl 2
19. What is the structure of H 2 O 2 ? (MP PMT 2010)
H
(a) O O (b) H — O — O — H
H
H
H
(c) O O (d) O O
H
H
20. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of : (Kerala CEE 2011)
(a) bicarbonates of sodium and potassium
Hydrogen and its Compounds 313
(b) chlorides and sulphates of sodium and potassium
(c) chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium
(d) Bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
(e) phosphates of sodium and potassium
21. Hydrogen is prepared from H 2 O by adding: (DUMET 2011)
(a) Ca, which acts as reducing agent (b) Al, which acts as oxidising agent
(c) Ag, which acts as reducing agent (d) Au, which acts as oxidising agent
22. When zeolite is treated with hard water, the sodium ions are exchanged with : (AMU 2012)
(a) H + ions (b) H + and Ca 2+ ions
2+
-
(c) OH and Mg ions (d) Ca 2+ and Mg 2+ ions
23. The normality of 20 volume hydrogen peroxide solution is : (AMU 2012)
(a) 3.57 N (b) 0.68 N (c) 5.60 N (d) 5.35 N
24. Which of the following process is used for the manufacture of H 2 ? (WB JEE 2013)
(a) Hoope’s process (b) Le-Blanc process
(c) Lane’s process (d) Carter’s process
25. The reagent commonly used to determine hardness of water titrimetrically is : (AIIMS 2013)
(a) oxalic acid (b) disodium salt of EDTA
(c) sodium citrate (d) sodium thiosulphate
26. The molecule used in nuclear reactor is : (UP CPMT 2013)
(a) TEL (b) D 2 O (c) H 2 O 2 (d) R — O — R
27. Ice floats on water because : (WB JEE 2013)
(a) Its density is less than that of water (b) Crystal structure of ice has empty space
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
28. Among the following smallest species is : (Karnataka CET 2013)
(a) lithium (b) lithium ion (c) hydrogen (d) helium
29. The laboratory method for the preparation of H 2 O 2 is by : (UP CPMT 2013)
(a) H 2 SO 4 (b) NH 4 HSO 4
(c) Na 2 O 2 + H 2 SO 4 (d) All of these
30. The hydrides of the first elements in groups 15-17 namely NH 3 , H 2 O and HF respectively show
abnormally high values for melting and boiling points. This is due to : (WB JEE 2014)
(a) small size of N, O and F
(b) the ability to form extensive intermolecular H-bonding
(c) the ability to form extensive intramolecular H-bonding
(d) Effective van der Waals’ interaction
31. In which of the following reactions H 2 O 2 acts as a reducing agent ? (EAMCET 2014)
H+
(a) HOCl + H 2 O 2 ¾¾® H 3 O + + Cl - + O 2
OH -
(b) Mn 2+ + H 2 O 2 ¾ ¾
¾® Mn 4+ + 2OH -
OH -
(c) 2Fe 2+ + H 2 O 2 ¾ ¾
¾® 2Fe 3+ + 2OH -
H+
(d) PbS( s) + 4H 2 O 2 ( aq) ¾¾® PbSO 4 ( s) + 4H 2 O(l)
 314 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

32. 30 volume hydrogen peroxide means : (UK PMT 2014)

(a) 30% of H 2 O 2 solution
(b) 30 cm 3 of the solution contains 1g of H 2 O 2
(c) 1 cm 3 of the solution liberates 30 cm 3 of O 2 at STP
(d) 30 cm 3 of the solution contains 1 mole of H 2 O 2
33. Commercial sample of H 2 O 2 is labelled as 10V. Its % strength is nearly : (WB JEE 2014)
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12
34. A commercial sample of H 2 O 2 marked as 100 volume hydrogen peroxide, it means that :
(Manipal 2014)
(a) 1 mL H 2 O 2 will give 100 mL O 2 at STP
(b) 1 L of H 2 O 2 will give 100 mL O 2 at STP
(c) 1 L of H 2 O 2 will give 22.4 L O 2 at STP
(d) 1 mL of H 2 O 2 will give 1 mol of O 2 at STP
35. The volume of oxygen evolved at STP by decomposition of 0.68 g ‘20 volume’ hydrogen
peroxide solution is : (MHT CET 2014)
(a) 2.24 mL (b) 22.4 mL (c) 224 mL (d) 2240 mL
36. I. H 2 O 2 + O 3 ¾® H 2 O + 2O 2
II. H 2 O 2 + Ag 2 O ¾® 2 Ag + H 2 O + O 2
Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively : (CBSE AIPMT 2014)
(a) oxidising in I and reducing in II (b) reducing in I and oxidising in II
(c) reducing in I and II (d) oxidising in I and II
37. The number of water molecules is maximum in: (NEET 2015)
(a) 18 gram of water (b) 18 moles of water
(c) 18 molecules of water (d) 1.8 gram of water
38. Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect? [NEET (Phase-1)2016]
(a) Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent.
(b) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common.
(c) Hydrogen never acts as caption in ionic salts.
(d) Hydronium ion, H 3 O + exists freely in solution.
39. In the manufacture of hydrogen from water gas (CO+H 2 ), which of the following is correct
statement? (Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) CO is oxidized to CO 2 with steam in the presence of a catalyst followed by absorption of
CO 2 in alkali.
(b) H 2 is removed by occlusion with Pd.
(c) Hydrogen is isolated by diffusion.
(d) CO and H 2 are separated based on difference in their densities.
40. The method used to remove temporary hardness of water is (NEET 2019)
(a) synthetic resins method (b) Calgon’s method
(c) Clark’s method (d) ion-exchange method
Hydrogen and its Compounds 315

ANSWERS
Level 1
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)

11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d)

21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (a)

31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c)

41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (a)

Level 2
1. (C) 2. (E)

Level 3
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d)

11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)

21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (b)

31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (a,b) 39. (a) 40. (c)
 316 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Hints and Solutions

: Level 1
3. (b) Ionic character increases as the size of the alkali metal increases or electronegativity of
the alkali metal atom decreases.
5. (c) Nucleides with n p (neutron-proton) ratio > 1.5 are usually radioactive. For example,
tritium (n = 2 , p = 1).
6. (b) H 2 O 2 acts as a reducing agent if O 2 is evolved whereas H 2 O 2 acts as an oxidising agent if
O 2 is not evolved. Option (b) is correct.
7. (b) Peroxides containing — O — O — bond give H 2 O 2 with acids.
8. (c) In reaction (c), O 2 is not evolved and hence represents the oxidising action of H 2 O 2 . I - is
oxidised to I 2 .
9. (b) In reaction (b), O 2 is evolved, therefore, it represents the reducing action of H 2 O 2 . I 2 is
reduced to I - .
11. (c) To increase the production of H 2 from synthesis gas, CO is oxidised to CO 2 . For details,
read preparation of H 2 O 2 in our text book.
16. (c) Sodium hexametaphosphate,
Na 2 [Na 4 (PO 3 ) 6 ] = Na 6 P6 O 18 , i . e., option (c) is correct.
17. (a) It is called hydride gap.
18. (a) Element of group 6 (Cr) form only one hydride (CrH).
50. (a) Bond length of both D 2 and H 2 are same but bond energy and boiling point of D 2 is more
w.r.t. H 2 .

: Level 2
1. (C) R is the correct explanation of A. H 2 O 2 reduces potassium ferricyanide to potassium
ferrocynicle in alkaline medium.
2. (E) H 2 O 2 is prepared by the action of H 2 SO 4 with hydrated barium peroxide (BaO 2 × 8H 2 O)
Anhydrous BaO 2 is not used because its reaction is slow and ceases after some time due to
formation of protective layer of precipitated BaSO 4 on it, which in case of solution of
BaO 2 × 8H 2 O is filtered off frequently.
Hydrogen and its Compounds 317

: Level 3
1. (b) Hydrogen cannot be prepared by action of dil. H 2 SO 4 on copper or mercury due to + ve
E°. Action of dil. H 2 SO 4 on Pb stops after some time due to the formation of insoluble
PbSO 4 . Only iron reacts rapidly with dil. H 2 SO 4 to give H 2 .
2. (a) Tritium ( 1 H 3 ) is an isotope of hydrogen. Its composition is as follows :
n = A - Z = 3 -1 = 2
3. (b) Protium ( P ), deuterium ( D) and tritium (T ) are the three isotopes of hydrogen. These
isotopes follow the order in different contexts as shown below
T 2 > D 2 > P2 [order of boiling point (BP)]
T 2 > D 2 > P2 [order of bond energy (BE)]
T 2 = D 2 = P2 [order of bond length (BL)]
T 2 < D 2 < P2 [order of reactivity with Cl 2 ]
4. (c) Tritium ( 13 H) is the radioactive isotope of hydrogen.
n
It has ratio = 2.0. So, it is unstable.
p
5. (b) CaCl 2 ºº CaCl 2
40´ 35. 5´ 2 40 + 10 + 48
=111´ 103 mg =100´ 103 mg

MgSO 4 ºº CaCO 3
24+ 32+ 64 40 + 12 + 40
=120´ 103 mg =100´ 103 mg

111´ 10 3 mg of CaCl 2 = 100 ´ 10 3 mg of CaCO 3

100 ´ 10 3 ´ 11.1
11.1 mg of CaCl 2 = mg of CaCO 3
111´ 10 3
= 10 mg of CaCO 3
Similarly, 120 ´ 10 mg of MgSO 4 = 100 ´ 10 3 mg of CaCO 3
3

100 ´ 10 3
12 mg of MgSO 4 = ´ 12 mg of CaCO 3
120 ´ 10 3
= 10mg of CaCO 3
In 2 L of water, total weight of CaCO 3 = 10 + 10 = 20 mg
20
\ In 1 L of water, total weight of CaCO 3 = mg = 10 mg
2
\ In 10 6 mg of water, total weight of CaCO 3 = 10 mg
So, in 10 6 part water, hardness of water in terms of CaCO 3 = 10 ppm
 318 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

6. (c) Alkaline earth metal salts cause hardness. Temporary hardness is caused by soluble Ca and
Mg hydrogen carbonates. Calcium and magnesium sulphates and chlorides cause
permanent hardness.
7. (c) H 2 O 2 can be prepared by electrolysis of 50% H 2 SO 4 . In this method, hydrogen is liberated
at cathode.
H 2 SO 4 ¾® 2H + + 2HSO -4
At anode: 2HSO -4 ¾® H 2 SO 4 + 2 e -
H 2 S 2 O 8 + 2H 2 O ¾® 2H 2 S 2 O 8 + H 2 O 2
At cathode: 2H + + 2 e - ¾® H 2 ­
17 17
8. (a) (a) % strength = ´ volume strength = ´ 10 = 3.03
56 56
(b) Volume strength = 112 . ´ molarity
20
Molarity = = 1785
.
112
.
(c) Volume strength = 5.6 ´ normality
30
Normality = = 5.358
5.6
17 ´ 100
(d) % strength = = 30.3
56
30.0% H 2 O 2 is called perhydrol which is used as an antiseptic.
9. (b) On the basis of spinning of protons, hydrogen has two allotropes, called ortho hydrogen
and para hydrogen. In ortho hydrogen, spins of protons are in same direction, so the
1 1
nuclear spin = + = 1. While in para hydrogen, spins of protons are in opposite
2 2
1 æ 1ö
direction, so the nuclear spin = + çç - ÷÷ = 0.
2 è 2ø
All other statements about ortho and para hydrogens are true.
10. (d) All hydrides except of H 2 O act as reducing agents. The reducing nature increases as the
atomic number of the central atom increases. This is due to weakening of M — H bonds as
the bond length increases with increase in size of M atom.
11. (a) Perhydrol means 30% solution of H 2 O 2 .
H 2 O 2 decomposes as
2H 2 O 2 ¾® 2H 2 O + O 2
Volume strength of 30% H 2 O 2 solution is 100 that means 1 mL of this solution on
decomposition gives 100 mL oxygen.
1
SO 2 + O 2 ¾® SO 3
2
1L 1/ 2 L 1L
2L 1L 2L

Since, 100 mL of oxygen is obtained by = 1 mL of H 2 O 2 .

Hydrogen and its Compounds 319
\1000 mL of oxygen will be obtained by
1
= ´ 1000 mL of H 2 O 2 = 10 mL of H 2 O 2
100
12. (c) In refreshing old oil paintings which becomes black due to the formation of black PbS,
H 2 O 2 converts it into white PbSO 4 .
13. (c) Degree of hardness of water is measured in terms of ppm by weight of CaCO 3 irrespective
of whether it is actually present or not.
14. (c) Spins of protons differ in ortho and para hydrogen
e– e– e– e–
p p p p

ortho hydrogen para hydrogen

[Parallel nuclear spins: [Anti-parallel nuclear spins:
total nuclear spin total nuclear spin
1 æ 1ö 1 æ 1ö
= + + çç + ÷÷ = 1] = + + çç - ÷÷ = 0]
2 è 2ø 2 è 2ø

15. (a) Ortho and para hydrogen, the allotropic forms of hydrogen those differ in the direction, of
spinning of protons, have same chemical properties but different physical properties.
16. (d) Chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium are responsible for the permanent
hardness of water.
17. (c) Semi-water gas is, in fact, a mixture of water gas (CO + H 2 ) and producer gas (CO + N 2 ).
Its approximate composition is CO = 25.28% ; N 2 = 50.55% ; H 2 = 10 - 12% ; CO 2 = 4 -5%.
18. (a) Washing soda, (Na 2 CO 3 × 10H 2 O) is used to remove permanent hardness of water. It
converts Ca 2+ and Mg 2+ salts (soluble) to carbonates (insoluble).
MgCl 2 + Na 2 CO 3 ¾® MgCO 3 ¯ + 2NaCl
CaSO 4 + Na 2 CO 3 ¾® CaCO 3 ¯ + 2Na 2 SO 4
19. (c) In the structure of H 2 O 2 , the two O — H bonds are in different planes due to the repulsion
between different bonding and antibonding orbitals.
20. (c) Permanent hardness of water is due to chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium.
Hardness can be removed by adding Na 2 CO 3 or by passing the water through an
ion-exchange column.
21. (a) Reduction
+1 0
+ H2O ¾® Ca(OH)2 + H2

+1 0
+ 6H2O ¾® 2Al(OH)3 + 3H2

22. (d) Na 2 Z + M 2+ ¾® 2Na + + MZ ( M = Ca or Mg)

Zeolite
23. (a) Volume strength = 5.6 ´ normality
 320 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

20
Normality = = 3.57 N
5.6
24. (c) Hoope's process ® Purification of Al
Le-Blanc process ® Manufacture of Na 2 CO 3
Lane’s process ® Manufacture of H 2 (by passing steam over spongy iron at 773-1050K)
3Fe + 4H 2 O ¾® Fe 3 O 4 + 4H 2
Carter's process ® Manufacture of basic lead carbonate.
25. (b) The hardness of water is estimated by simple titiration of ethylene diammine tetraacetate
(EDTA) solution. EDTA forms stable complexes with metal ions present in the hard water.
Since, stability constants of calcium and magnesium complexes of EDTA are different,
even the selective estimation of these ions is possible.
26. (b) TEL (tetraethyl lead) is used as antiknock agent in petrol engine.
D 2 O is used as moderator in nuclear reactor.
H 2 O 2 is used for bleaching delicate articles like Wood chair. It is also used as an antiseptic
and germicide.
R — O — R (ether) is used as a solvent.
27. (c) Ice floats on water because its density is less than that of water which in turn is due to
empty space in its crystal structure. Crystal structure of ice is regular hexagon with empty
spaces at the centre.
28. (c) The smallest species is hydrogen. It is the lightest known element.
29. (c) In laboratory, H 2 O 2 is prepared by Merck’s process shown as below :
Na 2 O 2 + H 2 SO 4 ¾® Na 2 SO 4 + H 2 O 2
Sodium Hydrogen
peroxide peroxide

30. (b) Hydrides of N, O and F because of the small size and high electro-negativity of elements,
have ability to form extensive intermolecular, (i.e., between two molecules) hydrogen
bonding. Thus, a large amount of energy is required to break these bonds, i.e., the melting
an boiling points of hydrides of these elements are abnormally high.
31. (a) Due to electron donating property of H 2 O 2 , it acts as a reducing agent in acidic as well in
alkaline medium and gets oxidised to O 2 .
H+
HOCl + H 2 O 2 ¾¾® H 3 O + + Cl - + O 2
On the other hand, its reaction with Mn 2+ , Fe 2+ and PbS, show its oxidising property in
which it reduces to H 2 O.
32. (c) 30 volume hydrogen peroxide means 1 cm 3 of this solution produces 30 cm 3 O 2 at STP.
33. (a) ‘ 10 V H 2 O 2 ’ means 1 L of this solution will produce 10 L O 2 at STP.
2H 2 O 2 ¾® 2H 2 O + O2
68 g 22.4 L at STP

Q 22.4 L of O 2 is obtained from H 2 O 2 = 68 g

\ 10 L of O 2 will be obtained from
68
H 2O 2 = ´ 10 = 30.36 g H 2 O 2 .
22.4
Hydrogen and its Compounds 321
100 mL of the given solution contains 30.36 g H 2 O 2 and 100 mL of the given solution
contains
30.36 ´ 100
= 3.039 H 2 O 2
1000
Thus, % strength of H 2 O 2 is 3.03 ( » 3).
34. (a) 100 volume hydrogen peroxide means 1 L of this solution produces 100 L O 2 at STP or 1
mL of this solution produces 100 mL O 2 at STP.
35. (c) 2H 2 O 2 ¾® 2H 2 O + O 2
2 mol 1 mol
= 2´ 34= 68 g 22400 mL
Q At STP, 68 g H 2 O 2 produced O 2 = 22400 mL
\ At STP, 0.68 g H 2 O 2 will produce
22400 ´ 0.68
O2 = = 224 mL
68
36. (a) In the reaction
Oxidation
+1 –1 0, –2 +1 –2 0
H2O2 + O3 H2O + 2O2
Reduction

Since H 2 O 2 oxidises O 3 into O 2 , thus it behaves as an oxidising agent.

Further in the reaction,
+1 –1 +1 –2 0 +1 –2 0
H2O2 + Ag2O 2Ag + H2O + O2
Reduction
Oxidation

Here H 2 O 2 reduces Ag 2 O into metallic (Ag) (as oxidation number is reducing from +1 to
0). Thus, H 2 O 2 behaves as a reducing agent.
37. (b) Q 1 mole water = 6.02 ´ 10 23 molecules
\ 18 mole water = 18 ´ 6.02 ´ 10 23 molecules
so, 18 mole water has maximum number of molecules.
38. (a,b) (a) and (b) option are incorrect.
Correct : Dihydrogen act as reducing agent for e.g., 3H 2 + N 2 ¾® 2NH 3
Correct : Hydrogen has three isotopes of which protium ( 1 H 1 ) is the most common.
40. (c) Clark’s process is used to remove temporary hardness of water. In this method quick lime is
added. The bicarbonates present in temporary hard water react with lime to form
insoluble calcium and magnesium carbonates which can be easily filtered off.
CaO + H 2 O ¾® Ca(OH) 2
Quick lime Lime water

Ca(HCO 3 ) 2 + Ca(OH) 2 ¾® 2CaCO 3 ¯ +2H 2 O

Mg(HCO 3 ) 2 + 2Ca(OH) 2 ¾® 2CaCO 3 ¯ +Mg(OH) 2 + 2H 2 O
 322 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

7
s-BLOCK ELEMENTS

Level 1
: Alkali Metals
1. Sodium bicarbonate has :
(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Hydrogen bond (d) All of these
2. Which of the following metal on burning in moist air does not give smell of ammonia ?
(a) Mg (b) Ca (c) K (d) Li
3. For the alkali metals, which of the following increases with increasing atomic number?
(a) First ionization energy (b) Electronegativity
(c) Hydration energy of the univalent ion (d) Atomic radius
4. Among the carbonates of alkali metals which one has highest thermal stability?
(a) Cs 2CO 3 (b) Rb 2CO 3 (c) K 2CO 3 (d) Na 2CO 3
5. Which of the following is most soluble in water?
(a) CsClO 4 (b) NaClO 4 (c) KClO 4 (d) LiClO 4
6. A solution of sodium in liquid ammonia is blue in colour due to :
(a) the presence of ions Na + (b) the presence of ammoniated electron
(c) the formation of NaNH 2 (d) the formation of sodium hydride
7. The basicity of the hydroxides of the following alkali metals is of the order :
(a) Li > Na > Rb > Cs (b) Na > Li > Rb > Cs
(c) Cs > Rb > Na > Li (d) Rb > Cs > Na > Li
8. The metallic lustre exhibited by sodium is explained by :
(a) diffusion of Na + ions (b) oscillation of loose electrons
(c) excitation of free protons (d) existence of body-centered cubic lattice
9. Soda lime is :
(a) Na+ CaO + H 2O (b) CaO + NaOH( aq)
(c) NaOH+ CaCO 3 (d) NaHCO 3 + CaO
s-Block Elements 323
10. The compound called microcosmic salt is :
(a) Na 2HPO 4 ×2H 2O (b) Na(NH 4 )HPO 4 ×4H 2O
(c) Na 2NH 4 PO 4 ×2H 2O (d) (NH 4 ) 2 HPO 4 ×2H 2O
11. Potassium when heated strongly in oxygen, it forms :
(a) K 2O (b) KO 2 (c) K 2O 2 (d) KO 3
12. When a concentrated solution of ammonia is saturated with sodium chloride in the presence
of pieces of dry ice, a water cloud forms. This is due to the :
(a) precipitation of sodium carbonate from the reaction mixture
(b) precipitation of sodium hydrogen carbonate from the reaction mixture
(c) precipitation of ammonium hydrogen carbonate from the mixture
(d) precipitation of ammonium carbonate
13. The compound formed on heating sodium metal in a current of dry ammonia gas, is :
(a) sodium imide (b) sodium nitrite (c) sodium amide (d) sodium azide
14. Which of the following compounds is not obtained when the products obtained from the
electrolysis of brine are mixed?
(a) NaCl (b) H 2 (c) NaOCl (d) Cl 2
15. When dry ammonia gas is passed over heated sodium (in absence of air) the product formed
is :
(a) sodium hydride (b) sodium nitride
(c) sodamide (d) sodium cyanamide
16. Which of the following compounds on heating liberate(s) oxygen ?
(a) Li 2CO 3 (b) LiOH (c) LiNO 3 (d) NaOH
17. Sodium peroxide is used to purify the air in submarines and confined spaces because :
(a) it removes CO 2 and produces O 2
(b) it decomposes to form Na 2O
(c) it reacts with oxygen to form sodium superoxide
(d) none of these
18. Which of the following salt is known as washing soda?
(a) Na 2CO 3 (b) Na 2CO 3 ×H 2O
(c) Na 2CO 3 ×10H 2O (d) Na 2CO 3 ×5H 2O
19. Which of the following compounds is formed when sodium burns in excess supply of air?
(a) Sodium suboxide (b) Sodium oxide
(c) Sodium peroxide (d) Sodium superoxide
20. Glauber’s salt is :
(a) Na 2SO 4 (b) Na 2SO 4 ×H 2O
(c) Na 2SO 4 ×5H 2O (d) Na 2SO 4 ×10H 2O
21. Sodium hydroxide is produced on a large scale :
(a) by the hydrolysis of Na 2CO 3
(b) by the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of NaCl
(c) by adding water to sodium oxide
(d) by reacting sodium with water
 324 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

22. Which of the following metal is used in flash bulbs?

(a) Be (b) Mg
(c) Ca (d) Ba
23. The pairs of compounds which cannot exist together in aqueous solution are :
(I) NaH 2PO 4 and Na 2HCO 3 (II) Na 2CO 3 and NaHCO 3
(III) NaOH and NaH 2PO 4 (IV) NaHCO 3 and NaOH
(a) I, II, III (b) III, IV
(c) I, IV (d) II, III
24. Which of the following reacts with NaOH solution and gives inflammable gas?
(a) S (b) Zn
(c) NH 4 Cl (d) I 2
25. In the reaction LiH + AlH 3 ® LiAlH 4 , AlH 3 and LiH acts as :
(a) Lewis acid and Lewis base (b) Lewis base and Lewis acid
(c) Bronsted base and Bronsted acid (d) None of these
26. Which of the following is the most important factor in making lithium metal, the strongest
reducing agent?
(a) Ionisation energy (b) Hydration energy (c) Heat of sublimation (d) None of these
27. Which set of compounds in the following pair of ionic compounds has the higher lattice
energy?
(i) KCl and MgO (ii) LiF and LiBr (iii) Mg 3N 2 and NaCl
(a) KCl, LiBr, Mg 2N 2 (b) MgO,LiBr,Mg 3N 2
(c) MgO,LiF,NaCl (d) MgO, LiF, Mg 3N 2
28. Among the following the compound having lowest melting point is :
(a) LiCl (b) CsCl
(c) RbCl (d) KCl
29. Incorrect statement is :
(a) NaHCO 3 and KHCO 3 have same crystal structure
(b) On heating LiNO 3 decomposes into Li 2O and NO 2
(c) Among alkali metals, Li metal impart red colour to flame
(d) Li 2SO 4 does not form alum
30. The solubility of metal halides depends on their nature, lattice enthalpy and hydration
enthalpy of the individual ions. Amongst fluorides of alkali metals, the lowest solubility of LiF
in water is due to :
(a) ionic nature of lithium fluoride (b) high lattice enthalpy
(c) high hydration enthalpy of lithium ion (d) low ionisation enthalpy of lithium atom
31. The reducing power of a metal depends on various factors. Suggest the factor which makes Li
metal the strongest reducing agent in aqueous solution :
(a) Sublimation enthalpy (b) Ionisation enthalpy
(c) Hydration enthalpy (d) Electron-gain enthalpy
more CO 2
32. KO 2 + CO 2 + H 2O ¾¾¾¾® [ X ] + [Y ]
Products [X] and [Y] are respectively :
s-Block Elements 325
(a) K 2CO 3 , O 2 (b) KHCO 3 , O 2
(c) KOH, K 2CO 3 (d) KHCO 3 , H 2O
33. The correct order of increasing solubility in water is :
(a) KF < NaF < LiF (b) NaHCO 3 < KHCO 3 < RbHCO 3
(c) K 2CO 3 < Na 2CO 3 < Li 2CO 3 (d) LiNO 3 < NaNO 3 < KNO 3
34. Which of the following carbonate salt is soluble due to high entropy change ?
(a) K 2CO 3 (b) Li 2CO 3
(c) (NH 4 ) 2 CO 3 (d) Na 2CO 3
35. Which of the following compounds decompose on heating?
(a) NaHCO 3 (b) Na 2CO 3
(c) CaCO 3 (d) K 2SO 4
36. Li does not resemble with other alkali metals in following properties :
(a) Li 2CO 3 decomposes into oxides while other alkali metal carbonates are thermally stable
(b) LiCl is predominantly covalent
(c) Li 3N is formed, when Li metal is heated with N 2 gas
(d) all are correct
37. Which of the following statement about the sulphate of alkali metal is correct?
(a) Except Li 2SO 4 all sulphate of other alkali metals are soluble in water
(b) All sulphate salts of alkali metals except lithium sulphate forms alum.
(c) All sulphate salts of alkali metals except lithium sulphate do not decompose at high temperature
(d) All of the above
38. Alkali metals possess metallic lustre when freshly cut because :
(a) they have a hard surface and light is reflected back
(b) their crystal structure contains ordered arrangement of constituent atoms
(c) they contain loosely bound electrons which absorb the photons and then re-emit
(d) they are obtained from the minerals on which light has been falling for years
39. Select incorrect statement :
(a) Li 2CO 3 is only sparingly soluble in water and no LiHCO 3 has been isolated
(b) K 2CO 3 can not be made by a method similar to the solvey process
(c) Li 2CO 3 and MgCO 3 both are thermally stable
(d) Na 2CO 3 ×NaHCO 3 ×2H 2O is a mineral called trona
40. Melting point of a mixture of Na 2CO 3 + K 2CO 3 , mixture is :
(a) higher than that of Na 2CO 3
(b) higher than that of K 2CO 3
(c) lower than that of both Na 2CO 3 and K 2CO 3
(d) lower than that of K 2CO 3 only
41. Select incorrect statement :
(a) Stability of peroxides and superoxides of alkali metals increases with increases in size of
the metal ion
(b) NaOH does not form hydrated salt
(c) Increases in stability in (a) is due to stabilisation of large anions by larger cations through
lattice energy effects
 326 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(d) The low solubility of LiF is due to its high lattice energy whereas low solubility of CsI is
due to smaller hydration energy
42. The alkali metals dissolve in liquid NH 3 . It is observed that :
(a) the dilute solution are blue but the colour changes to bronze with increasing
concentration
(b) the blue colour is due to the presence of solvated electrons
(c) the blue solutions are paramagnetic but the bronze coloured solutions are diamagnetic
(d) all the facts given above are found
43. Among the nitrate of alkali metals which one can be decomposed to its oxide on strong
heating?
(a) NaNO 3 (b) KNO 3
(c) LiNO 3 (d) All of these
44. When a standard solution of NaOH is left in air for a few hours :
(a) a precipitate will form
(b) strength of solution will decrease
(c) the strength of solution will increase
(d) the concentration of Na + ion in solution will remains same
45. Addition of Na 2CO 3 to a solution of an oxide in water produces CO 2 . This experiment
indicates that :
(a) the oxide is basic (b) the oxide is amphoteric
(c) the oxide is that of a metal (d) the oxide is that of a non-metal
BaCl 2
46. Salt A + S ¾® B ¾¾® White ppt.
A is paramagnetic in nature and contains about 55% K. Thus, A is :
(a) K 2O (b) K 2O 2
(c) KO 2 (d) K 2SO 4
47. Baking powder used to make cake is a mixture of starch, NaHCO 3 and Ca(H 2PO 4 ) 2 . The
function of Ca(H 2PO 4 ) 2 is :
(a) to slow down the release of CO 2 gas
(b) being acidic in nature and gives CO 2 when moistened with NaHCO 3
(c) to act as a filler
(d) None of the above
48. To an acidified dichromate solution, a pinch of Na 2O 2 is added and shaken. What is observed?
(a) Blue colour (b) Orange colour changing to green directly
(c) Copious evolution of oxygen (d) Bluish-green precipitate
49. Which of the following compounds is consumed during the preparation of Na 2CO 3 by Solvay’s
process?
(a) NH 3 , CaCO 3 , NaCl (b) NH 4 , ClCaO, NaCl
(c) CaCO 3 , NaCl (d) NaCl, NH 4 HCO 3
50. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Sodium and potassium are soft and silvery white metals
(b) Sodium and potassium in air get tarnished due to the formation of a layer of oxide or
carbonates
s-Block Elements 327
(c) Sodium and potassium burn in dry oxygen (excess) giving peroxides
(d) Sodium and potassium are kept under kerosene to avoid the contact with air and moisture
51. Nitrogen dioxide cannot be obtained from :
(a) Cu(NO 3 ) 2 (b) Hg(NO 3 ) 2
(c) NaNO 3 (d) AgNO 3
O2 H 2O
52. ‘ A’ + H 2O ¾® NaOH ; ‘ A’ ¾¾® B ¾¾¾® NaOH+ O 2
400 °C at 25 °C
B is used for oxygenating in submarine. A and B are :
(a) Na 2O 2 and Na 2O (b) Na 2O and Na 2O 2
(c) Na 2O 2 and O 2 (d) Na 2O and O 2
53. CaCl 2 is preferred over NaCl for clearing ice on roads particularly in very cold countries. This is
because :
(a) CaCl 2 is less soluble in H 2O than NaCl
(b) CaCl 2 is hygroscopic but NaCl is not
(c) Eutectic mixture of CaCl 2 /H 2O freezes at –55°C while that of NaCl/H 2O freezes at –18°C
(d) NaCl makes the road slipperty but CaCl 2 does not
54. A metal which does not react with nitrogen is :
(a) Li (b) K (c) Ca (d) Mg
55. Which statement is incorrect ?
(a) Manufacture of Na 2CO 3 is done by Solvay process.
(b) Manufacture of K 2CO 3 is done by Solvay process.
(c) Manufacture of NaOH is done by Castner Kellner process.
(d) Manufacture of NaHCO 3 is done by Solvay process.
56. When sodium reacts with sufficient amount of air, the product obtained is :
(a) Na 2O (b) Na 2O 2
(c) NaO 2 (d) NaO
57. NaNO 3 ¾ 800¾¾ °C
® X + Y + Z
(Solid ) (Solid ) ( Diamagnetic gas ) ( Paramagnetic gas )

The correct statement regarding above thermal decomposition is :

(a) ‘ X ’ is neutral oxide. (b) Bond energy of ‘ Y ’ is greater than ‘ Z ’.
(c) Both ‘ Y ’ and ‘ Z ’ coloured and odourless. (d) It is a non-redox reaction.
58. Which one of the following statement is true for all the alkali metals ?
(a) Their nitrates decompose on heating to give NO 2 and O 2 gas.
(b) Their carbonates decompose on heating to give CO 2 and normal oxide.
(c) Oxide ( M 2O) and peroxides ( M 2O 2 ) of alkali metals are diamagnetic.
(d) All alkali metals bicarbonates exist in solid state.
59. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid ammonia, which of following does
not occur ?
(a) Blue coloured solution is obtained.
(b) Na + ions are formed in solution.
(c) Liquid ammonia becomes good conductor of electricity.
(d) The liquid ammonia remains diamagnetic.
 328 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

60. In synthesis of sodium carbonate by Solvay process, the recovery of ammonia is done by
treating NH 4 Cl with Ca(OH) 2 . The by-product obtained in this process is :
(a) CaCl 2 (b) NaCl (c) NaOH (d) NaHCO 3
Warm
61. For reaction : NH 3(liq) + Na ¾ ¾¾® P + Q ­
Incorrect statement is :
(a) Hydrolysis of ‘ P ’ produces NH 3 gas.
(b) Gas ‘ Q ’ reacts with heated alkali metals.
(c) Anionic part of ‘ P ’ is weaker base than NH 3 .
(d) Gas Q is also produced, when Li metal is heated with NH 3 gas.
62. Correct order of monoxide formation tendency among alkali metal is :
(a) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs (b) Li < Na <K < Rb < Cs
(c) Li > Na > K < Rb < Cs (d) None

63. Which one the following reaction is not associated with the Solvay process ?
(a) NH 3 + H 2O + CO 2 (excess) ¾® NH 4 HCO 3
(b) NaCl + NH 4 HCO 3 ¾® NaHCO 3 + NH 4 Cl
D
(c) 2NaHCO 3 ¾¾ ® Na 2CO 3 + H 2O + CO 2
(d) 2NaOH + CO 2 ¾® Na 2CO 3 + H 2O
64. Which salt will not impart colour to the bunsen flame ?
(a) LiCl (b) MgCl 2 (c) KCl (d) CaCl 2

: Alkaline Earth Metals

65. Mg 2C 3 reacts with water forming propyne gas. C 4-
3 ions has :
(a) two sigma and two pi bonds (b) three sigma and one pi bond
(c) two sigma and one pi bond (d) two sigma and three pi bonds
66. The fluoride which is most soluble in water is :
(a) CaF2 (b) BaF2 (c) SrF2 (d) BeF2
67. The highest occupied energy level of the group 2 elements radius is 7 s 2 , which of these
statements is likely to be incorrect?
(a) The element will show an oxidation state of +II in all its compounds
(b) The element will decompose water, liberating hydrogen
(c) Hydroxide of the element will be amphoteric
(d) Metal carbonate is relative stable at higher temperature than calcium carbonate
68. Amongst the following hydroxides, the one which has the highest value of Ksp at ordinary
temperature is :
(a) Mg(OH) 2 (b) Ca(OH) 2
(c) Sr(OH) 2 (d) Ba(OH) 2
69. Which of the following alkaline earth metal hydroxides is the least soluble in water?
(a) Be(OH) 2 (b) Mg(OH) 2
(c) Ca(OH) 2 (d) Ba(OH) 2
s-Block Elements 329
70. The thermal stability of BaCO 3 , CaCO 3 , SrCO 3 and MgCO 3 decreases in the order :
(a) BaCO 3 > SrCO 3 > MgCO 3 > CaCO 3 (b) CaCO 3 > SrCO 3 > MgCO 3 > BaCO 3
(c) MgCO 3 > CaCO 3 > SrCO 3 > BaCO 3 (d) BaCO 3 > SrCO 3 > CaCO 3 > MgCO 3
71. Magnesium cation has polarising power close to that of :
(a) Li + (b) Na + (c) K + (d) Cs +
72. Which of the following salt does not impart colour to the flame?
(a) MgCl 2 (b) SrCl 2
(c) BaCl 2 (d) LiCl
73. Mortar is mixture of :
(a) Ca(OH) 2 , silica and water (b) CaCO 3 and SiO 2
(c) CaO and silica (d) CaCO 3 , SiO 2 and water
74. When MgCl 2 × 6H 2O is strongly heated, then it forms :
(a) MgO (b) Mg(OH) 2
(c) Mg(OH)Cl (d) MgCl 2
75. A piece of magnesium ribbon is heated to redness in an atmosphere of nitrogen and on cooling
with water, the evolved gas is :
(a) ammonia (b) hydrogen
(c) nitrogen (d) oxygen
76. Plaster of Paris when mixed with the correct amount of water sets into a solid mass due to the
formation of :
(a) CaSO 4 (b) (CaSO 4 ) 2 × H 2O
(c) CaSO 4 ×2H 2O (d) CaO
77. Plaster of Paris is :
(a) CaSO 4 (b) CaSO 4 ×7H 2O
(c) 2CaSO 4 ×H 2O (d) CaSO 4 ×2H 2O
78. Magnesium liberates H 2 on reaction with :
(a) dil. HCl (b) dil. H 2SO 4
(c) very dil. HNO 3 (d) all of these
79. At high temperature, nitrogen combines with CaC 2 to give :
(a) calcium cyanide (b) calcium cyanamide
(c) calcium carbonate (d) calcium nitride
80. Calcium hydride on hydrolysis forms?
(a) CaO + H 2 (b) Ca(OH) 2 only
(c) Ca(OH) 2 + H 2 (d) only CaO
81. Magnesium wire is heated in the atmosphere of CO 2 then :
(a) magnesium acts as an oxidising agent
(b) magnesium has two electrons in the outermost shell
(c) magnesium acts as a reducing agent and removes oxygen from CO 2
(d) none of the above
82. MgO is used for lining furnaces because :
(a) of high melting point of MgO (b) MgO is a very good conductor of heat
(c) MgO is an electrical insulator (d) None of these
 330 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

83. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl 2 , MgCl 2 , the compounds with greatest and least ionic character
respectively are :
(a) LiCl and RbCl (b) RbCl and BeCl 2
(c) RbCl and MgCl 2 (d) MgCl 2 and BeCl 2
84. Which of the following compounds does not have similarity in their structural aspect?
(a) FeSO 4 ×7H 2O (b) Na 2CO 3 ×7H 2O
(c) MgSO×7H 2O (d) ZnSO 4 ×7H 2O
85. By adding gypsum to cement :
(a) Setting time of cement becomes less (b) Setting time of cement increases
(c) Colour of cement becomes light (d) Shining surface is obtained
86. A compound (A) is used in preparation of washing soda to recover ammonia in Solvay's
process. When CO 2 is bubbled through an aqueous solution of (A), the solution turns milky. It
is used in white washing due to disinfectant nature. What is the chemical formula of A?
(a) Ca(HCO 3 ) 2 (b) CaO
(c) Ca(OH) 2 (d) CaCO 3
87. Which is not similar characteristic(s) about the electronic configuration of Be, Mg, Ca ?
(a) All the atoms have a pair of s-electrons in their outermost energy level
(b) All the atoms contain a pair of p-electrons in their outermost energy level
(c) All are alkaline earth metals
(d) All are of second group of the periodic table
88. The incorrect order of solubility in water is :
(a) Ca(OH) 2 < Sr(OH) 2 < Ba(OH) 2 (b) Li 2CO 3 < Na 2CO 3 < K 2CO 3
(c) CsNO 3 < RbNO 3 < KNO 3 (d) BaS 2O 3 < MgS 2O 3 < CaS 2O 3
89. Which metal bicarbonates does not exist in solid state?
(i) LiHCO 3 (ii) Ca(HCO 3 ) 2 (iii) Zn(HCO 3 ) 2 (iv) AgHCO 3
(a) i, ii, iii, iv (b) i, ii, iii
(c) i, ii, iv (d) ii, iii, iv
90. Which of the following order is correct ?
(a) K + < Ca 2+ < P 3- < S 2- : Ionic size
(b) Na+ + + +
( aq.) > K ( aq.) > Rb ( aq.) > Cs ( aq.): Electrical conductance

(c) Al (3+ 2+ +
aq.) > Mg ( aq.) > Na ( aq.): Hydrated size

(d) I(-aq.) < Br(-aq.) < Cl (-aq.) < F(-aq.): Ionic mobility

2 D H O HCl
91. Metal M + air ¾® A ¾® B ¾® White fumes; Metal M can be :
(a) Li, Mg (b) Li, Al or K
(c) Na, K or Mg (d) Li, Na or K
92. X and Y are two metals. When burnt in air, X forms only oxide while Y forms oxide and nitride.
The metals X and Y may be :
(a) Ca and Mg (b) Na and Mg
(c) Li and Na (d) Na and K
s-Block Elements 331
93. Which is incorrect statement?
(a) The heats of hydration of the dipositive alkaline earth metal ions decrease with an
increase in their ionic size
(b) NaNO 3 forms Na 2O 2 on heating
(c) Hydration of alkali metal ion is less than that of IIA group
(d) Alkaline earth metal ions, because of their much larger charge to size ratio, exert a much
stronger electrostatic attraction on the oxygen of water molecule surrounding them
94. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) The atomic radius of Na is greater than that of Mg
(b) Metallic bond of Mg is stronger than the metallic bond in Na
(c) Melting and boiling points of Mg are greater than those of Ca
(d) Mg and Ca are the most abundant elements amongst the alkaline earth metals
95. Select incorrect statement about alkaline earth metals :
(a) Solubility of sulphates decreases down the group
(b) Solubility of hydroxides decreases down the group
(c) Thermal stability of carbonates increases down the group
(d) Basic nature increases down the group
96. In polymeric (BeCl 2 ) n , there are :
(a) three centre four-electron bonds (b) three centre three-electron bonds
(c) two centre three-electron bonds (d) two centre two-electron bonds
97. A metal is burnt in air and the ash on moistening smells of NH 3 . The metal is :
(a) Na (b) Fe (c) Mg (d) Al
98. Which is not obtained when metal carbides react with H 2O?
(a) Al 4 C 3 + H 2O ¾® CH ºº CH (b) CaC 2 + H 2O ¾® CH ºº CH
(c) Mg 4 C 3 + H 2O ¾® CH 3C ºº CH (d) Be 2C+ H 2O ¾® CH 4
99. Choose incorrect statement :
(a) BeCO 3 is kept in the atmosphere of CO 2 since, it is least thermally stable
(b) Be dissolves in alkali forming [Be(OH) 4 ]2-
(c) BeF2 forms complex ion with NaF in which Be goes with cation
(d) BeF2 forms complex ion with NaF in which Be goes with anion
100. II A (alkaline earth metals) and II B (zinc family) resemble :
(a) MgSO 4 × 7H 2O is isomorphous with ZnSO 4 × 7H 2O
(b) II A and II B cations are not precipitated by H 2S in acidic medium
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
101. Select the correct statement :
(a) Be and Al show diagonal relationship
(b) Be forms tetrahedral complexes [Be(C 2O 4 ) 2 ]2-
(c) Al forms AlF63- , an octahedral complex
(d) All are correct statements
 332 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

102. Calcium imide on hydrolysis gives gas (B) which on oxidation by bleaching powder gives gas
(C). Gas (C) on reaction with magnesium give compound (D) which on hydrolysis gives again
gas (B). Identify (B), (C) and (D).
(a) NH 3 , N 2 , Mg 3N 2 (b) N 2 , NH 3 , MgNH
(c) N 2 , N 2O 5 , Mg(NO 3 ) 2 (d) NH 3 , NO 2 , Mg(NO 2 ) 2
103. A compound X on heating gives a colourless gas. The residue is dissolved in water to obtain Y.
Excess CO 2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of Y and Z is formed. Z on gentle heating
gives back X. The X is :
(a) CaCO 3 (b) Ca(HCO 3 ) 2
(c) Na 2CO 3 (d) NaHCO 3
104. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) The milk of magnesia used as antacid is chemically MgO + MgCl 2 .
(b) Stability of alkali metal peroxides increases with increase in atomic number.
(c) Hydration energy of AgF is higher than its lattice energy.
(d) Anhydrous MgCl 2 cannot be prepared by direct heating of MgCl 2 × 6H 2O.
105. The more commonly used baking powder contains about 30% NaHCO 3 , 20% NaAl(SO 4 ) 2 ,
10% Ca(H 2PO 4 ) 2 and 40% starch. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Ca(H 2PO 4 ) 2 is acidic and when moistened it reacts with NaHCO 3 evolving CO 2 gas.
(b) NaAl(SO 4 ) 2 slows down the decomposition reaction of NaHCO 3 so that CO 2 is evolved
more slowly.
(c) NaAl(SO 4 ) 2 is acidic and when moistened it reacts with NaHCO 3 evolving CO 2 .
(d) Both (a) and (b)
106. The solubility of Na 2SO 4 , BeSO 4 , MgSO 4 and BaSO 4 in water follow the order :
(a) BaSO 4 > BeSO 4 > MgSO 4 > Na 2SO 4 (b) Na 2SO 4 > BeSO 4 > MgSO 4 > BaSO 4
(c) BeSO 4 > MgSO 4 > BaSO 4 > Na 2SO 4 (d) MgSO 4 > BeSO 4 > Na 2SO 4 > BaSO 4
107. Which of the following on thermal decomposition yields a basic as well as acidic oxide ?
(a) NaNO 3 (b) KClO 3 (c) CaCO 3 (d) NH 4 NO 3
108. On hydrolysis CaC 2 gives a gas which on trimerisation gives :
(a) C 2H 2 (b) C 6 H 6 (c) C 2H 4 (d) C 3H 8
109. The order of increasing lattice energy of the following salt is :
(a) NaCl < CaO < NaBr < BaO (b) NaBr < NaCl < BaO < CaO
(c) NaCl < NaBr < BaO < CaO (d) NaBr < NaCl < CaO < BaO
110. Which of the following statements about alkaline earth metals are correct ?
(i) Hydration energy of Sr 2+ is greater than that of Be 2+
(ii) CaCO 3 decomposes at a higher temperature than BaCO 3
(iii) Ba (OH) 2 is stronger base than Mg (OH) 2
(iv) SrSO 4 is less soluble in water than CaSO 4
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
s-Block Elements 333

: Miscellaneous
D
111. A ¾¾ ®B +C­
B ¾ H¾ 2O
¾ ®D
D + C ¾¾® A
where A is limestone, select correct statement for identification of gas ‘ C ’.
(a) coloured gas
(b) decolourize acidic KMnO 4
(c) suffocating odour
(d) Gives white turbidity with Baryta water and lime water
112. Select the incorrect order for given property :
(a) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH (thermal stability order)
(b) CdCO 3 > CaCO 3 > K 2CO 3 (Covalent character order)
(c) BaCO 3 > CaCO 3 > MgCO 3 (thermal stability order)
(d) BeF2 > MgF2 > CaF2 > SrF2 (Solubility in water)
113. Which is correct order ?
(1) CaCO 3 < NaHCO 3 < KHCO 3 : order of solubility
(2) BeCO 3 < MgCO 3 < CaCO 3 : order of solubility
(3) Zn(OH) 2 < Mg(OH) 2 < NaOH < KOH : order of basic character
(4) BeCl 2 < MgCl 2 < CaCl 2 : order of ionic character
Correct code is :
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3, 4 (c) 1, 2 (d) only 3
 334 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 2
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as assertion and reason, while
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following responses.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(C) If assertion is true but the reason is false
(D) If assertion is false but the reason is true
1. Assertion : Li 2SO 4 does not form double salt like alum.
Reason : Li reacts with NH 3 gas to form LiNH 2 .
2. Assertion : BeCl 2 cannot be easily hydrolysed.
Reason : BeCl 2 is electron deficient compound.
3. Assertion : K + and NH +4 ions have many similarities in their test.
Reason : Radius of K + is almost equal to radius of NH +4 .
4. Assertion : Alums are crystalline double salts, which are soluble in water.
Reason : The aq. solutions of alums have acidic character due to hydrolysis.
5. Assertion : Mg gets oxidised, when heated in CO 2 atmosphere.
Reason : Mg has a strongly affinity for oxygen.
6. Assertion : Mg 2+ + ZnSO 4 ¾® MgSO 4 + Zn 2+
Reason : More active metal can displace less active metal from its salt solution.
7. Assertion : Li resembles with Mg in properties.
Reason : Li + has almost same polarising power as Mg 2+ .
8. Assertion : Be(OH) 2 dissolves in excess NaOH solution.
Reason : Be(OH) 2 is an acidic compound.
9. Assertion : SO 2-
4 is estimated as BaSO 4 but not as MgSO 4 .
Reason : Ionic radius of Mg 2+ is smaller than that of Ba 2+ .
10. Assertion : Alkali earth metals have lower densities than alkali metals.
Reason : Atomic radii of alkaline earth metals are smaller than that of corresponding
alkali metals.
11. Assertion : Magnesium does not impart characteristic colour to the bunsen-burner flame.
Reason : Ionisation energy of Mg is very high.
12. Assertion : Among hydroxides of alkali metals, LiOH is the weakest base.
Reason : Among alkali metals, lithium has the highest ionisation energy.
13. Assertion : BaSO 4 is insoluble in water.
Reason : Lattice energy of BaSO 4 is higher than its hydration energy.
14. Assertion : CsI is sparingly soluble in water.
Reason : Hydration energy of Cs + and I - ions are higher than lattice energy.
s-Block Elements 335
15. Assertion : Potassium is not obtained by the electrolysis of fused KCl.
Reason : Potassium vapourises at the melting point of KCl.
16. Assertion : M.P. of BeCl 2 is less than that of MgCl 2 , but reverse is true for their thermal
stability.
Reason : M.P. and thermal stability of both compounds depend upon their lattice energy.
17. Assertion : Li is most strong reducing agent among alkali metals.
Reason : Hydration energy of Li+ is maximum among the alkali metals.
18. Assertion : K, Rb and Cs from superoxide.
Reason : The stability of the superoxide increases from K to Cs due to decrease in lattice
energy. (EAMCET 2009)
19. Assertion : Among the alkali metals, lithium salts exhibit the least electrical conductance in
aqueous solutions.
Reason : Smaller the radius of the hydrated cation, lower is the electrical conductance in
aqueous solutions. (AIIMS 2009)
20. Assertion : Bleaching powder is a mixed salt.
Reason : In the presence of CoCl 2 , bleaching powder decomposes to give CaCl 2 and O 2 .
(AIIMS 2009)
21. Assertion : CsI is least soluble of all caesium halides in water.
Reason : It is due to low hydration energy. (AIIMS 2012)
22. Assertion : BaCO 3 is more soluble in HNO 3 than in water.
Reason : Carbonate is a weak base and reacts with H + from the strong acid, causing the
barium salt to dissociate. (AIIMS 2013)
336 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 3
1. Which of the following statements about alkaline earth metals are correct?
(Kerala CEE 2005)
I. Hydration energy of Sr 2+ is greater than that of Be 2+ .
II. CaCO 3 decomposes at a higher temperature than BaCO 3 .
III. Ba(OH) 2 is a stronger base than Mg(OH) 2 .
IV. SrSO 4 is less soluble in water than CaSO 4 .
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only IV (b) I and III (c) I and IV (d) II and III
(e) III and IV
2. Consider the following abbreviations for hydrated alkali ions
X = [Li(H 2O) n ]+ , Y = [K(H 2O) n ]+
Z = [Cs(H 2O) n ]+
What is the correct order of size of these hydrated alkali ions? (J&K CET 2006)
(a) X > Y > Z (b) Z > Y > X (c) X = Y = Z (d) Z > X > Y
3. Potassium superoxide finds use in breathing equipment and safe guards the user to breathe in
oxygen generated internally in the apparatus without being exposed to toxic fumes outside.
The supply of oxygen is due to
I. slow decomposition of KO 2 .
II. reaction of superoxide with moisture in the exhaled air.
III. reaction of KO 2 with CO 2 in the exhaled air.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (Kerala CEE 2007)
(a) I, II and III (b) II and III (c) Only III (d) I and II
(e) Only II
4. The correct order of stability for the following superoxides is : (EAMCET 2008)
(a) KO 2 > RbO 2 > CsO 2 (b) RbO 2 > CsO 2 > KO 2
(c) CsO 2 > RbO 2 > KO 2 (d) KO 2 > CsO 2 > RbO 2
5. Which of the following on thermal decomposition yields a basic as well as an acidic oxide?
(Kerala CEE 2008)
(a) KClO 3 (b) Na 2CO 3 (c) NaNO 3 (d) CaCO 3
(e) NH 4 NO 3
6. Select the correct statement(s). (AIIMS 2008)
(a) Cyanamide ion (CN 2- 2 ) is isoelectronic with CO 2 and has the same linear structure
(b) Mg 2C 3 reacts with water to form propyne
(c) CaC 2 has NaCl type lattice
(d) All of these
Cl
7. Ca(OH) 2 ¾ ¾2 ® A ¾ Auto-
¾ ¾oxidation
¾¾ ¾® CaCl 2 + B
- H 2O
Dry

Identify B in the above reaction : (EAMCET 2008)

s-Block Elements 337
(a) CaOCl 2 (b) Ca(ClO 3 ) 2 (c) Ca(OH) 2 (d) Ca(ClO 2 ) 2
8. The solubilities of carbonates decrease down the magnesium group due to the decrease in :
(RPMT 2008)
(a) lattice energies of solid (b) hydration energies of cations
(c) inter-ionic attraction (d) entropy of solution formation
9. The characteristic not related to alkali metals is : (Karnataka CET 2009)
(a) their ions are isoelectronic with noble gases
(b) low melting point
(c) low electronegativity
(d) high ionisation energy
10. Which physical property in the alkali metal group increases with atomic number?
(AMU 2009)
(a) Melting point (b) Electronegativity
(c) Hydration enthalpy (d) Density
11. In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order: (AIPMT 2009)
(a) MCl > MI > MBr > MF (b) MF > MCl > MBr > MI
(c) MF > MCl > MI > MBr (d) MI > MBr > MCl > MF
12. Excess of sodium hydroxide reacts with zinc to form : (Manipal 2009)
(a) ZnH 2 (b) Na 2ZnO 2
(c) ZnO (d) Zn(OH) 2
13. Among the following, the least thermally stable is : (J&K CET 2009)
(a) K 2CO 3 (b) Na 2CO 3 (c) BaCO 3 (d) Li 2CO 3
14. Which of the following compounds does not give a precipitate with excess of NaOH?
(AFMC 2009)
(a) ZnSO 4 (b) FeSO 4
(c) AgNO 3 (d) HgCl 2
15. Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?
(AIPMT 2009)
(a) B 2O 3 (b) CaO (c) SiO 2 (d) BeO
16. Correct order of stability of group II A metal carbonates is : (Odisha JEE 2009)
(a) MgCO 3 > CaCO 3 > SrCO 3 > BaCO 3 (b) BaCO 3 > SrCO 3 > CaCO 3 > MgCO 3
(c) SrCO 3 > BaCO 3 > CaCO 3 > MgCO 3 (d) CaCO 3 > MgCO 3 > BaCO 3 > SrCO 3
17. Which of the following will give H 2 gas with dilute HNO 3 ? (UP CPMT 2009)
(a) Mg (b) Zn (c) Cu (d) Hg
18. For alkali metals, which one of the following trends is incorrect? (Karnataka CET 2010)
(a) Hydration energy, Li > Na > K > Rb (b) Ionisation energy, Li > Na > K > Rb
(c) Density, Li < Na < K < Rb (d) Atomic size, Li < Na < K < Rb
19. The ionic mobility of alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is maximum for : (RPMT 2010)
+ + + +
(a) K (b) Rb (c) Li (d) Na
20. The highly reactive alkali metals are kept in: (UP CPMT 2010)
(a) air (b) water (c) kerosene (d) All of these
 338 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

21. The yellow coloured flame is of : (MP PMT 2010)

(a) Na (b) K (c) Ca (d) Ba
22. Among the alkali metals caesium is the most reactive because : (RPMT 2010)
(a) its incomplete shell is nearest to the nucleus
(b) it has a single electron in the valence shell
(c) it is the heaviest alkali metal
(d) the outermost electron is more loosely bound than the outermost electron of the other
alkali metals
23. Washing soda is : (MP PMT 2010)
(a) Na 2CO 3 (b) Na 2CO 3 × H 2O
(c) Na 2CO 3 × 5H 2O (d) Na 2CO 3 × 10H 2O
24. Property of the alkaline earth metals that increase with their atomic number is :
(AIPMT 2010)
(a) electronegativity (b) solubility of their hydroxides in water
(c) solubility of their sulphates in water (d) ionisation energy
25. The solubilities of Na 2SO 4 , BeSO 4 , MgSO 4 and BaSO 4 will follow the order : (AMU 2010)
(a) BeSO 4 > MgSO 4 > Na 2SO 4 > BaSO 4 (b) BeSO 4 > Na 2SO 4 > MgSO 4 > BaSO 4
(c) MgSO 4 > BeSO 4 > Na 2SO 4 > BaSO 4 (d) Na 2SO 4 > BeSO 4 > MgSO 4 > BaSO 4
26. Epsom salt is : (RPMT 2010; VMMC 2010)
(a) MgSO 4 × 7H 2O (b) CaSO 4 × H 2O
(c) MgSO 4 × 2H 2O (d) BaSO 4 × 2H 2O
27. In aqueous solution, the most stable sulphate is : (UP CPMT 2010)
(a) BeSO 4 (b) MgSO 4 (c) CaSO 4 (d) BaSO 4
28. Which of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has hydration enthalpy higher than the
lattice enthalpy? (AIPMT 2010)
(a) SrSO 4 (b) CaSO 4 (c) BeSO 4 (d) BaSO 4
29. Which one of the following is true? (Karnataka CET 2011)
(a) NaOH is used in the concentration of baurix ore
(b) NaOH is a primary standard in volumetric analysis
(c) Manganous hydroxide is soluble in excess of NaOH solution
(d) NaOH solution does not react with Cl 2
30. Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for
bleaching action? (AIPMT 2011)
(a) CaCl 2 (b) CaOCl 2 (c) Ca(OCl) 2 (d) CaO 2Cl 2
31. Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point? (AIPMT 2011)
(a) CaF2 (b) CaCl 2 (c) CaBr 2 (d) CaI 2
32. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid NH 3 at low temperature, which one
of the following does not occur? (AFMC 2012)
+
(a) Na ions are formed in the solution
(b) Blue coloured solution is obtained
(c) Liquid NH 3 becomes good conductor of electricity
(d) Liquid NH 3 remains diamagnetic
s-Block Elements 339
33. The ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion-exchange resin follows the
order. (AIPMT 2012)
(a) Li + < K + < Na + < Rb + (b) Rb + < K + < Na + < Li +
(c) K + < Na + < Rb + < Li + (d) Na + < Li + < K + < Rb +
34. Which of the alkali metals forms only the normal oxide, M 2O on heating in air?
(AIPMT 2012)
(a) Rb (b) K (c) Li (d) Na
35. The chief component of cement that has property of setting quickly and acquiring considerable
strength within few days is : (AMU 2012)
(a) tricalcium silicate (3CaO × SiO 2 ) (b) dicalcium silicate (2CaO × SiO 2 )
(c) tricalcium aluminate (3CaO × Al 2O 3 ) (d) All of these
36. The decomposition temperature is lowest for : (AMU 2012)
(a) BeCO 3 (b) MgCO 3 (c) SrCO 3 (d) BaCO 3
37. Which of the following metal hydroxides does not dissolve in sodium hydroxide solution?
(Karnataka CET 2013)
(a) Zn(OH) 2 (b) Al(OH) 3
(c) Fe(OH) 3 (d) Pb(OH) 2
38. Sodium carbonate is manufactured by : (WB JEE 2013)
(a) Lawing process (b) Le-blanc process
(c) Solvay process (d) Haber's process
39. When sodium hydroxide reacts with sand, it forms: (WB JEE 2013)
(a) sodium silicate (b) silicon oxide
(c) silicon hydroxides (d) None of these
40. Water glass is: (AIIMS 2013)
(a) Na 2SiO 3 (b) Mg 2Si (c) SiCl 4 (d) Ca(H 2PO 4 ) 2
41. The decreasing order of hydration enthalpies of earth metal ions is: (EAMCET 2014)
2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
(a) Be > Ba > Ca > Sr (b) Ba > Sr > Ca > Mg 2+ > Be 2+
2+ 2+ 2+

(c) Be 2+ > Ca 2+ > Mg 2+ > Ba 2+ (d) Be 2+ > Mg 2+ > Ca 2+ > Sr 2+ > Ba 2+

42. In the reaction, M + O 2 ¾® MO 2 (superoxide), the metal M is: (EAMCET 2014)
(a) lithium (b) sodium
(c) potassium (d) barium
43. Find the wrong statement : (Manipal 2014)
(a) Na 2CO 3 is used in glass industry
(b) KHCO 3 is acidic salt
(c) K 2CO 3 can be prepared by Solvay process
(d) Na 2CO 3 is used for metal refining
44. Among the following select the incorrect statement. (RPMT 2014)
(a) Li forms Li 3 N with N 2
(b) LiCl can be used to control humidity
(c) Electrolysis of fused LiCl is used to prepare Li metal
(d) Ionic mobility of Li + is greater than that of Na + in aqueous solution.
 340 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

45. The basic character of the oxides MgO, SrO, K 2O, Cs 2O increases in the order : (RPMT 2014)
(a) MgO > SrO > K 2O > Cs 2O (b) Cs 2O > K 2O > MgO > SrO
(c) MgO > SrO > K 2O > Cs 2O (d) K 2O > MgI > SrO > Cs 2O
46. The function of ‘‘Sodium pump’’ is biological process operating in each and every cell of all
animals. Which of the following biologically important ions is also a constituent of this pump ?
(AIPMT 2015)
2+ + 2+ 2+
(a) Mg (b) K (c) Fe (d) Ca
47. Solubility of the alkaline earth’s metal sulphates in water decreases in the sequence :
(AIPMT 2015)
(a) Ca > Sr > Ba > Mg (b) Sr > Ca > Mg > Ba (c) Ba > Mg > Sr > Ca (d) Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba
48. Which of the following statements in false? [NEET (Phase-1)2016]
2+
(a) Ca ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart.
(b) Mg 2+ ions are important in the green parts of plants
(c) Mg 2+ ions form a complex with ATP
(d) Ca 2+ ions are important in blood clotting.
49. The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC 2 is :
[NEET (Phase-1)2016]
(a) Ca 2CN (b) Ca(CN) 2 (c) CaCN (d) CaCN 3
50. During electrolysis of molten NaCl, some water is added, what will happen? (WB JEE 2017)
(a) Electrolysis will stop.
(b) Hydrogen will be evolved.
(c) Some amount of caustic soda will be formed.
(d) A fire is likely.
51. Select wrong chemical reaction among the following: (Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) MnO 2 + 4HCl ¾¾® MnCl 2 + Cl 2 + 2H 2O
(b) 8NH 3 + 3Cl 2 ¾¾® 6NH 4 Cl + N 2
(c) 2NaOH + Cl 2 ¾¾® 2NaCl + H 2 + O 2
(d) 2Ca(OH) 2 + 2Cl 2 ¾¾® Ca(OCl) 2 + CaCl 2 + 2H 2O
52. Plaster of Paris is represented as: (Karnataka CET 2017)
1
(a) CaSO 4 × 2H 2O (b) CaSO 4 × H 2O (c) CaSO 4 × H 2O (d) CaSO 4
2
53. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of
their salts are put under an electric field? (NEET 2017)
(a) K (b) Rb (c) Li (d) Na
54. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the
cofactor. M is : (NEET 2019)
(a) Sr (b) Be (c) Mg (d) Ca
55. Which of the following is an amphoteric hydroxide? (NEET 2019)
(a) Be(OH) 2 (b) Sr(OH) 2
(c) Ca(OH) 2 (d) Mg(OH) 2
s-Block Elements 341

ANSWERS
Level 1
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)

11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)

21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b)

31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (a,c) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (c)

41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a,c) 49. (c) 50. (c)

51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (a)

61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (d)

71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (d) 79. (b) 80. (c)

81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c)

91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (a) 97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (a)

101. (d) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (d) 106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (b) 109. (b) 110. (a)

111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (b)

Level 2
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D)

11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (B)

21. (A) 22. (A)

342 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 3
1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)

11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c)

21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c)

31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (a)

41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (*) 50. (b,c,d)

51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a)
s-Block Elements 343

Hints and Solutions

: Level 1
2. (c) In I group only Li form nitride and all II group metals form nitride.
2H O(moist)
Mg + N 2 ® Mg 3N 2 ¾¾¾¾® Mg(OH)2 + NH 3
H O(moist)
2
Ca + N 2 ® Ca 3N 2 ¾¾¾¾® Ca(OH)2 + NH 3
H O(moist)
2
Li + N 2 ® Li 3N ¾¾¾¾® LiOH + NH 3
K + N 2 ® no reaction
4. (a) It is due to more ionic character of Cs 2CO 3 .
28. (a) In general order of melting point.
14 4 X44
Li2 1X
3 < Cs < RbX2
4444 KX < Na3
<4444 X [ X = Cl, Br, I]
Predominantly Predominantly ionic
covalent (M.P. µLattice energy)

LiX being predominantly covalent have low m.pt.

29. (a) Li metal imparts carmine red colour to flame due to emission spectrum.
30. (b) Due to strong packing of Li+ and F – ion, lattice energy of LiF is higher than its hydration energy.
31. (c) Due to high hydration energy of Li+ cation, the standard reduction potential of Li+ is more negative
among all alkali metal cations hence Li acts as strong reducing agent in water.
33. (b) Order of solubility in water
LiF < NaF < KF
LiNO 3 > NaNO 3 > KNO 3
Li 2CO 3 < Na 2CO 3 < K 2CO 3
34. (c) DH sol of ammonium salts are found to be positive but they are highly soluble due to high positive
entropy change it makes DGsol more negative according to equation DGsol = DH sol - TDSsol
37. (d) All are facts.
44. (b) NaOH being deliquescent absorb water from atmosphere therefore strength of solution will decrease.
below 1 D 1
51. (c) NaNO 3 ¾¾® NaNO 2 + O 2 Cu(NO 3 )2 ¾® CuO + 2NO 2 ­ + O 2 ­
500°C 2 2
D D 1
Hg(NO 3 )2 ¾® Hg ¯ + 2NO 2 ­ + O 2 ­ AgNO 3 ¾® Ag + NO 2 ­ + O 2 ­
2
53. (c) Due to much lower freezing point of eutectic mixture of CaCl 2/H 2O.
55. (b) Manufacture of K 2CO 3 is not done by Solvay process because intermediate KHCO 3 is highly water
soluble.
 344 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

56. (b) 2Na + O 2 ¾® Na 2O 2

Sodium peroxide

57. (b) NaNO 3 ¾ 800

¾¾ °C
® Na 2O + N2 + O2
( Solid) ( Solid) ( Diamagnetic gas) ( Paramagnetic gas)

58. (c)
D 1
(a) 2LiNO 3 ¾¾ ® Li 2O + 2NO 2 + O 2
2
D 1
But MnO 3 ¾¾® MnO 2 + O 2
2
( M = Na , K , Rb, Cs )
D
(b) M 2CO 3 ¾¾ ® They do not decompose
( M = Na , K , Rb, Cs )
(c) M 2O and M 2O 2 are diamagnetic
(d) Except LiHCO 3 other alkali metal bicarbonate exist in solid state.
59. (d) The liquid ammonia remains paramagnetic on dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid
ammonia.
60. (a) NH 4Cl + Ca(OH )2 ¾® NH 3 + CaCl 2 + H 2O
1
61. (c) Na + NH 3(liq ) ¾ Warm
¾ ¾® NaNH 2 + H 2( g )
2
P Q
(a) NaNH 2 + H 2O ¾¾® NaOH + NH 3 (Hydrolysis of NaNH 2 )
D
(b) Alkali metal + H 2 ¾¾ ® Metal hydride
-
(c) NH 2 is stronger base than NH 3
(d) Li + NH 3 ¾¾® Li 2NH + H 2( g )
62. (a) O 2 ¾® O 2- is an endothermic process, so required energy is compensated by lattice energy.
1
Lattice energy µ
Size
Size of Li < Na< K < Rb < Cs
So oxide formation tendency Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs
64. (b) Because of high I.E. of Mg 2+ , no electronic transition is observed. Therefore, it doesn’t impart colour to
the bunsen flame.
85. (b) By adding gypsum the setting time and strength of cement increases.
NH 4 Cl
86. (c) NH 3 ­ ¬¾ ¾¾ ¾ Ca(OH)2 ¾ CO ¾¾2 ® CaCO
3
Solvay's ( A)
process

89. (a) Only bicarbonate salt of alkali metals are found in solid state.
90. (c)
(a) Ca 2+ < K + < S2- < P 3- : Ionic size
(b) Na + + + +
( aq.) > K ( aq.) > Rb( aq.) > Cs( aq.): Electrical conductance
- - - -
(d) I( aq.) < Br( aq.) < Cl( aq.) < F( aq.): Ionic mobility
102. (a) Ca(NH)+ 2H 2O ¾® Ca(OH)2 + NH 3( g )
( B)

2NH 3 + 3CaOCl 3 ¾® N 2( g )+ 3CaCl 2 + 3H 2O

( B) (C )
s-Block Elements 345
N 2( g )+ 3Mg ¾® Mg 3N 2
(C ) ( D)

Mg 3N 2 + 6H 2O ¾® 3Mg(OH)2 + 2NH 3
( D) ( B)
104. (a) Milk of magnesia is a suspension of MgO + H 2O.
106. (b) Correct solubility order is
Na 2SO 4 > BeSO 4 > MgSO 4 > BaSO 4
D 1 D
107. (c) NaNO 3 ¾¾ ® NaNO 2 + O 2 ¾¾ ® Na 2O + N 2 + O 2
2 Basic
D
KClO 3 ¾¾ ® KClO 4 + ClO 2 + H 2O
Acidic Neutral

D
CaCO 3 ¾¾ ® CaO ¯ + CO 2 ­
Basic Acidic

D
NH 4NO 3 ¾¾® N 2O + 2H 2O
Neutral Neutral

108. (b) CaH 2 + H 2O ¾® Ca(OH )2 + C 2H 2

3C 2H 2 ¾ Trimerisation
¾ ¾ ¾¾® C 6H 6
109. (b) As magnitude of charge increases lattice energy increases.
110. (a) Hydration energy is directly proportional ( µ) to f (polarising power) of cation.
D
111. (d) CaCO 3( A ) ¾¾ ® CaO( B ) + CO 2(C )
H 2O
CaO ¾ ¾¾® Ca(OH )2( D )
lime water Ca(OH )2 + CO 2 ¾® CaCO 3 (white turbidity)
Baryta water Ba(OH )2 + CO 2 ¾® BaCO 3 (white turbidity)
CO 2 is colourless, odourless gas, which does not show oxidising and reducing property.
112. (d) MgF2 < CaF2 < SrF2 < BaF2 < BeF2 (correct order of solubility)
113. (b) Correct order :
(1) CaCO 3 < NaHCO 3 < KHCO 3 : order of solubility
(2) BeCO 3 > MgCO 3 > CaCO 3 : order of solubility
(3) Zn(OH )2 < Mg(OH )2 < NaOH < KOH : order of basic character
(4) BeCl 2 < MgCl 2 < CaCl 2 : order of ionic character

: Level 2
1. (C) Among sulphate salt of alkali metals only Li 2SO 4 does not forms alum, as Li + has very small size.
D
2LiI + NH 3( g ) ¾® Li 2NH + H 2 ­
2. (D)BeCl 2 can be easily hydrolysed due to its e- deficient nature
BeCl 2 + 2H 2O ¾® Be(OH)2 + 2HCl ­
3. (A) Ionic radius of NH +4 is almost equal to ionic radius of K + .
4. (B) Alums are M 2¢ (SO 4 ) M 2¢¢¢(SO 4 )3 × 24H 2O
These are soluble in water. Their aqueous solution are acidic in nature both the statements are true but
it is not the correct explanation.
D
5. (A)2Mg + CO 2 ¾® 2MgO + C
Mg is a strong reducing agent and have great affinity for O 2 at high temperature.
 346 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

6. (D)Mg 2+ + Zn 2+ + SO 24- ¾® Mg 2+ + SO 24- + Zn 2+ (no reaction)

8. (C)Be(OH)2 is amphoteric in nature.
1
18. (C) Superoxides are the species having a O—O bond and O in an oxidation state of - (superoxide ion is
2
O -2). Usually, these are formed by active metals K, Rb and Cs and their formula are respectively,
KO 2, RbO 2 and CsO 2.
For the salts of larger anions (like O -2 ), lattice energy increases in a group. Since, lattice energy is the
driving force for the formation of an ionic compound and its stability hence, the stability of the
superoxides from K to Cs also increases.
19. (C) Hydration energy varies inversely with size. Hence, as we move from Li to Cs, size of alkali metals
increases and thus, hydration energy decreases.
Thus, lithium ion being smallest in size among alkali metals, is most extensively hydrated and
becomes largest hydrated cation. Thus, it has least electrical conductivity among alkali metals.
1
Electrical conductance µ
Size of hydrated cation
Hence, the assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect.
20. (B) Bleaching powder is a mixed salt of calcium hypochloride [Ca(ClO )2], calcium chloride, CaCl 2 and
calcium hydroxide [Ca(OH )2]. It is represented by CaOCl 2. In the presence of cobalt chloride, it
decomposes into CaCl 2 + O 2.
CaOCl 2 ¾ CoCl
¾¾ 2 ® 2CaCl + O
2 2

21. (A) Low solubility of CsI in water is due to smaller hydration energy of its two ions.
22. (A)BaCO 3 is more soluble in HNO 3 than in water because carbonate is a weak base and reacts with H + ion
of HNO 3 causing barium salt to dissociate.
BaCO 3 + 2HNO 3 ¾® Ba(NO 3 ) + CO 2 + H 2O

: Level 3
1. (e) (I) Hydration energy of Be 2+ is 2385.45 and that of Sr 2+ is 1485.67. So, given statement is not correct.
(II) Decomposition temperature of CaCO 3 is 900º C whereas decomposition temperature of BaCO 3 is
1360º C. So, the given statement is also incorrect.
(III) Basic character of hydroxides of IIA group increases from top to bottom. So, Ba(OH)2 is a
strongest base.
(IV) Calcium sulphate is soluble in water while SrSO 4 is almost insoluble.
2. (a) All alkali metal salts are soluble in water. The degree of hydration depends upon the size of the cation.
Smaller the size of a cation, greater is its charge density and hence, greater is its tendency to draw
electrons from molecules which are thus, polarised.
Li + ion, being smallest in size among alkali metal ions, is the most extensively hydrated while Cs + ion,
the largest alkali metal ion, is the least hydrated. The size of hydrated alkali ions is as
Li + > Na + > K + > Rb + > Cs +
Thus, X >Y>Z
3. (b) Potassium superoxide is used in breathing equipment and safeguards, the user to breath in O 2
generated internally in the apparatus without being exposed to toxic fumes. The supply of O 2 is
maintained by the reaction of superoxide with moisture in the exhaled air and also reaction of KO 2
with CO 2 in exhaled air.
4. (c) With progressive increase in the size of alkali metal ions, the stability of superoxides increases because
the size of superoxide ion is large and large cation can be stabilised more by large anion. Hence, the
order of stability of superoxides of alkali metals is
CsO 2 > RbO 2 > KO 2
s-Block Elements 347
D
5. (d) CaCO 3 ¾¾ ® CaO + CO 2
(Basic oxide) (Acidic oxide)

CaO is a basic oxide as it is the oxide of alkaline earth metal. (Except BeO, all alkaline earth metal
oxides are basic in nature).
6. (d) ·· N == C == N ·· O == C == O
Thus, CN 2-2 and CO 2 both are isoelectronic and isostructural.
Mg 2C 3 + H 2O ¾® CH 3 —C ºº CH + Mg(OH )2
Propyne
Therefore, the solution of BaCl 2 will record the highest pH.
7. (b) Calcium hydroxide or slaked lime [Ca(OH)2] reacts with Cl 2 to give bleaching powder, CaOCl 2.
Bleaching powder on auto-oxidation gives calcium chlorate, [Ca (ClO 3 )2].
Cl 2
Ca(OH )2 ¾ ¾ ¾® CaOCl 2 ¾ Auto ¾¾ - oxidation
¾ ¾¾® 5CaCl 2 + Ca(ClO 3 )2
-H 2O
Bleaching powder Calcium chlorate
( A) (B)

8. (b) Solubilities of carbonates decrease down the group because their lattice energy remains almost
constant while hydration energy decreases sharply on moving downwards. Thus, the difference of
hydration energy and lattice energy decreases, and hence, solubility decreases.
9. (d) The alkali metals have ns1 outer electronic configuration, thus on losing this electron, the ion formed
will be isoelectronic with noble gases.
The energy binding the atoms in the crystal lattices of these metals is relatively low due to the
presence of only one electron in the valence shell. Thus, alkali metals have low melting points.
Alkali metals are highly electropositive thus, they have low electronegativity. The alkali metals have
large size and, thus the outermost electron is far from the nucleus. Hence, they have relatively low
ionisation energies.
10. (d) Density of the alkali metals almost increases on moving down the group. However, a small decrease in
density is observed from Na to K, due to abnormal increase in atomic size from Na to K.
11. (d) MI is covalent in nature because of large size of anion, whereas MF is ionic in nature due to small size
of anion.
\ The order of covalent character is
M I > M Br > M Cl > M F
12. (b) Excess of sodium hydroxide reacts with zinc to form Na 2ZnO 2.
13. (d) Stability can be explained on the basis of polarisation and covalent character, Li + is smallest in size,
hence shows high polarising power. Thus, Li 2O 3 is least ionic and has least stability.
14. (a) On adding sodium hydroxide to the ZnSO 4 solution, first the white precipitate of zinc hydroxide is
obtained, which dissolves in excess of NaOH due to the formation of sodium zincate.
ZnSO 4 + 2NaOH ¾® Zn(OH )2 + Na 2SO 4
White (insoluble)

Zn(OH )2 + 2NaOH ¾® Na 2ZnO 2 + 2H 2O

Sodium zincate
(soluble)

15. (b) Being amphoteric or acidic in nature B 2O 3 , SiO 2 and BeO react with strong base NaOH and form salts.
B 2O 3 + 6NaOH ¾® 2Na 3BO 3 + 3H 2O
Sodium borate

SiO 2 + 2NaOH ¾® Na 2SiO 3 + H 2O

Sodium silicate

BeO + 2NaOH ¾® Na 2BeO 2 + H 2O

Sodium beryllate
 348 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

16. (b) Mg 2+ is smallest in size hence, show high polarising power. Thus, MgCO 3 is most covalent and least
stable. Stability increases on moving down the group.
17. (a)Mg, being the most reactive metal, gives H 2 gas with dilute HNO 3 while all other given elements reacts
differently with dilute HNO 3 .
Mg + 2HNO 3 ¾® Mg(NO 3 )2 + H 2
Dilute

4Zn + 10HNO 3 ¾® 4Zn(NO 3 )2 + N 2O + 5H 2O

Dilute

3Cu + 8HNO 3 ¾® 3Cu(NO 3 )2 + 2NO + 4H 2O

Dilute

6Hg + 8HNO 3 ¾® 3Hg 2(NO 3 )2 + 2NO + 4H 2O

Dilute

18. (c) In general, density increases on moving downward in a group but density of potassium (K) is lesser
than that of the sodium (Na). This is because of the abnormal increase in atomic size on moving from
Na (86 pm) to K (227 pm).
Thus, the correct order of density is
Li < K < Na < Rb
19. (b) Smaller the size of the ion, more highly it is hydrated and hence, its hydrated ionic radius will be
greater and its ionic mobility is lesser in aqueous solution.
Thus, the order of ionic mobility is
Li + < Na + < K + < Rb + < Cs +
20. (c) Highly reactive alkali metals react with air as well as water, thus these are not kept in them. These
being unreactive towards kerosene, are kept in kerosene.
21. (a) On burning, sodium imparts yellow colour to the flame.
22. (d) The outermost shell electron of caesium is more loosely bound than the outermost shell electron of the
other alkali metals that's why, caesium is most reactive among the alkali metals.
23. (d) Sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na 2CO 3 ×10H 2O) is known as washing soda or sal soda.
24. (b) Solubility of alkaline earth metal hydroxides increases with increase in atomic number.
25. (d) Alkali metal sulphates are more soluble as compared to alkaline earth metal sulphates. Thus, Na 2SO 4
is most soluble.
Among alkaline earth metal sulphates, BeSO 4 is most soluble. This is because on moving downward,
the magnitude of lattice energy remains almost constant (due to large sized sulphate ion) but
hydration energy decreases. Hence, the order of solubility is
Na 2SO 4 > BeSO 4 > MgSO 4 > BaSO 4
26. (a) Epsom salt is MgSO 4 × 7H 2O.
27. (d) Solubility of any salt is governed by two factors:
(i) Lattice energy
(ii) Hydration energy.
Among the sulphates of alkaline earth metals, the magnitude of lattice energy remains almost
constant because of the large size of sulphate ion. The hydration energy, however, decreases from Be 2+
to Ba 2+ . Thus, the solubility of sulphates of alkaline earth metals decreases from Be 2+ to Ba 2+ . In other
words, BaSO 4 is the most stable in aqueous solution.
28. (c) Hydration energy decreases down the group, whereas lattice energy remains almost constant. Thus,
hydration enthalpy is higher than the lattice enthalpy in case of BeSO 4 .
29. (a) NaOH is used in the concentration of bauxite ore.
30. (c) Active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action is Ca(OCl)2.
s-Block Elements 349
31. (d) CaI2 has the lowest melting point as it is more covalent than the other given compounds.
32. (d) The alkali metals are soluble in liquid NH 3 giving a solution which is paramagnetic, highly conducting,
highly reducing and deep blue in colour.
It is due to the following:
M + ( x + y )NH 3(excess) ¾® [ M + ×(NH 3 )x ]+[ e(NH 3 )y ]-
Ammoniated Ammoniated
cation electron
These ammoniated or solvated electrons are responsible for all the above written properties of
solution.
33. (b) Ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion-exchange resin decreases as the size of
alkali metal ion increases.
Since, the order of size of alkali metal ions
Li + < Na + < K + < Rb +
Thus, the ease of adsorption follows the order
Rb + < K + < Na + < Li +
34. (c) Li is the alkali metal which forms only normal oxide, i. e. , Li 2O when heated in air.
1
2Li + O 2 ¾® Li 2O
2
Sodium when heated in air, forms peroxide while heavier alkali metal forms superoxide as the major
product.
35. (d) The silicates and aluminates form more than 90% of the cement. Gypsum is added to decrease the
setting time of the cement.
36. (a) Thermal stability of carbonates of II A group increases down the group.
BeCO 3 < MgCO 3 < SrCO 3 < BaCO 3
523 K 813 K 562 K 1633 K
37. (c) Fe(OH)3 does not dissolve in NaOH.
38. (c) Na 2CO 3 is manufactured by Solvay process. Lawing process is used for manufacture of NaOH,
Le-blanc process is now obsolete.
Haber's process is used for the manufacture of NH 3 .
39. (a) NaOH when reacts with sand (SiO 2 ), it forms sodium silicate which is generally called glass.
2NaOH + SiO 2 ¾® Na 2SiO 3 + H 2O
Sodium Silicate (Glass)

40. (a) Sodium silicate (Na 2SiO 3 ) is known as water glass. Just as plants and trees can be made to grow in the
soil to get a natural garden, in the same way, crystals of coloured salts grow in the water glass like
plants and trees.
41. (d) As the size increases, hydration enthalpy decreases.
Be 2+ > Mg 2+ > Ca 2+ > Sr 2+ > Ba 2+
42. (c) As the size of metal ion increases, tendency to form superoxides increases. Since, superoxide is of MO 2
type, it is clear, it is alkali metal superoxide. In superoxide, oxygen is in O -2 form. Hence, it is
potassium superoxide (KO 2 ).
43. (c) KHCO 3 is much more soluble than NaHCO 3. So, in Solvay process KHCO 3 cannot precipitate. So,
K 2CO 3 cannot be prepared by Solvay process.
49. (Bonus)
Reaction of CaC 2 and nitrogen at 1100º C form nitrolim (calcium cyanamide and carbon mixture).
CaC 2 + N 2 ¾® CaCN 2 + C
(No answer in matching)
 350 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

50. (b, c, d)
During electrolysis of molten NaCl:
Reaction at cathode: Reaction at anode:
1
+ -
Na + e ¾¾® Na; Cl - ¾¾® Cl 2 + e–
2
By adding some water,
1
Na + H 2O ¾¾® NaOH + H 2
2
A fire is likely to take place due to vigorous reaction of sodium with water.
51. (c) NaCl and NaClO are formed when Cl 2 reacts with cold dilute NaOH.
Cl 2 + 2NaOH ¾ cold ¾ ¾® NaCl + NaClO + H 2O
With hot concentrated NaOH, NaClO formed is rapidly decomposed to give NaCl and NaClO 3 .
3Cl 2 + 6NaOH ¾ hot ¾® 5NaCl + NaClO 3 + 3H 2O
¾
1
52. (c) CaSO 4 × H 2O is plaster of Paris (POP).
2
53. (c) The hydration enthalpy of alkali metal ions decreases with increase in ionic sizes i. e. ,
Li + > Na + > K + > Rb + > Cs +
Hence, lithium having maximum degree of hydration will be least mobile.
The order of ionic mobility is
[Li( aq)]+ < [Na ( aq)]+ < [K ( aq)]+ < [Rb( aq)]+
54. (c) All enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer require magnesium as the cofactor.
p-Block Elements 351

8
p-BLOCK ELEMENTS

Level 1
: Boron Family and their Compounds (13 gp.)
1. Anhydrous aluminium chloride ( Al 2Cl 6 ) is covalent compound and soluble in water giving:
(a) Al 3+ and Cl – ions
(b) [Al(H 2O) 6 ]3+ and Cl – ions
(c) [AlCl 2(H 2O) 4 ]+ and [AlCl 4 (H 2O) 2 ]– ions
(d) none of the above
2. Al 4 C 3 is an ionic carbide, which is named as:
(a) Acetylide (b) Methanide
(c) Allylide (d) Alloy
3. Which of the following compounds is formed by addition of mineral acid to an aqueous
solution of borax?
(a) Boron oxide (b) Orthoboric acid
(c) Metaboric acid (d) Pyroboric acid
4. AlCl 3 on hydrolysis gives:
(a) Al 2O 3 ×H 2O (b) Al(OH) 3
(c) Al 2O 3 (d) AlCl 3 ×6H 2O
5. Alumina is insoluble in water because:
(a) It is a covalent compound
(b) It has high lattice energy and low heat of hydration
(c) It has low lattice energy and high heat of hydration
(d) Al 3+ and O 2– ions are not excessively hydrated
6. Which of the following is an electron deficient molecule?
(a) LiH (b) B 2H 6
(c) LiBH 4 (d) B 3N 3H 6
 352 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

7. Anhydrous aluminium chloride fumes in moist air owing to the formation of:
(a) gaseous aluminium chloride (b) chlorine
(c) chlorine dioxide (d) hydrogen chloride
8. Colour of the bead in borax bead test is mainly due to the formation of:
(a) metal oxides (b) boron oxide
(c) metal metaborates (d) elemental boron
9. The possible oxidation state of Tl are:
(a) +1 and + 2 (b) +2 and + 3
(c) +1 and - 1 (d) +1 and + 3
10. Which of the following sublimes on heating?
(a) Al 2O 3 (b) Al(OH) 3
(c) (AlH 3 ) n (d) (AlCl 3 ) n
11. The gaseous product(s) expected at room temperature by reaction of sodium borohydride and
boron trifluoride under anhydrous conditions is/are:
(a) H 2 (b) B 2H 6 and H 2
(c) B 2H 6 (d) BH 2F and H 2
R.T.
12. BX 3 + NH 3 ¾® BX 3 × NH 3 + Heat of adduct formation ( DH )
The numerical value of DH is found to be maximum for :
(a) BF3 (b) BCl 3
(c) BBr 3 (d) BI 3
13. Which of the following properties describes the diagonal relationship between boron and
silicon?
(a) BCl 3 is not hydrolysed while SiCl 4 can be hydrolysed
(b) Both form oxides B 2O 3 is amphoteric and SiO 2 is acidic
(c) Both metals dissolve in cold and dilute nitric acid
(d) Silicide and boride salts are hydrolysed by water
14. Anhydrous AlCl 3 is covalent however, when it is dissolved in water hydrated ionic species are
formed. This transformation is owing to:
(a) the trivalent state of Al (b) the large hydration energy of Al 3+
3+
(c) the low hydration energy of Al (d) the polar nature of water
15. Borax in its crystal possess:
(a) 3 tetrahedral unit
(b) 2 tetrahedral and 2 planar triangular units
(c) 3 tetrahedral and 2 planar triangular units
(d) all tetrahedral units
16. Consider the following statements for diborane:
1. Boron is approximately sp 3 hybridized
2. B—H—B angle is 180°
3. There are two terminal B—H bonds for each boron atom
4. There are only 12 bonding electrons available
Of these statements:
p-Block Elements 353
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
17. Aluminium vessels should not be washed with materials containing washing soda because:
(a) washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble aluminate
(b) washing soda is expensive
(c) washing soda is easily decomposed
(d) washing soda reacts with aluminium to form insoluble aluminium oxide
18. Which of the following statements about anhydrous aluminium chloride is correct?
(a) It can exist as AlCl 3 molecule in vapour
(b) It is a strong Lewis base
(c) It sublimes at 180°C under vacuum
(d) It is not easily hydrolysed
Heat Heat
19. Na 2B 4 O 7 ×10H 2O ¾¾® X + NaBO 2 + H 2O, X + Cr 2O 3 ¾¾® Y
(Green coloured)
X and Y are :
(a) Na 3BO 3 and Cr(BO 2 ) 3 (b) Na 2B 4 O 7 and Cr(BO 2 ) 3
(c) B 2O 3 and Cr(BO 2 ) 3 (d) B 2O 3 and CrBO 3
20. Borax is converted into crystalline boron by the following steps:
X D Y
Borax ¾® H 3BO 3 ¾® B 2O 3 ¾® B
D
X and Y are respectively:
(a) HCl, Mg (b) HCl, C
(c) C , Al (d) HCl, Al
21. The dissolution of Al(OH) 3 by a solution of NaOH results in the formation of:
(a) [Al(H 2O) 4 (OH) 2 ]+ (b) [Al(H 2O) 3(OH) 3 ]
–
(c) [Al(H 2O) 2(OH) 4 ] (d) [Al(H 2O) 6 (OH) 3 ]
22. Choose the correct sequence for the geometry of the given molecules
Borazone, Borazole, B 3O 3–
6 , Fe 2Cl 6 , trimer of FCN.

[‘P’ stands for planar and ‘NP’ stands for non-planar]

(a) NP,, NP, NP, P, P (b) P, P, NP, NP, P
(c) NP, NP, NP, P, NP (d) NP, P, P, NP, P
23. Which is not true about borax?
(a) It is a useful primary standard for titrating against acids
(b) One mole of borax contains 4 B — O — B bonds
(c) Aqueous solution of borax can be used as buffer
(d) It is made up of two triangular BO 3 units and two tetrahedral BO 4 units
24. B(OH) 3 + NaOH -® NaBO 2 + Na[B(OH) 4 ]+ H 2O
How can this reaction is made to proceed in forward direction?
(a) addition of cis1,2 diol (b) addition of borax
(c) addition of trans1,2 diol (d) addition of Na 2HPO 4
 354 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

25. Which of the following cation can not give borax bead test ?
(a) Cr 3+ (b) Co 2+
(c) Ag + (d) Mn 2+
HCl (aq.)
'X' + Gas 'P'
26. Al
Metal NaOH(aq.)
'Y' + Gas 'Q'
+H 2O
The incorrect statement regarding above reactions is :
(a) Al shows amphoteric character (b) Gas ' P ' and ' Q ' are different
(c) Both X and Y are water soluble (d) Gas Q is inflammable
27. The incorrect stability order of +3 and +1 states of 13th group elements (boron family) is :
(a) Ga 3+ < In 3+ < Tl 3+ (b) Tl+ > Tl 3+
+ + +
(c) Ga < In < Tl (d) Ga 3+ > Ga+
28. From B 2H 6 all the following can be prepared except :
(a) H 3BO 3 (b) B 2(CH 3 ) 4 H 2
(c) B 2(CH 3 ) 6 (d) NaBH 4
29. Which of given option is incorrect for diborane ?
(a) Diborane can produce hydrogen gas on reaction with ethanol under boiling condition.
(b) All B — H bonds are not equivalent in B 2H 6 .
(c) Hybridisation of Boron atom in B 2H 6 is approaching to sp 2 hybridisation.
(d) B 2H 6 can act as Lewis acid, irrespective of bridge bonding.
30. Correct set of electron deficient species is :
(i) BeCl 2( s) (ii) Al 2Cl 6 (iii) BeH 2( s) (iv) AlH 3( s)
(a) i, ii, iii, iv (b) only ii, iii, iv
(c) only iii, iv (d) only iii
31. The incorrect statement regarding ‘ X ’ in given reaction is :
BF3 + LiAlH 4 ¾ Ether
¾¾® ( X ) + LiF + AlF3
(a) ‘ X ’ is a toxic gas.
(b) On hydrolysis ‘ X ’ produces boric acid.
(c) ‘ X ’ is electron deficient and behaves as lewis acid.
(d) Structure of ‘ X ’ in similar to C 2H 6 .
32. Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect for combination between H 3BO 3 and ethyl
alcohol?
(a) H 3BO 3 acts as electrolyte in presence of C 2H 5OH.
(b) Acidic character of C 2H 5OH increases in presence of H 3BO 3 .
(c) H 3BO 3 and C 2H 5OH combine in Lewis acid-base interaction.
(d) H 3BO 3 furnishes hydrogen ion in the presence of C 2H 5OH.
33. Which of the following metal cation gives brown colour bead in borax bead test ?
(a) Cu 2+ (b) Co 2+
(c) Mn 2+ (d) Ni 2+
p-Block Elements 355
34. White fumes appear around the bottle of anhydrous aluminium chloride ( AlCl 3 ). This is due
to:
(a) Anh. AlCl 3 forms Al 2O 3 in presence of air
(b) Anh. AlCl 3 undergoes partial hydrolysis producing HCl fumes
(c) Anh. AlCl 3 is white volatile fumes
(d) Anh. AlCl 3 is an ionic compound

: Carbon Family and their Compounds (14 gp.)

35. Silicate having one monovalent corner oxygen atom in each tetrahedron unit is :
(a) sheet silicate (b) cyclic silicate
(c) single chain silicate (d) double chain silicate
36. PbI 4 does not exist because:
(a) iodine is not a reactive
(b) Pb(IV) is oxidizing and I – is strong reducing agent
(c) Pb(IV) is less stable than Pb(II)
(d) Pb 4+ is not easily formed
37. The silicate anion in the mineral kinoite is a chain of three SiO 4 tetrahedra, that share corners
with adjacent tetrahedra. The change of the silicate anion is:
(a) -4 (b) -8
(c) -6 (d) -2
38. The gaseous product of the reaction between Sn and conc. H 2SO 4 is:
(a) H 2 (b) SO 2
(c) SnH 4 (d) SO 3
39. The dehydration of malonic acid CH 2(COOH) 2 with P4 O 10 gives:
(a) carbon monoxide (b) carbon suboxide
(c) carbon dioxide (d) all three
40. Which of the following structural features of graphite best accounts for its use as a lubricant?
(a) delocalized electrons
(b) Strong covalent bonds between carbon atoms
(c) van der Waals' forces between layers
(d) limited three covalency of carbon
41. Which of the following is sparingly soluble in cold water and fairly soluble in hot water?
(a) Pb(NO 3 ) 2 (b) PbCl 2
(c) PbSO 4 (d) PbCrO 4
42. The structural of silicon(IV) oxide belongs to the type:
(a) ionic lattice
(b) macromolecular, with a layer structure
(c) molecular lattice, with van der Waals' forces among the molecules
(d) macromolecular, with a non-layer structure
43. Silicon dissolves in excess of HF due to formation of:
(a) SiF4 (b) SiH 4 (c) H 2SiF6 (d) H 2SiF4
 356 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

44. Which of the following halides does not hydrolyse at room temperature?
(a) PbCl 4 (b) SiCl 4 (c) CCl 4 (d) SnCl 4
45. SiCl 4 on hydrolysis gives:
(a) silica (b) silicic acid
(c) silicone (d) silicate
46. Which substance is having molecular solid?
(a) graphite (b) C 60 (c) gold (d) Ca 3(PO 4 ) 2
47. A cyclic skeleton of silicon and oxygen can constructed by the silicate ion composition:
(a) Si 2O 74– (b) Si 2O 2–
5 (c) SiO 2–
3 (d) SiO 4–
4
48. Which of the following is an organo silicon polymer?
(a) Silica (b) Silicone
(c) Silicon carbide (d) Silicic acid
49. SnCl 2 acts as a reducing agent because:
(a) SnCl 2 can accept electrons readily
(b) Sn 2+ is more stable than Sn 4+
(c) Sn 4+ is more stable than Sn 2+
(d) Sn 2+ can be easily converted to metallic tin
50. The correct order of decreasing ionic nature of lead dihalides is:
(a) PbF2 > PbCl 2 > PbBr 2 > PbI 2 (b) PbF2 > PbBr 2 > PbCl 2 > PbI 2
(c) PbF2 < PbCl 2 > PbBr 2 < PbI 2 (d) PbI 2 < PbBr 2 < PbCl 2 < PbF2
51. Carborundum is a:
(a) molecular solid (b) covalent solid
(c) ionic solid (d) amorphous solid
52. The plague of tin is the:
(a) conversion of stannous to stannic
(b) conversion to white tin to grey tin
(c) emission of sound while bending a tin rod
(d) atmospheric oxidation of tin
53. The butter of tin is represent by:
(a) SnCl 2 ×5H 2O (b) SnCl 2
(c) SnCl 4 (d) SnCl 4 ×5H 2O
D
54. H 2C 2O 4 ( B ) ¾® gas ( A)+ gas ( B )+ liquid (C ).
Gas (A) burns with a blue flame and is oxidised to gas ( B )
NH 3, D
Gas ( A)+ Cl 2 ¾® ( D) ¾¾¾® ( E )
A , B , C and E are:
(a) CO 2 , CO, H 2O, HCONH 2 (b) CO, CO 2 , COCl 2 , HCONH 2
(c) CO, CO 2 , H 2O, NH 2CONH 2 (d) CO, CO 2 , H 2O, COCl 2
55. Si 2O 76– anion is obtained when:
(a) no oxygen of a SiO 4 tetrahedron is shared with another SiO 4 tetrahedron
p-Block Elements 357
(b) one oxygen of a SiO 4 tetrahedron is shared with another SiO 4 tetrahedron
(c) two oxygen of a SiO 4 tetrahedron are shared with another SiO 4 tetrahedron
(d) three or all four oxygen of a tetrahedron are shared with other SiO 4 tetrahedron
56. Consider the following route of reactions:
Polymerisation
R 2SiCl 2 + Water ¾® ( A) ¾¾¾¾¾® ( B )
Compound(B) in above reaction is :
(a) Dimer silicone (b) Linear silicone
(c) Cross linked silicone (d) Polymerisation of (A) does not occur
57. The most basic oxide of elements in group 14 of the periodic table is:
(a) SiO 2 (b) GrO
(c) SnO 2 (d) PbO
58. (Si 2O 5 ) 2nn- anion is obtained when:
(a) no oxygen of a SiO 4– 4–
4 tetrahedron is shared with another SiO 4 tetrahedron

(b) one oxygen of a SiO 4– 4–

4 tetrahedron is shared with another SiO 4 tetrahedron

(c) two oxygen of a SiO 4– 4–

4 tetrahedron are shared with another SiO 4 tetrahedron
(d) three oxygen of a SiO 4– 4–
4 tetrahedron are shared with another SiO 4 tetrahedron
59. Amphibole silicate structure has ‘ x’ number of corner shared per tetrahedron. The value of ‘ x’
is:
1
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
2
60. The silicate anion in the mineral kinoite is a chain of three SiO 4 tetrahedra that share corners
with adjacent tetrahedra. The mineral also contains Ca 2+ ions, Cu 2+ ions, and water molecules
in a 1 : 1 : 1 ratio mineral is represented as:
(a) CaCuSi 3O 10 × H 2O (b) CaCuSi 3O 10 × 2H 2O
(c) Ca 2Cu 2Si 3O 10 × 2H 2O (d) none of these
61. Choose the correct order of C — C bond length in the given compounds:
(a) Acetylene < ethylene < graphite < benzene < ethane
(b) Acetylene < ethylene < benzene < graphite < ethane
(c) Acetylene < graphite < ethylene < benzene < ethane
(d) Acetylene < benzene < graphite < ethylene < ethane
62. Silicate having one monovalent corner oxygen atom in each tetrahedron unit is:
(a) sheet silicate (b) cyclic silicate
(c) single chain silicate (d) double chain silicate
63. In which of the following silicates, only two corners per tetrahedron are shared ?
(i) Pyro silicate (ii) Cyclic silicate
(iii) Double chain silicate (iv) Single chain silicate
(v) 3D silicate (vi) Sheet silicate
(a) (i), (ii) and (v) (b) (iv) and (vi) only
(c) (i) and (vi) only (d) (ii) and (iv) only
 358 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

64. The correct code for stability, of oxidation states for given cations is :
(i) Pb 2+ > Pb 4+ , Tl+ < Tl 3+ (ii) Bi 3+ < Sb 3+ , Sn 2+ < Sn 4+
(iii) Pb 2+ > Pb 4+ , Bi 3+ > Bi 5+ (iv) Tl 3+ < In 3+ , Sn 2+ > Sn 4+
(v) Sn 2+ < Pb 2+ , Sn 4+ > Pb 4+ (vi) Sn 2+ < Pb 2+ , Sn 4+ < Pb 4+
(a) (v) and (vi) (b) (i), (iii) and (vi)
(c) (iii) and (v) (d) (ii) and (iv)
65. Which of the following general formula represents to pyroxenes ?
(a) (Si 2O 5 ) 2nn- (b) (SiO 3 ) 2nn- (c) SiO 4-
4 (d) Si 2O 76-
66. 2 RCl + Si ¾Cu
¾powder
¾ ¾® R 2SiCl 2 ¾ H¾
2O
¾ ® R 2Si(OH) 2 ¾ Pol
¾ymerisation
¾¾¾ ¾® polymer (A).
570 K

then polymer (A) can not be :

(a) cyclic silicone (b) crosslinked 3D silicone
(c) linear silicone (d) none of these
67. Which of the given statement is false regarding carbon monoxide ?
(a) CO is used in extraction of many metals from their oxides ores as oxidising agent.
(b) CO is colourless, odourless and neutral oxide.
(c) CO is highly poisonous due to its ability to form a complex with Haemoglobin.
(d) CO is monodentate ligand.
68. Which of the following is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicon polymer ?
(a) PhSiCl 3 (b) MeSiCl 3 (c) Me 2SiCl 3 (d) Me 3SiCl 3
69. The straight chain polymer is formed by :
(a) Hydrolysis of (CH 3 ) 2 Si Cl 2 followed by condensation polymerization
(b) Hydrolysis of (CH 3 ) 2 Si Cl followed by condensation polymerization
(c) Hydrolysis of CH 3 Si Cl 3 followed by condensation polymerization
(d) Hydrolysis of (CH 3 ) 4 Si by addition polymerization.
70. CO 2 goes to air causes green house effect and gets dissolved in water. What will be the effect
on soil fertility ?
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain same (d) None of these
71. Which of the following organo silicon compound can produce cross linked 3D silicon polymer?
(a) R 3SiCl (b) R 4 Si (c) RSiCl 3 (d) R 2SiCl 2
72. Which of the following pair of silicate have same number of shared corner-O-atom per unit ?
(a) Pyro silicate, double chain silicate (b) Cyclic silicate, single chain silicate
(c) 2-D sheet silicate, cyclic silicate (d) 2-D sheet silicate, 3-D silicate

: Nitrogen Family and their Compounds (15 gp.)

73. Trisilyamine (SiH 3 ) 3 N is:
(a) trigonal pyramidal and acidic (b) trigonal pyramidal and basic
(c) trigonal pyramidal and neutral (d) trigonal planar and weakly basic
74. The mixed anhydride of nitrogen is:
(a) N 2O 2 (2NO) (b) N 2O 4 (2NO 2 )
(c) N 2O 5 (d) N 2O 3
p-Block Elements 359
75. Among NH 3 , PH 3 , AsH 3 and SbH 3 which one is a stronger reducing agent?
(a) NH 3 (b) PH 3 (c) AsH 3 (d) SbH 3
76. When zinc reacts with very dilute HNO 3 , the oxidation state of nitrogen changes from:
(a) +5 to +1 (b) +5 to -3
(c) +5 to +4 (d) +5 to +3
77. Which of the following orders regarding thermal stability of hydrides MH 3 of group 15 is
correct?
(a) NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 (b) NH 3 < PH 3 < AsH 3
(c) NH 3 > PH 3 < AsH 3 (d) NH 3 < PH 3 > AsH 3
78. The products formed by complete hydrolysis of PCl 3 are:
(a) H 3PO 3 and HCl (b) POCl 3 and HCl
(c) H 3PO 4 and HCl (d) H 4 P2O 7 and HCl
79. When a sample of NO 2 is placed in a container, this equilibrium is rapidly established.
2NO 2( g)º N 2O 4 ( g)
If this equilibrium mixture is a darker colour at high temperatures and at low pressure , which
of these statements about the reaction is true?
(a) The reaction is exothermic and NO 2 is darker in colour than N 2O 4
(b) The reaction is exothermic and N 2O 4 is darker in colour than NO 2
(c) The reaction is endothermic and NO 2 is darker in colour than N 2O 4
(d) The reaction is endothermic and N 2O 4 is darker in colour than NO 2
80. Heating of ammonium dichromate produces:
(a) NH 3 , Cr 2O 3 and H 2O (b) N 2 , Cr 2O 3 and H 2O
(c) NO, CrO 3 and H 2O (d) N 2O, CrO 3 and H 2O
81. Which of the following halide undergoes in hydrolysis via S N1 reaction ?
(a) BCl 3 (b) NF3 (c) NCl 3 (d) AsCl 3
82. Which of the following compound does not give oxyacid of central atom on hydrolysis?
(a) SiCl 4 (b) NCl 3
(c) PCl 3 (d) PCl 5
83. In which process does the nitrogen undergo oxidation?
(a) N 2 ® 2NH 3 (b) N 2O 4 ® 2NO 2
(c) NO -3 ® N 2O 5 (d) NO -2 ® NO -3
84. For which element would XH 3 be a stable species :
(a) C (b) Si (c) P (d) S
85. Nitrogen gas is liberated by thermal decomposition of :
(a) NH 4 NO 2 (b) NaN 3
(c) (NH 4 ) 2 Cr 2O 7 (d) All
86. Two oxides of nitrogen, NO and NO 2 are allowed to react together at 243º K and form a
coloured compound of nitrogen (X). When compound (X) reacts with water to yield another
compound of nitrogen (Y ). The shape of the anion of (Y ) molecule is :
(a) triangular planar (b) triangular pyramidal
(c) tetrahedron (d) square planar
 360 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

87. Consider the following sequence of reaction.

N 2O Heat
Na + NH 3(g) ¾® [ X ] ¾¾¾® [Y ] ¾¾¾® [Z ]
Gas Pure

Identify [Z] gas :

(a) N 2 (b) NH 3 (c) O 2 (d) H 2
88. Which of the following oxyacid contains both P—H and P—P bond simultaneously ?
(a) H 4 P2O 5 (b) H 4 P2O 7 (c) H 4 P2O 6 (d) None
89. Among the following statement which one is true?
(a) NH 3 is less soluble than PH 3 in water
(b) NH 3 is stronger base and stronger reducing agent than PH 3
(c) NH 3 has higher boiling point than PH 3 and has lower melting point than PH 3
(d) PH 3 is stronger reducing agent than NH 3 and it has lower critical temperature than NH 3
90. Which of the following statements regarding N 2O 4 is not correct?
(a) It is a planar molecule
(b) It is used as non-aqueous solvent
(c) It involves N—N bond which is larger than the N—N bond in hydrazine
(d) Ammonium nitrate in N 2O 4 acts as a base
91. Which of the following on heating produces NO 2 ?
(a) NaNO 3 (b) AgNO 3
(c) NH 4 NO 3 (d) NH 4 NO 2
92. Which of the following equation is incorrectly written?
(a) P4 + 20HNO 3 ¾® 4H 3PO 4 + 20NO 2 + 4H 2O
(b) I 2 + 10HNO 3 ¾® 2HIO 4 + 10NO 2 + 4H 2O
(c) S+ 6HNO 3 ¾® H 2SO 4 + 6NO 2 + 2H 2O
(d) None of the above
93. The cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid is:
(a) (HPO 3 ) 3 and contains 9 s-bonds (b) H 3P3O 6 and contains 12 s-bonds
(c) (HPO 3 ) 3 and contains 15s-bonds (d) H 3P3O 9 and contains 18 s-bonds
94. A + H 2O ¾® B + HCl
B + H 2O ¾® C + HCl
Compound (A), (B) and (C) will be respectively:
(a) PCl 5 , POCl 3 , H 3PO 3 (b) PCl 5 , POCl 3 , H 3PO 4
(c) SOCl 2 , POCl 3 , H 3PO 3 (d) PCl 3 , POCl 3 , H 3PO 4
95. It is recommended that liquor ammonia bottle should be opened after cooling it in ice for
sometime. This is because liquor ammonia:
(a) brings tears in the eyes (b) is a corrosive liquid
(c) is a mild explosive (d) generates high vapour pressure
96. Which of the following statements are correct about the reaction between the copper metal
and dilute HNO 3 ?
(I) The principal reducing product is NO gas
(II) Cu metal is oxidised to Cu 2+ ( aq.) ion which is blue in colour.
p-Block Elements 361
(III) NO is paramagnetic and has one unpaired electron in antibonding molecular orbital
(IV) NO reacts with O 2 to produce NO 2 which is linear in shape
Choose the correct statements:
(a) I, II, III (b) I, III
(c) II, IV (d) All the above
97. In which of the following acids, P—P bonds is present?
(a) Tetra poly phosphoric acid (H 6 P4 O 13 ) (b) Pyrophosphoric acid (H 4 P2O 7 )
(c) Hypophosphoric acid (H 4 P2O 6 ) (d) Polymetaphosphoric acid (HPO 3 ) n
Pt
98. NH 3 + O 2 ¾® A + H 2O;
D
A + O 2 ¾® B;
B + O 2 + H 2O ¾® C
A , B and C are:
(a) N 2O, NO 2 and HNO 3 (b) NO, NO 2 and HNO 3
(c) NO 2 , NO and HNO 3 (d) N 2O, NO and HNO 3
99. The formation of PH+4 is difficult compared to NH+4 because:
(a) lone pair of phosphorus is optically inert
(b) lone pair of phosphorus resides in almost pure p-orbital
(c) lone pair of phosphorus resides at sp 3 orbital
(d) lone pair of phosphorus resides in almost pure s-orbital
100. Nitrogen(I) oxide is produced by:
(a) thermal decomposition of sodium nitrite at low temperature
(b) thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrite
(c) disproportionation of N 2O 4
(d) interaction of hydroxyl amine and nitrous acid
101. Amongst the following compounds
(I) H 5P3O 10 (II) H 6 P4 O 13
(III) H 5P5O 15 (IV) H 7 P5O 16
non-cyclic phosphates are:
(a) I, III (b) I, II, III
(c) I, II, IV (d) I, II, III, IV
102. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Compounds) List-II (used in)

(A) BaSO 4 + ZnS (1) Explosive

(B) NI 3 (2) Oxidiser in rocket propellants
(C) N 2O 4 (3) Space capsule
(D) KO 2 (4) Pigment
 362 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1

103. Which is the correct sequence in the following properties? For the correct order mark (T) and
for the incorrect order mark (F):
(A) Lewis acidity order : SiF4 < SiCl 4 < SiBr 4 < SiI 4
(B) Melting point : NH 3 > SbH 3 > AsH 3 > PH 3
(C) Boiling point : NH 3 > SbH 3 > AsH 3 > PH 3
(D) Dipole moment order : NH 3 > SbH 3 > AsH 3 > PH 3
(a) FTFT (b) TFTF
(c) FFTT (d) FFTF
104. An orange solid ( X ) on heating gives a colourless gas (Y ) and only a green residue ( Z ). Gas (Y )
on treatment with Mg produces a white solid substance:
(a) Mg 3N 2 (b) MgO
(c) Mg 2O 3 (d) MgCl 2
105. Calcium imide on hydrolysis will give gas (B) which on oxidation by bleaching powder given
gas (C). Gas (C) on reaction with magnesium gives compound (D). (D) on hydrolysis gives
again gas (B). (B), (C) and (D) are:
(a) NH 3 , N 2 , Mg 3N 2 (b) N 2 , NH 3 , MgNH
(c) N 2 , N 2O 5 , Mg(NO 3 ) 2 (d) NH 3 , NO 2 , Mg(NO 2 ) 2
106. Among the following compounds, which on heating do not produce N 2 ?
(a) (NH 4 ) 2 Cr 2O 7 (b) NH 4 Cl+ NaNO 2
(c) NH 4 Cl+ CaO (d) Ba(N 3 ) 2
107. In which of the following compounds hydrolysis takes place through S N1 and S N 2 mechanism
respectively?
(a) NF3 , NCl 3 (b) P4 O 10 , SiCl 4
(c) SF4 , TeF6 (d) SiCl 4 , SiF4
108. Select the incorrect statement about PH 3 :
(a) It is produced by hydrolysis of Ca 3P2
(b) It gives black ppt. (Cu 3P2 ) with CuSO 4 solution
(c) Spontaneously burns in presence of P2H 4
(d) It does not react with B 2H 6
109. Which of the following compound does not produce oxyacid of central atom on hydrolysis?
(a) BF3 (b) NCl 3 (c) SF4 (d) PCl 5
110. The incorrect statement regarding 15th group hydrides ( EH 3 ). [E = N, P, As, Sb, Bi]
(a) NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 > BiH 3: Thermal stability
(b) N—H > P—H > As—H > Sb—H > Bi—H : E—H bond dissociation enthalpy
p-Block Elements 363
(c) NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 > BiH 3: Reducing character
(d) NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 > BiH 3: Basicity
111. Calculate x + y + z for H 3PO 3 acid, where x is number of lone pairs, y is number of s-bonds
and z is number of p-bonds :
(a) 5 (b) 14
(c) 13 (d) 12
112. A non-metal M forms MCl 3 , M 2O 5 and Mg 3 M 2 but does not form MI 5 . Then incorrect
statement regarding non-metal M is :
(a) M can form multiple bond
(b) M is of second period element
(c) Atomicity of non-metal is 4
(d) The range of oxidation number for M is +5 to - 3
113. The incorrect order is :
(a) Thermal stability : HF > HCl > HBr (b) Lewis basic character: PF3 < PCl 3 < PBr 3
+ - +
(c) % p-character : NO 2 > NO 3 > NH 4 (d) Bond angle : NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3
114. Which oxide of nitrogen is coloured gas ?
(a) N 2O (b) N 2O 2
(c) N 2O 5 (d) NO 2
115. Correct order of increasing thermal stability is :
(a) NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 (b) SbH 3 < AsH 3 < PH 3 < NH 3
(c) SbH 3 > AsH 3 > PH 3 > NH 3 (d) PH 3 > NH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3
116. Consider the following reactions :
D
2 XS + 3O 2 ¾¾ ® 2 XO + 2SO 2
D
2 XO + XS ¾¾ ® 3 X + SO 2
Then ‘ X ’ can not be :
(a) Zn (b) Hg (c) Pb (d) None of these
117. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) HNO 3 is a stronger acid than HNO 2
(b) H 3PO 3 is a stronger acid than H 2SO 3
(c) In aqueous medium HF is a stronger acid than HCl
(d) HClO 4 is a weaker acid than HClO 3
O
118. Select incorrect statement(s) for given conversion. HNO 3 ¾¾ ® Acid ‘ P ’
(a) HNO 3 is more acidic than acid ‘P’
(b) Acid ‘P’ has stronger oxidising character than HNO 3
(c) N — O bond length in HNO 3 is different from N — O bond length in acid ‘P’
(d) Both HNO 3 and acid ‘P’ are planar
119. Correct order of reducing nature is :
(a) H 3PO 3 > H 3PO 2 > H 3PO 4 (b) NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3
(c) H 2O > H 2S > H 2Se (d) H 3PO 2 > H 3PO 3 > H 3PO 4
 364 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

120. Which of the following statement is cause of more acidic nature of HNO 3 than HNO 2 ?
(a) Oxidation state of nitrogen in HNO 3 > HNO 2
(B) Conjugate base of HNO 3 is more stabilized.
(c) O — H bond is more polar in HNO 3 than HNO 2 .
(d) All of these
121. N — N bond length is minimum in :
(a) N 2O (b) N 2O 3 (c) N 2O 4 (d) N 2O 5
122. As molecular weight increases in 15 th group hydrides then which of the following property
increases regularly ?
(a) Boiling point (b) Melting point
(c) Thermal stability (d) Reducing nature
123. Consider the following statements about the reaction between copper metal and dilute HNO 3 ?
(I) In this reaction NO gas will be released
(II) Cu metal is oxidised to Cu(NO 3 ) 2
(III) NO is paramagnetic and has one unpaired electron in antibonding molecular orbital
(IV) In this reaction N 2O gas will be released
Choose the correct statement :
(a) I, II, III (b) I, III (c) II, IV (d) All are correct
124. Which statement is correct for Nitrogen (IV) Oxide (NO 2 ) ?
(a) It is mixed Anhydride of Hyponitrous and nitric acid.
(b) It doesn’t form dimer at low temperature.
(c) It doesn’t attracted in external magnetic field.
(d) It's central atom nitrogen is sp 2 hybridised and bond angle is greater than 120°.
125. Compound with explosive property is :
(a) NI 3 (b) H 2Te (c) O 3 (d) H 3PO 2
126. Which one of the following properties is not shown by NO gas ?
(a) It is a neutral oxide
(b) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide
(c) It's bond order is 2.5
(d) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state
127. Which of the following compounds are monobasic proton donar acid in water ?
(a) H 3PO 2 , H 3BO 3 (b) H 3BO 3 , H 3PO 3
(c) H 3PO 3 , H 3PO 2 (d) H 3PO 2 , HClO 4
128. In the following reaction, compound ( X ) is :
B 2H 6 + 2 X ¾® 2BH 3 X
(a) NH 3 (b) R 3N (c) RNH 2 (d) R 2NH
129. Which oxide is mixed acid anhydride ?
(a) N 2O (b) N 2O 3 (c) ClO 2 (d) Mn 2O 7
130. Which statement is incorrect about Hypophosphoric acid ?
(a) Two pp-dp bonds (b) Four acidic hydrogen
3
(c) sp -hybrid phosphorus atom (d) Oxidation state of phosphorus is +5
p-Block Elements 365
131. Which characteristic is common for H 3P3O 9 and H 3P3O 10 ?
(a) Number of P — O — P linkage. (b) Number of acidic Hydrogen.
(c) Number of pp-dp bonds. (d) Number of sp 3 hybrid atoms.
132. Which one of the following properties is not shown by NO ?
(a) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide
(b) Its bond order is 2.5
(c) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state
(d) It is a neutral oxide
133. Which statement regarding phosphine is incorrect ?
(a) It possess of rotten fish smell.
(b) It is obtained in Holme’s signal by hydrolysis of Ca 3P2 .
(c) It is less basic than ammonia.
(d) It is more soluble in water than ammonia.
134. Incorrect statement for molecule of N 2O.
(a) Dative coordinate bond is present in its structure
(b) Its real structure is hybrid of two resonating structures
(c) Bond order of N — N bond is 1.5
(d) On thermal decomposition N — O bond breaks easily
135. At high temperature, nitrogen combine with CaC 2 to give :
(a) Calcium cyanide (b) Calcium cyanamide
(c) Calcium carbonate (d) Calcium nitride
136. Select the incorrect chemical reaction :
(a) CuSO 4 ( aq) + NH 4 OH ¾® Cu(OH) 2 ¯
(b) CuSO 4 ( aq) + PH 3 ¾® Cu 3P2 + H 2SO 4
(c) White P + SO 2Cl 2 ¾® PCl 3 + SO 2 + S 2Cl 2
(d) Sn + PCl 5 ¾® SnCl 4 + PCl 3

: Oxygen Family and their Compounds (16 gp.)

137. S—O bond length is maximum in :
(a) SOBr 2 (b) SOCl 2
(c) SOF2 (d) SO(CH 3 ) 2
138. In case of hydride of oxygen family, which of the following physical property change regularly
on moving down the group.
(a) Melting point (b) Thermal stability
(c) Boiling point (d) Critical temperature
139. When KHSO 4 is added into a concentrated solution of H 2SO 4 , the acidity of the solution:
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) can’t be predicted
140. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxodi-sulphuric acid produces:
(a) two moles of sulphuric acid
(b) two moles of peroxomono-sulphuric acid
 366 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(c) one mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of peroxomono-sulphuric acid

(d) one mole of sulphuric acid, onle mole of peroxomono-sulphuric acid and one mole of
hydrogen peroxide
141. In trimer form of sulphur trioxide, each sulphur atom is bonded with:
(a) four oxygen atoms (b) three oxygen atoms
(c) two oxygen atoms (d) two sulphur atoms
142. Sodium thiosulphate is formed when:
(a) SO 2 is boiled into Na 2S
(b) Na 2SO 3 is boiled with elemental sulphur
(c) H 2S 2O 3 is neutralised by NaOH
(d) Na 2SO 4 is reduced by zinc dust
143. K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] reacts with ozone to give:
(a) Fe 2O 3 (b) Fe(OH) 2
(c) K 3[Fe(CN) 6 ] (d) KNO 3
144. The dipole moment of H 2O 2 is more than that of H 2O but H 2O 2 is not a good solvent because:
(a) It has a very high dielectric constant so that ionic compounds cannot be dissolved in it
(b) It does not act as an oxidising agent
(c) It acts as a reducing agent
(d) It dissociates easily and acts as an oxidising agent in chemical reactions
145. The correct order of increasing acidity is:
(a) CO 2 < H 2O 2 < H 2O (b) H 2O < H 2O 2 < CO 2
(c) H 2O 2 < H 2O < CO 2 (d) H 2O 2 < CO 2 < H 2O
146. The correct order of S—S bond length in following oxyanions is :
(I) S 2O 2-
4 (II) S 2O 2-
5 (III) S 2O 2-
6
(a) I > II > III (b) I > III > II
(c) III > II > I (d) III > I > II
147. In which of the following reaction product does not contain ‘Peroxy’ linkage?
Dimerisation +H 2O
(a) 2OF ¾¾¾¾¾® (b) H 4 P2O 8 ¾¾¾®
excess O 2
(c) 2Na ¾¾¾¾®
D
(d) None of these

148. Consider the following statements in respect of oxides of sulphur.

(1) In gas phase SO 2 molecule is V-shape.
(2) In gas phase SO 3 molecule is planar.
(3) g - SO 3 is cyclic trimer.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
149. Gas that can not be collected over water is :
(a) N 2 (b) O 2 (c) SO 2 (d) PH 3
150. In thiosulphuric acid:
(a) each sulphur atom is in identical oxidation state
p-Block Elements 367
(b) there is a S==S linkage present
(c) one S atom is in +2 and other sulphur atom is in +4 oxidation state
(d) there is only one replaceable hydrogen atom
151. One gas bleaches the colour of flowers by reduction, while the other by oxidation, the two
gases respectively are:
(a) CO and Cl 2 (b) H 2S and Br 2
(c) NH 3 and SO 3 (d) SO 2 and Cl 2
152. Which of the following halides cannot be hydrolysed at room temperature?
(I) TeF6 (II) SF6 (III) NCl 3 (IV) NF3
Choose the correct code:
(a) III and IV (b) I, II and III
(c) I, II and IV (d) II and IV
153. By which of the following methods, H 2O 2 can’t be synthesised?
(a) Lewis addition of ice cold H 2SO 4 on BaO 2
(b) Addition of ice cold H 2SO 4 on PbO 2
(c) Aerial oxidation of 2-ethyl anthraquinol
(d) Electrolysis of (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 at a high current density
154. Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true
and F if it is false.
(I) Number of S—S bonds in H 2S n O 6 are (n + 1)
(II) When F2 reacts with water gives HF, O 2 and O 3
(III) LiNO 3 and BaCl 2 compounds are used in fire works
(IV) Be and Mg hydrides are ionic and polymeric
(a) FTTF (b) FTTT
(c) TFTT (d) TTFF
155. Which of the following parent oxy acid does not have its hypo acid ?
(a) H 2SO 2 (b) HNO 2 (c) H 3PO 3 (d) HClO 3
156. Which pair of elements can from multiple bond with itself and oxygen?
(a) F, N (b) N, Cl (c) N, P (d) N, C
157. Consider the following reactions :
(i) PCl 3 + 3H 2O -® H 3PO 3 + 3HCl (ii) SF4 + 3H 2O -® H 3SO 3 + 4HF
(iii) BCl 3 + 3H 2O -® H 3BO 3 + 3HCl (iv) XeF6 + 3H 2O -® XeO 3 + 6HF
Then according to given information the incorrect statement is :
(a) During the (i) reaction the hybridisation of 15th group element does not change
(b) During the (ii) reaction the hybridisation of 16th group element has been changed
(c) During the (iii) reaction the hybridisation of 13th group element does not change
(d) During the (iv) reaction the hybridisation of 18th group element does not change
18 18
158. Predict the correct product when Cl 2 passed through H — O — O — H solution :
(a) H + + Cl - + O 2 (Both oxygen having 18)
(b) HOCl and HClO 2 (all oxygen having 18)
 368 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(c) HClO 4 and HCl (all oxygen having 18)

(d) Cl 2O and H 2O (all oxygen having 18)
159. Which of the given oxyacid exhibits strongest reducing character ?
(a) H 2S 2O 8 (b) HClO 4 (c) H 3PO 4 (d) H 3PO 2
160. Which of the following oxy acid of phophorous is a reducing agent and monobasic ?
(a) H 3PO 2 (b) H 3PO 3 (c) H 3PO 4 (d) H 4 P2O 6
161. SO 2 is not produced when :
(a) P4 reacts with SOCl 2 (b) S 8 reacts with conc. H 2SO 4
(c) P4 reacts with SO 2Cl 2 (d) S 8 reacts with conc. HNO 3
162. Which of the following statement is incorrect for ozone ?
(a) It is thermodynamically less stable than oxygen.
(b) It causes tailing of mercury.
(c) It is diamagnetic in nature.
(d) It oxidises KMnO 4
163. The correct order of O — O bond length in O 2 , H 2O 2 and O 3 :
(a) O 3 > H 2O 2 > O 2 (b) O 2 > H 2O 2 > O 3
(c) O 2 > O 3 > H 2O 2 (d) H 2O 2 > O 3 > O 2
164. In the reaction,
2KI + H 2O + O 3 ¾® 2KOH + O 2 + A
The compound A is :
(a) KIO 3 (b) I 2O 5 (c) HIO 3 (d) I 2
165. Identify the correct sequence of increasing number of p-bonds in structures of the following
molecules.
(I) H 2S 2O 6 (II) H 2SO 3 (III) H 2S 2O 5
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III, I (c) II, I, III (d) I, III, II
166. Sulphur reacts with chlorine in 1 : 2 ratio and forms ( X ). ( X ) on hydrolysis gives a sulphur
compound (Y ). What is the hybridised state of central atom in the anion of (Y ) ?
(a) sp (b) sp 3 (c) sp 2 (d) sp 3 d
167. The incorrect statement about ozone is :
(a) Both O — O bond length lengths are equal in ozone
(b) Ozone is diamagnetic in nature
(c) Ozone produces tailing of mercury
(d) Ozone oxidises KMnO 4
168. The ozone layer forms natural in stratosphere by :
(a) the interaction of CFC with oxygen
(b) the interaction of UV radiation with oxygen
(c) the interaction of IR radiation with oxygen
(d) the interaction of oxygen and water vapour
169. Which of the following reaction is incorrect ?
(a) PCl 3 + 3H 2O ¾® H 3PO 3 + 3HCl (b) NCl 3 + 3H 2O ¾® NH 3 + 3HOCl
(c) SbCl 3 + 3H 2O ¾® H 3SbO 3 + 3HCl (d) BiCl 3 + H 2O ¾® BiOCl + +2HCl
p-Block Elements 369
170. For structures :
S O
a
b S S c
– – – –
O O O O
O O
Incorrect option is :
(a) a > c
(b) b = c
(c) Both molecular species have different lewis basic strength
(d) All bonds are polar in each molecular species

: Halogen Family and their Compounds (17 gp.)

171. In which case, the order of acidic strength is not correct ?
(a) HI > HBr > HCl (b) HIO 4 > HBrO 4 > HClO 4
(c) HClO 4 > HClO 3 > HClO 2 (d) HF > H 2O > NH 3
172. Concentrated nitric acid reacts with iodine to give:
(a) HOI (b) HI
(c) HOIO 2 (d) HOIO 3
173. Thermally most stable compound is:
(a) HOClO 3 (b) HOClO 2
(c) HOCl (d) HOClO
174. Which of the following halogen oxide is used for estimation of carbon monoxide in automobile
exhaust gases?
(a) Cl 2O 7 (b) I 2O 5 (c) ClO 2 (d) BrO 3
175. The interhalogen which does not exist is:
(a) IF5 (b) ClF3 (c) BrCl (d) ICl 4
176. Which of the following halogen disproportionates in water?
(a) F2 (b) Cl 2 (c) I 2 (d) All three
177. Which of the following is correct statement?
(a) F2 has higher dissociation energy than Cl 2
(b) F has higher electron affinity than Cl
(c) HF is stronger acid than HCl
(d) Boiling point increases down the group in halogens
178. Only iodine forms hepta-fluoride IF7 , but chlorine and bromine give penta-fluorides. The
reason for this is:
(a) low electron affinity of iodine
(b) unusual pentagonal bipyramidal structure of IF7
(c) that the larger iodine atom can accommodate more number of smaller fluorine atom around it
(d) low chemical reactivity of IF7
179. Acid used for making permanent marking on the glass surface is:
(a) HNO 3 (b) HF
(c) HIO 3 (d) H 2SO 4
 370 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

180. The unfavourable electrochemical reaction among the following is:

(a) Zn+ H 2SO 4 ¾® ZnSO 4 + H 2 (b) KI+ Cl 2 ¾® KCl+ I 2
(c) KCl+ I 2 ¾® KI+ ICl (d) Al+ 3HCl ¾® AlCl 3 + 3 H 2
2
181. Which anion can undergo both oxidation and reduction?
(a) Cr 2O 72– (b) NO –3 (c) OCl – (d) S 2–
182. In the series HCl, HBr and HI, the boiling point increases in the order HCl < HBr< HI. This is
due to :
(a) HI is the strongest acid among the series
(b) HI is the strongest reducing agent among the series
(c) higher van der waals’ forces of attraction in HI
(d) intermolecular H-bonding in HI
183. Consider the oxy acids HClO n series, here value of n is 1 to 4. Then incorrect statement
regarding these oxy acids is :
(a) Acidic character of oxy acids increases with increasing value of n.
(b) oxidising power of oxy acids increases with decreasing value of n.
(c) Thermal stability of oxy acids decreases with increasing value of n.
(d) ‘Cl—O’ bond order decreases with decreasing value of n
184. Select the correct statement regarding ClO -n molecular ion.
(a) On decreasing value of ‘n’, ‘Cl—O’ bond order increases
(b) On increasing value of ‘n’, ‘Cl—O’ bond length increases
(c) On increasing value of n, oxidation number of central atom increases
(d) On increasing value of n, hybrid orbitals on central atom increase
185. In, Cl 2O 6 (l) + HF ¾® P + Q
If H + of acid HF attaches with Q, then correct option for hybridization of Cl-atom and ÐOClO
in the P and Q ions :
(a) P : sp 2 ; > 120 º (b) Q : sp 3 ; 109 º28'
(c) P: sp 3 ; < 109 º28' (d) Q : sp 3 ; > 109 º28'
186. Bromine is commercially prepared from sea water by displacement reaction
Cl 2 + 2Br - (aq) ¾® 2Cl - (aq) + Br 2
Br 2 gas thus formed is dissolved into solution of Na 2CO 3 and then pure Br 2 is obtained by
treatment of the solution with :
(a) Ca(OH) 2 (b) NaOH (c) H 2SO 4 (d) HI
187. Which of the following properties of halogens increases with increasing atomic number?
(I) Ionization energy (II) Ionic radius
(III) Bond energy of the X 2 molecule (IV) Enthalpy of vaporisation
(a) I, II, III (b) I, III
(c) II, IV (d) IV
18 18
188. Predict the correct product when Cl 2 passed through H ¾ O ¾ O ¾ H solution.
(a) H+ + Cl – + O 2 (both oxygen having 18)
p-Block Elements 371
(b) HOCl and HClO 2 (all oxygen having 18)
(c) HClO 4 and HCl (all oxygen having 18)
(d) Cl 2O and H 2O (all oxygen having 18)
189. Cl 2( g) + Ba(OH) 2 ¾® X ( aq.) + BaCl 2 + H 2O
X + H 2SO 4 ¾® Y + BaSO 4
D
Y ¾¾¾® Z + H 2O + O 2
D > 365 K

Y and Z are respectively :

(a) HClO 4 , ClO 2 (b) HClO 3 , ClO 2 (c) HClO 3 , ClO 6 (d) HClO 4 , Cl 2O 7
190. Auto-oxidation of bleaching powder gives:
(a) only calcium chlorate (b) only calcium chloride
(c) only calcium hypochlorite (d) both (a) and (b)
191. Which is incorrectly matched?
(a) I 4 O 9 º I 3+ + 3 IO –3 (b) I 2O 4 º IO +
+ IO –3
(c) CsBr 3 º Cs +
+ Br 3– (d) None of these
192. The three elements X , Y and Z with electronic configurations shown below all form hydrides:
Element Electronic configuration
X 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 2
Y 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s1
Z 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 3 d 10 4 s 2 4 p 5
Which set of properties match correctly with properties of the hydrides of these elements:
Hydride of X Hydride of Y Hydride of Z
(a) Colourless gas insoluble Silver/grey solid reacts Colourless gas forms a
in H 2O with H 2O to form an strong acid in H 2O
alkali
(b) Colourless liquid, no Silver/grey solid forms Ionic solid with formula
reaction with H 2O H 2 and H 2O ZH
(c) Non-polar compound Silver/grey ionic solid Forms when water is
reacts with Cl 2 in light with formula YH 2 added to phosphorus and
elemental Z.
(d) Colourless gas which Silver/grey solid which Colourless, corrosive
burns with air reacts violently with liquid at STP
acids
193. The incorrect order is :
(a) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Acidic strength
(b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI : Thermal stability
(c) HF > HCl > HBr > HI : Boiling point
(d) HF > HCl > HBr > HI : Bond dissociation enthalpy
 372 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

194. In the following reaction :

IClBr - + F - ¾® Product
(I) (II)
In (I) species which site behave as L.A
(a) Cl (b) Br (c) I (d) None of these
195. Which one of the following oxides is expected exhibit paramagnetic behaviour ?
(a) CO 2 (b) SO 2 (c) ClO 2 (d) SiO 2
196. Acidic character of liquid HF increases on addition of which of the following compound ?
(a) SiF4 (b) SF6 (c) BF3 (d) (a) and (c) both
197. On heating NaX with H 2SO 4 and MnO 2 the halogen that cannot be prepared is ___________.
(a) I 2 (b) Cl 2 (c) Br 2 (d) F2
- - -
198. In the reaction : 3Br 2 + 6OH ¾® 5Br + BrO 3 + 3H 2O , Br 2 is :
(a) Oxidised (b) Reduced
(c) Disintegrated (d) Disproportionated
199. Which of the following does not liberate Br 2 from KBr ?
(a) I 2 (b) Cl 2 (c) conc. H 2SO 4 (d) F2
200. Br 2 + OH - ¾® ( A) + ( B )
HOT

A + B + H + ¾® Br 2
( A) gives yellow precipitate with AgNO 3 . ( A) and ( B ) are :
(a) Br - , BrO - (b) Br - , BrO -3 (c) BrO - , BrO -3 (d) BrO - , BrO -4
201. One gas bleaches the colour of flowers by reduction and other by oxidation. These gases are :
(a) SO 2 and Cl 2 (b) CO and Cl 2 (c) NH 3 and SO 2 (d) H 2S and Br 2
202. Which reagent shows redox reaction with FeCl 3( aq.) solution ?
(a) KCN (b) KMnO 4 / H +
(c) dil. HNO 3 (d) KBr
203. HF does not act as lewis base, when it combines with :
(a) ClF5 (b) TeF4 (c) XeF2 (d) None
204. In which of the following reactions, Cl 2 gas cannot be prepared ?
(a) MnO 2 + 4HCl ¾® MnCl 2 + Cl 2 + 2H 2O
(b) 2NaCl + 3H 2SO 4 (conc .) ¾® 2NaHSO 4 + Cl 2 + 2H 2O + SO 2
(c) F2 + 2NaCl ¾® 2NaF + Cl 2
(d) 2KMnO 4 + 16HCl ¾® 2KCl + 2MnCl 2 + 8H 2O + 5Cl 2

: Noble Gases and Xenon Compounds (18 gp.)

205. Which factor is most responsible for the increase in boiling points of noble gases from He to
Xe?
(a) Decrease in I.E. (b) Monoatomic nature
(c) Decrease in polarisability (d) Increase in polarisability
206. The compound that cannot be formed by xenon is:
(a) XeO 3 (b) XeF4 (c) XeCl 4 (d) XeO 2F2
p-Block Elements 373
207. The noble gases can be separated by:
(a) passing them through suitable solution
(b) electrolysis of their fluorides
(c) adsorption and desorption on charcoal
(d) adsorption and desorption on activated hydrogen
208. Which of the following xenon compound has the same number of lone pairs as in I -3 ?
(a) XeO 4 (b) XeF4 (c) XeF2 (d) XeO 3
209. The correct statement regarding perxenate ion (XeO 4-
6 ) is :
(a) It is polar species
(b) It is a planar species
(c) ‘Xe—O’ bond order is 1.33
(d) Molecular ion has only one type of bond angle
210. When XeF2 and XeF6 are separately hydrolysed then;
(a) both give out O 2 (b) XeF6 gives O 2 and XeF2 does not
(c) XeF2 alone gives O 2 (d) Neither of them gives HF
211. MF + XeF4 ¾® ‘ A’ ( M + = Alkali metal cation)
The state of hybridisation of the central atom in ‘A’ and shape of the species are:
(a) sp 3 d , TBP (b) sp 3 d 3 , distorted octahedral
(c) sp 3 d 3 , pentagonal planar (d) No compound formed at all
212. Xenon tetrafluoride, XeF4 is:
(a) tetrahedral and acts as a fluoride donor with SbF5
(b) square planar and acts as a fluoride donor with PF5
(c) square planar and acts as fluoride donor with NaF
(d) see-saw shape and acts as a fluoride donor with AsF5
213. XeF6 dissolves in anhydrous HF to give a good conducting solution which contains:
(a) H+ and XeF7– ion (b) HF2– and XeF5+ ions
(c) HXeF6+ and F – ions (d) none of these
214. Which of the following is not true about helium?
(a) It has the lowest boiling point
(b) It has the highest first ionization energy
(c) It can diffuse through rubber and plastic material
(d) It can form clathrate compounds
215. SbF5 reacts with XeF4 to form an adduct. The shapes of cation and anion in the adduct are
respectively:
(a) square planar, trigonal bipyramidal (b) T-shaped, octahedral
(c) square pyramidal, octahedral (d) square planar, octahedral
216. Consider the following transformations:
(I) XeF6 + NaF ¾® Na+ [XeF7 ]– (II) 2PCl 5( s) ¾® [PCl 4 ]+ [PCl 6 ]–
(III) [Al(H 2O) 6 ]3+ + H 2O ¾® [Al(H 2O) 5 OH]2+ + H 3O+
Possible transformations are:
 374 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(a) I, II, III (b) I, III (c) I, II (d) II, III

217. Which of the following is an uncommon hydrolysis product of XeF2 and XeF4 ?
(a) Xe (b) XeO 3
(c) HF (d) O 2
218. Incorrect statement regarding following reactions is :
+Excess H 2O
'X' + HF
XeF6
+2H 2O
'Y' + HF
(a) ' X ' is explosive
(b) ' Y ' is an oxyacid of xenon
(c) Both are example of non-redox reaction
(d) XeF6 can undergo partial hydrolysis
219. Which of the following noble gas does not form clathrate compound?
(a) Kr (b) Ne (c) Xe (d) Ar
220. Which of the following is not obtained by direct reaction of constituent elements ?
(a) XeF2 (b) XeF4 (c) XeO 3 (d) XeF6
221. Which of the statement is incorrect for XeF6 ?
(a) It acts as lewis acid when it reacts with RbF.
(b) It undergoes complete hydrolysis to give XeO 3 which is an explosive solid.
(c) It undergoes partial hydrolysis to produce XeOF4 and XeO 2F2 .
(d) It acts as lewis base when it reacts with RbF.
222. Select correct statement :
(a) XeF6 act as fluoride donor with HF acid
(b) All hydrolysis products of XeF4 are diamagnetic
(c) XeF2 act as fluoride acceptor with HF acid
(d) XeF2 on reaction with dil. HCl liberate F2 gas
223. Select incorrect statement for xenon fluorides :
(a) They are not stored in moist glass vessel
(b) XeF6 is stable in NaOH solution
(c) They are better fluorinating agents
(d) XeF6 directly reacts with silica

: Miscellaneous Questions
224. Incorrectly matched characteristic is :
(a) S 8 : Covalent lattice (b) P4 : Tetrahedron
(c) S 2-
4 : Zig-Zag (d) SiO 2: Covalent lattice
225. Which is wrong statement?
(a) The decreasing order of thermal stability is CsOH > RbOH > KOH > NaOH
(b) The decreasing order of bond angle is BF3 > PF3 > ClF3
(c) The decreasing order of bond dissociation energy is Cl 2 > Br 2 > F2 > I 2
(d) The decreasing order of melting point is NH 3 >(CH 3 ) 2 NH > CH 3NH 2 >(CH 3 ) 3 N
p-Block Elements 375
226. Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing bond dissociation energy:
(a) P — O > Cl — O > S — O (b) P — O > S — O > Cl — O
(c) S — O > Cl — O > P — O (d) Cl — O > S — O > P — O
227. Correct order of bond angle in given species is :
(a) SiO 44 - > PCl 3 > NCl 3 > SbH 3 > H 2Te
(b) SiO 44 - > NCl 3 > PCl 3 > SbH 3 > H 2Te
(c) SiO 44 - > H 2Te > SbH 3 > PCl 3 > NCl 3
(d) NCl 3 > PCl 3 > SiO 44 - > SbH 3 > H 2Te
228. The incorrect order is :
(a) N > P > As : Strength of p-bond with oxygen atom
(b) SiF4 > SiCl 4 > SiBr 4 > SiI 4 : Thermal stability
(c) H 2S > H 2Se > H 2Te : Arrhenious acid character
(d) CaBr 2 > MgBr 2 > BeBr 2 : Melting point
229. Among the following, cyclic species are :
(I) H 5P3O 10 (II) [B 3O 3(OH) 5 ]2- (III) H 5P5O 15 (IV) P3N 3Cl 6
(a) I, III (b) I, III, IV
(c) II, III, IV (d) I, II, III, IV
230. The substance that has the lowest boiling point is:
(a) HCl (b) H 2S
(c) PH 3 (d) SiH 4
231. Which of the following molecule can show Lewis acidity?
(I) CO 2 (II) Br 2 (III) SnCl 2 (IV) HF
(V) NMe 3
(a) III, IV (b) I, II, III
(c) I, III, IV (d) II, III, V
232. Molecule having non-polar as well as polar bonds but the molecule as a whole is polar :
(a) (SCN) 2 (b) Cl 2O 8
(c) B 2Cl 4 (d) I 2Cl 6
233. Which of the following order is incorrect ?
(a) Lewis basic character : NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3
(b) Bond dissociation energy : HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(c) Thermal stability : H 2O > H 2S > H 2Se > H 2Te
(d) Bond angle : CH 4 > SiH 4 > GeH 4 > SnH 4
234. Which of the following does not undergo Lewis acid-base reaction ?
(a) CO 2 + H 2O (b) AlCl 3 + Cl -
(c) SF6 + BF3 (d) B(OH) 3 + H 2O
235. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) XeF6 ( s) is found to be ionic solid consisting of ( XeF5 ) + and F - ions.
(b) Thermal stability and basic character of alkaline earth metal hydroxide decreases on
moving down the group.
 376 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(c) Bicarbonate of lithium and magnesium exist in solution.

(d) Talc is example of two dimension sheet silicate.
236. Which statement regarding phosphine is not correct ?
(a) It possess of rotten fish smell
(b) It is obtained in Holme’s signal by hydrolysis of Ca 3P2
(c) It is combustible in nature due to presence of impurity of P2H 4 along with it.
(d) It is more soluble in water than ammonia
237. Select the incorrect match :
(a) Ca 3Si 3O 9 : Cyclic silicate
(b) R 2Si(OH) 2 : Silicate
(c) H 2O 2 : Bleaching agent
(d) Na 6 P6 O 18 : used to remove hardness of water
238. Which of the following order is correct ?
(a) NH 3 < PH 3 < AsH 3 < SbH 3 : order of basic character
(b) H 2S < H 2Se < H 2Te < H 2O : order of boiling point
(c) HCl < HF < HBr < HI : order of boiling point
(d) H 2O < H 2Te < H 2S < H 2Se : order of acidic nature
239. Incorrect order for PH 3 , H 2S, HCl
(a) Thermal stability : PH 3 < H 2S < HCl
(b) Bond angle : PH 3 > H 2S
(c) Arrhenius acidic character : PH 3 < H 2S < HCl
(d) Bond length : P — H > S — H > Cl — H
240. The incorrect statement regarding ‘ X ’ in the given reaction is :
BF3 + LiAlH 4 ¾ Ether
¾¾® ‘ X ’ +LiF + AlF3
(a) Twelve electron are involved in bonding in one molecules of ‘ X ’
(b) Four, two centre-two electron bonds
(c) Two, three centre-two electron bonds
(d) X does not react with NH 3
p-Block Elements 377

Level 2
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
Questions given below consists of two statements each printed as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R); while answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four
responses:
(A) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) If (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) If (A) is false but (R) is true.
(E) Both (A) and (R) are false.
1. Assertion : Al(OH) 3 is amphoteric in nature.
Reason : Al(OH) 3 is H + donar acid as well as OH - donar base.
2. Assertion : BF3 is weaker Lewis acid than BCl 3 .
Reason : BF3 is less electron deficient than BCl 3 .
3. Assertion : Compound having X—O—H linkage (X=non-metal) always acts as Arrhenius
acid.
Reason : Bond polarity of O—H bond is higher than that of X—O bond.
4. Assertion : When two gaseous OF molecules are allowed to cool, then they undergo
dimerisation through O-atom.
Reason : Dimer form of OF molecule (i.e.,O 2F2 ) is having one peroxy linkage in its
structure.
5. Assertion : Bond dissociation energy of N—F bond in NF3 molecule is lower than that of
in NCl 3 molecule.
Reason : Inter electronic repulsion exists between small size N and F atoms in N—F
bond of NF3 molecule.
6. Assertion : KAlF4 salt can not be formed by combining AlF3 with KF.
Reason : AlF3 being predominantly ionic compound never acts as Lewis acid.
7. Assertion : Aluminium and zinc metal evolve H 2 gas from NaOH solution.
Reason : Several non-metals such as P, S, Cl, etc. yield a hydride instead of H 2 gas from
NaOH.
8. Assertion : There is a very little difference in acidic strengths of H 3PO 4 , H 3PO 3 and
H 3PO 2 .
Reason : Number of unprotonated oxygen ( = O) responsible for increase of acidic
strength due to inductive effect remains the same.
9. Assertion : PCl 5 and PbCl 4 are thermally unstable.
Reason : They produce same gas on thermal decomposition.
10. Assertion : Conc. H 2SO 4 cannot be used to prepare pure HBr from NaBr.
Reason : It reacts slowly with NaBr.
 378 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

11. Assertion : Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur, yet H 2S is acidic, while H 2O is
neutral.
Reason : H—S bond is weaker than O—H bond.
12. Assertion : Liquid IF5 conducts electricity.
Reason : Liquid IF5 conducts as, 2IF5 º
IF4+ + IF6- .
13. Assertion : Red phosphorus is less volatile then white phosphorus.
Reason : Red phosphorus has a discrete tetrahedral structure.
14. Assertion : Al(OH) 3 is amphoteric in nature.
Reason : It cannot be used as an antacid.
15. Assertion : Chlorine gas disproportionates in hot and conc. NaOH solution.
Reason : NaCl and NaOCl are formed in the above reaction.
16. Assertion : Silicones are very inert polymers.
Reason : Both Si—O and Si—C bond energies are very high.
17. Assertion : AgI does not dissolve in NH 3 .
Reason : Due to ionic character of AgI.
18. Assertion : Anhydrous AlCl 3 is covalent while hydrated AlCl 3 is ionic.
Reason : In water AlCl 3 is present as Al (3+aq.) and Cl (-aq.) ion.
19. Assertion : Boron reacts with HNO 3 .
Reason : Boron reacts with all acids.
20. Assertion : H 2SO 4 is a weaker acid than HClO 4 .
Reason : SO 2– –
4 is more stable than ClO 4 in solution.

21. Assertion : HF forms two series of salts but HCl does not.
Reason : F atom is more electronegative than Cl atom.
O
½½
22. Assertion : PCl 3 on hydrolysis gives OH ¾ P ¾ OH and not OH ¾ P ¾ OH as major
½ ½
H OH
product.
O
|½
Reason : H 3PO 3 exists in two tautomeric forms : OH ¾ P ¾ OH
½
º HO ¾½P ¾ OH
OH H

23. Assertion : BiI 3 with triiodide (I -3 ) ion never exists.

Reason : Intramolecular redox reaction takes place between bismuth cation and tri-
iodide ion.
24. Assertion : SnO is more reactive towards acid than SnO 2 .
Reason : Both SnO and SnO 2 are amphoteric oxides.
p-Block Elements 379
25. Assertion : Bond dissociation energy of F2 molecule is less than that of Cl 2 molecule.
Reason : Due to inter-electronic repulsion between F atom, F — F bond length in F2
molecule is higher than Cl — Cl bond length in Cl 2 molecule.
26. Assertion : In H 3PO 3 , basicity of the oxy acid is two.
Reason : One H-atom is non-ionizable in more stable tautomeric form of H 3PO 3 .
27. Assertion : Ozone is powerful oxidising agent in comparison to O 2 .
Reason : Ozone is diamagnetic but O 2 is paramagnetic. (AIIMS 2005)
28. Assertion : Reaction of SO 2 and H 2S in the presence of Fe 2O 3 catalyst gives elemental
sulphur.
Reason : SO 2 is a reducing agent. (AIIMS 2005)
29. Assertion : Molecular nitrogen is less reactive than molecular oxygen.
Reason : The bond length of N 2 is shorter than that of oxygen. (AIIMS 2006)
30. Assertion : Silicones are hydrophobic in nature.
Reason : Si—O—Si linkages are moisture sensitive. (AIIMS 2007)
31. Assertion : SiF62- is known but SiCl 2-
6 is not.

Reason : Size of fluorine is small and its lone pair of electrons interacts with d-orbitals
of Si strongly. (AIIMS 2007)
32. Assertion : The S — S — S bond angle in S 8 molecule is 105°.
Reason : S 8 has V-shape. (AIIMS 2008)
33. Assertion : Coloured cations can be identified by borax bead test.
Reason : Transparent bead (NaBO 2 + B 2O 3 ) forms coloured bead with coloured
cation. (AIIMS 2009)
34. Assertion : F2 has high reactivity.
Reason : F—F bond has low bond dissociation enthalpy. (VMMC 2010)
35. Assertion : PbI 4 is a stable compound.
Reason : Iodide stabilises higher oxidation state. (AIIMS 2013)
 380 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 3
1. In graphite two layers of carbon atoms are held together by : (BHU 2000)
(a) covalent bond (b) van der Waals’ forces
(c) hydrogen bonds (d) ionic bonds
2. Which one of the following molecules will form a linear polymeric structure due to hydrogen
bonding ? [CBSE (Med.) 2000]
(a) HCl (b) HF (c) H 2O (d) NH 3
3. Which of the following is plannar ? [CBSE (Med.) 2000]
(a) XeO 4 (b) XeO 3F (c) XeO 2F2 (d) XeF4
4. B—H—B bridge in diborane is formed by the sharing of : (BHU 2001)
(a) 2 electrons (b) 4 electrons
(c) one electron (d) three electrons
5. Zeolites are used as : (BHU 2001)
(a) medicine (b) softening of water
(c) lubricant (d) abrasives
6. Which of the following has pp-dp bonding ? [CBSE (Med.) 2002]
2- 3-
(a) NO 3-
(b) SO 3 (c) BO 3 (d) CO 2-
2

7. In NO -3 ion, the number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom are :
[CBSE (PMT) 2002]
(a) 2 , 2 (b) 3 , 1 (c) 1 , 3 (d) 4 , 0
8. Thallium shows different oxidation states because : [MP (PMT) 2003]
(a) of inert pair effect (b) it is highly reactive
(c) it is transition element (d) it is amphoteric
9. The graphite is conductor of electricity : (CPMT 2003)
(a) because four valencies of each carbon atom are satisfied
(b) because some of the electrons are free to move through the crystal
(c) because it has layer structure
(d) because it has giant molecular structure
10. The true statement for the acids of phosphorus, H 3PO 2 , H 3PO 3 and H 3PO 4 is :
(AIIMS 2003)
(a) The order of their acidity is : H 3PO 4 > H 3PO 3 > H 3PO 2 .
(b) All of them are reducing in nature.
(c) All of them are tribasic acids.
(d) The geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral in all the three.
11. Which of the following is not true ? [CBSE (Med.) 2003]
(a) Among halide ions, iodine ion is the most powerful reducing agent.
(b) Fluorine is the only halogen which does not show a variable oxidation state.
(c) HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr.
(d) HF is a stronger acid than HCl.
p-Block Elements 381
12. Which of the following arrangement represents the correct order of electron gain enthalpy
(with negative sign) of the given atomic species ? [CBSE (PMT) 2003]
(a) F < Cl < O < S (b) S < O < Cl < F
(c) O < S < F < Cl (d) Cl < F < S < O
13. The shape of O 2F2 is similar to that of : (AIIMS 2004)
(a) C 2F2 (b) H 2O 2 (c) H 2F2 (d) C 2H 2
14. The element which forms oxides in all oxidation states +1 to +5 is: (AIIMS 2004)
(a) N (b) P (c) As (d) Sb
15. In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimise:
[CBSE (PMT) 2004]
(a) lone pair-bond pair repulsions only
(b) bond pair-bond pair repulsions only
(c) lone pair-lone pair and lone pair-bond pair repulsions.
(d) lone pair-lone pair repulsions only.
16. Among the following, the pair in which the two species are not isostructural is :
[CBSE (PMT) 2004]
-
(a) SiF4 and SF4 (b) IO 3 and XeO 3
(c) BH -4 and NH +4 (d) PF6- and SF6
17. The ONO angle is maximum in: (AIIMS 2004)
(a) NO -3 (b) NO -2 (c) NO 2 (d) NO +2
18. Which of the following is the increasing order of enthalpy of vaporization ? (AIIMS 2004)
(a) NH 3 , PH 3 , AsH 3 (b) AsH 3 , PH 3 , NH 3
(c) NH 3 , AsH 3 , PH 3 (d) PH 3 , AsH 3 , NH 3
19. Which of the following halides forms salt like KHX 2 (where X is a halogen atom)?
[Kerala (MEE) 2004]
(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI
20. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is solid ? (AFMC 2004)
(a) NO 2 (b) H 2O (c) N 2O 3 (d) N 2O 5
21. Which of the following oxides is expected to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour ?
[CBSE (PMT) 2005]
(a) CO 2 (b) ClO 2 (c) SO 2 (d) SiO 2
22. Among the following molecules :
(i) XeO 3 (ii) XeOF4 (iii) XeF6
those having same number of lone pairs of Xe are: (AIIMS 2005)
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii) only (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
23. F2 is formed by reaction of K 2MnF6 with: (AIIMS 2005)
(a) SbF5 (b) MnF3 (c) SbF6 (d) MnF5
24. The number of P—O—P bonds in the structure of phosphorus pentoxide and phosphorus
trioxide are respectively: (AIIMS 2005)
(a) 6, 6 (b) 5, 5 (c) 5, 6 (d) 6, 5
 382 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

25. In which of the following molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal ? (AIEEE 2006)
(a) SF4 (b) SiF4 (c) XeF4 (d) BF4-
26. Which of the following has least bond angle ? (BHU 2006)
(a) H 2O (b) H 2S (c) H 2Se (d) H 2Te
27. Pnicogens are the elements of group : (Odisha JEE 2006)
(a) 15 (b) 13 (c) VIII (d) zero
28. Thomas slag is : (Manipal 2006)
(a) Ca 3(PO 4 ) 2 × 2H 2O (b) Ca 3(PO 4 ) 2 × CaSiO 3
(c) MgSiO 3 (d) CaSiO 3
29. The decreasing order of boiling points of the following hydrides. (Kerala CEE 2006)
I. NH 3 II. PH 3 III. AsH 3 IV. SbH 3
V. H 2O
(a) V > IV > I > III > II (b) V > I > II > III > IV
(c) II > IV > III > I > V (d) IV > III > I > II > V
(e) V > IV > III > II > I
30. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against is?
(AIPMT 2006)
(a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF : Acidic property in water
(b) F2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2 : Electronegativity
(c) F2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2 : Bond dissociation energy
(d) F2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2 : Oxidising power
31. Match the following columns. (Kerala CEE 2006)

Column I Column II
(Substance) (Application)
A. Helium 1. Chlorinating agent
B. Argon 2. Inert atmosphere (metallurgy)
C. Neon 3. Cryogenics
D. P4 O 10 4. Advertising signs
E. PCl 5 5. Dehydrating agent

A B C D E A B C D E
(a) 3 2 1 4 5 (b) 3 4 1 5 2
(c) 2 3 4 5 1 (d) 5 4 1 2 3
(e) 5 2 1 3 4
32. For which one of the following minerals, the composition given is incorrect?
(Kerala CEE 2007)
(a) Glauber's salt—Na 2SO 4 × 10H 2O (b) Borax—Na 2B 4 O 7 × 7H 2O
(c) Carnallite—KCl × MgCl 2 × 6H 2O (d) Soda ash—Na 2CO 3
(e) Epsom salt—MgSO 4 × 7H 2O
p-Block Elements 383
33. The number of isomers possible for disubstituted borazine, B 3N 3H 4 X 2 is :
(Kerala CEE 2007)
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 2
(e) 5
34. In diborane, the two H—B—H angles are nearly : (AIIMS 2007)
(a) 60º, 120º (b) 97º, 120º (c) 95º, 150º (d) 120º, 180º
35. Which of the following is the electron deficient molecule? (AIIMS 2007)
(a) B 2H 6 (b) C 2H 6 (c) PH 3 (d) SiH 4
36. Which of the following is a use of alum? (MP PMT 2007)
(a) Making explosives (b) Bleaching clothes
(c) Water softening (d) All of these
37. Which of the following is not correct? (EAMCET 2007)
(a) Al reacts with NaOH and liberate H 2
(b) AlCl 3 is a Lewis acid
(c) Al is used in the manufacture of electrical cables
(d) NaOH is used during Hall's process of purification of bauxite
38. Which of the following is the most basic oxide? (CBSE AIPMT 2007)
(a) Al 2O 3 (b) Sb 2O 3 (c) Bi 2O 3 (d) SeO 2
39. Value of x is potash alum, K 2SO 4 × Al x (SO 4 ) 3 × 24H 2O is: (UP CPMT 2007)
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) None of these
40. The colour imparted by Co(II) compounds to glass is: (AIIMS 2007)
(a) green (b) deep-blue (c) yellow (d) red
41. The composition of the common glass is : (Manipal 2007)
(a) Na 2O × CaO × 6SiO 3 (b) Na 2O × Al 2O 3 × SiO 2
(c) CaO × Al 2O 3 × SiO 2 (d) Na 2O × CaO × 6SiO 2
42. White lead is : (UP CPMT 2007)
(a) Pb 3O 4 (b) PbO
(c) 2PbCO 3 × Pb(OH) 2 (d) Pb(CH 3COO) 2 × Pb(OH) 2
43. Supercritical CO 2 is used as: (AIIMS 2007)
(a) dry ice (b) fire fighting
(c) a solvent for extraction of organic compounds from natural sources
(d) a highly inert medium for carrying out various reactions
44. Chemically litharge is : (AIIMS 2007)
(a) PbO (b) PbO 2 (c) Pb 3O 4 (d) Pb(CH 3COO) 2
45. Which one of the following anions is present in the chain structure silicates?
(AIPMT 2007)
(a) Si 2O 76- (b) (Si 2O 2- )
5 n
(c) (SiO 2-
3 )n (d) SiO 4-
4
46. Which of the following anions is present in the chain structure of silicates ?
[CBSE (PMT) 2007]
(a) SiO 4–
4 (b) Si O
2 7
6–
(c) (Si O 2–
2 5 n ) (d) (SiO 2–
3 )n
 384 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

47. The correct order of C—O bond length among CO, CO 2–

3 CO 2 is : [CBSE (PMT) 2007]
(a) CO < CO 2 < CO 23- (b) CO 2 < CO 23- < CO
(c) CO < CO 23- < CO 2 (d) CO 23- < CO 2 < CO
48. The repeating structural unit in silicon is : (AIIMS 2007)
R
|
(a) SiO 2 (b) Si ¾ O ¾
|
R
R
| | |
(c) O ¾ Si ¾ O ¾ (d) ¾ Si ¾ O ¾ O ¾ R
| |
R R
49. Water transported through lead pipes becomes poisonous due to the formation of :
[WB (JEE) 2007]
(a) Pb(OH) 2 (b) PbO (c) PbO 2 (d) Pb 3O 4
50. How many O-atoms are shared per SiO 4 tetrahedral in silicate anion of beryl mineral ?
[Gujarat (CET) 2007]
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
51. Which type of bond is present in Xe molecule ? (CPMT 2007)
(a) Covalent (b) Ion-dipole
(c) van der Waal’s (d) Dipole-dipole
52. Chlorine reacts with excess of ammonia to form: [Kerala (PMT) 2007]
(a) NH 4 Cl (b) N 2 + HCl (c) N 2 + NH 4 Cl (d) N 2 + NCl 3
53. The correct formula of salt formed by the neutralization of hypophosphorus acid with NaOH
is: (Gujarat CET 2007)
(a) Na 3PO 2 (b) Na 3PO 3 (c) NaH 2PO 2 (d) Na 2HPO 2
54. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing enthalpy of vaporisation?
(Kerala CEE 2007)
(a) NH 3 < PH 3 < AsH 3 (b) AsH 3 < PH 3 < NH 3
(c) PH 3 < AsH 3 < NH 3 (d) NH 3 < AsH 3 < PH 3
(e) AsH 3 < NH 3 < PH 3
55. Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the
given acids? (AIPMT 2007)
(a) HOClO < HOCl < HOClO 3 < HOClO 2 (b) HOClO 2 < HOClO 3 < HOClO < HOCl
(c) HOClO 3 < HOClO 2 < HOClO < HOCl (d) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO 2 < HOClO 3
56. Which one of the following is the true, covalent oxide of iodine? (AIIMS 2007)
(a) I 2O 4 (b) I 2O 5 (c) I 2O 7 (d) I 2O 9
57. A mixture of boron trichloride and hydrogen is subjected to silent electric discharge to form A
and HCl. A is mixed with NH 3 and heated to 200ºC to form B. The formula of B is :
(EAMCET 2008)
(a) H 3BO 3 (b) B 2O 3 (c) B 3N 3H 6 (d) B 2H 6
p-Block Elements 385
58. Product of the following reaction is :
Al 4 C 3 + D 2O ¾® (Haryana PMT 2008)
(a) Al(OD) 3 + CD 4 (b) Al(OD) 2 + CD 4
(c) Al(OD) 4 + CD 4 (d) Al(OD) 3 + CD
59. The geometry at which carbon atoms in diamond are bonded to each other is :
(Kerala CEE 2008)
(a) linear (b) tetrahedral (c) square planar (d) octahedral
(e) hexagonal
60. Which of the following is used for making optical instruments? (AFMC 2008)
(a) SiO 2 (b) Si (c) SiH 4 (d) SiC
61. Non-oxide ceramics can be : (AIIMS 2008)
(a) B 4 C (b) SiC (c) Si 3N 4 (d) All of these
62. The ion(s) that act/s as an oxidising agent in solution is/are : [Kerala (PMT) 2008]
(a) Tl + and Al 3+ (b) B 3+ and Al 3+ (c) Tl 3+ only (d) B 3+ only
(e) Ti + only
63. Reaction of HNO 3 with I, S, P and C gives respectively [WB (JEE) 2008]
(a) HIO 3 , H 2SO 4 , H 3PO 4 and CO 2 (b) HIO 3 , H 2SO 4 , H 3PO 3 and CO 2
(c) I 2O 5 , H 2SO 4 , H 3PO 4 and CO (d) I 2O 5 , SO 2 , P2O 5 and CO 2
64. The oxidation number of Fe in brown ring [Fe(H 2O) 5 NO]2+ is:
[WB (JEE) 2007; Odisha (JEE) 2008]
(a) 0 (b) + 1 (c) + 2 (d) + 3
65. Na 2S 2O 3 is oxidised by I 2 to: [Odisha (JEE) 2008]
(a) Na 2S (b) Na 2SO 4 (c) NaHSO 3 (d) Na 2S 4 O 6
66. Excess of PCl 5 reacts with conc. H 2SO 4 giving: [Karnataka (CET) 2008]
(a) sulphuryl chloride (b) sulphurous acid
(c) chlorosulphonic acid (d) thionyl chloride
67. Which of the following salt would give SO 2 with hot and dil. H 2SO 4 and also decolourises Br 2
water? (Manipal 2008)
(a) Na 2SO 3 (b) NaHSO 4 (c) Na 2SO 4 (d) Na 2S
68. Which one of the following arrangements does not give the correct picture of the trends indicated
against it? (AIPMT 2008)
(a) F2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2 : Oxidizing power
(b) F2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2 : Electron gain enthalpy
(c) F2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2 : Bond dissociation energy
(d) F2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2 : Electronegativity
69. Which among the following is not a borane? (AMU 2009)
(a) B 2H 6 (b) B 3H 6 (c) B 4 H 10 (d) None of these
70. In alumino-thermic process, aluminium is used as: (Odisha JEE 2009)
(a) oxidising agent (b) reducing agent
(c) dehydrating agent (d) complex-forming agent
 386 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

71. The number of carbon atoms in Buckminster fullerece is : (WB JEE 2009)
(a) 50 (b) 350 (c) 60 (d) 70
(e) 80
72. SiCl 4 on hydrolysis forms 'X' and HCl. Compound 'X' loses water at 1000ºC and gives 'Y'.
Compounds 'X' and 'Y' respectively are: (EAMCET 2009)
(a) H 2SiCl 6 ,SiO 2 (b) H 4 SiO 4 ,Si
(c) SiO 2 ,Si (d) H 4 SiO 4 ,SiO 2
73. Which of the following statement is not correct? (WB JEE 2009)
(a) Silicon is extensively used as a semiconductor
(b) Carborundum is SiC
(c) Silicon occurs in free state in nature
(d) Mica contains the element silicon
74. The main reason that SiCl 4 is easily hydrolysed as compared to CCl 4 is that:
(Kerala CEE 2009)
(a) Si — Si bond is weaker
(b) SiCl 4 can form hydrogen bonds
(c) SiCl 4 is covalent
(d) SiCl 4 is ionic
(e) Si can extend its coordination number beyond four
75. The anion (Si 6 O 12-
18 ) is present in: (Kerala CEE 2009)
(a) pyroxene (b) beryl (c) mica (d) albite
76. Which one of the following has highest Lewis acid strength ? (DCE 2006; J & K 2009)
(a) BI 3 (b) BBr 3 (c) BF3 (d) BCl 3
77. Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide ?
(AIPMT 2009)
(a) CaO (b) SiO 2 (c) BeO (d) B 2O 3
78. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence : (AIPMT 2009)
(a) Ga < In < Al < Tl (b) Al < Ga < In < Tl
(c) Tl < In < Ga < Al (d) In < Tl < Ga < Al
79. The straight chain polymer is formed by : (AIPMT 2009)
(a) hydrolysis of CH 3SiCl 3 followed by condensation polymerisation
(b) hydrolysis of (CH 3 ) 4 Si by addition polymerisation
(c) hydrolysis of (CH 3 ) 2 SiCl 2 followed by condensation polymerisation
(d) hydrolysis of (CH 3 ) 3 SiCl followed by condensation polymerisation
80. Which of the following statement is not correct ? [WB (JEE) 2009]
(a) Silicon is extensively used as a semiconductor
(b) Carborundum is SiC
(c) Silicon occurs in free state in nature
(d) Mica contains the element silicon
81. Which of the following does not contain aluminium ? (AFMC 2009)
(a) Cryolite (b) Fluorspar
(c) Feldspar (d) Mica
p-Block Elements 387
82. If I 2 is dissolved in aqueous KI, the intense yellow species, I -3 is formed. The structure of I -3 ion
is: (DPMT 2009)
(a) square pyramidal (b) trigonal bipyramidal
(c) octahedral (d) pentagonal bipyramidal
83. Of the following acids, the one which has the capability to form complex compound and also
possesses oxidising and reducing properties is: [WB (JEE) 2009]
(a) HNO 3 (b) HNO 2 (c) HCOOH (d) HCN
84. Atoms in a P4 molecule of white phosphorus are arranged regularly in the following way:
[WB (JEE) 2009]
(a) At the corners of a cube
(b) At the corners of an octahedron
(c) At the corners of a tetrahedron
(d) At the centre and corners of a tetrahedron
85. By which of the following processes, pure nitrogen gas is prepared? (AFMC 2009)
D D
(a) (NH 4 ) 2 Cr 2O 7 ¾¾® (b) NH 4 Cl + NaNO 2 ¾¾®
D D
(c) NH 3 + NaNO 2 ¾¾ ® (d) N 2O + Cu ¾¾ ®
86. One of the product of the following reaction is:
D
KCNO + (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 ¾¾ ® (Odisha JEE 2009)
(a) NH 4 NO 3 (b) NH 2CONH 2
(c) N 2 (d) NO 2
87. Products formed on heating Pb(NO 3 ) 2 are : (Odisha JEE 2009)
(a) PbO,N 2 ,O 3 (b) Pb(NO 2 ) 2 ,O 2
(c) PbO,NO 2 ,O 2 (d) Pb,N 2 ,O 2
88. Of the following compounds, the most acidic is : (WB JEE 2009)
(a) As 2O 3 (b) P2O 5 (c) Sb 2O 3 (d) Bi 2O 3
89. When nitric acid reacts with nitric oxide, a gas is released, which converts H 2S into :
(AIIMS 2009)
(a) SO 2-
4 (b) S 2-
(c) S (d) S O
2 5
2-

90. Atoms in a P4 molecule of white phosphorus are arranged regularly in the following way :
(WB JEE 2009)
(a) at the corners of a cube
(b) at the corners of an octahedron
(c) at the corners of a tetrahedron
(d) at the centre and corners of a tetrahedron
91. Thermodynamically, most stable form of phosphorus is : (AFMC 2009)
(a) red (b) black
(c) white (d) yellow
92. The reaction of elemental P4 in aqueous NaOH gives : (Odisha JEE 2009)
(a) PH 3 ,NaH 2PO 2 (b) PH 3 ,Na 2PO 4
(c) NaHPO 4 ,Na 2PO 4 (d) Na 3P,Na 3PO 4
 388 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

93. Hydrolysis of PCl 5 gives : (CG PMT, Haryana PMT 2009)

(a) H 3PO 3 (b) HPO 3 (c) H 3PO 2 (d) H 3PO 4
94. When PbO 2 reacts with conc. HNO 3 , the gas evolved is : (Haryana PMT 2009)
(a) NO 2 (b) O 2 (c) N 2 (d) N 2O
95. The acid having O — O bond is : (Haryana PMT 2009)
(a) H 2S 2O 3 (b) H 2S 2O 6
(c) H 2S 2O 8 (d) H 2S 4 O 6
96. In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order : (AIPMT 2009)
(a) MF > MCl > MBr > MI (b) MF > MCl > MI > MBr
(c) MI > MBr > MCl > MF (d) MCl > MI > MBr > MF
97. Hypochlorite disproportionates to give : (Odisha JEE 2009)
- - - -
(a) Cl and ClO 4 (b) ClO 4 and ClO 3
(c) ClO -3 and Cl (d) ClO -2 and Cl
98. The reaction of Cl 2 with X gives bleaching powder, X is : (Odisha JEE 2009)
(a) CaO (b) Ca(OH) 2 (c) Ca(OCl) 2 (d) Ca(ClO 3 ) 2
99. Inorganic benzene is : (Haryana PMT 2010)
(a) B 3H 3N 3 (b) BH 3NH 3
(c) B 3H 6 N 3 (d) H 3B 3N 6
100. Borax is used as a cleansing agent because on dissolving in water, it gives :
(RPMT 2010; AMU 2010)
(a) alkaline solution (b) acidic solution
(c) bleaching solution (d) amphoteric solution
101. BF3 is : (RPMT 2010)
(a) electron deficient compound (b) Lewis base
(c) used as rocket fuel (d) ionic compound
102. The Strongest Lewis acid among boron halides is : (RPMT 2010; AMU 2010)
(a) BBr 3 (b) BCl 3 (c) BI 3 (d) BF3
103. In which of the following molecules is hydrogen bridge bond present? (WB JEE 2010)
(a) Water (b) Inorganic benzene
(c) Diborane (d) Methanol
104. The tendency of BF3 , BCl 3 and BBr 3 to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence :
(CBSE AIPMT 2010)
(a) BF3 > BCl 3 > BBr 3 (b) BCl 3 > BF3 > BBr 3
(c) BBr 3 > BCl 3 > BF3 (d) BBr 3 > BF3 > BCl 3
105. Atomic orbitals of carbon in carbon dioxide are : (RPMT 2010)
3 2 3
(a) sp-hybridised (b) sp d-hybridised (c) sp -hybridised (d) sp -hybridised
106. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. Its electrical conductivity is due to the fact that :
(UP CPMT 2010)
(a) it is an allotrope of carbon
(b) it has C-atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound C-atoms
p-Block Elements 389
(c) in it C-atoms are sp 2 -hybridised
(d) it is a non-crystalline substance
107. The products of the following reaction are : (Odisha JEE 2010)
D
SiO 2 + C ¾¾ ®
(a) SiC and CO 2 (b) SiO and CO
(c) SiC and CO (d) Si and CO 2
108. Which of the following is not hydrolysed easily? (Odisha JEE 2010)
(a) CCl 4 (b) SiCl 4 (c) GeCl 4 (d) SnCl 4
109. Chemical formula of phosgene is : (AFMC 2010; MP PMT 2010)
(a) COCl 2 (b) CaOCl 2 (c) CaCO 3 (d) COCl
110. The tendency of BF3 ,BCl 3 and BBr 3 to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence :
(AIPMT 2010)
(a) BF3 > BCl 3 > BBr 3 (b) BCl 3 > BF3 > BBr 3
(c) BBr 3 > BCl 3 > BF3 (d) BBr 3 > BF3 > BCl 3
111. Reaction of diborane with ammonia gives initially : [Kerala (PMT) 2010]
(a) B 2H 6 × NH 3 (b) Borazole
(c) B 2H 6 × 3NH 3 (d) [BH 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]+ [BH 4 ]–
(e) B 2N 4 H 10
112. Among the halides :
(i) BCl 3 (ii) AlCl 3 (iii) GaCl 3 (iv) InCl 3
Order of decreasing Lewis character is : (BHU 2010)
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i) (d) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
113. Which of the following flouride of Xe has zero dipole moment ? [AMU (Med.) 2010]
(a) XeF2 (b) XeF6 (c) XeF4 (d) both (a) and (c)
114. The hydrolysis of NCl 3 by H 2O produces: [AMU (Med.) 2010]
(a) NH 2OH and HOCl (b) NH 2NH 2 and HCl
(c) NH 4 OH and HOCl (d) NH 2Cl and HOCl
115. How many bridging atoms are present in P4 O 10 ? [AIPMT (Mains) 2010]
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5
116. P4 O 10 is an anhydride of: [WB (JEE) 2010]
(a) H 3PO 2 (b) H 3PO 3 (c) H 3PO 4 (d) H 4 O 2O 7
117. Which of the following contains P—O—P bond? [WB (JEE) 2010]
(a) Hypophosphorus acid (b) Phosphorus acid
(c) Pyrophosphoric acid (d) Orthophosphoric acid
118. Gaseous product obtained on thermal decomposition of (NH 4 ) 2 Cr 2O 7 is :
(Odisha JEE 2010)
(a) NH 3 (b) N 2 (c) O 2 (d) NO
119. Ammonia, on reaction with excess of chlorine, gives : (AFMC 2010)
(a) NCl 3 and HCl (b) N 4 and NH 4 Cl
(c) NCl 3 and NH 4 Cl (d) N 2 and HCl
 390 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

120. The number of P — O bonds in P4 O 10 is : (UP CPMT 2010)

(a) 16 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d) 4
121. P4 O 10 is the anhydride of : (WB JEE 2010)
(a) H 3PO 2 (b) H 3PO 3 (c) H 3PO 4 (d) H 4 P2O 7
122. On heating NH 4 NO 3 strongly which is obtained? (MP PMT 2010)
(a) NO 2 (b) NH 3 (c) N 3 (d) N 2O
123. Nitrous oxide is : (MP PMT 2010)
(a) acidic (b) basic
(c) amphoteric (d) neutral
124. Phosphorus pentoxide is widely used as : (Guj CET 2010)
(a) bleaching agent (b) dehydrating agent
(c) oxidising agent (d) reducing agent
125. Which of the following is not correct? White phosphorus (P4 ) has : (Haryana PMT 2010)
(a) six P — P single bond (b) four P — P single bonds
(c) four lone pair of electrons (d) PPP angle is 60°
126. The hydrolysis of NCl 3 by water produces : (AMU 2010)
(a) NH 2OH and HOCl (b) NH 2NH 2 and HCl
(c) NH 4 OH and HOCl (d) NH 2Cl and HOCl
127. The maximum number of P — H bonds are contained in which of the following molecules?
(AMU 2010)
(a) H 3PO 2 (b) H 3PO 3 (c) H 3PO 4 (d) H 4 P2O 7
128. Given are H 3PO 2 ,H 3PO 3 ,H 3PO 4 and H 4 P2O 7 .
Which of the above oxoacids results into two series of salts? (Guj CET 2010)
(a) H 3PO 2 (b) H 3PO 3 (c) H 3PO 4 (d) H 4 P2O 7
129. If the supply of oxygen is limited, H 2S reacts with O 2 to form (AFMC 2010)
(a) H 2O + SO 3 (b) H 2O + S
(c) H 2SO 4 + S (d) H 2O + SO 2
130. O 2 and O 3 are : (UP CPMT 2010)
(a) allotropes (b) isotopes
(c) isomorphs (d) polyrnorphs
131. Which of the following statements regarding ozone is not correct? (WB JEE 2010)
(a) The ozone molecule is angular in shape
(b) The ozone is a resonance hybrid of two structures
(c) The oxygen-oxygen bond length in ozone is identical with, that of molecular oxygen
(d) Ozone is used as germicide and disinfectant for the purification of air
132. Ozone can be tested by : (Haryana PMT 2010)
(a) Ag (b) Hg (c) Zn (d) Au
133. a-and b-forms of sulphur are at equilibrium at a temperature known as :
(Odisha JEE 2010)
(a) critical temperature (b) transition temperature
(c) Boyle’s temperature (d) inversion temperature
p-Block Elements 391
134. Bromine water reacts with SO 2 to form (AFMC 2010)
(a) HBr and S (b) H 2O and HBr
(c) S and H 2O (d) H 2SO 4 and HBr
135. Caro’s acid is : (VMMC 2010)
(a) H 2S 2O 3 (b) H 2SO 3
(c) H 2S 2O 7 (d) H 2S 2O 7
136. Sulphuric acid reacts with PCl 5 to give : (Manipal 2010)
(a) thionyl chloride (b) sulphur monochloride
(c) sulphivryl chloride (d) sulphur tetrachloride
137. Sulphur trioxide gas when dissolved in H 2SO 4 the product obtained is : (Odisha JEE 2010)
(a) H 2SO 3 (b) H 2SO 5
(c) H 2S 2O 7 (d) H 2S 2O 8
138. Least volatile hydrogen halide is : (AFMC 2010)
(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HI (d) HBr
139. Which of the following has germicidal effect? (UP CPMT 2010)
(a) KCl (b) KBr (c) KI (d) NaCl
140. Fluorine is not prepared by general methods because : (BVP 2010)
(a) HF can be easily oxidised
(b) HF cannot be easily oxidised
(c) HF is highly poisonous.
(d) HF is a good conductor of electricity.
141. Fluorine reacts with water to give : (BVP 2010)
(a) HF and O 2 (b) HF and OF2
(c) HF and O 3 (d) HF, O 2 and O 3
142. In the manufacture of bromine from sea water, the mother liquor containing bromide is
treated with : (JCECE 2010)
(a) carbon dioxide (b) chlorine
(c) iodine (d) sulphur dioxide
143. Which one of the following halogens has the highest bond dissociation energy?
(VMMC 2010)
(a) F2 (b) Cl 2 (c) Br 2 (d) I 2
144. To make a painting over glass, we use : (UP CPMT 2010)
(a) fluorine (b) chlorine
(c) bromine (d) hydrogen chloride
145. The correct order of acidity is : (Haryana PMT 2010)
(a) HClO < HClO 2 < HClO 3 < HClO 4 (b) HClO 4 < HClO 3 < HClO 2 < HClO
(c) HClO < HClO 4 < HClO 3 < HClO 2 (d) HClO 4 < HClO 2 < HClO 3 < HClO
146. The correct order of increasing hydration energy of the following conjugate bases of oxyacids of
chlorine is : (AMU 2010)
- - - - - - - -
(a) ClO < ClO 2 < ClO 3 < ClO 4 (b) ClO 4 < ClO 3 < ClO 2 < ClO
(c) ClO 4- < ClO 3- < ClO - < ClO 2- (d) ClO -3 < ClO -4 < ClO -2 < ClO -
 392 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

147. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species are : (AIPMT 2010)
(a) Cl 2O < ClO 2 < ClO -2 (b) ClO 2 < Cl 2O < ClO -2
(c) Cl 2O < ClO -2 < ClO 2 (d) ClO 2- < Cl 2O < ClO 2
148. The noble gas was first time discovered, by : (Manipal 2010)
(a) Cavendish (b) William Ramsay
(c) Rayleigh (d) Franklapd
149. The geometry of XeOF2 is : (RPMT 2010)
(a) pyramidal (b) T-shaped
(c) octahedral (d) tetrahedral
150. The noble gas compound prepared by Bartlett was : (RPMT 2010)
(a) XeO 3 (b) XePtF6
(c) KrF2 (d) XeF2
151. The noble gas which can diffuse through rubber and glass easily is : (RPMT 2010)
(a) Xe (b) Ne
(c) Ar (d) He
152. Which is monoatomic? (MP PMT 2010)
(a) Sulphur (b) Helium
(c) Phosphorus (d) Chlorine
153. Molecules of a noble gas do not possess vibrational energy because a noble gas :
(Karnataka CET 2010)
(a) is monoatomic (b) is chemically inert
(c) has completely filled shells (d) is diamagnetic
154. Argon was discovered by : (CMCV 2010)
(a) Rayleigh (b) Ramsay
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Frankland and Lockeyer
155. Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of [SiO 4 ]4- is shared?
(CBSE AIPMT 2011)
(a) Three dimensional (b) Linear chain silicate
(c) Sheet silicate (d) Pyrosilicate
156. When Br 2 is treated with aqueous solutions of NaF, NaCl, NaI separately:
[Kerala (PMT) 2011]
(a) F2 , Cl 2 and I 2 are liberated (b) only F2 and Cl 2 are liberated
(c) only I 2 is liberated (d) only Cl 2 is liberated.
(e) only Cl 2 and I 2 are liberated
157. Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO 3 ?
[AIPMT (Mains) 2011]
O
O O
S S
S S
(a) (b) O O (c) O O (d)
O O O O O
p-Block Elements 393
158. The oxidation state of phosphorus in cyclotrimeta- phosphoric acid is :
[Kerala (PMT) 2011; WB JEE 2011]
(a) + 3 (b) + 5 (c) -3 (d) + 2
(e) -2
159. Which one of the following is present as an active constituent in bleaching powder for
bleaching action ? [AIPMT (Pre.) 2011]
(a) CaCl 2 (b) CaOCl 2
(c) Ca(OCl) 2 (d) CaO 2Cl
160. Which of the following noble gases is used in miner’s cap lamps ? (AIIMS 2011)
(a) Helium (b) Neon (c) Argon (d) Krypton
161. The following are some statements related to VA group hydrides:
(i) Reducing property increases from NH 3 to BiH 3 .
(ii) Tendency to donate lone pair decreases from NH 3 to BiH 3 .
(iii) Thermal stability of hydrides decreases from NH 3 to BiH 3 .
(iv) Bond angle of hydrides decreases from NH 3 to BiH 3 . The correct statements are :
(AIIMS 2011)
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i),(iii) and (iv)
(c) (i),(ii) and(iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
162. The basicity of pyrophosphorus acid is : (WB JEE 2011)
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 5
163. Which is not the correct statement? (Odisha JEE 2011)
(a) The Sg ring is not planar
(b) Oxygen is more electro negative than sulphur
(c) SF4 exists but OF4 does not exist
(d) SO 3 and SO 2- 3 both have trigonal planar geometry
164. When Br 2 is treated with aqueous solutions of NaF, NaCl and NaI separately :
(Kerala CEE 2011)
(a) F2 ,Cl 2 and I 2 are liberated (b) only F2 and Cl 2 are liberated
(c) only I 2 is liberated (d) only Cl 2 is liberated
(e) only Cl 2 and I 2 are liberated
165. Which element undergoes disproportionation in water? (DUMET 2011)
(a) Cl 2 (b) F2 (c) K (d) Cs
166. In Ramsay and Rayleigh's isolation of noble gases from air the nitrogen of the air is finally
converted into : (Karnataka CET 2011)
(a) NaNO 2 only (b) NO and NO 2
(c) NaNO 3 only (d) NaNO 2 and NaNO 3
167. Number of non-bonding electron pair on Xe in XeF6 , XeF4 and XeF2 respectively will be :
(Guj CET 2011)
(a) 6, 4, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 3, 2, 1 (d) 0 , 3 , 2
168. Correct formula of aluminium nitride is : (Odisha JEE 2012)
(a) Al 2N 2 (b) AlN 3 (c) AlN 2 (d) AlN
 394 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

169. Ammonal used in bombs is a mixture of: (AFMC 2012)

(a) Al + KNO 3 (b) Al + Al 2O 3 + B 2O 3
(c) Al + Al(NO 3 ) 3 (d) Al 2O 3 + C
170. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous
behaviour is that graphite : (UP CPMT 2012)
(a) is an allotropic form of carbon
(b) is a non-crystalline substance
(c) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bonded carbon atoms with
weak interplate bonds
(d) has molecule of variable molecular masses like polymers
171. Ge (II) compounds are powerful reducing agents whereas Pb (IV) compounds are strong
oxidants. It can be because: (AFMC 2012)
(a) Pb is more electropositive than Ge
(b) ionisation potential of lead is less than that of Ge
(c) ionic radii of Pb 2+ and Pb 4+ are larger than those of Ge 2+ and Ge 4+
(d) more pronounced inert pair effect in lead than Ge
172. Sulphur trioxide can be obtained by which of the following reaction ? [AIPMT (Pre.) 2012]
D D
(a) CaSO 4 + C ¾¾ ® (b) Fe 2(SO 4 ) 3 ¾¾ ®
D D
(c) S + H 2SO 4 ¾¾ ® (d) H 2SO 4 + PCl 5 ¾¾ ®
173. The strongest oxidising and reducing agents respectively are: [AIPMT (Mains) 2012]
(a) F2 and I - (b) Br 2 and Cl -
(c) Cl 2 and Br - (d) Cl 2 and I 2
174. A mixture of potassium chlorate, oxalic acid and sulphuric acid is heated. During the reaction
which element undergoes maximum change in the oxidation number ?
[AIPMT (Pre.) 2012]
(a) S (b) H (c) Cl (d) C
175. When Cl 2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation
number of chlorine changes from: [AIPMT (Pre.) 2012]
(a) zero to +1 and zero to + 5 (b) zero to -1 and zero to + 5
(c) zero to -1 and zero to + 3 (d) zero to +1 and zero to -3
176. A hydride of nitrogen which is acidic is : (AIIMS 2012)
(a) NH 3 (b) N 3H
(c) N 2H 2 (d) N 2H 4
177. Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids of phosphorus? (Manipal 2012)
(a) Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of triple superphosphate
(b) Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid
(c) All oxoacids contain tetrahedral four coordinated phosphorus
(d) All oxoacids contain at least one P == O unit and one P — OH group
178. Which of the following is not a peroxyl acid? (Manipal 2012)
(a) Perphosphoric acid (b) Pernitric acid
(c) Perdisulphuric acid (d) Perchloric acid
p-Block Elements 395
179. In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the
property indicated against it ? (AIPMT 2012 M)
(a) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acidic strength
(b) H 2O < H 2S < H 2Se < H 2Te : increasing pK a values
(c) NH 3 < PH 3 < AsH 3 < SbH 3 : increasing acidic character
(d) CO 2 < SiO 2 < SnO 2 < PbO 2 : oxidising power
180. When Cl 2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation
number of chlorine changes from : (AIPMT 2012)
(a) zero to +1 and zero to – 5 (b) zero to – 1 and zero to + 5
(c) zero to – 1 and zero + 3 (d) zero to + 1 and zero to – 3
181. When a colourless gas is passes through bromine water, only decolourisation takes place. The
gas is : (AFMC 2012)
(a) SO 2 (b) HBr (c) HCl (d) H 2S
182. Which of the following is not a pseudohalide? (Odisha JEE 2012)
- -
(a) RCOO (b) N 3
(c) CNO - (d) only Cl 2 is liberated
(e) only Cl 2 and I 2 are liberated
183. Which of the following structure is similar to graphite? (NEET 2013)
(a) BN (b) B (c) B 4 C (d) B 2H 6
184. The composition of duralumin is : (AIIMS 2013)
(a) Al 94%, Mg 6% (b) Cu 56%, Zn 24%, Ni 20%
(c) Cu 95%, Al 5% (d) Al 95%, Cu 4%, Mn 0.5%, Mg 0.5%
185. Water gas is produced by : (AIIMS 2013)
(a) passing steam over red hot coke (b) passing steam and air over red hot coke
(c) burning coke in excess of air (d) burning coke in limited supply of air
186. Sindoor is represented by : (UP CPMT 2013)
(a) Pb(NO 3 ) 2 (b) PbCO 3 × Pb(OH) 2
(c) Pb(OH) 2 × 4PBCO 3 (d) Pb 3O 4
187. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicon polymer? (NEET 2013)
(a) MeSiCl 3 (b) Me 2SiCl 2
(c) Me 3SiCl (d) PhSiCl 3
188. The basic structural unit of silicates is : (NEET 2013)
(a) SiO - (b) SiO 4-
4
(c) SiO 2-
3 (d) SiO 2-
4
189. Which of the following is a polar molecule ? (NEET 2013)
(a) SiF4 (b) SF4 (c) XeF4 (d) BF3
190. XeF2 is isostructural with: (NEET 2013)
(a) SbCl 3 (b) BaCl 2
(c) TeF2 (d) ICl 2
191. Laughing gas is: [AMU (Med.) 2013]
(a) N 2O (b) NO (c) NO 2 (d) N 2O 5
 396 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

192. The oxyacid of sulphur that contains a lone pair of electrons on sulphur is:
[AMU (Med.) 2013]
(a) sulphurous acid (b) sulphuric acid
(c) peroxodisulphuric acid (d) pyrosulphuric acid
193. In which of the following molecule/ion, all the bonds are not equal ? [AMU (Med.) 2013]
-
(a) XeF4 (b) BF4
(c) C 2H 4 (d) SiF4
194. Which of the following is employed in flash tubes in photography ?
[Karnataka (CET) 2013]
(a) Ar (b) Ne (c) Kr (d) Xe
195. Molecular shapes of SF4 , CF4 and XeF4 and the number of lone pairs on the central atom are
respectively: [Kerala (PET) 2013]
(a) the same, with 1, 2 and 1 (b) the same, with 1, 0 and 1
(c) different, with 0, 1 and 2 (d) different, with 1, 0 and 2
(e) the same, with 0, 0 and 1
196. When conc. H 2SO 4 is heated with P2O 5 , the acid is converted to : (UP CPMT 2013)
(a) sulphur trioxide
(b) sulphur dioxide
(c) sulphur
(d) a mixture of sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide
197. The mixture of concentrated HCl and HNO 3 made in 3 :1 ratio contains : (AIIMS 2013)
(a) ClO 2 (b) NOCl
(c) NCl 3 (d) N 2O 4
198. In pyrophosphoric acid the number of hydroxyl groups are (UP CPMT 2013)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
199. Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating? (NEET 2013)
(a) Zn(ClO 3 ) 2 (b) K 2Cr 2O 7
(c) (NH 4 ) 2 Cr 2O 7 (d) KClO 3
200. Aqueous solutions of hydrogen sulphide and sulphur-dioxide when mixed together, yield
(Karnataka CET 2013)
(a) sulphur trioxide and water (b) hydrogen and sulphurous acid
(c) sulphur and water (d) hydrogen peroxide and sulphur
201. The increasing order of reducing power of halogen acid is : (Manipal 2013)
(a) HCl < HBr < HF < HI (b) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
(c) HI < HBr < HCl < HF (d) HBr < HCl < HF < HI
202. The correct order of relative acidity is : (UP CPMT 2013)
(a) HClO > HClO 2 > HClO 3 > HClO 4 (b) HClO 4 > HClO 3 > HClO 2 > HClO
(c) HClO > HClO 4 > HClO 2 > HClO 3 (d) HClO 3 > HClO 2 > HClO 4 > HClO
203. The compound represents phosgene is : (Manipal 2013)
(a) phosphine (b) phosphorus trichloride
(c) carbonyl chloride (d) phosphorus oxychloride
p-Block Elements 397
204. Bleaching powder losses its power on keeping for a long time because : (KCET 2013)
(a) it changes into calcium hypochlorate
(b) it changes into calcium chloride and calcium hydroxide
(c) it absorbs moisture
(d) it changes into calcium chloride and calcium chlorate
205. Which is the strongest acid in the following? (NEET 2013)
(a) HClO 3 (b) HClO 4 (c) H 2SO 3 (d) H 2SO 4
206. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (WB JEE 2013)
(a) ICI is a good conductor of electricity in fused state
(b) Cl 2O 7 is anhydride of perchloric acid
(c) Melting and boiling points of HBr is less than HCl
(d) F2 forms only one oxoacid
207. Which of the following rare gas is the most abundant in air? (WB JEE 2013)
(a) He (b) Ne (c) Ar (d) Kr
208. Sea weeds are an important source of : (WB JEE 2013)
(a) chlorine (b) bromine (c) iodine (d) zinc
209. Which of the following is a polar molecule ? (NEET 2013)
(a) SF4 (b) SiF4 (c) XeF4 (d) BF3
210. Identity the incorrect statement, regarding the molecule XeO 4 : (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) XeO 4 molecule is tetrahedral (b) XeO 4 molecule is square planar
(c) There are four pp - dp bonds (d) There are four sp 3 - p ,s bonds
211. Which species does not exist? (UK PMT 2014)
(a) [BF6 ]3- (b) [AlF6 ]3- (c) [GaF6 ]3- (d) [InF6 ]3-
212. Which is least stable compound? (Manipal 2014)
(a) BCl 3 (b) GaCl 3 (c) InCl 3 (d) TlCl 3
213. Ultimate product is obtained on heating B 2H 6 with NH 3 is : (Manipal 2014)
(a) B 3N 3H 6 (b) (B — N) 3 (c) N 2H 4 (d) BH –4
214. Which of the following is used as black pigment in black ink? (EAMCET 2014)
(a) Carbon black (b) Germanium (c) Graphite (d) Coke
215. Among the following the false statement is : (RPMT 2014)
(a) SiO -44 is not the basic structural unit in silicates
(b) SiCl 2-
6 is unknown
(c) Beryl is a cyclic silicate
(d) Silicones contain R 2SiO repeating units
216. The species that is not hydrolysed by water is : (Karnataka CET 2014)
(a) P4 O 10 (b) BaO 2 (c) Mg 3N 2 (d) CaC 2
217. The statement that is not correct. (Karnataka CET 2014)
(a) hypophosphorus acid reduces silver nitrate to silver
(b) in solid state PCl 5 exists as [PCl 4 ]+ [PCl 6 ]-
(c) pure phosphine is non-inflammable
 398 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(d) phosphorous acid on heating disproportionates to give metaphosphoric acid and

phosphine
218. The correct arrangement of following acids of phosphorus in the increasing order of oxidation
slate of phosphorus is : (Guj CET 2014)
(a) Hypophosphorus acid (<) orthophosphorus (acid) < pyrophosphoric acid
(b) Hypophosphorus acid (<) pyrophosphoric (acid) = orthophosphorus acid
(c) Pyrophosphoric acid (<) hypophosphorus (acid) < orthophosphorus acid
(d) Pyrophosphoric acid (<) orthophosphorus (acid) < hypophosphorus acid
219. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the order (AIPMT 2014)
(a) H 2S < H 2Se < H 2Te (b) H 2Se < H 2S < H 2Te
(c) H 2Te < H 2S < H 2Se (d) H 2Se < H 2Te < H 2S
220. Which among the following group 16 elements exists is more than two allotropic states?
(JCECB 2014)
(a) Polonium (b) Tellurium (c) Selenium (d) Oxygen
221. The gaseous product formed when HOCl reacts with H 2O 2 in acidic medium is :
(Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) H 2 (b) Cl 2 (c) O 2 (d) HClO 2
(e) HClO 3
222. Among the following inert gas elements, the element that shows highest chemical reactivity is:
(EAMCET 2014)
(a) Ne (b) Ar (c) He (d) Xe
223. The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen halides is in the order HF>HI>HBr>HCl.
What explains the higher boiling point of hydrogen fluoride? (NEET 2015)
(a) The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than in other hydrogen halides
(b) The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced in fluorine which polarises the HF
molecule
(c) The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher that for other elements in the group.
(d) There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF molecules
224. Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of the following? (NEET 2015)
+ - -
(a) NO 2 (b) NO 3 (c) NO 2 (d) NO 2
225. Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur have some properties in common. Which property is shown by
one of these compounds, but not by the other? (NEET 2015)
(a) is soluble in water (b) is used as a food-preservative
(c) forms 'acid-rain' (d) is a reducing agent
226. Aqueouse solution of which of the following compounds is the best conductotor of electric
currrent? (NEET 2015)
(a) Ammonia, NH 3 (b) Fructose, C 6 H 12O 6
(c) Acetic acid, C 2H 4 O 2 (d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
227. The chemical formulae of Feldspar is : (AMU 2016)
(a) KAlSi 3O 8 (b) Na 3 AlF6
(c) NaAlO 2 (d) K 2SO 4 × Al(SO 4 ) 3 × 4 Al(OH) 3
p-Block Elements 399
228. The hybridisation of C in diamond, graphite and ethyne is in the order :
(Karnataka CET 2016)
3 2 2 3 3 2
(a) sp , sp , sp (b) sp , sp , sp (c) sp , sp , sp (d) sp , sp 2 , sp 3
229. Diamond and graphite are : (AMU 2016)
(a) Isomers (b) Isotopes (c) Allotropes (d) Polymers
230. When copper is heated with conc. HNO 3 it produces: (NEET 2016)
(a) Cu(NO 3 ) 2 and N 2O (b) Cu(NO 3 ) 2 and NO 2
(c) Cu(NO 3 ) 2 and NO (d) Cu(NO 3 ) 2 ,NO and NO 2
231. Which is the correct statement for the given acids? (NEET 2016)
(a) Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic
acids.
(b) Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.
(c) Both are diprotic acids
(d) Both are triprotic acids
232. Among the following, the correct order of acidity is: (NEET 2016)
(a) HClO 4 < HClO 2 < HClO < HClO 3 (b) HClO 3 < HClO 4 < HClO 2 < HClO
(c) HClO < HClO 2 < HClO 3 < HClO 4 (d) HClO 2 < HClO < HClO 3 < HClO 4
233. Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
molecules? (NEET 2016)
(a) F2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2 (b) I 2 > Br 2 > Cl 2 > F2 (c) Cl 2 > Br 2 > F2 > I 2 (d) Br 2 > I 2 > F2 > Cl 2
234. The shape of XeF5- will be: (WB JEE 2017)
(a) square pyramid (b) trigonal bipyramidal
(c) planar (d) pentagonal bipyramid
235. PbCl 2 is insoluble in cold water. Addition of HCl increases its solubility due to:
(WB JEE 2017)
(a) formation of soluble complex anions like [PbCl 3 ]-
(b) oxidation of Pb(II) to Pb(IV)
(c) formation of [Pb(H 2O) 6 ]2+
(d) formation of polymeric lead complexes
236. Of the following compounds, which one is the strongest Bronsted acid in a aqueous solution?
(WB JEE 2017)
(a) HClO 3 (b) HClO 2 (c) HOCl (d) HOBr
237. Which of the following solutions will turn violet when a drop of lime juice is added to it?
(WB JEE 2017)
(a) A solution of NaI (b) A solution mixture of KI and NaIO 3
(c) A solution mixture of NaI and KI (d) A solution mixture of KIO 3 and NaIO 3
238. Extraction of chlorine from brine solution is based on: (Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) acidification (b) reduction (c) oxidation (d) chlorination
239. Which one of the following metallic oxides exhibit amphoteric nature?
(Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) BaO (b) Al 2O 3 (c) Na 2O (d) CaO
 400 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

240. Addition of mineral acid to an aqueous solution of borax, the following compound is formed:
(Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) boron hydride (b) pyroboric acid (c) metaboric acid (d) orthoboric acid
241. Which of the following elements forms pp - pp bond with itself? (Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) N (b) Te (c) P (d) Se
242. Which one of the following noble gases has an unusual property of diffusing through the
materials such as rubber, glass or plastic? (Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) He (b) Ne (c) Kr (d) Ar
243. Match the interhalogen compounds of column-I with the geometry in column-II and assign the
correct code. (NEET 2017)
Column-I Coumn-II
(A) XX ¢ (i) T-shape
(B) XX ¢3 (ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal
(C) XX ¢5 (iii) Linear
(D) XX 7¢ (iv) Square pyramidal
(v) Tetrahedral
Code:
A B C D
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(b) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
244. In which pair of ions both the species contain S — S bond? (NEET 2017)
(a) S 4 O 26- , S 2O 23- (b) S 2O 72- , S 2O 28- (c) S 4 O 26- , S 2O 72- (d) S 2O 72- , S 2O 23-
245. Which of the following statements is not true for halogens ? (NEET 2018)
(a) All form monobasic oxyacids. (b) All are oxidizing agents.
(c) All but fluorine show positive oxidation states.
(d) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy.
246. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is : (NEET 2018)
(a) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl (b) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(c) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In (d) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
247. The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is :
(NEET 2018)
(a) HNO 3 ,NO,N 2 ,NH 4 Cl (b) HNO 3 ,NO,NH 4 Cl,N 2
(c) HNO 3 ,NH 4 Cl,NO,N 2 (d) NH 4 Cl,N 2 ,NO,HNO 3
248. Which is the correct thermal stability order for H 2 E ( E = O,S,Se,Te and Po)? (NEET 2019)
(a) H 2Se < H 2Te < H 2Po < H 2O < H 2S (b) H 2S < H 2O < H 2Se < H 2Te < H 2Po
(c) H 2O < H 2S < H 2Se < H 2Te < H 2Po (d) H 2Po < H 2Te > H 2Se < H 2S < H 2O
249. Which of the following is incorrect statement ? (NEET 2019)
(a) SnF4 is ionic in nature. (b) PbF4 is covalent in nature.
(c) SiCl 4 is easily hydrolysed.
(d) GeX 4 ( X = F,Cl,Br, I) is more stable than GeX 2 .
p-Block Elements 401
250. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the
correct code. (NEET 2019)
Column-I Column-II
(A) XeF4 (i) pyramidal
(B) XeF6 (ii) square planar
(C) XeOF4 (iii) distorted octahedral
(D) XeO 3 (iv) square pyramidal
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
251. Match the following : (NEET 2019)
(A) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine
(B) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid
(C) Contact process (iii) Ammonia
(D) Deacon’s process (iv) Sodium azide or Barium azide
Which of the following is the correct option?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
252. Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl 5 from the following : (NEET 2019)
(a) PCl 5 molecule is non-reactive.
(b) Three equatorial P – Cl bonds make an angle of 120º with each other.
(c) Two axial P – Cl bonds make an angle of 180º with each other.
(d) Axial P – Cl bonds are longer than equatorial P – Cl bonds.
253. Which of the following species is not stable? (NEET 2019)
(a) [SiCl 6 ]2- (b) [SiF6 ]2- (c) [GeCl 6 ]2- (d) [Sn(OH) 6 ]2-
254. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is : (NEET 2019)

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
 402 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

ANSWERS
Level 1
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)

11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a,c) 19. (c) 20. (d)

21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)

31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (c)

41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a)

51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (c)

61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (b)

71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (b)

81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (c)

91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (d) 96. (a) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (d)

101. (c) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (a) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (b) 110. (c)

111. (c) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (d)

121. (a) 122. (d) 123. (a) 124. (d) 125. (a) 126. (d) 127. (d) 128. (b) 129. (c) 130. (d)

131. (c) 132. (c) 133. (d) 134. (c) 135. (b) 136. (c) 137. (d) 138. (b) 139. (b) 140. (c)

141. (a) 142. (b,c) 143. (c) 144. (d) 145. (b) 146. (a) 147. (a) 148. (d) 149. (c) 150. (b)

151. (b) 152. (d) 153. (b) 154. (a) 155. (d) 156. (d) 157. (d) 158. (a) 159. (d) 160. (a)

161. (d) 162. (d) 163. (d) 164. (d) 165. (b) 166. (b) 167. (d) 168. (b) 169. (c) 170. (b)
p-Block Elements 403

171. (b) 172. (c) 173. (a) 174. (b) 175. (d) 176. (b) 177. (d) 178. (c) 179. (d) 180. (c)

181. (c) 182. (c) 183. (c) 184. (c) 185. (b) 186. (c) 187. (c) 188. (a) 189. (b) 190. (d)

191. (d) 192. (a) 193. (c) 194. (c) 195. (c) 196. (d) 197. (d) 198. (d) 199. (a) 200. (b)

201. (a) 202. (d) 203. (c) 204. (c) 205. (d) 206. (c) 207. (c) 208. (c) 209. (c) 210. (c)

211. (c) 212. (b) 213. (a) 214. (d) 215. (b) 216. (a) 217. (b) 218. (b) 219. (b) 220. (c)

221. (d) 222. (a) 223. (b) 224. (a) 225. (d) 226. (d) 227. (b) 228. (c) 229. (c) 230. (d)

231. (b) 232. (a,b) 233. (d) 234. (c) 235. (b) 236. (d) 237. (b) 238. (b) 239. (a) 240. (d)

Level 2
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C)

11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (C)

21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (C)

31. (E) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (E)
 404 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 3
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)

11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d)

21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)

31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)

41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (c)

51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (a)

61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (a) 68. (b,c) 69. (b) 70. (b)

71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (e) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (c)

81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (a,b) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c)

91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (a)

101. (a) 102. (c) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (a) 106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (a) 110. (c)

111. (d) 112. (a) 113. (d) 114. (c) 115. (a) 116. (c) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (a)

121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (d) 124. (b) 125. (b) 126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (b) 130. (a)

131. (c) 132. (b) 133. (b) 134. (d) 135. (b) 136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (a) 139. (c) 140. (b)

141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (c) 148. (b) 149. (b) 150. (b)

151. (d) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (c) 155. (d) 156. (c) 157. (d) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (d)

161. (a) 162. (a) 163. (d) 164. (c) 165. (a) 166. (d) 167. (b) 168. (d) 169. (c) 170. (c)

171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (c) 175. (b) 176. (b) 177. (b) 178. (d) 179. (b) 180. (b)

181. (a) 182. (a) 183. (a) 184. (d) 185. (a) 186. (d) 187. (c) 188. (a) 189. (b) 190. (d)

191. (a) 192. (a) 193. (c) 194. (c,d) 195. (d) 196. (a) 197. (b) 198. (c) 199. (c) 200. (c)

201. (b) 202. (b) 203. (c) 204. (d) 205. (b) 206. (c) 207. (c) 208. (c) 209. (a) 210. (b)

211. (d) 212. (d) 213. (a) 214. (a) 215. (a) 216. (a) 217. (c) 218. (b) 219. (a) 220. (c)

221. (c) 222. (d) 223. (d) 224. (a) 225. (c) 226. (d) 227. (a) 228. (a) 229. (c) 230. (b)

231. (b) 232. (c) 233. (c) 234. (c) 235. (a) 236. (a) 237. (b) 238. (c) 239. (b) 240. (d)

241. (a) 242. (a) 243. (a) 244. (a) 245. (c) 246. (d) 247. (a) 248. (d) 249. (b) 250. (c)

251. (a) 252. (a) 253. (a) 254. (b)

p-Block Elements 405

Hints and Solutions

: Level 1
dissociation
1. (c) AlCl 3 × 6H 2O ¾¾¾¾® [AlCl 2(H 2O)4 ]+ + [AlCl 4(H 2O)2]-
12. (d) Lewis acidic strength : BF3 < BCl 3 < BBr3 < BI3
As BI3 is strongest lewis acid among all boron halides therefore, heat of adduct formation will be
maximum numerically, for BI3.
Al
20. (d) B 2O 3 ¾® B(crystalline)
D
Mg
B 2O 3 ¾® B (Amorphous)
D
21. (c) Al(OH)3 dissolves in NaOH solution to give Al(OH)–4 ion which is supposed to have the octahedral
complex species [Al(OH)4(H 2O)2]– in aqueous solution.
Al(OH)3 + NaOH( aq ) ¾® [Al(OH)4(H 2O)2]–( aq ) + Na +( aq )
22. (d) Borazone : A crystalline form of boron nitride which has diamond like structure.
(Non-planar)
Borazole : Inorganic benzene : B 3N 3H 6 (planar)
O–

B
B3O63– : O O planar
B B
–O O O–
Cl Cl Cl
Fe2Cl6 : Fe Fe non-planar
Cl Cl Cl

C
N N planar
(FCN)3 :
C C
F N F
 406 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

23. (b) In borax (Na 2B 4O7 ×10H 2O), among 10 water molecules 2 molecules are part of structure, i.e., exists
Na 2[B 4O 5(OH)4 ]×8H 2O
OH 2–

B
O O
O
HO—B B—OH
O O
B

OH

Na 2[B 4O 5(OH)4 ]×8H 2O + 2HCl ¾® 2NaCl + 4H 3BO 3 + 5H 2O

Methyl orange (pH = 3.7) is used to detect end point. Aq. solution of borax acts as buffer, as borax is salt
of strong base NaOH and weak acid H 3BO 3 .
24. (a) H 3BO 3 acts are weak monobasic Lewis acid.
(i) B(OH)3 +NaOH -® Na[B(OH)4 ]
On addition of cis 1, 2 diol in H 3BO 3 solution, acidic strength of H 3BO 3 increases due to chelation
effect.
25. (c) Ag + ion can not give borax bead test because formed silver metaborate AgBO 2 is white/ colourless.
HCl (aq.)
AlCl3 + H 2
(P)
26. (b) Al NaOH(aq.)
Metal Na[Al(OH)4 ] + H2
+H 2O
(Q)

28. (c) B 2(CH 3 )6 cannot be prepared from B 2H 6 due to steric crowding between bigger methyl groups.
29. (c) B 2H 6 + C 2H 5OH ¾® B(OEt )3 + H 2
Hybridisation of boron in B 2H 6 is sp 3.
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
Be Be Be Al Al
30. (c)
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl

(Octet complete) (Octet complete)

H H H H H H
Be Be Be Al Al

H H H H H H

(Octetincomplete) (Octet incomplete)

31. (d) The gas produced is diborane which consist of 3c-2e bond or banana bond thus its structure is not
similar to C 2H 6.
..
32. (d) H 3BO 3 + 3C 2H 5 O
.. H ¾® B (OC 2H 5 )3 + H 2O
LA LB Triethylborate
p-Block Elements 407
33. (d) Ni 2+ gives brown colour in borax bead test.
34. (b) AlCl 3 + H 2O ¾® Al(OH )3 ¯ +3HCl ­

37. (b) Formula: Si3O108–

58. (d)

1 1 1
Total No. of oxygen atoms per silicon atom = + + + 1 = 2.5
2 2 2
\ Formula Si 2O 2–
5 .

59. (b)

One tetrahedral shares three corners while other adjacent one shares only two corners hence average
3 +2 1
shared corners = =2
2 2
63. (d) (i) Pyro silicates : (1 corner O-atom per tetrahedron is shared)
(ii) Cyclic silicates : (2 corner O-atom per tetrahedron is shared)
(iii) Double chain silicates (One unit shares two corner O-atom while one unit shares three corner
O-atom)
(iv) Single chain silicate : (2 corner O-atom are shared)
(v) 3D silicate : (4 corner O-atom are shared)
(vi) Sheet silicates : (3 corner O-atom are shared)
64. (c) Due to inert effect the stability of lower oxidation state gradually increases while stability of higher
oxidation state gradually decreases down the group in elements of group 13th to 15th. So correct
orders are :
(iii) Pb 2+ > Pb 4+ , Bi 3+ > Bi 5+
(iv) Sn 2+ < Pb 2+ , Sn 4+ > Pb 4+
 408 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

65. (b) Formula of pyroxene is (SiO 3 )2nn- and it is formed by sharing of 2 corner oxygen atom.
66. (b) Crosslinked 3D silicone can not be obtained from R 2Si(OH )2 by condensation polymerisation.
67. (a) CO is used in extraction of many metals from their oxides ores as reducing agent.
68. (d) Me 3SiCl 3 is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicon polymer as it terminates the chain.
CH3 Cl HOH H C OH
69. (a) Si + ¾® 3 Si
CH3 Cl HOH H3C OH
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
| | | | | |
HO — Si — OH + HO — Si — OH ¾® HO — Si — O —Si — OH ¾® LL Si — O —SiLL
| | | | | |
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
Straight chain polymer

70. (b) CO 2 + H 2O a H 2CO 3 ¾® H + + HCO -3

here [H + ] increases, \ pH decreases due to which soil fertility will also decreases.
71. (c) RSiCl 3 form 3D silicon polymer by hydrolysis followed by condensation polymer.
72. (b)
Shared corner per unit
Pyro silicate 1
Sing chain 2
Cyclic 2
2-D 3
3-D 4
+3 +5
83. (d) N O -2 ¾ Oxidation
¾ ¾ ¾® N O -3
84. (c) PH 3 stable species.
–III +III
D
85. (d)[ NH 4 NO 2 ] ¾® N 2 ­ + 2H 2O ­
D 3
NaN 3 ¾® Na + N 2 ­
2
D
(NH 4 )2Cr2O7 ¾® N 2 ­ + Cr2O 3(s) + 4H 2O ­
(green)

243 K
86. (a) NO(g) + NO 2(g) ¾¾¾® N 2O 3
( X)
(Blue coloured solid)

¯H O 2

HNO 2
(Y )

N
Anion of HNO 2:NO -2 O O–
Hyb. sp2
shape : Triangular planar

D 2 N O D
87. (a) Na + NH 3(g) ¾® NaNH 2 ¾¾® NaN 3 ¾® N 2­
[X ] [Y ] [Z ]

88. (d) (a) H 4P2O 5

p-Block Elements 409
O O
|| ||
H ¾P ¾ O ¾P ¾ H
| |
OH OH
(b) H 4P2O7
O O
|| ||
OH ¾ P ¾ O ¾ P ¾ OH
| |
OH OH
(c) H 4P2O 6
O O
|| ||
HO ¾ P ¾ P ¾OH
| |
OH OH
89. (d) NH 3 is a weak reducing agent than PH 3, because X ¾H bond strength decreases down the group. Due
to absence of H-bonding, only weak van der Waals force of attraction exists in PH 3 , it has lower critical
temperature than NH 3 .
91. (b) AgNO 3 ¾® Ag + 1 O 2 + NO 2
2
500 °C
2NaNO 3 ¾¾® 2NaNO 2 + O 2
800 °C
4NaNO 3 ¾¾® 2Na 2O + 5O 2 + 2N 2
94. (b) PCl 5 + H 2O ¾® POCl 3 + 2HCl
( A) (B )
POCl 3 + 3H 2O ¾® H 3PO 4 + 3HCl
(B ) (C )
··
99. (d) PH 3 + H+ ¾® PH+
4

According to Drago’s rule lone pair on phosphorus resides in almost pure s-orbital, hence due to
non-directional nature, its overlapping tendency is greatly reduced in comparison to a lone pair present
··
in hybrid orbital, which is directional as present in NH 3.
103. (a) (A) (F); As the size of halogen atom increases crowding on Si atom will increase, hence, tendency of
attack of Lewis base decreases.
(B) (T); M.P. of NH 3 is highest due to intermolecular H-bonding in it.
Next lower M.P. will be of SbH 3 followed by AsH 3 due to high mol. wt. of SbH 3.
(C) (F); M.P. and B.P. of increase from PH 3 to SbH 3 via AsH 3 due to increase in mol. wt. NH 3 does not
follow this trend due to intermolecular H-bonding.
Increasing B.P. order : PH 3 < AsH 3 < NH 3 < SbH 3
(D) (T); Value of bond moment decreases.
106. (c) NH 4Cl + NaNO 2 ¾® NH 4NO 2 + NaCl
D
NH 4NO 2 ¾® N 2 ­ + 2H 2O
Ba(N 3 )2 ¾® Ba + 3N 2 ¯
2NH 4Cl + CaO ¾® CaCl 2 + 2NH 3 ­ + H 2O
 410 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

107. (a) NF3 +H 2O ¾® SN 1 NCl 3 +H 2O ¾® SN 2

(b) P4O10 ¾® SN AE SiCl 4 ¾® SN 2
(c) SF4 , TeF6 ¾® Both SN 2
(d) SiCl 4 , SiF4 ¾® Both SN 2

108. (d) PH 3 (Lewis base) can react with B 2H 6 (Lewis acid).

109. (b) In NCl 3 molecule, H 2O molecule attacks on less electronegative Cl-atom rather than central N-atom.
NCl 3 +3H 2O -® NH 3 +3HOCl
1
110. (c) Reducing character µ
' E — H' bond dissociation enthalpy
Hence, correct reducing character is NH 3 < PH 3 < AsH 3 < SbH 3 < BiH 3.
112. (c) M exhibits two oxidation states +3 and +5 but covalency can not be 5; hence M can not expand its
valence shell. Therefore, M will be nitrogen having atomicity two.
114. (d) In N 2O, N 2O 2, N 2O 5 all e- are paired \diamagnetic
\ Colourless but in NO 2 odd e- are paired \ paramagnetic
\ Coloured gas.
1
115. (b) Thermal stability µ
B. l.
\ increasing order of T.S
SbH 3 < AsH 3 < PH 3 < NH 3
116. (a) Above is the example of partial roasting and self reduction which is used for Pb, Cu and Hg metal
sulphide only not applicable for Zn metal.
117. (a) Acidic nature µ positive charge on central atom.
O
118. (d) HNO 3 ¾ +¾ ® HNO 4
O O

N Þ sp2 N Þ Non-planar
HO O O—O O
H
Planar Peroxy
linkage
119. (d) H 3PO 2 > H 3PO 3 > H 3PO 4
120. (d) Strength of Acid : HNO 3 > HNO 2
O O
H—O—N a –O—N +H +

O O
(Morestable)

H—O—N a O– — N + H+
O O
(Less stable)
121. (a) N — N bond length is minimum in N 2O.
122. (d) As size of central atom increases, bond length increases so reducing nature increases down the group.
123. (a) 3Cu( s ) + 8dil. HNO 3 ¾® 3Cu(NO 3 )2 + 2NO (Para)+ 4H 2O
124. (d) Nitric oxide is mixed Anhydride of nitrous and nitric acid.
It is paramagnetic and forms dimer at low temperature.
p-Block Elements 411
125. (a) NI3 is explosive substance.
126. (d) NO is paramagnetic gas at room temperature.
127. (d)
O OH O O

P B P Cl
HO H HO OH HO OH O OH
H H H
H3PO2 H3BO3 H3PO3 HClO4
Mono basic proton Mono basic Dibasic proton Mono basic proton
donor acid lewis acid donor acid donor acid
128. (b) B 2H 6 + 2 X ¾ Symmetrical
¾ ¾ ¾¾® 2[BH 3 X ]
Cleavage
X : Must be weak Lewis base or large sized strong Lewis base.
..
3º amine (Large size base) causes symmetrical cleavage in B 2H 6 (Diborane), while NH 3 , 1º amine and
2º amine causes unsymmetrical cleavage.
129. (c) (i) N 2O : Neutral oxide.
(ii) N 2O 3 + H 2O ¾ R¾ . T.
¾ ® 2HNO 2
R. T.
(iii) ClO 2 + H 2O ¾ ¾¾® HClO 2 + HClO 3
(iv) Mn 2O7 + H 2O ¾ R¾ ¾. T.
® 2HMnO 4
\ ClO 2 is mixed acid anhydride because on dissolving into water it produces two oxyacids.
O O

130. (d) P———P

HO OH
OH OH
H4P2O6 (Hypophoshoric acid)
O
OH
P
O O O O O
|| || ||
131. (c) O == P P == O P P P
O HO O O OH
OH OH
OH OH OH
(H3P3O9)

Number of P — O — P linkage = 3 Number of P — O — P linkage = 2

Number of acidic hydrogen = 3 Number of acidic hydrogen = 5
Number of pp-dp bonds = 3 Number of pp-dp bonds = 3
Number of sp 3-hybrid atoms = 9 Number of sp 3-hybrid atoms = 10
132. (c) It is paramagnetic in gaseous state.
133. (d) Phosphine (PH 3 ) is less soluble in water than ammonia (NH 3 ) because ammonia molecule involves in
hydrogen bonding with water whereas phosphine cannot.
.. .. + ..
134. (c) : N ºº N ¾® O: ¾® : N == N == O:
..
(I) ( II )
 412 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

The real structure of N 2O is hybrid of I and II, as first resonating structure contributes more to
resonating hybrid hence bond order of N — N in N 2O is greater than 2.5.
135. (b) CaC 2 + N 2 ¾ High
¾¾ ‘T’
¾ ® CaCN 2 + C
Calcium
cyanamide

136. (c) P4 + 10SO 2Cl 2 ¾® 4PCl 5 + 10SO 2

White

138. (b) Order of M.P. or B.P. or critical temperature : H 2O > H 2Te > H 2Se > H 2S
O O O O
½½ ½½ ½½ ½½
140. (c) HO ¾ S ¾ O ¾ O ¾ S ¾ OH + H 2O ¾® HO ¾ S ¾ OH + H ¾ O ¾ O ¾ S ¾ O ¾ H
½½ ½½ ½½ ½½
O O O O
(Sulphuric acid) (Peroxomono-sulphuric acid)
144. (d) H 2O 2 is thermally unstable and it decomposes easily.
H 2O 2(l ) ¾® H 2O(l ) + 1 O 2( g )
2
Its decomposition is catalysed by alkali metals present in traces in the glass of the vessel.
O O
O O O
– – –
– S X1 O – S X2 O – S X3 O
146. (a) O S O S O S
O O O O

According to Bents rule x1 > x2 > x3 .

-I -I
Dimerisation
147. (a) a : 2OF ¾¾¾¾¾® F — O— O— F
+H O -I -I
2
b : H 4P2O 8 ¾¾¾® 2H 3PO 4 + H — O ¾ O ¾ H
2 excess O
c : 2Na ¾¾¾¾®
D
Na +O - — O -Na +

148. (d) S Hyb. : sp 2, structure : V-shape, planar

O O

S Hyb. : sp 2, structure : Triangular planar

O O
O
O
S
O O S O
g - SO 3 : Cyclic trimer : O
O
S
O O
149. (c) SO 2 soluble in water. So can not be collected over water.
SO 2 + H 2O ¾® H 2SO 4
p-Block Elements 413
151. (d) Aqueous solution of SO 2 acts as a reducing agent
SO 2 + 2H 2O ¾® H 2SO 4 + 2H
nascent hydrogen
Thus, SO 2 in presence of moisture is used as bleaching agent. This is due to the reducing nature of SO 2.
For delicate articles
Coloured matter + H ¾® Colourless matter
Similarly, Cl 2 acts as bleaching agent in presence of moisture
Cl 2 + H 2O ¾® 2HCl + [O]
Coloured matter + [O] ¾® Colourless matter
152. (d) In SF6 , S sterically hindered by six fluorine atoms hence, attack of H 2O molecule will not occur. NF3 is
not hydrolysed due to absence of vacant orbital either on N of F atom.
TeF6 is hydrolysed due to large size of Te.
153. (b) H 2SO 4 + PbO 2 ¾® PbSO 4 ¯ + 1 O 2 + H 2O (PbO 2 is not peroxy compound)
2
H 2SO 4 + BaO 2 ¾® BaSO 4 ¯ + H 2O 2
OH O
O2
C2H5 air C2H5
+ H2O2
H2/Pd
OH O
(NH 4 )2SO 4 º 2NH+
4 + SO 2–
4
Electrolysis
At anode : 2SO 24- ¾¾¾¾® S2O 2–
8 + 2e
-

Peroxo sulphate on hydrolysis, produces H 2O 2.

154. (a) ® Number of S—S bonds in H 2SnO 6 are (n -1)
® LiNO 3 produces crimson red while BaCl 2 produces green colour in fire works
® Hydrides of Be and Mg are covalent and polymeric
155. (d) Hypo form of '–ic' acid is derived from its pyro form, and HClO 3 does not have its pyro form therefore its
hypo form is not possible.
157. (d) PCl 3( sp 3 ), H 3PO 3( sp 3 )
SF4( sp 3d), H 2SO 3( sp 3 )
BCl 3( sp 2 ), H 3BO 3( sp 2 )
XeF6( sp 3d2 ), XeO 3( sp 3 )
18 18
158. (a) Cl 2 + H — O — O — H ¾® O 2 + 2HCl
O. A . R. A

159. (d) H 2S2O 8 , HClO 4 , H 3PO 4 ¾® H 3PO 4 ¾® Arrhenius Acids.

H 3PO 2 ¾® Reducing Agent.
O
||
160. (a) P
ƒ| ‚
H OH
H
Responsible for reducing nature basicity = 1
161. (d) S8 + conc . HNO 3 ¾® H 2SO 4 + NO 2 + H 2O
162. (d) In KMnO 4, Mn is present in its highest oxidation state (+7) thus ozone do not further oxidise KMnO 4.
 414 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

163. (d) H —O —O —H O O == O
O O
bond order of
O — O bond = 1 1.5 2
correct order of O — O bond length H 2O 2 > O 3 > O 2
1
Because bond length µ
B. O .
164. (d) O 3 is strong oxidising agent it can oxidise I- into I2
O O O O O

165. (b) H—O—S—S—O—H H—O—S—O—H H—O—S—S—O—H

O O O
(H2S2O6)
No. of p-bond 4 1 3
+4
166. (b) S + 2Cl 2 ¾® SCl 4 ¾® H 2SO 3 + HCl
1:2 ( X) (Y )
O
–1 –1
Anion of H 2SO 3 = SO 23- O—S—O

Hybridisation of ‘ S’ atom = sp 3
167. (d) Ozone can’t oxidise KMnO 4 as Mn is present in its highest oxidation state of +7.
168. (b) In stratosphere; ozone is formed by action of UV rays on oxygen.
169. (c) SbCl 3 undergo partial hydrolysis forming SbOCl.
170. (b) b < c, because in S2O 2-
3 double bond character in S — O bond is higher than S — S bond dw to smaller
size and more electronegative nature of oxygen atom.
171. (b) HClO 4 > HBrO 4 > HIO 4 Þ acidic strength has been decided on the basis of electronegativity or charge
density on central atom.
172. (c) I2 + 10HNO 3 ¾® 2HIO 3 + 10NO 2 + 4H 2O
173. (a) Decreasing order of thermal stability of oxy acids of chlorine.
HOClO 3 ; HOClO 2; HOClO; HOCl
In HOClO 3 , chlorine is in +7 oxidation state.
174. (b) 5CO + I2O 5 ¾® 5CO 2 + I2
I2 + 2Na 2S2O 3 ¾® 2NaI + Na 2S4O 6
177. (d)
(a) — Bond dissociation energy of F2 is less than that of Cl 2
(b) — Cl has higher E.A. than fluorine.
(c) — HF is weaker acid than HCl, due to higher bond energy
178. (c) Due to larger size of iodine atom it can accommodate upto seven small fluorine atoms around, it while
due to smaller sizes of chlorine and bromine atoms do not accommodate seven fluorine atoms, i. e. ,
steric factor dominate in case of chlorine and bromine.
183. (c) Acidic character : HOCl < HClO 2 < HClO 3 < HClO 4
Oxidising power : HOCl > HClO 2 > HClO 3 > HClO 4
p-Block Elements 415
Thermal stability : HOCl < HClO 2 < HClO 3 < HClO 4
‘Cl—O’ bond order : HOCl < HClO 2 < HClO 3 < HClO 4
+I + III +V + VII
184. (c) Þ ClO - ClO –2 ClO –3 ClO –4
B.O. = 1.0 B.O. = 1.5 B.O. = 1.67 B.O. = 1.75
Hyb. of Cl : sp3 Hyb. of Cl : sp3 Hyb. of Cl : sp3 Hyb. of Cl : sp3
+
185. (b) Cl 2O 6 + HF ¾® [Cl O 2]F - + HClO 4
(P ) ( Q)
O–
+ Cl+ 2 Cl 3
Cl O 2: O O Hyb. : sp ; ClO -4 : O O Hyb. : sp
<120º
O ÐOClO =109º28'

186. (c) 3Br2 + 3Na 2CO 3 ¾® 5NaBr +NaBrO 3 + 3CO 2 ­

(impure) (Hot Aq. Sol.)
D H2SO4

3Br2­ +Na 2SO 4

(Pure)

189. (b) 6Cl 2 + 2Ba(OH)2 ¾® Ba(ClO 3 )2 + 5BaCl 2 + 6H 2O

(X)

Ba(ClO 3 )2 + H 2SO 4 ¾® 2HClO 3 + BaSO 4 ¯

(Y )
D 1
2HClO 3 ¾¾® 2ClO 2 + H 2O + O2
D >365 K 2
Auto
190. (d) 6CaOCl 2 ¾¾¾® Ca(ClO 3 )2 + 5CaCl 2
oxidation

192. (a) X = CH 4 , Y = NaH, Z = HBr

193. (c) Correct order b.pt.

14 4HF
244 3 > 1HI
444> HBr > HCl3
2444
H-bonding Dipole-dipole
attraction (V.W. forces)

In case of same type of van der Waals' forces of attraction b.pt. µ molecular mass.
Cl Cl
| |
194. (c) [Br — I]- + F - ¾® [Br — I ¬ F - ]-
L. A . L. B

195. (c) ClO 2 = 17 + 16 = 33 electrons

196. (d) SiF4 and BF3 act as a Lewis acid.
SiF4 + 2HF ¾® [SiF6 ]2- + 2H +
BF3 + HF ¾® [BF4 ]- + H +
197. (d) F2 can not prepared here because it is only prepared by KHF2 + HF mixture.
198. (d) Br2 can disproportionate in pressure of dil/cold NaOH and hot/conc. NaOH. This Rxn is proceed in
hot/conc. NaOH.
 416 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

199. (a) I2 do not react with KBr because I2 is weak oxidising agent than Br2.
200. (b) Br2 + hot OH - ¾ Disproportionate
¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® Br - + BrO -3
( A) (B)

Br - + BrO 3- + H - ¾ Comproportionate
¾¾¾¾¾ ¾® Br2
( A) (B)
201. (a) SO 2 is oxidising agent as well as reducing agent But Cl 2 is only oxidising agent.
Therefore, SO 2 showing bleaching action by reduction but Cl 2 showing bleaching action by oxidation.
203. (c) ClF5 + HF ¾® H +[ClF6 ]-
TeF4 + HF ¾® H +[ TeF5]-
XeF2 ¾® [ XeF]+ [F - L H — F]
XeF2 acts as F - donor but not as F - acceptor as XeF3- does not exist.
R.T. 1
210. (c) XeF2 + H 2O ¾¾® Xe + 2HF + O 2 ­
2
R.T.
XeF6 + 3H 2O ¾¾® XeO 3 + 6HF
211. (c) MF + XeF4 ¾® M +[XeF5– ]
sp 3d3 , Pentagonal planar
213. (b) HF + XeF6 ¾® XeF5+ + HF2–
214. (d) Due to small size of He, it escapes from interstitial spaces/voids of molecular lattice of quinols.
215. (b) XeF4 + SbF5 ¾® [XeF3 ]+ [SbF6 ]– ¾¾® [XeF3 ]+ + [SbF6 ]–
sp 3d sp 3d2
bent T -shape octahedral
217. (b) The compound XeO 3 is an uncommon hydrolysis product between XeF2 and XeF4.
1
(i) XeF2 +H 2O ¾® Xe+ O 2 +2HF
2
3
(ii) 3XeF4 +6H 2O ¾® XeO 3 +2Xe+ O 2 +12HF
2
+Excess H 2O
XeO3 + HF
(X)
218. (b) XeF6 +2H 2O
XeO2 F2 + HF
(Y)
Y is not an oxyacid of xenon.
219. (b) Both He and Ne do not form clathrate compound due to their small size.
220. (c) XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 can be directly prepared.
Xe + F2 ¾ Ni
¾tube
¾¾® XeF2
673 K

Xe + 2F2 ¾ 873
¾¾ K
® XeF4
7 atm

Xe + 3F2 ¾ 523
¾¾ - 573 K
¾® XeF6
¾
60 -70 atm

XeO 3 is obtained by hydrolysis of XeF6

XeF6 + 3H 2O ¾® XeO 3 + 6HF
221. (d) It always act as lewis acid when it reacts with alkali metal fluorides except LiF.
222. (a)
(a) XeF6 + HF ¾® [ XeF5]+[HF2]-
p-Block Elements 417
(b) 3 XeF4 + 6H 2O ¾® Xe + XeO 3 + 12HF + 3 / 2 O 2
Paramagnetic

-
(c) XeF2 never act as F acceptor.
(d) XeF2 + dil. HCl ¾® Xe + 2HF + Cl 2
(Greenish yellow)

223. (b) XeF6 undergoes disproportionation in the presence of NaOH .

XeF6 + NaOH ¾ R¾ . T.
¾ ® XeO 46- + Xe + O 2 + F -( aq )
224. (a) S8 : Molecular solid, in solid sulphur various S8 molecules are bonded to one another by weak molecular
forces
– –
S2- S S S Þ Zig-Zag
5 :
S S

SiO 2: represents to 3D silicate, that has covalent lattice as one silicon atom is bonded to four oxygen
atoms, and each oxygen in turn is bonded to two silicon.

O O

O Si O Si O

O O

O Si O Si O

O O

1
226. (d) Bond dissociation energy µ
Bond length
Order of bond length : P — O > S — O > Cl — O
Order of BDE: Cl — O > S — O > P — O
O–

227. (b) ® Si ; Hybridization of Si - sp 3 , bond angle = 109 º28'

– –
O O
O–
ÐCl — N — Cl in NCl 3 is greater than ÐCl — P — Cl in PCl 3 because participation of s-orbital in
hybridization decreases from NCl 3 to PCl 3

N P
109º 28' > a > b
Cl a Cl Cl b Cl
Cl Cl

ÐCl — P — Cl in PCl 3 > ÐH — Sb — H in SbH 3 , as in SbH 3, bond pairs are formed by overlapping of
almost pure p-orbitals.
ÐH — Sb — H in SbH 3 < ÐH — Te — H in H 2Te because two lone pairs are present on Te while at Sb
there is one lone pair.
 418 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

228. (c) Correct order of Arrhenious acid character

H 2S < H 2Se < H 2Te
the value of K a is maximum for H 2Te, due to least bond energy among given hydrides.
O O O OH – OH
B
P P P O O
229. (c)
HO O O OH OH
O O O –
B B
H H H HO O OH
(I) (II)
HO O
O P O H
O O
P P O
HO Cl Cl
O O
P
O P P OH N N
O Cl Cl
O O P P
H Cl N Cl
(III) (IV)
232. (a,b)

C N
S
(SCN)2 molecule having non-polar as well as polar bonds but the
S
N C

molecule as a whole is polar due to its open book like structure like H 2O 2.
235. (b) Thermal stability : Ba(OH )2 > Sr(OH )2 > Ca(OH )2 > Mg(OH )2 > Be(OH )2
Basic character : Ba(OH )2 > Sr(OH )2 > Ca(OH )2 > Mg(OH )2 > Be(OH )2
236. (d) PH 3 is less soluble in H 2O than NH 3 due to absence of H-bonding in PH 3.
237. (b)
(a) Ca 3Si 3O 9 ¾® Ca 2+(SiO 23- )3
(b) R 2Si(OH )2 used to make silicone while silicates are binary anion of silicon and oxygen.
238. (b) Correct order
(a) NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 : order of basic character
(b) H 2S < H 2Se < H 2Te < H 2O : order of boiling point
(c) HCl > HF > HBr > HI : order of boiling point
(d) H 2O > H 2Te > H 2S > H 2Se : order of acidic nature
239. (a) Thermal stability of Hydrides = number of bonds to broken X-bond energy of the bond.
\Thermal stability. PH 3 > H 2S > HCl
p-Block Elements 419
240. (d) BF3 + LiAlH 4 ¾ Ether
¾¾® B 2H 6 + LiF + AlF3
‘ X’
NH 3 can react with B 2H 6
D
B 2F6 + 2NH 3 ¾¾ ®[BH 2(NH 3 )2]+ [BH 4 ]- ¾¾
D
® B 3N 3H 6

: Level 2
7. 2Al + 2NaOH + 2H 2O ¾® 2NaAlO 2 + 3H 2 ­
Zn + 2NaOH ¾® Na 2ZnO 2 + H 2 ­
sod. zincate
4S + 6NaOH ¾® 2Na 2S + Na 2S2O 3 + 3H 2O
P4 + 3NaOH + 3H 2O ¾® 3NaH 2PO 2 + PH 3 ­
sod. hypophosphite
Cl 2 + 2NaOH ¾® NaClO + H 2O
8. Reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
D
9. PCl 5 ¾® PCl 3 + Cl 2
PCl 5 decomposes into PCl 3 and Cl 2 as in its structure two P—Cl axial bonds are longer than other three
P—Cl equatorial bonds.
10. First, HBr is released, being reducing in character, it is oxidised into Br2 by conc. H 2SO 4
NaBr + H 2SO 4 ¾® NaHSO 4 + HBr
2HBr + H 2SO 4 ¾® Br2 ­ + SO 2 ­ + 2H 2O
11. H—S bond is weaker than H—O bond hence, H 2S is more acidic than H 2O.
12. Due to dissociation of IF5 into IF4+ and IF6– , the liquid IF5 conducts electricity.
13. Red phosphorus is less volatile than white phosphorus because it exists in linked tetrahedral structures
P P P
—P P—P P—P P—
P P P
14. As Al(OH)3 is amphoteric in nature hence, it can act as an antacid.
Al(OH)3 + 3H+ ¾® Al 3+ + 3H 2O
15. 3Cl 2 + 6NaOH ¾® 5NaCl + NaClO 3 + 3H 2O
(hot)
Cl 2 + 2NaOH ¾® NaCl + NaClO + H 2O
(cold)
O

26. P P
(Tautomerism)
HO OH HO OH
OH H
(A) Less stable form (B) More stable form

In more stable structure (B) one H-atom is non-ionizable hence its basicity is 2.
27. Ozone is a powerful oxidising agent next to fluorine. It is much stronger oxidising agent than oxygen
because on easy decomposition it forms nascent oxygen.
O 3 ¾® O 2 + [O]
It is also true that O 3 is diamagnetic while O 2 is paramangnetic. But reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
 420 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

28. H 2S and SO 2 react as follows :

Reduction

2H2S + SO 2 2H 2 O + 3S

Oxidation
Reducing Oxidising
agent agent
In this reaction, SO 2 is oxidising agent and H 2S is reducing agent. Thus, assertion is correct but reason is
incorrect.
29. Molecular nitrogen is less reactive than that of oxygen because nitrogen has high dissociation energy in
comparison to oxygen so, its reactivity is less. Also bond length of nitrogen is shorter than oxygen because
of presence of triple bond between nitrogen atoms. So, both are true but not correct explanation.
30. Silicones are insoluble in water and does not react with it. So, Then are hydrophobic in nature. The crystal
structure of silica has Si—O—Si linkage and it is extremely stable and considerable energy is required to
break the silicon oxygen bonds in it.
So, silicones are hard and have high melting point. Thus, the reason is incorrect but assertion is correct.
31. Bio-gas can be produced by the fermentation process of paper scrap (this process takes place in a digester
tank),
32. S-atom in S8 molecule are sp 3 hybridised and contain two lone pairs of electrons on each and exist as
staggered eight atom rings. Tetrahedral angle is 109° but due to one pair of electrons, it reduces to 105°.
33. Borax, when heated, at about 740°C, forms a glassy mass like bead.
Na 2B 4O7 ¾ 740
¾¾ °C
®2NaBO 2 + B 2O 3
Sodium Boric
metaborate anhydride
1 44 42444 3
Glassy bead

This glassy bead gives different colour beads with different cations. Hence, it is used to identify cations in
qualitative analysis. This test is called borax bead test.
34. Fluorine is the most reactive among all the halogens due to its low bond dissociation enthalpy. Hence,
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
35. Common oxidation state of IV A group elements is +2 and +4 but as we move down the group +2
oxidation state becomes more stable. Thus, Pb 4+ is not possible, i. e. , PbI4 is highly unstable.

: Level 3
27. (a) Nitrogen (7 N), phosphorus (15P), arsenic ( 33 As), antimony ( 51 Sb) and bismuth ( 83 Bi) constitute group
15 or VA of the periodic table. Collectively, these elements are called pnicogens and their compounds
are pnictides.
28. (b) Thomas slag or phosphatic slag is a mixture of calcium phosphate and calcium silicate
[Ca 3(PO 4 )2 × CaSiO 3 ], It is used as manure.
29. (a) The decreasing order of boiling points of NH 3, PH 3 , AsH 3 , SbH 3 and H 2O is as :
H 2O > SbH 3 > NH 3 > AsH 3 > PH 3
The boiling point generally increases as the molecular mass increases, but in NH 3 and H 2O the boiling
point increases also due to the presence of hydrogen bonding, hence they have higher boiling points.
30. (c) Bond dissociation energy of fluorine is less because of its small size and repulsion between electrons of
two atoms. So option (c) is wrong order. The correct order is [Cl 2 > Br2 > F2 > I2]
31. (c) Helium provide inert atmosphere in the welding of metals or alloys that are easily oxidised.
p-Block Elements 421
Argon is used in gas filled electric lamps, i. e. , cryogenics
Neon is used in electric sign, i. e. , advertising sign.
P4O10 is used as a valuable drying and dehydrating agent.
PCl 5 is used in organic reaction for the replacement of hydroxyl group by chlorine atom.
32. (b) (a) Glauber’s salt — Na 2SO 4 ×10H 2O
(b) Borax — Na 2B 4O7 ×10H 2O
(c) Carnallite — KCl × MgCl 2 × 6H 2O
(d) Soda ash — Na 2CO 3
(e) Epsom salt — MgSO 4 × 7H 2O
33. (a) Borazine is called inorganic benzene. The number of isoraers possible for disubstituted borazine
(B 3N 3H 4 X 2 ) is three.
34. (b) Structure of diborane is as follows
H
H H H
H × ×× ×H 120°
× × B 97° B
×B B×
H
× ×× H H
× H
H
H 178 pm

Thus, the H—B—H angles are nearly 97°, 120°.

35. (a)
H H H

B B

H H H
In B 2H 6, each B-atom uses sp 3-hybrid,orbitals for bonding. Out of 4 sp 3-hybrid orbitals, one orbital is
empty. Here, one half-filled orbital of other B-atom overlaps with one empty orbital of other B-atom
and half-filled orbitals of hydrogen atom resulting in 3 centred two e- bridge bonds. Thus; these bonds
are electron deficient.
36. (c) Alums are used as water-softer. There are also used in tanning of leather, as mordant in dyeing and to
stop bleeding.
37. (d) NaOH is used in the Baeyer's process. Hence, NaOH used during Hall's process for purification of
bauxite is cot the correct statement.
38. (c) In Al 2O 3 , Sb 2O 3 , Bi 2O 3 and SeO 2, Bi 2O 3 is the most basic oxide as it is the most metallic oxide.
39. (c) Potash alum, K 2SO 4 × Al 2(SO 4 )3 × 24H 2O (Given)
2–
Ions Al3+ SO4

Valency +3 –2
Therefore, Al 2(SO 4 )3 is compound of Al 3+ and SO 2-
4 .
On comparing x = 2
 422 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Hence, formula of potash alum is

K 2SO 4 . Al 2(SO 4 )3. 24H 2O
40. (b)
Colour Compound
(a) Green Sodium chromate, ferrous oxide
(b) Deep-blue Cobalt oxide, cupric salts
(c) Yellow Ferric salt, uranium salts, cadmium
sulphide
(d) Red (rubby) Gold chlorine, gold sol

41. (d) The simplest glass is soda glass which is also called soft glass. Glass is supercooled liquid mixture.
The composition of soft glass is Na 2O × CaO × 6SiO 2
42. (c) White Lead is 2PbCO 3 × Pb(OH )2. It is also known as basic lead carbonate. It is useful for the
manufacturing of white paints.
43. (c) Supercritical CO 2 is used as a solvent for the extraction of organic compound from their natural
sources.
44. (a) Litharge is chemically PbO. It is an amphoteric oxide and is used in making flint glass, as a drier in
paints, varnishes, etc.
45. (c) [SiO 2n- 6- 2-
3 ]n and [Si 4O11 ] are the building units of chain silicates. Thus, SiO 3 present in chain structure
silicates.
47. (a) Bond order of CO is highest and that of CO 2– 3 ion is lowest among these species.
53. (c) Acid is H 3PO 2. It is monobasic and forms the salt NaH 2PO 2.
54. (c) Order of increasing enthalpy of vaporisation is
PH 3 < AsH 3 < NH 3
The enthalpy of NH 3 is higher due to the H-bonding.
55. (d) HO Cl < HO Cl O < HO Cl O 2 < HO Cl O 3
+1 +3 +5 +7

As the oxidation number of the central atom increases, strength of acid also increases.
56. (b) In general, higher the oxidation state, more is the covalent character of the oxide. I2O7 and I2O 9 do not
exist. I2O 4 is ionic in nature. It is infact iodyl iodates [IO]+[IO 3 ]- . The only covalent oxide of iodine is
I2O 5.
57. (c) When a mixture of BCl 3 and H 2 is subjected to silent electric discharge, diborane A and HCl are formed
and diborane A reacts with NH 3 at 200°C to give borazine (inorganic benzene).
2BCl 3 + 6H 2 ¾ Electric
¾¾ ¾® B 2H 6 + 6HCl
discharge A

200 °C
3B 2H 6 + 6NH 3 ¾ ¾¾® 2B 3N 3H 6 + 12H 2
1 : 2 Borozine
B
58. (a) Al 4C 3 + 12D 2O ¾® 3CD 4 + 4 Al(OD )3
59. (b) In diamond each carbon atom is sp 3-hybridised, so the geometry of diamond is tetrahedral.
60. (a) Silica (SiO 2 ) is used for making optical instruments.
61. (d) The carbides, nitrides or silicides are generally called non-oxide ceramics. They have high proportion
of covalent bond. They are made exclusively from synthetic raw materials.
p-Block Elements 423
67. (a) Na 2SO 3 reacts with hot and diluted H 2SO 4 to give SO 2 gas which decolourises bromine water.
Na 2SO 3 + H 2SO 4 ¾® Na 2SO 4 + SO 2 + H 2O
Br2 + H 2O ¾® 2HBr + [O]
Decolourisation of bromine water.
SO 2 + [O] ¾® SO 3
68. (b and c) From the various given option we find option (a) correct. The oxidising power of halogen follow
the order F2 > Cl 2 > Br2 > I2. Option (b) incorrect because it in not the correct order of electron gain
enthalpy of halogens.
The correct order is Cl 2 > F2 > Br2 > I2. The low value of F2 than Cl 2 is due to its small size.
Option (c) incorrect. The correct order of bond dissociation energies of halogens is Cl 2 > Br2 > F2 > I2.
Option (d) correct. It is the correct order of electronegativity values of halogens. Thus option (b) and
(c) are incorrect.
69. (b) Boranes fill into two categories
(i) B nH( n+4) (called nufo-boranes); B 2H 6
(ii) B nH( n+6) (called arachno-boranes): B 4H10
B 3H 6 does not tall into any of the above categories.
70. (b) In alumino-thermic process, Al is used as a reducing agent for the reduction of oxides of Cr, Fe, Mn, etc.
e. g. , Cr2O 3 + 2 Al ¾® Al 2O 3 + 2Cr
71. (c) Buckminster fullerene is the first discovered fullerene which contains 60 carbon atoms. The molecules
has shape of soccer ball in which 12 five membered and 20 six membered rings are present.
72. (d) SiCl 4 + 4H 2O ¾® H 4SiO 4 + 4HCl
D
H 4SiO 4 ¾1000
¾¾ ¾°C
® SiO 2 + 2H 2O

73. (c) Silicon occurs in combined state in nature as silica, SiO 2 and silicates.
74. (e) Carbon due to its smaller size and non-availability of d-orbitals, it cannot extend its covalency more
than four, while Si due to the presence of vacant d-orbitals can extend its covalency more than four.
Due to this reason, SiCl 4 is easily hydrolysed but CCl 4 not.
75. (b) Beryl (Be 3Al 2Si 6O 8 ) is a cyclic or ring silicate consists of discrete units of (Si 6O12-
18 ).
85. (a,b)In laboratory, pure N 2 gas is prepared by heating NH 4Cl with sodium nitrite.
D D
NH 4Cl + NaNO 2 ¾¾ ® NH 4NO 2 + NaCl ¾¾ ® N 2 + 2 H 2O
D
(NH 4 )2Cr2O7 ¾¾ ® N 2 +Cr2O 3 + 4H 2O
86. (b) KCNO + (NH 4 )2SO 4 ¾® NH 4CNO or NH 2CONH 2
87. (c) 2Pb(NO 3 )2 ¾® 2PbO + 4NO 2 + O 2
88. (b) Acidic strength of oxides decreases along a group from upward to downward. Thus, the order of acidic
strength is
P2O 5 > As 2O 3 > Sb 2O 3 > Bi 2O 3
89. (c) When nitric acid (HNO 3) reacts with nitric oxide (NO), NO 2 gas is released which oxidises H 2S into
sulphur. The reactions are as follows :
2HNO 3 + NO ¾® H 2O + 3NO 2
NO 2 + H 2S ¾® H 2O + S + NO
 424 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

90. (c) From this structure, P-atom placed at the corners of a tetrahedron.
P

P P

P
91. (b) Black phosphorus has a highly polymeric layer type structure. Hence, thermodynamically, it is the most
stable form of phosphorus.
92. (a) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H 2O ¾® 3NaH 2PO 2 + PH 3
93. (d) PCl 5, on hydrolysis, with insufficient quantity of water, gives POCl 3 while with excess of water gives
phosphoric acid, (H 3PO 4).
PCl 5 + 4H 2O ¾ Excess
¾ ¾of¾water
¾¾® H 3PO 4 + 5HCl
94. (b) PbO 2 being a powerful oxidising agent, liberates O 2, when treated with conc. HNO 3.
95. (c) H 2S2O 3 = S

S O
HO
OH
O O
|| ||
H 2S2O 6 = HO — S — S — OH
|| ||
O O

O O
|| ||
H 2S2O 8 = HO — S — O — O — S — OH
|| ||
O O

O O
|| ||
H 2S4O 6 = HO — S — S — S — S — OH
|| ||
O O
Hence, H 2S2O 8 has a O — O (peroxide) linkage.
96. (c) MI > MBr > MCl > MF. As the size of the an ion decreases covalency decreases.
97. (c) 2HClO ¾® HClO 3 + HCl
98. (b) Ca(OH)2 + Cl 2 ¾¾® Ca(OCl)Cl + H 2O
Bleaching powder

99. (c) Borazine, B 3N 3H 6 is also known as inorganic benzene due to its resemblance in structure and some
physical and chemical properties with benzene.
p-Block Elements 425
H H
B C
H N N H H C C H
H B B H H C C H
N C
B H
Boronnitride Graphite
100. (a) The aqueous solution of borax is alkaline due to hydrolysis and thus, used as a cleansing agent.
Na 2B 4O7 + 7H 2O ¾® 2NaOH + 4H 3BO 3
(Borax) (Strong alkali) ( Weak acid)

101. (a) BF3 is an electron deficient compound, hence it is known as Lewis acid.
102. (c) Generally, as the electronegativity increases, acidic character increases but in case of boron halides BI3
is most acidic, i. e. , Strongest Lewis acid.
This is because there is back donation of Electrons from halogen atom to boron in BX 3( X = F. Cl, Br, I).
This makes the BX 3 less electron deficient. The tendency of back donation decreases as the size of
halogen atom increases (due to large energy difference).
Hence, due to large size of I, BI3 is most electron deficient and thus, the strongest Lewis acid,
103. (c)
Hydrogen bridge
H
H H
B B
H H
H
Structure of diborane
104. (c) The tendency to form pp backbonding decreases in the order BBr3 > BCl 3 > BF3
105. (a) O == C == O
sp

In CO 2, carbon is in sp-hybridised state.

106. (c) In graphite, each carbon atom is sp 2-hybridised having 3 covalent bonds with 3 other C-atoms in the
same plane. The remaining fourth electron of each carbon atom does not participate in bonding and is
free to move. These free electrons make the graphite, good conductor of electricity.
107. (c) When heated with carbon in an electric furnace, Si is reduced to carborundum or silicon carbide, SiC.
D
SiO 2 + 3C ¾¾ ® SiC + 2CO
108. (a) CCl 4 due to the absence of d-orbitals cannot accommodate the electron pair supplied by H 2O in the first
step of hydrolysis reaction.
109. (a) Phosgene is another name of carbonyl chloride (COCl 2 ).
113. (a) XeF2 is linear molecule and has zero dipole moment. XeF4 is square planar and the two lone pair occupy
the axial positions. Their dipole moments cancel out. XeF6 is unsymmetrical molecule and has finite
dipole moment.
116. (c) O.N. of P in H 3PO 4 and P4O10 is + 5. Oxidation number of the central atom in the acid and acid
anhydride remains same.
D
118. (b)(NH 4 )2Cr2O7 ¾¾ ® N 2 + Cr2O 3 + 4H 2O
 426 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

119. (a) NH 3 + 3Cl 2 ¾¾® NCl 3 + 3HCl

Excess Explosive

120. (a) The structure of P4O10 is

O

P
O O
O P O P O
O OO
P

O
Number of P — O single bonds = 12
Number of P == O bonds = 4
Total number of P — O bonds = 12 + 4 = 16
D
121. (c) 4H 3PO 4 ¾¾ ® P4O10 + 6H 2O
122. (d) On heating ammonium nitrate, nitrous oxide or nitrogen (I) oxide is formed.
NH 4NO 3 ¾ 475
¾ -¾530 °C
¾¾® N 2O + 2H 2O
Nitrous oxide

Nitrous oxide is called laughing gas.

123. (d) Nitrous oxide is a neutral gas.
124. (b) Phosphorus pentoxide acts as a powerful dehydrating agent. It dehydrates HNO 3 to N 2O 5, H 2SO 4 to
SO 3 , HClO 4 to Cl 2O7 , etc.
4HNO 3 + P4O10 ¾® 2N 2O 5 + 4HPO 3
4H 2SO 4 + P4O10 ¾® 2SO 3 + 4HPO 3
4HClO 4 + P4O10 ¾® 2Cl 2O7 + 4HPO 3
125. (b)
P
60
°

P P

P
White phosphorus
Hence, the white phosphorus has six P — P single bonds, four lone pairs of electrons and the PPP angle
is 60°.
126. (c) 2NCl 3 + 8H 2O ¾® 2NH 4OH + 6HOCl
127. (a) The structures of the given oxyacids of phosphorus are as
O O O

P P P
HO OH HO O OH
OH HO OH
H 3 PO 4 H 4P 2O 7
(no P—H bond) (1P—H bond)
p-Block Elements 427
Thus, H 3PO 2 contains the maximum number of P — H bonds, i. e. , 2 .
128. (b) Phosphorous acid (H 3PO 3) is a diprotic acid. It forms two series of salts such as NaH 2PO 3 and Na 2HPO 3
but none of the type Na 3PO 3 with NaOH. Its structure is as
O

P
H OH
OH
129. (b) In limited supply of oxygen, H 2S burns with blue flame and S and H 2O are the main products
2H 2S + O 2 ¾® 2H 2O + 2S
Note : In excess of oxygen, H 2S gives SO 2 and water as main product.
130. (a) Since, in O 2 and O 3, different number of same element, i. e. , oxygen is present, hence, these are
allotropes.
Note : Different crystalline structure, different number of atoms and different nuclear spins all result in
allotropy.
131. (c) Due to resonance, the bond order in ozone is 1.5, hence, O — O bond length in O 3 is greater than
O — O bond length in O 2.
132. (b) Ozone can be tested by Hg (mercury).
2Hg + O 3 ¾¾® Hg 2O + O 2
Mercurous
oxide

During this reaction, mercury loses its meniscus and starts sticking to the side of the glass. This is
known as tailing of mercury.
133. (b) The temperature at which both the varieties of sulphur coexist, is called transition temperature.
> 369 K
a-sulphur b-sulphur
< 369 K
134. (d) When bromine water reacts with SO 2, it oxidises it to sulphuric acid and itself gets reduced to HBr.
Br2 + 2H 2O + SO 2 ¾¾® 2HBr + H 2SO 4
14243
Bromine water

135. (b) H 2SO 5 (peroxomono sulphuric acid) is known as Caro's acid.

136. (c) H 2SO 4 + 2PCl 5 ¾¾® SO 2Cl 2 + 2POCl 3 + 2HCl
Sulphuryl
chloride

137. (c) SO 3 + H 2SO 4 ¾¾® H 2S2O7

Oleum

138. (a) Except HF, all hydrogen halides are gases. HF is a liquid with boiling point 19.5°C. This behaviour is
due to association of HF molecules through hydrogen bonding.
H — F --- H — F --- H — F --- H — F
139. (c) Among the given, only potassium iodide is used as a germicide.
140. (b) Fluorine is not prepared by general methods as used for the preparation of Cl 2 and Br2 because HF
cannot be easily oxidised to F2. (Fluorine is the most electronegative element)
141. (d) Fluorine reacts with water to give both O 2 and O 3.
2H 2O + 2F2 ¾ Cold
¾¾® 4HF + O 2
 428 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

3H 2O + 3F2 ¾ Hot
¾¾® 6HF + O 3
142. (b) Cl 2 being a stronger oxidising agent, oxidises bromide present in the mother liquor or Br2.
2Br - + Cl 2 ¾¾® Br2 + 2Cl -
From mother liquor Bromine

143. (b) As the size increases bond length increases, thus bond dissociation energy decreases.
Molecule Bond dissociation energy
F2 158.8
Cl 2 242.6
Br2 192.8
I2 151.1

However, the dissociation energy of fluorine is lesser than that of chlorine because of its small size.
Hence, Cl 2 has the highest bond dissociation energy.
144. (a) Fluorine attacks on glass but very slowly. Thus, it is used to make painting over glass.
145. (a) As the oxidation number of Cl-atom increases from HClO to HClO 4 (i. e. , +1 to +7), the possibility of
getting H-atom as H + ion by the rupture of O — H bond increases. Hence, the correct order of acidity is
+1 +2 +3 +4
H Cl O < H Cl O 2 < H Cl O 3 < H Cl O 4
146. (a) Hydration energy varies inversely with size. Among the given oxyacids, ClO -4 has the smallest size
because of the presence of Cl7 + followed by ClO -3 (with Cl 5+ ), ClO -2 (with Cl 3+ ). ClO - has the largest size
with Cl + ion. Hence, the order of increasing hydration energy is
ClO - < ClO 2- < ClO 3- < ClO 4-
147. (c) The correct order of increasing bond angle is Cl 2O < ClO 2- < ClO 2
–
Cl 2 O ClO 2 ClO 2
O Cl Cl

Cl Cl O O O O
111° *
* In ClO -2 , there are 2 lone pairs of electrons present on the central chlorine atom. Therefore, the bond
angle in ClO -2 is less than 118° which is the bond angle in ClO 2 which has less number of electrons on
chlorine.
148. (b) William Ramsay was the scientist who discovered noble gas first time.
149. (b)
F

Xe O

F
XeOF 2

(The geometry is T-shaped).

p-Block Elements 429
150. (b) Bartlett reacted xenon and platinum hexafluoride in gas phase and an orange yellow solid of XePtF6
was obtained.
Xe( g ) + PtF6( g ) ¾¾® Xe +[PtF6 ]-( s )
Orange yellow

151. (d) Helium has an unusual property of diffusing through commonly used laboratory material such as
rubber and glass.
152. (b) Helium (He) is a noble and monoatomic gas.
153. (a) Since, noble gases are monoatomic, these do not possess vibrational energy as monoatomic molecules do
not vibrate.
154. (c) Argon was discovered by both Rayleigh and Ramsay.
155. (d) In pyrosilicates, two SiO 4-
4 tetrahedrons share a corner oxygen atom.
– –

– –

– –
= (oxygen atom)
= Si (silicon)
6–
Si2O7 anion of pyrosilicate

157. (d) Choice (d) has maximum (6) covalent bonds.

158. (b) The structure of cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid is
O O O
P P
HO OH
O O
P
O OH
and now oxidation state of P = +5
159. (c) The active constituent is Ca(OCl)2 which is the salt of oxoacid (HOCl). Anhydride of HOCl is Cl 2O. The
oxidation number of Cl in HOCl and Cl 2O is +1.
160. (d) Kr is used in miner’s cap lamps. This is because its light does not produce glare.
162. (a) The structure of pyrophosphorous acid (H 4P2O 5) is
H H
| |
HO — P — O — P — OH
|| ||
O O
Here, 2 hydrogen atoms are replaceable.
So, basicity is 2.
163. (d) SO 3 is trigonal planar due to sp 2 hybridised sulphur. SO 2- 3
3 is sp hybridised, but pyramidal due to
presence of lone pair of electron.
164. (c) Only I2 is liberated.
Br2 liberates I2 from NaI, because iodine lies below bromine in electrochemical series.
-1 +1
165. (a) Cl 2 + H 2O ¾® H Cl + H Cl O
166. (d) Nitrogen of air is finally converted into NaNO 2 and NaNO 3.
 430 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

167. (b)
F F
F F F F
Xe Xe Xe
F F F F
F F
XeF 6 XeF 4 XeF 2
Hence, number of non-bonding pair on Xe in XeF6, XeF4 and XeF2 respectively will be 1, 2, 3.
168. (d) Formula of aluminium nitride is AlN.
169. (c) Mixture of Al powder and Al(NO 3 )3 is known as ‘ammonal’ is used in bombs.
170. (c) Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anamolous behaviour is
that graphite has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bonded carbon atoms with
weak van der Waals' forces (interplate bonds). Thus, these layers can slide over one another. This gives
softness greasiness and lubricating character to graphite.
171. (d) Inert pair effect is more pronounced in heavier members like Pb. Hence, Pb (IV) compounds act as
strong oxidising agents and are reduced to more stable Ge (II) compounds.
172. (b) Fe 2(SO 4 )3 ¾¾® Fe 2O 3 + 3SO 3
+5 COOH –1
H SO4
174. (c) KClO 3 + 3 | ¾ ¾2 ¾
¾® KCl + 6CO 2 + 3H 2O
COOH

Maximum change is for Cl atom, i. e. , 5 - ( -1) = + 6

176. (b) Hydrazoic acid (N 3H) is a weak acid. Its weak acidic character is due to the formation of azide ion (N -3)
after the loss of a proton. Azide ion is more stabilised by resonance as compared to hydrazoic acid itself.
+
[N ºº N + — N - ]- ¬® [N - — N ºº N]-
177. (b) Hypophosphorous acid H 3PO 2, has the following structure,
O

H P OH
H
As it contains only one replaceable H-atom (that is attached with O, not with P directly) so it is a
monoprotic acid.
All other given statements are true.
178. (d) A peroxyl acid is one that contain peroxide [— O — O —] linkage. As perchloric acid (HClO 4) doesn't
contain a peroxide linkage, it is not a peroxyl acid, whereas others having a peroxide linkage are
peroxyl acid.
H
O

Cl
O O
O
Structure of HClO 4
179. (b) If acidic nature is high, K a is high and pK a is low.
p-Block Elements 431
H 2O H 2S
Ka 1 . 8 ´ 10 -6 1 . 3 ´ 10 -7
H 2Se H 2Te
Ka 1 . 3 ´ 10 -4 2 . 3 ´ 10 -3
since pK a = -log K a
Hence, the order of pK a will be
H 2O > H 2S > H 2Se > H 2Te
180. (b) When chlorine gas reacts with hot and concentrated NaOH solution, it disproportionates into chloride
(Cl - ) and chlorate (ClO -3) ions.
In this process, oxidation number of chlorine changes from 0 to –1 and 0 to +5.
Note : It is a disproportion reaction, the same element undergoes oxidation as well as reduction.
181. (a) Bromine water is an oxidising agent. It oxidises SO 2 to SO 3 and itself gets reduces to colourless HBr.
Br2 + H 2O ¾¾® 2HBr + [O]
Orange Colourless
red

SO 2 + [O] ¾® SO 3
H 2O + SO 3 ¾® H 2SO 4
H 2S is also oxidised by bromine water but in this case, decolourisation is also accompanied by the
formation of sulphur.
H 2S + [O] ¾® H 2O + S
182. (a) Pseudohalides are the combinations of more than one electronegative atoms which have one unit
negative charge, e.g., N - , NO - etc., RCOO - is not a pseudohalide.
183. (a) Boron nitride, (BN)x resembles with graphite in structure as

B B C C
N N N C C C
B B B C C C
N N C C
B B C C
N N C
Boron nitride Graphite
184. (d) Duralumin is an alloy of A1(95%), Cu(4%), Mn (0.5%) and Mg (0.5%).
Magnalium is an alloy of Al (94%) and Mg (6%).
German silver is an alloy of Cu (56%), Zn (24%) and Ni (20%).
Aluminium bronze is an alloy of Cu (95%) and Al (5%).
185. (a) Water gas is produced by passing steam over red hot coke at 1000-1400°C.
C + H 2O ¾® CO + H 2; DH = +28 kcal
Coke 1424 3
Water gas

Water gas consist of 40 volume of CO, 50 volume of H 2, 5 volume of CO 2 and 4-5 volume of N 2.
186. (d) Pb 3O 4 is sindoor or red lead or minium or triplumbic tetraoxide. It is used as protective paint in iron,
steel and silver mirrors and in glass industry.
 432 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

187. (c) Me 3SiCl is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicons polymer because it generates Me 3SiOH
when subjected to hydrolysis which contains only one reacting site. Hence, the polymerisation reaction
stops just after first step.
Me Me Me Me
| | | |
Me —Si — OH + HO — Si — Me ¾ -¾¾ H 2O
® Me —Si — O — Si — Me [Final product (dimer)]
| | | |
Me Me Me Me
188. (b) The basic building unit of all silicates is the tetrahedral SiO 4-
4 . It is represented as
O– – –
–
Si –
O
– =O
O
O– = Si
4–
Structure of SiO4 ion
··
192. (a) HO — S — OH
||
O
196. (a) 2H 2SO 4 + 2P2O 5 ¾¾® 2SO 3 + 4HPO 3
Sulphur
trioxide

197. (b) The mixture of one part of conc. HNO 3 and three parts of conc. HCl is known as aqua-regia. It contains
NOCl.
HNO 3 + 3HCl ¾® 2H 2O + NOCl + 2[Cl]
The enhanced ability to dissolve metals shown by aqua-regia arises from the oxidising power of HNO 3
coupled with the ability of Cl - to form complexes with the metal ions.
198. (c) Draw the structure of pyro-phosphoric acid and count —OH groups in it.
OH OH

P P
O O O
OH OH
H 4P 2O 7
Pyrophosphoric acid

\ Pyrophosphoric acid has 4 — OH groups.

D
199. (c) (NH 4 )2Cr2O7 ¾¾ ® N 2 + Cr2O 3 + 4H 2O
D
Zn(ClO 3 )2 ¾¾ ® ZnCl 2 + 3O 2
D
2KClO 3 ¾¾ ® 2KCl + 3O 2
D
4K 2Cr2O7 ¾¾ ® 4K 2CrO 4 + 2Cr2O 3 + 3O 2
200. (c) On mixing aqueous solution of H 2S and SO 2, colloidal sulphur is obtained.
2H 2S + SO 2 ¾® 3S + 2H 2O
201. (b) The increasing order of reducing power of halogen acid is
HF < HCl < HBr < HI
The reason is that by increasing the size of halogen atom, the bond strength of H — X bond decreases.
Thus, the ease of hydrogen donation increases and hence, reducing power increases.
202. (b) Acidic strength of oxyacids increases with oxidation state of central atom.
p-Block Elements 433
Find the oxidation state of chlorine in all the oxyacids to decide the decreasing acidic strength order
among oxyacids.
(i) HClO 4 = +1 + x + ( -2 ´ 4 ) = 0 \ x = +7
(ii) HClO 3 = +1 + x + ( -2 ´ 3 ) = 0 \ x = +5
(iii) HClO 2 = +1 + x + ( -2 ´ 2 ) = 0 \ x = +3
(iv) HClO = +1 + x + ( -2 ´ 1) = 0 \ x = +1
HClO 4 is the strongest acid and HClO is the weakest acid.
\ Correct order of acidic strength is
HClO 4 > HClO 3 > HClO 2 > HClO
203. (c) Phosgene is a poisonous gas. It is also known as carbonyl chloride, (COCl 2)
O
||
as Cl — C — Cl
204. (d) Bleaching powder loses its power on keeping for a long time because it changes into calcium chloride
and calcium chlorate.
205. (b) HClO 4 is the strongest acid amongst all because the oxidation state or Cl is maximum (+7).
206. (c) Melting point and boiling point of HCl is the lowest amongst HX due to weak inter molecular H —
bonding in H — Cl.
207. (c) The % by volume of rare gases are as

% by volume % by wt
He 0.0005 0.000037
Ne 0.0015 0.001
Ar 0.932 1.285
Kr 0.0001 0.00028
Xe 0.0001 0.00004

So, Ar is most abundant in air.

208. (c) Sea weeds contain iodine.
209. (a) SF4 has 4 bond pairs and 1 lone pair of electrons,
F
F
sp 3d-hybridisation leads to irregular shape S
F
F
and resultant m ¹ 0.
O

210. (b) Xe
O O
O
211. (d) All central elements in given options belong to group 13. They show oxidation state of
x + 6 ( -1) = -3, x = + 3
 434 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Due to inert pair effect, stability of higher oxidation state decreases on moving down the group.
Hence, [InF6 ]3- is least stable and does not exist.
212. (d) Thallium trihalides are less stable due to inert pair effect.
213. (a) 3B 2H 6 + 6NH 3 ¾ 200
¾¾ °C
® 2B 3N 3H 6 + 12H 2
Borazine
or Borazole
214. (a) Carbon black particles are employed in photocopier and laser printer and other inks and painting.
216. (a) Chemical reaction occurs when P4O10 , Mg 3N 2, CaC 2 and BaO 2 reacts with water are as shown below
P4O10 + 6H 2O ¾® 4H 3PO 4
Mg 3N 2 + 6H 2O ¾® 3Mg(OH)2 + 2NH 3
CaC 2 + 2H 2O ¾® Ca(OH)2 + C 2H 2
BaO 2 + 2H 2O ¾® Ba(OH)2 + H 2O 2
217. (c) Pure phosphine gas is stable in air and not inflammable at normal temperature but on heating upto
180°C, it catches fire and produces phosphorus pentaoxide.
2PH 3 + 4O 2 ¾® P2O 5 + 3H 2O
218. (b)
O O

P P OH
H OH H OH
H
Hypophosphorus Orthophosphorus
acid (H 3 PO 2 ) acid (H 3 PO 3 )
+3+x+2(–2) = 0 +3+x+3(–2) = 0
x = +1 x = +3
O O

P P
O
H OH OH H
Pyrophosphoric
acid (H 4 P 2 O 5 )
+4+2x+5(–2) = 0
x = +3
Thus, correct order of acids of phosphorus in the increasing order of oxidation state of phosphorus is
hypophosphorus acid < orthophosphorus acid = pyrophosphoric acid.
219. (a) Acidic strength of hydrides increases as the size of central atom increases which weakens the M — H
bond. Since, the size increases from S to Te, thus acidic strength follows the order
H 2S < H 2Se < H 2Te
or as we go down the group, acidic strength of hydride increases.
220. (c) Element Allotropes
(a) Polonium a-and b-polonium
(b) Tellurium None
(c) Selenium Trigonal, rhombohedral, three deep red monoclinic
forms (a , band g-amorphous red, black vitrous selenium)
(d) Oxygen Dioxygen and ozone
p-Block Elements 435
221. (c) When HOCl is treated with H 2O 2 in acidic medium it gets reduced to Cl - with the evolution of oxygen
gas.
HOCl( aq ) + H 2O 2( aq ) ¾® HCl( aq ) + H 2O(l ) + O 2( g )
So, the correct answer is (c), i.e., O 2
222. (d) Xe, because of its low ionisation energy forms many compounds. However, no true compounds of He,
Ne and Ar are known. Xe forms most of the compounds with F and O, like XeF2, XeF4 , XeF6, and XeO 3
etc.
223. (d) Due to strong H-bonding in HF molecule, boiling point is highest for HF
HF>HI>HBr>HI
224. (a) In NO Å
2 , ‘N’ atom is sp hybridize so bond angle will be 180° (maximum).
225. (c) NO 2 cannot be used as food preservative.
226. (d) Aqueous solution of HCl is the best conductor of electric current because HCl is strong acid, so it
dissociates completely into ions.
227. (a) Facts
229. (c) Diamond and graphite are the crystalline allotropes of carbon.
230. (b) Cu + 4HNO 3 ¾® Cu(NO 3 )2 + 2NO 2 + 2H 2O
conc Brown gas

éCu + conc. HNO 3 ¾® NO 2

ê Cu + dil. HNO ¾® NO
ë 3

231. (b) Phosphoric acid (phosphonic acid) H 3PO 3 (dibasic)

O
||
P
|
|

H | OH
OH
Hypophosphorous acid (Phosphinic acid) H 3PO 2 (monobasic)
O
||
P
|
|

H | OH
H
232. (c) As oxidation number of central atom increases, acidic nature increases.
HClO < HClO 2 < HClO 3 < HClO 4
233. (c) Bond dissociation enthalpy
Cl 2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
242.6 192.8 158.8 1511
. ( kJ / mol )

3 3
234. (c) XeF5- is sp d hybridised with 2 lone pairs.
–
..
F F
Xe
F
..
F F
Geometry: Pentagonal bipyramid
Shape: Pentagonal planar
 436 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

235. (a) Addition of chloride ions to a suspension of PbCl 2 gives rise to soluble complex ions as shown:
PbCl 2( s) + Cl - ¾¾® [PbCl 3 ](-aq)
PbCl 2( s) + 2Cl - ¾¾® [PbCl 4 ](2aq
-
)

236. (a) Higher the oxidation state of central atom, higher will be its electronegativity and hence, higher will be
acidic strength.
+5 +3 +1
HClO 3 > HClO 2 > HCIO
HOBr is least acidic due to lesser electronegativity of Br.
237. (b) 5I- + IO 3- + 6H + ¾¾® 3I2 + 3H 2O
(from violet
lime juice)

238. (c) Chlorine can be manufactured by electrolysis of a sodium chloride solution (brine). Electrolysis of
brine solution involves the following reactions:
At cathode: 2H(+aq) + 2 e- ¾¾® H 2( g ) (Reduction)
At anode: 2Cl(-aq) ¾¾® Cl 2( g ) + 2 e- (Oxidation)
Overall reaction: 2NaCl( aq) + 2H 2O( l) ¾¾® Cl 2( g ) + H 2( g ) + 2NaOH
240. (d) Orthoboric acid is formed when an aqueous solution of borax is treated with hydrochloric or sulphuric
acid.
Na 2B 4O7 + 2HCl + 5H 2O ¾¾® 4H 3BO 3 + 2NaCl
Na 2B 4O7 + H 2SO 4 + 5H 2O ¾¾® 4H 3BO 3 + Na 2SO 4
241. (a) Nitrogen can form pp - pp bond with itself due to its small size and high electronegativity and exists as
a diatomic molecule (N ºº N, one s and two p -bonds). While other given elements do not form pp - pp
bonds due to their large atomic size they do not exhibit effective overlapping of orbitals.
O O S O O O O
-
|| || -
|| || -
|| ||
- -
244. (a) O— S — S — S — S — O S – O— S — O — S — O O— S — O — O — S — O -
|| || O O || || || ||
O O O– O O O O
2–
(S4 O2– (S2O 3 ) (S2O72– ) (S2O2–
6 ) 8 )

245. (c) All halogens shows both positive and negative oxidation states while fluorine shows only positive
oxidation state.
+5 +2 0 -3
247. (a) HNO 3 , NO, N 2, NH 4Cl
248. (d) The thermal stability of hydrides decreases from H 2O to H 2Po. This is because as the size of atom E in
H 2E increases, the bond H – E becomes weaker and thus breaks on heating. Therefore, the correct order
of thermal stability is H 2Po < H 2Te < H 2Se < H 2S < H 2O.
249. (b) Generally halides of group-14 elements are covalent in nature. PbF4 and SnF4 are exceptions which are
ionic in nature.
252. (a) It is a reactive gas as it easily provides Cl 2 gas.
Cl Cl
a
e
eP e
Cl a Cl
Cl
253. (a) [SiCl 6 ]-2 is not stable due to steric hindrance by large sized Cl atoms on small sized Si atom.
d-Block Elements 437

9
d-BLOCK ELEMENTS

Level 1
1. CrO 2- 2-
4 (yellow) changes to Cr 2O 7 (orange) in pH = x and vice-versa in pH = y. Hence, x and y
are :
(a) 6, 8 (b) 6, 5 (c) 8, 6 (d) 7, 7
2. Manganese ions (Mn 2+ ) can be oxidised by Persulphate ions S 2O 2-
8 accord ing to the following
half-equations,
S 2O 28- + 2 e - ¾® 2SO 24-
Mn 2+ + 4H 2O ¾® MnO -4 + 8H + + 5e -
How many moles of S 2O 2-
8 are required to oxidise 1 mole of Mn
2+
?
(a) 2.5 (b) 2.0 (c) 11.0 (d) 0.4
3. AgCl on fusion with Na 2CO 3 forms :
(a) Ag 2CO 3 (b) Ag 2O (c) Ag (d) Ag 2C 2
4. Formula of Rust is :
(a) Fe 2O 3 (b) FeO × xH 2O (c) Fe 2O 3 × xH 2O (d) Fe 3O 4 × xH 2O
5. CrO 3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give :
(a) Cr 2O 72- (b) CrO 2-
4 (c) Cr(OH) 3 (d) Cr(OH) 2
6. Chemically philosopher of wool is :
(a) ZnO (b) BaO (c) HgCl (d) Hg 2Cl 2
7. Boiling CuCl 2 with Cu in conc. HCl gives :
(a) CuCl (b) CuCl 2 (c) H[CuCl 2 ] (d) Cu 2Cl
8. Thermal decomposition of zinc nitrate give :
(a) Zn (b) ZnO (c) Zn(NO 3 ) 2 (d) NO
9. Malachite and azurite are used respectively are :
(a) Blue and green pigment (b) Red and green pigment
(c) Green and blue pigment (d) Green and red pigment
 438 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

10. Mercury is transported in the containers made of :

(a) Ag (b) Pb (c) Al (d) Fe
11. The higher oxidation states of transition elements are found to be in the combination with A
and B, which are :
(a) F, O (b) O, N (c) O, S (d) F, Cl
12. White vitriol is :
(a) ZnS (b) ZnSO 4 (c) ZnSO 4 × 7H 2O (d) ZnCO 3
13. Among the following metals, the most dense is :
(a) osmium (b) chromium (c) platinum (d) gold
14. Silver nitrate is usually kept in coloured bottles because it is :
(a) oxidised in air (b) decomposes in sunlight
(c) explodes in sunlight (d) reacts with air in sunlight
15. Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing melting point?
(a) Zn < Cu < Ni < Fe (b) Fe < Ni < Cu < Zn
(c) Ni < Fe < Zn < Cu (d) Cu < Zn < Fe < Ni
16. Calomel is the name of :
(a) HgCl 2 (b) Hg 2Cl 2 (c) HgCl 2 + Hg (d) Hg 2Cl 2 + Hg
17. The iron salt used in blue prints is :
(a) FeC 2O 4 (b) Fe 2(C 2O 4 ) 3 (c) K 4 Fe(CN) 6 (d) FeSO 4
18. Percentage of gold in 14 carat gold is :
(a) 58 (b) 80 (c) 40 (d) 14
19. The maximum and minimum melting point of first and second transition series elements
respectively are obtained with :
(a) Cr and Zn (b) Cr and Hg (c) Cr and Cd (d) Mo and Cd
20. ZnO shows yellow colour on Heating due to :
(a) d-d transition (b) C-T spectra
2+
(c) Higher polarisation caused by Zn ion (d) F-centres
21. When steam is passed over red hot iron, the substances formed are :
(a) Fe 2O 3 + H 2 (b) Fe 3O 4 + H 2 (c) FeO + H 2 (d) FeO + H 2 + O 2
22. Verdigris is :
(a) Basic copper acetate (b) Basic lead acetate
(c) Basic lead (d) None
23. Corrosive sublimate is :
(a) HgCl 2 (b) Hg 2Cl 2 (c) Hg 2Cl (d) Hg 2Cl 3
- -
24. The product of I with MnO 4 in alkaline medium is :
(a) I 2 (b) IO -3 (c) IO - (d) IO -4
25. Which of the following is the correct formula for a compound of scandium and oxygen?
(a) Sc 2O (b) ScO (c) Sc 3O 2 (d) Sc 2O 3
26. Mercury on heating with aqua-regia gives :
(a) Hg(NO 3 ) 2 (b) HgCl 2 (c) Hg(NO 2 ) 2 (d) Hg 2Cl 2
d-Block Elements 439
27. Chloroplatinic acid is :
(a) monobasic (b) dibasic (c) tribasic (d) tetrabasic
28. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Mercurous ion exists as Hg +
(b) Mercurous ion is diamagnetic and exists as dimer Hg 2+
2
(c) Mercurous ion is colourless
(d) There is a metallic bond between two Hg + ions
29. Fe is made passive by :
(a) dil. H 2SO 4 (b) dil. HCl
(c) conc. HNO 3 (d) conc. H 2SO 4
D
30. Na 2CO 3 + Fe 2O 3 ¾® A + CO 2 what is A in the reaction?
(a) NaFeO 2 (b) Na 3FeO 3
(c) Fe 3O 4 (d) Na 2FeO 2
31. Ferrous sulphate on heating gives :
(a) SO 2 and SO 3 (b) SO 2 only
(c) SO 3 only (d) H 2S only
32. Photographic films or plates have ……… as an essential ingredient.
(a) silver oxide (b) silver bromide
(c) silver thiosulphate (d) silver nitrate
33. In comparison of ferrous salts, ferric salts are :
(a) more stable (b) less stable
(c) equally stable (d) none of these
34. Chrome yellow is chemically known as :
(a) lead chromate (b) lead sulphate
(c) lead iodide (d) basic lead acetate
35. The property, which is not characteristic of transition metals :
(a) variable oxidation states (b) tendency to form complexes
(c) formation of coloured compounds (d) none of these
36. Iron is protected by coating it with a thin layer of :
(a) Cu (b) Zn (c) Pb (d) Mg
37. An oxide of copper which is red in colour has the formula :
(a) CuO (b) Cu 2O (c) CuO 2 (d) Cu 2O 2
38. In a transition series, as the atomic number increases, paramagnetism :
(a) increases gradually
(b) decreases gradually
(c) first increases to a maximum and then decreases
(d) first decreases to a minimum and then increases
39. The formula of azurite is :
(a) CuCO 3 × Cu(OH) 2 (b) 2CuCO 3 × Cu(OH) 2
(c) CuCO 3 × 2Cu(OH) 2 (d) CuSO 4 × Cu(OH) 2
 440 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

40. Oxide of metal cation which is not amphoteric?

(a) Al 3+ (b) Cr 3+ (c) Fe 3+ (d) Zn 2+
41. The most abundant transition metal in earth crust is :
(a) Zn (b) Fe (c) Hg (d) Au
42. CuSO 4 solution + lime is called :
(a) Lucas reagent (b) Barfoed’s reagent
(c) Fehling solution A (d) Bordeaux mixture
43. Preparation of looking mirrors involves the use of :
(a) red lead (b) ammonical silver nitrate
(c) ammonical AgNO 3 + red lead (d) ammonical AgNO 3 + red lead + HCHO
44. When ammonia is added to a cupric salt solution, the deep blue colour is observed it is due to
the formation of :
(a) [Cu(OH) 4 ]2- (b) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]2+
(c) [Cu(H 2O) 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]2+ (d) [Cu(H 2O) 4 ]2+
45. Philosopher’s wool when heated with BaO at 1100°C gives the compound :
(a) BaCdO 2 (b) Ba+ ZnO 2 (c) BaO 2 + Zn (d) BaZnO 2
46. The electrons which take part in order to exhibit variable oxidation states by transition metals
are :
(a) ns only (b) (n - 1) d only
(c) ns and (n - 1) d only but not np (d) (n - 1) d and np only but not ns
47. On heating ZnCl 2 × 2H 2O, the compound obtained is :
(a) ZnCl 2 (b) Zn(OH) 2 (c) ZnO (d) ZnH 2
48. During estimation of oxalic acid Vs KMnO 4 , self indicator is :
(a) KMnO 4 (b) oxalic acid (c) K 2SO 4 (d) MnSO 4
49. Iron is rendered passive by treatment with :
(a) H 2SO 4 (dil.) (b) H 2PO 4 (c) conc. HNO 3 (d) HCl
50. When KMnO 4 solution is added to hot oxalic acid solution, the decolorisation is slow in the
beginning but becomes instantaneous after some time. This is because :
(a) Mn 2+ acts as auto catalyst (b) CO 2 is formed
(c) Reaction is exothermic (d) MnO -4 catalysis the reaction
51. Gold dissolves in a aqua-regia forming :
(a) Auric chloride (b) Aurous chloride
(c) Chloroauric acid (d) Aurous nitrate
52. The solubility of silver bromide in hypo solution is due to the formation of :
(a) Ag 2SO 3 (b) Ag 2S 2O 3 (c) [Ag(S 2O 3 )]- (d) [Ag(S 2O 3 ) 2 ]3-
53. Metal used for making joints in jewellery is :
(a) Zn (b) Cu (c) Ag (d) Cd
54. Zn and Cd metals do not show variable valency because:
(a) they have only two electrons in the outermost subshells
(b) their d-subshells are completely filled
d-Block Elements 441
(c) their d-subshells are partially filled
(d) they are relatively soft metals
55. Zn and Cd metals do not show variable valency because :
(a) They have only two electrons in the outermost subshells
(b) Their d-subshells are completely filled
(c) Their d-subshells are partially filled
(d) They are relatively soft metals
56. Which of the following is called Wilkinson’s catalyst ?
(a) [Ph 3P) 3 RhCl] (b) TiCl 4 +(C 2H 5 ) 3 Al
(c) (C 2H 5 ) 4 Pb (d) [PtCl 2(NH 3 ) 2 ]
57. Which of the following is not a consequence of the Lanthanoid contraction?
(a) 5d series elements have a higher IE 1 than 3d or 4d series
(b) Zr and Hf have a comparable size
(c) Zr and Hf occurs together in the earth crust in their minerals
(d) High density of the sixth period elements
58. A metal M and its compound can give the following observable changes in a consequence of
reactions
dilute aqueous é ù
M ¾¾¾® éColourless ù ¾¾¾® ê White ú —
ê ú NaOH
HNO 3 ë solutions û êëprecipitate úû |
|
|
é ù H 2S é ù excess |
ê White ú ¬¾¾¾¾ êColourless ú ¬¾¾¾¾
êëprecipitate úû ë solution û NaOH(aq.)

(a) Mg (b) Pb (c) Zn (d) Sn

59. Sodium thiosulphate is used to remove the unexposed AgBr from photographic films by
forming a complex. In this complex of silver, the coordination number of silver is :
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
60. Each of the following ion contains vanadium the +V oxidation state except :
(a) VO +2 (b) V(OH)+4 (c) VO 2+ (d) [VO 3 ×OH]2-
61. Mercury (II) chloride solution on reaction with gaseous ammonia forms :
(a) Hg(NH 2 )Cl × HgO (b) Hg(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 (c) [Hg(NH 3 ) 4 ]Cl 2 (d) [Hg(NH 3 ) 2 ]Cl
62. Copper sulphate is prepared by blowing a current of air through copper scrap and dilute
H 2SO 4 . Dilute HNO 3 is also added :
(a) to oxidise copper to Cu 2+ which then form CuSO 4 with dilute H 2SO 4
(b) to oxidise Fe 2+ to iron (III) sulphate, which remains in solution after crystallisation of
CuSO 4
(c) to speed up the ionisation of H 2SO 4 to give SO 2-
4 ions
(d) which combines with H 2SO 4 to give a very strong oxidising mixture and oxidises Cu to
Cu 2+
63. Which two sets of reactants best represent the amphoteric character of Zn(OH) 2 ?
Set 1 : Zn(OH) 2( s) and OH - ( aq)
 442 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Set 2 : Zn(OH) 2( s) and H 2O(l)

Set 3 : Zn(OH) 2( s) and H+ ( aq)
Set 4 : Zn(OH) 2( s) and NH 3( aq)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
64. The false statement about iron (III) hydroxide is that :
(a) it is a weaker base than Fe(OH) 2
(b) with concentrated KOH, it forms a complex K 3[Fe(OH) 6 ]
(c) it gradually loses water and transforms into Fe 2O 3
(d) it exhibits amphoteric properties with its predominating acidic nature
D
65. AgNO 3 ¾® (W )+( X )+ O 2
( X )+ H 2O ¾® HNO 2 + HNO 3
(W )+ HNO 3 ¾® Y + NO + H 2O
(Y )+ Na 2S 2O 3(excess) ¾® ( Z )+ NaNO 3
Identify (W) to (Z).
(a) W = Ag X = N 2O Y = AgNO 3 Z = Na 2[Ag(S 2O 3 ) 2 ]
(b) W = Ag 2O X = NO Y = AgNO 3 Z = Na 3[Ag(S 2O 3 ) 2 ]
(c) W = Ag X = NO 2 Y = AgNO 3 Z = Na 3[Ag(S 2O 3 ) 2 ]
(d) W = Ag 2O X = N 2 Y = AgNO 3 Z = Na[Ag(S 2O 3 ) 2 ]
66. The oxidation state of copper changes when aqueous copper (II) ions react with :
(I) NaOH( aq) (II) Fe( s) (III) KI( aq)
(a) I, II, III (b) II only (c) II, III (d) I only
67. The aqueous solution of transition metal salt changes colour from pink to blue, when
concentrated hydrochloric acid is added to it. The change in colour is due to :
(a) evolution of hydrogen that changes the oxidation state of the metal ion
(b) change in the coordination number of the metal ion from 6 to 4 and formation of new
species in solution
(c) formation of a coordination complex of the metal ion with hydrochloric acid
(d) protonation of the metal ion
68. Limestone is present in the blast furnace production of iron in order to :
(I) provide a source of CaO
(II) remove some impurities
(III) supply CO 2
(a) I, II, III (b) I, II (c) II, III (d) I only
69. Paramagnetism is not exhibited by :
(a) CuSO 4 ×5H 2O (b) CuCl 2 ×5H 2O
(c) CuI (d) NiSO 4 ×6H 2O
70. Which of the comparison regarding Zn, Cd, Hg is/are incorrect ?
(I) ZnCl 2 is ionic whereas CdCl 2 and HgCl 2 are covalent
(II) Zn and Cd dissolves in dilute acid (HCl) liberating H 2 but Hg can not
(III) Zn and Cd forming with ppt. of Zn(OH) 2 and Cd(OH) 2 but Hg forms coloured ppt. of
Hg(OH) 2
d-Block Elements 443
(IV) all form A 2+
2 type ion
(a) only III (b) I, III, IV (c) I and III (d) all of these
71. The oxoanion in which the oxidation state of the central atom is same as its group number in
the periodic table is :
(a) SO 2-
4 (b) VO -2 (c) MnO 2-
4 (d) Cr 2O 72-
72. Which compound is formed when iron reacts with carbon?
(a) FeC 2 (b) Fe 3C (c) FeC 3 (d) Fe 2C
73. Which of the following compound can produce Riemann’s green with Co(NO 3 ) 2 solution?
(a) ZnO (b) 3Zn(OH) 2 × ZnCO 3
(c) ZnSO 4 (d) All of these
74. Which of the following electronic configuration is associated with the highest stable oxidation
state?
(a) [Ar] 3 d 1 4 s 2 (b) [Ar ] 3 d 5 4 s1
(c) [Ar ] 3 d 5 4 s 2 (d) [Ar ] 3 d 6 4 s 2
75. A blood red colour is obtained when ferric chloride solution reacts with :
(a) KCN (b) KSCN (c) K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] (d) K 3[Fe(CN) 6 ]
76. Metal-metal bonding is more frequent in 4d or 5d series than in 3d series due to :
(a) their greater enthalpies of atomisation
(b) the large size of the orbitals which participates in the metal-metal bond formation
(c) their ability to involve both ns and (n - 1) d electrons in the bond formation
(d) the comparable size of 4d and 5d series elements
77. The maximum and minimum m.p. of I st transition and 2 nd transition series respectively are
obtained with :
(a) Cr and Zn (b) Cr and Cd (c) Cr and Hg (d) Mo and Cd
78. When an aqueous solution of copper (II) sulphate is saturated with ammonia, the blue
compound crystallises on evaporation. The formula of this blue compound is :
(a) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]SO 4 × H 2O (square planar) (b) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]SO 4 (Tetrahedral)
(c) [Cu(NH 3 ) 6 ]SO 4 (Octahedral) (d) [Cu(SO 4 )(NH 3 ) 5 ] (Octahedral)
79. In the extraction of copper, metal is formed in the Bessemer converter due to the reaction :
(a) 2Cu 2O ¾® 4Cu+ O 2 (b) 2CuO + CuS ¾® 3Cu+ SO 2
(c) Cu 2S+ 2Cu 2O ¾® 6Cu+ SO 2 (d) Fe + Cu 2O ¾® FeO + 2Cu
80. The compound in which nickel has the lowest oxidation state is :
(a) Ni(CO) 4 (b) (CH 3COO) 2 Ni (c) NiO (d) NiCl 2(PPh 3 ) 2
81. A metal M which is not affected by strong acids like conc. HNO 3 , conc. H 2SO 4 and conc.
solution of alkalies like NaOH, KOH forms MCl 3 , which finds use for tanning in photography?
The metal M is :
(a) Ag (b) Hg (c) Au (d) Cu
82. Copper (II) ions gives reddish brown precipitate with potassium ferrocyanide. The formula of
the precipitate is :
(a) Cu 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] (b) Cu 2[Fe(CN) 6 ]
(c) Cu 3[Fe(CN) 6 ] (d) Cu 3[Fe(CN) 6 ]2
 444 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

83. Which of the following electronic configuration would be associated with the highest magnetic
moment?
(a) [Ar ] 3 d 8 (b) [Ar ] 3 d 3 (c) [Ar ] 3 d 6 (d) [Ar ] 3 d 7
84. The correct statement about iron includes
(I) the highest oxidation state of iron is +6 in K 2FeO 4
(II) that the iron shows +2 oxidation state with six electrons in the 3d orbitals
(III) the common oxidation state of iron is +3 with five unpaired electrons in the 3d orbital
(a) I, II, III (b) I, II (c) II, III (d) I only
85. Many transition metals form interstitial compounds. The characteristics of these interstitial
compounds are :
(I) They have high melting points, higher than those of pure metals
(II) They are very hard
(III) They retain metallic conductivity
(IV) They are chemically more reactive than the pure metals
(a) I, II, III (b) I, III (c) II, IV (d) IV only
86. Technetium, the element below manganese in the Periodic Table, would be expected to have
high values for its :
(I) melting point (II) boiling point (III) density
(a) I, II, III (b) I, II
(c) II, III (d) I only
87. All Zn(+II) compounds are white because :
(a) Zn 2+ has a d 10 configuration and the d-subshell is full
(b) Zn 2+ shows d-d transition
(c) Zn 2+ has no electron in the 4s-subshell
(d) Zn is not a transition element
88. Identify the wrong statement regarding copper sulphate :
(a) It reacts with KI to give I 2
(b) It reacts with KCl to give Cl 2
(c) It’s tartarate complex reacts with NaOH and glucose to give Cu 2O
(d) It gives CuO on strong heating in air
89. The transition metals exhibit higher enthalpies of atomisation due to :
(a) their ability to show variable oxidation states
(b) the presence of incompletely filled d-subshell
(c) their ability to exist in the solid state with unpaired electrons
(d) strong interatomic interaction aries because of having large number of unpaired electrons
in their atoms
90. Which of the following statements are correct about Zn, Cd and Hg?
(I) they exhibit high enthalpies of atomisation as the d-subshell is full
(II) Zn and Cd do not show variable oxidation states while Hg shows +I and +II
(III) Compound of Zn, Cd and Hg are paramagnetic in nature
(IV) Zn, Cd and Hg are called soft metals
(a) I, II, III (b) I, III (c) II, IV (d) IV only
d-Block Elements 445
91. When mercury (II) chloride is treated with excess of stannous chloride, the products obtained
are :
(a) liquid Hg and SnCl 4 (b) Hg 2Cl 2 and SnCl 4
2-
(c) Hg 2Cl 2 and [SnCl 4 ] (d) Liquid Hg and [SnCl 4 ]2-
92. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the transition elements in the series from
scandium to zinc?
(a) The formation of coloured cations
(b) The presence of at least one unpaired electron in a d-orbital of a cation
(c) The ability to form complex ions
(d) The possession of an oxidation state of +1
93. Spiegeleisen is an alloy of :
(a) Cu + Zn + Ni (b) Ni + Cr (c) Mn + Fe + C (d) Fe + Cr + Ni
94. The treatment of zinc with very dilute nitric acid produces :
(a) NO (b) N 2O (c) NO 2 (d) NH +4
95. Sodium chromate, Na 2CrO 4 is made commercially by :
(a) heating mixture of Cr 2O 3 and Na 2CO 3
(b) heating mixture of chromite ore and sodium carbonate in the presence of oxygen
(c) heating sodium dichromate with sodium carbonate
(d) reacting NaOH with chromic acid
96. Anhydrous mercurous chloride can be prepared by :
(a) the reduction of HgCl 2 with SnCl 2 solution
(b) the reaction of HgCl 2 with Hg
(c) the reaction of Hg with excess amount of Cl 2
(d) the reaction of Hg with concentrated HCl
97. When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to an aqueous solution of chromium (III) ions, a
green blue precipitate is first formed which re-dissolves to give a green solution. This green
colour is due to :
(a) [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (b) CrO 2-
4
(c) [Cr(OH) 4 ]- (d) [Cr(OH) 3(H 2O) 3 ]
98. HgCl 2 is a covalent compound, sparingly soluble in water, the solubility increases by the
addition of chloride ions due to :
(a) common ion effect (b) formation of complex [HgCl 4 ]2-
(c) weakening of Hg—Cl bonds (d) strong ion–dipole forces
2- 3- 2-
99. Amongst TiF6 , CoF6 , Cu 2Cl 2 and NiCl 4 the colourless species are :
(a) CoF63- and NiCl 2-
4 (b) TiF62- and CoF63-
(c) Cu 2Cl 2 and NiCl 2-
4 (d) TiF62- and Cu 2Cl 2
100. Which of the following complex ion has a magnetic moment same as [Cr(H 2O) 6 ]3+ ?
(a) [Mn(H 2O) 6 ]4+ (b) [Mn(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (c) [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]3+ (d) [Cu(H 3N) 4 ]2+
101. Silver nitrate solution is kept in brown bottles in laboratory because :
(a) it reacts with ordinary white bottles
 446 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(b) brown bottles cut the passage of light through

(c) brown bottles do not react with it
(d) ordinary bottles catalyse its decomposition
102. Copper is very slowly oxidised on the surface in moist air, giving a green coating of verdigris is:
(a) Cu 2O (b) CuCO 3
(c) Cu(CH 3COO) 2 × Cu(OH) 2 (d) CuSO 4
103. Fe(OH) 2 is precipitated from Fe(II) solutions as a while solid but turns dark green and then
brown due to the formation of :
(a) Fe(OH) 2 and Fe(OH) 3 (b) only Fe(OH) 3
(c) Fe 2O 3 × (H 2O) n (d) Fe 2O 3 × 2H 2O
104. Pure O 2 instead of air is used to oxidise the pig iron because :
(a) Molten metal took up small amount of nitrogen which makes the steel brittle
(b) Air is not as efficient to oxidise all the impurities to their respective oxides
(c) Air contains moisture and will precipitate iron as Fe 2O 3
(d) Iron reacts with air to form FeCO 3
105. Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and
F if it is false.
(I) Sulphide ions reacts with Na 2[Fe(CN) 5(NO)] to form a purple coloured compound
Na 4 [Fe(CN) 5(NOS)]. In the reaction, the oxidation state of iron changes
(II) Pt(IV) compounds are relatively more stable than NI(IV) compounds
(III) The welding of magnesium can be done in the atmosphere of Helium
(IV) LiAlH 4 on hydrolysis will give H 2
(a) FFTT (b) FTTT (c) TFTF (d) TFTT
heat
106. ( X )+ K 2CO 3 + Air ¾¾® (Y )
(Y )+ Cl 2 ¾® ( Z ) Pink
Which of the following is correct ?
(a) X = black, MnO 2 , Y = Blue, K 2CrO 4 , Z = KMnO 4
(b) X = green, Cr 2O 3 , Y = Yellow, K 2CrO 4 , Z = K 2Cr 2O 7
(c) X = black, MnO 2 , Y = green, K 2MnO 4 , Z = KMnO 4
(d) X = black; Bi 2O 3 , Y = colourless KBiO 2 , Z = KBiO 3
107. Sodium thiosulphate, Na 2S 2O 3 × 5H 2O is used in photography to :
(a) Reduce the silver bromide to metallic silver
(b) Convert the metallic silver to silver salt
(c) remove undecomposed AgBr as soluble silver thiosulphate complex
(d) remove reduced silver
108. The advantage(s) of using O 2 rather than air in the steel industry is(are)
(I) there is a faster conversion, so a given plant can produce more steel in a day
(II) larger quantities can be handled
(III) it gives a pure product, and the surface is free from nitrides
(a) I only (b) II and III only
(c) II only (d) I, II and III
d-Block Elements 447
109. When AgNO 3 comes in contact with skin, it leaves a black stain. This is because of :
(a) HNO 3 produced by hydrolysis of AgNO 3
(b) AgOH produced by hydrolysis of AgNO 3
(c) Its reduction of silver
(d) Its oxidation to silver oxide
110. The aqueous solution of copper(II) sulphate is slowly hydrolysed forming basic copper
sulphate whose chemical composition is :
(a) CuSO 4 × Cu(OH) 2 (b) CuSO 4 × CuO
(c) CuSO 4 × Cu(OH) 2 × CuO (d) [Cu(H 2O) 4 ]SO 4 × H 2O
111. Passivity of iron is due to formation of :
(a) Fe 2O 3 (b) Fe 3O 4
(c) FeSO 4 (d) None of these
112. Zinc carbonate is precipitated from zinc sulphate solution by the addition of :
(a) Na 2CO 3 (b) CaCO 3
(c) MgCO 3 (d) NaHCO 3
113. Mark the correct statements :
(a) Hg forms an amalgam with iron
(b) Hg vapour is non-poisonous
(c) Hg is mono atomic and monovalent in mercurous compound
(d) Oxysalts of mercury are thermally unstable
114. Mercury is the only metal which is liquid at 0°C. This is due to its :
(a) Very high ionisation energy and weak metallic bond
(b) Low ionisation potential
(c) High atomic weight
(d) High vapour pressure
115. A white precipitate of AgCl dissolves in excess of :
(I) NH 3( aq) (II) Na 2S 2O 3 (III) NaCN
(a) III only (b) I, II, III
(c) I, II (d) I only
116. In context of the lanthanoids, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Availability of 4 f electrons results in the formation of compounds in +4 state for all the
members of the series
(b) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with increasing atomic number in
the series
(c) All the members exhibit +3 oxidation state
(d) Because of similar properties the separation of lanthanoids is not easy
117. Properties common to the elements manganese, iron, cobalt, nickel and copper include the
ready formation by them all of :
(I) coloured ions in aqueous solution
(II) oxides of nitrogen are formed on reaction with concentrated HNO 3
(III) chlorides of formula MCl 2 and MCl 3
(a) I, II, III (b) I, II (c) II, III (d) I only
 448 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

118. Which of the following process is not associated with steel making?
(a) Bessemer process (b) Open-Hearth process
(c) Kaldo process (d) Auto-oxidation
119. Oxygen in absorbed by molten Ag, which is evolved on cooling and the silver particles are
scattered, this phenomenon is known as :
(a) silvering of mirror (b) spitting of silver
(c) frosting of silver (d) hairing of silver
120. Which of the following statements regarding copper salts is not true?
(a) Copper (I) disproportionates to copper and copper (II) ion in aqueous solution
(b) Copper (I) can be stablised by the formation of insoluble complex compounds such as
CuCl -2 and Cu(CN) -2
(c) Copper (II) oxide is red powder
(d) The water of crystallization of copper sulphate is five
121. Zinc (II) ion on reaction with NaOH first give a white precipitate which dissolves in excess of
NaOH due to the formation of :
(a) ZnO (b) Zn(OH) 2
2-
(c) [Zn(OH) 4 ] (d) [Zn(H 2O) 4 ]2+
122. The conversion of pig iron to steel frequently requires the addition of :
(I) oxygen or iron oxide (II) transition elements
(III) inner transition elements (IV) silica
(a) I, II, III (b) I, II
(c) II, III (d) I only
123. Dilute nitric acid on reaction with silver liberates :
(a) NO gas (b) NO 2 gas
(c) N 2 gas (d) O 2 gas
124. Which of the following double salt does not exist?
(a) (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 × CuSO 4 × 6H 2O (b) (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 × FeSO 4 × 6H 2O
(c) (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 × ZnSO 4 × 6H 2O (d) (NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 × NiSO 4 × 6H 2O
125. When steam is passed over red hot iron, the substances formed are :
(a) Fe 2O 3 + H 2 (b) H 2 + FeO
(c) Fe 3O 4 + H 2 (d) Fe 3O 4 + H 2O
126. The oxoanion which contains all equivalent M—O bond is :
(I) CrO 2-
4 (II) MnO -4 (III) Cr 2O 72-
(a) III only (b) I, II, III
(c) I, II (d) I only
127. In the extraction of silver by Mac-Arther cyanide process, a small amount of KNO 3 is also
added as a flux. The function of KNO 3 is :
(a) to oxidise Ag in the native form to Ag +
(b) to oxidise lead and zinc impurities
(c) to form a complex with Ag + which is then reduced to metallic silver by using zinc
(d) to oxidise the sulphur in the argentite ore to SO 2 which escapes from the reaction
d-Block Elements 449
Fusion H+ H 2O 2 / H +
128. FeCr 2O 4 + Na 2CO 3 + O 2 ¾¾¾® [ X ] ¾¾¾® [Y ] ¾¾¾¾® [Z ]
H 2O

Which of the following statement is true for the compounds [X], [Y] and [Z] ?
(a) In all three compounds, the chromium is in +6 oxidation state
(b) [Z] is a deep blue-violet coloured compound which decomposes rapidly in aqueous
solution into Cr 3+ and dioxygen
(c) Saturated solution of [Y ] gives bright orange compound, chromic anhydride, with
concentrated H 2SO 4
(d) All of these
129. CuSO 4(aq.) ¾ H¾
2S ­
¾® M ¯ ¾ Excess
¾¾® N + O
of KCN

Then final products N and O are respectively :

(a) [Cu(CN) 4 ]3- , (CN) 2 (b) CuCN, (CN) 2
(c) [Cu(CN) 4 ]2- , (CN) 2 (d) Cu(CN) 2 , K 2S
130. Consider the following transformation :

2CuX 2 ¾ Room
¾ ¾temperature
¾¾¾ ¾® 2CuX + X 2 ­
Then X - can be :
(a) F - , Br - (b) Cl - , Br -
(c) CN - , I - (d) Cl - , F -
131. Acidified permanganate solution does not oxidize :
(a) C 2O 2-
4 ( aq.) (b) NO -3 ( aq.)
(c) S 2- ( aq.) (d) F - ( aq.)
132. Which of the following solid salt on heating with solid K 2Cr 2O 7 and conc. H 2SO 4 orange red
vapours are evolved which turn aquous NaOH solution yellow ?
(a) NaBr (b) NaCl
(c) NaNO 3 (d) NaI
(x) (y)
133. MnO4– ¾¾¾® Mn2+ ¾¾¾® Mn4+

(z)
¾¾¾® MnO2
For above reaction x, y, z are respectively :
(a) H 2O 2 / H + , H 2O 2 / OH - , H 2O 2 / OH -
(b) H 2O 2 / OH - , H 2O 2 / OH - , H 2O 2 / H +
(c) H 2O 2 / OH - , H 2O 2 / H + , H 2O 2 / H +
(d) H 2O 2 / H + , H 2O 2 / H + , H 2O 2 / OH -
134. KMnO 4 + HCl ¾® H 2O + X ( g); X is a :
(Acidified)
(a) red liquid (b) violet gas
(c) greenish yellow gas (d) yellow-brown gas
 450 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

135. Which of the following graph is correct representation between atomic no.(z) and magnetic
moment of d-block elements. (Outer electronic configuration : (n - 1) d x ns1 or 2 )
Magnetic

Magnetic
moment

moment
(a) (b)

z z
Magnetic

Magnetic
moment

moment
(c) (d)

z z
136. Which of the following element is transition metal?
(a) Pt (b) Zn
(c) Hg (d) Cd
d-Block Elements 451

Level 2
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
These questions consists of two statements each, printed as assertion and reason, while
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following responses.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but the reason is true.
(E) Both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion : Melting point of Mn is more than that of Fe.
Reason : Mn has higher number of unpaired e - than Fe in atomic state.
2. Assertion : Cu+ 2+ 3+ 2+
( aq.) is less stable than Cu ( aq.) but Fe ( aq.) is more stable than Fe ( aq.) .

Reason : Half filled and completely filled subshells are more stable.
3. Assertion : Zn gives H 2 gas with dil. HCl and also with dil. H 2SO 4 .
Reason : NO -3 ion is reduced in preference to hydronium ion.
4. Assertion : KMnO 4 has different equivalent weights in acid, neutral or alkaline medium.
Reason : In different medium, change in oxidation number shown by manganese is
altogether different.
5. Assertion : Cu (2+aq.) is more stable than Cu (+aq.) .
Reason : Electrode potential is more important in determining stable oxidation state
than electronic configuration.
6. Assertion : Concentrated aqueous solution of CuCl 2 is green in colour.
Reason : The solution contains two complex ions i.e., [Cu(H 2O) 4 ]2+ and [CuCl 4 ]2- in
equilibrium.
7. Assertion : KMnO 4 is purple in colour due to charge transfer.
Reason : There is no electron present in d-orbitals of manganese in MnO -4 .
8. Assertion : CrO 3 reacts with HCl to form chromyl chloride gas.
Reason : Chromyl chloride (CrO 2Cl 2 ) has tetrahedral shape.
9. Assertion : Hg is the only metal which is liquid at 0°C.
Reason : It has very high I.P. and weak metallic bond.
10. Assertion : CuSO 4 × 5H 2O and FeSO 4 × 7H 2O are blue and green colour compounds
respectively.
Reason : Both compounds have their specific colour due to phenomenon of
polarisation of anion.
 452 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

11. Assertion : FeSO 4 and Fe 2(SO 4 ) 3 undergo intramolecular redox reaction on thermal
decomposition.
Reason : Both salts give brown solid of Fe 2O 3 after decomposition.
12. Assertion : Zn(OH) 2 is dissolved in both NH 4 OH and NaOH solution.
Reason : Both NaOH and NH 4 OH being basic can dissolve amphoteric Zn(OH) 2 .
13. Assertion : Increasing order of covalent character among given compounds is
HgCl 2 < CdCl 2 < ZnCl 2 .
Reason : Order of size of cations is Zn 2+ < Cd 2+ < Hg 2+ .
14. Assertion : AgNO 3 reacts with KCN to form white ppt. of AgCN. This white ppt.
disappears when excess KCN is added.
Reason : AgCN decomposes to form silver-carbide and evolve N 2 gas.
15. Assertion : Zero and negative oxidation state of d-block metal ion are not possible in their
complex compound.
Reason : Low oxidation state of metal ions are found when a complex compound has
ligands capable of p-acceptor character in addition to the s-bonding.
16. Assertion : Aquated copper (I) cation undergoes disproportionation as :
2Cu (+aq.) ® Cu (2+
aq.) + Cu

Reason : Hydration energy of Cu 2+ is higher than that of Cu+ which compensates

second ionisation energy of Cu.
17. Assertion : The spin only magnetic moment of Sc 3+ is 1.73 BM.
Reason : The spin only magnetic moment (in BM) of an ion is equal to n(n + 2),
where, n is the number of unpaired electrons present in the ion.
(EAMCET 2005)
18. Assertion : Mercury vapour is shining silvery in appearance.
Reason : Mercury is a metal with shining silvery appearance. (AIIMS 2007)
19. Assertion : Solution of Na 2CrO 4 in water is intensely coloured.
Reason : Oxidation state of Cr in Na 2CrO 4 is ( + VI). (AIIMS 2013)
d-Block Elements 453

Level 3
1. Arrange the following in order of their increasing thermal conductivity : (AFMC 2000)
(a) Al, Ag, Cu (b) Cu, Ag, Al
(c) Ag, Cu, Al (d) Al, Cu, Ag
2. Of the following transition metals, the maximum number of oxidation states are exhibited by :
[CBSE (PMT) 2000]
(a) manganese (Z = 25) (b) iron (Z = 26)
(c) titanium (Z = 22) (d) chromium (Z = 24)
3. The basic character of the transition metal monoxide follows the order :
[CBSE (Med.) 2003]
(a) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO (b) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
(c) TiO > FeO > VO > FrO (d) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO
2–
4. MnO 4 (1 mole) in neutral aq. medium disproportionates to: (AIIMS 2003)
(a) 2/3 mole of MnO –4 and 1/3 mole of MnO 2
(b) 1/3 mole of MnO –4 and 2/3 mole of MnO 2
(c) 1/3 mole of Mn 2O 7 and 1/3 mole of MnO 2
(d) 2/3 mole of Mn 2O 7 and 1/3 mole of MnO 2
5. The colourless species is : (AIIMS 2003)
(a) VCl 3 (b) VOSO 4
(c) Na 3 VO 4 (d) [V(H 2O) 6 SO 4 ] × H 2O
6. For decolorisation of 1 mole of KMnO 4 , the moles of H 2O 2 required is : (AIIMS 2004)
(a) 1/2 (b) 3/2 (c) 5/2 (d) 7/2
7. Among the following series of transition metal ions, the one where all metal ions have 3 d 2
electronic configuration is (At. nos. Ti = 22; V = 23; Cr = 24; Mn = 25) (CBSE PMT 2004)
(a) Ti 3+ , V 2+ , Cr 3+ , Mn 4 + (b) Ti + , V 4+ , Cr 6 + , Mn 7 +
(c) Ti 4+ , V 3+ , Cr 2+ , Mn 3+ (d) Ti 2+ , V 3+ , Cr 4+ , Mn 5+
8. Among the following pairs of ions, the lower oxidation state in aqueous solution is more stable
than the other, in : (AIIMS 2005)
+ 3+ + 2+
(a) Tl , Tl (b) Cu , Cu
(c) Cr 2+ , Cr 3+ (d) V 2+ , VO 2+
9. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic
numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionisation enthalpy ?
[CBSE (PMT) 2005]
(a) vanadium (Z = 23) (b) manganese (Z = 25)
(c) chromium (Z = 24) (d) iron (Z = 26)
10. Which of the following is not an actinide ? (DPMT 2005)
(a) curium (b) californium
(c) uranium (d) turbium
 454 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

11. In which of the following pairs are both the ions coloured in aqueous solution ?
[CBSE (PMT) 2006]
3+ 2+ 2+ +
(a) Sc , Co (b) Ni , Cu
(c) Ni 2+ , Ti 3+ (d) Sc 3+ , Ti 3+
(At.no. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27).
12. Which of the following compounds is coloured? (AIIMS 2008)
(a) TiCl 3 (b) FeCl 3
(c) CoCl 2 (d) All of these
13. What is the correct order of spin only magnetic moment (in BM) of Mn 2+ , Cr 2+ and Ti 2+ ?
(AFMC 2008)
2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
(a) Mn > Ti > Cr (b) Ti > Cr > Mn
(c) Mn 2+ > Cr 2+ > Ti 2+ (d) Cr 2+ > Ti 2+ > Mn 2+
14. Which of the following pairs of transition metal ions are the stronger oxidising agents in
aqueous solutions? (Kerala CEE 2008)
2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
(a) V and Cr (b) Ti and Cr
(c) Mn 3+ and Co 3+ (d) V 2+ and Fe 2+
(e) Ni 2+ and Fe 2+
15. Transition metals show paramagnetic behaviour. This is because of their : (AFMC 2009)
(a) high lattice energy (b) variable oxidation state
(c) characteristic configuration (d) unpaired electrons
16. Which compound is expected to be coloured? (UP CPMT 2009)
(a) CuCl (b) CuF2
(c) Ag 2SO 4 (d) MgF2
17. The maximum oxidation state shown by Mn in its compounds is : (Kerala CEE 2009)
(a) + 4 (b) + 5 (c) + 6 (d) + 7
(e) + 8
18. The ion of least magnetic moment among the following is : (J & K CET 2009)
(a) Ti 3+ (b) Ni 2+ (c) Co 2+ (d) Mn 2+
19. The amphoteric oxide among the following is : (J & K CET 2009)
(a) Cr 2O 3 (b) Mn 2O 7
(c) V 2O 3 (d) CrO
20. The magnetic moment of a transition metal ion is 15 BM. Therefore, the number of unpaired
electrons present in it is : (Karnataka CET 2009)
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
21. Which one of the following sets correctly represent the increase in the paramagnetic property
of the ions? (EAMCET 2009)
(a) Cu 2+ < V 2+ < Cr 2+ < Mn 2+ (b) Cu 2+ < Cr 2+ < V 2+ < Mn 2+
(c) Cu 2+ > V 2+ > Cr 2+ > Mn 2+ (d) V 2+ < Cu 2+ < Cr 2+ < Mn 2+
22. For which of the following pairs, magnetic moment is same? (AIIMS 2009)
(a) MnCl 2 , CuSO 4 (b) CuCl 2 , TiCl 3
(c) TiO 2 , CuSO 4 (d) TiCl 3 , NiCl 2
d-Block Elements 455
23. The solid product formed on heating AgNO 3 strongly to 980 K is : (Kerala CEE 2009)
(a) silver carbonate (b) silver nitride
(c) silver oxide (d) silver metal
(e) silver nitrite
24. How many moles of iodine are liberated when 1 mole of potassium dichromate reacts with
potassium iodide? (AFMC 2010)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
25. In chromite ore, the oxidation number of iron and chromium are respectively :
[Karnataka (CET) 2010]
(a) +3 , + 2 (b) +3 , + 6
(c) + 2 , + 6 (d) + 2 , + 3
26. Among the oxides, Mn 2O 7 (I), V 2O 3 (II), V 2O 5 (III), CrO(IV) and Cr 2O 3 (V), the basic oxides
are : [Kerala (PMT) 2010]
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) III and IV (d) II and IV
(e) III and V
27. Which one of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar ] 3 d 6 ? (CBSE PMT 2010)
(a) Ni 3+ (b) Mn 3+
3+
(c) Fe (d) Co 3+
(At. Nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
28. Which of the following transition metal ions is not coloured? (AFMC 2010)
(a) Cu + (b) V 3+ (c) Co 2+ (d) Ni 2+
29. Maximum number of unpaired electrons are present in : (UP CPMT 2010)
(a) Fe 2+ (b) Mn 2+ (c) Cu + (d) Cr 2+
30. Which of the following statements concerning transition elements is false?
(Manipal 2010)
(a) They are all metals
(b) They easily form complex coordination compounds
(c) They form compounds containing unpaired electrons and their ions are mostly coloured
(d) They show multiple oxidation states always differing by units of two
31. Which of the following has maximum unpaired d-electrons? (RPMT 2010)
(a) Zn 2+ (b) Fe 2+ (c) Ni 2+ (d) Cu +
32. The colour of zinc sulphide is : (MP PMT 2010)
(a) white (b) black
(c) brown (d) red
33. The formula of mercurous ion is : (MP PMT 2010)
(a) Hg + (b) Hg +2
(c) Hg 2+
2 (d) None of these
34. Which of the following is magnetite? (VMMC 2010)
(a) Fe 2CO 3 (b) Fe 2O 3
(c) Fe 3O 4 (d) Fe 2O 3 × 3 H 2O
 456 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

35. Choose the correct reaction to prepare mercurous chloride (calomel). (Guj CET 2010)
D
(a) HgCl 2 + Hg ¾¾ ® (b) Hg + Cl 2 ¾®
(c) HgCl 2 + SnCl 2 ¾® (d) Both options (a) and (c)
36. The transition metal that has ‘spin only’ magnetic moment value of 5.96 is :
[J&K (CET) 2011]
(a) Mn 2+ (b) Fe 2+ (c) V 2+ (d) Cu 2+
37. The titanium (atomic number 22) compound that does not exist is : [Kerala (PMT) 2011]
(a) TiO (b) TiO 2
(c) K 2TiF6 (d) TiCl 2
(e) K 2TiO 4
38. The bonds present in the structure of dichromate ion are : [Kerala (PET) 2011]
(a) four equivalent Cr — O bonds only
(b) six equivalent Cr — O bonds and one O — O bond
(c) six equivalent Cr — O bonds and one Cr — Cr bond
(d) eight equivalent Cr—O bonds
(e) six equivalent Cr—O bonds and one Cr—O—Cr bond
39. The acidic, basic or amphoteric nature of Mn 2O 7 , V 2O 5 and CrO are respectively :
[Kerala (PMT) 2011]
(a) acidic, acidic and basic (b) basic, amphoteric and acidic
(c) acidic, amphoteric and basic (d) acidic, basic and amphoteric
(e) acidic, basic and basic
40. In a volume ric experiment, it was found that a solution of KMnO 4 is reduced to MnSO 4 . If the
normality of the solution is 1.0 N, then molarity of the solution will be : [J&K (CET) 2011]
(a) 0.5 M (b) 0.2 M
(c) 1.0 M (d) 0.4 M
41. Which of the following species is/are paramagnetic? (Kerala CEE 2011)
(a) Only Fe 2+ (b) Zn 0 and Ti 4 +
(c) Fe 2+ and Hg 2+ (d) Zn 0 and Hg 2+
(e) Fe 2+ and Ti 4 +
42. Ammonia will not form complex with : (Kerala CEE 2011)
(a) Ag 2+ (b) Pb 2+
(c) Cu 2+ (d) Cd 2+
2+
(e) Fe
43. The spin only magnetic moment of Fe 3+ ion (in BM) is approximately :
(Karnataka CET 2011)
(a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 6
44. Copper exhibits only + 2 oxidation state in its stable compounds. Why? (Guj CET 2011)
(a) Copper is transition metal in + 2 state
(b) + 2 state compounds of copper are formed by exothermic reactions
(c) Electron configuration of copper in + 2 state is
(d) Copper gives coloured compounds in + 2 state
d-Block Elements 457
45. Experimental value of magnetic moment of Mn 2+ complex is 5.96 BM. This indicates :
(Guj CET 2011)
(a) axial and orbital motion of electron in same direction
(b) axial and orbital motion of electron in opposite direction
(c) electron does not exhibit orbital motion, it only exhibits axial motion
(d) electron does not exhibit axial motion, it only exhibits orbital motion
46. For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of + 2 oxidation
state will be there in which of the following order? (AIPMT 2011)
(a) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
(b) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr
(c) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
(d) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe
47. Acidified K 2Cr 2O 7 solution turns green when Na 2SO 3 is added to it. This is due to the
formation of : (AIPMT 2011)
(a) CrSO 4 (b) Cr 2(SO 4 ) 3
(c) CrO 2-
4 (d) Cr 2(SO 3 ) 3
48. Which is the correct statement about Cr 2O 72- structure? (DUMET 2011)
(a) It has neither Cr — Cr bonds nor O — O bonds
(b) It has one Cr — Cr bond and six O — O bonds
(c) It has no Cr — Cr bond and has six O — O bonds
(d) It has one Cr — Cr bond and seven Cr — O bonds
49. When dil. H 2SO 4 is added to aqueous solution of potassium chromate, yellow colour of
solution turns to orange colour. It indicates : (Guj CET 2011)
(a) chromate ions are reduced
(b) chromate ions are oxidised
(c) monocentric complex is converted into dicentric complex
(d) oxygen gets removed from chromate ions
50. Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property
indicated against it ? [AIPMT (Mains) 2012]
(a) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : Increasing melting points
(b) Ti < V < Mn < Cr : Increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy
(c) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : Increasing number of oxidation states
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+
(d) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : Increasing magnetic moment
51. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a constituent in it : (AIPMT 2012)
(a) Invar (b) Steel
(c) Bell metal (d) Bronze
52. Which of the statements is not true ? (AIPMT 2012)
(a) On passing H 2S through acidified K 2Cr 2O 7 solution, a milky colour is observed.
(b) Na 2Cr 2O 7 is preferred over K 2Cr 2O 7 in volumetric analysis.
(c) K 2Cr 2O 7 solution in acidic medium is orange.
(d) K 2Cr 2O 7 solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7.
 458 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

53. Four successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below. For which
one of them, the standard potential ( E °M 2+ / M ) value has a positive sign?
(AIPMT (Mains) 2012)
(a) Co ( Z = 27) (b) Ni ( Z = 28)
(c) Cu ( Z = 29) (d) Fe ( Z = 26)
54. Which one of the following has a magnetic moment of 1.75 BM? (Karnataka CET 2012)
(a) V 3+ (b) Cr 3+ (c) Fe 3+ (d) Ti 3+
55. Which of the following exhibit only + 3 oxidation state? (AIPMT 2012 M)
(a) U (b) Th (c) Ac (d) Pa
56. The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between KI and
acidified potassium dichromate solution is : (AIIMS 2012)
(a) + 3 (b) + 2
(c) + 6 (d) + 4
57. When H 2O 2 is shaken with an acidified solution of K 2Cr 2O 7 in the presence of ether, the
ethereal layer turns blue due to the formation of : (WB JEE 2012)
(a) Cr 2O 3 (b) CrO 2-4
(c) Cr 2(SO 3 ) 3 (d) CrO 5
58. Stainless steel contains : (Karnataka CET 2012)
(a) Fe + Cr + Cu (b) Fe + C + Ni
(c) Fe + Cr + Ni (d) Fe + Ni + Cu
59. The catalytic activity of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly to :
[AIPMT (Mains) 2012]
(a) their ability to adopt variable oxidation states
(b) their chemical reactivity
(c) their magnetic behaviour
(d) their unfilled d-orbitals
60. Which of the following exhibits only +3 oxidation state? [AIPMT (Mains) 2012]
(a) Ac (b) Pa
(c) U (d) Th
61. The outer electronic configuration of Gd (At. No. 64) is : (NEET Kar. 2013)
(a) 4 f 4 5d 5 6 s1 (b) 4 f 5 5d 4 6 s1
(c) 4 f 7 5d 1 6 s 2 (d) 4 f 3 5d 5 6 s 2
62. Transition elements does not show : (Manipal 2013)
(a) paramagnetism (b) colour
(c) fixed valency (d) All of these
63. Cuprous ion is colourless while cupric ion is coloured because : (Karnataka CET 2013)
(a) both have half-filled p and d-orbitals
(b) cuprous ion has incomplete d-orbital and cupric ion has a complete d-orbital
(c) both have unpaired electrons in the d-orbitals
(d) cuprous ion has a complete d-orbital and cupric ion has an incomplete d-orbital
d-Block Elements 459
64. The expression for effective magnetic moment (m eff. ) is: [AMU (Med.) 2013]
(a) m eff. = n(n + 2) B.M. (b) m eff. = 2(n + 2) B.M.
(c) m eff. = n(2n + 2) B.M. (d) m eff. = n(n + 1) B.M.
65. The known oxidation states for both V and Co are : [AMU (Med.) 2013]
(a) +2 , + 3 , + 4 , + 5 (b) +2 , + 3 , + 4 , + 5, + 6
(c) + 2 , + 3 , + 4 (d) + 2 , + 3
66. Sc ( Z = 21) is a transition element but Zn ( Z = 30) is not because : (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) both Sc 3+ and Zn 2+ ions are colourless and form white compounds.
(b) in case of Sc, 3d-orbitals are partially filled but in Zn these are completely filled.
(c) last electron is assumed to be added to 4s level in case of Zn.
(d) both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states.
67. Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium. (NEET 2013)
(a) Na 2S > CuS > ZnS (b) Na 2S > ZnS > CuS
(c) CuS > ZnS > Na 2S (d) ZnS > Na 2S > CuS
68. Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect ?
(NEET 2013)
(a) They are much harder than the pure metal.
(b) They have higher melting points than the pure metal.
(c) They retain the metallic conductivity.
(d) They are chemically reactive.
69. The correct one for d-orbital is : (UP CPMT 2013)
1-9 1 1 -10 1 - 2
(a) (n - 1)d ns (b) (n - 1)d ns
(c) (n - 1)d 1 - 5 (d) (n - 1)d 1 -10 ns 2
70. Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating? (NEET 2013)
(a) KClO 3 (b) Zn(ClO 3 ) 2
(c) K 2Cr 2O 7 (d) (NH 4 ) 2 Cr 2O 7
71. KMnO 4 can be prepared from K 2MnO 4 as per the reaction,
3 MnO 24- + 2 H 2O ¾® 2 MnO 4 + MnO 2 + 4 OH -
The reaction can go completion by removing OH - ions by adding : (NEET 2013)
(a) HCl (b) KOH
(c) CO 2 (d) SO 2
72. The number of water molecules in Mohr’s salts. (AIIMS 2013)
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8
73. KMnO 4 can be prepared from K 2MnO 4 as per the reaction :
3 MnO 24- + 2 H 2O 2 MnO 24- + MnO 2 + 4 OH -
The reaction can go to completion by removing OH - ions by adding: (NEET 2013)
(a) KOH (b) CO 2
(c) SO 2 (d) HCl
 460 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

74. Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions ? (AIPMT 2014)
(Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)
(a) Ti 3+ (b) Ni 2+
(c) Cr 3+ (d) Mn 2+
75. The reaction of aqueous KMnO 4 with H 2O 2 in acidic conditions gives : (AIPMT 2014)
(a) Mn 4+ and O 2 (b) Mn 2+ and O 2
(c) Mn 2+ and O 3 (d) Mn 4+ and MnO 2
76. Which one of the following transition metal ions is colourless in aqueous solutions?
(Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) Ti 4 + (b) V 4 +
(c) Mn 2+ (d) Fe 3+
(e) Ni 2+
77. The magnetic moment of Ni 2+ ion (atomic number of Ni = 28) in BM unit is :
(Kerala CEE 2014)
(a) 1.73 (b) 4.81
(c) 5.96 (d) 2.84
(e) 3.86
78. Cupric compounds are more stable than their cuprous counter parts in solid state. This is
because : (WB JEE 2014)
(a) the endothermic characteristics of the 2nd IP of Cu is not so high
(b) size of Cu 2+ is less than Cu +
(c) Cu 2+ has stable electronic configuration as compared to Cu 2+
(d) the lattice energy released for cupric compounds is much higher than Cu +
79. Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified KMnO 4 solution. (NEET 2017)
(a) SO 2 (b) NO 2
(c) P2O 5 (d) CO 2
80. HgCl 2 and I 2 both when dissolved in water containing I - ions, the pair of species formed is:
(NEET 2017)
(a) HgI 2 , I - (b) HgI 2– –
4 , I3
(c) Hg 2I 2 , I - (d) HgI 2 , I –3
81. It is because of inability of ns 2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that:
(NEET 2017)
(a) Sn 2+ is oxidising while Pb 4+ is reducing
(b) Sn 2+ and Pb 2+ are both oxidising and reducing
(c) Sn 4+ is reducing while Pb 4+ is oxidising
(d) Sn 2+ is reducing while Pb 4+ is oxidising
d-Block Elements 461
82. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
Column II and assign the correct code : (NEET 2018)
Column-I Column-II
A. Co 3+ i. 8 B. M.
B. Cr 3+ ii. 35 B. M.
C. Fe 3+ iii. 3 B. M.
2+
D. Ni iv. 24 B. M.
v. 15 B. M.
A B C D
(a) iv v ii i
(b) i ii iii iv
(c) iv i ii iii
(d) iii v i ii
83. Which one is malachite from the following ? (NEET 2019)
(a) CuCO 3 × Cu(OH) 2 (b) CuFeS 2
(c) Cu(OH) 2 (d) Fe 3O 4
 462 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

ANSWERS
Level 1
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d)

11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d)

21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)

31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c)

41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (b,c) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (a)

51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (c)

61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (b,d) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (b)

71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (a)

81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (c)

91. (a) 92. (a,d) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (a)

101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (d) 109. (c) 110. (a)

111. (b) 112. (d) 113. (d) 114. (a) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (b) 118. (d) 119. (b) 120. (c,d)

121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (a) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (a) 130. (c)

131. (b,d) 132. (b) 133. (a) 134. (c) 135. (d) 136. (a)
d-Block Elements 463

Level 2
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (C)

11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (E) 19. (B)

Level 3
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d)

11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d)

21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (d)

31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (e) 39. (c) 40. (b)

41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (a)

51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (a)

61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (d)

71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (a,d) 79. (a) 80. (b)

81. (d) 82. (a) 83. (a)

 464 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Hints and Solutions

: Level 1
1. (a) 2CrO 24- + 2H + ¾® Cr2O72- + H 2O
Cr2O72- + 2OH - ¾® 2CrO 24- + H 2O
19. (c) Among d-block elements
Max M.P. of first transition series = Cr
Min. M.P. of second transition series = Cd
24. (b) MnO -4 + I- + H 2O ¾® 2MnO 2 + IO -3 + 2 OH -
27. (b) Chloroplatinic acid is H 2[PtCl 6 ], which is dibasic.

56. (a) Wilkinson’s catalyst is [RhCl(PPh 3 )3 ], Red-violet in colour and has square planar structure. It is used for
selective hydrogenation of organic molecules at room temperature and pressure.
TiCl 4 + (C 2H 5 )3 Al is Zeigler Natta catalyst.
(C 2H 5 )4 Pb is an anti-knocking agent.
cis-platin is used as an anti-cancer agent]
H S
58. (c) Zn ¾ dil.HNO
¾ ¾¾ 3 2 ¾® Zn(OH)2 ¾ Excess
3 ® Zn(ZO ) ¾ Aq.
¾ ¾ ¾® Na 2[Zn(OH)4 ] ¾¾2® ZnS
(M ) Colourless NaOH White ppt. NaOH Soluble White ppt.
Solution

63. (b) Zn(OH)2 + 2OH - ¾® ZnO 22- + 2H 2O

Acid Base Salt Water

Zn(OH)2 + 2H+ ¾® Zn 2+ + 2H 2O
Base Acid Salt Water

72. (b) Interstitial compound Fe 3C (cementide) is formed.

II II
105. (b) Na 2[Fe(NO)(CN)5] + Na 2S ¾® Na 4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)]

D
106. (c) 2MnO 2 + 2K 2CO 3 + O 2 ¾® 2K 2MnO 4 + 2CO 2 ­
( X) (air) green
(Y )

2K 2 MnO 4 + Cl 2 ¾® 2KMnO 4 + 2KCl

(Y ) ( Z ) Pink
d-Block Elements 465
129. (a) CuSO 4( aq.) ¾ H¾
¾2 S ® 2CuS ¾ KCN
¾¾® [Cu(CN)4 ]3-+(CN)2­
Black ppt. Excess
(N ) ( O)
(M )

130. (c) Cu(CN)2 and CuI2 being unstable spontaneously decomposes into CuCN ¯ and CuI ¯ respectively at
room temperature.
131. (d) Practically F - ion being very weak R.A. has no reducing property.

132. (b) NaCl( s) +K 2Cr2O7( s) +H 2SO 4(few drops) ¾ Non

¾ ¾-redox
¾¾®
reaction
CrO 2Cl 2 ­ +HO
(orange red vapours)

CrO 2Cl 2 +OH(-aq.) ¾® CrO 24(-aq.) +Cl - +2H 2O

Yellow solution

H2O2/H+ H O /OH–
133. (a) MnO4– ¾¾¾¾¾® Mn2+ ¾¾¾¾¾®
2 2
Mn4+

H2O2/OH–

MnO2

134. (c) KMnO 4 + HCl ¾® H 2O + Cl( g ) + Mn 2+( aq )

Greenish yellow

135. (d) Magnetic moment = n(n + 2 ) BM

N : Number of unpaired e-
As atomic number increases in d-block element number of unpaired e- first increases upto middle then
decreases.
136. (a) Group 12 elements (Zn, Cd, Hg) are d-block elements but not transition element due to their full filled
(n -1) d10ns 2 electronic configuration.

: Level 2
3. (B)Zn + 2HCl ¾® ZnCl 2 + H 2 ­
dil.

Zn + H 2SO 4 ¾® ZnSO 4 + H 2 ­
dil.

4Zn + 10HNO 3 ¾® 4Zn(NO 3 )2 + N 2O + 5H 2O

(dil.)
Acidic medium
Mn2+(colourless)
+7 (R.A.) 2–
Alakaline medium
4. (A) KMnO4 MnO4 (green)
(pink) Neutral medium
MnO2 (brown)

15. (A) In case of p-acceptor ligands (like CO, NO) zero and negative oxidation state of d-block metal ion is
possible due to phenomenon of Synergic bonding.
17. (D) 21 Sc 3 + = 1s 2, 2 s 2 2 p 6 , 3 s 23 p 6
Number of unpaired electrons (n ) = 0
Hence, spin only magnetic moment, i.e.,
m = n(n + 2 ) = 0
18. (E) Mercury vapours are invisible as no metallic bonding is possible in vapour state. So, both A and R are
incorrect.
 466 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

19. (B) In Na 2CrO 4, Cr is in + 6 oxidation state with d0 configuration. The CrO 2-

4 ions in aqueous solution give
yellow colour which is not due to d-d transition but due to charge transfer, i.e., momentary transfer of
charge from O-atom to metal atom there by changing O 2- ion momentarily to O - ion and reducing the
oxidation state of Cr from + 6 to + 5.

: Level 3
4. (a) 3MnO 2– + –
4 + 4H ¾® 2MnO 4+ MnO 2+2H 2O
3 mole 2 mole 1 mole
1 mole 2/ 3 mole 1/ 3 mole

5. (c) In Na 3VO 4 the vanadium is present in +5 oxidation state. In V 5+ the d-orbitals are vacant.
7. (d) The electronic configuration of different species given in the question are :
3+
(a) 22 Ti : 1s 2, 2 s 22 p 6 , 3 s 23 p 6 , 3 d1
+ 2 2 6 2 6 2 1
(b) 22 Ti : 1s , 2 s 2 p , 3 s 3 p , 3 d 4 s
4+
(c) 22 Ti : 1s 2, 2 s 22 p 6 , 3 s 23 p 6
2+
(d) 22 Ti : 1s 2, 2 s 22 p 6 , 3 s 23 p 6 , 3 d2
Thus options (a) and (c) are discarded; now
let us observe the second point of difference.
4+
23 Ti : 1s 2, 2 s 22 p 6 , 3 s 23 p 6 , 3 d1
Thus option (b) is discarded.
3+
23 V : 1s 2, 2 s 22 p 6 , 3 s 23 p 6 , 3 d2
4+
23 Cr : 1s 2, 2 s 22 p 6 , 3 s 23 p 6 , 3 d2
5+
23 Mn : 1s 2, 2 s 22 p 6 , 3 s 23 p 6 , 3 d2
12. (d) The compounds having metal ions with unpaired electrons, are coloured. Thus,
In TiCl 3 , Ti 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d1 (one unpaired electron)
In FeCl 3 , Fe 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d5 (five unpaired electrons)
In CoCl 2, Co 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d7 (three unpaired electrons)
Hence, all compounds are coloured.
13. (c) Spin only magnetic moment depends upon the number of unpaired electrons, more the number of
unpaired electrons, greater will be the spin only magnetic moment.
2 2 6 2 6 5 2
25Mn = 1s , 2 s 2 p , 3 s 3 p 3 d , 4 s
2+ 2 2 6 2 6 5 0
Mn = 1s , 2 s 2 p , 3 s 3 p 3 d , 4 s
3d 5

Number of unpaired electrons = 5

2 2 6 2 6 5 1
24 Cr = 1s , 2 s 2 p , 3 s 3 p 3 d , 4 s
Cr = 1s , 2 s 2 p , 3 s 3 p 3 d , 4 s 0
2+ 2 2 6 2 6 4

3d 4

Number of unpaired electrons = 4

2 2 6 2 6 2 2
22 Ti = 1s , 2 s 2 p , 3 s 3 p 3 d , 4 s
2+ 2 2 6 2 6 2 0
Ti = 1s , 2 s 2 p , 3 s 3 p 3 d , 4 s
d-Block Elements 467
3d 2

Number of unpaired electrons = 2

So, the correct order of spin only magnetic moment is
Mn 2+ > Cr 2+ > Ti 2+
14. (c) The electronic configuration of Mn 3+ and Co 3+ are given below :
Mn 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d4
Co 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d6
Hence, to get stable configuration, they accept electrons (undergoes reduction) and behave as good
oxidising agent in aqueous solution.
15. (d) Magnetic moment, m = n(n + 2 ) BM.
where, n = number of unpaired electrons.
Hence, paramagnetic behaviour of transition metals is due to the presence of unpaired electrons.
16. (b) In CuF2, Cu is present as Cu 2+ .
Cu 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d9 , 4 s 0
Since, in it unpaired electron is present, it is coloured.
17. (d) The electronic configuration of Mn is
Mn(25 ) = [ Ar ] 3 d5, 4 s 2, 4 p 0
In excited state,
3d 4s 4p
Mn(25) =

(seven unpaired electrons)

Hence, maximum oxidation state exhibited by Mn is + 7 which is in KMnO 4.

18. (a)
Metal Configuration Number of Magnetic
ion unpaired moment
electrons
Ti 3+ 3d1 1 1.75
Ni 2+ 3d 8 2 2.76
Co 3+ 3d7 3 3.86
Mn 2+ 3d 5 5 5.96

19. (a) (i) The oxides with lower oxidation states are basic in nature.
(ii) The oxides with intermediate oxidation states are amphoteric.
(iii) The oxides with higher oxidation states are acidic in nature. Thus, Cr2O 3 is an amphoteric oxide.
20. (d) Magnetic moment, m = n(n + 2 )
where, n = number of unpaired electrons
Given, m = 15
\ 15 = n(n + 2 )
Þ 15 = n(n + 2 )
 468 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

This is possible only when n = 3.

21. (a) Paramagnetic property depends upon the number of unpaired electrons. Higher the number of
unpaired electrons, higher will be the paramagnetic property.
Cu 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d9, number of unpaired electron = 1
V 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d3, number of unpaired electrons = 3
Cr 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d4, number of unpaired electrons = 4
Mn 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d5, number of unpaired electrons = 5
Hence, correct order is Cu 2+< V 2+< Cr 2+< Mn 2+ .
22. (b) Species having the same number of unpaired electrons, have same magnetic moment.
(a) MnCl 2 Þ Mn 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d5, 4 s 0
(five unpaired electrons)
CuSO 4 Þ Cu 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d9 , 4 s 0
(one unpaired electron)
(b) CuCl 2 Þ Cu 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d9 , 4 s 0
(one unpaired electron)
TiCl 3 Þ Ti 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d1 , 4 s
(one unpaired electron)
\ CuCl 2 and TiCl 3 have same magnetic moment.

m = 1(1 + 2 ) = 3 =1.73 BM
(c) TiO 2 Þ Ti 4+ = [ Ar ] 3 d0 , 4 s 0
(no unpaired electron)
CuSO 4 Þ Cu = [ Ar ] 3 d9 , 4 s 0
2+

(one unpaired electron)

(d) TiCl 3 Þ Ti 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d1 , 4 s 0
(one unpaired electron)
NiCl 2 Þ Ni = [ Ar ] 3 d8 , 4 s 0
2+

(two unpaired electrons)

23. (d) AgNO 3 when heated above its melting point, i.e., above 212°C, decomposed to give silver nitrite and
oxygen but when heated at high temperature (i.e., 980 K), it gives silver metal (Ag).
> 212°C
2 AgNO 3 ¾ ¾ ¾¾® 2 AgNO 2 + O 2
D

980 K, D
2 Ag ¯ + 2 NO 2 + O 2

24. (c) K 2Cr2O7 +7H 2SO 4 + 6KI ¾® 3I2 + 4K 2SO 4 + Cr2(SO 4 )3 +7H 2O
1 mole 3 mole

25. (d) Chromite ore is FeCr2O 4

Oxidation state of Fe = +2
Oxidation state of Cr = +3
27. (d) Ni 3+ : [ Ar ] 3 d7 Mn 3+ : [ Ar ] 3 d4
3+ 5
Fe : [ Ar ] 3 d Co 3+ : [ Ar ] 3 d6
d-Block Elements 469
28. (a) Presence of unpaired electron is a necessity for transition metal ions to exhibit colour.
The electronic configuration of given transition metal ions are as
+ 10 0
29 Cu = [ Ar ] 3 d , 4 s (no unpaired electron)
So, it does not show any colour.
3+
23 V = [ Ar ] 3 d2, 4 s 0 (two unpaired electrons)
2+ 7 0
27 Co = [ Ar ] 3 d , 4 s (three unpaired electrons)
2+ 8 0
28 Ni = [ Ar ] 3 d , 4 s (two unpaired electrons)
29. (b) The outer electronic configuration of the given elements are as follows,
Fe 2+ = 3 d6 (four unpaired electrons)

Mn 2+ = 3 d5 (five unpaired electrons)

Cu + = 3 d10 (no unpaired electrons)

Cr 3+ = 3 d3 (three unpaired electrons)

2+
Thus, Mn has the maximum number of unpaired electrons.
30. (d) The false statement about transition elements is that they show multiple oxidation states always
differing by units of two, because they show variable oxidation state but not always have a difference of
two units, e.g., Mn exhibit oxidation state from + 1 to + 7.
31. (b)

Ion Outermost Orbital Number of

electronic diagram unpaired
configuration electrons
Zn 2+ 3 d 10 0

Fe 2+ 3d 6 4

Ni 2+ 3d 8 2

Cu + 3 d 10 0

Hence, Fe 2+ ion has maximum number of unpaired electrons.

32. (a) ZnS is white to yellow coloured powder or crystal. Because Zn has + 2 state in ZnS in which all d-orbitals
are completely filled.
33. (c) The formula of mercurous ion is Hg 2+ 2 .
34. (c) Fe 3O 4 (lead stone or magnetic oxide of iron) is called magnetite. It is a mixed oxide and thus, known as
ferrosoferric oxide.
35. (d) Mercurous chloride (calomel) is prepared by heating HgCl 2 and Hg in iron vessel.
D
HgCl 2 + Hg ¾¾ ® Hg 2Cl 2
It can also be prepared by the reduction of mercury (II) chloride by tin (II) chloride in a limited
quantity.
36. (a) m = n(n + 2 )
or 5.86 = n(n + 2 ) or n = 5
 470 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

only Mn 2+ ion has 5 unpaired electrons.

37. (e) In K 2TiO 4 , oxidation state of titanium is +6 which is not shown by titanium.
39. (c) With the increase in oxidation state, acidic character of the oxides increases whereas basic character
+7 +5 +3 +2
decreases. Mn 2O7 (acidic), V2O 5 (amphoteric), V2O 3 (basic), CrO (basic).
+7 +2
40. (b) KMnO 4 ¾® MnSO 4
Molecular weight
Eq. wt. =
5
Normality
Molarity =
5
1
= = 0.2
5
41. (a) Species with unpaired electrons are paramagnetic in nature.
Fe 2+ = 3 d6 , 4 s 0 Þ
(four unpaired electrons)
10 2
Zn = 3 d , 4 s Þ
(zero unpaired electron)
Hg 2+ = 5 d10 , 6 s 2 (no unpaired electron)
Ti 4+ = 3 d0 , 4 s 0 (no unpaired electron)
Hence, only Fe 2+ is paramagnetic.
42. (b) Generally, d-block elements form complexes and lead is a p-block element. So, ammonia does not form
complex with Pb 2+ .
43. (d) The electronic configuration of Fe is
6 2
26 Fe = [ Ar ] 3 d 4 s
3+ 5
Fe = [ Ar ] 3 d
Thus, five unpaired electrons are present.
\ Spin only magnetic moment,
m = n(n + 2 )
Here, n =5
m = 5(5 + 2 ) = 35
= 5.91 »6 BM
44. (b) Compounds of copper in + 2 oxidation are more stable than that of + 1 state because lattice enthalpy
released by Cu 2+ compounds is much more negative than that for Cu + compounds. Thus, greater the
lattice enthalpy released more stable is the compound.
Since, release of energy is exothermic process, thus, more stable Cu 2+ compounds are formed by
exothermic process.
45. (a) It shows axial and orbital motion of electrons in the same direction, because it has 5 unpaired electrons
in same spin.
47. (b) K 2Cr2O7 + 3 Na 2SO 3 + 4 H 2SO 4 ¾® 3 Na 2SO 4 + K 2SO 4 + 4 H 2O + Cr2(SO 4 )3
48. (a) The structure of Cr2O72- ion is
O O O
–
Cr Cr O
–
O O O
d-Block Elements 471
Thus, it has no Cr — Cr bonds and no O — O bonds.
49. (c) On acidification of potassium chromate solution, yellow colour changes to orange colour due to
reformation of dichromate. This suggests that monocentric complex, i.e., potassium monochromate
converted into dicentric complex, i.e., potassium dichromate solution.
2 K 2CrO 4 + H 2SO 4 ¾® K 2Cr2O7 + K 2SO 4 + H 2O
Potassium Potassium
chromate dichromate

50. (a) Mn is an exception. Its melting point is lower than that of Cr. Order given in choice (a) is incorrect.
52. (b) Being hygroscopic or deliquescent sodium dichromate, Na 2Cr2O7 cannot be used in volumetric
analysis. So, other statements are true.
53. (c) In electrochemical series, metals with positive standard potential are placed below hydrogen. Out of
given transition metals, only Cu is lower than hydrogen in electrochemical series. Therefore, it must
° 2+ ].
have positive sign for standard potential [ E M /M

54. (d) Magnetic moment, m = n(n + 2 ) BM

where, n = number of unpaired electrons

Ion Outermost Number of Magnetic

electronic unpaired moment, m
configuration electrons (BM)
V 3+ 3d 2 2 2(2 + 2) = 2.82

Cr 3+ 3d 3 3 3(3 + 2) = 3.87

Fe 3+ 3d 5 5 5(5 + 2) = 5.91

Ti 3+ 3d1 1 1(1 + 2) = 1.73

55. (c) Ac(89) = [Rn][6 d1 ][7 s 2]

56. (a) Cr2O72- + 14 H + + 6 I- ¾® 2 Cr 3+ + 7 H 2O + 3I2
Thus, final oxidation state of Cr is + 3.
57. (d) Acidified K 2Cr2O7 solution reacts with H 2O 2 to give a deep blue solution due to the formation of peroxo
compound, CrO(O 2 )2 or CrO 5.
Cr2O72- + 2 H + + 4 H 2O 2 ¾® 2 CrO 5 + 5 H 2O
Note : The blue colour fades away gradually due to the decomposition of CrO 5 into Cr ions and
oxygen.
58. (c) Stainless steel contains Fe + Cr + Ni.
61. (c) Gd [64] = [ Xe] 4 f 7 5 d1 6 s 2
62. (c) Transition elements also shows variable valencies as we know, as far as valency of transition elements
is concerned, it depends only upon stability of metal ions. So, valency varies.
e.g., Fe 2+ , Fe 3+ , Co 2+ , Co 3+ etc.
63. (d) Cuprous ion is colourless while cupric ion is coloured because cuprous ion has a complete d-orbital, i.e.,
3 d10 , 4 s 0 configuration and cupric ion has an incomplete d-orbitals due to 3 d9 , 4 s 0 configuration.
69. (b) The general electronic configuration of d-block elements is (n - 1)d1-10 , ns1- 2 (because the last electron
here enters into penultimate d-orbital).
 472 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

70. (d) All compounds give O 2 on heating except (NH 4 )2Cr2O7 .

D
2 KClO 3 ¾¾ ® 2 KCl + 3 O 2
D
Zn(ClO 3 )2 ¾¾ ® ZnCl 2 + 3 O 2
D
K 2Cr2O7 ¾¾® 2 Cr2O 2 + K 2O + O 2
D
(NH 4 )2Cr2O7 ¾¾ ® Cr2O 3 + N 2 ­ + 4 H 2O
On heating (NH 4 )2Cr2O7 , the products formed are N 2, Cr2O 3 and H 2O. Oxygen is not formed in the
reaction.
71. (c) 3 MnO 24- + 2 H 2O ¾® 2 MnO -4 + MnO 2 + 4 OH -
The reaction can go completion by removing OH - ions by adding CO 2 as it reacts with OH - ions to form
CO 2-
3 ions.
4 OH - + 2 CO 2 ¾® 2 CO 23- + 2 H 2O
72. (c) Mohr’s salt is a double salt.
FeSO 4 ×(NH 4 )2SO 4 × 6 H 2O ¾® Ferrous ammonium sulphate.
It contains six water molecules of crystallisation, which is present here in hydrate form, i.e., 6 H 2O.
73. (b) HCl and SO 2 are reducing agents and can reduce MNO -4. CO 2 which is neither oxidising and nor
reducing will provide only acidic medium. It can shift reaction in forward direction and reaction can go
to completion.
76. (a) Ti 4+ (22 - 4 = 18 ) = [ Ar ]3 d0
(no unpaired electron)
V 4+ (23 - 4 = 19 ) = [ Ar ]3 d1
(one unpaired electron)

Mn 2+ (25 - 2 = 23 ) = [ Ar ]3 d5
(five unpaired electrons)
Fe 3+ (26 - 3 = 23 ) = same as Mn 2+
(five unpaired electrons)

Ni 2+ (28 - 2 = 26 ) = [ Ar ]3 d8
(two unpaired electrons)
4+
Since, Ti does not have any unpaired electron.
So, d-d transition is not possible and hence, its aqueous solution is colourless.
77. (d) Ni 28 = [ Ar ]18 3 d8 , 4 s 2
Ni 2+ = [ Ar ]18 3 d8 , 4 s 0
3d 8

Number of unpaired electrons = 2

Magnetic moment, m = n(n + 2 )
= 2(2 + 2 )
= 8 = 2.84 BM
78. (a,d) Electronic configuration of cuprous (Cu + ) and cupric (Cu 2+ )ions are as follows :
Cu + = [ Ar ] 3 d10 , 4 s 0
Cu 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d9 , 4 s 0
d-Block Elements 473
It seems to be that electronic configuration of Cu + is more stable but it is less stable than Cu 2+ because
due to the small size of Cu 2+ ions, its nuclear charge is sufficient to hold 27 electrons but in Cu + such a
condition is not true.
Further, II ionisation potential of copper is large but lattice energy released for Cu 2+ compounds is
much more negative than that for Cu + compounds and hence, it more than compensates for the second
ionisation potential of copper. Thus, both the options (a) and (d) are correct.
79. (a) SO 2 readily decolourises pink violet colour of acidified KMnO 4 solution.
2KMnO 4 + 5SO 2 + 2H 2O ¾¾® K 2SO 4 + 2MnSO 4 + 2H 2SO 4
(Pink violet) (Colourless)

80. (b) HgCl 2 + 4I(-aq) ¾¾® HgI24(-aq) + 2Cl(-aq)

I2( s) + I(-aq) ¾¾® I-3( aq)
81. (d) The inertness of s -subshell electrons towards bond formation is known as inert pair effect. This effect
increases down the group thus, for Sn, +4 oxidation state is more stable, whereas, for Pb, +2 oxidation
state is more stable, i. e. , Sn 2+ is reducing while Pb 4+ is oxidising.
82. (a) Co 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d6 , unpaired e-(n ) = 4
Spin magnetic moment (m ) = 4( 4 + 2 ) = 24 B. M.
Cr 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d3 , unpaired e-(n ) = 3
Spin magnetic moment (m ) = 3(3 + 2 ) = 15 B. M.
Fe 3+ = [ Ar ] 3 d5, unpaired e-(n ) = 5
Spin magnetic moment (m ) = 5(5 + 2 ) = 35 B. M.
Ni 2+ = [ Ar ] 3 d8 , unpaired e-(n ) = 2
Spin magnetic moment (m ) = 2(2 + 2 ) = 8 B. M.
474 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

10
f-BLOCK ELEMENTS

Level 1
1. Which of the following characteristic is not the point of resemblance between lanthanoids and
actinoids ?
(a) Reducing property (b) Oxidation state of +3
3+
(c) Trends of ionic radii for M ions (d) Tendency towards complex formation
2. Which of the following properties is varying between lanthanoids and actinoids ?
(a) Highest oxidation state (b) Radioactive nature
(c) Basicity of hydroxides (d) All of these
3. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(a) Colour of Nd 3+ is due to f–f transition
(b) The colour of Nd 3+ will be similar to Er 3+
(c) Yb 2+ ,Ce 4+ and Lu 3+ are diamagnetic
(d) Tb 4+ is stable due to full-filled f-orbitals
4. The gradual decrease in metallic radius for lanthanoids is not obeyed by :
(a) Gd and Tb (b) Eu and Yb
(c) Lu and Tb (d) Sm and Pm
5. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(a) Lu 3+ has the strongest tendency toward complex formation among trivalent lanthanoid
ions.
(b) Ce has maximum composition in misch metal.
(c) f-block elements can have electrons from f 0 to f 14 .
(d) Nd, Np and Nb all are f-block elements.
6. Lanthanide and actinide are resemeble in :
(a) Electronic configuration (b) Common oxidation state
(c) Ionization energy (d) Formation of complex
f-Block Elements 475
7. Which of the following property decreases on moving from Ce to Lu ?
(a) Basic nature of oxides (b) Covalent character of halides
(c) Paramagnetism of trivalent ions (d) Complex forming tendency
8. Paramagnetic and coloured ions are :
(a) Ce 4+ , Yb 2+ (b) Gd 3+ , Nd 3+
(c) La 3+ , Lu 3+ (d) Lr 3+ , Lu 3+
9. Which of the following element show +7 oxidation state ?
(a) Cl (b) Mn
(c) Np (d) All of these
10. Which of the following show highest oxidation state ?
(a) Ce (b) Th
(c) Am (d) Bk
11. Actinoids show higher property in comparision to lanthanides in :
(a) Radioactivity
(b) Possibility of higher oxidation state
(c) Basic nature of hydroxides
(d) All of these
12. Which of the following does not increase from 4d to 5d due to lanthanide contraction ?
(a) Density (b) Ionisation energy
(c) Electronegativity (d) Atomic radius
13. In context of the lanthanoids, which of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Availability of 4 f electrons results in the formation of compounds in +4 state for all the
members of the series.
(b) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with increasing atomic number in
the series.
(c) All the members exhibit +3 oxidation sate.
(d) Because of similar properties the separation of lanthanoids is not easy.
476 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 2
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as assertion and reason, while
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following responses.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(C) If assertion is true but the reason is false
(D) If assertion is false but the reason is true
1. Assertion : Lanthanide ions have 4 f n and 4 f 14-n configuration will result same colour in
aqueous solution.
Reason : Colour of lanthanide ions in aqueous solution is due to f - f transition.
2. Assertion : The study of actinoids is more complicated than that of lanthanides.
Reason : Actinoids are radioactive and show variable oxidation state.
3. Assertion : Eu +2 act as strong reducing agent.
Reason : Most stable oxidation state of lanthanides is +3
4. Assertion : Ce 4+ is used as an oxidising agent in volumetric analysis.
Reason : Ce 4+ has the tendency of attaining +3 oxidation state.
f-Block Elements 477

Level 3
1. Which of the following statement is not correct ? [CBSE (Med.) 2001]
(a) La(OH) 3 is less basic than Lu(OH) 3 .
(b) In lanthanide series ionic radius decreases from La 3+ to Lu 3+ ions.
(c) La is actually an element of transition series rather than lanthanides.
(d) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction.
2. General electronic configuration of lanthanide is : [CBSE (Med.) 2002]
(a) (n - 2) f 1-14 (n - 1)s 2 p 6 d 0-1 ns 2
(b) (n - 2) f 0-14 (n - 1)d 0-1 ns 2
(c) (n - 2) f 0-14 (n - 1)d 10 ns 2
(d) (n - 2)d 0-1 (n - 1) f 0-14 ns 2
3. The correct order of ionic radii of Yb 3+ , La 3+ , Eu 3+ and Lu 3+ is : [CBSE (Med.) 2003]
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+
(a) Yb < La < Eu < Lu (b) Lu < Yb < Eu < La 3+
3+ 3+ 3+
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+
(c) Lu < Eu < La < Yb (d) La 3+ < Eu 3+ < Lu 3+ < Yb 3+
4. Lanthanoids and actinoids resemble in : (AFMC 2004)
(a) electronic configuration (b) oxidation state
(c) ionisation energy (d) formation of complexes
5. More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The
main reason for this is : [CBSE (PMT) 2006]
(a) greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than that of the corresponding actinoids.
(b) more active nature of the actinoids
(c) more energy difference between 5 f and 6d-orbitals than that between 4 f and 5d-orbitals.
(d) lesser energy difference between 5 f and 6d- orbitals than that between 4 f and 5d-orbitals.
6. Most common oxidation states of Ce (cerium) are : (MHT CET 2008)
(a) + 3, + 4 (b) + 2, + 3
(c) + 2, + 4 (d) + 3, + 5
7. On which factors, the stability of an oxidation state of lanthanoid elements depend :
(Guj CET 2008)
(a) enthalpy
(b) internal energy
(c) combined effect of hydration and ionisation energy
(d) electronic configuration
8. Identify the incorrect statement among the following. (BHU 2008)
(a) d-block elements show irregular and erratic chemical properties among themselves
(b) La and Lu have partially filled d-orbitals and no other partially filled orbitals
(c) The chemistry of various lanthanoids is very similar
(d) 4 f and 5 f-orbitals are equally shielded
 478 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

9. The point of dissimilarity between lanthanides and actinides is : (MHT CET 2008)
(a) three outermost shells are partially filled
(b) they show oxidation state of +3 (common)
(c) they are called inner-transition elements
(d) their radioactive in nature
10. Which of the following is not an actinide? (AMU 2008)
(a) Curium (b) Californium
(c) Uranium (d) Terbium
11. The pair, that referred as ‘chemical twins’ is : (MHT CET 2009)
(a) Ac, Cf (b) Hf, Ta
(c) Tc, Re (d) La, Ac
12. Which of the following is man-made element? (AFMC 2009)
(a) Ra (b) U
(c) Np (d) C
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+
13. Arrange Ce , La , Pm and Yb in increasing order of their ionic radii : (DPMT 2010)
(a) Yb 3+ < Pm 3+ < Ce 3+ < La 3+ (b) Ce 3+ < Yb 3+ < Pm 3+ < La 3+
(c) Yb 3+ < Pm 3+ < La 3+ < Ce 3+ (d) Pm 3+ < La 3+ < Ce 3+ < Yb 3+
14. Which of the ions is colourless in spite of the presence of unpaired electrons?
(MHT CET 2010)
(a) La 3+ (b) Eu 3+
(c) Gd 3+ (d) Lu 3+
4+
15. Ce is stable. This is because of : (MHT CET 2010)
(a) half-filled d-orbitals
(b) all paired electrons in d-orbitals
(c) empty orbitals
(d) fully-filled d-orbitals
16. The lanthanoid contraction relates to : (CMC 2010)
(a) atomic radius (b) atomic as well as M 3+ radii
(c) valence electrons (d) oxidation states
17. More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The
main reason for this is : (VMMC 2010)
(a) lesser energy difference between 5 f and 6d-orbitals than that between 4 f and 5d-orbitals
(b) greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than that of the corrresponding actinoids
(c) more active nature of the actinoids
(d) more energy difference between 5 f and 6d-orbitals than that between 4 f and 5d-orbitals
18. Across the lanthanide series, the basicity of the lanthanide hydroxides : (UP CPMT 2012)
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) first decreases and then increases
f-Block Elements 479
19. Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic? (NEET 2013)
(At. nos. Ce=58, Sm=62, Eu=63, Yb=70)
(a) Eu 2+ (b) Yb 2+
2+
(c) Ce (d) Sm 2+
20. Lanthanide for which + II and + III oxidation states are common is : (AIIMS 2013)
(a) La (b) Nd
(c) Ce (d) Eu
21. The trivalent ion having largest size in lanthanide series is : (Manipal 2013)
(a) Ti (b) Zr
(c) Hf (d) La
22. Reason of lanthanoid contraction is : (AIPMT 2014)
(a) negligible screening effect of f-orbitals
(b) increasing nuclear charge
(c) decreasing nuclear charge
(d) decreasing screening effect
23. Reason of lanthanoid contraction is : (AIPMT 2014)
(a) negligible screening effect of f-orbitals
(b) increasing nuclear charge
(c) decreasing nuclear charge
(d) decreasing screening effect
24. Which of the following oxidation state is the most common among the lanthanoids?
(AIPMT 2010; UP CPMT 2014)
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5
25. The correct statement is : (Karnataka CET 2014)
(a) the earlier members of lanthanoid series resemble calcium in their chemical properties
(b) the extent of actinoid contraction is almost the same as lanthanoid contraction
(c) in general, lanthanoid and actinoids do not show variable oxidation states
(d) Ce 4+ in aqueous solution is not known
26. Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same
atomic radii? (Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic number) (NEET 2015)
(a) Zr(40) and Hf(72) (b) Zr (40) and Ta (73)
(c) Ti(22) and Zr (40) (d) Zr (40) and Nb (41)
27. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. It’s atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct
electronic configuration of gadolinium? (NEET 2015)
(a) [Xe]4 f 7 5d 1 6 s 2 (b) [Xe]4 f 6 5d 2 6 s 2
(c) [Xe]4 f 8 6 d 2 (d) [Xe]4 f 9 5s1
28. Which one of the following statement is correct when SO 2 is passed through acidified
K 2 Cr 2 O 7 solution? (NEET 2016)
(a) Green Cr 2 (SO 4 ) 3 is formed (b) The solution turns blue
(c) The solution is decolourized (d) SO 2 is reduced
 480 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

29. Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect? (NEET 2016)
(a) Ce (+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis
(b) Europium shows +2 oxidation state
(c) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pt to Lu
(d) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium
30. The correct basicity order of the following lanthanide ions is: (WB JEE 2017)
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+
(a) La > Lu > Ce > Eu
(b) Ce 3+ > Lu 3+ > La 3+ > Eu 3+
(c) Lu 3+ > Ce 3+ > Eu 3+ > La 3+
(d) La 3+ > Ce 3+ > Eu 3+ > Lu 3+
31. Which of the following statements is wrong regarding lanthanoids? (Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) Ln(III) compounds are predominantly ionic in character.
(b) Ln (III) hydroxides are mainly basic in nature.
(c) The ionic size of Ln(III) ions decreases with increasing atomic number.
(d) Ln(III) compounds are generally colourless.
32. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to: (NEET 2017)
(a) actinoid contraction
(b) 5 f ,6 d and 7s levels having comparable energies
(c) 4 f and 5d levels being close in energies
(d) the radioactive nature of actinoids
f-Block Elements 481

ANSWERS
Level 1
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)

11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a)

Level 2
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (B)

Level 3
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)

11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d)

21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (*) 30. (d)

31. (d) 32. (b)

 482 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Hints and Solutions

: Level 3
3. (b) Yb is an element of 4d series. La is an element of 5d series. The ionic radius of Yb 3+ is lowest. The
element Lu and Eu are elements of 4 f series. Their ionic radii decreases with the increases in atomic
number due to lanthanide contraction.
6. (a) Cerium Ce 58 =[ Xe] 4 f 1 , 5 d1 , 6 s 2
Its most stable oxidation state is +3 but +4 is also existing.
7. (c) Stability of oxidation state of lanthanides depends upon the combined effect of ionisation energy and
hydration energy.
For stability, element should have low value of ionisation energy and ions should have high value of
hydration energy.
8. (d) 4 f and 5 f -orbitals belong to different shell, thus experience different amount of shielding.
9. (d) Except promethium, all lanthanides are non-radioactive while all actinides are radioactive.
10. (d) Terbium is a lanthanide as it belongs to 4 f -series having configuration [ Xe] 4 f 9 , 6 s 2. However, the
remaining members belongs to 5 f -series of actinides.
11. (c) Due to the presence of f -electrons, the nucleus is not screened effectively. Thus, the atomic radius of
elements of second transition series (i.e., Nb, Mo, Tc, etc) is similar to that of corresponding third
transition series elements (i.e., Ta, W, Re).
Hence, Nb-Ta; Mo-W or Tc-Re are called chemical twins.
12. (c) The elements present after uranium in the periodic table are synthesised artificially by nuclear
reactions.
Hence, these are called synthetic or man-made elements.
Hence, Np is a man-made element.
13. (a) Ionic radius decreases from La 3+ to Lu 3+ due to lanthanide contraction.
14. (c) Gadolinium does not absorb light in the visible region of the spectrum, hence it is colourless inspite of
the presence of 7 unpaired electrons.
Being colourless, gadolinium is sometimes used as a support for other rare earth phosphorus and
luminescence in the knowledge that it will not quench their intense colour.
f-Block Elements 483
15. (c) The electronic configuration of Ce is
Ce 58 =[ Xe] 4 f 1 , 5 d1 , 6 s 2 (predicated)
or =[ Xe] 4 f 2 , 5 d0 , 6 s 2 (observed)
Ce 4 + =[ Xe] 4 f 0 , 5 d0 , 6 s 0
Since, in +4 oxidation state, all (i.e., 4 f , 5 d and 6 s) orbitals are empty and Ce gains the stable
configuration of nearest inert gas xenon, thus, Ce 4 + is most stable.
16. (b) Lanthanoid contraction relates to decrease in atomic as well as ionic size of M 3+ ions.
17. (a) The energy difference between 5 f and 6d-orbitals is less than that between 4 f and 5d-orbitals.
Therefore, actinoids (having valence electrons in 5 f and 6d) exhibit more number of oxidation states.
18. (b) Across lanthanoide series, due to lanthanoid contraction, size of cations decreases, which results in
increase in covalent character and decrease in ionic character. So, the basicity of hydroxides
decreases.
20. (d) Lanthanoids are f -block elements starting from Ce (58) to Lu (71).

Elements Atomic number Oxidation state

La 57 +3
Ce 58 +3, +4
Nd 60 +2, +3, +4
Eu 63 +2, +3

Thus, for Eu common oxidation states are +2 and +3.

21. (d) The trivalent ion having largest size in lanthanide series is lanthanum. This is due to lanthanide
contraction.
23. (a) Lanthanoid contraction is the regular decrease in atomic and ionic radii of lanthanides. This is due to
the imperfect shielding (or poor screening effect) of f -orbitals due to their diffused shape, which
unable to counter balance the effect of the increased nuclear charge.
Hence, the net result is a contraction in size of lanthanoids.
24. (a) In lanthanoids, the most common oxidation state is 3. For most of the lanthanides, the ionisation
energy to lose a fourth electron will be so large that it cannot be compensated by bond formation, this
is due to the 4 f -electrons which are shielded.
However, for Eu and Yb, +2 will be the favoured oxidation state due to the presence of a half-filled
(7e- ) and a fully-filled 4 f shell (14 e- ) respectively. The +4 oxidation state is also possible for cerium
and terbium. The formation of Ce ( +4 ) is favoured by its noble gas configuration. Similarly, the
formation of Tb ( +4 ) is favoured by its half-filled (7e- ) configuration. Eu 2+ and Yb 2+ are reductants
while Ce 4 + and Tb 4 + are oxidants because the most common oxidation state for lanthanoids is +3.
25. (a) The earlier members of lanthanoid series resemble calcium in some of their chemical properties, e.g.,
hydroxides of both of them are ionic and basic.
26. (a) Due to lanthanide contraction '4d' and '5dseries
' of elements have almost same atomic radii.
27. (a) 64 Gd = 54[ Xe]6 s 2 4 f 7 5 d1
 484 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

28. (a) K 2Cr2O7 ¾® Cr2(SO 4 )3 green obtain where as SO 2 oxidise into sulphate SO 2-
4
K 2Cr2O7 + SO 2 + H 2SO 4 ¾® Cr2(SO 4 )3 + H 2O + K 2SO 4
29. Bonus (Answer is all are correct)
Ce 4+ is strong oxidising agent and easily convert into Ce 3+
Eu 2+ exist and behave as reducing agent lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium.
Ln(OH)3 are basic in nature and as ionic radius decreases, basic nature decreases from Ce to Lu.
31. (d) Many of the trivalent ions of lanthanoids are coloured, both in the solid state as well as in solution.
The colour of lanthanoid ions arises due to absorption of light from visible region of spectrum
resulting in f - f transitions as lanthanoids have partly filled f -orbitals.
32. (b) Actinoids have a greater range of oxidation states due to comparable energies of 5 f ,6 d and 7s orbitals.
Hence, all their electrons can take part in bond formation.
Environmental Chemistry 485

11
ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY

Level 1
1. The term biosphere is used for the zone of the earth where life exists:
(a) On the lithosphere
(b) In the hydrosphere
(c) In the lithosphere and hydrosphere
(d) In the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
2. Biosphere is:
(a) In which individual interact to each other
(b) By which life originated
(c) The name of a bird
(d) Organic compound by which life diminishes
3. Which is not a renewable source?
(a) Forest (b) Coal
(c) Water (d) Forest organism
4. Noosphere is synonyms of:
(a) Environment (b) Atmosphere
(c) Hydrosphere (d) Stratosphere
5. The living organisms on or around the earth constitute:
(a) Biome (b) Biosphere
(c) Community (d) Biocoenosis
6. Biosphere refers to:
(a) Plants of the world (b) Special plants
(c) Area occupied by living beings (d) Plants of a particular area
7. What is the correct sequence of atmospheric layers starting from earth?
(a) Stratosphere troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere
(b) Troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere
 486 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

(c) Mesosphere, troposphere, stratosphere, thermosphere

(d) Thermosphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, troposphere
8. On earth all living organisms constitute:
(a) Community (b) Biome
(c) Association (d) Biosphere
9. A biosphere is composed of:
(a) Living organisms
(b) Living organisms + lithosphere
(c) Living organisms + lithosphere + lithosphere
(d) Living organisms + lithosphere + atmosphere hydrosphere
10. Pollution can be controlled by:
(a) Sewage treatment
(b) Checking atomic blasts
(c) Manufacturing electrically operated vehicles
(d) All the above
11. If water pollution continues at its present rate, if will eventually:
(a) Stop water cycle
(b) Prevent precipitation
(c) Make oxygen molecules unavailable to water plants
(d) Make nitrate molecules unavailable to water plants
12. Recent reports of acid rains industrial cities are due to the effect of atmospheric pollution by:
(a) Excessive release of NO 2 and SO 2 by burning of fossil fuels
(b) Excessive release of CO 2 by burning of fuel like wood and charcoal, cutting of forests and
increased animal population
(c) Excessive release of NH 3 by industrial plants and coal gas
(d) Excessive release of CO in atmosphere by incomplete combustion of cock, charcoal and
other carbonaceous fuels in pancity of oxygen
13. Pollution is a change in physical, chemical or biological characters of our land and water that
may be:
(a) Desirable and harmful to human (b) Desirable and useful to human
(c) Undesirable and harmful to human (d) Undesirable and useful to human
14. Which is the greatest air pollution these days?
(a) Factories (b) Moto vehicles
(c) Domestic appliances (d) Animals
15. Removal of the soil by the action of wind and water is known as:
(a) Erosion (b) Fossilization
(c) Leaching (d) Calcification
16. Acid rain occur due to atmospheric pollution of:
(a) SO 2 (b) NH 3 (c) CO 2 (d) N 2O
17. An increase in CO 2 concentration in the atmosphere will result in:
(a) Adverse effects of natural vegetation
(b) Global warming
Environmental Chemistry 487
(c) Temperature decrease in global atmosphere
(d) Genetic disorders in plants and animals
18. Planting more and more trees helps to:
(a) reduce CO 2 in the air (b) increase CO 2 in the air
(c) reduce O 2 in the air (d) reduce CO 2 and increase O 2 in the air
19. The basic component of smog is:
(a) PAN (b) PBN
(c) NO 2 (d) All of these
20. Which of the following protects life on earth from harmful effects of UV radiations from sun?
(a) N 2 (b) CO 2
(c) O 2 (d) O 3
21. The ozone layer forms natural by:
(a) the interaction of CFC with oxygen
(b) the interaction of UV radiation with oxygen
(c) the interaction of IR radiation with oxygen
(d) the interaction of oxygen and water vapour
22. Fish die in water bodies polluted by sewage due to:
(a) pathogens (b) reduction in oxygen
(c) foul smell (d) none of these
23. Main pollutant from automobile exhaust is:
(a) CO (b) CO 2
(c) NO (d) hydrocarbons
24. Ultraviolet radiation is absorbed by:
(a) exosphere (b) ionosphere
(c) mesosphere (d) stratosphere
25. Global warming may result in:
(a) flood (b) cyclone
(c) decrease in forest productivity (d) all of the above
26. BHC and DDT act as:
(a) carcinogens (b) allergens
(c) asthmatic agents (d) all of these
27. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) Polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs) are clouds formed over Antarctica
(b) Acid rain dissolves heavy metals such as Cu, Pb, Hg and Al from soil, rocks and sediments.
(c) H 2SO 4 is major contributor to acid rain, HNO 3 ranks second and HCl third in this respect
(d) Fishes grow as well in warm as in cold water
28. Ozone depletion in the stratosphere is mainly caused by:
(a) SO 2 (b) NO 2
(c) NO (d) chlorofluorocarbons
29. Persons working in cement plants and lime stone quarries are more prone to disease like:
(a) asthma (b) cancer
(c) silicosis (d) pneumoconiosis
 488 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

30. Which of the following gases is not a green house gas?

(a) CO (b) O 3
(c) CH 4 (d) H 2O vapour
31. Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. One of the following is not
amongst the components of photochemical smog, identify it.
(a) NO 2 (b) O 3
(c) SO 2 (d) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
32. Which of the following statements is not true about classical smog?
(a) Its main components are produced by the action of sunlight on emissions of automobiles
and factories
(b) Produced in cold and humid climate
(c) It contains compounds of reducing nature
(d) It contains smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide
33. Biochemical Oxygen Demand, (BOD) is a measure of organic material present in water. BOD
value less than 5 ppm indicates a water sample to be..... .
(a) rich in dissolved oxygen (b) poor in dissolved oxygen
(c) highly polluted (d) not suitable for aquatic life
34. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Ozone is produced in upper stratosphere by the action of UV rays on oxygen
(b) Ozone can oxidise sulphur dioxide present in the atmosphere to sulphur trioxide
(c) Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer present in stratosphere
(d) None of these
35. Sewage containing organic waste should not be disposed in water bodies because it causes
major water pollution. Fishes in such a polluted water die because of:
(a) Large number of mosquitoes
(b) Increase in the amount of dissolved oxygen
(c) Decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in water
(d) Clogging of gills by mud
36. Which of the following statements about photochemical smog is wrong?
(a) It has high concentration of oxidising agents
(b) It has low concentration of oxidising agent
(c) It can be controlled by controlling the release of NO 2 , hydrocarbons, ozone etc.
(d) Plantation of some plants like pinus helps in controlling photochemical smog
37. The gaseous envelope around the earth is known as atmosphere. The lowest layer of this is
extended upto 10 km from sea level, this layer is ....... .
(a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere
(c) Mesosphere (d) Hydrosphere
38. Dinitrogen and dioxygen are main constituents of air but these do not react with each other to
form oxides of nitrogen because....................... .
(a) the reaction is endothermic and requires very high temperature
(b) the reaction can be initiated only in presence of a catalyst
(c) oxides of nitrogen are unstable
(d) N 2 and O 2 are unreactive
Environmental Chemistry 489
39. The pollutants which come directly in the air from sources are called primary pollutants.
Primary pollutants are sometimes converted into secondary pollutants. Which of the following
belongs to secondary air pollutants?
(a) CO (b) Hydrocarbon
(c) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (d) NO
40. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Ozone hole is a hole formed in stratosphere from which ozone oozes out.
(b) Ozone holes is a hole formed in the troposphere from which ozone oozes out
(c) Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer of stratosphere at some places
(d) Ozone hole means vanishing of ozone layer around the earth completely
41. Which of the following practices will not come under green chemistry?
(a) If possible, making use of soap made of vegetable oils instead of using synthetic detergents
(b) Using H 2O 2 for bleaching purpose instead of using chlorine based bleaching agents
(c) Using bicycle for travelling small distances instead of using petrol/diesel based vehicles
(d) Using plastic cans for neatly storing substances
42. Which of the following acts as rocket propellants?
(a) Liq. H 2 + Liq. O 2 (b) Liq. N 2 + Liq. O 2
(c) Liq. H 2 + Liq. N 2 (d) Liq. O 2 + Liq. Argon
43. When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected rain water will have pH?
(a) slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm
(b) slightly higher than that of rain water without thunderstorm
(c) uninfluenced by occurrence of thunderstorm
(d) which depends on amount of dust in air
44. The smog is essentially caused by the presence of:
(a) O 3 and N 2 (b) O 2 and N 2
(c) Oxides of sulphur and N 2 (d) O 2 and O 3
45. Ozone in stratosphere is depleted by:
(a) CF2Cl 2 (b) C 7 F16
(c) C 6 H 6 Cl 6 (d) C 6 F6
46. Which of the following is responsible for depletion of ozone layer in upper strata of the
atmosphere?
(a) Polyhalogens (b) Ferrocene
(c) Fullerenes (d) Freons
47. Identify the wrong statements in the following:
(a) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion
(b) Green house effect is responsible for global warming
(c) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the sun to reach the earth
(d) Acid rain is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
48. What is DDT among the following?
(a) Green house gas (b) A fertilizer
(c) Biodegradable pollutant (d) Non-biodegradable pollutant
 490 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

49. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was:
(a) Phosgene (b) Methyl isocyanate
(c) Methyl amine (d) Ammonia
50. Which of the following reaction or process does not contribute to air pollution in the
troposphere ?
(a) N 2( g) + O 2( g) ¾ Lightning
¾ ¾¾® 2NO ( g)
2NO( g) + O 2( g) ¾ R¾
. T.
¾® 2NO 2 ( g)
(b) Cl ·( g) + O 3( g) ¾® ClO•( g) + O 2( g)
(c) Burning of fossil fuels
(d) Anaerobic decomposition of organic matter
Environmental Chemistry 491

Level 2
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
The questions given below consist of “Assertion” and their “Reason”. Use the following key to
choose the appropriate answer.
(A) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, and reason is the CORRECT explanation of
the assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, but reason is NOT the CORRECT explanation
of the assertion.
(C) If assertion is CORRECT but reason is INCORRECT.
(D) If assertion is INCORRECT but reason is CORRECT.
1. Assertion : Photochemical smog is oxidising in nature.
Reason : Photochemical smog contains NO 2 and O 3 , which are formed during the
sequence of reactions.
2. Assertion : Carbon dioxide is one of the important green house gases.
Reason : It is largely produced by respiratory function of animals and plants.
3. Assertion : Ozone is destroyed by solar radiation in upper stratosphere.
Reason : Thinning of the ozone layer allows excessive UV radiations to reach the surface
of earth.
4. Assertion : Excessive use of chlorinated synthetic pesticides causes soil and water
pollution.
Reason : Such pesticides are non-biodegradable.
5. Assertion : If BOD level of water in a reservoir is less than 5 ppm it is highly polluted.
Reason : High biological oxygen demand means low activity of bacteria in water.
6. Assertion : Green house effect was observed in houses used to grow plants and these are
made of green glass.
Reason : Green house name has been given because glass houses are made of green
glass. (AIIMS 2013)
7. Assertion : The pH of acid rain is less than 5.6.
Reason : Carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere dissolves in rain water and forms
carbonic acid. (AIIMS 2015)
492 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

Level 3
1. The greenhouse effect is because of the : (AIPMT 1996)
(a) presence of gases, which in general are strong infrared absorbers, in the atmosphere
(b) presence of CO 2 only in the atmosphere
(c) presence of O 3 and CH 4 in the atmosphere
(d) N 2O and chlorofluorocarbons in the atmosphere
2. Which of the following is/are the hazardous pollutant(s) present in automobile exhaust gases?
(AIPMT 1996)
(i) N 2 (ii) CO (iii) CH 4 (iv)Oxides of nitrogen
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
3. The chemical entities present in thermosphere of the atmosphere are : (AIIMS 2001)
(a) O +2 , O + , NO + (b) O 3
(c) N 2 ,O 2 ,CO 2 ,H 2O (d) O 3 ,O +2 ,O 2
4. Ozone depletion over Antarctica is due to the : (AIIMS 2003)
(a) formation of chlorine nitrate (ClONO 2 )
(b) formation of HCl
(c) formation of HOCl and Cl 2 which are converted back into reactive Cl atoms
(d) none of the above
5. Mesopause represents the point of temperature inversion between : (AIIMS 2004)
(a) troposphere and stratosphere (b) troposphere and mesosphere
(c) stratosphere and mesosphere (d) mesosphere and thermosphere
6. The medium present in the environment which consumes some amount of certain pollutant is
called a : (AIIMS 2005)
(a) sink (b) target
(c) receptor (d) none of these
7. In Antarctica, ozone depletion is due to the formation of the following compound :
[Kerala (CEE) 2005]
(a) Acrolein (b) Peroxy acetyl nitrate
(c) SO 2 and SO 3 (d) Chlorine nitrate
8. Pick up the correct statement : [Kerala (CEE) 2005]
(a) CO which is major pollutant resulting from the combustion of fuels in automobiles plays a
major role in photochemical smog
(b) Classical smog has an oxidising character while the photochemical smog is reducing in
character.
(c) Photochemical smog occurs in day time whereas the classical smog occurs in the
morning hours.
(d) Classical smog is good for health but not photochemical smog.
Environmental Chemistry 493
9. Identify the incorrect statement from the following : (AIIMS 2006)
(a) Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can cause the depletion of ozone layer.
(b) Ozone absorbs infrared radiation.
(c) Depletion of zone layer is because of its chemical reactions with chlorofluoroalkanes.
(d) Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet radiation of the sun.
10. Which of the following is not a green-house gas ? [Kerala (PMT) 2006]
(a) CO 2 (b) CH 4
(c) CCl 2F2 (d) N 2
11. High concentration of fluoride is poisonous and harmful to bones and teeth at levels over :
[HP (PMT) 2006]
(a) 1 ppm (b) 3 ppm
(c) 5 ppm (d) 10 ppm
12. The atmospheric gas which can not produce green-house effect is :
[West Bangal (JEE) 2007]
(a) N 2 (b) H 2O
(c) CO 2 (d) O 3
13. Green chemistry means such reactions which : (AIPMT 2008)
(a) produce colour during reactions
(b) reduce the use and production of hazardous chemical
(c) are related to the depletion of ozone layer
(d) study the reactions in plants
14. Phosphate pollution is caused by : (AIIMS 2008)
(a) sewage and agricultural fertilizers (b) agricultural fertilizers only
(c) phosphate rocks and sewage (d) weathering of phosphate rocks only
15. Persistent pesticides such as DDT pass into food chain and increase in amount per unit weight
of organism due to their accumulation in fat. This phenomenon is called : (AIIMS 2008)
(a) biomagnification (b) biodegradation
(c) biosynthesis (d) decomposition
16. The process of ‘eutrophication’ is due to : [Kerala (PMT) 2008]
(a) increases in concentration of insecticide in water
(b) increase in concentration of fluoride ion in water
(c) the reduction in concentration of the dissolved oxygen in water due to phosphate
pollution in water
(d) attack of younger leaves of a plant by peroxyacetyl nitrate
(e) increase in concentration of radioactive substance in water
17. Which of the following is not an example of green chemistry ? (AIIMS 2009)
(a) Reacting methylamine and phosgene to produce methyl isocyanate.
(b) Replacement of CFCs by CO 2 as blowing agent in the manufacture of polystyrene foam
sheets.
(c) Catalytic dehydrogenation of the diethanol amine without using cyanide and
formaldehyde.
(d) Replacement of organotins by ‘sea-nine’ as antifouling compound in sea marines.
 494 Inorganic Chemistry for NEET

18. Which of the following chemical, harmful to ozone, is released by chlorofluorocarbon?

(AIIMS 2010)
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Chlorine
(c) Fluorine (d) Nitrogen dioxide
19. Which of the following statement is not true ? (AIIMS 2004; AIPMT 2011)
(a) pH of drinking water should be between 5 .5 and 9 .5.
(b) Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish.
(c) Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm.
(d) Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant.
20. Which one of the following statements regarding photochemical smog is not correct ?
(AIPMT 2012)
(a) Photochemical smog is formed through photochemical reaction involving solar energy
(b) Photochemical smog does not cause irritation in eyes and throat
(c) Carbon monoxide does not play any role in photochemical smog formation
(d) Photochemical smog is an oxidising agent in character
21. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was :
(AIPMT 2013)
(a) Ammonia (b) Phosgene
(c) Methylisocyanate (d) Methylamine
22. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a byproduct. This is a colorless gas with choking smell
of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as it results in acid rain. Its
aqueous solution is acidic and acts as a reducing agent, and its acid has never been isolated.
The gas X is : (AIPMT 2013)
(a) SO 2 (b) CO 2 (c) SO 3 (d) H 2S
23. Which one of the following statements is not true ? (AIPMT 2013)
(a) Dissolved oxygen (DO) in cold water can reach a concentration up to 10 ppm
(b) Clean water would have a BOD value of 5 ppm
(c) Fluoride deficiency in drinking water is harmful. Soluble fluoride is often used to bring its
concentration up to 1 ppm
(d) When the pH of the rain water is higher than 6.5, it is called acid rain.
24. Fog is a colloidal solution of : [NEET (Phase-I) 2016]
(a) solid in gas (b) gas in gas
(c) liquid in gas (d) gas in liquid
25. Which one of the following, is not a common component of photochemical smog?
(AIPMT 2014; Karnataka CET 2017)
(a) Ozone (b) Acrolein
(c) Peroxyacetylnitrate (d) Chloroflourocarbons
26. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due
to natural and human activity ? (NEET 2018)
(a) N 2O 5 (b) NO 2 (c) N 2O (d) NO
27. Among the following, the one that is not a green house gas is (NEET 2019)
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) nitrous oxide (c) methane (d) ozone
Environmental Chemistry 495

ANSWERS
Level 1
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)

11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (d)

21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a)

31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)

41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (b)

Level 2
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B)

Level 3
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)

11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)

21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (a)