25/03/2025 Code-A_(Phase-1)

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122018, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
CC-144
Physics CC-144
: Electric Charges CC-144
and Fields, Electrostatic CC-144
Potential and Capacitance CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
Chemistry : Organic Chemistry-(Some Basic Principles and Techniques), Hydrocarbons
Botany : Photosynthesis in Plants, Respiration in Plants
Zoology : Chemical Coordination and Integration, Human Reproduction

General Instructions :
Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
The Test consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
There are four parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology having 45 questions in each part of equal
weightage.
Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered/unattempted
questions will be given no marks.
Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
Dark only one circle for each entry.
Dark the circle in the space provided only.
Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.

CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144

PHYSICS

1. Statement A: Charge is independent of frame of reference. 3. A particle of mass m carrying charge q is revolving around a
Statement B: Mass of a negatively charged body is greater fixed charge –2q in a circular path of radius r. The speed of
than mass of positively charged identical body. the particle will be (neglect gravitational force)
(1) Both statements A and B are correct q
−−−−−
(1) √
1

π ε0 mr

CC-144
Both statements ACC-144
and B are incorrectCC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
2

(2)
−−−−−
(3) Statement A is correct and statement B is incorrect (2) q√
1

2π ε0 mr

(4) Statement A is incorrect and statement B is correct −−−−−

(3) q√
2

2. The value of 1 coulomb charge in statcoulomb is π ε0 mr

−−−−−
(1) 9 × 109 (4)
q

4
√
1

π ε0 mr

(2) 3 × 106
4. Consider the following statements about electric field
(3) 3 × 109 intensity.
a. It is a vector quantity
(4) 9 × 106 b. Its S.I. unit is Newton

Coulomb

c. Its dimensional formula is [MLT–3A–1]

Based on above information, pick correct option.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b and c are correct
(3) Only c is correct
(4) all a, b and c are correct

1
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

5. Two concentric uniformly charged spherical shells of radius 9. An electric dipole of dipole moment P is placed in uniform
R and 2R have net charge Q and 2Q respectively, then the electric field E at an angle θ with the field, then for the stable
electric field intensity at distance from the centre will be
3R equilibrium the value of θ will be
2

(1) 180°
Q
(1) 9πε0 R
2
(2) 90°
3Q (3) Zero
(2) 16πε0 R
2

(4) 45°
4Q
(3) 9πε0 R
2 10. The electric field in a region is given by
→
(4) Zero E
ˆ ˆ
= (a i + 2aj ) N/C . If electric flux through area

​
6. CC-144
Four CC-144
point charges are CC-144
placed at the corners of a square of CC-144 → CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
– A
ˆ
= (2 î + 4 ĵ + 3k) m
2
is 40 N m2/C, then value of a, will
side √2a, as shown in figure. The electric potential at the
centre of the square will be be
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 6
(4) 4

(1)
q
11. Consider the arrangement of capacitors as shown in figure.
4π ε0 a
The charge on each 5 μF capacitor will be
q
(2) 2π ε0 a

5q
(3) 2π ε0 a

(4) Zero
7. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
CC-144(A) and theCC-144
Assertion other is labelled asCC-144
Reason (R). CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
Assertion (A): Work done in moving a positive charge on
equipotential surface is non-zero.
Reason (R): Electric field is always perpendicular to
equipotential surface. (1) 100 μC
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (2) 50 μC
answer from the options given below:
(3) 40 μC
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1) (4) 80 μC
explanation of (A)
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 12. If capacitance between two consecutive plates is C, then
(2) equivalent capacitance between points A and B is
explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
8. A uniform electric field is present along y = x. If intensity of
–
the field is 10√2 N/C , then magnitude of potential
(1) C
​
difference between two points A(0 m, 3 m) and B(2 m, 2 m) 2

will be
(2) 3C

2
(1) 20 V
(3) 3C
(2) 30 V
(4) C
(3) 10 V
(4) Zero

2
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

13. The electric field (E) due to uniformly charged infinite 16. Statement A: When a conductor is grounded its potential
straight wire varies with distance (r) as given by becomes zero.
Statement B: In electrostatic condition, conductors always
have equipotential surfaces.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(1)
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Statement A is correct and statement B is incorrect
(4) Statement A is incorrect and statement B is correct
17. Electric field at distance (r) from centre due to uniformly
charged solid non-conducting sphere of radius R varies as
CC-144
(2)
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144(r < R) CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(1) E ∝
1

(2) E ∝
1
2
r

(3) E ∝ r0
(3) (4) E ∝ r

18. Which of the following results regarding electrostatics of

conductors is false?
At the surface of charged conductor, electrostatic field
(1)
must be normal to the surface at every point

(4) The interior of a conductor can have no excess charge

(2)
in the static situation
Inside a conductor, electrostatic field decreases from
(3)
surface towards the centre
14. The given figure shows, two parallel conducting large
CC-144
plates CC-144
A and B of charge densities +σ and CC-144
–σ respectively CC-144(4) Electrostatic
CC-144 CC-144
potential is constant CC-144
throughout the volume
of conductor and has the same value as on its surface
as shown in figure. The electric field intensity will be non-
zero in region 19. A parallel plate capacitor after charging is kept connected to
a battery and the plates are pulled apart with the help of
insulating handles. Now which of the following quantities
will decrease?
(1) Charge
(2) Capacitance
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144(3) Energy
CC-144
stored
CC-144 CC-144
(4) All of these
20. →
A uniform electric field E = 2a î + b ĵ where a and b are
(1) I only
constants, passes through a surface area A. What is the
(2) II only electric flux passing through this surface area if the surface
lies in yz-plane?
(3) III only
(1) 2aA + bA
(4) I and III only
(2) 2aA
15. The electric flux associated with a Gaussian surface is
−−−−−− −
3
N m /C . The charge inside the Gaussian surface will
2 (3) A√4a2 + b2
2ε0
​
​
be (4) A(2a + b)2
(1) 3 C
(2) 2 C

(3) 3

2
C

(4) 1

2
C

3
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

21. The electric potential, V as a function of position (x, y, z) in a 25. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends on
space is given by V = xy2z3 (volt). The electric field (in N/C) (1) Charge on plates
at point P(1, 2, –1) m will be given as
(2) Thickness of plates
(1) ˆ ˆ ˆ
4 i + 8 j + 12k
(3) Potential applied across the plates
(2) ˆ ˆ ˆ
4 i + 4 j − 8k (4) Area of plates

(3) ˆ ˆ ˆ
4 i − 4 j + 12k
26. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in a uniform
electric field produced by two oppositely charged plates.
(4) ˆ ˆ ˆ
4 i + 4 j − 12k
The lines of force will appear as

22. In the given circuit, when 100 V battery is connected to the

CC-144
terminals A and B, the CC-144
energy stored in CC-144
the 2 μF capacitor CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
will be (1)

(2)

(1) 20 mJ
(2) 10 mJ (3)

(3) 5 mJ
(4) 40 mJ

CC-144 CC-144 CC-144

23. The variation of electric field intensity, E with position (x) is
shown below. The magnitude of potential difference
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(4)
between the points at x = 2 m and at x = 6 m will be

27. In bringing an electron towards a proton the electrostatic

potential energy of the system
(1) Becomes zero

CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144(2) Increases

CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(3) Decreases
(4) Remains same

(1) 30 V 28. An electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field may

experience
(2) 60 V
(1) Both force and torque
(3) 40 V
(2) Only torque and no force
(4) 80 V
(3) No force and no torque
24. Two concentric spherical conducting shells of radii R and
2R carry charge Q and 2Q respectively. Charge on outer (4) Both (2) and (3)
shell when both are connected by conducting wire will be
(1) Q
(2) 2Q
(3) 3Q
(4) Zero

4
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

29. Consider the following statements. 32. A proton and an α-particle having equal kinetic energy are
a. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases when projected in a uniform transverse electric field as shown in
a di-electric medium is introduced between the plates. figure. Then choose the correct option
b. Electrical energy is stored in a charged capacitor.
c. If N capacitors are connected in series combination, then
total capacitance of the combination will be more than any
individual capacitance.
d. On increasing the distance between the plates of a
parallel plate capacitor, its capacitance increases.
In light of above statements, choose the correct option.
(1) Statements b, c and d are true
(2) Statements c and d are true
CC-144
(3) Statements a and CC-144
b are true CC-144 CC-144(1) ProtonCC-144 CC-144
trajectory is more curved CC-144
(2) α-particle trajectory is more curved
(4) All statements a, b, c and d are false
Both trajectories are equally curved but in opposite
30. Electric potential at point A due to a dipole having dipole (3)
direction
moment ‘p’ given below, is
Both trajectories are equally curved and in same
(4)
direction.
33. Figure shows electric lines of force due to point charges Q1
and Q2.

kp
(1) 2r
2

CC-144
√3 kp
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144Based onCC-144
above information,CC-144 CC-144
pick the correct option.
(2)
(1) Q1 and Q2 both positive
2
2 r

(3)
kp
(2) Q1 and Q2 both negative
r2

1 kp
(3) |Q1| > |Q2|
(4)
√2 r2 (4) Both (2) and (3)

31. There are two identical capacitors; the first one is 34. The electric force on a point charge situated on equatorial
CC-144and filled CC-144
uncharged CC-144
with a dielectric of constant K while the CC-144position of
CC-144 CC-144
a short dipole is F. CC-144
If the charge is shifted along
other one is charged to potential V having air between its equator to half the distance, the electric force acting will be
plates. If two capacitors are joined end to end, the common (1) 4F
potential will be
(2) F

(1) V

K+1
4

(3) 8F
(2) KV

K+1
(4) F

(3) KV

K−1
35. A point charge +q is placed at the corner of the cube. The
electric flux passing through the cube will be
(4) V

K−1
q
(1) ε0

(2) 4ε0

(3) 6ε0

(4) 8ε0

5
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

36. The electric potential at a distance 2 m on the axis of a short 41. Two point charges 1 μC and 9 μC are placed at x = –1 m
dipole of dipole moment 8 × 10–12 C m is and x = 3 m on x-axis. The position between two charges
where net electric force on a unit test charge will be zero, is
(1) 18 mV
(1) x = 1 m
(2) 9 mV
(2) x = 0 m
(3) 4 mV
(3) x = 2 m
(4) 12 mV
(4) x = 2.5 m
37. The capacitance of a spherical capacitor of radius 4.5 cm
will be 42. The number of electrons in one coulomb of charge is

(1) 10 pF (1) 6.25 × 1016

CC-144
(2) 3 pF CC-144 CC-144 CC-144(2) 6.25 ×CC-144
1017
CC-144 CC-144
(3) 8 pF
(3) 6.25 × 1018
(4) 5 pF
(4) 6.25 × 1019
38. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 43. Match the entries in list-I with entries in list-II, where list-I
Assertion (A): Electric field inside a metallic surface is contains information about electric field and potential while
zero. list-II contains information about their variation.
Reason (R): Charge given to a conductor always lies inside List-I List-II
the conductor.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
Electric field (E) due to charged
a. (i)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct spherical shell
(1)
explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true Electric potential (V) due to
CC-144 CC-144
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
CC-144 CC-144 b. charged
CC-144
spherical shell CC-144
(ii) CC-144
39. 27 charged drops coalesce to form a bigger charged drop. If
potential of bigger drop is x times that of smaller drop, then
the value of x will be
Electric field (E) due to uniformly
c. (iii)
(1) 3 charged solid sphere
(2) 6

CC-144
(3) 4
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
Electric potential (V) due to
(4) 9 d. (iv)
uniformly charged solid sphere
40. Three charges are located at the vertices of an equilateral
triangle as shown in the figure. At the centre of the triangle
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(1) The field is zero but potential is non-zero

(2) The field is non-zero but potential is zero
(3) Both field and potential are zero
(4) Both field and potential are non-zero

6
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

44. The potential at the junction A will be

(1) 50 V
(2) 25 V
(3) 100 V
(4) 33.3 V
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
45. The figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a
charged body. If the electric field intensities at A and B are
EA and EB respectively and if the distance between A and
B is r, then

CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144

(1) EA < EB

(2) EA > EB

CC-144
(3) E =A
EB

r CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144

EB
(4) EA =
r2

CHEMISTRY

46. Correct order of boiling point for the given alkanes is 47. Consider the following reaction
(i) 2-Methylpropane CH3 – CH3 → CH3 – CH2 – X (X = halogen)
(ii) 2-Methylbutane The correct order of rate of reaction of ethane with halogens
(iii) 2,2-Dimethylpropane in the presence of UV light to form ethyl halides is
(iv) Hexane
(1) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(2) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i) (2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2

(3) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) (3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

(4) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i) (4) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2

7
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

48. Anhyd. AlCl 3 / HCl

52. Which of the following compounds will not decolourise the
n-Hexane −−−−−−−−−−→ products reddish orange colour of the solution of bromine in carbon
Δ
tetrachloride?
The major products are
(1) CH3–C≡CH
(1) 2-Methylpentane and 3-Methylpentane
(2) 2,2-Dimethylbutane and 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(3) 2-Methylhexane and 3-Methylhexane (2)
(4) 2,3-Dimethylbut-2-ene and 2,2-Dimethylbutane
49. In the following reaction sequence
(3)
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(4) CH3–CH=CH2

53. In the following reaction sequence

The products (A) and (B) respectively are

(1) Methanoic acid and Methanal
(2) Methanol and Methanal The product (C) will be

(3) Methanal and Methanol (1) Ethyne

(4) Methanol and Methanoic acid (2) Benzene

50. In the following reaction sequence (3) Ethanol

(4) Propyne
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
54. In the following CC-144
reaction sequence CC-144
Products (A) and (B) respectively are
(1) Benzene and Benzoic acid
(2) 2-Methylbutane and Butane-2-sulphonic acid
(3) 2-Methylpentane and pentane-2-sulphonic acid
(4) Benzene and Benzenesulphonic acid
51. InCC-144 CC-144
the following reaction sequence CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
C2 H5 −Br Products (A) and (B) respectively are
CH3–C≡C–H + NaNH2 → (A) −−−−→ (B)
Major (1) 2-Bromopropane and 1-Bromopropane
The product (B) will be (2) 2-Bromopropane and 2-Bromopropane
(1) CH3–CH=CH–C2H5 (3) 1-Bromopropane and 2-Bromopropane
(2) CH3–C≡C–CH2–CH3 (4) 1-Bromopropane and 1-Bromopropane

(3)

(4)

8
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

55. In the following reaction sequence 59. An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 followed by treatment
with Zn–H2O gives butan-2-one and propanone in
equimolar ratio. The alkene “A” will be
(1) 3,4-Dimethylpent-2-ene
(2) 2,3-Dimethylpent-2-ene
(3) 4,4-Dimethylpent-2-ene
Products (A) and (B) respectively are (4) 2,4-Dimethylpent-2-ene
(1) Ethanoic acid and Butane-2,3-diol 60. Sodium propionate on decarboxylation with soda lime gives
(2) Butan-2-one and Butane-2,3-diol (1) Propane
CC-144
(3) CC-144
Butane-2,3-diol and Ethanoic acid CC-144 CC-144(2) Ethane
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(4) Butane-2,3-diol and Butan-2-one (3) Butane
56. In the following reaction (4) Pentane
61. Consider the following reactions

The product (P) will be

(1)

Identify the correct statement(s) about the products (A) and

(B)
(2) (i) A and B are geometrical isomers
(ii) Dipole moment of A is greater than the dipole moment of
B
(iii) Melting point of A is greater than the melting point of B
(3)
(1) (ii) and (iii) only
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(2) (i) and (ii) only
(4) (3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) (iii) only

57. In the following reaction 62. Given below are two statements
Propyne + 2HBr → (P) Statement I: In all the conformations of ethane, the bond
Major angles and the bond lengths remain the same.
The product (P) will be Statement II: Staggered conformation has the maximum
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144torsional CC-144
strain than eclipsedCC-144
form. CC-144
(1) 2,2-Dibromopropane In the light of above statements, choose the most
(2) 1,1-Dibromoethane appropriate answer from the options given below

(3) 1,2-Dibromopropane (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(4) 1,2-Dibromoethane (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
58. The correct decreasing order of acidic strength of following
species is (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(1) CH ≡ CH > CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 63. In the following reaction sequence.
(2) CH ≡ CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH3

(3) CH3 – CH3 > CH ≡ CH > CH2 = CH2

Product ‘B’ is
(4) CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH ≡ CH
(1) Propan-2-ol
(2) Propan-1-ol
(3) Propanal
(4) Propanone

9
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

64. Arrange the following compounds in their decreasing order 67. In the Carius method for estimation of halogen, 1.25 g of an
of reactivity toward electrophilic substitution reaction organic compound gave 0.94 g of AgBr. The percentage of
bromine in the compound is (Atomic mass of Ag = 80 u,
Molecular mass of AgBr = 188 u)
(1) 56%
(2) 64%
(3) 48%
(4) 32%
(1) (A) > (B) > (C) 68. Hyperconjugation is possible in
(2) (C) > (B) > (A)
CC-144
(3) (A) > (C) > (B)
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(1)
(4) (B) > (A) > (C)
65. In the following reaction sequence (2) (CH3)3C – CH = CH2

(3)

The product (B) will be

(4) CH2 = CH2

69. Decreasing order of priority sequence of the given function

(1) groups – COCl, – COOH, – CN, – CHO is
(1) – COCl > – COOH > – CN > – CHO
(2) – CN > – COOH > – COCl > – CHO
(3) – COOH > – COCl > – CN > – CHO
(2)
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144(4) – COOH
CC-144 CC-144
> – CHO > – COCl > – CN CC-144
70. Given below are the two statements
Statement I : In thin layer chromatography, amino acids
may be detected by spraying the plate with ninhydrin
solution.
(3)
Statement II : Distillation under reduced pressure is used to
purify liquids having very high boiling points and those,
which decompose above their boiling points.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
66. Total number of σ and π bonds in the given species 71. Match the compound given in column I with their colour
respectively are given in column II and identify the correct code.
Column-I Column- II
(a) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3·xH2O i White
(b) PbS ii. Prussian blue
(c) [Fe(SCN)]2+ iii. Black
(d) AgCl iv. Blood red

(1) 17 and 4 (1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)

(2) 23 and 4 (2) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)

(3) 25 and 5 (3) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)

(4) 21 and 5 (4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)

10
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

72. Which among the following pairs shows –R effect? 77. Consider the following statements
(i) Inductive effect operates through sigma bond.
(1) – OH and – OCH3 (ii) Inductive effect is permanent effect.
(iii) Electromeric effect is temporary effect.
(2) – NH2 and – NHCH3
Correct statement(s) is/are
(3) – COOH and – CN
(1) (i) only
(4) – NHCOCH3 and – NO2 (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
73. Given below are two statements one is labelled as (3) (i) and (ii) only
Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
A : Pyrrole is a heterocyclic compound. (4) (iii) only
R : Pyrrole contains a nitrogen atom in its ring. 78. The group which deactivates the ring as well as o, p-
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer.
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144directing CC-144
in nature is CC-144 CC-144
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
(1) (1) –OCH3
correct explanation of the assertion
(2) –Cl
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
(2)
the correct explanation of the assertion (3) –CN
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (4) –NO2
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
79. Which of the following is the most stable free radical?
74. The correct IUPAC name of the compound given below is
(1)

(2)

(1) 2,3-dimethylheptane (3)

CC-144 CC-144
(2) 4-Ethyl-3-methyloctane
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(3) 3-Methyl-4-ethyloctane
(4)
(4) 5-Ethyl-6-methyloctane

75. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Kjeldahl's method is not applicable to 80. Match list I with list II
compounds containing nitrogen in azo and nitro groups. List II
Statement II : Compounds containing nitrogen in azo and List I
(Type of
nitro group do not give ammonium sulphate when treated (Compound)
isomerism)
CC-144
with concentrated H2CC-144
SO4. CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
2-Methylbutane and 2,2-
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option. a. (i) Metamerism
Dimethylpropane
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct Propanamine and N- Functional
b. (ii)
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct Methylethanamine group
N-Ethylethanamine and N-
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect c. (iii) Position
Methylpropanamine
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect d. Butan-1-ol and Butan-2-ol (iv) Chain
Choose the correct option.
76. Consider the following statements:
(a) Chloroform and aniline are separated by the technique (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
of distillation
(b) Glycerol can be separated from spent-lye in soap (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
industry by using steam distillation. (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(c) Aniline is separated by steam distillation from aniline-
water mixture. (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
The correct statements are.
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

11
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

81. Group having highest –I effect in the following is 85. Most stable carbocation among the following is
(1) –NO2
(2) –CN
(3) –OH
(1)
(4) –F
82. The compound which will react most readily with aqueous
AgNO3 solution is

CC-144
(1) CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

CC-144
(4)
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144

83. If 0.8 g of an organic compound gives 1.11 g of Mg2P2O7,

then the percentage of phosphorous in the organic
compound is (4)
(1) 16.25%
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(2) 21.57%
(3) 30.25%
(4) 38.75%
86. The number of acyclic structural isomers possible from the
84. In Dumas method for quantitative estimation of nitrogen, 0.5 molecular formula C3H6O is
g of an organic compound gave 100 mL of nitrogen
collected at 27°C temperature and 680 mm of Hg pressure. (1) 3
What is the percentage composition of nitrogen in the
sample? [Given aqueous tension at 27°C = 20 mm Hg] (2) 4

(1) 25.25% (3) 5

(2) 15.25% (4) 6

(3) 28.75%
(4) 19.75%

12
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

87. Given below are the two statements 89. The incorrect statement regarding nucleophile is
Statement I: The difference in energy between the actual
structure and lowest energy resonance structure is called (1) Nucleophile brings an electron pair
resonance energy. Nucleophile can be either neutral or negatively charged
Statement II: The more the number of important (2)
species
contributing structures, the more is resonance energy.
In light of above statements, choose the correct option. Nucleophile can form a bond by donating a pair of
(3)
electrons to another nucleophile
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Nucleophiles are nucleus seeking species
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
90. Which among the following can exhibit tautomerism?
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
88. Match the structures given in List-I with their common
names given in List-II.
(1)
List I List- II

a. (i) Neopentyl

b. (ii) Isobutyl
(2)

c. (iii) tert-Butyl

(3)

CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144

d. (iv) sec-Butyl

Choose the correct option:

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) (4)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)
CC-144
(4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii),CC-144
d-(i) CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144

BOTANY

13
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

91. RuBisCO enzyme is present in all, except 98. Select the correct option w.r.t. the factors affecting
photosynthesis.
(1) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants
Maximum photosynthesis takes place in red and green
(2) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants (1)
light of visible spectrum
(3) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants There is a linear relationship between incident light and
(2) CO fixation at low light intensities
2
(4) In CAM plants
(3) Light duration does not affect overall photosynthesis
92. Which of the following statements is not true for chlorophyll
a? Age and orientation of leaves are not the factors which
(4)
affect photosynthesis
(1) It only works as shield pigment
99. Arrange the following substrates in ascending order w.r.t
(2) It is bright or blue-green in chromatogram
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144their RQ CC-144
values when theseCC-144 CC-144
are completely oxidised and
(3) It is the primary photosynthetic pigment choose the correct option.
a. Tripalmitin
(4) It works as reaction centre in the photosystem b. Proteins
93. The products of light reaction that are used to drive the c. Malic acid
biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis are d. Glucose
(1) a < b < d < c
(1) CO2 and ATP
(2) b < d < a < c
(2) H2O and CO2
(3) a < b < c < d
(3) NADH + H+ and FADH2
(4) d < a < b < c
(4) ATP and NADPH + H+ 100.The mobile electron carrier that is attached to the outer
surface of inner mitochondrial membrane transfers
94. The transmembrane channel of ATP synthase carries out electrons between
(A) of protons across the membrane.
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ (1) Succinate dehydrogenase and cytochrome bc1 complex
Select the correct option to fill (A).
(2) Ubiquinol and cytochrome c
(1) Facilitated diffusion
CC-144
(2) Simple diffusion
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144(3) Cytochrome
CC-144 CC-144
c and cytochrome bc1 complex CC-144

(3) Active transport Cytochrome bc1 complex and cytochrome c oxidase

(4)
complex
(4) Osmosis
101.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. alcoholic fermentation
95. According to chemiosmotic hypothesis, ATP synthesis in yeast
requires all, except
(1) Pyruvic acid is converted into alcohol
(1) Electron gradient
CC-144
(2) Proton gradient CC-144 CC-144 CC-144(2) CO2 isCC-144
evolved
CC-144 CC-144
(3) Proton pump ++
(3) Mg ion is required during decarboxylation of pyruvic
acid
(4) ATP synthase
Pyruvic acid is completely oxidised into alcohol in the
96. Optimum temperature for photosynthesis in C4 plants is (4)
absence of oxygen
(1) Equal to that of C3 plants 102.Which of the following complexes are respectively involved
(2) Lower than that of C3 plants in FADH2 and NADH + H+ oxidation in ETS of
mitochondria?
(3) Higher than that of C3 plants
(1) Complex I and complex II
(4) The same as that for tomato and wheat plants
(2) Complex II and complex I
97. ATP synthesis in chloroplast takes place (3) Complex III and complex IV
(1) In the intermembrane space (4) Complex II and complex IV
When there is movement of protons from stroma to
(2)
thylakoid lumen
(3) Towards the stroma side of thylakoid membrane
(4) Towards the cytoplasm through outer membrane

14
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

103.During which of the following conversions in a living cell, 108.A microbiologist, based on his studies on purple and green
substrate level phosphorylation does not occur? bacteria, inferred that O2 evolved by the green plant comes
(1) 1, 3 bisphosphoglyceric acid → 3-phosphoglyceric acid from H2O, not from CO2. The microbiologist was

(2) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid (1) Julius von Sachs

(3) Phosphoenol pyruvate → Pyruvic acid (2) Joseph Priestley

(4) Succinic acid → Fumaric acid (3) Jan Ingenhousz

104.Net gain of ATP in alcoholic fermentation from one molecule (4) Cornelius van Niel
of glucose is
109.Which of the given statements is not true for the below
(1) 3 labelled parts of the chloroplast?

CC-144
(2) 5 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(3) 2
(4) 4

105.Read the given statements and choose the correct option.

Statement A: Reduction step of C3 cycle involves
utilization of three molecules of ATP for reduction and two of
NADPH for phosphorylation per CO2 molecule fixed.
Statement B: Electrons in the reaction centre of PS I are
excited and transferred to another acceptor molecule that
has greater redox potential.
Structure A is the possible location where cyclic
(1) Only statement A is correct (1)
photophosphorylation occurs.
(2) Only statement B is correct In the region, labelled as B, enzymatic reactions
(2)
synthesize sugars, which in turn form the structure D.
(3) Both the statements are correct
Individual members of the structure C have both the
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (3)
photosystems, i.e., PS I and PS II
106.How many ATP and NADPH are required for the synthesis
ofCC-144 CC-144during Calvin CC-144 CC-144(4) Structure
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
D is formed due to the sole reaction that is
one molecule of sucrose cycle? carried out in the structure C
(1) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
110.Photochemical phase includes
(2) 30 ATP and 12 NADPH a. Light absorption
b. Water splitting
(3) 36 ATP and 24 NADPH c. Oxygen release
(4) 60 ATP and 24 NADPH d. ATP synthesis
e. NADPH synthesis
107.Select the correct match.
CC-144
Chlorophyll
CC-144
Highest CC-144
absorption spectrum in CC-144(1) Only a,
CC-144
b and e CC-144 CC-144
(1) – between 500-600 nm of wavelength of (2) Only b and d
a
light.
(3) Only c and e
Maximum rate of photosynthesis in
Chlorophyll (4) All a, b, c, d and e
(2) – between the light wavelength of 540-
b
600 nm
111. Which of the following is not common between oxidative
Blue green colour seen in the phosphorylation and photophosphorylation?
(3) Xanthophylls –
chromatogram
Absorbs light and transfer the energy to ATP synthesis is linked to the development of a proton
(4) Carotenoids – (1)
chlorophyll gradient across a membrane
(2) Mobile electron carrier is involved
(1) (1)
Involvement of ATP synthase enzyme for the formation
(2) (2) (3)
of ATP
(3) (3) Requirement of light energy to generate a proton
(4)
(4) (4) gradient

15
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

112.How many carbon atoms are present in the compound that 116.In the photorespiratory pathway,
combines with CO2 to make two molecules of PGA in C3
There is neither the synthesis of sugars, nor of ATP or
cycle? (1)
NADPH.
(1) 2-carbon
(2) RuBisCO binds to CO2 instead of O2
(2) 6-carbon
Carbon reaction occurs in the bundle sheath cells of C4
(3) 5-carbon (3)
plants
(4) 4-carbon Carboxylase activity of RuBisCO is maximised than its
(4)
oxygenase activity.
113.Match the column I with column II and select the correct
option. 117.Select the incorrect matched pair.
Column I Column II (1) Glycolysis – Glucose undergoes partial
CC-144
a. Photosynthesis CC-144
(i) RuBP CC-144
+ CO2 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
oxidation CC-144
RuBisCO (2) Oxidative – The energy of oxidation
−−−−→ 2(3PGA) phosphorylation reduction is utilised for the
b. Carboxylation (ii) 6CO2 + 12H2O production of proton gradient
required for phosphorylation
(3) Oxidative – Occurs in the inner
Light

−→
− C6H12O6 + 6H2O +
decarboxylation mitochondrial membrane
6O2 (4) Tricarboxylic acid – The first enzymatic reaction is
c. Splitting of water (iii) RuBP + O2 cycle carried out by citrate
RuBisCO
synthase
−−−−→ Phosphoglycerate
(1) (1)
+ Phosphoglycolate
d. Photorespiration (iv) 2H O 4H+ + O + 4e– (2) (2)
2 → 2
(3) (3)
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) (4)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
118.In both lactic acid and alcohol fermentation
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
CC-144 CC-144
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
CC-144 CC-144(1) Complete
CC-144degradation ofCC-144
glucose into CO2CC-144
and H2O
occurs.
114.In Hatch-Slack pathway, which C4 acid gets transported +
from mesophyll cells to bundle sheath cells of C4 plant? (2) NADH + H acts as a reducing agent for the formation of
end product
(1) Oxaloacetic acid 3-carbon molecule which is obtained from a 4-carbon
(3)
molecule during glycolysis acts as substrate.
(2) Phosphoglyceric acid
(4) Net gain of ATP is more than that of aerobic respiration
(3) Aspartic acid
CC-144
(4) Pyruvic acid
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
119.In a citricCC-144 CC-144
acid cycle, a five carbon CC-144
acid ultimately leads to
the formation of a four carbon acid, that reforms the first
115.Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) member of the cycle. In between these processes, which of
statements and select the correct option. the given reactions occur?
Assertion (A): The effect of water as a factor is more a. Dehydrogenation
through its effect on the plant, rather than directly on b. Decarboxylation
photosynthesis. c. Substrate level phosphorylation
Reason (R): Less than 1% of the absorbed water is used in d. Oxidation
photosynthesis and also, water stress causes the stomata to e. Oxidative phosphorylation
close hence reducing the CO2 availability and also makes The correct ones are
the leaves wilt. (1) Only a, b and e
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (2) a, b, c and d
(1)
explanation of (A)
(3) Only a, d and e
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2) (4) Only b and c
explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

16
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

120.During oxidation within a cell, all the energy contained in 126.Read the following statements and state them as true (T) or
respiratory substrates is false (F) w.r.t. the factors affecting photosynthesis.
A. Light saturation occurs at 10% of the total sunlight
(1) Released free in a single step into the cell available to plants.
(2) Trapped as physical energy in the form of ATP B. At high light intensities, tomato responds to increased

Directly used whenever or wherever energy needs to be CO2 concentration and saturation is seen at about 360 μlL–
(3) 1.
utilized but not in form of ATP
Released in a series of slow step-wise reactions C. Dark reactions, being enzymatic are temperature
(4) controlled.
controlled by enzymes.
D. With the accumulation of end product of photosynthesis
121.During the conversion of the below given reaction of in mesophyll cell, there is increase in the photosynthetic
glycolysis, how many redox-equivalents are removed in the rate.
CC-144
form CC-144
of hydrogen atoms and how manyCC-144
NAD+ molecules CC-144(1) A(T), B(F),
CC-144C(T), D(F) CC-144 CC-144
get reduced, respectively?
2(PGAL) → 2(BPGA) (2) A(T), B(T), C(F), D(T)

(1) Two and one (3) A(T), B(F), C(T), D(T)

(2) Four and two (4) A(F), B(T), C(F), D(F)

(3) Six and three 127.Read the following assertion (A) and reason (R) statements
and select the correct option.
(4) Eight and four Assertion (A) : During oxidative phosphorylation, O2 is the
122.One of the crucial events in aerobic respiration is the ultimate acceptor of electrons and it gets oxidised to water.
complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of Reason (R) : Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the
all the hydrogen atoms, leaving three molecules of CO2. inter-membrane space of the mitochondria.
This process occurs in the Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
(1)
correct explanation of the assertion
(1) Matrix of mitochondria
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not
(2) Inner membrane of mitochondria (2)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Cytosol
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
CC-144
(4) CC-144
Lumen of thylakoids CC-144 CC-144(4) Both Assertion
CC-144and Reason
CC-144 CC-144
are false statements
123.Read the following statements and choose the correct
128.Match the following columns and select the correct option.
option.
Statement A : PGA is the first stable product of CO2 fixation Column I Column II
in maize. Cytochrome c
Receives reducing equivalents
Statement B : The site of action of RuBisCO is stroma of a. oxidase (i).
via complex II
chloroplast of bundle sheath cells in maize. complex
(1) Only statement A is correct Generated during oxidation of
b. FADH2 (ii).
CC-144
(2) CC-144
Only statement B is correct CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
succinate CC-144
c. Cytochrome c (iii). Contains two copper centres
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct
A protein attached to the outer
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect d. Ubiquinone (iv). surface of inner mitochondrial
membrane
124.For trapping light, light harvesting complex in plants
contains (1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) Chlorophyll a only (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(2) Many pigments except chlorophyll a (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Only chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) Many accessory pigments along with chlorophyll a 129.During aerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose there
125.In chloroplasts, the enzyme that catalyse the reduction of can be a net gain of

NADP+ to NADPH + H+ is located (1) 38 ATP

(1) In the lumen of thylakoid (2) 30 ATP

(2) On the inner side of inner membrane of chloroplast (3) 18 ATP

(3) In between the outer and inner membrane (4) 12 ATP

(4) On the stroma side of the thylakoid membrane

17
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

130.In muscle cells during exercise, when oxygen is 133.Select the odd one w.r.t. product of fermentation
inadequate, pyruvic acid is reduced to lactic acid by
(1) Lactic acid
(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(2) Alcohol
(2) Lactate dehydrogenase
(3) Carbon dioxide
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) NADH + H+
(4) Alcohol dehydrogenase
134.Which of the following is not a four carbon acid?
131.Pyruvate dehydrogenase can catalyse which of the
following reactions? (1) Oxaloacetic acid
(2) Malic acid
Pyruvate + NAD+ + CoA
2+
Mg

−−→ Acetyl coenzyme A +

CC-144
(1) CC-144 CC-144 CC-144(3) LacticCC-144
acid CC-144 CC-144
NADH + H+ + CO2 (4) Succinic acid

Citric acid + NAD+ → α-ketoglutaric acid + CO2 + NADH 135.Pacemaker enzyme of glycolysis is involved in the
(2) conversion of
+ H+
(1) Fructose-6-phosphate into fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
(3) Malic acid + NAD+ + H+ → Oxaloacetic acid + NADH
(2) Triose bisphosphate into triose phosphate

(4) Pyruvate + NADH + H+ Ethanol + CO2 + NAD+ (3) 2-phosphoglycerate into phosphoenol pyruvate
2+
Mg

−−→

(4) Glucose-6-phosphate into fructose-6-phosphate

132.During the conversion of succinate to fumarate in the matrix
of mitochondria, their electrons are transferred to inner
mitochondrial membrane by
(1) Complex I
(2) Complex II
(3) Complex III
CC-144
(4) Complex IV CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144

ZOOLOGY

136.Estrogens are the dominant ovarian hormones during 138.The urethra originates from the (a) and extends through
which phase of menstrual cycle? ¯¯¯¯¯
(b) and open outside via an opening called (c) .
CC-144
(1) Secretory phase CC-144 CC-144 CC-144Select theCC-144
¯¯¯¯¯
option that fills the CC-144
blanks correctly. CC-144
¯¯¯¯¯

(2) Proliferative phase (1) (a) – Urinary bladder, (b) – Penis, (c) – Urethral meatus
(3) Luteal phase (2) (a) – Penis, (b) – Ejaculatory duct, (c) – Urethral meatus
(4) Bleeding phase (3) (a) – Urinary bladder, (b) – Penis, (c) – Foreskin
137.Ploidy levels are similar in (4) (a) – Prostate, (b) – Penis, (c) – Urethral meatus
(1) Oogonia, primary oocyte 139.In a human male, seminal plasma contains
(2) Spermatid, primary spermatocyte (1) Only fructose and enzymes
(3) 1st polar body, spermatogonia (2) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes

(4) 2nd polar body, spermatogonia (3) Glucose, calcium and enzymes
(4) Fructose, calcium, potassium and no enzymes
140.Select the incorrect option w.r.t. middle layer of uterine wall.
(1) Made up of fusiform shaped uninucleated muscle cells
(2) Exhibits strong contractions during parturition
(3) Contracts under the effect of oxytocin hormone
(4) Sheds off during menstruation

18
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

141.Spermatogenesis in males begins 147.If by some means, the β-cells of pancreas get damaged,
then the person may become/show
(1) Before birth (a) Hypoglycemic
(2) At puberty (b) Increased glycogenesis in hepatocytes
(c) Hyperglycemic
(3) Before puberty (d) Decreased gluconeogenesis in hepatic cells
(4) During third trimester of embryonic development Select the correct option.

142.Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces (1) (a) only
several hormones like (2) (a) and (b)
(1) LH, hPL and hCG (3) (c) only
(2) Estrogen, progesterone, hPL and hCG (4) (c) and (d)
CC-144
(3) Relaxin, hCG, hPLCC-144
and thymosin CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
148.Hormone responsible for maintaining the normal sleep-
(4) Thyroxine, relaxin, hCG and hPL wake cycle is

143.Select the hormone which is not secreted by endocrine (1) Serotonin

cells of GI tract (2) Melatonin
(1) Renin (3) Oxytocin
(2) Gastrin (4) Vasopressin
(3) Secretin 149.If the thymus gland of a child gets damaged by any means,
(4) Cholecystokinin it will result in
(1) Low oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin
144.Choose the hormone which can enter inside the target cell.
(1) Thyroxine (2) Severe decrease in cell mediated immunity
(3) Loss of growth and development of bones
(2) Thymosin
(4) Loss of water through urine
(3) Thyrocalcitonin
(4) Parathormone 150.In human males, which structure commonly participates in
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144both excretory
CC-144 CC-144
and reproductive functions? CC-144
145.Select the option that represents exclusively endocrine
(1) Ureter
glands.
(1) Testes and thymus (2) Urinary bladder
(3) Urethra
(2) Parathyroid and pancreas
(4) Seminal vesicle
(3) Adrenal and parathyroid
(4) Ovary and adrenal 151.In human females, the secretory phase of the uterine cycle
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
146.How many of the following is/are the effects of
CC-144a. Is associated with the increasing levels of progesterone
CC-144
and estrogen
CC-144 CC-144
glucocorticoids? b. Corresponds with the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle
a. Production of glucose from non-sugar precursors c. Makes the endometrium least receptive to a fertilized
b. Breakdown of triglycerides embryo
c. Cellular uptake and utilisation of amino acids d. Corresponds with the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle
d. Inhibition of inflammatory reactions Select the option that represents only the correct set.
Select the correct option.
(1) a and d
(1) One
(2) b and c
(2) Three
(3) a and b
(3) Two
(4) c and d
(4) Four
152.Choose the odd one w.r.t. the male sex accessory ducts in
humans.
(1) Rete testis
(2) Vasa efferentia
(3) Epididymis
(4) Seminiferous tubules

19
Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

153.In case, there is an increase in the osmotic concentration of 158.Read the following statements w.r.t humans:
the blood plasma of a person, then, ADH can help in Statement A: During spermiogenesis, there is no cell
retention of water through interaction with target cells in the division but there is transformation of the spherical non-
a. Anterior pituitary motile spermatids into elongated and motile sperms.
b. Urinary bladder Statement B: Each spermatogonium is directly released
c. Posterior pituitary into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules.
d. DCT of nephron Choose the correct option.
e. Collecting duct
Choose the correct option. (1) Both statements A and B are correct

(1) a, d and e (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect

(2) c and d (3) Only statement A is incorrect

(4) Only statement B is incorrect
(3) b, c and d
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(4) d and e 159.Assertion (A): Under normal conditions, during ovulation,
the secondary oocyte which is not surrounded by zona
154.Which among the following sets of hormones majorly helps pellucida is expelled into the pelvic cavity.
a mother to produce and eject milk respectively? Reason (R): In oogenesis, differentiation of ova occurs after
the completion of meiosis that leads to the formation of the
(1) Luteinizing hormone and estrogen second polar body.
(2) Prolactin and FSH In the light of above statements, select the correct option
w.r.t humans.
(3) Prolactin and oxytocin
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4) FSH and luteinizing hormone (1)
explanation of (A)
155.Trophic hormones from the anterior pituitary directly affect Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
the release of which of the following hormones? (2)
explanation of (A)
(1) Glucagon (3) Both (A) and (R) are false
(2) Melatonin (4) (A) is true; (R) is false
(3) Calcitonin 160.For fertilisation to occur, which of the following is first
(4) Thyroxine penetrated by sperms?
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144(1) The corona
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
radiata that covers the secondary oocyte
156.Match column I with column II w.r.t glands and the diseases
associated with their hyposecretions. An acellular layer that surrounds the plasma membrane
(2)
Column I Column II of the secondary oocyte
a. Ovary (i) Simple goitre (3) The plasma membrane of the secondary oocyte
b. Adrenal (ii) Addison’s disease (4) The acellular glycoproteinaceous layer
c. Pancreas (iii) Osteoporosis 161.The process of childbirth is called parturition which is
CC-144
d. Thyroid
CC-144
(iv) Diabetes mellitus
CC-144 CC-144induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism
CC-144 CC-144
involving all of the following, except
CC-144
Choose the correct match.
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (1) Cortisol

(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) Estrogen

(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (3) Oxytocin

(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) Prolactin

157.Injection of which of the following hormones is useful for the

treatment of allergy?
(1) Aldosterone
(2) Cortisol
(3) Insulin
(4) ADH

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

162.Select the correct match w.r.t humans. 166.The first movement of foetus and appearance of hair on the
(1) Relaxin – Steroidal hormone released by ovary head are usually observed during which month of
pregnancy?
Fallopian Lined by stratified cuboidal
(2) –
tube epithelium (1) 2nd month
Cervical Along with vagina forms the birth
(3) – (2) 5th month
canal canal
Present outside the seminiferous (3) 3rd month
(4) Nurse cells –
tubules
(4) 1st month
(1) (1)
167.Hormones which regulate pigmentation of the skin are
(2) (2) secreted by
CC-144
(3) (3) CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
(1) Pineal gland and pituitary
(4) (4) (2) Thyroid and parathyroid
163.Which part of the human sperm contains mitochondria (3) Adrenal gland and Anterior pituitary
arranged in a spiral fashion?
(4) Posterior pituitary and pineal gland
(1) Head
168.Which of the following is a sex hormone and also stimulates
(2) Neck erythropoiesis?
(3) Tail (1) Thyroxine
(4) Middle piece (2) Estrogen
164.Identify the structure marked ‘X’. (3) Cortisol
(4) Testosterone
169.“Hormones are produced in trace amounts as very few
molecules of any hormone is required to produce changes
in target cells”.
Amongst the following, which one is the best possible
CC-144 CC-144 CC-144 CC-144explanation CC-144 CC-144
for the above stated fact? CC-144
All hormones are lipid-soluble and readily penetrate the
(1)
membrane of the target cells
The mechanism of every hormone action involves the
(2) formation of hormone-receptor complex with the
genome
Hormones are large nutrient molecules that remain in
(3)
CC-144
Choose CC-144
the correct option. CC-144 CC-144 bloodCC-144 CC-144
circulation for a long time CC-144
(1) Embryo The mechanism of hormone action involves an enzyme
(4)
cascade that amplifies the response of a hormone
(2) Yolk sac
170.Assertion (A): At the effector sites, the response produced
(3) Umbilical cord
by the steroidal epinephrine is faster as compared to the
(4) Placental villi effect shown by MSH.
Reason (R): Protein hormones interact with receptors that
165.In human females, primary oocyte grows in size and are present on the nucleus of the cell whereas steroidal
completes its first meiotic division within hormones typically interact with receptors present on the
(1) Secondary follicle surface of the cell membrane.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
(2) Tertiary follicle
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(3) Graafian follicle (1)
explanation of (A)
(4) Primary follicle Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) (A) is true; (R) is false

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-05A

171.Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t humans. 176.Choose the incorrect option w.r.t the development of
human embryo.
(1) Neurohypophysis releases ADH and oxytocin.
The number of cells in the embryo increases as it
The pituitary hormones regulate the growth and (1) continues to move through the uterine tube towards the
(2) development of somatic tissues and the activities of uterine cavity
some peripheral endocrine glands.
At the 16-celled stage, the morula differs in size from the
(3) Gastrin and GIP hormone show synergistic effects (2)
original zygote.
Responses of the endocrine system are often slower (3) The trophoblast participates in the formation of placenta.
(4)
than the responses of the nervous system.
The blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium
172.Read the following statements w.r.t humans: (4)
of the uterus.
Statement A: Insulin mainly acts on hepatocytes and
CC-144 and enhances
adipocytes, CC-144 CC-144
cellular glucose uptake and CC-144 CC-144
177.(22 + Y) is CC-144
the genetic constitution observed in CC-144
utilisation.
Statement B: The specific action of PTH is to decrease the (1) Spermatogonia
amount of calcium in blood. (2) Primary spermatocytes
Choose the correct option.
(3) Secondary spermatocytes
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Primary oocytes
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
178.________ are finger like projections that appear on the
(3) Only statement A is correct
trophoblast after implantation.
(4) Only statement B is correct Select the option that correctly fills the blank.

173.All of the following are true w.r.t aldosterone, except (1) Flagella
(2) Cilia
(1) Regulates the homeostasis of Na+ and K+ in body fluid
(3) Chorionic villi
Is released by the innermost layer of adrenal gland
(2)
called adrenal medulla (4) Microvilli
(3) Helps to regulate blood pressure and blood volume 179.How many eggs are released by ovaries of a normal human
female per year if duration of her menstrual cycle is of 28
CC-144 CC-144
(4) Maintains ionic balance in the body
CC-144 CC-144days? CC-144 CC-144 CC-144
174.In human females, the menstrual cycle is affected by (1) 6
a. Thyroxine
b. Melatonin (2) 12
c. Estrogen
d. Prolactin (3) 13
Choose the correct option. (4) 14
(1) c and d only 180.Complete the analogy w.r.t. source gland of hormone.
CC-144
(2) a, b and c only CC-144 CC-144 CC-144GnRH : Hypothalamus
CC-144 : : MSHCC-144
: _____ CC-144
(3) a and c only (1) Zona fasciculata

(4) a, b, c and d (2) Pars intermedia

(3) Zona reticularis
175.Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t humans.
Pregnancy is characterised by metabolic changes in the (4) Neurohypophysis
(1)
mother.
Lumen of alveoli is the site for storage of milk in the
(2)
mammary gland.
By the end of 12 weeks , most of the major organ
(3)
systems are formed
Hymen fully covers the opening of vagina and is not a
(4)
part of the female external genitalia.

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