1.

At what age human fetus starts secreting thyroid hormone

Human fetus secretes thyroxine from the 12th week of gestation. Pg7

2. What is the attributable risk for stunting for 5 or more episodes of diarrhea before 24 months of
age?
Attributable risk for stunting for 5 or more episodes of diarrhea before 24 months of age was
25%. Pg 8

3. Which part of the X ray to be taken to assess the skeletal age 0f infants between 3 and 9 months?
A radiograph of shoulder is most helpful. Pg 11.

4. Which part of the X ray to be taken to assess the skeletal age 0f infants between 3 and 9 months?
Radiographs of elbow and hip give helpful clues. Pg 11

5. Completion of skeletal maturation of long bones completes in girls at what age?

This occurs by about 18 years m girls and 20-22 years in boys. Pg 11

6. Eruption of First permanent molar occurs at what age?

6-7 years pg 11

7. The average height velocity in prepubertal children between 4 and 9 years of age
4-6 cm/yr pg 31

8. Normal US: LS ratio at 6 years is

1.1 : 1 pg 32

9. The first cranial suture to close is

The metopic suture Pg 37

10. The child has complete neck control occurs by at age

20 eeks pg 41

11. Persistent hand regard beyond which weeks considered abnormal

hand regard persistence after 20 weeks is considered abnormal. Page 44

12. At what age the child can pick up a cup and drink from it without much spilling
By 15 months. Pg 45

13. At what age a child can unscrew lids and tum doorknobs
By 2 years pg 46

14. Binocular vision well established at age?

Binocular vision well established by 4 months. Pg 49

15. At what age the child directly looks at the source of sound diagonally?
by the age of 10 months, the child directly looks at the source of sound diagonally pg 49

16. Significant variations in attainment of milestones in individual fields this is called as

Dissociation. Pg 50
17. How many items present in Trivandnmi development screening chart?
It consists of 51 items for children of 0 to 6 years. Pg 53

18. At what age child can draw cube?

Age 11 years pg 47

19. Aat what age child can make tower of 9 cubes

3 years page 47

20. child can skip at what age ?

5 years pg 44

NUTRITION and MICRONUTRIENTS

1.Transthyretin in blood binds which Vitamin?

Ans - Vit A, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.110

2. What is the earliest feature of Vitamin A deficiency?

Ans - Defective dark adaptation., OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.111

3. What is the wavelength of UVB radiation that helps in synthesis of Vitamin D?

Ans - 290 to 315 nm, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.113

4. In nutritional rickets,after treatment,when will you expect radiological evidence of healing?

Ans - within 4 weeks, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.114

5. What is the most common mode of inheritance of familial hypophosphatemic rickets?

Ans - X linked dominant, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.114

6. What is the enzyme deficient in Vitamin D dependent rickets type 1?

Ans - 1alphahydroxylase., OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.115

7. In which type of rickets,levels of 1,25(OH)2 will be elevated?

Ans - Vitamin D dependent rickets type 2, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.115

8. Name the lipoprotein deficient in abetalipoproteinemia?

Ans - Apolipoprotein B, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.116

9. What change in neutophil is seen in B12 deficiency?

Ans - Hypersegmentation of neutrophils, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.119

10. Which vitamin is called Vitamin B5?

Ans - Pantothenic acid, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.120

11. Which Vitamin is a part of coenzyme A?

Ans - Pantothenic acid, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.120

12. Which is the most abundant mineral in our body?

Ans – Calcium, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.121
13.Name the inherited disorder where there is defect in intestinal absorption of Zinc.
Ans - Acrodermatitis enteropathica, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.122

14. Which mineral deficiency ,apart from iron, is associated with microcytic hypochromic anaemia?
Ans - Copper. OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.122

15. Menkes disease is associated with which mineral defect?

Ans - Copper. OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.122

16. Which mineral deficiency is seen in Keshan disease?

Ans – Selenium, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.122

17. What is Kanawati index?

Ans - Mid arm circumference/Head circumference, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.97

18. In the management of SAM children,what is secondary failure?

Ans - Failure to gain 5g/kg/day for 3 consecutive days during the rehabilitation phase., OP
Ghai, 8th edition, p.103

19. Define Hypothermia in SAM children.

Ans - Rectal temperature below 35.5°C or 95.9°F/Axillary temperature below 35°C or 95 °F
OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.103

20. What is the hemoglobin level below which blood transfusion is indicted in asymptomatic SAM
child?
Ans - 4g/dl, OP Ghai, 8th edition, p.106

GIT

1. Ladd procedure done for

Answer: Malrotation of gut

2. Mechanism of action of Aprepitant

Answer: Neurokinin receptor antagonist

3. Vertebrae level of trans pyloric plane

Answer: L1

4. Commonest geno type of HCV in India

Answer: Genotype 3

5. Priming with this drug improves the diagnostic yield of HIDA

Answer: Phenobarbitone or UDCA

6. Concentration of potassium in who ors

Answer: 20 mmol/ L

7 .Kasai procedure is done for

Answer : biliary atresia
8. In acute appendicitis, Palpating in the left lower quadrant causes pain in the right lower quadrant.
What is the name sign ?
Answer: Rovsing sign

9. Anti diabetic drug that can be used in nonalcoholic steato hepatitis

Answer: Metformin

10. Enzyme deficient in Cori's disease ( type 3 glycogen storage disease)

Answer: debranching enzyme

Respiratory system

1. What is the total lung capacity of a newborn?

150 ml (p 396)

2. Name two organisms that causes pneumatocele.

Staphylococcus & klebsiella (403)

3. Why kerosene diffuses quickly from the pharynx into the lungs?
Low viscosity & Low surface tension (405)

4. How will you inhibit Early reaction in the lungs due to inhalation of an allergen?
Using beta2 agonist (407)

5. What is the route and duration of ribavirin for a immunodeficiency child with acute bronchiolitis?
By nebulization 16 hours a day for 3 to 5 days (407)

6. What are the two important role of pulmonary function test?

Diagnosis of doubtful cases Monitoring response to treatment (408)

7. What is SMART in management of asthma?

Single maintenance and reliever therapy (409…

8. What is the percentage of reduction in growth velocity during first year of treatment with inhaled
steroids in asthma children?
20% (410)

9. What is the gold standard investigation for bronchiectasis?

HRCT ( 417)

10. What is the basic defect in cystic fibrosis?

Mutation of CFTR gene ( cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) (418)

11. What is the most common form of extrathoracic tuberculosis?

Scrofula ( superficial lymph nodes) (246)

12. How will you measure induration in montoux test?

Measured transversely to the long axis of forearm in millimeter (257)
13. What is extensive drug resistance TB?
MDR + resistance to any fluoroquinolone + Resistance to one group A drug (bedaquiline or
linezolid) (ICMR)

14. What are the targets of END TB Strategy?

95% reduction in TB mortality & 90% reduction in TB incidence by 2035 (ICMR)

15. What is MIST in treatment of RDS?

Minimally invasive surfactant therapy ( N 934)

16. What is window prophylaxis in TB management?

INH Prophylaxis in a screening test negative under 5 children with history of contact with
adult sputum positive TB patient ( N 1581)

17. When relative hypoxia in a newborn corrected after birth?

5 minutes (395)

18. What is the normal requirement of oxygen for a normal newborn?

7ml/kg/minute (395)
19. What drug is used to eradicate carrier state in tonsilopharyngitis?
Clindamycin (401)
20. What age group of children is included in ARI control program for classification of pneumonia?
2 months to 5 years (405)

1. Syndrome associated with ASD with bony abnormalities

Halt Oram Syndrome OP GHAI pg 398

2. Which heart defect is mandatory for differential cyanosis in any of CCHD ?

PDA OP Ghai 404

3. Drug used to maintain patency of PDA in duct dependent lesions?

PGE1 OP Ghai 422

4. While Screening of critical congenital heart disease with pulse Oxymetry the difference of ——- %
is significant?
3%

5. CHD which may lead to Myocardial infarction?

ALCAPA OPGhai 423

6. Lutembacher syndrome refers to ?

ASD with Mitral stenosis Nelson

7. Grade the murmur which are accompanied by palpable thrill ?

Grade 4 and higher Nelson 2352

8. A male child presents with short stature ,antimangaloid slant and pulmonary stenosis .Can you
figure out the syndrome?
Noonan syndrome Op Ghai …
9. Subcutaneous nodules in rheumatic fever is almost always associated with ?
Carditis OpGhai 432

10. Name a virus which can cause Myocarditis?

Cocksackie B OP Ghai 442

11. Heart lesion associated with WPW syndrome?

Epstein anomaly OpGhai 421

12. Typical manifestation of digitalis toxicity in ECG?

Ventricular bigeminy Nelson

13. Electrolyte abnormality which can enhance digitalis toxicity?

Hypokalemia

14. Which heart disease seldom associated with infective endocarditis?

ASD OP Ghai 442

15. Name of the vitamin A derivative which can be teratogenic and cause cardiac lesion in fetus?
Isoretretinoin Nelson 2341

16. Commonest heart lesion in fetal alcohol syndrome?

ASD Nelson 2348

17. Heart defect associated with DiGeorge syndrome?

Conotruncal anomalies OP Ghai Page 398

18. Embryonic Heart starts pumping as early as …….days of gestation?

20-21 days Nelson2340

19. Endocardial fibroelastosis is caused by

Mumps Nelson 2471

1. Syndromes associated with glomerulocystic kidney disease.

Ans trisomy13, tuberous sclerosis p.503

2. Which protein is responsible for the nephrononephthisis medullary cystic disease complex?
Nephrocystin p.503

3. Whatis the treatment of choice for ureterocele?

Endoscopic deroofing. P.501
4. Which size of the stones pass spontaneously?
5-7 mm p.498
5. Which drug is used for cystinuria?
Penicillamine or tiopronin. P498

6. What is the firstline of treatment in enuresis?

motivational therapy and use of alarm devices. P.499
7. Which enzyme activity is deficient in primary oxaluria type 1?
P.497, liver specific alanine glyoxylate aminotransferase

8. What is the defect in Gitelman syndrome?

P.496 apical thiazide sensitive sodium chloride co transporter in the dis…

9. What are the types of renal glucosuria?

,3 types type A, B, O. P.496

10. Uurine/ blood Pco2 <10 mm of Hg seen in which type of RTA?

P.494 classical distal RTA ( Type 1)

11. What is the maximum osmolality of concentrated urine in infant?

700-800 mosms/ kg. P 463

12. Which test is considered as sensitive indicator of glomerular function?

Cystatin C. P.465

13. What is the formula for estimation G FR?

= k* ht in cm/ sr creatinine. constant k ranges between 0.41 and 0.43. P.465

14. What is the dose of Rituximab in steroid sensitive nephrotic syndrome?

375/ m2 iv once a week, 1-2 doses.. P.475

15. What is the other name for familial benign hematuria?

Thin basement disease. P.468

16. Which microscopy showing dysmorphic RBC in glomerular hematuria?

Phase contrast microscopy. P467, fig 17.7

17. What is the expansion of KDIGO?

Kidney disease improving global outcome. P. 482

18. Which is preferred modality in AKI secondary to major surgical procedures?

CVVH dialysis. P.487

19. How will you store the urine for doing culture sensitivity?
at 4*c for 12 -14 hrs. P.463

20. Which maternal serum marker is used for antenatal screening of congenital nephrotic
syndrome?
Maternal serum alpha feto protein P.477.
 Neonatology

1. Name the drug used to keep the ductus arteriosus patent

in a neonate?. Prostaglandin E1 infusion

2. In which plane of the scalp is cephalhematoma formed? Subperiostium layer

3. A male newborn is noticed to have poor urinary stream

and a palpable bladder. What is the most likely cause? Posterior Urethral Valve

4. Umbilical catheterization done during the neonatal period may later

cause what complication? ExtraHepatic PortalVein Obstruction

5. Name a drug that can be administered in an inhaled

form for the treatment
of persistent pulmonary hypertension in the newborn? Inhaled Nitric Oxide

6. An alive term , male baby delivered by LSCS is noted to have respiratory distress since birth. Chest
x-ray reveals prominent perihilar pulmonary vascular markings in a “sunburst” pattern & prominent
interlobar fissure. What is the diagnosis? Transient Tachypnea of NewBorn

7. For a baby with HR – 130/mt ; RR – 40/mt, strong respiratory efforts, peripheral cyanosis, grimace
while suctioning & having slightly flexed posture but no active movements of limb, what is the
APGAR score? 7/10

8. A newborn male baby delivered by forceps because of difficult labour, is noted to have unilateral
moro’s reflex with positive palmar grasp reflex. The site of lesion is Brachial plexus

9. Modified Bell staging is used for Necrotizing Enterocolitis

10. A two-hour-old baby born to a mother with antepartum

hemorrhage has hematemesis. What test would you like do to differentiate from swallowed
maternal blood? Apt test

11. An alive term male baby is noted to have respiratory distress since birth. Chest x-ray shows
multiple air filled cysts in left hemithorax & shift of mediastinum to the right. What is the diagnosis?
Lt. Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

12. Caffeine is used for which condition in newborn? Apnea of Prematurity

13. Which drug is used to prevent hemorrhagic disease of newborn? Vitamin K

14. Optimal wave length of light used for phototherapy is 460-490nm

15. Which mechanism of phototherapy is mainly responsible for decline in serum biliribin levels?
Structural isomerization

16. Which drug has been given antenatally to women at risk of preterm delivery before 34weeks for
neuroprotection of the preterm infant? Magnesium sulphate

17. In newborn resuscitation, chest compression to positive pressure ( Bag & Mask) ventilation is
given at ratio of 3:1

18. What is the screening marker enzyme for diagnosing Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia? 17-OH
Progesterone
19. Neonate born to mother with SLE can have Complete Heart Block in heart

20. Kasai’s procedure( HepatoPortoEnterostomy) is done for Biliary atresia

21. Monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of Retinopathy of prematurity? Bevacizumab

22. IUGR/LBW babies can develop chronic non communicable disease ( DM/HT/CAD) later in life.
Who proposed this hypothesis? Barker’s hypothesis

1. What is the temperature should be maintained in the deep freezer?

Ans: - 25°C TO - 15°C Pg: 202

2. Name the vaccine to be stored in the freezer compartment?

Ans: OPV Pg: 202

3. Which vaccine should be given before splenectomy?

Ans: Pneumococcal, Meningococcal and H. influenzae vaccines Pg: 203

4. When will you advise live vaccines, after administration of blood products?
Ans: after 3 months Pg: 203

5. What is the dose of Hepatitis B Immunoglobulin ?

Ans: 0.06 ml/kg (32 – 48 IU/kg) Pg: 204

6. Write the dose of Rabies antiserum?

Ans: 40 IU/ kg Pg: 204

7. Which strain is used in yellow fever vaccine?

Ans: 17D-204 or 17DD strain Pg: 200

8. Name the carrier protein for Quadrivalent conjugated meningococcal vaccine?

Ans: diphtheria toxin Pg: 200

9. Write the strain of varicella vaccine?

Ans: OKA strain Pg: 196

10. Name the diseases covered in “Mission Indradhanush” ?

Ans: TB, Polio, Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, H. influenza and Hepatitis B Pg: 185

11. In which poisoing , greenish blue colour urine is passed?

Ans: amitriptyline Pg: 710

12. Name the drugs causing prolonged PR interval?

Ans: Digoxin, Lithium Pg: 710

13. Name the antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning?

Ans: Flumazenil Pg: 712
14. What is the antidote for beta blocker poisoning?
Ans: Glucogan Pg: 712

15. Name the antidote for opioid poisoning?

Ans: Naloxone Pg:712

16. What is the toxic dose of acetaminophen in children?

Ans: > 200mg/kg Pg: 715

17. Name the criteria for deciding liver transplantation in paracetamol poisoning?
Ans: king’s college criteria Pg: 716

18. What is the average amount of venum injected by russel viber in each bite?
Ans: 60 mg Pg: 718

19. Write the Drug of choice for scorpion sting?

Ans: Prozosin Pg: 719

20. What is the dose of epinephrine in anaphylaxis?

Ans: 0.01mg/kg , 1 in 1000 dilution IM Pg: 718 Ref: OP Ghai 9th edition

1. Abnormal paroxysmal electrical activity in the brain, resulting in motor, sensory, behavioral or
autonomic manifestations is called as
Ans- Seizure (Page 553 op ghai)

2. Any seizure persisting more than 30 minutes, is called as

Ans – Status epilepticus (Page 553 op ghai)

3. Most common epileptic encephalopathy in infancy is

Ans- west syndrome(Page 555 op ghai)

4. 3Hz spike and wave discharges, provoked by hyperventilation, in EEG– likely diagnosis will be
Ans- Absence seizures(Page 556 op ghai)

5. Occipito frontal circumference more than 3 Standard deviation below the mean for age, sex,
gender is defined as
Ans-Microcephaly (Page 557 op ghai)

6. Downward displacement of cerebellar tonsils through foramen magnum into upper cervical canal
is seen in
Ans- Arnold chiari malformation type 1(Page 557 op ghai)

7. Among neuro cutaneous syndromes, all are inherited except

Ans – sturge weber syndrome (Page 558 op ghai)

8. Other name for neurofibromatosis type 1?

Ans- Von recklinghausen disease (Page 558 op ghai)
9. Ash leaf macules, shagreen patches, adenoma sebaceum are characterisically seen in
Ans- Tuberous sclerosis complex(Page 558 op ghai)

10. Ipsilateral rail road pattern of intracranial calcification and glaucoma is seen in
Ans- Sturge weber syndrome (Page 559 op ghai)

11. Leading cause of viral encephalitis in india and worldwide is?

Ans- Japanese encephalitis (Page 560 op ghai)

12. Live attentuated vaccine strain for Japanese encephalitis is?

Ans: SA-14-14-2(Page 560 op ghai)

13. Characteristic neuroimaging change seen in HSV encephalitis is?

Ans- Temporal lobe signal changes(Page 561 op ghai)

14.One or multiple ring enhancing lesions with or without asymmetrical scloex within ring, reveals?
Ans- Neurocysticercosis(Page 563 op ghai)

15. In reye syndrome, feature of liver biopsy is

Ans- Diffuse microvesicular fatty infiltration without inflammation or necrosis (Page 564 op
ghai)

16. Most common chronic motor disability in childhood?

Ans- cerebral palsy(Page 564 op ghai)

17. Most common type of cerebral palsy is?

Ans – Spastic quadriplegia (Page 564 op ghai)

18. Predominant posterior white matter involvement in MRI, favours of which neuroregression
disorder?
Ans – Adrenoleukodystrophy(Page 566 op ghai)

19. Miller fisher syndrome is a variant of?

Ans – Guillian barre syndrome (Page 567 op ghai)

20. ”Inverted molar tooth “sign seen in brainstem and cerebellum on MRI, is characteristic of?
Ans – Joubert syndrome (Page 568 op ghai)

21. Golden brown pericorneal discoloration in neuro wilson disease, is named as?
Ans – kayser fleischer ring(Page 570 op ghai)
22. In pantothenate kinase associated degeneration, characteristic finding of basal ganglia, on MRI
is?
Ans- “Eye of finger”appearance (Page 570 op ghai)
1. A 1 year old male child presents with failure to thrive, floppiness,coarse facies and following x-ray
feature. What is the probable diagnosis?

A.GSD I

B.GSD IV

C.GSD II

D.GSD III

And.C,Ref Ghai pg 655

2. What is the mode of inheritance seen in the pedigree chart

A.Autosomal Dominant

B.Autosomal Recessive

C.X Linked recessive

D.X Linked dominant

And.B,Ref Ghai pg 640

3. Floret shaped crystals in urine is due to

A.Calcium phosphate

B.Cystine

C.Urate

D.Triple phosphate

And.A,Ref Ghai pg 498

4. A 9 year old male child presents with short stature,pallor,hyperpigmentation,renal defects,skeletal

defects and hands like the following picture.What is the probable diagnosis?

A.TAR
B.Dyskeratosis congenita
C.Fanconi Anemia
D Swachmann Diamond
And.C,Ref Ghai pg 344
5.A 3 year old child who is on strict vegan diet presents with pallor and the following peripheral
smear finding.What is the diagnosis?

A.Folate deficiency
B.Iron deficiency
C.B12 deficiency
D.B1 deficiency
Ans C,Ref Ghai 335
1. Comment on the length of a neonate with growth hormone deficiency
Ans.Normal , Pg .505

2. What is pegvisomant ?
Ans : GH receptor antagonist, Pg.508

3. Define Polyuria ?
Ans: urine output > 5ml/ kg / hr or >2ml/ m2/ day, Pg.508

4. How will be the uptake of radioiodine in patients of hypothyroidism due to enzyme defects
Ans : Normal , Pg512 table 18.8

5. Name the commonest biochemical abnormality associated with neonatal seizures

Ans : hypocalcemia, Pg.516

6. In central hypothyroidism which hormone replacement should precede thyroid replacement ?

Ans: cortisol Pg.512

7. Hypokalemic alkalosis in a child with low renjn hypertension is suggestive of

Ans : true / apparent aldosterone excess, Pg.521

8 .Name any 1 infection that can result in primary adrenal failure

Ans : Tb/ Hiv, Pg.522

9. A neonate diagnosed to have DSD Presents with shock , hyponatremia, hyperkalemia .Treatment
of choice is
Ans : steroids , Pg.522

10. Salt wasting form of CAH is diagnosed by extreme elevation of which metabolic paramter
Ans : 17 – hydroxy progesterone, Ans : pg 523

11. Male child with hypotonia , almond eyes , hyperphagia, hypogonadism and behavioural
abnormalities .most probable syndrome is
Ans : Prader willi, Pg 526
12. Pubertal onset before which age is called precocious puberty in girls .
Ans : 8 yrs , Pg.529

13. What is the medical therapy for undescended testis

Ans : beta HCG, Pg.540

14. Name the most common acute complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus .
Ans : DKA, Pg.546

15. Expand IMNCI

Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness. Pg.766

16. What are the 4 steps in case manAgement process in IMNCI

Ans: Assess , classify, identify , treatment, Pg.767

17. According to IMNCI, a sick young infant with pus from umblicus is said to have
Ans local.bacterial infection. Pg.768

18. Define tachypnea in 2 – 12 month child

Ans RR > 50 / min.. Pg.770

19. Define complicated SAM

Ans .SAM with atleast 1 medical.complication. Pg .721

20. What is the duration of zinc for treatment of diarrhoea

Ans : 14 days . Pg.773

21. What is the antibiotic of choice for dysentry according to IMNCI

Ans.: Cefixime Pg.781

All questions from O.P GHAI 9th edition

1. Name the bacteria with tumbling motility – listeria monocytogenes

2. Name the toxin in staphylococcus aureus responsible for severe invasive skin disease/
osteomyelitis/ pneumonia? –

3. Strawberry tongue- scarlet fever

4. Causative agent of q fever- Coxiella Brunetti

5. Name the disease that causes “Alice in wonderland” syndrome? - infectious mononucleosis (EBV)

6. Most common cause of recurrent aseptic meningitis (Mollaret meningitis)- herpes simplex virus

7. Causative agent for sixth disease? - roseola infantum/ exanthem subitem / HHV- 6

8. Name the condition causing orange tongue? - tangiers disease

9. What test is used to identify subclinical infection in leishmaniasis? - Montenegro skin test

10. Olympian brow is seen in? congenital syphilis

11. What is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in children going to chloroquine resistant
malaria endemic area? - <4 weeks- atovaquone/ proguanil, >4 weeks- mefloquine

12. Romana sign is associated with which parasitic infection? - Trypanosoma cruzi

13. Which parasitic infection causes chlorosis? (Green yellow pallor)- hook worm

14. What is the treatment of LIP (lymphoid interstitial pneumonitis)? – prednisolone 2mg/kg/day 4-
12 weeks f/b chronic low dose prednisolone

15. What is the antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent Neisseria meningitides infection? Rifampicin-4doses
in 3 days, ceftriaxone/ ciprofloxacin – single dose

16. Temperature cut off for

Fever: >38 degree Celsius or >100.4-degree Fahrenheit
Hyperpyrexia: > 40 degree Celsius or >104-degree Fahrenheit

17. Gold standard diagnostic test for leptospirosis? – microscopic agglutination test (MAT)

18. Pontiac fever: an acute flu like illness associated with which bacterial infection? - legionella
pneumophilia

19. Which infection is associated with ampicillin rash? - infectious mononucleosis

20. The classical triad of acute onset of symmetrical flaccid descending paralysis, with clear
sensorium and no fever and no paraesthesia is seen in – botulism

21. Papular, purpuric, glove and stock syndrome are associated with which viral infection? –
parvovirus B 19.

1. Which is the commonest malignancy involving the kidney in children?

Wilm’s tumor.

2. A two-year-old boy presents with abdominal mass, opsomyoclonus and bone pains. Name the
likely tumor.
Neuroblastoma.

3. A child with craniopharyngioma has polyuria. What is the reason for this abnormality?
Diabetes insipidus.

4. What is the staging system used of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

Ann Arbor staging.

5. What is the Mode of inheritance of Becker muscular dystrophy

X Linked recessive
6. A child is climbing on it own body from supine posture. What is the name of the sign?
Gower sign

7. Heliotrope rash is seen in

Dermatomyositis

8. A child presents with fever, palpable purpura over limbs, arthralgia of major joints and hematuria.
What is the diagnosis?
HSP

9. What is the drug used in HSP presenting with renal involvement?

Prednisolone

10. What Drug is used to prolong life in Duchenne muscular dystrophy ?

Corticosteroid ( Prednisolone)

11. Name of the Gene that is mutated in Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which chromosome is it
present

12. The drug Nusinersen (marketed as Spinraza) is used in

Spinal Muscular atrophy

13. Characteristic CSF finding in Gullian Barre syndrome

Albumino cytologic dissociation

14. Drug of choice in Gullian Barre syndrome

IViG

15. Most common soft tissue sarcoma in children

Rhabdomyoma

16. Most common inta abdominal tumour in childhood

Neuroblastoma

17. Array CGH is method of Genetic testing? CGH stands for.

Comparative Genomic Hybridization
 Fluid and electrolytes

1. What percentage of decrease in body weight,Dehydration is considered as severe dehydration

in children.
More than 10% in infants and more than 6% in older children.

2. What is the most common cause of hyponatremia in children?

Syndrome of inappropriate anti diuresis.(SIAD) Page 72.

3. Below what level of serum sodium, A child with hyponatremia is expected to develop cerebral
edema.
Less than or equal to 125 milli equivalents per litre. Reference page 72.

4. Aggressive therapy with hypertonic saline in patients with chronic hyponatremia will lead to
?
Osmotic demyelination syndrome. Page 72.

5 in a child with hypercalcemia above what level of serum potassium P waves will be absent in ECG
More than eight milliequivalents per litre reference page 76

6. In a child with hyperkalemia which drug will help in stabilising myocordial cell membrane and
prevent cardiac arrhythmia
Calcium gluconate.

7. The child being evaluated for hypocalcemia has normal magnesium eye serum pass for us an
low parathormone. What is the most common diagnosis?
Hypo parathyroidism.Reference page 78 figure 6.8

8. If 4 year old child is brought with tetany and seizures what is the immediate drug of choice
Intravenous calcium gluconate (10% ), dose 2 ML per kg.

8. What is the normal anion gap

8 to 12 meq/L

9. What is the most common cause of low anion gap

Hypoalbuminemia. Reference page 83

Inborn errors of Metabolism – OP GHAI

1. Term babies with _____________ or _________________ deficiency may present on the 1st day of
life.
Glutaric Acidemia Type II or Pyruvate Carboxylase deficiency

2. Expand ‘THAN’
Transient Hyper Ammonemia of Newborn

3. In a severely ill (or) lying child with suspected but undiagnosed IEM, ________________ to be
done or advised for confirmation of diagnosis.
Biochemical Autopsy
4. Intravenous phenylactal and Sodium Benzoate with L-Arguine are used as detoxilying agents in
urea cycle defects and organic acidosis.

5. Dosage of vitamin B12 in Methyl Malonic Acdemia

1mg/d

6. Name a muscular disorder with progressive Myopaty.

Glycogen Storage disease, type II & III

7. Skin may show an Ecgematous rash associated with Aloguria in ____________ deficiency.
Biotinidase Deficiency

8. Lens dislocation an ocular finding; useful in ascertaining a diagnosis of _______________

Homocystinuria

9. Normal levels of Ammonia in neonatal period.

Ammonia <200 µg/dl.

10. Corneal clouding, facial coarsness, short trunk with barrel-shaped chest and sternum priotuding
forward are clinical features of ____________________.
Mucopolysacchacidoses

GENETIC – OP GHAI

1. What are the 3 types of chromosomal abnormalities found in children with Down Syndrome?
Trisomy 21, Translocation, Mosaic

2. Which of the following is an Aneuploidy?

A. Edward Syndrome B. Patau Syndrome
C. Klinefelter Syndrome D. All the above

3. Hunter syndrome is a genetic condition mostly less in Males / Females? If Males – why?
X-link recessive inheritance

4. Girl with short stature, webbed necks and associated congenital defects – Horse sloe finding may
be seen in __________________ syndrome.
Turner Syndrome

5. Neuro fibromatosis, Achondroplasia, Marfan syndrome and Crouzon disease are examples of
_____________.
Autosomal dominant inheritance

6. Role of sodium Benzoate for the therapy of genetic disorders _______________

Removal of toxic substance lowering ammonia

7. _____________ surgical treatment a potentially life-saving treatment in Crigler-Najjar Syndrome

patients.
Liver Transplantation
8. _____________ useful bioclinical mother to deleted Aneuploidus in second trimester.
A. Sr.ALPHA-Feroprotein B. Human Chronic Gonadotropin
C. Unconjugated Estriol D. All the above

9. What is the Invasive Prenatal Testing at 10-12 weeks of gestation?

Chronic Villus Biopsy

10. Dosage of Folic Acid recommended in prevention of neural tube defects.

0.4mg daily from 1 month before to 3 months after conception