Addis Ababa University

Department of Computer Science

Model EXIT Exam 2025
Computer Programming
1. What are the values of A, B, C and D after executing the following C++ code fragment?
A = 5, B = 9;
C = ++A – B;
D = C + B––;
cout<<A<<B<<C<<D;
A. 5, 9, -4, 0
B. 6, 8, -3, 6
C. 6, 9, -3, 5
D. 8, 6, -3,6
2. What will be the value of count and sum if a user provides 7.2 as the value of x in the
below given C++ code?
float sum = 3;
float count = 0;
if (x < 6.0)
sum = sum + x;
count = (count += 1)* sum;
A. 0, 10.2
B. 10.2, 10.2
C. 0, 3
D. None of the above
3. How many times the message “Hello” will be displayed on the screen if the vlues of j = 2,
k = 5, m= 6, and n = 9?
while (j < k){
while (m < n){
cout<<"Hello";
m = m + 1;
}
j = j + 1;
}
A. 0
B. 6
C. 3
D. 9
4. Consider the below given C++ code and answer the below question.
int x = 3;
int num[5] = {4, 12,5,7};
int *t, *v;
t = &x;
v = num+2;
 *(v+4) = *t;
What does a statement cout<<*t; prints?
A. The address of x
B. 3
C. 7
D. None of the above
5. What will be the output of the code below?
struct Person {
int age;
string name;
};
int main() {
Person p1{25, “Sami”};
Person p2 = p1;
p2.age = 30;
cout<<p1.age << “ “<<p2.age<<endl;
return 0;
}
A. 25 25
B. 25 30
C. 30 30
D. Compilation error
E. None of the above
6. What will be the output of the below given code?
enum Months {
Jan=1, Feb, Mar, Apr,
May, Jun, Jul, Aug,
Sep, Oct, Nov, Dec
};
int main(){
Months mon;
for(mon = Jan; mon < Dec; mon = (Months)(mon+1))
mon = (Months)(mon + 1);
cout<<mon<<” “;
return 0;
}
A. Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec
B. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
C. 12
D. 13
E. None of the above
7. Given that the file output stream variable, named fileout, has been defined and opened
for output, which of the following will return the current position of the file pointer?
A. fileout.tellg()
B. fileout.tellp()
C. fileout.seekg()
D. fileout.seekp()
E. None of the above
Database Systems[1]
8. What is the primary purpose of concurrency control protocols?

A. To increase transaction speed

B. To guarantee serializability
C. To reduce data redundancy
D. To enhance data security
9. In the context of concurrency control, what is a deadlock?
A. A situation where two or more transactions are waiting for each other to release locks
B. A situation where a transaction is unable to acquire a lock because of it is busy nature
C. A situation where a transaction is rolled back due to a conflict executions occurred
D. A situation where a transaction is committed successfully but rolled back
10. If A1 wants to grant A2 the privilege to insert and delete rows in the EMPLOYEE and
DEPARTMENT relations without allowing A2 to propagate these privileges, what
command should A1 issue?
A. GRANT INSERT, DELETE ON EMPLOYEE, DEPARTMENT TO A2 WITH GRANT
OPTION.
B. GRANT INSERT, DELETE ON EMPLOYEE, DEPARTMENT TO A2;
C. GRANT SELECT ON EMPLOYEE, DEPARTMENT TO A2 WITH REVOKE OPTION;
D. GRANT UPDATE ON EMPLOYEE, DEPARTMENT TO A2 WITH ALLOW OPTION;
11. Which of the following statements about database recovery strategies is correct?
A. The "Force" strategy simplifies recovery by ensuring that all cache updates are
immediately flushed to disk when a transaction commits.
B. The "No-Steal" strategy allows cache to be flushed before transaction commits,
reducing memory needs but leading to complex recovery.
C. The "Steal" strategy maintains data integrity by ensuring that cache cannot be
flushed before transaction commit.
D. The "No-Force" strategy reduces I/O cost by allowing updated pages of a
committed transaction to remain in the buffer when another transaction needs to
update them.
12. What is the impact of larger data item size (coarse granularity) on concurrency?
A. It increases the degree of concurrency permitted
B. It eliminates the need for locks
C. It reduces the degree of concurrency permitted
D. It has no impact on concurrency
13. What must be obtained before performing a deletion operation on an existing data item?
A. Shared lock
B. Intention lock
C. Write lock
D. Read lock
14. Which type of backup copies only the data that has changed since the last backup?
A. Full Backup
B. Incremental Backup
C. Differential Backup
D. Snapshot Backup
15. What is the primary purpose of database recovery?
A. To increase transaction speed and performance
B. To reduce data redundancy and save storage
C. To enhance data security and prevent failure
D. To bring the database into the last consistent state
16. What is the primary notion of Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)?
A. Permissions are associated with individual users, and roles created per user
B. Permissions are associated with roles, and users are assigned to appropriate roles.
C. Permissions are granted based on user requests and administrative approvals
D. Permissions are automatically assigned by the system for each user
17. Which principle of data integrity states that all data must be recorded at the time an action
is performed, not retroactively?
A. Contemporaneous
B. Attributable
C. Legible
D. Original
18. If the owner account A revokes the privilege granted to B, what happens to the privileges
that B propagated based on that privilege?
A. They remain active.
B. They are automatically revoked by the system.
C. They are transferred to another account.
D. They are converted to read-only privileges.
19. In nested transactions, what is the purpose of using savepoints?
A. To encrypt data during transmission
B. To create roll back points in case of error
C. To compress data to save storage space
D. To duplicate data for backup purposes

20. Which feature is unique to object-oriented databases compared to relational databases?

A. Use SQL for data querying.
B. Ability to handle large amounts of data.
C. Storing data in objects and classes.
D. Organizing data into rows and columns.
21. What is a key advantage of relational databases over object-oriented databases?
A. Simple and widespread SQL use.
B. Compatibility with NoSQL.
C. Supports complex data types.
D. Handles hierarchical data.
Object Oriented Programming
22. Which of the following will work if you want to create a table which looks like the
following?

12 -9 8
7 14
-32 -1 0

A. double[][] table = {12, -9, 8, 7, 14, -32, -1, 0};

B. double[][] table = {{12, -9, 8}, {7,14,0}, {-32,-1,0}};
C. double[][] table = {{12,-9,8}{7,14}{-32,-1,0}};
D. double[][] table = { {12, -9, 8},{7, 14},{-32, -1, 0} };
23. Which of the following is a good candidate to be static?
A. The PI field of a circle class
B. A method that displays the salary of an Employee class
C. A method that calculates the hypotenuse of a right-angle triangle class
D. A name field of a Student class
E. All except B
24. Here is the general syntax for method definition:
accessModifier returnType methodName(parameterList ){
Java statements

return returnValue;
}
What is true for the accessModifier?
A. It must always be private or public.
B. It can be omitted, but if not omitted it must be private or public.
C. It can be omitted, but if not omitted there are several choices, including private and
public
D. The access modifier must agree with the type of the return value.
E. All of the above
25. What is the output of the following Java code?
class FinalExam{
int num1;
public FinalExam() {
num1 = 4;
}
void display() {
System.out.println(num1);
}
}
class Final1 extends FinalExam{
int num=3;
public Final1() {
this(5);
num1 = num;
}
public Final1(int num) {
 this.num = num * num;
}
}
public class Main{
public static void main(String[] args){
Final1 f = new final1();
f.display();
}
}
A. 4
B. 25
C. 12
D. 20
26. Which one of the following is important to implement dynamic Polymorphism?
A. Polymorphic variable
B. Method overriding
C. Inheritance
D. All of the above
27. What must a non-abstract child do about an abstract method in its parent class?
A. A child must override an abstract method inherited from its parent by defining a
method with the same signature and same return type
B. A child must define an additional method similar to the one inherited from its parent
by defining a method with the same signature and different return type.
C. A child must not define any method with the same signature as the parent's abstract
method.
D. A non-abstract child must define an abstract method with the same signature and
same return type as the parent's abstract method.
E. All of the above
28. Which of the following is true?
A. A child class can extend a parent or implement an interface, but not do both.
B. A child class can extend just one parent and can implement just one interface.
C. A child class can extend just one parent and can implement zero or more interfaces.
D. A child class can extend zero or more parents, and can implement zero or more
interfaces.
Computer organization and Architecture
29. Which of the following best describes the relationship between CPU involvement in
programmed I/O, interrupt-driven I/O, and direct memory access (DMA)?
A. Programmed I/O wastes CPU cycles, interrupt-driven I/O allows the CPU to
perform other tasks until an interrupt occurs, and DMA minimizes CPU
involvement.
B. Programmed I/O and interrupt-driven I/O use the same CPU time, and DMA
adds extra CPU overhead.
C. Interrupt-driven I/O wastes more CPU time than programmed I/O, and DMA
wastes the most.
D. All three methods require identical CPU effort during data transfer.
30. A peripheral device uses memory-mapped I/O in a system. Which statement is true about
memory-mapped I/O vs. port-mapped I/O?
A. load/store instructions, whereas port-mapped I/O uses separate I/O instructions
and address space.
B. Memory-mapped I/O uses the same address space as regular memory and uses
standard
C. Port-mapped I/O uses the general memory space and ordinary instructions,
while memory- mapped I/O requires special I/O instructions.
D. In memory-mapped I/O, I/O devices have a separate “I/O pin” on the bus, which
is not needed in port-mapped I/O.
E. Memory-mapped I/O cannot use DMA transfers, while port-mapped I/O can.
31. Which technique allows an I/O device to transfer a block of data to memory without
continuous CPU intervention?
A. Programmed I/O with busy-waiting
B. Interrupt-driven I/O
C. Direct Memory Access (DMA)
D. Polling in a loop
32. Which statement about RISC versus CISC architectures is generally true?
A. RISC has many complex instructions; CISC has few simple instructions.
B. RISC executes one instruction per cycle; CISC executes one instruction per clock
cycle.
C. RISC uses a fixed instruction length and simple decoding, while CISC has variable-
length instructions and more addressing modes.
D. RISC requires microcode; CISC does not.
33. What is the main purpose of cache memory in the computer hardware structure?
A. To permanently store user files.
B. To buffer data transfers to a printer.
C. To provide faster access to frequently used data between CPU and main memory.
D. To store BIOS settings.
Correct Answer: C
34. What is the correct sequence of micro-operations for the fetch phase of an instruction
cycle?
A. PC → MAR, Read; MDR → IR; PC ← PC + 1.
B. PC → IR, PC ← PC + 1; IR → MAR.
C. IR → MDR, MDR → PC; MAR ← PC + 1.
D. MAR → PC; PC → IR; MDR ← PC + 1.
35. In an arithmetic instruction like ADD R1, R2, R3, which registers and operations are
involved?
A. R2 ← R1 + R3 is performed by the Control Unit.
B. R1 ← R2 + R3 is performed by the ALU using R2 and R3 as inputs and storing result
in R1.
C. Memory is read from address R1 and R2, then written to R3.
D. The instruction is moved to stack memory.
Data Communication and Computer Networking
36. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local
subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 30
D. 62
37. Which one of the following is incorrect about Physical Layer?
A. It interacts with the transmission media, the physical part of the network that
connects network components together.
B. It decides on the number of logical channels for transporting data coming from
different sources.
C. It creates a signal that represents this stream of bits.
D. It decides on the directions of data flow.
E. None of the Above
38. Among the given alternatives which one of the following task is not done by data link
layer?
A. Framing
B. Flow control
C. Channel coding
D. Error control
E. None of the Above
39. Which of the following is valid IP host address given the network id 191.254.0.0 while
using 11 bits for subnetting?
A. 191.254.0.32
B. 191.254.1.29
C. 191.254.1.64
D. 191.254.0.96
40. Among the following what kind of transmission medium is most appropriate to carry data
in a computer network that is exposed to electrical interferences?
A. Unshielded Twisted Pair cable
B. Optical Fiber cable
C. Coaxial cable
D. Microwave
E. Copper Cable
41. Which one of the following is not true about class C
A. Starting with 110 and 21 network number
B. Three bytes define the netid and one byte defines the hosted
C. probably too small for many organizations
D. Two bytes define the netid and two bytes define the hostid
E. None
42. Addis Ababa university has been assigned the class B network address 165.87.0.0 . The
organization needs to divide the network in to eight subnets. what subnet mask should be applied
to the network to provide the most hosts per subnet?
A. 255.255.192.0
B. 255.255.224.0
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.248.0
Data Structures and Algorithm
43. What is an Abstract Data Type (ADT)?
A. A physical implementation of a data structure in memory
B. A mathematical model for data types defined by their behavior and operations
C. A programming language-specific data type
D. A hardware-based data storage mechanism
44. Inserting an item into the stack when stack is not full is called ____________operation.and
deletion of an item from the stack when the stack is not empty is called---------------------------
A. Push,pop
B. Pop,push
C. Insert delete
D. Delete,insert
45. -------------------- is a pile in which items are added at one end and removed from the other end
A. Stack
B. Queue
C. List
D. None of the above
46. What is the time complexity of the following code snippet?
for (int i = 0; i < n; i++) {
for (int j = 0; j < n; j++) {
// Constant time operation
}}
A. O(n)
B. O(n log n)
C. O(n²)
D. O(n³)
47. What is the minimum number of nodes in a complete binary tree if the height of the tree is 3?
A. 12
B. 9
C. 8
D. 13
48. For the expression (7-(4*5))+(9/3) which of the following is its post fix representation?
A. *745-93/+
B. 93/+745*-
C. 745*-93/+
D. 74*+593/-
49. Which of the following is true?
A. A graph may contain no edges and many vertices
B. A graph may contain many edges and one vertex
C. A graph may contain no edges and no vertices
D. A graph may contain no vertices and many edges
Web programming
50. What will the following JavaScript function will return?
[1,2,3].map(num=>{
if(um%2===0)
return;
return num*2;
});
A. [2, undefined, 6]
B. [2, , 6]
C. [2, undefined, undefined]
D. [undefined, undefined, undefined]
51. What does the following PHP code snippet will do?
$stmt=$coon->prepare(“SELECT * FROM users WHERE id=?”);
$stmt->bind_param(“I”, $id);
$stmt ->execute();

A. Execute a static query

B. Fetch all users
C. Prevet SQL injection
D. It Will cause an error
52. What is the difference between visibility: hidden and display: none?
A. Both remove the element from the document flow
B. visibility: hidden hides the element and removes its space
C. display: none hides the element but keeps its space
D. visibility: hidden hides the element but keeps is space;
E. display: none removes it entirely
53. Which one of the following MySQLi function is used to prevent XSS(Cross-Site Scripting)?
A. mysqli_real_escape_string()
B. htmlspecialchars()
C. mysqli_escape_string()
D. xss_escape()
54. One of the following is statements is true about let, const and var?
A. let and are function scoped
B. const can be reassigned
C. var is block scoped
D. let is block scoped, var is function scoped
55. One of the following selectors has the highest specificity?
A. .menu .item
B. #header .menu
C. div span
D. ul>li
56. One of the following is an attribute of the <form> element which prevents a form from being
validated when submitted?
A. novalidate
B. no-validate
C. validate= “false”
D. skip-validation
Operating system
57. Which of the following is not true about deadlocks?
A. Deadlocks can be provably avoided by defining a global resource acquisition
order.
B. Deadlocks can ONLY occur if there is a circular wait for resources.
C. Strict priority schedulers use priority donation to prevent deadlocks.
D. A program in a safe state can eventually deadlock.
E. None of the above
58. Among the following which one of the following decribes correctly about a "race
condition"?
A. A situation where multiple processes access shared resources concurrently in an
unsafe manner
B. A situation where processes run on different CPUs
C. A situation where two processes share the same memory space
D. A situation where processes are in a deadlock
59. Which one of the following statements is incorrect statement about device controller?
A. Works like an interface between a device and a device driver.
B. Performs error correction if necessary
C. An interface to convert serial bit stream to block of bytes
D. software modules that can be plugged into an OS to handle a particular device
E. None of the above
60. Logical memory is broken into blocks of the same size called _______.
A. Pages
B. Frames
C. Page table
D. Segmentation
E. none
61. Which of the following scheduling algorithms is non-preemptive?
A. Round Robin
B. SJF
C. FCFS
D. Priority Scheduling (preemptive)
62. What is the main advantage of using the Round Robin (RR) scheduling
algorithm?
A. It provides fair allocation of CPU time to all processes
B. It gives higher priority to CPU-bound processes
C. It minimizes the average waiting time for processes
D. It reduces the number of context switches
63. What does the term "swapping" refer to in the context of memory
management?

A. Moving data from the cache to main memory

B. Moving entire processes between main memory and secondary storage
C. Shuffling virtual memory pages to reduce page faults
D. Dynamically resizing memory partitions based on demand
Software Engineering
64. What is the main goal of Software Engineering?
A. To create software as fast as possible
B. To write code without documentation
C. To develop software that is reliable, maintainable, and efficient
D. To avoid using any standard development process
65. Which of the following best describes a software process model?
A. A tool used for debugging code
B. A set of activities and associated results that produce a software product
C. A process that always execute in the same way in all software project
D. A programming model used for web applications
66. Which software development model is best suited for projects with well-understood
requirements?
A. Waterfall model
B. Agile Model
C. Spiral Model
D. Incremental Model
Given the following statement that is documented to describe a system, answer the following
three questions.
System Description: In a college portal system, instructors are expected to generate grade and
then print the grade report so that they can sign on it and submit to the registrar.
67. Which of the following model best represents instructor?
A. Class
B. Object
C. Use case
D. Actor
68. Which of the following best models the grade report?
A. Entity class
B. Boundary class
C. Control Class
D. Entity object
69. Which of the following is possible use case?
A. Grade report
B. Instructor
C. Portal
D. Generate grade
70. A system design should be done based on …
A. As-is scenario
B. Visionary scenario
C. Control class
D. As-is use case
71. Which of the following is true about components?
A. They are deployable product to deliver the service of a subsystem
B. Cannot be reused from previous system
C. Should always be purchased from one of the commercially-of-the-shelf
(COTS) components.
D. The are useful for fast development but does not facilitate modularity.
72. When designing a system, what is the role of non-functional requirements (NFRs)?
A. They define services of the software
B. They specify programming languages to be used
C. They describe how the system performs under various conditions
D. They are not considered in the design phase

Design and analysis of algorithm

73. Which of the following violates the essential characteristics of a valid algorithm?
A. Produces a result after a finite number of steps
B. Accepts zero or more inputs
C. Allows for subjective interpretation of steps
D. Has clearly defined operations
74. Why do we analyze algorithms?
A. To check syntax errors
B. To prove correctness and argue for efficiency
C. To reduce the lines of code necessary
D. To determine the behavior of an algorithm
75. What is the RAM model used for in algorithm analysis?
A. Describing distributed computing
B. Estimating hardware costs
C. Modeling memory hierarchy and latency
D. Defining fundamental operations of a computer
76. What is the major limitation of the Master Theorem?
A. It cannot be applied if subproblems are of significantly different sizes
B. It cannot handle recursion trees with a depth greater than log n
C. It assumes the input size is always a power of two
D. It gives only best-case complexity, not worst-case
77. Which edge type in DFS traversal indicates a cycle in a graph?
A. Forward edge
B. Tree edge
C. Back edge
D. Cross edge
78. Which condition makes a problem suitable for dynamic programming?
A. It involves making the best choice at each step based solely on local information
B. It can be decomposed into subproblems that recur and share optimal substructure
C. It can be modeled using a recursion tree where only the leftmost path is considered
D. It can be divided into independent subproblems with a simple combination step
79. Which of the following best explains how greedy algorithms operate?
A. They prioritize minimum recursion depth over all other criteria
B. They explore all combinations before selecting an optimal solution
C. They choose the best local option in the hope of finding a global optimum
D. They break problems into overlapping subproblems and reuse solutions
Introduction to Artificial Intelligence
80. What is a rule-based system in the context of expert systems?
A. A system that applies a set of pre-defined rules to infer conclusions
B. A system where data is automatically processed
C. A system that generates rules from data automatically
D. A system with no predefined knowledge
81. What is the time complexity of the Minimax algorithm without pruning, for a game tree
of depth d and branching factor b?
A. O(b + d)
B. O(b^d)
C. O(d^b)
D. O(b * d)
82. Which of the following is an example of a simple reflex agent?
A. A self-driving car planning a route
B. A chatbot giving intelligent replies
C. A thermostat turning on the heater when temperature is low
D. A robot learning from experience
83. Which search algorithm is guaranteed to find the optimal solution, if one exists, given
uniform step costs?
A. Breadth-First Search
B. Depth-First Search
C. Hill Climbing
D. Random Search
84. AI, a problem can be solved by searching when:
A. The solution is hardcoded
B. The path to the goal is unknown and must be discovered
C. The system has complete information
D. The solution is provided by the user
85. In robotic exploration, which of the following search methods is typically preferred?
A. Depth-First Search
B. Blind Search
C. A* Search
D. Hill Climbing
86. What does the following FOL sentence mean: ∃x (Dog(x) ∧ Barks(x))?
A. All dogs bark
B. No dogs bark
C. Some dogs don’t bark
D. There is at least one dog that barks

Network and System Administration

87. What is the primary concern in data center management?
A. Designing websites for optimal performance
B. Managing power, cooling, and fire safety
C. Ensuring maximum social media engagement
D. Monitoring internal network traffic
88. Which of the following is a key principle of system administration?
A. Installing multiple software on a server
B. Keeping systems outdated for stability
C. Automating repetitive tasks
D. Using manual backup methods
89. What is the first step in the bootstrapping process of an OS?
A. Loading the OS kernel into memory
B. Initializing multi-user operations
C. Configuring network interfaces
D. Executing system daemons
90. What is the primary function of a shell in UNIX/Linux?
A. Managing system hardware resources
B. Serving as a graphical interface for the OS
C. Interpreting and executing user commands
D. Connecting remote servers via FTP
91. When does page fault occur?
A. The page is present in memory.
B. The deadlock occurs.
C. The page does not present in memory.
D. The buffering occurs.
92. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on a host, what is the impact on
communications?
A. The host is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
B. The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
C. The host is unable to communicate with hosts on both the local and remote
D. networks.
E. The host cannot get an IP address from the DHCP server.
93. What is the primary purpose of log rotation in system administration?
A. To delete all logs automatically after a fixed time periods
B. To increase system performance by disabling logging features
C. To Prevents storage overflow and keeps records organized
D. To randomly rename log files without archiving

Automata and Complexity Theory

94. When will an input be accepted by a Turing Machine?
A. If it reaches any state and has no possible move for an input symbol
B. If the machine consumes all the input symbols in one of the states
C. If the machine halts in a final state
D. If the machine enters into an infinite loop
95. Which one of the following could be modeled using Turing Machine?
A. Non-Recursively Enumerable Languages
B. Non-Deterministic Finite Automata
C. Push Down Automata
D. Deterministic Finite Automata
96. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
A. All recursive languages are recursively enumerable
B. All recognizable languages are decidable
C. All recursively enumerable languages are recursive
D. Decidable problems can’t be modeled by a Turing Machine
97. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Nondeterministic FSA have memory
B. Turing Machine have an infinite memory
C. Deterministic FSA have memory
D. Push-down Automata have unrestricted memory
98. When can we say two grammars are equivalent?
A. When the languages represented by both grammars are the same
B. When the language derived from one of the grammars become the subset of
the other
C. When the alphabets of the two grammars are the same
D. When a single string is member of the language represented by both grammars
99. Which one of the following is a regular language?
A. Strings whose length is a sequence of prime numbers
B. Strings with substring wwr in between
C. Palindrome strings
D. Strings with even number of Zero’s
100. What is the notation used to describe the sequence of states of a given automata for a given
input?
A. Automaton
B. Instantaneous description
C. Computation
D. Transition function

Computer Security
101. Which type of firewall is considered most secure but potentially slower?
A. Packet-filtering
B. Proxy firewall
C. Stateful inspection
D. NAT firewall
102. Which access control model is based on the user’s identity?
A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
B. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
C. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
D. Rule-Based Access Control
103. A brute-force attack in cryptography tries to:
A. Guess the encryption key by trying all possible combinations
B. Guess the encryption algorithm
C. Overload the CPU
D. Crack passwords by social engineering
104. Which of the following uses the same key for both encryption and decryption?
A. Public-key cryptography
B. Asymmetric encryption
C. Symmetric encryption
D. Hashing
105. Which of these can help mitigate the risk of Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)?
A. Disabling cookies
B. Sanitizing user input
C. Compressing data
D. Using weak encryption
106. Which of the following is a common software vulnerability ?
A. SQL injection
B. Firewall misconfiguration
C. IP spoofing
D. Packet sniffing
107. Which is an example of multi-factor authentication in network security?
a. Password and CAPTCHA
b. Password and username
c. Password and fingerprint
d. Security question
Compiler Design
108. In a grammar with productions A → aB | bA | bBa , B → bB | cA | b ; which terminal will
belong to the first of B?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. B and C
109. Which action of the bottom-up parsing moves terminals from input buffer to the
stack?
A. Shift
B. Accept
C. Reduce
D. augment
110. What is the name of a grammar in which all attributes of the grammar symbols are
synthesized attributes and some form of inherited attributes?
A. S-attributed grammar
B. L-attributed grammar
C. M-attributed grammar
D. None
111. Which attribute’s value is computed from the values of attributes at the children of
that node in the parse tree?
A. Inherited attributes
B. Dependency attributes
C. Synthesized attributes
D. None
112. Which one of the following is used to determine a serious of characters as a token?
A. Lexeme
B. Alphabet
C. Grammar
D. None
113. What is the other name given to the bottom-up parsing?
A. Shift-reduce parsing
B. Predictive parsing
C. Recursive descent parsing
D. Non-recursive parsing
114. What we call a grammar that produces more than one parse tree for a particular
string?
A. Regular
B. Ambiguous
C. Unambiguous
D. Non-regular
115. Which one of the following is not an approach for parsing?

A. Top-down approach
B. Bottom-up approach
C. Left-to-right approach
D. None