CHAPTER - 05

PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION

TOPIC 1: Mendel Law of Inheritance

1. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement(s).
a. Genetics deals with the inheritance, as well as variation of characters from parents to offspring.
b. Variation is the process by which characters are passed on from parent to progeny.
c. Inheritance is the basis of heredity.
d. Inheritance is the degree by which progeny differ from their parents.
e. Human knew from as early as 8000-10000 B.C. that one of the causes of variation was hidden in sexual
Reproduction
(A) b, d and e
(B) a, c and e
(C) b and d only
(D) e only
2. Gregor Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments
(A) Seven years (1865-1872)
(B) Seven years (1856-1863)
(C) Seven years (1853-1860)
(D) Fourteen years (1853-1867)
3. Sahiwal cow in ...a... was developed by ...b...
(A) a—Punjab, b—Natural Selection and Domestication
(B) a—Haryana, b—Natural Selection and Artificial Selection
(C) a—Haryana, b—Artificial Selection and Domestication
(D) a—Punjab, b—Artificial Selection and Domestication
4. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. This is
(A) Polygenic inheritance
(B) Pleiotropy
(C) Multiple allelism
(D) Co-dominance
5. Read the following statements regarding Mendelian inheritance and choose the correct option.
1. Mendel’s experiments had small sample size which gave greater credibility to the data.
2. A true breeding line shows a stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations.
3. In a dissimilar pair of factors, one member of the pair dominates over the other.
4. A recessive parental trait is expressed only in its heterozygous condition.
5. Two alleles of a gene are located on homologous sites on homologous chromosomes.
(A) 2 alone is correct
(B) 2, 3 and 5 are correct
(C) 1 and 4 are correct
(D) 1,3 and 5 are correct
6. Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on Garden Pea for
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) 7 years
7. Which of the following is not a correct dominant-recessive trait pairs of Pisum sativum?
(A) Axial—terminal flower position, tall—dwarf stem height

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(B) Yellow—green pod colour, round—wrinkled seed
(C) Full—constricted pod shape, Yellow—green seed colour
(D) Violet—white flower colour, Inflated—constricted pod shape
8. Biological unit controlling heredity is
(A) Genome
(B) Chromosome
(C) Genotype
(D) Gene
9. Variations found in offspring are important component of
(A) Genetics
(B) Speciation
(C) Species fixation
(D) Heredity
10. Test cross is a cross between
(A) Hybrid * Dominant parent (Tt x TT)
(B) Hybrid x Recessive parent (Tt x tt)
(C) Hybrid x Hybrid (Tt x Tt)
(D) All of the above
11. The term genetics was proposed by
(A) Johannsen
(B) Morgan
(C) Mendel
(D) Bateson
12. A gamete normally contains
(A) Many alleles of a gene
(B) All alleles of a gene
(C) Two alleles of a gene
(D) One allele of a gene
13. Branch of biology dealing with heredity and variations is
(A) Ecology
(B) Evolution
(C) Paleontology
(D) Genetics
14. Phenotype of an organism is the result of
(A) Mutations and linkages
(B) Genotype and environment interactions
(C) Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
(D) Environmental changes and sexual dimorphism
15. Word genetics comes from
(A) Gene
(B) Genesis
(C) Genome
(D) Genomics
16. Genes controlling seven traits in Pea studied by Mendel were actually located on
(A) Seven chromosomes
(B) Six chromosomes
(C) Four chromosomes
(D) Five chromosomes

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17. In Pea, wrinkling of seeds is due to non-formation of starch because of the absence of enzyme
(A) Amylase
(B) Invertase
(C) Branching enzyme
(D) Diastase
18. Father of human genetics is
(A) Curvier
(B) Bateson
(C) Mendel
(D) Garrod
19. Which is wrong about Mendel?
(A) He was born in 1822.
(B) Mendel presented his work in the form of a paper at Heinzendorf in 1856.
(C) Mendel carried out his experiments for 7 years.
(D) Mendel died in 1884.
20. For a given character, a gamete is always
(A) Homozygous
(B) Pure
(C) Hybrid
(D) Heterozygous
21. Gregor Johann Mendel, the father of genetics was
(A) Austrian monk
(B) British monk
(C) Italian monk
(D) German scientist
TOPIC 2: Inheritance of One Gene
Law of Dominance, Law of Segregation,
Incomplete Dominance and Co-dominance
22. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as
(A) Cistron
(B) Allele
(C) Exon
(D) Intron
23. Alleles are
(A) Similar forms of different gene
(B) Slightly different forms of the different gene
(C) Similar forms of the same gene
(D) Slightly different forms of the same gene
24. In Punnett square, the possible gametes are written on two sides, usually the
(A) Top row and left columns
(B) Top row and right columns
(C) Bottom row and right columns
(D) Bottom row and left columns
25. Punnett square was developed by
(A) British Zoologist, Reginald C. Punnett
(B) German Botanist, Reginald C. Punnett
(C) Stanford Geneticist Reginald C. Punnett

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(D) British Geneticist Reginald C. Punnett
26. Select one word for the statement.
a. If F1, resembled both the parents
b. If F1 did not resemble either of the two parents and was in between the two
c. If F1 resembled either of the two parents
(A) c—dominance, b—co dominance, a—incomplete dominance
(B) a—dominance, c—co dominance, b—incomplete dominance
(C) b—dominance, a—co dominance, c—incomplete dominance
(D) c—dominance, a—co dominance, b—incomplete dominance
27. When a violet flower of unknown genotype is crossed with white flower, the progenies are violet and
White in equal proportion then read the following statements.
(i) This is called test cross
(ii) Unknown flower is homozygous
(iii) Unknown flower is heterozygous
(iv) This test is used to determine the phenotype of the plant at F2
(v) In test cross, violet or white flower is crossed with the recessive parent instead of self—crossing.
Select the incorrect statement:
(A) Iii, IV, v
(B) Ii, IV
(C) i, ii, v
(D) ii, IV, v
28. “Both the characters in a monohybrid cross are recovered as such in the F2 generation though one of
These in not seen at the F1 stage” This interpretation is based on the
(A) First Law of Mendel
(B) Second Law of Mendel
(C) Second set of generalisations
(D) Incomplete dominance
29. In the case of Antirrhinum sp. the recessive trait is seen in progenies due to the
(i) The normal enzyme
(ii) Less-efficient enzyme
(iii) Non-functional enzyme
(iv) No enzyme at all
Select the correct option among i—iv:
(A) ii, iii
(B) iii, iv
(C) i, iii
(D) i, ii
30. The proportion of 3:1 at the F2 generation is explained by the
(A) Law of Dominance
(B) Law of Segregation
(C) Law of Independent assortment
(D) Test cross
31. In Mendelian dihybrid cross how many are recombinants?
(A) 37.2 %
(B) 62.8 %
(C) 37.5 %
(D) 62.5 %

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32. Starch synthesis in the pea seed is controlled by one gene. It has two alleles B and b. If starch grain size is
Considered as the phenotype, then from this angle allele show
(A) Multiple allele
(B) Incomplete Dominance
(C) Co-dominance
(D) Polygenic inheritance
33. In incomplete dominance, the ratio which not deviates from the Mendelian monohybrid cross?
(A) Genotypic ratio
(B) Phenotypic ratio
(C) Both A and B
(D) Either A or B
34. Which is correct?
(A) Each back cross is test cross
(B) Each test cross is back cross
(C) Crossing F2 with Fj is called test cross
(D) Crossing F2 with either parent is called test cross
35. A cross between black flowered plant and white flowered plant yielded grey flowered plants. The
Phenomenon is
(A) Co-dominance
(B) Pseudo-dominance
(C) Incomplete dominance
(D) Epistasis
36. Mendel proposed something was being stably passed down unchanged from parents to offspring called
(A) Genes
(B) Genotype
(C) Factors
(D) Alleles
37. tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic of offspring?
(A) 75% recessive
(B) 50% recessive
(C) 25% recessive
(D) All dominant
38. Sexually reproducing organisms contribute in their off- spring
(A) All of the genes
(B) One half of their genes
(C) One fourth of their genes
(D) Double the number of genes
39. An allele is dominant if it is expressed in
(A) Both homozygous and heterozygous states
(B) Second generation
(C) Heterozygous combination
(D) Homozygous combination
40. A child of O-group has B-group father. The genotype of father will be
(A) ii
(B) IBIB
(C) IAIB
(D) IBi

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41. Mendel’s principle of segregation is based on separation of alleles during
(A) Gamete formation
(B) Seed formation
(C) Pollination
(D) Embryonic development
42. Law of dominance - recessiveness in proved by
(A) Back cross
(B) Incomplete dominance
(C) Monohybrid crosses
(D) Dihybrid crosses
43. O group mother with O group child sues AB group man for fathership of child. What is true?
(A) The claim is correct
(B) Father is true but mother is not
(C) Both parents are false
(D) Mother is true but father’s claim is wrong.
44. Genes located on same locus but having different expressions are
(A) Multiple alleles
(B) Oncogenes
(C) Polygenes
(D) Co-dominants
45. A cross between hybrid and its parent is
(A) Back cross
(B) Reciprocal cross
(C) Monohybrid crosses
(D) Dihybrid crosses
46. Blood grouping in human beings is controlled by
(A) 4 alleles in which IA is dominant
(B) 3 alleles in which IA and IB is co dominant, and / is recessive
(C) 3 alleles in which none is dominant
(D) 3 alleles in which I is dominant
47. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of
(A) Epistasis
(B) Codominance
(C) Pleiotropy
(D) Incomplete dominance.
48. Heterozygous tall plant is selfed. It produces both tall and dwarf plants. This confirms Mendel’s
(A) Law of dominance
(B) Law of segregation
(C) Law of independent assortment
(D) Incomplete dominance
49. Which of the following cross determines heterozygosity or homozogosity?
(A) Monohybrid crosses
(B) Dihybrid crosses
(C) Test crosses
(D) Back cross
50. The allele which is unable to express its effect
(A) Co-dominant
(B) Supplementary

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(C) Complementary
(D) Recessive
51. Alleles are
(A) Alternate forms of a gene
(B) Pairs of sex chromosomes
(C) Homologous chromosomes
(D) None of the above
52. Incomplete dominance was discovered by
(A) Correns
(B) Mendel
(C) Johannsen
(D) Bateson
53. A polygenic inheritance in human beings is
(A) Skin colour
(B) Phenylketonuria
(C) Colour blindness
(D) Sickle cell anaemia
54. In case of incomplete dominance, F2 generation has
(A) Genotypic ratio equal to phenotypic ratio
(B) Genotypic ratio is 3:1
(C) Phenotypic ratio is 3:1
(D) None of the above
55. Human skin colour is polygenic trait with each dominant determining a part of melanin deposition while
The recessive are coding for no melanin. If a very dark skinned person marries a very light skinned women
The chances of a very dark skinned offspring are
(A) 1/64
(B) 1/4
(C) 5/8
(D) 9/64
56. How many types of gametes will be produced by individuals of AABbcc genotype?
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Six
(D) Eight
57. A pure tall Pea plant is crossed with pure dwarf Pea plant. The progeny is self-pollinated. The ratio of true
Breeding tall Pea plants to true breeding dwarf Pea plants shall be
(A) 2: 1
(B) 1: 1
(C) 3: 1
(D) 1: 2
58. The offspring of mating between two pure breeding strains are called
(A) Hybrid
(B) Progeny
(C) Cybrid
(D) Heterosis
59. In heterozygous condition, both the alleles express in
(A) Colour blindness
(B) AB blood group

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(C) Rh factor
(D) A and B blood types
60. When both alleles express their effect on being present together, the phenomenon is called
(A) Dominance
(B) Codominance
(C) Pseudodominance
(D) Amphidominance
61. Inheritance of blood group is a condition of
(a) Codominance
(b) Incomplete dominance
(c) Multiple allelism
(d) Dominance
(A) a, b, and c
(B) b and d
(C) a, c, and d
(D) b and c
62. The graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic
cross is called
(A) Pedigree analysis
(B) Punnet square
(C) Chromosome map
(D) Genotypic ratio
63. In a polygenic cross Aa Bb Cc * Aa Bb Cc, the phenotypic ratio offspring is 1: 6: ‘X’: 20: X: 6: 1. What is the
value of ‘X’?
(A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 15
(D) 25
64. Children in a family have blood types O, A, AB and B respectively. What are the genotypes of their parents?
(A) IAi and IBi
(B) IAI and ii
(C) IB IB and IAIA
(D) IAIA and IBi
TOPIC 3: Inheritance of Two Genes
Law of Independent Assortment, Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance, Linkage and
Recombination
65. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statements.
a. Though the genotypic ratios can be calculated using mathematical probability, by simply looking at the
phenotype of recessive trait, it is not possible to know the genotypic composition.
b. The 1/4: 1/2: 1/4 ratio of TT: Tt: tt is mathematically condensable to form of the binomial expression (ax +
by) 2, that has the gametes bearing genes T and t in equal frequency of 1/2.
c. Based on his observation on dihybrid crosses Men- del proposed two rules that are called Principles or Laws
of Inheritance the First Law or Law of Dominance and the Second Law or Law of Segregation.
d. If in test cross, all the progenies shows dominant trait then the unknown parent is heterozygous dominant.
e. ABO blood groups are controlled by three alleles IA, IB and i IA and lB produce a slightly different type of the
sugar while allele i doesn’t produce any sugar.
(A) a, c and d

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(B) b, d and e
(C) a and c only
(D) c and d only
66. The chromosome movement during meiosis had been worked out by the year.
(A) 1865
(B) 1900
(C) 1902
(D) 1891
67. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(A) a—G1 , b— S, c—G2, d—M, e—germ cells

(B) a—G1 , b—G2, c—meiosis I metaphase, d—meiosis II metaphase, e—germ cells
(C) a—G1 , b—G2, c—meiosis I prophase, d—meiosis II prophase, e—meiosis II telophase
(D) a—Gl , b—G2, c—meiosis I anaphase, d—meiosis II anaphase, e—germ cells
68. Who argued that the pairing and separation of a pair of chromosomes would lead to the segregation of a
pair of factors they carried?
(A) Sutton and Boveri
(B) T.H. Morgan
(C) Alfred Sturtevant
(D) Both B and C
69. In the Morgan's experiment on Drosophila, the strength of linkage between y and w is
(A) Higher than w and m
(B) Lower than w and m
(C) Same as w and m
(D) Can’t be predicted
70. In Mendelian dihybrid cross the yellow and green colour of seed is segregated in the ratio of
(A) 3:1
(B) 10: 6
(C) 9: 4
(D) 9: 7
71. Read the following statements.
(i) Morgan carried out several monohybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were sex-linked.
(ii) Morgan attributed that proportion of parental gene combination is less than the non-parental type due to
The physical association
(iii) Term recombination was coined by Morgan to de- scribe the generation of non-parental gene
Combinations.
(iv) Alfred Strutevent used the frequency of linkage between gene pairs on the same chromosome and find
Genetic map.
Select how many are incorrect statements).
(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 4

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(D) 2
72. Drosophila melanogaster is found to be very suitable for genetic studies because
(i) They could be grown in simple synthetic medium in the laboratory
(ii) They complete their life-cycle in about 14 days
(iii) A single mating could produce a large number of progenies
(iv) Male and females are clearly distinguishable
(v) It has few hereditary variations that can be seen with high power microscopes
Select how many are correct statements.
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 3
73. If a pea plant produces 2560 seeds during a dihybrid cross between round-yellow and wrinkled-green
plant. Then how many seed are wrinkled-yellow, round-yellow and wrinkled-green respectively.
(A) 640, 480, 1280
(B) 480, 1440, 160
(C) 640, 1280, 320
(D) 160, 1440,480
74. In Drosophila melanogaster, the genes white and yel- low shows.........a.......recombination and genes white
and miniature wing shows........b........linkage
(A) a 98.7%, b -> 37.2%
(B) a -> 98.7%, b -4 62.8%
(C) a -> 1.3%, b -> 37.2%
(D) a-> 1.3%, b-> 62.8%
75. Carl Correns, a rediscoverer of Mendel’s work belongs to
(A) Austria
(B) Germany
(C) Holland
(D) Denmark
76. Who used frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of
distance between genes and mapped their position on chromo- some?
(A) Alfred Sturtevant
(B) Gregor Mendel
(C) Correns
(D) Tschermak
77. Walter Sutton is famous for his contribution to
(A) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
(B) Genetic engineering
(C) Totipotency
(D) Quantitative genetics

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78. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(A) a—37.2%, b—62.8%, c—1.3%, d—98.7%

(B) b—37.2%, a—62.8%, d—1.3%, c—98.7%
(C) c—37.2%, d—62.8%, a—1.3%, b—98.7%
(D) d—37.2%, c—62.8%, b—1.3%, a—98.7%
79. Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by
(A) Thomas Hunt Morgan
(B) Gregor Johann Mendel
(C) Hugo de Vries
(D) Langdon Down
80. In Morgan's experiments on linkage, the percentage of white eyed miniature winged recombinants in F 2
Generation is
(A) 1.3
(B) 62.8
(C) 37.2
(D) 37.5
81. The offspring of AA bb * aa BB is crossed with, aabb. The genotypic ratio of progeny will be
(A) 9: 3: 3: 1
(B) 1:2:1
(C) 1:1:1:1
(D) 3: 1
82. In a dihybrid cross, the maximum number of phenotypes would be
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 16
83. Mendel did not propose
(A) Dominance
(B) Incomplete dominance
(C) Segregation
(D) Independent assortment
84. Distance between the mgenes a, b, c and d in map units is a—d = 3.5, b—c= 1, a—b = 6, c—d = 1.5 and a—
c = 5. Find out the sequence of the genes.
(A) a, d, c, b
(B) a, c, d, b
(C) a, b, c, d
(D) a, c, b, d
85. Match the genetic phenomena with their respective ratios.

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 a. inhibitory gene ratio 1. 9:3:4
b. complementary gene ratio 2. 1:1:1:1
c. recessive epistasis ratio 3. 12:3:1
d. dihybrid test cross ration 4. 13:3
e. dominant epistasis ratio 5. 9:7
A b c d e
(A) 5 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 5 1 2 3
(C) 1 2 4 3 5
(D) 2 1 4 5 3
86. A tall pea plant with round seeds (TTRR) is crossed with a dwarf wrinkled seeded plant (ttrr). F, has tall
Plants with rounded seeds what is the proportion of dwarf plants with wrinkled seeds in F2 generation?
(A) 3/16
(B) 9/16
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/16
87. Dihybrid test cross ratio is
(A) 9: 3: 3: 1
(B) 1: 1: 1: 1
(C) 3: 1
(D) 1: 1
88. In Mendel’s experiments with Garden Pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seed shape
(rr) and yellow cotyledons (YY) was dominant over green cotyledons (yy). What are expected phenotypes
in F2 generation RRYY x rryy?
(A) Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
(B) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
(C) Only round seeds with green cotyledons
(D) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons and wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
89. Which of the following is correct for dihybrid cross?
(A) 1 YYRR, 2 YyRR, 2 yy Rr, 4 YyRR
(B) 1 YYRR, 3 YyRR, 2 yy Rr, 3 YyRR
(C) 3 YYRR, 3 YyRR, 2 yy Rr, 4 YyRR
(D) 1 YYRR, 2 YyRR, 2 yy Rr, 3 YyRR
90. Which of the following is the most suitable medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster ?
(A) Cow dung
(B) Moist bread
(C) Agar agar
(D) Ripe Banana
91. Genetic maps of chromosomes are based on the frequency of
(A) Non-disjunction
(B) Translocation
(C) Linkage
(D) Genetic recombination
92. For finding the different types of gametes produced by genotype AaBb, it should be crossed with genotype
(A) AABB
(B) aabb
(C) AaBb
(D) aaBB

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93. Mendel’s law of segregation in applicable to
(A) Dihybrid crosses only
(B) Both dihybrid and monohybrid crosses
(C) Monohybrid crosses only
(D) Dihybrid but not monohybrid crosses
94. The number of genotypes produced when individuals of genotype ‘YyRrTt’ are crossed with each other is
(A) 16
(B) 9
(C) 8
(D) 27
95. Independent assortment can be deduced from
(A) Monohybrid crosses
(B) Test cross
(C) Back crosses
(D) Dihybrid crosses
96. Lack of independent assortment between two genes A and B would be due to
(A) Crossing over
(B) Linkage
(C) Repulsion
(D) Recombination
97. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(A) a—male Drosophila, b—female Drosophila

(B) a—female Drosophila, b—male Drosophila
(C) a—male butterfly, b—female butterfly
(D) a—female butterfly, b—male butterfly
98. Percentage of recombination between A and B is 9%, A and C 17% and B and C is 26%. The arrangement of
genes would be
(A) A—B--C
(B) A—C—B
(C) B—C—A
(D) B—A—C
99. Self fertilising tri-hybrid plants form
(A) Eight different gametes and 64 zygotes
(B) Four different gametes and sixteen different zygotes
(C) Eight different gametes and sixteen different zygotes
(D) Eight different gametes and thirty two different zygotes
100. Genetic map is one that
(A) Establishes sites of the gene on a chromosome
(B) Establishes the various stages in gene evolution
(C) Shows the stages during cell division

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(D) Shows distribution of various species in region
101. Phenotypic dihybrid ratio is
(A) 9:3:3: 1
(B) 15: 1
(C) 9:6:1
(D) 1:2:1
102. In quantitative inheritance, F2 ratio obtained in a dihybrid cross is
(A) 1:4: 6:4:1
(B) 15:1
(C) 12: 3: 1
(D) 9: 7
103. Out of a population of 800 individuals in F2 generation of a cross between yellow round and green
Wrinkled Pea plants, what would be number of yellow and wrinkled seeds?
(A) 800
(B) 400
(C) 200
(D) 150
104. What is true of law of independent assortment?
(A) Applicable to all the dominant alleles
(B) Applicable to all genes on the same chromosome
(C) Not applicable to genes present on the same chromo- some
(D) Applicable to all recessive alleles
105. Linkage was discovered by
(A) Blakeslee
(B) Sutton
(C) Muller
(D) Bateson and Punnet
106. Sex-linked genes were discovered by
(A) Johanssen
(B) Mendel
(C) Morgan
(D) Muller
107. Independent assortment is absent in case of
(A) Genes located on the same chromosome
(B) Genes located on homologous chromosomes
(C) Genes located on non-homologous chromosomes
(D) All of the above
108. Source of Mendelian re-combinations is
(A) Linkage
(B) Independent assortment
(C) Mutations
(D) Dominant traits
109. Number of genotypes found in F2 progeny of a dihybrid cross is
(A) 9
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) 1

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110. Linkage in plants was first shown in
(A) Zea mays
(B) Lathyrus odoratus
(C) Oenothera lamarckiana
(D) Pisum sativum
111. If there is complete linkage in F2 generation
(A) Parental types and recombinants appear in equal ratio
(B) Recombinants are less than parental types
(C) Recombinants are more than parental types
(D) There will be only parental types
112. Mendel did not observe linkage due to
(A) Mutation
(B) Synapsis
(C) Segregation
(D) Independent assortment
113. In a dihybrid cross AABB * aabb, F2 progeny of A ABB, AABb, AaBB and AaBb occurs in the ratio of
(A) 1:1:1:1
(B) 9:3:3:1
(C) 1:2:2:1
(D) 1:2:2:4
114. Crossing over in diploid organisms is responsible for
(A) Dominance of genes
(B) Linkage between genes
(C) Recombination of linked genes
(D) Segregation of alleles
115. Mendel’s laws of heredity can be explained with the help of
(A) Mitosis
(B) Meiosis
(C) Cloning
(D) Both A and B
116. Number of phenotypes possible from AaBbCc * AaBbCc is
(A) 16
(B) 9
(C) 8
(D) 27

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117. The following figure shows

(A) Independent assortment of genes

(B) Linkage
(C) Chromosomal theory of sex determination
(D) Independent segregation of genes
118. Genotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross is
(A) 1: 4: 6: 4: 1
(B) 9: 3: 3: 1
(C) 1:2:1
(D) 1: 2: 2:4: 1:2: 1:2:1
119. Mendel’s law of independent assortment is based on F2 ratio of
(A) 1:2:1
(B) 9: 3: 3: 1
(C) 2:1
(D) 3: 1
120. Mendel’s work was rediscovered in
(A) 1756
(B) 1865
(C) 1900
(D) 1910
121. Mendel enunciated principles of inheritance
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
122. Cross AABb * aaBb yields AaBB: AaBb: Aabb: aabb offspring in the ratio of
(A) 0: 3: 1: 1
(B) 1: 2: 1: 0
(C) 1:1:1:1
(D) 1: 2: 1: 1

16
TOPIC 4: Sex Determination Sex Determination in Humans
123. Read the following statements.
(i) In haplo-diploid sex-determination system, the males do not have father and thus cannot have sons, but
Have a grandfather and can have grandsons
(ii) In honey bee, workers are developed by the unfertilized eggs by means of parthenogenesis
(iii) In human skin colour, the effect of each allele is additive
(iv) In XO type of sex-determination, male have half number of chromosome than the female
Select the incorrect statements.
(A) i, iii
(B) ii, iii
(C) ii, iv
(D) i, iv
124. In a certain taxon of insects some have 32 chromosomes and the others have 31 chromosomes. The 32
And 31 chromosome-bearing organisms are
(A) Male and females, respectively
(B) Females and males, respectively
(C) Drones and males, respectively
(D) Females and Drones, respectively
125. Identify the wrong statement.
(A) Human males have one sex chromosome much shorter than others.
(B) In domesticated Fowl, sex of progeny depends upon type of sperm that fertilizes the egg
(C) In Male Grasshopper, 50% of sperms have no sex chromosome.
(D) Female birds produce two types of gametes based on sex chromosome.
126. Read the following statements and find out the correct statements.
(a) The sex determination in honey bee is based on the number of sets of chromosomes an individual receives.
(b) An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and an egg develops as a female (queen or worker), and an
Unfertilized egg develops as a male (drone) by means of parthenogenesis.
(c) The females are diploid having 32 chromosomes and males are haploid, i.e., having 16 chromosomes.
(d) This is called as haplodiploid sex-determination system and has special characteristic features such as the
Males produce sperms by mitosis they do not have father and thus cannot have sons, but have a
Grandfather and can have grandsons.
(A) a and b
(B) b, c and d
(C) a, c and d
(D) a, b, c and d
127. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
a. XO type 1. Male heterogamety
b. XY type 2. Female heterogamety
c. ZW type
a b c
(A) 1 2 2
(B) 2 1 1
(C) 1 1 2
(D) 2 2 1
128. The initial clue about the genetic/chromosomal mechanism of sex determination can be traced back to
Some of the experiments carried out in
(A) Humans

17
(B) Birds
(C) Plants
(D) Insects
129. Choose the wrong statement.
(A) In grasshoppers, besides autosomes, males have only one X-chromosome whereas females have a pair of
X-chromosomes
(B) In Drosophila, males have one X-and one Y-chromosome whereas females have a pair of X-chromosomes
Besides autosomes
(C) In birds, females have one Z-and one W-chromosome, whereas males have a pair of Z-chromosomes
Besides autosomes
(D) In insects with XO type of sex determination, all sperms have X-chromosome besides autosomes.
130. ZW, XO, XY and haplo-diploid type of sex determination is seen in respectively
(A) Parrot, cockroach, Melandrium and honey bee
(B) Aptenodyt.es, grasshopper, Drosophila and Apis
(C) Pavo, grasshopper, man and honey bee
(D) All of the above
131. Sex of a child is due to
(A) Size of ovum
(B) Health of father
(C) Sex chromosome of father/sperm
(D) Sex chromosome of mother/ovum
132. Sex is determined in human beings
(A) By ovum
(B) At time of fertilization
(C) 40 days after fertilization
(D) Seventh to eight week when genitals differentiate in foetus
133. When a certain character is inherited only through female parent, it probably represents
(A) Multiple plastid inheritance
(B) Cytoplasmic inheritance
(C) Incomplete dominance
(D) Mendelian nuclear inheritance
134. XY sex chromosomes were discovered by
(A) Gregor Johann Mendel
(B) M.J.D. White
(C) Nettie Stevens
(D) Robert Brown.
135. Genes located on Y-chromosome are
(A) Mutant genes
(B) Sex-linked genes
(C) Autosomal genes
(D) Holandric genes
136. A strong mutagen is
(A) Cold
(B) Heat
(C) Water
(D) X-ray

18
137. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(A) a—male, b—female

(B) a—female, b—male
(C) Can’t be predicted
(D) Both A and B are possible
138. What is true in case of Honey Bee?
(A) Male diploid, female haploid
(B) Male diploid, female diploid
(C) Male haploid, female haploid
(D) Male haploid, female diploid
139. In human zygote male sex is determined by
(A) Strength of father
(B) Nutrition of mother
(C) Composition of required chromosome pair
(D) None of the above
140. Which pteridophyte has the maximum chromosome number?
(A) Ophioglossum reticulatum
(B) Azolla pinnata
(C) Lycopodium cernuum
(D) Selaginella apus
141. Plant in which chromosomal basis of sex determination was discovered first is
(A) Rumex
(B) Melandrium
(C) Coccinia
(D) Sphaerocarpos
142. Drosophila melanogaster possesses
(A) 3 pairs autosomes + 1 pair sex chromosomes
(B) 2 pair’s autosomes + 2 pair sex chromosomes
(C) 1 pairs autosomes + 3 pair sex chromosomes
(D) 2 pairs autosomes + 1 pair sex chromosomes
143. Foetal sex can be determined from cells present in amniotic fluid by looking for
(A) Kinetochores
(B) Chiasmata
(C) Barr bodies and sex chromosomes
(D) Autosomes
144. Genetic identity of human male is known by
(A) Nucleolus
(B) Cell organelles
(C) Autosomes
(D) Sex chromosomes
TOPIC 5: Mutation and Pedigree Analysis
145. Broadly genetic disorder may be grouped into two categories as

19
(A) Mendelian disorders and chromosomal disorders
(B) Autosomal disorders and sex linked disorders
(C) Recessive disorders and dominant disorders
(D) Aneuploidy and polyploidy
146. Sickle cell anemia is an example of
(i) Mendelian disorder
(ii) Genetic disorder
(iii) Chromosomal disorder
(iv) Inborn error of metabolism
(v) Point mutation
(vi) Frame—Shift mutation
(vii) Sex-linked disease
(viii) Recessive disorder
(ix) Qualitative disorder
(x) Quantitative disorder
(xi) Autosomal disorder
(A) i, ii, iv, v, viii, x, xi
(B) i, v, viii, ix, xi
(C) i, ii, v, viii, ix, xi
(D) ii, iii, v, vii, ix
147. The inheritance pattern of a gene over generations among humans is studied by the character studied in
the pedigree analysis is equivalent to
(A) Qualitative trait
(B) Quantitative trait
(C) Pleiotropic trait
(D) Mendelian trait
148. In sickle cell anaemia, the sequence of amino acids from first to seventh position of j3-chain of
haemoglobin S (HbS) is
(A) His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Glu, Val, Val
(B) Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Glu, Glu
(C) Glu, His, Leu, Pro, Val, Glu, Glu
(D) Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Val, Glu
149. In this pedigree, which of the progeny is younger?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
150. Which of the following is not a Mendelian disorder?
(A) Turner’s syndrome
(B) Thalassemia
(C) Haemophilia
(D) Cystic fibrosis
151. Which is incorrect regarding pedigree analysis?
(A) It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive
(B) It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the auto-some.
(C) It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait.
(D) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information.
152. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

20
I. In phenylketonuria the affected person does not secrete the enzyme to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine.
II. Possibility of male becoming haemophilic is extremely rare.
III. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the substitution of glutamic acid by valine at fifth position of beta chain of
haemoglobin.
IV. Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant trait
(A) I and III alone are wrong
(B) II and III alone are wrong
(C) II alone are wrong
(D) III alone is wrong
153. Person affected with phenylketonuria lack an enzyme that converts amino acid phenylalanine into
(A) Valine
(B) Proline
(C) Histidine
(D) Tyrosine
154. Which mutation/variation is not hereditary?
(A) Genetic
(B) Gametic
(C) Somatic
(D) Germinal
155. Point mutation may occur due to
(A) Gain of a segment of DNA
(B) Deletion of segment of DNA
(C) Alteration in DNA sequence
(D) Change in a single base pair of DNA
156. Match the columns and choose the correct option.
Column II
1. Consanguineous is mating

2. Affected female

3. Mating

4. Unaffected female

5. Parents with m lie child unaffected

6. Sex unspecified

A b c d e
(A) 3 1 2 5 4
(B) 2 1 6 3 4
(C) 3 4 1 5 2
(D) 3 1 6 5 4
157. Mutations are induced mostly by
(A) Visible radiations
(B) Beta rays
(C) Alpha rays
(D) Gamma rays

21
158. The technique employed in human genetic counselling is
(A) Serological technique
(B) Polyploidy
(C) Pedigree analysis
(D) Amniocentesis
159. Which is not a mutagen?
(A) Acetic acid
(B) Gamma rays
(C) Nitrous acid
(D) Hydroxylamine
160. Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in human males are examples of
(A) Sex-linked traits
(B) Sex differentiating traits
(C) Sex limited traits
(D) Sex determining traits
161. The symbol of empty circles used in pedigree analysis represents
(A) Normal females
(B) Normal males
(C) Affected females
(D) Affected males
162. Muller was awarded Nobel Prize in 1946 for his work on
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Chemistry of nucleic acids
(C) Cancer
(D) X-ray induced mutations
TOPIC 6: Mendelian Disorders
163. “A disease which shows its transmission from unaffected carrier female to some of the male progeny”.
Find the nature of the trait.
(A) Autosomal recessive
(B) Autosomal dominant
(C) Sex-linked recessive
(D) Sex-linked dominant.
164. Which is incorrect about colour blindness?
(A) This is due to defect in either red or green cone of eye resulting in failure to discriminate between red
and green colour.
(B) A daughter will not normally be colour blind, unless her mother is a carrier and her father is colour blind.
(C) If female has XcX then it is called carrier but when male has then XcY then it will be colour blind.
(D) The son of a woman who carries the gene has 25 per cent chance of being colour blind.
165. Which is incorrect about Thalassemia?
(A) This blood disease is transmitted from parents to the offspring when both the partners are unaffected
carrier for the gene (or heterozygous)
(B) The defect is due to either mutation or deletion which ultimately results in reduced rate of synthesis of one
of the globin chains that make up haemoglobin.
(C) This causes the formation of abnormal haemoglobin molecule resulting into anaemia which is
characteristic of the disease
(D) Thalassemia differs from sickle cell anaemia in that the former is a qualitative problem of synthesizing
an incorrectly functioning globin while the latter is a quantitative problem of synthesizing too few globin
molecules

22
166. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(A) Alpha Thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked genes HBAt and HBA2 on chromosome 16 of each
parent and it is observed due to mutation or deletion of one or more of the four genes.
(B) Beta Thalassemia is controlled by a single gene HBB on chromosome 11 of each parent and occurs due to
mutation of one or both the genes
(C) Beta Thalassemia is also called Cooley’s anemia or Thalassemia major
(D) None of the above.
167. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(A) c—Glu, d—Val, a—normal Hb (A) gene, b—sickle cell Hb (S) gene
(B) c—Glu, d—Val, b—normal Hb (A) gene, a—sickle cell Hb (S) gene
(C) d—Glu, c—Val, a—normal Hb (A) gene, b—sickle cell Hb (S) gene
(D) c—Glu, d—Val, b—normal Hb (A) gene, a—sickle cell Hb (S) gene
168. How many types of genotypes are possible in the inheritance pattern of sickle cell anaemia?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
169. Which of the following genotype will show the diseased condition in sickle cell anaemia?
(A) HbAHbA
(B) HbA Hbs
(C) HbsHbs
(D) Both B and C
170. Sickle cell anaemia is controlled by
(A) Single allele
(B) Single pair of allele
(C) Multiple allele
(D) Polygenes
171. Heterozygous (HbA Hbs) individuals have how much percent of probability of transmission of the mutant
gene to progeny
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%

23
172. Down’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome are due to respectively
(A) Monosomic and nullisomic conditions
(B) Trisomic and monosomic conditions
(C) Monosomic and trisomic conditions
(D) Trisomic and tetrasomic conditions
173. Match the columns.
Column I Column II
a. Monoploidy 1. 2n-1
b. Monosomy 2. 2n+1
c. Nullisomy 3. 2n+2
d. Trisomy 4. 2n-1
e. Tetrasomy 5. n
6. 3n
A b c d e
(A) 6 5 3 4 2
(B) 5 2 4 1 3
(C) 5 1 4 2 3
(D) 1 5 3 2 4
175. Choose the wrong statement.
(A) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division results in aneuploidy.
(B) Additional copy of ‘X’ chromosome in males results in Klinefelter’s syndrome.
(C) Closely located genes in a chromosome always as- sort independently resulting in recombinations.
(D) Failure of cytokinesis after DNA replication results in polyploidy.
176. Select the autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X- sex linked recessive and Y-sex linked recessive
disorders respectively
(A) Myotonic dystrophy, SCA, Haemophilia and hypertrichosis
(B) Huntington’s chorea, PKU (phenylketonuria), colour-blindness and webbed toes
(C) Polydactyly, Thalassemia G—6—P dehydrogenase deficiency and long hairs on pinna
(D) All of the above
177. Numerical change in chromosome number which is not the exact multiple of haploid genome is
(A) Triploid
(B) Allopolyploid
(C) Autopolyploid
(D) Aneuploid
178. A colour blind man (Xc Y) has a colour blind sister (XCXC) and a normal brother (XY). What is the genotype
of father and mother?
(A) Xc Y, Xc Xc
(B) Xc Y, Xc X
(C) X Y, Xc Xc
(D) XY, Xc X
179. Which genotype will indicate colour blindness in male?
(A) Xc Y
(B) Xc Yc
(C) Xc Xc
(D) Ac Ac
180. A woman with two genes, one for haemophilia and one for colour blindness on one of its X-
cliromosomes marries a normal man. The progeny will be
(A) All sons haemophilic and colour blind

24
(B) 50% haemophilic and colour blind sons and 50% normal sons
(C) All daughters haemophilic and colour blind
(D) 50% haemophilic daughters and 50% colour blind daughters
181. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
a. Pleiotropy 1. Baldness
b. Polygenic inheritance 2. Pattern baldness
c. Autosomal recessive disorder 3. Thalassemia
d. Y-sex linked disorder 4. Phenylketonuria
e. Sex-influenced character 5. Hypertrichosis
f. Sex-limited character 6. Human skin colour
A b c d e f
(A) 5 3 2 1 6 4
(B) 4 6 3 5 1 2
(C) 4 6 3 5 2 1
(D) 6 4 5 3 1 2
182. Down’s syndrome is due to trisomy of 21st chromosome caused by
(A) Nondisjunction during egg formation
(B) Nondisjunction during sperm formation
(C) Addition of extra chromosome during mitosis of zygote
(D) Either A or B
183. Mental retardation in man associated with sex chromosomal abnormality is due to
(A) Increase in X-complement
(B) Decrease in X-complement
(C) Large increase in Y-complement
(D) Moderate increase in Y-complement
184. How many genomes are present in a mammalian skin cell?
(A) Ten
(B) Two
(C) Five
(D) Three
185. Monosomies are
(A) n
(B) 2n+1
(C) 2n-2
(D) 2n - 1
186. First child of a normal pigmented couple is albino. The possibility of a second child being an albino is
(A) 25 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
187. Albinism is due to non-synthesis of melanin on account of absence of
(A) Melanase
(B) Luciferase
(C) Tyrosinase
(D) Lysine
188. In albinism, the absence of which pigment makes the skin and hair light coloured
(A) Melanin

25
(B) Carotene
(C) Haemoglobin
(D) Chlorophyll
189. Queen Victoria of England was
(A) Haemophiliac carrier
(B) Colour blind
(C) AIDS patient
(D) Deaf
190. If haploid chromosome number is 10, the monosomic number shall be
(A) 9
(B) 18
(C) 10
(D) 19
191. Genes for colour blindness in human are carried by
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Both A and B
(D) Abnormal sex
192. Which amino acid is substituted in sickle cell anaemia?
(A) Glutamic acid by valine in a-chain
(B) Glutamic acid by valine in /3-chain
(C) Valine by glutamic acid in a-chain
(D) Valine by glutamic acid in /3-chain
193. In humans, Philadelphia chromosome is formed by reciprocal translocation between chromosomes
(A) 9 and 21
(B) 9 and 22
(C) 9 and 20
(D) 20 and 10
194. A diseased man marries a normal woman. The couple has 3 daughters and 5 sons. The daughter is
diseased while the sons are normal. The gene of the disease is
(A) Sex-linked recessive
(B) Sex-linked dominant
(C) Autosomal character
(D) Sex-limited character
195. Sex-linked traits are generally
(A) Lethal
(B) Recessive
(G) Dominant
(D) Pleiotropic
196. Tay Sach’s disease is due to
(A) Sex linked recessive gene
(B) Sex linked dominant gene
(C) Autosomal dominant gene
(D) Autosomal recessive gene
197. Wilson detected colour blindness in
(A) 1921
(B) 1911
(C) 1910

26
(D) 1914
198. The Christmas disease patient lacks antihaemophilic
(A) Homogentisic acid oxidase
(B) Factor VIII
(C) Factor XI
(D) Factor IX
199. lshihara charts are used by ophthalmologists for detecting
(A) Eye infection
(B) Night blindness
(C) Colourblindness
(D) Fingerprints
200. A harmful condition which is also a potential saviour from a mosquito borne infections disease
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Sickle cell anaemia
(C) Leukemia
(D) Pernicious anaemia
201. Christmas disease is another name of
(A) Sleeping sickness
(B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Hepatitis
(D) Haemophilia B
202. A colour blind person cannot distinguish
(A) Red and green
(B) Green and blue
(C) Yellow and white
(D) Black and yellow
203. Albinism is a result of inability of the system to convert amino acid
(A) Alanine
(B) Tryptophan
(C) Lysine
(D) Phenylalanine
204. Genes for colour blindness/sex linked traits are located on
(A) X-chromosome
(B) Y-chromosome
(C) X or Y-chromosomes
(D) Both X and Y-chromosomes
205. Phenylketonuria is genetic disorder caused by a defect in metabolism of
(A) Fatty acids
(B) Polysaccharides
(C) Amino acids
(D) Vitamins
206. Philadelphia chromosome occurs in patients suffering from
(A) Leukemia
(B) Rickets
(C) Hepatitis
(D) Albinism

27
207. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal genes A and B. He is also hemizygous for haemophilic gene
h. What proportion of sperms will carry abh?
(A) 1/8
(B) 1/32
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/16
208. Recessive gene present on one X-chromosome of humans will be
(A) Lethal
(B) Sub-lethal
(C) Expressed in males
(D) Expressed in females
209. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder in which
(A) Blood clots in blood vessels
(B) There is delayed coagulation of blood
(C) Blood fails to coagulate
(D) Blood cell count falls
210. Wilson disease is associated with abnormal metabolism of
(A) Iron
(B) Potassium
(C) Copper
(D) Iodine
211. Melanurea (black urine) is caused by abnormal catabolism of
(A) Alanine
(B) Tyrosine
(C) Proline
(D) Tryptophan
212. Which is not an X-linked recessive disease?
(A) β-thalassemia
(B) Haemophilia
(C) Colourblindness
(D) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
213. Haemophilia is more common in males because it is a
(A) Recessive character carried by Y. chromosome
(B) Dominant character carried by Y chromosome
(C) Dominant trait carried by X-chromosome
(D) Recessive trait carried by X-chromosome
214. Trisomy has chromosome complement of
(A) 2 n - 1
(B) 2n-l -1
(C) 2 n + 1 + 1
(D) 2 n + 1
215. Cri-du-chat syndrome in human is caused by
(A) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
(B) Loss of half of short arm of chromosome 5
(C) Loss of half of long arm of chromosome 5
(D) Fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm.
216. A colour blind mother and normal father would have
(A) Colour blind sons and normal/carrier daughters

28
(B) Colour blind sons and daughters
(C) All colour blind
(D) All normal
TOPIC 7: Chromosomal Disorders
217. Chromosomal disorders are caused due to
(A) Absence of one or more chromosomes
(B) Excess of one or more chromosomes
(C) Abnormal arrangement of one or more chromosomes
(D) All of the above
218. Polyploidy condition is often seen in
(A) Animals
(B) Humans
(C) Plants
(D) Birds
219. Chromosomal condition of Down’s syndrome is
(A) Allosomal hypoaneuploidy
(B) Autosomal aneuploidy
(C) Allosomal aneuploidy
(D) Partial autosomal deletion
220. Which chromosome condition is Jacob's syndrome?
(A) 44 + XO
(B) 44 + XXY
(C) 44 + XYY
(D) 45 + XYY
221. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(A) a—Down’s syndrome, c—Klinfelter’s syndrome, b—Turner’s syndrome

(B) c—Down’s syndrome, a—Klinfelter’s syndrome, b—Turner’s syndrome
(C) b—Down’s syndrome, c—Klinfelter’s syndrome, a—Turner’s syndrome
(D) c—Down’s syndrome, b—Klinfelter’s syndrome, a—Turner’s syndrome
222. Chromosome number of Down’s syndrome/mongolism is
(A) 46
(B) 47
(C) 45
(D) 23
223. Gynaecomastia is a symptom of
(A) Turner’s syndrome

29
(B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(C) Down’s syndrome
(D) SARS
224. Phenotypically females having rudimentary ovaries, underdeveloped breasts, short stature, webbing
neck, often subnormal intelligence suggests
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(C) Turner’s syndrome
(D) Haemophilic syndrome
225. Pick out the correct statements.
a. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive character
b. Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
c. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal dominant gene disorder
d. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
e. Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder
(A) a, b, d correct
(B) a, c, e correct
(C) a, c correct
(D) b, e correct
226. Epicanthus skin fold above the eyes and transverse palmer crease are typical symptoms of
(A) Cri-du-chat syndrome
(B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(C) Down’s syndrome
(D) Turner’s syndrome
227. A monosomic (2n - 1) abnormality in human is
(A) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(B) Turner’s syndrome
(C) Edward’s syndrome
(D) Down’s syndrome
228. The chromosomal pattern of individual is shown here. This individual is suffering from

(A) Down’s syndrome

(B) Turner’s syndrome
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(D) Edward’s syndrome
229. Frequency of Down’s syndrome increases when maternal age is
(A) Below 35 years

30
(B) Above 35 years
(C) At the time of first pregnancy
(D) After bearing three children
230. A mother is afflicted by Down’s syndrome caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21. Father is normal.
Percentage of offspring affected by the disorder would be
(A) 100%
(B) 75%
(C) 50%
(D) 25%
SECTION B: ASSERTION-REASONING QUESTIONS

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option in question.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion: During Mendel’s investigations into inheritance patterns it was for the first time that statistical
analysis and mathematical logic were applied to problems in biology.
Reason: Mendel investigated characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two opposing
traits, e.g., tall or dwarf plants.
2. Assertion: Mendel conducted artificial pollination/cross pollination experiments using 14 true breeding pea
lines.
Reason: A true breeding line is one that, having undergone continuous cross-pollination, shows the stable
trait inheritance and expression for several generations
3. Assertion: Starch synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one gene.
Reason: This gene has two alleles (B and b).
4. Assertion: Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for.
Reason: Dominance depends much on the gene product and the production of a particular phenotype
from this product.
5. Assertion: Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were sex linked.
Reason: Morgan hybridised yellow bodied, white-eyed males to brown bodied, red eyed females and
intercrossed their progeny.
6. Assertion: When two genes in a dihybrid cross were situated on the same chromosome, the proportion of
parental gene combinations was much higher than the non-parental type.
Reason: This is due to the physical association or linkage of the two genes.
7. Assertion: In each pregnancy there is always 50 per cent probability of either a male or a female child.
Reason: The genetic makeup of the sperm determines the sex of the child.
8. Assertion: Alteration in chromosomes results in abnormalities or aberrations
Reason: Genes are known to be located on chromosomes.
9. Assertion: Study of the family history about inheritance of a particular trait provides an alternative of
control crosses.
Reason: Control crosses that can be performed in pea plant are not possible in case of human beings.
10. Assertion: The individuals affected by Klinefelter’s or Turner’s syndrome are sterile.
Reason: Klinefelter’s and Turner’s syndrome are due to the aneuploidy.
11. Assertion: Mendelian disorders may be dominant or recessive.
Reason: By pedigree analysis it can be easily interpreted that trait is dominant or recessive.
12. Assertion: Mendelian disorders are transmitted to off- spring on the same lines as in the principles of

31
 inheritance.
Reason: The pattern of inheritance of Mendelian disorders cannot be traced in a family by the pedigree
analysis.
13. Assertion: Colour blindness occurs in about 8 per cent of male and only about 0.4 percent of females.
Reason: The genes that lead to red green colour blindness are on the X-chromosome.

SECTION C: PREVIOUS YEARS’ EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

NEET/AIPMT Questions
1. R and Y genes of Maize lie very close to each other. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridised, F2
generation will show
(A) Segregation in 9.3: 3:1
(B) Segregation in 3: 1 ratio
(C) Higher number of parental types
(D) Higher number of recombinant types
2. Assertion: Phenylketonuria is a recessive hereditary disease caused by failure of the body to oxidise an
amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine because of a defective enzyme.
Reason: It results in presence of phenylalanine in urine.
3. Sickle cell anaemia is
(A) Characterised by elongated sickle-like RBCs with a nucleus
(B) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in beta globin chain of haemoglobin
(C) Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA
(D) An autosomal linked dominant trait.
4. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(A) Baldness is a sex-limited trait
(B) Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment
(C) Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism
(D) Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population
5. Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of
(A) Glutamic acid
(B) Dopamine
(C) Gamma amino butyric acid
(D) Acetylcholine
6. Point mutation is
(A) Loss of gene
(B) Change in a base of gene
(C) Addition of a gene
(D) Deletion of a segment of gene
7. Human blood grouping is ABO instead of ABC because O in it refers to
(A) No antigen A or B on RBCs
(B) Other antigens besides A and B
(C) Over dominance of its gene over A and B
(D) One antibody only either anti-A or anti-B.

32
8. Study of pedigree chart. What does it show?

(A) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait

(B) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia
(C) Inheritance of sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
(D) Pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible
9. Out of seven characters in Pea plant studied by Mendel, the number of flower based characters was
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 2
10. What type of sex determination in found in Grasshopper?
(A) XX—XY
(B) ZW—ZZ
(C) ZZ—ZY
(D) XX—XO
11. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross.
(A) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.
(B) Genes loosely linked in the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones.
(C) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.
(D) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations.
12. Which one of the following symbols and is representation, used in human pedigree analysis is correct?
unaffected male

unaffected female

male affected

mating between relatives

13. Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?
(A) Out of one pair of factors, one is dominant and the other recessive
(B) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation
(C) Factors occurs in pairs
(D) Discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
14. In Antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers were hybridised. The plants produced red. Pink and white
flowers in ratio of 1: 2: 1. What could be genotype of the parent plants? RR is red, rr is white
(A) rr
(B) Rr
(C) RR

33
(D) RRrr
15. Study the pedigree chart of certain family given here and select the correct conclusion.
(A) The female parent is heterozygous.
(B) The parents could not have a normal daughter for this character.
(C) The trait under study could not be colour blindness.
(D) The male parent is homozygous dominant.
16. Fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was found to be very suitable for experimental verification of
chromosome theory of inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues because
(A) It reproduces parthenogenetically
(B) Smaller female is easily distinguishable from large male s
(C) A single mating produces two young flies
(D) It completes life cycle in about two weeks
17. Which one correctly determines the sex?
(A) XO condition in Turner’s syndrome determines female sex
(B) Homozygous XX produce male in Drosophila
(C) Homozygous ZZ determine female sex in birds
(D) XO determines male sex in Grasshopper
18. Which external trait determines sex correctly?
(A) Female Cockroach—Anal cerci
(B) Male shark—Claspers on pelvic fins
(C) Female As car is—Curved posterior end
(D) Male Frog—Copulatory pad on first digit of hind limb.
19. All the seven children of a couple are males. What is the probability that the eighth child will also be a
male?
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/8
(D) 1/16
20. Assertion: A geneticist crossed two plants. He got 50% tall and 50% dwarf plants in the progeny.
Reason: One parent was heterozygous tall while the other was dwarf.
21. Assertion: Hbs Hbs is homozygous condition of sickle cell anaemia.
Reason: It occurs due to substitution of glutamic acid by valine at sixth position in /3-chain of
haemoglobin.
22. Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colour blind. The probability of their
daughter becoming colour blind is
(A) 0 %
(B) 25 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 75 %
23. What is the example of sex linked disorder?
(A) Phenylketonuria
(B) Sickle cell anaemia
(C) Haemophilia
(D) Thalassemia

34
24. What is the example of inheritance pattern shown?

(A) Phenylketonuria
(B) Sickle cell anaemia
(C) Haemophilia
(D) Thalassemia
25. Turner’s syndrome is
(A) Case of monosomy
(B) Cause of sterility in females
(C) Absence of barr body
(D) all of the above
26. A test cross is performed to know
(A) Genotype of F2 dominants
(B) Linkage between two traits
(C) Number of alleles of a gene
(D) Success of intervarietal and interspecific cross.
27. Haemoglobins of normal and sickle cell patient are subjected to electrophoresis. They will show
(A) Same mobility
(B) Different mobility
(C) No mobility
(D) Haemoglobin of patient does not move.
28. Both alleles express in heterozygote when they are
(A) Recessive
(B) Lethal
(C) Semidominant
(D) Codominant
29. among seven pairs of traits studied by Mendel. The number of traits related to flower, pod and seed were
(A) 2, 2, 2
(B) 2, 2, 1
(C) 1, 2, 2
(D) 1, 1, 2
30. All are dominant traits studied by Mendel
(A) Axial flower, green pod, green seed
(B) Green pod, inflated pod, axial flower
(C) Yellow seed, violet flower, yellow pod
(D) Round seed, constricted pod, axial flower
31. In the cross YYRR x yyrr, the number of green coloured seeds in F 2 generation is
(A) 9/16
(B) 6/16
(C) 4/16
(D) 1/16
32. F2 generation has genotypic and phenotypic ratio of 1: 2:1. It is

35
(A) Codominance
(B) Dihybrid crosses
(C) Monohybrid crosses with complete dominance
(D) Monohybrid crosses with incomplete dominance
33. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the
chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?
(A) 25%
(B) 100%
(C) No chance
(D) 50%.
34. Which idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents?
(A) Inheritance of one gene
(B) Codominance
(C) Incomplete dominance
(D) Law of dominance
35. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
(A) Down syndrome
(B) Jaundice
(C) Klinefelter syndrome
(D) Sex of the foetus
36. The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is
(A) It is a dominant disease
(B) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected
(C) It is a sex-linked disease
(D) It is a recessive disease
37. If two persons with 4AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children
could be classified as ‘A’ blood group: 4AB’ blood group: 4 B’ blood group in 1: 2: 1 ratio. Modem
technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in 4AB’ blood
group individuals. This is an example of
(A) Partial dominance
(B) Complete dominance
(C) Codominance
(D) Incomplete dominance
38. Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?
(A) The genes show independent assortment
(B) If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossover in every meiosis
(C) The genes may be on different chromosomes
(D) The genes are tightly linked
39. Assertion: Only a boy child could be born with a substitution of glutamic acid by valine on 6th codon of /J-
chain of haemoglobin
Reason: The gene for above mutation occurs on Y-chromosome.
40. Fruit colour in squash is an example of
(A) Inhibitory genes
(B) Recessive epistasis
(C) Dominant epistasis
(D) Complementary sense

36
41. A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and normal father.
What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind?
(A) 75%
(B) 25%
(C) 0%
(D) 50%
42. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to geno- type AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa.
Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is
(A) 0.7
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.6
43. A human female with Turner’s syndrome
(A) Is able to produce children with normal husband
(B) Has 45 chromosomes with XO.
(C) Has one additional X chromosome
(D) Exhibits male characters
44. Linkage refers to
(A) Co-inheritance of two alleles of the same gene
(B) Attached X-chromosomes in Drosophila
(C) Co-inheritance of two different genes
(D) Role of sex-chromosomes in sex-determination.
45. Pleiotropy refers to a situation where
(A) A gene affects one specific trait only
(B) A gene affects more than one seemingly unrelated traits
(C) Many small genes affect a single trait
(D) A single gene masks the effect of another gene
46. Klinefelter’s syndrome is caused due to the
(A) Presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number 21
(B) Absence of one of the X-chromosome, i.e., 45 with XO
(C) Presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting into a karyotype of 47, XXY
(D) Presence of an additional copy of chromosome number 17.
47. ABO blood grouping provides a good example of
(A) Co-dominance
(B) Incomplete dominance
(C) Multiple alleles
(D) Law of dominance
48. A colour blind man marries a normal woman (without any history of colour blindness in her family). What
proportion of their sons will be colour blind?
(A) 50%
(B) 25%
(C) 12.5%
(D) 0%
49. Haemophilia is more common in males than females, because it is
(A) Dominant autosomal
(B) Dominant X-linked
(C) Recessive X-linked
(D) X-linked

37
50. A person with Klinefelter’s syndrome has chromosomes
(A) XX
(B) XY
(C) XYY
(D) XXY
51. Gregor Mendel selected Pea plant for his genetic experiments, because
(A) Many pure varieties of pea are available
(B) The reproductive organs of pea plant are enclosed by petals and generally self-pollination and fertilization
takes place & accidentally too there is no possibility of hybridization
(C) The hybrids obtained by reproduction of two different varieties are fertile.
(D) All of the above statements are correct.
52. “Sickle cell anaemia is a molecular disease”. This statement was proposed by
(A) Daniel Branton
(B) Svedburg
(C) Linus Pauling
(D) Donald Voet
53. in his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use
(A) Pod length
(B) Seed shape
(C) Flower position
(D) Seed colour
54. Which of the following biomolecules does have a phosphodiester bond
(A) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
(B) Amino acids in a polypeptide
(C) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
(D) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
55. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols rep- resent the affected individuals. Identify the type
of given pedigree.

(A) X-linked recessive

(B) Autosomal recessive
(C) X-linked dominant
(D) Autosomal dominant.
56. A gene showing codominance has
(A) Alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome
(B) Alleles that is recessive to each other
(C) Both alleles independently expressed in the hetero- zygote
(D) One allele dominant on the other
57. The term “linkage” was coined by
(A) T. Boveri

38
(B) G. Mendel
(C) W. Sutton
(D) T.H.Morgan
58. A population will not exist in Hardy—Weinberg equilibrium if
(A) There is no migration
(B) The population is large
(C) Individuals mate selectively
(D) There are no mutations
59. An abnormal human body with ‘XXX’ sex chromosomes was bom due to
(A) Fusion of two ova and one sperm
(B) Fusion of two sperms and one ovum
(C) Formation of abnormal sperms in the father
(D) Formation of abnormal ova in the mother
60. Multiple alleles are present
(A) At the same locus of the chromosome
(B) On non-sister chromatids
(C) On different chromosomes
(D) At different loci on the same chromosome.
61. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments?
(A) Eight
(B) Seven
(C) Five
(D) Six
62. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentage
of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are
(A) G-17%, A-33%, T-33%
(B) G-8.5%, A-50%, T-24.5%
(C) G-34%,A-24.5%, T-24.5%
(D) G-17%, A-16.5%,T-32.5%.
63. A man with blood group ‘A’ marries women with blood group ‘B’ what are all the possible blood groups of
their offsprings?
(A) A, B, AB and O
(B) O only
(C) A and B only
(D) A, B and AB only
64. Which of the most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of a sexually-reproductive
organism?
(A) Genetic drift
(B) Recombination
(C) Transduction
(D) Chromosomal aberrations
65. Alleles are
(A) Different molecular forms of a gene
(B) Heterozygotes
(C) Different phenotype
(D) True breeding homozygotes
66. Pick out the correct statements.
(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease

39
(b) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder
(A) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(B) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(C) (a) and (d) are correct
(D) (b) and (d) are correct
67. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1
plants were selfed, the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of
(A) 3:1:: Tall: Dwarf
(B) 3:1:: Dwarf: Tall
(C) 1:2:1:: Tall homozygous: Tall heterozygous: Dwarf
(D) 1:2:1:: Tall heterozygous: Tall homozygous: Dwarf
68. Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column II, and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Dominance i. Many genes govern a single character
b. Codominance ii. In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself
c. Pleiotropy iii. In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully
d. Polygenic inheritance iv. A single gene influences many characters
A b c d
(A) iv I ii iii
(B) iv iii I ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iii iv i
69. In a testcross involving Pi dihybrid Hies, more parental- type offspring were produced than the
Recombinant type offspring This indicates
(A) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
(B) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene
(C) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes
(D) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
70. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?
(A) Chromosomal disorder
(B) Dominant gene disorder
(C) Recessive gene disorder
(D) X- linked recessive gene disorder
71. The gene for ABO blood group is located on
(A) Chromosome 4
(B) Chromosome 7
(C) Chromosome 9
(D) Chromosome 11
72. Down syndrome is one of the most common chromosome abnormalities in humans. It occurs
(A) When there is an extra copy of chromosome 21
(B) When there is an extra copy of chromosome 22
(C) When there is an extra copy of chromosome 11
(D) When there is an extra copy of chromosome 09
73. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called
(A) Translocation
(B) Crossing-over

40
(C) Inversion
(D) Duplication
74. A true breeding plant is
(A) Near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind
(B) Always homozygous recessive in its genetic constitution
(C) One that is able to breed on its own
(D) Produced due to cross-pollination among unrelated plants
75. If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability of
their son being colour-blind is
(A) 0.75
(B) 1
(C) 0
(D) 0.3
76. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the
correct statement.
(A) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis.
(B) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules.
(C) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules.
(D) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis.
77. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IA i. Among the blood types of their children, how
many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(A) 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
(B) 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
(C) 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
(D) 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
78. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is
(A) Klinefelter’s Syndrome
(B) Turner’s Syndrome
(C) Sickel Cell Anemia
(D) Down’s Syndrome
79. Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?
(A) Trichomes-glandular or non-glandular
(B) Seed - Green or Yellow
(C) Pod - Inflated or Constricted
(D) Stem - Tall or Dwarf
80. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridization experiments?
(A) 1840- 1850
(B) 1857- 1869
(C) 1870- 1877
(D) 1856- 1863
81. Select the correct statement.
(A) Franklin Stahl coined the term linkage”.
(B) Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.
(C) Spliceosomes take part in translation.
(D) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
82. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(A) Starch synthesis in pea: Multiple alleles
(B) ABO blood grouping: Co-dominance

41
(C) XO type sex determination: Grasshopper
(D) T.H. Morgan: Linkage
83. Select the correct match.
(A) Ribozyme—Nucleic acid
(B) F2 * Recessive parent—Dihybrid cross
(C) T.H. Morgan—Transduction
(D) G. Mendel—Transformation
84. Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans?
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance
c. Multiple allele
d. Incomplete dominance
e. Polygenic inheritance
(A) b, c and e
(B) a, b and c
(C) b, d and e
(D) a, c and e
85. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
(A) Only daughters
(B) Only sons
(C) Only grandchildren
(D) Both sons and daughters
AIIMS Questions
1. Discontinuous variations are
(A) Essential features
(B) Acquired characters
(C) Non-essential changes
(D) Mutations
2. Mirabilis jalapa shows
(A) Co dominance
(B) Incomplete dominance
(C) Dominance
(D) Complementary genes
3. Frame shift mutation occurs when
(A) Base is added
(B) Base is deleted
(C) Base is added or deleted
(D) None of the above
4. Pure line breed refers to
(A) homozygosity
(B) heterozygosity
(C) Linkage
(D) Both (B) and (C)
5. If a homozygous red flowered plant is crossed with a ho- mozygous white flowered plant, the offsprings
would be
(A) All red flowered
(B) Half red flowered

42
(C) Half white flowered
(D) All white flowered
6. Genes of which one of the following is present exclusively on the X-chromosome in humans?
(A) Baldness
(B) Red-green colour blindness
(C) Facial hair/moustaches in males
(D) Night blindness
7. Given below is a pedigree chart of a family with five children. It shows the inheritance of attached earlobes
as opposed to the free ones. The squares represent the male individuals and circles the female individuals.
Which one of the following conclusions drawn is correct?

(A) The parents are homozygous recessive

(B) The trait is Y-linked.
(C) The parents are homozygous dominant
(D) The parents are heterozygous
8. How many different types of gametes can be formed by F, progeny, resulting from the following cross Tt x
Rr?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 27
(D) 64
9. Grain colour in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygene. Following the cross AABBCC (dark colour) x
aabbcc (light colour), in F2 generation what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent?
(A) Half
(B) Less than 5%
(C) One third
(D) None of these
10. The ‘Cri-du-Chat’ syndrome is caused by change in chromosome structure involving
(A) Deletion
(B) Duplication
(C) Inversion
(D) Translocation

43
11. given below is a highly simplified representation of the human sex chromosomes from a karyotype The
genes a and b could be of

(A) Colour blindness and body height

(B) Attached ear lobe and Rhesus blood group
(C) haemophilia and red-green colour blindness
(D) phenylketonuria and haemophilia
12. In which one of the following combinations (a-d) the number of chromosomes of the present day
hexaploid wheat is correctly represented?
Combination Mono- somic Haploid Nullisomic Trisomic
(A) 21 28 42 43
(B) 7 28 40 42
(C) 21 7 42 43
(D) 41 21 40 43
13. XO-chromosomal abnormality in human beings causes
(A) Turner’s syndrome
(B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(D) None of the above
14. A normal woman whose father was colour blind, is married to a normal man. The sons would be
(A) 75% colour blind
(B) 50% colour blind
(C) All normal
(D) All colour blind
15. Mother and father both have blood group ‘A’. They have two children one with blood group lO’ and
second one with blood group ‘A’ they have
(A) Mother has homozygotic gene father has heterozygotic (IAIA)
(B) Both are homozygotic (IAIA)
(C) Mother is heterozygotic (IAi) and father is homozygotic (IAIA).
(D) Both are heterozygotic (IAi)
16. Three children in a family have blood types O, AB and B respectively. What are the genotypes of their
parents?
(A) IAi and ]Bi
(B)IAIBandiI
(C) l¥ and 1AIA
(D) IAIA and IBi
17. What occurs in point mutation?
(A) Change in single base pair in DNA
(B) Change in single base pair in RNA
(C) Change in double base pair in DNA

44
(D) Change in double base pair in RNA
18. A female with underdeveloped feminine character possess
(A) 47 chromosomes
(B) 45 + XO
(C) 49 chromosomes
(D) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
19. A parent having autosomal dominant disease then what will be the probability of diseased offspring
irrespective of sex of the child?
(A) 90%
(B) 10%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%
20. A man and a woman, who do not show any apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, have seven
children (2 daughters and 5 sons). Three of the sons suffer from the given disease but none of the
daughters are affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you suggest for this disease?
(A) autosomal dominant
(B) Sex-linked dominant
(C) Sex-limited recessive
(D) Sex-linked recessive
21. Linkage is broken by
(A) Meiosis
(B) Mitosis
(C) Control formation
(D) DNA duplication
Assertion and Reason Type Questions
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these
questions you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(E) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.
22. Assertion: The honey bee queen copulates only ones in her life time.
Reason: The honey bee queen can lay fertilized as well as unfertilized eggs.
23. Assertion: Persons suffering from haemophilia fail to produce blood clotting factor VIII.
Reason: Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are found in very low concentration.
24. Assertion: In humans, the gamete contributed by the male determines whether the child produced will be
male or female.
Reason: Sex in humans is a polygenic trait depending upon a cumulative effect of some genes on X-
chromosome and some on Y-chromosome.
25. Assertion: In fabaceae family monocarpellary, unilocular ovary is present.
Reason: In fabaceae, placentation is parietal.
26. Assertion: XX-XY type of sex determination mechanism is an example of male heterogamety.
Reason: In birds, male heterogamety is seen as males produce two different types of gametes.
27. Assertion: Number of chromosomes in one genome is equal to the number of linkage groups.
Reason: Linkage groups give important information about the location of genes in the chromosomes.
28. Assertion: In humans, the gamete contributed by the male determines whether the child produced will be
male or female

45
 Reason: Sex in humans is a polygenic trait depending upon a cumulative effect of some genes on X-
chromosome and some on Y- chromosome.

SECTION D: CHAPTER-END TEST

1. A ten year patient is found to have slanting eyes with epicanthic fold, hypertelorism, dysplastic ears,
mongoloid face and protruding tongue. The patient is suffering from
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(C) Turner’s syndrome
(D) Cri-du-chat syndrome
2. Phenomenon of an allele of one gene suppressing the activity of allele of another gene is called
(A) Dominance
(B) Epistasis
(C) Suppression
(D) Inactivation
3. Where are barr bodies found?
(A) Ova
(B) Sperms
(C) Somatic cells of man
(D) Somatic cells of woman
4. Which one shows complementary gene interaction ratio of 9:7?
(A) Four o’clock plant
(B) Feather colour in Fowl
(C) Flower colour in Sweet Pea
(D) Fruit shape in Shepherd’s purse
5. Longest chromosomes occur in
(A) Lilium
(B) Zea mays
(C) Allium
(D) Trillium
6. Diagrammatic representation of chromosomes is
(A) Karyotype
(B) Idiogram
(C) Chromosome map
(D) Phenogram
7. Accumulation of protein, amyloid /3-peptide, in human brain causes
(A) Addison’s disease
(B) Huntington’s disease
(C) Alzheimer’s disease
(D) Parkinson’s disease
8. Barr body occurs in
(A) Interphase cell of female mammal
(B) Interphase cell of male mammal
(C) Prophase cell of male mammal
(D) Prophase cell of female mammal
9. Barr body is observed in

46
(A) Basophils of male
(B) Neutrophils of female
(C) Basophils of female
(D) Eosinophils
10. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are located in
(A) Chloroplast genome
(B) Mitochondrial genome
(C) Nuclear genome
(D) Cytosol
11. Genic balance of sex determination was proposed by
(A) Bridges
(B) Mendel
(C) Balbiani
(D) Morgan
12. The two eukaryotic organelles responsible for cytoplasmic inheritance are
(A) Lysosomes and mitochondris
(B) Chloroplasts and lysosomes
(C) Mitochondria and chloroplasts
(D) Mitochondria and Golgi complex
13. Most likely reason for development of resistance in insects against pesticides is
(A) Genetic recombination
(B) Acquired heritable changes
(C) Random mutations
(D) Directed mutations
14. Which of the following discoveries resulted in Nobel Prize?
(A) Recombination of linked genes
(B) X-rays induce sex-linked recessive lethal mutations
(C) Genetic Engineering
(D) Cytoplasmic inheritance
15. Colchicine was discovered by
(A) Flemming
(B) Blackeslee
(C) Dumas
(D) Muller
16. Number of linkage groups in Pisum sativum is
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 10
17. Human chromosomes have been grouped on the basis of size and centromere into types
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 10
18. Genic balance theory holds good in case of
(A) Humans
(B) Drosophila
(C) Grasshopper

47
(D) Allium cepa
19. Number of Barr bodies in XXXX female would be
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
20. Inheritance would be extranuclear in case of
(A) Killer Amoeba
(B) Killer Paramecium
(C) Killer Euglena
(D) Killer Hydra
21. Genes located on differential region of Y-chromosome are called
(A) XY linked genes
(B) Holandric genes
(C) Autosomal genes
(D) Mutant genes
22. Exchange of segments between non-homologous chromosomes is
(A) Translocation
(B) Inversion
(C) Crossing over
(D) Tetrasomy
23. A fruitfly exhibiting both male and female traits is
(A) Heterozygous
(B) Gynandromorph
(C) Hemizygous
(D) Gynander
24. Out of A—T, G—C pairing, bases of DNA may exist in alternate valency state owing to arrangement called
(A) Analogue substitution
(B) Tautomerisational mutation
(C) Frame-shift mutation
(D) Point mutation
25. The term eugenics was first applied by
(A) Urey
(B) Lederberg
(C) Galton
(D) Morgan.
26. Which crop variety is not due to induced mutations?
(A) ReimeiofRice
(B) Prabhat of Arhar
(C) Sharbati Sonora of Wheat
(D) Aruna of Castor
27. Lethal genes are
(A) Causative for appearance of ancestral traits
(B) Always recessive
(C) Genes present on different chromosomes
(D) Killer in homozygous state
28. Pure line is connected with development of
(A) Homozygosity

48
(B) Heterozygosity
(C) Homozygosity and self-assortment
(D) Heterozygosity and linkage.
29. If BB represents barr body and Y0 represents Y—body,XXY or Klinefelters syndrome has
(A) BB—1, Y0—0
(B) BB—1, Y0—1
(C) BB—0, Y0—1
(D) BB—2,Y0— 1
30. Down’s syndrome is due to
(A) Crossing over
(B) Linkage
(C) Sex-linked inheritance
(D) Nondisjunction of chromosomes
31. In Down’s syndrome of a male child, the sex complement is
(A) XO
(B) XY
(C) XX
(D) XXY
32. In a cross between AABB x aabb, the ratio of F2 genotypes between AABB, AaBB, Aabb and aabb would be
(A) 9: 3: 3:1
(B) 2:1:1:2
(C) 1: 2: 2:1
(D) 7: 5: 3:1
33. Mendel’s principles are related to
(A) Evolution
(B) Reproduction
(C) Variations
(D) Heredity
34. If F1 generation has all tall plants and ratio of F2 generation 3 tall: 1 dwarf, it proves
(A) Law of independent assortment
(B) Law of segregation
(C) Law of dominance
(D) Incomplete dominance
35. Who studied sex-linked inheritance for first time?
(A) Morgan
(B) Khorana
(C) Pasteur
(D) VonHelmont
36. Sex chromosomes of birds are
(A) ZZ—ZW
(B) ZZ—WW
(C) XX—XY
(D) XO—XX
37. Sex chromosomes of a female bird are
(A) XO
(B) ZZ
(C) ZW
(D) XX

49
38. Which is correct?
(A) Birds have ZZ (female)—ZW (male) sex determination
(B) Drosophila has XX-XY sex determination
(C) Henking discovered Y-chromosome
(D) Grasshoppers show XX—XY sex determination
39. The substance which causes a definite change in genes is called
(A) Mutagen
(B) Toxin
(C) Cytotoxin
(D) Alkaloid
40. Mutations are responsible for
(A) Extinction of organism
(B) Variations in population
(C) Incraese in population
(D) Maintaining genetic continuity
41. Smallest segment of genetic material affected by mutation is
(A) Recon
(B) Cistron
(C) Muton
(D) Exon
42. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from African population as
(A) It is controlled by dominant genes
(B) It is controlled by recessive genes
(C) It is not a fatal disease
(D) It provides immunity against malaria
43. Probability of male child of haemophilic father and normal mother becoming haemophilic is
(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%
44. Deficiency of VIII factor leads to
(A) Haemophilia A
(B) Haemophilia B
(C) HaemophiliaC
(D) Haemophilia D
45. Match the columns
Column I Column II
1. Sickle cell anaemia a. 7th chromosome
2. Phenylketonuria b. 4th chromosome
3. Cystic fibrosis c 11th chromosome
4. Huntington’s disease d. X-chromosome
5. Colourblindness e. 12thchromosome
1 2 3 4 5
(A) a c d b e
(B) c e a b d
(C) b c d e a
(D) b a c e d

50
46. Select the correct bases of DNA, RNA and amino acid of beta chain causing sickle cell anaemia.
DNA RNA Amino acid
(A) CAC—GUG GAG Glutamic acid
(B) CAC—GTG GUG Valine
(C) CTC—GAG GUG Valine
(D) CTC-GAG GUG Glutamic acid
47. Sickle cell anaemia is due to mutation of
(A) CTC to CAC
(B) CTG to CAG
(C) CAG to CTC
(D) CGC to CAC
48. Hereditary disease in which urine turns black on expo- sure due to presence of homogentisic acid is
(A) Ketonuria
(B) Phenylketonuria
(C) Haematuria
(D) Alkaptonuria
49. In XO type of sex determination
(A) Females produce two types of gametes
(B) Males produce two types of gametes
(C) Females produce gametes with Y-chromosome
(D) Males produce gametes with Y-chromosome
50. Mendel’s law of independent assortment can be demon­ strated by
(A) Test cross
(B) Back cross
(C) Monohybrid cross
(D) Dihybrid cross
51. All of the following contrasting traits selected by Mendel expect
(A) Smooth or wrinkled seeds
(B) Yellow or green seeds
(C) Inflated or full pods
(D) Tall or dwarf plants
52. Which of the following statement is incorrect about colour blindness?
(A) It is a sex-linked dominant disorder due to defect in either red or green cone of eye.
(B) In this defect is due to mutation in certain genes present in the X chromosomes.
(C) It occurs in about 8 per cent of males and only about 0.4 per cent of females.
(D) It is because the genes that lead to red-green colour- blindness are on the X-chromosome.
53. Which of the following statement is correct about Thalassemia?
(A) It is an autosome-linked recessive blood disease.
(B) The defect could be due to either mutation or deletion.
(C) It causes the formation of abnormal haemoglobin molecule.
(D) All of the above.
54. The Alpha Thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked genes HBA1 and HBA2................... of each parent
and it is observed due to mutation or deletion of one or more of the four genes.
(A) On chromosome 11
(B) On chromosome 15
(C) On chromosome 16
(D) On chromosome 18

51
55. The sex determination in honey bee is based on
(A) The number of sets of chromosomes an individual receives.
(B) The number of chromosomes in female (Queen)
(C) The number of chromosomes in male (Drone)
(D) Both B and C
56. Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anamia in that
(A) The former is a quantitative problem of synthesising too few globin molecules.
(B) The latter is a qualitative probelm of synthesising an incorrectly functioning globin.
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these.
57. Select the incorrect matching.
Column I Column II
a. PKU i. Autosomal recessive
b. Myotonic dystrophy ii. Autosomal dominant
c. SCA iii. Sex-linked recessive
d. Haemophilia iv. Sex-linked dominant
e. Colour-blindness v. Inborn error of metablism
f. Human skin colour vi. Pleiotropy
g. Thalassemia vii. Polygenic inheritance
(A) a—v, d—iii, g—i, a—vi
(B) b—ii, c— i, e—iii, f—vii
(C) a— i, d—iii, f—vi, g—v
(D) a—i, b—ii, e—iii, g—i
Match column I with column II, and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
58.
Column I Column II
a. Reginald C. Punnett 1. Sex determination
b. Mendel 2. Genotype probability
c. Sutton and Boveri 3. Linkage and recombination
d. T.H. Morgan 4. Laws of inheritance
e. Henking 5. Parallel behaviour of genes and chromosomes'
A b c d e
(A) 2 4 3 1 5
(B) 4 5 1 2 3
(C) 2 4 5 3 1
(D) 5 3 2 1 4
59.
Column I Column II
a. Mendel 1. Insects
b. Henking 2. Drosophila
c. Morgan 3. Garden pea
A b c
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 3 1 2
(C) 2 1 3
(D) 1 3 2

52
60.
Column I Column II
a. Incomplete dominance 1. ABO blood grouping
b. Co-dominance 2. Snapdragon
c. Multiple allelism 3. Garden peas
d. Dominance 4. Fruit-flies
A b c d
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 1 3
61.
Column I Column II
a. Mendelian disorder 1. Drosophila
b. Chromosomal disorder 2. Grasshopper
c. XO type sex determination 3. Psittacula
d. XY type sex determination 4. Klinefelter’s syndrome
e. ZW type sex determination 5. Cystic fibrosis
A b c d e
(A) 4 5 2 1 3
(B) 4 5 3 1 2
(C) 5 4 2 1 3
(D) 5 4 1 2 3
62.
Column I Column II
a. Autosomal dominant trait 1. Phenylketonuria
b. Autosomal recessive trait 2. Turner’s
c. Sex linked recessive trait 3. Haemophilia
d. Aneuploidy 4. Myotonic dystrophy
A b c d
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
63.
Column I Column II
a. Chromosomal aberration 1. UV radiations
b. Polyploidy 2. Cancer cells
c. Mutagen 3. Sickle cell anaemia
d. Point mutation 4. Often seen in plant
A b c d
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 3 2 1

53
64.
Column I Column II
a. Mental retardation 1. Down’s syndrome
b. Gynaecomastia 2. Klinefelter’s syndrome
c. Rudimentary ovaries 3. Phenylketonuria
d. Partially open mouth 4. Turner’s syndrome
A b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2

Answer key
SECTION A
1 A 2 B 3 D 4 B 5 B 6 D 7 B 8 D 9 A 10 B
11 D 12 D 13 D 14 B 15 A 16 C 17 C 18 D 19 B 20 B
21 A 22 B 23 D 24 A 25 D 26 D 27 D 28 B 29 B 30 A
31 C 32 B 33 A 34 B 35 C 36 C 37 B 38 B 39 A 40 D
41 A 42 C 43 D 44 A 45 A 46 B 47 C 48 B 49 C 50 D
51 A 52 A 53 A 54 A 55 A 56 A 57 B 58 A 59 B 60 B
61 C 62 B 63 C 64 A 65 A 66 C 67 D 68 A 69 A 70 A
71 A 72 B 73 B 74 D 75 B 76 A 77 A 78 D 79 A 80 C
81 C 82 B 83 B 84 A 85 B 86 D 87 B 88 D 89 A 90 D
91 D 92 B 93 B 94 D 95 D 96 B 97 A 98 D 99 A 100 A
101 A 102 A 103 D 104 C 105 D 106 C 107 A 108 B 109 A 110 B
111 D 112 D 113 D 114 C 115 B 116 C 117 A 118 D 119 B 120 C
121 B 122 B 123 C 124 B 125 B 126 D 127 C 128 D 129 D 130 D
131 C 132 B 133 B 134 C 135 D 136 D 137 A 138 D 139 C 140 A
141 B 142 A 143 C 144 D 145 A 146 C 147 D 148 D 149 B 150 A
151 D 152 B 153 D 154 C 155 D 156 D 157 D 158 C 159 A 160 C
161 A 162 D 163 C 164 D 165 D 166 D 167 A 168 C 169 C 170 B
171 B 172 B 173 C 174 A 175 C 176 D 177 D 178 B 179 A 180 B
181 B 182 D 183 A 184 B 185 D 186 A 187 C 188 A 189 A 190 D
191 C 192 B 193 B 194 C 195 B 196 D 197 C 198 D 199 C 200 B
201 D 202 A 203 D 204 A 205 C 206 A 207 A 208 C 209 B 210 C
211 B 212 A 213 D 214 D 215 B 216 A 217 D 218 C 219 B 220 C
221 B 222 B 223 B 224 C 225 A 226 C 227 B 228 A 229 B 230 C

Section B
1 B 2 C 3 B 4 A 5 C 6 A 7 A 8 A 9 A 10 B
11 B 12 C 13 A

Section C
1 C 2 B 3 C 4 A 5 D 6 B 7 A 8 A 9 D 10 D

54
11 C 12 D 13 B 14 B 15 A 16 D 17 D 18 B 19 A 20 A
21 B 22 A 23 C 24 C 25 D 26 A 27 B 28 D 29 A 30 B
31 C 32 D 33 A 34 B 35 B 36 A 37 C 38 D 39 D 40 C
41 D 42 D 43 B 44 C 45 B 46 C 47 C 48 D 49 C 50 D
51 D 52 C 53 A 54 C 55 B 56 C 57 D 58 C 59 D 60 A
61 B 62 A 63 A 64 B 65 A 66 B 67 C 68 D 69 A 70 D
71 C 72 A 73 A 74 A 75 C 76 B 77 B 78 D 79 A 80 D
81 B 82 A 83 A 84 B 85 D

Section D
1 A 2 B 3 D 4 C 5 D 6 B 7 C 8 A 9 B 10 B
11 A 12 C 13 C 14 B 15 B 16 C 17 C 18 B 19 B 20 B
21 B 22 A 23 B 24 B 25 C 26 B 27 D 28 C 29 B 30 D
31 B 32 C 33 D 34 C 35 A 36 A 37 C 38 B 39 A 40 B
41 C 42 D 43 A 44 A 45 B 46 B 47 A 48 D 49 B 50 D
51 C 52 A 53 D 54 C 55 A 56 C 57 C 58 C 59 B 60 D
61 C 62 D 63 C 64 C

55