HARAMAYA IFA BORU SPECIAL

BOARDING SECONDARY SCHOOL

BIOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS
FOR GRADE 12,2017
Biology Practice Questions For Grade 12, 2017

1. Which of the following organelles is responsible for packaging and modifying

proteins for secretion?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Ribosome
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Lysosome
2. What process allows water to move upward through the xylem in tall trees?
A. Active transport
B. Osmosis
C. Transpiration pull
D. Diffusion
3. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating ovulation in females?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
4. What is the function of the sinoatrial (SA) node in the heart?
A. Stimulates blood flow
B. Acts as the pacemaker
C. Increases blood pressure
D. Filters deoxygenated blood

1
5. Which of the following is a feature of smooth muscle tissue?
A. Multinucleated and voluntary
B. Striated and involuntary
C. Non-striated and voluntary
D. Non-striated and involuntary
6. What is the role of DNA ligase during replication?
A. Unwinds the DNA strand
B. Adds nucleotides to the strand
C. Joins Okazaki fragments
D. Synthesizes RNA primers
7. Which of the following best describes the term 'allele'?
A. A protein-coding gene
B. An enzyme involved in transcription
C. A variant form of a gene
D. A nucleotide sequence of mRNA
8. In humans, where does fertilization usually occur?
A. Uterus
B. Ovary
C. Vagina
D. Fallopian tube
9. Which of the following is responsible for detecting color in the human eye?
A. Rod cells
B. Cone cells
C. Cornea
D. Iris
10. What is the main function of the large intestine?
A. Absorption of nutrients
B. Filtration of blood
C. Absorption of water
D. Digestion of proteins
11. Which plant hormone promotes cell elongation?
A. Abscisic acid
B. Cytokinin
C. Gibberellin
D. Auxin
12. What structure in bacteria is used for locomotion?
A. Pili
B. Capsule
C. Flagellum
D. Ribosome
13. Which of the following processes results in the formation of gametes?
A. Mitosis
B. Binary fission
C. Meiosis
D. Budding
14. What is the function of the phloem in vascular plants?
A. Transport of water
2
 B. Transport of minerals
C. Transport of photosynthetic products
D. Gas exchange
15. What is the function of melanin in the skin?
A. Heat regulation
B. Vitamin D production
C. Protection against UV radiation
D. Sensory perception
16. Which organ is primarily involved in the detoxification of harmful substances in the
human body?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Pancreas
17. Which of the following is a vestigial structure in humans?
A. Femur
B. Appendix
C. Kidney
D. Heart
18. What is the primary structural polysaccharide found in the cell walls of plants?
A. Glycogen
B. Starch
C. Chitin
D. Cellulose
19. Which part of the brain controls voluntary muscle movement?
A. Cerebellum
B. Medulla
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebrum
20. What term describes organisms that produce their own food using chemical energy?
A. Photoautotrophs
B. Chemoautotrophs
C. Heterotrophs
D. Saprotrophs
21. Which enzyme is essential for digesting lactose in milk?
A. Maltase
B. Lactase
C. Sucrase
D. Amylase
22. What process converts nitrogen gas into ammonia in the nitrogen cycle?
A. Nitrification
B. Denitrification
C. Nitrogen fixation
D. Ammonification
23. In population biology, what does the term “carrying capacity” refer to?
A. Maximum growth rate
B. Minimum reproductive age
3
 C. Maximum population an environment can sustain
D. Number of species in an ecosystem
24. Which gas is primarily responsible for the greenhouse effect?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Helium
25. Which macromolecule serves as the primary source of energy in cells?
A. Proteins
B. Nucleic acids
C. Carbohydrates
D. Lipids
26. What is the primary function of the nephron in the kidney?
A. Oxygen exchange
B. Filtration of blood and urine formation
C. Hormone production
D. Digestion of proteins
27. Which hormone regulates calcium levels in the blood?
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine
C. Parathyroid hormone
D. Adrenaline
28. What is the site of photosynthesis in plant cells?
A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosome
C. Chloroplast
D. Vacuole
29. Which molecule carries genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome?
A. DNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. mRNA
30. Which part of the brain is responsible for maintaining balance and coordination?
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Hypothalamus
31. In aerobic respiration, the majority of ATP is produced during which stage?
A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. Electron transport chain
D. Fermentation
32. Which structure in plants is primarily responsible for opening and closing stomata?
A. Mesophyll cells
B. Guard cells
C. Xylem
D. Phloem
4
33. What is the function of myelin sheath in neurons?
A. Generate nerve impulses
B. Store neurotransmitters
C. Insulate axons and increase signal transmission speed
D. Produce cerebrospinal fluid
34. Which blood component is primarily responsible for clotting?
A. White blood cells
B. Red blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
35. Which of the following processes results in genetic variation in meiosis?
A. Cytokinesis
B. Independent assortment
C. DNA replication
D. Telophase
36. Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding DNA during replication?
A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA polymerase
C. Ligase
D. Helicase
37. What is the term for an organism that uses inorganic substances to make its own
food?
A. Heterotroph
B. Autotroph
C. Decomposer
D. Parasite
38. What type of joint is found in the shoulder and hip?
A. Hinge joint
B. Pivot joint
C. Ball-and-socket joint
D. Fixed joint
39. Which of the following tissues is responsible for transporting water in plants?
A. Phloem
B. Xylem
C. Cambium
D. Parenchyma
40. Which organelle is involved in detoxifying harmful substances in liver cells?
A. Ribosome
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. Lysosome
41. What is the correct order of taxonomic classification from broad to specific?
A. Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species
B. Kingdom, Class, Order, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species
C. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
D. Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom

5
42. In DNA, adenine pairs with which base?
A. Cytosine
B. Guanine
C. Thymine
D. Uracil
43. Which part of the flower develops into fruit after fertilization?
A. Petal
B. Ovule
C. Ovary
D. Stigma
44. Which structure in the heart prevents backflow of blood?
A. Aorta
B. Atrium
C. Valves
D. Ventricle
45. Which nutrient is primarily absorbed in the small intestine?
A. Water
B. Protein
C. Minerals
D. Glucose
46. What is the role of the ribosome in a cell?
A. Energy production
B. Lipid synthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. DNA replication
47. Which blood group is considered the universal donor?
A. AB+
B. O+
C. O−
D. AB−
48. What type of mutation involves a change in a single nucleotide base?
A. Frame shift mutation
B. Silent mutation
C. Point mutation
D. Chromosomal mutation
49. What is the main site of nutrient absorption in humans?
A. Large intestine
B. Stomach
C. Small intestine
D. Esophagus
50. Which structure in a cell is responsible for producing ATP?
A. Ribosome
B. Mitochondrion
C. Golgi body
D. Nucleus
51. Which organelle is primarily responsible for the synthesis of lipids and steroid hormones?
a. A) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
6
 b. B) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
c. C) Golgi Apparatus
d. D) Mitochondrion
52. In the context of enzyme kinetics, what does the Michaelis-Menten constant (Km)
represent?
a. A) The maximum rate of the reaction
b. B) The substrate concentration at half-maximal velocity
c. C) The affinity of the enzyme for the substrate
d. D) The rate at which the enzyme is saturated with substrate
53. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions?
a. A) Substrate concentration
b. B) pH
c. C) Temperature
d. D) The presence of a cofactor
54. Which of the following is an example of a coenzyme?
a. A) NAD⁺
b. B) Zinc ion
c. C) Calcium ion
d. D) Magnesium ion
55. In which part of the cell does glycolysis occur?
a. A) Mitochondria
b. B) Cytoplasm
c. C) Nucleus
d. D) Endoplasmic Reticulum
56. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a prokaryotic cell?
a. A) Presence of a nucleus
b. B) Circular DNA
c. C) Lack of membrane-bound organelles
d. D) Presence of ribosomes
57. In the process of DNA replication, which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA
double helix?
a. A) DNA polymerase
b. B) Helicase
c. C) Ligase
d. D) Primase
58. Which type of RNA carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosome?
a. A) mRNA
b. B) tRNA
c. C) rRNA
d. D) snRNA
59. In a Punnett square, what does the term "genotype" refer to?
a. A) The physical appearance of an organism
b. B) The genetic makeup of an organism
c. C) The environment in which an organism lives
d. D) The evolutionary history of an organism
60. Which of the following is an example of codominance?
a. A) Red and white flowers producing pink offspring
7
 b. B) A person with AB blood type
c. C) A pea plant with green pods
d. D) A cat with a long tail
61. Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating heart rate and breathing?
a. A) Cerebellum
b. B) Medulla Oblongata
c. C) Cerebrum
d. D) Thalamus
62. Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting?
a. A) Red blood cells
b. B) White blood cells
c. C) Platelets
d. D) Plasma
63. Which of the following hormones is produced by the pancreas and lowers blood glucose
levels?
a. A) Insulin
b. B) Glucagon
c. C) Adrenaline
d. D) Thyroxine
64. Which structure in the human eye controls the amount of light entering?
a. A) Retina
b. B) Cornea
c. C) Iris
d. D) Lens
65. Which of the following is a function of the liver?
a. A) Production of insulin
b. B) Detoxification of harmful substances
c. C) Storage of bile
d. D) Production of red blood cells
66. Which of the following is an abiotic factor in an ecosystem?
a. A) Plants
b. B) Animals
c. C) Temperature
d. D) Fungi
67. In a food chain, which trophic level has the highest biomass?
a. A) Producers
b. B) Primary consumers
c. C) Secondary consumers
d. D) Tertiary consumers
68. Which of the following is an example of mutualism?
a. A) A lion hunting a zebra
b. B) A bee pollinating a flower
c. C) A tick feeding on a dog
d. D) A bird eating parasites off a buffalo
69. Which process is responsible for the release of oxygen into the atmosphere?
a. A) Cellular respiration
b. B) Photosynthesis
8
 c. C) Decomposition
d. D) Nitrogen fixation
70. Which of the following is a characteristic of K-strategists?
a. A) Produce many offspring
b. B) Short lifespan
c. C) High parental care
d. D) Rapid growth
71. Which part of the plant is responsible for absorbing water and minerals from the soil?
a. A) Leaves
b. B) Stem
c. C) Roots
d. D) Flowers
72. Which of the following is a product of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
a. A) Glucose
b. B) Oxygen
c. C) Carbon dioxide
d. D) Water
73. What is the primary function of phloem in plants?
a. A) Transport of water
b. B) Transport of nutrients
c. C) Transport of sugars
d. D) Transport of hormones
74. Which plant hormone is primarily responsible for promoting cell elongation?
a. A) Auxin
b. B) Cytokinin
c. C) Gibberellin
d. D) Abscisic acid
75. In which part of the plant does most photosynthesis occur?
a. A) Roots
b. B) Stem
c. C) Leaves
76. Which of the following best describes the role of the Casparian strip in plant roots?
a. A. Facilitates the passive movement of water into the vascular system
b. B. Prevents the backflow of water into the soil
c. C. Regulates the selective uptake of minerals into the vascular system
d. D. Enhances the diffusion of gases into the root cells
77. In C4 plants, the enzyme PEP carboxylase has a higher affinity for CO₂ than
Rubisco. What is the significance of this?
a. A. It allows for efficient carbon fixation at low CO₂ concentrations
b. B. It reduces photorespiration by fixing CO₂ into a four-carbon compound
c. C. It increases the rate of the Calvin cycle
d. D. It facilitates the release of oxygen during photosynthesis
78. Which structure in plant cells is primarily responsible for the synthesis of ATP
during photosynthesis?
a. A. Mitochondria
b. B. Chloroplasts
c. C. Endoplasmic reticulum
9
 d. D. Nucleus
79. During seed germination, the first structure to emerge from the seed is the:
a. A. Cotyledon
b. B. Radicle
c. C. Plumule
d. D. Hypocotyl
80. Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for promoting fruit
ripening in plants?
a. A. Auxin
b. B. Cytokinin
c. C. Ethylene
d. D. Gibberellin

81. Which of the following is characteristic of Gram-negative bacteria?

a. A. Thick peptidoglycan layer
b. B. Outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides
c. C. Retain crystal violet stain, appearing purple
d. D. Lack a plasma membrane
82. Which type of microorganism is primarily responsible for the fermentation of
sugars into ethanol?
a. A. Bacteria
b. B. Fungi
c. C. Viruses
d. D. Protozoa
83. In the human immune system, which cells are primarily responsible for the
production of antibodies?
a. A. T-helper cells
b. B. B lymphocytes
c. C. Macrophages
d. D. Neutrophils
84. Which of the following is a characteristic of viruses?
a. A. They can reproduce independently
b. B. They possess a cellular structure
c. C. They require a host cell to replicate
d. D. They are classified as prokaryotes
85. The process by which bacteria exchange genetic material through direct contact is
known as:
a. A. Transformation
b. B. Transduction
c. C. Conjugation
d. D. Binary fission
86. Which phase of the cell cycle is characterized by DNA replication?
a. A. G1 phase
b. B. S phase
c. C. G2 phase
10
 d. D. M phase
87. In eukaryotic cells, the majority of ATP is produced in which organelle?
a. A. Nucleus
b. B. Mitochondrion
c. C. Chloroplast
d. D. Ribosome
88. Which of the following mutations is most likely to result in a premature stop codon?
a. A. Missense mutation
b. B. Nonsense mutation
c. C. Silent mutation
d. D. Frameshift mutation
89. Which of the following is a method of asexual reproduction in eukaryotic
organisms?
a. A. Binary fission
b. B. Budding
c. C. Meiosis
d. D. Genetic recombination
90. In the context of Mendelian genetics, the law of independent assortment states that:
a. A. Alleles for different traits segregate independently during gamete formation
b. B. Alleles for the same trait segregate independently
c. C. Traits are inherited together
d. D. Alleles do not segregate during gamete formation
91. Which of the following is an example of a density-dependent factor affecting
population size?
a. A. Natural disasters
b. B. Disease outbreaks
c. C. Climate change
d. D. Habitat destruction
92. In an ecological pyramid, the base typically represents:
a. A. Primary consumers
b. B. Secondary consumers
c. C. Producers
d. D. Decomposers
93. Which of the following best describes the concept of ecological succession?
a. A. The random change in species composition over time
b. B. The predictable series of changes in species composition in an area over time
c. C. The migration of species to new habitats
d. D. The extinction of species in an ecosystem
94. Which of the following is a primary source of genetic variation in populations?
a. A. Mutation
b. B. Genetic drift
c. C. Gene flow
d. D. Natural selection
95. In the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation, p² represents:
a. A. The frequency of heterozygous individuals
b. B. The frequency of homozygous dominant individuals
c. C. The frequency of homozygous recessive individuals
11
 d. D. The allele frequency of the recessive allele
96. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of prokaryotic cells?
a. A. Membrane-bound organelles
b. B. Circular DNA
c. C. Linear chromosomes
d. D. Presence of a nucleus
97. In the context of enzyme activity, the term 'allosteric site' refers to:
a. A. The active site where substrates bind
b. B. A secondary binding site that can regulate enzyme activity
c. C. The site where coenzymes bind
d. D. The site where products are released
98. Which of the following is a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
a. A. Protein synthesis
b. B. Lipid synthesis
c. C. ATP production
d. D. Detoxification of drugs
99. Which of the following is a characteristic of a K-strategist species?
a. A. High reproductive rate
b. B. Small body size
c. C. High parental investment
d. D. Short lifespan
100. Which of the following is an example of a keystone species in an ecosystem?
a. A. A predator that regulates the population of other species
b. B. A species that competes with many others for resources
c. C. A species that is abundant but has little impact on the ecosystem
d.
101. Which of the following processes results in the formation of genetic variation
within a population?
A) Asexual reproduction
B) Binary fission
C) Genetic recombination during meiosis
D) Mutation during DNA replication
102. What is the primary function of the Golgi apparatus in a cell?
A) Protein synthesis
B) Energy production
C) Modification, sorting, and packaging of proteins
D) Breakdown of toxins and drugs
103. Which of the following statements about natural selection is correct?
A) It always leads to the development of new species
B) It is influenced by the environment and results in differential survival and
reproduction
C) It is independent of genetic variation in a population
D) It only acts on the phenotype of organisms
104. Which type of mutation occurs when a single base pair is replaced by
another base pair?
A) Frameshift mutation
B) Point mutation
12
 C) Chromosomal inversion
D) Duplication mutation
105. Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure in humans?
A) Tailbone
B) Appendix
C) Wisdom teeth
D) All of the above
106. In the process of transcription, what is the role of RNA polymerase?
A) It synthesizes the mRNA strand from a DNA template
B) It helps to attach amino acids to tRNA
C) It splits the double helix of DNA
D) It catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds
107. Which of the following correctly describes the role of ribosomes in protein
synthesis?
A) Ribosomes convert mRNA into a protein sequence
B) Ribosomes carry out translation by synthesizing mRNA from DNA
C) Ribosomes transcribe DNA into mRNA
D) Ribosomes attach to tRNA molecules to carry out translation
108. What is the primary difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A) Prokaryotic cells lack a nuclear membrane
B) Eukaryotic cells lack ribosomes
C) Prokaryotic cells lack cell membranes
D) Eukaryotic cells have a single circular chromosome
109. Which of the following is NOT a method by which bacteria can exchange
genetic material?
A) Conjugation
B) Transduction
C) Binary fission
D) Transformation
110. Which statement is true about the Calvin Cycle in photosynthesis?
A) It takes place in the mitochondria
B) It is responsible for fixing carbon dioxide into organic molecules
C) It produces oxygen as a byproduct
D) It only occurs during the night
111. What would be the consequence of a mutation in the promoter region of a
gene?
A) It would stop translation of the gene
B) It would affect the rate of transcription of the gene
C) It would alter the amino acid sequence of the protein
D) It would prevent the gene from being copied into mRNA
112. Which of the following is true of aerobic respiration but not anaerobic
respiration?
A) It involves glycolysis
B) It occurs in the mitochondria
C) It produces alcohol as a byproduct
D) It does not require oxygen

13
113. Which of the following hormones is produced by the pancreas and regulates
blood sugar levels?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Cortisol
D) Thyroxine
114. Which cellular structure is responsible for maintaining cell shape and
facilitating movement?
A) Mitochondria
B) Cytoskeleton
C) Nucleus
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
115. Which of the following is the primary role of the smooth endoplasmic
reticulum?
A) Protein synthesis
B) Lipid synthesis
C) ATP production
D) Cellular respiration
116. What type of bonds hold the two strands of DNA together?
A) Hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases
B) Covalent bonds between sugar and phosphate groups
C) Ionic bonds between complementary nucleotides
D) Peptide bonds between amino acids
117. Which of the following best describes the function of chlorophyll in
photosynthesis?
A) It absorbs light energy and transfers it to the reaction center
B) It is used to create glucose
C) It generates oxygen
D) It fixes carbon dioxide
118. Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem?
A) A single tree
B) A forest with all its living and non-living components
C) A community of wolves
D) A population of lions
119. Which of the following describes the endosymbiotic theory?
A) Eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells by engulfing them
B) All living organisms are related by common ancestry
C) Mitochondria are responsible for aerobic respiration
D) Organisms evolve by acquiring characteristics during their lifetime
120. Which of the following substances is NOT typically found in a plant cell?
A) Chloroplasts
B) Cell wall
C) Mitochondria
D) Centrioles
121. Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
A) Transport of white blood cells
B) Absorption of fat from the digestive tract
14
 C) Circulation of oxygenated blood
D) Removal of excess fluid from tissues
122. Which of the following is the major difference between primary and
secondary succession?
A) Secondary succession occurs in areas where life previously existed
B) Primary succession occurs after a natural disaster
C) Secondary succession is slower than primary succession
D) Primary succession does not involve soil formation
123. Which of the following types of immunity involves the use of antibodies
produced by B cells?
A) Cell-mediated immunity
B) Passive immunity
C) Humoral immunity
D) Inflammation
124. Which of the following is an example of a homologous structure?
A) The wings of a bat and the wings of a bird
B) The flippers of a whale and the fins of a fish
C) The arm of a human and the wing of a bird
D) The eyes of a fly and the eyes of a squid
125. Which of the following processes in cellular respiration produces the most
ATP molecules?
A) Glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle
C) Electron transport chain
D) Fermentation
126. What is the role of the enzyme ATP synthase in cellular respiration?
A) It breaks down glucose into pyruvate
B) It generates ATP by adding a phosphate group to ADP
C) It converts NADH into NAD+
D) It transfers electrons to the electron transport chain
127. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
A) Detoxification of harmful substances
B) Storage of bile
C) Conversion of excess glucose into glycogen
D) Production of red blood cells
128. Which of the following is true of plant cells but not animal cells?
A) They have a cell wall
B) They contain chloroplasts
C) They have a large central vacuole
D) All of the above
129. Which statement about the Calvin cycle is correct?
A) It occurs in the mitochondria
B) It uses energy from light to fix carbon dioxide
C) It results in the production of glucose
D) It takes place in the cytoplasm
130. Which of the following terms refers to a group of interbreeding organisms in
the same area?
15
 A) Population
B) Community
C) Ecosystem
D) Habitat
131. Which of the following is true about the process of fermentation?
A) It occurs in the presence of oxygen
B) It results in the production of lactic acid or ethanol
C) It is more efficient than cellular respiration in producing ATP
D) It is used by plant cells to generate oxygen
132. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of asexual reproduction?
A) Involves a single parent
B) Offspring are genetically identical to the parent
C) It results in the formation of gametes
D) It occurs rapidly in many organisms
133. Which of the following statements about genetic drift is true?
A) It is more significant in large populations
B) It leads to the increased genetic diversity of a population
C) It results in the random change of allele frequencies over time
D) It is caused by natural selection
134. Which of the following is true of the theory of evolution by natural selection?
A) It explains the origin of life
B) It suggests that organisms evolve to meet the demands of their environment
C) It is based on inheritance of acquired characteristics
D) It proposes that variation in traits exists within populations
135. Which type of bond holds the two strands of DNA together?
A) Ionic bonds
B) Hydrogen bonds
C) Covalent bonds
D) Peptide bonds
136. Which of the following components of a plant cell is responsible for
photosynthesis?
A) Mitochondria
B) Ribosomes
C) Chloroplasts
D) Vacuoles
137. Which of the following statements about the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
is true?
A) It is involved in protein synthesis
B) It synthesizes lipids and detoxifies chemicals
C) It has ribosomes on its surface
D) It is involved in ATP production
138. Which of the following is true about the genetic code?
A) It is universal among all living organisms
B) It consists of three nucleotides that code for a single amino acid
C) It is not degenerate, meaning each codon specifies only one amino acid
D) It is used exclusively for protein synthesis

16
139. What is the primary function of the large central vacuole in plant cells?
A) Storage of water and nutrients
B) Synthesis of proteins
C) Regulation of cell shape
D) Detoxification of harmful substances
140. Which of the following is the result of meiosis?
A) Two diploid daughter cells
B) Four haploid gametes
C) Two genetically identical diploid cells
D) Four genetically identical diploid cells
141. Which of the following statements about the process of photosynthesis is
true?
A) It takes place in the mitochondria of plant cells
B) It converts light energy into chemical energy stored in glucose
C) It produces carbon dioxide as a byproduct
D) It is an anabolic process that breaks down glucose
142. What type of cell division produces two genetically identical diploid cells?
A) Mitosis
B) Meiosis
C) Binary fission
D) Cytokinesis
143. Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain is true?
A) It occurs in the cytoplasm
B) It produces ATP through oxidative phosphorylation
C) It occurs in the nucleus
D) It requires sunlight to function
144. Which of the following structures is NOT found in plant cells?
A) Chloroplasts
B) Mitochondria
C) Nucleus
D) Lysosomes
145. Which of the following is the function of the nucleolus within the nucleus?
A) Synthesizing lipids
B) Producing ribosomal RNA
C) Transcribing mRNA
D) Storing genetic material
146. What is the function of tRNA in protein synthesis?
A) It carries the genetic code from the DNA to the ribosome
B) It catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids
C) It carries amino acids to the ribosome during translation
D) It synthesizes mRNA from the DNA template
147. Which of the following is NOT involved in the Calvin cycle?
A) NADPH
B) ATP
C) Oxygen
D) Carbon dioxide

17
148. What would be the result if the enzyme involved in glycolysis were non-
functional?
A) The cell would lose the ability to produce oxygen
B) Glucose would not be broken down into pyruvate
C) Oxygen production would increase
D) The cell would produce more ATP
149. Which of the following is the correct order of events during the process of
protein synthesis?
A) Transcription → Translation → Replication
B) Replication → Translation → Transcription
C) Transcription → Replication → Translation
D) Translation → Transcription → Replication
150. Which of the following is true about the human circulatory system?
A) Blood flows from the heart to the lungs through the systemic circuit
B) The pulmonary circuit carries oxygen-rich blood to the body
C) The heart has four chambers: two atria and two ventricles
D) Oxygen is exchanged in the arteries
151. 1. Which one of the following statements about enzyme activity is correct?
A. Enzymes increase the activation energy of biochemical reactions.
B. Enzymes function best under high temperature conditions.
C. Enzymes are consumed in the reactions they catalyze.
D. Enzymes are highly specific to their substrates.
152. 2. Which of the following structures in the human body is responsible for the
production of red blood cells?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow
D. Kidney
153. 3. What is the primary role of the mitochondria in a cell?
A. Protein synthesis
B. Cellular respiration
C. DNA replication
D. Detoxification
154. 4. Which of the following is true about the role of the ribosome?
A. It is responsible for the replication of DNA.
B. It synthesizes proteins from mRNA.
C. It regulates cellular activities.
D. It breaks down cellular waste.
155. 5. Which of the following statements is incorrect about mitosis?
A. Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells.
B. Mitosis occurs in somatic cells.
C. The number of chromosomes is halved during mitosis.
D. Mitosis includes the stages of prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
156. 6. Which of the following best explains why the blood-brain barrier is
important?
A. It prevents all substances from entering the brain.
B. It selectively allows necessary substances to pass into the brain while blocking
18
 harmful substances.
C. It transports nutrients to the brain.
D. It regulates the levels of oxygen in the brain.
157. 7. Which of the following occurs during the process of translation in protein
synthesis?
A. DNA is transcribed into mRNA.
B. mRNA is decoded to build a polypeptide chain.
C. tRNA is synthesized.
D. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is transcribed into a protein.
158. 8. What is the main function of the Golgi apparatus?
A. Synthesizing proteins
B. Modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids
C. Producing energy for the cell
D. Storing nutrients for the cell
159. 9. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
A. Lack of a nucleus
B. Presence of ribosomes
C. Membrane-bound organelles
D. Single-celled organisms
160. 10. What is the role of the enzyme DNA polymerase in DNA replication?
A. Unwinds the DNA helix
B. Synthesizes the RNA primer
C. Adds nucleotides to the growing DNA strand
D. Ligates Okazaki fragments
161. 11. In which organelle does cellular respiration primarily occur?
A. Nucleus
B. Ribosome
C. Mitochondrion
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
162. 12. Which of the following is true about the structure of the plasma
membrane?
A. It is composed of a single phospholipid layer.
B. It allows free movement of all molecules in and out of the cell.
C. It contains proteins that function as receptors and channels.
D. It is impermeable to all ions.
163. 13. What is the function of the enzyme catalase in cells?
A. Breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.
B. Catalyzes the formation of ATP.
C. Converts glucose into pyruvate.
D. Synthesizes RNA from DNA.
164. 14. What process occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells?
A. Cellular respiration
B. Photosynthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. DNA replication
165. 15. What happens during the G1 phase of the cell cycle?
A. DNA is replicated.
19
 B. The cell grows and synthesizes proteins for DNA replication.
C. The cell divides into two daughter cells.
D. The cell checks for DNA damage.
166. 16. Which of the following statements about osmosis is correct?
A. Osmosis is the movement of water from a region of low solute concentration to a
region of high solute concentration.
B. Osmosis requires the input of energy.
C. Osmosis can occur through any membrane, regardless of its permeability.
D. Osmosis is the movement of solute molecules across a membrane.
167. 17. What is the role of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) in a cell?
A. Synthesizing proteins
B. Synthesizing lipids and detoxifying chemicals
C. Modifying proteins
D. Storing calcium ions
168. 18. In which organelle does the synthesis of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) take
place?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondrion
C. Ribosome
D. Golgi apparatus
169. 19. Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier of the immune
system?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Skin
C. Antibodies
D. Complement proteins
170. 20. Which of the following is the primary function of red blood cells?
A. Transporting oxygen
B. Producing antibodies
C. Forming blood clots
D. Fighting infections
171. 21. What is the role of the lymphatic system?
A. Transporting oxygen to tissues
B. Transporting nutrients to cells
C. Removing excess fluid from tissues and supporting immune function
D. Circulating blood throughout the body
172. 22. Which of the following is a characteristic of the adaptive immune system?
A. It is present at birth.
B. It includes physical barriers like skin and mucous membranes.
C. It involves specific recognition of pathogens and memory.
D. It involves the activation of natural killer cells.
173. 23. Which of the following best describes the process of meiosis?
A. A form of cell division that produces genetically identical diploid cells.
B. A form of cell division that produces four genetically distinct haploid cells.
C. A type of reproduction in which offspring are genetically identical to the parent.
D. A process of DNA replication that occurs only in somatic cells.

20
174. 24. What is the purpose of the Calvin cycle in photosynthesis?
A. To split water molecules and release oxygen.
B. To produce ATP for cellular energy.
C. To fix carbon dioxide into organic molecules.
D. To produce glucose from light energy.
175. 25. Which molecule is directly responsible for carrying genetic information
in cells?
A. RNA
B. DNA
C. Protein
D. Lipid
176. 26. Which type of mutation involves a change in a single nucleotide pair of
DNA?
A. Frameshift mutation
B. Point mutation
C. Chromosomal inversion
D. Duplication
177. 27. Which of the following best defines an allele?
A. A segment of DNA that codes for a specific trait
B. A variant form of a gene
C. A protein that controls gene expression
D. A structure that stores genetic information
178. 28. Which of the following is the main function of white blood cells?
A. Transporting oxygen to tissues
B. Protecting the body against infections
C. Producing antibodies
D. Carrying carbon dioxide to the lungs
179. 29. What is the function of the vascular tissue in plants?
A. Conducting photosynthesis
B. Transporting water, minerals, and food
C. Supporting the plant body
D. Storing energy for growth
180. 30. Which of the following best explains the concept of natural selection?
A. Organisms produce more offspring than can survive, and only the strongest survive.
B. Organisms with favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce.
C. All organisms eventually adapt to their environment.
D. Species evolve because of mutations alone.
181. 31. What is a characteristic of prokaryotic DNA?
A. It is linear and located in the nucleus.
B. It is circular and found in the cytoplasm.
C. It is wrapped around histone proteins.
D. It is divided into multiple chromosomes.
182. 32. Which of the following is an example of a mutualistic relationship?
A. A tick feeding on a dog
B. A bee pollinating a flower
C. A lion hunting a zebra
D. A shark and a remora fish
21
183. 33. What is the role of nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the nitrogen cycle?
A. Convert nitrogen gas into ammonia.
B. Convert nitrate into nitrogen gas.
C. Decompose plant matter into organic nitrogen.
D. Fix carbon dioxide into glucose.
184. 34. Which of the following is a characteristic of the circulatory system of
mammals?
A. A single circulatory loop
B. The heart has three chambers
C. The blood is pumped through arteries and veins in a double loop
D. It lacks a heart entirely
185. 35. What is the primary source of energy for the Earth?
A. The Moon
B. The Sun
C. The Earth's core
D. Chemical reactions in the atmosphere
186. 36. What are the primary products of the light-dependent reactions of
photosynthesis?
A. Glucose and oxygen
B. Oxygen and ATP
C. NADPH and carbon dioxide
D. Glucose and ATP
187. 37. What is the major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A. Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus; prokaryotic cells do not.
B. Prokaryotic cells have mitochondria; eukaryotic cells do not.
C. Eukaryotic cells lack ribosomes; prokaryotic cells have ribosomes.
D. Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
188. 38. Which of the following best explains how antibiotic resistance arises in
bacteria?
A. Bacteria mutate and acquire traits that make them immune to antibiotics.
B. Antibiotics kill all bacteria in a population.
C. Antibiotics cause bacteria to produce less genetic material.
D. Antibiotics prevent bacteria from reproducing.
189. 39. Which of the following statements is true about genetic drift?
A. It always results in an increase in genetic diversity.
B. It is a non-random process that depends on natural selection.
C. It leads to changes in allele frequencies due to random events.
D. It occurs only in large populations.
190. 40. Which of the following best defines "speciation"?
A. The process of adapting to an environment
B. The formation of new and distinct species in the course of evolution
C. The process by which organisms change color to blend into their environment
D. The migration of populations from one region to another
191. 41. Which of the following is an example of a phenotype?
A. The genetic sequence of an organism’s DNA
B. The color of a flower

22
 C. The genes responsible for eye color
D. The number of chromosomes in a cell
192. Which process involves the exchange of genetic material between
homologous chromosomes?
A. Crossing over during meiosis
B. Independent assortment during meiosis
C. Genetic mutation
D. DNA replication
193. Which of the following is the best description of the law of independent
assortment?
A. Genes located on the same chromosome are inherited together.
B. Alleles for different traits segregate independently of one another during gamete
formation.
C. One gene influences the expression of another gene.
D. Alleles for the same gene are inherited in equal proportions.
194. Which of the following is a characteristic of a population in Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium?
A. No mutations occur in the population.
B. Individuals in the population exhibit phenotypic variation.
C. The population is subject to gene flow from neighboring populations.
D. Natural selection favors certain traits over others.
195. What is the purpose of a control group in an experiment?
A. To provide a baseline for comparison with the experimental group
B. To alter the variables being tested
C. To introduce randomness into the experiment
D. To ensure all variables are controlled
196. Which of the following would be considered a biotic factor in an ecosystem?
A. Temperature
B. Soil composition
C. Water availability
D. The presence of predators
197. Which of the following is a correct example of a secondary consumer in an
ecosystem?
A. Grasshopper
B. Rabbit
C. Wolf
D. Deer
198. What is the primary role of decomposers in an ecosystem?
A. To break down organic matter and recycle nutrients back into the soil
B. To produce their own food through photosynthesis
C. To form the base of the food chain
D. To consume primary producers
199. What type of selection occurs when individuals with intermediate
phenotypes are favored over those with extreme phenotypes?
A. Stabilizing selection
B. Directional selection

23
 C. Disruptive selection
D. Artificial selection
200. Which of the following best describes the role of the carbon cycle in the
environment?
A. It allows plants to release oxygen into the atmosphere.
B. It maintains atmospheric nitrogen levels.
C. It recycles carbon atoms in various forms within ecosystems.
D. It provides energy to decomposers.

24