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Kcse 2025 Sukellemo Joint Mocks-1

The document is a compilation of mock assessment questions for the Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (KCSE) Physics practical exam, prepared by top KNEC examiners. It includes detailed instructions, required apparatus, and specific questions for candidates to answer within a set time. Additionally, it provides contact information for obtaining marking schemes and further resources from Kenya Educators Consultancy.

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2K views273 pages

Kcse 2025 Sukellemo Joint Mocks-1

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KCSE SUKELLEMO JOINT MOCK

ALL SUBJECTS

KNEC 2025 COMPLIANT

A COMPILATION OF MOCK ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS PREPARED

AND COMPILED BY TOP KNEC EXAMINERS

FOR MARKING SCHEMES, CONTACT

Mr Machuki 0724 333 200/ 0795 491 185
OR Place an order on our website:
www.kenyaeducators.co.ke

KENYA EDUCATORS CONSULTANCY

For Marking Schemes, Contact Kenya Educators Consultancy 0724 333 200 OR
Subscribe to our website www.kenyaeducators.co.ke for similar resources
PHYSICS PRACTICAL CONFIDENTIAL
232/3
PHYSICS
Practical
Paper 3
Time: 21/2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

PHYSICS PRACTICAL

QUESTION 1
• A Metre rule
• A copper wire of length at least 100 cm (use the enameled copper wire used in KCSE 2021)
• A retort stand, boss and clamp.
• A stop watch or stop clock
• A micrometer screw gauge
• A 50 ml measuring cylinder
• A piece of thread about 30 cm
• Water in a 250 ml beaker
• Two pieces of wood.
• Mass labelled m, 50 grams.

QUESTION 2
Each candidate is required to have:
• A glass block (10 cm x 6 cm)
• A Plane mirror (7cm x 6 cm)
• 4 optical pins
• A soft board
• Cellotape (about 15 cm long)
• 2 white – plain sheets of paper

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• a ruler or half – metre rule
• A protractor
• 4 office pins
• a nichrome wire, 1m long mounted on mm scale and labeled AB at the ends (SWG 28)
• A dry cell
• 1 ammeter ( 0 – 1A)
• A switch
• A bulb
• A voltmeter ( 0-5v or 0 – 3v)
• A one cell holder
• At least 6 connecting wires, one with a jockey

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

232/3
PHYSICS
Practical
Paper 3
Time: 21/2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

PHYSICS PRACTICAL

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
- This paper consist of two questions and Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided
- All workings MUST be clearly shown.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY
PART QUESTION MAX SCORE CAND SCORE

I 11 19

II A 16

B 5

40 MKS

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QUESTION 1
You are provided with the following apparatus

• A Metre rule.
• A wire of length at least 100cm
• A retort stand, boss and clamp.
• A stop watch or stop clock
• A micrometre screw gauge
• A 50ml measuring cylinder
• A piece of thread about 30cm
• Water in a 250ml beaker
• Two pieces of wood.
• Mass labelled m.
You are required to follow the following procedure
(a) (i) Using the measuring cylinder provided determine the volume V of the water
V= cm3 (1 mark)

106 m
(ii) Calculate I given that I = (Where m=0.30 kg) (2 marks)
V

(b) Set up the apparatus as shown in figure below. Ensure that the wire is free of kinks and the
end tied to the hook is firm and the hook does not move.

Boss Pieces of wood

Mass (m)

Bench

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(c) Adjust the length L, of the wire so that L = 70cm, Give the mass m, a slight twist such that when
released it oscillates about the vertical axis as shown by the arrows in figure 2. Measure the time
for twenty oscillations and record in Table 1.

(d) Repeat the procedure in (c) above for other values of L, as shown in Table 1.
Complete the table. (6 marks)

Length L (cm) 70 60 50 40 30 20

Length L (m)

Time for 20 oscillations(s)

Period T(s)

T2 (S2)

Table 1
(e) On the grid provided, plot the graph of T2 (S2) (y – axis) against L (m) (5 marks)

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(f) Measure the diameter d of the wire. (1 mark)
d = ………………………. metres
(g) (i) Determine the slope of the graph. (2 marks)

32 2 L
(ii) Given that T2 = where G is a constant, use the graph to determine the value of G.
Gd
(3 marks)

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QUESTION 2. PART A
QUESTION 2
PART A
a) You are provided with the following apparatus
- a glass block
- a plane mirror
- 4 optical pins
- a soft board
- A cello tape (about 15cm long)
- 2 white – plain sheets of paper
- a ruler or half metre rule
- a protractor
- 4 office pins
Proceed as follows: -
I) Using the cello tape provided fix the plane mirror to the glass block alongside as shown in
the figure below. The reflecting surface to face the glass block.

II) With the use of the office pins, secure firmly a white plain paper on the board and place the
block together with attached mirror.
III) Draw the outline of the glass block together with the mirror
IV) Remove the block and the mirror and draw a normal at B somewhere a quarter- way the
length of the outline you drew in (iii) above.
V) Draw four (4) different rays AB incident at B and extended to C. The incident rays should
make angles 10, 20, 30, and 40.

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VI) Replace the glass block together with the attached mirror so as exactly fit the outline in (iii)
VII) Place two object pins P1 and P2 along the 10 line. Locate the images of pinsP1 and P2 as
they appear by non-parallax (the images of the pins appear to be in a straight line when
viewed through the glass block). Place pins P3 and P4 so that the images of pins P1 and P2
are not seen.
VIII) Remove the glass block together with the attached mirror from the outline and produce the
lines joining P1 to P2 and P3 to P4 so that the they intersect at C. Measure and record the
distance x in the table 2 below. (4 marks)
NB. It may be necessary for you to draw another outline so as to avoid congestion of
(construction) lines.

Angle i  10 20 30 40
Distance x(cm)
Table 2
IX) Now measure the breadth b of the glass block.
b=______________________________________________________(1mark)

X) Calculate the average Ax of the values of x in table 3 above

Ax ____________________________________________________ (1mark)

XI) Determine the refractive index of the glass block using the formula.
Refractive index n of glass 𝑛 = 𝑏/𝐴𝑥 (2 marks)

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PART B
You are provided with the following
- A nichrome wire 1m long mounted on a scale
- A dry cell
- 1 ammeter ( 0 – 1A)
- A switch
- A bulb
- A voltmeter ( 0-5v or 0 – 3v)
- A one cell holder
- At least 6 connecting wires, one with a jockey
Proceed as follows
a)
(i) Set up the circuit as shown in fig.

(ii) With the jockey / crocodile clip at B (L=100cm) note the voltmeter reading V and ammeter
reading, I and record on the table III below.
(iii) Repeat the procedure in (ii) above for L=80cm, 60cm, 40cm, 20cm and 0cm and record.
(5 marks)
Table III

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L(cm) 100 80 60 40 20 0

V(volts)

I (A)

iv) Plot the graph of V(y-axis) against I on the grid provided. (5marks)

v) Calculate the slope of your graph when current is 0.15A. (2 marks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

232/2
PHYSICS
Theory
Paper 2
Time: 2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

PHYSICS THEORY

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• This paper consist of two sections: A and B
• Answer all questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
• All workings must be clearly shown. Mathematical tables &electronic calculators may be
used

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

PART QUESTION MAX SCORE STUDENT’SSCORE
A 1 - 11 25
B 12 11
13 07
14 10
15 11
16 11
TOTAL 80

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)

1. Figure 1 below shows the formation of a band of colors when white light traverses a drop
of water:

Figure 1

(i) Why does it split into different colors between P and Q? (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) What natural phenomenon is associated with the above? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. An electric iron is rated at 1.5 KW, 240 V. Calculate the resistance of the element.
( 2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. A model preparing for beauty contest stands 70 cm away from a concave mirror of focal
length 90 cm. State two characteristics of the image observed. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. The diagram below shows a soft iron ring lying next to the south-pole of a magnet.

Figure 2

(a) Complete the diagram to show the magnetic field patterns between the magnet and the
ring. (1 mark)
(b) State a practical application of the above effect. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. A boy standing in front of a high wall claps his hands once and hears an echo after 0.64
seconds. If he moves 20 m farther away from the wall and claps again, he hears the echo after
0.76 seconds. Calculate the speed of sound. (3 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. The table shows part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Figure 3

(a) What happens to photo energy as one moves across the spectrum from gamma to radio
waves? (1 mark)

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What part of the electromagnetic spectrum does a TV remote control gadget make use of?
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Explain why sound from a distance source is heard more clearly at night than during the day.
(2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Explain why the resistance of a metal conductor increases with increase in temperature.
(1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Figure 4 below shows a graph of displacement against time for a particular point in a wave.

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Figure 4

(a) From the graph, determine the frequency of the wave. (3 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Using a ray diagram, illustrate the use of a lens as a magnifying glass. (3 marks)

11. State ONE advantage of the lead-acid accumulator over the dry cell. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. State the two functions of the earth-pin on the three-pin plug. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (55 MARKS)

Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided
13. (a) Define the term capacitance of a capacitor. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State two factors that affect the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Figure 5 below shows an arrangement of capacitors connected to a 12 V D.C. supply

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Figure 5

(i) Determine the effective capacitance. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Calculate the charge through the 3 μF capacitor. ( 2marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) The following figure shows an electrical circuit with a network of resistors connected to

a battery

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Figure 6

A current of 1.2 A flows through the 4 Ω resistor when the switch is closed. Determine:

i) the total resistance in the circuit. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) the voltmeter reading. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. (a) State two conditions necessary for total internal reflection to occur. (2 marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) The figure shows a diver positioned at point D below the water surface, and a setting sun S.

In what direction above the horizontal surface of the water will the diver see the setting sun?

(Refractive index of water = 1.33). (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(c) A coin is placed at the bottom of a beaker containing two immiscible liquids A and B of

refractive indices ηA = 1.36 and ηB = 1.44 respectively as in the diagram below.

Calculate the apparent depth of the coin as seen by an observer from the top. (4 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) A tree of height 7.5 m is focused on the screen of pinhole camera made using a box of length

15 cm. If the height of the image is 10 cm, determine the distance of the tree from the camera.

(3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. (a) State ONE way of minimizing power loss during transmission. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) A step-down transformer with turns ratio 12:1 and efficie ncy 95% has 2 000 turns in the

primary coil. When the primary circuit is connected to a 240 V a.c. source, the power delivered

to a load is found to be 500 W.

Determine:

(i) the number of turns in the secondary coil. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) the input power. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(iii) The secondary voltage. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) the secondary current. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) A consumer uses the following electrical appliances daily: four 60 W bulbs working for 3½

hours, two 75 W bulbs working for 3 hours 45 minutes, an electric blender rated 500 W working

for 15 minutes, and a television set rated 100 W working for 12 hours.

(i) Calculate the total number of units consumed in a day. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) If the appliances are used for 30days, determine the total cost if the cost per unit is

4.80 cents. (2 marks)

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. (a) In an experiment to observe interference of light waves a double slit is placed close to the
source. See figure 7

Figure 7

(i) State the function of the double slit (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) Describe what is observed on the screen (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) State what is observed on the screen when

I). The slit separation S1 S2 is reduced (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
II) White light source is used in place of monochromatic source (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) Figure 8 below shows a set up made by a Form 2 student to study an aspect of a wave.

Figure 8

(i) State what happens to the sound from the bell as the bottle and its contents are cooled
to 0°C (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Explain the observation in (i) above (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) Water waves of same wavelength are incident on different apertures A and B as shown below.

Complete the diagrams to show the pattern of the waves beyond the apertures in each case.
(2 marks)

17. You are provided with the following apparatus: connecting wires, a soft iron rod, a battery

of 3 cells, a switch, a long insulated copper wire and a rheostat.

(a) Using a suitable diagram, show how an electromagnet can be made with the given

apparatus. (3 marks)

(b) State two ways by which the strength of an electromagnet can be increased (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) (i) State Flemings left hand rule (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) The figure below shows current flowing in coil placed in a magnetic field.

(I) Show on the diagram the direction of the force acting on the coil labelled P and Q. (1 mark)

(II) State two ways of increasing the force on the coil. (2 marks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

232/1
PHYSICS
Theory
Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

PHYSICS THEORY
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
o Write your name and your index number in the spaces provided above.
o This paper consists of two sections A and B
o Answer all questions in section A and B in the space provided
o All working must be shown in the spaces provided in this booklet.
o Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used
o This paper consists of 12 printed pages. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as
indicated and no questions are missing

FOR OFFICIAL USE

SECTION QUESTION MAX. CANDIDATE’S
SCORE SCORE
A 1-12 25
B 13 09
14 15
15 10
16 11
17 10
TOTAL SCORE 80

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SECTION A: 25marks
1. A stopwatch is used to time a runner in a race. Figure 1 show the stopwatch at the start and at the end of a
lap of the race.

Fig 1

State how long (in SI unit) did the runner took to finish the lap of the race (1mark)

2. The front views of two cars are shown in figure 2 , drawn to the same scale.

Fig
2

Suggest which car has the greater stability,and give a reason. (2marks)

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3. Figure 3 below shows a micrometer screw gauge. State the reading indicated (2marks)

Fig 3

4. Figure 4 shows two identical springs of spring constant 3N/cm supporting a load of 30N.

30 N
Figure 4
Determine the extension of each spring. (2 marks)

5..Figure 5 shows a system for raising a heavy piece of metal into a vertical position.

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Fig 5
A man pulls on the rope with a horizontal force T. The piece of metal has a weight of
2000 N and is freely pivoted at A. The system is in equilibrium. By taking moments about A, calculate the
value of T. (3marks)

6. Explain why an aeroplane is likely to take off much earlier than expected when the speed of the wind
blowing in the opposite direction to its motion on the runway suddenly increases (2 marks)

7.An aircraft 300m from the ground traveling horizontally at 400m/s releases a parcel. Calculate the
horizontal distance covered by the parcel from the point of release. (Ignore air resistance) (3 mks).

8.A body of mass 4.0kg held at a vertical height of 500cm is released to travel a long a frictionless curved
path as shown in figure 8

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Mass = 4.0kg

Mass = 6.0kg
Fig 8
The 4.0kg mass strikes another body of mass 6.0kg at rest. Immediately it reaches the horizontal, the two
bodies stick together and move in the same direction. Determine the velocity of the bodies immediately
after collision. (3marks)

9.A tin with a hole is filled with water to a certain height. Water jets out as shown in figure 9(a) below. A
second identical tin is filled with water to the same height and a block of wood floated as shown in figure
9(b).

Fig 9

State the reason why the maximum distance of jet d2 is greater than d1. (1 mark)
10.The figure 2 below shows the apparatus used to observe Brownian motion using a smoke cell.

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Microscope

Glass cover

S Air and smoke particles

i) State the observation made in the smoke cell. (1 mark)

ii) Explain the observation made when the temperature in the smoke cell is increased. (1 mark)

11. When a mercury in a glass thermometer is used to measure the temperature of hot water, it is observed
that the mercury level first drops before beginning to rise. Explain. (2 marks)

12.Figure 3 shows an arrangement of apparatus to study properties of different surfaces.

Shiny surface
Dull surface
Wax Wax

Heater
Aluminium plate
Aluminium plate

Wooden stand

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The heater is placed equidistant from the two plates. State what happens when the heater is switched on for
some time. (1 mark)
.
13. Explain your answer in question 12 above (1mark)
SECTION B: 55marks
14. a) The figure below shows the features of a refrigerator.

Freezing compartment
Metal fins

i) What is the function of the pump P? (1 mark)

ii) What is the function of the copper fins at the back of the refrigerator? (1 mark)

iii ) Explain briefly how cooling takes place in the refrigerator. (3 marks)

iv) What is the purpose of the double wall in a refrigerator? (1 mark)

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b) i) Define the term latent heat of fusion of a substance. (1 mark)

ii) The figure below shows an apparatus that could be used to determine the specific latent heat of fusion of
ice.

Fig 12

In order to obtain results that are as accurate as possible, state why it is important to:
I. wait until water is dripping into the beaker at constant rate before taking readings. (1 mark)

II. Use finely crushed ice rather than larger ones. (1 mark)

15. (a)State the law of flotation. (1 mark

(b) Figure 13 below shows a uniform rod of height 8cm floating vertically in a beaker containing two
immiscible liquids P and Q. The densities of the liquids are 800kg/m³ and 1200kg/m³ respectively the
cross-sectional area of the rod is 2cm².

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Determine
(i). the weight of liquid P displaced by the rod. (3 marks)

(ii) The weight of liquid Q displaced by the rod. (2 marks)

(iii) The mass of the rod. (1 mark)

(iv) The density of the rod. (2 mks)

(c). Figure 14 below shows a block of volume 50 cm3 and density 2 000 kg/m3 submerged in a liquid and
suspended from a uniform horizontal beam by means of a thread. The beam is balanced by a spherical
mass of 40 g, which is suspended from it on the other side of the pivot as shown

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Fig 14
Determine the upthrust force acting on the block. (3 marks)

16. a) State two condition necessary for a driver to negotiate a bend on a banked road at a relatively high
speed (2 marks)

(b).The figure shows stone of mass 100g whirled in a vertical circle using a thread of length 56cm.
(Take g 10N/Kg)

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A

T
A

TB
String

Stone B
If the stone is whirled at a speed of 8m/s. Calculate;
i) The centripetal force experienced by the stone. (3 marks)

ii) Tension force on the string

at :
I) A (2 marks)

II) B (2 marks)

iii) calculate the angular velocity of the stone. (1mark)

(d)Figure 15 shows a centrifuge that is used to separate particles suspended in a liquid.

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Fig 15
Particle of different mass M1, M2 and M3 are suspended in a liquid which they do not dissolve. The system
is then rotated in the direction shown.

(i).State why the particles of different masses will acquire different radii as the system is rotated. (1
mark)

(ii). If M3 > M2 > M1, arrange the particle in increasing radii when the centrifuge is rotated for some time.
(1 mark)

17.a) State one condition necessary for pressure law to hold. (1 mark)

b) A bubble at the bottom of a pond expands as it rises to the top of the liquid. Explain. (1 mark)

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c) The graph below represents a graph of pressure against temperature, oC.

100 200
Temp 0C
From the graph, determine;
i)The absolute zero temperature.
(1 mark
Ii)The pressure at 373K (1 mark)

Explain why temperature in (i) above cannot be achieved (2 marks)

d) A column of air 26cm long is trapped by mercury thread 5cm long. When the tube is inverted, the air
column becomes 30cm long.What is the value of atmospheric pressure? (3 marks)

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Explain using kinetic theory of gases why pressure of gases increases as temperature of the gas is increased.
(3 marks)
18.a) Differentiate between work and energy. (2 marks)

b) Describe the energy transformation that takes place when a car battery is used to light a bulb. (1 mark)

c) The figure shows a machine.

A
B
Driver
Driven

15 teeth
30 teeth
Gear wheel A with 30 teeth is driven by gear wheel B with 15 teeth.
i) Determine the velocity ratio of the machine. (2 marks)

ii) If the machine has a mechanical advantage of 0.375, determine the efficiency of the machine. (2
marks)

d) A cart of mass 30kg is pushed along horizontal path by a horizontal force of 8N and moves with a
constant velocity. The force is then increased to 14N.
Determine:;

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i) The resistance to the motion of the cart. (1 mark)

ii) The acceleration of the cart. (2 marks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…..

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………….

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE………………..

121/2
MATHEMATICS
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, index number and date in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
b) Write name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper contains TWO sections: section I and section II
d) Answer ALL the questions in Section I and only five questions from section II.
e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces
provided below each question.
f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used except
where stated otherwise.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

Section II GRAND TOTAL

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL

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SECTION I (50 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section.

1. Without using logarithms tables or calculator: Evaluate. (3mks)

3
𝐿𝑜𝑔10 96 + 4 𝐿𝑜𝑔10 625−𝐿𝑜𝑔10 12

2. Find the value of 𝑝 if the expression 𝒑𝒙𝟐 − 𝟔𝟎𝒙 + 𝟐𝟓 is a perfect square, given
that 𝑝 is a constant. (2mks)

3. The price of a new car is shs. 800,000. If it depreciates at a constant rate to shs.
550,000 within 4years, find the annual rate of depreciation to 2d.p. (3mks)

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4. Mwangi truncated 7/9 to 3 decimal places. Calculate the percentage error resulting from the
truncating. (3mks)

⃗ = 10i + 4j + 12k. D is a point on AB such that

⃗ = 4i + 4j – 6k and 𝒃
5. The position vector of A and B are 𝒂
AD:DB is 2:1. Find the co-ordinates of D. (3mks)

6. A quantity y varies partly as x2 and partly as x. When y = 6, x = 1 when y = 30, x = 3. Find y when x = - 3.
(3mks)

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7. The coordinates of the end points of diameter are A(2,4) and B(2,6). Find the equation of a circle in the
form ax2 + by2 +cx + dy + e = 0 (3mks)

8. A bag M contains 8 balls of which 3 are red and 5 are white. Another bag N contains 7 balls of which 4
are red and 3 are white. A bag is chosen at random and two balls picked at random without replacement.
Using a tree diagram, Find the probability that the two balls chosen are red in colour. (4mks)

9. Find the equation of tangent to the curve below at the indicated point
y = 𝒙𝟑 + 𝟑𝒙𝟐 -3 at x=2 giving your answer in form of 𝒚 = 𝒎𝒙 + 𝒄 (3mks)

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10. Solve the equation 8 sin2x= 7 - 2cos x for 00≤x≤3600 (4mks)

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11. Chord WX and YZ intersect externally at Q. The secant WQ= 11cm and QX= 6 cm while ZQ= 4cm.

a) Calculate the length of chord YZ. (2mks)

b) Using the answer in (a) above, find the length of the tangent SQ to 2 d.p. (2mks)

𝑥−1 𝑥+1
12. Find the possible values of x given that [ ] is a singular matrix. (3mks)
3𝑥 𝑥

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13. Determine the semi interquartile range for the following set of numbers. (3mks)
4, 9, 5, 4, 7, 6, 2, 1, 6, 7, 8.

14. A carrot patch is in the shape of trapezium. There are 13 carrot plants in the first row, 15 in the second row
and 17 in the next and so on. If there are 47 plants in the last row, how many rows are there and how many
plants. (3mks)

15. Two brands of coffee cost Kshs 120 and Kshs 144 per kilogram respectively. A wholesaler blends the two and
sells the blend at Kshs 168 thereby making a profit of 20%. Find the ratio in which he blends them. (3mks)

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16. Make x the subject of the formula (3mks)
𝑥 + 2𝑊
𝑃2 = √
4𝑥 + 3𝑅

SECTION II (50 MARKS)

Answer any FIVE questions in this section.
17. (i) Complete the table below, giving the values correct to 2 decimal places (2mks)

X0 00 150 300 450 600 750 900 1050 1200 1350 1500 1650 1800
Cos 2x0 1.00 0.50 0.00 -0.50 -1.00 -0.87 0.00 0.87 1.00
o 0
Sin(x +30 ) 0.50 0.87 0.97 1.00 0.87 0.71 0.50 0.26 0.00 -0.50
0 o 0
(ii) Using the grid provided draw on the same axes the graph of y=Cos 2x and y = Sin (x +30 ) for
00≤x≤1800
(5mks)

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(iii) Find the period of the curve y=Cos 2x0 (1mk)

(iv) Using the graph, estimate the solutions to the following questions to the nearest degree;
a) Sin(xo+300) - Cos 2x0= 0 (1mks)

b) Cos 2x0=0.50 (1mk)

18. The figure below shows points on the earth’s surface.

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a) State the positions of A, B, C and D in coordinate form. (2mks)
A________________________
B_________________________
C_________________________
D_________________________
b) An aircraft flies from A to B along latitude 400N, B to C along longitude 300E, C to D along latitude
400S and then flew back to A along longitude 300W. Calculate to 2 d.p the total distance it covered
𝟐𝟐
.(Take radius of the earth =6370 km and π = ) (5mks)
𝟕

c) If the aircraft leaves A at 8.00am at a speed of 720km/h to B. At what local time is it expected at B?
Give your answer to the nearest minute. (3mks)

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19. a) AB and CD are chords of a circle. Construct the circle with centre O and measure its radius
(4mks)

A C

B
D

b. Construct the loci of a points x which are equidistant from line AB and CD (1mk)

c. Construct the loci of a points Z which are 2cm from the circumference of the circle. (2mks)

e. A point P moves such that CP ≥ DP, It is not more than 2cm from the circumference of the
circle and its distance from line CD is not more than its distance from AB. Show the region
P by shading it. (3mks)

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20. The diagram below represents a cuboid ABCDEFGH in which FG= 6 cm, GH=12 cm and HC=8 cm

Calculate to 2 decimal places;

a) The length of FC (2mks)

b) (i) The size of the angle between the lines FC and FH (2mks)

(ii) The size of the angle between the lines AB and FH (2mks)

c) The size of the angle between the planes ABHE and the plane FGHE (2mks)

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d) The space occupied by the Cuboid. (2mks)

21. The points A (1,4), B(-2,0) and C (4,-2) of a triangle are mapped onto A1(7,4), B1(x,y) and
𝑎 𝑏
C1 (10,16) by a transformation N = ( ). Find
𝑐 𝑑
(i) Matrix N of the transformation (4mks)

(ii) Coordinates of B1 (2mks)

(iii) AIIBIICII are the image of A1B1C1 under transformation represented by matrix
2 −1
M=( ) Write down the co-ordinates of AIIBIICII (2mks)
1 0

(iv) A transformation N followed by M can be represented by a single transformation K.

Determine K (2mks)

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22. A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement S metres, from a given point is
S = t3 – 5t2 + 3t + 4. Where t is time in seconds find;
a) The displacement of the particle at t = 5 (2mks)

b) The velocity of the particle when t =5 (2mks)

c) The values of t when the particle is momentarily at rest. (3mks)

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d) The acceleration of the particle when t = 2. (3mks)

23. In the figure below ,O is the center of the circle. PQR is a tangent to the circle at Q. Angle PQS=280,angle
UTQ=540 and UT =TQ.

Giving reasons, determine the size of

a) Angle STQ. (2mks)

b) Angle TQU. (2mks)

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c) Angle TQS (2mks)

d) Reflex angle UOQ . (2mks)

e) Angle TQR. (2mks)

24. A company wishes to buy two types of squash machines; Electric and manual. A manual machine requires
four attendants whereas an electric one also requires four. An electric machine fills 300 packets per hour; a
manual one can fill 200 packets per hour. The numbers of packets to be filled are not more than 3000 per hour
and the number of attendants should be at least 40. By letting x be the number of electric Machines and y be
the number of manual Machines answer the following questions.
a) Form all the possible inequalities which will represent the above information. (4mks)

b) On the grid provided draw the inequalities and shade the unwanted region. (3mks)

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c) If for every hour it is used, an electric machine brings a profit of shs.200 and a manual one shs.500,
determine the number of machines of each type that should be installed in order to maximize profit
per hour. Find the maximum profit (3mks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…..

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………….

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE………………..

121/1
MATHEMATICS
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK

EXAM
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)
MATHEMATICS
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, index number and date in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
b) Write name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper contains TWO sections: section I and section II
d) Answer ALL the questions in Section I and only five questions from section II.
e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the
spaces provided below each question.
f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be
used except where stated otherwise.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

Section II GRAND TOTAL

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL

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SECTION I (50 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided

1.Without using mathematical table or a calculator, evaluate: (3 mks)

36 – 8x -4 – 15 ÷ -3
3x -3 + -8 (6 - (-2))

1
27 3
 24
2. Simplify 1
leaving your answer as a simple fraction (3 mks)
−
5
32

.
3. Solve the inequality -3x + 2 < x + 6  17 – 2x and write down the integral values satisfying the
inequality. (3 mks)

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4. A triangle whose area is 16cm2 has its shortest side as 12cm. Find the length of the
shortest side of a similar triangle whose area is 36cm2 (3mks)

5. Solve for x given that 5 2x+ 2 – 20 x 5 2x = 625 (3mks)

6. The line y = mx + 6 makes an angle of 780 581 with the x – axis. Find the co-ordinates
of the point where the line cuts the X – axis. (3mks)

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..

7. 3g of metal A of density 2.7g/cm3 is mixed with 1.6cm3 of metal B of density 3.2g/cm3

Determine the density of the mixture (3mks)

8. A two digit number is such that when the digits are reversed, the value of the number increases by
36. If the sum of the unit digit and twice the tens digit is 16, find the number. (3mks)

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9. On Monday the currency exchange rate was
1 Euro (E) = Kshs.95.65
1 US dollar($) = Ksh.76.50
A gentle man Tourist decided to exchange half of his 2400E into Dollars.
Calculate to 2 decimal places the number of dollars he received. (3 marks)

10. In the figure given below, AC is an arc of a circle centre B. Angle ABD = 60o, AB = BC = 7cm and
CD= 5 cm. A

7cm

60o
B D
7cm C 5cm

Calculate (3 d.p)
a) The area of triangle ADB (2mks)

.
b) The area of the shaded region. (2mks

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− 40
11. If cos A = and A is obtuse, find without using tables or calculators
41
a) Sin A (2mks)

b) Tan A (1mk)

12. A matatu left town X at 9.37a.m. towards town Y at an average speed of 78km/h. At 9.47a.m. a
Car left the same venue at an average speed of 84.5km/h. Determine the time when
The car caught up with the matatu . (3mks)

13 Using a set square, a ruler and a pair of compasses, divide the given line into five equal parts.
Measure the length of one part. (3 marks)

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14. Simplify the expression. x2 + 14x + 49 (3mks)
x2 - 49

15. The acceleration of a particle in ms-2 is given by the expression Acc=3t –4

Given that t=0 sec V=3m/s and S=0 metres
Find:
(i) an expression for velocity Vms-1 (2 mark)

(ii) An expression for distance S metres from a fixed point O. (2 marks)

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16. A salesman earns a basic salary of Kshs.19, 000 per month. In addition, he earns a commission of
5% for all sales above ksh.20,000. In February 2023, he sold goods worth 115,000. Calculate his total
earnings that month . (3mks)

SECTION II (50 MARKS)

Answer only five questions
17. A triangle with A(-4, 2), B(-6, 6) and C(-6, 2) is enlarged by a scale factor -1 and centre
(-2, 6) to produce triangle A1 B1 C1. Triangle A1 B1 C1 is then reflected in the line
y = x to give triangle A11 B11 C11
a) Draw triangle ABC, A1 B1 C1 and A11 B11 C11 and state the co-ordinates of
A1 B1 C1 and A11 B11 C11 (6mks)

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b) If triangle A11 B11 C11 is mapped onto A111 B111 C111 whose co-ordinates are
A111(0, -2), B111(4, -4) and C111 (0, -4) by a rotation. Find the centre and angle
of rotation (4mks)
18. A cylindrical water tank of diameter 5m and height 1.8m is supplied with water by pipe P of
internal radius 2.5cm. Water flows through this pipe at the rate of 50m per minute. A drainage
pipe Q can empty the full tank in 8 hours.

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a) Calculate the time in hours that pipe P alone would take to fill the empty tank (4mks)

b) The tank is initially half full. Water flows through pipe P into the tank for 2 hours.
The drainage pipe Q is then opened and both pipes left running.
Determine how long it will take to fill the tank (6 mks)

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19. Ken and Jane cycle to school 20km away. Jane cycles at 2km/h faster than Ken and reaches there
half an hour earlier. Given that the speed of Ken is xkm/hr. Find in terms of x

a). The time taken by Ken. (1 mk)

b) The time taken by Jane. (1 mk)

c) Form an equation in x. (1 mk)

d) Solve the equation in (a) above and find the speed of Ken and Jane. (7 mks)

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20. The table below shows some paired values of X and Y for a known curve.

X 0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0

Y 0.0 0.4 1.6 3.6 6.4 10.0
By establishing how x and y relates.
Estimate the area under the curve for the interval 0 < X< 1 using

a).The mid – ordinate rule with five mid – ordinates. (4mks)

b).The trapezium rule with five Trapezia. (2mks)

c) If the exact area is 10/3 square units.

Calculate the percentage error in the two estimates. (4mks)

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21 The following are speeds in m/s of the first 50 vehicles at a police check point.
Speed No. of
in m/s vehicles
x f f(x)
10 - 19 3
20 – 29 1
30 - 39 2
40 - 49 5
50 - 59 6
60- 69 11
70 – 79 9
80 - 89 8
90- 99 3
100 -109 2

a) Calculate the mean speed (4mks)

b) Draw on the same axes using this information

i) The Histogram (3 mks) ii)The Frequency polygon (1 mk)

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c) Calculate the median speed. (2mks)

22. A trader sold an article at sh.4800 after allowing his customer a 12% discount on the marked price of
the article. In so doing he made a profit of 45%.

a) Calculate
(i) The marked price of the article. (2 marks)

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(ii) The price at which the trader had bought the article (2 mks)

b) If the trader had sold the same article without giving a discount. Calculate the percentage profit he
would have made. (3 mks)

c) To clear his stock, the trader decided to sell the remaining articles at a loss of 12.5%. Calculate the
price at which he sold each article. (3 mks)

23. The diagram below shows a parallelogram OPQR. Point M divides line PQ in the ration 2:3
PR and OM intersect at N. Given that OP = p and OR = r
~ ~ ~ ~

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a) Express the following vectors in terms of P and r
~ ~

i) PR (1mk)
~

ii) OM (1mk)
~~

b) Given that ON = kOM and ON = OP + hPR

~ ~ ~ ~ ~

By Expressing ON in two different ways find the ratio in which N divides PR. (8 mks)

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24. The diagram below shows the graph of a moving matatu from Nakuru to Naivasha.

Velocity
m/s 10

10 20 30 40 50 60 Time in sec
a) Find the acceleration of the matatu. (2mks)

b) Find the deceleration of the matatu (2mks)

c) Calculate the distance the matatu travelled while accelerating. (2mks)

d) Calculate the distance the matatu covered while traveling at an acceleration of 0m/s2 (2mks)

e) Find the distance between the two Towns. (2 mks)

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THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

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JINA.................................................................................................................NAMABARI...........

SHULE............................................................................................................TAREHE.................

DARASA.....................................................................................................SAHIHI.......................

102/3
KISWAHILI
MUDA: SAA 2½
KARATASI YA TATU (FASIHI)

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK

EXAM
Hati ya kihitimu Elimu ya Sekondari Nchini Kenya (K.C.S.E)
KIDATO CHA NNE
MAAGIZO
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu
b) Jibu maswali manne pekee
c) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima
d) Maswali hayo mengine yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobakia yaani : Riwaya, hadithi
fupi,ushairi na fasihi simulizi
e) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja
f) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
g) Majibu yote sharti yaandikwe kwenye nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

SWALI UPEO ALAMA
USHAIRI 20
TAMTHILIA 20
RIWAYA 20
HADITHI FUPI 20
FASIHI SIMULIZI 20
JUMLA

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SEHEMU A : USHAIRI

1. Lazima

Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali.

Lipi la kutenda, kwa walimwengu, liwe jema?
Liwe ni kupenda, bila uchungu, na lawana,
Niwe kama punda, pasipo fungu, wala kima.

Lipi liso inda, kwa walimwengu, na lazima?

Liwe la kuonda, kukupa Mungu, lisokwama,
Laiti si winda, enyi nduzangu, lau kama.

Kipi cha kupanda, kwa walimwengu, cha salama?

Kiwe kama tunda, au furungu, la mtama,
Hata zao nyonda, siunge zangu, na kuvama.
Ni wapi pa kwenda, kwa walimwengu, pa huruma?
Niwe ni kupanda, daraja yangu, pasi vuma,
Pasiwe ba chonda, ajae kwangu, kwa dawama.

Upi wa kudanda, kwa walimwengu, pasi kwima?

Na kuvuta nyanda, ziso wezangu, ‘pite wima,
Kwa kurandaranda, niwape dungu, wawe nyuma.

Lipi la kushinda, kwa walimwengu, kiwe chuma?

Bila ya kuponda, kwa kilimwengu, na hikima,
Ni lau wadunda, weshe mizungu, ni kizima.

Kipi kisovunda, kwa walimwengu, cha daima?

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Pasi na kukonda, kwa malimwengu, yaso wema,
Angawa ni nunda, huja kiwingu, cha nakama.

MASWALI
(a) Taja hoja zozote nne ambazo mwandishi anazishughulikia katika shairi. (alama 4)
(b) Eleza sifa za kiarudhi katika ubeti wa pili. (alama 6)
(c) Andika ubeti wa nne kwa lugha ya nathari. (alama 3)
(d) Kwa nini mshairi anatumia maneno; “nduzangu” na “yaso” (alama 2)
(e) Kwa nini mwandishi anauliza swali katika mwanzo wa kila ubeti? (alama 2)
(f) Eleza maana ya maneno yanayofuata kama yanavyotumika katika shairi: (alama 3)
(i) Inda
(ii) Nyonda
(iii) Mizungu

SEHEMU B: RIWAYA

NGUU ZA JADI
Jibu swali la 2 au 3
2. Eleza umuhimu wa mandhari ya majaani ukirejelea riwaya ya nguu za jadi (al. 20)

3. Fafanua jinsi wahusika mbalimbali wamedhihirisha mapenzi katika riwaya ya

Nguu za Jadi. (al.20)
SEHEMU C. TAMTHILIA
T. Arege: Bembea ya Maisha
Jibu swali la 4 au la 5
4. Bembea ya Maisha ni tamthilia inayohimiza mshikamano wa kijamii. Jadili. (alama 20)

Au
5. Soma dondoo hili na ujibu maswali.

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"Mtu anaishi na wanawe ambao wiki nzima anawaona wakiwa usingizini; wamelala fofofo..
.Nyumba ni ya yaya."

i. Weka maneno haya kwenye muktadha wake. (alama 4)

ii. Fafanua maudhui yanayojitokeza kwenye dondoo. (alama 2)
iii. Fafanua manufaa saba ya mazingira ya dondoo hili. (alama 14)

SEHEMU YA D
Hadithi Fupi – Mapambazuko Ya Machweo Na Hadithi Nyingine – Dw Lutomia
Jibu swali la 6 au la 7
6. Huku ukitolea mifano mwafaka ,eleza jinsi amabavyo Haki Za Watoto/Vijana zimekiukwa
katika hadithi ya mapambazuko ya machweo (alama 20 )

7. "...iwapo penzi hili litatia doa, basi nirudishie mfuko huu kama ishara ya kulitupa penzi langu
kama )ongoo na mti wake...

a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)

b) Fafanua mbinu mbili ambazo zimetumika katika dondoo hili. (alama 4)

c) Eleza sifa sita za msemaji wa maneno haya. (alama 6)

d) EIeza umuhimu wa msemewa wa hadithi hii katika kujenga ploti. (alam 6)

Sehemu ya E
Fasihi simulizi

8. Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali

“Mwanangu, dunia haitaki papara. Ikiwa unataka kufanikiwa katika mustakabali wako
kuwa mtoto mtiifu na mwongofu. Kumbuka kuwa asiyefunzwa na mamaye hufunzwa na
ulimwengu…”
a) Tambua na ueleze kipera hiki cha fasihi (alama 2)
b) Eleza sifa tatu za kipera hiki. (alama 3)
c) Fafanua dhima tano za kipera hiki katika jamii. (alama5)
ii) Fanani anawezaje kuihusisha hadhira katika usimulizi wake? (alama 4)
iii) Eleza utaratibu unaofuatwa wakati wa kutega na kutegua vitendawili. (alama 6)

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JINA...............................................................................................NAMABARI.............................
SHULE..........................................................................................TAREHE...................................
DARASA.................................................................................SAHIHI...........................................
102/2
KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA PILI
MUDA: SAA 2 ½

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Hati ya kihitimu Elimu ya Sekondari Nchini Kenya (K.C.S.E)
KIDATO CHA NNE
Maagizo
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
c) Jibu maswali yote.
d) Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa nafasi ulizoachiwa.
e) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

Swali Upeo Alama
Ufahamu 15
Ufupisho 15
Matumizi ya lugha 40
Isimujamii 10
JUMLA 80

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1. UFAHAMU
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.

Wakati wananchi katika kila pembe ya dunia waliadhimisha siku ya wapendanao maarufu kama
Valentine Day, kwa mitindo mbalimbali, hali hiyo ilikuwa tofauti kwa baadhi ya wanaume nchini Kenya,
baada ya kulalamika kuhusu kunyanyaswa na wake zao.

Kulingana na Mwenyekiti wa Chama cha Kutetea Haki za Wanaume nchini, idadi ya wanaume
wanaopigwa na wake zao imeongezeka mno. Alisema juzi kuwa utafiti wa chama chake umeonyesha
kuwa harakati za kumpa uwezo mwanamke zimeathiri maadili na kuwasababisha kuwadharau wanaume.
Mwanaharakati huyo anadai kuwa tatizo hilo limechochewa zaidi na hali ya kuwa wanawake wengi sas
wana kipato kikubwa kuliko waume zao.

Mwishoni mwa wiki Polisi walimtia mbaroni mwanamke mmoja mjini Nyeri mkoani kati, baada ya
kumshambulia mumewe na kumjeruhi vibaya kwa panga. Mwanamume huyo bado anapata matibabu
hospitalini. Yeye alirudi nyumbani kama amevaa miwani ndipo akakatwa katwa usoni na uchunguzi
kuhusu tukio hilo bado unaendelea.

Inadaiwa kuwa zaidi ya wanaume 460,000 walinyanyaswa na wake zao mwaka jana na kwamba utafiti
wa shirika la kuwatetea wanaume unaonyesha kesi nyingi za wanaume kuteswa na wake zao zinaripotiwa
katika Mkoa wa kati.

Hata hivyo, baadhi ya wanaume katika eneo hilo wameunga mkono hatua ya wanawake kuwashambulia
waume zao. Wanasema kuwa, wanapigwa kwa sababu wamekosa kuwajibika kwa familia zao. Wanadai
kuwa wanaume wengine hawajulikani nyumbani kwao. Wake zao wanawajua makasisi ambao huja
kuwaombea kuhusu matatizo ya nyumbani huku mbwana zao wakizama katika ulevi. Wanawake na
wanaume wa Nyeri wametak serikali ikomeshe uuzaji na unywaji pombe haramu ambayo imechangia
sana ugomvi wa kinyumbani.

Maswali
(a) Upe ufahamu huu anwani mwafaka. (alama 1)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Eleza sababu za wanaume kupigwa katika ndoa. (alama 4)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(c) Mwandishi anamaanisha nini anaposema kuwa wanaume wengine hawajulikani nyumbani
kwao. (alama 2)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Fafanua majukumu ya makasisi katika jamii kwa mujibu wa kifungu hiki. alama 2)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) Eleza mabadiliko katika asasi ya ndoa kwa mujibu wa kifungu hiki. (alama 3)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(f) Eleza maana ya vifungu hivi kama vilivyotumika katika tungo. (alama 3)
(i) Mwanaharakati
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) Amevaa miwani
………………………………………………………………………………………...............................
(iii) Waliadhimisha
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. MUHTASARI
Soma habari ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali.
Baada ya kuchunguza kwa makini nimeshagundua kuwa wasanii maarufu huishi maisha ya kifalme. Jambo hili
linadhihirika kweli ninapopiga darubini maisha yao. Mathalan,wanapoenda jamaa hawa, mashabiki hujitokeza
kwa maelfu kuwalaki kuwashangilia na hata kuwatazama tu. Si ajabu kusikia sauti za watu wakisema,
“Tunataka, jitokeze tafadhali tunakupenda.“
Ikiwa hushangazwi na jinsi watu wengi wanajitokeza kuwashangilia wasanii, labda utaduwaa nikikwambia
kuwa baadhi ya wasanii husafiri kwa magari ya bei ghali kama vile benzi na mengio.
Usishangae pia nikikwambia kuwa baadhi yao huruka kwa ndege zao wenyewe toka mahali pamoja hadi
pengine. Kila waendako jamaa hawa aghalabu huwa wamezingirwa na mameneja wanaoendesha shughuli zao,
mawakala wa vyombo vya bahari pamoja na walinzi. Ama ukiona maisha ya wasanii hao, utadhani kuwa
unawaona wafalme au malkia wa nchi mbalimbali.

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Ikiwa hujachoshwa na hayo, pulika nikueleze mengine; kama walivyo jamaa wa aila za kifalme, picha za
wasanii maarufu au “walioukata“, kama tusemavyo mitaani, wana kipato kizuri kama walivyosema
waliotutangulia “Mtaka cha mvunguni sharti ainame“, Jamaa hawa kipato kizuri kama wameshainama kweli na
sasa wanafurahia jasho lao. Jamiiya leo hulipa wasanii maarufu pesa mzo mzo. Lakini heby nikwambie kuwa
fedha wanazopapta jamaa hawa si za bure: huwa wamezifanyia kazi kweli.

Usidhani kuwa pesa wanazolipwa wasanii maarufu ni zao peke yao. Pesa hizo hulipwa kodi kubwa serikalini na
kodi hiyo kutumika kuendeleza huduma muhimu kwa jamii. Kwa sababu hiyo sidhani kuwa tunapaswa
kuwaonea kijicho watu na vipawa vyao.
Chochote king’aacho si dhahabu. Ingawa baadhi ya wasanii wana mapesa mengi yanayowawezesha kuishi
maisha ya utukufu na anasa, tusifikiri kuwa wanaishi katika pepo. Baadhi yao huzongwa na mazonge
mbalimbali kama vile kutokuwa na familia imara, kupatwa na upweke wa mara kwa mara au hata wakati
mwingine kufilisika. Isitoshe baadhi ya wasanii maarufu hawawezi kutoka nje ya nyumba zao au kutembea
mitaani kama wewe na mimi tufanyavyo. Ama wanaweza kudhuriwa au kuhangaishwa na mashabiki wao kwa
kila njia kwa sababu hiyo wasanii wengi maarufu hawafurahii maisha kama watu wa kawaida. Ingawa
wanalipwa vizuri, lakini malipo hayo yana bei yake.

a) “Wasanii huishi maisha ya kifalme“ Eleza jinsi kauli hii inavyodhibitishwa na taarifa.
(maneno 60- 65).
Nakala Chafu

Nakala safi

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b) “Chochote king’aacho si dhahabu“ Msemo huu umefafanuliwa vipi katika taarifa ? (Maneno 40 – 45)
(Alama 5)
Nakala Chafu

Nakala Safi

3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)

a) Tumia msemo ufuatao katika sentensi. (alama 1)
Fanya lele mama
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
b) Tunga sentensi kuonyesha tofauti ya vitate hivi. (alama 2)

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i) Mjusi
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
ii) Mjuzi
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
c) Andika katika hali ya umoja . (alama 2)
i) Masaibu yaliyowapata yaliwafanya wapoteze matumaini maishani.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….

ii) Machaka ya waridi hayazai maua meusi.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
d) Andika katika hali ya ukubwa. (alama 2)
Asiye na mwana aeleke jiwe
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
e) Tumia neno mwitu kama; (alama 3)
(i) Kivumishi
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
(ii) Kielezi
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
(iii) Nomino
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
f) Changanua sentensi hii kwa kutumia jedwali.
Wanafunzi wote wamewasili lakini wengi walichelewa sana. (alama 4)

g) Kwa kutoa mifano eleza sauti zifuatazo (alama 2)

(i) Kipasuo – kwamizo
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
(ii) Kitambaza
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….

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h) Eleza matumizi ya KU katika sentensi ifuatayo: (alama 2)
Kusoma sana hakukumzuia kujiingiza kulikokuwa na wajinga.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
i) Kanusha (alama 2)
Ungeipoteza kalamu yake, ungelazimishwa kuinunua nyingine.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
j) Andika kwa usemi halisi . (alama 2)
Asha alimwita Halima na kumsihi waandamane kwenda kuogelea siku iliyofuata
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….

k) Bainisha nyakati na hali zilizotumiwa katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 4)

“Mgeni wangu akija nitampokea kwa mikono miwili, ningekuwa na jimbi ningemchimjia”
Mwanaidi alimwambia Mzee Juma.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………...…….
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………………………………………………………………………………...……………………….
l) Andika sentensi hii tena bila kutumia ‘amba’ (alama 2)
Ng’ombe ambaye hupewa chakula kizuri ndiye ambaye hukamuliwa maziwa mengi.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………...…….
………………………………………………………………………………………………...……….
m) Andika kinyume cha maneno yaliyopigwa mstari (alama 2)
Maina aliushindika mlango ili avue sidiria.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………...…….

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………………………………………………………………………………………………...……….
n) Tambua yambwa-kitondo na yambwa-kipozi . (alama 2)
Juma aliwachemshia wageni wake chai na kisha akawapelekea mezani.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………...…….
………………………………………………………………………………………………...……….
o) Huu ni ungonjwa gani? (alama 2)
Kifaduro;
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………...…….
………………………………………………………………………………………………...……….

p) Kwa kutoa mifano onyesha tofauti kati ya Shadda na kiimbo. (alama 2)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………...…….
………………………………………………………………………………………………...……….
q) Eleza matumizi mawili ya:
Ritifaa (alama 2)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………...…….
………………………………………………………………………………………………...……….
r) Eleza maana mbili za sentensi hii:
Mzee huyu anaogopa magonjwa zaidi ya vijana. (alama 2)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………...…….
………………………………………………………………………………………………...……….
4. ISIMU JAMII
Eleza huku ukitoa mifano mwafaka sifa tano za sajili ya bungeni. ` (alama 10)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

HUU NDIO UKURASA WA MWISHO KUPIGWA CHAPA

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SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Hati ya kihitimu Elimu ya Sekondari Nchini Kenya (K.C.S.E)
KIDATO CHA NNE

MAAGIZO KWA MTAHINIWA:

1) Andika jina lako, nambari ya mtihani na tarehe katika karatasi ya majibu.
2) Karatasi hii ina maswali manne.
3) Jibu maswali mawili pekee. Kila swali lina alama ishirini.
4) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
5) Chagua swali jingine lolote kutoka kwa matatu yaliyosalia.
6) Majibu yote yaandikwe katika karatasi ya majibu uliyopewa.
7) Majibu yote yaandikwe katika lugha ya Kiswahili.

Sehemu hii imehifadhiwa kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee.

SWALI 1 2 3 4
UPEO 20 20 20 20
ALAMA
JUMLA
UPEO 40

ALAMA ZA
MTAHINIWA

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MASWALI

LAZIMA

1. Wewe ni rais wa muungano wa viranja jimboni mwako, umehudhuria semina ya viranja

wakuu ulioandaliwa shuleni mwenu kujadili chngamoto zinazowakabili viranja
kutekeleza wajibu wenu shuleni. Andika hotuba ambayo ungetoa kwa walimu wakuu
kuhusu changmaoto hizo na mapendekezo yenu wakati wa kikao cha walimu wakuu
jimboni.

2. Kenya ni mmoja wa inchi zinazowania kuwa mbele katika ulimwengu wa kisasa. Wewe
ukiwa mzalendo fafanua vipingamizi au vijanzo vya ongezeko la bei ya bidhaa Nchini
huku ukionyesha athari za ongezeko hili.

3. Mzigo wa mwenzio kanda la usufi.

4. Tunga kisa kinachoanza kwa maneneo yafuatayo:

5. Baada ya matokeo ya mtihani wa mwaka uliotangulia kutangazwa na katibu mkuu katika

wizara ya elimu, iliniwia vigumu kusadiki ukweli wa mambo lakini nilielewa fika kuwa
kuanguka mtihani siyo mwisho wa maisha…..

HUU NDIO UKURASA WA MWISHO KUPIGWA CHAPA

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441/2
HOME SCIENCE
CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION
PAPER 2
JUNE, 2023

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
441/2
HOME SCIENCE
CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION

CONFIDENTIAL
1. Plain light weight cotton fabric 70 by 90cm..
2. Sewing thread to match the fabric.
3. Elastic 18cm long by ½ cm wide
4. Bodkin/ safety pin
5. 1 large envelope.
NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

441/2
HOME SCIENCE
Paper 2
Time: 21/2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

HOME SCIENCE

A pattern of a blouse is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, instructions and
the layout carefully before you begin the test.
MATERIALS PROVIDED

1. Pattern pieces

A - FRONT BODICE
B - BACK BODICE
C - SLEEVE
D - FRONT YOKE
E - COLLAR
F - FRONT FACING
G - BACK NECK FACING
2. Plain light weight cotton fabric 70 by 90 cm.
3. Sewing thread to match the fabric.
4. Elastic cord 18 cm long by 1/2cm wide
5. Safety pin/bodkin
6. 1 large envelope.
THE TEST

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Using the materials provided, cut out and make up the LEFT HALF of the blouse to show
the following.
1. Cutting out. (18mks)
2, Working a double pointed dart at the back bodice (7mks)
3, Working of the inverted pleat on the front yoke (3mks)
4. Joining the front bodice to the front yoke using an overlaid seam (81/2mks)
5. Joining the joint front bodice to back bodice at the shoulder using double stitched
seam. (6mks)
6. Joining the joint front bodice to back bodice at the side using an open seam. (4mks)
7. Joiningthe front facing to the back neck facing and neatening the free edge of the
joined facing (61/2mks)
8. Preparation of the interfaced collar (31/2mks)
9. Usethe joined facing to neaten the front opening and attach the collar by
sandwiching method. (71/2mks)

10. Working of the sleeve to include.

a) Management of fullness at the crown. (21/2mks)
b) Making of the underarm seam using French seam. (71/2mks)
c) Joining of the sleeve to the garment at the armhole. (Do not trim, do not
neaten)(6mks)
d) Working of the elastic casing at the lower edge of the sleeveand insertingthe
elastic cord. Do not seal the opening used to insert the cord (41/2mks)
11. Presentation. (51/2mks)

NOTE:
At the end of the test, firmly sew on to your work on a single fabric a label bearing your
name and admission number. Remove needles and pins from work. Then fold your work
carefully and place it in the envelope. DO NOT PUT SCRAPS OF MATERIALS IN THE
ENVELOPE AND DO NOT SEAL THE ENVELOPE.

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LAYOUT – NOT DRAWN TO SCALE

B
A
C C
F
CB F
CF
70cm

CF
D
Selvedge

E
CB

90 cm

VIEWS
FRONT BACK

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at www.kenyaeducators.co.ke]
NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

441/1
HOME SCIENCE
Paper 1
Time: 21/2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)
HOME SCIENCE

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
• Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
• This paper consists of three section A,B and C
• Answer all the questions in section A and B
• Answer any two questions in section C.
• Answers should be written in the spaces provided in this booklet.

For Examiner’s Use Only:

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
1-15 40
16 20
17 20
18 20
19 20
Total 100

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SECTION A (40 MARKS) (Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.)
1. Mention two reasons for preserving food (1mark)

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2. List two suitable materials used for freezing food (1mk)

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3. Highlight two importance of blanching vegetables before freezing. (1mk)

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4. Give two points on what food presentation involves. (1mk)

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5. Define the term a meal (1mk)

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6. Retarded growth is a sign of two common nutritional disorders, name them. (1mk)

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7. List two functions of vitamins D in the body. (1mk)

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8. Name two methods of frying foods. (1mk)

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9. List down two causes of food poisoning. (1mk)

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10. Mention two methods of softening temporary hard water for laundry. (1mk)

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11. Name two vegetable fibres used to make brooms and brushes. (1mk)

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12. Mention two examples of grease absorbents. (1mk)

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13. Name two methods of making soap. (1mk)

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14. Mention two types of patching done when reinforcing worn out garments. (1mk)

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15. Define the term Care label. (1mk)

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16. List two solutions used to remove laundry blue stains. (1mk)

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17. State two improvised storage facilities used to store clothes. (1mk)

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18. List two examples of washing equipment. (1mk)

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19. State two importance of safe parenthood. (1mk)

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20. Highlight two benefits of breastfeeding to the mother. (1mk)

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21. State two factors that may lead to artificial feeding. (1mk)

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22. What is the name of the first milk given to a baby immediately after birth? (1mk)

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23. Mention two suitable supplementary food for an infant ( 1mk)

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24. List two types of play in child development. (1mk)

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25. Name two basic instructions on using medicine (1mk)

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26. Outline two rights of a consumer. (1mk)

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27. Give the main effects of inflation to country. (1mk)

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28. Name two methods of buying goods and services. (1mk)

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29. List two examples of electronic media. (1mk)

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30. What is the function of weight and measures department. (1mk)

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31. Outline two factors that affect the budget. (1mk)

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32. Discuss family set up as a factor that influence consumer buying. (1mk)

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33. Identify two characteristics of silk during burning test. (1mk)

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34. Name two seams that are self-neatened (1mk)

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35. Name two types of cuffs used to finish sleeve. (1 mk)

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36. Differentiate between facings and interfacings. (1mk)

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37. Outline two methods of finishing necklines. (1mk)

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38. Highlight two body measurements taken around the body. (1mk)

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39. Name two types of pleats. (1mk)

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40. Management of fullness in a garment ensures a good fit and shape, name other two reasons for

such. (1mk)

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SECTION B (20 MARKS)(ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS)

41. You are at home over the weekend discuss how to ;

a) Launder a dark coloured jumper by spotting (7mks)
b) Clean a fast coloured canvas bag (7mks)
c) Clean a polished side table in the dining table (6mks)

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SECTION C (40 MARKS) (ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTION IN THIS SECTION)

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42.

a) Outline four causes of a heavy texture in rubbed in cake mixture. (4mks)

b) State four rules to observe in stain removal. (4mks)
c) Explain how to take care of a lactating mother. (4mks)
d) State four functions of the Kenya consumer association. (4mks)
e) Describe how to prepare and attach a square patch pocket of a shirt. (4mks)

43.

a) Explain briefly four reasons for cooking food. (4mks)

b) Chemical disinfectants are use to kill germs on fabrics, state four points to observe
when using them. (4mks)
c) Suggest four ways of making simple play items used for playing by children.(4mks)
d) Discuss the following forms of credit buying (4mks)
i. Hire purchase
ii. Simple non instalment credit
e) Describe the method of working a plain seam (4mks)
44.
a) State four disadvantages of using left over foods. (4mks)
b) Highlight four reasons for sufficient ventilation in a room (4mks)
c) state four reasons for specialized care in Childs health card (4mks)
d) List four sources of information to the consumer (4mks)
e) Outline four points to observe when taking body measurements (4mks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

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SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

312/2
HISTORY & GOVERNMENT
Paper 2
Time: 21/2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES:
• This paper consists of three sections A, B, C
• Answer all questions in section A, three questions in section B and two questions in section C
• Answers to all questions must be written in the answer booklet provided
• Candidates should answer the questions in English

For examiner use only

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES

SCORE
A 1-17 25
B 15
15
15
C 15
15
TOTAL SCORE

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer ALL Questions in this section.

1. Mention one political importance of studying History. (1mark)

2. Identify two characteristics of the Aegyptopithecus. (2marks)
3. What was the importance of the development of writing in Mesopotamia during the Agrarian Revolution?
(1mark)
4. Identify two factors that led to the development of local trade. (2marks)
5. State one way in which European colonization led to the decline of the Trans-Atlantic trade. (1mark)
6. Identify two trans-continental railway lines in the modern world. (2marks)
7. Identify two factors that led to the scientific revolution. (2marks)
8. Give one factor that led to the emergence of London as a major trading centre. (1mark)
9. Identify two external factors that led to the decline of the Asante empire. (2marks)
10. Give two negative political effects of the partition of Africa by the European powers. (2marks)
11. State how Islamic religion enabled the Mandinka to resist French invasion from 1886 to 1898.(1mark)
12. Identify one social shortcoming of Indirect role in Nigeria. (1mark)
13. Identify one factor that led to the riots of 1948 in Ghana. (1mark)
14. Give the role that diplomacy played in the struggle for independence in South Africa. (1mark)
15. State one way in which the violation of the Treaty of Versailles led to the outbreak of the Second World
War (1939 – 1945). (1mark)
16. Mention two personalities who led in the formation of the Non-Aligned Movement. (2marks)
17. State two objectives of the Pan-African Conference of 1900. (2marks)

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SECTION B: (45 MARKS)
Answer any three questions from this section in the answer booklet provided.
18. (a) State three reasons why Africa is considered the cradle of man. (3 marks)
(b) Describe six ways in which homo erectus attempted to improve kind way of life. (12 marks)
19. (a) Give three methods used to acquire slaves from West Africa during the Trans-Atlantic trade.(3 marks)
(b) Explain six factors that led to the decline of the Trans-Atlantic trade. (12 marks)
20. (a) Give five examples of the communication. (5 marks)
(b) Describe five negative impacts of modern forms of communication. (10 marks)
21. (a) State three ways used by nationalists in Ghana to fight for independence. (3 marks)
(b) Explain six factors that led to development of African nationalism in Ghana. (12 marks)
SECTION C (30 MARKS)

22. a) State five factors for the rise of Pan Africa Movement (5 marks)
b) Discuss the achievements of Pan African Movement by 1960 (10 marks)
23.a) Outline five factors that enabled Allied Forces to defeat Germany during the 2nd world war(5 marks)
b) Discuss five social effects of 2nd world war on the people of Europe (10 marks)
24. a) State three ways in which one can qualify as a member of House of Lords in Britain (3 marks)
b) Describe six duties of the monarch in Britain (12 marks)

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SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

312/1
HISTORY & GOVERNMENT
Paper 1
Time: 21/2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• This paper consists of three sections A,B and C
• Answer All questions in section A, three questions in section B and two Questions in section C
• Answer to all question must be written in the answer booklet provided
• Candidate should answer the questions in English

For examiner use only

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES

SCORE
A 1-17 25
B 15
15
15
C 15
15
TOTAL SCORE

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section.
1. Identify one main source of History and Government of the Kenyan communities during the pre colonial
period. (1mark)
2. Name two groups of people that form the Coastal Bantu of Kenya. (2marks)
3. Name one Kenyan community that had a centralized form of government in the pre-colonial period.
(1mark)
4. Give two crops that were introduced by the Portuguese at the East African Coast. (2marks)
5. State two terms of the Anglo-German agreement of 1886. (2marks)
6. Define dual citizenship. (1mark)
7. Identify the main grievance of Ukamba Members Association. (1mark)
8. Identify two Kenyan communities that showed mixed reactions against colonial invasion. (2marks)
9. Mention the woman who led the Agiriama resistance. (1mark)
10. State two reasons why Africans in Kenya were denied the right to grow cash crops during the colonial
period? (2marks)
11. Give two demands of African Elected Members Organization (A.E.M.O). (2marks)
12. Who introduced dairy farming in Kenya? (1mark)
13. What was the main ideological difference between KANU and KADU before independence in 1963?
(1mark)
14. Give the main function of Parliament in Kenya. (1mark)
15. State the two levels of government in Kenya today. (2marks)
16. Identify the constitutional amendment that reverted Kenya to a multi-party state. (1mark)
17. Mention two types of funds in which government revenue is deposited. (2marks)

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SECTION B: (45 MARKS)
Answer ANY three questions from this section.
18. (a) Outline five reasons for the migration of the Luo from their ancestral homeland. (5 marks)
(b) Describe the political organization of the Mijikenda during the pre-colonial period. (10 marks)
19. (a) Identify three contributions of the European missionaries to the exploration of East Africa in the 19th
century. (3 marks)
(b) Explain six factors which promoted missionary activities in East Africa in the 19th century(12 marks)
20. (a) Identify three problems that the independent schools faced during the colonial period. (3 marks)
(b) Explain six results of the establishment of independent churches in Kenya during the colonial period.
(12 marks)
21. (a) State five main features of African socialism. (5 marks)
(b) Explain five economic effects of African socialism. (10 marks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section

22. a) List three methods used by the British to occupy Kenya towards the close of the 19th century
(3marks)
b) Explain six challenges that faced the Imperial British East Africa Company in its Administration of
the protectorate (12 marks)
23. a) Identify three methods that have been used to conduct elections in Kenya. (3marks)
b) Why is parliament an important institution in Kenya? (3marks)
24. a) Give three aims of Harambee movement in Kenya. (3marks)
b) Explain six problems that faced Harambee movement in Kenya. (12 marks)

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312/2
GEOGRAPHY
Paper 2
Time: 23/4 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS

This paper has two sections: A & B.

➢ Answer all questions in section A.

➢ In section B, answer question 6 and any other two questions.
➢ Candidates should answer the questions in English.
➢ All answers to be written in foolscaps provided.
For examiner’s use
Section Question Maximum score Candidate score

A 1 -5 25

B 6 25
7 25
8 25
9 25
10 25
100

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SECTION A
INSTRUCTIONS: Answer all the questions in this section
1. (a) State three ways in which minerals occur (3 marks)
(b) Name any two types of underground mining (2 marks)
2. (a) What is a forest (1 mark)
(b) State any two characteristics of the tropical hardwood forests. (2 marks)
(c) State two main species of softwood trees mainly grown in Canada. (2 marks)
3. (a) State one major characteristics of non-renewable energy sources. (1mark)
(b) Name any two non-renewable energy sources. (2marks)
(c) State any two effects of charcoal burning in the environment. (2marks)
4. (a) What is a trading bloc. (2marks)
(b) State any three factors influencing trade. (3marks)
5. (a) Name any two pre- historic sites that are popular with tourists in Kenya. (2marks)
(b) State the three agencies set up by the three governments of East Africa countries to manage
the game parks and take care of the wildlife. (3marks)

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SECTION B (75 marks)
Answer question 6 and any other two questions

6. The table below shows some of Kenya’s imports and exports in tonnes in 1987.
Use the data to answer the questions that follows.
Import in tonnes Export in tonnes
Item Tonnes Item Tonnes
Sugar 99,000 Sugar 316,000
Iron and steel 300,000 Iron and steel 159,000
Fertilizer 84,000 Fertilizer 259,000
Wheat 125,000 Wheat 225,000
Total 608,000 Total 959,000

a) Draw a comparative bar graph to represent the above data using scale of 1cm to 25,000
tonnes. (8 marks)
b) Explain how the following factors influence external trade in Kenya under the following
subheadings:
i) Population (2 marks)
ii) Foreign investment (2 marks)
iii) Government policy (2 marks)
c) Explain three measures taken by the Kenyan government to reduce unfavourable balance
of trade. (6 marks)
d) State five ways in which Kenya is likely to benefit from the renewed East African Co-operation.
(5 marks)
7. a) i) Differentiate between the term transport and communication. (2 marks)
ii) State four advantages of road transport. (4 marks)
b) Explain four factors that hinder the development of river transport in Africa. (8 marks)
c) State three problems facing communication in Africa. (3 marks)
d) Explain four reasons why it is difficult to transport goods from Mombasa to Lagos
along the Trans- Africa highway. (8 marks)
8. a) Define the following terms:

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i) Forest (1 mark)
ii) Forestry (1 mark)
b) i) Name three indigenous hardwood tree species grown in Kenya. (3 marks)
ii) Name four conditions that favour the growth of forests. (4 marks)
c) Explain four factors which favour the development of soft wood forests in Canada. (8 marks)
d) Students of Kitui School carried out a field study of a nearby forest.
i) State three activities that they engaged in during collection of data. (3 marks)
ii) List three follow-up activities the students would have done. (3 marks)
iii) State two problems the students were likely to encounter. (2 marks)
9. (a)(i) What is fishing and fisheries (4marks)

(b)List three types of fish caught in North East pacific fishing ground. (2marks)
(c)(i) State the significance of fishing industry in Kenya. (3marks)
(ii) Explain four problems facing fishing in Kenya. (8marks)
(d) State two methods that are used to manage and conserve fish in Kenya (2marks)
10. (a) (i) Name two major counties in Kenya known for high maize production. (2 marks)
(ii) What is the importance of maize production to Kenya's economy. (6 marks)
(iii) Name the Board that is known for buying and selling of maize in Kenya. (1 mark)
(b) What are the problems facing the maize farming in Kenya. (8 marks)
(c) Explain four physical conditions that favour maize growing in Kenya. (8 marks)

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312/1
GEOGRAPHY
Paper 1
Time: 23/4 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS

•
This paper has two sections: A and B
•
Answer ALL the questions in section A.
•
In section B answer questions 6 and any other TWO questions.
•
All the answers must be written on the foolscaps provided.
•
Candidates must answer the questions in English.
For examiners use only
SECTION QUESTION CANDIDATE SCORE
A 1-5

B 6
7
8

TOTAL

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SECTION A

1. a). What is wildlife? 2marks

b). Name three game sanctuaries in Kenya 3marks

2. a) Draw a well labelled diagram showing the three functional zones of an ideal urban centre .
(2marks)
b) State three factors leading to the emergence of slums in urban areas (3marks)

3. a) Give two reasons how the following factors influenced the development of iron and steel
industry
• Availability of water. (2marks)
• Historical reasons (2marks)

4 a). Distinguish under-population from overpopulation. (2marks)

b) Below is a table showing the intercensual births and deaths in Kenya (millions)

2013 2014 2015

Number of Births 34.9 32.3 31.8

Number of Deaths 8.3 7.0 5.8

Total Population 44.8 46.0 47.2

Source: Hypothetical

i. Calculate the crude birth rate of 2013 (2 marks)

ii. Calculate the death rate of 2015 (2 marks)
iii. The numerical population increase in Kenya between 2013 and 2015 (2marks)

5 a). What is land reclamation? (1 mark)

b) State two factors that determine the amount of water to be supplied to agricultural land
(2 marks)

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SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section

6. Study the map of Karatina 1:50,000 (sheet 121/3) provided and answer the following questions.

(a) (i) What is the title of the map extract? (1 mark)

(ii) Give the name of the map extract bordering Karatina to the east (1 mark)

(b) (i) Name two human features in grid square 0346. (2 marks)

(ii) What is the bearing of the Air photo principal point in grid square 9452 (13A/13) from the
trigonometric station in grid square 9552 (121T7) (2 marks)

(c) Calculate the area of the natural forest in Kirinyaga District (2 marks)
(d) (i) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 20 meters, draw an accurate cross section from grid
square 850570 to grid square 910570. (3 marks)

(ii) On the cross section mark and name;

- Forest (1 mark)

- River (1 mark)

(iv) Determine indivisibility between the two end points (1 mark)

(e) Describe the drainage of the area in the map extract (5 marks)

(f) Students of a school at Ragati went for a field study in Karatina Township.

(i) Name two types of settlement patterns they may have identified in the town. (2 marks)

(ii) State four solutions to problems they may have encountered during the field study.
(4 marks)
7. (a) What is a rock? (2marks)

(b) (i) Classify rocks according to their mode of formation. (3marks)

(ii) Identify two classes of rocks mentioned in (i) above that are
formed from the already existing rocks. (2marks)

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(iii) List two characteristics of rocks. (2marks)

(ii) Explain the importance of studying rocks. (6marks)

(d) Explain four benefits of rocks to the economy of a country. (8marks)

8. (a) (i) What is mass movement? (2marks)

(ii) List the two broad categories of mass wasting. (2marks)

(b) (i) What is soil creep? (2marks)

(ii) Describe the factors that cause soil creep. (5marks)

(c) Differentiate between soils creeps and rock slide. (6marks)

(d) Explain the negative effects of mass wasting on physical and human
environment. (8marks)

9. (a) Differentiate between a ocean and a sea. (2marks)

(b) (i) Identify the main cause of water movement in the ocean. (2marks)

(ii) Identify the two main water movements in the oceans. (2marks)

(d) Using a well labeled diagram describe the formation of a spit. (5marks)

(e) Describe the three types of coasts. (6marks)

(f) Explain how oceans currents influence the climate of the surroundings. (5marks)

10. (a) Describe how a river erodes its channels by the following process.
(i) Hydraulic action (2marks)
(ii) Abrasion (2marks)
(b) (i) Explain three factors that lead to rejuvenation of a river (6maraks)
(ii) Describe the process of a river capture. (6marks)
(c) Some students carried out a field study on the feature found a long a river.

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(i) List three features formed as a result of river erosion. (3marks)
(ii) State three methods that students may have used to record their data (2marks)
(iii) Explain two ways in which features resulting from river deposition are of significance to human
activities. (4marks)

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School: …………………………………………………. Class: ……………………………………….

Date: …………………………………………………… Sign: ………………………………………..

101/3
ENGLISH
(CREATIVE COMPOSITION AND ESSAYS BASED ON SET TEXTS)
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
FORM FOUR EXAM
101/3
ENGLISH
PAPER 3
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
2. Sign and write date of examination in the space provided.
3. Answer three questions only.
4. Questions 1 and 2 are compulsory.
5. In question 3 choose only one of the optional set texts you have prepared for.
6. Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional text, only the first one to appear will
be marked.
7. Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words
8. All your answers must be written on the answer sheet provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1 20

2 20

3 20

TOTAL SCORE 60

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1. IMAGINATIVE COMPOSITION. (Compulsory) (20marks)

Either

a) Write a composition ending with the following words;

…………………………………………………………Since that day, I have always promised

myself to remain focused in my studies.

b) Write a composition explaining what Kenyan youths can do to help in the fight against corruption.

2. COMPULSORY SET TEXT: FATHERS OF NATIONS (20marks)

"Alienation is not only painful but also stigmatizing." Using Fathers of Nations by Paul B. Vitta
for your illustrations, write an essay to show the truth of this assertion.
3. OPTIONAL SET TEXTS. (20marks)

Answer any of the following three questions.

a) The short story; A silent song and other stories.

Survivors of war live with painful memories and experiences. Write an essay to support this
statement citing illustrations from Chimamanda Adichie’s Ghosts.

b) The play; Parliament of Owls, Adipo Sidang’

Leaders who oppress their citizens finally pay for their actions. Write an essay in support of this
assertion basing your illustrations on Adipo Sidang’s Parliament of Owls

c) The novel; An Artist of the Floating World, Kazuo Ishiguro.

Some of our past actions may cause us problems in the future. Making references to Kazuo
Ishiguro’s An Artist of the floating world, write an essay to support this statement.

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Date: …………………………………………………… Sign: ………………………………………..

101/2
ENGLISH
(COMPREHENSION, LITERARY APPRECIATION AND GRAMMAR)
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS 30MINUTES

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
FORM FOUR EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

a) Write your name, index number and class in the spaces provided.
b) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
c) This paper consists of 8 printed pages.
d) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.
e) Candidates must answer all the questions in English.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1 20

2 25

3 20

4 15

TOTAL SCORE 80

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1. Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.
Thousands of Kenyans have had their lives cut short by accidents, while others have been left with
permanent scars. Show me a Kenyan who doesn't have a horror story to tell about the terrible things that
happen on our roads.
For the families of the victims, the losses are too much to bear and in most cases, life will never be the
same again. For example, who qualifies to be a driver in Kenya? The answer is simply anyone, as long as
they can afford a bribe.
We have seen driving schools cited for 'selling' licenses to people who have not taken a driving course.
This new driver is expected to operate a motor vehicle on our roads even though he or she doesn't have
the rudimentary skills needed to operate a vehicle. In the US, anyone who wants to get a commercial
driver's license has to pass a number of physical and health tests before they are allowed to go to class for
their CDL.
These courses take months to complete, and even after training, a new driver must be assigned to a
qualified driver for a period of time. This CDL is rarely obtained by an unqualified driver.
Most commercial vehicles are equipped with cameras and computers to monitor driver behaviour.
For example, after driving a truck for a certain number of hours, a driver must take a mandatory rest
before continuing. These breaks are monitored, as is the driver's behaviour on the road.
These drivers, who also include drivers of public service vehicles, are subject to random drug tests, with
offenders receiving tickets or, in the worst case, having their license suspended or even revoked.
These citations affect drivers by taking away points from their driving licenses and sometimes their
employers' bonuses. Insurance companies have access to drivers' records, and your insurance premium is
affected by your driving habits. Careless and dangerous drivers have no place in the USA.
Back in Kenya, a policeman will look the other way and allow any offence. This hurts innocent and law-
abiding drivers and other road users.
The number of cars that should not be on the road is one of the reasons why hardly a day goes by without
a fatality.
If the traffic police did their job and did it well, if the political class didn't impede in the prosecution of
traffic offenders, if technology was used to manage traffic, and if the driving course was revised and
licenses were only issued to those who qualified, we would save a lot of lives.
Questions.
a) Give three impacts of road carnage in Kenya. (3 marks)
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b) What is the main contributing factor to accidents according to the passage (2 marks)
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c) Contrast the process of issuance of a driver’s license in Kenya and the US. (2 marks)
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d) How does the author feel towards Kenyan way of giving driving license? (3 marks)
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e) Outline the process of acquiring commercial driver’s license in the US. (3 marks)
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f) In not more than 60 words summarize the measures put in place to ensure road safety in the US.
(5 marks).
Rough draft
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Fair copy
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g) Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the excerpt. (2 marks)

i) rudimentary …………………………………………………………………………………..

ii) impede ………………………………………………………………………………………..

2. THE SAMARITAN
Read the excerpt below and then answer the questions that follow.

Nicole: (Looking at Montano and Alvita alternately) You see, I like the idea of The Samaritan. Do you
remember what happened in the parable of the Good Samaritan?
Alvita: 'Yes, Mistress. Robbers attacked a Jewish man. They beat him, up, robbed him and left him for dead by
the roadside.
Nicole: (Turning to Montano) Then what happened, Montano?
Montano: A priest passed by. He saw the injured man lying by the roadside. Even though he was a religious
man working in our maker's house, he did not help the man. He ignored him and went on his way.
Nicole: (Facing Alvita) And then?
Alvita: And then came the Levite. He was a religious man, too; as Levites worked as assistants to the priests. He
also did not stop to help the man.
Nicole: Then?
Montano: Next came a Samaritan. Though holding a different view on religion, and despite the hostility
between Jews and Samaritans, he treated the man with compassion, dressed his wounds and took him to a safe
place.
Nicole: You inspired me by naming your innovation The Samaritan. It made me realize that the people in our
Municipality are like the Jewish man in many ways. We are beaten, stripped, robbed and left for dead. And the
people you would expect to help us, our leaders and our public officials, cannot come to our aid. They are 'like
the Priest and the Levite in the story. They only talk about pursuing public interest without ever being genuinely
committed to it. The shepherds have turned against the sheep. So, who will help us? It's up to, all of us without
any claim of any office, to be The Samaritan — to another. And you know what? Alvita: Tell us, Mistress.
Nicole: The Samaritan App is an excellent platform for all of us to be there for one another. It gives each one of
us an opportunity to speak out against wrong doing and to share ideas that will make life better for all of us. You
see, if we all care only about ourselves, how will our Municipality ever prosper? We must be there for one
another; we must do the right things in the right way and we must all take the responsibility for the progress of
our Municipality. It is only in this way, that we pan ultimately improve our own individual lives. Alvita: But now
the App can't help? Mistress.
They won’t allow it.
Nicole: They don't have to; but 1 9ssure you The Samaritan will change the course of history in our Municipality
Montano: It will not be good for you, Mistress. We all heard the mayor speak and it was clear he meant every
single word. You may be in grave danger, Mistress.
Nicole: Whatever they may do to me doesn't matter. Sometimes it is good to stand for a cause that can bring a
better tomorrow for all of us.

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Alvita: The Samaritan has been all over the newspapers, radio and TV channels for over two months. It has
grown so big that it is not good for us anymore. Could they transfer you from our school? We would like to
follow you wherever you go.

Nicole: we must always strive to improve our lives, not chicken out at every obstacle and threat to our lives. You
are young kids; young also in the ways of the world, but what you have done is to provide the people with a
smart and convenient tool for casting a spotlight on our leaders — a platform where people can expose the
corrupt ways of our leaders, expose their stolen wealth and create a better society for all of us.

QUESTIONS
a) What is Montano reacting to in his first statement in this excerpt? Explain the reason for the rejection using
illustrations from elsewhere in the play(4 marks)
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b) Compare Maracas residents and the Jewish man in this excerpt. (4 Marks)
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c) Explain the dominant style in this excerpt. (3 marks)

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d) Describe the character of Ms. Nicole in this excerpt. (3 marks)

e) Explain the relevance of the Samaritan app to Maracas residents. (3 marks)

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f) Identify and illustrate any two this excerpt, (4 marks)

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g) It has grown so big that it is not good for us anymore. Rewrite beginning: So.. (l marks)
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h) Explain the meaning of the following expressions as used in the excerpt

(3 marks)

Left for dead

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Inspired
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Chicken out
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3. Read the following poem and then answer the questions that follow.
WE WEAR THE MASK

We wear the mask that grins and lies,

It hides our cheeks and shades our eyes —
This debt we pay to human guile;
With torn and bleeding hearts we smile,
And mouth with myriad subtleties.

Why should the world be over-wise,

In counting all our tears and sighs?
Nay, let them only see us, while
We wear the mask.

We smile, but, O great Christ, our cries

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To thee from tortured souls arise.
We sing, but oh the clay is vile
Beneath our feet, and long the mile;
But let the world dream otherwise,
We wear the mask!
By Paul Laurence Dunbar
Questions.
a) What is the poem about? (3 marks)
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b) Discuss any three styles of language used in the poem (6 marks)
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c) What reasons does the person give for wearing the mask? (3 marks)
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d) What do we learn about human beings from the poem? (4 marks)
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e) What do you understand from this line: We wear the mask that grins and lies. (1 mark)
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f) Describe the tone used by the persona (3 marks)
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4..a) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instruction given after each. Do not change
the meaning. (3 marks)
i) Alex is not as understanding as Sam (Rewrite using ‘more’)
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ii) The young man was very hungry. He swallowed the food without chewing. (Begin: So………)
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iii) The teacher found out how intelligent Jane was when she started the discussion. (Begin: It was not
until………….)
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b) Fill in the blank spaces with the most appropriate form of the word in brackets (4 marks)
i) The politician’s speech was…………………………………………………It left the crowd in
confusion. (comprehend)

ii) The winner of the race jogged………………………………….……...around the stadium waving

the Kenyan flag (pride)

iii) The guard was very………………………………………….today. (quarrel)

iv) The team of………………………………..…..was accused of misleading the president (advice)

c) Fill in the blank spaces with the correct preposition. (3 marks)

i) The match was called ……………………....due to heavy rains.

ii) Abel’s parents called her……………………….the airport to inform him that they had arrived
safely.

iii) She was waiting………………. the bus.

d) Rewrite the following sentences, correcting the highlighted idioms. (3 marks)

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i) They arrived at the eleventh o’clock.

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ii) Most people prefer to sleep on the fence.

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iii) This car must have cost him an arm and a foot.

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e) Explain the difference in meaning between the sentences below (2 marks)

I, love you……………………………………………………………………………………………
I love you…………………………………………………………………………………………….

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…………

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………………...

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………………...

101/1
ENGLISH
PAPER 1
(FUNCTIONAL SKILLS, CLOZE TEST AND ORAL SKILLS)
TIME: 2 HOURS

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)
ENGLISH
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

• Write your name, index number and the name of your school in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write date of examination in the spaces provided above.
• Answer all the questions in this question paper.
• All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.

For Examiner’s Use Only:

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 20
2 10
3 30
Total 60

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1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20marks)

You are the President of your School. It has come to your notice that some students make a lot of
noise during morning preps. Write a memorandum to the students warning the noise makers against
the habit. In your memorandum, remind the students of the importance of maintaining total
silence at this time and the punishment for those who will fail to adhere to this expectation.
Remember to send a copy of your memorandum to the principal.

2. CLOZE TEST
(10 marks)

Olive oil is good for the bones, a two-year (1)... ............................. .has found. People who consume olive
oil have higher amounts of osteocalcin, a special (2)...................... ..that is found in bones which helps keep
(3)... .......................................... ...strong.
They also found that osteocalcin lowers the risk of osteoporosis a (4) ... ............... . in which bones lose
density and become fragile and more likely to fracture. In addition, osteocalcin was found to (5).............in
metabolic regulation. These
findings help explain (6)... .......................... ..people from the Mediterranean area of (7)... ........ ...are the least
prone to developing osteoporosis. These people consume a lot of olives and olive oil, along with 8...
...................................................................... ..and vegetables.
Other (9)............................................ ..of olive oils include reduced stroke and breast (10)... ............... .risk and
liver protection.

3 ORAL SKILLS (30mks)

(a) Read the Oral Narrative below and answer the questions that follow.
GIKUYU AND MUMBI

In the beginning, Ngai or the creator, made Gikuyu. He gave him wife called Mumbi. The two lived
in a cave under a Mugumo tree at a place called Mukurwe wa Gathanga in Murang‟a.
Ngai, the creator, lived on top of Kirinyaga from where he ruled the entire universe. One day, he

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lifted up Gikuyu to the top of the mountain from where he beheld a panorama of the beautiful land
stretching from miles before him. He saw a land of Ravines, Rivers and ridges. It lay between the
mountains of Kirinyaga, Kiandarua, Kihanji nd Kiambiruiru. “Do you see all this beautiful land
sprawling before your eyes?” Ngai asked. Yes I do” Gikuyu answered.
“Well then. All that land I give you. It is land flowing with milk and hone (Uki na ngorono). It
belongs to you and to your descendants.”
But Ngai also told Gikuyu to worship him also facing Kirinyaga and occasionally offer sacrifices
of fat rams under the Mugumo tree. Gikuyu and his wife, Mumbi lived together quite happily. They
had nine daughters but no son. This worried Gikuyu so much as he didn‟t see how he could propagate
his house. And he sacrificed to Ngai and made his fear known. But Ngai told him not to worry for
he, Ngai would send him nine handsome young men who would marry Gikuyu‟s nine beautiful
daughters.
And true to his word, Ngai sent him nine handsome young men who married Gikuyu‟s nine daughters.
They brought forth children and each daughter started her own clan.
These are:-
Acera (Njeri)
Agachiku (Wanjiku)
Airimu (Wairimu)
Ambui (Wambui)
Ethaga (Wagathigia)
Aithrandu (Waithera)
Angari (Wangari)

This myth explains the origin of the Agikuyu and how they came to have nine clans. It also explains
the link between the clans and the common female names found in the tribe.

QUESTIONS
(i) Before telling this story to the audience, list down three things the narrator must do to capture the
audience‟s attention. (3marks)

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(ii) “Do you see all this beautiful land sprawling before your eyes?” Ngai asked. (Line 7)
“Yes I do,” Gikuyu answered (Line 8)How would you perform the words of Ngai? (2marks)

(iii) Which intonation would you use for Gikuyu‟s words? Explain your answer. (2marks)

(iv) At the end of the performance of this oral narrative, signs of inattentiveness were noticed from the
audience List down three such signs. (3marks)

(b) Underline stressed syllables in the following words:

Sedimentation
Noteworthy
Conflagration
(c) Identify the odd word out according to the pronunciation of the underlined sound. (2marks)
(i) Said Head Paid Red

(ii) Shepherd Philosophy Phase Surface

(d)(i) Grusha patiently waited for Simon Shashava to return from the war. Explain the meaning of the
sentence when the following words are stressed: (3marks)

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Grusha
The war
Simon

(ii) You have been called on to speak to the youth of your church on the dangers of drugs and
substance abuse. Introduce yourself to the audience. (2marks)

(iii) Assume that you are the principal of Excel High School where the Head of State makes a visit.
Introduce John Rashid (a medical doctor) who is a member of the Board of Management to the Head of
State. (2marks)

(e) Mike has been sent to a neighbouring school to participate in a group discussion. Suggest ways that
will make him benefit from the group discussion. (8marks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..……

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE……………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE…………………

313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
Paper 2
Time: 21/2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. This paper consists of SIX questions.
3. Answer any FIVE questions.
4. This paper consists of 2 printed pages.

5. Candidates should answer all the questions in English.

6. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain

that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no

questions are missing.

7. Answer all the answers in English

Marks 1 2 3 4 5 6

Total

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Answer Any 5 Questions In The Space Provided

1. (a) From the infancy narratives, what shows that the birth of Jesus Christ was extra-ordinary.
(8 marks)
(b) What lessons do Christians learn from the lives of Zechariah and Elizabeth. (6 marks)

2. a) Outline seven teachings of Jesus from the sermon on the plain on true discipleship. (7marks)

b) Using examples give four reasons why Jesus faced opposition from the Jewish, religious leaders in
Galilee . (8marks)

c) Outline Five ways in which the church leaders are preparing in the society for the second
coming of Jesus. (5marks)

3. (a) State the meaning of the parable of the sower as explained by Jesus in Luke 8:11-15. (8 marks)

(b) Give seven reasons why Jesus referred to the Pharisees as hypocrites. (7 marks)

4. (a) Outline the characteristics of the people of God as taught by Peter in 1 Peter 2:9 – 10. (7 marks)

(b) Identify seven gifts of the Holy Spirit. (7 marks)

5 a) Explain three biblical teachings about celibacy. (6marks)

b) State eight negative results brought about by strike action. (8marks)
c) Identify Christian criteria for evaluating the use of leisure. (6marks)
6 a) Explain the negative impact of the introduction of money economy in Traditional African Society.
(7marks)
b) Identify ways in which Christians can help fight corruption in Kenya today. (7marks)
c) State six Christian’s values related to wealth. (6marks)

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INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE……………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE…………………

313/1
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
Paper 1
Time: 21/2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided

above.
2. This paper consists of SIX questions.
3. Answer any FIVE questions.
4. This paper consists of 2 printed pages.

5. Candidates should answer all the questions in English.

6. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain

that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no

questions are missing.

7. Answer all the answers in English

Marks 1 2 3 4 5 6

Total

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Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.
1. a. Describe the first account of creation in Genesis 1-2:4a (8 Marks)
b. From the story of the fall of human beings in Genesis Chapter three, state six effects of sin
(6marks)
c. Identify any six causes of evil in Kenya today (6 marks)

2. a)Outline the conditions that God gave the Israelites during the renewal of the Mosaic covenant?
(7marks)
b) Identify the worship practices that Israelites adopted in the wilderness? (7marks)
c) What was the Israelites new understanding of God in the wilderness? (5marks)
3. a) Explain four factors which led to Religious Schism in Israel after the death of king Solomon.
(8marks)
b) State seven promises that God made to David through Prophet Nathan in (2 Samuel 7.1-29)
(7marks)
c) Give reasons why political and church leaders should cooperate (5marks)
4. (a) Explain the role of prophets in the Old Testament. (6marks)

(b) State the teachings of Amos on the day of the Lord. (6marks)

5. a) Outline the contents of Jeremiahs letter to the exiles in Babylon according to Jer.29:1-32 (8marks)
b) Give four differences between the new covenant foretold by Jeremiah and the Sinaitic covenant
(8marks)
c) Suggest ways in which Christians should respond to those who oppose them during their work.
(4marks)
6. a) State seven ways in which the living maintained contact with ancestral world in the African traditional
society (7marks)
b) What is the importance of marriage in the traditional African community (8marks)
c) Give reasons why the payment of bride wealth is losing meaning in the society today (5marks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

451/2
COMPUTER STUDIES
Paper 2
Time: 21/2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK

EXAM
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)
COMPUTER STUDIES PRACTICAL

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
✓ Type your name and index number at the top right hand corner of each printout.
✓ Write the name and version of the software used for each question attempted in the answer sheet.
✓ Passwords should NOT be used while saving in the CD.
✓ Answer all questions
✓ All questions carry equal marks

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Question One
The data in the tables below were extracted from Bondo Sub county Games Management system.
Table 1: TEAMS TABLE
Team Code Team Name Address Tel. No. Reg. Fee
01 Majiwa High School Box 0012 021542148 5,000
02 Maranda High School Box 2454 025485267 3,500
03 Usenge High School Box 458 025478756 4,700
04 Akoko Mixed Secondary Box 635 032547855 2,400
05 Kipasi Secondary School Box 2446 032458754 1,200
06 Kapiyo Secondary School Box 6589 015487564 1,400
07 Nyang’oma Boys Box 1254 031204543 5,000
Table 2: RESULTS TABLE
Team Code Games Won Games Lost Games Draw
01 12 2 2
02 10 3 3
03 4 8 3
04 9 3 4
05 7 3 5
06 7 6 4
07 5 9 2
(a) Create a database named Football to store the data above. (12marks)
(b) Format the Reg. Fee field as follows:
(i) To display the entries with the prefix: “KSh.”Correct to two decimal places. (2marks)
(ii) Restrict entries to positive values only and should return an error message “Error: enter
positive values only” if an out of range value is entered. (2marks)
(c) Validate Team Code to 2 characters only. (2marks)
(d) Create a suitable table relationship between the tables. (3marks)
(e) Design a form for each table and use it to enter the data into the tables. (9marks)
(f) Create a query named TotalGamesQuery to display the fields: Team Code, Team Name and
Total games played. (4 marks)

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(g) Create a query to show the team name and total points. (Note: A Win in a game earns team 3
points, a draw 1 point and a loss 0). The query should show the 3 best teams based on the
total points. Save the query as BestTeamsQuery. (5 marks)

(h) Create a report named RegReport to display the Team Name, Address, Reg. Fee. The report
should show the total registration fee collected from all teams. (5marks)
(i) Sort the records to show the team that has paid the highest amount of registration fee
first. (2 marks)
(ii) Title the report as “income from registration”. (2 marks)
(i) Print each of the following: (2marks)

(i) Teams table and Results table

(ii) TotalGamesQuery and BestTeamsQuery RegReport.
Question Two
(a) Type the following passage using a word processing package and save as Networking. Answer
the questions that follow. (25marks)
COMPUTER NETWORK
A Computer network is a group of computers and other devices connected together by a suitable
media.

Advantages of computer Networks

1. Multiple users can communicate, exchange and share information

2. Resource sharing including program, data base, hardware etc. is possible

Communication

y definition communications refers to the transfer of information from one place to another between
two individuals using agreed symbols, signs or even human behavior such as nodding. Exchange of
Binformation relies on a communication system to convert, amplify and send signal through a common
medium. Message, Sender, Medium and Receiver are the essential components of communication
systems. If a system is extended by cascading more communication systems, it is called networked
systems.

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In case communication involves the sending of information over a significant distance, it must use
telecommunications as an aid. By definition, telecommunications refers to the transmission of
information between distant locations by some electromagnetic means.

Data communications is defined as the interchange and processing of encoded (digital that is, 1s and
0s) information between distant locations using telecommunications.

Data communications is regarded as the collection and distribution of the electronic representation of
information which can be text, voice, graphics or image, from and to remote computing facilities. As
information can only be carried to the remote site provided that the information carrier supports that
particular type of data transmission, information may undergo data conversion processes if the nature
of data signal is incompatible with the characteristics of the signal carrier.

Communication networks are usually defined by their size and complexity. We can distinguish four
main types:

▪ Local area networks (LAN). These networks connect computer equipment and other terminals
distributed in a localized area, e.g. a university campus, factory, office. The connection is usually
a cable or fibre, and the extent of the cable defines the LAN.
▪ Metropolitan area networks (MAN). These networks are used to interconnect LANs that are
spread around, say, a town or city. This kind of network is a high speed network using optical
fibre connections.
▪ Wide area networks (WAN). These networks connect computers and other terminals over large
distances. They often require multiple communication connections, including microwave radio
links and satellite.

COMPARISON AMONG DIFFERENT TOPOLOGIES

Below are the advantages and disadvantages of various LAN topologies.

Type Advantage Disadvantage

Failure of central node causes

Star Simple and easy to identify fault
disaster

Irregular Immunity to bottleneck and failure Expensive to provide an alternative

(Mesh) problems routing

Classification of communication Only

networks
a single communications
Bus Simple to control traffic flow channel is required to service all the
nodes

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Ring Simple to implement One channel is required to service all

TRANSMISSION MEDIA
Transmission can be by cable or wireless methods. There are 3 common types of cable:
▪ Twisted pair,
▪ Co-axial
▪ Fiber optic.
Wireless transmission includes:
▪ Microwave transmission.
▪ Satellite transmission.
▪ Radio waves transmission.
▪ Infrared transmission.
TWISTED PAIR
Consists of two insulated copper wires arranged in a regular spiral pattern to minimize the
electromagnetic interference between adjacent pairs
Often used at customer facilities and also over distances to carry voice as well as data
communications.
TWISTED PAIR ADVANTAGES
▪ Inexpensive and readily available
▪ Flexible and lightweight
▪ Easy to work with and install
TWISTED PAIR DISADVANTAGES
▪ Susceptibility to interference and noise

▪ Attenuation problem
▪ For analog, repeaters needed every 5-6km
▪ For digital, repeaters needed every 2-3km
▪ Relatively low bandwidth (3000Hz)
CO-AXIAL CABLE
▪ Used for cable television, LANs, telephony
▪ Has an inner conductor surrounded by a braided mesh
▪ Both conductors share a common center axial, hence the term “co-axial”

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CO-AXIAL ADVANTAGES
Higher bandwidth
▪ 400 to 600Mhz
▪ Up to 10,800 voice conversations
▪ Can be tapped easily (pros and cons)
▪ Much less susceptible to interference than twisted pair

CO-AXIAL DISADVANTAGES
▪ High attenuation rate makes it expensive over long distance
▪ Bulky
▪ Greater capacity (bandwidth of up to 2 Gbps)
▪ Smaller size and lighter weight
▪ Lower attenuation
▪ Immunity to environmental interference
▪ Highly secure due to tap difficulty and lack of signal radiation

FIBER OPTIC CABLE

▪ Relatively new transmission medium used by telephone companies in place of long-distance
trunk lines
▪ Also used by private companies in implementing local data communications networks
▪ Require a light source with injection laser diode (ILD) or light-emitting diodes (LED)
ADVANTAGES OF FIBER OPTIC
▪ Greater capacity (bandwidth of up to 2 Gbps)
▪ Smaller size and lighter weight
▪ Lower attenuation
▪ Immunity to environmental interference
▪ Highly secure due to tap difficulty and lack of signal radiation

DISADVANGES OF FIBER OPTIC

▪ Expensive over short distance
▪ Requires highly skilled installers
▪ Adding additional nodes is difficult
(B) Required:
(i) Open a new document then copy and paste the content of Networking on the new document
(2marks)
(ii) Save the new document as Networking Edited. (2marks)
(iii) Change the title Computer Network as follows. (4marks)

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Alignment – Centre
Font Size – 23
Font colour - Red
Font type –Elephant
Kerning -12 point
Spacing –Expanded
Scale- 100%
Position- Raised
(iv) Convert the paragraphs immediately under Communications into a hanging indent.(2marks)
(v) Insert your name into the passage as a footer and Index number at the Header. (4 marks)
(vi) Convert the paragraph under Classification of communication networks to two columns and
justify them. (4 marks)
(vii) Insert Water mark a cross the page the page “ COMPUTER NETWORKING “ (2marks)
(viii) Change the Drop cap lines to two. (1mark)
(ix) Insert page border using the following setting. (2marks)
Border – Shadow
Border – Three line
Colour - Orange
(x) Print the document networking and Networking Edited. (2marks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

451/1
COMPUTER STUDIES
Paper 1
Time: 21/2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK

EXAM
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

Instructions to Candidates
• Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided.
• This paper consists of two sections.
• Answer ALL questions in section A and Question 16 plus THREE other questions in section B..
• All answers MUST be written in the spaces provided on this question paper.

Section Question Maximum Actual

Score Score
A 1 - 15 40
16 15
B 17 15
18 15
19 15
20 15
TOTAL 100

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SECTION A: (40 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided

1. i) Explain the emerging trends in microcomputer technology in relation to Size (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Mention two Analogue devices (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. i) Identify and briefly describe three advantages of using computers in banking (1½ marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) State two advantages of using a mouse instead of a keyboard. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. State two reasons why Magnetic tapes are not commonly used as computer data storage medium
today (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

4. i) Give two advantages of the higher number of pixels per square centimeter. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Differentiate between Data interface cable and power cable. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Explain two differences between serial and parallel communication ports of a computer .
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. i) What is line spacing as used in word processing? (½ mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ii) Describe any two line spacing specification used in Microsoft Word. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Name the two documents used in mail merge. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv). With reference to the concept of graphics as used in Microsoft word. Explain the difference
between object linking and embedding? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Who am I? (3 marks)

i) Am is skilled in software/program development as per requirement and technical operations of

computer hardware. I also develop and update both system and application software together with
the associated documentations.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Am is skilled in designing computer hardware and also improves on existing ones.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) I maintain, update & modify information on the websites to meet new demands by the users. I
also monitor the access & use of internet connection by enforcing security measures

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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7. During the COVID 19 pandemic, the government advised the citizens to use electronic funds
transfer and other popular mobile phone money transactions to make payments.
i) State how the above method of conducting business would help to curb on the spread of the
disease. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) What is the meaning of Electronic Funds Transfer? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Define the term dual booting as used in computing. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Differentiate between cropping and grouping. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Other than flow chart, state two tools that can be used to present an algorithm . (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Differentiate between a deadlock and interrupt as used in operating system. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. (a) Securem is a company that deals with providing security services to its clients. Name any two
ways the company can protect its computer network from hackers. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State three characteristics of a suitable password. (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. During system development the system analyst should consider the correct requirement
specifications for the new system. State any four outcomes that may result from using incorrect
requirement specifications. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. (a) Define the term Computer Aided Design. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) List two advantages of using Computer Aided Design. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Explain two arithmetic errors that may occur during computerised data processing. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (60 marks)

Answer question 16 and ANY OTHER THREE questions from this section in the spaces provided.
16. (a) Give two examples of syntax errors in programming. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)ScrabbleTM is a word game where the players are awarded points by creating words from a
combination of letters each of which carry a different point value. A player is awarded the points for

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creating words from the combination. Write a pseudocode using CASE to read a letter and output the
value equivalent to that letter from the following table. (8 marks)

LETTER VALUE

A,E,I,L,N,O,R,S,T,U 1

D,G 2

B,C,M,P 3

F,H,V,W,Y 4

K 5

J,X 8

Z,Q 10

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(c) Classify the following programming languages according to their category: (3 marks)

Programming language Category

HTML

JAVA

JAVASCRIPT

PASCAL

VISUAL BASIC

LISP

(d) With aid of a diagram, explain the “Repeat Until” construct as used in structured programming

(2 marks)

17. (a) State the stage in system development life cycle where each of the following activities are
carried out:

i. Identifying shortcomings of a system. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Preparing the system migration plan (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. Identifying the technologies that may be used in the proposed system. (1 mark)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State three roles of a programmer in system development life cycle. (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) E-mail technology has become a very important part of today’s communication. Explain any
three problems associated with using e-mail technology for communication. (6 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Sarafina wants to download her favourite movie from YouTube. State any three factors that
may determine how long it will take her to complete the download. (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. The following Digital Club Member details were to be entered in a database: Name, Date of
registration, Registration fee and Class.

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(a) Prepare a suitable structure showing field names and their field types (4 marks)
Field Data type

Name Text

Date of registration Date

Registration fee Currency or Number

Class Text

(b) Name one other field that the Club Patron may need to add to uniquely identify the records
(1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Name Date of Registration fee Class

registration

Criteria/
Expression

(d) The following is an extract from a spreadsheet created to manage sales. Use it to answer the
questions that follow.
A B C D

1 ITEM NAME UNIT PRICE UNITS SOLD

2 HDD 300 GB 7,500 2

3 Optical Drive 4,500 8

4 DELL Latitude core i5 44,500 3

5 DDR4 8GB RAM 10,000 4

6 Lenovo Yoga Smart Tab 28,953 1

(i) Write a formula that will compute the number of items whose unit price whose price more than
10,000 (3 marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) If the formula =$B2*C$2 was placed in D2, state the output if copied to D3. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Write the cell referencing used in c(ii) above. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) Write the data type that is stored in cell C5 and A6 respectively (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. a) Define the term attenuation as used in networking and data communication. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) The following are figures of networking cables. Identify each. (2 marks)

Figure 1 Figure 3

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Figure 2 Figure 4

Figure 1 Figure 2

Figure 3 Figure 4

c) (i) Give two examples of network software (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) In a network setup, list any two items that may be referred to as data terminal equipment.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Explain the following terms as used in networking (4 marks)

(i) Remote Communication

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Distributed processing

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) State four functions of a server in a network (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. (a) Determine the binary equivalent of the octal number 253243. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Carry out the following binary arithmetic using ones complement. In each case leave your answer in

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base 10.

(i) 1010-108 (5 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(i) 2BH-9H (6 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Arrange the following numbers in ascending order. (2 marks)

1016, 1010, 158, 10112

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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CHEMISTRY PRACTICAL CONFIDENTIAL
231/3
CHEMISTRY
Practical
Paper 3
Time: 21/4 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK

EXAM
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)
CHEMISTRY PRACTICAL

In addition to the apparatus found in a laboratory, each candidate will require;

1. 110cm3 of solution C1
2. 150cm3 of solution C2
3. 60 cm3 of solution C3
4. 80 cm3 of solution C4
5. 80 cm3 of solution C5
6. 50 cm3 of solution C6
7. 1.0 g of Solid D1
8. 0.5 g of Solid M1
9. A white tile
10. A test tube rack with 1 boiling tube and 8 test tubes
11. A burette
12. A 25 ml pipette
13. A pipette filler
14. A test tube holder
15. A stopwatch
16. A filter funnel
17. Two conical flasks
18. A 100 ml GLASS beaker
19. Distilled water in a wash bottle
20. A metallic spatula
21. Eight labels
22. A clean dropper
23. A wooden splint
24. A 1cm x 1cm aluminium foil

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25. Red litmus paper.
Access to the following bench reagents
1. Universal indicator with a full range pH chart.
2. Acidified potassium dichromate (VI)
3. Bromine water
4. 2M sodium hydroxide solution
5. 2M aqueous ammonia
6. Aqueous barium nitrate
7. Source of heat

Note:
• Solution C1 is a 0.01897 M KIO3 solution.
• Solution C2 is a 0.1 M sodium thiosulphate.
• Solution C3 is 0.167 M acidified potassium iodide. Prepared by dissolving 27.722 g of potassium
iodide in 200 cm3 of distilled water. It is acidified by adding 400cm3 of 2M sulphuric (VI) acid
then distilled water is added to make up to a litre of solution.
• Solution C4 is starch indicator solution. Prepared by dissolving 20 g of starch powder in 100 cm3
of distilled water.
• Solution C5 is an acidified mixture of potassium iodide and sodium thiosulphate. It is made by
dissolving a solid mixture containing 1.0 g of potassium iodide crystals and 1.0 g of sodium
thiosulphate crystals in about 200 cm3 of distilled water. It is acidified by adding 400cm3 of 2M
sulphuric (VI) acid then distilled water is added to make up to a litre of solution.
• Solution C6 is hydrogen peroxide solution. It is prepared by taking 200 cm3 of 10 volume
hydrogen peroxide and adding 800 cm3 of distilled water to make a litre of solution.
• Solid M1 is 1.0 g of maleic acid in a stoppered container.
• Solid D1 is 1.0 g of a mixture of 0.5 g of zinc (II) nitrate and 0.5 g of zinc (II) sulphate crystals.

This is the last printed page.

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

233/3
CHEMISTRY
Practical
Paper 3
Time: 21/4 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

CHEMISTRY PRACTICAL

Instructions to candidates

− Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
− Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used for calculations
− All working must be clearly shown where necessary
− Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper

FOR EXAMINER’S ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATES

SCORE SCORE

1 22

2 08

3 10

TOTAL 40

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1. You are provided with:

• Solution C1, an aqueous solution of potassium iodate (V) of concentration 4.06 g/dm3.
• Solution C2, an aqueous solution of sodium thiosulphate of unknown concentration.
• Solution C3, an acidified solution of potassium iodide.
• Solution C4, starch indicator solution.
Section 1
You are required to:
a) React solution C3 with C1 to liberate a certain quantity of iodine.
b) Titrate the iodine liberated in the reaction between C3 and C1 against solution C2 to determine
the molar concentration of C2.
Procedure
(a) Fill the burette with solution C2.
(b) Pipette 25.0 cm3 of solution C1 into a 250 ml conical flask.
(c) Using a measuring cylinder, transfer 15.0cm3 of solution C3 into a conical the conical flask
with solution C1.
(d) Titrate the solution in the conical flask against solution C2 from the burette until the brown
colour just changes to pale yellow.
(e) Using a 10 ml measuring cylinder, add 5cm3 of solution C4 into the mixture in the conical
flask and then continue titrating until the blue colour just disappears.
(f) Record your titration results in table 1 below.
(g) Repeat the procedure (b) to (f) above two more times and complete table 1 below.
(4 marks)
Table 1 I II II
Final burette reading (cm3)
Initial burette reading (cm3)
Volume of solution C2 (cm3) added
(a) Determine the average volume of C2 used. (1 mark)

(d) Potassium iodate (V) solution reacts with acidified potassium iodide solution to liberate iodine
as per the following ionic equation.

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IO3- (aq) + 5I- (aq) + 6H+ (aq) → 3I2(aq) + 3 H2O (l)
(colourless) (brown)

(ii) Sodium thiosulphate reduces iodine to iodide ions as per the ionic equation below:
2S2O32- (aq) + I2(aq) → 2I- (aq) + S4O62- (aq)
(Brown) (colourless)

(b) Calculate the:

(i) concentration of C1 in moles per litre. (K = 39, O = 16, I = 127) (1 mark)

(ii) number of moles of potassium iodate (V) contained in 25cm3 of solution C1. (1 mark)

(iii) number of moles of sodium thiosulphate in the average volume of solution C2 used.
(1 mark)

(iv) molarity of solution C2. (1mark)

Section 2
You are provided with:
• solution C4, starch indicator solution.
• Solution C5, an acidified mixture of potassium iodide and sodium thiosulphate.
• Solution C6, hydrogen peroxide solution.
• Distilled water.

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You are required to find out the effect of change in concentration of hydrogen peroxide solution on
the rate of its reaction with acidified potassium iodide solution.

Procedure
I. Take six test tubes and label them 1 to 6.
II. Place solution C6 into a clean burette. Measure out the volumes of solution C6 as shown in
table 2 below into the six test tubes.
III. Using a 10 ml measuring cylinder, add distilled water into EACH of the six test tubes as
indicated in table 2.
IV. Using a clean measuring cylinder, measure 10 cm3 of solution C5 into a 100 ml beaker
followed by 5.0 cm3 of solution C4 and swirl the mixture.
V. Pour the contents to test tube 1 into the 100 ml beaker and immediately start the stop-watch.
VI. Swirl the contents of the beaker, place the beaker on a white tile and record the time taken (in
seconds) for the blue colour to appear in table 2.
VII. Repeat procedures IV to VI above five more times using the contents of the test tubes 2 to 6,
each time recording the time taken for the blue colour to appear in table 2.
1
VIII. Complete the table 2 by working out the reciprocal of time ( 𝑡 ) for each experiment. This
represents the reaction rate for each experiment.
Table 2 (6 marks)
1 2 3 4 5 6
Experiment

1 2 3 4 5 6
Tes tube number

Volume of solution C6 (cm3) 10.0 8.0 6.0 4.0 3.0 2.0

Volume of distilled water (cm3) 0.0 2.0 4.0 6.0 7.0 8.0
Volume of solution C4 used (cm3) 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0
Volume of solution C5 used (cm3) 10.0 10.0 10.0 10.0 10.0 10.0
Time taken for the blue colour to
appear (seconds)
1
Rate (s-1)
𝑡

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(a) On the grid provided, plot a graph of rate of reaction (vertical axis) against the volume of
solution C6 used. (3 marks)

(b) Using the graph, determine the time taken for the blue colour to appear using a mixture of
5.0 cm3 of solution C6 and 5.0 cm3 of distilled water. (2 marks)
(c) What is the effect of adding more distilled water to the hydrogen peroxide solution on the
rate of this reaction with acidified potassium iodide solution? Explain. (2 marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. You are provided with solid D1. Carry out the following tests and write your observations
and inferences in the spaces provided.

(a) Place all solid D1 in a boiling tube. Add about 10cm3 of distilled water and shake. Divide
the mixture into four portions.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

(b) To the first portion, add sodium hydroxide dropwise until in excess.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

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(d) To the third portion, add 3 drops of barium nitrate followed by 2 cm3 of 2M nitric (V) acid.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

(e) To the fourth portion, add 1 cm3 sodium hydroxide followed by aluminium foil and warm
the mixture. Test any gases produced using red litmus paper.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

3. You are provided with solid M1.

Carry out the tests below and write your observations and inferences in the spaces provided.
a. Place about half of solid M1 in a metallic spatula and burn it in a non-luminous flame.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

b. Place the remaining solid M1 in a boiling tube. Add about 6 cm3 of distilled water and
shake the boiling tube. Divide the solution into three portions. To the first portion, add 2
drops of bromine water.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark)

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(1 mark)

ii. To the second portion, add all the sodium carbonate. Test for any gases using a burning
splint.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

iii. To the third portion, add 3 drops of acidified potassium dichromate (VI)
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

This is the last printed page.

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

233/2
CHEMISTRY
Theory
Paper 2
Time: 2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
o Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
o Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
o Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
o All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.
o Ensure that all pages are printed as indicated.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

Questions Maximum score Candidates score

1 12

2 12

3 10

4 11

5 13

6 11

7 11

Total score 80

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1. (a) Study the information given below and answer the questions that follow.

Element Atomic Ionic Formula of Melting Electrical

radius (nm) radius oxide point of conductivity of
(nm) oxide (ºC) oxide in solid or
molten state
A 0.064 0.136 OA2 -224 Does not conduct
B 0.117 0.040 BO2 1710 Does not conduct
C 0.125 0.054 C2O3 2045 Conducts in
molten state
D 0.110 0.212 D2O5 563 Does not conduct
E 0.157 0.095 E2O 1193 Conducts in
molten state

(i) Select two elements, whose oxides have giant ionic structure (2 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

(ii) Which element is likely to be silicon? Give a reason. (2 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

(iii) Explain why the melting point of the oxide of A is lower than that of the oxide of C
(2 marks)
......................................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................................

(iv) State the nature of the solution formed when oxide of D, D2O5 dissolves in water.
(1 mark)
......................................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................................

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(b) Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that follow (The letters do
not represent the actual symbols of the elements)

Element Electronic configuration Electron affinity(kJ/mol)

F 2.7 -322
G 2.8.7 -349
H 2.8.18.7 -325

(i) What chemical family do the elements F, G and H belong? (1 mark)

......................................................................................................................................................

(ii) What is meant by the term electron affinity? (1 mark)

......................................................................................................................................................

(c) When a piece of calcium is placed in cold water, it sinks to the bottom and a colourless gas
that extinguishes a burning splint with a pop sound is produced. Use a simple diagram to
illustrate how this gas can be collected during this experiment. (3 marks)

..............................................................................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................................................................

2. (a) Draw the structures of;

(i) the second member of the alkene homologous series ; (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

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................................................................................................................................................

................................................................................................................................................

.................................................................................................................................................

(ii) pentanoic acid; (1 mark)

.................................................................................................................................................

(iii) 1-hexanol. (1 mark)

...................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................

(b) State and explain how propan-1 –ol could be distinguished from propanoic acid (2 marks)

.................................................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................................................

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(c) Use the information in the scheme below to answer the questions that follow.

Compound J

Acidified
potassium Step II
dichromate (VI)
Burn
Ethanol Products
Hydrogen
gas Step III
Step I
Step IV

Ethene
Bromine
water Step VI H2/Nickel catalyst/200ºC
Step V
Compound K
Substance L

(i) give the name of ;

(I) compound J (1 mark)

.....................................................................................................................................

(II) compound K (1 mark)

.......................................................................................................................................

(ii) Give the name of the reaction which occurs in step V (1 mark)

.....................................................................................................................................................

(iii) Write the equation for the chemical reaction in step III (1 mark)

......................................................................................................................................................

(iv) Name the reagent(s) and conditions necessary for the reaction step IV

Reagent(s) (1 mark)

..........................................................................................................................................

Condition (s) (1 mark)

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..........................................................................................................................................

(v) State the observations made in step II (1 mark)

...................................................................................................................................................

(d) The two reactions below show how a long chained alkanoic acid can be converted into
detergent M.

Step I

CH2 — C17H35COOH
|
CH — C17H35COOH +3H2O 3C17H35COOH + C3H8O3
|
CH2 — C17H35COOH

Step II

3C17H35COOH + 3NaOH C17H35COONa + 3H2O

(detergent M)

(i) Name the type of reaction in step II (1 mark)

..................................................................................................................................................

(ii) When detergent M is added to a beaker containing hard water a scum is formed. Write
the formula of the scum. (1 mark)

.................................................................................................................................................

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3 (a) The diagram below represents an industrial process for the manufacture of ammonia.
Study it and answer the questions that follow.

Gas N Hydrogen

Purifier

Compressor
unreacted gases

Condenser Heat
Exchanger
10%
Liquid ammonia
ammonia
Catalytic
chamber

(i) Give the name of;

(I) the process above (1 mark)

.........................................................................................................................................

(II) Gas N (1 mark)

.........................................................................................................................................

(ii) Carbon (IV) oxide, sulphur (VI) oxide and dust are the impurities in this process. Give
a reason why these impurities are removed. (1 mark)

......................................................................................................................................................

(iii) Other than iron catalyst, state two optimum conditions for this process (2 marks)

. ..................................................................................................................................................

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..................................................................................................................................................

(iv) Give two uses of ammonia (2 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

(b) Urea, (CO(NH2)2) is prepared by reacting carbon (IV) oxide and ammonia.
(i) Write an equation for the reaction which occurs. (1 mark)

......................................................................................................................................................

(ii) 20 kilograms of urea was applied to a farm and 25 kilograms of ammonium nitrate
applied to another farm. Determine the farm enriched with nitrogen.
(C=12, N = 14, O=16, H =1) (4 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

(c) State and explain what would be observed when aqueous ammonia is added dropwise until in
excess to a solution of copper (II) chloride. (2 marks)

...............................................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................................

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4. (a) (i) State Le Chatelier’s principle. (1 mark)

.....................................................................................................................................................

(ii) Bromine water can be prepared by dissolving 1 cm3 of liquid bromine in

100 cm3of water. After shaking, the equilibrium below is established.

Br2 (aq) + H2O (l) OBr - (aq) +Br- (aq) +2H+ (aq)
(Yellow) (colourless)
State and explain the effect of adding sodium hydroxide to the above equilibrium
(2 marks)
.......................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................

(b) Colloidal sulphur may be formed by reacting sodium thiosulphate and dilute hydrochloric
acid shown in the equation below.

Na2S2O3(aq) +2HCl(aq) 2NaCl(aq) + S(s) +SO2(g) + H2O (l)

(i) State and explain the effect of increase in temperature on the rate of the reaction
above. (2 marks)

....................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................

(ii) Other than temperature name one factor that can alter the rate of the reaction in
b (i) (1 mark)

......................................................................................................................................................

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......................................................................................................................................................
.

(c) 2.50 grams of a calcium carbonate was reacted with excess 1.8 M hydrochloric acid. The
volume of carbon (IV) oxide evolved measured and recorded at 10 second intervals. The
results were recorded as shown in the table below.

Time (seconds) 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80

volume of gas ( cm3) 0 150 295 420 525 580 600 600 600

(i) (I) On the grid provided, plot a graph of volume (vertical axis) against time.
(3 marks)

(II) From your graph, determine the rate of reaction at 37th second.
(3 marks)

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..........................................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................................

5. (a) The table below shows the standard reduction potentials for four half cells. Study it and
answer the questions that follow.

Number Half -reaction E0volts

I Ag+ (aq) + 2ē Ag (s) + 0.80
II Cu2+(aq) + 2ē Cu (s) + 0.34
III Pb2+(aq) + 2ē Pb (s) - 0.13
IV Fe2+(aq)+ 2ē Fe (s) - 0.44

(i) Identify the strongest oxidizing agent (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Explain why it’s not advisable to store a solution of silver nitrate in a container made
of lead (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) In the space provided, draw a labeled diagram of the electrochemical cell that
would be obtained when half-cell of copper and iron are combined.
(3 marks)

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(iv) Calculate the E  of the electrochemical cell constructed in (iii) above. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) During the electrolysis of aqueous copper (II) sulphate using copper electrodes, a current
of 0.75 A was passed through the cell for 3 hours and 45 minutes.

(i) Write an ionic equation for the reaction that took place at the anode. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Determine the change in mass of the anode which occurred as a result of the
electrolysis process. (Cu=63.5 1 F = 96,500C) (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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6. The flow chart below shows the extraction of zinc from zinc ore(s). Study it and answer the
questions that follow
Gas Q Carbon (IV) oxide

Zinc Solid R Roaster

Roaster Calamine
blende

Oxygen
gas

Limestone Reduction
Chamber

Molten Zinc
(i) Give the formula of the ores;
I zinc blende (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

II Calamine (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Give the name of;

Solid R….……………………………………………………………………(1 mark)

Gas Q ……………………………………………………………………......(1 mark)

(iii) Write a chemical equation for the reaction that produces Zinc metal (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) What is the purpose of adding limestone in the reduction chamber? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(v) Give two uses of zinc metal other than galvanizing iron (2 marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(vi)
Name two other industries that can be established alongside the zinc extraction plant
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………….........................

(vii) State one way in which the extraction of zinc causes air pollution (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

7 (a) Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.

Dil. sulphuric (VI) acid Solution R and

Solid Q
Colourless gas S
Step I

3 drops of aqueous
Step II
sodium hydroxide

White precipitate T

Step III Excess aqueous

sodium hydroxide

Colourless solution U

(i) Identify

I Solid Q (1 mark)

........................................................................................................................................

II Colourless gas S (1 mark)

..........................................................................................................................................

(ii) Give the formula of the compound in solution U (1 mark)

...............................................................................................................................................

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...............................................................................................................................................

(iii) Write the ionic equation for the reaction in step II (1 mark)

...................................................................................................................................................

(iv) Give two uses of white precipitate T (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Calculate the number of sulphate ions present in 24.0 cm3 of 0.25 M aluminium sulphate
solution. (L = 6.0 × 1023) (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

233/1
CHEMISTRY
Theory
Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK

EXAM
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)
CHEMISTRY THEORY

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

• Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.

• Answer all questions in the spaces provided
• KNEC mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used for calculations.
• All workings must be clearly shown where necessary.
• Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain all the pages are printed as
indicated and no questions are missing.

For Examiners Use Only

Questions Maximum Score Students Score

1-28 80

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1. (a) What is radioactivity? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) The half-life of a radioisotope is 2.5 hours. If the initial radioactivity of the
radioisotope is 800 counts per minute, how long will it take for the count to fall to 75
counts per minute? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. (a) Complete the table below to:

● deduce the number of protons, electrons and neutrons in the magnesium atom
and copper ions shown.
● identify the atom or ion represented by the final row. (2 ½ marks)

(b) Give the meaning of the term cation. ( ½ mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Calcium reacts with water to form two products. A colourless gas Q and an alkaline
solution P.
(a) Name colourless gas Q. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give the ions responsible for making solution P alkaline. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Write the chemical equation for the reaction. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. (a) Give the meaning of the term enthalpy of formation. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Determine the enthalpy of the following reaction: (2 marks)
C2H4 + Cl2 → C2H4Cl2
Bond Bond energy (kJ/mol)
C-C 348
C=C 612
Cl – Cl 242
C – Cl 338
C–H 413
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5. Draw a set-up that can be used to prepare and collect nitrogen (IV) oxide in the
laboratory. (2 marks)

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6. (a) Explain the difference in boiling points between magnesium oxide and oxygen gas.
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give the meaning of the term electron affinity. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. (a) Explain why it is not advisable to use potassium sulphate as a salt bridge in an
electrochemical cell formed between the following half cells.
Pb(s) | Pb2+ (aq) Eθ = -0.13 V and Cu (s) | Cu2+ (aq) Eθ = +0.34 V (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Calculate the emf of the cell formed by combining the two half cells in (a) above.
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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8. The figure below shows the blast furnace for the extraction of iron.

(a) Give the name of the two substances coming from point F. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Write the equation for the reaction taking place at point B. ( 1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) The iron obtained from the blast furnace is impure. State how the impurities are removed
from the molten iron. (1 mark).
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. (a) Describe how sodium chloride can be prepared in the laboratory using direct synthesis
method. (2 marks)
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Write an equation for the thermal decomposition of silver nitrate. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. When sulphur is heated, it melts into an amber-coloured liquid. On further heating, the
liquid darkens and becomes viscous. Explain these observations. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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11. (a) The diagram below shows three methods of gas collection.

Which method of gas collection is most suitable for collecting dry chlorine gas? Explain.
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Why was the use of DDT as a pesticide banned? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) List two uses of hydrochloric acid. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. In a titration, a student added 25.0 cm3 of 0.200 mol / dm3 aqueous sodium hydroxide to a
conical flask. The student then added a few drops of methyl orange to the solution in the
conical flask. Dilute sulphuric (VI) acid is then added from a burette to the conical flask.
The volume of dilute sulphuric (VI) acid needed to neutralise the aqueous sodium
hydroxide was 20.0 cm3.
(a) What is the colour of methyl orange in aqueous sodium hydroxide? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Calculate the concentration of sulphuric (VI) acid in mol/dm3. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13. Determine the time it would take 300cm3 of oxygen to diffuse through a small aperture if
it takes 500cm3 of nitrogen (I) oxide 475 seconds to diffuse through the same aperture
under the same conditions of temperature and pressure. (N = 14, O = 16)
(3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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14. (a) Explain the ‘strike back’ phenomenon that occurs during the lighting of the Bunsen
burner. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What is the use of an aspirator in the laboratory? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. (a) What is the meaning of the term melting point? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Element X undergoes the following physical changes.

(i) Name each of the numbered physical changes. (2 marks)

1………………………………………………. 2………………………………….
3……………………………………………….. 4………………………………….
(ii) Element X is a group III metal. Write an equation for the reaction of element X and
oxygen gas. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. (a) State and explain the observation made when iron nails are left outside the laboratory
for two weeks during the rainy season. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give two uses of oxygen gas. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. The rate of reaction between a metal and an acid can be investigated using the apparatus
shown in the figure below.

A piece of zinc foil was added to 50 cm3 of hydrochloric acid, of concentration

2.0 mol/dm3. The acid was in excess. The hydrogen evolved was collected in the gas
syringe and its volume measured every minute.
(a) Sketch a graph of volume against time for the reaction above. Label it graph 1.

(2 marks)

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(b) On the same graph, sketch another graph that would be obtained if the experiment
was repeated using the same amounts of reagents and copper (II) sulphate crystals
added into the mixture. Label it graph 2. (1 mark)
18. (a) Suggest the structures and bonds of the following substances. (2 marks)
Substance Bonds Structure
Naphthalene
Copper
(b) Draw the dot (.) and cross (x) diagram to show bonding in tetrachloromethane.
(1 mark)

19. (a) Deduce the molecular formula of the alkanol whose molecular mass is 158. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Explain why the following alcohols are isomers. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Ethanol is oxidized by acidified potassium manganate (VII). Deduce the name and
write the structural formula of the organic product. (1 mark)
Name…………………………. Structure:

20. The diagram below shows the electrolysis of concentrated zinc (II) chloride solution.

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(a) Which letter in the diagram, R, S, T, or U represents the cathode? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Write the equation for the reaction that takes place at the anode. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) What is electrolysis? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. Study the diagram below and answer the following questions.

(a) Identify gas Q. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State and explain the observation made in the combustion tube. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(c) Write the equation for the reaction that takes place in the combustion tube. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. Water hardness is caused by dissolved minerals that contain calcium ions and magnesium
ions.
(a) Give another method of removing permanent water hardness apart from distillation.
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) 60 g of a saturated solution of salt W at 20oC was evaporated to dryness over a water
bath and yielded 24g of solid. Calculate the solubility of the salt at 20oC. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. Use the enthalpy of the following reactions to answer the questions that follow.
H2O (s) → H2O (l) ∆H1 = +6.02 kJ/mol
MgO (s) → MgO (l) ∆H2 = +77.4 kJ/mol
(a) What is the name given to ∆H1? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Explain the difference between ∆H1 and ∆H2. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
24. The Solvay process is used to manufacture sodium carbonate.
(a) Give two raw materials used in the Solvay process apart from brine. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Explain why potassium carbonate cannot be manufactured by simply replacing the
brine with potassium chloride in the Solvay process. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) How is carbon (IV) oxide used as a refrigerant? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. The following table shows the pH values of some solutions.

Solution pH value
A 2.1
B 4.5
C 13.5
D 7.0
(a) Name the indicator used to determine the pH values. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Which solution is likely to react with ethanoic acid? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) 1 cm of magnesium ribbon was placed in separate beakers containing 2M solution A and
2M solution B. State and explain the difference in the observations made. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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26. Study the scheme below and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Give the name of: (1 mark)

(i) Reagent A
……………………………………………………………………..
(ii) Process C
……………………………………………………………………..

(b) Write the equation for the reaction of 1 mole of B and 1 mole of chlorine gas. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Draw the structure of substance D. (1 mark)

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27. Describe how a mixture of silver chloride, magnesium chloride and iron (III) chloride can
be separated in the laboratory. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

This is the last printed page.

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..……..

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE………………………

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE………………….

565/2
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 2
Time: 21/2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)
BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 2
TIME: 21/2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

-Write your name and index number on the answer booklet provided.
-This paper consists of six questions.
-Answer any five questions.
-All questions carry equal marks.

For Examiners Use Only

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL
MARKS

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Instructions to the candidates.
Choose any five questions. All questions carry equal marks.

1. (a) Highlight five characteristics of an efficient tax system. (10mks)

(b) Differentiate between a public limited company and a public corporation. (10mks)

2. (a) Explain clearly the malpractices by traders against which consumers may need protection by the
government. (10mks)

(b) Explain clearly with the aid of a diagram the change in equilibrium as a result of a change in demand
of a commodity. (10mks)

3. (a) Discuss five benefits that a customer may get by using Automated Teller Machine (ATM) for
financial transactions. (8 mks)

(b) The following trial balance related to Kimani’s business as at 31st December 2012
DR(SHS) CR(SHS)
Stock on 1st January 2003 60,000
Purchases and sales 400,000 580,000
Returns 20,000 50,000
Debtors and Creditors 65,000 40,000
Premises 540,000
Machinery 200,000
Fixtures and fittings 100,000
Carriage outwards 8,000
Wages and salaries 30,000
Discounts 25,000 32,000
Commissions 16,000 14,000
Cash in hand 70,000
Capital 818,000
1,534,000 1,534,000

REQUIRED:
(a) Prepare a trading profit and loss account for the period ended 31st December 2012 and a balance
sheet as at that date if the closing stock was worth shs 70,000 (12 mks)

4. (a)Explain clearly the problems associated with expenditure approach method in measurement of
national incomes. (10mks)

(b) Outline five reasons why ethical practices is necessary in product promotion. (10mks)

5. (a) Jane,a petty cashier was given Sh ,2000 on 1st June 2005. During the month, she
made the following payments:
2005
June 2 Stationery Sh 100, staff tea Sh 80.
5 Telephone bill Sh 50, postage stamps Sh 100.
8 Travelling Sh 200, telephone Sh 100.
10 Stationery Sh 50, staff tea Sh 100.
15 Postage stamps Sh 50, travelling Sh 100.
20 Sundry expenses Sh 100.

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23 Stationery Sh 80, telephone Sh 40.
25 Travelling Sh 50, sundry expenses Sh 100.
28 Envelopes Sh 20, staff tea Sh 50.
30 Adhiambo, a creditor, was paid Sh 100.
Use the following analysis columns to prepare a petty cash book:
Stationery, Staff tea, Travelling. Telephone, Sundry expenses. Ledger accounts. (12 mks)

(b) Explain five demerits that a country may suffer when the government becomes a major investor
in business. (8 mks)

6. (a) Explain the role played by insurance industry in promoting the development of Kenyan economy.
(10mks)

(b) Explain clearly the tools of monetary policy used by the central bank to control inflation. (10mks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE………………

565/1
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)
BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

• Write your name and Admission Number in the spaces provided.

• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
For Examiner’s Use Only:

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1-25 100 MARKS

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1. State four characteristics of services. (4mks)
a)…………………………………………………………………………………………...

b)……………………………………………………………………………………………

c)…………………………………………………………………………………………...

d)………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. Outline four disadvantages of division of labour. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………..

b)………………………………………………………………………………………..

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)………………………………………………………………………………………...

3. Mention four advantages of using Automatic Vending Machines. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………...

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

c)……………………………………………………………………………………………

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………....

4. Give four benefits one gets from self-employment. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………….

b)……………………………………………………………………………………………

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

5. Outline four factors to consider when intending to buy office furniture. (4mks)
a)………………………………………………………………………………………..

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

c)……………………………………………………………………………………………

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d)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

6. Name the source document to which each of the following description relate. (4mks)
Description source document

(i) Issued by the seller to a buyer for cash paid

(ii)
Used for processing and authorizing payments

(iii) Sent to a credit buyer to demand payment

(iv) Used to correct undercharge

7. Outline four principles of co-operatives. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………….

b)………………………………………………………………………………………...

c)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

d)………………………………………………………………………………………..

8. Highlight four measures that the government puts in place to create conditions that will
be favorable for business development. (4mks)

a)……………………………………………………………………………………….

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………

c)………………………………………………………………………………………..

d)………………………………………………………………………………………..

9. State four advantages of transporting oil by pipeline rather than by road. (4mks)

a)…………………………………………………………………………………………

b)………………………………………………………………………………………….

c)…………………………………………………………………………………………

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d)………………………………………………………………………………………….

10. Outline four advantages of audio-visual communication. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………...

b)……………………………………………………………………………………...

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

11. Highlight four ways in which the production activities of firms in your country affect the
environment. (4mks)

a)…………………………………………………………………………………………....

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

12. Highlight four disadvantages of a private warehouse. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………...

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………

c)………………………………………………………………………………………..

d)………………………………………………………………………………………….

13. Ragati and Nzonge operates a business with a stock valued at ksh.350,000 and have
interests of 3/5 and 2/5 respectively. Ragati decided to insure 2/4 of the stock against fire.
Sometimes later fire occurred at their business premises and destroyed stock worth ksh.
250,000. Calculate the amount of compensation Ragati would get from the insurance
company. (4mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………..............................................

14. Outline four sources of monopoly power. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………………...

b)……………………………………………………………………………………………

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)………………………………………………………………………………………….

15. Name four sources of public finance. (4mks)

a)……………………………………………………………………………………….

b)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)………………………………………………………………………………………….

16. State four benefits that would accrue to a customer who borrows a loan from a non-bank
financial institution. (4mks)

a)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

b)………………………………………………………………………………………….

c)………………………………………………………………………………………….

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

17. Match each of the statements given below with the relevant type of capital. (4mks)

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Statement Type of capital

a. Resource invested into a business by the owner

b. Excess of current assets over current liabilities

c. Amount invested into the business by outsiders

d. Represents total finance in a firm

18. The following information was extracted from the books of farmers choice supermarket
on 31st Dec 2009
shs
Average stock 30,000
Closing stock 40,000
Purchases 336,000
Carriage inwards 2,000
Return outwards 18,000
Margin 1/6

Required. Calculate sales for the year . 4mks

……………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Outline four important characteristics of a general journal. (4mks)

a)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

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b)………………………………………………………………………………………….

c)…………………………………………………………………………………………...

d)………………………………………………………………………………………….

20. Apex traders provided you with the following

Margin 25%
Cost of sales 15,000
Opening stock 2,000
Closing stock 1,000
Operating expenses 2% of capital
Sales and capital are in the ratio of 1:4

Calculate :
a. Rate of stock turnover
b. Purchases
c. Return on capital

………………………………………………………………………………………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

21. Indicate the subsidiary ledger in which each of the following should be recorded. 4mks

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Account Subsidiary ledger

a. Return inwards

b. Bank

c. Drawings

d. Juma traders ( a debtor)

e. Discount received

f. Uchumi wholesalers (a supplier) …………………………………

22. Highlight four types of advertising. (4mks)

a)………………………………………………………………………………...

b)………………………………………………………………………………….

c)…………………………………………………………………………………….

d)……………………………………………………………………………………….

23. State four natural sources of energy in Kenya. (4mks)

a)……………………………………………………………………………………….

b)……………………………………………………………………………………….

c)……………………………………………………………………………………….

d)………………………………………………………………………………………..

24. The statement below described various types of goods. Identify the type of goods best
described by each statement. (4mks)

a. Owned by the government on behalf of its citizens.

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b. Goods that are capable of directly satisfying human want.

c. Goods that are used to make other goods.

d. Goods that get spoilt within a very short time.

25. Identify four reasons why many youths in urban centre are starting hawking businesses.
(4mks)
a)………………………………………………………………………………………….

b)………………………………………………………………………………………….

c)…………………………………………………………………………………………....

d)…………………………………………………………………………………………....

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BIOLOGY PRACTICAL CONFIDENTIAL
231/3
BIOLOGY
Practical
Paper 3
Time: 13/4 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

BIOLOGY PRACTICAL

CONFIDENTIAL.
In addition to the apparatus found in biology laboratory, each candidate should be provided
with

1. Ripe Yellow/purple passion fruit labeled specimen J.

2. Dry black jack fruit labeled K.
3. Fresh green peas/bean pod labeled specimen L.
4. Hand lens.
5. 3ml of DCPIP.
6. Dropper.
7. 50ml beaker.
8. Filter funnel.
9. Stirring rod.
10. One test tube.
11. Test tube rack.

NOTE:

THE PHOTOGRAPHS IN THE QUESTION PAPER MUST BE COLOURED.

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………..

231/3
BIOLOGY
Practical
Paper 3
Time: 13/4 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK

EXAM
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

BIOLOGY PRACTICAL

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Answer all questions in spaces provided
Examiner’s Use
QUESTIONS MAX.MARKS CAND.SCORE
1 9
2 13
3 18
TOTAL 40

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1. you are provided with specimens J, K and L.
a) (i) identify specimen J. (1mk)

(ii)Give a reason for your answer in a) (i) above. (1mk)

b) Using the scalpel provided, carefully make a cross section of specimen J.

i) name the type of placentation (1mk)

ii) extract juice form specimen J and test it for vitamin C. (3mks)

Food tested Procedure Observation Conclusion

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c) complete the table below using the specimens provided. (9mks)
specimen Agent of dispersal One adaptation of the specimen
J -

K -

L -

2. The photographs below represents leaves from different plants.use them to answer the
questions that follow.

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a) Each of the leaves A,B and C are modified to perform different functions. With a reason,
state the functions. (10mks)
LEAF FUNCTION REASON
A

b) State the type of evolution that may have led to the emergence of the different leaves
shown in leaf A, B and C. (1mk)

c) Name the type of evolution structure represented by the leaves above. (1mk)

d) Name two examples of such structures as named in (b) (ii) above in aves. (2mks)

3. Below is a photomicrograph of a plant cell. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

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a) (i) Label the parts labeled R, S and T.
(3mks)
R–
S–
T–
ii) Name the chemical compound that constitutes part labeled R above. (1mk)

b) State the function of part labeled

i) Q. (1mk)

ii) Nucleolus. (1mk)

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c) Below is an enlarged micrograph of organelle T.

i) What is the function of organelle T.? (1mk)

ii) What is the biological significance of having numerous parts U in organelle T.?
(1mk)

d) A student observed onion epidermal tissue using a microscope whose field of view was
____________mm in diameter as shown below. Calculate the approximate width of one
of the cell. (3mks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…………

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………………...

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………………...

231/2
BIOLOGY
Theory
Paper 2
Time: 2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

BIOLOGY
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

• Write your name and Index Number in the spaces provided above.
• This paper consists of two sections. Section A and section B.
• Answer ALL questions in section A in the spaces provided. In section B answer question 6 (compulsory) and either
question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided after question 8
• This paper consists of 10 Printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the papers are
printed as indicated and no questions are missing.
For Examiners use only.

Section Question Maximum score Candidates score

A 1 8
2 8
3 8
4 8
5 8
B 6 20
7 20
8 20
Total score 80

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1. Study the diagram below and use it to answer the questions that follow

(a) (i) Label parts labelled (2mks)

K–

L-

M-
(ii) Through which process is structure labeled K in (a) (i) above produced? (1mk)

(b)How is the cell labeled N adapted to perform its functions. (3mks)

c) Name the hormone that stimulates the production of cell labeled K.at puberty. (1mk)

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2. Bile and pancreatic juice are important secretions in animal nutrition.
(a) In which part of the digestive system do they exert their influence? (1mk)

(b)(i) For efficient digestion, which of the two secretions should be mixed with the chyme first?
(1mk

(ii) Explain your answer (4mks)

,
3. The table below shows the approximate distribution of blood groups in a sample of 100 people in a population.

Blood group Frequency Rhesus +ve Rhesus -ve

A 26 22 4

B 20 18 2

AB 4 3 1

O 50 42 8

(a) Calculate the percentage of Rhesus negative (Rh-ve) individuals in the population? (1mk)

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(b) Account for
(i) The large number of blood group O individuals in a population. (2mks)

(ii) The small number of individuals with blood group AB. (2mks)

(c) The diagram below represents a blood smear on a glass slide.

(i) State the importance of structure C being large numbers in the blood smear. (1mk)

(ii) Give a reason why structure C would be found in large numbers in high altitude than in low altitude.
(1mk)

(iii) Name the process by which structure A would engulf structure B. (1mk)

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4(a). Identify organs B and D in photograph T2 and state the class of organism from which they were obtained.
(4mks)

ORGAN IDENTITY CLASS

(b) State the common function of the organs identified in (a) above. (1mk)

(d) List the adaptations of D to its functions. (3mks)

(e) Using observable features only, state how B is adapted to its function (2mks)

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4. The set apparatus was assembled by a group of students to investigate some physiological process. Glucose
solution was boiled and oil added on top of it. The glucose solution was then allowed to cool before yeast was
added.

a) i) Give ONE aim of the experiment. (1mk)

ii) Explain observations expected after 24hrs. (2mks)

b) i) Why was the glucose solution boiled before adding the yeast suspension? (1mk)

ii) What was the importance of cooling the glucose solution before adding the yeast? ( 1mk)

(c) In another investigation, a bird was found to use 10 litres of oxygen to give a respiratory
quotient of 0.7 during period of flight.
i) Name the type of food that was being respired by the bird ( 1mk)

ii) Determine the amount of carbon (IV) oxide produced during the same flight. (2mk)

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5. Mr. Juma has sued Serenity Hospital on grounds that their child was wrongly identified such that they got the
wrong one. The child is blood group O. Mr. Juma is blood group AB while Mrs. Juma is heterozygous blood
group A.
(a) Work out the possible blood group of their offsprings. (4 marks)

(b) Is Mr. Juma justified in his claims? Explain. (2 mark)

c) State two blood disorders in humans that result from mutation. (2 marks)

6. SECTION B:
Answer question 6 (Compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided after question 8.
A Farmer wished to plant certain species of Erythrina trees on his farm. However, their seeds normally take
time to germinate after sowing. To overcome this problem, he put the seeds in hot water maintained at 50oC.
Batches of 20 seeds were removed at one minute intervals and then planted in trays containing moist soil. After
15 days, the number of seeds that germinated in each tray was counted.
The results obtained were as shown in the table below.

Batch order Time Germinated seeds Percentage of seeds

intervals(minutes) that Germinated.

1st 0 3

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2nd 1 3

3rd 2 8

4th 3 15

5th 4 18

6th 5 13

7th 6 10

8th 7 6

9th 8 2

10th 9 0

11th 10 0

a) Calculate the percentage germination rate for each batch and fill in the table. (5mks)

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b) Use your results to plot a graph showing percentage germination against the duration in which the seeds
were soaked in hot water. (6mks)

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c) From the graph derive the expected number of seeds that would germinate if soaked for 4.5 minutes.
(1mk)

d) Using the graph briefly explain the effect of hot water treatment on seed germination of Erythrina.
(5mks)

e) Explain why there was no germination of seeds soaked in hot water for nine to ten minutes.
(1mks)

f) Besides hot water treatment, suggest two other methods that can be used to speed up germination in
Erythrina. (2mks)

7. Explain the adaptations of parts of the ear in the outer and middle ear. (20 mks)
8. Describe how the kidney Nephron functions. (20 mks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…………

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SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………………...

231/1
BIOLOGY
Theory
Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)
BIOLOGY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS

Instructions to Candidates
• Write your name, admission number, class and signature in the spaces provided at the top of
the page.
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in this paper.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1-24 80

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1.Name three sites of gaseous exchange in frogs. (3mks)

2.a)What is organic evolution (1mk)

b) Distinguish between divergent and convergent evolution giving example in each case. (4mk)

3.State three applications of plant hormones in agriculture (3 marks)

4 (a) Give an equation to show that respiration involves oxidation of glucose (1mk)

(b) How is an energy rich molecule rebuilt after muscle contraction (2mks)

(c)apart from energy, name another end product of anaerobic respiration in animals(1mks)

5. Give the functions of the following ecological instruments (2mks)

(a) Seechi disc

(b) Photographic light meter

6.a) Which genetic disorder is caused by lack of a gene which causes production of Melanin. (1mk)

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7. List down two phenotypic characteristics that have been selected for the production of strains suitable for
modern agricultural purposes (2mks)

8.A plant was observed to have parallel venation and fibrous root system. Name.

(i) Subdivision of this plant. (1 mk)

(ii) Class to which the plant belongs. (1 mk)

9.Name the organism that;

(a) (i) causes malaria 1 mark)

(ii) Transmits malaria 1 mark)

(b) State two control measures for malaria (2 marks)

10. Explain two milestones in the evolution of man that have made him the most dominant species on earth.
(2marks)

11. 50 black mice and 50 white mice were released into an area inhibited by a pair of owls. After four
months 38 of the black mice and 9 of the white mice were recaptured.
a) How this observation would be explained. (2 marks)

b) Name the theory of evolution that support the results in (a) above. (1mark)

c) Name one vestigial structures in man. (1 marks)

12.State the functions of the following apparatus.

(i) Bait trap (1mk)

(ii) Pooter (1mk)

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13.a) Define the term ‘parthenocarpy’. (1mk)

;
(b)Name two plant growth hormones that promote parthenocarpy. (2mks)

14.What is the biological importance of the larval stage during metamorphosis (2mks)

15.a) State one structural and one functional difference between motor and sensory neurone. (2mks)
Structural

Functional

b)What name is given to the gap between the sensory neurone and intermediate
neurones. (1mk)

16.Name the type of response shown by: (2mks)

a)Sperms when they swim towards ovum.

(b) Euglena when they swim towards the source of light.

17.Give two reasons why the pressure of blood is greater in the arteries than in the veins in
mammals. (2 marks)

18.a) What is the importance of heartbeat in blood circulation? (1mk)

b) If the nerve supply to the heart of a mammal is severed, the rhythmic heart movement will still go
on and the heart continues to beat. Explain this observation. (1mk)

19. What happens when respiration exceeds photosynthesis in the guard cells of terrestrial plants? (3 mks)

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20.a) Name the hard body covering found in organisms of the phylum arthropoda. (1mk)

b)Give two uses of the structure mentioned in (a) above. (2mks)

21.Describe how the following conditions promotes cross pollination

(i) heterostyly ( 1 mark)

(ii) self sterility ( 1 mark)

22.Distinguish between plasmolysis and deplasmolysis as used in cell physiology( 3 marks)

23.Explain how surface area to volume ratio affect the rate of diffusion in living organisms ( 2 marks)

24.State two differences between the product of mitotic division and those meiotic division ( 2 marks)

mitosis meiosis

25. Explain why fresh water aquatic animals excrete nitrogenous waste inform of a ammonia ( 3 marks)

26.Alongside alimentary canal are enzyme that digest food into simpler absorbable forms. study the
illustration below to answer questions that follows

enzyme K enzyme L
protein peptide aminoacids

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(a) Identify enzyme K and its site of action in alimentary canal (2 marks)
Enzyme Site of action

(b) Identify enzyme L and state its pH under which it works best ( 2 marks)
Enzyme pH

27.(a) What makes young herbaceous plants remain upright (2 marks)

(b) Why should herbaceous plant remain upright ( 2marks)

28.(a) Name the main excretory product stored in the coffee berries (1mk)

b) What is the economic use of the products named in a (a) above ( 1 mark)

29.(a) state one advantages of asexual reproduction (1mk)

30.Define the term photolysis (1 marks)

31.Outline one functions of the femur bone (2 marks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..……

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE……………………..

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE…………………

443/2
AGRICULTURE
Paper 2
Time: 2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

Instructions to students
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided.
(c) This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C.
(d) Answer all questions in sections A and B.
(e) Answer any two questions in section C.
(f) All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
(h) This paper consists of 13pages.
(g) Candidate should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed asindicated and
that no questions are missing.
(i) Candidate should answer the questions in English.
j) The photographs must be coloured.
For Examiner’s Use Only

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

A 1 − 19 30

B 20− 23 20

20
C
20

TOTAL SCORE 90

SECTION A (30MARKS)

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Answer All the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. a) List two dairy goat breeds (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Give two advantages of keeping a Jersey cow instead of a Friesian. (1mk)
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2. Give two importance of keeping health records in a farm. (1mk)
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3. a) What is pica as used in livestock production. (½mk)
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b) State three importance of keeping livestock healthy. (1½mks)
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4. Name an intermediate host for each of the following parasites.
i) Tapeworm (Taenia solium) (½mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Liver Fluke (Fasciola hepatica) (½mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. a) Name the type of breeding system represented below. (½mk)
Ayrshire Sire x Boran Dam F1 Heifer x Hereford
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b) Outline two characteristics of livestock that are used in mass selection. (1mk)
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6. State four management practices that would ensure maximum harvest of fish from a fish pond.
(2mks)
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7. Distinguish between crutching and ringing as used in livestock production. (1mk)
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8. Give four reasons why young Lambs should be docked (2mks)
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9. a) State three disadvantages of natural incubation in poultry production (1½mks)
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b) Why is it necessary to supplement domestic poultry diet with grit? (½mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Name four properties of a good vaccine (2mks)
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11. State four factors considered when formulating a livestock ration. (2mks)
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12. Name two larval developmental stages of liver fluke that occur outside the intermediate host. (1mk)
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13. List four methods of preserving fish after harvesting. (2mks)
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14. Mention three ways that indigenous livestock farmers use to improve their cattle. (1½mks)
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15. Differentiate between

i) Gilt and Sow (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Marking gauge and mortise gauge. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. Outline three possible causes of damage to the hide of cattle when the animal is alive. (1½mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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17. Highlight three functions of ventilation in an animal house. (1½mks)
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18. State four factors that determine the power output in an animal. (2mks)
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SECTION B (20MARKS)
Answer All the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
19. The diagram below represents farm tools.

i) Identify the tools labelled A and B (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Give one use of each of the tools mentioned in (i) above (2mks)
A………………………………………………………………………………………………………
B………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Give the two maintenance practices which should be carried out on tool C (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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20. Study the illustration below and use it to answer the questions below.

A
D

C Urethra

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a) Label the parts A, B, C and D (2mks)
A………………………………………………………
B………………………………………………………
C…………………………………….….…………….
D………………………………………….………….
b) Give the functions of parts B and C (2mks)
B…………………………………………………….
C……………………………………………………..
c) Give the name of the part in the animal affected when the animal is attacked by brucellosis. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.

WATER
WATER
WATER

WATER

i) Name the structure illustrated above. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Why should structure be round and not rectangular or square shaped. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Describe the heat situation in the structure. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) Give one reason to support your answer in (iii) above. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
v) Why is saw dust not suitable for use as litter in the structure? (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

22. Below is a breeding cycle of a ewe in relation to the feeding regime accompanying it.

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Use it to answer the following questions.

TUPPING
(iii) (i)

WEANING LAMBING
a) Which aspects of nutrition are (ii) (3mks)
i) …………………………………………………………………………..
ii) …………………………………………………………………………
iii) ………………………………………………………………………..
b) Give two importance of (i) (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C (40MARKS)
Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided after question 26.
23. a) Mention ten signs of internal parasites attack in livestock. (10mks)
b) Explain the factors to consider when planning a farm layout. (10mks)
24. a) Describe ten maintenance practices carried out on a tractor (10mks)
b) Discuss the management of layers in a deep litter system. (10mks)
25. a)Describe five design requirement of a calf pen. (10mks)
b) Describe Milk Fever disease under the following sub headings.
i) Animals affected (2mks)
ii) Symptoms (5mks)
iii) Control and treatment (3mks)

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NAME:……………………………………………………… STREAM………………..…………

INDEX. NO.…………………………………………………... DATE…………………………...

SCHOOL…………………………………………………….. SIGNATURE……………………...

443/1
AGRICULTURE
Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours

SUKELLEMO JET JOINT MOCK EXAM

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education. (K.C.S.E)

Instructions to students

(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided.
(c) This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C.
(d) Answer all questions in sections A and B.
(e) Answer any two questions in section C.
(f) All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
(h) This paper consists of 13pages.
(g) Candidate should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed asindicated and
that no questions are missing.
(i) Candidate should answer the questions in English.
j) The photographs must be coloured.
For Examiner’s Use Only

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

A 1 − 19 30

B 20− 23 20

20
C
20

TOTAL SCORE 90

www.kenyaeducators.co.ke]
SECTION A (30MKS)
Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
1. State four ways by which plant nutrients may be lost from the soil. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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2. State two characteristics of a good root stock for grafting (1mk)
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3. Give three ways in which land consolidation help to promote sound farm management. (1½mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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4. State two methods of controlling stalk borer. (1mk)
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5. Mention two forms in which nitrogen is taken by plants. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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6. State four factors that should be considered when designing crop rotation programme. (2mks)
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7. State four advantages of drip irrigation (2mks)
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8. Give three reasons for forage conservation. (1½mks)
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9. Mention four aspects of rainfall that influence agriculture. (2mks)

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10. Name two field practices carried out to obtain optimum plant population in a crop field. (1mk)
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11. List four suitable sites for planting agro forestry trees (2mks)
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12 State four factors to consider when deciding type of irrigation to use in the farm. (2mks)
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13. List four benefits of packaging agricultural commodity (2mks)
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14. Outline four information contained in an invoice (2mks)
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15. State four ways of increasing soil fertility (2mks)
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16. Give four reasons for proper drying of grains before storage. (2mks)
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17. Name a chemical used to achieve the following drying water treatment (3mks)
a) Coagulation of solid particles
………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b) Softening of water
………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
c) Killing of pathogens.
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SECTION B
Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
18. The diagram below represents a method of crop propagation.

a) Identify the method (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b) State two uses of the adhesive tape in the practice. (2mks)
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c) Identify part labeled X (1mk)
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d) State four characteristics of part labeled X. (2mks)

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19. The diagram below represents a ground surface after a tertiary operation.

a) Identify the tertiary operation. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b) Give two types of crops that can be established on the structure above. (2mks)
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c) State three advantages of using above structure for growth of crops. (3mks)
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20. The diagram below illustrates a field management practice. Study it carefully and answer
the questions that follow:

a) i) Identify the field practice (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
ii) Name one type of crop trained using the above method. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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iii) Give two reasons for carrying out the practice. (2mks)
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21. a) A farmer is to apply compound fertilizer 20:30:10 on a plot measuring 5m x 4m at the rate of
200kg per hectare. Calculate the amount of fertilizer the farmer would require for the plot. (2mks)

b) What do the figures 30, and 10 in the fertilizer stand for (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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SECTION C (40MARKS)
Answer any two questions in this section.
22. a) Discuss the principle of cooperatives (10mks)
b) A farmer is considering to undertake production of either cotton or beans. Study the following
information about the two crops then answer the questions that follow.
Cotton
Yield per hectare 2500kg
Price Ksh. 10/= per kg
Labour requirement per hectare 100 man day
Cost of labour 25/= per man days
Cost of seeds 100/= per hectare
Cost of SSP fertilizer 2000/= per hectare
Cost of spraying 500/= per hectare
Cost of S.A fertilizer 1500/= per hectare
Beans
Yield per ha 2000kg
Price 12/= per kg
Labour requirement per ha. 15man days
Cost of labour 25/= per man day
Cost of seeds 1000/= per ha.
Cost of SSP fertilizer 1500 per ha.

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Cost of sprays 200/= per ha.
a) Calculate gross margin for each crop. From your calculations, identify the crop the farmer should
grow. (10mks)
23. a) Describe establishment and management of a pasture crop stand upto grazing time. (10mks)
b) Discuss harmful effects of weeds on crops. (8mks)
c) Classify Herbicides according to formulation. (2mks)
24. a) Explain cultural method used in controlling crop diseases. (10mks)
b) Describe the production of dry beans under the following sub-headings.
i) Weed control (3mks)
ii) Harvesting (3mks)
iii) Marketing (4mks)
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