neema

MEDICAL ENTRANCE PREPARATION

Set – 28 (Key B)
CEE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAM
2082
Date: 17th JESTHA 2082 Duration: 3 hrs
Time: 7:00 - 10:00 AM
neema medical entrance preparation CEE Model Entrance Exam
1. The dimension of the coefficient of viscosity is:
(a) ML2T–2 (b) ML2T–1 (c) ML–1T–1 (d) MLT
2. For the resultant of the two vectors to be maximum, what must be the angle between them?
(a) 0° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 180°
3. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the acceleration is:
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Zero (d) g
4. A body is initially at rest. It undergoes one-dimensional motion with constant acceleration. The power
delivered to it at time ‘t’ is proportional to:
1/2 3/2
(a) t (b) t (c) t (d) t2
5. A position-dependent force F = 7 – 2x + 3x2 newton acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and displaces it from
x = 0 to x = 5 m. The work done in joules is:
(a) 70 (b) 270 (c) 35 (d) 135
6. A particle is moving in a horizontal circle with constant speed. It has constant:
(a) Velocity (b) Acceleration (c) Kinetic energy (d) Displacement
7. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, each of the same mass and radius,
around their respective axes is:
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 1 : 2
8. If ve and vo represent the escape velocity and orbital velocity of a satellite corresponding to a circular orbit
of radius R, then:
(a) ve = v0 (b) 2 v0 = ve (c) ve = v0/ 2 (d) ve and v0 are related
9. If the length of simple pendulum, is increased by 300%, then time period will be increased by:
(a) 100% (b) 200% (c) 300% (d) 400%
10. What is the ratio of surface energy of 1 small drop and 1 large drop, if 1000 small drops combined to form 1
large drop?
(a) 100 : 1 (b) 1000 : 1 (c) 10 : 1 (d) 1 : 100
11. Two charged spheres separated at a distance R, exert a force F on each other. If they are immersed in a
liquid of dielectric constant 5 then what is the new force between them?
F 5
(a) (b) F (c) 5F (d)
5 F
12. Five electric dipoles are placed inside a shell. What will be the amount of electric flux associated with the
shell?
10q 5q
(a) 5q0 (b) (c) Zero (d)
o o
13. To reduce the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor, the space between the plates is:
(a) Filled with dielectric material (b) Reduced and area of the plates is increased
(c) Increased and area of the plates is decreased (d) Increased and area is increased relatively
14. When a sound wave of frequency 300 Hz passes through a medium the maximum displacement of a particle
of the medium is 0.1 cm. The maximum speed of the particle is equal to:
(a) 60  cm/sec (b) 30  cm/sec (c) 30 cm/sec (d) 60 cm/sec
15. If vibrations of a string are to be increased by a factor of two, then tension in the string must be made:
(a) Half (b) Twice (c) Four times (d) Eight times
16. At what speed should a source of sound move, so that stationary observer find the apparent frequency
equal to half of the original frequency?
v v
(a) (b) 2v (c) (d) v
2 4

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17. Drift velocity 'vd' varies with the intensity of electric field as per the relation:
1
(a) vd  E (b) vd  (c) vd = constant (d) vd  E2
E
18. Kirchhoff's first law i.e.,  = 0 at a junction is based on the law of conservation of:
(a) charge (b) energy (c) momentum (d) angular momentum
19. Two electric bulbs whose resistance are in the ratio of 1:2 are connected in series. The powers dissipated
in them have the ratio:
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:1 (d) 1:4
20. The magnetic field B in the solenoid having n turns per metre length and carrying current of i ampere is given by
0ni
(a) (b) 0ni (c) 40ni (d) ni
e
21. Two ions having masses in the ratio 1 : 1 and charges 1 : 2 are projected into a uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to the field with speeds in the ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of the radii of the circular paths along which
the two particles move is:
(a) 4: 3 (b) 2: 3 (c) 3: 1 (d) 1: 4
22. Susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance is:
(a) > 1 (b) <1 (c) 0 (d) 1
23. Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of:
(a) Charge (b) Momentum (c) Mass (d) Energy
24. A step-up transformer operates on a 230 V line and supplies a load of 2 amperes. The ratio of the primary
and secondary windings is 1 : 25. The current in the primary is:
(a) 15 A (b) 50 A (c) 25 A (d) 12.5 A
25. The phase angle between e.m.f. and current in LCR series ac circuit is:
(a) 0 to /2 (b) / 4 (c)  /2 (d) 
26. At what temperature the centigrade (Celsius) and Fahrenheit, readings are the same:
(a) – 40° (b) + 40° (c) 36.6° (d) – 37°
27. Water is used to cool radiators of engines, because:
(a) Of its lower density (b) It is easily available
(c) It is cheap (d) It has high specific heat
28. 100 gm of ice at 0°C is mixed with 100 g of water at 100°C. What will be the final temperature of the mixture?
(a) 10°C (b) 20°C (c) 30°C (d) 40°C
29. The root mean square velocity of a gas molecule of mass m at a given temperature is proportional to:
1
(a) m° (b) m (c) m (d)
m
30. Which of the following processes is reversible?
(a) Transfer of heat by radiation (b) Electrical heating of a nichrome wire
(c) Transfer of heat by conduction (d) Isothermal compression
31. Which of the following cylindrical rods will conduct most heat, when their ends are maintained at the same
steady temperature?
(a) Length 1 m; radius 1 cm (b) Length 2 m; radius 1 cm
(c) Length 2 m; radius 2 cm (d) Length 1 m; radius 2 cm
32. A light beam is being reflected by using two mirrors, as in a periscope used in submarines. If one of the
mirrors rotates by an angle , the reflected light will deviate from its original path by the angle:
(a) 2 (b) 0° (c)  (d) 4

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33. A person sees his virtual image by holding a mirror very close to the face. When he moves the mirror away
from his face the image becomes inverted. What type of mirror is he using?
(a) plane mirror (b) convex mirror (c) concave mirror (d) none of these
34. The refractive index of water with respect to air is 4/3 and the refractive index of glass with respect to air is
3/2. The refractive index of water with respect to glass is:
9 8 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2
8 9 2
35. Two lenses have focal lengths f1 and f2 and their dispersive powers are 1 and 2 respectively. They will
together form an achromatic combination if:
(a) 1f1 = 2f2 (b) 1f2 + 2f1 = 0 (c) 1 + f1 = 2 + f2 (d) 1 – f1 = 2 – f2
36. A rocket is going away from the earth at a speed 0.2c, where c = speed of light. It emits a signal of frequency
4 × 107 Hz. What will be the frequency observed by an observer on the earth?
(a) 4 × 106 Hz (b) 3.2 × 107 Hz (c) 3 × 106 Hz (d) 5 × 107 Hz
37. Through which character we can distinguish the light waves from sound waves?
(a) Interference (b) Refraction (c) Polarisation (d) Reflection
38. In the Millikan's experiment, the distance between two horizontal plates is 2.5 cm and the potential difference
applied is 250 V. The electric field between the plates will be:
(a) 900 V/m (b) 10000 V/m (c) 625 V/m (d) 6250 V/m
39. For the Bohr's first orbit of circumference 2r, the de-Broglie wavelength of revolving electron is:
1 1
(a) 2r (b) r (c) (d)
2r 4r
40. When light falls on a metal surface, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photo-electrons depends
upon:
(a) The time for which light falls on the metal (b) Frequency of the incident light
(c) Intensity of the incident light (d) Velocity of the incident light
41. The most penetrating radiation out of the following is:
(a) X-rays (b) -rays (c) -particles (d) -rays
42. The number of spectral lines in hydrogen atom is:
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 15 (d) Infinite
43. The process by which a heavy nucleus splits into light nuclei is known as:
(a) Fission (b) -decay (c) Fusion (d) Chain reaction
44. A nucleus decays by + emission followed by a gamma emission. If the atomic and mass numbers of the
parent nucleus are Z and A respectively, the corresponding numbers for the daughter nucleus are
respectively:
(a) Z – 1 and A – 1 (b) Z + 1 and A (c) Z – 1 and A (d) Z + 1 and A – 1
45. The majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor are:
(a) Electrons (b) Protons (c) Holes (d) Neutrons
46. In P-N junction, avalanche current flows in the circuit when biasing is:
(a) Forward (b) Reverse (c) Zero (d) Excess
47. A common emitter amplifier is designed with NPN transistor ( = 0.99). The input impedance is 1 K and
load is 10 K. The voltage gain will be:
(a) 9.9 (b) 99 (c) 990 (d) 9900
48. Which logic gate is represented by following diagram?

(a) AND (b) OR (c) NOR (d) XOR

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49. The proton is in the quark model composed of:
(a) udd (b) ddd (c) uuu (d) uud
50. A planet which is born sister of earth is:
(a) Mercury (b) Venus (c) Mars (d) Jupiter
51. How many molecules are there in 2 moles of CO2?
(a) 1.204 × 1024 (b) 12.044 × 1026 (c) 6.022 × 1023 (d) 3.011 × 1013
52. Which of the following is colligative property?
(a) Surface tension of solution (b) Viscosity of solution
(c) Osmotic pressure of solution (d) Density of solution
53. Which of the following acts as both oxidizing as well as reducing agent?
(a) Na2O (b) HNO3 (c) NaNO3 (d) NaNO2
54. What is the pH of a solution of 0.001M HNO3 at 25°C?
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 5
55. In radioactivity, half-life and mean life are respectively:
ln2 1 ln2  1 ln2 
(a) , (b) ,  (c) , (d) ,
   ln2   2
56. For an endothermic reaction, where H represents the enthalpy of the reaction in KJ/mol, the minimum
value for the activation energy will be:
(a) Less than H (b) Zero (c) More than H (d) Equal to H
57. The density of water is high as compared to ice due to:
(a) Dipole interaction (b) H-bonding (c) Ionic bonding (d) Covalent bonding
58. The solubility product of AgCl at 18°C is 1.8 × 10–10, if this solution has 4 × 10–3 mol/L of Ag+ ions, determine
the concentration of Cl– ion that would cause the precipitation of AgCl from the solution:
(a) 1.8 × 10–9 mol/L (b) 8.5 × 10–7 mol/L (c) 8.8 × 10–9 mol/L (d) 10–12 mol/L
59. The half-life of a reaction is 20min. The reaction will be completed after:
(a) 40 min (b) 20 min (c) 80 min (d) Indefinite time
60. A crystal lattice with alternate +ve and –ve ions has radius of 0.524. Its co-ordination number is:
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 12
61. Which of following solvents have higher solubility of KCl? (D = Dielectric constant value):
(a) C6H6 (D = 0) (b) (CH3)2CO (D = 0) (c) CH3OH (D = 32) (d) CCl4 (D = 0)
62. The correct order of number of unpaired electrons in the ions Cu 2+, Cr3+, Ni2+, Fe3+ is:
(a) Fe3+ > Cr3+ > Ni2+ > Cu2+ (b) Ni2+ > Cu2+ > Fe3+ > Cr3+
(c) Fe > Cr > Cu > Ni
3+ 3+ 2+ 2+ (d) Cr3+ > Fe3+ > Ni2+ > Cu2+
+ – +
63. The hybridization of atomic orbital of nitrogen in NO2 , NO3 , NH4 respectively is:
(a) sp, sp3 and sp2 (b) sp2, sp3 and sp (c) sp, sp2 and sp3 (d) sp2, sp and sp3
64. At what temperature, the volume of given mass of gas at constant pressure will be twice of its volume at
0°C?
(a) 100°C (b) 273°C (c) 373°C (d) 546°C
65. For the reaction, N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g). The degree of dissociation at equilibrium is 0.2 at 1 atm pressure. The
equilibrium constant, Kp will be:
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 4 6 8
66. The entropy of vaporization of water at 100°C, if molar heat of vaporization is 9710 cal mol–1, will be:
(a) 20 cal mol–1 k–1 (b) 26 cal mol–1 k–1 (c) 32 cal mol–1 k–1 (d) 16 cal mol–1 k–1
67. The reaction P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O ⎯→ 3NaH2PO2 + PH3 is an example of:
(a) Neutralization reaction (b) Double decomposition reaction
(c) Dismutation reaction (d) Pyrolytic reaction

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68. Given standard electrode potentials
Fe++ + 2e– ⎯→ Fe; E0 = – 0.440V
Fe3+ + 3e– ⎯→ Fe; E0 = – 0.036V
The standard electrode potential for:
Fe3+ + e– ⎯→ Fe2+ is
(a) – 0.476V (b) – 0.404V (c) + 0.404V (d) +0.771
69. Which of the following is a super conductor?
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic (c) Ferrimagnetic (d) Ferromagnetic
70. Zone refining process is used for:
(a) Concentration of ore (b) Reduction of ore (c) Purification of metal (d) Purification of ore
71. Which of the following substances is used in water purification?
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite (c) Fullerene (d) Activated carbon
72. Which of the following is most abundant organic waste product during paper manufacturing process?
(a) Methane (b) Hemicellulose (c) Lignin (d) Resins
3–
73. Boron is unable to form BF6 because of:
(a) High electronegativity of Boron (b) High electronegativity of fluorine
(c) Lack of d-orbitals in Boron (d) Less electronegativity between B and F
74. Freon is:
(a) CCl2F2 (b) CF4 (c) CClF3 (d) CCl3F4
75. Which of the following is the correct order of oxidizing strength (from strongest to weakest) among given
oxygen species?
2– – – 2– – 2– 2– –
(a) O2 > O3 > O2 > O2 (b) O2 > O2 > O3 > O2 (c) O3 > O2 > O2 > O2 (d) O3 > O2 > O2 > O2
76. Which of the following reacts violently with water, absorbs carbon and act as a drying agent?
(a) Na2CO3 (b) Alcohol (c) conc. H2SO4 (d) CaO
77. Liquor ammonia is:
(a) NH4OH (b) Liquified ammonia
(c) Concentration ammonia solution in water (d) A solution of NH3 in alcohol
78. Which halogen is most likely to form a stable compound with Xenon under normal conditions?
(a) Chlorine (b) Fluorine (c) Bromine (d) Iodine
79. If an element has electronic configuration [Ne] 3s 23p5, which among the following statement is correct
regarding its chemical activity?
(a) It tends to lose electrons and form cations easily (b) It is inert and form no compound
(c) It requires one electron to achieve noble gas configuration (d) It can neither gain nor lose electrons
80. When a lead storage battery discharges,
(a) SO2 is evolved (b) Lead sulphate is consumed
(c) Lead is formed (d) H2SO4 is consumed
81. Some fireworks on burning give green flame. Which of the following elements is likely to present?
(a) Na (b) K (c) Ba (d) Ca
82. The complex formed when Al2O3 is leached from bauxite using conc. NaOH solution is
(a) Na[Al(OH)4] (b) NaAl2O4 (c) Na2[Al(OH)3] (d) Na2AlO2
83. The IUPAC name of compound shown is:

(a) 1-ethynyl-1,4-methylcyclohex-3-ene (b) 1-ethenyl-4-methylcyclohex-3-ene

(c) 4-ethynyl-1-methylcyclohex-1-ene (d) 4-ethenyl-1-methylcyclohex-1-yne
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84. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by ethanol and dimethyl ether?
(a) Chain isomerism (b) Functional isomerism (c) Position isomerism (d) Metamerism
85. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) A triplet carbene is more stable than single carbene
+ +
(b) The carbocation, F3C – C is less stable than carbocation F3C
(c) Methyl carbanion is both isostructural and isoelectronic with ammonia
(d) A singlet carbene is paramagnetic species
86. The stability of the following resonating structures in decreasing order is:
– + +
CH2 = CH – Cl CH2 – CH = Cl CH2 – CH = Cl
(I) (II) (III)
(a) I > II > III (b) II > III > I (c) I > III > II (d) III > II > I
87. The compounds formed at anode in the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of potassium acetate, are:
(a) C2H6, CO2 (b) C2H4, CO2 (c) CH4, H2 (d) CH4, CO2
88. A hydrocarbon ‘X’ adds on one mole of hydrogen to give another hydrocarbon and decolourises bromine
water. ‘X’ reacts with KMnO4 in presence of acids to give two moles of the same carboxylic acid. The
structure of X is:
(a) CH2 = CHCH2CH2CH3 (b) CH3CH2CH2CH = CHCH3
(c) CH3CH2CH = CHCH2CH3 (d) CH3CH = CHCH2CH2CH3
89. Which solution is used for the separation of a mixture of phenol and aromatic carboxylic acid?
(a) NaOH (b) Na2CO3 (c) CaO (d) NaHCO3
90. Carboxylic acid has higher boiling point than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable
molecular mass. It is due to their:
(a) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(b) Formation of carboxylate ion
(c) More extensive association of carboxylic acid via Van der Waals force of attraction
(d) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
91. Which compound can exist in a dipolar (Zwitter ion) structure?
(a) C6H5CH2CH(N = CH2)COOH (b) (CH3)2CHCH(NH2)COOH
(c) C6H5CONHCH2COOH (d) HOOCCH2CH2COCOOH
92. Consider the following reaction,
PBr3 Alc. KOH i. H2SO4 room temperature
Ethanol ⎯⎯→ X ⎯⎯⎯→ Y ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Z. What is compound Z?
ii. H2O heat
(a) CH3CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3 (b) CH3 – CH2 – O – SO3H (c) CH3CH2OH (d) CH2 = CH2
93. Salicylaldehyde can be prepared from phenol by:
(a) Schotten-Baumann reaction (b) Kolbe’s reaction
(c) Perkin reaction (d) Reimer Tiemann reaction
94. The well-known anti-pyretic 2-acetoxybenzoic acid is obtained when:
(a) Salicylic acid is treated with phenol in the presence of POCl3
(b) Salicylic acid is treated with acetic anhydride in the presence of few drops of conc. H2SO4
(c) Phenol is treated with methyl alcohol in the presence of H2SO4
(d) Phenol on hydrolysis in acidic medium
95. Which of the following produces chloroform on treatment with aqueous NaOH?
(a) Carboxylic acid (b) Chloropicrin (c) Chloral (d) Chloromethane
96. Among the following, the strongest base is:
(a) 2,4,6-trinitroaniline (b) Aniline (c) 2,4,6-trimethylaniline (d) N,N-dimethylaniline

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97. Bakelite is a polymer of:
(a) HCHO and acetic acid (b) HCHO and phenol (c) C6H5OH and Phenol (d) CH3COOH and benzene
98. Tranquillizers are substances used for the treatment of:
(a) Cancer (b) Mental disease (c) Physical disorder (d) Blood infection
99. Denaturation of proteins:
(a) Disrupts the 1°, 2° or 3° structure of proteins (b) Disrupts 2° and 3° structures only
(c) Disrupts 1°, 2°, 3° and even quaternary structure of proteins (d) Will not affect their original biological activity
100. Tincture of iodine is:
(a) 2-7% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture (b) A mixture of iodine in chloroxylenol
(c) A mixture of 0.2% phenol and 2-3% iodine in water (d) 2-3% solution of iodine in potassium iodide
101. In unicellular organisms like Amoeba, all life functions including respiration, nutrition and excretion are
carried out by different parts of the single cell. Excretion, particularly the removal of nitrogenous waste like
ammonia, occurs by diffusion. In Amoeba, this take place through:
(a) Contractile vacuole (b) Food vacuole (c) Plasmalemma (d) Pseudopodium
102. One common form of asexual reproduction in sponges involve the formation of a bud on the external surface
of parent sponge, which may later detach to form a new individual. This process where buds are formed
externally, is referred to as:
(a) Gemmation (b) Gemmulation (c) Regeneration (d) Fragmentation
103. Hydra exhibits a tubular body structure with specialized regions adapted for various functions. At the aboral
end of the body, Hydra possess a structure that help it attach firmly to substrates like rocks or aquatic
plants. What is this structure called in Hydra?
(a) Tentacle (b) Hypostome (c) Nematocysts (d) Basal disc
104. Among the classes of Platyhelminthes, class turbellaria includes mostly free-living aquatic or moist
terrestrial flatworms, which differ from their parasitic relatives in both structure and function. One of the
distinguishing characteristics features of turbellarians is:
(a) Presence of flame cells (b) Presence of rhabditids
(c) Body covered with cuticle (d) Absence of digestive system
105. The excretory system of Ascaris consists of two longitudinal excretory canals that remove nitrogenous
waste from the body. These canals open to exterior through a small excretory pore. Knowing the external
and internal body organization of Ascaris, where does this excretory pore located?
(a) At the posterior end of the body (b) Mid-dorsally above the mouth
(c) Mid-ventrally behind the mouth (d) On the ventral surface of the cloacal aperture
106. The phylum Mollusca include a wide variety of marine and terrestrial organisms, most of which posses a
soft body enclosed in a calcareous shell. One molluscs, Dentalium belongs to class scaphpoda, which is
commonly called as:
(a) Shankha (b) Elephant tusk shell (c) Garden slug (d) Sea hare
107. One of the characteristic feature that distinguishes echinoderms from other invertebrate is the presence of
an internal skeleton, also known as endoskeleton, which is primary composed of:
(a) Chitinous plates (b) Siliceous spicules
(c) Calcareous ossicles (d) Cartilage and collogen fibers
108. In aquatic vertebrates, buoyancy regulation is a critical function that allows animals to maintain their
position at different depth without expending excessive energy which is done by the help of air bladder,
this buoyancy regulation characteristics found in:
(a) Cartilaginous fishes (b) Bony fishes (c) Jawless fishes (d) Amphibians
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109. For centuries, people believed in the theory of spontaneous generation. However, a pivotal experiment
conducted by a scientist demonstrated that maggots appear on meat only when flies are allowed to lay eggs
on it. This experiment disproved the idea of spontaneous generation. Which scientist conducted this rotten
meat experiment?
(a) Francesco Redi (b) Louis Pasteur (c) Leeuwen hoek (d) Spallanzani
110. The early atmosphere of primitive earth was drastically different from the present day atmosphere known
as ‘reducing atmosphere’. This atmosphere played a crucial role in origin of life, as proposed by various
scientist including Oparin and Haldane which was composed of:
(a) Nitrogen, methane, ammonia and oxygen (b) Methane, ammonia, oxygen and argon
(c) Oxygen, ozone, nitrogen and carbon dioxide (d) Methane, ammonia, hydrogen and nitrogen
111. The principle that individuals best adapted to their environment are most likely to survive and reproduce
was termed as “survival of the fittest” by Herber spencer while Darwin gave it another name called:
(a) Organic evolution (b) Natural selection (c) Struggle for existence (d) Use and discuss of organ
112. One of the key milestones in human evolution was the development of the ability to walk upright, known as
bipedalism. Which of the following early human ancestor is most closely associated with the first
appearance of this ability?
(a) Homo habilis (b) Neanderthal man (c) Australopithecus (d) Cro-Magnon man
113. Glandular epithelium consists of specialized epithelial cells adapted for secretion. Based on their mode of
secretion, the sebaceous gland which secretes an oily substance known as sebum that helps in lubricating
and protecting the skin and hair, is classified as:
(a) Holocrine secretion (b) Apocrine secretion (c) Mesocrine secretion (d) Epicrine secretion
114. The extracellular matrix of cartilage is firm and resilient and secreted by specialized cells known as
chondrocytes. These chondrocytes do not lie freely in the matrix but are located within small cavities. These
cavities are called:
(a) Sarcomeres (b) Osteons (c) Lacunae (d) Canaliculi
115. Haemoglobin, apart from being the oxygen – carrying pigment of RBCs, also plays a vital role in maintaining
the acid – base balance of the blood by acting as a buffer. The ability of hemoglobin to act as a buffer is
largely due to the presence of:
(a) Glycine (b) Arginine (c) Glutamine (d) Histidine
116. Cardiac muscles are unique as they exhibit characteristics of both skeletal and smooth muscles. These
muscles are exclusively found in the walls of heart and are responsible for rhythmic contractions that pump
blood throughout the body. What is the nature of these muscle fibers specially found in heart?
(a) Non-straited voluntary fibers (b) Straited voluntary fibers
(c) Straited syncytial involuntary fibers (d) Non-straited syncytial voluntary fibers
117. In the upper lip of human beings, there is a distinct vertical groove or depression located on the midline
which runs from the nasal septum to the center of the upper lip. What is the anatomical term used to describe
this depression?
(a) Vibrissae (b) Labial commissure (c) Frenulum (d) Philtrum
118. Digestion in humans involves both mechanical and chemical process. Mechanical digestion refers to the
physical breakdown and mixing of food, which begin in the mouth and normally continue up to:
(a) Small intestine (b) Esophagus (c) Stomach (d) Large intestine
119. During certain life-threatening situations like choking or airway obstruction, a surgical procedure called
tracheostomy may be performed to establish an emergency airway. This procedure involves a specific
cartilage of larynx, which acts as the landmark for creating an emergency airway. The cartilage involving in
this process is:
(a) Thyroid cartilage (b) Cricoid cartilage (c) Arytenoid cartilage (d) Epiglottis
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120. The right atrium is the thin walled that shows regional differentiation in the internal surface. The posterior
wall of the right atrium is smooth, while the anterior wall appears rough due to the presence of muscular
ridge known as musculi pectinate and these both region are separated by the:
(a) Fossa ovalis (b) Interatrial septum (c) Eustachian flab (d) Crista terminalis
121. The myocardium receives its blood supply primarily through a network of arteries that branch directly from
the ascending aorta. These arteries ensure the delivery of oxygen and nutrients essential for the heart’s
continuous activity. The arteries which is primarily responsible for supplying blood to the heart is known
as:
(a) Brachiocephalic artery (b) Subclavian artery (c) Coronary artery (d) Pulmonary artery
122. The human brain contains specialized regions responsible for various aspects of language processing
including understanding and producing speech. One such region is named as Wernicke’s area, also called
speech understanding or sensory speech area which is present in:
(a) Frontal lobe (b) Temporal lobe (c) Parietal lobe (d) Occipital lobe
123. Amphibians like frogs possess a single ear ossicles called columella auris, plays a crucial role in
transmitting sound vibrations from the tympanum to the inner ear. As vertebrates evolved into higher
animals, this structure underwent further specialization and given the another name, called:
(a) Incus (b) Malleus (c) Stapes (d) Tympanic membrane
124. In human females, the ovary contains numerous primitive follicles known as primordial follicles. During
each menstrual cycle a group of primordial follicles begin to mature but only one reaches at fully maturity
and gets ovulated. These ovulated follicles contain ovum and arrested at the stage of:
(a) Prophase – I (b) Metaphase – II (c) Anaphase - I (d) Secretory stage
125. During the maturation of sperm cells in the male reproductive system, a specialized cytoplasmic structure
forms around the posterior part of the nucleus and mitochondria. What is this transient, microtubule based
cytoplasmic structure around the mitochondria called?
(a) Axoneme (b) Nebenkern sheath (c) Mitochondrial sheath (d) Manchette
126. During human embryonic development, the three primary germ layers are formed during a crucial process
that reorganizes the inner cell mass of the blastocyst. These layers later give rise to all tissues and organs
of the body. What is the name of this process?
(a) Cleavage (b) Gastrulation (c) Morulation (d) Neurulation
127. In human anatomy, the kidneys are vital excretory organs responsible for filtering blood, removing
metabolic wastes, maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance. Anatomically, they are located in the:
(a) Cervical region (b) Pelvic region (c) Thoracolumbar region (d) Thoracic region
128. The human respiratory system is susceptible to various infections and non-infectious diseases. One such
infectious disease is caused by a bacterial pathogen which primarily affects the lungs. What is this disease
that primarily affects lungs?
(a) Hepatitis B (b) Tuberculosis (c) Typhoid (d) Nephritis
129. Tobacco smoke contains many harmful substances but one particular chemical act as a stimulant and is
responsible for the addictive properties of tobacco. Among the given, which one is the stimulants and
addictive component found in tobacco?
(a) Nicotine (b) Tar (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Ammonia
130. For an effective humoral immune response, B-cells often require additional signals to become fully activated
and produce large amounts of antibodies. Based on this, by the help of which cells, B-cells produce more
antibodies?
(a) CD2 + T-cells (b) CD4 + T-cells (c) Macrophages (d) Natural killer cells
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131. Frogs are amphibian with distinctive adaptations that enable them to survive in both aquatic and terrestrial
habitats. Which of the following organ helps frog to maintain body balance and detecting sound vibration?
(a) Nictitating membrane (b) Tympanum (c) Vocal sac (d) Peritoneal cavity
132. The tongue of frog is large, muscular, sticky, bifid at its tip. It is attached at the front of the lower jaw and
can be rapidly flicked out to capture food. This darting movement of the tongue is quick, accurate and
essential for survival which mainly occur due to presence of:
(a) Mandibular muscles (b) Vocal cords muscles
(c) Protractor and abdominal muscles (d) Protractor and retractor muscles
133. The brain of frog is divided into different forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain. For effective communication
and coordination between these parts, specific structures serve as connecting pathways. The cerebral
hemispheres, part of the forebrain are connected to hind brain through the:
(a) Corpora bigernina (b) Iter (c) Crura cerebri (d) Corpus striatum
134. Which of the following structure is located on the first segment of the earthworm and serves as a sensory
function?
(a) Prostomium (b) Peristomium (c) Clitellum (d) Setae
135. The earthworm’s body wall plays an important role in locomotion, protection and respiration. It is made up
of several muscle layers that aid in movement by changing the worm’s body shape. The muscle layer in
earthworm’s body wall which is responsible for shortening the body during movement is:
(a) Circular muscles (b) Transverse muscles (c) Longitudinal muscles (d) Diagonal muscles
136. Among the different types of nephridia found in earthworm, pharyngeal nephridia are located near the
pharynx and have specific features that distinguish them from other types of nephridia. Which of the
following feature is correct for pharyngeal nephridia?
(a) They are without a nephrostome (b) They open directly into intestine
(c) They possess well-develop nephrostome (d) They are present in the posterior region
137. Plasmodium is a protozoan parasite responsible for causing malaria in humans. The critical stages of
Plasmodium lifecycle in the human host is the invasion of red blood cells leading to typical symptoms of
malaria, which is caused by:
(a) Ookinete (b) Sporozoite (c) Gametocyte (d) Merozoite
138. Which Plasmodium species is known to cause relapses of malaria due to dormant hypnozoites in the liver?
(a) Plasmodium falciparum (b) Plasmodium vivax (c) Plasmodium malariae (d) Plasmodium knowlesi
139. Fishes display various types of migratory behavior. While many species migrate long distance specifically
for breeding, some fish show migrational behavior not the purpose of breeding, such as:
(a) Gobies fishes (b) Salmons (c) Eels (d) Carp and trouts
140. Different animals have evolved various modes of locomotion based on their habitat and survival needs.
Animals that are specially adapted for running are termed as:
(a) Scansorial (b) Fossorial (c) Cursorial (d) Arboreal
141. H.J. Muller is considered the father of actinobiology because he was the first to produce induced mutations
in which organism using X-rays?
(a) Drosophila (fruit fly) (b) E. coli
(c) Arabidopsis (d) Pisum sativum (pea plant)
142. During the cell cycle, cells undergo a series of phases in preparation for division. Which of the following
phases is specifically responsible for preparing the cell for the actual process of cell division?
(a) M phase (b) G1 phase (c) S phase (d) G2 phase

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143. Amitosis is a simple form of cell division that occurs mainly in unicellular organisms and some specialized
animal tissues. Unlike mitosis or meiosis, amitosis does not follow a structured sequence of stages. In this
type of division, the process completes without the formation of which important cellular structure?
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Nucleus (c) Spindle fibers (d) Cell membrane
144. During meiosis, the movement of chiasmata occurs from the centromere toward the telomere in a
coordinated, zipper-like fashion. What is this movement called?
(a) Synapsis (b) Crossing over (c) Terminalization (d) Disjunction
145. Who invented the electron microscope, a powerful instrument that uses a beam of electrons to achieve
much higher magnification than a light microscope?
(a) Knoll and Ruska (b) Robert Hooke (c) Janssen (d) knoll and hooke
146. Yeast is widely used in biotechnology and nutrition due to its valuable components. Which of the following
is an important nutrient that yeast is a good source of?
(a) Sugar (b) Protein (c) Riboflavin (d) Haemoglobin
147. Menthol and camphor are commonly used in medicinal and cosmetic products. They are examples of which
of the following?
(a) Proteins (b) Alkaloids (c) Terpenoids (d) Steroids
148. The two strands of a DNA molecule run in opposite directions, giving it an antiparallel structure. Which type
of bond is primarily responsible for maintaining this antiparallel nature of DNA?
(a) Ionic bond (b) Phosphodiester bond (c) Hydrogen bond (d) Peptide bond
149. In genetics, mutations can occur at various levels. What is the smallest segment of a gene that can undergo
mutation?
(a) Recon (b) Cistron (c) Codon (d) Muton
150. A webbed neck is a common physical characteristic seen in individuals with certain chromosomal
disorders. In which of the following syndromes is a webbed neck typically found?
(a) XXY (b) XYY (c) XO (d) OO
151. Genes are the fundamental units of heredity that carry the information for traits passed down from parents
to offspring. They play a key role in cellular processes. Which of the following substances are genes
primarily responsible for synthesizing?
(a) Protein (b) Chromosome (c) DNA (d) Allele
152. Which of the following is a nonsense codon, also known as a chain termination codon?
(a) AUG (b) UAA (c) GUG (d) ACG
153. In the lysogenic cycle, the viral (phage) nucleic acid gets incorporated into the host DNA and may remain
silent for many generations, being replicated only as the host replicates its own DNA. Such inactive phages
are called:
(a) Temperate phage (b) Prophage (c) Provirus (d) All
154. Sphaeroplast is the protoplast obtained from which type of bacteria, in which a layer of lipopolysaccharides
is still left outside the cell membrane?
(a) Gram-positive (b) Gram-negative (c) Acid-fast (d) Mycoplasma
155. Which one is commonly known as ‘budding yeast’?
(a) Saccharomyces (b) Schizosaccharomyces (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
156. The algae that require a small amount of organic compounds like vitamins from external sources but are
otherwise photosynthetic are called:
(a) Auxotrophic (b) Autotrophic (c) Heterotrophic (d) Mixotrophic

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157. In the moss Funaria, the male and female sex organs are produced on different branches of the same plant.
The male reproductive organs (antheridia) are located on the main axis, while the female reproductive
organs (archegonia) are found on the lateral branches. A moss exhibiting this kind of reproductive structure
is referred to as:
(a) Acrocarpus moss (b) Pleuricarpus moss (c) Apocarpous moss (d) Syncarpus moss
158. Azolla, a small aquatic fern, forms a symbiotic relationship with cyanobacteria. This relationship is
beneficial in waterlogged rice fields, where Azolla is often used as green manure. When decomposed, Azolla
provides essential nutrients to the soil. Specifically, it supplies ______ to the plants.
(a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorus (c) Potassium (d) Sulfur
159. Cycas is referred to as a living fossil because:
(a) Its fossils are found in living condition (b) A large number of fossils are recorded.
(c) All of its allied plants are now found as fossils (d) It becomes fossilized at the end of its life.
160. If the filaments of stamens are fused into a single group, the condition is called:
(a) Monandrous (b) Monadelphous (c) Polyadelphous (d) Polyandrous
161. Which of the following plants exhibits diadelphous stamens, a condition in which the filaments are united
into two groups?
(a) China rose (b) Zinnia (c) Datura (d) Pea
162. Which of the following monocotyledonous plant families is characterized by distichous (two-ranked)
sheathing leaves with a distinct ligule at the junction of the leaf blade and sheath?
(a) Musaceae (b) Zingiberceae (c) Cannaceae (d) Morantaceae
163. In which of the following plant families is a replum said to be present in the ovary?
(a) Graminae (b) Compositae (c) Solanaceae (d) Cruciferae
164. A permanent loss from a population can occur due to various factors. Which of the following is most likely
to result in a permanent reduction in population size?
(a) Immigration (b) Emigration (c) Migration (d) All of the above
165. Which of the following is considered the most stable ecosystem, exhibiting high resilience and long-term
ecological balance?
(a) Desert (b) Ocean (c) Mountain (d) Forest
166. In a pond ecosystem, the term benthos refers to:
(a) Epineuston (b) Periphyton
(c) Zooplankton (d) Primary consumers in the depth of a pond
167. Acid rain is a form of precipitation containing harmful acids like sulfuric and nitric acid. It primarily causes
which of the following environmental issues?
(a) Stone leprosy (b) Water logging (c) Skin cancer (d) Ozone hole
168. Wildlife faces the greatest threat of destruction under which of the following conditions?
(a) There is lack of proper care (b) Mass scale hunting for foreign trade
(c) Natural habitat is destroyed (d) Natural calamity
169. Which of the following plant tissues is primarily responsible for the translocation of food materials,
especially sugars, throughout the plant?
(a) Parenchyma (b) Sieve tube (c) Vessels Starch sugar (d) Fibers
170. The starch–sugar conversion hypothesis explaining the mechanism of stomatal opening was proposed by:
(a) Emmerson (b) Sachs (c) Sayre and steward (d) Levitt
171. What is the name of the process in which green plants synthesize carbohydrates (like glucose) using carbon
dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight?
(a) Respiration (b) Photosynthesis (c) Transpiration (d) Absorption

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172. What is the chemical formula of chlorophyll-a, the primary pigment involved in photosynthesis in green
plants?
(a) C55H₇₂O₅N₄Mg (b) C₅₅H₇₀O₆N₄Mg (c) C55 H74O6N4Mg (d) C55H72O6N4Mg
173. Respiration is the process by which plant cells break down glucose to release energy. At what time do all
living cells in a plant perform respiration?
(a) At all times (b) During day (c) During night (d) In the morning
174. Which of the following plant hormones can substitute for the vernalization process in some plant species,
thereby inducing flowering without exposure to cold temperatures?
(a) Cytokinins (b) Auxins (c) Ethylene (d) Gibberellin
175. What is the term for the process of cutting, scratching, or otherwise weakening the seed coat to facilitate
the uptake of water and oxygen during germination?
(a) Scarification (b) Dormancy (c) Senescence (d) Culture
176. During the development of an ovule, the position and surrounding tissue of the megaspore mother cell (also
known as the sporogenous cell) can vary. In certain ovules, the megaspore mother cell is located just
beneath the epidermis (hypodermal), and the surrounding nuclear tissue. it is very thin and typically
consisting of a single layer of cells. What type of ovule is described by this condition?
(a) Crassinucellate (b) Tenuinucellate (c) Amphitropous (d) Circinotropous
177. The embryo of a dicotyledonous seed typically consists of various parts, each with specific functions
related to early plant development. However, one of the following is not a structural part of the dicot embryo
itself. Which one of the following is not a part of the dicotyledonous embryo?
(a) Cotyledons (b) Hypocotyl (c) Tigellum (d) Root cap
178. In tissue culture and microbiology, the process involves transferring a portion of a growing culture into a
fresh medium to continue or expand the growth of the organism or cells.What is this process called?
(a) Inoculation (b) Sub-culturing (c) Multiple culture (d) Regeneration
179. In recombinant DNA technology, once a foreign DNA fragment is isolated, it is inserted into another DNA
molecule that can carry and replicate the foreign gene inside a host organism.What is this carrier DNA
molecule commonly called?
(a) DNA vector (b) RNA vector (c) Protein vector (d) Cloning vector
180. Alcoholic fermentation is a biological process in which sugars such as glucose are converted into ethanol
and carbon dioxide. This process is commonly utilized by yeast and involves specific enzymes. Which of
the following enzymes is directly responsible for carrying out alcoholic fermentation?
(a) Zymase (b) Maltase (c) Invertase (d) Amylase
181. Selective the best alternative in the place of the question mark(?).
20 : 11 :: 102 :?
(a) 49 (b) 52 (c) 61 (d) 98
182. Which one of the following will replace the question mark?
5 4 3
2 3 4
5 4 5
24 ? 38
(a) 19 (b) 21 (c) 23 (d) 25
183. Which one of the following will replace the question mark in the series?
2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 8, ?
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 7 (d) 8

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184. Which one of the following Venn-diagram shows the best relation between them: Yak, Zebra, Deer

(a) (b) (c) (d)

185. In a certain code, PAPER is written as SCTGW. How is MOTHER written in that code?
(a) ORVLGW (b) PQVJGT (c) PQXJJT (d) PQXKJV
186. A(c)traditional analog clock (d)has an hour hand and a minute hand that both move smoothly around the clock
face. what is the exact angle between the hour hand and the minute hand at 3:00?
(a) 90° (b) 180° (c) 45° (d) 60°
187. A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half of the number of men. In city Y, 10 men
leave the bus and five women enter into it. Now, the number of men and women is equal. In the beginning,
how many passengers entered the bus?
(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 36 (d) 45
188. In how many years will Rs. 2000 amounts to Rs. 2420 at 10% per annum compound interest?
1 1
(a) 3 years (b) 2 years (c) 2 years (d) 1 years
2 2
189. The sum of the present ages of Subash and his son is 60 years. Six years ago, Subash’s age was five times
the age of his son. After 6 years, the son's age will be:
(a) 12 years (b) 14 years (c) 18 years (d) 20 years
190. A can do a work in 4 days, B in 5 days and C in 10 days. Find the time taken by A, B and C to do the work
together.
1 9 3 5
(a) 11 days (b) 1 days (c) 1 days (d) 3 days
9 11 20 2
191. If the price of a book is first decreased by 25% and then increased by 20%, then the net change in the price
will be:
(a) No change (b) 5% increase (c) 5% decrease (d) 10% decrease
192. Find the three positive numbers that are in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 5. The square of each of these numbers is
calculated, and the sum of their squares is found to be 1862.
(a) 21,14 and 35 (b) 24,16 and 40 (c) 18, 12 and 30 (d) 15,10 and 25
193. The average of 10 numbers is P and the average of 4 of these numbers is Q. If the average of the remaining
numbers is R, then which of the following is correct?
(a) 5P = 2Q + 3R (b) 3P = 2Q + 4R (c) 5P = 3Q + 2R (d) 4P = 2Q + 3R
194. A statement is followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows
beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statements: The T.V. programmes, telecast specially for women are packed with a variety of recipes and
household hints. A major portion of magazines for women also contains the items mentioned above.
Conclusions:
I. Women are not interested in other things.
II. An average woman's primary interest lies in home and specially, in the kitchen.
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either I or II follows
(d) neither I nor II follows

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195. A statement followed by two courses of action I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to
be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement.
Statement: The majority of the students have failed in one paper in the first semester examination.
Courses of Action:
I. All those students who failed should be asked to drop out of the course.
II. The faculty teaching the paper should be asked to resign.
Problem Figures:
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I nor II follows
196. Select a figure from the answer figures which shows similar characteristics/properties as shown by the
problem figure.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

1 2 3 4
(a) 1
Answer Figures: (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 ?
197. Which one of the following will replace the question mark?
A B C D
Problem figure Answer figure

1 2 3
? 4
A B C D 1 2 3 4

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

198. Which one of the following will replace the question mark in the figure matrix?

1 2 3 4

?
A B C D
(a) a (b) B (c) C (d) D
199. How many semicircles are there in the given figure?

(a) 18 (b) 10 (c) 16 (d) 14

200. Find the water image of ‘wrote’. (a) (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) (d)
– Best of Luck –

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