EASA PART 66 GUIDE: EASA Part 66 : Gas Turbine Question http://part66.blogspot.co.uk/2012/06/eng.

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Thursday, 7 June 2012

PART-66 MODULE
MODULE 1 EASA Part 66 : Gas Turbine Question
MODULE 2
MODULE 3 Module 14, Propulsion.

MODULE 4
MODULE 5
14.1 Turbine Engines.
MODULE 6
MODULE 7
MODULE 8 Question Number. 1. On an axial flow, dual compressor forward fan engine, the fan turns the same speed as the.

MODULE 9
Option A. low pressure turbine.
MODULE 10 Option B. high pressure compressor.
MODULE 11 Option C. forward turbine wheel.
MODULE 12 Correct Answer is. low pressure turbine.
MODULE 13 Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet engine Page 6 refers.

MODULE 14
MODULE 15 Question Number. 2. A turbo jet engine gives.
MODULE 16 Option A. large acceleration to a small mass of air.
MODULE 17 Option B. large acceleration to a large weight of air.
Option C. small acceleration to a large mass of air.
Correct Answer is. large acceleration to a small mass of air.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet engine Page 2/3 refer.

Abu Dhabi 2

Singapore 8 Question Number. 3. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the cold section and the hot
section.
Kuala Lumpur 6 Option A. The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine sections.
Option B. The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust.
Dubai 4
Option C. The hot section includes the combustor, turbine, and exhaust.
Petaling Jaya 3 Correct Answer is. The hot section includes the combustor, turbine, and exhaust.
Explanation. NIL.
New Delhi 3

Today 62
Total 14724 Question Number. 4. A jet engine derives its thrust by.
Online 1 Option A. drawing air into the compressor.
Option B. impingement of the propelling gases on the outside air.
Get this | $$$
Option C. reaction of the propelling gases.
Correct Answer is. reaction of the propelling gases.
Explanation. Newtons third law applies- Rolls Royce The Jet engine Page 2/3 refers.

Pageviews
Question Number. 5. Which of the following might be used to identify turbine discharge pressure?.
69119 Option A. Pt7.
Option B. Pt2.
Option C. Tt7.
Correct Answer is. Pt7.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 3-5.

Question Number. 6. In a free turbine.

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Option A. there is a clutch between compressor and power output shaft.

Option B. there is a direct drive with a free-wheel unit.
Option C. there is no mechanical connection with the compressor.
Correct Answer is. there is no mechanical connection with the compressor.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet engine Page 5 refers.

Question Number. 7. Bernoulli's Theorem states that at any point in a flow of gas.
Option A. the static pressure and dynamic pressure are equal.
Option B. the static pressure is less than the dynamic pressure.
Option C. the total energy remains constant.
Correct Answer is. the total energy remains constant.
Explanation. See Chapter 2 of Rolls Royce The Jet Engine.

Question Number. 8. The working fluid of a gas turbine engine is.

Option A. gasoline.
Option B. kerosene.
Option C. air.
Correct Answer is. air.
Explanation. Kerosene provides the energy to drive the air.

Question Number. 9. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine propulsion?.
Option A. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large amount of acceleration to a smaller mass of air.
Option B. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines to drive
the propeller and compressor with the rest providing exhaust thrust.
Option C. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small amount of acceleration to a large mass of air.
Correct Answer is. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small amount of acceleration to a large mass of
air.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 3-43.

Question Number. 10. As subsonic air flows through a convergent nozzle the velocity.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. increases.
Option C. remains constant.
Correct Answer is. increases.
Explanation. Bernoulli's Theorem again.

Question Number. 11. In a twin spool compressor system, the first stage turbine drives the.
Option A. N2 compressor.
Option B. N1 and N2 compressors.
Option C. N1 compressor.
Correct Answer is. N2 compressor.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 3-18.

Question Number. 12. At what point in an axial flow turbojet engine will the highest gas pressures occur?.
Option A. At the compressor outlet.
Option B. At the turbine entrance.
Option C. Within the burner section.
Correct Answer is. At the compressor outlet.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 3-20.

Question Number. 13. Which of the following units are generally used to measure aircraft noise?.
Option A. Effective perceived noise decibels (E P N d B).
Option B. Decibels (dB).
Option C. Sound pressure.
Correct Answer is. Effective perceived noise decibels (E P N dB).
Explanation. Rolls Royce The jet engine page 199 refers.

Question Number. 14. The diffuser section is located between.

Option A. the burner section and the turbine section.
Option B. station No. 7 and station No. 8.
Option C. the compressor section and the burner section.
Correct Answer is. the compressor section and the burner section.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 3-20.

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Question Number. 15. If the LP shaft shears.

Option A. turbine runaway occurs.
Option B. compressor overspeed occurs.
Option C. compressor underspeed occurs.
Correct Answer is. turbine runaway occurs.
Explanation. The turbine drives the LP compressor or fan.

Question Number. 16. The term Pt7 means.

Option A. pressure and temperature at station No. 7.
Option B. the total pressure at station No. 7.
Option C. the total inlet pressure.
Correct Answer is. the total pressure at station No. 7.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 17. What section provides proper mixing of the fuel and efficient burning of the gases?.
Option A. Diffuser section and combustion section.
Option B. Combustion section and compressor section.
Option C. Combustion section only.
Correct Answer is. Combustion section only.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 3-21.

Question Number. 18. Of the following, which engine type would most likely have a noise suppression unit
installed?.
Option A. Turboprop.
Option B. Turbojet.
Option C. Turboshaft.
Correct Answer is. Turbojet.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 3-57 refers.

Question Number. 19. The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. increases.
Option C. is inversely proportional to the temperature.
Correct Answer is. decreases.
Explanation. A&P Airframe Textbook Page 2-31 and 2-32.

Question Number. 20. The symbol for designating the speed of a LP compressor in a twin spool engine is.
Option A. N.
Option B. NG.
Option C. N1.
Correct Answer is. N1.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-13 refers to N1 for LP N2 for H P.

Question Number. 21. A turbojet engine is smoother running than a piston engine because.
Option A. the lubrication is better.
Option B. it runs at a lower temperature.
Option C. it has no reciprocating parts.
Correct Answer is. it has no reciprocating parts.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 22. A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections?.
Option A. Compressor, diffuser, and stator.
Option B. Turbine, compressor, and combustion.
Option C. Turbine, combustion, and stator.
Correct Answer is. Turbine, compressor, and combustion.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 23. When a volume of air is compressed.

Option A. heat is gained.
Option B. no heat is lost or gained.
Option C. heat is lost.
Correct Answer is. no heat is lost or gained.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 2-18 refers - assuming adiabatic.

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Question Number. 24. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle.
Option A. increases.
Option B. remains constant.
Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer is. decreases.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 25. If a volume of a mass of air is 546 cubic feet at 273K, at 274K it will be.
Option A. 2 cubic feet greater.
Option B. 1/273 less by weight.
Option C. 2 cubic feet smaller.
Correct Answer is. 2 cubic feet greater.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 26. In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle located?.
Option A. Exhaust.
Option B. Turbine.
Option C. Combustion.
Correct Answer is. Exhaust.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 27. Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia, states:.
Option A. To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Option B. Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration.
Option C. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside
force.
Correct Answer is. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by some
outside force.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 28. A high bypass engine results in.

Option A. overall slower airflow and greater propulsive efficiency.
Option B. overall faster airflow.
Option C. greater propulsive efficiency.
Correct Answer is. overall slower airflow and greater propulsive efficiency.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 2-29 refers.

Question Number. 29. Bernoulli's Theorem states that at any point in a flow of gas.
Option A. the static pressure and dynamic pressure are equal.
Option B. the static pressure is less than the dynamic pressure.
Option C. the total energy remains constant.
Correct Answer is. the total energy remains constant.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 30. The Brayton cycle is known as the constant.

Option A. temperature cycle.
Option B. mass cycle.
Option C. pressure cycle.
Correct Answer is. pressure cycle.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 31. In a choked nozzle, velocity increases, and.

Option A. density decreases.
Option B. pressure decreases.
Option C. pressure increases.
Correct Answer is. pressure increases.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplant Page 2-23. As the nozzle goes sonic the pressure starts to increase as
a result of the shock wave.

Question Number. 32. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea level temperature is.
Option A. 29°C.
Option B. 59°F.
Option C. 59°C.
Correct Answer is. 59°F.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 33. Standard sea level pressure is.

Option A. 29.92 inches Hg.
Option B. 29.29 inches Hg.
Option C. 29.00 inches Hg.
Correct Answer is. 29.92 inches Hg.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 34. The highest pressure in a gas turbine is.

Option A. at the nozzle exit.
Option B. at the burner exit.
Option C. just after the last compressor stage but before the burner.
Correct Answer is. just after the last compressor stage but before the burner.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 15 refers.

Question Number. 35. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle.
Option A. remains constant.
Option B. increases.
Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer is. increases.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 36. A turboprop engine derives its thrust by.

Option A. impingement of the prop-wash on the outside air.
Option B. reaction of the prop-wash.
Option C. reaction of the propulsion gases.
Correct Answer is. reaction of the prop-wash.
Explanation. Newtons Third Law.

Question Number. 37. Adiabatic compression is.

Option A. an isothermal process.
Option B. one where there is an increase in kinetic energy.
Option C. one where there is no loss or gain of heat.
Correct Answer is. one where there is no loss or gain of heat.
Explanation. Sherwin and Horsley Thermodynamics Page 144 refers.

Question Number. 38. In a ducted fan engine, the fan is driven by the.
Option A. turbine.
Option B. air passing over the compressor.
Option C. accessory gearbox.
Correct Answer is. turbine.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Powerplant Page 2-9.

Question Number. 39. A modular constructed gas turbine engine means that.
Option A. all engines have a specific component layout.
Option B. the engine is constructed by the vertical assembly technique.
Option C. its major components can be removed and replaced without disturbing the rest of the engine.
Correct Answer is. its major components can be removed and replaced without disturbing the rest of the engine.
Explanation. The Dictionary of Aircraft Terms by Dale Crane has this definition.

Question Number. 40. The accessory gearbox of a high bypass engine is.
Option A. on the HP Compressor housing.
Option B. in the forward bearing housing.
Option C. attached to the turbine casing.
Correct Answer is. on the HP Compressor housing.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Powerplant Page 3-9.

Question Number. 41. On a gas turbine engine, what is the fan driven by?.
Option A. I P turbine.
Option B. LP turbine.
Option C. H P turbine.
Correct Answer is. LP turbine.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 6 refers.

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Question Number. 42. Which law relates to the kinetic, pressure, and potential energy in a fluid
flow?.
Option A. Bernoulli's theorem.
Option B. Newton's laws.
Option C. Charles's law.
Correct Answer is. Bernoulli's theorem.
Explanation. The sum of the energies in a system is constant. so if one decreases another will increase.

Question Number. 43. The density of gas may be expressed as.

Option A. volume/weight.
Option B. weight/volume.
Option C. pressure/volume.
Correct Answer is. weight/volume.
Explanation. Basic Physics this one.

Question Number. 44. E S HP is.

Option A. Horsepower/efficiency.
Option B. Shaft horse power + exhaust efflux.
Option C. Power available at the turbine less the power required to drive the.
Correct Answer is. Shaft horse power + exhaust efflux.
Explanation. Effective Shaft Horse Power is the measure of total power of a turbo prop engine.

Question Number. 45. A divergent duct will cause subsonic flow to decrease in.
Option A. velocity, increase pressure.
Option B. velocity, pressure remains constant.
Option C. pressure, increase velocity.
Correct Answer is. velocity, increase pressure.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 13 fig 2-3 refers.

Question Number. 46. The Brayton cycle is.

Option A. the name given to the intermittent cycling of an electrical de-icing system.
Option B. the continuous combustion cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.
Option C. the constant velocity cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.
Correct Answer is. the continuous combustion cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.
Explanation. The Brayton Cycle is also known as the constant pressure cycle.

Question Number. 47. The purpose of a diffuser is to.

Option A. increase the kinetic energy of the air.
Option B. induce a swirl to the air prior to combustion.
Option C. increase the static pressure of the air.
Correct Answer is. increase the static pressure of the air.
Explanation. Diffusers are always static divergent ducts.

Question Number. 48. On a triple spool engine, the first stage of turbines driv e.
Option A. the LP compressor.
Option B. the HP compressor.
Option C. the I P compressor.
Correct Answer is. the HP compressor.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Fig 2-5-2 refers.

Question Number. 49. Ram effect is.

Option A. the increase of dynamic pressure at the face of the compressor.
Option B. conversion of static pressure to kinetic pressure at the face of the compressor.
Option C. conversion of kinetic energy to pressure energy at the face of the compressor.
Correct Answer is. conversion of kinetic energy to pressure energy at the face of the compressor.
Explanation. The greater the ram effect the greater the efficiency of the propulsion system.

Question Number. 50. Which of the following statements is true on a high bypass ratio
turbofan?.
Option A. Both the compressor and combustion system are larger than their turbojet equivalent.
Option B. The compressor assembly is larger and combustion chamber smaller than their turbojet equivalent.
Option C. Both the compressor and combustion chamber are smaller than the turbojet equivalent.
Correct Answer is. Both the compressor and combustion chamber are smaller than their turbojet equivalent.
Explanation. Smaller compressors and combustion chambers can be used on high bypass fans as they are more

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efficient than turbo jets.

Question Number. 51. In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor
system with a free power turbine, Nf would be an
indication of.
Option A. turbine thrust indication.
Option B. first stage compressor speed.
Option C. free power turbine speed.
Correct Answer is. free power turbine speed.
Explanation. The free turbine drives the prop-shaft only.

Question Number. 52. A waisted drive shaft is primarily to.

Option A. achieve dynamic balance.
Option B. reduce weight.
Option C. provide a fuse if the driven component is overloaded.
Correct Answer is. provide a fuse if the driven component is overloaded.
Explanation. An example of this type of drive shaft is fitted between a gearbox and an I D G .

Question Number. 53. The 'core engine' or 'gas generator' is made up of the following components:.
Option A. Inlet, compressor, combustion chamber, turbine, exhaust.
Option B. Turbine, combustion chamber, compressor.
Option C. Compressor, turbine, exhaust, propelling nozzle.
Correct Answer is. Turbine, combustion chamber, compressor.
Explanation. The core engine is that which the primary airflow passes(the air that passes through the combustion
chamber.The inlet is not included as the air is normally split down the bypass duct at the entrance to the compressor
system.

Question Number. 54. The principle of jet propulsion is.

Option A. the calorific value of fuel burnt is equal to aircraft.
Option B. the interaction of fluids and gases.
Option C. every action has a equal and opposite reaction.
Correct Answer is. every action has a equal and opposite reaction.
Explanation. This is Newtons Third Law.

Question Number. 55. Boyle's law states that, at constant temperature, if a gas is compressed.
Option A. its absolute pressure is proportional to its volume.
Option B. its absolute temperature is proportional to it's volume.
Option C. its absolute pressure is inversely proportional to its volume.
Correct Answer is. its absolute pressure is inversely proportional to its volume.
Explanation. If the volume is reduced the pressure goes up.

Question Number. 56. What part of a jet engine has the most potential energy?.
Option A. Immediately after the combustion chamber.
Option B. Just before the combustion chamber.
Option C. Immediately after the HP compressor.
Correct Answer is. Just before the combustion chamber.
Explanation. Where the fuel (unburned) is pumped in.

Question Number. 57. If the swash plate of a positive displacement swash plate pump is perpendicular to the axis of
the pump, the flow will be.
Option A. reversed.
Option B. zero.
Option C. maximum.
Correct Answer is. zero.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 58. What moves the swash plate away from the minimum stroke position?.
Option A. Reduced inlet pressure.
Option B. A spring.
Option C. Increased servo pressure.
Correct Answer is. A spring.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 59. The burner fuel flow is at maximum

at. Option A. 10°Centigrade above I.S.A. sea level.
Option B. I.S.A. sea level.
Option C. altitude.
Correct Answer is. I.S.A. sea level.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 60. How is servo pressure, which is used to control fuel pump 'Swash Plate' angle obtained?.
Option A. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions.
Option B. From pump delivery pressure through fixed restrictions.
Option C. From pump inlet pressure through fixed restrictions.
Correct Answer is. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 61. What would be the effect on the engine if the B.P.C half ball valve in the servo line sticks
open?.
Option A. A reduction of fuel flow, therefore a decrease in RPM .
Option B. The B.P.C would be ineffective at sea level only.
Option C. An increase of fuel flow, therefore an increase in RPM .
Correct Answer is. An increase of fuel flow, therefore an increase in RPM .
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 62. Why is an A.C.U fitted to a gas turbine engine?.

Option A. It increases the rate of acceleration of the engine.
Option B. It controls the operation of the metering block during sudden acceleration.
Option C. It limits the rate of increase in fuel flow during sudden acceleration.
Correct Answer is. It limits the rate of increase in fuel flow during sudden acceleration.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 63. If fuel pump servo pressure is reduced, pump output will.
Option A. increase.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. remain constant.
Correct Answer is. decrease.
Explanation. Old RR book Page 100 figure.10-5.

Question Number. 64. Why is the B.P.C fitted in a gas turbine engine fuel system?.
Option A. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.
Option B. To proportion the fuel flow between primary and main burner lines.
Option C. To decrease the fuel flow to the burners with increased air intake pressure.
Correct Answer is. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 65. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been replaced on an aircraft gas turbine
engine?.
Option A. You must recalibrate the fuel nozzles.
Option B. You must retrim the engine.
Option C. You must perform a full power engine run to check fuel flow.
Correct Answer is. You must retrim the engine.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-12.

Question Number. 66. A kinetic valve is a device used to control H.P pump output. This is achieved by movement of
a.
Option A. needle valve.
Option B. diaphragm and half ball valve.
Option C. knife blade.
Correct Answer is. knife blade.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 67. Specific fuel consumption at altitude will.

Option A. decrease.
Option B. remain constant.
Option C. increase.
Correct Answer is. increase.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 68. During any stabilised running condition, the spill or half ball valve is.
Option A. lightly seated.
Option B. closed fully.
Option C. open fully.
Correct Answer is. lightly seated.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 69. What is the purpose of the attenuator fitted between the H.P fuel pump and the B.P.C in a
fuel system?.
Option A. It restricts the pressure feed top the B.P.C.
Option B. It ensures a supply of fuel free from foreign matter to the BC half ball valve.
Option C. It damps out pulsations in the fuel delivery to the B.P.C.
Correct Answer is. It damps out pulsations in the fuel delivery to the B.P.C.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 70. Why is the hydromechanical governor fitted to a gas turbine engine fuel pump?.
Option A. To enable the engine to operate over a wide range of fuel SGs.
Option B. To enable efficient control of fuel flow to be maintained at altitude.
Option C. To enable the engine to operate over a wide range of fuel flow.
Correct Answer is. To enable the engine to operate over a wide range of fuel SGs.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 71. A barometric Pressure Controller controls.

Option A. barometric pressure.
Option B. fuel flow to suit atmospheric pressure changes.
Option C. fuel tank pressure at altitude.
Correct Answer is. fuel flow to suit atmospheric pressure changes.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 72. Kinetic valves are used because.

Option A. they are less likely to leak.
Option B. they are more sensitive.
Option C. they are not subjected to wear.
Correct Answer is. they are more sensitive.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 73. When considering a centrifugal type engine speed governor, an increase in fuel S.G. will
cause.
Option A. no change in maximum RPM .
Option B. an increase in maximum RPM .
Option C. a reduction in maximum RPM .
Correct Answer is. a reduction in maximum RPM .
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 74. On a FADEC engine.

Option A. A channel uses control alternator and B channel uses aircraft bus power.
Option B. A channel uses a separate winding of the control alternator to B channel.
Option C. A and B channel use the same phases of the motor.
Correct Answer is. A channel uses a separate winding of the control alternator to B channel.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplant Page 7-22 refers.

Question Number. 75. Normal fuel/air ratio for successful combustion is.
Option A. 15:1.
Option B. 25:1.
Option C. 10:1.
Correct Answer is. 15:1.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 3-32.

Question Number. 76. Which of the following influences the operation of an automatic fuel control unit
on a turbojet engine?.
Option A. Exhaust gas temperature.
Option B. Mixture control position.

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Option C. Burner pressure.

Correct Answer is. Burner pressure.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 7-63.

Question Number. 77. What is the purpose of the L.P. pump?.

Option A. To ensure rapid acceleration when the throttle is opened.
Option B. To prevent cavitation of the H.P Fuel pump.
Option C. To ensure the engine will continue to run if the H.P. fuel pump fails.
Correct Answer is. To prevent cavitation of the H.P Fuel pump.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 78. The fuel pump plungers are lubricated by.
Option A. synthetic anti-freeze oil.
Option B. grease packed bearings.
Option C. the Fuel.
Correct Answer is. the Fuel.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 79. Which forces control the maximum RPM governor in a non-hydromechanical swashplate type
of pump?.
Option A. Rotor centrifugal pressure opposed to tension spring loading.
Option B. Rotor centrifugal pressure plus tension spring loading opposed to pump delivery pressure.
Option C. Rotor centrifugal pressure plus tension spring loading opposed to pump inlet pressure.
Correct Answer is. Rotor centrifugal pressure opposed to tension spring loading.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 80. Why do the holes in the body of the duple burner provide air to the shroud around the burner
head?.
Option A. To reduce burner temperature.
Option B. To assist atomisation of the fuel at slow running.
Option C. To minimise carbon formation on the burner face.
Correct Answer is. To minimise carbon formation on the burner face.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 81. A fuel heater prevents.

Option A. Neither.
Option B. LP filter icing.
Option C. H.P filter icing.
Correct Answer is. LP filter icing.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 7-45 refers.

Question Number. 82. On a FADEC engine the E.E.C.

Option A. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control in some modes.
Option B. has mechanical control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control system.
Option C. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control unit in all modes.
Correct Answer is. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control unit in all modes.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 7-20 refers.

Question Number. 83. During normal running conditions, combustion is.

Option A. continuously supported by ignition.
Option B. self supporting.
Option C. intermittently supported by ignition.
Correct Answer is. self supporting.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 84. On a FADEC engine, the channel reset.

Option A. always selects A channel.
Option B. selects B channel.
Option C. selects standby which becomes active on the next start.
Correct Answer is. selects standby which becomes active on the next start.
Explanation. CF6-80 C2 FADEC Engine Course notes refer.

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Question Number. 85. With a decrease in fuel SG, what is the result when the engine is fitted with an
uncompensated fuel governor?.
Option A. No effect.
Option B. Maximum RPM decrease.
Option C. Maximum RPM increase.
Correct Answer is. Maximum RPM increase.
Explanation. Rolls Royce Para 103 Page 116 refers.

Question Number. 86. The maximum RPM of a turbine engine is limited by.
Option A. a temperature sensitive device which reduces the fuel pump speed.
Option B. diversion of some of the fuel pump outlet flow by a spill valve sensitiv e to burner fuel pressure.
Option C. reduction of the fuel pump stroke by a spill valve sensitive to centrifugally generated fuel pressure.
Correct Answer is. reduction of the fuel pump stroke by a spill valve sensitive to centrifugally generated fuel
pressure.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 103 Para 23 Refers.

Question Number. 87. To what condition does the fuel flow respond during aircraft acceleration?.
Option A. Mass airflow rate through the engine.
Option B. The effect of 'ram-air' at altitude.
Option C. The change in pressure at the compressor intake.
Correct Answer is. Mass airflow rate through the engine.
Explanation. Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 7-6 Refers. This refers to the parameters that make mass
airflow- T2 and N2 in particular.

Question Number. 88. During acceleration, the fuel flow is increased at a controlled rate in order to.
Option A. prevent fuel pump damage.
Option B. increase s.f.c.
Option C. prevent surge and the risk of flame-out.
Correct Answer is. prevent surge and the risk of flame-out.
Explanation. Over fuelling during acceleration is a prime cause of surge.

Question Number. 89. The B.P.C controls the F.C.U by.

Option A. pressure sensing.
Option B. temperature sensing.
Option C. density sensing.
Correct Answer is. pressure sensing.
Explanation. BPC is the Barometric Pressure Control.

Question Number. 90. If the swash plate of a positive displacement swash plate pump is perpendicular to the axis
of the pump, the flow will be.
Option A. zero.
Option B. reversed.
Option C. maximum.
Correct Answer is. zero.
Explanation. Rolls Royce Jet Engine Page 98-99 refers.

Question Number. 91. The burner fuel flow is at maximum at.

Option A. altitude.
Option B. 10°Centigrade above I.S.A. sea level.
Option C. I.S.A. sea level.
Correct Answer is. I.S.A. sea level.
Explanation. Cold dense air requires more fuel than hot warm air to maintain the air-fuel ratio.

Question Number. 92. The type of fuel control unit most commonly used in modern jet engines is. Option A.
mechanical.
Option B. hydro-mechanical.
Option C. electrical.
Correct Answer is. hydro-mechanical.
Explanation. Rolls Royce Jet Engine Page 99 refers.

Question Number. 93. How is servo pressure, which is used to control fuel pump swash plate angle, obtained?.
Option A. From pump inlet pressure through fixed restrictions.

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Option B. From pump delivery pressure through fixed restrictions.

Option C. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions.
Correct Answer is. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions.
Explanation. Servo pressure is initially supplied through a fixed restrictor, then modified by half ball valve and
kinetic knives Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 98-101 refers.

Question Number. 94. Why is the Barometric Pressure Control fitted in a turboshaft engine fuel system?.
Option A. To proportion the fuel flow between primary and main burner lines.
Option B. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.
Option C. To decrease the fuel flow to the burners with increased air intake pressure.
Correct Answer is. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.
Explanation. Barometric Pressure Control is an old name for Altitude (and hence air density) Sensing Unit see Rolls
Royce The Jet Engine figure 10-12 or 10-7.

Question Number. 95. During any stabilised running condition, the spill or half ball valve is.
Option A. always varying between fully closed and fully seated.
Option B. lightly seated.
Option C. open fully.
Correct Answer is. lightly seated.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 98 refers.

Question Number. 96. The swash plate in a fuel pump, when static is.
Option A. at some intermediate position.
Option B. in the minimum position.
Option C. in the maximum position.
Correct Answer is. in the maximum position.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 98 refers.

Question Number. 97. A kinetic valve is a device used to control H.P pump output. This is achieved by movement
of a.
Option A. diaphragm and half ball valve.
Option B. knife blade.
Option C. needle valve.
Correct Answer is. knife blade.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 103 refers.

Question Number. 98. Why is it necessary to control fuel supply to the engine during rapid acceleration?.
Option A. To prevent compressor stall above cruise RPM .
Option B. To control maximum RPM .
Option C. To prevent excessively high EGT and possible compressor surge.
Correct Answer is. To prevent excessively high EGT and possible compressor surge.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 104 refers.

Question Number. 99. Which component corrects for air density effects on fuel/air mixture in a gas turbine
engine?.
Option A. The barometric pressure control unit.
Option B. The adjustable throttle valve.
Option C. The pressurising valve.
Correct Answer is. The barometric pressure control unit.
Explanation. Barometric pressure senses density changes.

Question Number. 100. Why is the high pressure fuel pump fitted in a gas turbine engine aircraft?.
Option A. To maintain a vapour free pressure from the aircraft fuel tanks to the LP fuel pump.
Option B. As an emergency in case of failure of the LP pump.
Option C. To provide the majority of the fuel pressure to the engine.
Correct Answer is. To provide the majority of the fuel pressure to the engine.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 112 refers.

Question Number. 101. What are the positions of the pressurization valve and the dump valve in a jet engine fuel
system when the engine is shut down?.
Option A. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.
Option B. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open.
Option C. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve closed.
Correct Answer is. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 102. The density of air is very important when mixing fuel and air to obtain a correct fuel to air
ratio. Which of the following weighs the most?.
Option A. 75 parts of dry air and 25 parts of water vapor.
Option B. 100 parts of dry air.
Option C. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor.
Correct Answer is. 100 parts of dry air.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 103. A mixture ratio of 11:1 normally refers to.

Option A. 1 part air to 11 parts fuel.
Option B. a stoichiometric mixture.
Option C. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air.
Correct Answer is. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 104. For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control unit trimmed?.
Option A. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired.
Option B. To properly position the power levers.
Option C. To adjust the idle RPM .
Correct Answer is. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-69.

Question Number. 105. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today's turbine engines?.
Option A. Hydromechanical or electronic.
Option B. Mechanical.
Option C. Electronic.
Correct Answer is. Hydromechanical or electronic.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-60.

Question Number. 106. Under which of the following conditions will the trimming of a turbine engine be most
accurate?.
Option A. No wind and low moisture.
Option B. High moisture and low wind.
Option C. High wind and high moisture.
Correct Answer is. No wind and low moisture.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 107. An H.M.U receives its signals from.

Option A. E.E.C.
Option B. ADC.
Option C. thrust lever resolvers.
Correct Answer is. E.E.C.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Powerplant Page 7-20.

Question Number. 108. In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within the fuel control, manufacturers
generally recommend that all final turbine engine trim adjustments be made in the.
Option A. decrease direction.
Option B. increase direction.
Option C. decrease direction after over-adjustment.
Correct Answer is. increase direction.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-70.

Question Number. 109. When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is adjusted to.
Option A. set idle RPM and maximum speed or E.P.R.
Option B. produce as much power as the engine is capable of producing.
Option C. allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without regard to power output.
Correct Answer is. set idle RPM and maximum speed or E.P.R.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-69.

Question Number. 110. A supervisory electronic engine control (E.E.C) is a system that receives engine operating
information and.
Option A. controls engine operation according to ambient temperature, pressure, and humidity.
Option B. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit to obtain the most effective engine operation.

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Option C. develops the commands to various actuators to control engine parameters.

Correct Answer is. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit to obtain the
most effective engine operation.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-64.

Question Number. 111. In a FADEC system, active control switchover occurs. Option A.
when channels A and B are healthy.
Option B. on shutdown.
Option C. on engine start up only.
Correct Answer is. on engine start up only.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Powerplant Page 7-20.

Question Number. 112. What causes the fuel divider valve to open in a turbine engine duplex fuel nozzle?.
Option A. An electrically operated solenoid.
Option B. Bleed air after the engine reaches idle RPM .
Option C. Fuel pressure.
Correct Answer is. Fuel pressure.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-66.

Question Number. 113. The valve on a vane type fuel flow measuring device becomes stuck. What safety backup is
available for the engine fuel flow?.
Option A. A differential pressure bypass valve.
Option B. A bypass valve.
Option C. A fuel bleed valve.
Correct Answer is. A differential pressure bypass valve.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and integrated systems page 369 refers. Note the valve opens against spring
pressure.

Question Number. 114. What are the principal advantages of the duplex fuel nozzle used in many turbine engines?
Option A. Allows a wider range of fuels and filters to be used.
Option B. Restricts the amount of fuel flow to a level where more efficient and complete burning of the fuel is
achieved.
Option C. Provides better atomization and uniform flow pattern.
Correct Answer is. Provides better atomization and uniform flow pattern.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-66.

Question Number. 115. What is the purpose of the flow divider in a turbine engine duplex fuel nozzle?.
Option A. Allows an alternate flow of fuel if the primary flow clogs or is restricted.
Option B. Provides a flow path for bleed air which aids in the atomization of fuel.
Option C. Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies.
Correct Answer is. Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-66.

Question Number. 116. Which of the following turbine fuel filters has the greatest filtering action?.
Option A. Stacked charcoal.
Option B. Small wire mesh.
Option C. Micron.
Correct Answer is. Micron.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 117. Where is the engine fuel shutoff valve usually
located?. Option A. Aft of the firewall.
Option B. Adjacent to the fuel pump.
Option C. Downstream of the engine driven fuel pump.
Correct Answer is. Downstream of the engine driven fuel pump.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-63.

Question Number. 118. Supervisory E.E.C sends its output to the.

Option A. fuel valve.
Option B. H.M.U/F.F.G.
Option C. EGT thermocouple circuit.
Correct Answer is. H.M.U/F.F.G.
Explanation. RB211-535 has this system - the trim signal is passed to the F.F.G. a FADEC engine would receive trim
signals at the H.M.U.

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Question Number. 119. If a FADEC loses its ADC input. In the short term it will.
Option A. go to limit protection mode.
Option B. go into hard reversion.
Option C. go into soft reversion.
Correct Answer is. go into soft reversion.
Explanation. Sometimes known as the Alternate mode. CF-6 FADEC engine has this facility.

Question Number. 120. The primary purpose of an E.E.C is.

Option A. to change analogue inputs into digital format to provide glass cockpit information and reduce flight crew
workload.
Option B. to save fuel, reduce crew workload and reduce maintenance costs.
Option C. to change analogue inputs into digital format to reduce flight crew workload and provide maintenance
information.
Correct Answer is. to save fuel, reduce crew workload and reduce maintenance costs.
Explanation. Inputs and outputs to the FADEC are both digital and analogue, hence a and b are both wrong.
Optimised performance is the reason FADEC was introduced

Question Number. 121. When both FADEC channels are healthy they will alternate.
Option A. as selected on the flight deck.
Option B. when one channel fails.
Option C. on each engine start.
Correct Answer is. on each engine start.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Powerplant Page 7-20.

Question Number. 122. The purpose of the LP fuel pump is to.

Option A. ensure the H.P fuel pump does not cavitate.
Option B. pump fuel from the aircraft fuel tanks to the engine.
Option C. ensure the fuel flow governor gets enough fuel.
Correct Answer is. ensure the H.P fuel pump does not cavitate.
Explanation. Maintains about 40 psi to the inlet of the H.P Pump.

Question Number. 123. In a FADEC system, what is the result of Channel A failing to receive information from a
sensor?.
Option A. Channel A will take the information from the backup sensor.
Option B. Channel A will take the information from channel B.
Option C. Channel B will assume control.
Correct Answer is. Channel A will take the information from channel B.
Explanation. This assumes that channel A is still capable of full control and that channel B is receiving a good sensor
signal.

Question Number. 124. In a FADEC engine with a hydromechanical fuel system, how is fuel flow controlled?.
Option A. By oil hydraulics.
Option B. By fuel pressure.
Option C. By electro-hydraulic servo valves (E.H.S.Vs).
Correct Answer is. By electro-hydraulic servo valves (E.H.S.Vs).
Explanation. Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 7-20 refers.`

Question Number. 125. On the approach.

Option A. RPM should be above the minimum idle for maximum acceleration.
Option B. RPM should be high.
Option C. RPM should be lower than minimum for maximum acceleration.
Correct Answer is. RPM should be above the minimum idle for maximum acceleration.
Explanation. A high (or flight) idle setting is used for maximum acceleration in the event of overshoot.

Question Number. 126. The air data inputs to the FADEC E.C.U fails. The result will be:.
Option A. a lack of flight data.
Option B. the E.C.U reverts to the fail-safe mode.
Option C. uncorrected data from hard wired analogue sensors is utilised.
Correct Answer is. the E.C.U reverts to the fail-safe mode.
Explanation. If all air data input fails then the E.C.U reverts to an alternate (Fail-safe) mode.

Question Number. 127. A FADEC system consists of.

Option A. H.M.U, A.D.C and sensors.
Option B. E.E.C, A.D.C and sensors.

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Option C. H.M.U, sensors and an E.E.C.

Correct Answer is. H.M.U, sensors and an E.E.C. Explanation.
Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbines Page 7-62 refers.

Question Number. 128. A fuel heater prevents.

Option A. entrained water in fuel freezing.
Option B. LP fuel filter icing.
Option C. pipelines freezing.
Correct Answer is. entrained water in fuel freezing.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplant Page 7-45 refers. Whilst the LP fuel filter may block as a
result of freezing it is the entrained water that froze first.

Question Number. 129. When re-light is required in flight on a FADEC engine, the pilot selects.
Option A. one igniter.
Option B. igniter selected automatically.
Option C. both igniters.
Correct Answer is. igniter selected automatically.
Explanation. The FADEC chooses whichever igniter it wants.

Question Number. 130. The position of fuel heater in fuel system is.
Option A. between the fuel control unit and the burner manifold.
Option B. after the LP fuel filter and before the H.P pump.
Option C. before the LP fuel filter.
Correct Answer is. before the LP fuel filter.
Explanation. This position ensures the fuel will not freeze in the fuel filter. RR The Jet Engine Page 116 Para 100
refers.

Question Number. 131. The E.E.C receives its primary power from.
Option A. 115V AC emergency BUS.
Option B. separate permanent magnet alternator.
Option C. 115V AC main BUS.
Correct Answer is. separate permanent magnet alternator.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplant page 7-22 refers. note that answers a and b are back up
power supplies.

Question Number. 132. The fuel trimmer on a turbo-prop engine isoperated.

Option A. manually, to prevent high EGT due to altitude increase.
Option B. automatically controlled in conjunction with FCU.
Option C. manually to prevent excessive RPM at high altitude.
Correct Answer is. automatically controlled in conjunction with FCU.
Explanation. No Turbo-prop aircraft has a manual fuel trimmer as far as we are aware. Jeppesen Page 7-12 sub para
d further refers.

Question Number. 133. The main advantage of FADEC is.

Option A. it has electrical control of hydro mechanical unit in all modes.
Option B. efficiency is always maximum.
Option C. it changes T.L.A to most efficient E.P.R rating.
Correct Answer is. efficiency is always maximum.
Explanation. Reduced pilot workload and maximum efficiency of performance is the greatest advantage of F.A.D.E.C.

Question Number. 134. Inlet side of a fuel pump has a.

Option A. threaded micron filter.
Option B. wire mesh filter.
Option C. wire wound filter.
Correct Answer is. wire mesh filter.
Explanation. Jeppesen aircraft gas turbine Powerplants Page 7-48 refers.

Question Number. 135. When a throttle is selected to increase power, the pressure drop across the Fuel Control Unit
throttle orifice.
Option A. increases then decreases due to decreasing pump output.
Option B. drops then increases due to increasing pump output.
Option C. remains the same.
Correct Answer is. drops then increases due to increasing pump output.
Explanation. On selection the pressure drop across the throttle decreases then recovers as the pump increases the
flow of fuel.

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Question Number. 136. When the E.E.C supervisory circuit senses a fault on the engine, the fault annunciator
light will be on and the E.E.C will.
Option A. remove fuel, down trimming signal only when E.E.C switch selected off.
Option B. remove fuel, down trimming signal immediately.
Option C. remove fuel, down trimming signal only after landing.
Correct Answer is. remove fuel, down trimming signal immediately.
Explanation. The E.E.C referred to here is that discussed in Rolls Royce the Jet Engine page 112. It is fitted to an
RB211-535E4.

Question Number. 137. In-Flight the engine E.E.C controls.

Option A. EGT.
Option B. throttle position.
Option C. fuel flow.
Correct Answer is. fuel flow.
Explanation. Throttle position is controlled by the crew or auto throttle. EGT is a function of fuel flow.

Question Number. 138. A FADEC does not have which of the following?.
Option A. Control of thrust reverser operation.
Option B. An automatic starting capability.
Option C. Automatic control of engine fire bottles.
Correct Answer is. Automatic control of engine fire bottles.
Explanation. Fire extinguishers are always operated from the flight deck.

Question Number. 139. A FADEC consists of.

Option A. Electronic controls, sensors and an H.M.U.
Option B. Electronic control and throttle position transmitter.
Option C. Electronic control only.
Correct Answer is. Electronic controls, sensors and an H.M.U.
Explanation. A FADEC is the full system of sensors and control unit. Sometimes the Hydro mechanical Unit (H.M.U) is
also included as part of the system.

Question Number. 140. During aerobatic manoeuvres, what prevents fuel from spilling out of fuel tank vents?.
Option A. Booster pump differential pressure.
Option B. Baffle plates in tanks.
Option C. Float operated valves.
Correct Answer is. Float operated valves.
Explanation. Float operated valves allow the vent lines to vent both ways if there is no fuel on the float, but will
`shut when the float is lifted by fuel.

Question Number. 141. After a bag tank replacement, where would you disconnect the system to carry out the flow
checks?.
Option A. At the engine.
Option B. At tank outlet.
Option C. Tank isolation cock.
Correct Answer is. At the engine.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-17 states that for any aircraft fuel flow test after major system interruption connect the
flow rig at the engine bulkhead.

Question Number. 142. What is the purpose of a silver strip on a fuel filter?.
Option A. To detect excess metal.
Option B. To detect sulphur in fuel.
Option C. To strain oil for contamination.
Correct Answer is. To detect sulphur in fuel.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 254 refers.

Question Number. 143. The basic concept of an H.P fuel control is.
Option A. automatic adjustment of the fuel control unit by preventing excess fuel reaching the burners.
Option B. the bleeding of excess fuel back to the input of the H.P pump swash plate piston.
Option C. constant adjustment of the swash plate angle of the H.P fuel pump.
Correct Answer is. constant adjustment of the swash plate angle of the H.P fuel pump.
Explanation. Rolls Royce the Jet Engine Pages 98 - 102 refer.

Question Number. 144. To prevent compressor surge and overheating of the combustion chamber due
to over fuelling.

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Option A. a barometric unit is fitted.

Option B. a throttle unit is fitted.
Option C. an acceleration control unit is fitted.
Correct Answer is. an acceleration control unit is fitted.
Explanation. The acceleration unit automatically limits the rate of increase of fuel flow until sufficient air is passing
through the engine.

Question Number. 145. When FADEC is in normal mode.

Option A. channel A or B will be in command.
Option B. channel A will be in command.
Option C. channel B will be in command.
Correct Answer is. channel A or B will be in command.
Explanation. Both channels are operating but either one can be in control if they are both healthy.

Question Number. 146. Out of the following thrust lever resolver angles, which one is the forward idle setting?.
Option A. 5 degrees.
Option B. 85 degrees.
Option C. 40 degrees.
Correct Answer is. 40 degrees.
Explanation. All FADEC engines will have reverse thrust settings therefore the T.L.A of 0 degrees will be max
reverse, and 85 will be max forward therefore 40 is the idle figureure.

Question Number. 147. Trimming is a term applied to adjusting the.

Option A. idle speed and maximum thrust.
Option B. fuel specific gravity.
Option C. part trim stop.
Correct Answer is. idle speed and maximum thrust.
Explanation. Dale Crane Dictionary of Aeronautical Terms 3rd edition Refers.

Question Number. 148. Fuel boost pumps are cooled using.

Option A. ram air.
Option B. Fuel pumps do not require cooling.
Option C. fuel.
Correct Answer is. fuel.
Explanation. Fuel pumps, of any type usually use the fuel they are pumping to cool the bearings.

Question Number. 149. A fuel trimmer unit is adjusted at altitude.

Option A. automatically, via a fuel trim unit.
Option B. manually to compensate for propeller torque.
Option C. manually to compensate for EGT change.
Correct Answer is. automatically, via a fuel trim unit.
Explanation. We assume here that the fuel trim at altitude is due to decreasing air density& pressure. The Fuel flow
governor (fuel trimmer) does this automatically.

Question Number. 150. Baffles in a rigid fuel tank.

Option A. help prevent micro-biological corrosion.
Option B. strengthen the tank structure.
Option C. prevent surge.
Correct Answer is. prevent surge.
Explanation. This question was definitely asked in module 15- it should be in module 11!!.

Question Number. 151. In a FADEC system, what does the E.E.C measure along with RPM ?.
Option A. Pressure and Temperature.
Option B. Pressure.
Option C. Temperature.
Correct Answer is. Pressure and Temperature.
Explanation. Normally the E.E.C reads as a minimum To Po Ps3 and T25.

Question Number. 152. In a FADEC system, how are the power supply windings for channel A and Channel B
wound?.
Option A. Two independent generators.
Option B. On one generator with 2 separate windings.
Option C. One generator and one winding.
Correct Answer is. On one generator with 2 separate windings.

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Explanation. The engine alternator is a permanent magnet alternator with 2 windings within the
stator housing. There may also be a third winding that is used to indicate H.P RPM (H.P tachometer)
within the same housing.

Question Number. 153. If an Engine FADEC system loses air-data permanently, the pilot will.
Option A. turn that E.E.C Off.
Option B. select alternate pitot static.
Option C. switch to Alt on the relevant E.E.C.
Correct Answer is. switch to Alt on the relevant E.E.C.
Explanation. By switching to Alternate mode manually the E.E.C uses cornerstone Pamb and Tamb.

Question Number. 154. A FADEC system takes measurements from Engine Speed,.
Option A. Temperature and Pressure.
Option B. and Temperature.
Option C. and Pressure.
Correct Answer is. Temperature and Pressure.
Explanation. T-ambient, P-ambient and P s3 as a minimum.

Question Number. 155. Main purpose of the fuel boost pumps is to provide.
Option A. emergency dump jettison.
Option B. cross-feed fuel from one tank to another.
Option C. fuel pressure to both engine pumps.
Correct Answer is. fuel pressure to both engine pumps.
Explanation. Supply of fuel to the engines is the primary purpose although the other two answers may also be
options.

Question Number. 156. The swash plate in the fuel pump of an axial flow gas turbine engine is controlled by.
Option A. servo hydraulic pressure.
Option B. electrical servo control.
Option C. servo fuel pressure.
Correct Answer is. servo fuel pressure.
Explanation. Rolls Royce the Jet Engine Page 99 et al refers.

Question Number. 157. The end fittings on a fuel non-return valve are normally of different sizes to.
Option A. prevent incorrect installation.
Option B. facilitate bleeding the system.
Option C. allow a full fuel flow through the valve.
Correct Answer is. prevent incorrect installation.
Explanation. Also known as check valves, NRV's have different end fittings and sometimes an arrow showing direction
of flow embossed on the casing.

Question Number. 158. E.E.C receives signals from RPM sensor and.
Option A. pressure sensors.
Option B. pressure and temperature sensors.
Option C. temperature sensors.
Correct Answer is. pressure and temperature sensors.
Explanation. Modern FADEC systems receive all three types of sensor but quite often do not use the EGT signals for
control.

Question Number. 159. When does E.E.C channel change over occur?.
Option A. On engine start up.
Option B. On engine shut down.
Option C. On fault.
Correct Answer is. On engine start up.
Explanation. The E.E.C prepares for the changeover by resetting the E.E.C on shut down, but does not actually do it
until the next start. A simple single fault (compared to a complete channel failure) will not cause a change over.

Question Number. 160. The possible combined output from all the scavenge pumps in a lubrication system will
be.
Option A. greater than the pressure pump output.
Option B. less than the pressure pump output.
Option C. the same as the pressure pump output.
Correct Answer is. greater than the pressure pump output.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 161. If the knife-edge blade in a kinetic valve is fully in.
Option A. pump pressure is constant.
Option B. servo pressure is being bled off.
Option C. servo pressure is increasing.
Correct Answer is. servo pressure is being bled off.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 103 para 31 figure 10-8.

14.02. Engine Indication Systems

Question Number. 1. The compensation device on an E.G.T system must be re-calibrated after.
Option A. each time a part of the system is replaced.
Option B. does not need calibration.
Option C. manufacture and overhaul.
Correct Answer is. does not need calibration.
Explanation. The compensation device is an automatic device Page 140 Rolls Royce book refers.

Question Number. 2. When testing an E.G.T system.

Option A. the O.A.T is always taken into consideration.
Option B. the O.A.T is neglected.
Option C. O.A.T is only taken into consideration when over20°C.
Correct Answer is. the O.A.T is always taken into consideration.
Explanation. To test the system the test set has to trimmed for ambient temperature, as the system when in
operation is adjusted for ambient temperature by the compensating resistor. This is clearly stated in the B 737 AMM.

Question Number. 3. What is the Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R.) used for?.
Option A. To limit the maximum exhaust gas temperature.
Option B. To indicate the thrust produced by the engine.
Option C. As a cross check for minimum acceptable thrust.
Correct Answer is. To indicate the thrust produced by the engine.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. What happens when bulb type thermometer resistive element goes open circuit?.
Option A. Reads less than ambient.
Option B. No reading given.
Option C. Reads more than ambient.
Correct Answer is. Reads more than ambient.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. On an E.G.T thermocouple system, the hot junction.

Option A. is placed up stream of the combustion chamber.
Option B. is placed in cockpit.
Option C. is placed downstream of the combustion chamber.
Correct Answer is. is placed downstream of the combustion chamber.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. On an RPM system using a synchronous generator, the pointer is deflected by.
Option A. a potentiometer.
Option B. a Wheatstone bridge.
Option C. an AC servomotor.
Correct Answer is. an AC servomotor.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-13 refers.

Question Number. 7. Torque pressure is usually read from a.

Option A. torque meter.
Option B. direct reading pressure gauge.
Option C. tension gauge.
Correct Answer is. direct reading pressure gauge.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page12-21 refers.

Question Number. 8. The drag cup in a tacho-generator is balanced by.

Option A. calibrated hairspring.
Option B. adjustable counterbalance weights.
Option C. adjustment screw.
Correct Answer is. calibrated hairspring.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-14 refers.

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Question Number. 9. Fuel flow indication is taken from.

Option A. after the H.P pump.
Option B. after either H.P Pump or LP Pump.
Option C. after the LP pump.
Correct Answer is. after either H.P Pump or LP Pump.
Explanation. Vane type flowmeters are usually in the LP Supply. Integrated flowmeters in the H.P supply.

Question Number. 10. What power is required for E.G.T gauge indication?.
Option A. No power - it is self generating.
Option B. 115V AC.
Option C. 28V DC.
Correct Answer is. No power - it is self generating.
Explanation. Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-5 Refers.

Question Number. 11. A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate.

Option A. position and quantity.
Option B. pressure and temperature.
Option C. pressure, temperature, position and quantity.
Correct Answer is. pressure and temperature.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be monitored to minimize the possibility of
a 'hot' start?.
Option A. RPM indicator.
Option B. Turbine inlet temperature.
Option C. Torquemeter.
Correct Answer is. Turbine inlet temperature.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-5.

Question Number. 13. oil temperature thermocouples are usually constructed of.
Option A. iron constantan.
Option B. alumel constantan.
Option C. chromel alumel.
Correct Answer is. iron constantan.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. The RPM indication of a synchronous AC motor tachometer is governed by the generator.
Option A. current.
Option B. frequency.
Option C. voltage.
Correct Answer is. frequency.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. Instruments that measure relatively high fluid pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are
usually what type?.
Option A. Bourdon tube.
Option B. Vane with calibrated spring.
Option C. Diaphragm or bellows.
Correct Answer is. Bourdon tube.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. Instruments that provide readings of low or negative pressure, such as manifold pressure
gauges, are usually what type?.
Option A. Diaphragm or bellows.
Option B. Vane with calibrated spring.
Option C. Bourdon tube.
Correct Answer is. Diaphragm or bellows.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 17. In what units are gas turbine engine tachometers calibrated?.
Option A. Percent of engine pressure ratio.
Option B. Percent of engine RPM.
Option C. Actual engine RPM.
Correct Answer is. Percent of engine RPM.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-2.

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Question Number. 18. In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge pressure indicator sensor located?.
Option A. At a location in the exhaust cone that is determined to be subjected to the highest pressures.
Option B. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage.
Option C. At the aft end of the compressor section.
Correct Answer is. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. The exhaust gas temperature (E.G.T ) indicator on a gas turbine engine provides a relative
indication of the.
Option A. turbine inlet temperature.
Option B. temperature of the exhaust gases as they pass the exhaust cone.
Option C. exhaust temperature.
Correct Answer is. turbine inlet temperature.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-5.

Question Number. 20. Engine pressure ratio is determined by.

Option A. dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.
Option B. multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.
Option C. dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.
Correct Answer is. dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine instrument face or glass indicates.
Option A. the maximum limit for high transients such as starting.
Option B. a restricted operating range.
Option C. the maximum operating limit for all normal operations.
Correct Answer is. the maximum limit for high transients such as starting.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-5.

Question Number. 22. What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an axial compressor turbine engine?.
Option A. Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions.
Option B. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate overspeed conditions.
Option C. It is the most accurate instrument for establishing thrust settings under all conditions.
Correct Answer is. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate overspeed conditions.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Question Number. 23. Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio between the.
Option A. front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the compressor.
Option B. front of the compressor and the rear of the turbine.
Option C. aft end of the compressor and the aft end of the turbine.
Correct Answer is. front of the compressor and the rear of the turbine.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Question Number. 24. On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a constant power, the application of engine
anti-icing will result in.
Option A. an increase in E.P.R.
Option B. noticeable shift in E.P.R.
Option C. a false E.P.R reading.
Correct Answer is. noticeable shift in E.P.R.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Question Number. 25. The indicator of a tachometer system is responsive to change in.
Option A. voltage.
Option B. frequency.
Option C. current flow.
Correct Answer is. frequency.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Question Number. 26. The fuel flow indication data sent from motor driven impeller and turbine, and motorless
type fuel flow transmitters is a measure of.
Option A. fuel mass flow.
Option B. fuel volume flow.
Option C. engine burner pressure drop.
Correct Answer is. fuel mass flow.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

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Question Number. 27. In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel system (C.F.S) with a totalizer indicator
provides indication of how many of the following?.
Option A. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel time remaining at current power setting.
Option B. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel time remaining at current power setting,
Fuel temperature.
Option C. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel temperature.
Correct Answer is. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel time remaining at current power
setting.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Question Number. 28. The fuel flow indicator rotor and needle for a motor impeller and turbine indicating system
is driven by.
Option A. direct coupling to the motor shaft.
Option B. an electrical signal.
Option C. a mechanical gear train.
Correct Answer is. an electrical signal.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Question Number. 29. Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data.
Option A. using aircraft electrical system power.
Option B. mechanically.
Option C. by fuel pressure.
Correct Answer is. using aircraft electrical system power.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 30. What unit in a tachometer system sends information to the indicator?.
Option A. The two phase AC generator.
Option B. The three phase AC generator.
Option C. The synchronous motor.
Correct Answer is. The three phase AC generator.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants 12-13.

Question Number. 31. Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the temperature of the oil.
Option A. entering the oil cooler.
Option B. entering the engine.
Option C. in the oil storage tank.
Correct Answer is. entering the oil cooler.
Explanation. Rolls Royce book fig 8-7.

Question Number. 32. Thermocouple leads.

Option A. may be repaired using solderless connectors.
Option B. are designed for a specific installation and may not be altered.
Option C. may be installed with either lead to either post of the indicator.
Correct Answer is. are designed for a specific installation and may not be altered.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 33. Why do helicopters require a minimum of two synchronous tachometer systems?.
Option A. One indicates engine RPM and the other tail rotor RPM.
Option B. One indicates main rotor RPM and the other tail rotor RPM.
Option C. One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor RPM.
Correct Answer is. One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor RPM.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 34. If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed at installation, what would the E.G.T
gauge pointer indicate?.
Option A. Moves off scale on the high side of the meter.
Option B. Moves off scale on the zero side of the meter.
Option C. Normal temperature for prevailing condition.
Correct Answer is. Moves off scale on the zero side of the meter.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 35. A common type of electrically operated oil temperature gauge utilizes.
Option A. either a wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit.
Option B. a thermocouple type circuit.
Option C. vapour pressure and pressure switches.

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Correct Answer is. either a wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit.

Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 36. The indication on a thermocouple-type E.G.T indicator is produced by.
Option A. resistance changes in two dissimilar metals.
Option B. a difference in the voltage between two dissimilar metals.
Option C. a current generated by the temperature difference between dissimilar metal hot and cold junctions.
Correct Answer is. a current generated by the temperature difference between dissimilar metal hot and cold
junctions.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 37. What is the Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R) used to indicate?.
Option A. The power produced by the engine.
Option B. The thrust produced by the engine.
Option C. As a cross check for minimum acceptable thrust.
Correct Answer is. The thrust produced by the engine.
Explanation. Normally used on High Bypass Engines.

Question Number. 38. Where is Turbine Outlet Temperature (T.O.T) measured?.

Option A. Upstream of the turbine.
Option B. Downstream of the turbine.
Option C. In the combustion chamber.
Correct Answer is. Downstream of the turbine.
Explanation. It can be in the jet pipe or more normally today in between turbine stages or even within NGV's.

Question Number. 39. A thermocouple indicator is basically a.

Option A. milliammeter.
Option B. millivoltmeter.
Option C. milliohmeter.
Correct Answer is. millivoltmeter.
Explanation. A thermocouple generates an E.M.F between hot and cold junction, hence the gauge is a
millivoltmeter.

Question Number. 40. A thermocouple indicator is connected to the.

Option A. cold junction.
Option B. hot junction.
Option C. difference between the hot junction and the cold junction.
Correct Answer is. cold junction.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 362 Refers.

Question Number. 41. Thrust in a high bypass fan engine is indicated by.
Option A. N3 RPM or P1/P4 ratio.
Option B. N1 RPM or N3 RPM.
Option C. N1 RPM or E.P.R.
Correct Answer is. N1 RPM or E.P.R.
Explanation. RR and P&W tend to use E.P.R. GE use N1.

Question Number. 42. How is the N1 and N2 measured on a triple spool engine?.
Option A. Tachometer connected to the internal gearbox.
Option B. Tachometer connected to the external gearbox.
Option C. Pulse type speed probes.
Correct Answer is. Pulse type speed probes.
Explanation. Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-16 refer. Fig 12-10B shows the system used on Rolls Royce
triple spool engines.

Question Number. 43. Modern oil pressure servo transmitters sense.

Option A. absolute pressure.
Option B. H.P oil pressure.
Option C. differential pressure.
Correct Answer is. differential pressure.
Explanation. Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-28 refer.

Question Number. 44. E.G.T thermocouples are usually made of.

Option A. nickel and platinum

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Option B. chromel and platinum.

Option C. chromel and alumel.
Correct Answer is. chromel and alumel.
Explanation. Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-4 refer.

Question Number. 45. Thrust in a high bypass engine is indicated by measuring.

Option A. N3 RPM.
Option B. neither of the above, thrust is not indicated in flight.
Option C. fuel flow.
Correct Answer is. neither of the above, thrust is not indicated in flight.
Explanation. The only indication of power in flight is E.P.R or, for a high bypass engine, N1 RPM.

Question Number. 46. What power supply is required for a thermocouple system to work?.
Option A. Alternating current.
Option B. Direct current.
Option C. Neither of the above.
Correct Answer is. Neither of the above.
Explanation. Rolls Royce the Jet engine Page 139 refers.

Question Number. 47. In a thermocouple temperature sensing system, what is the purpose of the compensating
resistor?.
Option A. To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the hot junction.
Option B. To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the cold junction.
Option C. To standardise the reading for different engine types.
Correct Answer is. To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the cold junction.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 140 refers.

Question Number. 48. In a tachometer generator.

Option A. the frequency output is inversely proportional to engine speed.
Option B. frequency output is proportional to engine speed.
Option C. the frequency output is constant.
Correct Answer is. frequency output is proportional to engine speed.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems P348 refers.

Question Number. 49. Vibration pick-ups are located.

Option A. on both fan and turbine cases.
Option B. on the fan/compressor case.
Option C. on the turbine case.
Correct Answer is. on both fan and turbine cases.
Explanation. Can be on one or both, depending upon the engine.

Question Number. 50. In a capacitive type fuel quantity indicating system the tank units are connected in.
Option A. series.
Option B. parallel.
Option C. series/parallel.
Correct Answer is. parallel.
Explanation. EHJ Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems page 337 refers.

Question Number. 51. Torque measurement in a gas turbine engine is.

Option A. not always reliable.
Option B. highly reliable.
Option C. required only when the turbine drives a propeller.
Correct Answer is. required only when the turbine drives a propeller.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 138 refers.

Question Number. 52. Vibration signals, when picked up,.

Option A. go straight to indicator.
Option B. go through half wave rectifier to indicator.
Option C. the frequencies are filtered to exclude unwanted frequencies.
Correct Answer is. the frequencies are filtered to exclude unwanted frequencies.
Explanation. The filters in the Vibro-meter use rotor speed to identify vibration frequencies.

Question Number. 53. E.G.T is displayed in.

Option A. Kelvin.

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Option B. degrees centigrade.

Option C. degrees Fahrenheit.
Correct Answer is. degrees centigrade.
Explanation. E.G.T is always measured in centigrade.

Question Number. 54. N2 is taken from.

Option A. a speed transducer on the fan rear frame.
Option B. a tachometer attached on the N1 gearbox.
Option C. a tachometer on the accessory gearbox.
Correct Answer is. a tachometer on the accessory gearbox.
Explanation. The N2 gearbox is driven by the N2 compressor. A single winding of an alternator can be used for the
speed signal as an alternative to a.

Question Number. 55. Engine vibration is monitored using.

Option A. electromechanical devices.
Option B. Fenwall type sensors.
Option C. piezoelectric accelerometer.
Correct Answer is. piezoelectric accelerometer.
Explanation. Piezoelectric devices convert force(from the vibration) to a milli-volt output.

Question Number. 56. Integrating fuel flow gives.

Option A. average fuel flow.
Option B. total fuel consumed.
Option C. fuel flow and acceleration.
Correct Answer is. total fuel consumed.
Explanation. An Integrator is incorporated in a fuel flow-meter to give a total fuel used figure.

Question Number. 57. The gauge on a bulb type temperature indicator shows zero. This could be caused by.
Option A. open circuit in the wiring.
Option B. temperature bulb going open circuit.
Option C. two cables shorting together by the sensor.
Correct Answer is. two cables shorting together by the sensor.
Explanation. Pallett Instruments and Integrated systems Page 318 refers. A short will remove all power from both
windings and the pointer will go tominimum scale.

Question Number. 58. In a thermocouple system, the size of the E.M.F that is produced is a result of.
Option A. the difference between the hot and cold junction.
Option B. the cold junction only.
Option C. the hot junction only.
Correct Answer is. the difference between the hot and cold junction.
Explanation. The E.M.F is a result of the difference between the 2 junctions.

Question Number. 59. A ballast resistor is fitted.

Option A. in parallel, to give identical readings for all engines.
Option B. in series, to give identical resistance values for all engines.
Option C. in series, to give identical resistance values to all airframes.
Correct Answer is. in series, to give identical resistance values to all airframes.
Explanation. NIL.

14.03. Starting and Ignition Systems

Question Number. 1. In the H.E.I.U. the discharge resistors.

Option A. allows the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.
Option B. allows sufficient voltage to be stored to provide relight facilities up to 55,000 ft.
Option C. protects the unit from excessive voltages.
Correct Answer is. allows the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. In the H.E.I.U. the choke.

Option A. prolongs the life of the plug.
Option B. protects the unit from excessive high voltages.
Option C. prolongs the discharge.
Correct Answer is. prolongs the discharge.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 3. In an electrical starting system, the slow start resistor is short circuited by the.
Option A. centrifugal Switch.
Option B. time switch.
Option C. overspeed switch.
Correct Answer is. centrifugal Switch.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. The advantage of an air starter system is.

Option A. it provides a more rapid start.
Option B. it is light, simple and economical.
Option C. there is no risk of engine fire during starting.
Correct Answer is. it is light, simple and economical.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49 'Air starters weigh about one-fifth the wieght of a
comparable electric starter. This gives air turbine starters a high power-to-wieght ratio. because of this, pneumatic
starters are used almost exclusively on commercial jet aircraft.

Question Number. 5. An advantage of a gas turbine starter is.

Option A. it provide high power for low weight.
Option B. it does not require external connections.
Option C. it uses a low volatile fuel.
Correct Answer is. it provide high power for low weight.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. If the engine fails to light-up, the starter cycle is canceled by.
Option A. a centrifugal switch.
Option B. a low pressure relay.
Option C. a time switch.
Correct Answer is. a time switch.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. For starting the engine, the H.P cock should be initially.
Option A. in a position which depends on the fuel system.
Option B. open.
Option C. closed.
Correct Answer is. closed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. On light up, the gas temperature will.

Option A. rise slowly.
Option B. rise rapidly, then fall as RPM increases to idle.
Option C. rise rapidly.
Correct Answer is. rise rapidly, then fall as RPM increases to idle.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. Self sustaining RPM means that.

Option A. The engine can accelerate to full power in under 5 seconds.
Option B. There is sufficient power for ground maneuvering.
Option C. The engine will run independently of external help.
Correct Answer is. The engine will run independently of external help.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. A 'hot start' with excessive temperatures may be caused by.
Option A. wrong grade of fuel.
Option B. throttle partly open.
Option C. high electrical power supply.
Correct Answer is. throttle partly open.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 11. A dry motoring cycle would be required to.

Option A. clear the engine after a wet start.
Option B. check engine run down time.
Option C. check the operation of the igniters.
Correct Answer is. clear the engine after a wet start.
Explanation. NIL.

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Question Number. 12. What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in air starter motors?.
Option A. Reaction.
Option B. Impulse.
Option C. Impulse-reaction.
Correct Answer is. Impulse.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. Ignitor plugs are cleaned by.

Option A. compressed air and brushing lightly with soft brush.
Option B. light sand blasting.
Option C. steel wool.
Correct Answer is. compressed air and brushing lightly with soft brush.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 11-11 refers.

Question Number. 14. An H.E.I.U works by.

Option A. a discharging capacitor.
Option B. ac busbar.
Option C. a contact breaker.
Correct Answer is. a discharging capacitor.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 11-5 refers.

Question Number. 15. When is ignition used?.

Option A. For relight and start up.
Option B. For continuous relight.
Option C. At high altitudes.
Correct Answer is. For relight and start up.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 127 Refers.

Question Number. 16. An ignitor plug for a large gas turbine takes the form of a.
Option A. glow' plug.
Option B. sparking plug.
Option C. surface discharge plug.
Correct Answer is. surface discharge plug.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 131 Refers.

Question Number. 17. The spark in the High Energy igniter is supplied by.
Option A. a capacitor.
Option B. a contact circuit breaker.
Option C. the AC busbar.
Correct Answer is. a capacitor.
Explanation. Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplant Page11-4 refers.

Question Number. 18. Self sustaining speed is.

Option A. V1 speed.
Option B. the RPM at which the engine continues without external assistance.
Option C. take off velocity.
Correct Answer is. the RPM at which the engine continues without external assistance.
Explanation. After the starter has cut out and the RPM and TGT have stabilised.

Question Number. 19. During normal running conditions.

Option A. combustion is intermittently supported by ignition.
Option B. combustion is self supporting
Option C. combustion is continuously supported by ignition.
Correct Answer is. combustion is self supporting
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 37 refers.

Question Number. 20. High energy ignition is required because of the.

Option A. high flash point of the fuel.
Option B. absorbed moisture content.
Option C. low flash point of the fuel.
Correct Answer is. high flash point of the fuel.
Explanation. Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 7-1 refers.

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Question Number. 21. In the H.E.I.U. the discharge resistors.

Option A. allow sufficient voltage to be stored to provide relight facilities up to 55,000 ft.
Option B. allow the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.
Option C. protect the unit from excessive voltages.
Correct Answer is. allow the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 129 refers

Question Number. 22. The rate of discharge of a H.E.I.U. is.

Option A. 4 discharges per revolution.
Option B. 60 - 100 per second.
Option C. 60 - 100 per minute.
Correct Answer is. 60 - 100 per minute.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 23. Why do turbine engine ignition systems require high energy?.
Option A. Because the applied voltage is much greater.
Option B. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and high temperatures.
Option C. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and low temperatures.
Correct Answer is. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and low temperatures.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-102.

Question Number. 24. The type of ignition system used on most turbine aircraft engines is.
Option A. low tension.
Option B. capacitor discharge.
Option C. high resistance.
Correct Answer is. capacitor discharge.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-102.

Question Number. 25. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used to prevent the starter
from reaching burst speed if inlet air does not terminate on schedule is the.
Option A. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed.
Option B. drive shaft shear point.
Option C. spring coupling release.
Correct Answer is. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-49.

Question Number. 26. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used if the clutch does not
release from the engine drive at the proper time during start is the.
Option A. spring coupling release.
Option B. drive shaft shear point.
Option C. flyweight cutout switch.
Correct Answer is. flyweight cutout switch.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-49.

Question Number. 27. Airflow to the pneumatic starter from a ground unit is normally prevented from causing
starter overspeed during engine start by.
Option A. a preset timed cutoff of the airflow at the source.
Option B. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed speed.
Option C. activation of a flyweight cutout switch.
Correct Answer is. activation of a flyweight cutout switch.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-49.

Question Number. 28. Air turbine starters are generally designed so that reduction gear distress or damage may be
detected by.
Option A. inspection of a magnetic chip detector.
Option B. characteristic sounds from the starter assembly during engine start.
Option C. breakage of a shear section on the starter drive shaft.
Correct Answer is. inspection of a magnetic chip detector.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-51.

Question Number. 29. Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance technicians usually includes checking the.

Option A. stator and rotor blades for FOD.

Option B. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.

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Option C. rotor alignment.

Correct Answer is. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-51.

Question Number. 30. Pneumatic starters are usually designed with what types of airflow impingement systems?.
Option A. Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow turbine.
Option B. Centrifugal compressor and axial-flow compressor.
Option C. Double entry centrifugal outward flow and axial-flow turbines.
Correct Answer is. Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow turbine.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-49.

Question Number. 31. A clicking sound heard at engine coast-down in a pneumatic starter incorporating a sprag
clutch ratchet assembly is an indication of.
Option A. gear tooth and/or pawl damage.
Option B. one or more broken pawl springs.
Option C. the pawls re-contacting and riding on the ratchet gear.
Correct Answer is. the pawls re-contacting and riding on the ratchet gear.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-50.

Question Number. 32. The primary advantage of pneumatic (air turbine) starters over comparable electric starters
for turbine engines is.
Option A. high power-to-weight ratio.
Option B. reduction gearing not required.
Option C. a decreased fire hazard.
Correct Answer is. high power-to-weight ratio.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 33. The purpose of an under current relay in a starter-generator system is to.
Option A. keep current flow to the starter-generator under the circuit capacity maximum.
Option B. disconnect power from the starter-generator and ignition when sufficient engine speed is reached.
Option C. provide a backup for the starter relay.
Correct Answer is. disconnect power from the starter-generator and ignition when sufficient engine speed is
reached.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-46.

Question Number. 34. How does the ignition system of a gas turbine engine differ from that of a reciprocating
engine?.
Option A. Magneto to engine timing is not critical.
Option B. One igniter plug is used in each combustion chamber.
Option C. A high energy spark is required for ignition.
Correct Answer is. A high energy spark is required for ignition.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-102.

Question Number. 35. In a gas turbine engine D.C capacitor discharge ignition system, where are the high voltage
pulses formed?.
Option A. At the rectifier.
Option B. At the triggering transformer.
Option C. At the breaker.
Correct Answer is. At the triggering transformer.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-103.

Question Number. 36. Igniter plugs used in turbine engines are subjected to high intensity spark discharges and yet
they have a long service life because they.
Option A. operate at much lower temperatures.
Option B. are not placed directly into the combustion chamber.
Option C. do not require continuous operation.
Correct Answer is. do not require continuous operation.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-105.

Question Number. 37. Great caution should be exercised in handling damaged hermetically sealed turbine engine
igniter transformer units because.
Option A. some contain toxic chemicals.
Option B. some contain radioactive material.
Option C. compounds in the unit may become a fire or explosion hazard when exposed to the air.

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Correct Answer is. some contain radioactive material.

Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-106.

Question Number. 38. Generally, when removing a turbine engine igniter plug, in order to eliminate the possibility
of the technician receiving a lethal shock, the ignition switch is turned off and.
Option A. disconnected from the power supply circuit.
Option B. the transformer exciter input lead is disconnected and the center electrode grounded to the engine after
disconnecting the igniter lead from the plug and waiting the prescribed time.
Option C. the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and the center electrode grounded to the engine after
disconnecting the transformer-exciter input lead and waiting the prescribed time.
Correct Answer is. the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and the center electrode grounded to the engine
after disconnecting the transformer-exciter input lead and waiting the prescribed time.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 39. What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a turbine engine?.
Option A. A rise in the engine fuel flow.
Option B. A rise in oil pressure.
Option C. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.
Correct Answer is. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 40. H.E.I.U ignitor plugs receive their electrical supply from.
Option A. discharge inductor.
Option B. starter system electrical circuit.
Option C. discharge capacitor.
Correct Answer is. discharge capacitor.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 129.

Question Number. 41. An H.E.I.U is rated in.

Option A. Joules.
Option B. Watts.
Option C. Amps.
Correct Answer is. Joules.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbines Powerplant Page 11-5 to 11-7 refers.

Question Number. 42. A glow plug operates.

Option A. manually.
Option B. by heat action.
Option C. electrically.
Correct Answer is. by heat action.
Explanation. The extreme heat of the plug ignites the fuel. It is powered by electricity. See Jeppesen Aircraft Gas
Turbines page 11-9.

Question Number. 43. The resistor in a D.C. starter motor.

Option A. prevents over speed.
Option B. prevents current surge when motor is at low rpm.
Option C. used when D.C. motor fails.
Correct Answer is. prevents current surge when motor is at low rpm.
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 122 refers.

Question Number. 44. Where does the high voltage type turbine ignition receive its voltage pulse from?.
Option A. Primary windings.
Option B. Rectifier.
Option C. Trigger transformer.
Correct Answer is. Primary windings.
Explanation. Rolls Royce the jet engine Fig 11-12 shows an AC system. this uses a transformer to generate the high
voltage at the discharge gap.

Question Number. 45. On a gas turbine engine DC starting circuit, if there is an open circuit on the contact of the
over speed relay.
Option A. starter motor will stop only when starter switch selected off.
Option B. starter motor will continue to run for 30 sec and then stop.
Option C. no power supply is connected to the starter motor.
Correct Answer is. no power supply is connected to the starter motor.
Explanation. Refer Fig 11-3 Rolls Royce The Jet engine. The main relay cannot close if the overspeed relay is open.

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Question Number. 46. The field of the D.C. starter motor used on gas turbine engine
is.
Option A. series only.
Option B. shunt or compound.
Option C. series or compound.
Correct Answer is. series or compound.
Explanation. Aircraft electrical systems E.H.J Pallett 3rd edition page 154 refers.

Question Number. 47. When 'blow out' is selected on the Gas Turbine Engine starting circuit.
Option A. the starter motor is stopped when starter switch selected off or when the timer switch cuts out.
Option B. the over-speed relay will de-energise the starter circuit.
Option C. ignition is continuously on.
Correct Answer is. the starter motor is stopped when starter switch selected off or when the timer switch cuts out.
Explanation. Refer Fig 11-3 Rolls Royce The Jet Engine. The blow out circuit is used to blow out any jet pipe fire. In
this mode there is no ignition or fuel hence the starter cannot overspeed.

Question Number. 48. After an unsuccessful start of an engine.

Option A. the engine has to be left for some time before another start.
Option B. unburnt fuel can be drained from fuel drainage lines.
Option C. unburnt fuel can be evacuated by motoring the engine with H.P cock closed.
Correct Answer is. unburnt fuel can be evacuated by motoring the engine with H.P cock closed.
Explanation. On normal shutdowns combustors and fuel manifolds are drained through the drain manifold. After an
unsuccessful start there will be fuel throughout the hot section. Hence a dry run is needed to purge the engine.

Question Number. 49. A glow plug may be used in place of a spark plug on.
Option A. low temperature engines.
Option B. large engines.
Option C. small engines.
Correct Answer is. small engines.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 11-9 refers to the PW PT6 as an example of a smaller
engine.

Question Number. 50. When an engine being started by an air starter reaches self sustaining speed.
Option A. the motor is disconnected by the flyweight cut out switch.
Option B. the starter valve is disconnected by the fly weight cut-out switch in the air starter.
Option C. the motor is disconnected by the pilot.
Correct Answer is. the starter valve is disconnected by the fly weight cut-out switch in the air starter.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 10-9 refers.

Question Number. 51. When reconnecting a H.E.I.U , which cable must be reconnected first?.
Option A. It makes no difference.
Option B. L.T before H.T.
Option C. H.T before L.T.
Correct Answer is. H.T before L.T.
Explanation. This is the reverse of disconnecting, when L.T is isolated and then disconnected first.

Question Number. 52. An aircraft flying through heavy rain may use, as a precaution.
Option A. airframe deicing.
Option B. engine intake deicing.
Option C. continuous ignition.
Correct Answer is. continuous ignition.
Explanation. Continuous ignition is used in case of flame out caused by the inclement weather.

Question Number. 53. The starter light is on during a start cycle (low voltage electrical starter).
Option A. Indicates electrical power is flowing to the starter.
Option B. If the light stays on after 30 seconds action is required.
Option C. This is normal for 30 seconds, take no action.
Correct Answer is. If the light stays on after 30 seconds action is required.
Explanation. See the Rolls Royce Jet engine low voltage starter system on page 123. The indicator light indicates
power to the igniter. The Full current time switch cuts out the circuit after a period of time.

Question Number. 54. A D.C starter motor disconnects due to.

Option A. current decreasing switching off an overspeed relay.
Option B. current increasing switching off an overspeed relay.

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Option C. a centrifugal switch that acts like an overspeed relay.

Correct Answer is. current decreasing switching off an overspeed relay.
Explanation. Same starter circuit reference as above. As the starter accelerates drawn current reduces and causes
the overspeed relay to drop out.

Question Number. 55. What is the purpose of the current limiting resistor in a starter circuit?.
Option A. To prevent the starter from over speeding in the final phase of starting.
Option B. To provide overall control of the the speed of the starter.
Option C. To prevent an initial current surge.
Correct Answer is. To prevent an initial current surge.
Explanation. The starter motor is protected from excessive current until the timer shorts out the resistor. See RR
the jet engine page 123.

Question Number. 56. On a low energy dual ignition system (<3 joules), if a relight is necessary.
Option A. it occurs automatically.
Option B. the pilot selects both ignitors.
Option C. the pilot selects one of the two ignitors.
Correct Answer is. the pilot selects both ignitors.
Explanation. Normal low/high systems have a choice of low or high energy ignition with high being used for relight.
In these systems the pilot can choose 1, 2 or both.

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