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Pharmacology Post RN 1st Semester 2021

The document contains a comprehensive set of questions and answers related to pharmacology for the Post RN 1st semester in 2021. It covers various topics including pharmacokinetics, drug administration routes, antibiotic classifications, drug mechanisms, and specific drug effects. The answer key provides the correct responses for each question, facilitating study and review.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
530 views11 pages

Pharmacology Post RN 1st Semester 2021

The document contains a comprehensive set of questions and answers related to pharmacology for the Post RN 1st semester in 2021. It covers various topics including pharmacokinetics, drug administration routes, antibiotic classifications, drug mechanisms, and specific drug effects. The answer key provides the correct responses for each question, facilitating study and review.

Uploaded by

salman18kp
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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PHARMACOLGY (POST RN 1st SEMESTER ) 2021

1. Pharmacokinetics is:
a. The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b. The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
c. The study of mechanisms of drug action
d. The study of methods of new drug development
2. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a. Complications of drug therapy
b. Drug biotransformation in the organism
c. Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
d. Influence of drugs on genes
3. The branch of pharmacology which deal the dosage of drugs ___________ .
a. Pharmacy
b. Psology
c. Chemotherapy
d. A & B both
4. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?
a. Plasma protein binding degree of substance
b. Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
c. Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route
administration
d. Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze
5. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver
is minimized:
a. Oral
b. Transdermal
c. Rectal
d. Intraduodenal
6. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect?
a. Sublingual
b. Oral
c. Intravenous
d. Intramuscular
7. All of the following antibiotics are macrolides, Except
a. Erythromycin
b. Clarithromycin
c. Azithromycin
d. Ceftriaxone
8. All of the following antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria cell ,EXCEPT
a. Macrolides
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Tetracycline
d. Penicillin
9. Those medicines for which the physician prescription is not required called __
a. OTC
b. Norcotics
c. Opoids
d. All of these
10. ____________ means when the combination of drugs increase the effect.
a. Antagonisms
b. Synergisms
c. Teratogenic
d. Agonist
11. A drug that binds to a cell receptor and causes a response is called an:
a. Agonist
b. Antagonist
c. Receptor blocker
d. none of these
12. Most drugs and metabolites are excreted by
a. The kidneys
b. The bile
c. The lungs
d. Perspiration, saliva and tears
13. The duration of action of a drug is dependent of its
a. Plasma and tissue binding
b. Metabolism
c. Tubular filtration and secretion
d. All the above
14. Oswald Schmiedeberg is known as
a. Father of Medicine
b. Father of Pharmacognosy
c. Father of Polypharmacy
d. Father of Pharmacology
15. Factor which can affect the absorption of drug is
a. Dissolution rate
b. Particle Size
c. Lipid Solubility
d. All the above
16. Teratogenicity is
a. The acute reaction to drugs
b. Intolerance to drugs
c. Tumour forming action of the drugs
d. Malformation of the fetus
17. Drug metabolism occurs chiefly in
a. Liver
b. Brain
c. Spleen
d. Kidneys
18. A drug is said to be potent when
a. It produces maximal response
b. The amount needed to produce a certain response is less
c. It produces minimal/no side effect
d. It has a rapid onset of action
19. A Prodrug is
a. The prototype member of a class of drugs
b. The oldest member of a class of drugs
c. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite
d. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation
20. Therapeutic index is the ratio of:
a. LD50 over the ED50
b. ED50over the LD50
c. bioavailability over drug dose
d. apparent volume of distribution over elimination rate constant.
21. Dose at which 50% population shows response ___
a. Toxic dose
b. LD 50
c. ED 50
d. None of these
22. unwanted/unintended effect of drug that happens with normal doses called ___
a. Adverse drug reaction
b. Synergisms
c. antagonisms
d. both A & B
23. Morphine drug source is ___
a. Animal
b. Plant
c. Mineral
d. Micro-organisms
24. Which is an example of Beta Lactam antibiotic?
a. Erythromycin
b. Cephalosporin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Tetracycline
25. Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation?
a. Acetylation
b. Reduction
c. Oxidation
d. Hydrolysis
26. Half life (t ½) is the time required to:
a. Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
b. Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
c. Absorb a half of an introduced drug
d. Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
27. Bactericidal effect is:
a. Inhibition of bacterial cell division
b. Inhibition of young bacterial cell growth
c. Destroying of bacterial cells
d. Formation of bacterial L-form
28. Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bactericidal effect?
a. Tetracyclines
b. Macrolides
c. Penicillins
d. All of the above
29. Bacteristatic effect is:
a. Inhibition of bacterial cell division
b. Inhibition of young bacterial cells growth
c. Destroying of bacterial cells
d. Formation of bacterial L-form
30. Which of the following antibiotics contains a beta-lactam ring in their chemical structure : a
a. Penicillins
b. Cephalosporins
c. Carbapenems and monobactams
d. All groups
31. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-macrolides:
a. Neomycin
b. Doxycycline
c. Erythromycin
d. Cefotaxime
32. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-carbapenems:
a. Aztreonam
b. Amoxacillin
c. Imipinem
d. Clarithromycin
33. All of antibiotics are aminoglycosides, EXCEPT:
a. Gentamycin
b. Streptomycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Neomycin
34. Which of the following drugs is a gastric acid resistant:
a. Penicillin G
b. Penicillin V
c. Carbenicillin
d. Procain penicillin
35. Which of the following drugs is penicillinase resistant:
a. Oxacillin
b. Amoxacillin
c. Bicillin-5
d. Penicillin G
36. Tick the anticancer drug of plant origin:
a. Dactinomycin
b. Vincristine
c. Methotrexate
d. Procarbazine
37. Methotrexate is:
a. A purine antagonist
b. A folic acid antagonist
c. An antibiotic
d. An alkylating agent
38. Action mechanism of methotrexate is:
a. Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
b. Activation of cell differentiation
c. Catabolic depletion of serum asparagine
d. All of the above
39. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of gout has as its primary effect the
reduction of uric acid synthesis
a. Allopurinol
b. Sulfinpyrazone
c. Colchicine
d. Indomethacin
40. Route of administration of vitamin D3 is:
a. Subcutaneous
b. Oral
c. Intravenous
d. Intranasal
41. Narcotics analgesics should:
a. Relieve severe pain
b. Induce loss of sensation
c. Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect
d. Induce a stupor or somnolent state
42. Indicate the narcotic analgesic, which is a natural agonist:
a. Meperidine
b. Fentanyl
c. Morphine
d. Naloxone
43. Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?
a. Meperidine
b. Buprenorphine
c. Naloxone
d. Butorphanol
44. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used in obstetric labor?
a. Fentanyl
b. Pentazocine
c. Meperidine
d. Buprenorphine
45. The primary mechanism of action of local anesthetics is:
a. Activation of ligand-gated potassium channels
b. Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels
c. Stimulation of voltage-gated N-type calcium channels
d. Blockade the GABA-gated chloride channels
46. Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs:
a. Edrophonium
b. Physostigmine
c. Carbachol
d. Isoflurophate
47. Parasympathomimetic drugs cause:
a. Bronchodilation
b. Mydriasis
c. Bradycardia
d. Constipation
48. Which of the following cholinomimetics is commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma? A
a. Pilocarpine
b. Lobeline
c. Acethylcholine
d. Neostigmine
49. Which of the following sympathomimetics acts indirectly?
a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Ephedrine
d. Methoxamine
50. Which of the following drugs is an nonselective beta receptor antagonist?
a. Metoprolol
b. Atenolol
c. Propranolol
d. Acebutolol
51. Vasopressin possesses the following:
a. Antidiuretic property
b. Vasodilatation property
c. Release of a thyroid hormone into the plasma
d. Diuretic property
52. Oxytocin produces the following effects:
a. It causes contraction of the uterus
b. It assists the progress of spermatozoa into the uterine cavity
c. It brings about milk ejection from the lactating mammary gland
d. All of the above
53. Currently used oral hypoglycemic biguanides include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Repaglinide (Prandin)
b. Metformin
c. Phenformine
d. Glipizide
54. Which of the following glucocorticoids is a long-acting drug?
a. Prednisolon
b. Dexamethasone
c. Triamcinolone
d. All of the above
55. Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug:
a. Scopolamine
b. Pipecuronium
c. Trimethaphan
d. Pilocarpine
56. Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent:
a. Vencuronium
b. Scopolamine
c. Succinylcholine
d. Hexamethonium
57. Sympathetic stimulation is mediated by:
a. Release of norepinephrine from nerve terminals
b. Activation of adrenoreceptors on postsynaptic sites
c. Release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
d. All of the above
58. Catecholamine includes following EXCEPT:
a. Ephedrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Isoprenaline
d. Norepinephrine
59. All of the following agents belong to cardiac glycosides EXCEPT:
a. Digoxin
b. Strophantin K
c. Amrinone
d. Digitoxin
60. Choose the derivative of the plant Foxglove (Digitalis):
a. Digoxin
b. Strophantin K
c. Dobutamine
d. Amrinone
61. Which of the following antianginal agents is a calcium channel blocker?
a. Nitroglycerin
b. Dipyridamole
c. Minoxidil
d. Nifedipine
62. Main clinical use of calcium channel blockers is:
a. Angina pectoris
b. Hypertension
c. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
d. All of the above
63. Which of the following antianginal agents is a beta-adrenoceptor-blocking drug:
a. Dipyridamole
b. Validol
c. Atenolol
d. Alinidine
64. The following agents are cardioselective beta1-adrenoceptor-blocking drugs labeled for use in
angina, EXCEPT:
a. Metoprolol
b. Talinolol
c. Atenolol
d. Propranolol
65. This drug is contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma:
a. Propranolol
b. Clonidine
c. Enalapril
d. Nifedipine
66. Pick out the bronchodilator drug belonging to sympathomimics:
a. Isoprenaline
b. Ephedrine
c. Atropine
d. Salbutamol
67. Indicate the drug which is a leucotriene receptor antagonist:
a. Sodium cromoglycate
b. Zafirlucast
c. Zileutin
d. Triamcinolone
68. Indicate the drug belonging to proton pump inhibitors:
a. Pirenzepine
b. Ranitidine
c. Omeprazole
d. Trimethaphan
69. Choose the drug which is a H2-receptor antagonist:
a. Omeprazole
b. Pirenzepine
c. Carbenoxolone
d. Ranitidine
70. Norepinephrine produces:
a. Vasoconstriction
b. Vasodilatation
c. Bronchodilation
d. Decresed potassium concentration in the plasma

Answer keys
1. B
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. d
8. d
9. a
10. b
11. a
12. a
13. d
14. d
15. d
16. d
17. a
18. b
19. c
20. a
21. c
22. a
23. b
24. b
25. a
26. a
27. c
28. c
29. a
30. d
31. c
32. c
33. c
34. b
35. a
36. b
37. b
38. a
39. a
40. b
41. a
42. c
43. c
44. c
45. b
46. c
47. c
48. a
49. c
50. c
51. a
52. d
53. d
54. b
55. a
56. c
57. d
58. a
59. c
60. a
61. d
62. d
63. c
64. d
65. a
66. b
67. b
68. c
69. d
70. a

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