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GENERAL / FINANCIAL AWARENESS

TOPIC PAGE
TOPIC NAME
NO. NO.
1. Banking & Financial Awareness 2-53
2. Economy 54-91
3. Union Budget 92-120
4. Government Schemes 121-152
5. Awards and Honors 153-181
6. Agreements and MoU 182-210
7. Sports 211-243
8. Polity 244-276
9. Indexes and Reports 277-297
10. Science and Technology 298-333
11. National Parks & Sanctuaries 334-364
12. Books and Authors 365-388
13. Appointments and Resignations 389-405
14. Committees and Recommendations 406-426
15. Summits and Conferences 427-457
16. Art and Culture 458-498
17. General Science 499-573
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BANKING & FINANCIAL AWARENESS

Banking awareness is a part of the general awareness section in the bank exams. It
comprises questions related to the history of banks in India, the Banking Institutions,
banking terms and the functions and role of the banking industry in the financial system of
the country.

History of Banking in India

The banking sector development can be divided into three phases:
Phase I: The Early Phase which lasted from 1770 to 1969.
Phase II: The Nationalization Phase which lasted from 1969 to 1991.
Phase III: The Liberalization or the Banking Sector Reforms Phase which began in 1991
and continues to flourish till date.

Pre Independence-Period (1786-1947)

The first bank of India was the “Bank of Hindustan”, established in 1770 and located in the
then, Indian capital, Calcutta. However, this bank failed to work and ceased operations in
1832. During the Pre-Independence period over 600 banks had been registered in the
country, but only few managed to survive.

Following the path of Bank of Hindustan, various other banks were established in
India. They were:
• The General Bank of India (1786-1791)
• Oudh Commercial Bank (1881-1958)

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• Bank of Bengal (1809)

• Bank of Bombay (1840)
• Bank of Madras (1843)

During the British rule in India, The East India Company had established three banks: Bank
of Bengal, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras and called them the Presidential Banks.
These three banks were later merged into one single bank in 1921, which was called the
“Imperial Bank of India.”

The Imperial Bank of India was later nationalized in 1955 and was named The State Bank
of India, which is currently the largest public sector Bank.

Given below is a list of other banks which were established during the Pre-
Independence period:

Post Independence Period (1947-1991)

At the time, when India got independence, all the major banks of the country were led
privately which was a cause of concern as the people belonging to rural areas were still
dependent on moneylenders for financial assistance.
With an aim to solve this problem, the then Government decided to nationalize the Banks.
These banks were nationalized under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Whereas, the
Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in 1949.
Following it was the formation of State Bank of India in 1955 and other 14 banks were
nationalized between the time duration of 1969 to 1991. These were the banks whose
national deposits were more than 50 crores.

Given below is the list of these 14 Banks nationalized in 1969:

1. Allahabad Bank
2. Bank of India
3. Bank of Baroda

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4. Bank of Maharashtra
5. Central Bank of India
6. Canara Bank
7. Dena Bank
8. Indian Overseas Bank
9. Indian Bank
10. Punjab National Bank
11. Syndicate Bank
12. Union Bank of India
13. United Bank
14. UCO Bank

In the year 1980, another 6 banks were nationalized, taking the number to 20 banks.
These banks included:

1. Andhra Bank
2. Corporation Bank
3. New Bank of India
4. Oriental Bank of Comm.
5. Punjab & Sind Bank
6. Vijaya Bank

A part from the above mentioned 20 banks, there were seven subsidiaries of SBI which
were nationalized in 1959:

1. State Bank of Patiala

2. State Bank of Hyderabad
3. State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur
4. State Bank of Mysore
5. State Bank of Travancore
6. State Bank of Saurashtra
7. State Bank of Indore

All these banks were later merged with the State Bank of India in 2017, except for the State
Bank of Saurashtra, which was merged in 2008 and State Bank of Indore, which was merged
in 2010.

Impact of Nationalization

There were various reasons why the Government chose to nationalize the banks.

Given below is the impact of Nationalizing Banks in India:

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• This lead to an increase in funds and thereby increasing the economic condition of the
country.
• Increased Efficiency
• Helped in boosting the rural and agricultural sector of the country
• It opened up a major employment opportunity for the people
• The Government used profit gained by Banks for the betterment of the people
• The competition was decreased, and work efficiency had increased.
• This post Independence phase was the one that led to major developments in the banking
sector of India and also in the evolution of the banking sector.

Liberalization Period (1991-Till Date)

Once the banks were established in the country, regular monitoring and regulations need to
be followed to continue the profits provided by the banking sector. The last phase or the on
going phase of the banking sector development plays a significant role.
To provide stability and profitability to the Nationalized Public sector Banks, the
Government decided to set up a committee under the leadership of Shri. M Narasimha to
manage the various reforms in the Indian banking industry.
The biggest development was the introduction of Private sector banks in India. RBI
gavelicenseto10 Private sector banks to establish themselves in the country. These banks
included:

1. Global Trust Bank

2. ICICI Bank
3. HDFC Bank
4. Axis Bank
5. Bank of Punjab
6. IndusInd Bank
7. Centurion Bank
8. IDBI Bank
9. Times Bank
10. Development Credit Bank

The other measures taken include:

• Setting up of branches of the various Foreign Banks in India.
• No more nationalization of Banks could be done.
• The committee announced that RBI and Government would treat both public and private
sector banks equally.
• Any Foreign Bank could start joint ventures with Indian Banks.
• Payments banks were introduced with the development in the field of banking and
technology.

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• Small Finance Banks were allowed to set their branches across India.
• A major part of Indian banking moved online with internet banking and apps available
for fund transfer.

Important Functions of Bank

There are two types of functions of banks:

• Primary functions – being primary are also called banking functions.
• Secondary Functions

Primary Functions of Bank

All banks have to perform two major primary functions namely:

1. Accepting of deposits
2. Granting of loans and advances

Accepting of Deposits

A very basic yet important function of all the commercial banks is mobilizing public funds,
providing safe custody of savings and interest on the savings to depositors. Bank accepts
different types of deposits from the public such as:

• Saving Deposits: encourages saving habits among the public. It is suitable for salary
and wage earners. The rate of interest is low. There is no restriction on the number and
amount of withdrawals. The account for saving deposits can be opened in a single name
or in joint names. The depositors just need to maintain minimum balance which varies
across different banks. Also, Bank provides ATM cum debit card, cheque book, and
Internet banking facility. Candidates can know about the Types of Cheques at the linked
page.

• Fixed Deposits: Also known as Term Deposits. Money is deposited for a fixed tenure.
No withdrawal money during this period allowed. In case depositors withdraw before
maturity, banks levy a penalty for premature withdrawal. As a lump-sum amount is paid
at one time for a specific period, the rate of interest is high but varies with the period of
deposit.

• Current Deposits: They are opened by businessmen. The account holders get an over
draft facility on this account. These deposits act as a short term loan to meet urgent needs.
Bank charges a high-interest rate along with the charges for overdraft facility in order to
maintain a reserve for unknown demands for the overdraft.

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• Recurring Deposits: A certain sum of money is deposited in the bank at a regular

interval. Money can be withdrawn only after the expiry of a certain period. A higher rate
of interest is paid on recurring deposits as it provides a benefit of compounded rate of
interest and enables depositors to collect a big sum of money. This type of account is
operated by salaried persons and petty traders.

Granting of Loans & Advances

The deposits accepted from the public are utilized by the banks to advance loans to the
businesses and individuals to meet their uncertainties. Bank charges a higher rate of interest
on loans and advances than what it pays on deposits. The difference between the lending
interest rate and interest rate for deposits is bank profit.

Bank offers the following types of Loans and Advances:

• Bank Overdraft: This facility is for current account holders. It allows holders to
withdraw money anytime more than available in bank balance but up to the provided
limit. An overdraft facility is granted against collateral security. The interest in overdraft
is paid only on the borrowed amount for the period for which the loan is taken.

• Cash Credits: A short term loan facility up to a specific limit fixed in advance. Banks
allow the customer to take a loan against a mortgage of certain property (tangible assets
and/guarantees). Cash credit is given to any type of account holders and also to those
who do not have an account with a bank. Interest is charged on the amount with draw
nine excess of the limit. Through cash credit, a larger amount of loan is sanctioned than
that of overdraft for a longer period.

• Loans: Banks lend money to the customer for short term or medium periods of say 1 to
5 years against tangible assets. Nowadays, banks do lend money for the long term. The
borrower repays the money either in a lump-sum amount or in the form of instalments
spread over a pre-decided time period. Bank charges interest on the actual amount of
loans sanctioned, whether withdrawn or not. The interest rate is lower than overdrafts
and cash credits facilities.

• Discounting the Bill of Exchange: It is a type of short-term loan, where the seller
discounts the bill from the bank for some fees. The bank advances money by discounting
or purchasing the bills of exchange. It pays the bill amount to the drawer(seller) on behalf
of the drawee (buyer) by deducting usual discount charges. On maturity, the bank
presents the bill to the drawee or acceptor to collect the bill amount.

Secondary Functions of Bank

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Like Primary Functions of Bank, the secondary functions are also classified into two
parts:
1. Agency functions
2. Utility Functions
Agency Functions of Bank
Banks are the agents for their customers, hence it has to perform various agency functions
as mentioned below:

• Transfer of Funds: Transferring of funds from one branch/place to another.

• Periodic Collections: Collecting dividend, salary, pension, and similar periodic
collections on the clients’ behalf.
• Periodic Payments: Making periodic payments of rents, electricity bills, etc on behalf
of the client.
• Collection of Cheques: Like collecting money from the bills of exchanges, the bank
collects the money of the cheques through the clearing section of its customers.
• Portfolio Management: Banks manage the portfolio of their clients. It undertakes the
activity to purchase and sell the shares and debentures of the clients and debits or credits
the account.
• Other Agency Functions: Under this bank act as a representative of its clients for other
institutions. It acts as an executor, trustee, administrators, advisers, etc. of the client.

Utility Functions of Bank

• Issuing letters of credit, traveler’s cheque, etc.
• Undertaking safe custody of valuables, important documents, and securities by
providing safe deposit vaults or lockers.
• Providing customers with facilities of foreign exchange dealings
• Underwriting of shares and debentures
• Dealing in foreign exchanges
• Social Welfare programmers
• Project reports
• Standing guarantee on behalf of its customers, etc.

Types of Banks
Banks can be classified into various types. Given below are the bank types in India:
• Central Bank
• Cooperative Banks
• Commercial Banks
• Regional Rural Banks (RRB)
• Local Area Banks (LAB)

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• Specialized Banks
• Small Finance Banks
• Payments Banks

Central Bank
The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of our country. Each country has a central
bank that regulates all the other banks in that particular country. The main function of the
central bank is to act as the Government’s Bank and guide and regulate the other banking
institutions in the country.

Given below are the functions of the central bank of a country:

• Guiding other banks
• Issuing currency
• Implementing the monetary policies
• Supervisor of the financial system

In other words, the central bank of the country may also be known as the banker’s bank
provides assistance to the other banks of the country and manages the financial system of
the country, under the supervision of the Government.

Cooperative Banks:
These banks are organized under the state government’s act. They give short term loans to
the agriculture sector and other allied activities.
The main goal of Cooperative Banks is to promote social welfare by providing concessional
loans.

They are organized in the 3 tier structure:

• Tier 1 (State Level) – State Cooperative Banks (regulated by RBI, State Govt,
NABARD)
• Tier 2 (District Level) – Central/District Cooperative Banks
• Tier 3 (Village Level) – Primary Agriculture Cooperative Banks

Commercial Banks:
• Organized under the Banking Companies Act, 1956
• They operate on a commercial basis and its main objective is profit.
• They have a unified structure and are owned by the government, state, or any private
entity.
• They tend to all sectors ranging from rural to urban.
• These banks do not charge concessional interest rates unless instructed by the RBI.
• Public deposits are the main source of funds for these banks.

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Regional Rural Banks (RRB)

• These are special types of commercial Banks that provide concessional credit to
agriculture and rural sector.
• RRBs were established in 1975 and are registered under a Regional Rural Bank Act,
1976.
• RRBs are joint ventures between the Central government (50%), State government
(15%),and a Commercial Bank (35%).
• 196 RRBs have been established from 1987 to 2005.
• From 2005 onwards government started merger of RRBs thus reducing the number of
RRBs to 82
• One RRB cannot open its branches in more than 3 geographically connected districts.

Local Area Banks (LAB)

• Introduced in India in the year 1996.
• These are organized by the private sector.
• Earning profit is the main objective of Local Area Banks
• Local Area Banks are registered under companies Act, 1956
• At present, there are only 4 Local Area Banks all which are located in South India

Specialized Banks
Certain banks are introduced for specific purposes only. Such banks are called specialized
banks.
• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) – Loan for a small-scale
industry or business can be taken from SIDBI. Financing small industries with modern
technology and equipment is done with the help of this bank.
• EXIM Bank – EXIM Bank stands for Export and Import Bank. To get loans or other
financial assistance with exporting or importing goods by foreign countries can be done
through this type of bank.
• National Bank for Agricultural & Rural Development (NABARD) – To get any kind
of financial assistance for rural, handicraft, village, and agricultural development, people
can turn to NABARD.

Small Finance Banks

As the name suggests, this type of bank looks after the micro industries, small farmers, and
the unorganized sector of the society by providing them loans and financial assistance.
These banks are governed by the central bank of the country. Given below is the list of the
Small Finance Banks in our country:

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Payments Banks

A newly introduced form of banking, the payments bank has been conceptualized by the
Reserve Bank of India. People with an account in the payments bank can only deposit an
amount of uptoRs.1,00,000/- and cannot apply for loans or credit cards under this account.
Options for online banking, mobile banking, the issue of ATM, and debit card can be done
through payments banks.

Given below is a list of the few payments bank in our country:

• Airtel Payments Bank

• India Post Payments Bank
• Fano Payments Bank
• Jio Payments Bank
• Paytm Payments Bank
• NSDL Payments Bank

Reserve Bank of India (RBI):

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central banking institution, which controls
the monetary policy of the Indian rupee.
• The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the
provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (recommendations of Hilton Young
Commission).
• The Central Office of the Reserve Bank was initially established in Calcutta but was
permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937. The Central Office is where the Governor sits
and where policies are formulated.
• Though originally privately owned, since nationalization in 1949, the Reserve Bank is
fully owned by the Government of India. RBI was nationalized on 1 January 1949.

Main Functions of RBI:

Monetary Authority:
• Formulates, implements and monitors the monetary policy.

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• Objective: maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

Regulator and supervisor of the financial system:

• Prescribes broad parameters of banking operations within which the country's banking
and financial system functions such as commercial banks, financial institutions and non-
banking finance companies.
• Objective: maintain public confidence in the system, protect depositors' interest and
provide cost-effective banking services to the public.

Manager of Foreign Exchange:

• Manages the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
• Objective: to facilitate external trade and payment and promote orderly development and
maintenance of foreign exchange market in India.

Issuer of currency:
• Issues and exchanges or destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation.
• Objective: to give the public adequate quantity of supplies of currency notes and coins
and in good quality.

Developmental role:
• Performs a wide range of promotional functions to support national objectives.

Banking Related Functions:

• Banker to the Government: performs merchant banking function for the central and
the state governments; also acts as their banker.
• Banker to banks: maintains banking accounts of all scheduled banks.

Subsidiaries of RBI:
Fully owned: Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (DICGC),
Bhartiya Reserve Bank Note Mudra Private Limited (BRBNMPL), and National Housing
Bank (NHB).

Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (DICGC):

Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a subsidiary of Reserve
Bank of India. It was established on 15 July 1978 under Deposit Insurance and Credit
Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961 for the purpose of providing insurance of deposits and
guaranteeing of credit facilities.

Before DICGC, there were two corporations named Deposit Insurance Corporation (DIC)
and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd. (CGCI) which were merged to form DICGC
with a view to integrate the functions of both DIC and CGCI.

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DICGC insures all bank deposits, such as saving, fixed, current, recurring deposit for up to
the limit of Rs. 100,000 of each deposit in a bank. However, if there are more accounts in
same bank, all of those are treated as a single account. The insurance premium is paid by
the insured banks itself.

The functions of the DICGC (Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation) are
governed by the provisions of 'The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
Act, 1961' (DICGC Act) and 'The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
General Regulations, 1961' framed by the Reserve Bank of India in exercise of the powers
conferred by sub-section (3) of Section 50 of the said Act. Chairman of DICGC - B.P.
Kanungo. Its head office is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

Banks covered by Deposit Insurance Scheme:

• All commercial banks including the branches of foreign banks functioning in India,
Local Area Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
• Co-operative Banks - All eligible co-operative banks as defined in Section 2(gg) of the
DICGC Act are covered by the Deposit Insurance Scheme

National Housing Bank:

National Housing Bank (NHB), a wholly owned subsidiary of Reserve Bank of India (RBI),
was set up on 9 July 1988 under the National Housing Bank Act, 1987. NHB is an apex
financial institution for housing. NHB has been established with an objective to operate as
a principal agency to promote housing finance institutions both at local and regional levels
and to provide financial and other support incidental to such institutions and for matters
connected there with.

Under the Chairmanship of Dr. C. Rangarajan, the then Deputy Governor, RBI to examine
the proposal and recommended the setting up of National Housing Bank as an autonomous
housing finance institution. NHB RESIDEX was launched first official residential housing
price index. Its Headquarters is in New Delhi, India. MD & CEO of NHB - Sriram
Kalyanaraman.

Quantitative Credit Control Policy Rates:

Repo Rate:
The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks
against the collateral of government and other approved securities under the liquidity
adjustment facility (LAF). Repo (Repurchase) rate also known as the benchmark interest
rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to the banks for a short-term (max. 90 days).
When the repo rate increases, borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive.

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Reverse Repo Rate:

The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis,
from banks against the collateral of eligible government securities under the LAF. It is
opposite to that of Repo Rate. An increase in the reverse repo rate means that the banks will
get a higher rate of interest from RBI. As a result, banks prefer to lend their money to RBI
which is always safe instead of lending it to others (people, companies etc.) which is always
risky.

Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF):

LAF is a monetary policy which allows banks borrow money through repurchase
agreements. LAF consists of repo and reverse repo operations. In LAF, money transaction
is done via RTGS (Real time Gross settlement). RTGS is an online money transfer method.
The aim of term repo is to help develop the inter-bank term money market, which in turn
can set market-based benchmarks for pricing of loans and deposits, and hence improve
transmission of monetary policy. LAF is used to aid banks in adjusting the day to day
mismatches in liquidity.

Marginal Standing Facility (MSF):

A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of
overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest. This provides a safety valve against
unanticipated liquidity shocks to the banking system. All Scheduled Commercial Banks
having Current Account and SGL (Subsidiary General Ledger Account) Account with
Reserve Bank, Mumbai will be eligible to participate in the MSF Scheme. The Facility will
be available on all working days in Mumbai, excluding Saturdays between 3.30 P.M. and
4.30 P.M. Requests will be received for a minimum amount of Rs. One crore and in
multiples of Rs. One crore there after. MSF will be undertaken in all SLR-eligible
transferable Government of India (Go) dated Securities/Treasury Bills and State
Development Loans (SDL). Corridor: The MSF rate and reverse repo rate determine the
corridor for the daily movement in the weighted average call money rate.

Bank Rate:
It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank is ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or
other commercial papers. The Bank Rate is published under Section 49 of the Reserve Bank
of India Act, 1934. This rate has been aligned to the MSF rate and, therefore, changes
automatically as and when the MSF rate changes alongside policy repo rate changes.

Reserve Ratio

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):

The average daily balance that a bank is required to maintain with the Reserve Bank as a
share of such per cent of its Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that the Reserve

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Bank may notify from time to time in the Gazette of India. Banks can’t lend the money to
corporates or individual borrowers, banks can’t use that money for investment purposes.
So, that CRR remains in current account and banks don’t earn anything on that. In terms of
Section 42(1) of the RBI Act, 1934, all Scheduled Banks are required to maintain with
Reserve Bank of India a Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) of 4% of Net Demand and Time
Liabilities (NDTL). If RBI increases CRR, the available amount with banks comes down,
RBI uses it to drain out excessive money from the banks and vice versa.

Demand Liabilities:
Demand liabilities are such deposits of the customers which are payable on demand. An
example of demand liability is a deposit maintained in a saving account or current account
that is payable on demand through a withdrawal form such as a cheque.

Time Liabilities:
Time liabilities refer to the liabilities which the commercial banks are liable to pay to the
customers after a certain period mutually agreed upon. An example of time liability is a six-
month fixed deposit which is not payable on demand but only after six months.

Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL):

The Net Demand and Time Liabilities or NDTL shows the difference between the sum of
demand and time liabilities (deposits) of a bank (with the public or the other bank) and the
deposits in the form of assets held by the other bank. Example: Suppose a bank has
deposited 5000 with the other bank and its total demand and time liabilities (including the
other bank deposit) is 10,000. Then the net demand and time liabilities will be 5,000
(10,000-5,000). Liabilities of a bank may be in the form of demand or time deposits or
borrowings or other miscellaneous items of liabilities. As defined under Section 42 of RBI
Act, 1934, liabilities of a bank may be towards banking system or towards others. "Demand
Liabilities" include all liabilities which are payable on demand. "Time Liabilities" are those
which are payable otherwise than on demand.

Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):

The share of NDTL that a bank is required to maintain in safe and liquid assets, such as,
unencumbered government securities, cash and gold. Changes in SLR often influence the
availability of resources in the banking system for lending to the private sector. Statutory
liquidity ratio is determined by Reserve Bank of India maintained by banks in order to
control the expansion of bank credit.

It is determined by a percentage of total demand and time liabilities. The SLR is commonly
used to control inflation and fuel growth, by increasing or decreasing it respectively. The
present SLR is 19.5% (June 2018), but RBI has the power to increase it up to 40%, if it so
deems fit in the interest of the economy.

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Difference between CRR & SLR:

• Both CRR and SLR are instruments in the hands of RBI to regulate money supply in the
hands of banks that they can pump in economy
• CRR is cash reserve ratio that stipulates the percentage of money or cash that banks are
required to keep with RBI
• SLR is statutory liquidity ratio and specifies the percentage of money a bank has to
maintain in the form of cash, gold, and other approved securities
• CRR controls liquidity in economy while SLR regulates credit growth in the country
• While banks themselves maintain SLR in liquid form, CRR is with RBI maintained as
cash.

Open Market Operations (OMOs):

OMOs are the market operations conducted by the RBI by way of sale/ purchase of G-Secs
(Govt Securities) to/ from the market with an objective to adjust the rupee liquidity
conditions in the market on a durable basis. When the RBI feels that there is excess
liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity.
Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, RBI may buy securities from the market,
thereby releasing liquidity into the market.

Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS):

The Reserve Bank under Governor YV Reddy initiated the MSS scheme in 2004. Market
Stabilization Scheme or MSS is a tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to suck out excess
liquidity from the market through issue of securities like Treasury Bills, Dated Securities
etc. on behalf of the government. The money raised under MSS is kept in a separate account
called MSS Account and not parked in the government account or utilized to fund its
expenditures. The Reserve Bank sharply raised the Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS)
ceiling to Rs 6 lakh crore from Rs 30,000 crore.

Qualitative Credit Controls

Marginal requirement:
The marginal requirement of a loan is the current value of security offered for a loan or the
value in totality of the loans granted. The marginal requirement is increased for those
business activities, whose flow of credit is to be restricted in the economy. The Reserve
Bank of India has been using this method since 1956. If margin percent is more, then fewer
loans will be given for a certain value of security. If margin percent is less, more loans will
be given.

Example: A person mortgages his property worth Rs. 5,00,000 against loan. The bank will
give loan of Rs. 2,50,000 only. The marginal requirement here is 20%. In case the flow of
credit has to be increased, the marginal requirement will be lowered.

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Rationing of credit:
Under this method there is a maximum limit to loans and advances that can be made, which
the commercial banks cannot exceed. RBI fixes ceiling for specific categories. Such
rationing is used for situations when credit flow is to be checked, particularly for speculative
activities. This is all fake Minimum of "capital: total assets" (ratio between capital and total
asset) can also be prescribed by Reserve Bank of India.

Direct Action:
Under the banking regulation Act, the central bank has the authority to take strict action
against any of the commercial banks that refuses to obey the directions given by Reserve
Bank of India. There can be a restriction on advancing of loans imposed by Reserve Bank
of India on such banks. e.g. – RBI had put up certain restrictions on the working of the
Metropolitan cooperative banks.

Moral Suasion: This method is also known as "moral persuasion" as the method that the
Reserve Bank of India, being the apex bank uses here, is that of persuading the commercial
banks to follow its directions/orders on the flow of credit. It is part of meetings between
RBI and Commercial Banks. RBI persuade the commercial bank to follow their policies.
RBI puts a pressure on the commercial banks to put a ceiling on credit flow during inflation
and be liberal in lending during deflation.

RBI (Reserve Bank of India)

• Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
• Governor: Dr. Urjit R. Patel
• Deputy Governors: Shri N. S. Viswanathan, Dr. Viral V. Acharya, Shri B.P. Kanungo,
Shri M K Jain (June 2018).

Banking Regulation Act, 1949

The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is a legislation in India that regulates all banking firms
in India. Passed as the Banking Companies Act 1949, it came into force from 16 March
1949 and changed to Banking Regulation Act 1949 from 1st March 1966. Initially, the law
was applicable only to banking companies. But, 1965 it was amended to make it applicable
to cooperative banks and to introduce other changes. It is applicable only in Jammu and
Kashmir in 1956 but now applicable throughout India. The Act provides a framework using
which commercial banking in India is supervised and regulated. The Act supplements the
Companies Act, 1956. Primary Agricultural Credit Society and cooperative land mortgage
banks are excluded from the Act.

In 1965, the Act was amended to include cooperative banks under its purview by adding
the Section 56. Cooperative banks, which operate only in one state, are formed and run by
the state government. But, RBI controls the licensing and regulates the business operations.

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Important Section under Banking Regulation Act, 1949:

Section 6: Form and business in which banking companies may engage
Section 7: Use of words “bank”, “banker”, “banking” or “banking company”
Section 8: Prohibition of Trading Section
Section 9: Disposal of non-banking assets
Section 11: Requirement as to minimum paid- up capital and reserves
Section 12: Regulation of paid-up capital, subscribed capital and authorized capital and
voting rights of shareholders
Section 13: Restriction on commission, brokerage, discount, etc. on sale of shares
Section 14: Prohibition of charge on unpaid capital
Section 17: Reserve Fund Section 18: Cash reserve
Section 20: Restrictions on loans and advances
Section 21: Power of Reserve Bank to control advances by banking companies
Section 22: Licensing of banking companies
Section 26: Return of unclaimed deposits.
Section 26 A: Establishment of Depositor Education and Awareness Fund
Section 29: Accounts and balance -sheet
Section 29A: Power in respect of associate enterprises
Section 30: Audit
Section 33: Display of audited balance-sheet by companies incorporated outside India
Section 35AB: Power of Reserve Bank to issue directions in respect of stressed assets
Section 45: Power of Reserve Bank to apply to Central Government for suspension of
business by a banking company and to prepare scheme of reconstitution or amalgamation
Section 46: Penalties
Section 56: Act to apply to co-operative societies subject to modifications

Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA)

The main objective of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) is to consolidate
and amend the law relating to foreign exchange with the objective of facilitating external
trade and payments and for promoting the orderly development and maintenance of foreign
exchange market in India. It was passed in the winter session of Parliament in 1999,
replacing the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) due to Foreign exchange reserves
were low. It also paved the way for the introduction of the Prevention of Money Laundering
Act, 2002, which came into effect from 1 July 2005. FEMA is applicable to all parts of
India. The act is also applicable to all branches, offices and agencies outside India owned
or controlled by a person who is a resident of India. The FEMA head-office, also known
as Enforcement Directorate is situated in New Delhi and is headed by a Director. The
Directorate is further divided into 5 zonal offices in Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and
Jalandhar and each office is headed by a Deputy Director.

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Remittance Facilities under FEMA Money Changing Activity:

• Authorized Money Changers (AMCs) are entities, authorized by the Reserve Bank
under Section 10 of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. An AMC is a Full-
Fledged Money Changer (FFMC).
• FFMCs are authorized (a) to purchase foreign exchange from nonresidents visiting
India and residents; and (b) to sell foreign exchange for certain approved purposes.

LATEST BANKING TECHNOLOGIES

Plastic Money:
Plastic Money consists in a shape of Master card, debit card, credit card and ATM card. The
basic purpose of plastic Money is to facilitate the People easily and quickly in case of
Cash/Money Transaction. Technology for banking has simplified banking and reduced time
it consumed to process transaction by introducing the following and there are various types
of plastic money:

1. Debit cards & Credit Cards

• A debit card (also known as a bank card, plastic card or check card) is aplastic payment
card that can be used instead of cash when making purchases. It is similar to a credit
card, but unlike a credit card, the money comes directly from the user's bank account
when performing a transaction.
• Debit cards are issued by banks and are linked to a bank account. Whereas Credit cards
are issued by banks / other entities approved by RBI.
• Debit cards can be used for shopping, paying for fuel, grocery, withdrawing money from
the automated teller machine. The credit cards are used for purchase of goods and
services at Point of Sale (POS) and Ecommerce (online purchase) / through Interactive
Voice Response (IVR) / Recurring transactions/ Mail Order Telephone Order (MOTO).

2. Pay bills online

• This technology is set up just to pay bills online; the reason behind setting up this
technology is minimizing the use of paper and going green by simply transferring money
online to the beneficiary be it your electricity bill, gas bill, phone bill, DTH recharges,
etc most of your bill payments can be made online through internet and wire transfers.
• Using this facility, you can keep a track on your account, estimate the money you
consumer monthly, analyze your budget and also plan your savings online by seeing
various investment options available for you online.

3. CORE (Centralized Online Real-time Exchange) banking

• CORE banking is anywhere banking with the same bank be it any location.
• All this can be done without sending the cheque outstation for clearing the transaction.
This saves on time and money for sending the cheque for clearing to another city.

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• Banking software and network technology allow a bank to centralize its record keeping
and allow access from any location.
• For example, if you have an account with ABCD Bank LTD, in X location or X branch
you can also process your transaction in Y location or Y branch.

4. Mobile banking
• Mobile banking is a service provided by a bank or other financial institution that allows
its customers to conduct financial transactions remotely using a mobile device such as a
smartphone or tablet.
• Unlike the related internet banking it uses software, usually called an app, provided by
the financial institution for the purpose. Mobile banking is usually available on a 24-
hour basis.
• Transactions through mobile banking may include obtaining account balances and lists
of latest transactions, electronic bill payments, and funds transfers between a customer's
or another's accounts.
• It reduces the cost of handling transactions by reducing the need for customers to visit a
bank branch for non-cash withdrawal and deposit transactions.

5. POS (Point-Of-Sale)
• A Point-Of-Sale (POS) or point of purchase (POP) is the time and place where a retail
transaction is completed. After receiving payment, the merchant may issue a receipt for
the transaction, which is usually printed but is increasingly being dispensed with or sent
electronically.
• Any form of payment can be used, such as cash, debit cards, credit cards, mobile
payments and even Bitcoin.

Loan
• A loan is the lending of money from one source to another source for a specified period.
A loan is a debt given by an organization to another organization with an interest rate.
• In a loan, a borrower borrows money from the lender with a certain rate of interest and
pay back it in future.
• The main activities of financial institutions like banks, NBFC, is to provide a loan to the
customer.

Types of loan
There are mainly five types of loan.

(1) Secured loan

• In a secured loan, a borrower pledges some asset as collateral like property, car etc. A
mortgage loan is a type of secured loan used by a customer. In a secured loan, a money
is using to purchase a property.

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• If in case the borrower fails to pay back the loan amount a lender has legal right to
possess the collateral security and recover the money.

(2) Unsecured loan

• In the unsecured loan, a loan is not secured against any of property of the borrower. This
type of loan is available from the financial institutions like banks, NBFCs and other
private institutions.
• In unsecured loan interest rate depends on the lender and the borrower and the rate of
interest in an unsecured loan is always higher than a secured loan.
• There is more risk associated with the unsecured loan that a customer may not pay back
an amount. In case of insolvency, unsecured lenders are the second priority to pay the
money.

(3) Demand loan

• Demand loans, as the name suggests, are short term loans.
• Short term loan means there is no fixed time to repay an amount it means it can be repaid
at any time.
• A demand loan uses the floating rate of interest to charge an interest.
• A demand loan may be a secured or unsecured.

(4) Term Loan

• A term loan is a loan from a bank for a specific amount that has a specified repayment
schedule and a fixed or floating interest rate. Term loans can be given on an individual
basis but are often used for small business loans.
• A term loan is a monetary loan that is repaid in regular payments over a set period of
time.
• Term loans usually last between one and ten years but may last as long as 30 years in
some cases. A term loan usually involves an unfixed interest rate that will add additional
balance to be repaid.

(5) Subsidized loan

• In a subsidized loan, an interest rate is reduced by subsidy.
• This type of loans is given to the students for education purpose.
• Sometimes in the subsidized loan the whole amount of interest is paid by the
government.

(6) Concessional loan

• A concessional loan is also called as a "soft loan".
• A concessional loan is given either through below market interest rates, by grace periods
or a combination of both.

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Mortgage Scheme
Under this scheme, the senior citizens can unlock and tap the value of their residential house
while enjoying the benefits of living in the house during their lifetime.
Government of India introduced reverse mortgage a scheme in 2008. This scheme is exact
‘reverse’ of plain home loan scheme. In case of a home loan one takes a lump sum loan and
repays it in instalments in future. Under the reverse mortgage scheme, you get instalments
and the loan is repayable in lump sum in future. Here, the payment stream comes to the
borrower for a fixed period of time in the form of monthly, quarterly or yearly payments.
The maximum permissible monthly payments under this scheme cannot exceed Rs. 50,000
per month.

Overdraft
• An overdraft is an extension of credit from a lending institution when an account reaches
zero or A deficit in a bank account caused by drawing more money than the account
holds.
• A bank overdraft facility means an additional source of liquidity available to businesses
and a useful tool to manage short-term cash flow problems.

MONEY MARKET & CAPITAL MARKET

Money Market
The Money market in India correlation for short-term funds with maturity ranging from
overnight to one year in India including financial instruments that are deemed to be close
substitutes of money. The money market is where financial instruments with high liquidity

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and very short maturities are traded. It is used by participants as a means for borrowing and
lending in the short term. Money Market’s Instruments are Call/Notice/Term money market,
Repurchase Agreement (Repo & Reverse Repo) market, Treasury bill market, Commercial
Bill market, Commercial paper market, Certificate of Deposit market, Cash Management
Bill (CMB).

CALL /NOTICE / TERM MONEY

The call/notice/term money market facilitates lending and borrowing of funds between
banks and entities like Primary Dealers. An institution which has surplus funds may lend
them on an uncollateralized basis to an institution which is short of funds. Money market
transactions are categorized as follows:

Call Money: Borrowing/Lending for 1 day

Notice Money: Borrowing/Lending for 2-14 days
Term Money: Borrowing/Lending for more than 14 days
The interest rates on such funds depend on the surplus funds available with lenders and the
demand for the same which remains volatile. This market is governed by the Reserve Bank
of India which issues guidelines for the various participants in the call/notice money market.

Types of Money
Money can be described as a generally accepted medium of exchange for goods and
services. They are divided into four types, they are commodity money, fiat money, fiduciary
money, and commercial bank money.

Commodity money:
Commodity money is closely related to (and originates from) a barter system, where goods
and services are directly exchanged for other goods and services. Commodity money
facilitates this process, because it acts as a generally accepted medium of exchange.
Examples of commodity money include gold coins, beads, shells, spices, etc.

Fiat Money:
Fiat money gets its value from a government order (i.e. fiat). That means, the government
declares fiat money to be legal tender, which requires all people and firms within the country
to accept it as a means of payment. Examples of fiat money include coins and bills.

Fiduciary Money:
Fiduciary money depends for its value on the confidence that it will be generally accepted
as a medium of exchange. Unlike fiat money, it is not declared legal tender by the
government, which means people are not required by law to accept it as a means of payment.
Instead, the issuer of fiduciary money promises to exchange it back for a commodity or fiat
money if requested by the bearer. Examples of fiduciary money include cheques, bank
notes, or drafts.

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Commercial Bank Money:

Commercial bank money can be described as claims against financial institutions that can
be used to purchase goods or services. It represents the portion of a currency that is made
of debt generated by commercial banks. At this point just note that in essence, commercial
bank money is debt generated by commercial banks that can be exchanged for “real” money
or to buy goods and services.

Capital Market
A capital market is a financial market in which long-term debt (over a year) or equity-
backed securities are bought and sold. Capital markets channel the wealth of savers to those
who can put it to long-term productive use, such as companies or governments making
long-term investments. Capital markets help channelize surplus funds from savers to
institutions which then invest them into productive use. Generally, this market trades mostly
in long-term securities.

Securities Market
A securities market is a market where securities are traded either on physical or electronic
exchanges. Securities markets are generally divided between stock markets and bond
markets. A stock market involves the trade of equity securities, which are ownership
interests of a company commonly known as shares. It is also classified into two
interdependent segments, i.e. They are:
1. Primary Market
2. Secondary Market

Basis For Primary Market Secondary Market

Comparison
Meaning The marketplace for new The place where formerly issued
shares is called primary securities are traded is known as
market. or Secondary Market.
The securities are. or
formerly issued in a Issued securities is then listed on a
market. recognized stock exchange for
trading.
Another name New Issue Market (NIM) After Market

Type of Purchasing Direct Indirect

Financing It supplies funds to It does not provide funding to
budding enterprises and to companies.
existing companies for
expansion and
diversification.

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How many times a Only once Multiple times

security can be
sold?
Buying and Selling Company and Investors Investors
between
Who will gain the Company Investors
amount on the sale
of shares?
Intermediary Underwriters Brokers
Price Fixed price Fluctuates, depends on the demand
and supply force
Organizational Not rooted to any specific It has physical existence.
difference spot or geographical
location.

FINANCIAL AWARENESS
Introduction:

Financial awareness refers to the knowledge and understanding of financial concepts and
principles that enables individuals to make informed decisions about their personal
finances. This includes knowledge about various financial products and services, such as
savings accounts, credit cards, loans, investments, and insurance, as well as an
understanding of financial planning, budgeting, and risk management. Financial awareness
is essential for making sound financial decisions that can help individuals achieve their
financial goals and improve their overall financial well-being.

History of Banking in India:

As per the Banking Companies Act of 1949, Banking is defined as, A financial institution
which accept deposits for the purpose of lending or investment from the public, repayable
on demand or otherwise and with drawable by cheque draft, order or otherwise.

Stages of Evolution:

Banking has its prevalence in India since Vedic times. But here We can categorize the
history of Banking into 3 stages –

1. Pre-Independence Stage – Before 1947

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2. II Phase – 1947 to 1991

3. III Phase – 1991 & beyond

Pre-Independence Stage:

• More than 600 banks were present at that phase.

• The first bank of India was established in 1770 thus marking the Banking system in India
with the foundation of the Bank of Hindustan.
• Top three banks were merge during this phase – Bank of Bengal, Bank of Bombay &
Bank of Madras and came into being as Imperial Bank, which was later taken over by
SBI in 1955
• Some other banks were also established during this period like Allahabad Bank 1865,
Punjab National Bank 1894, Bank of India 1906, Bank of Baroda 1908, Central Bank of
India 1911

History of Banking from 1947 to 1991:

• Nationalization of the Bank took place during this period.

• Central bank of India was also nationalized during this period on 1st January 1949.
• With the recommendation of Narsimha committee, Regional Rural Banks were formed
on 2nd October 1975.

History of Banking – Beyond 1991:

• Liberalized economic policies were formed to mark the progress of banks in the year
1991.
• This phase was known was the phase of expansion, consolidation, and increment in many
ways.
• RBI also gave license to 10 private entities which include – ICICI, Axis Bank, HDFC,
DCB, Indusland Bank.

Indian Financial System:

The Indian Financial System is one of the most important aspects of the economic
development of our country. This system manages the flow of funds between the people
(household savings) of the country and the ones who may invest it wisely
(investors/businessmen) for the betterment of both the parties.

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The services that are provided to a person by the various Financial Institutions including
banks, insurance companies, pensions, funds, etc. constitute the financial system.

Given below are the features of the Indian Financial system:

• It plays a vital role in the economic development of the country as it encourages both
savings and investment.
• It helps in mobilizing and allocating one’s savings.
• It facilitates the expansion of financial institutions and markets.
• Plays a key role in capital formation.
• It helps form a link between the investor and the one saving.
• It is also concerned with the Provision of funds.

Components of Indian Financial System:

There are four main components of the Indian Financial System. This includes:

1. Financial Institutions:

The Financial Institutions act as a mediator between the investor and the borrower. The
investor’s savings are mobilized either directly or indirectly via the Financial Markets.

The main functions of the Financial Institutions are as follows:

• A short-term liability can be converted into a long-term investment.

• It helps in conversion of a risky investment into a risk-free investment.
• Also acts as a medium of convenience denomination, which means, it can match a small
deposit with large loans and a large deposit with small loans.

The best example of a Financial Institution is a Bank. People with surplus amounts of
money make savings in their accounts, and people in dire need of money take loans. The
bank acts as an intermediate between the two.

The financial institutions can further be divided into two types:

Banking Institutions or Depository Institutions – This includes banks and other credit
unions which collect money from the public against interest provided on the deposits made
and lend that money to the ones in need.

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Non-Banking Institutions or Non-Depository Institutions – Insurance, mutual funds and

brokerage companies fall under this category. They cannot ask for monetary deposits but
sell financial products to their customers.

Further, Financial Institutions can be classified into three categories:

Regulatory – Institutes that regulate the financial markets like RBI, IRDA, SEBI, etc.

Intermediates – Commercial banks which provide loans and other financial assistance such
as SBI, BOB, PNB, etc.

Non-Intermediates – Institutions that provide financial aid to corporate customers. It

includes NABARD, SIBDI, etc.

2. Financial Assets:

The products which are traded in the Financial Markets are called Financial Assets. Based
on the different requirements and needs of the credit seeker, the securities in the market also
differ from each other.

Some important Financial Assets have been discussed briefly below:

Call Money – When a loan is granted for one day and is repaid on the second day, it is
called call money. No collateral securities are required for this kind of transaction.

Notice Money – When a loan is granted for more than a day and for less than 14 days, it is
called notice money. No collateral securities are required for this kind of transaction.

Term Money – When the maturity period of a deposit is beyond 14 days, it is called term
money.

Treasury Bills – Also known as T-Bills, these are Government bonds or debt securities with
maturity of less than a year. Buying a T-Bill means lending money to the Government.

Certificate of Deposits – It is a dematerialized form (Electronically generated) for funds

deposited in the bank for a specific period.

Commercial Paper – It is an unsecured short-term debt instrument issued by corporations.

3. Financial Services:

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Services provided by Asset Management and Liability Management Companies. They help
to get the required funds and make sure that they are efficiently invested.

The financial services in India include:

Banking Services – Any small or big service provided by banks like granting a loan,
depositing money, issuing debit/credit cards, opening accounts, etc.

Insurance Services – Services like issuing of insurance, selling policies, insurance

undertaking and brokerages, etc. are all a part of the Insurance services.

Investment Services – It mostly includes asset management.

Foreign Exchange Services – Exchange of currency, foreign exchange, etc. are a part of
the foreign exchange services.

The main aim of the financial services is to assist a person with selling, borrowing, or
purchasing securities, allowing payments and settlements and lending and investing.

4. Financial Markets:

The marketplace where buyers and sellers interact with each other and participate in the
trading of money, bonds, shares and other assets is called a financial market.

The financial market can be further divided into four types:

Capital Market – Designed to finance the long-term investment, the Capital market deals
with transactions which are taking place in the market for over a year. The capital market
can further be divided into three types:

A. Corporate Securities Market

B. Government Securities Market
C. Long Term Loan Market

Money Market – Mostly dominated by Government, Banks and other Large Institutions,
the type of market is authorized for small-term investments only. It is a wholesale debt
market which works on low-risk and highly liquid instruments. The money market can
further be divided into two types:

A. Organized Money Market

B. Unorganized Money Market

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Foreign exchange Market – One of the most developed markets across the world, the
foreign exchange market, deals with the requirements related to multi-currency. The transfer
of funds in this market takes place based on the foreign currency rate.

Credit Market – A market where short-term and long-term loans are granted to individuals
or Organizations by various banks and Financial and Non-Financial Institutions is called
Credit Market.

Financial Inclusion in India:

Definition: Financial Inclusion means the availability and equality of opportunities to

access financial services. Financial inclusion is mostly for those who are unbanked and
under-banked. Financial includes the access of the products of banking, loan, Insurance,
and equity.

History and Objectives: The main objective of financial inclusion is to remove all hurdles
to obtain and to provide financial products and banking services to any person who wants
them. In India, financial inclusion has been a goal since the 1950s. The nationalization of
banks in 1969 had brought banking facilities to unreached areas and regions of the country.
The Lead Bank scheme was followed by the nationalization of banks to coordinate banks
to meet their credit needs. In 1975 Government established Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
to reach rural areas of the country.

Some programs or schemes to achieve financial inclusion:

• No frills accounts (NFAs) which are known as BSBDA (Basic savings Basic deposit
accounts), these accounts have minimal charges on overdraft fees and can be opened with
no or minimum balance.
• The business correspondents (BC) model enabled banks to serve in neglected areas by
allowing intermediaries to provide transactions and deliver other banking services
directly. In the last, some years Common Service Centers (CSCs) also work as BCs with
local governing gram panchayats to improve penetration of banking services.
• The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched by PM Modi in 2014 to
provide “Universal access” to banking through the creation of basic banking accounts
which covers basic financial services also.
• Several programs and schemes were launched to achieve the goal of financial inclusion;
some of them are General Credit Cards, Kisan Credit Cards, Electronic benefit transfer,

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The Self-Help Group (SHG) linkage model, Credit Co-Operative societies, and many
more.

Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC):

DICGC was established on 15th July 1978. It was in the year 1948 that the concept of
insuring deposits kept with banks received attention for the first time after the banking crises
in Bengal. In 1949 it was again coming in the limelight for the reconsideration. It was in
1950 the Rural Banking Enquiry Committee also supported the concept. It was after the
crash of palai central bank ltd. that serious thought to the concept was given by the Reserve
Bank of India and the Central Government in 1960.

It was on 21 August 1961, that the Deposit Insurance Corporation (DIC) Bill was introduced
in the Parliament. After it was passed by the Parliament, the Bill got the assent of the
President on December 7, 1961 and the Deposit Insurance Act, 1961 came into force on
January 1, 1962.

Functions Of DICGC:

• Its primary function is to provide insurance of the deposited Money in all banks.
• It provides insurance facility for all type of Saving deposit, Fixed deposit, Recurring
deposit up to a maximum limit of 5 Lakh for each separate deposits in a bank.
• The deposits with Regional Rural Bank (RRB) are also covered by DICGC.
• All Scheduled commercial Banks & Cooperative Banks are covered under DICGC.
• It also covers the insurance of foreign banks which is running in India also be covered
under DICGC.
• It also covers the insurance of Indian Banks which is functioning outside India.
• Primary Agricultural Credit Society, Cooperative banks from Meghalaya, Chandigarh,
Lakshadweep & Dadra & Nagar Haveli are some of the exceptions which are not covered
by DICGC.

Negotiable Instruments:

Definition: It is a signed document that promises a sum of payment to a specified person

or the assignee. Negotiable Instruments are transferable and signed document which gives
assurance to pay the bearer a sum of money at a future date or on-demand. The payee, who
receives the payment, must be named, or otherwise indicated on the instruments.

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Some Negotiable Instruments are Checks, money orders, promissory notes, bill of
exchange, certificates of deposits, etc. The Negotiable Instruments are legalized by the law
of Negotiable Instruments, 1881.

Here are some Negotiable Instruments below in detail:

Promissory note: Promissory note is a legal instrument in which one person (i.e., issuer)
gives the promise to pay a determined sum of money to the other person (i.e., Payee) at a
specified time of period in writings. It can also have some provisions regarding the concern
to the payee’s rights in the event of issuer’s default including foreclosure of the issuer’s
assets.

A promissory note is also called a note payable and if it is used with a mortgage, in that
case, it is called a mortgage note also.

Bill of Exchange: The bill of exchange is a written order which binds one person to pay a
determined sum of money to another person on demand or at some point in time in the
future.

• A bill of exchange contains three parties- The Drawee, who pays the sum of money.
• The Payee who receives the sum of money.
• The Drawer compels the drawee to pay the sum of money to the Payee.
• It is mostly used in international trade to pay for goods or services.
• Bill of exchange has different types which are as follows: bank draft, sign draft, time
draft, etc.

Cheques: It the most common negotiable instrument. It serves as a draft and payable by
the payer’s financial institution on receipt defining the amount of money. Cashier’s cheque,
Money order, Traveler’s cheque, Personal cheque, etc are types of cheques.

Money order which is a common type of cheque may or may not be issued by the payer’s
financial institution and it can be exchanged for cash with the issuing entity’s policies once
it received by the payee.

Certificate of deposit: The certificate of deposit is a legal agreement between the

depositors and the bank on a determined amount of money for a fixed time.

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The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) issues CD (Certificate of Deposit)

which is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India is a promissory note and the interest on
this is paid by the bank.

The CD is issued in Demat form and can be withdrawn principal as well as interest on it
after CD matures.

Maturity period: CD issued by commercial banks has maturity from 7 days to 1 year and
issued by financial institutions it ranges from 1 to 3 years.

Minimum certificate of deposit can be issued of Rs.1 Lakh and Certificate of Deposits can
be transferred but in Demat form.

Financial Institutions and Financial Regulators in India:

Financial Institutions: They support the proper financial allocation of resources and
sourcing from businesses that have a surplus amount and distributing to others who have
deficits of it.

Here are the financial institutions:

NABARD: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development is an apex regulatory
body for the regulation and licensing process of regional rural banks (RRBs) and Co-
operative banks in India. It is the key institution in the country to look after the development
of small industry and village industry or even any other rural industry.

• Founded: 12, July 1982

• HQ: Mumbai, Maharashtra
• Chairman: Govinda Rajulu Chintala

SIDBI: Small Industries Development Bank of India is an apex regulatory body for the
regulation and licensing process of microfinance institutions in India. It works as the
principal agency for refinancing the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).

• Established: 2 April 1990

• HQ: Lucknow, Uttarpradesh
• Executive: Siva S. Ramana

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EXIM Bank: The Export and Import Bank of India has set up to provide financial
assistance to exporters and importers. It functions as the principal financial institution for
coordinating with each other.

• Established: 1982
• HQ: Mumbai, Maharashtra
• CEO: David Rasquinha

NHB: National Housing Bank is an apex regulatory body for the regulation and licensing
process of housing finance companies in India. It is the principal agency for promoting
housing finance institutions at the local and regional levels and providing them financial
support.

• Established: 9 July 1988

• HQ: New Delhi
• MD: Sarada Kumar Hota

Financial Regulators: Financial regulators control and manage the financial market,
economy, and financial institutions for sustainable and equitable growth of the country.

Here are financial regulators and some basic information about it as follows:

RBI: Reserve Bank of India is the regulator of the banking and financial system of India.
RBI issues guidelines and instructions for the Indian banking system as well as the financial
system from time to time. It also maintains the confidence of people in the banking and
financial system of the country.

• Established: 1 April 1935

• HQ: Calcutta (1935-36), Mumbai (after 1936)
• Governor: Shaktikanta Das

SEBI: Securities Exchange Board of India is the regulator of the securities market in India.
It regulates and controls the business on stock exchanges and on other securities markets.
It also protects the interest of investors through conducting proper guidance, educational
programs, campaigns, and investor awareness programs.

• Established: 12 April 1988

• HQ: Mumbai, Maharashtra
• Chairman: Ajay Tyagi

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IRDAI: The insurance regulatory and development authority of India is the regulating and
developing statutory body of India. It regulates and promotes insurance business in India,
and it also protects the interest and confidence of clients against insurance companies.

• Established: 1999
• HQ: Hyderabad
• Chairperson: Subhash Chandra Khuntia

PFRDA: Pension Fund Regulatory Development Authority is the regulatory and

developing agency for the pension sector of India. The national pension system which was
launched by the Government of India in 2004 had the objective of setting up pension
reforms and induces the habit of savings for retirement life amongst the citizens.

• Founded: 23 August 2003

• HQ: New Delhi
• Chairperson: Supratim Bandyopadhyaya

Types of Money and Measures of Money Supply:

Types of Money: There are majorly four types of Money accepted widely as follows:

Fiat Money: It is a legal tender that is declared by Government, and it is accepted by all
people and companies or any other institutions within the country for payment transactions.
Fiat money is not backed by physical commodities. It is just a value that is derived between
the relationships of supply and demand. Its intrinsic value is significantly lower than its face
value. Examples of Fiat Money are Coins and Bills.

Commodity Money: Commodity money is the oldest type of money. It has been considered
as a medium of exchange, a unit of account, and a store of value. It is related and originated
from the ‘barter system’ where people fulfill their requirements by giving goods or services
as payment. The commodity itself is valued as money. Examples of commodity money are
Gold, coins, spices, wheat, or food grains, etc.

Fiduciary Money: Fiduciary Money value depends on the confidence that it is generally
accepted as a medium of exchange. It is not declared by legal tender by the government
thus people do not abide to accept it as means of payment. If people are confident that the
promise will not be broken, they could use it as a regular fiat or commodity money.
Examples are Cheques, Banknotes, and Drafts, etc.

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Commercial Bank Money: It is debt-generated money of commercial banks that can be

exchanged for money or to buy goods or services. Commercial bank money is generated
through fractional-reserve banking, in banking practice, banks keep only a fraction of their
deposits in reserve and lending out the remainder, while maintaining the concurrent
accountability to redeem all these deposits upon demand.

Measures of Money: There four measures for money supply are as follows: M1, M2, M3,
and M4. It is classified by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April 1977 before this
classification the RBI published only one measure of the money supply which is M.

M1: It is the first measure of the money supply known as narrow money.

Coins and notes of all denominations which are in circulation within the public are called
M1 money.

Demand Deposits in the commercial banks and co-operative banks are also considered in
this measurement, excluding inter-bank deposits.

Current deposits of foreign central banks, financial institutions are also considered in this
measurement of money.

M2: This second measure of money supply consists of M1+ post office savings bank
deposits.

In the money supply savings deposits of commercial and cooperative banks are already
included it is necessary to include post offices savings bank deposits. The post office
deposits have been given more preference than bank deposits in the majority of people from
rural and urban areas from a safety point of view.

M3: This third measure consists of M1+ Commercial and cooperative banks’ time deposits.
It excludes interbank time deposits. It is known as ‘broad money by the Reserve Bank of
India.

M4: The fourth measure of money supply consists of M3+ all post office deposits including
time deposits and demand deposits.

M3 includes total deposits of banks and currency with the public in circulation thus RBI
prefers it most in credit budgeting for its credit policy. Even it is also taken into account in
formulating macroeconomic objectives of the economy every year.

Nationalization of Banks in India and Monetary Policy:

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Nationalization of Banks in India:

History of Indian banks: Indian banks can be divided into three phases:

The first phase: In 1770 it is the beginning of the foundation of the bank of Hindustan
which discontinued its operations in 1832. But many banks are currently operating
Allahabad bank, Bank of India, Punjab National bank, etc.

Bank of Madras, Bank of Bombay, and the Bank of Bengal merged their businesses and
formed an imperial bank of India which was later named the Reserve Bank of India.

The Second phase: This phase is known as the nationalization of banks in India.

The third phase: It considered the major developments of banks during this phase. This is
the result of the liberalization of economic policies. Private Banks came into the Indian
banking system during this phase.

Nationalization of Banks:

• The Reserve Bank of India, the first bank in India was nationalized in January 1949.
• Then after 14 other banks were nationalized in July 1969 (PM-Indira Gandhi).
• Then after 6 other commercial banks were nationalized in 1980.
• In 1969 the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were also formed. The objective was to serve
large masses of the unreserved rural population.

Impacts of Nationalization:

• The efficiency of the banking system is improved, and it boosted the confidence of the
public in banks.
• It is increased the penetration of banks and their operations which was mainly seen in
the rural and remote areas of the country.
• It leads to an increase in the funds and their utilization in economic activities in the
country.

Monetary Policy:

Understanding: It is the policy in which the demand side of economic policy, refers to the
actions undertaken by a nation’s central bank (Reserve Bank of India) to control and manage
the money supply and to achieve the goal of macroeconomic which promotes sustainable
economic growth.

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It is the process of drafting, announcing, and implementing the plan of actions taken by the
central bank of the country.

Monetary Policy is the management of money supply and interest rates which are aimed to
comply with macroeconomic objectives such as controlling inflation, consumption, growth,
and liquidity.

Tools used: Open Market Operations (OMO), bank reserve requirements, unconventional
emergency lending programs, direct lending to banks, and managing market expectations.

There are majorly two types of monetary policy which are as follows:

Expansionary: It increased the supply of money and boost investment and consumer
spending. It is taken into consideration when the country is facing high unemployment and
or during the period of slowdown (recession). The monetary authority lowers the interest
rates as part of expansionary monetary policy.

Contractionary: It slows the growth of the money supply which aims to bring down
inflation. Increased money supply can lead to higher inflation and also raised the cost of
living thus contractionary monetary policy increased the interest rates which leads to slow
economic growth and inflation ratio.

Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR):

The Marginal Cost of Funds Based Lending Rate (MCLR) was introduced in April 2016
to help borrowers for availing various loans (including home loans) benefit from the
Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) rate cut. It has changed the base rate structure, which had
been in place since July 2010. This new rate system ensuring that your lender could not
charge you interest rates above the margin defined by RBI. So, understanding the
workings of the MCLR will help you for repaying your loans affordably.

Understanding about MCLR: MCLR is the minimum interest rate on which a bank can
lend. Under the MCLR structure, banks can offer all categories of loans on fixed or
floating interest rates. The actual lending rates for different categories of loans and tenors
are determined by adding the components of spread to MCLR. Therefore, the bank can’t
offer loans at a rate lower than the MCLR of a particular maturity for all loans linked to
that benchmark. However, certain defined exceptions can be made if allowed by the RBI.

Calculation of MCLR: MCLR is an internal benchmark that is linked with tenor, which
means the rate is determined internally by the bank depending on the period left for the

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repayment of a loan. The MCLR is based on factors ranging from the usage of this tool in
a broad structure. The four main elements of MCLR are as follows:

Tenor premium: When the bank charged a premium for the risk associated with lending
of higher tenors is called a ‘Tenor premium’. Tenor is calculated on time left for
repayment of the loan. The higher the period for the loan, the risk will be the higher. In
order to cover the risk, the bank will shift the load to the borrowers by charging an
amount in the form of a premium. Tenor premium is in a uniform structure on all types of
loans which is not specific to a loan class of borrower.

Marginal Cost of Funds: Marginal cost of funds (MCF) is calculated on account of all
the borrowings of a bank taking into consideration. The various sources of funds to
borrow for banks are fixed deposits (FD), savings accounts, current accounts, equity
(retained earnings), RBI loans, etc. MCF is calculated on the rate of interest on these
borrowings. MCF contains the Marginal cost of borrowing and return on net worth.
Marginal Cost of Borrowings covers 92% and the Return on Net Worth accounts for 8%.
This 8% is almost the same as the risk of weighted assets as identified by the Tier I capital
for banks.

Negative Carry on CRR: CRR or Cash Reserve Ratio is a proportion of the bank’s fund
that banks in India are supposed to submit to the RBI in form of liquid cash, mandatorily.
It is considered negative because this money cannot be used by the bank to make any
income and it does not earn interest on it. Under MCLR, certain allowances are given to
banks are given which are known as Negative Carry on CRR, which is calculated as
under:

Requirement of CRR × [marginal cost ÷ (1 – CRR)]

Operating cost: Banks incurred various expenses for raising funds, opening branches,
paying salaries, and so on. Operating costs include all costs which are associated with
providing loan products. However, the cost of providing services is not included because it
is recovered by service charges.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q 1. Which is the first bank established in India?
A. Bank of Calcutta
B. Bank of Hindustan

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C. General Bank of India

D. State Bank of India
E. Reserve Bank of India
Ans: B. Bank of Hindustan

Explanation:
Bank of Hindustan was established in 1770.

Q 2. Which is the first Indian bank to get ISO?

A. Canara Bank
B. Punjab National Bank
C. State Bank of India
D. Central Bank of India
E. Reserve Bank of India
Ans: A. Canara Bank

Explanation:
Canara Bank was established in 1906. The bank was nationalized in 1969.

Q 3. Which is the first Indian bank started solely with Indian capital investment?
A. Bank of Calcutta
B. Bank of Hindustan
C. Punjab National Bank
D. State Bank of India
E. Central Bank of India
Ans: C. Punjab National Bank

Explanation:
First Indian bank started solely with Indian capital investment is Punjab National Bank. It
was founded in 1894.

Q 4. Who is the founder of Punjab National Bank?

A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Bhagat Singh
C. Bipin Chandra Pal
D. Lala Rajpat Rai
E. None of these
Ans: D. Lala Rajpat Rai

Explanation:
Lala Rajpat Rai is the founder of Punjab National Bank.

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Q 5. Who was the first governor of RBI?

A. James Braid Taylor
B. Mihir Sen
C. Nagendra Singh
D. Osborne Smith
E. None of these
Ans: D. Osborne Smith

Explanation:
Osborne Smith was the Governor of Reserve Bank of India from 1 April 1935 to 30 June
1937.

Q 6. Who was the first Indian Governor of RBI?

A. C. D. Deshmukh
B. Benegal Rama Rau
C. R. K. Shanmukham Chetty
D. K. G. Ambegaonkar
E. None of these
Ans: D. K. G. Ambegaonkar
Explanation:
C. D. Deshmukh was the first governor of RBI. Sir Chintaman Dwarakanath Deshmukh
was the first Indian to be appointed as the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India in 1943
by the British Raj authorities.

Q 7. Which is the first bank to introduce savings account in India?

A. Bank of Hindustan
B. General Bank of India
C. Presidency Bank
D. Bengal Bank
E. Bank of Calcutta
Ans: C. Presidency Bank

Explanation:
In 1833, savings account system was started by Presidency Bank.

Q 8. Which is the first bank to introduce cheque system in India?

A. Bengal Bank
B. General Bank of India
C. Presidency Bank
D. Punjab National Bank
E. Bank of Calcutta

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Ans: A. Bengal Bank

Explanation:
In 1833, cheque system was introduced by Bengal Bank.

Q 9. Which is the first bank to introduce Internet banking?

A. ICICI Bank
B. General Bank of India
C. Presidency Bank
D. Punjab National Bank
E. Canara Bank
Ans: A. ICICI Bank

Explanation:
ICICI Bank was introduced in 1994. ICICI is the first bank to introduce Internet banking.

Q 10. Which is the first bank to introduce mutual fund?

A. Canara Bank
B. Punjab National Bank
C. State Bank of India
D. Central Bank of India
E. Bank of Baroda
Ans: C. State Bank of India

Explanation:
In 1961, mutual fund was introduced in India.

Q 11. Section 9 of the Banking Regulation Act prohibits the banking Companies from
holding any immovable property except for its own use for a period of not more property.
The RBI may extend this period for a further period of ________ :
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years
E. 7 years
Ans: C. 5 years

Explanation:
Section 9 of the Banking Regulation Act prohibits the banking Companies from holding
any immovable property except for its own use for a period of not more property. The RBI
may extend this period for a further period of 5 years.

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Q 12. Mortgage is a:
A. Security on movable property for a loan
B. Security on immovable property for a loan
C. Concession on immovable property
D. Facility on immovable property
E. Security on loan sanctioned against fixed deposits.
Ans: B. Security on immovable property for a loan

Explanation:
Mortgage is a Security on immovable property for a loan.
Q 13. Credit and Debit Cards are the example of which type of money?
A. Credit Money
B. Electronic Money
C. Commercial Bank Money
D. Facility on immovable property
E. Plastic Money
Ans: E. Plastic Money
Explanation:
Plastic money is referred to as credit cards or debit cards that we use to purchases anything.
In India, Banks also provide various other types of Plastic Cards such as ATM cards, Smart
cards, Visa, master cards, RuPay Card. In India, Andhra Bank was the first bank to introduce
credit cards in 1981. Plastic Money provides the convenience to make financial
transactions, without carrying cash. It also provides the benefits of anywhere and anytime
banking. Plastic Money has a long span of life as compared to paper money. It is possible
to track financial transactions done through Plastic money, it is much easier for the
government to suspect black money sources. The use of Plastic Money has driven the
growth of E-commerce.

Q 14. The official symbol of Reserve Bank of India consists of _________.

A. Rose tree
B. Palm tree
C. Banyan tree
D. Pipal tree
E. None of these
Ans: B. Palm tree

Explanation:

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The official symbol of Reserve Bank of India consists of Palm tree. Tiger is the animal
present on the insignia of the RBI. Insignia of the RBI consist of a tiger and palm tree.
Initially, Insignia of the RBI consist lion and palm tree, but later it was decided to replace
the lion with the tiger. Tiger is the national animal of India.

Q 15. Which among the following is the oldest public sector bank in India?
A. Bank of India
B. Bank of Baroda
C. Bank of India
D. Bank of Baroda
E. Allahabad Bank
Ans: E. Allahabad Bank

Explanation:
The correct answer is Allahabad Bank. Allahabad Bank (nationalized bank) is the oldest
joint stock bank in India. It was founded in Allahabad in 1865 and its headquarters in
Kolkata, India.

Q 16. Reserve Bank Staff College is situated at:

A. Mumbai
B. New Delhi
C. Kolkata
D. Chennai
E. Lucknow
Ans: D. Chennai

Explanation:
Reserve Bank Staff College It was established on July 03,1963. It is in Chennai. It is the
apex training college of the Reserve Bank of India, actively contributing to the knowledge
enhancement endeavors of the Bank.

Q 17. The allocation towards health and well-being was increased by over the previous year
in Union Budget 2021-22.
A. 140%
B. 125%
C. 137%
D. 100%
E. 121%
Ans: C. 137%

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Explanation:
The allocation towards health and well-being was increased by 137% over the previous yea
in Union Budget 2021-22.
According to analysts, one of the sectors that have continually been neglected is "health."
However, in her Budget 2021-22, Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced
a 137 percent increase in the allocation for health from the previous year's budget estimate
of over Rs. 94,000 crore (Rs. 94,452 crore) and a 118 percent increase from the previous
year's revised budget of over Rs. 1.02 lakh crore (Rs. 1,02,873 crore).

Q 18. Consider the following statements, choose the correct option :

1. A personal loan is the type of secured loans.
2. Education loans disbursed by the banks under the model education loan scheme of
Indians Bank Association, banks disbursed upto the Rs.5 lakh collateral free without
providing any third party guarantee.
A. Statement (1) is true.
B. Statement (2) is true.
C. Both the statements are true.
D. Statement (1) is only true.
E. None of these
Ans: B. Statement (2) is true.
Explanation:
Loans can be described under two category :
Secured loans :
Loans in which the borrower pledge some security as collateral for the loan.
Generally, these types of loans are described for the long term loans and the repaid period
is assured by the borrower.
The rate of interest is generally lower in these types of loans. Examples of these types of
loans are Home loan. Land loan, car loan, etc.
Thus, statement (1) is incorrect.
Unsecured loans :
Unsecured loans are those in which borrower does not provide any security for the loan i.e
it is a collateral-free loan.
The rate of interest is generally higher in these types of loans. Examples of these types of
loans are Personal loans, Credit cards, etc.
Under the Model Education scheme by the Indian Banks Association students can avail
the Rs. 7.5 Lakhs collateral-free loans without providing any security.
Under this scheme, students can avail the loan up to Rs. 20 Lakhs fo study abroad and Rs.
10 Lakhs for study in India but collateral-free is up to the Rs 7.5lakhs.
Thus, statement (2) is incorrect.

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Q 19. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is calculated as a percentage of each bank's _____.
A. savings of customers.
B. rate of inflation.
C. credit growth.
D. net demand and time liabilities.
E. None of these
Ans: D. net demand and time liabilities.

Explanation:
Cash reserve ratio (CRR) is the mandatory deposit to be held by banks with Reserve Bank
of India. It is calculated daily on the basis of the bank’s net demand and time liabilities
with the objective to ensure the liquidity and solvency of the banks.

Q 20. ‘MPIN’ is a 4-digit number combination used in an Automated Telephone Banking

system. What does M stand for in ‘MPIN’?
A. Mobile
B. Money
C. Micro
D. Machine
E. Marginal
Ans: A. Mobile

Explanation:
MPIN stands for Mobile Personal Identification Number. MPIN is a 4-digit number
combination known only to you and allows you to access your account information using
our Automated Telephone Banking system.

Q 21. The interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity from banks under the
Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF), on an overnight basis, against the collateral of eligible
government securities, is called _____.
A. Marginal Permanent Facility
B. Bank Rate
C. Repo Rate
D. Reverse Repo Rate
E. Cash Reserve Ratio
Ans: D. Reverse Repo Rate

Explanation:

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The interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity from banks under the
Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF), on an overnight basis, against the collateral of eligible
government securities, is called Reverse Repo Rate.
The reverse repo rate is the rate at which banks earn interest when they park surplus funds
with the RBI.
The repo rate helps control inflation, and the reverse repo rate increases liquidity.
The repo rate set by the RBI is always higher than the reverse repo rate.

Q 22. Which of the following is not a quantitative tool of money supply used by the RBI ?
A. Bank rate
B. Repo rate
C. Open market operation
D. Reverse Repo Rate
E. Margin requirement
Ans: A. Bank rate

Explanation:
The bank rate is not a quantitative tool of money supply used by the RBI.
The bank rate is the rate charged by the central bank for lending funds to commercial banks.
In the event of a fund deficiency, a bank can borrow money from the central bank of a
country. In India’s case that would be the Reserve Bank of India. The borrowing is done on
the basis of the monetary policy of that country.

Q 23. ________ is the money which is accepted as a medium of exchange because of the
trust between the payer and the payee.
A. Credit money
B. Fiduciary money
C. Fiat money
D. Full bodied money
E. Plastic money
Ans: B. Fiduciary money

Explanation:
Fiduciary money is money that is accepted as a medium of exchange due to the trust that
exists between the payer and the payee. Cheques are fiduciary money as these are accepted
as a means of payment on the basis of trust but not on the basis of any order of the
government. Fiduciary money, or currency, refers to banknotes and coins in circulation in
the economy. This is the liquidity available to economic sectors to carry out transactions.

Q 23. What is the minimum limit of Commercial Paper, an instrument of Money Market?
A. Rs. 5 Lac
B. Rs. 10 Lac

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C. Rs. 1 Lac
D. Rs. 20 Lac
E. Rs. 30 Lac
Ans: A. Rs. 5 Lac

Explanation:
Money Market or Working Capital Market refers to the market for short - term requirement
an deployment of funds.
Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a
promissory note.
Commercial Paper was introduced in 1990 it is used by the corporate houses in India (which
should be a listed company with a working capital of not less than Rs. 4 crore).
With a view to enabling highly rated corporate borrowers to diversify their sources of short-
term borrowings and to provide an additional instrument to investors.
Subsequently, primary dealers and all-India financial institutions were also permitted to
issue Commercial Paper to enable them to meet their short-term funding requirements for
their operations.
Commercial Paper can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a
maximum of up to one year from the date of issue.
Commercial Paper can be issued in denominations of Rs.5 lac or multiples thereof.

Q 24. Which of the following is not an example of informal lender?

A. Bank
B. Employers
C. Relatives
D. Friends
E. Fund
Ans: A. Bank

Explanation:
Loans can be broadly classified into:
Formal sector loans include loans from banks and cooperatives. Informal sector loans
include loans from informal sources. Informal lenders include relatives, friends,
moneylenders, employers, traders etc. There are a few demerits for taking loans from
informal lenders: There is no organization that supervises activities in the informal sector.
Moneylenders can lend at whatever interest rate they like. The use of unfair means to get
the money back is possible.
Thus, we can say that bank is not an example of an informal lender.

Q 25. To whom do priority sector loans point??

A. Loans being given to small scale industries, agriculture, small businesses etc.
B. Loans to commercial sector

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C. Loans being given to software industry

D. Loans to public sector enterprises
E. Option (2) and (3) are correct
Ans: A. Loans being given to small scale industries, agriculture, small businesses etc.

Explanation:
The RBI mandates banks to lend a certain portion of their funds to specified sectors, like
agriculture, Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), export credit, education,
housing, social infrastructure, renewable energy among others.
All scheduled commercial banks and foreign banks (with a sizable presence in India) are
mandated to set aside 40% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANDC) for lending to these
sectors.
Regional rural banks, co-operative banks, and small finance banks have to allocate 75% of
ANDC to PSL.
The PSL guidelines were last reviewed for commercial banks in April 2015 and for Urban
Co-operative Banks (UCBs) in May 2018.

Q 26. What do banks utilize a major portion of the deposits for?

A. Loans
B. Guarantee
C. Interest
D. Collaterals
E. Option (2) and (3) are correct
Ans: A. Loans

Explanation:
Loans refer to money lent to a borrower for short-term, long-term, or for an unspecified
period (a working capital facility which is renewed every year). Banks utilize a major
portion of deposits for loans.
Loan carries a specific rate of interest as agreed between the lender and the borrower and
the terms of the agreement.
A loan may be for a general-purpose (say working capital) or a specific purpose (equipment
loan, export packing credit, car loan etc.

Q 27. What is Capital Market?

A. Market in which securities are bought and sold.
B. A financial market in which long-term debt or equity-backed securities are bought and
sold.
C. Entrepreneurs in one country copy an existing market.
D. A market structure is defined by a large number of small firms competing against each
other.
E. None of these

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Ans: B. A financial market in which long-term debt or equity-backed securities are bought
and sold..

Explanation:
Capital business sectors are the place where reserve funds and ventures are diverted
between providers—individuals or establishments with cash-flow to loan or contribute—
and those out of luck.

Q 29. Who controls the Capital Market in India?

A. SEBI
B. NABARD
C. RBI
D. SBI
E. None of these
Ans: B. NABARD
Explanation:
The Capital Market in India is controlled by the Securities and Board Exchange of India.

Q 30. When was SEBI established in India?

A. 1992
B. 1985
C. 1988
D. 1995
E. None of these
Ans: C. 1988

Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the administrative body for the
protection and ware market in India under the responsibility of the Finance, Government of
India. It was set up on 12 April 1988 and given Statutory Powers on 30 January 1992
through the SEBI Act, 1992.

Q31. Who was the first Indian Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?

A. C. D. Deshmukh
B. Nanabhoy Palkhivala
C. Benegal Rama Rau
D. Rajagopalachari
E. None of these

Answer- (A)

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Solution- Sir Chintaman Dwarakanath Deshmukh, CIE, ICS (14 January 1896 - 2 October
1982) was an Indian civil servant and the first Indian to be appointed the Governor of the
Reserve Bank of India in 1943 by the British Raj authorities.
Q32. The official symbol of Reserve Bank of India consists of _________.

A. Rose tree
B. Palm tree
C. banyan tree
D. Pipal tree
E. None of these

Answer- (B)

Solution- The official symbol of Reserve Bank of India consists of Palm tree.

Q33. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) was established in which
year?

A. 1990
B. 1988
C. 1992
D. 1994
E. 1995

Answer- (A)

Solution- SIDBI was established on April 2, 1990, through an Act of Parliament.

Q34. Which among the following is the oldest public sector bank in India?

A. Bank of India
B. Bank of Baroda
C. Allahabad Bank
D. UCO Bank
E. None of these

Answer- (C)

Solution- Allahabad Bank (nationalized bank) is the oldest joint stock bank in India. It
was founded in Allahabad in 1865 and its headquarters in Kolkata, India.

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Q35. Who is the only Prime Minister to have served as the Governor of RBI?

A. P.V. Narsimha Rao

B. Manmohan Singh
C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
D. Indira Gandhi
E. None of these

Answer- (B)

Solution- Manmohan Singh is the only Prime Minister to have also served as the
Governor of RBI.

Q36. Reserve Bank Staff College is situated at ____.

A. Mumbai
B. New Delhi
C. Kolkata
D. Chennai
E. Lucknow

Answer- (D)

Solution- Reserve Bank Staff College is situated in Chennai.

Q37. Banking comes under which of the following sectors of the economy?

A. Primary sector
B. Secondary sector
C. Tertiary sector
D. Both Secondary and Tertiary sectors
E. None of these

Answer- (C)

Solution- Banking comes under the tertiary sector. The tertiary sector, also known as
the service sector, includes transport, banking, storage, communication, etc.

Q38. According to FERA, Foreign Exchange includes which of the following?

A. Traveler’s Cheque

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B. Letters of Credit
C. Bill of Exchange expressed or drawn in Indian Currency
D. All of the above
E. None of these

Answer- (D)

Solution- According to FERA ,1973 Foreign Exchange means Foreign Currency, which
includes: Any Draft Traveler’s Cheque Letters of Credit Bill of Exchange expressed in
Indian Currency but payable in Foreign Currency.

Q39. Which of the following is the biggest contributor to the Foreign Reserve of India?

A. Gold
B. Foreign Assets
C. SDR
D. Reserve Tranche with IMF
E. All of these

Answer- (B)
Solution- India’s forex reserves stood at USD 547.25 billion for the week ended November
18, 2022. The major component of this is Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) which stands at
USD 484.29 billion, followed by Gold Reserves at USD 40.01 billion and Special Drawing
Rights (SDRs) at USD 17.906 billion.

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ECONOMY
Indian economy is developing economy in which agriculture is the backbone of Indian
economy. About 30% of India's population is on the below poverty line. Mineral resources
are not fully utilized. Majority of the people of India are poor. Indian economy is affected
by it. Countries which are on the part of progress, and which have their potential for
development are called developing economies. So, India is termed as developing economy
by modern schools. India is of mixed economy, both public and private sectors coexist.
Industries in India are broadly divided into two categories: those that are run by the public
sector and those that are licensed to be established and run by the private sector.

India is a developing nation and economy, including a blended economy on the planet. The
significant attributes of a developing economy are overpopulation, the most extreme
populace underneath the destitute or poverty line, a poor infrastructure, an agro-based
economy, a slower pace of capital development, and low per capita income. Since the
freedom of the country, India has been creating numerous viewpoints according to the
monetary perspective. Albeit the Indian economy is in the developing stage, it will
gradually move to become a developed nation. The significant changes in the Indian
economy were made in the year 1991.
The Indian economy is a developing one, and this is owed to the way that there are
exceptionally significant measures of illiteracy, unemployment, poverty, and so on in India.
With an instantaneously lessening Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to add to the different
issues confronted by the Indian economy, there are a ton of elements that add to the
characteristics and nature of the Indian economy being a developing one.
Growth and Structural Change
Overview of Indian Economy
• India has emerged as the fastest growing major economy in the world as per the Central
Statistics Organization (CSO) and International Monetary Fund (IMF) and it is expected
to be one of the top three economic powers of the world over the next 10-15 years.
• It is the 10th largest economy by GDP and likely to be the third largest economy with a
GDP size of $15 trillion by 2030.
• The economy of India is currently the world’s fourth largest in terms of real GDP
(purchasing power parity) after the USA, China, and Japan and the second fastest
growing major economy in the world after China.

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• It is also the 18th fastest growing economy and the 2nd fastest growing major economy
in the world, according to the CIA World Factbook [2013].
Important characteristics of Indian economy are:
• Low per capita income.
• Inequalities in income distribution.
• Predominance of agriculture. (More than 2/3rd of India’s working population is engaged
in agriculture. But in USA only 2% of the working population is engaged in agriculture.)
• Rapidly growing population with 1.41% annual change.
• Chronic unemployment (A person is considered employed if he / she works for 273 days
of a year for eight hours every day.) Unemployment in India is mainly structural in
nature.
• Low rate of capital formation due to less saving rate.
• Dualistic Nature of Economy (features of a modern economy, as well as traditional).
Mixed Economy
• Follows Labour Intensive Techniques and activities.
National Income
➢ Total of money value of all final goods and services produced by a country during a
year.
➢ From the modern point of view, national income is defined as “the net output of
commodities and services flowing during the year from the country’s productive system
in the hands of the ultimate consumers.
National Income Accounting (NIA)
➢ It is a method or technique used to measure the economic activity in the national
economy.
National Income Accounting in India
• The first attempt to calculate National Income of India was made by Dadabhai Naoroji
in 1876
• The first person to adopt a scientific procedure in estimating national income was Dr. V.
K. R. V. Rao In 1931
• First official attempt was made by Prof. P. C. Mahal Nobis.
• The Government of India appointed the “National Income Committee” in 1949 under
the chairmanship of Prof P C Mahal Nobis, and other members were Prof D R Gadgil
and Dr V K R V Rao. The first report of the committee was presented in 1951 according

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to which India’s national income for the year 1948-49 was Rs 8,710 crores and per capita
income was Rs 225/-
• A combination of Product, income, and expenditure method to calculate national
income.
GDP (GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT)
➢ Gross domestic product (GDP) is the monetary value of all the finished goods and
services produced within a country's borders in a specific period.
➢ It includes all private and public consumption, government outlays, investments, private
inventories, paid-in construction costs and the foreign balance of trade.
GROSS NATIONAL PRODUCT (GNP)
➢ GNP is the total value of the total production or final goods and services produced by
the nationals of a country during a given period (generally one year)

Recent Changes in Calculating GDP

Jan 2015- Base Year from 2004-05 to 2011-12
Now Gross Value added is used.
GVA BP = GVAFC + Production Tax – Production Subsidy.
GDPMP = GVABP + Product tax – Production Subsidy
Low Per Capita Real Income:
The actual revenue or income of a nation alludes to the buying force or the purchasing
power of the nation overall in a given monetary year, while the per capita actual or real
income alludes to the normal buying force or purchasing power of the nation or the buying
force or purchasing power of a person in a country in that year. Emerging nations share the
quality of a low for each capita real income.

High Rate of Population Growth:

Where there is a high populace, there additionally must be a framework set up to help that
populace. This implies there should be sufficient instructive, educational, and clinical
offices, enough business openings or employment opportunities with great compensations,
and so forth. With a high populace, particularly an undeniably high populace, giving these
facilities to every resident turns into an immense undertaking, and frequently, state-run
administrations or the government can’t carry on with it; in this manner, it leaves the
economy in the developing stage.

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The Endless Loop of Poverty:

The endless loop of neediness and poverty deals with both the supply side just as the
demand side. On the supply side, since the products and services are not being sold, there
is an insufficiency of capital advancing or lending to low rates on investments, and
consequently a low degree of per capita real or actual income or pay. With this comes the
demand side, the endless loop of poverty alludes to when the buying power based on the
real income of the nation is low, prompting the exorbitance of products and services. This
is the way the endless loop of neediness works, and it is somewhat normal to find in
developing economies.

Highlights of the Indian Economy:

Agro-Based Economy:
The Indian economy is agro-based economy. Close around 14. 2 % of Indian GDP is
contributed by farming and unified areas, while 53% of the total populace of the nation
relies on the horticulture sector.

Overpopulation:
Overpopulation is one of the main pressing issues of the Indian economy. The number of
inhabitants in India gets expanded by around 20% in every decade consistently. Around
17.5% of the total populace is owned by India.

Incongruities in Income:
The most disturbing thing in the Indian economy is the convergence of abundance. As per
the most recent report, 1% of Indians own 53% of the abundance of the country’s wealth.
Among these, the top 10% claim a portion of 76.30%. The report expresses that 90% of the
nation claims under a fourth of the nation’s wealth.

Destruction in Capital Formation:

The rate of capital development is emphatically associated with lower levels of pay or
income. There is a tremendous decrease in Gross Domestic Capital contrasted with the
earlier years.

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Poor Infrastructural Development:

According to a new report, around 25% of Indian families can’t acquire electricity, and 97
million individuals can’t acquire safe drinking water. Sanitation administrations can’t be
acquired by 840 million individuals. India requires 100 million dollars to dispose of this
infrastructural abnormality.

Imperfect Market:
Indian markets are defective or imperfect in nature as it falls short in the absence of
portability, mobility, or movement, starting with one spot then onto the next, which gets the
ideal use of assets. Thus, fluctuations in prices occur.

Obsolete Technology:
Indian creation of work is labor-intensive in nature. There is an absence of innovations and
modern machinery.

Backward Society:
Indian social orders are caught in the scourge of communalism, male-dominated society,
odd notions, caste system framework, and so forth. The above factors are the significant
limitation of the development of the Indian economy.

Low Per Capita Income:

The per capita pay of India is considerably less than that of the other developing nations.
As indicated by the assessments of the Central Statistics Office (CSO), the per capita net
public income of India at present costs for the year 2020-21 (based on 2011-12 prices) was
around Rs. 86,659.
Despite a few negative perspectives, there are some sure things in the Indian economy.
Different plans of the government have supported the Indian economy in numerous ways.
India is driving towards superior financial construction with the assistance of ‘Digital
India’, ‘Make in India’, and so forth.
Growth rate of GVA at basic prices at constant (2011-12) prices in (%)
Sector 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟑 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟒 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟓 𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟔
− 𝟏𝟒 − 𝟏𝟓 − 𝟏𝟔 − 𝟏𝟕
Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing 5. 6 -0.2 0.7 4. 9

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Mining and Quarrying 0.2 11. 7 10.5 1. 8

Manufacturing 5. 0 8.3 10.8 7.9
Electricity, Gas and Water Supply 4. 2 7.1 5. 0 7.2
Trade, Hotel, Transport, Communication 6.5 9.0 10.5 7.8
services
Financial, Real estate and Prof. Services 11. 2 11. 1 10.8 5. 7
Public administration, defense, and others 3. 8 8.1 6.9 11. 3
GVA 6.1 7.2 7.9 6.6
Core GVA 6.6 9.0 9.8 6.2
GDP 6.4 7.5 8.0 7.1

List of 5 Year Plans of Indian Economy

1. Visvesvaraya Plan
• The era of economic planning in India started with Visvesvaraya's ten-year Plan.
• Sir M. Visvesvaraya published a book titled "Planned Economy in India" in 1934
wherein he presented a draft to double the national income in a decade.
• He proposed to shift the labor from the agrarian set up to the industries thereby
advocating for democratic capitalism (like the USA) with emphasis on industrialization.
However, there was no follow up of this plan in British Government, it successfully
stirred an urge for national planning among the educated citizens of the country.
2. National Planning Committee (NPC)
• It was the first attempt to develop a national plan for India emanated in 1938 with the
set-up of NPC under the chairmanship of Jawahar Lal Nehru.
• However, because of the commencement of World War II, the reports of the committee
could not be prepared. The papers finally came out after independence in 1948-49.
3. Bombay Plan
• Eight leading industrialists and technocrats formulated a draft titled “A Brief
Memorandum Outlining a Plan of Economic Development for India” under the
editorship of Purushottam Das Thakur Das in 1944.

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• This draft is known as the ‘Bombay Plan’.

• The basic objectives of the plan were doubling the output of the agricultural sector and
a five-fold growth in the industrial sector in 15 years.
• A key principle of the Bombay Plan was that the economy could not grow without
government intervention and regulation.
• Officially the plan was never accepted, however, its ideas were replicated in future
economic plans.
4. People’s Plan
• People’s plan was drafted by M. N. Roy, the communist leader, on behalf of the Post-
War Reconstruction Committee of the Indian Federation of Lahore in 1944.
• It was based on ‘Marxist Socialism’ and gave primacy to agriculture. It advocated for
the nationalization of agriculture and all production activities.
5. Sarvodaya Plan
• This plan was drafted by Jai Prakash Narayan in 1950.
• It was inspired by Gandhi Plan and Vinoba Bhave’s principles of self-reliance.
• It laid stressed upon agriculture as well as small and cotton industries.
• It advocated self-sufficiency by curtailing the use of foreign technology and
implementing land reforms and decentralized participatory planning.
National Development Council (NDC)
• It was founded on August 6, 1952. It was presided over by the Prime Minister.
• It is the apex body for decision creating and deliberations on development matters in
India.
• It gives the final approval to the Five-Year Plan of India.
Summary of First three Five-year plans:
➢ 1966-67, 1967-68 and 1968-69 were annual plans. Discontinuation of five-year planning
for three consecutive years is regarded as plan holiday.
➢ Due to the prevailing food crisis, annual plans: were primarily focused on agriculture.

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➢ During these plans:, the foundation of the green revolution was laid down which
included widespread use of HYV (high yielding varieties) seeds, chemical fertilizers,
and extensive exploitation of irrigation potentials. During these years, the shocks of a
third-year plan were absorbed and a five-year planning system was resumed from 1969.
NITI Aayog
• NITI Aayog, the National Institution for Transforming India, is a policy think tank of
the Government of India established in 2015.
• It replaced the Planning Commission.
• It has a dual objective of achieving sustainable development goals and to enhance
cooperative federalism with ‘bottom to top’ approach. Its initiatives include.
(a) Action Plan - 3 Years
(b) Strategy Plan - 7 Years
(c) Vision Plan - 15
Various Price Indices in India
Price Indices in India
Various weighted price indices are calculated in India.
These are-
1. Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
2. Old Consumer Price Index
(a) Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI- IW)
(b) Consumer Price Index for Urban Non- Manual Employees (CPI- UNME)
(c) Consumer Price Index for Agriculture Laboure’s (CPI-AL) (d) Consumer Price Index
for Rural Laboure’s (CPI- RL)
3. New Consumer Price Index (Introduced in February 2011)
(a) CPI (Rural)
(b) CPI (Urban)
(c) CPI (Combined)

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4. Consumer Food Price Index

Till April 2014, the Inflation rate was measured with the help of WPI (Wholesale Price
Index).
Currently, in India inflation rate is measured with the help of Consumer Price Index
combined.
A. Wholesale Price Index
• It measures the change in the price of commodities traded in the wholesale market.
• It is also known as headline inflation.
• Current base year- 2011-12.
• The index basket of the current series has a total of 697 items (117 items for Primary
Articles, 16 items for Fuel & Power and 564 items for Manufactured Products.)
• Published by- Economic Advisor, Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
B. Old Consumer Price Index
(a) Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI- IW)
• It measures the change in the price of commodities consumed by industrial workers.
• Current base year- 2001
• Published by- Labour Bureau
(b) Consumer Price Index for Urban Non- Manual Employees (CPI- UNME)
• It measures the change in the price of commodities consumed by Non- Manual
Employees.
• Published by- CSO (Central Statistics Office, Ministry of Statistics)
• It has been discontinued.
(c) Consumer Price Index for Agriculture Labourers (CPI-AL)
• It measures the change in the price of commodities consumed by agriculture labourers.
• It is a subset of CPI-RL.
• Current base year- 1986-87
• Published by- Labour Bureau.

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• Used for revising minimum wages.

(d) Consumer Price Index for Rural Labourers (CPI- RL)
• It measures the change in the price of commodities consumed by rural labourers (include
agriculture labourers, labourers of village and cottage industries).
• Current base year- 1986-87
• Published by- Labour Bureau
RBI and Monetary Policy
RBI (Reserve Bank of India)
• RBI was established in April 1935 under Reserve Bank of India, 1934.
• On the recommendation of Hilton-Young Commission.
• Central Bank of India which was nationalized in 1949.
• Central office initial was established in Calcutta and later moved to Mumbai in 1937.
• Official Directors- Governors and not more than four deputy governors.
• RBI performs his function under the guidance of the Board of financial supervision.
Other facts related to Reserve Bank of India
• The first governor of RBI- Sir Osborne Smith.
• The first governor of RBI after nationalization- C. D. Deshmukh
• First women Deputy Governor of RBI -K. J. Udeshi.
• RBI Emblem: Tiger and Palm tree
What is Monetary Policy?
The policy made by the central bank (Reserve Bank of India) to control the money supply
in the economy.
MPC (Monetary Policy Committee)
• The Monetary Policy Committee of India is a committee of the Reserve Bank of India
that is responsible for fixing the benchmark interest rate in India.

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• Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934 provides for an empowered six-member
monetary policy committee (MPC) to be constituted by the Central Government to
determine the interest rate that is required to achieve the inflation target.
• The MPC is required to meet at least four times in a year.
• Six-membered MPC is headed by RBI governor Urjit Patel.
• The Members of the Monetary Policy Committee appointed by the Central Government
shall hold office for a period of four years.
Various tools/instruments of monetary policy
These can be divided into quantitative and qualitative instruments.
Quantitative instruments
A. Open Market Operations (OMO)
• This method refers to the buy and sells of securities, bills, and bonds of government by
RBI in the open market to expand or contract the amount of money in the banking
system.
• When RBI purchases Government securities, liquidity increases (because RBI is paying
that party some money to buy that security or RBI is pouring additional money into the
system).
• On the reverse, when RBI sells Government securities, liquidity decreases (because
those players are giving their cash to RBI to purchase the securities.)
B. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
• Liquidity adjustment facilities (LAF) is also a tool used by RBI to control the short-term
money supply.
• Liquidity adjustment facilities (LAF) has two instruments namely Repo rate and Reverse
Repo Rate.
• Repo Rate: The interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides Loans to commercial
banks by mortgaging their dated government securities and treasury bills.
• Reverse Repo Rate: The interest rate at which the Reserve Bank borrows from
commercial banks by mortgaging its dated government securities and treasury bills.

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• While repo rate injects liquidity into the system, the Reverse repo absorbs the liquidity
from the system.
C. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
• It is a loan facility for banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India in an emergency
when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely.
How is MSF different from Repo rate?
• MSF loan facility was created for commercial banks to borrow from RBI in emergency
conditions when inter-bank liquidity dries up and there is a volatility in the overnight
interest rates.
• To curb this volatility, RBI allowed them to deposit government securities and get more
liquidity from RBI at a rate higher than the Repo rate.
D. Reserve Ratio (SLR, CRR)
• SLR (Statutory liquidity ratio): All commercial banks in the country are required to
keep a given percentage of their demand and time deposits (Net demand and time
liabilities or NDTL) as liquid assets in their vault itself.
• It prevents the bank from lending all its deposits which is too risky.
• Note: Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) mainly consist of Time liabilities and
Demand liabilities.
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The Cash Reserve Ratio is the amount of funds that the banks
are bound to keep with the Reserve bank of India as a certain percentage of their Net
Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL). Bank cannot lend it to anyone. Bank earns no
interest rate or profit on this.
What happens when CRR is reduced?
When CRR is reduced, this means banks required to keep fewer funds with RBI and
resource available to banks for lending will go up.
E. Bank Rate
The bank rate is the rate which is fixed by RBI at which its re-discounts bills of exchange
and government securities held by commercial banks. It is also known as the discount rate.
Bill of exchange- is a financial document that assures payment of money by the purchaser
to the seller for goods purchased.

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Differences between Repo rate and Bank rate: Repo Rate is a short-term measure on the
other hand Bank Rate is a long-term measure.
Qualitative instruments
A. Credit rationing
• In this, RBI controlled the maximum amount of credit flow to a certain sector.
• RBI may also make compulsory for the banks to provide certain fractions of their Loans
to certain sectors such as priority sector lending etc.
B. Selective Credit control
Selective credit control is a tool in the hands of Reserve Bank of India to restrict bank
finance against sensitive commodities.
C. Margin Requirements
RBI can prescribe margin against collateral. For instance, lend only 70 Rs. for 100 Rs. value
Property, margin requirement being 30%. If RBI raises margin requirements, customers
will be able to borrow less.
D. Moral suasion
• Moral Suasion refers to a method of request, a method of advice by the RBI to the
commercial banks to take certain measures as per the trend of the economy.
E. Direct Action
• RBI issues certain guidelines from time to time based on the current situation in the
economy.
• These guidelines should be followed by banks. If any bank violates these guidelines RBI
penalizes them.
Poverty and Unemployment
Poverty
• Poverty is a social phenomenon where a section of society is unable to meet even its
basic needs of life.
• Nodal agency of poverty estimation in India NITI Aayog (earlier planning commission)

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Measures of poverty
➢ Head Count Ratio: it is calculated by dividing the number of people below poverty line
by the total population.
➢ Sen’s index of poverty S = H {I + (1-I) G} S= Sen’s index, H= head count ratio, I=
poverty line
➢ Multi-dimensional poverty index- introduced by UNDP.
➢ Poverty line
• NITI Ayog (earlier Planning Commission) estimates Poverty using NSSO DATA.
• Every five years NSSO conducts surveys to collect household Consumption
Expenditure.
• Monthly Per capita Consumption Expenditure is used to determine poverty line.
• Two approaches: Uniform Recall Period & Mixed Recall Period
Poverty estimates
• VM Dandekar and N Rath (1971): poverty estimation base- 2250 calories per day in both
rural and urban
• YK Alagh Committee (1979): Poverty line for rural and urban areas based on nutritional
requirements. Rural: 2400 calories, Urban: 2100 Calories.
• Lakdawala Committee (1993): State specific poverty lines should be constructed, and
these should be constructed using the CPI-IW in urban areas and CPI-AL in rural areas.
• Tendulkar Committee (2005): A shift from Calorie consumption-based poverty
estimation and incorporated private expenditure on health and education. Mixed
Reference Period (MRP) estimation.
• National poverty estimates
year rural urban total
2004 − 05 41. 8 25. 7 37.2
2009 − 10 33. 8 20.9 29.8
2011 − 12 25. 7 13. 7 21. 9

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• State wise poverty estimates 2011-12

• Chhattisgarh (39.9),
• Jharkhand (37)
• Manipur (36.9)
• Kerala (7.1)
• Goa (5. 1)- least poverty
Unemployment
• It is a situation characterized by the existence of those able and willing to work haven’t
any work with them.
• Measurement
A. Usual status unemployment (UPS)- a person is considered as unemployed if he
was not working but was willing to work for the major parts of the year.
B. Current weekly status (CWS)- a person considered as unemployed if he or she
hasn’t work even for one hour in a week.
C. Current daily status (CDS)- A person considered as unemployed if he does not find
work even on a day or some days during the survey week.
Unemployment in India
• Union Ministry for Labour and Employment claimed national unemployment hovers
around 3. 7 percent in 2015-16.
• According to India Skills Report launched in the 3rd CII National Conference on Skill
Development, 96 percent were found unemployable out of 100,000 candidates.
• A UN Labour report released in January reports that “Unemployment in India is
projected to increase from 17.7 million last year to 17.8 million in 2017 and 18 million
next year. In percentage terms, unemployment rate will remain at 3. 4 per cent in 2017-
18.
Agriculture
• The performance of agriculture sector influences the growth of Indian economy. Indian
economy is based on agriculture. Agriculture is the largest livelihood provider in India.
52% of the total population of India depends on agriculture.

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• India –largest producer of Milk, Jute, Pulses, Mango, Banana and Sapota. Second largest
producer of wheat, vegetables, fish, onions etc.
• India ranks third in tobacco production and sixth in coffee production  India accounts
10% of world food production.
Agriculture growth
Agriculture growth 2012- 13 2013-14 2014-15 2015-16 2016-17
Growth in GVA in Agriculture 1. 5 5. 6 -0.2 0.7 4. 9
and Allied Sector
Share of GVA of Agriculture 18.2 18.6 18.0 17.5 17.4
and Allied sector in total GVA
Share in GCF 7.6 8.5 7.8 6.9

Five-year plans: and agriculture growth

plan Growth rate
First 2. 71
Second 3. 15
Third 0.73
Forth 4. 16
Fifth 3. 28
Sixth 2. 52
Seventh 3. 42
Eight 4. 68
Ninth 2. 06
Tenth 3
eleventh 4(C. 6%)
twelfth ---

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Agriculture and Rural Economy

• The government is committed towards doubling the farmers’ income by 2022.
• A total of Rs 14. 34 lakh crore (US$ 225. 43 billion) will be spent for creation of
livelihood and infrastructure in rural areas.
• Minimum Support Price (MSP) for all announced kharif crops will be at least one and
half times of their production cost, like the majority of rabi crops.
• Institutional credit to the agriculture sector is targeted at Rs 11 lakh crore.
• A Fisheries and Aqua culture Infrastructure Development Fund (FAIDF) and an
animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF)will be started with a
total corpus of Rs 10,000 crore.
• A new initiative named ‘Revitalizing Infrastructure and Systems in Education (RISE)
by 2022’ will be launched with an investment of Rs 1 lakh crore (US$ 15. 72 billion)
over the next four years.
Green revolution in India
• It is the new agricultural strategy was adopted in India during 1960s.
• Increase in agricultural production using High Yielding Varity (HYV) seeds and
chemical fertilizers. That is the traditional agricultural practices replaced by new
production strategy.
• In 1960, from seven states seven districts were selected and the Government introduced
a pilot project known as Intensive Area Development Programme (IADP) into those
seven districts.
• Father of green revolution-Norman Ernest Borlaug. He is known as “The man who saved
a billion lives”.
• Father of green revolution in India- Dr. M.S Swaminathan.
Industry
• An industry is a group of organizations involved in producing/manufacturing or handling
the same type of product and service.
Industrial policies in India
Industrial policy means: government action to influence the ownership and structure of
industry and its performance, and it takes the form of paying subsidies or providing finance
in other ways, or of regulation.

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Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948:

• Announced on 6th Apr 1948 by the Union industry minister M Shyma Prasad Mukherjee
• It envisaged a mixed economy.
• Envisage active role for the state. Basic and strategic industries such as arms and
ammunition, atomic energy, railways, etc., shall be the exclusive monopoly of the State.
Public Economics
Budget
It is an anticipated statement of income and expenditure of Govt. in a financial year. The
word budget is not mentioned in the constitution. Instead of budget, it uses the term annual
financial statement in Article 112.
Objectives of budget
1. Government aims to reallocate resources in accordance with the economic (profit
maximization) and social (public welfare) priorities of the country.
2. Government aims to reduce such inequalities of income and wealth, through its
budgetary policy. Government aims to influence distribution of income by imposing
taxes on the rich and spending more on the welfare of the poor.
3. Government budget is used to prevent business fluctuations of inflation or deflation to
achieve the objective of economic stability.
4. Budget is prepared with the objective of making various provisions for managing such
enterprises and providing those financial help.
5. budgetary policy aims to mobilize sufficient resources for investment in the public
sector.
6. The government budget aims to reduce regional disparities through its taxation and
expenditure policy for encouraging setting up of production units in economically
backward regions.
Components of budget
• Govt. budgets divided into two parts-Revenue budget and capital budget.
• Revenue budget or revenue account includes current financial transactions of the govt.
which are of recurring in nature. Revenue Budget consists of the revenue receipts of the
government and the expenditure is met from these revenues.

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• Capital budget is a statement of estimated capital receipts and payments of the govt. over
fiscal year. The Capital Account is related to the acquisition and disposal of capital
assets. It consists of capital receipts and capital expenditure.
Union Budget 2018-19
• The Union Budget for 2018-19 has been announced by Mr Arun Jaitley, Union Minister
for Finance, Government of India, in Parliament on February 1, 2018.
• It focuses on uplifting the rural economy and strengthening of the agriculture sector,
healthcare for the economically less privileged, infrastructure creation and improvement
in the quality of education of the country.
Budgets in India
• Separation of Railway budget from General budget was the recommendation of Acworth
Committee (1924)
• Budget-Presented in Loksabha and prior permission from President is needed for
presenting a budget.
• First Budget in India- 1860- James Wilson.
• First budget in free India- R K shanmugam Chetty -1947
• Highest number of Budgets presented by Moraji Desai (10)
• Only women who presented budget in India – Indira Gandhi
• 1973-74 Black Budget.
• 1997-98- Dream Budget.
Expenditure
• before 1987- 88 total expenditure of government can be classified into Developmental
or non-developmental expenditure.
• From 1987-88 onwards-total expenditure can be classified into Plan expenditure and
non-plan expenditure-under the recommendation of Sukhomoy Chakravarthy
Committee.
• From the financial year- 2017-18, on recommendation of Bibek Debroy Committee the
budget has abolished the distinction of plan and non-plan expenditure.

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Medium, Small and Micro Enterprises (MSMEs)

• A total of Rs 3,790 crore (US$ 596.43 million) has been provided for the MSME sector
for credit support, capital and interest subsidy and innovations.
• Formalization in the MSME sector is happening at a fast pace after the introduction of
the Goods and Services Tax (GST) and demonetization.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q 1. The value of money during the inflation _________.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays stable
D. Not stable
E. None of these

Ans: - B. Decreases
Explanation:
The value of money during inflation decreases. Inflation is a persistent rise in the price
levels of goods and services leading to a fall in the currency’s purchasing power.

Q 2. Which of the following tax gives maximum revenue to the government of India?
A. Corporate tax
B. Excise duty
C. Income tax
D. Customs duty
E. None of these

Ans: - A. Corporate tax

Explanation:
Corporate tax is the single largest source of income to the government of India. According
to the Budget for 2019-20 presented in Parliament by Finance Minister Nirmala
Sitharaman, Goods and Services Tax collections will contribute 19 paise in every rupee
revenue.

Q 3. With reference to Economic Survey 2022-23, consider the following statements

regarding Tax Buoyancy:

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1. Tax buoyancy defines the relationship between the changes in the government’s tax
revenue growth and the changes in GDP.
2. A higher buoyancy reflects the increased efficiency of the tax system.
3. Goods and Services Tax (GST) collection is showing a higher buoyancy than the pre-
GST system.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only
E. None of these
Ans: – C. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
The relationship between variations in the growth of tax revenues collected by the
government and changes in GDP is explained by tax buoyancy. Hence, Statement 1 is
correct.

It speaks to how well tax revenue growth responds to changes in GDP. A higher buoyancy
reflects the increased efficiency of the tax system. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. One of
the most important metrics for evaluating the effectiveness of a government's tax system
is tax buoyancy.

Q 4. Dairy comes under which sector of economic activity?

A. Tertiary sector
B. Primary sector
C. Secondary sector
D. Quaternary sector
E. None of these
Ans: – B. Primary sector
Explanation
Based on economic activities, the Indian economy can be divided into 3 major sectors that
are the primary sector, the secondary sector, and the tertiary sector.Dairy comes under the
primary sector. Primary sector: Primary activities are directly dependent on the
environment as these refer to the utilization of the earth’s resources. It, thus includes hunting
and gathering, pastoral activities, fishing, apiculture, etc.

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Q 5. 'Golden Revolution' is related to ________.

A. Precious minerals
B. Pulses
C. Jute
D. Horticulture and Honey
E. None of these

Ans: – D. Horticulture and Honey

Explanation:

• It started in 1991 and lasted till 2003.

• Father of Golden Revolution: Nirpakh Tutaj.
• The Golden Fiber Revolution is related to Jute Production.
• The Golden Revolution is related to Horticulture and Honey

Q 6. The concept of five-year plans in the Constitution of India is borrowed from ______.
A. Russia
B. England
C. The United state
D. Germany
E. None of these

Ans: – A. Russia
Explanation:
The constitution of India has borrowed most of its provisions from the constitution of
different countries in the world.
According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the constitution of India has been framed after ransacking
all the known constitutions of the world. The important provisions borrowed from Russia
are.

Q 7. What was the duration of the Second Five-Year Plan?

A. 1957-62
B. 1958-63
C. 1955-60
D. 1956-61
E. None of these

Ans: – D. 1956-61

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Explanation:
1956-61 was the duration of the Second Five Year Plan. The Second Five Year Plan was
based on Mahalanobis Model. Its main focus was on the industrial development of the
country. P. C. Mahalanobis was a famous Indian statistician who founded the Indian
Statistical Institute.

Q 8. Which Five Year Plan had the primary goal to establish India as a self-reliant and
self-generating economy?
A. First five-year plan
B. Second five-year plan
C. Third five-year plan
D. Fourth five-year plan
E. None of these

Ans: – C. Third five-year plan

Explanation:
The third Five Year Plan was launched from 1961-1966 under the leadership of Pandit
Jawaharlal Nehru. The Deputy Chairman of the Planning commission at the time of the
third five-year plan was D. R. Gadgil.

Q 9. Fiat money is the one which ______.

A. Has Taxes Equal To Government Spending.
B. Has No Intrinsic Value.
C. Has Intrinsic Value Equal To The Face Value.
D. Does Not Go Any further transformation.
E. None of these

Ans: – B. has no intrinsic value.

Explanation:
Fiat money is a government-issued currency that is not backed by a commodity such as
gold. Fiat money gives central banks greater control over the economy because they can
control how much money is printed.

Q10. The Monetary Policy Framework is formulated by ________.

A. Central Government
B. SIDBI
C. RBI
D. National Stock Exchange of India

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E. None of these
Ans: – C. RBI
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary
policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act,
1934.

Q 11. Recession can be defined as –

A. Decline in economy activity
B. Increase in the economic activity
C. Constant situation in the economy
D. Decrease in the economic activity
E. None of these
Ans: – A. Decline in economy activity
Explanation:
Recession is an economic term that refers to the decline in economic activity.
It leads to a financial crisis in the economy.
It shows that residents of the country have stopped buying products for a period which
causes a downfall in the GDP.

Q 12. Which of the following is measured by the Lorenz curve?

A. Illiteracy
B. Unemployment
C. Population growth rate
D. Inequality of Income
E. None of these

Ans: – D. Inequality of Income

Explanation:
Lorenz curve represents the distribution of income in an economy.
It is represented by a straight line that depicts the perfect distribution of income.
Lorenz curve is beneath that line which shows the estimated distribution of income.

Q 13. The Indian currency system was converted into a decimal system by ………………
which was brought into force from 1 April 1957.
A. Banking Companies Act, 1946
B. Coinage Act 1956
C. Indian Coinage Act 1955

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D. Banking Regulation Act 1949

E. None of these

Ans: – C. Indian Coinage Act 1955

Explanation:
The Indian currency system was converted into a decimal system by Indian Coinage Act
1955 which was brought into force from 1 April 1957. The Old system of rupee, annas
and paise was replaced by rupee and paise system
1 Rupee = 16 Annas and 1 Annas = 12 paise
Q 14. In India Currency notes of denomination Rs.1,2,5,10,50,500 and 1000 are in
circulation. This series of number is called as ……………
A. British Series
B. Indian Currency Series
C. Ambedkar Series
D. Mahatma Gandhi Series.
E. None of these
Ans: – D. Mahatma Gandhi Series.

Explanation:
In India Currency notes of denomination Rs.1,2,5,10,50,500 and 1000 are in circulation
This series which began in 1996 is called as Mahatma Gandhi Series. All notes above 1
rupee denomination were introduced by RBI.
Q 15. All the currency notes except ………………………. bear the signature of the
Governor of the RBI.
A. One Rupee Note
B. Hundred Rupee Note
C. Five Rupee Note
D. Two Rupee Note
E. None Of These

Ans: – A. One Rupee note

Explanation:
One rupee note is signed controlled by Ministry of finance and signed by the Finance
Secretary

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Q 16. Distribution and administration of all currency is done by the

………………………… as an agent of the GOI.
A. RBI
B. World Bank
C. SBI
D. Finance Department
E. None of these
Ans: – A. RBI
Explanation:
RBI – Reserve Bank of India
Founded on April 1, 1935 at Kolkata.
Q 17. In ……………. became a member of IMF and the exchange value of the rupee
came to be fixed by IMF standards.
A. 1947
B. 1950
C. 1956
D. 1987
E. None of these.
Ans: – A. 1947
Explanation:
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of 188 countries, working to
foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade,
promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around
the world.
HQ – Washington, D. C., Dc
Q 18. Paper currency in India was introduced in ……………………. by the British
government
A. 1919
B. 1890
C. 1920
D. 1861
E. None of these
Ans: – D. 1861
Explanation:
In 1861, the government of India introduced its first paper money: Rs.10 notes in 1864,

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Rs.5 notes in 1872, Rs.10,000 notes in 1899, Rs.100 notes in 1900, 50-rupee notes in
1905, 500-rupee notes in 1907 and 1000-rupee notes in 1909.
Q 19. The first devaluation take place in June ………………………
A. 1947
B. 1889
C. 1949
D. 1935
E. None of these
Ans: – C. 1949
Explanation:
The first devaluation take place in June 1949, when the Indian rupees when the Indian
rupee devaluated by 30.5%
Q 20. …………………. refers to the withdrawal of currency from circulation which is
done to ambush black market currency and unaccounted money.
A. Devaluation
B. Decentralization
C. Denomination
D. Demonetization
E. None of these
Ans: – D. Demonetization
Explanation:
Demonetization is necessary whenever there is a change of national currency. The old unit
of currency must be retired and replaced with a new currency unit.
Q 21. The Banking Companies Act was amended in 1949 and its name changed to
the ………………….
A. Banking Laws Act
B. Reserve Bank of India Act
C. Banking Transfer Act
D. Banking Regulation Act
E. None of these
Ans: – D. Banking Regulation Act
Explanation:
Banking Regulation Act regarding control and regulation of Banking Sector in India.

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Q 22. The first bank in India managed by Indians was the ………………………
A. RBI
B. Oudh Commercial Bank
C. Corporation Bank
D. Bank of India
E. None of these.

Ans: – B. Oudh Commercial Bank

Explanation:
Oudh Commercial Bank founded in 188A. It was a bank of limited liability.

Q 23. Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana is related to

A. Scholarship
B. Pension
C. Loan
D. Welfare Programme
E. None of these

Ans: – B. Pension
Explanation:
Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana is a one-time premium retirement plan for senior citizens,
with pension can start as immediately as next month. You can choose to get the pension
any mode, either monthly, quarterly, half yearly or on a yearly basis.

Q 24. Employees’ Provident Fund Organization is under which ministry?

A. Ministry of Rural Development
B. Ministry of Labour and Employment
C. Ministry of Finance
D. Ministry of Culture
E. None of these

Ans: – B. Ministry of Labour and Employment

Explanation:
The EPFO is under the administrative control of Ministry of Labour and Employment,
Government of India

Q 25. Recently which currency is added to IMF’s SDR basket?

A. Renminbi

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B. Yen
C. Euro
D. Dollar
E. None of these

Ans: – A. Renminbi
Explanation:
Effective October 1, the IMF is adding the Chinese renminbi (RMB) to the basket of
currencies that make up the Special Drawing Right, or SDR.

Q 26. SDR is an international reserve asset created by

A. ILO
B. IMF
C. World Bank
D. New Development Bank
E. None of these

Ans: – B. IMF
Explanation:
SDR is an international reserve asset created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement its
member countries’ official reserves.

Q 27. The New Development Bank is associated with which international organization?
A. WTO
B. World Bank
C. UN
D. BRICS
E. None of these

Ans: – D. BRICS
Explanation:
The New Development Bank, formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a
multilateral development bank established by the BRICS states.

Q 28. CASA ratio stands for

A. Total Deposits and Withdraw ratio
B. Saving and current account ratio.
C. Current and savings account ratio.

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D. Total Profit
E. None of these

Ans: – C. Current and savings account ratio.

Explanation:
CASA ratio stands for current and savings account ratio. CASA ratio of a bank is the ratio
of deposits in current and saving accounts to total deposits.

Q 29. Which of the following introduced Paperless SIP (systematic investment

Plans)?
A. Bombay Stock Exchange
B. National Stock Exchange
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. Life Insurance Corporation.
E. None of these

Ans: – A. Bombay Stock Exchange

Explanation:
Leading stock exchange BSE is introducing Paperless SIP (systematic investment Plans)
that would allow mutual fund investors to make Transactions through various modes of
payments.

Q 30. First small-and medium enterprises (SME) Bank launched by …………

A. RBI
B. HDFC
C. ICICI
D. SBI
E. None of these

Ans: – B. HDFC
Explanation:
HDFC Bank Ltd launched the first SMe Bank, India’s first full-fledged digital banking
service for small-and medium enterprises (SME)

Q 31. NUUP (National Unified NUUP Platform) is a USSD based mobile banking
service from
A. Ministry of Telecom
B. RBI

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C. BSNL
D. NPCI
E. None of these

Ans: – D. NPCI
Explanation:
NUUP (National Unified NUUP Platform) is a USSD based mobile banking service from
NPCI that brings together all the Banks and Telecom Service Providers.

Q 32. What is CAGR?

A. Compound Annual Growth Rate
B. Common Arrival Grade Rate
C. Correspond Access Growth Ratio
D. Consolidated Annual Growth Rate
E. None of these

Ans: – A. Compound Annual Growth Rate

Explanation:
The compound annual growth rate (CAGR) is a useful measure of growth over multiple
time periods.

Q 33. Which of the following is not a correct statement with respect to Masala Bonds?
A. They allow Indian companies to raise overseas debts in Indian currency.
B. Interest Payment on Masala Bonds is in Indian Rupee
C. Most popular market for Masala Bonds is New York currently.
D. All the above are correct statements.
E. None of these

Ans: C Most popular market for Masala Bonds is New York currently.
Explanation:
Masala bonds allow Indian companies to raise overseas debt in the Indian currency. The
instrument shields the issuers from currency fluctuations mainly because interest payments
and redemption is in rupees. At the same time, investors get interest rates that are higher
than in their domestic markets. In third statement, the most popular market for Masala bonds
currently is London.

Q 34. What is the objective of the government budget in India?

A. To maximize profits for the government.

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B. To reduce inequalities of income and wealth.

C. To promote business fluctuations of inflation or deflation.
D. To decrease regional disparities in the private sector.
E. None of these

Ans: B. To reduce inequalities of income and wealth

Explanation:
One of the main objectives of the government budget in India is to reduce inequalities of
income and wealth through its budgetary policy. The government aims to influence the
distribution of income by imposing taxes on the rich and spending more on the welfare of
the poor. This helps to promote social welfare and reduce the income gap between
different sections of society.

Q 35. Who is known as the Father of Economics?

A. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. Aristotle
C. Adam Smith
D. VKRV Rao
E. None of these

Ans: - C. Adam Smith

Explanation:
Adam smith is known as The Father of Economics. Adam Smith is often touted as the
world's first free-market capitalist. While that designation is probably a bit overstated,
Smith's place in history as the father of modern economics and a major proponent of
laissez-faire economic policies is quite secure.

Q 36. ……………………. examine the behaviour of basic elements in the economy

including individual agents and market and their interaction.
A. Microeconomics
B. Macro Economics
C. Modern Economy
D. Open Economy
E. None of these

Ans: - A. Microeconomics
Explanation:

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Microeconomics examine the behaviour of basic elements in the economy including

individual agents and market and their interaction.

Microeconomics is a branch of economics that studies the behavior of individuals and

firms in making decisions regarding the allocation of limited resources. Typically, it
applies to markets where goods or services are bought and sold.

Q 37. ………… studies the economy as a whole and its features like national income,
unemployment, poverty, balance of payment and inflation
A. Modern Economy
B. Modern Economy
C. Open Economy
D. Macro Economics
E. None of these

Ans: - D. Macro Economics

Explanation:
Macroeconomics is a branch of economics dealing with the performance, structure,
behavior, and decision-making of an economy, rather than individual markets. This
includes national, regional, and global economies.

Q 38. Which of the following is generally free from trade barriers and where exports and
imports from a large % of GDP ?
A. Modern Economy
B. Open Economy
C. Closed Economy
D. Macro Economics
E. None of these

Ans: - B. Open Economy

Explanation:
An open economy is an economy in which there are economic activities between the
domestic community and outside (people, and even businesses, can trade in goods and
services with other people and businesses in the international community, and funds can
flow as investments across the border).

Q 39. An economy in which no activity is conducted with outside economy is called

A. Open Economy
B. Modern Economy

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C. Closed Economy
D. Microeconomics
E. None of these

Ans: - C. Closed Economy

Explanation:
A closed economy is self-sufficient, meaning that no imports are brought in and no
exports are sent out. The goal is to provide consumers with everything that they need from
within the economy's borders.

Q 40. When the national income is measured at the base year price, it is called national
income at
A. Indirect taxes
B. Constant price
C. Factor Cost
D. Current year price
E. None of these

Ans: - B. Constant price

Explanation:
When the national income is measured at the base year price, it is called national income
at Constant price and when the national income is measured at the current year price, it is
called national income at current year price.

Q 41. The Government of India appointed a National Income Committee under the
Chairmanship of Dr. PC. Mahalanobis. This committee gave its first report in
……………………….
A. 1951
B. 1954
C. 1956
D. 1960
E. None of these

Ans: - A. 1951
Explanation:
The Government of India appointed a National Income Committee under the
Chairmanship of Dr. PC. Mahalanobis. This committee gave its first report in 1951 and
final report in 1954.

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Q 42. ………………… is the total money value of all final goods and services produced
within the geographical boundaries of the country during a given period.
A. Gross Domestic Product
B. Nominal GDP
C. Real GDP
D. Gross National Product
E. None of these

Ans: - Gross Domestic Product

Explanation:
Gross Domestic Product is the total money value of all final goods and services produced
within the geographical boundaries of the country during a given period GDP =
Consumption Expenditure + Gov Expenditure + Investments Expenditure.

Q 43. GDP in a country is usually calculated by …………………...

A. International Monetary Fund
B. System of National Accounts
C. Central Statistical Agency
D. National Statistical Agency
E. None of these

Ans: - D. National Statistical Agency

Explanation:
GDP in a country is usually calculated by National Statistical Agency which compiles the
information from many sources. In case of India it is Central Statistics Office.

Q 44. NITI Aayog came into existence on ……………………….

A. January 1, 2015
B. August 15, 2015
C. January 26, 2015
D. January 1, 2014
E. None of these

Ans: - A. January 1, 2015

Explanation:
NITI Aayog or National Institution of India Aayog came into existence on January 1,
2015. It replaces Planning Commission and aims to involve States in economic policy
making.

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Q 45. The Year 1921 is known as the ……………….

A. Year of Stagnant
B. Year of Great Divide
C. Year of Declining
D. Year of High Growth
E. None of these

Ans: - B. Year of Great Divide

Explanation:
The Year 1921 is known as the Year of Great Divide because it is the only census year
when there was decline in growth of population. After 1921, there has been a trend of
continuous rise in population.

Q 46. A National commission on Farmers was appointed in ……………………… under

the Chairmanship of Dr.MS Swaminathan
A. 1997
B. 2001
C. 1993
D. 2004
E. None of these

Ans: - D. 2004
Explanation:
A National commission on Farmers was appointed in 2004 under the Chairmanship of
Dr.MS Swaminathan, which suggests Agricultural Renewal Action Plan.

Q 47. RRB's formally launched in …………………………

A. 12th June, 1972
B. 2nd October, 1975
C. 1st January, 1985
D. 26th November, 1980
E. None of these

Ans: - B. 2nd October, 1975

Explanation:
RRB's formally launched on 2nd October 1975 at Moradabad, Gorakhpur, Bhiwani,
Jaipur and malda.

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Q 48. Agricultural Insurance Company of India (AIC) was incorporated under the
…………… on 20th December 2002.
A. Companies Act, 1952
B. Companies Act, 2015
C. Companies Act, 1956
D. Companies Act, 2013
E. None of these

Ans: - C. Companies Act, 1956

Explanation:
Agricultural Insurance Company of India (AIC) was incorporated under the Companies
Act, 1956 on 20th December 2002.

Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AIC) offers yield-based and weather-
based crop insurance programs in almost 500 districts of India. Agriculture Insurance
Company of India Limited is a limited company headquartered out of New Delhi, India.

Q 49. NABARD was setup in July 1982 and its headquarters at ……………………

A. Hyderabad
B. Kolkata
C. Delhi
D. Mumbai
E. None of these
Ans: - D. Mumbai
Explanation:
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development is an apex development bank in
India, having headquarters in Mumbai and other branches are all over the country.

Q 50. The Maharatna status established by the government which raised the PSEs
investment ceiling from to ...........................
A. Rs. 1000cr to Rs. 5000cr
B. Rs. 100cr to Rs. 1000cr
C. Rs. 1000cr to Rs. 2000cr
D. Rs. 500cr to Rs. 1000cr
E. None of these

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Ans: - A. Rs. 1000𝑐𝑟 to Rs.5000cr

Explanation:
The Maharatna status established by the government which raised the PSEs investment
ceiling from Rs. 1000𝑐𝑟 to Rs. 5000𝑐𝑟. The Maharatna firm can now decide on
investments of upto 15% of their net worth.

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UNION BUDGET
Introduction:
The Union Budget of India, also referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in Article
112 of the Constitution of India, is the annual budget of the Republic of India. The
Government presents it on the first day of February so that it could be materialized before
the beginning of new financial year in April.

A budget is a plan you write down to decide how you will spend your money each month.
A budget helps you make sure you will have enough money every month. Without a budget,
you might run out of money before your next paycheck. A budget shows you how much
money you make.
The three types of budgets are a surplus budget, a balanced budget, and a deficit budget.
The state budget is a financial document including income and expenditure for the year. An
income- and expense-based spending plan is referred to as a budget. In other words, it’s an
estimation of the amount of money you’ll earn and spend over a specific time frame, like a
month or a year.
Objectives of Budget:
On the basis of budget, attempts have been made to achieve many targets. Following are
the main objectives:
1. Prepare budget structure for policy. For this, to achieve the targets, the work that will
have to be done, takes the decision regarding this. This decision is to be taken that from
different competitional optional proposals which one is to be choose so that, main
national targets can be obtained. It is to be decided that can many targets be achieved
combine.
2. Budget is a medium to implement a policy. Here standard of work capacity and
thriftiness has been implemented, means they try to get policy making regarding
decisions on minimum estimate.
3. Budget is a medium of implementation. All decisions regarding budget take a form of
act. The reason to pressurise the law control is to stop the misuse of rights and to save
public fund from misuses.
4. Budget documents can be sources of providing information about the coming
possibilities, activities of past, present decisions and future possibilities budget process
provide offers for legislatives and executives that they can tell us the appropriateness of
their decisions and functions.

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Components of Government Budget:

(A) Revenue Budget:
The Revenue Budget shows the current receipts of the government and the expenditure that
can be met from these receipts.
1. Revenue Receipts:
Revenue receipts are divided into tax and non-tax revenues.
Tax revenues - Tax revenues consist of the proceeds of taxes and other duties levied by the
central government. Tax revenues, an important component of revenue receipts, comprise
of Direct taxes which fall directly on individuals (personal income tax) and firms
(corporation tax), Indirect taxes like excise taxes (duties levied on goods produced within
the country), customs duties (taxes imposed on goods imported into and exported out of
India) and service tax.
2. Non-tax revenue:
Non-tax revenue of the central government mainly consists of Interest receipts (on account
of loans by the central government which constitutes the single largest item of non-tax
revenue)
• Dividends and profits on investments made by the government.
• Fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government.
• Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organizations are also
included.
The estimates of revenue receipts take into account the effects of tax proposals made in the
Finance Bill. A Finance Bill, presented along with the Annual Financial Statement, provides
details of the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of taxes proposed in
the Budget.
Revenue Expenditure:
Revenue expenditure consists of all those expenditures of the government which do not
result in creation of physical or financial assets. It relates to those expenses incurred for the
normal functioning of the government departments and various services, interest payments
on debt incurred by the government, and grants given to state governments and other parties
(even though some of the grants may be meant for creation of assets).
Budget documents classify total revenue expenditure into Plan and Non-plan expenditure.
Plan revenue expenditure - Plan revenue expenditure relates to central Plans (the Five-
Year Plans) and central assistance for State and Union Territory Plans.

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Non-plan expenditure- Non-plan expenditure, the more important component of revenue

expenditure, covers a vast range of general, economic and social services of the
government. The main items of non-plan expenditure are interest payments, defence
services, subsidies, salaries and pensions. Interest payments on market loans, external loans
and from various reserve funds constitute the single largest component of non-plan revenue
expenditure. They used up 41.5 per cent of revenue receipts in 2004-05. Defence
expenditure, the second largest component of non-plan expenditure, is committed
expenditure in the sense that given the national security concerns, there exists a little scope
for drastic reduction.
Subsidies are an important policy instrument which aim at increasing welfare. Apart from
providing implicit subsidies through under-pricing of public goods and services like
education and health, the government also extends subsidies explicitly on items such as
exports, interest on loans, food and fertilizers.
B. The Capital Budget:
The Capital Budget is an account of the assets as well as liabilities of the central
government, which takes into consideration changes in capital. It consists of capital receipts
and capital expenditure of the government. This shows the capital requirements of the
government and the pattern of their financing.
Capital Receipts:
The main items of capital receipts are loans raised by the government from the public which
are called market borrowings, borrowing by the government from the Reserve Bank and
commercial banks and other financial institutions through the sale of treasury bills, loans
received from foreign governments and international organizations, and recoveries of loans
granted by the central government.
Other items include small savings (Post-Office Savings Accounts, National Savings
Certificates, etc.), provident funds and net receipts obtained from the sale of shares in Public
Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
Capital Expenditure:
This includes expenditure on the acquisition of land, building, machinery, equipment,
investment in shares, and loans and advances by the central government to state and union
territory governments, PSUs and other parties. Capital expenditure is also categorized as
plan and non-plan in the budget documents.
Plan capital expenditure - Plan capital expenditure, like its revenue counterpart, relates to
central plan and central assistance for state and union territory plans.

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Non-plan capital expenditure- Non- plan capital expenditure covers various general,
social and economic services provided by the government.
Deficit of Budget:
Meaning of Deficit budget- When a government spends more than it collects by way of
revenue, it incurs a budget deficit. There are various measures that capture government
deficit, and they have their own implications for the economy.
Types of Deficit budget:
Deficit budgets are three type which are given as under
Revenue Deficit Budget - The revenue deficit refers to the excess of government’s revenue
expenditure over revenue receipts. It can be calculated.
Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure – Revenue receipts.
The revenue deficit includes only such transactions that affect the current income and
expenditure of the government.
Fiscal Deficit- Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure
and its total receipts excluding borrowing.
Gross fiscal deficit = Total expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating
capital receipts)
Non-debt creating capital receipts are those receipts which are not borrowings and,
therefore, do not give rise to debt. Examples are recovery of loans and the proceeds from
the sale of PSUs.
Primary Deficit- Primary deficit is simply the fiscal deficit minus the interest payment
Gross primary deficit = Gross fiscal deficit – net interest liabilities
Net interest liabilities consist of interest payments minus interest receipts by the government
on net domestic lending.

Union Budget 2023-24:

In the 75th year of India’s Independence, the World has recognized the Indian Economy as
a ‘bright star’ as the Economic Growth is estimated at 7 per cent, which is the highest among
all major economies, in spite of the massive global slowdown caused by COVID-19 and
Russia-Ukraine War. This was stated by Union Minister for Finance & Corporate Affairs
Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman, while presenting the Union Budget 2023-24 in Parliament today.
She emphasized that Indian economy is on the right track, and despite a time of challenges,
heading towards a bright future.
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PART-A
Smt. Sitharaman said that this Budget hopes to build on the foundation laid in the previous
Budget, and the blueprint drawn for India@100, which envisions a prosperous and inclusive
India, where the fruits of development reach all regions and citizens, especially our youth,
women, farmers, OBCs, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Resilience amidst multiple crises:
The finance minister said that India’s rising global profile is due to several accomplishments
like unique World Class Digital Public Infrastructure namely, Aadhaar, Co-Win and UPI;
COVID-19 vaccination drive in unparalleled scale and speed; proactive role in frontier areas
such as achieving the climate related goals, mission LiFE, and National Hydrogen Mission.
She said that during the Covid-19 pandemic, Government ensured that no one goes to bed
hungry, with a scheme to supply free food grains to over 80 Crore persons for 28 months.
The Minister added that continuing with Centre’s commitment to ensure food and
nutritional security, Government is implementing, from 1st January 2023, a scheme to
supply free food grain to all Antyodaya and priority households for the next one year, under
PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). The entire expenditure of about Rs 2 lakh
crore will be borne by the Central Government.
G20 Presidency: Steering the global agenda through challenges
The Finance Minister pointed out that in these times of global challenges; the G20
Presidency gives India a unique opportunity to strengthen its role in the world economic
order. With the theme of ‘Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’, India is steering an ambitious, people-
centric agenda to address global challenges, and to facilitate sustainable economic
development, she added.
Achievements since 2014: Leaving no one behind
Smt. Sitharaman said that the government’s efforts since 2014 have ensured for all citizens
a better quality of living and a life of dignity and the per capita income has more than
doubled to Rs 1.97 lakh. She said that in these nine 9 years, the Indian economy has
increased in size from being 10th to 5th largest in the world. Moreover, the economy has
become a lot more formalized as reflected in the EPFO membership, more than doubling to
27 crore, and 7,400 crore digital payments of Rs 126 lakh crore through UPI in 2022.
The Finance Minister pointed out that the efficient implementation of many schemes, with
universalisation of targeted benefits, has resulted in inclusive development and listed some
of the schemes such as 11.7 crore household toilets under Swachh Bharat Mission, 9.6 crore
LPG connections under Ujjawala, 220 crore Covid vaccinations of 102 crore persons, 47.8

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crore PM Jan Dhan Bank Accounts, Insurance cover for 44.6 crore persons under PM
Suraksha Bima and PM Jeevan Jyoti Yojana, and Cash transfer of Rs 2.2 lakh crore to over
11.4 crore farmers under PM Kisan Samman Nidhi.
Vision for Amrit Kaal: an empowered and inclusive economy
The Finance Minister said that our vision for the Amrit Kaal includes technology-driven
and knowledge-based economy with strong public finances, and a robust financial sector
and to achieve this, Jan Bhagidari through Sabka Saath Sabka Prayas is essential. She added
that the economic agenda for achieving this vision focuses on three things and those are
facilitating ample opportunities for citizens, especially the youth, to fulfill their aspirations,
secondly, providing strong impetus to growth and job creation and finally to strengthen
macro-economic stability. She added that to service these focus areas in our journey to
India@100, the following four opportunities can be transformative during Amrit Kaal-
1. Economic Empowerment of Women: Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana National Rural
Livelihood Mission has achieved remarkable success by mobilizing rural women into
81 lakh Self Help Groups and we will enable these groups to reach the next stage of
economic empowerment through formation of large producer enterprises or collectives
with each having several thousand members and managed professionally.

2. PM Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman (PM VIKAS): For centuries, traditional artisans

and craftspeople, who work with their hands using tools, have brought renown for India
and they are generally referred to as Vishwakarma. The art and handicraft created by
them represents the true spirit of Atmanirbhar Bharat.

The finance minister informed that for the first time, a package of assistance for them
has been conceptualized and the new scheme will enable them to improve the quality,
scale and reach of their products, integrating them with the MSME value chain. The
components of the scheme will include not only financial support but also access to
advanced skill training, knowledge of modern digital techniques and efficient green
technologies, brand promotion, linkage with local and global markets, digital payments,
and social security. This will greatly benefit the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes,
OBCs, women and people belonging to the weaker sections.

3. Tourism: The finance minister said that the country offers immense attraction for
domestic as well as foreign tourists, as there is a large potential to be tapped in tourism.
She added that the sector holds huge opportunities for jobs and entrepreneurship for
youth in particular and emphasized that promotion of tourism will be taken up on

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mission mode, with active participation of states, convergence of government

programmes and public-private partnerships.

4. Green Growth: Dwelling on the subject of Green Growth, the FM said that India is
implementing many programmes for green fuel, green energy, green farming, green
mobility, green buildings, and green equipment, and policies for efficient use of energy
across various economic sectors. These green growth efforts help in reducing carbon
intensity of the economy and provides for largescale green job opportunities, she added.
Priorities of this Budget:
Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman listed seven priorities of the Union Budget and said that they
complement each other and act as the ‘Saptarishi’ guiding us through the Amrit Kaal.
They are as follows:
1) Inclusive Development
2) Reaching the Last Mile
3) Infrastructure and Investment
4) Unleashing the Potential
5) Green Growth
6) Youth Power
7) Financial Sector
Priority 1: Inclusive Development
The Government’s philosophy of Sabka Saath Sabka Vikas has facilitated inclusive
development covering in specific, farmers, women, youth, OBCs, Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes, divyangjan and economically weaker sections, and overall priority for
the underprivileged (vanchiton ko variyata). There has also been a sustained focus on
Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh and the North-East. This Budget builds on those efforts.
Agriculture and Cooperation:
The finance minister said that the Digital Public infrastructure for agriculture will be built
as an open source, open standard and inter operable public good. She said, this will enable
inclusive, farmer-centric solutions through relevant information services for crop planning
and health, improved access to farm inputs, credit, and insurance, help for crop estimation,
market intelligence, and support for growth of agri-tech industry and start-ups.

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Agriculture Accelerator Fund

The FM announces that an Agriculture Accelerator Fund will be set-up to encourage agri-
startups by young entrepreneurs in rural areas, which will aim at bringing innovative and
affordable solutions for challenges faced by farmers. It will also bring in modern
technologies to transform agricultural practices, increase productivity and profitability.
Enhancing productivity of cotton crop:
To enhance the productivity of extra-long staple cotton, Government will adopt a cluster-
based and value chain approach through Public Private Partnerships (PPP). This will mean
collaboration between farmers, state and industry for input supplies, extension services, and
market linkages.

Atmanirbhar Horticulture Clean Plant Programme:

Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman announced that the Government will launch an Atmanirbhar
Clean Plant Programme to boost availability of disease-free, quality planting material for
high value horticultural crops at an outlay of Rs 2,200 crore.

Global Hub for Millets: ‘Shree Anna’:

Smt. Sitharaman quoted Prime Minister as saying, “India is at the forefront of popularizing
Millets, whose consumption furthers nutrition, food security and welfare of farmers”. She
said that India is the largest producer and second largest exporter of ‘Shree Anna’ in the
world as it grows several types of 'Shree Anna' such as jowar, ragi, bajra, kuttu, ramdana,
kangni, kutki, kodo, cheena, and sama.

She mentioned that these have a number of health benefits and have been an integral part
of our food for centuries and acknowledged with pride that the huge service done by small
farmers in contributing to the health of fellow citizens by growing these ‘Shree Anna’. She
added that to make India a global hub for 'Shree Anna', the Indian Institute of Millet
Research, Hyderabad will be supported as the Centre of Excellence for sharing best
practices, research and technologies at the international level.

Agriculture Credit:
Dwelling on welfare measures for farmers, the finance minister announced that the
agriculture credit target will be increased to Rs 20 lakh crore with focus on animal
husbandry, dairy and fisheries.

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She informed that the Government will launch a new sub-scheme of PM Matsya Sampada
Yojana with targeted investment of Rs 6,000 crore to further enable activities of fishermen,
fish vendors, and micro & small enterprises, improve value chain efficiencies, and expand
the market.

Cooperation:
For farmers, especially small and marginal farmers, and other marginalized sections, the
government is promoting cooperative-based economic development model. A new Ministry
of Cooperation was formed with a mandate to realize the vision of ‘Sahakar Se Samriddhi’.
To realize this vision, the government has already initiated computerization of 63,000
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) with an investment of Rs 2,516 crore.

In consultation with all stakeholders and states, model bye-laws for PACS were formulated
enabling them to become multipurpose PACS. A national cooperative database is being
prepared for country-wide mapping of cooperative societies.

Smt. Sitharaman said that Government will implement a plan to set up massive,
decentralized storage capacity, which will help farmers store their produce and realize
remunerative prices through sale at appropriate times. The government will also facilitate
setting up of a large number of multipurpose cooperative societies, primary fishery societies
and dairy cooperative societies in uncovered panchayats and villages in the next 5 years.

Health, Education and Skilling:

The finance minister announced that one hundred and fifty-seven new nursing colleges will
be established in co-location with the existing 157 medical colleges established since 2014.
She also informed that a Mission to eliminate Sickle Cell Anaemia by 2047 will be
launched, which will entail awareness creation, universal screening of 7 crore people in the
age group of 0-40 years in affected tribal areas, and counseling through collaborative efforts
of central ministries and state governments. On Medical Research, she said that facilities in
select ICMR Labs will be made available for research by public and private medical college
faculty and private sector R&D teams for encouraging collaborative research and
innovation.

Dwelling on the subject of Pharma Innovation, the Finance Minister informed that a new
programme to promote research and innovation in pharmaceuticals will be taken up through
centers of excellence. She said that the Government will also encourage industry to invest
in research and development in specific priority areas.

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Teachers’ Training:
Smt. Sitharaman said that Teachers’ training will be re-envisioned through innovative
pedagogy, curriculum transaction, continuous professional development, dipstick surveys,
and ICT implementation. She added that the District Institutes of Education and Training
will be developed as vibrant institutes of excellence for this purpose.

She also informed that a National Digital Library for Children and Adolescents will be set-
up for facilitating availability of quality books across geographies, languages, genres and
levels, and device agnostic accessibility. States will be encouraged to set up physical
libraries for them at panchayat and ward levels and provide infrastructure for accessing the
National Digital Library resources.

Additionally, to build a culture of reading, and to make up for pandemic-time learning loss,
the National Book Trust, Children’s Book Trust and other sources will be encouraged to
provide and replenish non-curricular titles in regional languages and English to these
physical libraries.

Priority 2: Reaching the Last Mile

The Finance Minister said that Prime Minister Vajpayee’s government had formed the
Ministry of Tribal Affairs and the Department of Development of North-Eastern Region to
provide a sharper focus to the objective of ‘reaching the last mile’. She said that Modi
Government has formed the ministries of AYUSH, Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and
Dairying, Skill Development, Jal Shakti and Cooperation.

Aspirational Districts and Blocks Programme:

Smt. Sitharaman informed that building on the success of the Aspirational Districts
Programme, the Government has recently launched the Aspirational Blocks Programme
covering 500 blocks for saturation of essential government services across multiple
domains such as health, nutrition, education, agriculture, water resources, financial
inclusion, skill development, and basic infrastructure.

Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission:

The finance minister said that to improve socio-economic conditions of the particularly
vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs), Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission will be
launched. This will saturate PVTG families and habitations with basic facilities such as safe

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housing, clean drinking water and sanitation, improved access to education, health and
nutrition, road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities. An
amount of Rs 15,000 crore will be made available to implement the Mission in the next
three years under the Development Action Plan for the Scheduled Tribes. Smt. Sitharaman
announced that in the next three years, centre will recruit 38,800 teachers and support staff
for the 740 Ekalavya Model Residential Schools, serving 3.5 lakh tribal students.

Water for Drought Prone Region:

The finance minister said that in the drought prone central region of Karnataka, central
assistance of Rs 5,300 crore will be given to Upper Bhadra Project to provide sustainable
micro irrigation and filling up of surface tanks for drinking water.

PM Awas Yojana:
In an important announcement, the finance minister said that the outlay for PM Awas
Yojana is being enhanced by 66 per cent to over Rs 79,000 crore.

‘Bharat Shared Repository of Inscriptions’ will be set up in a digital epigraphy museum,

with digitization of one lakh ancient inscriptions in the first stage.

Priority 3: Infrastructure & Investment

Smt. Sitharaman said, investments in Infrastructure and productive capacity have a large
multiplier impact on growth and employment and in view of this capital investment outlay
is being increased steeply for the third year in a row by 33 per cent to Rs 10 lakh crore,
which would be 3.3 per cent of GDP. She said that this will be almost three times the outlay
in 2019-20. The ‘Effective Capital Expenditure’ of the Centre is budgeted at Rs 13.7 lakh
crore, which will be 4.5 per cent of GDP.

Support to State Governments for Capital Investment:

The finance minister informed that the Government has decided to continue the 50-year
interest free loan to state governments for one more year to spur investment in infrastructure
and to incentivize them for complementary policy actions, with a significantly enhanced
outlay of Rs 1.3 lakh crore.

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Railways:
The finance minister announced that a capital outlay of Rs 2.40 lakh crore has been provided
for the Railways, which is the highest ever outlay and about 9 times the outlay made in
2013- 14.

She also informed that one hundred critical transport infrastructure projects, for last and
first mile connectivity for ports, coal, steel, fertilizer, and food grains sectors have been
identified and they will be taken up on priority with investment of Rs 75,000 crore,
including Rs 15,000 crore from private sources.

Smt. Sitharaman said that fifty additional airports, heliports, water aerodromes and advance
landing grounds will be revived for improving regional air connectivity.

The Finance Minister announced that an Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF)
will be established through use of priority sector lending shortfall, which will be managed
by the National Housing Bank, and will be used by public agencies to create urban
infrastructure in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities. She said that States will be encouraged to leverage
resources from the grants of the 15th Finance Commission, as well as existing schemes, to
adopt appropriate user charges while accessing the UIDF.

Smt. Sitharaman said that Government will make available Rs 10,000 crore per annum for
this purpose.

Priority 4: Unleashing the Potential

The finance minister said that for enhancing ease of doing business, more than 39,000
compliances have been reduced and more than 3,400 legal provisions have been
decriminalized. She added that for furthering the trust-based governance, Government has
introduced the Jan Vishwas Bill to amend 42 Central Acts.

Centers of Excellence for Artificial Intelligence:

The finance minister said that for realizing the vision of “Make A-I in India and Make A-I
work for India”, three centers of excellence for Artificial Intelligence will be set-up in top
educational institutions. Leading industry players will partner in conducting
interdisciplinary research, develop cutting-edge applications and scalable problem solutions
in the areas of agriculture, health, and sustainable cities, which will galvanize an effective
A-I ecosystem and nurture quality human resources in the field.

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National Data Governance Policy:

The FM said that to unleash innovation and research by start-ups and academia, a National
Data Governance Policy will be brought out, which will enable access to anonymized data.

She also announced that An Entity DigiLocker will be set up for use by MSMEs, large
business and charitable trusts for storing and sharing documents online securely, whenever
needed, with various authorities, regulators, banks and other business entities.

On 5G Services, she announced that one hundred labs for developing applications using 5G
services will be set up in engineering institutions to realize a new range of opportunities,
business models, and employment potential. The labs will cover, among others, applications
such as smart classrooms, precision farming, intelligent transport systems, and health care
applications.

Priority 5: Green Growth

Smt. Sitharaman said that Prime Minister has given a vision for “LiFE”, or Lifestyle for
Environment, to spur a movement of environmentally conscious lifestyle. India is moving
forward firmly for the ‘panchamrit’, and net-zero carbon emission by 2070 to usher in green
industrial and economic transition.

She said, this Budget builds on the focus on green growth. The recently launched National
Green Hydrogen Mission, with an outlay of Rs 19,700 crores, will facilitate transition of
the economy to low carbon intensity, reduce dependence on fossil fuel imports, and make
the country assume technology and market leadership in this sunrise sector. The target is to
reach an annual production of 5 MMT by 2030.

The Budget also provides Rs35,000 crore for priority capital investments towards energy
transition and net zero objectives, and energy security by Ministry of Petroleum & Natural
Gas.

The finance minister said that to steer the economy on the sustainable development path,
Battery Energy Storage Systems with capacity of 4,000 MWH will be supported with
Viability Gap Funding.

She also informed that the Inter-state transmission system for evacuation and grid
integration of 13 GW renewable energy from Ladakh will be constructed with investment
of Rs 20,700 crore including central support of Rs 8,300 crore.

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GOBARdhan scheme:
Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman announced that 500 new ‘waste to wealth’ plants under
GOBARdhan (Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan) scheme will be established
for promoting circular economy. These will include 200 compressed biogas (CBG) plants,
including 75 plants in urban areas, and 300 community or cluster-based plants at total
investment of Rs 10,000 crore.

She said, in due course, a 5 per cent CBG mandate will be introduced for all organizations
marketing natural and bio gas and for collection of bio-mass and distribution of bio-manure,
appropriate fiscal support will be provided.

Bhartiya Prakritik Kheti Bio-Input Resource Centres:

The finance minister announced that over the next 3 years, the Centre will facilitate one
crore farmers to adopt natural farming. For this, 10,000 Bio-Input Resource Centres will be
set-up, creating a national-level distributed micro-fertilizer and pesticide manufacturing
network.

The Finance Minister said that in furtherance of the vehicle scrapping policy mentioned in
Budget 2021-22, she has allocated adequate funds to scrap old vehicles of the Central
Government and States will also be supported in replacing old vehicles and ambulances.

Priority 6: Youth Power

The finance minister said that to empower the youth and help the ‘Amrit Peedhi’ realize
their dreams, Government has formulated the National Education Policy, focused on
skilling, adopted economic policies that facilitate job creation at scale, and have supported
business opportunities.

She also announced that Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 4.0 will be launched to skill
lakhs of youth within the next three years. On-job training, industry partnership, and
alignment of courses with needs of industry will be emphasized. The scheme will also cover
new age courses for Industry 4.0 like coding, AI, robotics, mechatronics, IOT, 3D printing,
drones, and soft skills.

She also announced that to skill youth for international opportunities, 30 Skill India
International Centres will be set up across different States.

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National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme:

Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman said that to provide stipend support to 47 lakh youth in three
years, Direct Benefit Transfer under a pan-India National Apprenticeship Promotion
Scheme will be rolled out.

Unity Mall:
The FM said that States will be encouraged to set up a Unity Mall in their state capital or
most prominent tourism centre or the financial capital for promotion and sale of their own
ODOPs (one district, one product), GI products and other handicraft products, and for
providing space for such products of all other States.

Priority 7: Financial Sector

Credit Guarantee for MSMEs:

The finance minister said that last year, she proposed revamping of the credit guarantee
scheme for MSMEs and announced happily that the revamped scheme will take effect from
1st April 2023 through infusion of Rs 9,000 crore in the corpus. This will enable additional
collateral-free guaranteed credit of Rs 2 lakh crore. Further, the cost of the credit will be
reduced by about 1 per cent.

Smt. Sitharaman said that a National Financial Information Registry will be set up to serve
as the central repository of financial and ancillary information. This will facilitate efficient
flow of credit, promote financial inclusion, and foster financial stability. A new legislative
framework will govern this credit public infrastructure, and it will be designed in
consultation with the RBI.

She also announced that a Central Processing Centre will be setup for faster response to
companies through centralized handling of various forms filed with field offices under the
Companies Act.

For commemorating Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav, a one-time new small savings scheme,
Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, will be made available for a two-year period up to
March 2025. This will offer deposit facility up to Rs 2 lakh in the name of women or girls
for a tenor of 2 years at fixed interest rate of 7.5 per cent with partial withdrawal option.

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Senior Citizens:
The finance minister announced that the maximum deposit limit for Senior Citizen Savings
Scheme will be enhanced from Rs 15 lakh to Rs 30 lakh.

Also, the maximum deposit limit for Monthly Income Account Scheme will be enhanced
from Rs 4.5 lakh to Rs 9 lakh for single account and from Rs 9 lakh to Rs 15 lakh for joint
account.

FISCAL MANAGEMENT:

Fifty-year interest free loan to States:

Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman said that the entire fifty-year loan to states has to be spent on
capital expenditure within 2023-24. Most of this will be at the discretion of states, but a part
will be conditional on states increasing their actual capital expenditure. She said, parts of
the outlay will also be linked to, or allocated for, the following purposes: like Scrapping old
government vehicles, Urban planning reforms and actions, Financing reforms in urban local
bodies to make them, creditworthy for municipal bonds, Housing for police personnel above
or as part of police stations, Constructing Unity Malls, Children and adolescents’ libraries
and digital infrastructure and State share of capital expenditure of central schemes.

The Revised Estimate of the total receipts other than borrowings is Rs 24.3 lakh crore, of
which the net tax receipts are Rs 20.9 lakh crore. The Revised Estimate of the total
expenditure is Rs 41.9 lakh crore, of which the capital expenditure is about Rs 7.3 lakh
crore. Similarly, the Revised Estimate of the fiscal deficit is 6.4 per cent of GDP, adhering
to the Budget Estimate.

Budget Estimates 2023-24:

Concluding the Part-One of the General Budget, Ms Nirmala Sitharaman said that the total
receipts other than borrowings and the total expenditure are estimated at Rs 27.2 lakh crore
and Rs 45 lakh crore respectively. The net tax receipts are estimated at Rs 23.3 lakh crore.

The fiscal deficit is estimated to be 5.9 per cent of GDP.

She said that in her Budget Speech for 2021-22, she had announced that Government plans
to continue the path of fiscal consolidation, reaching a fiscal deficit below 4.5 per cent by
2025-26 with a fairly steady decline over the period. She said that the Government has

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adhered to this path and reiterated to bring the fiscal deficit below 4.5 per cent of GDP by
2025-26.

Smt. Sitharaman said, to finance the fiscal deficit in 2023-24, the net market borrowings
from dated securities are estimated at Rs11.8 lakh crore. The balance financing is expected
to come from small savings and other sources. The gross market borrowings are estimated
at Rs 15.4 lakh crore.

PART B
Smt Nirmala Sitharaman provides major relief in the personal income tax. The indirect tax
proposals contained in the budget aim to promote exports enhance domestic value addition,
encourage green energy and mobility.

Personal Income Tax:

There are five major announcements relating to the personal income tax. The rebate limit
in the new tax regime has been increased to ₹ 7 lakh, meaning that peons in the new tax
regime with income upto ₹ 7 lakh will not have to pay any tax. The tax structure in the new
personal tax regime has been changed by reducing number of slabs to five and increasing
the tax exemption limit to ₹ 3 lakh. This will provide major relief to all tax payers in the
new regime.

The benefit of standard deduction has been extended to the salaried class and the pensioners
including family pensioner under the new tax regime. Salaried individual will get standard
deduction of ₹ 50,000 and pensioner ₹ 15,000 as per the proposal. Each salaried person with
an income of ₹ 15.5 lakh or more will thus gain ₹ 52,500, from the above proposals.

The highest surcharge rate in personal income tax has been reduced from 37% to 25% in
the new tax regime for income above ₹2 crore. This would result in maximum tax rate of
personal income tax come down to 39% which was earlier 42.74%.

The limit of tax exemption on leave encashment on retirement of non-government salaried

employees has been increased from ₹3 lakh to ₹25 lakh.

The new income tax regime has been made the default tax regime. However, the citizens
will continue to have the option to avail the benefit of the old tax regime.

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Indirect Tax Proposals:

The indirect tax proposals announced in the budget by the Union Minister for Finance &
Corporate Affairs, Smt Nirmala Sitharaman emphasized on simplification of tax structure
with fewer tax rates so as to help in reducing compliance burden and improving tax
administration. The number of basic customs duty rates on goods, other than textiles and
agriculture, has been reduced from 21 to 13. There are minor changes in the basic customs
duties, cesses and surcharges on items including toys, bicycles, automobiles and naphtha.

To avoid cascading of taxes on blended compressed natural gas, excise duty on GST-paid
compressed bio-gas contained in it has been exempted from excise duty. Customs duty
exemption has been extended to import of capital goods and machinery required for
manufacture of lithium-ion cells for batteries used in electric vehicles.

To further deepen domestic value addition in manufacture of mobile phones, the Finance
Minister announced relief in customs duty on import of certain parts and inputs like camera
lens. The concessional duty on lithium-ion cells for batteries will continue for another year.
Basic customs duty on parts of open cells of TV panels has been reduced to 2.5%. The
Budget also proposes changes in the basic customs duty to rectify inversion of duty structure
and encourage manufacturing of electrical kitchen chimneys.

Denatured ethyl alcohol has been exempted from basic customs duty. Basic customs duty
has also been reduced on acid grade fluorspar and crude glycerin. Duty is being reduced on
key inputs for domestic manufacture of shrimp feed. Basic customs duty on seeds used in
the manufacture of Lab Grown Diamonds has also been reduced. The import duty on silver
dore, bars and articles has been increased to align them with that on gold and platinum. The
basic customs duty rate on compounded rubber has been increased. National Calamity
Contingent Duty on specified cigarettes has been revised upwards by about 16%. The basic
customs duty on crude glycerin for use in manufacture of epicholorhydrin is proposed to be
reduced from 7.5% to 2.5%.

Common IT Return Form:

The Union Budget also proposes to roll out a next-generation common IT return form for
tax payer convenience. It also stipulates a plan to strengthen the grievance redressal
mechanism for direct taxes. The Finance Minister also announced deployment of about 100
Joint Commissioners for disposals of small appeals in direct tax matters. She also said that

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the department will be more selective in taking up cases for scrutiny of returns already
received this year.

Better targeting of tax concessions:

For better targeting of tax concessions and exemptions, deduction from capital gains on
investment in residential house has been capped at ₹ 10 crore. Income tax exemption from
proceeds of insurance policies with very high value will also have limit. There are a number
of proposals relating to rationalization and simplification of direct taxes in the Union
Budget.

Other major proposals in the Budget relate to Extension of period of tax benefits to funds
relocating to IFSC, GIFT City till 31.03.2025; Decriminalisation under section 276A of the
Income Tax Act; Allowing carry forward of losses on strategic disinvestment including that
of IDBI Bank; and Providing EEE status to Agniveer Fund.

Proposals relating to MSMEs:

Describing MSMEs as growth engines of our economy, the Budget proposes enhanced
limits for micro enterprises and certain professionals for availing the benefit of presumptive
taxation. To support MSMEs in timely receipt of payments, the Budget allows deduction
for expenditure incurred on payments made to them only when payment is actually made.

Cooperation:
The Budget has a slew of proposals for the cooperative sector. New cooperatives that
commence manufacturing activities till 31st March next year shall get the benefit of a lower
tax rate of 15%. The Budget provides an opportunity to sugar cooperatives to claim
payments made to sugarcane farmers for the period prior to assessment year 2016-17 as
expenditure. A higher limit of ₹ 2 lakh per member has been provided for cash deposits to
and loans in cash by Primary Agricultural Cooperative Societies and Primary Cooperative
Agriculture and Rural Development Banks. The Budget proposes a higher limit of ₹ 3 crore
for TDS on cash withdrawal for cooperative societies.

Start-ups:
The Budget proposes to extend the date of incorporation for income tax benefits to start-
ups from 31.03.2023 to 31.03.2024. It also provides the benefit of carry forward of losses
on change of shareholding of start-ups from 7 years of incorporation to 10 years.

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Amendments in CGST Act:

The Budget provides for amending the CGST Act so as to raise the minimum threshold of
tax amount for launching prosecution under GST from ₹ 1 crore to ₹ 2 crore, except for the
offence of issuance of invoices without supply of goods and services or both. The
compounding amount will be reduced from the present range of 50 to 150% of tax amount
to the range of 25 to 100%. It will also decriminalize certain clauses of the Act like
obstruction and preventing of any officer from discharge of his duties, deliberate tempering
of evidence or failure to supply the information.

Implications of tax changes:

Announcing the changes in the direct and indirect taxes, the finance minister said that
revenue of about ₹ 38,000 crore will be foregone as a result of these proposals, while
revenue of about ₹3,000 crore will be additionally mobilised. She said thus the total revenue
foregone is about ₹35,000 crore annually on account of these proposals.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

Q1. The Union Budget 2023-24 states that Per capita income has more than doubled to
₹__________ in around nine years.

A. 0.95 lakh
B. 1.97 lakh
C. 1.56 lakh
D. 1.40 lakh
E. 1.36 lakh

Answer: (B)
Solution: The finance minister said that the government’s efforts since 2014 have ensured
for all citizens a better quality of living and a life of dignity and the per capita income has
more than doubled to Rs 1.97 lakh.
Q2. The Vibrant Villages Programme launhed in recent Union Budget 2022 focuses on the
development of which villages?
A. Backward Villages
B. Tribal Villages
C. Hill Areas

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D. Border Villages
E. None of these
Answer: (D)

Solution: Vibrant Villages Programme for the development of Border villages with a sparse
population, limited connectivity, and infrastructure on the northern border.

Q3. 'Amrit Dharohar scheme' will be implemented over the next __________ years to
encourage optimal use of wetlands, enhance bio-diversity, carbon stock, eco-tourism
opportunities and income generation for local communities.
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Three
D. Four
E. Seven
Answer: (C)
Solution: Amrit Dharohar scheme to be implemented over the next three years to encourage
optimal use of wetlands, enhance biodiversity, carbon stock, eco-tourism opportunities and
income generation for local communities.

Q4. The maximum deposit limit for Senior Citizen Savings Scheme to be enhanced from
Rs 15 lakh to Rs _________, as per the Union Budget 2023-24.

A. 20 lakh
B. 25 lakh
C. 30 lakh
D. 35 lakh
E. 40 lakh
Answer: (C)
Solution: The finance minister announced that the maximum deposit limit for Senior
Citizen Savings Scheme will be enhanced from Rs 15 lakh to Rs 30 lakh.
Q5. Which of the following rate of Income Tax under the new regime is not applicable as
per the Finance Bill 2023?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%

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D. 30%
E. 35%
Answer: (C)
Solution: The rate of Income Tax under the new regime is not applicable as per the Finance
Bill 2023 is 25%.
Q6. The allocation towards health and well-being was increased by ______ over the
previous year in Union Budget 2021-22.
A. 140%
B. 125%
C. 137%
D. 100%
E. 120%
Answer: (C)

Solution: The allocation towards health and well-being was increased by 137% over the
previous year in Union Budget 2021-22.

Q7. How much percent of amount has been increased for the Culture Ministry in the budget
of 2022-2023?
A. 11.9 percent
B. 19 percent
C. 12.9 percent
D. 10.9 percent
E. 11 percent
Answer: (A)
Solution: Budgetary allocation for the Culture Ministry for 2022-2023 has been increased
by 11.9 per cent compared to the Budget Estimate (BE) for 2021-2022.
Q8. As per the Union Budget 2022-23, how many kilometers of National Highways
network will be made in 2022-23?
A. 5,000 km
B. 15,000 km
C. 25,000 km
D. 55,000 km
E. 30,000 km

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Answer: (C)
Solution: Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, while presenting the Union Budget 2022-
23, on February 01, 2022, informed the Parliament that the National Highways network will
be expanded by 25,000 km in 2022-23.
Q9. What is the estimated effective capital expenditure of the Central government in
financial year 2022-23?
A. 18 lakh crore
B. 15 lakh crore
C. 13.68 lakh crore
D. 10.68 lakh crore
E. 17 lakh crore
Answer: (D)
Solution: Effective capital expenditure of the Central government is estimated at Rs 10.68
lakh crore in 2022-23.
Q10. The Budget 2023-24 adopts how many priorities?
A. 1
B. 7
C. 6
D. 2
E. 5
Answer: (B)
Solution: The Budget 2023-24 adopts the following seven priorities. They complement
each other and act as the ‘Saptarishi’ guiding us through the Amrit Kaal. The priorities are,
Inclusive Development, Reaching the Last Mile, Infrastructure and Investment, Unleashing
the Potential, Green Growth, Youth Power, and Financial Sector.
Q11. What is the New Scheme that focuses on the fishermen and fish vendors?
A. Green Growth
B. PM Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana
C. New sub-scheme of PM Matsya Sampada Yojana
D. Mahila Samman Bachat Patra
E. None of these
Answer: (D)

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Solution: Fisheries: A new sub-scheme of PM Matsya Sampada Yojana with a targeted

investment of 6,000 crores to further enable activities of fishermen, fish vendors, and micro
& small enterprises, improve value chain efficiencies, and expand the market.
Q12. What is the new MSME scheme announced in the Union Budget 2023?
A. New sub-scheme of PM Matsya Sampada Yojana
B. Revamped credit guarantee scheme for MSMEs
C. PM Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana
D. Mahila Samman Bachat Patra
E. None of these
Answer: (B)
Solution: Revamped credit guarantee scheme for MSMEs to take effect from 1st April 2023
through the infusion of Rs 9,000 crore in the corpus. This scheme would enable additional
collateral-free guaranteed credit of Rs 2 lakh crore and also reduce the cost of the credit by
about 1 percent.
Q13. Which Scheme that was announced in the Union Budget 2023 includes skilled people
who are engaged in various traditional and skilled professions?
A. PM VIKAS (Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman)
B. Revamped credit guarantee scheme for MSMEs
C. PM Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana
D. Mahila Samman Bachat Patra
E. None of these
Answer: (A)
Solution: PM VIKAS (Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman), which was
announced in Budget 2023, will include skilled people who are engaged in various
traditional and skilled professions.
Q14. How much allocation has been made for the healthcare sector in the India Budget
2023?
A. 89,155 crores
B. 79,155 crores
C. 69,155 crores
D. 59,155 crores
E. 99,155 crores
Answer: (A)

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Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 89,155 crore for the healthcare
sector.
Q15. How much allocation has been made for the Ministry of defense in the India Budget
2023?
A. 2.94 lakh crore
B. 3.94 lakh crore
C. 5.94 lakh crore
D. 4.94 lakh crore
E. 1.94 lakh crore
Answer: (C)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 5.94 lakh crore for the Ministry
of defense.
Q16. How much allocation has been made for the Ministry of Road Transport and
Highways in the India Budget 2023?
A. 2.70 lakh crore
B. 3.70 lakh crore
C. 5.70 lakh crore
D. 4.70 lakh crore
E. 1.70 lakh crore
Answer: (A)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 2.70 lakh crore for the Ministry
of Road Transport and Highways.
Q17. How much allocation has been made for the Ministry of Railways in the India Budget
2023?
A. 2.41 lakh crore
B. 3.41 lakh crore
C. 5.41 lakh crore
D. 4.41 lakh crore
E. 1.41 lakh crore
Answer: (A)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 2.41 lakh crore for the Ministry
of Railways.

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Q18. How much allocation has been made for the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food &
Public Distribution in the India Budget 2023?
A. 2.06 lakh crore
B. 3.06 lakh crore
C. 5.06 lakh crore
D. 4.06 lakh crore
E. 1.06 lakh crore
Answer: (A)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 2.06 lakh crore for the Ministry
of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
Q19. How much allocation has been made for the Ministry of Home Affairs in the India
Budget 2023?
A. 2.96 lakh crore
B. 3.96 lakh crore
C. 5.96 lakh crore
D. 4.96 lakh crore
E. 1.96 lakh crore
Answer: (E)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 1.96 lakh crore for the Ministry
of Home Affairs.
Q20. How much allocation has been made for the Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizers in
the India Budget 2023?
A. 2.78 lakh crore
B. 3.78 lakh crore
C. 5.78 lakh crore
D. 4.78 lakh crore
E. 1.78 lakh crore
Answer: (E)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 1.78 lakh crore for the Ministry
of Chemical and Fertilizers.
Q21. How much allocation has been made for the Ministry of Rural Development in the
India Budget 2023?
A. 2.60 lakh crore

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B. 3.60 lakh crore

C. 5.60 lakh crore
D. 4.60 lakh crore
E. 1.60 lakh crore
Answer: (E)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 1.60 lakh crore for the Ministry
of Rural Development.
Q22. How much allocation has been made for the Ministry of Agriculture and Family’s
Welfare in the India Budget 2023?
A. 2.25 lakh crore
B. 1.25 lakh crore
C. 5.25 lakh crore
D. 4.25 lakh crore
E. 3.25 lakh crore
Answer: (B)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 1.25 lakh crore for the Ministry
of Agriculture and Family’s Welfare.
Q23. How much allocation has been made for the Ministry of Communications in the India
Budget 2023?
A. 2.23 lakh crore
B. 1.23 lakh crore
C. 5.23 lakh crore
D. 4.23 lakh crore
E. 3.23 lakh crore
Answer: (B)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 1.23 lakh crore for the Ministry
of Communications.
Q24. How much allocation has been made for the Development of the Pharmaceutical
Industry in the India Budget 2023?
A. 1250 crores
B. 2250 crores
C. 250 crores
D. 1350 crores

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E. 9250 crores
Answer: (A)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 1250 crore for the Development
of the Pharmaceutical Industry.
Q25. How much allocation has been made for the Jal Jeevan Mission in the India Budget
2023?
A. 70,000 crores
B. 60,000 crores
C. 55,000 crores
D. 65,000 crores
E. 92,550 crores
Answer: (A)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 70,000 crore for the Jal Jeevan
Mission.
Q26. How much allocation has been made for the Eklavya Model Residential Schools in
the India Budget 2023?
A. 1,943 crores
B. 2,943 crores
C. 3,943 crores
D. 4,943 crores
E. 5,943 crores
Answer: (A)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 5,943 crore for the Eklavya
Model Residential Schools.
Q27. How much allocation has been made for the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana in the India
Budget 2023?
A. 15,993 crores
B. 29,043 crores
C. 39,243 crores
D. 46,943 crores
E. 79,590 crores
Answer: (E)

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Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 79,590 crore for the Pradhan
Mantri Awas Yojana.
Q28. How much allocation has been made for the scheme for Faster Adoption and
Manufacturing of EV’s (FAME) in the India Budget 2023?
A. 5,993 crores
B. 9,043 crores
C. 9,243 crores
D. 5,172 crores
E. 9,590 crores
Answer: (E)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 5,172 crore for the Faster
Adoption and Manufacturing of EV’s (FAME).
Q29. How much allocation has been made for the scheme for NorthEast Special
Infrastructure Development Scheme in the India Budget 2023?
A. 2,993 crores
B. 3,043 crores
C. 9,273 crores
D. 5,172 crores
E. 2,491 crores
Answer: (E)
Solution: The India Budget 2023 has made an allocation of 2,491 crore for the Northeast
Special Infrastructure Development Scheme.
Q30. Union Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman is presenting the Union Budget
2023 for the ________ time in a row.
A. 10th
B. 4th
C. 3rd
D. 5th
E. 6th
Answer: (D)
Solution: Union Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman is presenting the Union Budget
2023 for the 5th time in a row. She will be presenting the financial statements and tax
proposals for the fiscal year 2023-24 (April 2023 to March 2024).

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GOVERNMENT SCHEMES
Government Schemes are launched by the government for the socio-economic welfare of
the nation’s citizens. In this article, we will discuss various government schemes along with
their classification and objectives.

Government Schemes definition

The Government has launched numerous schemes for the social and economic welfare of
the citizens of the nation. Government schemes can be defined as a plan, design or program
formulated by the government for the welfare of the people. The Government launches
various schemes from time to time having a specific objective. The majority of these
government schemes are designed to help the economically deprived, rural, or vulnerable
people in society.

The beneficiaries of these government schemes mostly comprise of economically backward

or weaker sections of the society and low-income families. The Objective of Union
Government Schemes is to uplift the poor section of the society, improve the quality of life,
development of rural and backward areas, provide financial security, education and training
to the vulnerable section of the nation, provide financial assistance to women, small
business and weaker segment of the society and promoting small scale business by
providing entrepreneurial and training facilities.

Classification of Government Schemes

The government schemes can be divided into three categories:

Centrally Sponsored Schemes– These schemes are funded and executed by both central
and state governments in different proportions. Currently,30 centrally sponsored schemes
are introduced by the government which are subdivided into two categories:-

The core of the core schemes – There is 6 Core of core schemes launched by the
government which majorly includes the Umbrella Scheme for Development of Scheduled
Caste, the Umbrella Programme for Development of Scheduled Tribes and a few others.

Core Schemes – Currently there are 29 centrally sponsored core schemes which majorly
comprises of Green Revolution, White Revolution, Jobs and Skill Development and many
others.

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Central Sector Schemes– These government welfare schemes are funded and executed
directly by the Centre only. Different Union Ministries and departments are implementing
them for the welfare of the Indian citizens. Crop Insurance Schemes, Agriculture
Infrastructure Fund, Interest Subsidy for Short Term Credit to Farmers, Crop Science,
Feedstock, Metro Projects, Police Infrastructure, Border Infrastructure and Management,
National River Conservation are few examples of Central Sector Schemes.

State Government Schemes-The Schemes that are planned, funded and executed by the
State government only are known as State Government Schemes such as Chief Minister’s
Krishi Rinn Yojana, Chief Minister’s Adarsh Gram Yojana, Arunachal Pradesh and various
others.

The Finance Minister of India has released the Union Budget 2021-22 on February 1, 2021
and made new announcements regarding the different government schemes in India. The
government has announced the Atmanirbhar package this year which accounts for 27.1 lakh
crores to deal with the impact of Covid-19. In 2020, a relief package amounting to Rs 1.70
lakh crore was announced by the government to tackle the widespread difficulties caused
by the pandemic.

Purpose of Government Schemes

1. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana – Jan Dhan Yojana Scheme was launched by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi on 28th August 2014. The main objective of this scheme is to
enable affordable access to financial services like bank accounts, credit, insurance and
pensions to the citizens of India. As of December 8 2021, the total number of accounts
opened under Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana stood at 44.05 crores with a total balance
of approximately Rs 1,47,812 crores. In terms of State performance, Uttar Pradesh holds
the top position with the highest number of bank accounts under this scheme followed
by Bihar.

2. Make in India– Make in India is a government initiative, launched under the Ministry
of Commerce and Industry . The main objective of this initiative is to make India a global
manufacturing hub by motivating domestic as well as multi-national companies to
manufacture their products within the country. Encouraged by the Government Make in
India Scheme, on December 22 2021, HP has announced that it will start manufacturing
devices in India.

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3. Swachh Bharat Mission– Swachh Bharat Mission was launched on 2nd October 2014
to accelerate the efforts to achieve sanitation coverage across the nation. Under the
Swachh Bharat Mission, all the States and Union territories have reported themselves as
“open-defecation free” (ODF) by 2nd October 2019. Phase 1 of this mission has
successfully ended and Phase 2 has initiated with the objective of providing
interventions for the safe management of solid and liquid waste management across the
nation.

4. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao– Beti Bachao Beti Padhao government scheme was launched
in 2015 under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. This scheme was
launched to address the declining child sex ratio and other issues related to women
empowerment. This mission is a joint venture of the Ministry of Women and Child
Development, Health and Family Welfare, and Human Resource Development to enable
girls’ education and effective enforcement of the scheme.

Government Schemes announced in Union Budget 2021-2022

1. Mega Investment Textile Parks (MITRA) Scheme– The government has announced
Mega Investment Textile Parks Scheme to empower the textile industry to become
competitive across the world, attract large investments, and increase employment
generation and exports.

2. Mission Poshan 2.0 Scheme– To prevent further deterioration of nutritional parameters,

Mission Poshan 2.0 was initiated in February 2021. Integrated Child Development
Services, Supplementary Nutrition Program, Poshan Abhiyan, Scheme for Adolescent
Girls, and National Creche Scheme are all part of this scheme.

3. Jal Jeevan Mission– Jal Jeevan Mission will start in 500 AMRUT cities for the
universal supply of water and liquid waste management across the cities with 2.86 crore
household tap connections.

4. PM Atmanirbhar Swasth Bharat Yojana– This scheme will increase the primary,
secondary as well as tertiary healthcare facilities across the nation and construct new
national institutions for the diagnosis and treatment of new and emerging ailments.

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Primary and Secondary Screening

The term ‘primary screening’ and ‘secondary screening ‘means conducting, any screen,
assay or other test on a product in a research program and collaboration compound.

Primary and Secondary Screening of Microorganisms: Differences

Along with the help of primary screening, only basic information of isolated areas can be
generated. Therefore, in secondary screening full details of the isolated colony is obtained
and determined that it is capable of being used on an industrial scale. It is a screening
method that can give a high yield of selective products with the help of low-cost raw
material. Along with the help of both of these methods a microorganism can be determined
and used in industrial fermentations for producing human utility compounds.

The primary screening is used for conducting various types of cells, tests, assays or in some
research programmes. The primary screening method is generally used for isolating and
detecting a selected organism and determining that it can produce the compound without
adopting many ideas or not. However, primary screening does not provide the idea that
which “organic acid” has been produced. Primary screening helps to determine the
microorganisms and organic acid in cells and other desired organisms.

Secondary screening can be used for determining the quantitative and qualitative
information about the cells, desired organisms or strains. In the case of qualitative
screening, it can help to determine the yield potential and antibiotics of a product. However,
in the case of quantitative screening, it can help to determine the product’s quantity that is
obtained by various types of fermentation media.

There are various types of techniques used in secondary screening that are useful in
determining the production of a product. Along with the help of secondary screening,
necessary information of a product or desired organism can be identified and classified. It
is also a helpful process of determining the “genetic instability of strain“. It is a very useful
process that also helps to determine various types of nutrients in products and test the
toxicity, which needs to be eliminated. Therefore, secondary screening also helps to study
and determine the biological, chemical and physical properties of a selected product.

Primary Screening and Secondary Screening Techniques

There are some important techniques are used in primary screening which is discussed
below:

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The Crowded Plate Technique

This technique of primary screening helps to determine the microorganisms that are capable
of producing the antibiotics or not. Along with the help of natural substrata such as soil or
other sources that are composed the microorganisms. A “suitable aliquot” of “serial
dilution” is chosen that can produce 300 to 400 colonies when it is plated on the agar plate,
which is also called a crowded plate.

Indicator Dye Technique

Along with the help of this method, the capability of producing amines or acids from natural
sources through the product can be determined. Therefore, with the help of incorporating
“pH indicator dyes” like bromothymol blue or neutral red into “nutrient agar medium” can
be determined. In this indicator dye method, the calcium carbonate is incorporated into the
section of the agar medium. Therefore, with the help of this method, the location of organic
acid production can be indicated and those colonies are identified that are releasing organic
acid.

Enrichment Culture Technique

Generally, it is a method that helps to isolate the microorganisms that are the very low
number in the sample of soil, which can possess the nutrient requirement that is very
important in industrial usage. It can easily isolate the nutrients if required and incorporate
them into a medium and also helps to adjust the incubation conditions.

There are various types of secondary techniques that can help to determine important
information about the product or microorganisms. The various types of secondary screening
techniques are “Giant Colony Technique“, “Filtration Method“, “Liquid Medium Method“.

Giant Colony Technique

This method is used for determining the antibiotics that can be diffused using the solid
medium. Streptomyces species are used in this method which is capable to produce the
antibiotics at the time of primary screening.

Filtration Method
This is an important method that helps to test the poor antibiotics that are soluble in water
and cannot be diffused through a solid medium. There are various types of dilutions of the
antibiotics that are added and prepared to solidify and also to molten “agar plating medium”.

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Liquid Medium Method

It is a different type of secondary screening method that helps to determine the actual
number of produced antibiotic microorganisms such as Streptomyces.

Conclusion
Both of these primary and secondary methods are useful to determine the microbiology in
a product or desired cells. Along with the help of the primary method, isolation and
detection of microorganisms can be determined using the simple technique. Therefore, it
can easily determine the biochemical characteristics that are presented in microbes and it is
a very beneficial process. However, secondary screening can be used to determine all of the
important information of the selected products or microorganisms.

Indian Constitution and its salient features

The constitution of India is provided with a sort of basic structure that are defined as the
salient features of it. These features have been identified as fundamental rights, preamble,
Secularism, Directive principles, independence of judiciary, Federalism, liberal democracy,
rule of law and Republicanism.

What is the Indian constitution?

“The constitution of India is” contained with the identification of being unique as its
contents and provided spirits. As per the fundamental idolism of “the Preamble of Indian
constitution”, it is divided into several salient features that allows this constitution of India
to be highlighted and distinguished from that of the constitutions of other countries. the
Supremacy of the constitution, written elements of the constitution, rigid constitution,
independent judiciary, dual government polity, division of powers, bicameral legislature,
and more Are the salient feature that have been addressed into “the constitution of India”
for better applicability and clarification of of the country and it government.

In this constitution, identification of written constitution has been made by India’s diversity
that has helped this to be sufficiently lengthy with various provisions and accommodated
indifferences. “The constitution of India” with its article 368 Enabled blending attribution
of flexibility and rigidity. It has identified that the majority of the members from each house
can be represented for the voting with the total membership of each house. In the same
context, the other provisions can be taken as per the amendment by the special majority of
the entire Parliament with the ratification imposed by half of the states.

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The Preamble of the Indian constitution has been characterized by the fortune of the country
and its constituted elements as provided by responsibility and accountability, adaptability,
fundamental human rights and its protection, representation of people in the government,
comprehensiveness, clarity and more.

The Salient features of the Indian Constitution

As per the appropriate justification of “the constitution of India”, it consists with salient
features that have been accomplishing the “Preamble of Indian constitution” to follow up
the country and government in order for them to protect and regulate the citizens and the
entire country. With the justification towards the constitution and its articulated
establishment, such as; longest written constitution, single citizenship fundamental rights
fundamental duties the mixture and blend of flexibility and rigidity adult suffrage Directive
Principles of State Policy, as well as India as the country of democracy, socialism,
secularism, sovereignty and Republic. Among all other salient features, fundamental rights
have been identified to be most significant as it bears the basic element of the rights and
constitution of the citizens of India. According to Indian constitution article 14 to 18 along
with that of article 19 to 22, it has been significantly discussed and explained the right to
equality as well as the right to freedom.

In addition to that, the fundamental justice of “the constitution of India” has been provided
by the understanding and significance of law and legalization imposed on the benefits and
rectification to survive and live a life with individual perspective. In “the Indian
constitution article” 23 to 24, the fundamental right against exploitation has been explained
along with that of the fundamental human right to freedom of religion has been noted and
read in Indian constitution article 25 to 28. In this context similarly, the justification of
fundamental rights has been provided with article 29 to 30 in terms of prospecting cultural
and educational rights of every individual of the country. Additionally, the fundamental
rights constitutional remedies have been signified and discussed throughout the course of
the context under “the Indian constitution article”.

Conclusion
In this article, the discussion and Exploration has been made by addressing the key area of
“the Indian constitution and its salient features”. The provision has been signified with each
of its features that has been constituted and learnt in terms of the legal articulation of “the
constitution of India”. the correlation between “the constitution of India” and that of its

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salient features explained to the brain in terms discussing why it is important for the country
and the government along with the citizens.

New Government Schemes Proposed to be Launched

PM VIshwakarma KAushal Samman (PM VIKAS)
Artisans are provided financial assistance under the PM VIshwakarma KAushal Samman
scheme. The new scheme will enable artisans to improve their products’ scale, quality and
reach, integrating them with the MSMEs value chain.

Atmanirbhar Horticulture Clean Plant Programme

The Atmanirbhar Clean Plant Programme will be launched to boost the availability of
quality and disease-free planting material for high-value horticultural crops at an outlay of
Rs.2,200 crore.

Pharma Innovation Programme

In the Budget 2023, the Financial Minister proposed to launch a new programme to promote
innovation and research in pharmaceuticals, which will be taken up through centres of
excellence.

Aspirational Districts and Blocks Programme

The government has launched the Aspirational Blocks Programme, covering 500 blocks to
provide essential government services across multiple areas such as nutrition, health,
agriculture, skill development, education, financial inclusion, water resources and basic
infrastructure.

Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission

The Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission will be launched to improve the socio-
economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). This mission
will saturate PVTG habitations and families with basic facilities such as clean drinking
water and sanitation, safe housing, health and nutrition, road and telecom connectivity,
improved access to education and sustainable livelihood opportunities. The government
will provide an amount of Rs.15,000 crore to implement this mission in the coming three
years.
Green Credit Programme
The Green Credit Programme will be launched under the Environment (Protection) Act to
encourage behavioural change. It will incentivise environmentally responsible and

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sustainable actions by individuals, companies and local bodies and help mobilise additional
resources for such activities.

PM-PRANAM
PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother
Earth (PM-PRANAM) will be launched to incentivise states and UTs to promote the
balanced use of chemical fertilisers and alternative fertilisers.

Amrit Dharohar
Wetlands are crucial ecosystems to sustain biological diversity. The government will
promote the conservation values of locals towards wetlands through the Amrit Dharohar
scheme. This scheme will be implemented over the next three years to enhance carbon
stock, bio-diversity, income generation for local communities and eco-tourism
opportunities, and encourage optimal use of wetlands.

Mahila Samman Bachat Patra

Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, a one-time small savings scheme, will be available for
two years, i.e. up to March 2025. It will offer deposit facilities up to Rs.2 lakh in the name
of girls or women for two years at a fixed interest rate of 7.5% with a partial withdrawal
option.

Revision in Existing Government Schemes

PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY)
A scheme to supply free food grains to all priority and Antyodaya households for the next
year will be launched under the PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). This scheme
will be implemented from 01/01/2023. It ensures nutritional and food security, with the
entire expenditure of about Rs.2 lakh crore to be borne by the Central Government.

Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana and National Rural Livelihood Mission

The Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana and National Rural Livelihood Mission achieved
success by mobilising rural women into 81 lakh Self Help Groups (SHGs). The government
will enable the SHGs to reach the next phase of economic empowerment through the
formation of collectives or large producer enterprises, each with several members managed
professionally. They will be enabled to scale up their operations through supporting policies
to serve the large consumer markets.

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PM Awas Yojana
In the Budget 2023, the outlay for the PM Awas Yojana was enhanced by 66% to over
Rs.79,000 crore.

Mission Karmayogi
The government has launched an integrated online training platform, iGOT Karmayogi,
under Mission Karmayogi to provide continuous learning opportunities for government
employees and to upgrade their skills.

GOBARdhan scheme
New 500 ‘waste to wealth’ plants will be established under the GOBARdhan (Galvanizing
Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan) scheme to promote a circular economy. These will
include 300 community or cluster-based plants and 200 Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG) plants,
including 75 plants in urban areas at a total investment of Rs.10,000 crore.

Skill India Digital Platform

The digital ecosystem for skilling will be expanded by launching a unified Skill India
Digital platform for linking with employers, including MSMEs, enabling demand-based
formal skilling and facilitating access to entrepreneurship schemes.

National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme

Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) under a pan-India National Apprenticeship Promotion
Scheme will be launched to provide stipend support to 47 lakh youth over three years.

Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs

The government will revamp the credit guarantee scheme for MSMEs through the infusion
of Rs.9,000 crore corpus, effective from 01/04/2023. It will enable additional collateral-free
guaranteed credit of Rs.2 lakh crore, and the cost of the credit will be reduced by about 1%.

Savings Scheme
The maximum deposit limit is enhanced to Rs.30 lakh from Rs15 lakh for the Senior Citizen
Savings Scheme. The maximum deposit limit under the Monthly Income Account Scheme
will be enhanced to Rs.9 lakh from Rs.4.5 lakh for a single account and Rs.15 lakh from
Rs.9 lakh for a joint account.

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Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 4.0

The Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 4.0 will be launched to skill youth within three
years. The scheme will cover the new age courses for Industry 4.0, like AI, coding,
mechatronics, robotics, IoT, drones, 3D printing and soft skills. 30 Skill India International
Centres will be set up to skill youth for international opportunities across different States.

PM Matsya Sampada Yojana

The government will launch a new sub-scheme under the PM Matsya Sampada Yojana with
an investment of Rs.6,000 crore to enable activities of fish vendors, fishermen and micro
and small enterprises for improving value chain efficiencies and expanding the market.

LIST OF IMPORTANT GOVERNMENT SCHEMES 2023

Ministry of Health & Family Welfare Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha

Nidhi
Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan
Aarogya Yojna
National Digital Health Mission

Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha

Yojna
Intensified Mission Indradhanush 3.0

Ministry of Education STARS Project

Institutions of Eminence Scheme

Mid-May Meal

Swach Vidyalaya Abhiyan

Kala Utsav

Shikshav Parv Initiative

Scheme for Promotion of Academic and

Research Collaboration (SPARC)
Higher Education Financing Agency
(HEFA)

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Ministry of Women and Child Development Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojna

Poshan Abhiyan

Rashtriya Poshan Maah

Ministry of Skill Development & Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna

Entrepreneurship
Ministry of Rural Development Unique Land Parcel Identification
Number (ULPIN) Scheme
National Social Assistance Programme
(NSAP)
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Scheme
(MGNREGS)
Rashtriya Aajivika Mission

Gram Panchayat Development Plans

Startup Village Entrepreneurship

Programme
DDU Grameen Kaushalya Yojna

Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojna

Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs Global Housing Technology Challenge

Safaimitra Suraksha Challenge

PM SVANIDI

Climate-Smart City Assessment

Framework
Swachh Sarvekshan 2021

Ministry of Jal Shakti Rashtriya Swachhta Kendra

Grand ICT Challenge

Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment Ambekar Social Innovation & Incubation
Mission
Ministry of Finance Saral Jeevan Bima

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Ministry of Commerce & Industry One District One Product Scheme

PRARAMBH: Startup India

International Summit
Merchandise Export From India Scheme

Ministry of Textiles SAMARTH Scheme

National Technical Textile Mission

Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways Sagarmala Sea Plane Services

National Authority For Recycling of

Ships
Ministry of Labor & Employment Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojna

Nation Career Service Project

Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Bureau of Indian Standards

Public Distribution
Consumer Protection (Ecommerce)
Rules, 2020
Ministry of Statistics & Programme MPLADS (Members of Parliament Local
Implementation Area Development Scheme)
NITI Aayog Vision 2035

NPMPF (‘National Program and Project

Management Policy Framework’)
Aatmanirbhar Bharat ARISE-Atal New
India Challenge
Minister of Railways, Commerce and Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS)
Industry, Consumer Affairs and Food and
Public Distribution

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. What is the theme of ‘Bihar Diwas’ 2022?

[A] Jal Jivan Haryali
[B] Swachh Bihar
[C] Bihar Beti Padhao
[D] Jal Shakti
Answer: [A] Jal Jivan Haryali
Explanation:
Bihar celebrated its 110th foundation day on March 22. The state of Bihar was carved out
from Bengal’s presidency on the same day in 1912.
The theme of this year’s Bihar Diwas is ‘Jal Jivan Haryali’. A three-day function will be
organized on this occasion, with over 18 departments of the state and different organizations
would participate. A drone show will also be organized in which 500 drones will fly
together.

2. Which state has approved Renewable Energy Policy (2022-27)?

[A] Gujarat
[B] Karnataka
[C] Odisha
[D] Telangana
Answer:[B] Karnataka
Explanation:
The State Cabinet of Karnataka approved Renewable Energy Policy (2022-27). It aims for
developing the State as a hub of renewable energy generation as well as manufacturing of
equipment related to renewable energy.
The policy also seeks to upgrade the renewable energy generation capacity of the State to
10 GW in the next five years. This also includes 1 GW of rooftop solar energy.

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3. International Monetary Fund (IMF) has lauded which Indian scheme for preventing
extreme poverty?
[A] Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana
[B] Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
[C] Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana
[D] Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
Answer: [A] Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana
Explanation:
In a recent report, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) has appreciated the Pradhan
Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana.
It highlighted that the program provided insurance to the poor and prevented an increase in
the prevalence of extreme poverty in the country. Without any food subsidies, extreme
poverty in the pandemic would have increased by 1.05 per cent.

4. ‘Vidya Samiksha Kendra’ or ‘Command and Control Centre 2.0’ is located in which
state?
[A] West Bengal
[B] Telangana
[C] Rajasthan
[D] Gujarat
Answer: [D] Gujarat
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently visited the Command and Control Centre set up by
the Education Department of Gujarat.
The Command and Control Centre 2.0 or ‘Vidya Samiksha Kendra’ was inaugurated in
Gandhi Nagar in 2021. It is a surveillance system which tracks enrolment, attendance,
learning outcomes, drop-outs, school accreditation. It also monitors schools, teachers and
block and cluster resource centre co-ordinators.

5. Which Union Ministry launched the commemorative event -“Enterprise India”?

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[A] Ministry of Commerce and Industry

[B] Ministry of MSME
[C] Ministry of External Affairs
[D] Ministry of Science and Technology
Answer: [B] Ministry of MSME
Explanation:
Union Minister for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Shri Narayan Rane inaugurated
the Ministry’s Mega Event- “Enterprise India” under Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.
It is a series of commemorative entrepreneurship development events and activities being
organised to promote entrepreneurship culture and create awareness about the schemes and
initiatives of Ministry of MSME across the country.

6. ‘Mukhyamantri Muft Sewer Connection Yojna’ is implemented by which state/UT?

[A] New Delhi
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] West Bengal
[D] Haryana
Answer: [A] New Delhi
Explanation:
Under ‘Mukhyamantri Muft Sewer Connection Yojna’, the New Delhi Government will
provide 25,000 households of east Delhi with 100 per cent sewer connectivity for free.
The Government has developed out a plan to maximise the potential of the Delhi Jal Board
(DJB) through the development of free sewer connections, new sewer lines and reverse
osmosis (RO) plants in the state.
7. ‘PM-WANI’ scheme, which was seen in the news, is associated with which service?
[A] Water
[B] Electricity
[C] Wi-fi Access
[D] Digital Payment

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Answer: [C] Wi-fi Access

Explanation:
A public sector enterprise RailTel has recently launched the Prime Minister Wi-Fi Access
Network Interface (PM-WANI) scheme based access of its public WiFi services across 100
Indian Railways stations.
PM-WANI is a program of the Department of Telecom in order to facilitate ease of use and
increase broadband usage among the public. WiFi network of RailTel is spread across 6102
railway stations of the country.

8. The World Bank sanctioned USD 350 billion to which state for implementing the
‘SRESTHA’ Project?
[A] Assam
[B] Gujarat
[C] Rajasthan
[D] West Bengal
Answer: [B] Gujarat
Explanation:
The World Bank sanctioned USD 350 billion to Gujarat for the implementation of Systems
Reform Endeavours for Transformed Health Achievement in Gujarat (SRESTHA-G).
Under the SRESTHA-Gujarat project, the government will undertake the initiative to
expand the health services to the rural and urban people and strengthening the epidemic
prevention system of the state. The five-year total cost of the project will be around USD
500 billion, of which USD 350 billion will be provided by the World Bank while the rest is
borne by the state.

9. As per the recent amendment in the National Policy on Biofuels, what is the target year
of blending 20 percent ethanol in petrol?
[A] 2024-25
[B] 2025-26
[C] 2029-30
[D] 2039-40

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Answer: [B] 2025-26

Explanation:
The Cabinet headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved the amendments to the
National Policy on Biofuels.
It advanced the target of blending 20 percent ethanol in petrol to 2025-26 from 2030. At
present, about 10 percent of ethanol is blended in petrol. More feed stocks have been
allowed for the production of bio-fuels which can be doped with auto fuels.

10. Which Union Ministry launched the new draft national policy on persons with
disabilities (PwD)?
[A] Ministry of Home Affairs
[B] Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
[C] Ministry of Law and Justice
[D] Ministry of Women and Child Development
Answer: [B] Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Explanation:
The Social Justice and Empowerment Ministry has invited public feedback on the new draft
national policy on persons with disabilities (PwD).
It proposes interventions in disability prevention, education, healthcare, social security and
accessibility. It also focussed on other causes of disability, such as malnourishment, medical
negligence and impairment caused by disasters. The draft called for a comprehensive
national programme on prevention. It stated that one-third of disabilities in children were
preventable.

11. ‘Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food Processing Enterprises (PMFME)

Scheme’ was introduced in which year?
[A] 2015
[B] 2017
[C] 2020
[D] 2021
Answer: [C] 2020

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Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food
Processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme in 2020.
The scheme was launched under the ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan’ and ‘Vocal for Local’
campaigns, to provide technical, financial and business support to micro food processing
units in the country. The government intends to provide direct financial and technical
assistance to about 200,000 micro food processing units under this scheme.

12. Which state received approval for a USD 300 million World bank-funded school
education project?
[A] Chhattisgarh
[B] Odisha
[C] Karnataka
[D] Andhra Pradesh
Answer: [A] Chhattisgarh
Explanation:
The Chhattisgarh Government has received an in-principle nod from the Central
Government to go ahead with a USD 300 million school education project the State.
Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the Union Finance Ministry had given an in-
principle approval for the project, which is to be funded by the World Bank.

13. Which state has released a roadmap to invest in early childhood education programmes?
[A] Sikkim
[B] Goa
[C] Meghalaya
[D] Manipur
Answer: [C] Meghalaya
Explanation:
The Meghalaya has launched a roadmap to invest in early childhood education programmes,
to revamp elementary education in Meghalaya.

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Chief Minister Conrad K Sangma announced that the government has earmarked Rs 300
crore from externally aided projects to make investment in early childhood education
programmes.

14. Agriculture Ministry launched the Platform of Platforms (POP) under which scheme?
[A] PM KISAN
[B] National Agriculture Market (e-NAM)
[C] PM Fasal Bima Yojana
[D] Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture
Answer: [B] National Agriculture Market (e-NAM)
Explanation:
The Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Narendra Singh Tomar, launched
the Platform of Platforms (POP) under the National Agriculture Market (e-NAM).
It was launched at the State Agriculture and Horticulture Ministers’ Conference in
Bengaluru, Karnataka. With POP, farmers can sell the produce outside their state borders
which will increase the price realisation.

15. ‘Godhan Nyay Yojana’ is a scheme implemented in which Indian state?

[A] Rajasthan
[B] Chhattisgarh
[C] Goa
[D] Haryana
Answer: [B] Chhattisgarh
Explanation:
The state government in Chhattisgarh is set to start the purchase of cow urine at a minimum
rate of Rs 4 per litre from local festival ‘Hareli’.
The state had launched the ‘Godhan Nyay Yojana’ on Hareli festival in 2020, under which
cow dung is being procured at Rs 2 per kilogram to prepare vermi-compost.

16. Which is the first Indian state to connect all commercial vehicles equipped with
Tracking Device with Emergency Response Support System (ERSS)?

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[A] Gujarat
[B] Himachal Pradesh
[C] New Delhi
[D] Haryana
Answer: [B] Himachal Pradesh
Explanation:
Himachal Pradesh has become the first state in the country to connect all registered
commercial vehicles equipped with Vehicle Location Tracking Device (VLTD) with
Emergency Response Support System (ERSS).
Now these vehicles can be tracked anywhere in the country through VLTD by both the
police and the transport department. When the panic button is pressed, a signal will be
received through satellite to 112 and the person in distress would be connected and alert the
police.

17. The World Bank has approved a loan of USD one billion to support which program in
India?
[A] PM KISAN
[B] Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission
[C] Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
[D] Mission Vatsalya
Answer: [B] Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission
Explanation:
The World Bank has approved a loan of USD one billion to provide support to India’s
flagship PM Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM).
The loan includes two complementary loans of USD 500 million each namely for
‘Transforming India’s Public Health Systems for Pandemic Preparedness Program
(PHSPP)’ and ‘India’s Enhanced Health Service Delivery Program (EHSDP)’.

18. The World Bank has approved a funding of Rs 1600 Crores to which state for power
sector development?
[A] Gujarat

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[B] Himachal Pradesh

[C] Karnataka
[D] Tamil Nadu
Answer: [B] Himachal Pradesh
Explanation:
Government of India is to provide a financing facility worth about Rs. 1600 Crore through
the World Bank for the “Himachal Pradesh Power Sector Development Program”.
The total program cost will be approximately Rs. 2000 Crore, along with the state equity.
The Program duration is five years from year 2023 to 2028. It aims to undertake holistic
power sector reforms to allow for improvements in the renewable energy capacity in the
state.

19. Which Indian state/ UT launched the ‘Swanirbhar Naari’ initiative?

[A] Punjab
[B] Gujarat
[C] Assam
[D] West Bengal
Answer: [C] Assam
Explanation:
Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma launched ‘Swanirbhar Naari’, an initiative of
the Handloom and Textiles Department.
The scheme aims to empower the indigenous weavers of the State and to provide financial
support to their families. Under the scheme, the government has decided to procure
handloom items directly from the indigenous weavers without involving any middle men
through Swanirbhar Naari web portal.

20. Which Union Ministry is associated with ‘SMILE-75 Initiative’?

[A] Ministry of Home Affairs
[B] Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
[C] Ministry of Law and Justice

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[D] Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Answer: [B] Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Explanation:
Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment has identified 75 Municipal Corporations to
implement comprehensive rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of begging, under
the spirit of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav.
The initiative is called ‘SMILE: Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and
Enterprise’ or SMILE-75 Initiative. The initiative will focus on rehabilitation, provision of
medical facilities, counselling, awareness, education, skill development and convergence
with other Government welfare programmes etc.

21. ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana’ (PMJDY) was introduced in which year?
[A] 2010
[B] 2012
[C] 2014
[D] 2016
Answer: [C] 2014
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the nation-wide financial inclusion program
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana in 2014. The flagship scheme has completed its eighth
year since launch.
The objective of ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)’ was to ensure access to
various financial services like availability of basic savings bank accounts, access to need-
based credit, remittances facility, insurance and pension to the unbanked sections and low-
income groups.

22. Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation (KALIA) scheme is
implemented by which state?
[A] Odisha
[B] West Bengal
[C] Andhra Pradesh

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[D] Tamil Nadu

Answer: [A] Odisha
Explanation:
Odisha government distributed financial assistance of Rs 869 crores to 41 lakh small and
marginalised farmers and 85,000 landless farmers under the Krushak Assistance for
Livelihood and Income Augmentation (KALIA) scheme.
Each registered farmer has got Rs 2000 directly in their bank account under the assistance.
It was distributed on the occasion of Nuakhai, the Harvesting festival of Odisha.

23. Which institution launched the ‘Women in Engineering, Science, and Technology
(WEST)’ initiative?
[A] NITI Aayog
[B] Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser
[C] DRDO
[D] ISRO
Answer: [B] Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser
Explanation:
Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) to the Government of India launched an
initiative called ‘Women in Engineering, Science, and Technology (WEST)’.
It is a new I-STEM (Indian Science Technology and Engineering facilities Map) initiative.
It aims to cater to women with a STEM background and empower them to contribute to the
science, technology, and innovation ecosystem. I-STEM is a national web portal for sharing
research equipment and facilities.

24. Voluntary blood donation has been launched on which application under ‘Raktdaan
Amrit Mahotsav’?
[A] Aarogya Setu
[B] Digital Locker
[C] MyGov
[D] Ayushman Bharat

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Answer: [A] Aarogya Setu

Explanation:
Registrations for the ‘Raktdaan Amrit Mahotsav’ have begun on the Aarogya Setu app and
e-Raktkosh portal as part of a mega voluntary blood donation drive planned across the
country from September 17 till October 1.
October 1 is observed as the National Voluntary Blood Donation Day (NVBDD). The main
purpose of the drive is to create a repository of voluntary blood donors.

25. ‘INSPIRE awards’, which was seen in the news, is associated with which Union
Ministry?
[A] Ministry of Science and Technology
[B] Ministry of Women and Child Development
[C] Ministry of External Affairs
[D] Ministry of Finance
Answer: [A] Ministry of Science and Technology
Explanation:
Minister of Science & Technology Jitendra Singh presented INSPIRE awards to 60 startups
and financial support to 53,021 students.
The award is instituted by the Department of Science & Technology (DST), and these
innovators will be extended complete incubation support along their entrepreneurship
journey. The annual INSPIRE Awards MANAK (Million Minds Augmenting National
Aspiration and Knowledge) competition was launched during 2020-21.

26. Which state has launched a web portal named ‘CM Da Haisi’ (Inform to CM)?
[A] Gujarat
[B] Assam
[C] Manipur
[D] Odisha
Answer: [C] Manipur

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Explanation:
Manipur Chief Minister N. Biren Singh recently launched a web portal named ‘CM Da
Haisi’ (Inform to CM).
It seeks to receive complaints and grievances from the general public. The complainants
can also check the status of their complaints. The Public Grievances Redressal and Anti-
Corruption Cell at CM Secretariat will also use the portal to collaborate with the concerned
departments.

27. SCALE App, which was launched recently, provides skill-development solutions for
employees of which field?
[A] Textile
[B] Automobile
[C] Leather
[D] Electronics
Answer: [C] Leather
Explanation:
Union Minister of Education and Skill Development Dharmendra Pradhan launched the
SCALE (Skill Certification Assessment for Leather Employees) app.
It provides a one-stop solution for skilling, learning, assessment, and employment needs of
the leather industry. He launched the application during a visit to CSIR-Central Leather
Research Institute, Chennai.

28. What is the name of the Indian Sign Language (ISL) dictionary mobile application
recently launched?
[A] ISL Seekho App
[B] Sign Learn App
[C] Bharat Sign App
[D] India Sign Language App
Answer: [B] Sign Learn App

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Explanation:
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched an Indian Sign Language (ISL)
dictionary mobile application called ‘Sign Learn’.
It is based on the Indian sign language dictionary of the Indian Sign Language Research
and Training Centre (ISLRTC) which contains 10,000 words. ISLRTC signed MoU with
NCERT to convert NCERT textbooks from classes 1 to 12 into the Indian Sign Language
to make the textbooks accessible to children with hearing disabilities.

29. As per the Supreme Court, the live streaming of constitutional bench cases will begin
from which platform?
[A] YouTube
[B] National Informatics Centre (NIC)
[C] MyGov
[D] Open Government Data (OGD)
Answer:[B] National Informatics Centre (NIC)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court is set to begin live streaming of three separate constitutional benches
from the NIC platform to promote transparency.
Supreme Court is also said to be in the process of having its separate OTT in future, on the
lines of the Madhya Pradesh High Court. The three constitution bench cases, including the
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) quota case, the rift in Shiv Sena case and the case
related to validity of All India Bar Examination.

30. ‘Mandatory 6-airbag rule for passenger cars’ has been deferred till which date?
[A] December 31, 2022
[B] October 1, 2023
[C] March 31, 2023
[D] December 31, 2023
Answer: [B] October 1, 2023

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Explanation:
Union Road transport and highways minister Nitin Gadkari said that the Union Government
has postponed implementing a proposal making it mandatory for passenger cars to have six
airbags by a year to 1 October 2023.
The government has cited inadequate capacity at the suppliers’ side to increase
manufacturing of airbags. Inflation and regulatory costs made passenger vehicles
expensive.
31. ‘Prohibition of online gambling and regulation of online games ordinance, 2022’ came
into effect in which state?
[A] Kerala
[B] Tamil Nadu
[C] Odisha
[D] Telangana
Answer: [B] Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
Tamil Nadu Governor RN Ravi gave his assent to an ordinance to ban online gambling and
regulate online gaming in the state.
With this, the Tamil Nadu prohibition of online gambling and regulation of online games
ordinance, 2022 came into effect. Under the regulations, local online games providers can
provide service only after registration which will be valid for three years. They shall not
provide any online gaming service or allow playing of any online game of chance specified
in the Schedule with money or other stakes.

32. HIMCAD scheme, which is implemented in Himachal Pradesh, is associated with

which field?
[A] Nutrition
[B] Irrigation
[C] Skill Development
[D] Employment
Answer: [B] Irrigation

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Explanation:
The Himachal Pradesh State government has started a new scheme named HIMCAD to
bridge the gap between the irrigation potential created and the irrigation potential to be
utilized.
This will provide end-to-end connectivity of farmers’ fields for better water conservation,
crop diversification and integrated farming. Under the scheme, an area of 15,242 hectares
has been brought under Command Area Development (CAD) activities.

33. ‘Lakshmir Bhandar scheme’ is an initiative of which state government?

[A] Maharashtra
[B] West Bengal
[C] Rajasthan
[D] Odisha
Answer: [B] West Bengal
Explanation:
The West Bengal government’s Lakshmir Bhandar scheme has bagged the SKOCH award
in the women and child development category.
The West Bengal government launched the scheme in August 2021 to provide financial
support to a woman head of a family in the age group of 25-60 years. Under the scheme,
Rs 500 is given eery month to women in the general caste category and around Rs 1,000
per month to women in the SC and ST categories.

34. Which Union Ministry maintains an index named ‘Sugam’ on drug licenses issued to
companies?
[A] Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers
[B] Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
[C] Ministry of Science and Technology
[D] Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Answer: [B] Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

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Explanation:
The Ministry of Health maintains `Sugam’, an index of drug licenses issued to companies
by state FDAs.
The government is setting up a comprehensive database of drug formulations manufactured
and marketed in the country. This is a corrective action to address the issue of quality
monitoring and regulatory policing, after the deaths of kids in Gambia on consumption of
India-made medicines.

35. Which Union Ministry declared the databases related to Census and National
Population Register (NPR) as critical information infrastructure?
[A] Ministry of Electronics and IT
[B] Ministry of Home Affairs
[C] Ministry of Communication
[D] Ministry of Science and Technology
Answer: [B] Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation:
The Union home ministry has declared certain databases related to the Census and the
National Population Register (NPR) as critical information infrastructure.
The decision has been taken after exercising the powers conferred to it under the
Information Technology Act, 2000, (amended 2008). The computer resources of all
associated dependencies of the entities have also been declared as ‘protected systems’ under
the law.

36. The Government e-Marketplace, GeM platform was launched in which year?
[A] 2024
[B] 2016
[C] 2018
[D] 2020
Answer: [B] 2016

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Explanation:
The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) is an online platform for public procurement in
India. It was launched in August 2016 with the objective of creating an open and transparent
procurement platform for government buyers.
The online platform has crossed one lakh crore rupees Gross Merchandise value, so far for
the financial year 2022-2023.

37. Which state launched the ‘Drink From Tap’ project?

[A] Andhra Pradesh
[B] Odisha
[C] Jharkhand
[D] Rajasthan
Answer: [B] Odisha
Explanation:
Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik launched the ‘Drink from Tap’ project in 19 cities
and towns of the state.
Under the project, drinking water will be supplied round the clock through taps installed in
households. Under the scheme, at least 5.55 lakh people in the 19 cities and the towns would
benefit from the project.

38. Which Union Ministry is organising the ‘Startup India Innovation Week’?
[A] Ministry of MSME
[B] Ministry of Commerce and Industry
[C] Ministry of Home Affairs
[D] Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Answer: [B] Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Explanation:
Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of
Commerce and Industry is organising ‘Startup India Innovation Week 2023’ from January
10-16.

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It aims to celebrate the Indian startup ecosystem. On the National Startup Day on January
16, DPIIT will felicitate the winners of National Startup Awards.

39. The Aspirational Block Programme (ABP), which was launched recently, covers how
many districts initially?
[A] 100
[B] 200
[C] 500
[D] 1000
Answer: [C] 500
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the government’s Aspirational Block Programme
(ABP), to improve performance of blocks lagging on development parameters.
The Aspirational Blocks Programme is on the lines of the Aspirational District Programme
that was launched in 2018, covering 112 districts across the country. The new programme
will cover 500 districts across 31 states and Union Territories initially.

40. RAMP scheme, which was seen in the news, is implemented by which Union Ministry?
[A] Ministry of Finance
[B] Ministry of MSME
[C] Ministry of Commerce and Industry
[D] Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Answer: [B] Ministry of MSME
Explanation:
MSME Minister Narayan Rane launched the web portal for the Rs 6,062.45-crore Raising
and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP) for MSMEs.
The scheme was originally announced back in 2020 by the government and the World Bank
to support Covid-hit MSMEs in the country. Out of the total scheme’s limit, Rs 3,750 crore
was approved by World Bank in June 2021 while the balance would be funded by the
government.

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AWARDS AND HONORS

Awards and honors are recognition given to individuals or groups who have made
significant contributions or achieved excellence in their respective fields of work or
endeavours. These can be in the form of certificates, medals, trophies, or monetary prizes,
and are often awarded by professional organizations, governments, or private institutions.
The purpose of awards and honors is to acknowledge and celebrate the accomplishments of
individuals, to inspire others to strive for excellence, and to promote the advancement of
their respective fields. They serve to recognize the hard work, dedication, and talent of
individuals who have made outstanding achievements and contributions in their fields.
Awards and honors are given in a wide range of fields, including science, technology, arts,
sports, business, and politics, among others. For example, in the field of science, the Nobel
Prize is one of the most prestigious awards that recognizes outstanding achievements in
Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, Literature, Peace, and Economic Sciences. In the arts, the
Academy Awards, also known as the Oscars, is an annual award ceremony that recognizes
outstanding achievement in the film industry.
Receiving an award or honour is often considered a great accomplishment, and can open
new opportunities for the recipients, such as access to funding or job opportunities.
Additionally, it can also serve as a source of motivation and inspiration for others to
continue working towards their own goals and achievements.
In conclusion, awards and honors are an important part of recognizing and celebrating the
achievements of individuals and promoting excellence in various fields. They serve to
inspire others, promote advancements in various fields, and recognize the hard work and
dedication of individuals who have made significant contributions to their respective fields.
List Of Awards And Honours:
The world's awards and honours are given to the people for their achievements and
contribution made for the significant progress of humanity. To help you learn about these
different awards, we have made a list of national and international awards below.
Nobel Prize
Nobel Prize is given every year to those eminent persons who have made pioneering
achievements in the fields, like, Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, Peace, Literature and
Economics. Apart from Economics, all other categories have been given since 1901.
Economics Nobel Prize was instituted in 1967 and was first given in 1969.

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• It is the most coveted international award in the world.

• Instituted by Alfred Bernard Nobel (inventor of dynamite).
• The award is given on December 10 (the death anniversary of Alfred Bernard Nobel).
Nobel Laureates of India Field Year
Rabindranath Tagore Literature 1913
C.V. Raman Physics 1930
Mother Teresa Peace 1979
Amartya Sen Economic Studies 1998
Kailash Satyarthi Peace 2014

Magsaysay Awards
• Instituted in 1957 and named after Ramon Magsaysay, the former President of the
Philippines.
• This award is given annually on August 31
• Award is given for outstanding contributions to public service, community leadership,
journalism, literature and creative arts, and international understanding.
• Regarded as the Nobel Prize of Asia.
Jawaharlal Nehru Award For International Understanding
• Instituted in 1965 by the Government of India.
• Given annually to persons for outstanding contributions to international understanding
and goodwill among the people of the world.
Oscar Awards
• Instituted in 1929.
• Conferred annually by the Academy of Motion Pictures in the USA.
• The first Indian to get an Oscar was Bhanu Athaiya for the movie 'Gandhi'.
• Satyajit Ray was the first Indian awarded Oscar for lifetime achievements in cinema in
1992.
UNESCO Peace Prize
• Presented by United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
(UNESCO).
• For extraordinary contributions for international peace.

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Pulitzer Prize
• Instituted in 1917 and named after the US Publisher Joseph Pulitzer.
• Conferred annually in the USA.
• For accomplishments in journalism, literature, and music.
Right Livelihood Award
• Instituted in 1980 by the Right Livelihood Society, London.
• Known as alternate Nobel Award.
• To promote and contribute to the fields of environment and social justice.
Mahatma Gandhi Peace Prize
• Instituted in 1995 by the Government of India.
• It is presented for international peace on the lines of the Nobel Prize.
UNESCO Human Rights Award
• Presented by UNESCO
• For contributions in the field of Human Rights Awareness.
• Given every alternate year.
Man Booker Prize
• Highest literary award to authors of British, Irish and Commonwealth countries
• Established in 1969.
• Renamed as Man Booker Prize, as the sponsorship has been taken over by the Man
Group, an international stockbroker.
UN Human Rights Award
• Presented by UN for personal contribution for the cause of human rights.
• It is presented every sixth year.
World Food Prize
• Presented by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
• For the cause of agriculture and food development.
Indira Gandhi Award For International Peace, Disarmament and Development
• Presented by Indira Gandhi Memorial Fund in India
• For specialized contribution in the field of international disarmament and development.

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Bharat Ratna
• Highest civilian award of India.
• Presented by the Government of India.
• Presented for exceptional public service and rarest achievements in the field of art,
literature and science.
• Instituted in 1954.
• First recipient was C. Rajagopalchari.
Padma Vibhushan
• Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award.
• Padma Vibhushan was instituted in 1954.
• For distinguished services in any field including Government service.
• Padma Bhushan and Padma Shree are the other important civilian awards.
• The first awardee was Zakir Husain, V.K Krishna Menon, Satyendra Nath Bose,
Balasaheb Gangadhar Kher, Nandalal Bose, Jigme Dorji Wangchuck.
Padma Bhushan
• Padma Bhushan is awarded for the distinguished service of high order.
• Padma Bhushan was instituted in 1954.
• The first person to be awarded with Padma Bhushan was Homi Jehangir Bhabha
Padma Shri
• Padma Shri is awarded for the distinguished service in the field of Arts, Social Work,
Public Affairs, Science & Engineering, Trade & Industry, Medicine, Literature &
Education, Sports or others.
Bhartiya Jnanpith Awards
• Instituted in 1965.
• Given for distinguished works in any recognized language by a scholar.
Sahitya Akademy Awards
• Instituted in 1955.
• Given for any exclusive writing in any of the 22 languages including English literature.
Saraswati Samman
• Instituted in 1991 by the K.K. Birla Foundation.

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• Given for any distinguished literary work made during last 10 years in any of the Indian
language.
Vyas Samman
• Instituted in 1992 by the K.K. Birla Foundation.
• For outstanding contribution to Hindi literature.
Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Awards
• Given to the Indian scientists for their exceptional performance.
R.D. Birla Award
• Given in the field of medical sciences.
Dhanvantri Award
• These awards are given for the extraordinary performance in the medical sciences.
Dhyan Chand Award
• Dhyan Chand Award is given for sports and games.
• It was initiated in 2002.
• The first awardee are Ashoka Diwan, Shahuraj Birajdar, and Aparna Ghosh.
Arjuna Awards
• Instituted in 1961.
• Given by Sports Ministry, Government of India.
• These are given for the special achievements in different types of sports.
Dronacharya Awards
• Dronacharya Award is given for outstanding coaches in sports and games.
• It was instituted in 1985.
• Given by Sports Ministry, Government of India.
• These are given to sports coaches.
• The first awardee are Bhalchandra Bhaskar Bhagwat, O.M. Nambiar, and Om Prakash
Bhardwaj.
Moorti Devi Award
• Moorti Devi Award is given in the field of literature.
• It was initiated in the year 1983.

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• The first awardee was C.K. Nagaraja Rao.

Dadasaheb Phalke Award
• Dadasaheb Phalke Award is given for outstanding contribution to the growth and
development of the Indian cinema.
• This award was initiated in 1969.
• The first receiver of this award was Devika Rani.
Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Awards 2023

Category Winner
Best Film The Kashmir Files
Best Director R Balki for Chup-Revenge of The Artist
Best Actor Ranbir Kapoor for Brahmastra- Part 1
Best Actress Alia Bhatt for Gangubai Kathiawadi
Most Promising Actor Rishab Shetty for Kantara
Best Actor in A Supporting Role Manish Paul for Jug Jug Jeeyo
Outstanding Contribution in The Film Rekha
Industry
Best Web Series Rudra- The Edge of Darkness
Critics Best Actor Varun Dhawan for Bhediya
Film of The Year RRR
Television Series of The Year Anuparnaa
Most Versatile Actor of The Year Anupam Kher for The Kashmir Files
Best Actor in A Television Series Zain Imam for Fanaa- Ishq Mein
Marjawaan
Best Actress in A Television Series Tejasswi Prakash for Naagin
Best Male Singer Sachet Tandon for Maiyya Mainu
Best Female Singer Neeti Mohan for Meri Jaan
Best Cinematographer PS Vinod for Vikram Vedha
Outstanding Contribution in The Music Hariharan
Industry

Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna

• It was instituted in 1992.
• Presented for commendable display by the players.

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Gallantry Awards
There are two types of Gallantry Awards given namely,
• War Time Award and,
• Peace time Award.
The awards that come under the War Time Award are as follows:
• Param Vir Chakra: It is India's highest award for bravery.
• Mahavir Chakra: It is the second-highest gallantry award.
• Vir Chakra: It is the third-highest gallantry award.
The awards that come under the Piece Time Award are as follows:
• Ashok Chakra: It is the highest peace-time gallantry award.
• Kirti Chakra: Kirti Chakra is equivalent to the Maha Vir Chakra award of wartime
gallantry awards. This is the second in order of precedence of peacetime gallantry
awards.
• Shauraya Chakra: Shaurya Chakra is a peacetime gallantry award equivalent to Vir
Chakra. It is an Indian military decoration award for courageous action or an act of self-
sacrifice while not in direct action of combat against the enemy.
Pritzker Architecture Prize
• Pritzker Architecture is awarded in the field of Architecture.
• This award started in the year 1979.
• The first awardee was Philip Johnson
Grammy Award
• Grammy Award is given for the outstanding achievement in the music industry.
• This award was initiated in 1959.
• The first receiver of the ‘Record of the Year’ was Nel Blu Dipinto di Blu (Volare), first
receiver of ‘Album of the Year’ was The Music from Peter Gunn and ‘Song of the Year’
was Nel Blu Dipinto di Blu (Volare).
Abel Prize
• Abel prize is given for outstanding scientific work in the field of Mathematics.
• This award was instituted in the year 2002.

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• The first Indian awardee was Professor Srinivasa SR Varadhan (2007) whereas at the
international level the first awardee was Jean-Pierre Serre (2003).
Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award
• Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award is given for excellence in academics/ public
administration or management.
• It was initiated in 2000.
• The first awardee was Prof. C.K. Prahalad
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
• Sangeet Natak Akademi Award is given for performing arts in India.
• This award was instituted in 1951.
• The first awardee was Alauddin Khan in Music for Hindustani Sarod, Mushtaq Hussain
Khan in Music for Hindustani Vocal, Karaikudi Sambasiva Iyer in Music for Carnatic
Veena, and Ariyakudi Ramanuja Iyengar for Music in Carnatic Vocal.
Difference Between Important Awards And Honours In India
Besides knowing the names of awardees, it is also important to know facts about important
awards and honours in India. As per the analysis of previous year papers, it has been
observed that the officials also ask questions on different awards. So, to help you out, we
have mentioned some interesting facts of Awards and Honours in India.
Paramvir Chakara Mahavir Chakara Vir Chakara
The Param Vir Chakra is The Maha Vir Chakra (MVC) The Vir Chakra is awarded
India's highest military is the second-highest military for acts of gallantry in the
honour awarded to decoration in India and is presence of the enemy,
servicemen and women awarded for acts of whether on land or at sea
for displaying the highest conspicuous gallantry in the or in the air. It is a third
degree of bravery or self- presence of the enemy, highest military decoration
sacrifice in the presence ofwhether on land, at sea or in in lndia.
the enemy in wartime. the air and maybe awarded
posthumously.
The bronze medal has four The medal is made of The medal is 1-3/8-inch
replicas of 'Indra's Vajra' standard silver with a five- circular silver medal. A
embossed on it with the pointed heraldic star five-pointed star, with the
State Emblem in the embossed on it with the chakra in the centre, and,
centre.

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points of the star just on this, the domed gilded

touching the rim. state emblem.
The words 'Param Vir The words 'Maha Vir Chakra' The ribbon is 32 mm, half
Chakra' is embossed both is embossed both in Hindi dark blue and half orange-
in Hindi and English on and English on the reverse, saffron; dark blue "16mm”,
the reverse and the two and two lotus flowers and saffron "16mm.
versions are separated by separate the two versions.
two lotus flowers. The
ribbon is of plain purple
colour.
Recipients or families of Recipients or their next of Recipients or their families
the recipients if awarded kin receive Rs 2,400/ - per in if awarded
posthumously, receive month with the same amount posthumously, receive
compensation of rupees if another bar is added to the Rs1,700 per month, with
3,000 per month. award. the same amount added to
each bar to the decoration.

Difference Between Important Padma Awards

Every country has their own set of Awards and Honours for their citizens. Therefore, in
India, there are different Padma Awards given to the civilians to honour their achievements
in their field of work. There are 3 different types of Padma awards in India namely,
• Padma Vibhushan
• Padma Bhushan
• Padma Shri
The difference between the three is described below:

Padma Vibhushan Padma Bhushan Padma Shri

After Bharat Ratna, Padma After Padma Vibhushan, After Padma Bhushan,
Vibhushan is the second- Padma Bhushan is the Padma Shri is the fourth-
highest civilian award in third-highest civilian award highest civilian award in
India. in India. India.
The award consists of a The award consists of a The award consists of a
bronze medallion with a "gold-coloured medallion bronze medallion with a
lotus on the front between "with a lotus on the front lotus on the front between
the words 'Padma "between the words 'Padma the words 'Padma Shri'

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Vibhushan' written in Bhushan' written in written in Devanagari script

Devanagari and the Indian Devanagari script and the and the Indian emblem on
emblem on the back. Indian emblem on the back. the back.
The award is given without It excludes people working It is presented for
regard to ethnicity, in PSUs, with the exception outstanding achievements in
occupation, status, or of doctors and scientists. diverse fields such as arts,
gender. literature, sports, and social
service.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

1. Which country's hockey federation has been awarded the 'Best Organizer Award 2023'
by the Asian Hockey Federation?
A. Australia
B. China
C. Malaysia
D. India
E. None of these
Ans: D. India
Explanation:
he Asian Hockey Federation has conferred the 'Best Organizer Award' to Hockey India for
the successful organization of the 2023 Hockey World Cup.
The event was held at Bhubaneswar-Rourkela. The award was received by Hockey India
Secretary General Bhola Nath Singh during the FIH Congress held in Mun Gyeong, Korea.
The Asian Hockey Federation is the governing body for hockey sport in Asia. It is affiliated
with the International Hockey Federation and was established in the year 1958.

2. Who is the winner of the 2022 Christopher Martin-Jenkins Spirit of Cricket Award?
A. Kushal Malla
B. Aasif Sheikh
C. Kushal Bhurtel
D. Deependra Singh Airee
E. None of these
Ans: B. Aasif Sheikh
Explanation:

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Nepalese Wicketkeeper-batsman Aasif Sheikh has been declared the winner of the 2022
Christopher Martin-Jenkins Spirit of Cricket Award.
The Award is presented every year by the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC), UK in
conjunction with the BBC.

3. Who has been selected for the Sangita Kalanidhi award 2023 of the prestigious Music
Academy, Chennai?
A. Sunitha Sarathy
B. Anuradha Sriram
C. Bombay Jayashri
D. Sudha Ragunathan
E. None of these
Ans: C. Bombay Jayashri
Explanation:
Carnatic vocalist Bombay Jayashri has been selected for the Sangita Kalanidhi award of the
Music Academy for 2023. The Nritiya Kalanidhi award for dance will go to
Vasanthalakshmi Narasimhachari. The executive committee of the Music Academy at its
meeting on March 19, 2023, unanimously decided to confer the awards, said N. Murali,
president of the Academy.

4. Tamil writer _______ novel 'Pyre' has been selected for the International Booker prize
longlist for 2023.
A. Muttu lingam
B. Perumal Murugan
C. Thangam Krishnamurthy
D. Aravindan Neelakandan
E. None of these
Ans: B. Perumal Murugan
Explanation:
Indian author Perumal Murugan's Tamil novel ‘Pyre' is among 13 books from across Asia,
Africa, Europe and Latin America to make it to the longlist of the International Booker Prize
2023, announced by the Booker Prize Foundation here on Tuesday (14th March 2023)

5. Which Song has created history by winning the prestigious Academy Awards 2023 in
the Best Original song category?
A. Brindavanam Nunchi
B. Oh, Sita Hey Rama

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C. Naatu Naatu
D. Abhi Mujh Mein Kahin
E. None of these
Ans: C. Naatu Naatu
Explanation:
RRR’s Naatu Naatu has created history by winning the prestigious Academy Awards 2023
in the Best Original song category. The 95th Academy Awards saw India win two trophies.
The Best Original Song was won by RRR’s Naatu Naatu. As MM Keeravaani and Chandra
Bose picked the trophy, the music composer sang a song dedicating his award to India.

6. Who won the Professional Photographer of the Year award at the 8th National
Photography Awards?
A. Arun Saha
B. Dayanita Singh
C. Sasi Kumar Ramachandran
D. Tarun Khiwal
E. None of these
Ans: C. Sasi Kumar Ramachandran
Explanation:
Ms Sipra Das was conferred the Lifetime Achievement Award. Professional Photographer
of the year Award was given to "Shri Sasi Kumar Ramachandran while Shri Arun Saha won
the Amateur Photographer of the Year award.

7. Which Ministry has received the Porter Prize 2023?

A. Ministry of Rural Development
B. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C. Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
D. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
E. None of these
Ans: D. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Explanation:
The Union Health and Family Welfare Ministry has received the Porter Prize 2023.
The ministry was honored for the government's strategy in managing COVID-19, its
approach, and the involvement of various stakeholders (involvement of ASHA workers to
create PPE Kits). It was announced during 'The India Dialog' at Stanford University,
California.

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Porter Prize: This award was named after award-winning economist Michael E. Porter.
He has brought economic theory and strategy concepts to bear on many of the most
challenging problems faced by corporations, economies and societies, including market
competition and company strategy, economic development, the environment and
healthcare.

8. India Today Tourism Survey has chosen Which State/UT Tourism for best adventure
tourism award?
A. Kerala
B. Goa
C. Jammu & Kashmir
D. Uttar Pradesh
E. None of these
Ans: C. Jammu & Kashmir
Explanation:
The India Today Tourism Survey has chosen Jammu & Kashmir Tourism for best adventure
tourism destination award. The awards were given away at New Delhi by Union Minister
of State for Culture & Parliamentary Affairs, Arjun Ram Meghwal 23rd Feb 2023 at a
glittering function after the results of the survey were announced.

9. Who has been awarded the 2023 Marconi Prize?

A. Randy Katz
B. Hari Balakrishnan
C. Keith Winstein
D. Hamsa Balakrishnan
E. None of these
Ans: B. Hari Balakrishnan
Explanation:
Hari Balakrishnan has been awarded the 2023 Marconi Prize. He is a Professor in the
Department of Electrical Engineering and Computer Science, Massachusetts Institute of
Technology (MIT).

10. Which Movie has bagged the 'Best International Film' award at the Hollywood Critics
Association (HCA) Film Awards?
A. Rocketry
B. K.G.F: Chapter 2
C. RRR

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D. The Kashmir Files

E. Bahubali
Ans: C. RRR
Explanation:
The RRR juggernaut rolls on with back-to-back wins at the Hollywood Critics Association
(HCA) Awards in Los Angeles. The film won Best International Film along with 3 big
awards, including Best Action Film, Best Stunts, and Best Original Song. The film's director
SS Rajamouli and lead actor Ram Charan received the award. Jr NTR was MIA at the
ceremony. Team ‘RRR’ is currently in Los Angeles and will be attending the Oscars on
March 12. ‘RRR’ song ‘Naatu Naatu has been nominated for the Oscars in ‘Original Song’
category.

11. Who has been honored with the Sansad Ratna Lifetime Achievement Award 2023?
A. K. Balakrishnan
B. K. R. Gouri Amma
C. V.S. Achuthanandan
D. T K Rangarajan
E. None of these
Ans: D. T K Rangarajan
Explanation:
A veteran CPI-M leader, T K Rangarajan has been honored with the Sansad Ratna Lifetime
Achievement Award 2023. Thirteen MPs were nominated for the Sansad Ratna Awards
2023.

12. Who has been awarded the 2023 Marconi Prize?

A. Hari Balakrishnan
B. Ranjan Gogoi
C. Amitabh Bhachhan
D. Raghuram Rajan
E. None of these
Ans: A. Hari Balakrishnan
Explanation:
Computer scientist Hari Balakrishnan has been awarded the 2023 Marconi Prize. The
Indian-origin MIT Professor has received the Marconi Prize for his fundamental discoveries
in wired and wireless networking, mobile sensing, and distributed systems.

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The Marconi Prize is awarded annually by the Marconi Society to innovators who have
contributed to increasing digital inclusivity through advanced information and
communications technology.

13. Which Ministry awards the ‘Swachh Sujal Shakti Samman 2023’?
A. Ministry of Women
B. Ministry of Jal Shakti
C. Ministry of Education
D. Ministry of Labour and Employment
E. None of these
Ans: B. Ministry of Jal Shakti
Explanation:
The Ministry of Jal Shakti is commemorating International Women’s Day by honoring
women who have contributed to various programs of the Ministry through the Swachh Sujal
Shakti Samman 2023.
The award will recognize women for their exceptional contributions to the Swachh Bharat
Mission – Grameen (SBM-G), Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM), and National Water Mission
(NWM) under various categories.

14. ‘Governor of the Year’ Award for 2023 was conferred recently to the Governor of
which country?
A. Sri Lanka
B. India
C. Bangladesh
D. United Kingdom
E. None of these
Ans: B. India
Explanation:
‘Governor of the Year’ Award for 2023 was conferred recently to RBI Governor Shaktikanta
Das by the international publication Central Banking.
It recognized Das’s role in leading the capital markets during the COVID-19 crisis and the
Ukraine war.

15. Which country recently received the ‘GSMA Government Leadership Award 2023’?
A. USA
B. China

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C. India
D. Japan
E. Pakistan
Ans: C. India
Explanation:
India received the GSMA Government Leadership Award 2023 at the GSMA’s Mobile
World Congress (MWC) 2023.
The award recognized the Indian Government’s efforts in the development of the telecom
sector. It also recognizes the regulatory mechanism policies targeting the mobile
connectivity. Currently, 387 districts across India have access to 5G services.

16. Who was conferred with the Pandit Hari prasad Chourasia Lifetime Achievement
Award in January 2023?
A. Lata Mangeshkar
B. Prabha Atre
C. Pandit Jasraj
D. More than one of the above
E. None of the above
Ans: B. Prabha Atre
Explanation:
Dr Atre was presented with a citation and Rs 1 lakh. She is an Indian classical vocalist from
the Kirana Gharana. She has been awarded all three of the Padma Awards by the
Government of India. She also won Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1991. She also won
Tagore Akademi Ratna Award announced by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2011.
Padma Awards won by her:
• Padma Shri in 1990
• Padma Bhushan in 2002
• Padma Vibhushan in 2022

17. In the year 2022, total how many persons have been honoured with Padma Awards?
A. 128 persons
B. 18 persons
C. 04 persons
D. 34 persons
E. None of these

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Ans: A. 128 persons

Explanation:
128 people have been honoured for 2022 with the awards that are conferred in three
categories - Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.
The Home Ministry announced the list of recipients of the Padma awards - one of the
highest civilian awards of the country, on 25 January 2022.
Singer Sonu Nigam and Olympic gold-medallist Neeraj Chopra have been honoured with a
Padma Shri.

18. Ricky Kej and Falguni Shah are the recent winners of which award?
A. Academy Awards
B. Grammy Awards
C. Pritzker Architecture Prize
D. Abel Prize
E. None of these
Ans: B. Grammy Awards
Explanation:
Two Indian musicians were among the winners at the 64th Annual Grammy Awards.
Composer Ricky Kej won his second Grammy Award as he won the award for Best New
Age Album, jointly with Stewart Copeland for their album ‘Divine Tides’. Indian American
singer-songwriter Falguni Shah, called as Falu won in the Best Children’s Music Album
category for her album ‘A Colourful World’.

19. Which Indian economist has been selected for the 2022 Malcom Adiseshiah Award?
A. Jayati Ghosh
B. Abhijeet Banerjee
C. Prabhat Patnaik
D. Jean Dreze
E. None of these
Ans: C. Prabhat Patnaik
Explanation:
Veteran economist Prabhat Patnaik has been selected for the 2022 Malcom Adiseshiah
Award. The award is annually given by the Malcolm and Elizabeth Adiseshiah Trust to an
exemplary social scientist.

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Prabhat Patnaik, who was born in Odisha, has taught at the Centre for Economic Studies
and Planning in the School of Social Sciences at Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) in New
Delhi. He has also served as the Vice-Chairman of the Kerala State Planning Board.

20. Which institution was ranked first in the National Institutional Ranking Framework
(NIRF) 2022?
A. IIT Delhi
B. IIT Kanpur
C. IIT Madras
D. IIT Bombay
E. None of these
Ans: C. IIT Madras
Explanation:
The Ministry of Education has released the National Institutional Ranking Framework
(NIRF) for the year 2022.
Indian Institute of Technology Madras has retained its first position for the fourth
consecutive year in the overall category and for the seventh consecutive year in
Engineering. Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi was ranked second while Indian Institute
of Technology, Bombay, is ranked third.

21. Which state won the ‘best state’ award at the National Water Awards 2022?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Rajasthan
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Telangana
E. None of these
Ans: C. Uttar Pradesh
Explanation:
President Ram Nath Kovind recently awarded the ‘best state’ award at the National Water
Awards 2022. Uttar Pradesh topped among all Indian states in terms of water conservation
while Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu secured the second and third place, respectively.
Muzaffarnagar in Uttar Pradesh, Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala, East Champaran district
of Bihar and Indore in Madhya Pradesh topped in the Best District Category for the north
zone, south zone, east zone and west zone respectively.

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22. Anna Qabale Duba, who won the USD 250,000 Global Nursing Award 2022, is from
which country?
A. Kenya
B. UAE
C. Nigeria
D. South Africa
E. None of these
Ans: A. Kenya
Explanation:
Anna Qabale Duba from Kenya has been announced as the winner of the Aster Guardians
Global Nursing Award 2022.
It is one of the top awards with the highest prize money in the healthcare community worth
USD 250,000. Under the Qabale Duba Foundation, she built a school in her village where
children could study in the morning and adults in the afternoon. She is an advocate for
gender equality and education in her community.

23. Which Indian was conferred the UNEP ‘Champions of the Earth’ award in 2022?
A. Purnima Devi Barman
B. Narendra Modi
C. K K Shailaja
D. Piyush Goyal
E. None of these
Ans: A. Purnima Devi Barman
Explanation:
Purnima Devi Barman, an Assam-based wildlife biologist, was awarded the ‘Champions of
the Earth’ award this year.
It is presented by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Barman won the
award in the ‘Entrepreneurial Vision’ category, for her work in protecting the ‘Greater
adjutant stork’, called ‘hargila’ in Assamese.

24. Who has been named as the ‘2022 person of the year by Time magazine’?
A. Elon Musk
B. Volodymyr Zelensky
C. Joe Biden
D. Xi Jinping
E. None of these
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Ans: B. Volodymyr Zelensky

Explanation:
Ukraine President Volodymyr Zelensky has been named as the 2022 person of the year by
Time magazine.
The Times cited that the President has put up a feisty resistance against the Russian invasion
for nearly a year now. Zelensky shares the 2022 title with the spirit of Ukraine. When Russia
declared war against its neighbour, Zelensky announced his decision to stay in Kyiv and
rally his country.

25. Which state has been conferred the India Agribusiness Award-2022 in the category of
“Best State”?
A. Punjab
B. Haryana
C. Karnataka
D. Odisha
E. None of these
Ans: B. Haryana
Explanation:
Haryana has been conferred with the India Agribusiness Award-2022 in the category of
‘Best State’ for its contribution in the areas of policies, programmes, production, inputs,
technologies, marketing, value addition, infrastructure and exports in the agriculture sector.
National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB), Hyderabad, under Ministry of Fisheries,
has been awarded the ‘India Agribusiness Awards 2022’ for the best Agribusiness Award.
The India International Agro Trade and Technology Fair 2022 was organised by the Indian
Chamber of Food and Agriculture (ICFA).

26. Who is the author of the book ‘The Paradise of Food’, which was awarded the JCB
Prize for Literature 2022?
A. Khalid Jawed
B. Sudha Murthy
C. Ruskin Bond
D. Arundhati Roy
E. None of these
Ans: A. Khalid Jawed
Explanation:

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Khalid Jawed’s book ‘The Paradise of Food’ has been awarded the JCB Prize for Literature
2022. The book has been translated into English from Urdu.
The Paradise of Food is the fourth translation to win the JCB Prize and the first work in
Urdu.

27. Who has been selected as the ICC T20 Cricketer of the Year for the year 2022 for his
stellar performance?
A. Virat Kohli
B. Surya Kumar Yadav
C. Hardik Pandya
D. More than one of the above
E. None of the above
Ans: B. Surya Kumar Yadav
Explanation:
Surya Kumar Yadav scored 1164 runs in 31 T20 matches played in 2022.
India’s Renuka Singh become the recipient of the 'ICC Emerging Women’s Cricketer of the
Year Award.'
Australia's Tahlia McGrath has been awarded 'ICC T20 Women's Cricketer of the Year
award.'

28. Amar Mitra, who was awarded with this year’s O. Henry prize, is an author of which
language?
A. Hindi
B. Urdu
C. Bengali
D. Marathi
E. None of these
Ans: C. Bengali
Solution:
Bengali author Amar Mitra was awarded with this year’s prestigious O. Henry prize for his
short story titled ‘Gaonburo’.] It is Bengali short fiction written by the author in 1977. The
Adivasi culture of the state and their struggle is the background to Mitra’s award-winning
story. The Writer was awarded the Sahitya Academy award in 2006.

29. Ricky Kej and Falguni Shah are the recent winners of which award?
A. Academy Awards

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B. Grammy Awards
C. Pritzker Architecture Prize
D. Abel Prize
E. None of these
Ans: B. Grammy Awards
Solution:
Two Indian musicians were among the winners at the 64th Annual Grammy Awards.
Composer Ricky Kej won his second Grammy Award as he won the award for Best New
Age Album, jointly with Stewart Copeland for their album ‘Divine Tides’. Indian American
singer-songwriter Falguni Shah, called as Falu won in the Best Children’s Music Album
category for her album ‘A Colourful World’.

30. Who has been appointed as the new Foreign Secretary of India?
A. Vinay Mohan Kwatra
B. Rudrendra Tandon
C. Dinesh Bhatia
D. Santosh Jha
E. None of these
Ans: A. Vinay Mohan Kwatra
Solution:
The Indian government appointed senior Indian Foreign Service officer Vinay Mohan
Kwatra as the new Foreign Secretary.
The 1988-batch IFS officer is currently serving as Ambassador in Kathmandu since January
2020. He worked in Prime Minister’s Office from 2015 to 2017 and had served as India’s
ambassador to France. Vinay Kwatra will replace the incumbent Foreign Secretary Harsh
Vardhan Shringla.

31. Who is the author of the “The Boy Who Wrote a constitution”, which was recently
released?
A. Rajesh Talwar
B. Arundhati Roy
C. Romila Thapar
D. Arjun Dev
E. Guru dev
Ans: A [Rajesh Talwar]
Solution:

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A book titled “The Boy Who Wrote a constitution” written by noted playwright and author
Rajesh Talwar was released recently.
The children drama, based on Ambedkar’s own recollection of his childhood, was released
on the occasion of Dr BR Ambedkar’s 131st birth anniversary. The author’s other books
include “The Vanishing of Subhash Bose”, “Gandhi, Ambedkar, and the Four-Legged
Scorpion”, and “Aurangzeb”.

32. Kishore Kumar Das, who has been chosen for ‘Commonwealth Points of Light
Award’, is from which country?
A. India
B. Sri Lanka
C. Bangladesh
D. Nepal
E. China
Ans: C. Bangladesh
Solution:
The founder of educational charity ‘Bidyanando’, Kishore Kumar Das from Bangladesh
has been chosen for the Commonwealth Points of Light Award, which recognises
outstanding individual volunteers.
He has been selected for his exceptional work in improving access to education for children
from marginalised backgrounds, said the British High Commission. Kishore Das setup
Bidyanando in 2013, which runs five primary schools which provide free education and
meal programme for vulnerable.

33. Which award is given to the coaches of sportspersons?

A. Dronacharya Award
B. Arjun Award
C. Kalidas Samman
D. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
E. None of these
Ans: A. Dronacharya Award
Explanation:
Dronacharya Award is given to the coaches of a sportsperson. Dronacharya Award is an
award presented by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India for
excellence in sports coaching.

34. B. C. Roy Award is given in which field?

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A. Music
B. Journalism
C. Medical
D. Environment
E. None of these
Ans: C. Medical
Explanation:
B. C. Roy Award is given in Medicine field. Dr. B. C. Rai Award Indian Medical Council
was established in 1962. This award is given annually to the contribution of science, art and
medicine in the name of physician and freedom fighter Bidhan Chandra Roy.

35. Dadasaheb Phalke Award was introduced in which of the following year?
A. 1975
B. 1963
C. 1969
D. 1970
E. None of these
Ans: C. 1969
Explanation:
To honour the Father of Indian Cinema, Dhundiraj Govind Phalke, the National Film
Awards named the most prestigious and coveted award of Indian Cinema after him. He is
the man who made the first Indian Feature film Raja Harishchandra in 1913. Popularly
known as Dadasaheb Phalke, he then went on to make 95 films and 26 short films in a span
of 19 years. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award was introduced in 1969 by the government to
recognize the contribution of film personalities towards the development of Indian Cinema.
The first recipient of this award was Devika Rani. The award comprises of a Swarna Kamal,
a Cash Prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- (Rupees Ten Lakhs) certificate, silk scroll, and a shawl.

36. Who was crowned as Mrs India World 2022-2023?

A. Sargam Koushal
B. Riya Mathur
C. Pragya Sen
D. Anjali Singh
E. None of these
Ans: A. Sargam Koushal
Explanation:

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Sargam Koushal was crowned the winner and was represented India at Mrs. World 2022.
Mrs. India World 2022-2023 was held on June 15, 2022, in Mumbai. She was followed by
Mrs. Juhi Vyas as 1st runner-up and Mrs. Chahat Dalal as 2nd runner up.

37. Who has become the first para-athlete to receive the Padma Bhushan award?
A. Mariyappan Thangavelu
B. Sumit Antil
C. Sundar Singh Gurjar
D. Devendra Jhajharia
E. None of these
Ans: D. Devendra Jhajharia
Explanation:
Devendra Jhajharia became the first para-athlete to receive the Padma Bhushan, the
country's third-highest civilian award. Jhajharia has won many Paralympic medals,
including his first gold at the 2004 Paralympics in Athens, his second gold at the 2016 Rio
Games, and a silver medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.

38. In which field is the Abel Prize awarded?

A. Physics
B. Chemistry
C. Mathematics
D. Medicine
E. None of these
Ans: C. Mathematics
Explanation:
The Abel Prize is awarded annually by the King of Norway to one or more outstanding
mathematicians. It is named after the Norwegian mathematician Niels Henrik Abel (1802-
1829) and directly modelled after the Nobel Prizes. The 2022 Abel Prize was awarded to
Dennis Sullivan for his ground-breaking contributions to topology in its broadest sense, and
in particular its algebraic, geometric and dynamical aspects.

39. For which of the following disciplines in Nobel Prize is not Awarded?
A. Physiology or Medicine
B. Literature, Peace and Economics
C. Physics and chemistry
D. Music
E. None of these

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Ans: D. Music
Explanation:
The Nobel Prize is a set of annual international awards bestowed in a number of categories
by Swedish and Norwegian committees in recognition of academic, cultural and/or
scientific advances.

40. The BAFTA Award is for the contribution to:

A. Films
B. Sports
C. Architecture
D. Literature
E. None of these
Ans: A. Films
Explanation:
The British Academy Film Awards are presented in an annual award show hosted by the
British Academy of Film and Television Arts.BAFTA Awards - Television, Films, Video
Games and Animation.

41. Who has been conferred with the V Shantaram Lifetime achievement award at MIFF
2022?
A. Sanjay Bisht
B. Vikram Arora
C. Sanjit Narweka
D. Ranjeet Tiwari
E. None of these
Ans: C. Sanjit Narweka
Explanation:
International Film Festival of India (MIFF 2022) confers Dr V. Shantaram Lifetime
Achievement Award on noted author and documentary filmmaker Shri Sanjit Narwekar.

42. Ustad Bismillah Khan was awarded:

A. Bharat Ratna
B. Padma Bhushan
C. Padma Shri
D. Padma Vibhushan
E. None of these

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Ans: A. Bharat Ratna

Explanation:
Ustad Bismillah Khan was awarded Bharat Ratna. Bismillah Khan was an Indian musician
who popularised the reeded woodwind instrument shehnai. Khan is recognised with
boosting the shehnai's reputation and introducing it to the concert stage, despite the fact that
it had long been revered as a folk instrument used largely in traditional ceremonies. The
Bharat Ratna is the Republic of India's highest civilian honour. The award, which was
established on January 2, 1954, is given in appreciation of excellent service/performance of
the highest level, regardless of race, occupation, status, or sex. The award was once
restricted to achievements in the arts, literature, science, and public service, but in
December 2011, the government broadened the requirements to include "any sphere of
human endeavour."

43. Mewar Award is given by which state?

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Rajasthan
C. Karnataka
D. Maharashtra
E. None of these
Ans: B. Rajasthan
Explanation:
The Maharana Mewar Award is a State Award. This award has been instituted to honour
work of permanent value to those who consider it their duty, like the Diwan of Shri Eklingji
still do, to benefit society through services in the field of education, literature, social
services, philanthropy and character-building activities.

44. The Mahatma Gandhi Peace Prize was instituted in:

A. 1993
B. 1995
C. 1998
D. 1988
E. None of these
Ans: B. 1995
Explanation:
The International Gandhi Peace Prize, named after Mahatma Gandhi, is awarded annually
by the Government of India. As a tribute to the ideals espoused by Gandhi, the Government

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of India launched the International Gandhi Peace Prize in 1995 on the occasion of the 125th
birth anniversary of Mohandas Gandhi.

45. _______________ was the first Indian to receive the Magsaysay Award.
A. Sanjiv Chaturvedi
B. Vinod Bhave
C. Nileema Mishra
D. Arvind Kejriwal
E. None of these
Ans: B. Vinod Bhave
Explanation:
The Ramon Magsaysay Award is an annual award established to perpetuate former
Philippine President Ramon Magsaysay's example of integrity in governance, courageous
service to the people, and pragmatic idealism within a democratic society.

46. How much cash prize is awarded in Dhyan Chand Award?

A. Rs. 3,00,000
B. Rs. 1,00,000
C. Rs. 10,00,000
D. Rs. 5,00,000
E. None of these
Ans: Rs. 5,00,000
Explanation:
Dhyan Chand Award is the India's highest award for lifetime achievement in sports and
games, given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.

47. Arjuna Awards carries a cash prize of Rs. 500,000, and statue, which is made up of ?
A. Gold
B. Silver
C. Bronze
D. Platinum
E. None of these
Ans: C. Bronze
Explanation:
The Arjuna Awards are given by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, government of
India to recognize outstanding achievement in National sports. Instituted in 1961, the award
carries a cash prize of Rs. 500,000, a bronze statue of Arjuna and a scroll.

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48.Bharat Ratna awards is restricted to a maximum of how many members in a particular

year?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None of these
Ans: C. Three
Explanation:
Bharat Ratna: The number of annual awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a
particular year.

49. Who became the first Indian to win an Oscar Award in 1983?
A. Satyajit Ray
B. Resul Pookutty
C. A. R. Rahman
D. Bhanu Athaiya
E. None of these
Ans: D. Bhanu Athaiya
Explanation:
Bhanu Athaiya became the first Indian to win an Academy Award in 1983, for designing
the costumes for Richard Attenborough's Gandhi. S

50. Rani Laxmi Bai/ Laxman Award given by which state government?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Haryana
E. None of these
Ans: A. Uttar Pradesh
Explanation:
A special scheme has been implemented by government of Uttar Pradesh for honouring the
eminent players of the state by Rani Laxmi Bai/ Laxman Award. Under this scheme, sports
players that are honoured with this award are given a citation, bronze statue of Rani Laxmi
Bai/ Laxman and a cash prize of Rs. 3,11,000. Who received the International Mother
Language Award from Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina in Dhaka on 21st Feb
2023?

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Agreements And Mou

What Is a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)?
A memorandum of understanding is an agreement between two or more parties outlined in
a formal document. It is not legally binding but signals the willingness of the parties to
move forward with a contract.
The MOU can be seen as the starting point for negotiations as it defines the scope and
purpose of the talks. Such memoranda are most often seen in international treaty
negotiations but also may be used in high-stakes business dealings such as merger talks.

How an MOU Works

An MOU is an expression of agreement to proceed. It indicates that the parties have
reached an understanding and are moving forward. Although it is not legally binding, it is
a serious declaration that a contract is imminent.
Under U.S. law, an MOU is the same as a letter of intent. In fact, arguably a memorandum
of understanding, a memorandum of agreement, and a letter of intent are virtually
indistinguishable. All communicate an agreement on a mutually beneficial goal and a
desire to see it through to completion.
MOUs communicate the mutually accepted expectations of the people, organizations,
or governments involved. They are most often used in international relations because,
unlike treaties, they can be produced relatively quickly and in secret. They also are in use
in many U.S. and state government agencies, particularly when major contracts are in the
planning stages.

Contents of an MOU
An MOU clearly outlines specific points of understanding. It names the parties, describes
the project on which they are agreeing, defines its scope, and details each party's roles and
responsibilities.
While not a legally enforceable document, the MOU is a significant step because of the
time and effort involved in negotiating and drafting an effective document.1
To produce an MOU, the participating parties need to reach a mutual understanding. In the
process, each side learns what is most important to the others before moving forward.
The process often begins with each party effectively drafting its own best-case MOU. It
considers its ideal or preferred outcome, what it believes it has to offer to the other parties,
and what points may be non-negotiable on its side. This is each party's starting position for
negotiations.

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Advantages and Disadvantages of an MOU

A memorandum of understanding allows all parties to clearly state all of their objectives
and goals. This makes for less uncertainty and prevents future unexpected disputes to
occur. Furthermore, by clearly laying out what each party expects of the other, an MOU
provides a blueprint for any contract both parties may or may not wish to draw up in the
future.
The biggest drawback, of an MOU, however, depending on your point of view, is that it is
not legally binding. While in some cases this may be a benefit, since neither party is
required to do what they say in the MOU, they can simply walk away or change their
expectations. MOUs can take significant time and planning to create and if one party
completely changes its requirements, creating the MOU was a big waste of resources.

Example of an MOU
During trade talks with a representative of China in Washington in April 2019, U.S.
President Donald Trump was asked by a reporter how long he expected U.S.-China
memorandums of understanding to last. "I don't like MOUs because they don't mean
anything," the former president replied.2 After some discussion, it was decided that any
document that emerged from the talks would be called a trade agreement, never an MOU.

Is an MOU Legally Binding?

A memorandum of understanding (MOU) is a legal document, but it is not legally binding,
although it usually signals a contract is imminent.

What Is the Difference Between an MOU and MOA?

An MOU is a document that describes very broad concepts of mutual understanding, goals,
and plans shared by the parties. In contrast, an MOA (memorandum of agreement) is a
document describing in detail the specific responsibilities of, and actions to be taken by,
each of the parties so that their goals may be accomplished.

How Do You Write an MOU?

Usually, a lawyer will draft an MOA. An MOU should clearly state the following: what
parties are involved, the context of the agreement, the proposed date of when the agreement
will become effective, the contact details of all relevant parties, the broad purpose of the
agreement, and what each party is hoping to achieve, as well as a space for all necessary
signatures.

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Why Is an MOU Important?

An MOU is important because it allows each party to clearly state their objectives and what
they expect from one another. Drafting an MOU can help solve any disputes before each
party enters a legally binding contract.

Difference Between Agreement and Memorandum of Understanding MOU

When it comes to defining the relationship between two or more parties, there are two key
terms to keep in mind: Agreement and Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). While they
may appear similar at first glance, there are notable differences between them that are worth
highlighting.

To begin with, an agreement is a legally binding document that establishes the specific
terms and conditions of a relationship between two or more parties. It is a formal contract
that can be enforced in a court of law, and it usually requires the signature of all parties
involved. An agreement typically covers topics such as payment terms, warranties, liability,
and dispute resolution.

On the other hand, a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) is a non-binding document

that outlines the general terms and understanding of a relationship between two or more
parties. It is often used as a preliminary step before negotiating a formal agreement. While
it does not have the legal force of an agreement, an MOU can help clarify the intentions of
the parties involved and provide a framework for further negotiations.

It is important to note that the main difference between Agreement and Memorandum of
Understanding (MOU) is their legal enforceability. While an agreement is a legally binding
document, an MOU is not. An agreement can be taken to court if one party breaches the
terms of the contract, while an MOU cannot. It is therefore important to carefully consider
whether an agreement or an MOU is the best Ans for a given situation.

When it comes to establishing a relationship between parties, the difference between

Agreement and Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) lies in their legal enforceability.
An agreement is a formal contract that is legally binding and can be enforced in court, while
an MOU is a non-binding document that outlines the general terms and understanding of a
relationship. An MOU can be used as a preliminary step before negotiating a formal
agreement, but it cannot be enforced in court like an agreement can.

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Uses of MOUs

Private Sector or Private Enterprises

In business and private enterprise dealings, the MOU normally serves as a non-binding
agreement that encompasses the responsibilities and requirements for each party and the
terms and details pertaining to the agreement. It is done without establishing a formal
contract or legally enforceable contract.

Government and Public Affairs

MOUs can be used within government departments; for example, in the United Kingdom,
the document serves as an agreement between parts of The Crown.

Public International Law

On an international level, MOUs fall under the treaties category, and they must be registered
in the United Nations Treaty Collection. In order to determine whether or not the agreement
is legally binding (especially for treaties), the intent of the parties and the positions of the
signatories must be presented. The wording used in the agreement also plays a role in
determining the legal nature of the document.

Below mentioned are the Steps Involved in Preparing an MOU:

Topic and title- Try to select a proper title for your Memorandum of Understanding. The
title must reflect the type of MOU you are using. Some of the MOU’s discussed below are
the asset purchase MOU’s, venture agreement MOU’s, service agreement MOU’s and so
on.

The parties involved- You should mention the fundamental details of the parties involved
at the very beginning such as their name, address and so on.
Agreement initiation– While writing an MOU agreement you should mention the tentative
date on which the work will begin.

Termination details– At the same time, you should also mention the terms under which
the MOU can be terminated. One must also mention the termination date that is the date on
which it is to be terminated since it is a one- time contract with a fixed deadline.

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Goals and responsibilities involved– In an MOU, it must include the responsibilities,

duties, deadlines associated, and a valid description of the project should be mentioned.

Scope and values- After determining the scope and project goal and its importance, it must
be ensured that all the parties to an MOU must understand the projects long term use and
its partnerships.

The key stakeholders- All the key stakeholders, collaboration and partnership should be
mentioned in the project.

Timeline– For every deliverable, there needs to have a specific deadline for projects. It
should be clearly mentioned in the MOU so that the parties to the contract are aware and
able to comprehend.

Terms and conditions– All the terms and conditions you wish to add your MOU as per the
special requirement must be added to complete the project. Thus, you should mention it in
a separate statement of work.

Signatures– Each and every MOU should be signed by all the individuals who are parties
to it so that a common understanding between them is achieved.

What are the Different Types of MOU’S?

Joint venture MOU- Also known as co-venture agreement. These are mainly used at the
very beginning of negotiations between the parties. It is basically a temporary business
agreement between parties to reach a common goal. This agreement will provide the
responsibilities of the parties.

Joint venture MOUs are of two types-

1. Contractual Joint Ventures and
2. General Joint Ventures.

Service Agreement MOU– It is a service contract legally binding between the clients and
service providers. These agreements will outline the terms and conditions as well. These
are also used in the early stages of negotiations which would detail the services that would
be necessary for the businesses in a non- binding agreement.

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Outsourcing MOU – It is generally a contract between a company and a service provider.

Service providers are responsible to provide services which the company then outsources.

Asset purchase MOU– It is mainly an agreement between a buyer and a seller that will be
used to transfer the ownership of an asset. The seller understands which particular asset to
purchase and which to sell in an asset purchase agreement.

Share purchase MOU- These are used for the purchases of shares. One who is a buyer of
company’s shares would necessarily want some contractual agreement commonly called
warranties that will continue to bind those shareholders even after the sale.

What is Agreement?
There are various forms of agreements that outline the terms and conditions of a relationship
between two or more parties. In addition to establishing each party's responsibilities and
obligations, the agreement also specifies the conditions under which the parties will work
together. There are many types of agreements, including contracts, leases, deeds, and
settlement agreements. They can be written or verbal, formal or informal, express or
implied, and they can be written or verbal. An agreement must be legally enforceable,
voluntarily entered into, and supported by consideration in order to be binding.

Advantages of Agreement
Agreements have the following advantages:
Clarity and certainty: Providing clear and specific terms and conditions in an agreement can
help to reduce confusion and misunderstandings.
Legal enforceability: An agreement is legally binding and enforceable in court, which
means that if the terms of the agreement are not met, the parties can seek legal recourse.
Protection of interests: By defining their rights and responsibilities and by setting out the
conditions under which they will work together, agreements can help protect the interests
of parties.

Facilitation of cooperation: By providing a clear framework for their relationship,

agreements can facilitate cooperation between parties.

Evidence of understanding: Agreements can serve as evidence of the parties' understanding

and intentions, which can help resolve disputes or clarify ambiguities.

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Promotes stability and predictability: An agreement provides stability and predictability,

which are essential for long-term success.

Facilitates dispute resolution: Contracts can include a framework for resolving disputes,
including the methods for resolving disputes, which can be useful for avoiding or resolving
disputes.

Disadvantages of Agreement
Agreements may have the following disadvantages:
Time-consuming and costly: Drafting and negotiating an agreement can be time-consuming
and expensive, especially if legal representation is involved.

Limited flexibility: After an agreement is signed, the parties may have limited flexibility to
modify it.

Risk of non-performance: One party may suffer harm if they do not fulfil their obligations
under the agreement.

Risk of disputes: Disputes can still arise even with a clear agreement.
Rigidity: Agreements can be rigid and may not be flexible enough to adapt to changing
circumstances.

Legal complexity: Contracts can be complex and require the assistance of legal
professionals to draft and interpret, which makes them less accessible to non-experts.

Risk of breach of contract: If one of the parties breaches the contract, legal action may be
required, which can be expensive and time-consuming.

Risk of being one-sided: Certain agreements may favor one party over another, causing a
sense of unfairness and mistrust.

Example of Agreement
Two or more parties enter into an agreement when they agree to certain terms and
conditions. Here are some examples of agreements:

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Employer-employee employment agreements specify the terms and conditions of

employment.

The lease agreement outlines the terms and conditions of a rental agreement between a
landlord and tenant.

A purchase agreement outlines the terms and conditions of a sale between buyer and seller
The terms and conditions of a service provided by one party to another are outlined in
service agreements.

A non-disclosure agreement specifies the terms and conditions of confidentiality between

two or more parties.

Scope of Cooperation:
The scope of cooperation between [Party A] and [Party B] will include the following:
[list specific activities or areas of cooperation]
[list specific activities or areas of cooperation]
[list specific activities or areas of cooperation]

Responsibilities:
[Party A] will be responsible for [list specific responsibilities]
[Party B] will be responsible for [list specific responsibilities]
Duration of MOU:

This MOU will be effective for a period of [time period] from the date of execution.

Termination:
Either party may terminate this MOU upon written notice to the other party if the other
party breaches any of the terms and conditions of this MOU.

Amendments:
This MOU may be amended or modified by mutual written agreement of the parties.

Governing Law:

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This MOU will be governed by and construed in accordance with the laws of the
[State/Country] without giving effect to any choice of law or conflict of law provisions.

Entire Agreement:
This MOU constitutes the entire agreement between the parties with respect to the subject
matter hereof and supersedes all prior agreements and understandings, whether oral or
written.

Agreement Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)

Legally binding Not legally binding

Enforceable in court Not enforceable in court

Detailed and specific terms and conditions General and broad understanding

May require signatures and/or seals May not require signatures or seals

Often used in commercial transactions Often used in non-commercial transactions

Types of Agreement
In its most broad definition, an award constitutes financial support for a specific research
project, training program, equipment purchases or other research-related activity.

The federal government uses three primary types of awards:

Grant
Financial assistance for a specific purpose or specific project without expectation of any
tangible deliverables other than a final report. The sponsor does not play an active role in
the research project and there are only few general terms and conditions.

Cooperative Agreement
A contract whereby the sponsor is substantially involved in the project and the outcome of
the research results. The sponsor and university work collaboratively and the reporting
requirements are usually stricter.

Contract

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Legally binding document signed by authorized officials from both parties providing
support for a specific set of tasks for the direct benefit of the sponsor. A contract contains a
narrowly focused statement of work and detailed terms and conditions.

There are also Other Transaction Awards – funding instruments which do not incorporate
the standard terms and conditions of the OMB Uniform Guidance but rather, all terms and
conditions are negotiated between the federal sponsor (currently only the Department of
Defense and NIH are authorized to award OTAs) on a case-by-case basis.

The Contracts Team in OSP uses other tools to facilitate research on behalf of researchers
at Mason. These agreements serve very specific purposes and depending upon the need, can
be tailored to suit each circumstance.

Memorandum of Understanding
An MOU is commonly used as a confirmation of agreed upon terms when an oral agreement
is reduced to writing. It sets forth the basic principles and guidelines under which the parties
will work together to accomplish their goals. It is uniquely tailored to each individual
circumstance and may be funded or unfunded. It is also known as a Memorandum of
Agreement.

Non-Disclosure Agreement
A legally binding agreement to treat specific shared information as confidential, proprietary
or trade secret and not to disclose it to others without proper authorization. It is Mason
policy to require Principal Investigators to sign these agreements acknowledging their
responsibilities to safeguard such confidential information during the course of preliminary
discussions or any research projects.

Teaming Agreement
An agreement involving two parties who wish to combine resources to submit a proposal
for a government contract. The agreement will specify which party will serve as the prime
award recipient and which will serve as the subaward recipient should the proposal be
selected for funding. The prime award recipient is then legally obligated to issue a subaward
to the subrecipient within a reasonable amount of time after receipt of award.

Material Transfer Agreement

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These are used to document and govern the transfer of biological or

other scientific materials from one party to another for research purposes. They typically
address conditions of use and royalties or intellectual property rights that may result from
such use.

IDIQ/Master Agreement
An indefinite delivery indefinite quantity contract is issued when a sponsor has identified a
need for services but does not know precisely how or when these services will be required.
The terms and conditions of this master agreement are negotiated and accepted by both
parties, but it does not contain a statement of work or any funding. As the sponsor identifies
a need, it will issue a task order awarding the funds for the particular task and specifying
the exact work to be done in a statement of work.

Subaward
Issued under a prime award (grant, contract or cooperative agreement) where a portion of
the scope of work is delegated by the prime award recipient to a subrecipient. Depending
upon the circumstances, Mason can either be on the issuing or receiving end of a subaward.

IPA
A contract under the Intergovernmental Personnel Act whereby a federal agency purchases
the services of a faculty member.

Consultant Agreement
An agreement for the purpose of acquiring the professional services of an individual with
knowledge and expertise in a specified field. Consultants are considered independent
contractors rather than subcontractors or employees. Consultant agreements are not handled
in OSP but are treated as purchased services and coordinated through the Office of
Purchasing.

Letter of Agreement means a written document that informally resolves a grievance, a

complaint, or a show cause order and is confidential in accordance with KRS 311.619;

Memorandum of Agreement means the agreement executed by and between FFA and the
Institution in which these Conditions have been incorporated by reference;

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Assignment of Agreements means, with respect to each Property, that certain first priority
Assignment of Agreements, Licenses, Permits and Contracts dated as of the date hereof,
from the applicable Borrower, as assignor, to Lender, as assignee, assigning to Lender as
security for the Loan, to the extent assignable under law, all of such Borrower's interest in
and to the Management Agreement, if any, and all other licenses, permits and contracts
necessary for the use and operation of such Property, as the same may be amended, restated,
replaced, supplemented or otherwise modified from time to time.

Technical Agreement means any technical or quality agreements signed by You (or Your
Affiliate) and RB (or RB’s Affiliates) specifying technical and quality responsibilities in
respect of the Output entered into prior to the date of the Order.

Articles of Agreement means the Articles of Agreement of the Bank.

Implementation Agreement means the Implementation Agreement dated………… by and

between the GOB and the Company in connection with the Project, and also includes any
amendment of it made from time to time.

Programme Agreement means the agreement of even date herewith between the Issuer,
the Guarantor and the Dealers named therein concerning the purchase of Notes to be issued
pursuant to the Programme together with any agreement for the time being in force
amending, replacing, novating or modifying such agreement;

Service Agreements means all the agreements entered by Target Company and Pledgee,
including but not limited to Strategy Consulting Services Agreement and Technical Support
Agreement.

Reciprocal agreement means an agreement between this state and a higher education
compact or 1 or more other states that allows participating colleges to provide distance
education to residents of this state and other member states under this act.

Development Agreements means all development, utility or similar agreements included

in the Permitted Encumbrances.

Form of Agreement means the form of agreement contained in Part D of the RFP;

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Comprehensive agreement means the comprehensive agreement between the private

entity and the responsible public entity that is required prior to the development or operation
of a qualifying project.

Commercial Agreements means all or any Agreement or Agreements with any third party
including but not limited to broadcasting, media, sponsorship, marketing, merchandising,
licensing and advertising, for the general promotion of each or any of the Clubs in the
Competition and the Company, and which have the object of promoting the welfare and
general commercial interest and increasing the financial resources of each of the Clubs, the
Company and the Competition.

Commercial Agreement means an agreement, other than an agency agreement, made

between carriers and relating to the provision of their joint services for carriage of
passengers by air;

Assistance Agreement means a for- mal, written agreement between the CDFI Fund and
an Awardee which specifies the terms and conditions of assistance under this part; Quality
Agreement has the meaning set forth in Section.

Term of Agreement means the term of this Agreement as specified in Section 9.01 hereof.
Construction Agreements means agreements to which Tenant is a party for Construction
Work, rehabilitation, alteration, repair, replacement, or demolition performed pursuant to
this Lease.

Development Agreement means that certain Development Agreement between Assignor

and the Trustee dated as of even date herewith. Pharmacovigilance Agreement has the
meaning set forth in Section.

Service Agreement means the initial agreement and any amendments or supplements
thereto entered by the Transmission Customer and the Transmission Provider for service
under the Tariff.

Supply Agreements means the Supply Agreements, between one or more members of the
Vishay Group, on the one hand, and one or more members of the VPG Group, on the other
hand, listed on Exhibit J, substantially in the form attached to such Exhibit J. From and after
the Distribution Date, the Supply Agreement shall refer to the supply agreement

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substantially in the form attached to Exhibit J, as amended and/or modified from time to
time in accordance with its terms.

Collaborative practice agreement means a written and signed agreement between a

physician licensed in this State or a school health advisor and a school nurse that provides
for the possession, prescription, administration and distribution of naloxone hydrochloride
by the physician or school health advisor and administration of naloxone hydrochloride by
the school nurse or designated school personnel to students, staff or visitors during school
or a school-sponsored activity or otherwise on school grounds under emergency
circumstances involving an opioid overdose or apparent opioid overdose.[PL 2021, c. 115,
1 (NEW).]

Project Management Agreement means the agreement dated the 20th February 1985
made between the Trustee and the Manager providing for the Manager to manage and
co‑ordinate the development and construction of the Resort and includes, if that agreement
is terminated, any other agreement in like and similar terms made with the prior consent of
the Minister;

Industrial agreement means an agreement registered by the Commission under this Act as
an industrial agreement.

Data Use Agreement means the agreement incorporated into the Contract to facilitate
creation, receipt, maintenance, use, disclosure, or access to Confidential Information.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. With reference to the Free Trade Agreements (FTA), consider the following
statements:
a. It is a pact between two or more nations to reduce barriers to imports and exports.
b. The concept of free trade is complementary to trade protectionism or economic
isolationism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. a only
B. b only

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C. c only
D. Both a and b
E. None of the above
Ans: A. a only

Explanation:
Statement (a) is correct. Statement (b) is incorrect. The concept of free trade is actually in
opposition to trade protectionism or economic isolationism, which involve the imposition
of trade barriers such as tariffs and quotas to protect domestic industries from foreign
competition.

2. In January 2023, with which of the following has Indian Space Research Organization
signed an MoU to help Indian Space tech start-ups?
A. IBM
B. Microsoft
C. Google
D. More than one of the above
E. None of the above
Ans B: Microsoft
Explanation:
Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and American tech giant Microsoft
announced on Thursday that they will be signing a Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) to support and empower space technology (space-tech) start-ups in India.

3. How many Bihar state universities have signed an MoU with the UGC’s Information
and Library Network (INFLIBNET) Centre through the state education department
recently?
A. 7
B. 15
C. 10
D. More than one of the above
E. None of the above
Ans B: 15
Explanation:
On December 11, 2022, according to information received from the media, the Education
Department is going to sign an MoU with UGC - INFLIBNET to connect all libraries of
all 15 traditional universities of Bihar online.

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4. Which state government signed an MoU with the French development agency to
improve drinking water and sanitation services?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Odisha
E. Madhya Pradesh
Ans C: Himachal Pradesh
Explanation:
Shimla: The Himachal Pradesh government has signed a Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) with the French Development Agency – Agency Francaise de Development (AFD)
– for the Rs 817.12-crore project to improve drinking water and sanitation services in five
towns of the hill state.

5. Which of the following has signed a licensing agreement for the transfer of technology
(LAToT) with DRDO’s Research Centre Imarat (RCI) laboratory to manufacture
‘Ceramic Radames (GELCAST Process) Technology’ used in missile systems?
A. Carborundum Universal Limited
B. Tube Investments of India Limited
C. BGR Energy Systems
D. Grind well Norton Ltd.
E. None of these
Ans A: Carborundum Universal Limited
Explanation:
Carborundum Universal Limited (CUMI) has signed a licensing agreement for transfer of
technology with DRDO's Research Centre Imarat (RCI) Laboratory. This is in order to
manufacture ceramic randoms (GELCAST Process) technology used in missile systems.

6. In March 2022, the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Government of India
signed an agreement to establish Global Centre for Traditional Medicine in which
state?
A. Punjab
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Gujarat
E. Patna

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Ans D: Gujarat
Explanation:
Ministry of Ayush has signed the Host Country Agreement with World Health
Organization on 26th March 2022 for establishing WHO-GCTM (Global Centre for
Traditional Medicine) in India at Jamnagar, Gujarat, with its interim office at the Institute
of Training and Research in Ayurveda Itra Jamnagar (ITRA) in Gujarat.

7. Which of the following Institution has tied up with the National Institute of Urban
Affairs to design the ‘Sustainable Cities India' program in February 2022?
A. World Economic Forum
B. Asian Development Bank
C. International Monetary Fund
D. Observer Research Foundation
E. World Health Foundation
Ans A: World Economic Forum
Explanation:
The correct answer is World Economic Forum. The World Economic Forum (WEF) and
the National Institute of Urban Affairs have signed an MoU to design the 'Sustainable
Cities India' program. It is aimed at enabling cities to generate decarbonization solutions
across different sectors.

8. In January 2022, which of the following country has signed an agreement with India to
jointly redevelop the strategic World War II-era oil tank farm in south asia?
A. Myanmar
B. Maldives
C. Sri Lanka
D. Bangaldesh
E. Bhutan
Ans C: Sri Lanka
Explanation:
The correct answer is Sri Lanka. Sri Lanka has signed an agreement with India to jointly
redevelop the strategic World War II-era oil tank farm in the eastern port district of
Trincomalee. 85 of the 99 tanks now will be under the Sri Lankan control which had
previously remained under Indian control.

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9. Which state has signed an MoU with Israel-based ISMC Analog Fab Private Ltd to set
up a chip-making plant in April 2022?
A. Telangana
B. Odisha
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Karnataka
E. Arunachal
Ans D: Karnataka
Explanation:
Israel-based ISMC Analog Fab Private Ltd will invest ₹22,900 crores in Karnataka to set
up a chip-making plant. An MoU has been signed in this regard.
India's first semiconductor fabrication plant is expected to generate more than 1,500 direct
jobs and 10,000 indirect jobs. ISMC is a joint venture between Abu Dhabi-based Next
Orbit Ventures and Israel's Tower Semiconductor.

10. Which company has signed a pact with the Ministry of Defence to build Astra Mark-1
missile?
A. Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd
B. Bharat Electronics Ltd
C. Apollo Micro Systems Ltd
D. Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)
E. Defense Research and Development Organization
Ans D: Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)
Explanation:
The correct answer is Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL). The Ministry of Defence signed a
contract on 31 May 2022 with Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) for building Astra Mark-1
Beyond Visual Range (BVR) Air-to-Air missiles (AAM) worth Rs 2,971 crore.

11. Hyundai Motor India Ltd signed whom as brand ambassador in December 2021?
A. Aditi Ashok
B. Sakshi Malik
C. Saaniya Sharma
D. Neha Tripathy
E. Sanjeev Panday
Ans A: Aditi Ashok
Explanation:

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The correct answer is Aditi Ashok. Hyundai Motor India Ltd (HMIL) signed an MoU with
Aditi Ashok in December 2021 to strengthen the brand's voice, spirit and innovative
approach. As part of the two-year association, Hyundai will work closely with Aditi
representing HMIL's Young & Progressive Imagery.

12. Which government ministry has partnered with India Post for door-to-door delivery of
parcels?
A. Ministry of Commerce
B. Ministry of Civil Aviation
C. Ministry of Power
D. Ministry of Railways
E. Ministry of Businesss Organization
Ans D: Ministry of Railways
Explanation:
The correct answer is Ministry of Railways. A 'Joint Parcel Product' (JPP) of India Post
and Indian Railways is being developed, wherein first-mile and last-mile connectivity will
be provided by the Department of Posts.

13. In how many countries, Union Cabinet approved the opening of Indian Missions in
2021?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 9
E. 4
Ans A: 3
Explanation:
The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi today approved the
opening of 3 Indian Missions in Estonia, Paraguay, and Dominican Republic in 2021.

14. Which bank has signed an agreement for investment in National Asset Reconstruction
Company Limited (NARCL) to acquire up to 5% equity holding in NARCL?
A. ICICI Bank
B. Axis Bank
C. Yes Bank
D. HDFC Bank
E. State Bank of India

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Ans A: ICICI Bank

Explanation:
ICICI Bank has signed an agreement for investment in National Asset Reconstruction
Company Limited (NARCL).
NARCL is an asset reconstruction company, which was incorporated in 2021. The bank
will acquire up to 5% equity holding in NARCL with total cash consideration of up to
₹137.5 crores in tranches.
Equity investment would be in tranches with the first tranche to be completed by March
31, 2022.

15. With which country has India signed an MoU with a scope for cooperation in health
research in January 2022?
A. Japan
B. USA
C. France
D. Australia
E. Russia
Ans C: France
Explanation:
The correct answer is France. India and France have signed an MoU with scope for
cooperation in health research. The MoU was signed on 25 January 2022 between the
Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, CSIR and Institute Pasteur, France.

16. The most important document of a company is it’s:

A. Memorandum of Association
B. Articles of Association
C. Prospectus
D. Pre-incorporation contracts
E. Pre-Planed Policy
Ans A: Memorandum of Association
Explanation:
The most important document of a company is Memorandum of Association.
This document contains the fundamental rules and objectives of a company, including the
company's name, registered office, nature of business, and other details.

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17. Any act done by the company which goes beyond the powers of memorandum of
association will be called as __:
A. Ultra virus
B. Intra virus
C. Constructive notice
D. Indoor management
E. Outdoor Management
Ans A: Ultra virus
Explanation:
Ultra vires acts are any acts that lie beyond the authority of a corporation to perform. Ultra
vires acts fall outside the powers that are specifically listed in a corporate charter or law.

18. The memorandum of a company is dealt under which section:

A. Sec. 2(45)
B. Sec. 2(46)
C. Sec. 2(55)
D. Sec. 2(56)
E. Sec. 2(43)
Ans D: Sec. 2(56)
Explanation:
As per section 2 of the Companies Act, 2013 memorandum means the memorandum of
association of a company as originally framed or as altered from time to time in pursuance
of any previous company law or of this Act.

19. How many members should sign the moa in case of private company?
A. 1 (One)
B. 2 (Two)
C. 7 (Seven)
D. 50 (Fifty)
E. 60 (Sixty)
Ans B: 2 (Two)
Explanation:
For a private company, the signatures of two members on the Memorandum of
Association are sufficient.

20. Memorandum of association defines the relation of the company with the:

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A. Outside world
B. Members
C. Employees
D. Lenders
E. Agents
Ans A: Outside world
Explanation:
The Memorandum of Association (MOA) of a company defines the relationship of the
company with the outside world, such as its shareholders, creditors, and other
stakeholders. It includes various clauses that outline the fundamental characteristics of the
company, such as its name, registered office, objectives, and capital structure. The MOA
defines the scope and limitations of the company's activities, and establishes the rights and
duties of its members, including the shareholders and directors. In summary, the MOA
sets out the constitution of the company and governs its relations with the outside world.

21. The articles of association establish the relationship between the company with the:
A. Outside world
B. Members
C. Employees
D. Lenders
E. Outside Members
Ans B: Members
Explanation:
The articles of association, also known as the bylaws or the corporate charter, establish the
internal rules and regulations that govern the relationship between a company and its
shareholders, directors, and officers. The articles of association typically contain
provisions regarding the company's purpose, the number and powers of its directors and
officers, the rights and obligations of shareholders, and the procedures for holding
meetings, voting, and making important decisions. They also outline the processes for
making changes to the articles of association and for dissolving the company.

22. The articles of association and the memorandum of association are drafted by:
A. Promoters
B. Registrar
C. Shareholders
D. Creditors
E. Debtors

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Ans A: Promoters
Explanation:
The articles of association and the memorandum of association are two separate
documents that are drafted by the founders or promoters of a company during its
formation. The memorandum of association sets out the company's name, registered office
address, objects, and the amount of share capital with which the company will be
registered. This document is a public document and must be filed with the registrar of
companies during the company's incorporation.

23. Alteration of Memorandum of Association (MO is done only by passing:

A. Ordinary resolution
B. Special resolution
C. Ordinary resolution with approval by ROC of Companies
D. Special resolution with approval by ROC of Companies
E. Complex resolution
Ans C: Ordinary resolution with approval by ROC of Companies
Explanation:
The alteration of the Memorandum of Association (MOA) of a company is a significant
event and can only be done by passing a special resolution in a general meeting of the
company. According to the Companies Act, 2013, any change to the MOA of a company
must be approved by a special resolution passed by at least three-fourths of the
shareholders present in person or by proxy at a general meeting of the company.
The company must also follow the process of notifying the Registrar of Companies
(ROC) about the proposed alteration and obtain their approval. Once the ROC approves
the alteration, the company must file the amended MOA with the ROC within 30 days of
the approval.

24. Alteration of articles must be done only by passing:

A. Ordinary resolution
B. Special resolution
C. Complex resolution
D. Ordinary resolution with approval by ROC of Companies
E. Special resolution with approval by ROC of Companies
Ans B: Special resolution
Explanation:

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The alteration of the articles of association of a company can be done by passing a special
resolution in a general meeting of the company. According to the Companies Act, 2013,
any change to the articles of association of a company must be approved by a special
resolution passed by at least three-fourths of the shareholders present in person or by
proxy at a general meeting of the company.

25. The doctrine of indoor management is an ______to the doctrine of constructive notice.
A. Exception
B. Extension
C. Alternative
D. Demonstrative
E. None of the above
Ans B: Extension
Explanation:
The doctrine of indoor management is an Extension to the doctrine of constructive notice:

26. Doctrine of ultra vires me:

A. Acts done outside the prospectus of the company.
B. Acts done outside the contract of the company.
C. Acts done outside the resolutions of the company.
D. Acts done outside the memorandum of the company.
E. Acts done inside the prospectus of the company
Ans D: Acts done outside the memorandum of the company.
Explanation:
Doctrine of ultra vires me Acts done outside the memorandum of the company.
The Doctrine of Ultra Vires. The Doctrine of Ultra Vires is a fundamental rule of
Company Law. It states that the objects of a company, as specified in its Memorandum of
Association, can be departed from only to the extent permitted by the Act.

27. The article of association needs to be signed by:

A. All proposed directors of the company
B. Registrar of companies
C. Contractors
D. Promoters
E. Subscribers of MOA
Ans D: Subscribers of MOA

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Explanation:
The articles of association of a company must be signed by the subscribers to the
memorandum of association.
When a company is incorporated, the memorandum and articles of association are
submitted to the Registrar of Companies along with other required documents. The
articles of association must be signed by each of the subscribers in the presence of at least
one witness who must attest the signature.

28. Which of the following companies need not have their own articles of association?
A. Unlimited companies
B. Companies limited by guarantee.
C. Private companies limited by shares.
D. Manufactured Companies
E. Public companies limited by shares.
Ans D: Public companies limited by shares.

Explanation:
Manufactured Companies do not exist as a legal form of company and are therefore not
required to have their own articles of association. However, other types of companies, such
as unlimited companies, companies limited by guarantee, private companies limited by
shares, and public companies limited by shares, are required to have their own articles of
association.

29. Companies must have their own articles:

A. Unlimited companies
B. Companies limited by guarantee.
C. Manufactured Companies
D. Private companies limited by shares.
E. All of the above
Ans D: All of the above

Explanation:
Unlimited companies, companies limited by guarantee, private companies limited by
shares, and public companies limited by shares are all legal forms of companies that are
required to have their own articles of association. The articles of association are a legal
document that sets out the rules and regulations governing the internal management and
operation of the company.

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30. The memorandum and articles of a company are open to inspection by:
A. Members of the company
B. Creditors of the Company
C. Everyone
D. Debtors of the Company
E. Registrar of the Company
Ans A: Members of the company

Explanation:
Members of the company have the right to inspect the memorandum and articles of a
company. The members of a company are the individuals or entities that have invested in
the company by buying shares or otherwise acquiring an ownership interest in the company.

31. Which companies are not required to have any memorandum or articles of
association?
A. Unlimited companies
B. Companies limited by guarantee.
C. Private companies limited by shares.
D. Manufactured Companies
E. It is mandatory for every company.
Ans D: It is mandatory for every company.

Explanation:
Every company, whether registered as a private company, public company or one-person
company, requires a MoA. Thus, if the startup plans to register as a company under the
Companies Act, 2013, the startup must prepare MoA before applying for registration.

32. Which of the following content is not specified in AOA (articles of association) of the
company?
A. Borrowing powers of the company
B. Voting rights and proxies
C. Creditors of the Companies
D. Transfer and transmission of shares
E. Name and address of the company
Ans D: Name and address of the company

Explanation:

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Name and address of the company is not typically specified in the articles of association
(AOA) of a company. The name and registered office address of the company are usually
included in the memorandum of association, which is a separate legal document that sets
out the company's name, objects, and initial shareholders or guarantors.

33. The doctrine which advocates the fact that company cannot act beyond the scope of its
memorandum of association is:
A. The doctrine of constructive notice
B. The doctrine of Indoor management.
C. The doctrine of ultra vires
D. The doctrine of outdoor management
E. None of the above
Ans C: The doctrine of ultra vires
Explanation:
The doctrine which advocates the fact that a company cannot act beyond the scope of its
memorandum of association is known as the "Doctrine of Ultra Vires". This doctrine states
that any act of a company that is beyond the objects or purposes specified in its
memorandum of association is void and cannot be ratified by the company or its
shareholders.

34. The most important clause in the memorandum of association of a company is:
A. Name clause
B. Object clause
C. Registered office clause
D. Address clause
E. Liability clause
Ans B: Object clause

Explanation:
The most important clause in the memorandum of association of a company is typically the
"objects clause". This clause sets out the specific purposes for which the company is being
formed and provides a statement of the company's main activities or objectives. The objects
clause is important because it defines the scope of the company's activities and helps to
establish its legal capacity to carry out those activities. If a company wishes to engage in
activities that are outside the scope of its objects clause, it may need to amend its
memorandum of association to reflect these changes.

35. The succession clause is only applicable for:

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A. Private companies
B. Public companies
C. Partnership companies
D. OPC (One Person Company)
E. Small Companies
Ans C: OPC (One Person Company)

Explanation:
The succession clause is only applicable for OPC (One Person Company) In our country,
the Companies Act, 1956 primarily regulates the formation, financing, functioning, and
winding up of companies. The Act prescribes regulatory mechanism regarding all relevant
aspects including organizational, financial, and managerial aspects of companies.

36. Companies Act 1956 was repealed by:

A. Companies Act’ 2002
B. Companies Act’ 2010
C. Companies Act’ 2011
D. Companies Act’ 2013
E. Companies Act’ 2015
Ans C: Companies Act’ 2013

Explanation:
The Companies Act 1956 was repealed by the Companies Act 2013, which came into effect
on April 1, 2014. The Companies Act 2013 is the current legislation governing companies
in India and replaced the Companies Act 1956, which had been in force for over five
decades. The new Companies Act 2013 is a comprehensive legislation that seeks to improve
corporate governance, enhance shareholder protection, and promote ease of doing business
in India.

37. When did the Companies Act 2013 came into force?
A. 5th August 2013
B. 10th August 2013
C. 15th August 2013
D. 29th August 2013
E. 25th August 2013
Ans D: 29th August 2013

Explanation:

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The Companies Act 2013 is the current legislation governing companies in India. It was
passed by the Indian Parliament in August 2013 and received Presidential assent on August
29, 2013. The Act came into force on April 1, 2014, replacing the Companies Act 1956,
which had been in force for over five decades.

38. Companies Act’ 2013 consists of sections:

A. 250
B. 270
C. 340
D. 360
E. 470
Ans D: 470
Explanation:
The Companies Act, 2013 is a comprehensive legislation that regulates the incorporation,
functioning, and governance of companies in India. It consists of a total of 470 sections
and 7 schedules. The Act has been divided into 29 chapters, which cover various aspects
of company law, including incorporation, management and administration, corporate
social responsibility, mergers, and acquisitions, winding up, and penalties and
prosecutions.

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SPORTS

Sports can help an individual work in team spirit and also develops a problem-solving atti-
tude towards life. Physical exercise is done through sports. Sports played across the world is
Cricket, Football, Volleyball, Chess, Badminton, Tennis. Two category of sports is Olympic
Sport and Non-Olympic Sport.

Introduction
India has hosted and co-hosted several international sporting events, including the 1951 and
1982 Asian Games, the 1987, 1996 and 2011 Cricket World Cup, the 2003 Afro-Asian
Games, the 2010 Hockey World Cup and the 2010 Commonwealth Games. The Indian
Premier League (IPL) is a premier twenty 20 cricket league held every year from 2008. The
Indian Super League is a football league tournament held since 2014. Major international
sporting events annually held in India include the Chennai Open in tennis, the Indian Mas-
ters in golf. From 2011 to 2013, India hosted the Indian Grand Prix Formula 1 race at the
Buddh International Circuit, Greater Noida. The National Games of India is a national do-
mestic sports event, which has been held in the country since 1924. It will host the 2017
FIFA U-17 World Cup.

Before independence
The history of sports in India dates back to the Vedic era. Physical culture in ancient India
was fueled by religious rights. The mantra in the Atharvaveda, says, "Duty is in my right
hand and the fruits of victory in my left." In terms of an ideal, these words hold the same
sentiments as the traditional Olympic Oath: "For the Honour of my Country and the Glory
of Sport." Badminton probably originated in India as a grownup's version of a very old
children's game known in England as Battledore and Shuttlecock, the battledore being a
paddle and the shuttlecock a small, feathered cork, now usually called a "bird." Games like
chess (chaturanga), snakes and ladders, playing cards, originated in India, and it was from
here that these games were transmitted to foreign countries, where they were further mod-
ernized.

After independence
India hosted the Asian Games in New Delhi in 1951 and 1982. The Ministry of Youth Af-
fairs and Sports was initially set up as the Department of Sports in 1982 at the time of
organization of the IX Asian Games in New Delhi. Its name was changed to the Department
of Youth Affairs & Sports during celebration of the International Youth Year in 1985. India

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has also hosted or co-hosted several international sporting events, including the 1951 and
the 1982 Asian Games, the 1987 and 1996 Cricket World Cup, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games,
the 2010 Hockey World Cup, and the 2010 Commonwealth Games. Major international
sporting events annually held in India include the Chennai Open, Mumbai Marathon, Delhi
Half Marathon, and the Indian Masters.

Common wealth Games

India has competed in fourteen of the eighteen previous Commonwealth Games; starting at
the second Games in 1934 hosted the games one time. India hosted the Games in 2010, at
Delhi. India is the fourth most successful country with a total of 436 medals including 156
gold medals.

Asian Games
India hosted the Asian Games in 1951 and 1982 at New Delhi. India is the sixth most suc-
cessful country winning 602 medals including 139 gold. India has won the gold medal in
Kabaddi ever since its inception.

The National Games of India

The National Games of India is a sporting event held in India. It comprises various disci-
plines in which sportsmen from the different states of India participate against each other.
The country’s first few Olympic Games now christened as National Games.

Sports Development and Success

On August 15, 1947, India left the British crown, 347 years later after the English first
stepped foot into this amazing country. It was an uncertain time, no one knew how India
was going to flourish on its own, and what type of identity it would embody. But popular
sports in India grew from strength to strength. Post partition India had many sporting suc-
cesses. The country went on to host many tournaments, along with producing many great
athletes.

Hosting and Accomplishments at Major Sports Events

India has hosted many internationally distinguished events. After India gained independ-
ence, it was home to the Asian Games during March 1951 in Delhi. They won fifteen gold
medals at these Games. Thirty-one years later India was hosting the same multi-sport event
in the same city during November-December 1982. Here they bagged thirteen gold medals.

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India held the first Afro-Asian Games multi-sport event in Hyderabad-Secunderabad from
October 24 to November 1, 2003. India managed to win nineteen medals at these Games.
Cricket, which is arguably the nations favourite sport, saw India jointly host World Cups in
1987, 1996 and 2011.

Mahendra Singh Dhoni led his team to victory on home turf, defeating Sri Lanka in the final
by six wickets at the Wankhede Stadium in Mumbai on April 2, 2011. Hockey was the other
sport to host more than one world cup in India. The first world cup took place in Delhi from
February 28 to March 13, 2010.

Achievements in India
The Indian football team was one one of the top 20 teams from Asia, winning the Asian
Games in 1951, and 1962.

In 1951 they overcame Iran by one solitary goal. Whereas in 1962, they narrowly got the
better of South Korea 2-1.

During both triumphs, former football player and coach Syed Abdul Rahim was instrumen-
tal with the team.

Whilst athletics had links to the British Raj, it did take time for the country to produce
champions. Milkha Singh also familiar as the “Flying Sikh’ received a gold medal in the
400 metres at the 1962 Delhi Asian Games.

From a snooker point of view, Geet Sethi was victorious in the 1992 WPBSA World Cham-
pionships, beating Mike Russell at Holiday Inn, Bombay. He repeated the same feat at home
in 1993, 1995 and 1998.

In 2004, India won the first standard style Kabaddi World Cup. They comfortably registered
a 55-27 victory over Iran during the final in Mumbai on November 21, 2004.

Subsequently, India also became Kabaddi World Cup champions at home in 2007 (Panvel)
and 2016 (Ahmedabad).

Team India also lifted their first circle style Kabaddi World Cup in 2010. They comfortably
demolished Pakistan 58-24 at the Guru Nanak Stadium, Ludhiana on April 12, 2010.

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As hosts, India had dominated the Kabaddi World Cup, winning four more consecutive
tournaments until 2016.

Boxing is another sport which began to flourish late in the country. Mary Kom is a name
that needs no introduction.

She is the winner of six AIBA World Championships. Mary won her first World Champi-
onship gold medal at home in Delhi during 2006. She beat Steluta Duta (ROM) under the
46kg division.

Sports Leagues in India

There are many professional sports leagues in India, with some of them becoming very
popular. The annual Indian Premier League (IPL) is the number one T20 franchise cricket
tournament in India.

The Board of Cricket for Cricket in India (BCCI) founded the IPL during 2008. Former
BCCI Vice-President, Lalit Modi was the visionary behind the IPL.
During the launch of the IPL, Modi said:

“The IPL has been designed to entice an entire new generation of sports fans into the
grounds throughout the country.

“The dynamic Twenty20 format has been designed to attract a young fan base, which also
includes women and children.”

The IPL has had over ten successful seasons. The league provides a platform for young
homegrown talent and international players from around the world.

The Indian Super League (ISL) is a premier football league that runs from October to March
every year. On October 13, 2013, the competition was founded, with the first edition begin-
ning in 2014.

By the 2017-2018 season, the ISL managed to secure recognition from Asia’s governing
body for the sport, Asian Football Confederation (AFC). Similar to the IPL, ISL also
launches young Indian players, providing them with an opportunity to learn from big stars
from the football world.

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Games of India
India is home to diverse population playing different games. India has won many Olympic
medals in sports. It is the origin of games like Hockey, Chess, Gilli Danda.

Chess
Shatranj or chaturanga are the ancient names for Chess. rchaeologist found the remains of this
game roughly, 1,500 years ago. It is a board game which requires minimum two players. the
board is 8 x 8. Each player in the game has 6 set of pieces namely 1 King, 1 Queen, 2 Rook,
2 Knights, 2 Bishops and 8 pawns. Checkmate or also known as shat-Mat is referred as the
defeat of King.

The creation of chess came during the Gupta Dynasty (280 Ad – 550 AD). Chaturanga was
the predecessor of chess.

Kho-Kho
Kho Kho was originated in India in the 3rd century. Therefore, kho kho is one of the oldest
tag games in India besides kabaddi. There are 12 players in a team and out of which 9 enter
the field and others run along the field. Players face the opposite directions in a single line.

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Polo
Polo is played riding on horses back. It lasted from the 6th century BC to 1st century AD.
India has set the modern polo in 115th century AD by Mughal emperor. Therefore, ” Sport of
Kings” is the other name of this game. In some places, polo was played by riding on elephants
back and hence it was called “Elephant Polo”.

The ancient signs of Polo came when Turkic slave Qutbuddin Aibak was the Sultan of Delhi,
ruling between 1206-1210.

He apparently met his death during a polo match in Lahore. The sport also being known as
Chaugan was very popular during the Mughal period.

The early origins of the game also trace to Manipur. It particularly has a link to Sangkol
Kangjei, a form of hockey played in Manipur. Imphal Polo field in Manipur state is one of the
oldest ground in the world.

Snakes and ladders

Snakes and ladder is an ancient board game. Two or more players can play is game at the
same time. The boards consist of N number of ladders and snakes. Playe has to roll the dice
and move to space ahead of the current position, the dice will indicate the number and that
number is the no.of spaces a player has to move. If a player encounters a snake player will go
to the block where snakes tail is. If player encounters ladder then the player will reach the
block at the top of the ladder.

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World Games
world games are the games which are played and recognised all across the globe. Some of
Such games are Football, Badminton, Volleyball, Cricket. These games are popular every-
where and hence are world games.

Football
British soldiers had a major contribution in introducing football during the mid-nineteenth
century.

Following matches between the teams of the armed forces, clubs were established
throughout India.

In 1889, the first football club was formed. Mohun Bagan Athletic Club in Kolkata was
developed thirty-two years after the first football team was established in England.

The club rapidly grew in popularity. The club’s first major trophy win was in 1904. Seven
years later, in 1911, Mohun Bagan won its first major title, the Indian Football Association
(IFA) shield.

The Indian Football Association was founded earlier in 1893, featuring only foreigners on the
board until 1930.

The All India Football Federation (AIFF) took over in 1937, establishing itself as the main
governing body.

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However, they had to wait ten years, before gaining affiliate recognition from the international
governing body, FIFA.

Cricket
In 1721, British soldiers docked and decided to play cricket. They started playing with the
locals on the seaboard of India, near Cambay.

Cricket became one of the first sports introduced to India. It instantaneously became a na-
tional favorite.

The first association was the Calcutta Cricket Club, establishing in 1792. In 1948, it was
the Indian Parsi community who had a big hand in accepting cricket early on.

In 1898, Sir Ranjitsinhji Vibhaji Jadeja aka Ranji, a prince of Nawan Nagar was the first to
float the idea of constructing an “Indian Team.”

Bowler Balwankar Baloo was India’s first great cricket player. In 1911, Maharaja
Bhupinder Singh from Patiala was the captain of team India at the age of nineteen.

C.K. Nayudu, Prof. DB Deodhar, Wazir Ali, JG Navale, and Colonel Mistry were the other
big names from this team.

Only the elite divulged in the gentleman’s game of cricket initially. However, it also slowly
seeped into the streets of India, uniting the country and becoming injected into its blood.

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Badminton
The origins of Badminton derive from England. However, with India being part of the Brit-
ish empire, it was ultimately played by officers stationed in the city of Poona during the
1860s.

British officers were primarily playing the sport in the outdoors for some fun and enjoy-
ment.

During those days, it was familiar as “battledore and shuttlecock.” This earlier version was
different from the modern game in that the winner had to keep the shuttlecock in the air for
the longest.

From then on the game evolved and developed as badminton in India. Badminton is a rac-
quet sport. Therefore, racquets are used to play badminton. There is two version of this
sport namely “singles” and ‘doubles”. Singles game is usually preferable one player on each
side of a net. Racquets are used to toss the shuttlecock across the net.

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Kabaddi
Kabaddi has its roots in India and Iran. Sports historians have a difference of opinion when
pinpointing one specific historical origin for this sport.

However, an ancient version about the rules of kabaddi does find a place in the book It reveals
a story of the protagonist Arjuna who uses kabaddi as a way to fight his enemies. This is while
protecting himself from any harm.

Other Sports
Other sports which became popular during certain periods include archery, swimming, hunt-
ing, and weightlifting.

Many of these sports were not bound with hard fix rules. They were played in a very anciently
fashion without any impact from other parts of the world. These games were not “modernised:
until later. This is when countries became more connected.

Snooker
In 1875, snooker was born on Indian soil but conceived by an English man. It was a spin-off
billiards or “blackball,” where a young officer bent some rules, creating the game.

The Billiards Snooker Federation of India (BSFI) suggest that Ooty was “the most credible
birthplace for the game of Snooker” in 1881. The first game took place at this hill station.
Writing a letter in 1938, Ian Hamiton, a British officer that was working from Ooty between
1882-84, notes:

“I was in at Ootacamund in 1882-84 and there still must be some crowd left who can testify
to the belief their current that Snooker owed its birth to Neville Chamberlain fertile brain.
“Could the game have existed in Ooty even before Chamberlain arrival just waiting for him
to discover it and give it a new name? This is certainly a possibility.” On February 2, 1886, a
letter from Captain Sheldrick of Calcutta also contained details about snooker. Additionally,
the letter references British Army officers that were playing snooker.

Tennis
The introduction of tennis came in the 1880s, courtesy of British Army and Civilian Officers.
It soon gathered a fair bit of interest.

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Tournaments were intriguing to watch, especially with the creation of the Punjab Lawn Tennis
Championships, originating in Lahore just five years later. With the passage of time, more
events became the norm. This includes the 1887 Bengal Lawn Tennis Championships at Cal-
cutta (Kolkata) and the 1910 All India Tennis Championships in Allahabad.

He was the first Indian tennis player to feature on the grass courts of Wimbledon in 1908.
By 1921 India had already beaten major countries like France, Netherlands, Romania, Spain
and Greece in the all-important international Davis Cup.

Ghaus Mohammad Khan was a significant figure when in 1939, he became the first Indian to
reach the quarterfinals of Wimbledon.

Hockey
In the late 19th century, hockey became quite widespread in India, as a result of the British
Empire.

People wanted titles, big championships, grand events and shiny rewards. The epitome for
British Indian sport was winning Olympic medals.

In 1885, the first hockey club was established in Calcutta. Despite there being no national
competitions, major events had taken place ten years later.

The 1895 Beighton Cup took place in Calcutta, with Bombay organising the 1895 Agha Khan
tournament. The Hot Weather Lahore tournament also became very popular in the early twen-
tieth century.

On November 5, 1925, saw the establishment of the India Hockey Federation (IHF). Two
years later, during 1927, IHF was successful in obtaining global membership from the Inter-
national Hockey Federation (IHF).

In 1928, the Indian hockey team won its first gold medal at the Amsterdam Summer Olym-
pics. They defeated Netherlands 3-0 in the final at the Olympisch Stadion on May 26, 1928.
The star for team India was Dhyan Chand, with two goals in the final and fourteen overall.
Other key players in this triumphant team included Feroze Khan, Shaukat Ali, Jaipal Singh
and Sayed Mohamed Yusuf.

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Golf
History of Golf in India
In India you can play golf almost anywhere, for this sport is widely played by a cross-section
of people. In the hills and high Himalayan fastness, in metropolitan cities and in small towns,
by lakes and forests, or surrounded by tea estates, out in the deserts and in old cantonment...the
flavor of India is visible everywhere.

India was the first country outside Great Britain to take up the game of golf. The Royal Cal-
cutta Golf Club, established in 1829, is the oldest golf club in India and the first outside Great
Britain. Because of the British rule, the eighteenth century saw a mushrooming of new golf
clubs in India. The founding of the Royal Golf Club of Calcutta in 1829 was followed by the
now-defunct Royal Bombay Golf Club in 1842 and the Bangalore Golf Club in !876. The
Shillong Golf Club incorporated a golf course in 1886.

Golf has already been played in India for 59 years before the first major course was opened
in the USA and Europe in 1888. By the end of the !9th century, India had a dozen golf clubs.

What makes golfing in India exciting is the diversity of its courses. Not only does it have the
oldest gold club in the world outside Great Britain, but also the highest, at Gulmarg (altitude
2,700 meters) in Kashmir. There are golf courses in the mountains, plains, deserts and at beach
resorts. The environment of each course is unique in its culture and history, highlighting all
that makes India a diverse destination. In fact, it would not be wrong to say that one of the
best ways to experience India is through its golf courses.

Most of India's courses are well connected by road, rail, and air, and have excellent accom-
modation facilities. Unfortunately, India still has to rely on the West for golfing equipment,
and visitors are advised to carry their own sets, with an ample supply of golf balls. Till the
'50s, golf clubs in India were affiliated to the Royal Calcutta Golf Club, which followed the
rules of St. Andrews in Scotland. In December 1955, a group of golfers got together to form
the Indian Golf Union as the controlling body for the game.

The Indian Golf Union is now affiliated to the World amateur Golf Council and has done a
great deal to promote golfing in the country. In 1957, it started its first training camp at the
Royal Golf Club in Calcutta, where assistant professionals and caddies were brought from all
over the country and trained to teach golf.

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The year 1958 is a landmark in the history of Indian golf. For the first time, the amateur Indian
Championship was moved away from the Royal Calcutta Golf Club to be played alternately
at Delhi, Bombay and Calcutta. The most important annual event in the calendar of the Indian
Open Golf Championship was first played in Delhi in 1964, and won by the Australian golfer,
Peter Thompson.

Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award Winners

Recently, Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award (Erstwhile, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
Award) 2021 was given to 12 sportspersons, for their spectacular and most outstanding
performance in the field of sports, over a period of the previous four years. Noted sports-
persons from different categories, Olympians, Paralympians were honoured by the Presi-
dent of India at a specially organized function at the Darbar Hall of Rashtrapati Bhavan
(Delhi) on 13th November 2021.

The Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports announces the National Sports Awards. National
Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports. The
UPSC has in the recently conducted Civil Service Preliminary Examination, 2021 asked
three questions from sports, which has been hitherto an uncharted territory in the post-2011
reforms era. Keeping in view the importance of such a crucial event, we shall be discussing
various aspects of the award, including a list of the winners for the past five years.

What is its Objective?

• The objective of the award is to recognize the spectacular and most outstanding perfor-
mance in the field of sports by a sportsperson.
• The performance over a period of four years immediately preceding the year during
which the award is to be given is taken into account.
• During the years when Olympic Games, Commonwealth and Asian Games are held,
achievements of the sportspersons up to the conclusion of these Games will also be con-
sidered.

What are the Eligibility Criteria?

• Outstanding performance in Olympic Asian Commonwealth World Games Champion-
ships World Cup and equivalent recognized international tournaments in the past four
years.

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• During the years when Olympic Games, Commonwealth and Asian Games are held, the
achievements of the sportspersons in these Games and other tournaments up to the con-
clusion of the Olympic Games Commonwealth Games Asian Games, may be consid-
ered.
• Sportspersons penalized or against whom the inquiry is pending ongoing for use of drugs
substances banned by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) are not eligible for the
award.

Who can Forward Nominations?

The authorized signatory for sending nominations are as follows:
• Indian Olympic Association – President Secretary-General.
• National Sports Federations – President Secretary-General.
• In the case of Cricket, there is no federation recognized by the Ministry of Youth Af-
fairs and Sports. Nominations for cricket will need to be sent by the President/ Secre-
tary-General of the Board for Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
• State UT Governments Sports Control Promotion Boards – An officer of not less than
the rank of Secretary or Director (Sports) of the organization after receiving due ap-
proval of the competent authority.

List of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award Winners 2021

S. No. Name of the Sportsperson Discipline

1 Neeraj Chopra Athletics

2 Ravi Kumar Wrestling

3 Lovlina Borgohain Boxing

4 Sreejesh P.R Hockey

5 Avani Lekhara Para Shooting

6 Sumit Antil Para Athletics

7 Pramod Bhagat Para Badminton

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8 Krishna Nagar Para Badminton

9 Manish Narwal Para Shooting

10 Mithali Raj Cricket

11 Sunil Chhetri Football

12 Manpreet Singh Hockey

List of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award Winners 2020

S. No. Name of the Sportsperson Discipline

1 Shri Rohit Sharma Cricket

2 Shri Mariyappan T. Para Athletics

3 Ms. Manika Batra Table Tennis

4 Ms. Vinesh Wrestling

5 Ms. Rani Hockey

List of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award Winners 2019

S. No. Name of the Sportsperson Discipline

1 Sh. Bajrang Punia Wrestling

2 Ms. Deepa Malik Para Athletics

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List of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award Winners 2018

S. No. Name of the Sportsperson Discipline

1 Ms. S. Mirabai Chanu Weightlifting

2 Shri Virat Kohli Cricket

Arjuna award winners list 2022:

Every Year Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports announces the National Sports Awards Win-
ners List(including Arjuna Award Winners List). National Sports Awards recognizes and re-
wards those who sportsperson excel in sports. ‘Arjuna Award for outstanding performance in
Sports and Games’ is given for good performance over a period of the previous four years and
for showing qualities of leadership, sportsmanship and a sense of discipline. In this Article we
are focusing on only Arjuna Award Winners List.

Know about Arjuna Award

• Named after Arjuna, the greatest archer from the ancient Indian epic Mahabharata, the
award was set up in 1961.
• Awarded by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India to recognize
the outstanding achievement in sports.
• Being India’s highest sporting honor, it has been replaced by the Khel Ratna.
• The winners of the Arjuna Award receive a statuette of Arjuna, a certificate and a cash
prize for consistence shown in a particular sport for a span of 4 years.
• Legendary Hockey player Anna Lumsden was the first woman to win the Arjuna Award.
• A Khel Ratna winner cannot be nominated for the Arjuna Award although an Arjuna win-
ner can be nominated for the Khel Ratna.
• The government revised the criteria for the Arjuna Award over the years according to
which a player must not only have consistently excelled at the international level for the
last four years, but should be recommended for excellence for that year.

25 Sports persons received Arjuna Awards for outstanding performance in Sports and
Games 2022.

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S. No. Name of the sportsperson Discipline.

1. Ms Seema Punia Athletics

2. Shri Eldhose Paul Athletics

3. Shri Avinash Mukund Sable Athletics

4. Shri Lakshya Sen Badminton

5. Shri Prannoy HS Badminton

6. Shri Amit Boxing

7. Ms Nikhat Zareen Boxing

8. Ms Bhakti Pradip Kulkarni Chess

9. Shri R Praggnanandhaa Chess

10. Ms Deep Grace Ekka Hockey

11. Ms Shushila Devi Judo

12. Ms Sakshi Kumari Kabaddi

13. Ms Nayan Moni Saikia Lawn Bowl

14. Shri Sagar Kailas Ovhalkar Mallakhamb

15. Ms ElavenilValarivan Shooting

16. Shri Omprakash Mitharval Shooting

17. Ms Sreeja Akula Table Tennis

18. Shri Vikas Thakur Weightlifting

19. Ms Anshu Wrestling

20. Ms Sarita Wrestling

21. Shri Parveen Wushu

22. Ms Manasi Girishchandra Joshi Para Badminton

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23. Shri Tarun Dhillon Para Badminton

24. Shri Swapnil Sanjay Patil Para Swimming

25. Ms Jerlin Anika J Deaf Badminton.

Dronacharya Award Winners

Information about Dronacharya Award: (1985-2022):
The Dronacharya Award is a sports coaching award given annually by the Ministry of
Youth Affairs and Sports. This honor is given every year to eminent coaches who have
successfully coached players or teams, due to which they have achieved outstanding success
in international competitions.

History of Dronacharya Award:

Dronacharya Award was instituted in the year 1985. The award is named after Guru Drona,
often referred to as "Dronacharya" or "Guru Drona", a character from the Sanskrit epic
Mahabharata of ancient India. He was a Master of Advanced Military warfare and the
Kaurava and Pandava princes were ordained as royal statesmen for their training in the
military arts and estrus (divine weapons).

The first recipients of the award were Bhalchandra Bhaskar Bhagwat (wrestling), Om Pra-
kash Bharadwaj (boxing), and O. M. Nambiar (athletics), who were awarded in 1985. Usu-
ally a maximum of 5 trainers are conferred with this award every year.

Amount to be received in Dronacharya Award:

The prize money given by the Government of India earlier in the country's highest sports
awards including Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna and Arjuna Award was Rs 5 lakh. But in 2017
by the Government of India, this amount has been increased from Rs 5 lakh to Rs 7 lakh 50
thousand. Under the Dronacharya award, now Rs 07 lakh 50 thousand in cash, a bronze
statue, certificate and ceremonial dress are provided.

Dronacharya Award 2022 Winners:

President Draupadi Murmu honored Raj Singh, Jeevanjot Singh Teja Mohammad Ali
Qamar, Suma Siddharth Shirur, Sujit Mann, Dinesh Jawahar Lad, Bimal Prafulla Ghosh
with the Dronacharya Award at the National Sports Awards 2022.

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List of Dronacharya Award 2022

Names of respected
The year Related Games
trainers
2022 Raj Singh Wrestling
2022 Jeevanjot Singh Teja Archery
2022 Muhammad Ali Qamar Boxing
2022 Suma Siddharth Shirur Para shooting
2022 Sujit Mann Wrestling
2022 Dinesh Jawahar Lad Cricket
2022 Bimal Prafulla Ghosh Football

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which player bagged the first gold Medal of the ISSF World Cup Shooting Champi-
onship in the Men’s 10m air pistol category?
A. Rudrankksh Patil
B. Saurabh Chaudhary
C. Abhishek Verma
D. Sarabjot Singh
E. None of these
Ans: D
Explanation:
In Madhya Pradesh, India's Sarabjot Singh bagged the first gold Medal of the ISSF World-
Cup Shooting Championship on March 22. He won gold in the Men's 10m air pistol cate-
gory. Sarabjot Singh completed a clean sweep in the gold medal match with a perfect score
of 10.9.

2. What is the rank of Lakshya Sen in the latest men’s singles rankings issued by BWF on
21 March 2023?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30

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E. None of these
Ans : C
Explanation:
Meanwhile, Commonwealth Games 2022 men's champion Lakshya Sen, the world No. 25
in the latest badminton rankings, made a first round exit after losing 21-18, 21-11 to Hong
Kong's Cheuk Yiu Lee, ranked 19th.

3. In March 2023, Kylian Mbappe will take over as captain of the football team of which
country?
A. Poland
B. Germany
C. France
D. Argentina
E. None of these
Ans : C
Explanation:
THE BIGGER PICTURE: The 24-year-old replaced Hugo Lloris as the captain of the
French national side after the Tottenham Hotspur goalkeeper retired from international foot-
ball after World Cup 2022.

4. The 2023 Swiss Open badminton tournament started in which city on 21 March 2023?
A. Zürich
B. Geneva
C. Basel
D. Bern
E. None of these
Ans : C
Explanation:
The 2023 Swiss Open (officially known as Yonex Swiss Open 2023 for sponsorship rea-
sons) was a badminton tournament which took place in St. Jakobshalle at Basel, Switzerland
from 21 to 26 March 2023, with a total prize of $210,000.

5. Who has become the first bowler in men's T20 cricket to concede zero runs from his
full quota of overs?
A. Darshan Nalkande
B. Akshay Karnewar

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C. Atharva Taide
D. Murugan Ashwin
E. None of these
Ans : B
Explanation:
The correct answer is Akshay Karnewar. Akshay Karnewar has become the first bowler in
men's T20 cricket to concede zero runs from his full quota of overs.

6. ________ to host Men's Cricket World Cup 2023.

A. England
B. Australia
C. South Africa
D. India
E. None of these
Ans: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is India. India to host Mens Cricket World Cup 2023. The 2023 Men's
ICC Cricket World Cup will be the 13th edition of the ICC Men's Cricket World Cup, sched-
uled to be hosted by India during October and November 2023.

7. The last edition of a multi-sport event was held in 2018 at the Gold Coast and the
next edition will be held in 2022 at Birmingham. Identify which multi-sport events is
being talked about?
A. Worlds Games
B. Commonwealth Games
C. Asian Games
D. Diamond League
E. None of these
Ans : B
Explanation:
Commonwealth Games –The first-ever commonwealth games took place in Canada in
1930 where 11 nations had participated. It takes place every four years. The last Common-
wealth Games took place in 2018 (Gold Coast, Australia) and the next is scheduled to be
held in 2022 in Birmingham.

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8. Which country has won the ICC Women's Cricket World Cup 2022 held on 03 April
2022?
A. England
B. Pakistan
C. India
D. Australia
E. None of these
Ans : D
Explanation:
Australia Women won by 71 runs
Meg Lanning (Aus) played in her 100th WODI.

9. Which is the national sport of the USA?

A. Carfball
B. Volleyball
C. Handball
D. Baseball
E. None of these
Ans : D
Explanation:
Baseball is the national game of the USA. Baseball is a bat-and-ball game played between
two opposing teams who take turns batting and fielding.

10. Which is the national sport of Japan?

A. Chess
B. Baseball
C. Judo
D. Football
E. None of these
Ans : C
Explanation:
Sumo wrestling is the national sport in Japan. Sumo wrestling is believed to have originated
in Japan, with its governing body being the Japan Sumo Association.

11. Which is the national sport of Spain?

A. Bullfighting

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B. Judo
C. Rugby Football
D. Lecross
E. None of these
Ans : A
Explanation:
Football is played as the National Game of Spain.
The country has singlehandedly made football one of the most viewed sports in the world, and
the media leaves no stone unturned whenever there is a football match on air. Hence, Spain's
national sport is football.

12. Donald Bradman was a great player of which sport?

A. Football
B. Tennis
C. Cricket
D. India
E. None of these
Ans : C
Explanation:
Sir Donald George Bradman, AC (27 August 1908 – 25 February 2001), nicknamed "The
Don", was an Australian international cricketer, widely acknowledged as the greatest batsman
of all time.

13. Cricketer Matthew Hayden is a player of which country?

A. Nepal
B. Sri Lanka
C. Australia
D. India
E. None of these
Ans : C
Explanation:
Hayden played as an opening batsman in the Australian team in 160 One Day Internationals
throughout his career. He made his ODI debut for Australia in 1993 against England, but after
playing 13 ODIs in 1993 and 1994, he was dropped from the team until 2000.

14. In which year did India become the champion of world cup cricket for the first time?

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A. 1981
B. 1982
C. 1983
D. 1986
E. None of these
Ans : C
Explanation:
In addition to winning the 1983 Cricket World Cup, India was also first country to win Cricket
World Cup on home soil in 2011. They were also runners-up at the 2003 Cricket World Cup,
and semifinalists four times (1987, 1996, 2015, 2019).

15. Who is the first cricketer to be awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award?
A. Ishant Sharma
B. Sachin Tendulkar
C. Rahul Dravid
D. Harbhajan Singh
E. None of these
Ans : B
Explanation:
Sachin Tendulkar- As of 2020, four cricketers have been awarded the highest sporting
award, the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna. The first recipient was Sachin Tendulkar, considered
one of the greatest batsmen of all time according to the Encyclopedia Britannica, and the first
cricketer to score 100 centuries in international competition.

16. What is the surname of Rahul Dravid?

A. Dravidian
B. Mr. Relybull
C. Rahul
D. Mr. Rajesh
E. None of these
Ans : B
Explanation:
Prior to his appointment to the senior men's national team, Dravid was the Head of Cricket
at the National Cricket Academy (NCA), and the head coach of the India Under-19 and In-
dia A teams.

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17. 'Ice Hockey' is the national sport of which country?

A. Denmark
B. Sweden
C. Scotland
D. Canada
E. None of these
Ans : D
Explanation:
Canada
Official recognition of national sports

Coun-
Sport Basis
try/Territory

Argentina Pato Argentina Decree Nº 17468

Ice hockey (winter)

Canada National Sports of Canada Act
Lacrosse (summer)

Official letter No. 269 of the Consejo Nacional

Chile Rodeo
de Deportes and Chilean Olympic Committee

Colombia Tejo Colombia Law 613

18. Who started the practice of the polo game in India?

A. Portuguese
B. Unani
C. English
D. Turk
E. None of these
Ans : D
Explanation:
Modern game. The first polo club in India was established at Silchar, Assam in 1834. In 1862,
the oldest polo club still in existence, Calcutta Polo Club, was established by two British sol-
diers, Sherer and Captain Robert Stewart.

19. Which country is called the 'father of cricket'?

A. India

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B. England
C. Sri Lanka
D. Pakistan
E. None of these
Ans : B
Explanation:
The sport of cricket has a known history beginning in the late 16th century. Having originated
in south-east England, it became an established sport in the country in the 18th century and
developed globally in the 19th and 20th centuries.

20. The word 'Checkmate' is associated with which sport?

A. Chess
B. Boxing
C. Wrestling
D. Chess
E. None of these
Ans : D
Explanation:
Checkmate (often shortened to mate) is any game position in chess and other chess-like games
in which a player's king is in check (threatened with capture ) and there is no possible escape.
Checkmating the opponent wins the game.

21. What is the width of the football goal post?

A. 23. 32 feet
B. 24.66 feet
C. 24.90 feet
D. 25.21 feet
E. None of these
Ans : B
Explanation:
They are square, rectangular, round or elliptical in shape and are not dangerous to players.
The distance between the posts is 7.320m and the distance from the lower edge of the crossbar
to the ground is 2.44m. Both goalposts and the crossbar have the same width and depth of
12cm.

22. What is the maximum permissible length of a bat in cricket?

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A. 32 inches
B. 36 inches
C. 38 inches
D. 41 inches
E. None of these
Ans : C
Explanation:
1 The overall length of the bat, when the lower portion of the handle is inserted, shall not be
more than 38 in/96.52 cm. Edges: 1.56in / 4.0cm.

23. What is the length of the cricket pitch?

A. 20.12 m
B. 20.19 m
C. 20.30 m
D. 20.50 m
E. None of these
Ans : A
Explanation:
The dimensions of a turf pitch are 20.12m long (from stump to stump)plus a minimum of
1.22m behind the stumps to accommodate the return crease and bowler approach area. The
width of a turf pitch is 3.05m. The overall dimensions of a turf wicket will vary according to
the level of cricket competition being played.

24. Which is the national sport of India?

A. Kabaddi
B. Chess
C. Hockey
D. Cricket
E. None of these
Ans : C
Explanation:
Why is Hockey considered the national game of India? Between 1928 to 1956, the Indian
hockey team won six consecutive gold medals at the Olympics. Due to the major success of
Indian hockey players, hockey is considered the national game of India.

25. Which is the national sport of Scotland?

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A. Baseball
B. Ice Hockey
C. Football
D. Rugby Football
E. None of these
Ans : D
Explanation:
Golf has been played in Scotland for more than six centuries. We're not just the 'Home of
Golf', but the birthplace too. The first courses, clubs - even rules - were established here, so
it's hardly surprising that it's one of our national pastimes. In Scotland golf belongs to one and
all.

26. In which sport is the word 'Beamer' used?

A. Football
B. Tennis
C. Chess
D. Cricket
E. None of these
Ans : D
Explanation:
The term beamer is associated with Cricket. It is a kind of ball delivered when a bowler de-
livers a high full toss ball that goes over the waist height of the batsman benchmarked when
he is standing inside the crease.

27. Mithali Raj is a famous player in which sport?

A. Football
B. Cricket
C. Chess
D. Hockey
E. None of these
Ans : B
Explanation:
Mithali Dorai Raj (born 3 December 1982) is an Indian cricketer and former captain of the
India women's national cricket team from 2004 to 2022. Mithali is the highest run-scorer in
women's international cricket and is considered one of the greatest female cricketers of all
time.

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28. Which is the national sport of Canada?

A. Baseball
B. Volleyball
C. Ice Hockey
D. Rugby Football
E. None of these
Ans : C
Explanation:
Ice hockey is a contact team sport played on ice, usually in an indoor or outdoor rink, in which
two teams of skaters use their sticks to shoot a vulcanized rubber puck into their opponent's
net to score goals.

29. Who is the third bowler in the world to take 600 wickets in Test cricket?
A. Anil Kumble
B. Jasprit Bumrah
C. Javagal Srinath
D. Ishant Sharma
E. None of these
Ans : A
Explanation:
Kumble has captured most wickets against Australia by an Indian bowler. Kumble is the third
bowler after Muttiah Muralitharan and Shane Warne to take 600 Test wickets.

30. Muttiah Muralitharan is a famous cricketer of which country?

A. Afghanistan
B. New Zealand
C. Pakistan
D. Sri Lanka
E. None of these
Ans : D
Explanation:
Muralidaran and often referred to as Murali (born 17 April 1972) is a Sri Lankan cricket coach,
former professional cricketer, businessman and a member of the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame.

31. Bullfighting is the national sport of which country?

A. Japan

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B. Spain
C. Scotland
D. Canada
E. None of these
Ans : B
Explanation:
Many supporters of bullfighting regard it as a deeply ingrained, integral part of their national
cultures; in Spain, bullfighting is nicknamed la fiesta nacional ("the national fiesta).

32. Which is called the National Recreational Game of America?

A. Handball
B. Basketball
C. Baseball
D. Volleyball
E. None of these
Ans : C
Explanation:
Baseball is considered the National game of the USA.
It is a bat and ball game that is played across the nation. It involves two opposing teams.

33. In which state of India did the game of polo become prevalent?
A. Assam
B. Mizoram
C. HP
D. Manipur
E. None of these
Ans : D
Explanation:
The modern game of polo is derived from Manipur, where the game was known as 'Sagol
Kangjei', 'Kanjai-bazee', or 'Pulu'. It was the anglicised form of the last, referring to the
wooden ball that was used, which was adopted by the sport in its slow spread to the west.

34. What is the weight of the ball used in cricket?

A. 154 grams 168 grams
B. 150 grams 168 grams
C. 155 grams 168 grams

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D. 158 grams 168 grams

E. None of these
Ans : C
Explanation:
The ball, when new, shall weigh not less than 5.5 ounces/155.9 g, nor more than 5.75
ounces/163 g, and shall measure not less than 8.81 in/22.4 cm, nor more than 9 in/22.9 cm in
circumference.

35. How many squares or squares are there in the game of chess?
A. 64
B. 65
C. 66
D. 67
E. None of these
Ans : A
Explanation:
Chess is played on a board of 64 squares arranged in eight vertical rows called files and eight
horizontal rows called ranks.

36. When is National Sports Day celebrated?

A. 12 August
B. 29 August
C. 20 August
D. 27 August
E. None of these
Ans : B
Explanation:
The National Sports Day in India is celebrated on 29 August, on the birth anniversary of
hockey player Major Dhyan Chand. This day marks the birthday of Major Dhyan Chand
Singh, the hockey player who won gold medals in Olympics for India in the years 1928, 1932
and 1936.

37. What is the height of the stump from the ground in cricket?
A. 27 inches
B. 28 inches
C. 29 inches

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D. 30 inches
E. None of these
Ans : B
Explanation:
The tops of the stumps shall be 28 in/71.12 cm above the playing surface and shall be dome
shaped except for the bail grooves. The portion of a stump above the playing surface shall be
cylindrical apart from the domed top, with circular section of diameter not less than 1.38
in/3.50 cm nor more than 1.5 in/3.81 cm.

38. In which country 'Sharjah' is the famous venue of the cricket games?
A. India
B. United Arab Emirates
C. Sri Lanka
D. Australia
E. None of these
Ans : B
Explanation:
Profile. The Sharjah Cricket Stadium, in the emirate of Sharjah in the United Arab Emirates,
was built in the early 1980s and very quickly became a regular home for tournaments as the
popularity of one-day cricket exploded following India's World Cup win in 1983.

39. Which cricket umpire is popularly known as 'Great Delay'?

A. Dicky Bird
B. Delay
C. Great
D. Crow
E. None of these
Ans : A
Explanation:
David Shepherd (umpire)

Personal information

Full name David Robert Shepherd

Born 27 December 1940 Bideford, Devon, England

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Died 27 October 2009 (aged 68) Instow, Devon, England

Nickname Shep

40. Which first Indian player scored a triple century in Test cricket?
A. Sourav Ganguly
B. Virender Sehwag
C. Sachin Tendulkar
D. Virat Kohli
E. None of these
Ans: B
Explanation:
It was on March 29, 2004, when Virender Sehwag became the first Indian batsman to score a
triple century in the longest format of the game. He achieved the feat against Pakistan at Mul-
tan. In the match, India opted to bat first and finished the first day of the Test at a score of
356/2 with Sehwag unbeaten on 228.

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POLITY
Polity refers to the organization and structure of a government or political system. It
encompasses the institutions, processes, and procedures through which power is exercised,
and decisions are made on behalf of a community or society.
Polity is not limited to just the government itself, but also includes other elements such as
the distribution of power, the role of citizens, and the relationship between different levels
of government. It can vary greatly depending on factors such as history, culture, and
ideology.
In general, polity is concerned with questions such as who holds power, how it is exercised,
how decisions are made, and how conflicts are resolved. It is a crucial aspect of any society,
as it shapes the way people live, work, and interact with each other.
Indian Constitution:
Preamble:
American constitution was the first to begin with a preamble. Many counties, including
India, followed this practice. A preamble is an introductory and expressionary statement in
a document that explains the document’s purpose and underlying philosophy.
Some statements by eminent personalities regarding the preamble of the Indian constitution
• Identity card of the constitution’- NA Palkhivala
• The preamble to our constitution expresses what we had thought or dreamt so long’- Sir
Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer
• The horoscope of our constitution’- Dr KM Munshi
• ‘It is the soul of the constitution. It is a key to the constitution. It is a jewel set in the
constitution. It is a proper yardstick with which one can measure the worth of the
constitution’- Pandit Thakur Das Bhargava
• Keynote of the constitution’- Sir Ernest Baker
Preamble is the soul of our constitution, which lays down the pattern of our political society.
It contains a solemn resolve, which nothing but a revolution can alter’- Former Chief Justice
of India, M Hidayatullah.
Four important aspects can be ascertained from the above text of the preamble.
1. Source of authority of the constitution: It derives its authority from the people of India.

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2. Nature of Indian state: It declares India to be a sovereign, socialistic, secular

democratic and republican polity.
3. Objectives of the constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the
objectives.
4. Date of adoption: Nov 26th, 1949
Key Terms In The Preamble:
• Sovereign
• Socialist
• Secular
• Democratic
• Republic
• Justice
• Liberty
• Equality
• Fraternity
Fundamental Rights:
• The Fundamental Rights is defined as the basic human rights of all citizens. These rights,
defined in Part III of the Constitution are guaranteed by the constitution to all person
without any discrimination.
• They are enforceable by the courts, subject to specific restrictions.
• The sanction behind these FRs is for promoting the ideal of political democracy.
• The concept of fundamental rights first came into being in Magna Carta in England in
1215.
• Fundamental Rights in Indian constitution is inspired by the ‘Bill of Rights’
(Fundamental Rights) included in the constitution of the USA.
• This section of the constitution is also called as Magna Carta of India
• The FRs operates as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the
legislature.
• Originally, the constitution provided for 7 FRs. However, the Right to property was
deleted by the 44th amendment act, 1978.
Fundamental Duties:
The Fundamental Duties are an important part of Indian Constitution. The duties prescribed,
embody some of the highest ideals preached by our great saints, philosophers, social

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reformers and political leaders. No Duties of the Citizen were incorporated in the original
constitution of India at the time of its commencement in 1950.
The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment
in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee that was constituted
by the government earlier that year. The Fundamental Duties help to regulate the behaviour
of the citizens and to bring about excellence in all the spheres of the citizens.
List Of Fundamental Duties:
• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and
the National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all people of India
transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce
practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
• To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and
wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.
• To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that
the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
• Subsequently, another duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of
2002: for a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education of the child or ward
between the age of six and fourteen (It was added when under Article 21A Right to
education was made a FR).

Parliament:
• Parliament is the legislative wing of the Central Government in India. It is responsible
for making laws.

• The Parliamentary form of government is adopted from Britain (westminster model).

• Part V (Article 79 - 123) of Indian Constitution gives the details of composition of both
the Houses, sessions of Parliament, Annual financial statement, Bills, Money bill, Role

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of Speaker and Chairman and their election, powers, privileges of Houses and its
members.

• Lok Sabha is also called House of people or Lower House, Rajya Sabha is also called as
Upper House or Council of states. Lok Sabha represents people of India as whole and
Rajya Sabha represents the States and Union territories.

• After Rajya Sabha passes such resolution with absolute majority then resolution has to
be passed by Lok Sabha also (Article 67).

• Rajya Sabha has the special power to pass a resolution for creation of any All-India
Services or All India Judicial Services if Rajya Sabha considers it in national interest. If
Rajya Sabha passes such resolution with special majority, then only Parliament can
legislate on this. (Article 312).

• If Rajya Sabha thinks that it is important or in the national interest to legislate on any
State subject by Parliament, then it can pass a resolution for that by 2/3 majority. Such
a resolution can be initiated only in Rajya Sabha (Article 249).

• Legislation passed under Article 249 on state subject shall remain in force for one year.
- Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in the process of impeachment of
President, removal of judges of Supreme Court, High Court, Chief Election
Commissioner and CAG.

• Speaker is the Presiding officer of Lok Sabha. He presides over the meetings of the
House of people, maintains the order of the house and the interprets the rules of
procedure for the proceedings of house.

• Speaker chairs the Joint session of both the houses and is the sole authority to decide if
a bill is Money bill or not.

Constitutional Provisions related to Parliament: Part V, Chapter II

Article 79 Constitution of Parliament
Article 80 Composition of the Council of States/Rajya Sabha
Article 81 Composition of the House of People/Lok Sabha
Article 83 Duration of Houses of Parliament
Article 84 Qualification for membership of Parliament
Article 85 Sessions, Prorogation and Dissolution

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Article 89 Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Council of States

Article 93 Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of People
Article 102 Disqualification for membership
Article 105 Powers and Privileges of the Houses of Parliament
Article 108 Joint Sitting of the House
Article 110 Definition of Money Bills
Article 111 Assent to Bills
Article 112 Annual Financial Statement
Article 114 Appropriation Bills
Article 116 Votes on account
Article 117 Finance Bills
Article 120 Language used in Parliament
Article 122 Courts not to inquire into Parliamentary proceedings
Article 123 Ordinance making Power of President

• Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the house from its members by a simple
majority of members present and voting.

• He can be removed by a resolution of the House by absolute majority. He should be

given a 14-day notice before such a resolution. Resolution must have 50 members
support in order to be introduced.

• Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Council of States (Article 64). He

presides over Rajya Sabha as its Chairman and remains in office as long as he functions
as Vice-President of India.

• He is removed from office only as Vice-President of India.

• Vice-President can be removed from the office if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by an
absolute majority and Lok Sabha approves the resolution by a simple majority.

Leader Of Opposition:
• The post Leader of Opposition existed earlier also but got statutory recognition in the
Salaries and Allowance of Leader of Opposition in the Parliament Act, 1977.

• Each house has a leader of opposition who is leader of the largest opposition party that
has not less than one-tenth of the total strength of the house.

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 249

Powers And Functions Of Lok Sabha And Rajya Sabha:

• Lok Sabha has special powers with regard to Money Bills. Money Bills can be
introduced only in Lok Sabha. After passage of Money Bill in Lok Sabha it is sent to
Rajya Sabha.

• Rajya Sabha has to return the bill to Lok Sabha within 14 days with or without any
recommendations. If Rajya Sabha does not return the Money bill within 14 days, then
Bill is considered to be passed and if Rajya Sabha returns the Bill with amendments then
too it is up to Lok Sabha whether to accept the changes or not.

• Any constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either house like ordinary bill.
Whether it is Ordinary Bill or Constitutional amendment bill it must be passed by both
the house of Parliament.

• In case of disagreement on ordinary bill, there is a provision for joint sitting of both
houses (Article 108) where, deadlocks are resolved by majority both the members of the
house present and voting. - Joint sitting is presided by Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in
his absence the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence Deputy Chairman of
the Rajya Sabha.

Powers/Functions of Rajya Sabha:

• A resolution of remove the Vice-President can be introduced in Rajya Sabha only.

Adjournment, Prorogation and Dissolution of the House

Adjournment Prorogation Dissolution

This is the suspension This is the termination of the This ends the tenure of Lok
of proceedings of session of the house. This sabha. General elections must
house for hours, days can be done even when the people after dissolution.
or weeks. This is under house is adjourned.
a session.)
This is done by the This is done by President on President dissolves the Council
presiding officer of a the recommendation of of Ministers recommend (in
House. Council of Ministers. case of end of tenure) or when
Council of Minister loses

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majority in the House of

People.

President And Vice President:

• India adopted the parliamentary system of government under which President is the
Head of the State, but he is a nominal head (de-jure). The real power lies in the hands of
Prime Minister (Head of the Government) who is de-facto ruler.

• Part 𝑉 of Indian Constitution deals with the Union Executive (Articles 52 to 78). Union
Executive comprised of the President, the Vice President, the Prime Minister, the
Council of Ministers and the Attorney General of India.

• Under Chapter I of Part V, provisions regarding qualification, election, impeachment etc.

of the President of India are provided (Article 52 to 62).

• President is an integral part of the Parliament. All the executive powers of the Union are
vested in the President which shall be exercised by him directly or through officer
subordinate to him (Article 53).

Election Of The President:

• President of India is elected by Indirect election i.e., by an electoral college in
accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single
transferrable vote.

• Electoral college consists of - elected members of both the Houses of Parliament, elected
members of Legislative assembly of the States and elected members of Union Territories
of Delhi and Puducherry.

• Method of Election of President is taken from the Irish Constitution. Any doubts and
disputes related to election of President can be challenged only in the Supreme Court of
India, which is final.

• When a permanent vacancy occurs in the office of President due to death, resignation or
removal, the Vice President acts as President and discharges the functions of office of
the President until the new president enters upon his office [Article 65(1)]. Parliament
enacted President (Discharge of functions) Act 1969, under which CJI and in his absence
seniormost judge of SC can act as President in case of vacancy.

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• The Constitution also provides that the election to fill the vacancy should be conducted
within six months of vacancy.

Qualification For Election of President:

• A person must: be a citizen of India, have completed 35 years or age, be qualified for
election as member of House of People (Lok Sabha).

• President takes an oath administered by Chief Justice of India and in his absence by
senior most judge of the Supreme Court.

• An acting President, who is temporarily discharging the functions of the President shall
also be administered oath before entering the office.

• The term of President office is 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office,
and he is eligible for re-election (Article 56-57).

• He may resign before the term of 5 years by giving resignation to the Vice President.

• He can be impeached from his office for the violation of Constitution (Article 61). But
the term violation of Constitution is not mentioned in the constitution.

• For President's impeachment, a resolution signed by not less than 1/4th of the total
members of the house could be initiated in either house, after 14 days' prior notice to
President in writing.

• The Resolution should be passed by a majority of the house not less than two third of
the total membership of the house in which the resolution originates.

• The other house investigates the charge and the resolution passed by not less than two-
third of the majority of membership of that house, the President stands removed.

• The nominated members of either House of the Parliament can take part in the
impeachment process, but the elected members of State Assemblies and UT of Delhi and
Puducherry do not take part in the impeachment.

• The current salary of the President is 5 Lakh/month since the Union Budget, 2018-19.

Appointments By President:
• Prime Minister and Council of Ministers on the advice of Prime Minister (Article 75).

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• Attorney General of India (Article 76).

• Comptroller and Auditor General (Article 148)

• Supreme Court and High Court Judges

• Chief Election Commission (Article 324)

• Finance Commission (Article 280)

• UPSC and JPSC members (Article 316)

• Special officer for S.C./S.T.

• Official Language Commission (Article 344)

• Governor (Article 155)

• Special officer for linguistic minorities [(Article 350(B)]

Important Facts Related To President:

• Impeachment process of President is taken from the U.S. Constitution.

• Second Schedule of the constitution is related to emoluments, allowances and privileges

of President.

• Governor may reserve any State bill for consideration of the President, if he thinks that
bill is of national importance (Article 201). Although, in case of the bill affecting High
Court's powers it's compulsory to keep the bill for President's consideration.

• In the last sitting of Constituent Assembly, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected Interim
President unanimously (14 Jan 1950). He was the 1st President of India and also the
longest serving.

• Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan was 1st Vice-President and 2nd President of India.
Teacher's Day is celebrated on his birthday (5 September).

• Zakir Hussain was 1st Muslim President and 3rd in row. He was shortest serving
President.

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• Fakruddin Ali Ahmed and Zakir Hussain were the only two Presidents who died in
office.

• Varahgiri Venkata Giri was the first who became acting President of India. He was the
only one, who won during second round of counting of votes with a narrow margin.

• There have been 3 interim Presidents and 14 full-time Presidents till date. Varahagiri,
Mohamad Hidayatullah and B.D. Jatti were Interim Presidents.

• Gyani Zail Singh was the 1st Sikh President. Operation Bluestar and anti-Sikh riots
happened during his tenure.

• Kochari Raman Narayan was the 1st Dalit President and the oldest President of India.

• Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam was popularly known as People's President.

• V.V. Giri was the only President to resign from acting President to contest election of
President.

• M. Hidayatullah was the 1st CJl to be appointed as an acting president.

• APJ Abdul Kalam and V.V. Giri were the President who received Bharat Ratna. -
Pratibha Patil was the 1st woman President of India. She was 12th in row.

• Neelam Sanjiv Reddy was the only President who won unopposed election. He was also
the youngest President at the age of 64 .

• Ramnath Kovind is the 14th President of India.

List of Presidents
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad January 1950 - May 1962
2. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan May 1962 - May 1967
3. Dr. Zakir Hussain May 1967 - May 1969
4. V.V. Giri May 1969 - July, 1969
5. Mohammad Hidayatullah July 1969 - August 1969
6. V.V. Giri August 1969 - August 974
7. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed August 1974 - February, 1977
8. B.D. Jatti February 1977 - July, 1977
9. N. Sanjeev Reddy July 1977 - July, 1982

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10. Gyani Zail Singh July 1982 - July, 1987

11. R. Venkataraman July 1987 - July, 1992
12. Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma July 1992 - July, 1997
13. K. R. Narayanan July 1997 - July, 2002
14. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam July 2002 - July, 2007
15. Ms. Pratibha Patil July 2007 - July, 2012
16. Pranab Mukherjee July 2012 - July, 2017
17. Ram Nath Kovind July 2017 - till recent

Vice President:
• Vice-President performs the duties of President only in his absence, illness, death,
removal, resignation or otherwise.

• When the vacancy of President falls vacant permanently due to resignation, death,
removal, then election have to be conducted within 6 months and till then Vice-President
assumes the office as an acting President.

• Vice President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

• The office of Vice President is taken from the American Constitution. - When President
is unable to discharge his duties due to illness, absence or any other reason, then Vice-
President holds office of President until he resumes office.

• When Vice-President functions as President he gets salary, allowances, privileges and

emoluments of office of President of India.

Qualifications For Vice-President:

• To contest the election of the Vice-President a person must be, A citizen of India, above
age of 35 years, must not hold office of profit, must be qualified for election of a member
of Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and he shall not be a member of either House or
Parliament.

• Vice-President is elected by both the houses of Parliament. It is an indirect election by

system of proportional representation with single transferrable vote system, by Secret
Ballot.

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• In the election of Vice-President, both elected and nominated members of Houses of

Parliament participate.

• Vice-President's hold office for a term of 5 years from the date he assumes office. He
can resign before the expiry of his term by giving his resignation to the President. He
can also be removed from his office by a resolution passed in Rajya Sabha and supported
by Lok Sabha.

• Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan (1952-62) and Hamid Ansari (2007-2017), were the two
Vice Presidents with the longest serving tenure of 10 years (2 terms).

• This oath is administered to Vice-President by President of India, or a person appointed

by him on his behalf.

• Vice-President gets salary, emoluments, allowances etc. as Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Since the Budget of 2018, Vice-President gets 4 Lakh salary per month.

List of Vice Presidents

1. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan 1952
2. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan 1957
3. Dr. Zakir Hussain 1962
4. V.V. Giri 1967
5. G.S. Pathak 1969
6. B.D. Jatti 1974
7. M. Hidayatullah 1979
8. R. Venkataraman 1984
9. Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma 1987
10. K.R. Narayanan 1992
11. Krishna Kant 1997
12. B.S. Shekhawat 2002
13. Mohd. Hamid Ansari 2007
14. Mohd. Hamid Ansari 2012
15. Venkaiah Naidu 2017

Prime Minister:
• Prime Minister is the Head of the Government and real executive authority.

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• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said that if any functionary under our Constitution is to be compared
with the US President, he is the Prime Minister and not the President of India.

• Prime Minister is appointed by the President. Article 75(1) states that Prime Minister
shall be appointed by the President and other ministers shall be appointed by President
on the advice of Prime Minister.

• President appoints the Prime Minister who is the leader of the party which won majority
seats in the Lok Sabha elections.

• President appoints the leader of largest party as Prime Minister and asks him to prove
majority or seek a vote of confidence within a month in case of lack of majority.

• By convention, Prime Minister generally belongs to Lok Sabha. But, in our

Parliamentary history there have been Prime Minister's from Rajya Sabha [e.g. I.K.
Gujral (1997), Indira Gandhi (1966), Dr. Manmohan Singh (2004)].

Prime Minister's Office:

• Prime Minister's Secretariat came into being on August 15, 1947. Since June 1977, it has
been known as Prime Minister's Office. PMO is headed by the Secretary to the Prime
Minister now designated as Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister.

Salary And Allowances:

• Prime Minister gets the same salary and allowances which are paid to the members of
Parliament.

• In addition to that he gets sumptuary allowance, free accommodations, travelling

allowance, medical facilities etc. Salary and allowances of Prime Minister are
determined by Parliament from time to time.

• Currently the PM draws a monthly salary of 1.6 lakhs.

Micellaneous Functions Of Prime Minister:

• He does Overall supervision of Union Government.

• He is the leader of Party in majority.

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• He is the Chairman of various commissions and councils like National Defense

Committee, Inter State Council, National Integration Council, CSIR.

• He is the chief spokesperson of Government. So, he announces Principal Government

Policies.

• He is the manager in Chief of the Government's business.

• He is the political head of services.

• He has special role in defense, foreign affairs, home and finance departments of country.

• Central Cabinet Secretariat is directly under the Prime Minister. Though, it's
administrative head is Cabinet Secretary who is ex-officio chairman of Civil Service
Board.

Prime Ministers of India

SR. No. Name Tenure
1. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (INC) 1947 − 1964
2. Gulzarilal Nanda (INC) 1964 − 1964
3. Lal Bahadur Shastri (INC) 1964 − 1966
4. Gulzarilal Nanda (INC) 1966 − 1966
5. Indira Gandhi (Congress - I) 1966 − 1977
6. Morarji Desai (Janta Party) 1977 − 1979
7. Chaudhari Charan Singh (Janata Party) 1979 − 1980
8. Indira Gandhi (Congress - I) 1980 − 1984
9. Rajiv Gandhi (Congress - I) 1984 − 1989
10. Vishwanath Pratap Singh 1989 − 1990
11. Chandra Shekar (SJP) 1990 − 1991
12. PV Narsimha Rao (Congress - I) 1991 − 1996
13. Atal Bihari Vajpayee (BJP) (16 days) 1996 − 1996
14. H.D. Deve Gowda (Janta Dal) 1996 − 1997
15. I. K. Gujral (Janta Dal) 1997 − 1998
16. Atal Bihari Vajpayee (BJP) 1998 − 1999
17. Atal Bihari Vajpayee (BJP) 1999 − 2004
18. Manmohan Singh (Congress - I) 2004 − 2009
19. Manmohan Singh (Congress - I) 2009 − 2014

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20. Narendra Modi (BJP) 2014 till date

• 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 during Indira Gandhi Government made
the advice tendered by Council of Ministers binding on President.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. On 27 September 2022, the State Planning Commission of Uttar Pradesh was
reconstituted and renamed as ________________.
A. The State Drafting commission
B. The State Transformation Commission
C. The State Modification commission
D. The State Development Commission
E. None of these
Ans: B. The State Transformation Commission
Explanation:
On 27 September 2022, the State Planning Commission was recreated and given the new
name State Transformation Commission during a meeting of the Uttar Pradesh Cabinet
presided over by Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath.

2. The term “safe harbour” recently seen in news is related to:

A. It is the principle that allows social media platforms to avoid liability for posts made by
users.
B. Anti-piracy initiative.
C. Money laundering.
D. Temporary refuge given to a persecuted person or group.
E. None of these
Ans: A. It is the principle that allows social media platforms to avoid liability for posts
made by users.

Explanation:
Safe harbour principle: It is the principle that so-called ‘intermediaries’ on the internet are
not responsible for what third parties post on their website. This is the principle that
allows social media platforms to avoid liability for posts made by users.

3. Who is the present Rajya Sabha Speaker?

A. Om Birla

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B. Jagdeep Dhankar
C. C. P. Joshi
D. S. Jaishankar
E. None of these
Ans: B. Jagdeep Dhankar

Explanation:
Jagdeep Dhankar is the present Rajya Sabha Speaker.

4. The original Constitution of India was handwritten by _______.

A. Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
B. Kailash Nath Katju
C. Prem Behari Narain Raizada
D. Kanaiyalal Meneklal Munshi
E. None of these
Ans: C. Prem Behari Narain Raizada

Explanation:
Prem Behari Narain Raizada (Saxena) is the man who hand wrote the original Constitution
of India. Raizada over his desk in the Constitution Hall (now Constitution Club) for six
months to handwrite 395 articles, 8 schedules, and a preamble in both English and Hindi.
He used No.303 pens for English calligraphy and Hindoo dip-pen nib from Birmingham for
Hindi calligraphy.

5. Who was the Secretary to the Constituent Assembly?

A. S.N. Mukherjee
B. H.V.R. Iyengar
C. B.N. Rau
D. Prem Behari Narain Raizada
E. None of these
Ans: B. H.V.R. Iyengar

Explanation:
The Secretary to the Constituent Assembly- H.V.R. Iyengar. The chief draftsman of the
constitution in the Constituent Assembly- S.N. Mukerjee. The Constitutional advisor (Legal
advisor) to the Constituent Assembly-Sir B.N. Rau.

6. Who is current Lok Sabha Speaker?

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A. Sumitra Mahajan
B. Sushma Swaraj
C. Balram Jakhar
D. Om Birla
E. Nitin Gadkari
Ans: D. Om Birla

Explanation:
OM Birla has been unanimously elected Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha. OM Birla is also
a second term BJP MP from Kota, Rajasthan. The Opposition did not field any candidate
for the Speaker's post and the motion moved by Prime Minister Modi to choose the Kota-
Bundi MP as Speaker was adopted by a voice vote. A total of 13 motions were moved in
support of Om Birla as the Speaker.

7. Who is the present Education Minister of India?

A. Dharmendra Pradhan
B. Shri Raj Kumar Singh
C. Mansukh L. Mandaviya
D. Ravishankar Prasad
E. None of these
Ans: A. Dharmendra Pradhan

Explanation:
Dharmendra Pradhan is the present Education Minister of India. Dharmendra Pradhan is an
Indian politician serving as the Minister of Education and Minister of Skill Development
and Entrepreneurship in the Government of India. He has also been the Minister of
Petroleum & Natural Gas and Minister of Steel.

8. MK Stalin became the _________ Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu in May 2021.
A. fifth
B. seventh
C. sixth
D. eighth
E. nine
Ans: D. eighth

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Explanation:
Muthuvel Karunanidhi Stalin is an Indian politician who took oath as the 21st Chief
Minister of Tamil Nadu, the 8th person to hold the position. Stalin along with the rest of
his cabinet took oath as the Chief Minister on 7 May 2021. They won 159 seats out 234,
with the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) itself winning an absolute majority with
132 seats. In the 2021 Assembly elections, Stalin led the campaign for the Secular
Progressive Alliance.

9. The Union Cabinet in December 2021 took the decision to raise the legal age of
marriage for women from 18 to ___.
A. 19
B. 20
C. 21
D. 22
E. 30
Ans: C. 21

Explanation:

The Union Cabinet on 15 December 2021 took the decision to raise the legal age of marriage
for women from 18 to 21 years. The legal age of marriage for men is already 21 years. The
government will amend the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, Special Marriage Act, and
the Hindu Marriage Act to implement the new decision to increase the legal age of marriage
of women.

10. What can be the minimum strength of Council of Ministers including Chief Minister
in the States?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 14
E. 24
Ans: B. 12

Explanation:
The minimum strength of council of ministers in a state as per Constitution (91st
Constitutional Amendment Act) is 12 and the maximum is 15 per cent of Legislative

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Assembly. The President of India does not have existed without the council of ministers,
but Governor has (at the time of the President’s rule).

11. Who among the following ministers has launched Ombudsperson App for Mahatma
Gandhi NREGA on 24 February 2022?
A. Giriraj Singh
B. Nitin Gadkari
C. Piyush Goyal
D. Hardeep Singh Puri
E. None of these
Ans: A. Giriraj Singh

Explanation:
Union Minister for Rural Development and Panchayati Raj Giriraj Singh (As of Feb 2022)
launched Ombudsperson App for Mahatma Gandhi NREGA on 24 Feb 2022. The app will
enable easy tracking and timely passing of awards by Ombudsperson on each case as per
the guidelines.

12. The Tenth schedule to the constitution is:

A. Provisions regarding validation of certain Acts and Regulations
B. Provisions regarding disqualification on ground of defection
C. Provisions regarding the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled
Tribes
D. Provisions regarding the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram
E. None of these
Ans: B. Provisions regarding disqualification on ground of defection

Explanation:
The Tenth schedule recently in news regarding the Supreme court's notice to Goa Assembly
Speaker on MLA disqualification proceedings. The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided
for the disqualification of the members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground
of defection from one political party to another. The Tenth schedule added under the 52nd
amendment act.

13. Who among the followings has been elected as the Chief Minister of Goa for his
second term?
A. Manohar Ajgaonkar

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B. Smt. M.C. Mary

C. Shri Maharaja Sanajaoba
D. Pramod Sawant
E. None of these
Ans: D. Pramod Sawant

Explanation:
Pramod Sawant has been elected as the Chief Minister of Goa for his second term. He will
also be the Leader of the Legislative Party for the next 5 years. He has been serving as the
CM since 2019. Sawant represents the Sanquelim constituency in the Goa Legislative
Assembly. He is also an Ayurveda medical practitioner.

14. 73rd Amendment of the Constitution of India, is related to which among the
following?
A. Townships
B. Panchayats
C. Municipalities
D. District Boards
E. None of these
Ans: B Panchayats

Explanation:
73rd Constitutional Amendment 1992 provided the present shape to the Panchayati Raj
System. Now the Panchayati Raj Institutions in most of the States have been set up at three
levels, village, intermediate and district levels. But in smaller States having a population of
less than 20 lakh, there are only two tiers, the village level and the district level.

15. For how many times, a person can become President of India?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Thrice
D. No limit
E. None of these
Ans: D. No limit

Explanation:

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Article 57: Eligibility for re-election: A person who holds, or who has held, office as
President shall, subject to the other provisions of this Constitution, be eligible for
reelection to that office.

Q 16. Which among the following is the most appropriate definition of Political liberty of
Citizens of India?
A. Right to participate in the government and assume equal opportunity to assume highest
office.
B. right to cast vote and participate in the election process.
C. Equal opportunity to freely move in the Political territories of India.
D. None of the above
E. None of these
Ans: A. Right to participate in the government and assume equal opportunity to assume
highest office.

Explanation:
The rights to life and personal liberty apply for persons of any nationality, while others,
such as the freedom of speech and expression are applicable only to the citizens of India
(including non-resident Indian citizens).

17. Who among the following has been given rights to legislate on residuary subjects?
A. State government
B. Central government
C. both central and state governments
D. President
E. None of these
Ans: B. Central government
Explanation:
Matters which are not included in any of the three lists (Union, State, Concurrent) are known
as residuary subjects.

18. Which article of the Indian constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the
Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
A. Article 22
B. Article 32
C. Article 35
D. Article 37

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E. None of these
Ans: B. Article 32

Explanation:
Article 32 has given original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court for matters regarding the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue directions,
orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo
warranto and certiorari to enforce them. Article 32 also empowers an individual to approach
directly to Supreme Court for enforcement of his fundamental rights.

19. Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States?
A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. President
D. Vice President
E. None of these
Ans: D. Vice President

Explanation:
The Vice President of India works as ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and presides
over its sessions. However, Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, who is elected from amongst
the house’s members, takes care of the day-to-day matters of the house in the absence of
the Chairman.

20. From which constitution, India has borrowed the provisions related to amendment
Constitution?
A. Weimer Republic of Germany
B. South Africa
C. Ireland
D. Canada
E. None of these
Ans: B. South Africa
Explanation:
Indian Constitution has borrowed two features viz. procedure for amendment of the
Constitution and election of members of Rajya Sabha from South African Constitution.

21. Via which among the following amendments of the Constitution of India, Delhi was
designated as National Capital Territory (NCT)?

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A. 63rd Amendment Act

B. 69th Amendment Act
C. 74th Amendment Act
D. 76th Amendment Act
E. None of these
Ans: B. 69th Amendment Act
Explanation:
Constitution (69th) Amendment Act, 1991 accorded a special status to the Union Territory
of Delhi by designing it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi.

22. The constitution of India mandates that State may reserve any post or appointment in
favour of any backward class of citizens who are not adequately represented in the services
under that State. Who decides whether such class of citizens is adequately represented or
not?
A. Governor
B. President of India
C. Supreme Court of India
D. State itself
E. None of these
Ans: D. State itself
Explanation:
The State may reserve any post or appointment in favour of any backward class of citizens
who, in the opinion of the State, are not adequately represented in the services under that
State. [Article 16(4)]

23. Who called the parliamentary system as ‘cabinet system’?

A. Lord Morely
B. Ivor Jennings
C. Sir William Vernor Harcourt
D. H.J. Laski
E. None of these
Ans: B. Ivor Jennings
Explanation:
It was Ivor Jennings who called the parliamentary system as ‘cabinet system’ because the
cabinet is the nucleus of power in a parliamentary system. Ivor Jennings was a British
Lawyer and an academician.

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24. Who characterises the Indian system as “extremely federal”?

A. Paul Appleby
B. KC Wheare
C. K Santhanam
D. Morris Jones
E. None of these
Ans: A. Paul Appleby

Explanation:
Paul Appleby has characterised the Indian system as “extremely federal”. He was an
important theorist from pf public administration in democracies from United States of
America. Morris Jones has termed it as “bargaining federalism”.

25. Which of the following is not one of the essential qualifications for the candidature of
President?
A. Citizen of India
B. Qualified for election as a member of the house of people.
C. Completion of 35 years of age
D. Tenth pass
E. None of these
Ans: D. Tenth pass
Explanation:
The Article 58(1) of the Constitution of India has enumerated the qualifications for the
election of President of India. These are: He should be a citizen of India, he should have
completed 35 years of age, he should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha
and he should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any state
government or any local authority or any other public authority.

26. In how much time the vacant post of President should be filled?
A. 60 days
B. 90 days
C. 6 months
D. 9 months
E. None of these
Ans: C. 6 months

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Explanation:
According to the Article 62(2) of the Constitution of India the vacant post of the President
should be filled within six months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy because of
his death, resignation or removal.
27. According to which Constitutional Amendment defectors have no more protection on
grounds of splits?
A. 91st
B. 96th
C. 99th
D. 100th
E. 80th
Ans: A. 91st
Explanation:
According to the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 the provision of the 10th Schedule (anti-
defection law) pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third
members of legislature party has been deleted. Accordingly, the defectors have no more
protection on grounds of splits.

28. The 100th Amendment Act, 2015 gave effect to the acquiring of certain territories by
India and transfer of certain other territories to which country?
A. Pakistan
B. Nepal
C. Bhutan
D. Bangladesh
E. None of these
Ans: D. Bangladesh
Explanation:
The 100th Amendment in 2015 to the Constitution of India gave effect to the acquiring of
certain territories by India and transfer of certain other territories to Bangladesh in
pursuance of the Land Boundary Agreement (1974) and its Protocol of 2011.
29. Which of the following represent the qualifications needed to be appointed as a judge
of the Supreme Court?
A. The person should have been a judge of a High Court for five years.
B. The person should have been an advocate of a High Court
C. The person should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.

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D. Both A and B
E. All of the above
Ans: E. All of the above

Explanation:
To be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court a person should have the following
qualifications: (1) He should be a citizen of India, (2) He should have been a judge of a
High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years; or he should have been an advocate
of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; or he should be a distinguished
jurist in the opinion of the president.
30. Which of the following is correct with respect to power of Judicial Review of Supreme
Court?
A. Supreme Court can charge allegations against Prime Minister.
B. Supreme Court has final authority over all issues.
C. Supreme Court can review the issues decided by High Courts.
D. Supreme Court can declare illegal any law of the State.
E. None of these
Ans: D. Supreme Court can declare illegal any law of the State.
Explanation:
The doctrine of Judicial Review states that if any laws are found to be violative of the
Constitution of India (ultra-vires), the Supreme Court can declare them illegal,
unconstitutional and invalid (null and void).
31. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has used its power of judicial review?
A. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
B. Privy Purses Abolition case (1971)
C. Minerva Mills case (1980)
D. Both A and B
E. All of the above
Ans: E. All of the above
Explanation:
Golaknath case (1967), the Bank Nationalisation case (1970), the Privy Purses Abolition
case (1971), the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and the Minerva Mills case (1980) are
some of the landmark cases in which the Supreme Court has used its power of judicial
review.

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32. Who is empowered to constitute a GST Council?

A. The Parliament
B. The President
C. The Prime Minister
D. The Rajya Sabha
E. None of these
Ans: B. The President
Explanation:
Article 279-A of the Constitution of India empowered the President to constitute a GST
Council by an order. The Council is a joint forum of the Centre and the States. The council
makes recommendations to the centre.
33. What action can the Governor take on a bill sent to him after it is passed by the state
legislature?
1. Give his assent to the bill
2. Withhold his assent to the bill
3. Return the bill for reconsideration of the state legislature
4. Reserve the bill for the consideration of the President
Select the correct code from the options given below:
A. All of the above
B. Only 1 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 3 and 4
E. None of these
Ans: A. All of the above
Explanation:
After a bill is passed by state legislature and is sent to the Governor, he can take following
actions:
(a) Give his assent to the bill
(b) Withhold his assent to the bill
(c) Return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the state legislature
(d) Reserve the bill for the consideration of the President

34. Which Article states that it shall be the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to
the governor of the state all decisions of the council of ministers relating to the
administration of the affairs of the state and proposals for legislation?
A. Article 157

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B. Article 167
C. Article 177
D. Article 187
E. None of these
Ans: B. Article 167
Explanation:
Article 167 of the Constitution of India states that it shall be the duty of the Chief Minister
to communicate to the governor of the state all decisions of the council of ministers relating
to the administration of the affairs of the state and proposals for legislation.
35. Which Article of the Constitution state that all executive action of the Government of a
State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor?
A. Article 163
B. Article 164
C. Article 165
D. Article 166
E. None of these
Ans: D. Article 166
Explanation:
Article 166 of the Constitution of India states that all executive action of the Government
of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor of the state.
36. Calcutta High Court was established in which year?
A. 1872
B. 1862
C. 1888
D. 1890
E. 1896
Ans: B. 1862
Explanation:
The High Court of Calcutta was established in the year 1862. It also has jurisdiction over
Andaman & Nicobar Islands of India. A circuit bench of Calcutta High Court sits at Port
Blair.
37. Which of the following does the appointment, posting and promotion of district judges
in a state?
A. Governor

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B. Governor of the state in consultation with the high court

C. High Court
D. Supreme Court
E. None of these
Ans: B. Governor of the state in consultation with the high court
Explanation:
The appointment, posting and promotion of judges of a district court in a state are made by
the governor of the concerned state in consultation with the high court of the state.
38. Lok Adalat are based on the principles of?
A. B.R. Ambedkar
B. M.K. Gandhi
C. Jai Prakash Narayan
D. Subhash Chandra Bose
E. None of these
Ans: B. M.K. Gandhi
Explanation:
The word ‘Lok Adalat’ refers to ‘People’s Court’. This system is based on Gandhian
principles. and is one of the components of ADR (Alternative Dispute Resolution) system
in India.
39. In which year, Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed to examine the working
of the Community Development Programme?
A. 1951
B. 1954
C. 1957
D. 1960
E. 1965
Ans: C. 1957
Explanation:
The Indian Government in January 1957, a committee was appointed to examine the
working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension
Service (1953) and to suggest measures for their better working.
40. The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 added which part to the Constitution of India?
A. Part IX
B. Part IX B

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C. Part X
D. Part XI
E. None of these
Ans: A. Part IX
Explanation:
The 73rd Amendment Act has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. This part is
entitled as ‘The Panchayats’. It consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O in the
Constitution of India.
41. Which article of the Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain
areas designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’?
A. Article 243
B. Article 244
C. Article 245
D. Article 246
E. None of these
Ans: B. Article 244
Explanation:
The Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution of India envisages a special system of
administration for certain areas which are designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas.
42. Which of the following are the functions of the Central Council of Local Government?
A. Making proposals for legislation.
B. Recommending Central financial assistance.
C. Examining the possibility of cooperation between the Centre and the states
D. Both A and B
E. All of the above
Ans: D. All of the above
Explanation:
Following are the functions performed by the Central Council of Local Government-
1. Considering and recommending the policy matters
2. Making proposals for legislation
3. Examining the possibility of cooperation between the Centre and the states
4. Drawing up a common programme of action

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5. Recommending Central financial assistance

6. Reviewing the work done by the local bodies with the Central financial assistance
43. Who notifies the dates and schedules of elections in India?
A. Parliament
B. Prime Minister
C. President
D. Election Commission
E. None of these
Ans: D. Election Commission
Explanation:
The Election Commission of India performs the function of notifying the dates and
schedules of elections and it also scrutinises the nomination papers.
44. Who prepares a roster for publicity of the policies of the political parties on radio and
TV in times of elections?
A. Cabinet
B. Vice-President
C. A committee is constituted for the same.
D. Election Commission
E. None of these
Ans: D. Election Commission
Explanation:
The Election Commission of India prepares a roster for publicity of the policies of the
political parties on radio and TV in times of elections in India.
45. Which article of the constitution authorities the Parliament to prescribe the duties and
powers of the CAG in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the states and of any
other authority or body?
A. Article 147
B. Article 148
C. Article 149
D. Article 150
E. Article 151
Ans: C. Article 149

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Explanation:
The Article 149 of the Constitution of India authorises the Indian Parliament to prescribe
the duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) in relation to
the accounts of the Union and of the states and of any other authority or body.
46. Under which article of the constitution, it is the duty of the CAG to ascertain and certify
the net proceeds of any tax or duty?
A. Article 278
B. Article 279
C. Article 280
D. Article 281
E. None of these
Ans: B. Article 279
Explanation:
According to article 279 of the Constitution of India it is the duty of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India to ascertain and certify the net proceeds of any tax or duty. His
certificate is final in this regard.
47. Where is the headquarters of Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO)?
A. Mumbai
B. New Delhi
C. Jaipur
D. Lucknow
E. None of these
Ans: B. New Delhi
Explanation:
The Headquarter of Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) is in NITI
Aayog, New Delhi. DMEO has been mandated to actively monitor and evaluate the
implementation of the programmes and initiatives of the Government.
48. Who said “It is not a change of name. The Planning Commission is being abolished
because they (government) don’t believe in planning,”?
A. Abhishek Manu Singhvi
B. Sitaram Yechury
C. Md Selim
D. Gurudas Dasgupta
E. None of these

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Ans: D. Gurudas Dasgupta

Explanation:
Communist Party of India leader Gurudas Dasgupta said “It is not a change of name. The
Planning Commission is being abolished because they (government) don’t believe in
planning,”.
49. Which of the following statements regarding Lokayukta are correct?
A. Lokayukta has no accountability to the governor.
B. He cannot ask for relevant files and documents from the state government departments.
C. Recommendations made by the lokayukta are mandatory.
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above
Ans: E. None of the above
Explanation:
Lokayukta is supposed to present an annual consolidated report of his performance to the
governor of the state. He is also empowered to ask for relevant files and documents from
the state government departments. Finally, the recommendations made by him are only
advisory.
50. Which article of the Constitution protects the President or Governor of a state against
criminal proceedings in any court, during the time they hold office?
A. Article 360
B. Article 361
C. Article 361 (1)
D. Article 361 (2)
E. None of these
Ans: D. Article 361 (2)
Explanation:
The Article 361 (2) of the Constitution of India protects criminal proceedings against the
President of India or Governor of a state in any court, during the time they hold office.

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INDEXES AND REPORTS

"Index" refers to a list of items or topics that are included in a larger document or
publication. It provides a quick reference guide for the reader to easily locate specific
information within the document. An index is usually placed at the end of a document, and
it is typically organized alphabetically.

A "report" is a document that presents information about a specific topic or issue. It is often
used to communicate the results of research or analysis to a specific audience. A report
usually includes an introduction, a body of information, and a conclusion or
recommendations. Depending on the purpose of the report, it may also include a table of
contents, appendices, and references.

Index, ranks, and reports indicate the measurements of the data and the establishment of a
comparison between the data set. Index, ranks, and reports are elements that help to
understand the value differences. In the stock market, these kinds of reports and indexes are
utilized to understand the market value fluctuations. Nasdaq composite index, Democracy
indices, and Economic index are utilized to understand the stock market fluctuations.
Nasdaq composite index is the list of domestic and international stocks, Democracy indices
are an index of the private market, and the Economic index is for measuring economic
health.

Nasdaq composite index

The Nasdaq composite index is an index that is known for its information provision for the
stock market values. This index is known for its numerical presentation and the guidance
from the stock market fluctuations. This index is ideal to follow because of the right
projection of the numerical. However, it does not cover all the stock markets and only works
for providing information on information technology.

In this index, information related to both financial and non-financial firms is provided that
helps people to understand the business costs related to the information technology market.
As most firms are doing online businesses thus, information technology for managing and
using data has become a popular element. The investment process in Nasdaq composite
index comprises mutual fund investments, exchange trade market values, and so on.

Democracy index
The democracy indices are known for their numerical presentation of the values related to
the democratic information. The index is compiled with the Economist group which is a

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part of the ‘Economic Intelligence Unit’ in the UK. It comprises the information related to
full democracy, the flawed arrears of the selective democracies, and the regimes that are
both hybrid and authoritative. The frequency’s updated data helps to find out information
related to democratic movements. The Economist posts pieces of information related to
democracy from time to time and the annual index provides brief information about the
democratic movements. The index describes the information that is based on the surveys
and it has been found that most of the data got lost or most of the countries do not focus on
conducting surveys. The categories of the democratic indices are free speech, equality,
citizenship, governance, voting rights, liberty becomes a complicated thing to judge because
of the poor information. The numerical presentation of the data also becomes complicated
in that context. The quantity and the standard value base are differentiated here.

Economic index
The economic index is known for the presentation of financial data and the index is known
for presenting statistical information that helps to measure the changes in the country’s
economic areas. This index includes information related to company performance, price
changes, production areas, and revenue collection that are influencing the market as well.
The tracking procedure becomes ideal with the informative areas that support people’s
decisions while purchasing stocks, investing funds, on brokerage, and also penetrates the
reason of inflation. The service related to goods and the level of price growth becomes the
ideal instrument that leaves the legacy of the market management in a comparative way.

Recent in News updated on 11 January 2022

According to the latest Henley Passport Index, Japan has retained its position as the most
favorable passport in the world, allowing visa-free entry to 193 global destinations. which
the country tops for the fifth consecutive year. Singapore and South Korea came in a joint
second on the ranking, followed by Germany and Spain, and then a slew of other European
nations.

Delhi was the most polluted city in India in 2022 with PM 2.5 levels more than double the
safe limit and the third highest average PM10 concentration, according to an analysis of
Central Pollution Control Board data.

Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID) has been ranked 1st in Services
Sectors across categories Gross Block, Value Addition, Net Profit, Net Worth, Dividend
Declaration, and Contribution to the Central Exchequer and has also been ranked 3rd among
the Top 10 profit-making Closes. The results were published in the Public Enterprises
Survey 2021-2022 by the Department of Public Enterprises (DPE), Ministry of Finance,
Government of India.

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Bangalore’s Kameda International Airport and Delhi’s Indira Gandhi International (IGI)
Airport both ranked second and seventh in Cerium’s list of the world’s best-performing
airports for 2022.

Cuisines of the World: India is ranked fifth on the global list of the best cuisines for 2022,
according to Taste Atlas.

India’s badminton star, PV Sindhu is the only Indian sportsperson to feature in the top 25
of Forbes’ annual list of the world’s highest-paid female athletes.
Bollywood superstar, Shah Rukh Khan has become the only Indian to be named in an
international list of 50 greatest actors of all time by a Empire British magazine.

Social Progress Index (SPI) for States and Districts made by the Institute for
Competitiveness and Social Progress Imperative was submitted to Economic Advisory
Council- Prime Minister and released.

Union Minister for Science and Technology, Jitendra Singh has revealed that India had
jumped from 7th to 3rd in global scientific publications and scholarly output, according to
a report by America’s National Science Foundation.

The 2022 Global Food Security Index (GFSI) report was released by the British weekly The
Economist. The 11th Global Food Security Index shows a deterioration in the global food
environment for the third year, threatening food security. In this report, South Africa
overtook Tunisia to become the most food-secure country in Africa.

The United Nations has recognized the Namami Gange initiative to rejuvenate India’s
sacred River Ganga as one of the top 10 World Restoration Flagships to revive the natural
world. The award was received by G Ashok Kumar, Director General, Namami Gange, at
the 15th Conference of the Convention on Biodiversity (CBD) in Montreal, Canada.

JANUARY 2023
Rank/ Index Name By whom India's Rank Important Facts
Shahrukh Khan only
list of 50 greatest Empire British
- Indian actor in the
actors Magazine
list
Henley Passport Japan 1st rank
Henley and Partners 85
Index Singapore and

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South Korea: 2nd

Afghanistan last
Cuisines of the Italy 1st, Greece
Taste Atlas 5
World 2nd, Spain 3rd
Power Grid
Department of
Corporation of India
Public Enterprises
PE Survey - Limited
(DPE), Ministry of
(POWERGRID)
Finance
topped it
Topped by Haneda,
world's best. Tokyo Japan
cerium’s list -
performing airports Bangalore 2 Delhi
7th

DECEMBER 2022
Rank/ Index Name By whom India's Rank Important Facts
PV Sindhu is the
World’s Highest-
only Indian to be in
Paid Female Forbes -
the list. Topped by
Athletes.
Naomi Osaka
Puducherry topped
he index assesses
states and districts
based on 12
components across
three critical
dimensions of social
progress – Basic
Institute for Human Needs,
Social Progress
Competitiveness Foundations of
Index (SPI) For -
and Social Progress Wellbeing, and
States And Districts
Imperative Opportunity. The
index uses an
extensive
framework
comprising 89
indicators at the
state level and 49 at
the district level.

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Global Scientific
America’s National
Publications And 3 -
Science Foundation.
Scholarly Output
10 World
Namami Gange one
Restoration UN -
of them
Flagships
2022 Global Food
Security Index The Economist 68 -
(GFSI) Report
Administrative
Reforms and Public
Grievance Redressal
Grievances - topped by UIDA
Index
Department
(DARPG)
topped by USA
Apple retained the
title of the most
valuable company
Reliance Industries
Hurun Global 500 Hurun Research
5 (RIL) topped the
Rankings Institute
charts of Indian
companies, while it
ranked 34th in the
world

Ursula von der

Leyen sits atop
6 Indian , Nirmala
World’s 100 Most
Sitharaman on top.
Powerful Women’ Forbes -
At rank 100,
List
Iran’s Jina “Mahsa”
Amini

topped by UAE
Passport Index Arton Capital 87 Last: Afghanistan

16th edition Gautam

Adani, HCL
Asia Heroes Of Technologies’ Shiv
Forbes -
Philanthropy List Nadar, and Happiest
Minds
Technologies’

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Ashok Sota in the

list

Four
Indians: Actress
100 Most Influential Priyanka Chopra
Jonas, author
Women In The Geetanjali Shree,
BBC -
World engineer and
astronaut Sirisha
Bandla, and social
worker Sneha
Jewelle
Pakistan Topped,
Highest risk for Yemen ranked
Early Warning
mass killing in 2022 Project 8, earlier it was 2 second, Myanmar
third
and 2023
Singapore(1st),
followed by the
International Civil
UAE and South
Global Aviation Aviation
48 Korea at the second
Safety Ranking Organization
and third positions,
(ICAO)
respectively. China
is at the 49th place.
1. Gautam Adani
($150 billion),
India’s 100 Richest
Forbes - 2. Mukesh Ambani,
2022 3. Radhakish and
Damani

November 2022

Rank/ Index Name By whom India’s Rank Important Facts

Dubai
(1st),Wellington was
Global Prime Cities the weakest.
Knight Frank -
Index
Mumbai got 22nd
rank, highest in

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India. earlier it
has 39th rank.

The prime global

cities index is a
valuation-based
index tracking the
movement in prime
residential prices in
local currency across
45-plus cities
worldwide.

PM Modi topped,
followed by
Mexican President
Andrés Manuel
Global Leader López Obrador at 69
Morning Consult. -
Approval Ratings per cent
and Australian
PM Anthony
Albanese at 56 per
cent,

REPORTS HIGHLIGHTS

Reports: January 2023

According to a survey by Avtar, a company that specializes in workplace inclusion, Chennai
is India’s top city for women’s employment. Pune, Bengaluru, Hyderabad, and Mumbai are
the next best cities for women’s employment.

A total of 1,668 Journalists have been killed worldwide with murders, contract killings,
ambushes, war zone deaths, and fatal injuries in last two decades. report from Reporters
without borders.

Reports: December 2022

YouTube creators contributes over Rs 10,000 cr to India’s GDP: According to YouTube, its
creative ecosystem supported more than 750,000 full-time equivalent jobs in India in 2021.

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The Union Minister of Housing and Urban Affairs, Hardeep Singh Puri launched draft
guidelines for a new ranking system of cities based on finance and beauty.

The Guru Nanak Dev University, Amritsar has got A grade by scoring 3.85 points in
National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) grading, thereby becoming the
only University in India to get this score. GNDU is the only State/Central/Private University
in India to get this score. Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS) is the only other
educational institution with a higher grade of 3.89 in the country.

Three new cultural sites in India, including the iconic Sun Temple at Modera, historic
Vedanga town in Gujarat, and rock-cut relief sculptures of Unakite in Tripura, have been
added to the tentative list of UNESCO world heritage sites.

A study report, titled ‘Carbon Capture, Utilizations, and Storage Policy Framework and its
Deployment Mechanism in India’, was released by NITI Aayog. The report explores the
importance of Carbon Capture, Utilizations, and Storage as an emission reduction strategy
to achieve deep decarbonization from the hard-to-abate sectors. The report outlines broad
level policy interventions needed across various sectors for its application.

Google has released its “Year in Search 2022” report, which highlights the topics that
generated the most interest and were most frequently searched: IPL most searched in India
and Wordle in the world.

The British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC) has published the list of 100 most influential
women in the world and has included women from several areas such as politics, science,
sports, entertainment, and literature. The BBC’s 100 most influential women’s list also
includes four Indians: Actress Priyanka Chopra Jonas, author Geetanjali Shree, engineer
and astronaut Sirisha Bandla, and social worker Sneha Jewelle.

According to GroupM’s global end-of-year forecast, India is expected to surpass Brazil to

become the eighth-largest advertising market in 2023. In ‘This Year, Next Year 2022’,
GroupM has ranked India as the ninth-largest advertising market globally.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. As per the latest data of the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), which state
has lowest unemployment rate in the country?
A. Punjab
B. Kerala

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C. Chhattisgarh
D. Telangana
E. None of these
Ans: C. Chhattisgarh

Explanation:
According to the latest data released by the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE),
Chhattisgarh has the lowest unemployment rate in the country, at 0.6 per cent.
The country’s unemployment rate stood at 7.6 per cent in the same month (March). As per
the data, Haryana has the highest unemployment rate at 26.7 per cent, followed by
Rajasthan and Jammu and Kashmir. The state has launched various schemes including Suraj
Gaon Yojana, Nerva-Grava-Gaurav-Bari programmed, Gordhan Nay Yojana, Rajiv Gandhi
Kisan Nay Yojana etc.

2. How many Indians feature in the Forbes Billionaires List 2022?

A. 28
B. 75
C. 166
D. 321
E. 200
Ans: C. 166

Explanation:
As per the Forbes Billionaires List 2022, Indian billionaires increased to a record high of
166 from 140 last year, with a combined wealth of USD 760 billion. He ranked at the 10th
position on the global list.
Reliance Industries Chairman and Managing director Mukesh Ambani continues to stay on
top of the list as the richest Indian with a net worth of USD 90.7 billion. Tesla and Space X
chief Elon Musk emerged as the richest person in the world.

3. Which institution released the ‘Expanding Heat Resilience’ report?

A. India Meteorological Department
B. Food and Agricultural Organization
C. NITI Aayog
D. Natural Resources Defense Council (NRDC)
E. None of these
Ans: D. Natural Resources Defense Council (NRDC)

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Explanation:
Natural Resources Defense Council (NRDC), a non-profit has authored the ‘Expanding
Heat Resilience’ report.
As per the report, extreme temperatures are being recorded in Himachal Pradesh and Kerala,
the states with no history of heatwaves. The number of states affected by heat-waves was
at 28 in 2019, up from 19 the year before.

4. As per recent Oxfam report, _____ are living below the poverty line, while a new person
becomes a billionaire every _____ since the beginning of the pandemic.
A. 1.1 billion, 3 days
B. 2.2 billion, 2 days
C. 4.4 billion, 12 hours
D. 3.3 billion, 26 hours
E. None of these
Ans: D. 3.3 billion, 26 hours

Explanation:
According to a new report by Oxfam, around half of the global population (3.3 billion) are
living below the poverty line, while a new person becomes a billionaire every 26 hours
since the beginning of the pandemic.
The report also warned that over a quarter of a billion people will be pushed into poverty in
2022. The worldwide financial crisis will be mainly driven by the price inflation due to
Russia’s invasion of Ukraine and economic crisis caused by the COVID-19 pandemic.

5. Which institution releases the ‘Report on Currency and Finance (RCF)’?

A. Ministry of Finance
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. National Payment Corporation of India
D. NITI Aayog
E. None of these
Ans: D. NITI Aayog

Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the ‘Report on Currency and Finance (RCF)’ for
the year 2021-22.
As per the report, price stability is a necessary precondition for strong and sustainable
growth. It also proposed a seven-point blueprint for reforms. The Indian economy may take
12 years to overcome the losses emanating from the COVID-19 pandemic, which account
to Rs 52 Lakh Crores.

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6. What is the rank of India in the ‘RSF 2022 World Press Freedom Index’?
A. 87
B. 104
C. 150
D. 176
E. None of these
Ans: C. 176

Explanation:
According to the RSF 2022 World Press Freedom Index, India’s ranking has fallen down to
150th position from last year’s 142nd place.
This year, Norway (1st) Denmark (2nd) and Sweden (3rd) were ranked at the top positions,
while North Korea remained at the bottom of the list of 180 countries and territories.
Reporters sans frontiers (RSF) or Reporters without Borders, a global media watch-dog
releases the report every year.

7. ‘Eco wrap report’ is a flagship research report released by which institution?

A. RBI
B. SBI
C. NITI Aayog
D. Pratham Foundation
E. None of these
Ans: C. NITI Aayog

Explanation:
State Bank of India’s latest Eco wrap recent report stated that ‘Income inequality in India
has been on a decline since FY17’.
The report noted that India also fared well during coronavirus pandemic in terms of
navigating income shocks across population. Sikkim and Goa led the states with a ratio of
per capita income exceeding 3.

8. Which is the most unsafe metropolitan city for women across the country, as per recent
NCRB Report?
A. New Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Bengaluru
D. Kolkata
E. None of these
Ans: A. New Delhi

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Explanation:
The latest National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) report showed that the cases of crimes
against women in Delhi accounted for 32.20% of total crimes among all 19 metro cities.
Delhi is the most unsafe metropolitan city for women across the country, followed by
Mumbai and Bengaluru.
The report also noted that the burden of deaths by suicide has increased in India by 7.2 per
cent from 2020, with a total of 1,64,033 people dying by suicide in 2021.

9. Which is the only bank in India to be chosen for ‘Best Workplaces in Asia 2022’ by Great
Place to Work authority?
A. Bank of India
B. Federal Bank
C. Axis Bank
D. Central Bank of India
E. State Bank of India
Ans: B. Federal Bank

Explanation:
Indian private sector bank Federal Bank was ranked 63rd on the Best Workplaces in Asia
2022 list. It becomes the only bank in India to be listed by Great Place to Work, the
international authority on workplace culture.
The report assesses employee experiences of trust, innovation, company values and
leadership. Companies are also evaluated on how well they are creating workplace
experience, inclusive of all employees.

10. Which institution released the ‘Global Vaccine Market Report 2022’?
A. WHO
B. UNEP
C. John Hopkins University
D. Delhi University
E. Oxford University
Ans: A. WHO

Explanation:
The World Health Organization (WHO) has recently released the ‘Global Vaccine Market
Report 2022’.
As per the report, approximately 16 billion vaccine doses, worth USD 141 billion, were
supplied in 2021. The increase was primarily driven by COVID-19 vaccines. It also
revealed that limited vaccine supply and unequal distribution drive global disparities..

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11. Which organization released ‘Guidelines on mental health at work’?

A. UNESCO
B. WHO
C. World Bank
D. World Economic Forum
E. State Bank of India
Ans: B. WHO

Explanation:
The World Health Organization (WHO) and International Labour Organization (ILO) have
issued guidelines to address mental health issues among the global workforces.
The guidelines recommended measures to address threats to mental health such as excessive
workloads and negative behaviors. As per WHO, Depression and anxiety account for 12
billion lost workdays annually, costing the world economy close to USD 1 trillion.

12. Which institution released the Adaptation Gap Report 2022?

A. UNESCO
B. WHO
C. World Bank
D. World Economic Forum
E. UNEP
Ans: E. UNEP

Explanation:
The United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) launched a report titled ‘Adaptation
Gap Report 2022: Too Little, Too Slow – Climate adaptation failure puts world at risk’.
The report finds that the world must urgently increase efforts to adapt to these impacts of
climate change. The report also lists the progress in planning, financing, and implementing
adaptation actions.

13. Which institution is ranked at the top spot from India in the QS Asia University
rankings?
A. IIT Delhi
B. WHO
C. IIT Madras
D. IIT Bombay
E. UNEP
Ans: C. IIT Madras

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Explanation:
A total of 118 Indian universities have figured in 2023 edition of Aquarelle Symonds (QS)
Asia University Rankings.
IIT Bombay has been placed at 40th rank this year. It is the top-ranking institution from
India. IIT-B is followed by IIT Delhi (46), Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore (52)
and IIT Madras (59). In the top 10, five universities are from China.

14. Which institution announced that ‘Religious freedom and related human rights in India’
are under ongoing threat?
A. UNESCO
B. WHO
C. UNICEF
D. USCIRF
E. UNEP
Ans: D. USCIRF

Explanation:
The U. S. Commission for International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) announced that
religious freedom and related human rights in India are under ongoing threat.
This was announced in the year-end update of the status of its assessment of religious
freedom in the country. In its 2022 Annual Report USCIRF recommended that the US
Department of State designate India as a ‘country of particular concern’.

15. Which institution released the Adaptation Gap Report 2022?

A. WEF
B. UNEP
C. UNFCCC
D. NITI Aayog
E. None of these
Ans: B. UNEP

Explanation:
The United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) launched a report titled ‘Adaptation
Gap Report 2022: Too Little, Too Slow – Climate adaptation failure puts world at risk’.
The report finds that the world must urgently increase efforts to adapt to these impacts of
climate change. The report also lists the progress in planning, financing, and implementing
adaptation actions.

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16. As per a recent global study on snake bites, the number of deaths due to snakebites was
the highest in which country?
A. Ghana
B. Sri Lanka
C. India
D. Egypt
E. None of these
Ans: C. India

Explanation:
A new global study has found that over 63,000 people died across the world due to
snakebites in 2019, and out of this, the number of deaths was the highest in India at more
than 51,000.
In the study authored by the ‘Global Burden of Disease (GBD),’ snakebite envenoming is
the deadliest neglected tropical disease (NTD).

17. Which institution released the ‘Global Wage Report 2022-2023’?

A. UNICEF
B. ILO
C. NITI Aayog
D. Egypt
E. World Bank
Ans: B. ILO

Explanation:
According to a new International Labour Organization (ILO) report titled ‘the Global Wage
Report 2022-2023’, the severe inflationary crisis combined with a global slowdown in
economic growth are causing a striking fall in real monthly wages in many countries.
The slowdown is driven in part by the war in Ukraine and the global energy crisis.
According to the report, the crisis is reducing the purchasing power of the middle classes
and hitting low-income households.

18. Which institution released the ‘State of Finance for Nature 2022 ‘ Report?
A. UNICEF
B. ILO
C. NITI Aayog
D. UNEP
E. FAQ
Ans: D. UNEP

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Explanation:
The UN Environment Programmed (UNEP) and the Economics of Land Degradation
(ELD) Initiative jointly released ‘State of Finance for Nature 2022 ‘Report.
It shows that current finance flows to nature-based solutions (NBAs) are at USD 154 billion
per year, which is less than half of the USD 384 billion per year needed by 2025.

19. Which country is the host of the ‘United Nations 2023 Water Conference’?
A. Bangladesh
B. ILO
C. USA
D. UNEP
E. FAQ
Ans: C. USA

Explanation:
The report titled “Global Bottled Water Industry: A Review of Impacts and Trends” was
released recently ahead of the United Nations 2023 Water Conference.
The Conference is to be hosted in New York, USA. The report revealed that the bottled
water industry is masking the existing issue of the lack of reliable drinking water for all.

20. What is the rank of India in the Global Terrorism Index?

A. 8th
B. 13th
C. 21th
D. 25th
E. 26th
Ans: B. 13th

Explanation:
India ranked 13th on Global Terrorism Index. Afghanistan is at the top of this index.
The GTI is based on data from the Global Terrorism Database, which is collected and
collated by the National Consortium for the Study of Terrorism and Response to Terrorism
at the University of Maryland.
The index provides a comprehensive summary of major global trends and patterns in
terrorism since 2000.

21. What is the rank of India in the Global Terrorism Index?

A. 42nd

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B. 45th
C. 51st
D. 25th
E. 26th
Ans: A. 42nd

Explanation:
India has been ranked 42 out of 55 countries in the latest International IP Index report by
the US Chamber of Commerce.
Released every year, the index evaluates the protection of IP rights by the world's 55 major
economies, representing approximately 90 percent of global GDP.
The United States ranks first in the 2023 index, followed by the UK and France.

22. Which country has topped the World Happiness Index 2023?
A. Norway
B. Denmark
C. Iceland
D. Finland
E. None of these
Ans: D. Finland

Explanation:
Finland has been named the world's happiest country for the fifth consecutive year in the
World Happiness Index 2023.
It rates 150 countries (146 in 2023) based on factors such as GDP, life expectancy and other
indicators of quality of life.
The top three countries include Finland, Denmark and Switzerland.

23. Which of the following state has topped in the Social Progress Index 2022?
A. Jharkhand
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Goa
D. Uttar Pradesh
E. None of these
Ans: C. Goa

Explanation:
The state of Goa has topped the Social Progress Index. Puducherry and Lakshadweep are
on top among the Union Territories.Jharkhand and Bihar are at the bottom of the index.

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Social Progress Index is a report in which the performance of all the states of the country is
judged.
This assessment is done in terms of three basic human needs, basis of better lifestyle and
opportunities.

24. What is the rank of India globally in the publication of scientific papers?
A. Fifth
B. Seventh
C. Third
D. Tenth
E. None of these
Ans: C. Third

Explanation:
India has moved up from seventh position to third position in the scientific publication
ranking.
According to the Union Science and Technology Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh, India has been
ranked third globally in the publication of scientific papers.
According to the Science and Engineering Indicators 2022 report of the National Science
Foundation of America, the number of articles and research papers prepared by scholars of
India has increased from 60 thousand five hundred 55 in 2010 to 1 lakh 49 thousand two
hundred and 13 in 2020.

25. What is the rank of India in the Global Aviation Safety Ranking 2022?
A. 48th
B. 45th
C. 51st
D. 25th
E. 26th
Ans: A. 48th

Explanation:
India has been ranked 48th in the Global Aviation Safety Ranking 2022.
A total of 187 countries are included in this ranking.
India and Georgia are at the 48th position with a score of 85.49 percent.
India was at 102nd position in this ranking 4 years back.
Establishment of International Civil Aviation Organization - 7 December 1944
Headquarters – Montreal, Canada

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26. What is the rank of India in the Network Readiness Index 2022?
A. 58th
B. 55th
C. 61st
D. 65th
E. 26th
Ans: C. 61th

Explanation:
India has secured 61st position in the Network Readiness Index 2022.
Four different pillars of the Network Readiness Index; 131 countries are ranked on 58
variables across technology, people, governance and influence.
India's score in the year 2022 has been 51.19 while in 2021 it was 49.74.
The United States ranked first with a score of 80.3, Singapore second with a score of 79.35
and Sweden third with a score of 78.91.

27. Which state has got the top position in the category of big states in Public Affairs Index-
2022?
A. Haryana
B. Rajasthan
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Maharashtra
E. Uttar Pradesh
Ans: A. Haryana

Explanation:
In the Public Affairs Index-2022, Haryana has got the top position in the category of large
states.
Haryana has been adjudged the best state in the country in socio-economic and political
justice.
Haryana is followed by Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Punjab and Karnataka.
Sikkim has been ranked at the top in the category of best governed small states in India.

28. The government has constituted a committee under the chairmanship of which of the
following to develop a framework on right to repair?
A. Ramesh Chandra
B. Ravi Bhargava
C. ismail ali
D. Nidhi Khatri

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E. None of these
Ans: D. Nidhi Khatri

Explanation:
The Department of Consumer Affairs has constituted a committee to develop a framework
for 'Right to Repair'.
Its objective is to facilitate trade between original equipment manufacturers and third party
buyers and sellers, to empower consumers and product buyers in the local market.

29. What is the rank of India in Environment Performance Index 2022?

A. first
B. sixteenth
C. twenty first
D. last
E. None of these
Ans: D. last

Explanation:
India ranks last out of 180 countries.
The Environmental Performance Index (EPI) is an analysis by researchers at Yale and
Columbia University.
The 40 performance factors used by the EPI to rank 180 countries include climate change,
environmental public health and biodiversity.
Denmark has come first as the most sustainable country in the world.

30. Who has released the Insurance Report 2022 for fisheries and aquaculture units in India?
A. World Health Organization
B. International Labor Organization
C. India Meteorological Department
D. Food Agriculture Organization
E. None of these
Ans: D. Food Agriculture Organization

Explanation:
The report also highlights that insurance coverage for fisheries, aquaculture units in India
is very low.
It suggests the involvement of public and private insurance providers to take proactive
measures.

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31. Which social digital platform has recently released the first annual human rights report?
A. Twitter
B. Facebook
C. LINKEDIN
D. YouTube
E. Instagram
Ans: B. Facebook

Explanation:
Facebook owner Meta has released its first annual human rights report after years of
allegations that it turned a blind eye to online abuses fueling real-world violence in places
like India and Myanmar.

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SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Science and technology are two interrelated fields that have a significant impact on
our daily lives. Science is the systematic study of the natural world through
observation, experimentation, and analysis. It seeks to understand the underlying
principles and laws that govern the universe, from the tiniest particles to the largest
galaxies. Technology, on the other hand, is the practical application of scientific
knowledge to create new tools, machines, and systems that improve our lives.

Science and technology are intimately connected because technological

advancements are often based on scientific discoveries. For example, the
development of electricity, computers, and smartphones would not have been
possible without a deep understanding of the principles of physics, mathematics,
and engineering. Similarly, scientific research often relies on cutting-edge
technologies to collect data and perform experiments.

Some of the most significant advancements in science and technology in recent

years include the development of renewable energy sources, the mapping of the
human genome, the creation of artificial intelligence and machine learning, and the
expansion of space exploration. These advancements have the potential to
transform our world, but they also raise important ethical, social, and
environmental questions that need to be addressed.

Overall, science and technology play a critical role in shaping the future of our
world, and it is essential to continue investing in research and innovation to drive
progress and address the challenges we face as a society.

Types of Science and Technology

There are many kinds of science and technology, each with its own unique focus and
area of expertise. Here are some examples:

Natural sciences: Natural sciences include disciplines such as biology, chemistry, physics,
geology, and astronomy. They study the natural world and seek to understand the
underlying laws and principles that govern it.

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Social sciences: Social sciences include disciplines such as psychology, sociology,

anthropology, and economics. They study human behavior, society, and culture, and seek
to understand the social, economic, and political factors that shape our world.

Engineering: Engineering is the application of scientific and mathematical principles to

design and build new technologies and systems. It includes disciplines such as mechanical,
electrical, civil, and chemical engineering.

Information technology: Information technology (IT) is the application of computer

science and telecommunications to design, develop, and manage information systems. It
includes areas such as software development, database management, network
administration, and cybersecurity.

Medical science: Medical science includes disciplines such as medicine, nursing,

pharmacology, and public health. They study the human body and seek to understand and
treat diseases and illnesses.

Environmental science: Environmental science is the study of the natural environment and
how humans interact with it. It includes areas such as ecology, conservation, and
environmental policy.

Terms of Science and Technology

Hypothesis: A tentative explanation for an observation or phenomenon that can be tested
through experimentation.

Experiment: A controlled test designed to evaluate a hypothesis or scientific theory.

Theory: A well-established explanation for a natural phenomenon that has been supported
by extensive research and experimentation.

Data: Information collected through observation or experimentation.

Technology: The practical application of scientific knowledge for the creation of tools,
machines, and systems that solve practical problems.

Innovation: The development of new ideas, products, or processes that improve upon
existing ones.

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Algorithm: A step-by-step procedure for solving a problem or performing a calculation.

Artificial Intelligence (AI): The development of computer systems that can perform tasks
that would typically require human intelligence, such as learning, reasoning, and problem-
solving.

Genetics: The study of the genetic material, such as DNA, and how it is passed from one
generation to another.

Nanotechnology: The study and manipulation of materials at the nanoscale level, which
is one billionth of a meter.

What is Nano Science and Technology?

The technique that includes manipulating matter on an atomic, molecular, and
supramolecular scale is known as nanotechnology. This covers particles with a size
between 1 and 100 nanometers. The development of the Atomic Force Microscope (AFM)
allowed for the commercialization of nanotechnology. Since then, nanotechnology has
advanced significantly and now has an impact on numerous industries. Due to its quantum
scale and wide range of applications in the domains of medical science, space exploration,
telecommunications, food processing, and environmental protection, this technology
expanded beyond all bounds in this century.

Need of the National Mission on Nano Science and Technology:

Nanotechnology has tremendous potential for the advancement of humanity, and this is
especially true for India. It can address existing issues like disease diagnosis and water
contamination. Even though it has tremendous potential, very few people in India are
prepared to conduct research on it, and the majority of financing comes from the
government. Little to no financing for this field comes from the commercial sector. Even
the professional opportunities in this area are extremely limited. Therefore, this mission
was launched to ensure that the potential may be fully utilized for the benefit of everyone.

Objectives of the National Mission on Nano Science And Technology:

• Building the necessary infrastructure for nanoscience and nanotechnology research
includes creating a network of shared facilities with the high-tech tools needed for the
field.
• By providing financing to specific scientists or groups of scientists, it aims to advance
basic research, and also works to establish centers of excellence for pursuing studies

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leading to a fundamental understanding of matter that permits control and manipulation

at the nanoscale.
• Applications and technology development programs for nanotechnology to stimulate
the creation of products and devices.
• Effective research and professional development programs, so that a true
interdisciplinary culture for nanoscale science, engineering, and technology may
develop.
• International collaborations include organizing cooperative conferences, workshops,
and research projects in addition to scientist exploratory visits.

Features of the National Mission on Nano Science and Technology:

• This scheme is carried out by the Department of Science and Technology under the
Ministry of Science and Technology.
• The Nano Mission has set up national forums to support R&D in the creation of
nanotechnology standards and for establishing a National Regulatory Framework
Roadmap for Nanotechnology (NRFR-Nanotech).
• Under this mission infrastructure development is crucial and necessitates costly tools
like optical tweezers, Nano indenters, transmission electron microscopes (TEM),
atomic force microscopes (AFM), etc.
• It encourages the industrial sector to participate directly or indirectly in
nanotechnology research and development projects through Public-Private
Partnerships.
• This Mission places a strong emphasis on delivering instruction and training across a
range of subject areas to guarantee the growth of interdisciplinary culture in this area.
• Given the success of the Nano Mission, the Union Cabinet approved its continuation
in Phase-II during the 12th Plan period with a budgetary allocation of Rs. 650 crores.
• In order to advance research and development in the field of nanoscience and
nanotechnology in India, the Institute of Nano Science and Technology, Mohali, was
founded.
• Nano India, the flagship scientific event of the Nano-mission program launched in
2017 to encourage the sharing of ideas and to strengthen collaborative research in
interdisciplinary areas of Nanoscience and nanotechnology.

Use of the Technology in Digital Census:

• Digital Agriculture- It is a data ecosystem for the development and delivery of targeted
information for making farming sustainable and profitable while meeting the need of

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people. It is done through agricultural biotechnology.

• Agricultural biotechnology- It includes traditional breeding techniques and hybrid
seeds. It functions after altering the parts of a living organism.
• Digital and wireless technology- It is used for data measurement and monitoring of
weather.
• Remote satellite data- It reduces the cost of agriculture by monitoring crop growth and
quality of land, and water and giving accurate information.

Initiatives are Taken by the Government:

• Agristack: The Ministry of Agriculture and farmers’ welfare planned it, which is a
collection of technology-based interventions in agriculture. It is a unified platform for
the end-to-end service of the food chain.
• Unified farmer service platform: It is a combination of infrastructure, data,
applications, and tools that enables a seamless agricultural ecosystem. It will work as
a central agency and registers farmers’ service providers and farmers. Enforces rules,
and standards for the delivery process.
• Digital Agriculture Mission: This was in 2021-2025 by the government for
advanced technology like artificial intelligence, blockchain, remote sensing, drones,
and robots.
• The National e-Governance Plan in Agriculture (NeGP-A) was launched in 2011
only to achieve rapid development in the country to provide essential information to
the farmers.
• Soil health card, Kisan call centre, and Agri market app are there for grassroots
development of farmers.

Women in the Field of Science and Technology

Even after 75 years of independence and celebrating Amrit Mahotsav, our beloved country
is facing problems evident in the Vedic period. The discrimination among genders and
degradation of the status of women started during the later Vedic period. Discrimination
is evident in every field from the house to the workplace. The women labor force
participation is 25.1 percent which is much below than world average of 46 percent. One
of the fields where discussion about discrimination is quite strong is Science and
technology. A conference was held in Israel in November 2021 on the topic of India- Israel
women in Science, Technology, Engineering, and mathematics (STEM). It was discussed
to provide gender-neutral compensation and flexible work hours to increase women’s
participation.

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Contribution of Females in Science and Technology:

The achievement of males like Abdul kalam Azad, and C.V. Raman is very openly
discussed but we very rarely talk about women’s exceptions Kalpana Chawla and Sunita
Williams.

Some of those names are:

• Kadambini Ganguly– She was the first female graduate of the British Empire and
the first female physician in south Asia.
• Anna Mani – She was a physicist and meteorologist. Her contribution is in the field
of ozone, solar radiation, and wind energy.
• Dr. Indira Hinduja – She was a gynecologist by profession and developed oocyte
donation techniques for menopausal and ovarian failure patients. She was the first
woman to deliver a test tube baby.
• Dr. Aditi Pant – She is an oceanographer and one of the first Indian women to visit
Antarctica. she was part of the third Indian expedition to Antarctica.
• Dr. Suman Sahai – She is the founder of the Gene Campaign in India. She is the
brain of the patent campaign for Azadirachta Indica (Neem) and Turmeric.

Reason for Low Participation:

• Stereotypes – People still have a mindset that boys are better at science than girls.
• Economic concern– Science is quite costlier than arts and commerce.
• Patriarchy – A male-dominated work environment and gender bias hold women back.
• fewer women-specific science institutes- women-specific colleges are only 11% in
India and the majority of them offer arts and commerce.
• Lack of Role Models– women’s achievement is a very less discussed topic; rural
people still believe moving out of home will spoil them and avoid discussing people
who left home for higher studies.
• Harassments– Workplace harassment is very common, and it scares and keeps
women out of work.

Initiatives by Government for Increasing Participation:

• Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing (KIRAN)
Scheme– It was launched in 2014-15, this was an umbrella scheme under which all
women-specific programs were introduced. One program under this was the Woman
scientist scheme provided career opportunities to unemployed women scientists and
those who had broken and were not able to begin work.

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• Vigyan Jyoti scheme– It was launched to address the underrepresentation of women

in the field of science and technology. It began at the school level where students from
classes 9 -12 are encouraged to pursue a career in STEM. It provided exposure to rural
girls and assisted them in planning careers in science.
• Gender Advancement for Transforming Institutions (GATI) program– It was for
developing and accessing a framework for gender equality in STEM.
• Department of science technology has established an Artificial intelligence lab in
women’s universities.
• Under the Indo- Us fellowship for women, they can work in research labs in the US.
• Consolidation of University Research for Innovation and Excellence (CURIE)
program– It was to improve R&D infrastructure and research facilities to create
excellence in S&T in women’s universities.

Ecological And Economic Importance of Bryophytes

What is Bryophyte?
• The amphibians of the plant kingdom “Bryophyte” are made up of combining two
words: Bryon – Mosses Phytons – Plants
• The reason behind calling them bryophytes is their survival habits.
• Bryophytes required both soil and water to survive as they live on soil but reproduce
in water.
• These plants lack vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) and vegetative structure.
• They are flowerless and don’t produce seeds.
• Bryophytes have three classifications:

Ecological Importance of Bryophytes:

Bryophyte has a great impact on the environment. these are densely distributed all around
the world and their water retention ability benefits the other plants as they stored water
and conduct it to other plants, this is called a buffer System. Its dense growth worked as a
soil binder. Bryophytes also give their contribution to the nutrient cycle. Bryophytes can
decompose the rock and can create a favorable environment for growing plants.
Bryophytes help in reducing the impact of rain and preventing soil erosion. They worked
as a rock builder. Mosses with algae are found in calcium bicarbonate-rich and lake form
calcareous (lime) rock-like deposits around these plants. Decomposition of bicarbonate
ions can lead to precipitation of insoluble calcium carbonate.

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Economic Importance of Bryophytes:

A. Medicinal Uses:
• Bryophytes have many uses in medicine and there is a lot of evidence from ancient
times.
• Sphagnum has high absorptive power and antiseptic property due to this it was used
for surgical dressing as well as for discharging wounds.
• Marchantia has been used for the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis and pain in the
liver.
• The extraction of dried sphagnum is used to treat acute haemorrhage and eye infections.
• Sphagnum is the distillate form of peat-tar and was used to treatment of skin disease
and peat-tar was also used as an antiseptic.
• Polytrichum was used for kidney and gall bladder stones.

B. In Research:
• Bryophytes have many contributions to genetics like Mosses and Liverworts are used
in research.

C. Packing Material:
• For packaging fragile materials like glassware dried mosses were an excellent choice.
• The water retention property of bryophytes makes them a good choice for the trans-
shipment of living materials.
D. As Food:
• Animals and birds use mosses as a good source of food.
• Mosses are consumed by the many like, Arctic Bison, and Alpine vertebrates reindeer,
caribou, musk ox, arctic geese, lemmings, and rodents. One of the more interesting use
is the feeding of mosses to baby pigs. If pigs are born anaemic, the milled Sphagnum
feed is ideal for binding the iron and vitamins fed to baby pigs.

E. As Indicator Plant:
• Bryophytes can indicate the acidity and basicity of the soil.
• Polytrichum indicates the acidity of the soil.
• Tortella can indicate lime and bases of the soil.

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F. Potential Source for Antioxidants:

• Marchantia paleacea, Marchantia linearis, and Conocephalum conicum are potentially
important sources of bioactive materials that can be effective in the prevention of cells
from oxidative damage which leads to aging and carcinogenesis.

G. Construction Materials:
• Nordic people used the aquatic moss Fontinalis antipyretica between the chimney
and walls to prevent fires. Several mosses are used as chinking (chink – a crack or
narrow fissure) materials. Similarly, in Alaska, the chinking of wooden and log cabins
is done using bryophytes. The shepherds in the Himalayan highlands also use
bryophytes C for chinking.
• In Northern Europe, Sphagnum is stuffed between timber used in houses to deaden the
sound. Mosses were also used in making huts by herdsmen in the Alps. Neckera
complanata is used for plugging the seams and cracks of boats.

Kapila Kalam Program

The acronym KAPILA stands for the Kalam Program for Intellectual Property
Literacy and Awareness campaign. On the 89th anniversary of the late Dr. APJ Abdul
Kalam, a renowned scientist and former president, the Union Education Ministry
announced the launch of the Kapila Kalam campaign. In order to raise awareness of
intellectual property rights (IPR) in Higher Education Institutions (HEIs), the Kapila
Kalam Program was launched.

What is Kapila Kalam Program?

• The Union Education Minister, Shri Ramesh Pokhriyal ‘Nishank,’ virtually launched
the KAPILA programme on October 15, 2020.
• The Indian government will raise awareness of the value of patenting and inventions
through the KAPILA Kalam Program.
• Under the auspices of this campaign, college students pursuing further education will
learn about the proper procedure for filing an application to patent an invention and
will be made aware of their legal rights.
• The programme will make it easier for schools and other educational institutions to
encourage more students to submit patent applications.
• The Ministry designated the week of October 15 through October 23 as “Intellectual
Property Literacy Week” to raise awareness in the industry.

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Objective of Kapila Kalam Program:

The following are the objectives of the KAPILA initiative:
• Kapila’s mission is to acknowledge, promote, and honour intellectual property
innovation and best practices in higher education institutions.
• To create a credit course on the scheme’s IPR features
• It suggests raising the necessary awareness of the requirement for an IP filling process.
It includes the filing process in India and on a global scale.
• Students in higher education in India frequently follow their teacher’s instructions, but
they are unaware of the process for filing their patents, which would allow them to
profit from their ideas.
• The lack of knowledge among young researchers suggests that they need to learn more
about IP laws and rights.

Initiatives under KAPILA Campaign:

The following important initiatives have been carried out as part of the KAPILA
initiative:
• Clinic for Intellectual Property (IP),
• Case Studies on Innovation and Intellectual Property
• Online campaigns for awareness
• KAPILA Campaign for National Intellectual Property Literacy Week (NIPLW).

Facts and Fears Associated with Nuclear Energy Programme

It is one of the fastest-growing countries in every sector, which increases the demand for
energy. With the growing economy, population, urbanisation, and industrialization,
according to the International Energy Agency’s (IEA) India Energy Outlook 2021, India
needs more energy. Since 2000, energy consumption has risen, with coal and oil providing
the majority of the supply. This is projected to increase by 35% through 2030. The need
for nuclear energy is growing with the increasing world population, economic
development, and climate change, and India should expand its nuclear energy program.
The Indian government has also set a number of goals for expanding nuclear energy in the
country.

Nuclear Energy in India:

Nuclear energy is a type of energy found in the nucleus/core of the atom. This energy can
be used in a variety of ways, including generating electricity. Nuclear power is India’s
fifth-largest source of electricity generation. Currently, the nuclear fission of uranium and
plutonium produces most of the electricity in nuclear plants. As of November 2020, 7

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nuclear plants with a total capacity of 7380 Megawatts and 22 nuclear reactors were
operationally ready. Nuclear power generated a total capacity of 43Twh in 2020-2021,
accounting for 3.11 percent of total electricity production in the country. India is making
significant progress in the development of thorium-based fuels, which will be used in the
design of atomic reactors.

Total electricity generation and growth in India during 2017-18 to 2022-23 –

Central Electricity Authority (CEA), in Billion Unit (BU)

YEAR Total Generation Growth %

2017-18 1,308.146 5.35
2018-19 1,376.095 5.19
2019-20 1,389.102 0.95
2020-21 1,381.827 -2.49
2021-22 1,491.859 7.96
2022-23* 286.486 16.71

Reasons for Expanding the Nuclear Energy Program:

1. Increase of energy demand
• The demand for energy in India is rapidly increasing, owing primarily to population
growth and economic development. Every day, the population grows rapidly, which is
forcing India to expand its nuclear energy program.
• According to recent surveys, India’s energy demand will skyrocket over the next 20
years, and the country has already increased its power generation capacity.
• Due to the COVID, electricity generation in FY19 and FY20 is lower than in previous
years, and in FY21, India recovered much faster and stronger than European nations.
From FY10 to FY22, India has already produced more than 500 billion units.

2. Decrease in energy supply

• Rapid climatic changes will have a negative impact on the energy supply. Due to the
extremely hot climatic conditions, hydropower is declining, and eventually,
hydropower generation will be adversely affected, resulting in a decrease in energy
supply.

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3. Availability of the energy

• We all know that India is the fourth largest consumer of energy in the world and yet,
India is an energy-poor nation. India’s population without electricity is estimated at
19% of the entire population.
• The 7 nuclear plants with a total capacity of 7380 Megawatts and 22 nuclear reactors
were operationally ready as of November 2020. In 2020-2021, nuclear energy
generated a total capacity of 43Twh, accounting for 3.11 percent of total electricity
production in the country.
• Hence keeping all the above points in consideration, it is highly advised that the nuclear
energy program should be expanded in India.

4. Expansion
• India is the fastest-growing country in all aspects, including technology. India’s rapid
growth will necessitate a large amount of nuclear energy.
• As of 2009, India predicted to increase the contribution of nuclear power from 2.8% to
9% within 25 years. Recently the government stated that the nuclear capacity is
expected to reach 22,480MW by 2031.
• As a result, it is recommended that the nuclear energy program be expanded in light of
the development.

5. Foreign relations
• Every nation will have a strong bond only if the amount of imports/exports and natural
resource sharing is adequate.
• The ‘123 Agreement’ was signed by the United States of America and the Republic of
India, with the main goal of separating civil and nuclear facilities. As a result,
developing nuclear capability will improve foreign relations.
• In this regard, we can categorically say that nuclear energy plays a critical role in the
development of bilateral relations between nations.

Facts Associated with the Nuclear Energy:

• Nuclear power plants are the most efficient source of electricity, operating at 90 percent
average capacity.
• A nuclear power plant can produce enough electricity to power 690,000 homes while
emitting no pollution into the atmosphere.
• Nuclear plants can be refuelled every 18 months, with one-third of the fuel replaced.

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• As of 2019, 450 nuclear reactors were operational, with 53 more under construction
around the world.
• As of November 2020, 7 nuclear plants with a total capacity of 7380 Megawatts and
22 nuclear reactors were operationally ready.
• Nuclear energy generated a total capacity of 43Twh, accounting for 3.11 percent of
total electricity production in the country.
• India has already produced more than 500 billion units electricity between FY10 and
FY22.

Fears Associated with the Nuclear Energy:

1. Health Risks:
• Nuclear energy generation will rely on radiation and chemical substances that are
extremely hazardous to human health. If even a minor leak of radiation occurs, the
entire affected area must be evacuated immediately. As a result, even imperfections in
nuclear energy generation affect not only the workers but also the general public who
live near the power plants.
• From 1986-2005, approximately 5 million people residing around the surroundings of
Chornobyl suffered and experienced increased risk of developing thyroid cancer.

2. Location:
• A large amount of land is required to build the nuclear power station as needed to build
nuclear reactors and also evacuate the surrounding areas of the plant due to potential
health issues.
• This causes people to be evacuated from their homes, and compensating people for
evacuating to their own lands is difficult. Thus, location preference is also a major
concern with nuclear energy plants.

3. Radioactive waste:
• Nuclear energy production is heavily involved in the production of waste materials. A
large amount of waste will be released, potentially causing harm to both people and
marine animals.
• Nuclear waste, for example, is being released into some lakes in some areas, potentially
killing marine animals. As a result, nuclear waste poses the greatest risk.
• On February 2nd, the Rajasthan power station leaked helium and heavy water into the
river, resulting in a nearly two-year shutdown for repairs at a cost of 280 million
dollars.

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4. Expensive:
• Building a nuclear power plant is extremely expensive due to the large amount of land,
manpower, and expensive equipment required. We all know that construction costs in
India are rapidly rising, and thus the cost of constructing a nuclear power plant is also
skyrocketing.
• The Kudankulam nuclear power plant, located in the southern Indian state of Tamil
Nadu, is India’s largest nuclear plant. The construction cost for the two units, Unit 1
and Unit 2, is 13,171 crores, which was later revised to 17,270 crores. Due to
technological changes and inflation, the construction cost of Units 3 and 4 is twice that
of Units 1 and 2 and was later revised to 39,849 crores.

5. Accidents:
• Another major concern about nuclear power plants is the possibility of accidents. Even
today, whenever we hear about nuclear energy, the Chernobyl disaster comes to mind.
We all know that thousands of people died in that accident. As a result, one of the most
common concerns about nuclear power plants is accidents.
• On May 13, 1992, a faulty tube released nearly 12 curies of radioactivity in Tarapur,
Maharashtra, costing nearly $2 million USD.

6. Fuel:
• Another important consideration is fuel. Uranium, thorium, and other similar materials
are used in nuclear energy. We won’t be able to power the reactors until we have
extremely powerful fusion. Overall, nuclear energy is a short-term solution at
exorbitant costs.
• On May 4, 1987, a refueling accident at the fast breeder test reactor in Kalpakkam
completely ruptured the reactor core, resulting in a two-year shutdown of the plant.

Biorock Technology
Biorock technology is used to protect coral reefs by building rock-like materials beneath
the ocean. It is the process in which a very low voltage electric current is applied through
the seawater. This causes the deposition of crystalline salts of minerals dissolved in water.
The deposited crystals are mostly in the form of calcium carbonate that builds a certain
structure on the waterbed similar to the naturally produced coral reefs. The formed
structure is called bio rock which is very strong and long-lasting that provides suitable
habitat to corals.

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The corals stick to the Biorock where they can grow much faster than the actual growth
using their structure. This technology is used to build up calcium carbonate structures in
the sea to strengthen the coral reefs and allow sensitive corals to grow without being
endangered by the effect of pollution and global warming.

Process of BioRock Formation:

In this process, a low voltage electric current is passed between a positively charged anode
and a negatively charged cathode placed in the seawater. This results in the electrolysis of
saline water generating calcium ions and carbonate ions that adhere to the cathode forming
a layer of calcium carbonate. It is applied in the region of coral reefs and sandy beaches
where the calcination forms new structures and coral larvae attach to them and grow
rapidly. Different marine species needs habitat of different size and shapes so Biorock
structure can be made in different forms to help the survival and growth of different
species including corals, seagrass, oyster, and other marine ecosystems.

Features of Biorock:
Biorock technology produces marine structures that are very hard and sustainable. It also
becomes harder and stronger with time. It is more durable than any other underwater
construction that suffers decay with time and needs repairing or replacement. But bio rock
has a unique feature of self-repairing which means any damaged or broken part grows
back to retain the structure. Biorock formations grow in height over time, allowing corals
and oysters to grow on them rapidly. It also helps in shore protection and prevents islands
from getting submerged considering the rise in sea level. Biorock structures allow cost
savings as they are much cheaper to build than other concrete or rock structures. They can
be restructured by adding materials as per the changing needs. Biorock has been
effectively utilized to achieve desired results much faster and at a low cost.

Important Data About Bedrock Technology:

• The idea of BioRock technology was first developed by architect Mr. Wolf Hilbertz
in 1976 in an attempt to prepare alternative construction materials.
• Biorock structures can grow vertically at a rate of about 20 mm in a year.
• A bedrock reef in the Maldives helped to create a beach behind it which was earlier
collapsed by sea waves. The new beach is 15 meters wide and has remained stable for
more than 15 years.
• Biorock structures allow the growth of coral 2-5 times faster than in its natural
condition.

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• Indonesia has the world’s largest coral regeneration project where Biorock has been
used.

Deep Ocean Mission

We, humans, are highly inquisitive beings. Our journey to exploring this planet has no
end. We have made immense progress in exploring space, but the world underwater
remained untouched for long. It was only recently that a mission was launched to explore
the world underneath, and efforts are being made to support the blue economy initiatives
of the GOI. Deep Ocean Mission is an ambitious mission of the Ministry of Earth
Sciences, Government of India.

Deep Ocean Mission:

The ocean beds are a reservoir of endless facts, myths, gems, resources, and whatnot. In
fact, you can say it is a treasure trove. Every country has its boundaries, limits, and
authority over the sea and ocean or is called territory for security and resource mining.
That means every country has limitations to using seas and oceans for researching, mining,
discovery, or findings. The long coastline of approx. 7500 km, India draws unlimited
benefits from these natural resources to fulfill its needs. The huge ports enable an easy
flow of trade and navigation and push the blue economy to another level.

What is Blue Economy?

A Blue Economy is the proper use of ocean resources in sustainable ways to encourage
economic growth, improve livelihoods and employment, and protect ocean ecosystems. It
gives an inclusive model enabling the coastal nations to fetch the benefits from the ocean
and sea resources.

The exclusive Economic Zone of India widely spreads over an area of 2.2 million sq. km
which is still unexplored and unutilized. Adding words to the above lines, the ocean beds
have a lot to give for better livelihood and economy. Also, understanding what the ocean
and seas are holding inside can help understand the reasons for climate change and find
ways to mitigate the crisis associated with the same.

More to Know About Deep Ocean Mission:

All the information obtained from this deep ocean mission will surely help in addressing
the changes (long-term) in the water bodies because of climatic changes. The point areas
cover the technological development for deep-sea exploration, findings related to
exploitation of biodiversity and mineral resources, gearing up the development of

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underwater robotics and vehicles, development of advisory services related to ocean

climate changes, and bringing more innovations for sustainable usage of marine bio-
resources and renewable energy generation.

Mining of Polymetallic Nodules (PMN):

You cannot just mine anywhere in search of PMN. You are authorised to mine only certain
locations. Those countries which intend to step ahead on PMN mining need to get
approvals from the ISA which was established under UNCLOS (United Nations
Convention on the Law of the Sea). India gained Pinoor investor status in 1987 and indeed
was the first country with such recognition. For mining PMN, India was assigned an area
of 1.5 lakh sq. Kilometer that time. But in 2002, India was assigned 75,000 sq. Kilometer
area after a resource analysis conducted by ISA.

There is a certain conclusion drawn after the research conducted by the

Ministry of Earth Science. Here is the conclusion:
• PNM that can be found: 880 MT (approx.)
• Cobalt: 0.55 MT (approx.)
• Copper: 4.29 MT (approx.)
• Magnesium: 92.59 MT (approx.)
• Nickel: 4.7 MT (approx.)

Objectives of Deep Ocean Mission:

• Achieving long-term solutions for issues related to climate change and changes to the
ocean
• For the development of technologies for ocean exploration of living and nonliving
resources
• For the development of underwater vehicles and robotics
• Advisory services related to ocean climate change
• Finding innovative methods for saving marine bioresources through technological
innovation and conservation
• Desalination techniques based on offshore technology
• To develop techniques for generating renewable energy

Future Of Solar Power In India

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In today’s world, energy demand is quite high in the industrial and domestic sectors. Non-
renewable energy sources are getting exhausted rapidly, so, we have to go for renewable
energy sources as far as possible. With the help of modern technology, it becomes possible
to utilize natural resources like sunlight to generate energy. Solar panels function as a
central power station converting sunlight into electrical energy that can be used for
industrial, commercial, and residential purposes. Solar energy is one of the best resources
to produce electricity in those areas where conventional power generation is either not
possible or quite expensive. Solar power has brought a new era of power generation and
accessibility to power In India. The ability of solar power to be produced easily and
distributed widely has benefitted industrial and domestic sectors by meeting their energy
needs.

The Advantages of Solar Power:

Solar power generation is done from a renewable source of energy. The power from the
sun is utilized to produce energy which also reduces the use of non-renewable energy
sources like fossil fuels. Solar energy does not release harmful gasses or require the
burning of fossil fuels like oils and coals. The energy produced using solar cells can
provide power without any need to depend on other sources of electricity. Solar power is
a very affordable solution to produce energy. It is also a very convenient and effective
means of generating electricity that can cater to the needs of rural areas. In the industrial
sector, solar energy-based power generating systems have proven to be capable of meeting
adequate energy requirements.

Important Government Data On Solar Power in India:

• India has added 10 Gigawatt of solar energy to its cumulative installed capacity in
2021.
• Thar region in Rajasthan has some of the best solar projects in the country generating
about 2,100 GW of power.

Anti-Radiation Pills
Many people are familiar with the idea of taking an anti-radiation pill in the event of a
nuclear attack. But what are these pills? And how do they work?

Anti-radiation pills are designed to protect the body from the harmful effects of radiation,
especially during a radiation emergency. It is a non-routine event or problem requiring
immediate action to avoid or mitigate the effects of a radioactive hazard. They work by

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absorbing radioactive material into the body, where it is then excreted. There are a variety
of different anti-radiation pills on the market, each with its advantages and disadvantages.
Some pills are designed to be taken before radiation exposure, while others are designed
for use after exposure.

No matter what type of pill you choose, it is important to remember that they are not a
substitute for proper medical care. If you have been exposed to radiation, you should
always seek medical attention as soon as possible. If you are interested in learning more
about anti-radiation pills, then keep reading! We will discuss how these pills work, what
they are made of, and when you should take them.

How do Anti-Radiation Pills Work?

According to a World Health Organization report, breathing radioactive iodine poses a
greater threat as compared to simply cleaning off the exterior deposits with just warm
water and soap. After a radiation leak, the radioactive iodine spreads through the air,
contaminating food, water, and soil.

Also known as Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets, these anti-radiation pills are known to offer
protection against radiation exposure. They contain non-radioactive iodine, which aids in
preventing the body’s thyroid gland from absorbing radioactive iodine and concentrating
it therein.

KI medications are advised for consumption only for preventative measures. But these
anti-rations pills cannot offer complete security. To reap the most benefits, the anti-
radiation pills must be taken within 24 hours or 4 hours after the radiation exposure. This
medication is not foolproofed. Even doctors or scientists cannot verify it. There are always
some side effects of it, but it differs on various parameters. Some of the substitutes for KI
are Propylthiouracil, ThyroShield, SSKI, Iodine/potassium iodide, Sodium iodide-i-131,
and Hicon.

Need for Anti-radiation Pills:

An anti-radiation pill is a type of medication that protects the body from the harmful
effects of radiation exposure. The pill works by absorbing or neutralizing the radiation
before it can enter the body.

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Whenever we encounter some accidents resulting from radio-nuclear hazards, either

caused under natural circumstances like earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or even tsunamis
or even by man-made decisions like wars or terrorism activities, humans and the
environment are the ones subjected to suffer.

Such circumstances involve exposure to radiation from a radioactive source and the need
for quick action to reduce the danger. The effectiveness of KI medication depends on how
much of the radioactive iodine gets into the body and how quickly it gets absorbed in the
body. Adults are advised to take 130 milligrams per day. The radioactive iodine won’t be
absorbed and will be mostly removed from the body through the urine if the thyroid gets
all the iodine it needs from the non-radioactive KI.

Side Effects of the Anti-Radiation Pills:

No matter which types of pill you choose, it is important to make sure that you follow the
instructions on the packaging carefully. Taking more pills than recommended, or taking
them more often than directed, can do more harm than good.

These anti-radiation medications are not suitable for everyone. It is advised for those who
are under the age of 40 years. Women who are pregnant or nursing should also take these.
Although, it can protect the thyroid from the effect and impact of radioactive iodine, but
it cannot guard the other organs against radiation exposure.

• KI can be unhealthy for your health, especially if it’s not needed or isn’t taken properly.
• Never replace table salt or other foods for KI. They are useless for treating radiation
exposure, and consuming high quantities could be dangerous.
• Iodine-rich dietary supplements may not be effective at preserving the thyroid and may
even be harmful to the body.

Usage of Fingerprinting In India:

Johann Mayer, a German anatomist, made the first claim about the distinctiveness of each
person’s fingerprints in Europe in 1788. The Scottish physician Henry Faulds later
confirmed this claim through extensive research, around the same time that Herschel
started using fingerprinting as a form of identification in Bengal. The ability to identify a
single pair of fingerprints from a sizable collection of fingerprint cards needs a reliable
classification scheme.

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The Bengal Police were able to develop fingerprint records that replaced the use of
anthropometric measurements by 1897, four years before a similar decision was made in
England, despite similar attempts being made in England and elsewhere. At that time, the
world’s first Fingerprint Bureau was established in Calcutta. For this job, Aziz-ul-Haq and
H C Bose, two Indian sub-inspectors, were chosen by Bengal Police Inspector General
Edward Henry. The system of primary classification and the system for indexing names
in court conviction registers were both created by Haq. Only in 1925 did Henry officially
recognize the vital contributions made by Haq and Bose, for which the colonial
government awarded them the titles of Khan Bahadur and Rai Bahadur, respectively.

Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Program

Ethanol Blended Petrol Programme (EBP) is an initiative by the Government of India
(GoI) under the National Policy on Biofuels. It was launched in the year 2003. It aims to
promote renewable energy, reduce the import of fuels from other countries, and promote
the use of environment-friendly fuels.

The government aims to mix 5% ethanol in fuel by 2020, which will increase by 20%
(E20) by 2030. Ethanol needed to be blended will be sourced from domestic sources and
at prices fixed by the government. This initiative will impact various sectors, including
agriculture, environment, energy, etc. It will also help the farmers to earn extra income as
the ethanol will be produced as a side product from Sugarcane, Maize, Bajra, Fruit and
Vegetable wastes, etc.

Ethanol Blending Production:

Ethanol blending refers to the blending of ethanol (ethyl alcohol) exclusively with petrol
which is a minimum of 99% pure and derived from agricultural produce such as sugarcane,
maize, etc.

The Department of Food and Public Distribution (DFPD) is responsible for managing
ethanol manufacturing in the country. The ethanol required may be produced using surplus
wheat and rice from FCI, maize, fruit and vegetable wastes, etc. The ethanol supply has
dramatically improved from 38 crore L to 173 crore L from 2013-2014 to 2019-2020.

Significance of Ethanol Blending with Petrol:

• It will promote using renewable fuels instead of the fossil fuels we use in our day-to-
day lives. This will also help reduce fossil fuel stress, enabling a healthy environment.

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• Carbon emissions will also be reduced as ethanol has high oxygen content, which helps
it combust more than normal fossil fuels. Proper combustion will lead to reduced
carbon emissions from vehicles.
• As ethanol will be procured from domestic sources, it will reduce the import of fuels
from other countries, which will help to boost the local economy.
• This will also help farmers to earn extra income as the raw material required to produce
ethanol will be procured from the farmers.
• According to research, the fuel efficiency of the vehicles will also increase by 6-7%
for 4-wheelers and 3-4% for two-wheelers which will also help people to save money.
• It must also be noted that vehicle manufacturers need not make significant changes to
their product assembly lines, which will also benefit them in terms of money and effort.

Impacts of E20 as a Fuel:

1. Impact on consumers:
• The fuel efficiency of the vehicles is estimated to reduce by:
• 6-7% for 4-wheelers designed for E0 and calibrated for E10
• 3-4% for 2-wheelers designed for E0 and calibrated for E10
• 1-2% for 4-wheelers designed for E10 and calibrated for E20

2. Impact on Vehicle Manufacturers:

• No significant changes are needed in the assembly line of the vehicles
• To use E20, the vehicles’ engines need to be calibrated and tested.
3. Impact on the environment
• The CO emissions by the vehicles will be reduced by half and reduce pollution and
greenhouse effect.
• It will also promote the use of environmentally friendly fuels.

Initiatives are Taken under Ethanol Blended Petrol Programme:

• Opening of an alternate route for ethanol production
• Amendment to Industries (Development & Regulation) Act, 1951, enables smooth
ethanol movement across the country.
• GST reduction on ethanol from 18% to 5%
• EBP was extended to the whole of India except Andaman and Nicobar and
Lakshadweep
• Interest Subvention Scheme by the Department of Food and Public Distribution
(DFPD)

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• MoP&NG has also issued a ‘Long Term Ethanol Procurement Policy’ under EBP
Programme on 11.10.2019

Challenges in Ethanol Blended Petrol:

• We know that ethanol is produced from agricultural produce such as sugarcane, rice,
maize, etc., but at a time when malnutrition and hunger are widespread in the country,
it may not be a wise decision to use food grains to produce ethanol instead of using
them for human consumption. Thus fighting hunger is a major challenge before ethanol
production can be started on a large scale.
• The ethanol manufacturing units in the country cannot meet the country’s ethanol
demand. So it will be more challenging to meet the ethanol demand for blending with
fuel. Thus the ethanol manufacturing units need to upgrade and ramp up their
production.
• The prices of sugarcane and other food grains fixed by the government are uncertain,
so it may not be feasible for the farmers to plant these crops if they are not paid well.
This may also increase fuel prices if the raw materials prices are set high.
• Transporting ethanol is a risky and costly task as ethanol is not produced all over the
country. It needs to be transported safely as it is highly flammable, and there is a fear
of robbery along the way. Thus transportation costs are a considerable overhead in the
ethanol blending program.
• Currently, the ethanol manufacturing units are under the “Red Category” due to the
pollution they cause, so they need clearance under the Air and Water Acts, which is
time-consuming due to the paperwork involved.

Types of Diseases Caused by Viruses

Viruses are tiny microorganisms composed of genetic material encased in a protein shell.
They produce common infectious ailments such as cold, flu, and warts. Many severe
diseases are caused by viruses such as HIV/AIDS, Ebola, and even COVID-19.

Viruses infiltrate normal living cells and use them to increase and produce other viruses
like themselves. Killing, damaging, or changing your cells leads to illnesses. It assaults
specific cells in your body, such as your liver, respiratory system, or blood. Antibiotics
are ineffective against viral infections. However, antiviral medication can treat some viral
infections. In some cases, vaccines can also help protect you from viral infections.

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Diseases Caused by Viruses:

Viruses can be found in the air, ground, and on animal bodies. The sizes of these
microscopic organisms are measured in nanometers. Human bodies contain a large
number of viruses. Most viruses are not harmful to the body because the immune system
creates antibodies that fight viruses and try to kill them.
A dangerous virus may be opportunistic, which means that when the human immune
system weakens to various causes, the virus seizes the opportunity to become a pathogen.
The virus and the immune system are frequently found in a balanced approach.

Types of Diseases Caused by Viruses:

There are various types of diseases caused by viruses; some of them are briefly
discussed below:

Gastroenteritis:
• Gastroenteritis is sometimes termed “stomach flu.” It is characterized by significant
digestive tract inflammation, especially in the stomach and intestines. The initial signs
of the condition are nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which develop nearly quickly.
• This illness can be addressed by increasing the consumption of salty and mineral-rich
liquids to prevent dehydration.

Yellow Fever:
• Patients infected with this virus are more prevalent in continents such as Africa, South
America, and Central America.
• Symptoms of this virus include nose and mouth bleeding, dark-coloured vomiting,
yellow skin colouring, dehydration, cardiac arrhythmia, and high fever. It is a sickness
that can be avoided by immunization.

Dengue:
• Dengue, like yellow fever, is spread by the bite of the Aedes Aegypti fly. It feeds on
the blood of an infected individual and then transmits the virus to a healthy person by
his sting.
• Lymph node enlargement, fever, severe muscular pain, joint discomfort, and the
emergence of skin rashes are among the most typical signs of this disease. Like other
viral infections, dengue can be avoided by delivering a single-dose vaccination.

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Influenza:
• This happens when the RNA virus lodges and reproduces in the body’s cells. It often
affects the respiratory tract and is frequently misdiagnosed as cold in its early stages.
• Headache, malaise, fever, dry cough, bodily weakness, diarrhea, vomiting, and sore
throat are the most prevalent symptoms of this condition. The use of influenza
vaccinations can help to avoid this condition. These vaccinations often protect patients
against many strains of flu, including swine flu.

Chickenpox:
• Chickenpox is infectious when the body’s cells infect the varicella-zoster virus.
• Chickenpox symptoms include headache, lack of appetite, physical tiredness, and
fever. This sickness is nearly never dangerous and usually lasts no more than ten days.
Ointments, lotions, and skin creams are commonly used to treat it.

AIDS/HIV:
• The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) destroys the immune system, rendering
patients vulnerable to potentially fatal illnesses.
• AIDS, termed Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome, is a time of HIV infection in
which there are low levels of defence and the advent of uncommon diseases known as
opportunistic infections, which occur when the HIV-infected person’s immune
defences are weak.

MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Telomere-to-Telomere (T2T) Consortium, which was seen in the news recently, is

associated with the research of?
A. Covid-19 Vaccine
B. Human Genome
C. Healthcare Robot
D. Cancer Drug
E. None of these
Ans: B. Human Genome
Explanation: Roughly one-tenth of the human genome remained uncharted when
genomics researchers Karen Miga at the University of California, Santa Cruz, and Adam
Phillippy at the National Human Genome Research Institute in Bethesda, Maryland,
launched the Telomere-to-Telomere (T2T) consortium...

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2. Shenzhou-13 is the longest crewed space mission of which country?

A. China
B. India
C. USA
D. UAE
E. Pakistan
Ans: A. China
Explanation: Shenzhou 13: China's longest crewed space mission comes to an end.
3. Which is the first state in India to get the ‘L-root server’, to provide digital services with
seamless internet connectivity?
A. Kerala
B. Rajasthan
C. Gujarat
D. Telangana
E. None of these
Ans: B Rajasthan
Explanation: Rajasthan is the first state in India to get an L - root server.
4. Which institution organizes the ‘National Cyber Security Incident Response Exercise
(NCX India)’?
A. Indian Army
B. National Security Council
C. Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
D. NITI Aayog
E. China Army
Ans: B. National Security Council
Explanation: The program is being conducted by the National Security Council Secretariat
(NSCS), Govt.
5. Which country has detected the first case of H3N8 strain of bird flu in humans?
A. Russia
B. China
C. North Korea
D. Indonesia
E. None of these
Ans: B. China

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Explanation: The report from China is the first case of such an event. According to Reuters,
the child had been in contact with chickens and crows raised at his home.
6. Which is the hottest planet in our Solar system?
A. Mercury
B. Venus
C. Mars
D. Jupiter
E. Stars
Ans: B. Venus
Explanation: Venus is the second planet from the Sun and Earth's closest planetary
neighbor. Even though Mercury is closer to the Sun, Venus is the hottest planet in our solar
system. Its thick atmosphere is full of the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide, and it has clouds
of sulfuric acid.
7. Which country’s Mars lander recently detected the largest quake that was observed on
another planet?
A. UAE
B. USA
C. China
D. Israel
E. None of these
Ans: B. USA
Explanation:
A magnitude 5 quake shook the surface of Mars on May 4, the strongest temblor ever
detected not only on Mars but on any planet besides Earth.
8. How many new Indian languages have been added in Google Translate language
translation tool recently?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 14
E. 20
Ans: C. 8
Explanation:
How many new Indian languages have been added in Google Translate language translation
tool recently? Notes: Google has recently added 8 Indian languages including Assamese,
Bhojpuri, Sanskrit, Dogri, Konkani, Meiteilon (Manipuri), Mizo, and Maithili.

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9. RSV, the most common cause of infection in children, is associated with which disease?
A. Respiratory Disease
B. Liver Disease
C. Ear Infections
D. Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease
E. None of these
Ans: A. Respiratory disease
Explanation:
RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis (inflammation of the small airways in the
lung) and pneumonia (infection of the lungs) in children younger than 1 year of age in the
United States. Know the symptoms to look for and how to care for people with RSV.

10. Which country has proposed ‘Closeby Habitable Exoplanet Survey (CHES)’?
A. USA
B. Israel
C. China
D. South Korea
E. Afghanistan
Ans: C. China
Explanation:
China proposed a project named Closeby Habitable Exoplanet Survey (CHES) to survey
the sky through a space-based telescope.
11. Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO), which was seen in the news, is associated with which
field?
A. Space Science
B. Meteorology
C. Economy
D. Psychology
E. None of these
Ans: B. Meteorology
Explanation:
Because of this pattern, the Madden–Julian oscillation is also known as the 30- to 60-day
oscillation, 30- to 60-day wave, or intraseasonal oscillation.

12. Which space company successfully conducted a static fire test of ‘Kalam-100 rocket’?
A. NSIL
B. Sky root
C. Pixxel

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D. Agnikul
E. NITI
Ans: B. Sky root

Explanation:
Hyderabad-based space technology start-up Skyroot Aerospace successfully conducted a
static fire test of its Kalam-100 rocket that will power the Vikran-1 launch vehicle.

13. What is the expansion of ‘D2M broadcasting’, which was seen in the news recently?
A. Digital-to-Mobile
B. Direct-to-Mobile
C. Device-to-Mobile
D. Direct-to-Movie
E. None of these
Ans: B. Direct-to-Mobile
Explanation:
It allows broadcasting video and other forms of multimedia content directly to mobile
phones, without the need of an active internet connection. The technology is also expected
to improve consumption of broadband and utilisation of spectrum.

14. Which country has reported mortality due to infection of a tick-borne Powassan virus?
A. China
B. USA
C. South Africa
D. Argentina
E. Indonesia
Ans: B. USA
Explanation:
Human Powassan virus infections have been recognized in the United States, Canada, and
Russia. In the United States, cases of Powassan virus disease (Powassan) have been
reported primarily from northeastern states and the Great Lakes region.

15. Language Model for Dialogue Applications (LaMDA) is the chatbot of which
technology company?
A. Google
B. Microsoft
C. Apple
D. Samsung
E. None of these

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Ans: A. Google
Explanation:
Language Model for Dialogue Applications (LaMDA) is a technology developed by
Google, specifically by the Google Research team. It is a natural language processing (NLP)
technology designed to improve the conversational abilities of chatbots and virtual
assistants.

16. Which company launched ‘Internet Explorer (IE) browser’ in 1995?

A. Apple
B. Microsoft
C. Google
D. Samsung
E. Vivo
Ans: B. Microsoft
Explanation:
The "Internet Explorer (IE) browser" was launched in 1995 by Microsoft Corporation.
It was one of the first web browsers to gain widespread popularity and was pre-installed on
most Windows-based computers for many years. Internet Explorer was the default web
browser for Windows operating systems until Microsoft Edge replaced it in 2015.

17. Charon is the natural satellite of __?

A. Neptune
B. Jupiter
C. Pluto
D. Uranus
E. None of these
Ans: C. Pluto
Explanation:
Charon is the natural satellite (moon) of the dwarf planet Pluto. It is the largest of Pluto's
five moons, and it is one of the largest known moons relative to its host planet. Charon was
discovered in 1978 by James Christy and named after the mythological ferryman who
transported souls across the river Styx in Greek mythology.

18. Stylobates calcifer, the newly discovered species of sea anemone, has symbiotic
relationship with__?
A. Red rock crab
B. Hermit crab
C. Oyster crab
D. Red king crab

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E. Green Rock crab

Ans: B. Hermit crab
Explanation:
Stylobates calcifer, the newly discovered species of sea anemone, has a symbiotic
relationship with the algae species called Symbiodinium.
This type of symbiotic relationship, where two organisms live together in a mutually
beneficial relationship, is known as mutualism. The algae provide the sea anemone with
nutrients produced by photosynthesis, while the sea anemone provides the algae with a
protected environment and access to sunlight. This relationship is similar to the symbiotic
relationship between coral and algae in coral reefs.

19. Which institution has developed an Artificial Intelligence-based tool - ‘PIVOT’, that
can predict cancer-causing genes?
A. IISc Bengaluru
B. IIT Madras
C. IIT Delhi
D. IIT Bombay
E. None of these
Ans: B. IIT Madras
Explanation:
The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras has developed an Artificial Intelligence-
based tool called 'PIVOT' (Pathogenicity Interpretation and Variants Organization Tool)
that can predict cancer-causing genes. The tool uses machine learning algorithms to
analyze genomic data and predict the potential pathogenicity (disease-causing potential)
of genetic variants. It can be used to identify cancer-causing genes and help in the
development of personalized cancer treatments. PIVOT has been published in the journal
Nucleic Acids Research and is freely available to researchers and clinicians worldwide.

20. The oldest documented light in the history of the universe, which was recently released,
was captured by which telescope?
A. Hubble Space Telescope
B. James Webb Space Telescope
C. Voyager Space Telescope
D. Akash Space Telescope
E. Telescope
Ans: B. James Webb Space Telescope
Explanation:

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The oldest documented light in the history of the universe, known as the Cosmic
Microwave Background (CMB) radiation, was not captured by a telescope but was rather
detected using specialized instruments called radiometers. However, the most detailed
maps of the CMB radiation were created using data collected by the European Space
Agency's Planck satellite, which was designed to study the CMB radiation in
unprecedented detail. The Planck satellite was launched in 2009 and operated until 2013,
during which time it collected data on the CMB radiation and other cosmic phenomena.
The recent release of the oldest documented light in the history of the universe was based
on data from the Planck satellite.

21. India’s first shared Radio Access Network (RAN) solution is set to be launched in which
city?
A. Chennai
B. Mumbai
C. New Delhi
D. Bengaluru
E. None of these
Ans: B. Mumbai
Explanation:
India's first shared Radio Access Network (RAN) solution is set to be launched in the city
of Mumbai. The shared RAN solution is a joint initiative of the Indian
telecommunications company Bharti Airtel and the American multinational technology
company Qualcomm. The RAN solution is designed to enhance network capacity,
coverage, and performance, while also reducing the cost of network infrastructure. It
allows multiple telecom operators to share a common network infrastructure, including
radio access equipment such as base stations and antennas, while still maintaining
separate core networks and services. The shared RAN solution is expected to improve
network quality and capacity, reduce network deployment costs, and help accelerate the
rollout of 5G services in India.

22. Which major technology company has released the ‘Child safety toolkit’ and ‘Cyber-
security up-skilling program’?
A. Microsoft
B. Google
C. Apple
D. Amazon
E. Nokia
Ans: B. Google
Explanation:

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The major technology company that has released the "Child Safety Toolkit" and
"Cybersecurity Up-skilling Program" is IBM. The Child Safety Toolkit is designed to help
organizations protect children from online threats such as cyberbullying, online predators,
and inappropriate content. It provides resources and guidance on best practices for child
safety, including policies, training, and technology solutions.

23. What is the name of the Satellite Based Augmentation System jointly developed by
ISRO and Airports Authority of India (AAI)?
A. NIPUN
B. KALAM
C. GAGAN
D. VIKAS
E. None of these
Ans: C. GAGAN
Explanation:
The name of the Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) jointly developed by the
Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and the Airports Authority of India (AAI) is
GAGAN, which stands for GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation. GAGAN is a system
that provides enhanced navigation signals to improve the accuracy, integrity, and
availability of Global Positioning System (GPS) signals in India and neighboring regions.
The system uses a network of ground-based reference stations and geostationary satellites
to provide correction and augmentation signals to GPS users, including pilots, mariners,
and land-based users. GAGAN is fully operational and provides navigation services to
users in India and surrounding regions.

24. The space consortium of HAL and which company has won the contract for next 5 Polar
Satellite Launch Vehicles (PSLVs)?
A. Boeing
B. Air Bus
C. Larsen & Toubro (L&T)
D. Tata Engineering
E. Motorcycle
Ans: C. Larsen & Toubro (L&T)
Explanation:
The space consortium of Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and Indian aerospace
company Larsen & Toubro (L&T) has won the contract for the next five Polar Satellite
Launch Vehicles (PSLVs) from the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). The
PSLV is a reliable and versatile launch vehicle that has been used to launch a wide range
of satellites for both domestic and international customers. The HAL-L&T consortium

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will be responsible to produce the PSLV launch vehicles, including the integration of the
various subsystems and components, as well as the testing and quality assurance
activities. This contract is part of ISRO's efforts to increase the domestic production of
launch vehicles and reduce the country's dependence on foreign launch providers.

25. Which country has devised a system that can create ‘Ccyborg cockroaches?
A. USA
B. India
C. Japan
D. Australia
E. None of these
Ans: C. Japan
Explanation:
The United States has devised a system that can create 'cyborg cockroaches'. Researchers
at North Carolina State University and the University of Connecticut have developed a
technology that allows them to control the movements of cockroaches by attaching small
electronic backpacks to their bodies. The backpacks contain tiny electrodes that stimulate
the cockroaches' antennae, which they use to sense their environment and navigate.

26. As per a recent study, which species across the world collectively constitute about 12
million tonnes of dry carbon?
A. Mosquitoes
B. Ants
C. Bees
D. Butterflies
E. Burds
Ans: B. Ants
Explanation:
As per a recent study, ants across the world collectively constitute about 12 million tonnes
of dry carbon. The study, published in the journal "Nature Communications", estimated
the total biomass of all ant species on Earth to be around 1012 grams, or approximately 1
trillion grams. The researchers calculated this estimate by combining data from previous
studies on ant abundance and biomass, as well as information on the geographic
distribution and ecological traits of different ant species. The study highlights the
important role that ants play in many ecosystems, including nutrient cycling, seed
dispersal, and pest control.

27. Which country launched experimental satellites named Shiyan-14 and Shiyan-15?
A. Iran

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B. UAE
C. China
D. North Korea
E. None of these
Ans: C. China
Explanation:
China launched the experimental satellites named Shiyan-14 and Shiyan-15. The satellites
were launched together on a Long March-4B rocket from the Taiyuan Satellite Launch
Center on July 26, 2021. The Shiyan-14 and Shiyan-15 satellites are part of a series of
experimental satellites developed by the Chinese Academy of Sciences to test new
technologies and conduct scientific experiments in space.

28. Which city is the host of ‘Indian Mobile Congress’ in 2022?

A. New Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Ahmedabad
D. Bengaluru
E. Chennai
Ans: A. New Delhi
Explanation:
The Indian Mobile Congress (IMC) in 2022 will be hosted by the city of Hyderabad. The
IMC is the largest mobile technology event in South Asia and is organized by the Cellular
Operators Association of India (COAI) in partnership with the Department of
Telecommunications (DoT) and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(MeitY). The event brings together stakeholders from the mobile technology industry,
including policymakers, operators, device manufacturers, and app developers, to discuss
the latest trends and innovations in the field.
29. Which term is used to define the field of chemistry which is related to linking molecules
like those in living cells?
A. Join Chemistry
B. Click Chemistry
C. Snap Chemistry
D. Biochemistry
E. None of these
Ans: B. Click Chemistry
Explanation:
The term used to define the field of chemistry that is related to linking molecules like
those in living cells is "chemical biology". Chemical biology is an interdisciplinary field

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that combines the principles and techniques of chemistry and biology to study the
chemical interactions between molecules in living systems.

30. Which institution released the ‘Responsible AI Hub and resource kit’ to ensure the
responsible adoption of AI?
A. NITI Aayog
B. NASSCOM
C. FICCI
D. ASSOCHAM
E. UAEAE
Ans: B. NASSCOM
Explanation:
The World Economic Forum (WEF) released the 'Responsible AI Hub and Resource Kit'
to ensure the responsible adoption of AI. The Responsible AI Hub and Resource Kit is a
collection of resources, tools, and best practices designed to help organizations develop
and implement responsible AI strategies. The Hub includes a set of principles for
responsible AI development and deployment, as well as practical guidance on issues such
as data governance, transparency, and accountability.

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NATIONAL PARKS & SANCTUARIES

National parks are areas that aim to protect the natural environment. They are also involved
in public recreation and enjoyment activities. In a national park, the landscapes and its flora
and fauna are present in their natural state.

India is rich in biodiversity. It comprises about 7.6% mammals, 6.2% reptiles, 12.6% birds,
and 6.0% flowering plant species under the Indomalayan ecozone. Many eco-regions of our
country like Shola forests exhibit high rates of endemism. The forests cover over the ranges
from the tropical rainforest, the Western Ghats, and Northeast India to the coniferous forests
in the Himalayan region.

The significant terrestrial ecosystem coming along the Indomalayan ecozone consists of
temperate, polar, wet, dry regions for different kind of species to live. The species include
elephant, tiger, cobra, crocodile, apes, sambar deer, spotted deer, rhinoceros, goats, lions
along with different types of flora and faunas.

Indian wildlife has around 99 world-recognized national parks in different parts of the
country. All these national parks and the wildlife reserves have been recognized by the
IUCN or the International Union for the Conservation of Nature under the second category
of protected areas.

National parks provide a haven for wildlife away from civilization. India has currently over
100 national parks distributed across the country, stretching across various biomes. The
Hailey National Park is the first national park in India. It is one of the finest examples of
ecological conservation. The other national parks in India include:

All these national parks are an abode to a large number of wild animals because of the
optimum environmental conditions with proper upbringing and breeding facilities. A
national park is a conservation of ‘wild nature for posterity and as a symbol of national
pride. It is one of the important questions asked in competitive examinations. Many
competitive exams concentrate on topics like the list of national parks in India with animals
and wildlife sanctuaries in India. Each and every single mark will be more valuable to the
candidates. To strive the battle collects each and every single mark from the easiest topic
like the list of national parks in India

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Interesting Facts of Important national parks in India

India’s First National Park – Hailey National Park (Uttarakhand, 1936). Now it is known
as Jim Corbett National Park.

India’s Biggest National Park – Hemis National Park (Jammu and Kashmir).

India’s Smallest National Park – South Button Island National Park (Andaman & Nicobar
Island). Indian State with the maximum number of national parks – Madhya Pradesh.

Protected Areas of India:

These are described in accordance with the IUCN’s recommended guidelines (The
International Union for Conservation of Nature).

There are mainly four types of protected areas which are-

• National Park
• Wildlife Sanctuaries
• Conservation reserves
• Community reserves

National Park in India

• Any place declared a national park by the state government is classified as IUCN
category II.
• In India, there are 104 national parks.
• Jim Corbett National Park was India’s first national park (previously known as Hailey
National Park)
• Only those human rights and activities that have been approved by the state’s chief
wildlife warden are permitted.
• It encompassed 1.23 percent of India’s land area.

So, candidates use this list of important national parks in India state wise.

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List of National Parks in India State wise

List of National Parks in India State wise

State/Union Establishment
List of National Parks in India
Territory Year

Campbell Bay National Park 1992

Galathea Bay National Park 1992

Mahatama Gandhi Marine (Wandoor) 1982

National Park

Middle Button Island National Park 1987

Andaman & Nicobar

Islands Mount Harriett National Park 1987

North Button Island National Park 1987

Rani Jhansi Marine National Park 1996

Saddle Peak National Park 1987

South Button Island National Park 1987

Papikonda National Park 2008

Rajiv Gandhi (Rameswaram) National 2005

Andhra Pradesh
Park

Sri Venkateswara National Park 1989

Arunachal Pradesh Mouling National Park 1986

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Namdapha National Park 1983

Dibru-Saikhowa National Park 1999

Assam Kaziranga National Park 1974

Manas National Park 1990

Nameri National Park 1998

Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park 1999

Raimona National Park 2021

Dihing Patkai National Park 2021

Bihar Valmiki National Park 1989

Guru Ghasidas (Sanjay) National Park 1981

Chhattisgarh Indravati (Kutru) National Park 1982

Kanger Valley National Park 1982

Goa Mollem National Park 1992

Vansda National Park 1979

Blackbuck (Velavadar) National Park 1976

Gujarat
Gir National Park 1975

Marine (Gulf of Kachchh) National Park 1982

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Haryana Kolesar National Park 2003

Sulta National Parkur National Park 1989

Himachal Pradesh Great Himalayan National Park 1984

Inderkilla National Park 2010

Khirganga National Park 2010

Pin Valley National Park 1987

Simbalbara National Park 2010

Jammu and Kashmir City Forest (Salim Ali) National Park 1992

Dachigam National Park 1981

Kishtwar National Park 1981

Kazinag National Park 2007

Jharkhand Betla National Park 1986

Karnataka Anshi National Park 1987

Bandipur National Park 1974

Bannerghatta National Park 1974

Kudremukh National Park 1987

Nagarahole (Rajiv Gandhi) National Park 1988

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Kerala Anamudi Shola National Park 2003

Eravikulam National Park 1978

Mathikettan Shola National Park 2003

Pambadum Shola National Park 2003

Periyar National Park 1982

Silent Valley National Park 1984

Madhya Pradesh Bandhavgarh National Park 1968

Fossil National Park 1983

Indira Priyadarshini Pench National Park 1975

Kanha National Park 1955

Madhav National Park 1959

Panna National Park 1981

Sanjay National Park 1981

Satpura National Park 1981

Van Vihar National Park 1979

Maharashtra Chandoli National Park 2004

Gugamal National Park 1975

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Nawegaon National Park 1975

Pench (Jawaharlal Nehru) National Park 1975

Sanjay Gandhi (Borivali) National Park 1983

Tadoba National Park 1955

Manipur Keibul-Lamjao National Park 1977

Meghalaya Balphakram National Park 1985

Nokrek Ridge National Park 1986

Mizoram Murlen National Park 1991

Phawngpui Blue Mountain National Park 1992

Nagaland Intanki National Park 1993

Odisha Bhitarkanika National Park 1988

Simlipal National Park 1980

Rajasthan Mukunda Hills National Park 2006

Desert National Park 1992

Keoladeo Ghana National Park 1981

Ranthambhore National Park 1980

Sariska National Park 1992

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Sikkim Khangchendzonga National Park 1977

Tamil Nadu Guindy National Park 1976

Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park 1980

Indira Gandhi (Annamalai) National Park 1989

Mudumalai National Park 1990

Mukurthi National Park 1990

Ladakh Hemis National Park 1981

Telangana Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park 1994

Mahaveer Harina Vanasthali National 1994

Park

Mrugavani National Park 1994

Tripura Clouded Leopard National Park 2007

Bison (Rajbari) National Park 2007

Uttar Pradesh Dudhwa National Park 1977

Uttarakhand Corbett National Park 1936

Gangotri National Park 1989

Govind National Park 1990

Nanda Devi National Park 1982

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Rajaji National Park 1983

Valley of Flowers National Park 1982

West Bengal Buxa National Park 1992

Gorumara National Park 1992

Jaldapara National Park 2014

Neora Valley National Park 1986

Singalila National Park 1986

Sunderban National Park 1984

What is a Sanctuary?
Sanctuaries are naturally occurring areas that are meant to protect the endangered species
from hunting, poaching and predation. Here the animals are not bred for commercial
purposes. It provides a safe, healthy and secured refuge to all the wild animals.

List of Wildlife Sanctuaries in India

Following is the list of sanctuaries found in India:

1. Dichigam Wildlife Sanctuary

2. Sunderbans Wildlife Sanctuary
3. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary
5. Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
6. Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary
7. Mundanthurai Wildlife Sanctuary
8. Annamalai Wildlife Sanctuary
9. Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary
10. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary

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Initially, many of the National Parks were wildlife sanctuaries. After the adoption of
conservative measures by the Indian Government, there was a 30% rise in the number of
tigers in the year 2015. These wildlife sanctuaries and national parks are the most visited
areas in India that offer an unmatchable wilderness in various regions.

The wildlife lovers and tourists can find more opportunities for sightseeing, safari tour, bird
watching, angling, fishing, river crossing, camping, and tiger tours at distinct tiger reserves
in India.

To make a better and rewarding wildlife experience to the tourists, these destinations are
made much more extensive by the Wildlife Authority of India, thus making them as better-
known tourist spots having major attractions. There is also a provision of various kinds of
accommodations such as resorts, hotels, lodges coming in close vicinity.

National parks and sanctuaries are important topics for bank exams, especially those that
focus on environmental awareness and conservation. Here are some key points that you
should know:

National Parks: National Parks are protected areas where the natural environment is
preserved and maintained. These areas are typically home to a variety of plant and animal
species, and are important for their ecological, aesthetic, and cultural value. In India, the
first national park was established in 1936, and there are currently 104 national parks in the
country.

Wildlife Sanctuaries: Wildlife Sanctuaries are protected areas where animals are protected
from hunting, poaching, and other forms of exploitation. These areas are important for
preserving endangered species and maintaining biodiversity. In India, there are currently
over 550 wildlife sanctuaries.

Protected Areas Network: National parks and wildlife sanctuaries are part of a larger
network of protected areas, which also includes biosphere reserves, conservation reserves,
and community reserves. This network helps to ensure that natural resources are conserved
and managed in a sustainable way.

Conservation Efforts: National parks and wildlife sanctuaries are important for conserving
biodiversity and protecting endangered species. Efforts are also made to prevent illegal
poaching, logging, and other activities that can damage the ecosystem.

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Economic Importance: National parks and wildlife sanctuaries also have economic
importance, as they attract tourists and provide opportunities for eco-tourism. This can help
to support local communities and promote sustainable development.

Challenges: Despite their importance, national parks and wildlife sanctuaries face a number
of challenges, including encroachment, poaching, and habitat destruction. Efforts are being
made to address these challenges through conservation and management strategies.

Difference between National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries: National Parks are
typically larger areas that are established by the government for the protection of wildlife
and their habitats. On the other hand, Wildlife Sanctuaries are smaller areas that are set up
for the specific purpose of protecting wildlife. Hunting and other human activities are
strictly prohibited in both national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.

Important National Parks in India: Some of the important national parks in India include
Jim Corbett National Park, Kazi Ranga National Park, Bandhavgarh National Park, Sariska
National Park, Kanha National Park, and Sunderbans National Park.

Important Wildlife Sanctuaries in India: Some of the important wildlife sanctuaries in

India include Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary, Gir Wildlife
Sanctuary, Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary, Dachigam Wildlife Sanctuary, and Bandhavgarh
Wildlife Sanctuary.

International Conventions: India is a signatory to several international conventions

related to biodiversity conservation, including the Convention on Biological Diversity and
the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands. These conventions aim to promote the conservation
and sustainable use of natural resources.

Recent Developments: In recent years, there has been an increasing focus on eco-tourism
and sustainable development in and around national parks and wildlife sanctuaries. Efforts
are being made to involve local communities in conservation efforts, and to promote
awareness about the importance of biodiversity conservation.

Government Initiatives: The Government of India has launched several initiatives to

promote biodiversity conservation, including Project Tiger, which aims to protect and
conserve tigers and their habitats, and Project Elephant, which focuses on the conservation
of elephants and their habitats. The government has also set up a National Biodiversity
Authority to regulate and promote conservation efforts.

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Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following National Park is in Haryana?
A. Kalesar National Park
B. Kazi Ranga National Park
C. Jim Corbett National Park
D. Gir National Park
E.Not Attempted
Ans: A. Kalesar National Park
Explanation:
The Kalesar National Park (KNP) is in the eastern district of Haryana and covers 13,000
acres. It is situated in the foothills of Shiwalik ranges of mighty Himalayas. It falls under
Yamuna Nagar District of Haryana, sharing boundary with three states that are Himachal
Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and Uttar Pradesh.
Kalesar National Park is named after the Kalesar (Shiva) temple located in a protected area.
2. In budget 2023-2024 Tamil Nadu government is going to set up the international Bird
Centre in?
A. Vedanthangal
B. Chennai
C. Marakkanam
D. Coimbatore
E. None of these

Ans: C. Marakkanam
Explanation:
Government is to set up an International Bird Centre at Marakkanam at an estimated cost
of Rs 25 crores. The Government also announced a new wildlife sanctuary named Thanthai
Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary.
3. Consider the statements regarding Theppakadu Elephant Camp:
1. It is the oldest elephant camp in the world.
2. It is located inside Mudumalai National Park in the Nilgiris, Tamil Nadu.
3. Mudumalai National Park has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
(Kerala) on the West, and Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the North.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. Both 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of these

Ans: B. Both 1 and 3

Explanation:
Theppakadu Elephant Camp is located deep inside the Mudumalai National Park in the
Nilgiris, Tamil Nadu. The Camp elephants consist of rescued and captured conflict animals.
It has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the West, and
Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the North. Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) is in
the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu.

4. How many wildlife sanctuaries are there in Haryana?

A. 2
B. 8
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of these

Ans: B. 8

Explanation:
There are eight wildlife sanctuaries in Haryana. The eight wildlife sanctuaries include Khol-
Hai-Raritan, Bir Shikargah in Morni, Pinjore in Panchkula, Kalesar Wildlife Sanctuary in
Yamuna Nagar, Chhilchhila Wildlife Sanctuary in Kurushetra, Nahar Wildlife Sanctuary in
Rewari, Abubshahar Wildlife Sanctuary in Sirsa, Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary and
Khaparwas Wildlife Sanctuary in district Jhajjar.

Haryana has two national parks that are Sultanpur National Park and Kalesar National Park.

5. Consider the following statements with reference to the Kalakad Mundanthurai

Tiger Reserve (KMTR):
1. It is situated in the state of Tamil Nadu.
2. It is part of the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
E. None of these

Ans: C. both 1 and 2

Explanation:
The Hindu: Researchers from Tamil Nadu have spotted a rare moth species for the first
time in India in the Kalakkad–Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve. The Kalakad Mundanthurai
Tiger Reserve (KMTR) in Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari District of Tamil Nadu is one of
the protected areas having diverse flora and fauna.

This region has got vegetation types that gradually change from dry thorn forest to dry
deciduous. It is part of the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve.

6. Keibul Lamjao National Park is located on which lake?

A. Kolleru Lake
B. Wular Lake
C. Dal Lake
D. Loktak Lake
E. None of these

Ans: D. Loktak Lake

Explanation:
Keibul Lamjao National Park, the only floating park in the world, is in the Loktak lake. It
is in the Bishnupur district of Manipur in India.

Keibul Lamjao National Park is the only floating National Park in the world. It is the home
of the brow-antlered deer which is one of the most endangered deer in the world.

7. Gautam Buddha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in _______.

A. Bihar
B. Odisha
C. Jharkhand
D. Both 1 and 3
E. None of these

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Ans: D. Both 1 and 3

Explanation:
Gautam Buddha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Jharkhand and Bihar. Gautam Budha
Wildlife Sanctuary (also spelled Gautam Buddha) is a wildlife sanctuary located in Gaya
district of Bihar state and Koderma district of Jharkhand state in east-central India. The
refuge was established in 1976 and covers an area of 259 km2.

8. In December 2021, Askot Wildlife Sanctuary has been declared as an Eco-Sensitive Zone
(ESZ) by the Union Environment Ministry. It is situated in which state?
A. Uttarakhand
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Gujarat
D. Karnataka
E. None of these

Ans: A. Uttarakhand

Explanation:
Askot Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttarakhand’s Pithoragarh has been declared as an Eco-
Sensitive Zone (ESZ) by the Union Environment Ministry.

The sanctuary area is now limited from the original area of 599.93 square km to only 454.65
square km giving a comparatively little area for the fauna to move around. Known as ‘Green
Paradise on the Earth’, the sanctuary was established in 1986.

9. Which of the following is the largest wildlife sanctuary located in Madhya Pradesh?
A. Ghatigaon Wildlife Sanctuary
B. Kheoni wildlife Sanctuary
C. Nauradehi wildlife sanctuary
D. Kuno Wildlife Sanctuary
E. None of these

Ans: C. Nauradehi wildlife sanctuary

Explanation:
'Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary' is the largest wildlife sanctuary of Madhya Pradesh. It is a
potential site for the re-introduction of Cheetah in India. The National Tiger Conservation
Authority (NTCA) in February 2019 told a bench of the Supreme Court that African

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cheetahs would be translocated to India from Namibia and would be kept at Nauradehi
wildlife sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh.

10. Which Sanctuary in Rajasthan was notified as India's 52nd tiger reserve on May 16,
2022?
A. Gajner Wildlife Sanctuary
B. Kaila Devi Sanctuary
C. Keoladeo Ghana National Park
D. Ramgarh Vishdhari Sanctuary.
E. None of these

Ans: D. Ramgarh Vishdhari Sanctuary.

Explanation:
The Ramgarh Vishdhari Sanctuary in Rajasthan was notified as India's 52nd tiger reserve
on May 16, 2022. This is Rajasthan's fourth tiger reserve after Ranthambore, Sariska and
Mukundra. According to "Status of Tigers in India" report released in 2019, there are 2,967
tigers in 20 states across the country.

11. Which of the following Wildlife Sanctuaries have been declared Ramsar sites by the
Ramsar Convention in February 2022?
A. Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary
B. Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary
C. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary
D. Both A and B
E. None of these

Ans: D. Both A and B

Explanation:
The Khijadiya Bird Sanctuary near Jamnagar in Gujarat and Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary in
Uttar Pradesh have been listed as Wetlands of International Importance by the Ramsar
Convention. Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and
sustainable use of wetlands.

12. In which of the following countries is the Kruger National Park situated?
A. South Africa
B. Germany
C. United States of America

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D. India
E. None of these

Ans: A. South Africa

Explanation:
Kruger National Park is the largest national park situated in South Africa. It is located in
the west of the Lebombo Mountains on the Mozambique border. It is the part of the Kruger
to Canyons Biosphere area which is designated by the UNESCO.

13. Which of the following national park is located in Karnataka?

A. Kanger Ghati National Park
B. Bannerghatta National Park
C. Indravati National Park
D. Hemis National Park
E. None of these

Ans: B. Bannerghatta National Park

Explanation:
Bannerghatta National Park and Nagarhole National Park and Tiger Reserve are in the state
of Karnataka.

14. Where is 'Bandipur' Sanctuary situated?

A. Karnataka
B. Odisha
C. Gujarat
D. Rajasthan
E. Surat

Ans: A. Karnataka

Explanation:
Bandipur Sanctuary is located in Karnataka. As a tiger reserve, it was established in
1974.The sanctuary was established under the project tiger. It is also a national park.

In Karnataka, the second highest tiger population can be found. Nagarhole national park is
adjacent to the Bandipur national park. The sanctuary is known for the wildlife
sanctuary and many types of biomes,

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15. In which state is the Bankapura Peacock Sanctuary situated?

A. Rajasthan
B. Maharashtra
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Karnataka
E. None of these

Ans: D. Karnataka

Explanation:
Bankapura Peacock Sanctuary is situated in Karnataka. Bankapura Peacock Sanctuary: The
sanctuary is famous for peacocks is situated in Karnataka. The sanctuary is located inside
the Bankapura Fort. The sanctuary has more than 1000 peacocks. Other national parks and
sanctuaries in Karnataka are Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park, Dandeli
Wildlife Sanctuary, Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary, Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary,
Bannerghatta National Park and Kabini.

16. Which of the following bird sanctuary situated in Jhajjar district?

A. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary
B. Bhindawas Bird Sanctuary
C. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary
D. None of these
E. None of these

Ans: B. Bhindawas Bird Sanctuary

Explanation:
Bhindawas Bird Sanctuary was established as a Bird Sanctuary by the Government of India
on 3rd June 2009. It is located in the Jhajjar district of Haryana. The Sanctuary is spread
over an area of 1074 acres. Some resident birds in the sanctuary are: Blue Peafowl, Yellow-
crowned Woodpecker, White-throated Kingfisher, Gray Francolin, Black Francolin, Shikra,
Black Kite, etc.

17. Which of the following national parks is situated in Kerala?

A. Eravikulam National Park
B. Sanjay Gandhi National Park
C. Kaziranga National Park
D. Tadoba National Park

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E. None of these

Ans: A. Eravikulam National Park

Explanation:
There are six national parks in Kerala:
• Eravikulam National Park,
• Silent Valley National Park,
• Periyar National Park,
• Pampadum Shola National Park,
• Anamudi Shola National Park and
• Mathikettan Shola National Park (Idukki National Park).

18. Kaziranga National Park is famous for which of the following-

A. Rhinoceros
B. Leopard
C. Lion
D. Crocodile
E. None of these

Ans: A. Rhinoceros

Explanation:
The Kaziranga National Park and the Manas Tiger Project (National Park) are
internationally famous for one-horned Rhino and Royal Bengal Tiger, respectively.

Kaziranga national park is famous for being the world's largest habitat for the great one-
horned rhinos. Kaziranga National Park is situated in Assam. It was declared a World
Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1985.

19. Kanha National Park is located in which Indian State?

A. West Bengal
B. Gujarat
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. Not Attempted

Ans: D. Madhya Pradesh

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Explanation:
The Kanha National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh and is famous for the Tigers.

It was created in 1955 and forms the core of the Kanha Tiger Reserve, created in 1974 under
Project Tiger. The park is also known for its evergreen Sal forests. It is also home to about
300 species of birds, 43 species of mammals, 26 species of reptiles, and more than 500
species of Insects.

20. The ______ peak is the highest peak in Silent Valley National Park, Palakkad.
A. Anamudi
B. Anginda
C. Devimala
D. Perumal
E. None of these

Ans: B. Anginda

Explanation:
Anginda Peak is the highest peak in Silent Valley National Park, Palakkad. It is a mountain
in the Nilgiri Hills of the Western Ghats on the border of the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu
and Palakkad district of Kerala. It has a height of 2,383 meters. The tributary of
Bharathappuzha i.e., River kunthipuzha arises from this peak.

21. In which state is Ranthambore National Park located?

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Maharashtra
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Rajasthan
E. None of these

Ans: D. Rajasthan

Explanation:
Ranthambore National Park is one of the largest and most famous national parks in North
India. The area of Ranthambore National Park is 392 square kilometers. The park is mainly
known for its tigers and is one of the best places in India to see majestic predators in its
natural habitat. Ranthambore National Park is a vast wildlife reserve near the town of Sawai
Madhopur in Rajasthan, northern India.

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22. Keibul Lamjao National Park is located on which lake?

A. Kolleru Lake
B. Wular Lake
C. Dal Lake
D. Loktak Lake
E. None of these

Ans: D. Loktak Lake

Explanation:
Keibul Lamjao National Park, the only floating park in the world, is located in the Loktak
lake. Keibul Lamjao National Park is the only floating National Park in the world.

It is the home of the brow-antlered deer which is one of the most endangered deer in the
world. It is located in the Bishnupur district of Manipur in India. It is an integral part of
Loktak Lake.

23. Pin Valley National Park is located in which state of India?

A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Punjab
D. Gujarat
E. None of these

Ans: A. Himachal Pradesh

Explanation:
Pin Valley National Park is a National Park of India located within the Lahaul and Spiti
district, in the state of Himachal Pradesh, in far Northern India.

With its snow laden unexplored higher reaches and slopes, the Park forms a natural habitat
for a number of endangered animals including the snow leopard and Siberian ibex.

24. Pin valley National Park is situated in ________.

A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. None of these

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Ans: C. Himachal Pradesh

Explanation:
Location: Pin Valley National Park is situated between 31° 6' 40″ to 32° 2' 20″ N Latitude
and 77° 4' 21″ to 78° 6' 19″ E Longitude. This park is located in the cold desert area of Spiti
Sub-Division of Lahaul & Spiti District of Himachal Pradesh.

25. Silent valley national park is located in:

A. Tamil Nadu
B. Kerala
C. Odisha
D. Chhattisgarh
E. None of these

Ans: B. Kerala

Explanation:
Silent Valley National Park located in the Palakkad district in the Nilgiri Mountains
of Kerala. It is at the heart of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and consists of areas of
Southwestern Ghats rain forests and tropical wet evergreen jungle. River Kunthi
passes through it. Silent Valley Park is known for many highly endangered species such as
lion-tailed macaque, tiger, gaur, leopard, wild boar, panther, Indian Civet, and Sambhar.

26. The Buxa Tiger Reserve is located in ___________.

A. Jharkhand
B. West Bengal
C. Chhattisgarh
D. Bihar
E. None of these

Ans: B. West Bengal

Explanation:
The Buxa Tiger Reserve is located in West Bengal. Buxa Tiger Reserve was established in
1983.

It was the then 15th tiger reserve in India. Animals found in Buxa Tiger Reserve Indian
leopard, Bengal tiger, clouded leopard, giant squirrel, gaur, chital, and wild boar.

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27. Nagarhole National Park is located in ________.

A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Karnataka
C. Kerala
D. Odisha
E. None of these

Ans: B. Karnataka

Explanation:
Also known as the Rajiv Gandhi National Park, the Nagarhole National Park is located in
the Mysore and Kodagu districts of Karnataka. Along with the Bandipur Tiger Reserve, the
Nagarhole National Park forms one of India's primary Tiger Reserves. The park was set up
as a wildlife sanctuary in 1955 and upgraded to a national park in 1988.

28. Which National Park among the following is the largest protected area in the Eastern
Himalayan sub-region?
A. Jim Corbett National Park
B. Namdapha National Park
C. Keibul Lamjao National Park
D. Bandipur National Park
E. None of these

Ans: B. Namdapha National Park

Explanation:
Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalayan sub-region.
It is a wide protected area of 1,985 km2 in Arunachal Pradesh of Northeast India. The
national park harbours the northernmost lowland evergreen rainforests in the world at 27°N
latitude.

29. Which among the following pairs is correctly matched with respect to their locations?
1. Amangarh Tiger Reserve - Bihar
2. Valmiki National Park - Bihar
3. Palamau national park - Andhra Pradesh
4. Namdapha national park - Uttar Pradesh
5. None of these

Ans: B. Valmiki National Park - Bihar

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Explanation:
Valmiki National Park is a Tiger Reserve in the West Champaran District of Bihar, India.
It is the only national park in Bihar. Valmiki Tiger Reserve covers
898.45 km2 (346.89 sq mi), which is 17.4% of the total geographical area of the district. As
of 2018, there were 40 tigers in the Reserve.

30. The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in __________.

A. Kerala
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Karnataka
E. None of these

Ans: B. Andhra Pradesh

Explanation:
The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is a forest located near Visakhapatnam. It is under
the control of Andhra Pradesh Forest Department.

31. In which state Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary is located?

A. New Delhi
B. Haryana
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. West Bengal
E. None of these

Ans: C. Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation:
The Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary, established in 1989, is rich in flora and fauna. It is
situated in the Lohit District of the northeastern Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh.

32. Achanakmar Wildlife Sanctuary is in ___________.

A. Assam
B. J & K
C. Punjab
D. Chhattisgarh
E. None of these

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Ans: D. Chhattisgarh

Explanation:
Achanakmar Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife park in Chhattisgarh, India. The sanctuary
houses a number of endangered animal species, including leopards, Bengal tigers, and
wild bison.

33. Which wildlife Sanctuary is located in Gujarat?

A. Badalkohl Wildlife Sanctuary
B. Rupi Bhabha Sanctuary
C. Hirpora Wildlife Sanctuary
D. Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary
E. None of these

Ans: D. Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary

Explanation:
Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Great Rann of Kutch, Kutch district,
Gujarat, India, it was declared a sanctuary in February 1986.

34. Ranebennur Blackbuck Sanctuary is located in:

A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Maharashtra
C. Karnataka
D. Tamil Nadu
E. None of these

Ans: C. Karnataka

Explanation:
Ranebennur Blackbuck Sanctuary was declared as a sanctuary mainly to protect
blackbucks. It is located in Karanataka.

35. Chimmini Wildlife sanctuary is located in which state of India?

A. Tripura
B. Meghalaya
C. Kerala
D. Nagaland
E. None of these

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Ans: C. Kerala

Explanation:
Chimmini Wildlife sanctuary is a national park located along the Western Ghats in
Mukundapuram taluk of Thrissur District of Kerala state in India.

36. The Phansad Wildlife Sanctuary is in ___________.

A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Telanagan
C. Karnataka
D. Maharashtra
E. None of these

Ans: D. Maharashtra

Explanation:
The Phansad Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Murud and Roha talukas of Raigad District.
It is surrounded by the coastal stretch of Arabian sea.

37. In which state Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary is located?

A. Odisha
B. Assam
C. Gujarat
D. Manipur
E. None of these

Ans: A. Odisha

Explanation:
Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary is in Nuapada district, Odisha which is close boundary of
Chhatisgarh, and it is on west border of Odisha. Spread over area of 600sq kms.

38. Which of the following is correct?

A. Ranipur Sanctuary - Andhra Pradesh
B. Kedarnath Wildlife Sanctuary - J & K
C. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary - Tripura
D. Murti Wildlife Sanctuary - Tamil Nadu
E. None of these

Ans: C. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary – Tripura

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Explanation:
Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is a Wildlife Sanctuary in Tripura, India. It covers an area of
about 389.54 square kilometers.

39. In which state Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary is situated?

A. Jharkhand
B. J & K
C. Rajasthan
D. Odisha
E. None of these

Ans: A. Jharkhand

Explanation:
Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary is located 10km from the city of Jamshedpur in the Indian state
of Jharkhand. It was inaugurated by Sanjay Gandhi in 1975.

40. Pench National Park is located in which state?

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Haryana
C. Karnataka
D. Maharashtra
E. None of these

Ans: A. Madhya Pradesh

Explanation:
Pench National Park is in Seoni and Chhindwara districts of Madhya Pradesh in India. It
derives its name from the Pench River.

41. Bannerghatta National Park is situated in

A. Assam
B. Kerala
C. Jharkhand
D. Karnataka
E. None of these

Ans: D. Karnataka

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Explanation:
Bannerghatta National Park, near Bangalore, Karnataka, was founded in 1970 and
declared as a national park in 1974. In 2002 a portion of the park, became a biological
reserve, the Bannerghatta Biological Park.

42. ___________ is located in Mizoram.

A. Mollem National Park
B. Ntangki National Park
C. Blue Mountain National Park
D. Mrugavani National Park
E. None of these

Ans: C. Blue Mountain National Park

Explanation:
Phawngpui National Park or Phawngpui Blue Mountain National Park is one of the two
national parks of India in Mizoram.

43. Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park is located in which state of India?
A. Odisha
B. Telangana
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Tripura
E. None of these

Ans: B. Telangana

Explanation:
Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park is a deer national park located in
Vanasthalipuram, Hyderabad, Telangana

44. The Nanda Devi National Park is in the state of

A. Uttarakhand
B. Punjab
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Meghalaya
E. None of these

Ans: A. Uttarakhand

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Explanation:
The Nanda Devi National Park established in 1982.It is a national park situated around the
peak of Nanda Devi in the state of Uttarakhand.

45. Which of the following is correctly matched?

A. Govind Wildlife Sanctuary - West Bengal
B. Indravati National Park - Chhattisgarh
C. Pin Valley National Park - Haryana
D. Kalesar National Park - Himachal Pradesh
E. None of these

Ans: B. Indravati National Park – Chhattisgarh

Explanation:
Indravati National Park is a national park located in Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh state
of India.

46. Nandankanan Zoological Park is located in __________.

A. J & K
B. Bihar
C. Assam
D. Odisha
E. None of these

Ans: D. Odisha

Explanation:
Nandankanan Zoological Park is a 400-hectare zoo and botanical garden in Bhubaneswar,
Odisha, India.
Established in 1960, it was opened to the public in 1979 and became the first zoo in India
to join World Association of Zoos and Aquariums in 2009

47. Which of the following is not located in Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
A. Campbell Bay National Park
B. Galathea National Park
C. Mahatma National Park
D. Saddle Peak National Park
E. All of these

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Ans: E. All of these

Explanation:
Campbell Bay National Park is a national park in India, located on the island of Great
Nicobar, the largest of the Nicobar Islands in the eastern Indian Ocean

48. Chandoli National Park is located in which state of India?

A. Meghalaya
B. Manipur
C. Maharashtra
D. Mizoram
E. None of these

Ans: C. Maharashtra

Explanation:
Chandoli National Park is an 317.67km2 National Park in Kolhapur District Maharashtra
state, India, established in May 2004, earlier it was a Wildlife Sanctuary declared in 1985.

49. Which of the following is not located in Rajasthan?

A. Desert National Park
B. Ranthambore National Park
C. Keoladeo National Park
D. Sariska Tiger Reserve
E. None of these

Ans: E. None of these

Explanation:
Darrah National Park, Desert National Park, Keoladeo National Park, Mount Abu Wildlife
Sanctuary, Ranthambore
National Park, Sariska Tiger Reserve are located in Rajasthan.

50. Madhav National Park is situated in _____________.

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Assam
C. Sikkim
D. Nagaland
E. None of these

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Ans: A. Madhya Pradesh

Explanation:
Madhav National Park is situated in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh in the Shivpuri
district, close to the Shivpuri township. It was notified as a National Park in the year 1958.

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BOOKS AND AUTHORS

List of Important Books Released in 2023
January 2023

Authors Name Book Name

British historian Simon
"The World: A Family History"
Sebag Montefiore
"Breaking Barriers: The Story of a Dalit Chief
Kaki Madhava Rao
Secretary"
Shashi Tharoor "Ambedkar: A Life"

Dr. Ashvini Kumar Dwivedi "Human Anatomy"

“Revolutionaries: The Other Story of How India Won Its
Sanjeev Sanyal
Freedom”
"Mukhyamantrir Diary 1" Himanta Biswa Sarma
Professor K.K. Abdul
"Njaan Sakshi"
Gaffar's
Tamal Bandyopadhyay "Roller Coaster: An Affair with Banking"

J. R. Moehringer "Spare"
Aashish Chandorkar and "Braving A Viral Storm: India's Covid-19 Vaccine
Suraj Sudhir Story"
Javed Akhtar by Arvind
Jadunama
Mandloi
Ma. Subramanian "Come! Let's Run"

Dr. Ashwin Fernandes "India's Knowledge Supremacy: The New Dawn"

Kaushik and Ramakrishnan "COACHING BEYOND: My Days with the Indian
Sridhar Cricket Team"
"The Poverty of Political Economy: How Economics
Meghnad Desai
Abandoned the Poor"

365
 366

December 2022
Authors Name Book Name
Vikram Sampath “Brave Hearts of Bharat, Vignettes from Indian History”
Mansi Gulati “Miracles of Face Yoga”
Retired Air Marshal PV Iyer “Fit at Any Age: A Practitioner’s Guide”
Michelle Obama The Light We Carry: Overcoming in Uncertain Times
C Rangarajan “Forks in the Road: My Days at RBI and Beyond”

November 2022

Authors Name Book Name

Gautaam Borah ‘Nalanada – Until we meet again’

Simon Sebag Montefiore “The World: A Family History”

Nirmala James “E. K. Janaki Ammal: Life and Scientific Contributions”

Shane Watson “Winning the Inner Battle Bringing the best version of
you to cricket”
Minister of State for Skill “Modi@20: Dreams Meet Delivery” and “Heartfelt: The
Development and Legacy of Faith”
Entrepreneurship Rajiv
Chandrashekhar
Rene Naba “De la Nucléarisation de l’Asie“(Nuclearization of Asia)

Union Minister for Rural “Agenda for Members of Panchayati Raj Institutions for
Development and Panchayati Rural Development”
Raj, Giriraj Singh
National Mineral 1st edition of the in-house vigilance magazine, “Subodh”
Development Corporation
(NMDC), Sumit Deb

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October 2022
Authors Name Book Name
Bob Dylan “The Philosophy of Modern Song”

Minister of Petroleum and “Delhi University – Celebrating 100 Glorious Years”

Natural Gas & Housing and
Urban Affairs, Government
of India(GOI), Hardeep
Singh Puri
Dr Bimal Jalan “From dependence to Self Reliance: Mapping India’s
Rise as a Global Superpower”
Akshay Shah and Stephen “The Corbett Papers: Biographical, Legal, & Contextual
Alter Material on the Life & Career of Jim Corbett of
Kumaon”
Sahil Seth ‘A confused Mind story’

Dr Amar Patnaik Pandemic Disruptions and Odisha’s Lessons in

Governance’
External Affairs Minister S “Modi@20: Dreams Meet Delivery”
Jaishankar

September 2022

Authors Name Book Name

Launched by S Jaishankar “The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World”

Saumya Saxena "Divorce and Democracy: A History of Personal Law in

Post-Independence India"
Pavan C Lall "Forging Mettle: Nrupender Rao and the Pennar Story"

Elsa Marie D’Silva and “She Is–Women in STEAM”

Supreet K Singh
Released by Jagdeep "Pt. Deendayal Upadhyay - Jeevan Darshan Aur
Dhankhar Samsamyikta"
Released by Dr Munjpara “Science Behind Surya Namaskar”
Mahendrabhai Kalubhai

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 368

Sjoerd Marijne “Will Power: The Inside Story of the Incredible

Turnaround in Indian Women’s Hockey”
P.C. Balasubramanian “Rajini’s Mantras: Life lessons from India’s mostloved
Superstar”
Former President Ram Nath ‘Ambedkar and Modi: Reformer’s Ideas Performer’s
Kovind Implementation’
Manoj Bajpayee “Muskurate Chand Lamhe aur Kuchh Khamoshiyan”

Best New Number Theory Books to Read In 2023

1. Discrete Mathematics and Applications
2. Analytic Combinatorics
3. Combinatorics and Number Theory of Counting Sequences
4. The Art of Proving Binomial Identities
5. Elementary Modular Iwasawa Theory
6. Undergraduate Course in Number Theory
7. Combinators
8. Pillars of Transcendental Number Theory
9. A Gateway to Number Theory

Discrete Mathematics and Applications

Discrete Mathematics and Applications provides the latest information on the development
of discrete mathematics in Russia to a world-wide readership. The journal contains papers
from the Russian-language journal Diskretnaya Matematika, the only journal of the Russian
Academy of Sciences devoted to this field of mathematics. Discrete Mathematics and
Applications covers various subjects in the fields such as combinatorial analysis, graph
theory, functional systems theory, cryptology, coding, probabilistic problems of discrete
mathematics, algorithms and their complexity, combinatorial and computational problems
of number theory and of algebra.

Analytic Combinatorics
THE BASIS for course content is our textbook, which defines the field. Analytic
Combinatorics aims to enable precise quantitative predictions of the properties of large
combinatorial structures. The theory has emerged over recent decades as essential both for
the analysis of algorithms and for the study of scientific models in many disciplines,
including probability theory, statistical physics, computational biology, and information

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theory. With a careful combination of symbolic enumeration methods and complex analysis,
drawing heavily on generating functions, results of sweeping generality emerge that can be
applied in particular to fundamental structures such as permutations, sequences, strings,
walks, paths, trees, graphs and maps. This account is the definitive treatment of the topic.
It gives full coverage of the underlying mathematics and a thorough treatment of both
classical and modern applications of the theory. The text is complemented with exercises,
examples, appendices and notes to aid understanding.

Combinatorics and Number Theory of Counting Sequences

Combinatorics and Number Theory of Counting Sequences is an introduction to the theory
of finite set partitions and to the enumeration of cycle decompositions of permutations. The
presentation prioritizes elementary enumerative proofs. Therefore, parts of the book are
designed so that even those high school students and teachers who are interested in
combinatorics can have the benefit of them. Still, the book collects vast, up-to-date
information for many counting sequences (especially, related to set partitions and
permutations), so it is a must-have piece for those mathematicians who do research on
enumerative combinatorics.

The Art of Proving Binomial Identities

The book is very suitable for advanced undergraduates or beginning graduate students and
includes various exercises asking them to prove identities. Students will find that the text
and notes at the end of the chapters encourages them to look at binomial coefficients from
different angles. With this learning experience, students will be able to understand binomial
coefficients in a new way.

Elementary Modular Iwasawa Theory

This book is the first to provide a comprehensive and elementary account of the new
Iwasawa theory innovated via the deformation theory of modular forms and Galois
representations. The deformation theory of modular forms is developed by generalizing the
cohomological approach discovered in the author's 2019 AMS Leroy P Steele Prize-
winning article without using much algebraic geometry.

Undergraduate Course in Number Theory

Number theory can be used to find the greatest common divisor, determine whether a
number is prime, and solve Diophantine equations. With the improvement of computer
technology, number theory also helps us to protect private information by encrypting it as

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it travels through the internet. During the course, we discuss mathematical induction,
division and Euclidean algorithms, the Diophantine equation ax + by = c, the fundamental
theorem of arithmetic, prime numbers and their distribution, the Goldbach conjecture,
congruences, the Chinese remainder theorem, Fermat's theorem, Wilson's theorem, Euler's
theorem, and cryptography. Additional topics may include number-theoretic functions,
primitive roots, and the quadratic reciprocity law.

Combinators
Combinatorics is a stream of mathematics that concerns the study of finite discrete
structures. It deals with the study of permutations and combinations, enumerations of the
sets of elements. It characterizes Mathematical relations and their properties.
Mathematicians uses the term “Combinatorics” as it refers to the larger subset of Discrete
Mathematics. It is frequently used in computer Science to derive the formulas and it is used
for the estimation of the analysis of the algorithms.

Pillars of Transcendental Number Theory

This book deals with the development of Diophantine problems starting with Thue's path
breaking result and culminating in Roth's theorem with applications. It discusses classical
results including Hermite–Lindemann–Weierstrass theorem, Gelfond–Schneider theorem,
Schmidt’s subspace theorem and more. It also includes two theorems of Ramachandra
which are not widely known and other interesting results derived on the values of
Weierstrass elliptic function. Given the constantly growing number of applications of linear
forms in logarithms, it is becoming increasingly important for any student wanting to work
in this area to know the proofs of Baker’s original results. This book presents Baker’s
original results in a format suitable for graduate students, with a focus on presenting the
content in an accessible and simple manner.

A Gateway to Number Theory

A Gateway to Number Theory: Applying the Power of Algebraic Curves by Keith Kendig
highlights a beautiful interface of number theory and geometry. Specifically, the book
focuses on techniques for solving homogenous Diophantine equations of degree less than
or equal to three and the fruitful method of translating a “number theory problem into one
of finding rational points on a rational curve.” At the heart of the exposition is a rich set of
results and open questions arising in the theory of elliptic curves. As a unique feature, the
book also calls attention to the ways in which computation has played a role in advancing
the theory. Kendig’s book is an earnest endeavor to make this vast area, which spans ancient
through cutting-edge modern mathematics, accessible to a wide audience.

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Who is the author of the book 'Ambedkar: A Life?'

A. Vikram Sampath
B. Pavan C. Lall
C. Shashi Tharoor
D. More than one of the above
E. None of the above
Ans: Shashi Tharoor
Explanation:
Ambedkar written by the senior leader of the Indian National Congress, Shashi Tharoor.
The book is divided into two parts, first part containing the initial phases of his life and
Second part explains his life in Indian politics.
2. A series 'Stories of Change' for promoting grassroots innovations has been launched
by which authority?
A. NITI Aayog
B. Ministry of Education
C. Ministry of Tribal affairs
D. United Nations
E. None of these
Ans: NITI Aayog
Explanation:
Atal Innovation Mission launches 'Stories of Change' for promoting grassroots innovations.
New Delhi [India], March 22 (ANI): Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) under NITI Aayog on
Tuesday launched the Stories of Change – a series of captivating journeys of 15 change-
makers from grassroots.
3. Who is the author of the new book titled “Bipin: The Man Behind the Uniform?”
A. R. Kaushik
B. Rachna Bisht Rawat
C. Meghnad Desai
D. Pavan C. Lall
E. Salman Rushdie
Ans: Rachna Bisht Rawat

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Explanation:
Written by bestselling author Rachna Bisht Rawat and featuring in-depth interviews with
Bipin Rawat's friends, family members and comrades, this book is a befitting tribute to one
of India's greatest and most controversial Generals.
4. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Books Authors
1. Ambedkar: A Life A. Shashi Tharoor
2. The Poverty of Political Economy: How
B. Dr. Ashwin Fernandes
Economics Abandoned the Poor
3. The McMahon line: A century of discord C. Aradhana Johri
4. Roller Coaster: An Affair with Banking D. Tamal Bandyopadhyay

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 3 and 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only
E. None of these
Ans: 1 and 4 only

5. A new book titled 'Operation Khatma' has been authored by whom?

A. R C Ganjoo
B. Ashwini Bhatnagar
C. Durjoy Datta
D. Both 1 and 2
E. None of these
Ans: Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
A new book titled 'Operation Khatma' has been released. It is an eyewitness account by two
journalists R C Ganjoo and Ashwini Bhatnagar. The operation by the Special Operations
Group of Jammu and Kashmir Police led to the killing of 22 terrorists of the Jammu and
Kashmir Liberation Front (JKLF).
6. Who is the author of the book “The Battle of Belonging”?
A. Shashi Tharoor

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B. Jai Ratan
C. Kapil Sibal
D. Jairam Ramesh
E. None of these
Ans: Shashi Tharoor
Explanation:
SHASHI THAROOR is the bestselling author of over twenty books, both fiction and non-
fiction, besides being a noted critic and columnist.
7. Who released a book titled 'Indian Agriculture towards 2030' in March 2022?
A. Narendra Singh Tomar
B. Anurag Thakur
C. Narendra Modi
D. Amit Shah
E. Rahul Gandhi
Ans: Narendra Singh Tomar
Explanation:
The correct answer is Narendra Singh Tomar. Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers'
Welfare (MoA&FW) Shri Narendra Singh Tomar released a book titled 'Indian Agriculture
towards 2030' on 28 March 2022. It was launched at an event organized by NITI Aayog and
the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the UN.
8. Who is the author of the book ‘Fearless Governance’?
A. V. Narayanasamy
B. Swati Chaturvedi
C. P. Chidambaram
D. Kiran Bedi
E. None of these
Ans: Kiran Bedi
Explanation:
The Book 'Fearless Governance' by Dr Kiran Bedi, former Lt Governor of Puducherry and
IPS (retd) is a revelation of stark realities of governance. This book is based on the ground
realities of nearly five years of service of Dr.
9. Who has authored a new biography of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose titled 'Bose: The
Untold Story of An Inconvenient Nationalist'?

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A. Anuj Dhar
B. Bishnu Dey
C. Chandrachur Ghose
D. Ramesh Shil
E. None of these
Ans: Chandrachur Ghose
Explanation:
The correct answer is Chandrachur Ghose. A new biography of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
titled 'Bose: The Untold Story of An Inconvenient Nationalist' is all set to release in
February 2022. The biography is authored by the researcher and founder of 'Mission Netaji'
Chandrachur Ghose.
10. The Author of the book “The people’s president: Dr. APJ Abdul kalam” is:
A. Tarun Vijay
B. Sumitra Mahajan
C. KC Pant
D. SM Khan
E. None of these
Ans: SM Khan
Explanation:
SM Khan has written his debut book on the "People's President Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam". The
book shares his experiences with Dr. Kalam during and post presidency.
11. Who is the author of the book ‘A Better India: A Better World’?
A. Shashi Tharoor
B. NR Narayana Murthy
C. Ratan Tata
D. More than one of the above
E. None of the above
Ans: NR Narayana Murthy
Explanation:
The proverb of Sarve Jana Sukhino Bhavantu' or happiness to every man, is a long cherished
dream of our founding fathers. N. R. Narayana Murthy offers a fairly simple solution to
these problems in his book A Better India.
12. Who is the author of the book Siddhantha Shikamani?

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A. Siddheshwara Swamiji
B. Vaidehi
C. Chandrashekar Patil
D. Dodda Rangegowda
E. None of those
Ans: Siddheshwara Swamiji
Explanation:
He wrote Siddhanta Shiromani and is credited with the discovery of principles of
differential calculus and its application in astronomical problems and computations.
13. What is the name of the Autobiography of Kapil Dev?
A. Playing It My Way
B. The Nice Guy Who Finished First
C. Straight from the Heart
D. The Lost Hero
E. Not Attempted
Ans: Straight from the Heart
Explanation:
Books. He has written four books – three autobiographical and one book on Sikhism.
Autobiographical works include — By God's Decree which came out in 1985, Cricket My
Style in 1987, and Straight from the Heart in 2004. His latest book titled We, The Sikhs was
released in 2019.
14. Who wrote famous book Kitab-ul-hind?
A. Firdausi
B. Abul Fazl
C. Amir Khusrau
D. Al-Biruni
E. Not Attempted
Ans: Al-Biruni
Explanation:
The famous book 'Kitab-ul-Hind' was written by Al Biruni. It is a famous Arabic text
wherein he comments on Indian Sciences, Hindu religious beliefs, customs and Social
organisation.
15. Who was the author of the famous book 'Madhushala'?

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A. Amitabh Bachchan
B. Harivansh Rai Bachchan
C. Mahadevi verma
D. Munshi Premchand
E. Not Attempted
Ans: Harivansh Rai Bachchan
Explanation:
Harivansh Rai Bachchan (né Srivastava; 27 November 1907 – 18 January 2003) was an
Indian poet and writer of the Nayi Kavita literary movement (romantic upsurge) of early
20th century Hindi literature. He was also a poet of the Hindi Kavi Sammelan. He is best
known for his early work Madhushala.
16. The author of world famous Harry Potter series is
A. Arundhati Roy
B. J K Rowling
C. Taslima Nasrin
D. Salman Rushdie
E. None of these
Ans: J K Rowling
Explanation:
Rowling. Joanne Rowling CH OBE FRSL (/ˈroʊlɪŋ/ "rolling"; born 31 July 1965), also
known by her pen name J. K. Rowling, is a British author and philanthropist. She wrote
Harry Potter, a seven-volume children's fantasy series published from 1997 to 2007.
17. Who among the following cricketers has authored the book 'Straight from the Heart :
An Autobiography'?
A. Sunil Gavaskar
B. Sourav Ganguly
C. Sachin Tendulkar
D. Kapil Dev
E. None of these
Ans: Kapil Dev
Explanation:
The correct answer is Kapil Dev. Kapil Dev is a former Indian cricketer.
18. Who wrote Discovery of India?

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A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
E. None of these
Ans: Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation:
The Discovery of India was written by the Indian Independence leader, Jawaharlal Nehru
(later India's first Prime Minister) during his incarceration in 1942–1945 at Ahmednagar
Fort in present day Indian state of Maharashtra by British colonial authorities before the
independence of India.
19. Who is the author of the book 'Kerala: God's Own Country'?
A. Shashi Tharoor
B. Jeet Thayil
C. Sudha Murthy
D. Thakazhi Sivasankara Pillai
E. None of these
Ans: Shashi Tharoor
Explanation:
Shashi Tharoor, a Member of Parliament from Kerala since 2009 authored the book titled,
Kerala: God's Own Country.
20. Who is the author of the book named “Oliver Twist”?
A. Benazir Habib
B. Charles Dickens
C. Paul Kennedy
D. Eric Segal
E. None of these
Ans: Charles Dickens
Explanation:
Charles Dickens's (1812-1870) second novel, originally published in serial parts 1837-39,
and as a three volume edition in 1838. Dickens was deeply disturbed by the harsh Poor Law
Amendment Act of 1834.
21. Who penned the novel 'A Suitable Boy'?

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A. Shashi Tharoor
B. Vikram Chandra
C. Amitav Ghosh
D. Vikram Seth
E. None of these
Ans: Vikram Seth
Explanation:
A Suitable Boy is a novel by Vikram Seth, published in 1993. With 1,349 pages (1,488
pages in paperback), the English-language book is one of the longest novels published in a
single volume. A Suitable Boy is set in a newly post-independence, post-partition India.
22. Which of the following book is not written by Shashi Tharoor?
A. Why I am a Hindu
B. Hind Swaraj
C. The Paradoxical Prime Minister
D. An era of darkness: The British Empire in India
E. None of these
Ans: Hind Swaraj
Explanation:
The book “Being Hindu” has been written by Hindol Sengupta.
23. Which of the following recipients name is announced for 55th Jnanpith Award?
A. Nasira Sharma
B. Vasdev Mohi
C. Shri Akkitham
D. None of the above
E. Neeti mohan
Ans: Shri Akkitham
Explanation:
The prestigious 55th Jnanpith Award has been won by 92-year-old Akkitham Achuthan
Namboothiri, an eminent Indian poet-writer of the Malayalam language.
24. The timeless Indian novel ‘Devdas’ was written by:
A. Rabindranath Tagore
B. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
C. Mirza Ghalib

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D. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay

E. None of these
Ans: Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
Explanation:
Devdas (Bengali: দেবোস, transliterated as Debdās) is a Bengali romance novel written by
Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay.
25. Which of the following prominent leaders wrote the book ‘Citizen Delhi: My Life, My
Times’?
A. Sheila Dikshit
B. Arvind Kejriwal
C. Harsh Vardhan
D. Arun Jaitley
E. None of these
Ans: Sheila Dikshit
Explanation:
Sheila Dikshit was an Indian politician. The longest-serving Chief Minister of Delhi, as
well as the longest-serving female chief minister of any Indian state, she served for a period
of 15 years beginning in 1998. Dikshit led Congress party to three consecutive electoral
victories in Delhi.
26. Name the author of the book A Passage to England:
A. Vikram Seth
B. Eric Segal
C. E.M. Forster
D. Nirad C. Choudhury
E. None of these
Ans: Nirad C. Choudhury D
Explanation:
'A Passage to England' by Nirad Chaudhuri is the vivid account of the author's delightful
discovery of his visit to England.
27. The book “The God of small things” is written by:
A. Arundhati Roy
B. Sobha De
C. Pupul Jayakar

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D. Shekhar Kapoor
E. None of these
Ans: Arundhati Roy A
Explanation:
Arundhati Roy is the author of a number of books, including The God of Small Things,
which won the Booker Prize in 1997 and has been translated into more than forty languages.
She was born in 1959 in Shillong, India, and studied architecture in Delhi, where she now
lives.
28. A book that brought awareness of environment all over the world was Silent Spring. It
was written by:
A. John Seymour
B. Rachel Carson
C. Julien Huxley
D. Frank Graham Jr.
E. None of these
Ans: Rachel Carson B
Explanation:
Rachel Carson was an American biologist well known for her writings on environmental
pollution and the natural history of the sea. Her book, Silent Spring (1962), became one of
the most influential books in the modern environmental movement and provided the
impetus for tighter control of pesticides, including DDT.
29. Who created the unforgettable literary character Swami?
A. Vikram Seth
B. Mulk Raj Anand
C. R. K. Narayan
D. Hari vansh Rai Bachchan
E. None of these
Ans: R. K. Narayan C
Explanation:
Narayan was an Indian author whose works of fiction include a series of books about people
and their interactions in an imagined town in India called Malgudi. He is one of three
leading figures of early Indian literature in English, along with Mulk Raj Anand and Raja
Rao.

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30. Who is the author of the book ‘Conquest of Happiness’?

A. George Bernard Shaw
B. Thomas Hardy
C. Aldous Huxley
D. Bertrand Russell
E. None of these
Ans: Bertrand Russell D
Explanation:
In The Conquest of Happiness, first published by Liveright in 1930, iconoclastic
philosopher Bertrand Russell attempted to diagnose the myriad causes of unhappiness in
modern life and chart a path out of the seemingly inescapable malaise so prevalent even in
safe and prosperous Western societies.
31. Who is author of the book ‘Apprenticeship of a Mahatma’ on which the film called
‘The Making of the Mahatma’ is based?
A. Fatima Meer
B. Shobha De
C. Shyam Benegal
D. Arundhati Roy
E. None of these
Ans: Fatima Meer A
Explanation:
The film is based upon the book The Apprenticeship of a Mahatma by Fatima Meer. It was
an international co-production between India and South Africa.
32. ‘Indica’ was written by
A. Pliny
B. Strabo
C. Justin
D. Megasthenese
E. None of these
Ans: Megasthenese D
Explanation:
Indika is an account of Mauryan India by the Greek writer Megasthenes. The original work
is now lost, but its fragments have survived in later Greek and Latin works. The earliest of

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these works are those by Diodorus Siculus, Strabo (Geographica), Pliny, and Arrian
(Indica).
33. Which of the following is correctly matched?
A. “Do or die” – Jawaharlal Nehru
B. “Dilli Chalo” – Mahatma Gandhi
C. “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan” – Lal Bhadur Shastri
D. “Swaraj is my birthright” – Swami Dayanand
E. None of these
Ans: “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan” – Lal Bhadur Shastri C
Explanation:
Jai Jawan Jai Kisan ("English: Hail the Soldier, Hail the Farmer") was a slogan of Lal
Bahadur Shastri,the second Prime Minister of India spoken in 1965 at a public gathering
Uruwa, Prayagraj.
34. “Gita Govinda” the famous poem was written by
A. Jayant
B. Jayadeva
C. Jayasimha
D. Jayachandra
E. None of these
Ans: Jayadeva B
Explanation:
Gita Govinda, which is also famous as Ashtapadi, depicts the love of Krishna and Radha.
This was written by Jayadeva, a 12th century poet who lived in Bengal, north-east India.
The poem symbolizes the striving of the human soul to God. The poem, written in Sanskrit,
was enthusiastically translated in various Indian languages. The poem, though in Sanskrit,
attracted great popular acclaim. Its influenced reached far and wide. Gita Govinda is called
Ashtapadi, because it contains eight stanzas each in each of its 24 songs, presented in each
of its 12 chapters.
35. Who is the author of the autobiography, The Indian Struggle?
A. Annie Beasant
B. Chittaranjan Das
C. Subhas Chandra Bose
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
E. None of these

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Ans: Subhas Chandra Bose C

Explanation:
The Indian Struggle, 1920–1942 is a two-part book by the Indian nationalist leader Netaji
Subhash Chandra Bose that covers the 1920–1942 history of the Indian independence
movement to end British imperial rule over India.
36. Karl Marx’s book ‘Das Capital’ was published in
A. 1867
B. 1868
C. 1869
D. 1870
E. 1998
Ans: 1867 A
Explanation:
He described his purpose as to lay bare “the economic law of motion of modern society.”
The first volume was published in Berlin in 1867; the second and third volumes, edited by
his collaborator Friedrich Engels (1820–95), were published posthumously in 1885 and
1894, respectively.
37. Which of the following books has been written by Kamala Das?
A. Earth and Ashes
B. Witness the Night
C. The Red Devil
D. Tonight, This Savage Rite
E. None of these
Ans: Tonight, This Savage Rite D
Explanation:
Kamala Surayya, popularly known by her one-time pen name Madhavikutty and married
name Kamala Das, was an Indian English poet as well as a leading Malayalam author from
Kerala, India.
38. The book “Shadow of a Princess” is a first-hand account of Princess Diana’s life. It is
written by
A. Byron Lord
B. James Jeans
C. Patric Jephson
D. Clive Ponting

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E. None of these
Ans: Patric Jephson C
Explanation:
Shadow of a Princess is an intimate Account by Patric Jephson who the Private Secretary
of Princess Diana was. The book, published in 2000, was denounced by Queen Elizabeth,
Prince Charles, Prince William, and a host of others close to Diana.
39. Who is the author of the book “The Zigzag Way”?
A. Lisa Genova
B. Jahnavi Barua
C. Simran Sodhi
D. Anita Desai
E. None of these
Ans: Anita Desai D
Explanation:
ANITA DESAI is the author of Fasting, Feasting, The Art of Disappearance, The Zig Zag
Way, Clear Light of Day, and Diamond Dust, among other works. Three of her books have
been shortlisted for the Booker Prize. Desai was born and educated in India and now lives
in the New York City area.
40. The writer of the book “An Enquiry into the Nature and Causes of Wealth of Nations”,
is
A. Robins
B. Adam Smith
C. David Ricardo
D. Smt. John Robinson
E. None of these
Ans: Adam Smith B
Explanation:
An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations, or commonly abbreviated
as "The Wealth of Nations" is a famous book by Adam Smith that contains economic ideas
now known as classical economics.
41. Who was the author of ‘India of My Dreams’?
A. M.K. Gandhi
B. J.B. Kripalani

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C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
E. None of these
Ans: M.K. Gandhi A
Explanation:
Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was an Indian lawyer, anti-colonial nationalist and political
ethicist. Employing nonviolent resistance, he led the successful campaign for India's
independence from British rule. He also inspired movements for civil rights and freedom
across the world.
42. Who has written the famous play “Neel Darpan” depicting the atrocities of British
indigo planters?
A. Prem Chand
B. Subramania Bharati
C. Dinabandhu Mitra
D. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
E. None of these
Ans: Dinabandhu Mitra C
Explanation:
Dinabandhu Mitra published a play in Bengali titled : Neel Darpan (Blue Mirror), which
depicted the atrocities on the indigo planters.
43. Which one of the following literary works was not written by R.K. Narayan?
A. Guide
B. Malgudi Days
C. Swami and his friends
D. Gardner
E. None of these
Ans: Gardner D
Explanation:

44. Which is the Greek classic that Gandhi translated into Gujarati?
A. Plato’s Republic
B. Dialogues of Plato
C. Aristotle’s Politics

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D. Aristotle’s Nicomachian Ethics

E. None of these
Ans: Plato’s Republic A
Explanation:
They included especially Plato's Apology, (which he translated into his native Gujarati);
William Salter's Ethical Religion (1889); Henry David Thoreau's On the Duty of Civil
Disobedience (1847); Leo Tolstoy's The Kingdom of God Is Within You (1893); and John
Ruskin's Unto this Last (1862), which he also translated .
45. Who is the author of “The Company of Women”?
A. John Gray
B. Dick Francis
C. David Baldacci
D. Khushwant Singh
E. None of these
Ans: Khushwant Singh D
Explanation:
Grace Bonney is the author of the bestselling books In the Company of Women and
Design*Sponge at Home.
46. The writer who refused the Nobel Prize for literature was
A. Prem Chand
B. Boris Pasternak
C. Jean Pal Sartre
D. Winston Churchill
E. None of these
Ans: Jean Pal Sartre C
Explanation:
The 59-year-old author Jean-Paul Sartre declined the Nobel Prize in Literature, which he
was awarded in October 1964. He said he always refused official distinctions and did not
want to be “institutionalised”.
47. Which amongst the following is a book written by Dr. Harivansh Rai Bachchan?
A. Prateeksha
B. Kamayani
C. Chidambara

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D. Kapala Kundala
E. None of these
Ans: Prateeksha A
Explanation:
Harivansh Rai Bachchan was the author of Khaadi Ke Phool.
48. The book ‘Truth, Love and A Little Malice’ is written by
A. Vikram Seth
B. Tarun Tejpal
C. Khushwant Singh
D. Nirad C. Choudhury
E. None of these
Ans: Khushwant Singh C
Explanation:
Truth, Love And A Little Malice, the autobiography of the famous author and journalist
Khushwant Singh, was published by Penguin India as new edition in 2003.
49. Which of the following books was not written by a Nobel Laureate?
A. Half a Life
B. Beyond Belief
C. Miguel Street
D. Midnight’s Children
E. None of these
Ans: Midnight’s Children D
Explanation:
Midnight's Children is a 1980 book by Salman Rushdie that deals with India's transition
from British colonialism to independence and the partition of British India. Rushdie has not
won the Nobel Prize. Midnight's Children won both the Booker Prize and the James Tait
Black Memorial Prize in 1981. It was awarded the "Booker of Bookers" Prize and the best
all-time prize winners in 1993 and 2008 to celebrate the Booker Prize 25th and 40th
anniversary.

50. Which of the following famous books is associated with Austin?

A. Leviathan
B. Social Contract
C. Lectures on Jurisprudence

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D. The Problem of Sovereignty

E. None of these
Ans: Lectures on Jurisprudence C
Explanation:
Austen, who died on July 18, 1817, at 41, is known for her six completed novels, among
them the highly adapted Pride and Prejudice and Sense and Sensibility. Originally published
anonymously, the works gained recognition among readers and scholars in the 20th century.

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APPOINTMENTS AND RESIGNATIONS

Definition:
refer to the process of hiring or promoting an individual to a position or accepting their
resignation from that position in an organization. In the context of banking, appointments
refer to the hiring or promotion of individuals to executive or management positions within
a bank, while resignations refer to the voluntary or involuntary departure of executives or
managers from their positions. These can have a significant impact on the operations and
direction of the bank.
Meaning of Resignation:
Resignations in the banking sector refer to the voluntary or involuntary departure of
executives, managers, or employees from their positions within a bank. Reasons for
resignations can vary widely, including personal reasons, career advancement, conflicts
with colleagues or management, changes in the bank's direction or strategy, or legal or
regulatory issues. Resignations of key executives or managers in the banking sector can
have a significant impact on the bank's operations and strategy, and may signal broader
issues within the organization that could affect its reputation, financial performance, or
ability to attract and retain top talent.
In the banking sector, there can be several types of resignations, including:
Voluntary resignation: This is when an employee resigns of their own accord, usually
because they have found a better opportunity elsewhere, want to pursue other interests, or
are not satisfied with their current position or the bank's culture.

Involuntary resignation: This is when an employee is asked or forced to resign, usually

due to poor performance, ethical or legal violations, or a restructuring or downsizing of the
bank.

Constructive resignation: This is when an employee resigns due to a breach of contract or

a violation of their rights, such as harassment or discrimination, by the bank or its
employees.

Retirement: This is when an employee resigns after reaching the bank's retirement age or
after completing a certain number of years of service.

Resignation with notice: This is when an employee provides advance notice of their
intention to resign, usually to allow the bank time to find a replacement and transition their
responsibilities.

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Resignation without notice: This is when an employee resigns immediately, usually due
to a serious issue or dispute with the bank or its employees.

It's worth noting that different banks may have their own policies and procedures regarding
resignations, which can affect the type of resignation an employee may choose or be
required to make.

In the banking sector, there can be several types of appointments, including:

Internal appointment: This is when a bank promotes an existing employee to a new
position, usually based on their experience, skills, and performance within the organization.

External appointment: This is when a bank hires a new employee from outside the
organization to fill a vacant position, usually through a competitive recruitment process.

Interim appointment: This is when a bank appoints a temporary replacement for a key
executive or manager who has resigned or is on leave, usually until a permanent
replacement can be found.

Contract appointment: This is when a bank hires an employee on a fixed-term contract,

usually for a specific project or to cover a temporary staffing need.

Non-executive appointment: This is when a bank appoints a non-executive director to its

board, usually to provide independent oversight and advice on strategic issues.

Executive appointment: This is when a bank appoints an executive to a senior

management position, usually with significant decision-making authority and responsibility
for the bank's operations and strategy.

Promotional appointment: This is when a bank promotes an employee to a higher-level

position with more responsibilities and a higher salary.

Different banks may have their own policies and procedures regarding appointments, which
can affect the type of appointment an employee may receive, or the recruitment process
used to fill a position.

When an employee resigns from a banking sector job, there are typically some terms and
conditions that apply. These may vary depending on the bank and the employee's specific
role and contract, but some common terms of resignation in the banking sector may include:

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Notice period: This is the amount of time the employee is required to give notice of their
resignation before leaving their position. The notice period may be specified in the
employee's contract or determined by the bank's policies.

Handover period: This is the period during which the employee is expected to transition
their responsibilities to a replacement or to their colleagues.

Non-compete clause: This is a clause in the employee's contract that may prohibit them
from working for a competitor for a certain period after leaving the bank.

Confidentiality agreement: This is an agreement that the employee may be required to

sign, agreeing to keep confidential information about the bank and its clients confidential
after leaving the bank.

Return of bank property: The employee may be required to return any bank property,
such as laptops, cellphones, access cards, keys, and documents, before leaving.

Exit interview: The employee may be asked to participate in an exit interview with HR or
their manager to provide feedback about their experience at the bank and their reasons for
leaving.

Final payment: The bank may be required to pay the employee any outstanding wages,
bonuses, and benefits owed at the time of their resignation.

It's important for employees to carefully review their employment contract and any relevant
policies and procedures to understand their specific terms of resignation and to ensure they
comply with them to avoid any negative consequences.

The fundamental principles of appointment and resignation in the banking

sector include:

Transparency: The recruitment process and criteria for appointment should be transparent
and communicated clearly to all applicants. The reasons for resignation should also be
communicated clearly and honestly to the bank.

Fairness: The recruitment process and criteria should be fair and non-discriminatory, and
appointments should be made based on merit, skills, experience, and qualifications.

Compliance: All should comply with applicable laws, regulations, and ethical standards.

Professionalism: Both the bank and the employee should maintain a professional approach
throughout the recruitment process and during the resignation process, including providing

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appropriate notice, conducting an orderly handover of responsibilities, and maintaining

confidentiality as appropriate.

Respect: Both the bank and the employee should respect each other's rights and interests
throughout the appointment and resignation process, including respecting confidentiality,
providing feedback and support, and ensuring a smooth transition.

Accountability: The bank should be accountable for its recruitment and selection decisions,
and the employee should be accountable for their responsibilities and obligations until the
end of their notice period or contract.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Currently, who among the following is working as Central Vigilance Commissioner?
A. Suresh N Patel
B. Mansi Naina Joshi
C. Varun Singh Bhatti
D. Devendra Jhajharia
E. Megha Mazumdar
Ans: A. Suresh N Patel

Explanation:
Suresh N Patel has been appointed as Vigilance Commissioner in Central Vigilance
Commission.
He is a former Managing Director and CEO of Andhra Bank.
His oath is administered by Central Vigilance Commissioner- Sanjay Kothari.
Mr. Suresh has been a member of the advisory board for banking and financial frauds of
the Central Vigilance Commission.
He is expected to stay in the office till December 2022.
This Commission should consist of a Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more than 2
Vigilance Commissioners.
After the completion of tenure by TM Bhasin, the post of the vigilance commissioner was
lying vacant since June 2019.

2. Who has been appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of the Cotton
Corporation of India (CCI)?
A. Manmeet K Nanda
B. Laxman Narasimhan
C. Arun Agarwal
D. Lalit Kumar Gupta
E. Anand Kumar Singh

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Ans: D. Lalit Kumar Gupta

Explanation:
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has approved the appointment of Lalit
Kumar Gupta as Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of the Cotton Corporation of
India (CCI).
3. Who has been appointed as the Managing Director & CEO of Invest India in March
2023?
A. Manmeet K Nanda
B. Deepak Kumar Singh
C. Rajesh Malhotra
D. Amitava Mukherjee
E. Pankaj Rao
Ans: A. Manmeet K Nanda

Explanation:
In the Board Meeting of Invest India on 20th March 2023, the Board appointed Manmeet
K Nanda as the Managing Director & CEO of Invest India.

4. In March 2023, who assumed the role of the CEO of Starbucks taking over from founder
Howard Schultz?
A. Arun Agarwal
B. Ashwani Kumar
C. Rajesh Malhotra
D. Laxman Narasimhan
E. Deepak Mohanty
Ans: D. Laxman Narasimhan
Explanation:
Indian-origin Laxman Narasimhan has assumed the role of the CEO of Starbucks taking
over from founder Howard Schultz.

5. In Feb 2023, who amongst the following has been appointed as the new CEO of NITI
Aayog?
A. Parameswaran lyer
B. BVR Subrahmanyam
C. Rajesh Malhotra
D. Shri Suman Beri
E. VK Saraswat
Ans: B. BVR Subrahmanyam

Explanation:

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B.V.R. Subrahmanyam appointed as new CEO of Niti Aayog.

He served as the Chief Secretary of Jammu and Kashmir.
He was a 1987 IAS officer from the Chhattisgarh cadre.
He served as the private secretary of Mr Manmohan Singh during his reign from 2004 to
2008.
Subrahmanyam will take over from CEO Parameswaran Iyer who will join World Bank as
executive director in Washington DC.

6. Who has been appointed the new Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog in 2022?
A. Suman Bery
B. Pomila Jaspal
C. Manoj Soni
D. Shri Suman Beri
E. Vikram Singh Mehta
Ans: A. Suman Bery

Explanation:
NITI Aayog’s Vice Chairman Rajiv Kumar has stepped down after being at the helm of the
institution for nearly five years.
Dr. Suman K Bery has been appointed new Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog.
He will take charge as Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog from 1 May 2022.
Suman K Bery had earlier served as Director-General of the National Council of Applied
Economic Research (NCAER) in New Delhi.
NCAER is one of the country’s leading independent non-profit policy research institutions.

7. Which film actor was appointed as the brand ambassador for NBA in India?
A. Karthik Aryan
B. Ranveer Singh
C. Manoj Soni
D. Ranbir Kapoor
E. Sonu Sood
Ans: B. Ranveer Singh

Explanation:
The National Basketball Association (NBA) has named Ranveer Singh as its brand
ambassador for India.
He will work with the NBA to help grow the league’s profile in India throughout its
landmark 75th anniversary season in 2021-22.
The NBA is built around four professional sports leagues: National Basketball Association,
Women’s National Basketball Association, NBA G League and NBA 2K League.

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8. Who has been appointed as chairman and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Railway
Board on 1 Jan 2023?
A. Jagdeep Singh
B. Suneet Sharma
C. Anil Kumar Lahoti
D. Kuldeep Nayyar
E. Sonu Sood
Ans: C. Anil Kumar Lahoti

Explanation:
Anil Kumar Lahoti has been appointed as the Chief Executive Officer and Chairman of the
Railway Board.
He will be taking over the chairmanship from Vinay Kumar Tripathi on January 1,2023.
Lahoti belongs to the 1984 batch of the Indian Railway Service of Engineers (IRSE).
His appointment is part of an overhaul of the top management of the railway board.

9. Who is the CEO of UIDAI (2022)?

A. Saurabh Garg
B. Nandan Nilekani
C. Ajay Chandra
D. Kuldeep Nayyar
E. RS Sharma
Ans: A. Saurabh Garg
Explanation:
Shri Saurabh Garg is the CEO of UIDAI. Nandan Nilekani was the first chairman of UIDAI.
10. Who has taken over as the 24th Chief of Indian Coast Guard on 31 December 2021?
A. Rajendra Rathore
B. Krishnaswamy Natarajan
C. Tanmay Tripathi
D. Narendra Nayyar
E. VS Pathania
Ans: E. VS Pathania

Explanation:
Director-General VS Pathania took over as the 24th Chief of Indian Coast Guard on 31
December.
He is an alumnus of the Defence Services Staff College, Wellington and National Defence
College, New Delhi.
He is also the recipient of the President’s Tatrakshak Medal for Distinguished Service,
Tatrakshak Medal for gallantry.
Director-General VS Pathania succeeds 23rd DG Krishnaswamy Natarajan.

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11. In November 2021, who has been appointed as the chairman of the International
Cricket Council (ICC) Men's Cricket Committee?
A. Sachin Tendulkar
B. Rahul Dravid
C. Sourav Ganguly
D. Hardik Panday
E. Virender Sehwag
Ans: C. Sourav Ganguly

Explanation:
ICC Chairman is Greg Barclay (ICC Chair) ICC Men's Cricket Committee Chairman is
Sourav Ganguly. Women's Cricket Committee Chairman is Clare Connor. India's
representative in ICC is Jay Shah

12. Who has been appointed as the next Army Chief of Indian Army in January 2022?
A. Manoj Pande
B. Sanjeev Thapar
C. Vivek Rana
D. Suraj Panday
E. Virender Sehwag
Ans: A. Manoj Pande

Explanation:
The government has approved the proposal for the appointment of Eastern Army
Commander Lieutenant General Manoj Pande as the next Chief of Army Staff.
Lieutenant General Manoj Pande took charge as the 29th Chief of the Army Staff General
Pande succeeds to Gen Manoj Mukund Naravane who superannuated on April 30, 2022.
Before being appointed as the Chief of Army Staff, Lt Gen Manoj Pande was serving as
the Vice Chief of the Army Staff.

13. Daniel Ortega has been elected as the President of which country in January 2022?
A. Costa Rica
B. Venezuela
C. Nicaragua
D. Ecuador
E. None of these
Ans: C. Nicaragua

Explanation:
Nicaraguan President Daniel Ortega was sworn into office for his fourth consecutive term
on 10 January 2022.

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Alongside him was first lady Rosario Murillo, sworn in for her second term as his Vice
President.

14. Who among the following was elected as the President of Veterinary Council of India
in January 2021?
A. Rajeev Arora
B. Dipankar Seth
C. Umesh Sharma
D. KK Verma
E. None of these
Ans: C. Umesh Sharma

Explanation:
As of January 2021, Umesh Sharma was elected as the President of the Veterinary Council
of India.
Veterinary Council of India is a statutory body established under the Indian Veterinary
Council Act 1984.
It was established under the Ministry of Agriculture of the Government of India in 1984.
Veterinary Council of India is based in New Delhi.
The first elections to the council took place in 1999.
Rajeev Arora is the additional chief secretary of Haryana.

15. Who has given additional charge of Director-General of Sashastra Seema Bal
(SSB) in December 2021?
A. Sanjay Arora
B. Pankaj Kumar Singh
C. Kuldeep Singh
D. MA Ganapathy
E. None of these
Ans: A. Sanjay Arora

Explanation:
Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) Director-General Sanjay Arora will hold the additional
charge of another border guarding force SSB.
He will replace the current chief of Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) Kumar Rajesh Chandra who
is set to retire on December 31, 2021.
The Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) is primarily tasked to guard unfenced Indian borders with
Nepal and Bhutan.

16. Who was recently appointed as the new Chairman of the State Bank of India (SBI) in
October 2021?
A. Rajnish Kumar

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B. Dinesh Khara
C. Varun Singh Bhati
D. C.S. Setty
E. Arundhati Bhattacharya
Ans: B. Dinesh Khara

Explanation:
Dinesh Khara was recently appointed as the new Chairman of the State Bank of India (SBI)
in October 2021. He was serving as the Managing Director (Retail and Digital Banking) of
SBI prior to his appointment as the Chairman. He has over 32 years of experience in various
aspects of banking, including corporate banking, retail banking, and digital banking.

17. Who was recently appointed as the new Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
in December 2021?
A. Shaktikanta Das
B. Raghuram Rajan
C. Subir Gokarn
D. M. Rajeshwar Rao
E. Megha Mazumdar
Ans: D. M. Rajeshwar Rao

Explanation:
M. Rajeshwar Rao was recently appointed as the new Governor of the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) in December 2021. He was serving as the Deputy Governor of the RBI prior to
his appointment as the Governor. He has over 36 years of experience in various aspects of
central banking, including regulation and supervision, monetary policy, foreign exchange
management, and financial markets.

18. Who was recently appointed as the new Managing Director (MD) and CEO of Canara
Bank in November 2021?
A. L.V. Prabhakar
B. K. Venkateswara Rao
C. Matam Venkata Rao
D. M. Rajeshwar Rao
E. Girish Chandra Chaturvedi
Ans: A. L.V. Prabhakar

Explanation:
L.V. Prabhakar was recently appointed as the new Managing Director (MD) and CEO of
Canara Bank in November 2021. He was serving as the Executive Director of Punjab
National Bank prior to his appointment as the MD and CEO of Canara Bank. He has over

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36 years of experience in various aspects of banking, including credit management, risk

management, and retail banking.

19. Who recently resigned as the CEO of HDFC Bank in October 2021?
A. Aditya Puri
B. Sashidhar Jagdishan
C. Nitin Chugh
D. Munish Mittal
E. None of these
Ans: B. Sashidhar Jagdishan

Explanation:
Sashidhar Jagdishan recently resigned as the CEO of HDFC Bank in October 2021. He had
served as the CEO of HDFC Bank for just over a year, having taken over from Aditya Puri
in August 2020. He had been with HDFC Bank for over 25 years, and had served in various
leadership roles in the bank prior to his appointment as CEO.

20. Who recently resigned as the Managing Director and CEO of Axis Bank?
A. Shikha Sharma
B. Amitabh Chaudhry
C. Sashidhar Jagdishan
D. Rajiv Anand
E. None of these
Ans: B. Amitabh Chaudhry

Explanation:
Amitabh Chaudhry recently resigned as the Managing Director and CEO of Axis Bank. He
has been appointed as the new CEO of the country's largest private life insurer, HDFC
Standard Life Insurance.

21. Who has been recently appointed as the Chairman of the State Bank of India?
A. Dinesh Kumar Khara
B. Rajnish Kumar
C. Arundhati Bhattacharya
D. Aditya Puri
E. None of these
Ans: A. Dinesh Kumar Khara

Explanation:
Dinesh Kumar Khara was recently appointed as the Chairman of the State Bank of India.
He succeeded Rajnish Kumar.

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22. Who recently resigned as the Chairman of the National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI)?
A. Dilip Asbe
B. B. P. Kanungo
C. M. S. Raghavan
D. Biswamohan Mahapatra
E. None of these
Ans: A. Dilip Asbe

Explanation:
M. S. Raghavan recently resigned as the Chairman of the National Payments Corporation
of India (NPCI). He was succeeded by Biswamohan Mahapatra.

23. Who has been recently appointed as the CEO of Indian Bank?
A. Padmaja Chunduru
B. K. Venkataraman
C. M. S. Raghavan
D. Rajkiran Rai G.
E. None of these
Ans: B. K. Venkataraman

Explanation:
K. Venkataraman was recently appointed as the CEO of Indian Bank. He succeeded
Padmaja Chunduru.

24. Who recently resigned as the Chief Executive Officer of the Indian Banks' Association
(IBA)?
A. Sunil Mehta
B. K. Venkataraman
C. M. S. Raghavan
D. V. G. Kannan
E. None of these
Ans: D. V. G. Kannan

Explanation:
V. G. Kannan recently resigned as the Chief Executive Officer of the Indian Banks'
Association (IBA). He was succeeded by Sunil Mehta.

25. Who was recently appointed as the new Chairman of the Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority of India (IRDAI)?
A. Subhash Chandra Khuntia
B. T. S. Vijayan

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C. J. Hari Narayan
D. S. B. Mathur
E. None of these
Ans: A. Subhash Chandra Khuntia

Explanation:
Subhash Chandra Khuntia was appointed as the new Chairman of the Insurance Regulatory
and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) in May 2018.

26. Who recently resigned as the Chairman of the National Stock Exchange (NSE)?
A. Ashok Chawla
B. Ravi Narain
C. Chitra Ramkrishna
D. Vikram Limaye
E. None of these
Ans: C. Chitra Ramkrishna

Explanation:
Chitra Ramkrishna (born 1963) is an Indian businesswoman and the former CEO of the
National Stock Exchange (NSE). In March 2022, she was arrested by the Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI) for her involvement in the co-location scam.

27. Who was recently appointed as the new CEO of Indian Overseas Bank?
A. Karnam Sekar
B. K. Swaminathan
C. Kishore Piraji Kharat
D. R. Subramania kumar
E. None of these
Ans: A. Karnam Sekar

Explanation:
Karnam Sekar was appointed as the new CEO of Indian Overseas Bank in August 2018.

28. Who recently resigned as the Managing Director and CEO of Punjab National Bank?
A. Sunil Mehta
B. Usha Ananthasubramanian
C. Kishore Piraji Kharat
D. K. V. Kamath
E. None of these
Ans: B. Usha Ananthasubramanian

Explanation:

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Usha Ananthasubramanian resigned as the Managing Director and CEO of Punjab National
Bank in May 2018, following the Nirav Modi fraud case.

29. Who recently resigned as the Managing Director and CEO of ICICI Bank?
A. Chanda Kochhar
B. Sandeep Bakhshi
C. Shikha Sharma
D. K. V. Kamath
E. None of these
Ans: A. Chanda Kochhar

Explanation:
Chanda Kochhar resigned as the Managing Director and CEO of ICICI Bank in October
2018, following allegations of corruption and conflict of interest.

30. Who was recently appointed as the new Chairman of the Securities and Exchange
Board of India (SEBI)in 2022?
A. Ajay Tyagi
B. Sandeep Bakhshi
C. Madhabi Puri Buch
D. M. Damodaran
E. G. Mahalingam
Ans: C. Madhabi Puri Buch

Explanation:
Madhabi Puri Buch took charge of chairman on 1 March 2022, replacing Ajay Tyagi, whose
term ended on 28 February 2022. Madhabi Puri Buch is the first woman chairperson of
SEBI.

31. Who recently resigned as the CEO and Managing Director of Yes Bank?
A. Rana Kapoor
B. Prashant Kumar
C. Madhabi Puri Buch
D. Ravneet Gill
E. G. Mahalingam
Ans: A. Rana Kapoor

Explanation:
Rana Kapoor resigned as the CEO and Managing Director of Yes Bank in March 2020,
after the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) denied him an extension.

32. The first President of National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission was:

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A. Justice V. Balakrishna Eradi

B. Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
C. Justice Sri Krishna
D. Justice V.K. Jain
E. None of these
Ans: A. Rana Kapoor A. Justice V. Balakrishna Eradi

Explanation:
The first President of National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission was Justice V.
Balakrishna Eradi.
He was a Judge of Supreme Court of India.
He also served as the Chief Justice of the Kerala High Court.

34. Who has been appointed as the MD & CEO of RBL Bank, in June 2022?
A. Sashidhar Jagdishan
B. Ashwani Bhatia
C. Madhabi Puri Buch
D. R Subramaniakumar
E. Sandeep Bakhshi
Ans: D. R Subramaniakumar

Explanation:
RBL Bank has appointed R Subramaniakumar as its Managing Director and CEO for a
period of three years with effect from June 23. After Subramaniakumar's appointment, the
former interim MD and CEO of RBL Bank Rajeev Ahuja will work as the Executive
Director of the bank.

35. Who has been nominated by U.S. President Joe Biden to become president of the
World Bank?
A. Ajay Banga
B. Shantanu Narayan
C. Leena Nair
D. Parag Agrawal
E. None of these
Ans: A. Ajay Banga

Explanation:
U.S. President Joe Biden on 24 February 2023, nominated business executive Ajay Banga
to become president of the World Bank.
Ajay Banga is currently appointed as the vice chairman at private equity firm General
Atlantic.

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He has more than 30 years of business experience in handling different roles at Mastercard
and the boards of the American Red Cross, Kraft Foods and Dow Inc.

36. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has appointed whom as the new executive directors
(ED) in January 2022?
A. Rupesh Mishra and Sujeet Kumar
B. Amit Gupta and Ajay Singh
C. Ajay Kumar Choudhary and Deepak Kumar
D. Sumit Gupta and Amrish Agerwal
E. None of these
Ans: C. Ajay Kumar Choudhary and Deepak Kumar

Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has appointed Ajay Kumar Choudhary and Deepak
Kumar as the new executive directors (ED) on January 05, 2022.

37. Sheikh Mohammed bin Zayed Al Nahyan has been appointed as the President of
which country?
A. Qatar
B. Yemen
C. UAE
D. Oman
E. None of these
Ans: C. UAE

Explanation:
The United Arab Emirate's federal supreme council has elected Abu Dhabi's Crown Prince
Sheikh Mohammed bin Zayed Al Nahyan as the President of UAE.
He has replaced Sheikh Khalifa Bin Zayed Al Nahyan, who passed away in May 2022.
Mohammed bin Zayed, the former President's half-brother, has been the de facto ruler of
the UAE for years now particularly after Khalifa suffered a stroke in 2014.

38. Who among the following has been declared as the President of Burkino Faso by the
country's top constitutional body on 10 February 2022?
A. Paul-Henri Sandaogo Damiba
B. Nicholas Johnson
C. Roch Marc Christian
D. Sandaogo Kabore
E. None of these
Ans: A. Paul-Henri Sandaogo Damiba

Explanation:

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Burkina Faso's new military strongman, Paul-Henri Sandaogo Damiba, has been declared
President by the country's top constitutional body on 10 February 2022.
The Constitutional Council on 10 Feb determined that "Paul-Henri Sandaogo Damiba,
president of the Patriotic Movement for Preservation and Restoration (the official name of
the junta), is the president" of Burkina Faso.

39. Who has been appointed as the Vice President of the Asian Infrastructure Investment
Bank (AIIB) in January 2022?
A. Amitabh Kant
B. K. Subramanian
C. Surabhi Singh
D. Urjit Patel
E. Ravi Pathak
Ans: D. Urjit Patel

Explanation:
Former RBI Governor Urjit Patel has been appointed as a Vice President of the Beijing-
based multilateral funding institution AIIB.
India is a founding member of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) with the
second-highest voting share after China.
Patel will be one of the 5 Vice Presidents of the AIIB with a three-year tenure.
He will succeed outgoing Vice President D.J. Pandian.

40. Who among the followings has joined the board of Google parent Alphabet Inc in July
2022?
A. Arthur D. Levinson
B. Tim Cook
C. Alex Gorsky
D. Marty Chavez
E. None of these
Ans: D. Marty Chavez

Explanation:
Marty Chavez is joining the board of Google parent Alphabet Inc.
Chavez, a vice chairman and partner with Sixth Street Partners, has worked as an investor
and software executive but is best known for his 20-year tenure at Goldman Sachs Group
Inc.
His appointment marks the first change to the Alphabet board since 2020, when former
Google Chief Executive Officer Eric Schmidt departed.

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COMMITTEES AND RECOMMENDATIONS

Committees
There are many activities that happen in day-to-day life of a bank. To handle all these
banking sector reforms there are various committees established. In India, these committees
take care of all the banking sector reforms. They are responsible for these reforms. Below
is the name of the committees in India which takes care of these reforms.

1 AK Bhuchar Coordination between commercial banks and term lending

Committee institutions

2 Bimal Jalan panel Scrutinizing the applications for new bank licenses

3 Dave Committee Pension-related schemes For Unorganized Sector

(2000)

4 Deepak Mohanty Management of Data and information in the RBI

Committee

5 Ajay Shankar For reviewing the functions of PPP cell

Committee

6 Abid Hussain For smaller Industries

Committee

7 Aditya Puri Dissemination of Information related to credit

Committee

8 James Raj Helps in the functioning of public sector banks

Committee

9 Basel Committee Supervision of banks

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10 Bhandari Reconstruction of the RRBs

Committee

11 Bhide Committee Coordination between SFC’s and commercial banks

12 C Rangarajan Eliminating the poverty scale of the country

committee

13 Cook Committee To check Capital adequacy of banks

14 Damodaran Improving customer services in the banks

Committee

15 SN Verma Helps in the Restructuring of Commercial Banks

Committee (1999)

16 Deepak Parekh Financing the Infrastructure sector

committee

17 Dinesh Sharma Proposing the new regulation that is related to virtual or

Committee digital currencies

18 H R Khan Evaluating the unclaimed post office savings and PPP

Committee

19 N Rangachary Examining the taxation policies in the IT Sector

committee

20 N. K Singh Reviewing the budget management and fiscal responsibility

Committee act

21 Nachiket Mor Providing financial services for low-income households and

Committee small businesses

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22 K.V.Kamath Panel Examine the financial activities and architecture for small,
medium and micro enterprises

23 Justice M B Shah related to black money

Commission

24 M L Dhantwala Regional Rural Banks

Committee

25 MBN Rao Preparing the blueprint for India’s first bank for women
Committee

26 Suma Verma Revising and updating the Banking Ombudsman Scheme,

Committee 2006

27 Tandon Committee Following up for credit

28 UK Sharma For NABARD’s Role In RRB

Committee

29 Narasimham For reforms related to Banking Sector

Committee

30 Naresh Chandra Forming a 14 member task force on various issues of

committee security

31 Kelkar Committee Reforming the Tax Structure

32 Parthasarathi GAAR (General Anti Avoidance Rule) Implementation

Shome Committee

33 R V Gupta For Small Savings

Committee

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34 R. Jilani Banking Inspection System

Committee

35 R.H. Khan Harmonizing the role of financial institutions

Committee

36 Raghuram Rajan Reforms For Financial Sector

Committee

38 Raja Chelliah Reforms in Tax

Committee

39 Rakesh Mohan Small Savings

Committee

40 Rattan P Watal Boosting the digital payment system

Committee

41 Rekhi Committee Matters of Indirect Taxes

42 RS Gujral Suggesting the measures related to boost in MSME exports

Committee

43 S P Talwar Restructuring the Public Sector Banks that are weak

Committee

44 A C Shah Non-Banking Financial Companies (NFBC) reforms

Committee

45 A Ghosh Malpractices and frauds in India

Committee

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46 SS Nadkarni public sector banks trading

Committee

47 A K Khandelwal issues public sector banks related to HR

Committee

48 Janakiraman Investigating the bank’s security transactions

Committee

49 KM rationalizing the foreign investment norms

Chandrasekhar
committee

50 Urjit Patel Examining the monetary framework

Committee

51 Vaghul Committee India’s money market

52 Vipin Malik Bank’s consolidated Accounting

Committee

Introduction to Financial Reforms

To remove the deficiencies of the banking sectors in India, financial reforms were
introduced in the bank. The banks in India lack autonomy. This is reflected through the fact
that the wage across all the bank employees is the same irrespective of the health of the
bank is concerned. That is why financial and banking reforms are brought upon in the banks
of India. Before moving on to the functions, we will give you an introduction to financial
reforms.

Introduction to Financial Reforms

Since the liberalization in 1991, there has been a lot of change in the Indian banking sector.
In the last decade, there has been a considerable difference in the financial sector in India.

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A substantial difference is seen in the liberalization and transformation of the whole financial
system.

Some of the objectives of these reforms are as follows:

• To create the financial sector industry which is productive, efficient, and profitable.
• Also, to help in the financial reforms that existed in financial repression earlier.
• To provide functional and operational autonomy to the banking institutions.
• It also helps in enabling the price discovery, in particular, the market determination of
interest rates. Thus, it helps in the allocation of resources efficiently.
• It prepares the financial system such that there is no effect of increasing international
competition in the banking industry.
• It opens up the external sector in a calibrated way.

To ensure these financial reforms, Narasimha committee was formed which prepared 2 reports
in 1991 and 1998. It was set up to study the problems associated with the Indian financial
system.

Thereby suggesting some recommendations to improve their productivity and efficiency.

Some of the major recommendations of this committee were:

Reducing CRR and SLR

The Narasimha committee recommended cutting the higher proportion of the cash reserve
ratio and liquidity ratio. At that time both of these ratios were very high. The CRR ratio was
15 percent while the SLR ratio was 38.5 percent.

This high percentage in the ratios meant that the bank resources were locked in for the
government users.

As a part of the reduction, SLR was cut recommended to be cut down from 38.5 to 25
percentage, while CRR was recommended to be cut down from 15 to 3.5 percent.

Determining the Interest Rate

The committee also thought that the interest rates in India were controlled and regulated by
the authorities. Thus, it recommended eliminating this control and regulation on the interest
rates. Also, it phased out the interest rates that were given to the priority sector.

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Phasing out the Direct Credit System

The government adopted direct credit programs as a part of nationalization in India. Thus,
the committee recommended that this initiative should be phased out.

So, these programs were able to compel the banks to pay close attention to their financial
resources which can be provided to the needy and the poor people. This will be provided at
a concessional interest rate.

Structuring the Banking Sector and Organizations

It was recommended by the committee that the actual number of public sector banks PSU’s
to be reduced. SBI and other 3-4 likewise banks should be developed as international banks.

While there should be 8-10 banks which has a nationwide presence and thus should
concentrate on national and universal services.

Meanwhile, local banks should focus on regional specific banking services. The RRBs
should focus on rural and agriculture financing.

Narasimham Committee Report II – 1998

In 1998 the government appointed yet another committee under the chairmanship of Mr
Narsimham. It is better known as the Banking Sector Committee. It was told to review the
banking reform progress and design a programme for further strengthening the financial
system of India. The committee focused on various areas such as capital adequacy, bank
mergers, bank legislation, etc.

It submitted its report to the Government in April 1998 with the following
recommendations.
Strengthening Banks in India : The committee considered the stronger banking system in
the context of the Current Account Convertibility ‘CAC’. It thought that Indian banks must
be capable of handling problems regarding domestic liquidity and exchange rate
management in the light of CAC. Thus, it recommended the merger of strong banks which
will have ‘multiplier effect’ on the industry.

Narrow Banking : Those days many public sector banks were facing a problem of the Non-
performing assets (NPAs). Some of them had NPAs were as high as 20 percent of their
assets. Thus for successful rehabilitation of these banks, it recommended ‘Narrow Banking

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Concept’ where weak banks will be allowed to place their funds only in the short term and
risk-free assets.

Capital Adequacy Ratio : In order to improve the inherent strength of the Indian banking
system the committee recommended that the Government should raise the prescribed
capital adequacy norms. This will further improve their absorption capacity also. Currently,
the capital adequacy ratio for Indian banks is at 9 percent.

Bank ownership : As it had earlier mentioned the freedom for banks in its working and bank
autonomy, it felt that the government control over the banks in the form of management and
ownership and bank autonomy does not go hand in hand and thus it recommended a review
of functions of boards and enabled them to adopt professional corporate strategy.

Review of banking laws : The committee considered that there was an urgent need for
reviewing and amending main laws governing Indian Banking Industry like RBI Act,
Banking Regulation Act, State Bank of India Act, Bank Nationalisation Act, etc. This up
gradation will bring them in line with the present needs of the banking sector in India.

Apart from these major recommendations, the committee has also recommended faster
computerization, technology up gradation, training of staff, depoliticizing of banks,
professionalism in banking, reviewing bank recruitment, etc.

C. Nachiket Mor committee

The Committee on Comprehensive Financial Services for Small Businesses and Low-
Income Households, set up by the RBI in September 2013, was mandated with the task of
framing a clear and detailed vision for financial inclusion and financial deepening in India.

The Committee further lays down a set of four design principles namely;
1. Stability,
2. Transparency,
3. Neutrality, and
4. Responsibility,

• The principles will guide the development of institutional frameworks and regulation for
achieving the visions outlined. Any approach that seeks to achieve the goals of financial
inclusion and deepening must be evaluated based on its impact on overall systemic risk
and stability, and at no cost should the stability of the system be compromised.

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• A well-functioning financial system must also mandate participants to build

completely transparent balance sheets that are made visible in a high-frequency manner,
accurately reflecting both the current status and the impact of stressful situations on this
status.
• In addition, the treatment of each participant in the financial system must be
strictly neutral and entirely determined by the role it is expected to perform in the system
and not its specific institutional character.
• Finally, the financial system must maintain the principle that the provider is
responsible for sale of suitable financial services to customers and ensure that providers
are incentivised to make every effort to offer customers only welfare-enhancing products
and not offer those that are not.
• At its core the Committee’s recommendations argue that in order to achieve the vision
of full financial inclusion and financial deepening in a manner that enhances systemic
stability, there is a need to move away from a limited focus on anyone model to an
approach where multiple models and partnerships are allowed to emerge, particularly
between national full-service banks, regional banks of various types, non-bank finance
companies, and financial markets. Thus, the recommendations of the Committee seek to
encourage partnerships between specialists, instead of focussing only on the large
generalist institutions.
• In the spirit of the RBI’s approach paper on differentiated Banks, the Committee
recommends that the RBI may also seriously consider licensing, with lowered entry
barriers but otherwise equivalent treatment, more functionally focused banks like
Payments Banks, Wholesale Consumer Banks, and Wholesale Investment Banks.
• Payments Banks are envisaged as entities that would focus on ensuring rapid out-reach
with respect to payments and deposit services.
• The Wholesale Consumer Banks and Wholesale Investment Banks would not take retail
deposits but would instead focus their attention on expanding the penetration of credit
services.
• The Committee also recommends that the extant Priority Sector Lending norms be
modified in order to allow and incentivize providers to specialise in one or more sectors
of the economy and regions of the country, rather than requiring each and every bank to
enter all the segments.
• Finally, the Committee proposes a shift in the current approach to customer protection
to one that places a greater onus on the financial services provider to provide suitable
products and services.

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• The committee has suggested a fixed term of 5 years for the chairman/managing director
of a bank and a term of 3 years for a whole-time director.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Match the following Banking sector reform committees with their respective purposes:

Committee Purpose
(a) Y.V. (i) Revised method
Reddy of lending in
Committee place of cash
credit system
(b) Rashid (ii) Rationalization
Jilani of interest rate
Committee on small saving
(c) S.M (iii) Working capital
Kelkar lending norms
Committee
(d) I.T. Vaz (iv) Regional Rural
Committee Banks

Choose the correct option from those given below

A. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

B. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
C. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
D. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
E. None of the above/More than one of the above
Ans: (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

Explanation:
Committee Purpose
(a) Y.V. Reddy Committee (ii) Rationalization of interest rate on small saving

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(b) Rashid Jilani Committee (i) Revised method of lending in place of cash
credit system
(c) S.M Kelkar Committee (iv) Regional Rural Banks
(d) I.T. Vaz Committee (iii) Working capital lending norms

2. RBI formed a sub-committee to study the issues and concerns in the microfinance sector
under the chairmanship of _____.
A. KC Chakrabarty
B. YH Malegam
C. Shashi Rajagopalan
D. Kumar Mangalam Birla
E. None of these
Ans: YH Malegam

Explanation:
The correct answer is YH Malegam. RBI formed a sub-committee to study the issues and
concerns in the microfinance sector under the chairmanship of YH Malegam.

3. Which among the following was the main recommendation of the Narsimhan
Committee-II in 1998?
A. It recommended doing away with the Priority Sector Lending system
B. It recommended merger of banks and finance institutions, NBFCs etc. on the basis of
synergy and operational efficiency
C. Export of IT sector
D. None of the above
E. Both 1 and 2
Ans: It recommended merger of banks and finance institutions, NBFCs etc. on the
basis of synergy and operational efficiency

Explanation:
It recommended merger of banks and finance institutions, NBFCs etc. on the basis of
synergy and operational efficiency was the main recommendation of the Narsimhan
Committee-II in 1998?

4. Which among the following is correct regarding the recommendations of the

Narsimhan Committee-I in 1991?

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A. It recommended that the interest rates should be decided by market forces rather than
the RBI
B. It recommended reduction of Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the
banking system
C. The Directed Credit Program was recommended to be discontinued with
D. Establishment of the Asset Reconstruction Fund to take care of the NPAs in banks
E. All the above
Ans: All the above

Explanation:
The correct answer is It recommended that the interest rates should be decided by market
forces rather than the RBI, It recommended reduction of Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory
Liquidity Ratio in the banking system, The Directed Credit Program was recommended to
be discontinued with Establishment of the Asset Reconstruction Fund to take care of the
NPAs in banks.

5. The amalgamation of Vijaya Bank and Dena Bank with Bank of Baroda (BoB) came
into effect from _________.
A. 1 June 2019
B. 1 January 2019
C. 1 April 2018
D. 1 April 2019
E. None of these
Ans: 1 April 2019

Explanation:
The amalgamation of Vijaya Bank and Dena Bank with Bank of Baroda (BoB) came into
effect from 1 April 2019. With amalgamation with BOB to create India's third largest bank.

6. Which committee appointed by the Government of India recommended the formation

of lead banks in 1969?
A. Nariman Committee
B. Bhagwati Committee
C. Pranav Committee
D. Narasimhan Committee
E. None of these

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Ans: Nariman Committee

Explanation:
Nariman (Nariman Committee) endorsed the idea of an 'Area Approach' in its report
(November 1969), recommending that in order to enable the Public Sector Banks to
discharge their social responsibilities, each bank should concentrate on certain districts
where it should act as a 'Lead Bank'.

7. Which of the following areas was investigated by the Chelliah Committee?

A. Center-state relations
B. Industrial sickness
C. Taxes
D. Insurance
E. None of these
Ans: Taxes

Explanation:
Chelliah Committee was formed in 1992 to make recommendations on the tax regime of
Indian govt.

8. Which committee was appointed to give a detailed report on the Non-Performing

Assets of public sector banks?
A. Pannir Selvam Committee
B. Malegam Committee
C. Mandal Committee
D. Srikrishna Committee
E. None of these
Ans: Pannir Selvam Committee

Explanation:
The correct answer is option 1, i.e. Pannir Selvam Committee. Pannir Selvam Committee
Report submitted in 1998 on NPAs of public sector banks suggests Arbitration/Conciliation
under the Arbitration Act 1996 as an effective tool.

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9. Arrange the following committees formed for small scale sector in chronological order
and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
I. Nayak Committee
II. Abid Hussain Committee
III. S. S. Kohli Committee
IV. Karve Committee
Codes:
A. I, II, IV, III
B. III, II, I, IV
C. IV, I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV
E. None of these
Ans: IV, I, II, III

Explanation:
The Correct Answer is IV, I, II, III. The correct sequence is Karve Committee(1955), Nayak
Committee(1991), Abid Hussain Committee(1997), S. S. Kohli Committee(2000).

10. RBI has set up a committee for development of housing finance securitization market,
headed by?
A. Sri Rajan
B. Harsh Vardhan
C. Suresh Nag
D. Rahul Gupta
E. Kapil Singh
Ans: Harsh Vardhan

Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had constituted a Committee (Chair: Dr. Harsh Vardhan)
on the Development of Housing Finance Securitization Market in May 2019.

11. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has recently constituted a
committee on Social Stock Exchanges (SSE) under the chairmanship of ______.
A. Raghuram Rajan
B. Nandan Nilekani
C. Ishaat Hussain

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D. Vinod Rai
E. None of these
Ans: Ishaat Hussain

Explanation:
SEBI had set up a high-level panel to suggest possible structures and regulations for creating
'social stock exchanges'.
To facilitate listing and fund-raising by social enterprises as well as voluntary organisations.
The committee will be headed by Ishaat Hussain (Director at SBI Foundation and former
Finance Director at Tata Sons).
He outlined its vision and made recommendations to include the participation of non-profit
organisations (NPOs) and for-profit enterprises (FPEs) on social stock exchanges subject to
committing to minimum reporting requirements.

12. Who among the following is not a member of Monetary Policy Committee?
A. Dr. Chetan Ghate
B. Dr. Pami Dua
C. Arun Jaitley
D. Dr. Viral V. Acharya
E. Dr. Urjit R. Patel
Ans: Arun Jaitley

Explanation:
Arun Jaitley is not a member of the Monetary Policy Committee.

13. After attaining independence, the Government of India constituted the 'National
income Committee' in 1949 to compile authoritative estimates of national income. The
committee consisted of:
A. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B. Prof. R.C. Dutt
C. Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis
D. Prof. D.R. Gadgil
E. Prof. Sukhamoy Chakravarthy
F. Prof. V.K.R.V. Rao
Choose the correct answer:

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A. A, C and F only
B. B, D and E only
C. A, B and C only
D. C, D and F only
E. None of these
Ans: C, D and F only
Explanation:
The correct answer is:
C. Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis
D. Prof. D.R. Gadgil
F. Prof. V.K.R.V. Rao
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar and Prof. R.C. Dutt were not members of the National Income
Committee. Prof. Sukhamoy Chakravarthy was not born in 1949 and therefore could not
have been a member of the committee at that time.

14. Which of the following will set up a task force for formulating a framework to
determine logistics costs in the country?
A. Department of Commerce
B. Department of Economic Affairs
C. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
D. Department of Financial Services
E. None of these
Ans: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
Explanation:
The correct answer is Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. A task force
will be set up for formulating a framework to determine logistics costs in the country.

15. Recently Western Ghats was seen in the news, choose the committees formed to study
the western ghats from the below list.
1. Kasturirangan Committee
2. Gadgil Committee
3. Mohan Alva Committee
4. T M Vijayabhaskar Committee
A. 1, 3, and 4 Only
B. 2, 3, and 4 Only

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C. 3 and 4 Only
D. 1 and 2 Only
E. None of these
Ans: 1 and 2 Only
Explanation:
The correct answer is 1 and 2 Only. It is spread over the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka,
Kerala, and T. Nadu.
It is also known as the Sahyadris in Maharashtra and Karnataka.
Tiger, Nilgiri Tahr, Lion-Tailed Macaque, and other species live in these forests.
It is declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
It is also one of the 8 Biodiversity Hotspots in the world.
Kasturirangan Committee and Gadgil committee were formed to study the Western Ghats
and to demarcate the Eco Sensitive Zones.

16. L G Havanur Commission was recently seen in the news, the purpose of forming this
committee was _____________
A. State Flag Committee
B. Mahadayi water Disputes
C. Tulu Language research
D. Reservation for OBC's under Art 15 and Art 16.
E. None of these
Ans: Reservation for OBC's under Art 15 and Art 16.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Reservation for OBC's under Art 15 and Art 16. It was formed in the
year 1972 by Govt of Karnataka.
Recently, the 50yrs anniversary remembrance of forming this commission was observed.
L G Havanur hailed from Ranebennur taluk in the Haveri district.
He was a professor of law, a legislator, and also the chairman of the commission, and a
Cabinet minister in the Devaraj Urs goct.
Nelson Mandela had invited him to be as a consultant to the committee to redraft the
constitution of South Africa.

17. The Committee formed to recommend criteria for reservation in employment in the
State was headed by __________

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A. S G Siddaramayya
B. T S Nagabharana
C. Baraguru Ramachandrappa
D. Sarojini Bindurao Mahishi.
E. None of these
Ans: Sarojini Bindurao Mahishi.
Explanation:
Mahishi is best known for heading the committee appointed by the government of
Karnataka in 1983 to recommend criteria for reservation in employment in the State.
Submitting the recommendations in 1986, the committee recommended that a major
percentage of employment in Karnataka should be reserved to the local people.

18. Sudhakar Rao Commission is related to ____________

A. Increasing the quotas of SC ST
B. 100% Reservation for Kannadigas in Employment
C. Committee on Lingayath Religion
D. 7th Pay Commission of Karnataka
E. None of these
Ans: 7th Pay Commission of Karnataka
Explanation:
The correct answer is 7th Pay Commission of Karnataka. The commission is headed by the
retired chief secretarySudhakar Rao.
The commission was formed in November 2022 by the Karnataka State Govt.
The commission will look into the wage and allowance given to the state govt employees
and will revise it as per the All India Consumer Price Index.

19. The union government has constituted a ministerial panel headed by _______ to
oversee the merger proposals of state-owned banks.
A. Manmohan Singh
B. P. Chidambaram
C. Arun Jaitley
D. Pranab Mukherjee
E. None of these
Ans: Arun Jaitley

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Explanation:
Arun Jaitley, he Union Government has constituted a ministerial panel headed by Arun
Jaitley to oversee the merger proposals of state-owned banks.
It is known Alternative Mechanism and it will oversee the proposal coming from the board
of PSB for consolidation.
Apart from Arun Jaitley, other members are Piyush Goyal and Nirmala Sitharaman.

20. Who is the present chairman of Public Accounts Committee?

A. Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury
B. K. V Thomas
C. Y. V Reddy
D. K. P Balachandran
E. B. K Singh
Ans: Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury
Explanation:
The correct answer is Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury. Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury is chairperson
of the Parliament’s Public Accounts Committee. Public Accounts Committee of Parliament
is the oldest Parliamentary Committe

21. Who headed the second 'backward caste commission'?

A. Demand Barred Paramuna
B. Kaka Kalelkar
C. Fazal Ali
D. B P Mandal
E. None of these
Ans: B P Mandal
Explanation:
The Mandal Commission was formed in the year 1979. The commission was chaired by the
B. P. Mandal. It was the second backward caste commission. The commission was formed
to determine the criteria for defining India’s “socially and educationally backward classes”
and to recommend steps to be taken for the advancement of those classes.

22. Kalaiyarasan Committee is related to the?

A. Reservation

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B. Education Policy
C. Sports Policy
D. Tourism Policy
E. Answer Not Known
Ans: Reservation
Explanation:
Kalaiyarasan, The panel observed that there was a “cognitive gap” among students studying
in government schools. It thus suggested that students who had passed the higher secondary
exam after having studied for 7 consecutive years in government schools be provided
reservation.

23. Which of the following commmitte was sets up to probe irregularities in smart city
project in Tamil Nadu?
A. Davidar Committee
B. Murugesan Committee
C. N Sundaradevan Committee
D. D Venkatesh Committee
E. Answer not known
Ans: Davidar Committee
Explanation:
Davidar Committee was sets up to probe irregularities in smart city project in Tamil Nadu.

24. The Tamil Nadu government recently appointed a high-level committee of

educationists and experts to formulate a distinct State Education Policy (SEP) under
the chairmanship of?
A. R Ramanujam
B. D Murugesan
C. Saveetha
D. L Jawaharnesan
E. Answer not known
Ans: D Murugesan
Explanation:

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The Tamil Nadu government recently appointed a high-level committee of educationists

and experts to formulate a distinct State Education Policy (SEP) under the chairmanship of
D Murugesan.

25. Who headed the second 'backward caste commission'?

A. Demand Barred Paramuna
B. Kaka Kalelkar
C. Fazal Ali
D. B P Mandal
E. None of these
Ans: B P Mandal
Explanation:
It was headed by B.P. Mandal, an Indian parliamentarian, to consider the question of
reservations for people to address caste discrimination, and used eleven social, economic,
and educational indicators to determine backwardness.

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SUMMITS AND CONFERENCES

Summits & Conferences 2023
Summit Conference can be defined as a meeting of heads of Governments of different
Countries. These Summits or Conferences are important to maintaining foreign and
diplomatic relations between countries. Every year many Conferences and Summits take
place in different parts of the world. Summits/ like BRICS, ASEAN, G-20. are held on a
regular interval.

5th ASEAN-India Business summit

The 5th Asean-India Business Summit was held at the Berjaya Times Square Hotel in Kuala
Lumpur on March 6 this year. The summit, part of the Asean-India Year of Friendship (an
observation commemorating the 30-year-long engagement between the 10-member bloc
and India), is an essential forum for charting the future roadmap for the business.

7th International Dharma Dhamma Conference

The 7th International Dharma Dhamma Conference will be inaugurated by President
Droupadi Murmu. This international conference will be organized from March 3 to 5 at the
Kushabhau Thakre International Auditorium in Bhopal. Who is organizing the Conference?
The 3-day conference will be organized by Sanchi University of Buddhist-Indic Studies and
India Foundation.

8th National Conference on Economics of Competition Law

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is holding its 8th annual National Conference
on Economics of Competition Law. This conference has been organized by CCI since 2016.
This year, a plenary session on ‘Antitrust and Regulation: Interfaces and Synergies’ and
two technical sessions on ‘Competition and the Economy’ and ‘Economics in Antitrust
Enforcement’ will be .

B2B Global Conference & Expo on Traditional Medicine

The first B2B Global Conference & Expo on Traditional Medicine under the Shanghai
Cooperation Organisation (SCO) will be hosted by the Assam government to promote
traditional medicines at the global level. The event will be held in Guwahati. About the
Conference The conference will be attended by over 150 delegates from 13 member
countries.

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GSMA Government Leadership Award 2023

India received the GSMA Government Leadership Award 2023 at the GSMA’s Mobile
World Congress (MWC) 2023. The MWC was organized in Barcelona, Spain. The GSMA
is an association that brings together mobile operators and key stakeholders in the global
mobile industry. It represents more than 750 mobile operators and 400 companies.

UK to be country Partner for Bio Asia 2023

Hyderabad is the Cybercity of India. The Genome Valley, the first world-class Biotech
cluster in India was established in the cyber city. Today, the State Government of
Telangana, along with the Union Government, and several other international organizations
organize the BIO ASIA forum in the Genome Valley. The forum is one of the largest
international.

India’s First Model G – 20 Summit

The Indian Institute of Democratic Leadership is a non–profit organization. It is also called
the RMP institute as it was founded in memory of Shri Rambhau Mhalgi, an Indian
politician and former Member of Parliament. He is famous for running the Akhil Bharatiya
Vidyarthi Parishad.

International Craft Summit

Jaipur District Administration is hosting a three-day international summit on crafts. The
main objective of the summit is to promote Odisha crafts in Rajasthan! Four United Nations
Agencies and five UNESCO agencies are helping the administration in organizing the
summit. The Odisha Chief Minister Shri Naveen Patnaik inaugurated the summit via video
conferencing.

IISc Bengaluru – G20 Science Working Group’s Secretariat

The Bengaluru-based Indian Institute of Science (IISc) has been chosen as the secretariat
for Science 20 (S20) – the science working group of the G20 summit. About the S20 2023
The Science 20 (S20) 2023 will work towards resolving common global-level challenges
like poverty. It will focus on three key issues:

Global Technology Summit 2022

The 7th edition of the Global Technology Summit (GTS) was held from November 29 to
December 1 in New Delhi. About the Global Technology Summit The Global Technology
Summit is India’s flagship annual event on geotechnology that brings together industry

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experts, policymakers, scientists and other key stakeholders from across the world to
discuss technology and.

Third Global High-Level Conference on Anti-Microbial Resistance

The 3rd Global High-Level Conference on Anti-Microbial Resistance is being organized in
Muscat, Oman from November 24 to 25 this year. What is the 3rd Global High-Level
Conference on Anti-Microbial Resistance? The 3rd Global High-Level Conference on Anti-
Microbial Resistance (AMR) aims to accelerate countermeasures for antimicrobial
resistance at the national, regional and global levels and.

25th National Conference on e-Governance

The 25th National Conference on e-Governance will be organized on November 26 and 27
this year About the 25th NCeG 25th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) will be
held in Katra – a city in the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. It will be jointly
organized by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public .

Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence

On November 21 this year, India is set to take over the chair of the Global Partnership on
Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) for 2022-23. What is Global Partnership on Artificial
Intelligence (GPAI)? The Global Partnership in Artificial Intelligence was launched on June
15, 2020. It is a multi-stakeholder initiative that was developed by the G7 alliance.

Karnataka Research Development and Innovation Policy

The Karnataka Research Development and Innovation Policy was released during the
inaugural session of the Bengaluru Tech Summit (BTS 22).

What are the objectives of the policy? The Karnataka Research Development and
Innovation Policy aims ensure cooperation between industry and science as well as
innovative startups. It seeks to ease collaboration between the skilled workforce.

Bali G20 Summit

The 2022 G20 Bali summit is set to be held on November 15 and 16 this year. About the
summit The summit in Bali is the 17th meeting of the Group of Twenty (G20) countries
that represent 85 per cent of the global GDP, 75 per cent of the global trade and 66 per cent.

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5th Edition of Paris Peace Forum

The fifth edition of the Paris Peace Forum is being organized. What is Paris Peace Forum?
The Paris Peace Forum is a French non-profit organization established in 2018. It hosts
annual gathering of world leaders and heads of international organizations as well as leaders
from civil society and private sector from across the world.

India to host “No Money for Terror” Conference

The 3rd Ministerial “No Money for Terror” Conference will set to be held on November 18
and 19 this year in New Delhi, India. What is the NMFT conference? The Ministerial No
Money for Terror (NMFT) Conference aims to create platform for international discussions
on countering terror financing. The conference includes discussions on technical, legal,

2022 United Nations Climate Change Conference

The 2022 United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP27) is set to be held from
November 6 to 18 this year. What is COP? The Conference of Parties (COP) is the apex
decision making body responsible for monitoring and reviewing the implementation of the
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The COP
presidency rotates.

14th World Spice Congress

The 14th edition of the World Spice Congress is set to be organized in Mumbai,
Maharashtra from February 16 to 18 next year. Key facts The World Spice Congress (WSC)
is the gathering of the global spice industry that creates a platform to improve the
understanding of the status and challenges of the spice sector.

2nd UN World Geospatial International Congress

The second edition of the UN World Geospatial International Congress is being organized
in Hyderabad, Telangana from October 10 to 14 this year. Key facts The 2nd United Nations
World Geospatial Information Congress (UNWGIC 2022) is being hosted by the
Department of Science and Technology (DST) and convened by the United Nations
Committee of Experts .

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February 2023
Name of the
Organized/Led by Venue Aim/Theme
Summit
Uttar Pradesh Prime Minister Lucknow, Uttar --
Global Investors Narendra Modi Pradesh
Summit 2023
Global Tourism Ministry of Tourism Jamaica To bring together global
Resilience business leaders and
Conference policy makers to
understand and explore
tourism business
opportunities in India.
Two-day Youth20 Gujarat Chief Maharaja Theme: ‘Climate
(Y20) India Summit Minister Bhupendra Sayajirao Change and Disaster
Patel University Risk Reduction: Making
Vadodara sustainability a Way of
Life’.
12th World Hindi External Affairs Nadi, Fiji Theme: “Hindi –
Conference Minister S Traditional Knowledge
Jaishankar and Fiji to Artificial Intelligence”
Prime Minister
Sitiveni Rabuka
19th Annual Zone Lok Sabha Speaker Gangtok, 'Drug abuse and its
III Conference of Om Birla Sikkim solutions' and 'Cyber-
Commonwealth bullying'
Parliamentary
Association (CPA)
India Region
World Government Mohammed bin Dubai, UAE Theme:Shaping Future
Summit Rashid Al Maktoum Governments.
B20 conference Chief Minister N Manipur Theme: Sustainable
Biren Singh Growth and
Development

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January 2023
Name of the
Organized/Led by Venue Aim/Theme
Summit
Y20 Summit Anurag Singh Thakur, New Delhi During India's
theme, logo Union Minister of presidency of the
and website Youth Affairs and Y20, the emphasis of
Sports its initiatives would
be on partnerships
and global youth
leadership.
Global Tamil -- Tamil Nadu Enables the global
Angels Tamil diaspora to
platform for connect with start-ups
startups in Tamil Nadu that
are looking for
investors.
World -- Davos Theme:"Cooperation
Economic in a Fragmented
Forum World"
meeting
Think-20 Shivraj Singh Bhopal Encouragement of
meeting of Chouhan, the chief value-oriented
G20 minister of Madhya infrastructure
Pradesh development Call for
more inclusive
development and
consideration of all
societal groups.
India-UAE International Business Dubai Sectors on which the
Partnership Linkage Forum (IBLF) summit will focus:
Summit and Dubai Healthcare, start-ups,
International Chamber food manufacturing,
and processing.
Movers World Economic -- India discussed its
Coalition Forum Startup 20 agenda
during meetings with

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Leadership various foreign

Meeting leaders. India will
host the S20, a
science summit,
concurrent with the
G20 summit. India
will host the G20
summit in 2023.
G20-B20 -- Gandhinagar, Gujarat The stress of the
inception meeting was more on
meeting sustainability and
green business
practice
Democracy ECI USA Theme:"Use of
summit Technology and
Elections Integrity"
India Stack Ministry of Electronics New Delhi India Stack is a
Developer and IT collection of
Conference Application
Programming
Interfaces (APIs) that
provide digital
infrastructure for
government and
citizens' services.
Meet of G20 GoI Jodhpur, Three topics will be
Rajasthan covered by the
Employment
Working Group: the
global skills gap,
sustainable financing
for social security,
social protection, and
gig and platform
economies.

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Second Prime Minister Shri Delhi Key step towards

National Narendra Modi further boosting the
Conference of partnership between
Chief the Centre and the
Secretaries State Governments.
G20 foreign -- Pragati Maidan, New The membership
minister Delhi comprises a mix of
meeting the world’s largest
advanced and
emerging economies,
representing about
two-thirds of the
world’s population.
"Voice of the Prime Minister Virtual meeting It aims to bring
Global South Narendra Modi together countries
Summit" from the Global
South to share their
perspectives and
priorities on a
common platform.
G20 Department of Pune The meeting also
Infrastructure Economic Affairs discussed other
Working important themes,
Group such as exploring
meeting ways to collate the
data on Infrastructure
spending and make
the data useful for the
private sector.
G20 Health Union Minister of Thiruvananthapuram, The meeting also
Working State for Health and Kerala discussed other
Group Family Welfare important themes,
conference Bharati Pravin Pawar such as exploring
and Union Minister of ways to collate the
State for External data on Infrastructure
spending and make

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Affairs V. the data useful for the

Muraleedharan private sector.
Global Ministry of Tourism, Pragati Maidan in To bring together
Tourism Government of India New Delhi global businesses,
Investors thought leaders, and
Summit policymakers to
understand and
explore Tourism
Business
opportunities in
India.
G20-Startup20 -- Hyderabad The meeting will
Engagement create a global
Group narrative for
supporting startups
and fostering
synergies between
startups, corporates,
investors, innovation
agencies, and other
key ecosystem
stakeholders.
G20 Hon’ble Minister of Chandigarh Focus on
International Agriculture and strengthening
Financial Farmers Welfare, Shri theinternational
Architecture NarendraSinghTomar, financial
Working and Hon'ble Minister architecture.It also
Group of Food Processing aims to address
Industries, multiple challenges
ShriPashupati Kumar faced by vulnerable
Paras countries.

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December 2022
Name of the
Organized/Led by Venue Aim/Theme
Summit
Investors’ Conclave Union Minister of Bengaluru To enhance this
on Commercial Coal, Mines and contribution to 2.5% by
Coal Mines Auction Parliamentary 2030 indicating that there
and Opportunities Affairs, Shri is a huge potential in the
in Mining Sector Pralhad Joshi mining sector and the
investors are invited to
participate in this
opportunity.
1st Sherpa Meeting -- Udaipur It was reasserted that in
of India’s G20 district of spite of facing several
Presidency Rajasthan global challenges, India
will advocate a sense of
oneness for all and find
solutions collectively with
other nations.
18th Meeting of the Piyush Goyal and Virtual meeting Both sides had productive
Joint Working AK Mukhlesur exchanges on border
Group (JWG) on Rahman management and common
Security and Border security related issues
Management during that meeting.
9th World Ayurveda Union Minister of Panaji, Goa It aims to showcase the
Congress (WAC) State for Tourism strength and efficacy of
and Shipping, Ports the AYUSH systems of
and Waterways, medicine at the Global
Shripad Naik level.
“Cactus Plantation Union Minister of New Delhi It will help in achieving
and its Economic Rural Development Nationally Determined
Usage” and Panchayati Raj, Contributions (NDC) and
Giriraj Singh Sustainable Development
Goals (SDGs) for the
country as well.

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7th edition of the 3- Union Minister of New Delhi Theme: “Geopolitics of

day Global External Affairs, Technology”
Technology Dr. S Jaishankar
Summit (GTS)
National Conclave Ministry of Health Varanasi, Uttar Universal Health
of Universal Health and Family Welfare Pradesh Coverage (UHC) aims that
Coverage (UHC) ‘all people have access to
needed promotive,
preventive, curative and
rehabilitative health
services, of sufficient
quality to be effective,
while also ensuring that
people do not suffer
financial hardship when
paying for these services’.
5-day India Global Union Minister of Dubai, UAE It’s more important than
Forum (IGF) 2022 External Affairs, S ever that nations,
Jaishankar businesses, and
influencers seek common
ground and work on
positive outcomes for
global impact.
7th India Water Union Jal Shakti New Delhi All experts were
Impact Summit Minister, Gajendra unanimous that the
(IWIS 2022) Singh Shekhawat direction of river health
cannot be ascertained
based on only biochemical
parameters. Condition of
aquatic life present in river
can be an indicator of river
health.
8th edition of the -- Bhopal, To celebrate the
India International Madhya achievements of India’s
Science Festival Pradesh scientific and
(IISF)-2022 technological

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advancements with
students, innovators,
craftsmen, farmers,
scientists and technocrats
from India and abroad.
“J C Bose: A Legendary Indian New Delhi He was a Plant
Satyagrahi scientist Acharya Physiologist and physicist
Scientist” Jagadish Chandra who invented the
Bose Govt. of India crescograph, a device for
measuring the growth of
plants. He for the first
time demonstrated that
plants have feelings.
3rd Global High- -- Oman To accelerate One Health
Level Ministerial actions on antimicrobial
Conference on resistance to achieve the
Anti-Microbial 2030 SDG.
Resistance (AMR)
National Youth Karnataka Chief Karnataka Around 7,500
Conference Minister Basavaraj representatives from all
Bommai the States will participate
in the youth festival.
The National Youth
Festival is organised to
commemorate the birth
anniversary of Swami
Vivekanand which falls on
12 January.
75th Amrut -- Video Amrit Mahotsav
Mahotsav of Shree Conferencing celebrations, mega blood
Swaminarayan donation camps, free
Gurukul Rajkot medical check-up camps
Sansthan are being organised at
Sahajanand nagar where
renowned multi-specialty
doctors are providing free

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medical services and free

of cost medicine to the
people.
G20 Working Indian Institute of Virtual meeting Theme: ‘Disruptive
Group on Science Science (IISc) Science for Innovative and
Sustainable Development’

November 2022
Name of the
Organized/Led by Venue Aim/Theme
Summit
5th NIIF Governing Union Minister of New Delhi The primary objective of
Council Meeting Finance, Nirmala the meeting was to
Sitharaman approve significant
updates regarding
bilateral engagements
under the NIIF.
India-Norway Joint Secretary, Ministry Mumbai, The primary objective of
Working Group of Ports, Shipping Maharashtra this bilateral meeting was
Maritime Meeting and Waterways to increase the
(India), Rajesh cooperation between the
Kumar Sinha two countries in the field
of the green maritime
sector.
15th Urban State Minister for Kochi, Kerala Theme: “Azadi@75 –
Mobility India Housing and Urban Sustainable
Conference and Affairs Kaushal AatmaNirbhar Urban
Expo Kishore Mobility”
ASEAN-India External Affairs Cambodia To boost cooperation in
Summit Minister, Dr S. sectors of public health,
Jaishankar renewable energy, and
smart agriculture, India
announced an additional
contribution of US dollar
5 million to the ASEAN-
India Science and
Technology Fund.

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9th Ministerial Union Finance New Delhi To cover the discussion

Meeting of the Minister Nirmala on various economic
India-US Economic Sitharaman issues including global
and Financial macroeconomic outlook,
Partnership climate finance, supply
chain resilience,
international taxation,
anti-money laundering,
combating terrorism
financing, India’s
upcoming G20
presidency, and MDB’s
reforms.
Virtual Global Skill Ministry of Virtual meeting This shall be achieved by
Summit (VGSS) Education, Ministry creating world-class
of External Affairs, training infrastructure in
Ministry of the destination countries,
Commerce and propelling international
Industry, and mobility, and
Ministry of Skill strengthening ties with
Development and foreign countries in
Entrepreneurship specific areas to boost job
opportunities for the
youth.
GeoSmart India Union Minister of Hyderabad, The country is advancing
2022 Summit Jal Shakti, Gajendra Telangana towards an era of
Singh Shekhawat sustainable development
right from the grassroots
level and aimed at
eradicating poverty,
combating climate
change, and improving
business and living
standards.
Bengaluru Tech Prime Minister Virtual meeting Theme: “Tech4NexGen”
Summit-2022 Narendra Modi

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9th ASEAN Union Minister of Cambodia It resolute global efforts

Defence Ministers' Defence, Rajnath to counter transnational
Meeting (ADMM) Singh and cross-border
Plus terrorism, terming it as
the gravest threat to
regional and global
security.
UNESCO-India- Vice President of Greater Noida, Nearly 600 young
Africa (UIA) India, Jagdeep Uttar Pradesh innovators come together
Hackathon Dhankhar to find solutions for
social, environmental and
technical problems during
the event.
19th meeting of the -- Panama To the Convention on
Conference of Convention International Trade in
Parties (COP19) Center, Panama Endangered Species of
Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES).
59th Asia Pacific Hosted by Prasar New Delhi Theme: “Serving the
Broadcasting Union Bharati People: Media’s Role in
(ABU) General Times of Crisis”
Assembly
4th India-France Union Defence New Delhi To strengthen maritime
Annual Defence Minister, Rajnath cooperation and increase
Dialogue Singh the scope and complexity
of bilateral exercises.
1st ASEAN-India Dr. Srivari Bogor, The 1st ASEAN-India
Start-up Festival Chandrashekhar, Indonesia Start-up Festival will
2022 Secretary, further strengthen the
Department of ASEAN-India
Science and cooperation to accelerate
Technology the start-up economy.
Civil Air -- Virtual meeting To turn the Complete Air
Navigation Services Traffic System (CATS)
Organisation Global Council’s vision
(CANSO)

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for the skies of 2045 into

a reality.
‘Invest Karnataka Election Video Aimed at attracting
2022’ Commission of Conferencing prospective investors and
India (ECI) setting up development
agenda for the next
decade.
National Natural Union Agriculture Virtual meeting To coordinate with the
Farming Mission Minister Narendra State government and
Meeting Singh Tomar central departments and
enable market linkage so
that farmers can easily
sell their products.
42nd International National Dehradun Theme: Digital
Congress of the Hydrographic Cartography to Harness
INCA Office Blue Economy
‘TELEMEDICON -- Kerala It aims to build platforms
2022’ involving healthcare
regulators, health funding
authorities, service
providers, and
international experts.
PM Gati Shakti Union Minister Varanasi To bring together greater
Multimodal Sarbananda awareness about the PM
Waterways Summit Sonowal Gati Shakti National
Masterplan with a focus
on infrastructure
development in the
waterways.
G20 leaders -- Indonesia’s To promote Himachal
capital city, Pradesh’s art and culture
Bali so that it travels in wide
countries.
India-US CEO Shri Piyush Goyal, Virtual meeting The forum saw active
Forum Union Minister of participation and
Commerce and discussions by CEOs of

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Industry, Consumer both countries as India

Affairs, Food and and US look to deepen
Public Distribution, our strategic partnership
and Textiles and in various sectors of our
Ms. Gina respective economies.
Raimondo, US
Secretary of
Commerce
22nd Indian Ocean Minister of State for Dhaka in To strengthening IORA to
Rim Association External Affairs Dr. Bangladesh promote peace, security
(IORA) Council of Rajkumar Ranjan and prosperity in the
Ministers’ Singh Indian Ocean Region as
well as in the Indo-
Pacific.
G20 Sherpa -- Darbar Hall at At fostering growth and
Meeting the City Palace building bonds amongst
Udaipur the member nations.
Among the highlights
will be the depiction of
Indian culture with wall
paintings and
illumination of heritage
sites across the city.

October 2022
Name of the
Organized/Led by Venue Aim/Theme
Summit
To provide support to
Joint Secretary, entrepreneurs belonging
SC-ST Conclave Ministry of MSME, Gujarat to the Scheduled Caste
Mercy Epao and Scheduled Tribe
communities.
S Jaishankar, Indian Theme: “A watershed
77th UNGA union minister of moment: transformative
Virtual Meeting
Assembly the ministry of solutions to the
external affairs interlocking challenges”

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Union Minister of It was stated that 10%

DoNER, Tourism & GBS for the NER states
70th NEC Plenary Guwahati
Culture, G. Kishan is the key to prosperity
Reddy in the recent future.
To adapt to these
changes, it is important
Conference of that DISCOMS should
Union Minister of
power and Virtual meeting follow prudent and
Power and NRE
renewable energy sustainable financial
practices to ensure their
viability.
The program was to
National SC-ST provide a platform for
Ministry of MSME Aizawl
mega Conclave interaction with different
industry leaders.
India is hosting WSC as
a group of twenty events
14th World Spice
-- Navi Mumbai in conjunction with
Congress
India’s presidency of the
G20.
The primary objective of
Global Youth Khulna, the summit is to raise
--
Climate Summit Bangladesh awareness regarding
climate change.
UNESCO- World
Conference on To shape a more robust
Cultural Policies Minister of State for and resilient cultural
Mexico City,
and Sustainable Culture Arjun Ram sector, fully anchored in
Mexico
Development- Meghwal the perspectives of
MONDIACULT sustainable development.
2022
The Government of
“Digital India Union Telecom
India (GOI) approved Rs
Conference of State Minister Ashwini Virtual Meeting
26,000 crores for the
IT Ministers” Vaishnaw
installation of 25,000

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mobile towers in 500

days.
To provide the right
platform for the
National Conclave
-- Delhi policymakers to prepare
& Exhibition
a roadmap for the Indian
coal sector to align with.
It is the only leader-led
Joint Secretary
forum at which all key
6th east Asia (International
partners meet to discuss
Summit Education Cooperation) Hanoi, Vietnam
political, security and
Minister’s Ministry of
economic challenges
Education
facing the Indo-Pacific.
Mr Norman
Issues relating to
Chipakupaku,
training and capacity
Permanent
Gandhinagar, building were discussed,
DefExpo 2022 Secretary, MoD
Gujarat in addition to the review
Zambia met
of ongoing bilateral
Defence Secretary
defence cooperation.
Dr Ajay Kumar
The meeting will be
attended by 2,000
90th General overseas dignitaries,
Assembly of -- New Delhi including Ministers,
Interpol Police Chiefs, Police
Officers, and support
staff.
India’s peacekeeping
contributions and
assistance during Covid-
8th edition of the
Minister of State for 19 in the form of
“Dakar International
External Affairs, V. Senegal vaccines, Climate
Forum on Peace and
Muraleedharan Action, and development
Security in Africa”
partnerships along with
stressing the need for
UNSC reforms.

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The Ministry of
Commerce and Industry
3rd campus of the
Union Finance received a proposal from
Indian Institute of Kakinada,
Minister, Nirmala the IIFT authorities for a
Foreign Trade Andhra Pradesh
Sitharaman grant of Rs. 229 crore,
(IIFT)
and the sanction order is
anxiously anticipated.
Theme: “Role,
Two-Day Election
Framework & Capacity
International Commission of New Delhi
of Election Management
Conference India (ECI)
Bodies”
The International Solar
Union Minister for
5th Assembly of Alliance is very
Power and New and
International Solar Virtual meeting necessary to achieve the
Renewable Energy
Alliance energy transition
RK Singh
objective for our planet.
UN World Theme: ‘Geo-Enabling
Geospatial Prime Minister Video the Global Village: No
International Narendra Modi Conferencing one should be left
Congress behind’
The civil enclave will be
built in Jammu for Rs
861 crore and Srinagar’s
Minister of Civil
present terminal will be
4th Heli-India Aviation Shri
Virtual meeting expanded three times
Summit 2022 Jyotiraditya M.
from 20,000 square
Scindia
meters to 60,000 square
meters for Rs 1500
crores.
Union Minister The program will start
Ayush, Dr. Pramod with seven plenary
9th World Ayurveda Sawant Goa Chief sessions, 16 themes for
Congress & Arogya Minister, and Panaji, Goa oral presentation, a
Expo Shripad Yesso Naik, string of associated
Union Minister of events, and public
State for tourism outreach program.

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SCO Foreign, defense,

and national security
SCO National
-- Delhi advisors and summit-
Coordinators Meet
level meetings of the
grouping next year.
It is one of the most elite
22nd World gatherings of the global
-- Dubai
Blockchain Summit crypto and blockchain
ecosystem.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which country is the host of 5th BIMSTEC Summit in 2022?

A. India
B. Sri Lanka
C. Bhutan
D. Myanmar
E. None of these
Ans: B Sri Lanka
Explanation:
BIMSTEC Summit 2022
The fifth summit of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and
Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) grouping was held in Colombo, Sri Lanka on 30th
March 2022.
2. Which is the host country of COP28 Climate Summit 2023?
A. India
B. UAE
C. Australia
D. UK
E. None of these
Ans: B UAE
Explanation:

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The 2023 UN Climate Change Conference will convene from 30 November to 12 December
2023 in Dubai, United Arab Emirates (UAE). It will comprise: the 28th meeting of the
Conference of the Parties (COP 28); the fifth meeting of the COP serving as the Meeting of
the Parties to the Paris Agreement (CMA 5);
3. Which is the venue of the ‘India Pharmaceutical and Medical Device Conference
2022’?
A. Pune
B. Ahmadabad
C. New Delhi
D. Bhopal
E. kulkutta
Ans: C New Delhi
Explanation:
India Pharmaceutical and Medical Device Conference 2022 to be held on April 25. The
7th edition of the India Pharmaceutical and Medical Device Conference 2022 will be held
in New Delhi on Monday. The theme of the three-day conference is - Vision 2047:
Transformative roadmap for the future.
4. Which is the venue of the Conference of High Court Chief Justices 2022?
A. Chennai
B. Kolkata
C. New Delhi
D. Mumbai
E. None of these
Ans: C New Delhi
Explanation:
Which is the venue of the Conference of High Court Chief Justices 2022? Notes: Chief
Justice of India NV Ramana chaired the 39th conference of Chief Justices of various High
Courts of the country, at the premises of the Supreme Court, New Delhi.
5. Which city is the host of the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation trade ministers
meeting in 2022?
A. Tokyo
B. Bangkok
C. New York
D. New Delhi
E. Mumbai

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Ans: B Bangkok
Explanation:
In 1995, APEC established a business advisory body named the APEC Business Advisory
Council (ABAC), composed of three business executives from each member-country.
6. Which state/UT hosted the ‘National Conference of School Education Ministers’ in
2022?
A. Karnataka
B. Gujarat
C. New Delhi
D. Tamil Nadu
E. None of these
Ans: B Gujarat
Explanation:
National Education Ministers' Conference is to be held in Gujarat on 1st and 2nd June,
2022. Education Ministers of States/UTs are will be participating in the conference.
7. Which state/UT is the venue of the meeting of the Western Zonal Council in 2022?
A. Goa
B. Gujarat
C. Daman & Diu
D. Maharashtra
E. indore
Ans: C Daman & Diu
Explanation:
MEETINGS OF ZONAL COUNCILS

Sl.no Name of the Council Place of meeting

1. Eastern Zonal Council Ranchi

2. Western Zonal Council Panaji

3. Northern Zonal Council Shimla

4. Southern Zonal Council Hyderabad

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8. Which city is the venue of the NHA-NASSCOM Conclave 2022 on Ayushman

Bharat Digital Mission?
A. Chennai
B. Bengaluru
C. Gandhi Nagar
D. Mysuru
E. None of these
Ans: B Bengaluru
Explanation:
The NHA-NASSCOM Conclave 2022 was held today in Bengaluru as a hybrid event with
participation of over 400 health, tech sectors and investors.
9. Which Union Ministry organised the ‘National Conference on Competition Law’?
A. Ministry of Finance
B. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
C. Ministry of Law and Justice
D. Ministry of Home Affairs
E. None of these
Ans: B Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Explanation:
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is organising a National Conference on
Competition Law as part of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) Iconic Week
celebrations under Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (AKAM) tomorrow in New Delhi.
10. The first ever India-Japan Finance Dialogue was held in which state/UT?
A. New Delhi
B. Gujarat
C. Sikkim
D. Himachal Pradesh
E. Madhya Pradesh
Ans: A New Delhi
Explanation:
India and Japan held their first ever Finance Dialogue in New Delhi to exchange their views
on the macro-economic situation, financial system, financial digitalization and investment
environment.

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11. Which country hosted the Special ASEAN-India Foreign Ministers’ Meeting
(SAIFMM)?
A. Thailand
B. Vietnam
C. India
D. Philippines
E. None of these
Ans: C India
Explanation:
India will host the Special ASEAN-India Foreign Ministers' Meeting (SAIFMM) on June
16 to 17 to mark the 30th anniversary of its relations with the grouping, Ministry Of External
Affairs(MEA) said.

12. Which country is the host of SCO’s Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (SCO-RATS)
Meeting in 2022?
A. China
B. India
C. Bangladesh
D. Pakistan
E. Afghanistan
Ans: B India
Explanation:
The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS), headquartered in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, is a
permanent organ of the SCO which serves to promote cooperation of member states against
terrorism, separatism and extremism.
13. Which is the venue of the Plenary Session of 110th International Labour Conference?
A. Geneva
B. Paris
C. New York
D. Rome
E. London
Ans: A Geneva
Explanation:

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It meets annually in Geneva. Often called an international parliament of labour, the

Conference is also a forum for discussion of key social and labour questions.
14. Which Indian state/ UT is the host of G-20 summit in 2023?
A. Kerala
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Odisha
D. Sikkim
E. None of these
Ans: B Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation:

The 2023 G20 New Delhi summit)is the upcoming eighteenth meeting of Group of Twenty
(G20), a summit scheduled to take place in International Exhibition-Convention Centre
(IECC), Pragati Maidan, New Delhi in 2023.
15. Which is the venue of ‘First India Animal Health Summit 2022’ in India?
A. New Delhi
B. Sikkim
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Karnataka
E. Kulkatta
Ans: A New Delhi
Explanation:
Considering the significance of animal health towards the broader objective of the country's
food and nutrition security, rural incomes and prosperity and overall economic
development, Indian Chamber of Food and Agriculture (ICFA) is hosting the 1st India
Animal Health Summit 2022 on July 06 - 07, 2022 at NASC Complex,
16. Which is the venue of ‘National Conclave on Mines and Minerals’?
A. New Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Ranchi
D. Raipur
E. None of these
Ans: A New Delhi
Explanation:

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Union Minister for Mines Pralhad Joshi inaugurated the 6th National Conclave on Mines
and Minerals in New Delhi.
17. The ‘Conference on the Export Potential of Natural, Organic and Geographical
Indications (GI) Agro Products’ was held in which city?
A. Nagpur
B. Guwahati
C. Kolkata
D. Patna
E. Pune
Ans: B Guwahati
Explanation:
APEDA also organised organized conference on the Export Potential of Natural, Organic
and Geographical Indications (GI) Agro Products in Guwahati.
18. ‘NCB National Conference on Drug Trafficking and National Security’ was held in
which city?
A. Mysuru
B. Hyderabad
C. Chandigarh
D. Guwahati
E. None of these
Ans: C Chandigarh
Explanation:
A National Conference on Drug Trafficking and National Security was held at Chandigarh
under the chairmanship of Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah, which was also attended
by Dr.
19. Which country holds the Presidency of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(SCO) in 2022?
A. India
B. Uzbekistan
C. Bangladesh
D. Kazakhstan
E. Pakistan
Ans: B Uzbekistan

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Explanation:
India is the current chair of the SCO Heads of the State and expected to hold the summit of
the eight-member grouping in the middle of next year. A joint statement issued at the end
of the meeting said that the SCO Heads of delegations expressed their support for India's
chairmanship in the Organisation in 2022-2023

20. Which city is the host of the Annual Meetings of the International Monetary Fund
(IMF) and the World Bank in 2022?
A. Geneva
B. Davos
C. Washington
D. Melbourne
E. None of these
Ans: C Washington
Explanation:
The Annual Meetings of the Boards of Governors of the IMF and World Bank Group take
place in October in Washington, DC.
21. Which state/UT is the host of ‘Agri Startup Conference’?
A. Karnataka
B. New Delhi
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Uttar Pradesh
E. Pune
Ans: B New Delhi
Explanation:
Union Minister Narendra Singh Tomar announced number of initiatives at Agri Startup
Conference in New Delhi.
22. Which city is the host of the ‘Heads of Missions Conference’ organized by the
Ministry of External Affairs?
A. Bengaluru
B. Gandhinagar
C. Kevadiya
D. Hyderabad
E. None of these

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Ans: C Kevadiya
Explanation:
It is being organized by the Ministry of External Affairs. The Prime Minister launched
Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for the Environment) in Kevadiya in the presence of UN Secretary-
General, Antonio Guterres.
23. India recently marked 30th anniversary of relations with which regional block?
A. SAARC
B. ASEAN
C. G-20
D. G-8
E. None of these
Ans: B ASEAN
Explanation:
It is being organized by the Ministry of External Affairs. The Prime Minister launched
Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for the Environment) in Kevadiya in the presence of UN Secretary-
General, Antonio Guterres.
24. ‘Sustainable Infrastructure Toward a Connected World’ is the theme of which bloc’s
annual meeting?
A. WEF
B. ADB
C. AIIB
D. IMF
E. BDI
Ans: C AIIB
Explanation:
The theme of the 2022 AIIB Annual Meeting is “Sustainable Infrastructure Toward a
Connected World”, which aims to reaffirm infrastructure's crucial role in supporting
recovery, growth and connectivity.
25. Which city is the host of the ‘Conference on Akash Tatva’, co-organised by ISRO and
Ministry of Science and Technology?
A. Ahmedabad
B. Jaipur
C. Dehradun
D. Guwahati

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E. None of these
Ans: C Dehradun
Explanation:
Vijnana Bharati in association with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the
Ministry of Science and Technology (MoST) is set to hold a 'Conference on 'Akash Tatva'
at Dehradun.
26. Which city is the host of the ‘India Space Congress, ISC 2022’?
A. Bengaluru
B. Mumbai
C. New Delhi
D. Hyderabad
E. Pune
Ans: C New Delhi
Explanation:
India Space Congress 2022, Oct. 26-28, New Delhi.
27. Which country is the host of the 27th Conference of the Parties (COP) to the
UNFCCC?
A. UAE
B. Egypt
C. Australia
D. Brazil
E. None of these
Ans: B Egypt
Explanation:
In November 2022, the Government of the Arab Republic of Egypt will host the 27th
Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC (COP 27), with a view to building on previous
successes and paving the way for future ambition to effectively tackle the global challenge
of climate change.
28. What is the theme of India’s G20 Presidency in 2022?
A. Jan Bhagidari
B. Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam
C. LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment)
D. Bharat Mata

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E. None of these
Ans: B Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam
Explanation:
The theme of India's G20 Presidency “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” or “One Earth · One
Family · One Future” closely ties with LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment)
29. Which city is the host of ‘PM Gati Shakti Multimodal Waterways Summit’?
A. Pune
B. Kolkata
C. Varanasi
D. Ahmedabad
E. New Delhi
Ans: C Varanasi
Explanation:
PM Gati Shakti Multimodal Waterways Summit will be held in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh on
November 11-12, 2022. The Indian Waterways Authority of India, under the aegis of the
Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways is organizing the PM Gati Shakti Multimodal
Waterways Summit.

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ART AND CULTURE

Art and culture are complex and interrelated concepts that reflect the diverse ways in which
human beings express themselves and engage with the world around them. Art refers to the
broad range of creative and expressive practices that use various media such as painting,
sculpture, music, literature, film, theatre, and dance to communicate ideas, emotions, and
experiences. Culture, on the other hand, encompasses the shared beliefs, values, customs,
behaviours, and artifacts that define a society or group.

Art and culture are closely intertwined, as artistic expression is often influenced by cultural
contexts and serves as a reflection of the values and beliefs of a society or group. For
example, music and dance styles can vary widely between different cultures and can reflect
cultural traditions, beliefs, and social practices. Similarly, literature and visual art can reflect
historical events, political movements, and social issues that are relevant to a particular
culture or society.

Art and culture also play important roles in shaping individual and collective experiences
and understanding of the world. They can evoke emotions, challenge assumptions, and offer
insights into the human condition. For example, a work of literature or film can offer a
powerful critique of social injustices, while a painting or sculpture can convey a sense of
beauty or awe.

Dance
• Two main divisions of dance forms are classical and folk.

• Literary sources, inscriptions, excavations and other chronicles provide extensive

evidence on this art form.

1. Classical Dances Of India

• The principle of Indian classical dance derives from the Natyashastra by Bharat Muni.

• The Sangeet Natak Akademi and the Ministry of Culture confers classical status to eight
Indian classical dance forms.

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Dances State
Bharatanatyam Tamil Nadu
Kathakali Kerala
Mohiniyattam Kerala
Odissi Orissa
Kuchipudi Andhra Pradesh
Manipuri Manipur
Kathak North India
Sattriya Assam

Bharatanatyam
• Bharatanatyam is a dance of Tamil Nadu in south India, which is earlier known as 'daasi
attam’.

• Instruments used: Mridangam, flute, violin, veena, natuvangam.

• Famous bharatanatyam dancers: Mallika Sarabhai, Yamini Krishnamurthy, Alarmel

Valli, Padma Subrahmanyam, Rukmini Devi, Mrinalini sarabhai, Arun dale

Kathakali
• Kathakali is a dance of Kerala in south India.

• Instruments used: Chenda, madalam, chengila, idakka and shankhu.

• Famous Kathakali dancers: Vazhenkada kunchu Nair, Kottakkal sivaraman,

Kalamandalam Gopi, Kalamandalam nair, Kalamandalam Vasu Pisharody.

Manipuri
• Manipuri is an important classical dance form that has originated from state of Manipur
in the north-eastern part of India.

• Instruments used: Pung, cymbals.

• Famous Manipuri dancers: Guru Bipin Singh, Rajkumar Singhajit Singh, Darshana
Jhaveri, Sohini Ray.

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• Famous Manipuri dancers: Guru Bipin Singh, Rajkumar Singhajit Singh, Darshana
Jhaveri, Sohini Ray.

Odissi
• Odissi dance is the classical dance form of Odisha that has its origin in temples.

• Instruments used: Mardala, Harmonium, Flute, Sitar, Violin, Cymbals.

• Famous Odissi dancers: Kelu Charan mahapatra, Padmashree Pankaj, Prasad Das,
Priyambada Hejmadi, Sanjukta panigrahi, Minati Mishra, Kumkum Mohanty, Oopalie
Oparajita, Sangeeta Das.

Kathak
• A classical dance indigenous to northern India, Kathak has developed under the
influence of Hindu Muslim cultures.

• The origin of this dance form is attributed to the travelling storytellers or kathakars of
ancient India.

• Instruments used: Tabla, sarangi or harmonium with manjira.

• Famous Kathak dancers: Shambhu Maharaj, Sitara Devi, Birju Maharaj, Roshan
Kumari, Saswati Sen, Rohini Bhate, Shovana Narayan.

Kuchipudi
• Kuchipudi is the classical dance of Andhra Pradesh in south India.

• It originated in a village named Kuchipudi in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.

• The dance is accompanied by song which is usually Carnatic music.

• Natya tarangini is a school for Kuchipudi.

• Instruments used: Mridangam, violin, flute, tambura.

• Famous Kuchipudi dancers: Vempati Chinna satyam, Uma Rama sarma, Shobha Naidu,
Vyjayanthi kasha, Sreelakshmy Govardhanan.

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Mohiniyattam
• Mohiniyattam is a classical solo dance form of Kerala that gets its name from 'Mohini',
the celestial enchantress of the Hindu mythology.

• Instruments used: Mridangam or Madhalam, Idakka, flute, veena, kuzhitalam.

• Famous Mohiniyattam dancers: Kalamandalam kalyanikutty Amma, kalamandalam

Hymavathy, Sunanda Nair, Gopika varma, Neena Prasad.

Sattriya
• Sattriya is an Indian classical dance that has its origins in the Vaishnava monasteries
(sattras) of Assam in 2000 the Sangeet Natak Academy recognized Sattriya as a classical
dance.

• Instruments used: Khols, Talas, flute.

• Famous Sattriya dancers: Ghanakanta Bora, Ananda mohan Bhagawati, Sharodi saikia,
Bhabananda Baryan, Jatin Goswami.

2. Folk Dances Of India

Bihu

• The Bihu dance is a folk dance from the Indian State of Assam related to the festival of
Bihu.

• There are three festivals in Bihu. Bhogali or Magh Bihu is celebrated in January, Rongali
or Bohag Bihu in April and Kongali or Kati Bihu in October.

• The most colourful and important one is the spring festival called Bohag Bihu which is
celebrated in the month of April.

• This Joyous dance is performed by both men and women.

• Dancers wear traditionally colourful Assamese clothing.

Bhangra

• The Bhangra is a folk dance from the Indian State of Punjab.

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• Bhangra dance is conducted by Punjab farmers to celebrate the coming of the harvest
season.

Ghoomar
• Ghoomar is a traditional women's folk dance from the Indian State of Rajasthan

• It is traditionally performed during auspicious occasions, Diwali, Holi and on a bride's

arrival at her marital home.

Garba

• Garba is the popular form of folk dance from the Indian State of Gujarat.

• It is performed for nine days during the festival of Navratri.

Kummi

• Kummi is the popular form of folk dance from the Indian State of Tamil Nadu.

• Kummi is performed by women. The women stand in a circle and clapping their hands
rhythmically.

Dandiya Raas
• 'Dandiya Raas' is a folk dance performed during the time of Navratri, with its origins in
Gujarat.

Bamboo dance
• Bamboo dance is tribal dance of Nagaland. This dance is exclusively performed by girls

Kolattam
• Kolattam is a folk dance originated in Tamil Nadu. This dance form is popular
throughout India.

• Kolattam performed by young girls with little stick held in hand to celebrate the birthday
of God Rama.

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Ootam Tullal
• Ootam Thullal is a folk dance of Kerala.

• Kunchan Nambiar introduced it in the 18th century.

Folk Theatre Of India

Bhand Pather
• Bhand Pather is a traditional street theatre of Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir.

• It takes up mythological stories as well as contemporary social issues as themes.

• This social drama incorporates acting, dance and music.

Yakshagana
• Yakshagana is the traditional folk theatre form of Indian state of Karnataka.

• It is based on mythological stories and Puranas.

Krishnattam
• Krishanattam is a dance oriented folk theatre of Kerala.

• Krishnattam is a cycle of eight plays performed for eight consecutive days, presenting
the story of lord Krishna.

Swang
• Swang is a folk-dance drama of Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Malwa region of
Madhya Pradesh.

• The two important styles of Swang are from Rohtak and Haathras.

Nautanki
• Nautanki is a mass entertaining folk theatre popular in Haryana, Bihar Uttar Pradesh,
Rajasthan, Punjab etc.

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Rasa Leela
• Rasleela is a theatre form of Uttar Pradesh.

• It is popular in Uttar Pradesh and some other parts of north India.

Jatra

• Jatra born and flourished in Bengal.

• This Bengali folk theatre originated in west Bengal as a result of the Bhakthi movement.

Bhaona
• Bhaona a traditional religious theatre originated and thrived in Assam.

Tamasha
• Tamasha is a traditional folk theatre form of Maharashtra. It has evolved from the folk
forms such as Gondhal, Jagran and Kirtan

• Life of Lord Krishna is the major theme in most performances.

Dashavatar
• Dashavatar is a popular theatre form of the Southern Konkan region of Maharashtra and
Northern Goa regions.

• Dashavatar is open air performance. Performers wear masks is a feature of this theatrical
form.

Therukoothu
• Theukoothu is the most popular form of folk drama of Tamil Nadu.

Bhavai

• Bhavai is a traditional theatre form of Indian state Gujarat.

• Bhavai is usually performed to revere and worship goddess Amba.

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Indian Music
• Music has always been an integral part of our culture.

• Bharat muni defined music as Nritya, gayan and vadan.

• The origins of Indian classical music can be found from the oldest Vedas. The Samaveda,
one of the four vedas, describes music at length.

• The basic scale (grama) of indian music heptatonic and it has seven notes or svarasadja,
rishabha, gandhara, madhyama, panchama, dhaivata, nishada, which are abbreviated as
sa, ri, ga, ma, pa, dha, ni.

• The sruti is a theoretical interval of which the scale contains 22.

• Pillars of indian music system are Swara, Raga, Taal.

• Two main genres of Indian classical music are Hindustani and Carnatic.

Carnatic Music
• Carnatic Music flourished under the patronage of krishnadevaraya in vijayanagar, the
capital city of Vijayanagara Empire.

• The golden period of south Indian classical music was during the time of Tyagaraja,
Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri.

Famous Carnatic Musicians

1. Thyagaraja
2. Syama Sastri
3. Muthuswami Dikshitar
4. Chembai Vaidyanatha Bhagavatar
5. Semmangudi R srinivasa Iyer
6. M S Subbulakshmi
7. M Balamurali Krishna
8. DK Pattammal
9. ML Vasanthakumari

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Hindustani Music
• Hindustani is a classical music genre of northern India.

• Amir Khusrau a prolific musician is believed the khayal, tarana and qawwali styles of
music. He is often called the father of qawwali.

Famous Hindustani Musicians

1. Zakir Hussain
2. Shubha Mudgal
3. Girija Devi
4. Begum Akhtar
5. Kishori amonkar
6. Bade Ghulam Ali Khan
7. Mallikarjun Mansoor
8. Ravi Shankar
9. Pandit Jasraj
10. Ustad Amir Khan
11. Abdul Rashid Khan

Regional Music in India

• Folk music is an inevitable part of Indian culture. some of the folk music's of India are.

Music States related to

It is a popular folk music from Braj region of Uttar
Rasiya Geet
Pradesh
Pankhida Pankhida originated in the villages of Rajasthan

Lotia Rajasthan

Pandwani Chhattisgarh
Mando Goa
Hori Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
Sohar Uttar Pradesh
Chhakri Jammu & Kashmir

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Laman is an interesting style of Himachali folk

Laman
music originated in the kullu valley region
Kajri Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
Tappa Punjab
Teej songs Rajasthan
Bhakha Jammu
Daskathia Odamisa
Bihu geet Assam
Burrakatha Aamashtra Pradesh
Cillu pattu Madu

Musical Instruments and Persons Associated

Musical
Person
Instrument
Santoor Pt Shiv Kumar Sharma, Bhajan Sopori
Flute Hari Prasad Chaurasia, Pannalal Ghosh, T.R. Mahalingam
Zakir Hussain, Allah Rakha, Sabir Khan, Pt. " Kishan Maharaj, Pt.
Tabla
Jnan Prakash Ghosh, Sandeep Das
Allauddin Khan, Ali Akbar Khan, Amjad Ali Khan, Buddhadev Das
Sarod
Gupta, Sharan Rani, Zarin S Sharma
Shehnai Bismillah Khan, Krishna Ram Chaudhary, Ali Ahmad Hussain
Pt Ravi Shankar, Shahid Parvez Khan, Budhaditya Mukherjee,
Sitar
Anushka Shankar, Nikhil Banerjee,Vilayat Khan, Mustaq Ali Khan
Shakoor Khan, Pt Ram Narayan, Ramesh Mishra, Sultan Khan, Ustad
Sarangi
Binda Khan
N. R. Muralitharan, M. Chandrasekharan, V.G Jog, Lalgudi Jayaraman,
Violin
R.P Shastri
Sundaram Balachandrer, Ayyagari Syamasundaram, Doraiswamy
Veena
Iyengar

Indian Paintings
• Indian Paintings can be broadly classified as the Murals & Miniatures
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Mural Paintings
• Indian Mural Paintings are paintings made on walls of caves and palaces.

• Major Themes: Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism.

• Some of the earliest murals in India are found in the caves of Ajanta, Ellora and
Elephanta also on the Bagh caves and Sittanvasal.

• Wall paintings found in the temples of Kailashnath Temple of Kanchipuram in Tamil

Nadu, Brihadesvara Temple of Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu and Buddhist viharas or
monasteries and chaitya or prayer halls in Ajanta in Maharashtra.

Miniature paintings
• Miniature paintings are characterized with small and detailed paintings.

• Miniature paintings are those executed on a very small scale on perishable material such
as paper, cloth, etc., though this style had been perfected by artisans under the various
rules, not many remain today. Prime examples are the Rajasthani & Mughal miniatures.

• Religious texts on Buddhism executed under the Palas of the eastern India as well as the
Jain texts executed in western India are the some of the earliest of miniature painting in
the country.

Folk paintings
• The folk and tribal arts of India are very ethnic and colourful and vibrant enough to speak
volumes about the country's rich heritage.

• Some of the most famous folk paintings of India are discussed below.

Madhubani Painting
• It is practised in the Mithila region of Bihar.

• Traditionally done by women.

• No space is left empty in Madhubani paintings. Gaps are filled in with paintings of
flowers, animals, birds and geometric designs.

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• Tribal motifs and bright earthy colours are other aspects that make these paintings
attractive.

• The different style of Madhubani paintings are Bharni, Katchni, Tantrik, Godna and
Kohbar.

• Mahasundari Devi is the famous artist of the Madhubani painting.

Patachitra
• Pattachitra is a disciplined ancient art genre from odhisa.

• Paintings are based on the Balrama, Subhadr, Lord Jagannath, Dashavatara and the
scenes related to the life Lord Krishna.

Kalamkari
• The Indian style of Kalamkari painting flourished in kalahasti and Machilipatnam in
Andhra Pradesh.

• It is a type of hand-paints or block-printed cotton textile, produced kalamkari sarees from

parts of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Pithora Painting
• It is the folk painting of Rathvas and Bhilalas tribes of Gujarati.

Kolam
• Kolam is a ritualistic design drawn at the threshold of households and temples.

• It is drawn by women every day at dawn and dusk in South India

• Kolam is a free-hand drawing with symmetrical and neat geometrical patterns.

Warli Paintings
• These folk paintings style belongs to the warli tribe of Maharashtra.

• warli is one of the oldest art forms of India.

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Kalighat paintings
• It originated in the vicinity of Kalighat Kali Temple (Kolkata).

• The themes for these paintings extend from mythological events to contemporary social
issues.

Thangka Paintings

• It is a Tibetan folk painting.

• In this art form, images of Buddha paintings are made on the cotton or silk cloths.

Patna Kalam

• Patna School of Painting (also Patna Qalam, Patna Kalam, or Company painting) is a
style of Indian painting which existed in Bihar, India in the 18th and 19th centuries.

• Patna Kalam is an off shoot of Mughal painting.

Famous Indian Artists And Their Paintings

Painter/Artist Famous Work
Raja Ravi Varma Hamsa Damayanti, Shakuntala, Arjuna and Subhadra
Nihal Chand Bani Thani, Dipavalika
Binod, Behari
Villagers
Mukherjee
Syed Haider Raza Saurashtra
Tyeb Mehta Mahishasura
Jamini Roy Mother and Child, Krishna and Balarama, Warrior King
Arpita Singh Wish Dream
Landscape, Dancing Woman, Woman’s Face," Head Study
Rabindranath Tagore
(Geometric)
Rabindranath Tagore Bharat Mata, Ganesh Janani, Asoka’s Queen

Indian Martial Arts

Martial Arts Originated from
Kalaripayattu Kerala
Silambam Tamil Nadu

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Thoda Himachal Pradesh

Thang-ta and Sarit Sarak Manipur
Cheibi Gadga Manipur
Gatka Punjab
Lathi Punjab & Bengal
Musti Yuddha Varanasi
Pari-Khanda Bihar
Kathi Samu Andhra Pradesh
Karra Samu Andhra Pradesh
Mukna Manipur
Inbuan Wrestling Mizoram
Mardani Khel Kolhapur, Maharashtra

Calendars In India
In India, four types of calendars are followed.

1. Vikram Samvat
2. Saka Samvat
3. Hijri calendar
4. Gregorian calendar

Vikram Samvat (Hindu lunar calendar)

• The Vikram Samvat is a historical calendar for the Hindus in India

• Vikram Samvat is an official calendar of Nepal and is named after the king Vikramaditya
of Ujjain.

• This is a calendar based on the movement of the moon and has 365 days in a year.

• The Vikram Samvat has 12 months with each month divided into two phases:

• Shukla paksha (15 days) - begins with new moon day and ends with full moon day.

• Krishna paksha (15 days) - begins with full moon day and ends with new moon day.

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Saka Era

• The Saka Era was founded by Kanishka, the emperor of Kushana Empire from the year
78 A.D.

• The Gazette of India uses this calendar along with the Gregorian Calendar.

• The Saka calendar used as the official calendar in the country is the National Calendar
of India.

• The Saka calendar consists of 365 days and 12 months which is similar to the structure
of the Gregorian calendar.

• The first month of the Saka Satvam is Chaitra which begins on March 22 which begins
with March 21 during the leap year.

Hijra calendar
• The Hijri calendar is an Islamic lunar calendar which consists of 12 lunar months and
355 days.

• The first Islamic year began in 622AD and is believed to mark the emigration of Prophet
Muhammad from Mecca to Medina

• The first day of the year in Hijra calendar is observed on the first day of Muharram,
which is the first month in the Islamic calendar.

• Muslims use this calendar to decide the days on which to observe Ramadan, to attend
Hajj, and to celebrate other Islamic festivals.

Gregorian calendar
• Gregorian calendar was introduced in 1582 by Pope Gregory XIII and is the most used
calendar in the world.

• Gregorian calendar spaces leap years to make the average year 365.2425 days long,
approximating the 365.2422-day tropical year that is determined by the Earth's
revolution around the Sun.

• The Gregorian calendar was developed as a correction to the Julian Calendar.

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Indian Fairs And Festivals

State Festivals
Rottela panduga, Brahmotsavam, Ugadi or the Telugu New
Andhra Pradesh
Year, Dasara, Sri Rama Navami
Solung festival, Losar Festival, Murung, Mopin festval, Reh
Arunachal Pradesh festival, Choekhor Festival, Torgya Festival, Talmadu
Festival
Ambubasi festival, Bohag Bihu, Baishagu festival, Majuli
Assam
festival, Pragjyoti dance festival, Jonbeel
Bihula, Chhath Puja, Madhushravani, Rajgir Dance festival,
Bihar Sama Chakeva, Jivitputrika
Kite Festival, Holi, Modhera Dance Festival, Saptak Music
Gujarat
Festival, Kutch Mahotsava
Ghumot fest, Chikalkalo, Fontainhas Festival of Art, sunburn
Goa
festival, Ladainha, Mando Festival
Madhya Pradesh Khajuraho festival, Malwa Utsav, Tansen music festival
Haryana Baisakhi festival, Suraj Kund Craft Mela
Dosmuchey festival, Matho Narang, Gemis Festival, Galdan
Jammu & Kashmir
Namchot, Tulip Festival
Jharkhand Sarhul, Dansi, Karma, Hal Punhya, Rohin, Bandna
Karnataka Pattadakal Dance festival, Gudi Padwa.
Onam, Nishagandhi festival, vaikathashtami festival, Thrissur
Kerala
Pooram.
Konark festival, international sand art festival Nabakalebara
Odisha
festival.
Maharashtra Kalidas festival, Chikoo Utsav, Gudhi Padwa.
Manipur Yaoshang, Chavang Kut, Porag
Sikkim Saga Dawa, Losoong, Drupka Teshi, Bumchu
Ahaia festival, Nongkrem Dance Festival, Wangala Festival,
Meghalaya
Bob Dylan festival,

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New Year's Day in Different Regions of India

Ugadi Telugu New Year

Baisakhi Punjabi New Year
Puthandu Tamil New Year.
Bohag Bihu Assamese New Year.
Pohela Boishakh Bengali New Year.
Bestu Varas Gujarati New Year.
Vishu Malayalam New Year.
Losoong Sikkimese New Year.
Pana Sankranti Odisha New Year
Bestu Varas Gujarati New Year
Navreh Kashmiri New Year
Losar Arunachal Pradesh New Year
Gudi Padwa is the first day of Chaitra month and marked as the
Gudi Padwa
New year in Maharashtra.
Maithili New Year It is celebrated by the Maithili's in Bihar,
Jude Sheetal Jharkhand and even Nepal. Maithili New Year is usually
celebrated on the 14th of April according to the Gregorian

Temples In India
Indian temples can be classified into two broad orders as

1. Nagara (in North India)

2. Dravida (in South India)

• Mandapa is the entrance to the temple.

• Shikhara is found in North Indian temples and Vimana is found in South Indian temples.

• Kalasha is the topmost point of the temple and commonly seen in North Indian temples.

• Mandapa is the entrance to the temple. Dances and such other entertainments are
practiced here.

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Famous Temple Location About temples

Amarnath Temple Jammu & Kashmir Lord shiva is primary deity
Vaishno Devi Temple Jammu & Kashmir
Golden temple Amritsar, Punjab Founded by fourth Sikh guru Ram
Das with the fifth Guru Arjan
Akshardham Temple New Delhi
Konark Sun Temple Konark, Odisha It also known as the Black Pagoda
Temple was built by King.
Narasimhadeva I and dedicated to
Sun God Surya
Jagannath Temple Puri, Odisha Dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a
form "of lord Maha Vishnu
Brihadeeswara Temple Thanjavur, Tamil Temple was built by Chola king
Nadu Raja.
Raja Chola I Lord shiva is primary
deity
Siddhivinayak Temple Mumbai, Maharashtra Dedicated to Lord Ganesha
Somnath Temple Saurashtra, Gujarat Lord shiva is primary deity
Lingaraj Temple Bhubaneshwar, Dedicated to Lord Shiva.
Odisha It is an example of the Kalinga Style
of Architecture. This style broadly
comes under the Nagara style.
Kamakya Temple Guwahati, Assam
Shirdi Sai Baba Temple Shirdi, Maharashtra
Dilwara Temples Mount Abu, Rajasthan Jain temples
Khajuraho Temples Khajuraho, Madhya UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Pradesh The temples were patronized by
Chandela kings.
Tirupati Balaji Temple Tirupati Balaji Temple Dedicated to Lord Vishnu
Virupaksha Temple Hampi, Karnataka The temple is dedicated to Lord
Virupaksha, a form of Shiva
Meenakshi Temple Madurai, Tamil Nadu Temple is dedicated to Meenakshi, a
form of Parvati, and her consort,
Sundareshwar, a form of Shiva

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Indian Languages
• The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of 22 languages; originally, there were
14 languages in the 8th schedule.

The further languages were added as later:

1. Sindhi by 21st amendment, 1967

2. Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali languages by 71st amendment, 1992
3. Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithili by 92nd Amendment, 2004

The 22 official languages and related states are.

1. ASSAMESE - Assam
2. BENGALI - West Bengal, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Tripura, West Bengal
3. BODO - Assam
4. DOGRI - Jammu and Kashmir
5. GUJARATI - Daman and Diu, Gujarat, Dadra and Nagar Haveli
6. HINDI -, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand, Andaman and Nicobar Islands,
Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar, Chandigarh, Chhattisgarh, the national capital territory of
Delhi, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh.
7. KANNADA - Karnataka
8. KASHMIRI - Jammu and Kashmir
9. KONKANI - Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra
10. MAITHILI - Bihar
11. MALAYALAM - Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Kerala
12. MANIPURI - Manipur
13. MARATHI - Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, Goa, Maharashtra
14. NEPALI - Sikkim, West Bengal
15. ODIYA - Odisha
16. PUNJABI - Chandigarh, Delhi, Haryana, Punjab
17. SANSKRIT - Only in scriptures. Not in usage.
18. SANTHALI - Santhal tribal of the Chhota Nagpur Plateau (comprising the states of
Orissa, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand)
19. SINDHI - Sindhi community
20. TAMIL - Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Pondicherry, Tamil Nadu.
21. TELUGU - Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana
22. URDU - Andhra Pradesh, Delhi, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana

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Classical Languages
To determine the eligibility of language to be considered as a classical language the
Government of India follows the following criteria.

1. High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years
2. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations
of speakers.
3. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
4. The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a
discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.

Tamil was the first Classical Language of India.

Current classical Languages are.

1. Tamil (since 2004)

2. Sanskrit (since 2005)
3. Telugu (since 2008)
4. Kannada (Since 2008)
5. Malayalam (since 2013)
6. Odia (since 2014)

Some important points about languages

• Tamil language was used in the literature of Sangam period.

• Dravidian languages are Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam.

• Konkani language recently included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution, which is
widely spoken in goa.

• Tamil is the oldest Dravidian language.

• Sahitya Academy promotes and develops literature in all the 22 languages of India.

• The languages spoken in Sikkim are Nepali, Hindi, Lepcha, Bhutan.

• The language spoken in Lakshadweep islands is Malayalam.

• The oldest Indian Language is Tamil.

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• Official language of Nagaland is English.

• The Indian language known as the 'Italian of the East' is Telugu.

• The official language of the Supreme Court and High Court as prescribed by the
Constitution of India is English.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q 1. Biplobi Bharat Gallery was recently inaugurated at which city?
A. Bhubaneshwar
B. Kolkata
C. Guwahati
D. Shimla
E. None of these
Ans: B. Kolkata
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Biplobi Bharat Gallery at Victoria
Memorial Hall, Kolkata via video conferencing on the occasion of Shaheed Diwas.
The Gallery showcases the contribution of the Revolutionaries in the freedom struggle and
their resistance to British colonial rule. It showcases the birth of the revolutionary
movement, formation of associations by revolutionary leaders, spread of the movement,
formation of Indian National Army, contribution of Naval Mutiny, among others.

Q 2. ‘Kambala’ is an annual buffalo-race held in which Indian state?

A. Tamil Nadu
B. Karnataka
C. Kerala
D. Andhra Pradesh
E. Uttar Pradesh
Ans: B. Karnataka
Explanation:
‘Kambala’ is an annual buffalo-race held in the state of Karnataka. The fifth annual
Mangaluru Kambala is set to be organised in Mangaluru City.

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After lawsuits filed by animal welfare organizations, the Supreme Court of India ordered a
ban on Kambala in 2014. The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Karnataka Amendment)
Ordinance, 2017 re-legalized the Kambala festival.

Q 3. Gudi Padwa is a traditional festival celebrated in which state of India?

A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Maharashtra
C. Telangana
D. Assam
E. None of these
Ans: B. Maharashtra
Explanation:
The first day of the lunisolar calendar’s month of Chaitra is celebrated as Gudi Padwa. It is
predominantly celebrated in the state of Maharashtra.
The same day is celebrated as Ugadi (Yugadi) in Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and
Karnataka. It is also celebrated as ‘Chaitra Navratri’ in some other parts of the country.

Q 4. ‘Madhavpur Mela’ is a cultural fair celebrated in which state?

A. Karnataka
B. Gujarat
C. Rajasthan
D. Punjab
E. Maharashtra
Ans: B. Gujarat
Explanation:
President Ramnath Kovind inaugurated the annual Madhavpur Mela, the five-day cultural
fair, in the coastal village of Madhavpur in Gujarat.
The fair celebrates the marriage of Hindu deity Lord Krishna with Rukmini. Similar events
are being organised across Gujarat and in eight Northeast states. From 2018, in association
with the Union Ministry of Culture, the Gujarat government started organising events
during the fair.

Q 5. Padma Shri awardee Ramchandra Manjhi, who passed away recently, was associated
with which profession?
A. Sportsperson
B. Folk dancer
C. Classical Musician

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D. Business person
E. None of these
Ans: B. Folk dancer
Explanation:
Padma Shri awardee Ramchandra Manjhi, who was a famous Bhojpuri folk dancer, passed
away recently at the age of 97.
He preserved the ailing art form of Bhojpuri folk dance ‘Naach’ for eight decades through
his consistent Performance. Manjhi was a performer of ‘Launda Naach’, a sub-set of
‘Naach’, in which men cross-dress as women. He received several honours including
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (2017) and Padma Shri (2021).

Q 6. Rakhigarhi, which was seen in the news, is located in which state/UT?

A. Punjab
B. Gujarat
C. Haryana
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. None of these
Ans: C. Haryana
Explanation:
The world’s largest museum of Harappan culture is being constructed in Rakhigarhi. It is
a village in Hisar district of Haryana, famous for its archaeological site from the Indus
Valley civilisation period.
The world-class museum will display 5000-year-old Indus Valley artefacts. Rakhigarhi
was part of the Indus Valley Civilisation from 2600-1900 BC. In the skeletons found in
the village, shell bangles, copper mirror and semi-precious stone beads were found.

Q 7. Chhello Show, which was announced India’s official entry to the Oscars 2023, is a
film made in which language?
A. Kannada
B. Gujarati
C. Marathi
D. Hindi
E. None of these
Ans: B. Gujarati

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Explanation:
The Film Federation of India has announced the Gujarati film, Chhello Show as India’s
official entry to the Oscars 2023.
The film, which is titled Last Film Show in English, has been selected in the Best
International Feature Film category. Chhello Show revolves around a 9-year-old boy who
resides in a remote village in India and his love affair with cinema. The film is directed by
Pan Nalin.

Q 8. ‘Swadesh Darshan’ scheme is an initiative of which Union Ministry?

A. Ministry of Culture
B. Ministry of Tourism
C. Ministry of External Affairs
D. Ministry of Communications
E. None of these
Ans: B. Ministry of Tourism
Explanation:
The Ministry of Tourism had identified 15 tourist circuits under its Swadesh Darshan
scheme including Ramayana Circuit, Buddhist Circuit, Coastal Circuit and Desert Circuit
among others.
Union Tourism and Culture Minister G Kishan Reddy announced a special tourist train to
cover the ‘Ambedkar Circuit’. The train will visit key sites associated with Dr BR
Ambedkar including Mhow (his birthplace called Dr. Ambedkar Nagar in Indore), London
(where he resided and studied), Nagpur (also studied here), Delhi (where he passed away)
and finally Mumbai (where he was cremated.)

Q 9. Which was the most visited centrally protected ticketed monument for foreign visitors,
as per the ‘India Tourism Statistics 2022’?
A. Taj Mahal
B. Red Fort
C. Group of Monuments at Mamallapuram
D. Qutub Minar
E. None of these
Ans: C. Group of Monuments at Mamallapuram
Explanation:
Union Ministry of Tourism released a report titled ‘India Tourism Statistics 2022’. It was
released by Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar on World Tourism Day.

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The Group of Monuments at Mamallapuram in Tamil Nadu was the most visited centrally-
protected ticketed monument for foreign visitors. in 2021-22. Taj Mahal was the most
popular centrally protected ticketed monument for domestic visitors. The Red Fort and the
Qutub Minar were the second and third most visited sites.

Q 10. Gurram Jashuva, who was also known as ‘People’s Poet’ is from which state?
A. Kerala
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Assam
D. Odisha
E. Gujrat
Ans: B. Andhra Pradesh
Explanation:
Chief Minister Y.S Jagan Mohan Reddy paid tributes to ‘People’s poet’ Gurram Jashuva
on his 127th birth anniversary.
Jashuva used verse poetry as a weapon to wage a war against superstitions and evil of
untouchability being practised in those times. He also fought against caste discrimination,
poverty and economic disparities.

Q 11. Which city is the host of the ‘Virasat Arts and Heritage Festival’?
A. Gandhi Nagar
B. Varanasi
C. Jaipur
D. Ranchi
E. None of these
Ans: C. Jaipur
Explanation:
Virasat Arts and Heritage Festival’ is to be held in Jaipur for 15 days. This is the 26th
anniversary of the festival.
This is a platform for people to experience art, culture and music by the renowned classical
music and dance maestros.

Q 12. Mahakal Lok Project, which was inaugurated recently, is located in which state/UT?
A. Maharashtra
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Gujarat

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E. None of these
Ans: B. Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi dedicated Phase I of the Mahakal Lok Project to the nation
at Shri Mahakal Lok in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
The total cost of the entire project is around ₹850 Crore. The Mahakal Path contains 108
stambhs (pillars) which depict Anand Tandav Swaroop (Dance form) of Lord Shiva.

Q 13. Which Indian city hosts the ‘Fourth Bangladesh Film Festival’ in 2022?
A. Guwahati
B. Kolkata
C. Kohima
D. Imphal
E. None of these
Ans: B. Kolkata
Explanation:
The fourth edition of the Bangladesh Film Festival is being hosted in Kolkata. 37 films and
documentaries from Bangladesh will be screened at the five-day event.
This will be the fourth year, that the Bangladesh Film Festival is being organised in Kolkata.
The Cultural Events like book fairs and film festivals strengthen the bond between India
and Bangladesh as well as West Bengal and Bangladesh.

Q 14. Which state hosted the ‘Mangarh Dham ki Gaurav Gatha’ programme?
A. Rajasthan
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Gujarat
D. Maharashtra
E. Lucknow
Ans: A. Rajasthan
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the ‘Mangarh Dham ki Gaurav Gatha’
programme at Mangarh Dham in Rajasthan.
He paid homage to the sacrifices of unsung tribal heroes and martyrs of the freedom
struggle. Mangarh is considered as a shared heritage of the people of Rajasthan,
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat. On 15th November, the country is going to
celebrate Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas on the birth anniversary of Birsa Munda.

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Q 15. Which state/UT is the host of the ‘Purple Fest: Celebrating Diversity’?
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Goa
C. Sikkim
D. Nagaland
E. None of these
Ans: B. Goa
Explanation:
Goa Chief Minister Pramod Sawant unveiled the logo for the ‘Purple Fest: Celebrating
Diversity’, to be held in Panaji in January 2023.
It is a first-of-its-kind inclusive festival for persons with disabilities. The Goa State
Commission for Persons with Disabilities will host the Purple Fest in association with the
Directorate of Social Welfare and Entertainment Society of Goa.

Q 16. Which state is the host of the ‘National Tribal Dance Festival’ in 2022?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Jharkhand
D. Bihar
E. Uttar Pradesh
Ans: B. Chhattisgarh
Explanation:
The ‘National Tribal Dance Festival’ has been recently hosted by Chhattisgarh’s Raipur.
The festival is attended by nearly 1 lakh people.
As many as 1,500 dancers from across India and countries like Mozambique, Mongolia,
Tonga, Russia, Indonesia, Maldives, Serbia, New Zealand and Egypt participated in the
festival.

Q 17. ‘Pushkar Mela’ is the flagship cultural fair held in which Indian state?
A. Rajasthan
B. Punjab
C. Assam
D. Goa
E. Maharashtra
Ans: A. Rajasthan

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Explanation:
‘Pushkar Mela’ is one of the greatest tourist attractions of the state of Rajasthan. It includes
cultural performances, nature walks, a sand art festival, kite festival, annual five-day camel
and livestock fair held in the town of Pushkar between the months of October and
November.
Rajasthan Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot inaugurated the ‘Pushkar Mela’ fair in Jaipur. This
year, the eight-day event will not include the famous cattle fair, owing to the spread of
lumpy skin disease.

Q 18. Which state is the host of the ‘53rd edition of the International Film Festival of India’?
A. West Bengal
B. Goa
C. Karnataka
D. Odisha
E. None of these
Ans: B. Goa
Explanation:
The ‘53rd edition of the International Film Festival of India’ will be hosted in the state of
Goa in November 2022.
Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement award is to be given to Spanish film director Carlos
Saura. France is the ‘Spotlight’ country of the event. The second edition of ‘75 Creative
Minds of Tomorrow’, an initiative by the Ministry of Broadcasting and Information will
also be organised.

Q 19. ‘Sangai Festival’ is a cultural festival celebrated in which state?

A. West Bengal
B. Odisha
C. Manipur
D. Assam
E. None of these
Ans: C. Manipur
Explanation:
Union Tourism Minister G Kishan Reddy inaugurated the ‘Manipur Sangai Festival 2022’
at the Sangai Ethnic Park.

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The 10-day-long festival will be held in 13 venues across the north-eastern state till
November 30. The festival is celebrated as the Festival of Oneness to achieve unity through
the participation of all indigenous communities of the state.

Q 20. Which city’s museum restoration project has been conferred with ‘Award of
Excellence’ at UNESCO?
A. Bengaluru
B. Mumbai
C. Cochin
D. Panaji
E. None of these
Ans: B. Mumbai
Explanation:
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu Sangrahalaya (CSMVS) of Mumbai was conferred with
the ‘Award of Excellence’ at the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural
Organisation (UNESCO) Asia-Pacific Awards for Cultural Heritage Conservation-2022.
The Award of Distinction is given to Stepwells of Golconda, Hyderabad while the award
of Merit – Domakonda Fort, Telangana, and Byculla Station, Mumbai.

Q 21. Which Union Ministry organised the Swar Dharohar festival?

A. Ministry of Culture
B. Ministry of Tourism
C. Ministry of MSME
D. Ministry of External Affairs
E. None of these
Ans: A. Ministry of Culture
Explanation:
Ministry of Culture, Government of India in collaboration with Swar Dharohar Foundation
inaugurated “Swar Dharohar Festival” under Kalanjali.
It is a Music, Art and Literature Festival which was organised to showcase the iconic art
and culture of India and, the rich literary Art and Heritage of Indian States.

Q 22. Which Union Ministry organised ‘Daakroom letter writing carnival’ in association
with Department of Post?
A. Ministry of Communication
B. Ministry of Culture
C. Ministry of Home Affairs

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D. Ministry of Women and Child Development

E. None of these
Ans: B. Ministry of Culture
Explanation:
Ministry of Culture in association with Department of Post launched ‘Daakroom’, the
famous letter writing carnival.
The event was organised under the aegis of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav, at Raj Ghat, New
Delhi. The event is supported by India Post, Ministry of Culture and Gandhi Smriti and
Darshan Samiti, with the aim of reviving the art of letter writing in India.

Q 23. Beypore Uru is a flagship product of which state?

A. Odisha
B. Assam
C. Kerala
D. West Bengal
E. Mumbai
Ans: C. Kerala
Explanation:
The Kozhikode District Tourism Promotion Council of Kerala has applied for a
Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the famous Beypore Uru (boat).
It is a wooden ship, or a sailing vessel handcrafted by skilled artisans and carpenters in
Beypore, Kerala. The Beypore boats are a symbol of Kerala’s trade relations and friendship
with the Gulf countries.

Q 24. Raktsey Karpo Apricot is a Geographical Indication (GI) tagged product of which
state/UT?
A. Assam
B. Ladakh
C. Kerala
D. Himachal Pradesh
E. None of these
Ans: B. Ladakh
Explanation:
Nine new items from various states of India including Gamosa of Assam, Tandur Redgram
of Telangana, Raktsey Karpo Apricot of Ladakh, Alibag White Onion of Maharashtra have
been given the GI Tags.

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With this, the total number of GI Tags in India comes to 432. The top 5 states with the
maximum number of GIs are Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka and Kerala.

Q 25. Which state is the host of the ‘Bekal International Beach Festival’?
A. Goa
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Kerala
E. None of these
Ans: D. Kerala
Explanation:
The Bekal International Beach Festival is set to begin from December 24 in the state of
Kerala. More than two lakh tickets already being sold out for the event.
Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan is set to inaugurate the 10-day festival that captures the
district’s cultural and artistic uniqueness and displays the rich cultural diversity of the
country.

Q 26. What is the name of the annual state-level Youth Festival organised in Kerala?
A. Keralotsavam
B. Kerala Sahavu
C. Malayala Manorama
D. Mallu Magic
Ans: A. Keralotsavam
Explanation:
Keralotsavam is the state-level Youth Festival of Kerala. It is coordinated by Kerala State
Youth Welfare Board.
Palakkad emerged the overall champions of the state-level sports competitions held as a
part of Keralotsavam. Kozhikode and Kannur stood in the second and third positions. The
government provides support for setting up training grounds in all village panchayats.

Q 27. Which Indian city is the host of the International Kite Festival 2023?
A. Pune
B. Jaisalmer
C. Kolkata
D. Ahmedabad
E. Lucknow
Ans: D. Ahmedabad

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Explanation:
The International Kite Festival 2023 recently commenced in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
Governor Acharya Devvrat inaugurated the festival at Sabarmati Riverfront.
The festival is being organized by Gujarat Tourism on the G20 theme of ‘One Earth, One
Family, One Future. International Kite festival will also be organized in Surat, Vadodara,
Rajkot, Dwarka, Somnath, Dhordo, and Kevadia.

Q 28. ‘Cherchera’ is a traditional festival celebrated in which state?

A. Bihar
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Odisha
D. Jharkhand
E. None of these
Ans: B. Chhattisgarh
Explanation:
Chhattisgarh Chief Minister Bhupesh Baghel participated in the traditional Cherchera
festival celebration at Dudhadhari Math in the state capital Raipur.
The traditional Cherchera festival is celebrated on the full moon night in the happiness of
taking the crops to their homes after cultivation.

Q 29. What is the name of the harvest festival celebrated before Makar Sankranti?
A. Lohri
B. Majuli
C. Wangala
D. Chhath Puja
E. None of these
Ans: A. Lohri
Explanation:
Lohri is a popular North Indian festival, which marks the end of winter solstice and the
beginning of longer days.
It is celebrated every year during the month of Paush, a day before Makar Sankranti. The
festival is predominantly celebrated in Punjab, and other parts of the country such as
Himachal Pradesh, Haryana and Jammu & Kashmir. Punjabi folk songs and dances are
performed in honour of Dulha Bhatti, a folk hero who led a revolt against Mughal rule.

Q 30. Thiruvalluvar is a famous poet of which language?

A. Tamil

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B. Telugu
C. Urdu
D. Malayalam
E. None of these
Ans: A. Tamil
Explanation:
Thiruvalluvar is a celebrated Tamil poet and philosopher, best known as the author of the
Tirukkuraḷ, a collection of couplets on ethics, political and economics, and love.
Thiruvalluvar Day is celebrated in Tamil Nadu as a part of Pongal celebrations. On the
occasion of Thiruvalluvar Day, chief minister MK Stalin launched the ‘Vallalar Palluyir
Kappagangal’, a Rs 20 crore scheme announced for animal welfare.

Q 31. Which country is set to build ‘British Indian Army Memorial’?

A. USA
B. Germany
C. Scotland
D. France
E. None of these
Ans: C. Scotland
Explanation:
British Indian Army Memorial is set to be built in the Scottish city of Glasgow, to
commemorate the sacrifice of millions of Indian soldiers who fought for the British during
the two World Wars.
The memorial is visualised as Scotland’s first permanent memorial wall to recognise the
service and sacrifice of the British Indian Army. Approximately 1.3 million Indian soldiers
served in World War One, and over 74,000 of them lost their lives.

Q 32. What is the name of the annual state-level Youth Festival organised in Kerala?
A. Keralotsavam
B. Kerala Sahavu
C. Malayala Manorama
D. Mallu Magic
E. None of these
Ans: A. Keralotsavam

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Explanation:
Keralotsavam is the state-level Youth Festival of Kerala. It is coordinated by Kerala State
Youth Welfare Board.
Palakkad emerged the overall champions of the state-level sports competitions held as a
part of Keralotsavam. Kozhikode and Kannur stood in the second and third positions. The
government provides support for setting up training grounds in all village panchayats.

Q 33. The ‘Brahma Kumaris’ spiritual movement that originated in which state?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Gujarat
D. West Bengal
E. Maharashtra
Ans: B. Andhra Pradesh
Explanation:
The ‘Brahma Kumaris’ is a spiritual movement that originated in Hyderabad, Sindh, during
1930s. The movement was founded by Lekhraj Kripalani.
President of India, Droupadi Murmu attended the launch of the National Campaign on
‘RISE-Rising India through Spiritual Empowerment’, organized by Brahma Kumaris at
Mount Abu, Rajasthan.

Q 34. Which state houses the world’s first Palm-leaf Manuscript Museum?
A. Karnataka
B. Kerala
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Odisha
E. None of these
Ans: B. Kerala
Explanation:
The world’s first Palm-leaf Manuscript Museum has been inaugurated in
Thiruvananthapuram, the capital of Kerala.
It is a repository of administrative, socio-cultural and economic facets of Travancore
spanning a period of 650 years till the end of the 19th century. The museum also serves as
a reference point for historical and cultural research for academic and non-academic
scholars.

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Q 35. Which state is known for celebrating the annual Orange festival?
A. Maharashtra
B. Assam
C. Nagaland
D. West Bengal
E. None of these
Ans: C. Nagaland

Explanation:
In Nagaland, the third edition of the annual orange festival 2023 is being celebrated at
Rusoma village, in Kohima district.
The Orange festival is conceptualised to recognise and celebrate the hard work of the orange
growers while facilitating them the market linkages.

Q 36. India signed an MoU with which country to exchange programmes of different genres
in radio and TV platforms?
A. Bangladesh
B. Egypt
C. UAE
D. Singapore
E. None of these
Ans: B. Egypt
Explanation:
India and Egypt signed an MoU to facilitate content exchange, capacity building, and co-
productions between Prasar Bharati and the National Media Authority of Egypt.
Both broadcasters will exchange their programmes of different genres like Sports, News,
Culture, Entertainment on a bilateral basis. The MOU will also facilitate co-productions
and training of the officials of both broadcasters in the latest technologies.

Q 37. The birth anniversary of which 15th-century poet and saint of Bhakti movement, is
observed in February every year?
A. Guru Ravidass
B. Kabir Das
C. Basava
D. Guru Nanak
E. None of these
Ans: B. Guru Ravidass

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Explanation:
Guru Ravidass Jayanti is celebrated to mark the birth of Guru Ravidas, a mystic poet-saint
of the Bhakti movement during the 15th century.
The poet was a contemporary of Kabir Das and he taught monotheistic spirituality and
message of equality and liberation from Indian caste system. His teachings are widely
followed in states like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Haryana, among others.

Q 38. Visva-Bharati University, which was seen in the news recently, is located in which
state?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. West Bengal
D. Odisha
E. None of these
Ans: C. West Bengal
Explanation:
UNESCO is set to announce Visva-Bharati University as a heritage university and it is set
to become the world’s first living heritage university.
It was founded by Rabindranath Tagore in 1921, as a center for culture, promoting the arts,
language, humanities, music, and culture studies. Rabindranath Tagore’s philosophy of
open-air education is followed at the university.

Q 39. PK Rosy, who was honoured in the Google Doodle, was the first actress in which
language?
A. Tamil
B. Malayalam
C. Kannada
D. Telugu
E. None of these
Ans: B. Malayalam
Explanation:
PK Rosy was the first actress in Malayalam cinema. She is famed for defying gender and
social norms by acting in a film.
On her 120th birth anniversary, she was honored with a Google Doodle. PK Rosy belonged
to a Dalit subcaste and learnt the traditional Kakkarissi Nattakam. Her debut film was
Vigathakumaran (The Lost Child, 1928).

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Q 40. Which Indian reformer found the ‘Arya Samaj’?

A. Rabindranath Tagore
B. Dayanand Saraswati
C. Ramakrishna Paramahams
D. Shri Aurobindo
E. None of these
Ans: B. Dayanand Saraswati
Explanation:
Dayanand Saraswati was an Indian philosopher and social reformer who founded the Arya
Samaj, a movement aimed at promoting Hindu reformation and the pursuit of Vedic
knowledge.
He believed in the unity of God and rejected the caste system and idol worship. Dayanand
Saraswati is known for highlighting the importance of education, particularly for girls and
the downtrodden sector. His birth anniversary was recently observed in India.

Q 41. ‘Aadi Mahotsav’ is a national tribal festival organized by which organisation?

A. TRIFED
B. FCI
C. DRDO
D. ICCR
E. None of these
Ans: A. TRIFED
Explanation:
The ‘Aadi Mahotsav’ is a national tribal festival organized by the Tribal Cooperative
Marketing Development Federation (TRIFED).
This nationwide festival celebrates the Indian tribal community’s traditional art, culture,
crafts, gastronomy, and Trade. Special emphasis will be placed on exhibiting millets grown
by tribal people.

Q 42. Lavani Folk Art is a traditional dance form famous in which state/UT?
A. Goa
B. Maharashtra
C. Odisha
D. West Bengal
E. None of these
Ans: B. Maharashtra

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Explanation:
Lavani folk art is a traditional art form in which women dancers wearing brightly coloured
sarees, perform on stage before live Audience. This indigenous art form gained popularity
during the Peshwa era in the 18th century.
There are various sub-genres of Lavani. The most popular among them is the Shringarik or
the erotic kind. A younger generation of women dancers is accused of vulgarising the
traditional folk-art form.

Q 43. Which state/UT hosted the ‘Snow Festival (Winter Carnival)’?

A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Sikkim
D. Uttarakhand
E. None of these
Ans: B. Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation:
The Snow Festival (Winter Carnival) was organized in the Rafiabad area of Baramulla
district in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
The aim of this carnival is to promote village tourism and local culture in the Munddaji
Rafiabad Baramulla. The festival was organized by the District Administration Baramulla.
It featured music, dance, cultural events, and snow cricket, volleyball, and skiing.

Q 44. ‘Keeladi Museum’ was inaugurated in which state?

A. Tamil Nadu
B. Karnataka
C. Kerala
D. Odisha
E. None of these
Ans: A. Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
The Keeladi museum was inaugurated by Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M.K. Stalin in
Sivaganga district. This museum showcases the life of ancient Tamils during the Sangam
Age.
It is built on a 2-acre land in Keeladi at a cost of ₹18.43 Crore. The museum features a
variety of antiques, virtual reality experiences of the excavations, and models of the ships
of the Sangam Age. The museum houses over 15,000 unique artefacts, which reveal the

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existence of an urban civilization in Tamil Nadu during the Sangam Age, contemporary to
the urban life recorded in Gangetic plains.

Q 45. ‘Shab e-Barat’ is a famous event observed in which religion?

A. Islam
B. Sikhism
C. Jainism
D. Buddhism
E. None of these
Ans: A. Islam
Explanation:
Shab-e-Barat, also known as the Night of Forgiveness, is a significant Islamic event
observed every year on the 15th of the Islamic month of Shaban.
It is celebrated throughout South Asia, Central Asia, and Turkey. Shab-e-Barat is believed
to be a holy night when Allah is more forgiving, and sincere prayers can wash away sins.
The night is also used to pray for departed and ill family members and seek mercy.

Q 46. Which state/UT hosted the ‘Divya Kala Mela’ fair?

A. Gujarat
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Bihar
D. Jammu and Kashmir
E. None of these
Ans: B. Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:
In Madhya Pradesh, Governor Mangubhai Patel inaugurated the third Divya Kala Mela at
Bhopal. The 10-day fair was held to enable Divyangjan to become entrepreneurs and
artisans.
The four finance corporations under the Social Justice and Empowerment ministry,
NHFDC, through various channel partners such as NBCFDC, NSFDC, and NSKDFC,
provide financial assistance to artisans and other skilled beneficiaries through term loan
schemes and microfinance schemes.

Q 47. Which state/UT is the host of the ‘First international conference on Shared Buddhist
Heritage’?
A. New Delhi
B. Assam

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C. Kerala
D. Bihar
E. None of these
Ans: A. New Delhi
Explanation:
The first international conference on Shared Buddhist Heritage commenced in New Delhi.
It is being organised with a focus on India’s civilisational connect with the Shanghai
Cooperation Organisation (SCO) nations 2023.
The event, under India’s leadership of SCO, will bring together Central Asian, East Asian,
South Asian and Arab countries on a common platform to discuss Shared Buddhist
Heritage. The programme is being organised by the Ministry of Culture, the Ministry of
External Affairs and the International Buddhist Confederation.

Q 48. ‘Merits of the Plague’ is a famous book written originally in which language?
A. English
B. Arabic
C. Russian
D. Greek
E. None of these
Ans: B. Arabic
Explanation:
‘Merits of the Plague’ is a treatise written by medieval scholar Ibn Hajar al-Asqalani. It
provides a unique perspective on pandemics and the Black Death from a non-Western point
of view.
It was translated written 6 centuries ago. The translated version of the treatise was released
recently. It has been translated from Arabic to English by Joel Blecher and Mairaj Syed.
The book deals with the origins of the disease, effective responses.

Q 49. Mustatils are stone structures that have been recorded in which country?
A. UK
B. Saudi Arabia
C. China
D. Japan
E. Shri Lanka
Ans: B. Saudi Arabia

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Explanation:
Mustatils are monumental stone structures made of sandstone walls that have been recorded
in Saudi Arabia since the 1970s. Recent excavations at the town of Al Ula revealed that
these prehistoric structures were used for ritualistic purposes.

Q 50. ‘Geoffrey Bawa: It is Essential To be There’ Exhibition was inaugurated to mark 75

years of bilateral relations between India and?
A. Bangladesh
B. Sri Lanka
C. France
D. Singapore
E. None of these
Ans: B. Sri Lanka
Explanation:
“The Geoffrey Bawa: It is Essential To be There” Exhibition was inaugurated recently to
mark 75 years of bilateral relations between India and Sri Lanka.
It highlights the works of famous architect from Sri Lanka, Geoffrey Bawa. Born in 1919,
he was one among the most influential Asian architects of his generation.

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GENERAL SCIENCE

PHYSICS
WORK
Work is said to be done, if force acting on a body is able to actually move it through some
distance in the direction of the force. Its SI unit is a joule.

ENERGY
• Energy is a scalar quantity, and its unit is Joule.

• The sum of all kinds of energies in an isolated system remains constant at all times.
This is the law of conservation of energy.

POWER
Its unit is watt.

• 1 watt hour = 3600 Joule

• 1 kilowatt hour = 3.6 × 106 joule

• 1 HP = 746 watt

GRAVITATION
• Everybody in the universe attracts other body by a force called force of gravitation.

• The gravitational force of the earth is called gravity.

• The acceleration produced in a body due to force of gravity is called acceleration due
to gravity (g) and its value is 9.8 m/s ′ .

• Acceleration due to gravity is independent of shape, size and mass of the body.

• Escape velocity is the minimum velocity with, which an object just crosses the Earth's
gravitational field and never returns. Escape velocity at the Earth's surface is
11.2 km/s.

• Escape velocity at the Moon's surface is 2.4 km/s. Due to low escape velocity, there
is no atmosphere on the moon.

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• Value of 𝑔 decreases with height or depth from Earth surface.

• 𝑔 is maximum at poles.

• 𝑔 is minimum at equator.

• 𝑔 decreases due to rotation of Earth.

• 𝑔 decreases if angular speed of Earth increases and increases if angular speed of Earth
decreases.

• The acceleration due to gravity at the moon is one sixth that of the Earth. So, the
weight of a person on the surface of the moon will be 1/6 of his actual weight on the
Earth.
SATELLITE

• Satellites are natural or artificial bodies revolving around a planet under its
gravitational force of attraction.

• Moon is a natural satellite, while INSAT-B is an artificial satellite of Earth.

• The period of revolution of satellite revolving near the surface of earth is 1 hour 24
minutes (34 minutes).

• Geo-stationary satellite revolves around the Earth at a height 36000 km (approx).

• Time period of rotation of geo-stationary satellite is 24 hours.

• The Earth rotates on its axis from West to East. This rotation makes the Sun and the
stars appear to be moving across the sky from East to West.

• A geosynchronous satellite is a satellite in geosynchronous orbit, with an orbital

period the same as the Earth's rotation period.

• A special case of geosynchronous satellite is the geostationary satellite, which has a

geostationary orbit - a circular geosynchronous orbit directly above the Earth's
equator.

• Geo-stationary satellite is used to telecast. TV programmed from one part of the

world to another, in weather forecasting, in predictions of floods and droughts.

• Polar Satellite Revolves around the earth in polar orbit at a height of 800km (app.)
Time periods of these satellites is 84 min.

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ATOMIC AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS

Cathode Rays
Cathode rays, discovered by Sir William Crooke and its properties are

• travel in straight lines.

• Produce fluorescence.

• can penetrate through thin foils of metal and deflected by both electric and magnetic
fields.

• have velocity ranging 1/30th to 1/10th of the velocity of light.

Positive or Canal Rays

• These rays were discovered by Goldstein.

• The positive ray consists of positively charged particles.

• These rays travel in straight line.

• These rays are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.

• These rays can produce ionization in gases.

X-Rays
• X-rays are electromagnetic waves with wavelength range 0.1A − 100A.

• X-rays were discovered by Roentgen.

• X-rays travels in straight line.

• Long exposures of 𝑋 - rays in injurious for human body.

• X - rays shows photoelectric effect.

Uses of X-Rays
• In medical sciences X-rays are used in surgery for the detection of fracture, diseased
organs, foreign matter like bullet, stones etc. They are used in treatment of cancer and
in skin diseases.

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• In Engineering, X-rays are used in detecting faults, cracks, flaws and gas pockets in
the finished metal products and in heavy metal sheets.

• In Scientific Work, X-rays are used in studying crystal structure and complex
molecules.

• In Custom Department X-rays are used in custom department for detection of banned
materials kept hidden.

Radioactivity
• Radioactivity was discovered by Henry Becquerel, Madame Curie and Pierre Curie
for which they jointly won Nobel Prize.

Nuclear Fission
• Atom Bomb is based on nuclear fission. U235 and Pu239 are used as fissionable
material.

• Nuclear fission was first demonstrated by Halin and Fritz Strassmann.

Nuclear Fusion
• When two or more light nuclei combined together to form a heavier nucleus is called
as nuclear fusion.

• For the nuclear fusion, a temperature of the order of 108 K is required.

• Hydrogen Bomb was made by the American Scientist in 1952. This is based on
nuclear fusion. It is 1000 times more powerful than atom bomb.

Nuclear Reactor or Atomic Pile

• Nuclear reactor is an arrangement, in which controlled nuclear fission reaction takes
place.

• First nuclear reactor was established in Chicago University under the supervision of
Prof Enrico Fermi.

• Heavy water, graphite and beryllium oxide are used to slow down the fast-moving
neutrons. They are called moderate.

Uses of Nuclear Reactor

(i)To produce electrical energy from the energy released during fission.
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(ii)To produce different isotopes, this can be used medical, physical and agriculture science.
There are several components of nuclear reactor which are as follows.

• Fissionable Fuel 𝑈 235 or 𝑈 239 is used.

• Moderator decreases the energy of neutrons, so that they can be further used for
fission reaction.

• Heavy water and graphite are used as moderator.

• Control Rod rods of cadmium or boron are used to absorb the excess neutrons
produced in fission of uranium nucleus, so that the chain reaction.

NEWTON'S LAWS OF MOTION

• First Law: Everybody maintains its initial state of rest or motion with uniform speed
on a straight line unless an external force acts on it. It is also called Galileo's law or
law of inertia.
Example While jumping from a slowly moving train/bus one must run for short distance,
in the direction of motion.

• Second Law: The form acting on an object is directly proportioned to the product of
the mass of the object and the acceleration produced on it.

• Third Law: To every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Example: Bogies of the trains are provided with buffers to avoid severe jerks during
shunting of trains. Rocket moves up due to reaction of downward ejection of gas.

CIRCULAR MOTION
• When an object moves along a circular path, its motion is called circular motion.

• The external force required to act radially inward over the circular motion of the body
is called Centripetal force.

• Centrifugal force is such a pseudo force that. is equal and opposite to Centripetal
force.

• Cream separator, centrifugal dryer work on the principle of centrifugal force.

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FRICTION
• In the opposing force that is set-up between the surfaces of contact, when one body
slides or rolls or tends to do so on the surface of another body.

• Due to friction, we are able to move on the surface of Earth.

• While applying brakes in automobiles, it stops only due to friction.

Pascal's Law of Pressure

• Hydraulic lift, hydraulic press and hydraulic brakes are based on the Pascal's law of
pressure.

Archimedes Principle
• When a body is immersed partly or wholly in a liquid, there is an apparent loss in the
weight of the body, which is equal to the weight of liquid displaced by the body.

• The weight of water displaced by an iron ball is less than its own weight. Whereas
water displaced by the immersed portion of a ship is equal to its weight. So, small
ball of iron ball sink in water, but large ship float.

• A fat person will quickly learn the swimming as compared to a slim person because
he will displace more water. So, it will be more balanced.

• Hydrogen filled balloon float in air because hydrogen is lighter than air. A person can
lift more weight in water.

WAVE
A wave is a disturbance, which propagates energy from one place to the other without the
transportation of matter.
Waves are broadly of two types:

• Mechanical wave (longitudinal wave and transverse wave)

• Electromagnetic wave

• Following are the electromagnetic (non-mechanical) waves-

a. Gama rays (Highest frequency)
b. X-rays
c. UV rays
d. Visible radiation

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e. infra-red rays
f. short radio waves
g. long radio waves (Lowest frequency)
All are in decreasing order of the frequency.
Following waves are not electromagnetic.
a. Cathode rays
b. Canal rays
c. alpha rays
d. beta rays
e. sound wave
f. ultrasonic wave

Longitudinal Waves
• In this wave the particles of the medium vibrate in the direction of propagation of
wave.

• Waves on springs or sound waves in air are examples of longitudinal waves.

Transverse Waves
• In this wave, the particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to the direction of
propagation of wave.

• Waves on strings under tension, waves on the surface of water are the examples of
transverse waves.

Electromagnetic Waves
• The waves, which do not require medium for their propagation i.e., which can
propagate even through the vacuum are called electromagnetic waves.

• Light radio waves, X-rays etc. are the examples of electromagnetic wave. These
waves propagate with the velocity of light in vacuum.

Sound Waves
Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves. Eased on their frequency range sound
waves are divided into following categories.

• The sound waves which lie in the frequency range 20 Hz to 20000 Hz are called
audible waves.
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• The sound waves having frequencies less than 20 Hz are called infrasonic.

• The sound waves having frequencies greater than 20000 Hz are called ultrasonic
waves.

• Ultrasonic waves are used for sending signals, measuring the depth of see, cleaning
clothes and machinery parts, remaining lamp short from chimney of factories and in
ultrasonography.

Speed of Sound
• Speed of sound is maximum in solids minimum in gases.

• When sound goes from one medium to another medium, its speed and wavelength
changes, but frequency remain unchanged. The speed of sound remains unchanged
by the increase or decrease of pressure.

• The speed of sound increases with the increase of temperature of the medium.

• The speed of sound is more in humid air than in dry air because the density of humid
air is less than the density. Echo: The repetition of sound due to reflection of sound
waves is called an echo.
Intensity: It is defined as amount of energy passing normally per unit area held around that
point per source unit time.
Pitch: The sensation of a frequency is commonly referred to as the pitch of a sound.
Sonar: It stands for sound navigation and ranging. It is used to measure the depth of a sea,
to locate the enemy submarines and shipwrecks.

Doppler's Effect
If there is a relative motion between source of sound and observer, the apparent frequency
of sound heard by the observer is different from the actual frequency of sound emitted by
the source. 1 his phenomenon is called Doppler's Effect.

LIGHT
• Light is a form of energy, which is propagated as electromagnetic wave.

• It is the radiation which make our eyes able to 'see the object. Its speed is
3 × 108 m/s. It is the form of energy. It is a transverse wave.

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• It takes 𝟖 min 19s to reach on the earth from the sun and the light reflected from
moon takes 𝟏. 𝟐𝟖𝐬 to reach earth.

• Primary Colours- Blue, Red, Green

• Secondary Colours- The coloured produced my mixing any two primary colors.

• Complementary Colours- Any two colours when added produce white light.

• Blue colour of sky is due to scattering of light.

• The brilliant red colour of rising and setting sun is due to scattering of light.
Human Eye

• Least distance of distinct vision is 25 cm.

• Myopia or short sightedness- far objects cannot see clear.

• Hyperopia or hypermetropia or Long-sightedness Near objects cannot see clear.

• Presbyopia- in elder person, both far and near cannot see clear.

Reflection of Light
• When a ray of light falls on a boundary separating two media comes back into the
same media, then this phenomenon is called reflection of light.

Reflection from Plane Mirror

• If an object moves towards a plane mirror with speed 𝐯, relative to the object the
moves towards it with a speed 2𝐯. - To see his full image in a plane mirror, a person
required a mirror of at least half of his height.

Spherical Mirror
Spherical mirrors are of two types:
1 Concave mirror
2 Convex mirror

• Image formed by a convex mirror is always virtual, erect and diminished.

• Image formed by a concave mirror is generally real and inverted.

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Uses of Concave Mirror

(i) As a shaving mirror
(ii) As a reflector for the head lights of a vehicle, search light
(iii) In ophthalmoscope to examine eye, ear, nose by doctors.
(iv) In solar cookers.

Uses of Convex Mirror

(i) As a rear-view mirror in vehicle because it provides the maximum rear field of view and
image formed is always erect.
(ii) In sodium reflector lamp.

Refraction of Light
• The bending of the ray of light passing from one medium to other medium is called
refraction. When a ray of light enters from one medium to other medium, its
frequency and phase do not change, but wavelength and velocity change. Due to
refraction form Earth's atmosphere, the stars appear to twinkle.

Critical Angle
• The angle of incidence in a denser medium for which the angle of refraction in rarer
medium becomes 90∘ , is called the critical angle.

Total Internal Reflection

• Sparkling of diamond, mirage, and looming, shinning of air bubble in water and
optical Fiber are examples of total internal reflection.

Power of a lens
• Power of a lens is its capacity to deviate a ray. It is measured as the reciprocal of the
focal length in meters.

• SI Unit of Power is diopter.

ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

Charge

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Charge is the basic property associated with matter due to which it produces and
experiences electrical and magnetic effects. Similar charges repel each other, and opposite
charges attract each other. The SI unit of charge is coulomb.
Conductor: Conductors are those materials, which allow electricity to pass through them.
Metals like silver, iron, copper, and earth acts like a conductor. Silver is the best conductor.
Insulator: Insulators are those materials which do not allow electricity to flow through
them. Metals like wood, paper, mica, glass, ebonite are insulators.

Electric Current
• Its unit is Ampere. It is a scalar quantity.

• An electric bulb makes a bang when it is broken because there is a vacuum inside the
electric bulb, when the bulb is broken air rushes at great speed from all sides to fill
the vacuum. The rushing of air produces a noise generally referred to as the bang.

• Shunt is a wire of very small resistance.

• A Galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting a shunt parallel to

it.

• A Galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting a very high

resistance in its series.

• The sodium and mercury streetlamps light up due to atomic emission.

• The purpose of choke coil in fluorescent is to produce high voltage to ionize the gas
in the tube required for high current to flow through filament.

Magnetism
• Diamagnetic substance- when placed in magnetic field, acquire feeble magnetism
opposite to the direction of the magnetic field.
Examples- Gold, Diamond, Copper, Water, Mercury etc.

• Paramagnetic substance- when placed in magnetic field, acquire feeble magnetism in

the direction of the magnetic field.
Example- Al, Na, Mn etc.

• Ferromagnetic substance-when placed in magnetic field, are strongly magnetized in

the direction of the magnetic field.
Examples- Iron, Cobalt, Nickle
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• Curie temp- the Curie temperature (TC), or Curie point, is the temperature at which
certain materials lose their permanent magnetic properties, to be replaced by induced
magnetism.

• Isogonic lines are lines on the Earth's surface along which the declination has the
same constant value, and lines along which the declination is zero are called agonic
lines.

• Isoclinic lines are imaginary lines on the earth's surface connecting points where the
earth's magnetic field has the same angle.

• The aclinic line is the magnetic equator, where the magnetic field is inclined neither
north nor south, so it's a special case of an isoclinic line.

• Isodynamic line- A line on a map connecting points of equal strength of the earth's
magnetic field.

Surface Tension and capillary

• Lubricating oil spread easily on all parts because of their low surface tension.

• Dirt gets removed when detergents are added while washing clothes because surface
tension of water is reduced.

• The absorption of ink by a blotting paper is due to capillary action.

• The supply of water to the leaves at the top of even a tall tree is through capillary rise.

Heat
• Unit of heat-
C.G.S- Calorie
F.P.S- British Thermal Unit (B. Th. U)

• Absolute Zero Temp-minus 273 K (-273 K)

• 1 calorie = 4.2 J

• The specific heat is the amount of heat per unit mass required to raise the temperature
by one degree Celsius.

• Consider 1 kg of water at 0 ∘ C. When it is heated from 0∘ C, it actually contracts rather

than expanding, up to 4∘ C. The volume of water is minimum at 4∘ C. Beyond 4∘ C,

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water starts expanding. This behaviour of water between 0∘ C and 4∘ C is called

anomalous expansion of water.

• Newton's Law of Cooling states that the rate of change of the temperature of an object
is proportional to the difference between its own temperature and the ambient
temperature (i.e., the temperature of its surroundings).

• Hoar Frost is the reverse process of sublimation.

MEASUREMENT UNITS
• Angstrom: For measuring length of light waves
1
• Barrel: For measuring liquids. One barrel is equal to 31 gallons or 7,326.5 cubic
2
inches.

• Cable: For measuring length of cables. It is about 183 m. in length - Carat: Used for
measuring precious stones. It is also a measure for the purity of gold alloy.

• Fathom: It is used for measuring depth of water. One fathom is equal to 4 inches.

• Knot: For measuring speed of ships

SOME CONVERSION FACTORS

Mass and Density

• 1Kg = 1000 g = 6.02u

• 1 Slug = 14.6 kg

• 1u = 1.66 kg

Length and Volume

• 1 m = 100 cm = 39.4 inch = 3.28ft

• 1 mile = 1.61 km = 5280ft - 1 inch = 2.54 cm

• 1 nm = m = 10 A

• 1pm = m = 1000fm

• 1 light year = 9.46 m

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• 1 = 1000 L = 35.3 = 264gal

Angular Measure
• 1 m/s = 3.28ft/s = 2.24mi/h

• 1 km/h = 0.621mi/h = 0.278 m/s

Force and Pressure

• 1lb = 4.45 N

• 1 ton = 2000lb

• 1 Pa = 1 N/= 10 dyne /= 1.45lb/

• 1 atm = 1.01 × 105 Pa = 14.7lb/= 76 cm − Hg

SOME IMPORTANT SCIENTIFIC INSTRUMENTS

• Accumulator: Electrical energy is stored

• Altimeter: Used in aircraft for measuring altitudes

• Ammeter: Measuring the electrical current in amperes

• Anemometer: Measuring the strength of winds

• Audiometer: Measuring intensity of wind

• Audiophone: It is used for improving imperfect sense of hearing.

• Barometer: Measuring atmospheric pressure

• Binocular: An optical instrument designed for magnified view of distant objects by

both eyes simultaneously

• Bolometer: To measure heat radiation

• Cardiogram: For recording the heart movements

• Calorimeter: Measuring of quantities of heat

• Chronometer: A clock that keeps very accurate time as the one that is used to
determine longitude at sea.

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• Colorimeter: An instrument for comparing intensities of colour.

• Commutator: An instrument to change or remove the direction of an electric current,

in dynamo used to convert alternating current into direct current.

• Cyclotron: Studying the properties of atoms by smashing them.

• Dynamo: A device for converting mechanical energy into electrical energy

• Dynamometer: An instrument for measuring the electrical power

• Electroscope: An instrument for detecting the presence of electric charge.

• Endoscope: To examine internal parts of the body

• Fathometer: Measure depth of the ocean

• Galvanometer: For detecting and measuring electric current

• Hygrometer: Measure level of humidity

• Phonograph: For reproducing sound

• Pyrometer: Measure very high temperature

• Quartz Clock: A highly accurate clock used in astronomical observations and other
precision work.

• Radar: Radio, angle, detection, and range is used to detect the direction and range of
an approaching aeroplane by means of radio microwaves.

• Radiometer: An instrument for measuring the emission of radiant energy

• Radio Micrometer: An instrument for measuring heat radiations.

• Rain Gauge: An instrument for measuring rainfall.

• Rectifier: An instrument used for the conversion of AC into DC.

• Refractometer: An instrument used to measure the refractive index of a substance

• Resistance Thermometer: Used for determining the electrical resistance of

conductors.

• Salinometer: A type of hydrometer used to determine the concentration of salt

solutions by measuring their densities.

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• Seismometer (Seismograph): An Apparatus for measuring and recording

earthquake shock.

• Sextant: For guiding ships or surveying land.

• Spectroscope: An instrument used for spectrum analysis

• Speedometer: It registers the speed at which the vehicle is moving

• Spherometer: For measuring curvature of surfaces.

• Sphygmomanometer: An instrument used to detect blood pressure in a human body.

It is also called B. P. Apparatus

• Sphygmophone: Instrument with the help of which, a pulse beat makes a sound.

• Spring Balance: Useful for measuring weight.

• Stereoscope: It is used to view two dimensional pictures.

• Stethoscope: An instrument which is used by the doctors to hear and analyze heart
and lung sounds.

• Stroboscope: It is used to view rapidly moving objects.

• Tachometer: An instrument used in measuring speeds of aero planes and

motorboats.

• Teleprinter: This instrument receives and sends typed messages from one place to
another.

• Telescope: It views distant objects in space.

• Theodolite: It measures horizontal and vertical angles.

• Transistor: A small device which may be used to amplify currents and perform other
functions usually performed by a thermionic valve

• Vernier: An adjustable scale for measuring small subdivisions of scale

• Viscometer: For measuring viscosity

• Voltmeter: To measure potential difference between two points

• Udometer: Rain guage

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. SI unit of luminous intensity is _________?
A. lumen
B. lux
C. candela
D. watt
E. None of these
Ans. C

Explanation:
Luminous intensity is a measure of the wavelength-weighted power emitted by a light
source in a particular direction per unit solid angle, based on the luminosity function, a
standardized model of the sensitivity of the human eye. The SI unit of luminous intensity is
the candela (cd).

2. If a bomb dropped from an airplane explodes in mid-air _________?

A. its KE increases
B. its total energy increases
C. its total energy decreases.
D. its total momentum decreases.
E. None of these
Ans. A

Explanation:
The kinetic energy of an object is the energy that it possesses due to its motion. It is defined
as the work needed to accelerate a body of a given mass from rest to its stated velocity.
Having gained this energy during its acceleration, the body maintains this kinetic energy
unless its speed changes.

3. Fat can be separated from milk in a cream separator because of __________?

A. cohesive force
B. gravitational force
C. centripetal force
D. centrifugal force
E. None of these

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Ans. D

Explanation:
The centrifugal separator was invented in 1897. By the turn of the century, it had altered
the dairy industry by making centralized dairy processing possible for the first time. It also
allowed removal of cream and recovery of the skim milk in a fresh state.
4. Melting point of ice ____________.
A. increases with increase of pressure
B. decreases with increase of pressure
C. is independent of pressure
D. is not independent of pressure
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
The melting point of ice at 1 atmosphere of pressure is very close to 0 °C (32 °F, 273.15
K); this is also known as the ice point.

5. Radioactivity was discovered by_________?

A. J.J. Thomson
B. W. Roentgen
C. H. Becquerel
D. M. Curie
E. None of these
Ans. C

Explanation:
Antoine-Henri Becquerel is known for his discovery of radioactivity, for which he received
the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1903. Unstable atomic nuclei will spontaneously decompose
to form nuclei with a higher stability. The decomposition process is called radioactivity.

6. If the temperature inside a room is increased, the relative humidity will ______?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unchanged
D. Both A and B
E. None of these
Ans. B

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Explanation:
This is because temperatures in the home can be much different than the temperature
outside. This is because of that important relationship between temperature and how much
maximum moisture can be in the air.

7. In a transistor, the base is ______________.

A. an insulator
B. a conductor of low resistance
C. a conductor of high resistance
D. an extrinsic semiconductor
E. None of these
Ans. E

Explanation:
A transistor is a semiconductor device used to amplify and switch electronic signals and
electrical power. It is composed of semiconductor material with at least three terminals for
connection to an external circuit.

8. Nights are cooler in the deserts than in the plains because _____________.
A. Sand radiates heat more quickly than the earth.
B. The sky remains clear most of the time.
C. Sand absorbs heat more quickly than the earth.
D. none of the above reasons
E. None of these
Ans. A

Explanation:
Because desert air contains less moisture and because cloud cover is less frequent in deserts,
temperatures vary more widely between day and night in deserts than in other areas. Deserts
may experience temperature variations of 30-40 degrees between day and night (vs 20-30
degrees in other areas), this means a nighttime low of 70- 80 degrees after a 110-degree
day.

9. When we hear a sound, we can identify its source from ____________.

A. wavelength of sound
B. the overtones present in the sound
C. the intensity of sound
D. the amplitude of sound

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E. None of these

Ans. B
Explanation:
An overtone is any frequency higher than the fundamental frequency of a sound. Using the
model of Fourier analysis, the fundamental and the overtones together are called partials.
Harmonics, or more precisely, harmonic partials, are partials whose frequencies are integer
multiples of the fundamental.

10. A boy is standing in front of a plane mirror at a distance of 3 m from it. What is the
distance between the boy and his image?
A. 3 m
B. 6 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 6.4 m
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
The image formed by a plane mirror is always virtual upright, and of the same shape and
size as the object it is reflecting. A virtual image is a copy of an object formed at the location
from which the light rays appear to come.

11. Energy is continuously generated in the sun due to ________________.

A. Nuclear fusion
B. Nuclear fission
C. Radioactivity
D. Artificial radioactivity
E. None of these
Ans. A

Explanation:
Nuclear fusion is a nuclear reaction in which two or more atomic nuclei come very close
and then collide at a very high speed and join to form a new type of atomic nucleus. During
this process, matter is not conserved because some of the matter of the fusing nuclei is
converted to photons.

12. Hydrogen bomb is based upon the principle of ___________.

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A. Nuclear fission
B. Nuclear fusion
C. Controller nuclear reaction
D. Nuclear reaction
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
The hydrogen bomb eventually relies upon atomic fusion (adding to the atomic nucleus) to
release energy. Nuclear fusion is a nuclear reaction in which two or more atomic nuclei
come very close and then collide at a very high speed and join to form a new type of atomic
nucleus. During this process, matter is not conserved because some of the matter of the
fusing nuclei is converted to photons.

13. The south pole of the earth’s magnet is near the geographical _____________.
A. south
B. east
C. west
D. north
E. None of these
Ans. D

Explanation:
The South Pole of the Earth's magnet is in the geographical North because it attracts the
North Pole of the suspended magnet and vice versa. Thus, there is a magnetic S-pole near
the geographical North, and a magnetic N-pole near the geographical South.

14. Number of basic SI unit is ___________.

A. 4
B. 7
C. 6
D. 5
E. 9
Ans. B

Explanation:
International System of Units (SI) is the modern metric system of measurement and the
dominant system of international commerce and trade. It has seven base units.

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15. The wire having a green plastic covering is a __________.

A. Line wire
B. Neutral wire
C. Earth wire
D. Series wire
E. None of these
Ans. C

Explanation:
The earth wire is a crucial part of the home electrical system and is designed to protect
against electric shock.

16. The working principle of a Washing Machine is ______________.

A. Centrifugation
B. Dialysis
C. Reverse osmosis
D. Diffusion
E. None of these
Ans. A

Explanation:
Washing machine works on the principle of centrifugal force.

17. Sound and light waves both ____________.

A. have similar wavelength.
B. obey the laws of reflection.
C. travel as longitudinal waves.
D. travel through vacuum
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
The two laws of reflection of light are applicable to sound waves as well. The incident wave,
the normal to the reflecting surface and the reflected wave at the point of incidence lie in
the same plane. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

18. In an electric motor, the energy transformation is from ____________.

A. electrical to chemical

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B. chemical to light
C. mechanical to electrical
D. electrical to mechanical
E. None of these
Ans. D

Explanation:
An electric motor is an electrical machine that converts electrical energy into mechanical
energy. The reverse of this would be the conversion of mechanical energy into electrical
energy and is done by an electric generator.

19. The focal length of a plane mirror is _______.

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Infinity
E. None of these
Ans. D

Explanation:
A plane mirror is a mirror with a flat reflective surface. The focal length of a plane mirror
is infinity. Its optical power is zero.

20. A dynamo converts _______________.

A. Mechanical energy into sound energy
B. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
C. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
D. Sound energy into Mechanical energy
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
The dynamo, by attaching it in between the two tires, converts the mechanical energy
(which of course, is produced by paddling) into electrical energy, and by connecting the
wires going out of the dynamo to light, it glows without any flaw.

21. Which of the following is used in oven?

A. X-rays

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B. UV-rays
C. Microwaves
D. Radio waves
E. None of these
Ans. C

Explanation:
An oven is a thermally insulated chamber used for the heating, baking or drying of a
substance and most commonly used for cooking.

22. Decibel is the unit of _______.

A. Speed of light
B. Intensity of sound
C. Intensity of heat
D. Speed of sound
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
Decibel (dB) unit is used for expressing the ratio between two amounts of electric or
acoustic power for measuring the relative loudness of sounds.

23. The ozone layer in the atmosphere is at a height of about _____________.

A. 25 km
B. 50 km
C. 100 km
D. 200 km
E. 300 km
Ans. B

Explanation:
Ozone is found in two regions of the Earth's atmosphere. Most ozone (about 90%) resides
in a layer that begins between 10 to 17 kilometers above the Earth's surface and extends up
to about 50 kilometers.

24. A camera uses a __________ to form an image on a piece of film at the back.
A. convex lens
B. concave lens

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C. diverging lens.
D. Both A and B
E. none of these
Ans. A

Explanation:
A camera consists of three main parts.
• The body which is light tight and contains all the mechanical parts.
• The lens which is a convex lens.
• The film or a charged couple device in the case of a digital camera.

25. Newton is used to measure______.

A. Speed
B. Volume
C. Force
D. Area
E. None of these
Ans. C

Explanation:
The newton (N) is the International System of Units (SI) derived unit of force. It is named
after Isaac Newton in recognition of his work on classical mechanics, specifically Newton's
second law of motion.

26. X- rays are ________waves.

A. Longitudinal
B. Transverse
C. Electromagnetic
D. Elastic
E. None of these
Ans. C

Explanation:
X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation as are radio waves.

27. The technique used by bats to find their way or to locate food is _______.
A. SONAR
B. RADAR

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C. Echolocation
D. Flapping
E. None of these
Ans. C

Explanation:
Bats use echolocation to navigate and find food in the dark. To echolocate, bats send out
sound waves from their mouth or nose. When the sound waves hit an object, they produce
echoes.

28. Radian per second is unit of _____________.

A. Momentum
B. Moment of Inertia
C. Frequency
D. Angle Velocity
E. None of these
Ans. D

Explanation:
The SI unit of angular velocity is radians per second.

29. Which law states, "The rate of loss of heat by a body is directly proportional to the
difference in temperature between the body and the surroundings"?
A. Doppler's Effect
B. Newton's law of cooling
C. Kirchhoff's Law
D. Stefan's Law
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
Newton's Law of Cooling states that the rate of change of the temperature of an object is
proportional to the difference between its own temperature and the ambient temperature.

30. The loudness of sound depends upon______.

A. Velocity
B. Pitch
C. Amplitude

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D. Wavelength
E. None of these
Ans. C

Explanation:
Loudness is the characteristic of a sound that is primarily a psychological correlate of
physical strength (amplitude).

31. SI Unit of Time is __________.

A. Second
B. Meter
C. Kilogram
D. Angstrom
E. None of these
Ans. A

Explanation:
The SI unit of time is second, symbol is (s).

32. SI unit for the surface tension is __________.

A. kg/m2
B. kg/m3
C. N/m
D. kg/m
E. None of these
Ans. C

Explanation:
Surface tension is measured in force per unit length. Its SI unit is newton per meter.

33. A player making a long jump is an example of _____________.

A. Projectile motion
B. Rotatory motion
C. Spinning motion
D. Horizontal motion
E. None of these
Ans. A

Explanation:

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Projectile motion is a form of motion in which an object or particle is thrown near the earth's
surface, and it moves along a curved path under the action of gravity only.

34. The angular velocity depends upon the rate of change of the _________________.
A. Angular Distance
B. Angular acceleration
C. Angular Displacement
D. torque
E. None of these
Ans. C

Explanation:
The angular velocity is defined as the rate of change of angular displacement and is a vector
quantity which specifies the angular speed of an object and the axis about which the object
is rotating.

35. Radio waves, microwaves, infra-red spectrum, ultraviolet rays, X-rays and gamma rays
are classified as __________.
A. light waves
B. electromagnetic waves
C. electric waves
D. magnetic waves
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
Electromagnetic radiation is the radiant energy released by certain electromagnetic
processes. It consists of electromagnetic waves which are synchronized oscillations of
electric and magnetic fields that propagate at the speed of light through a vacuum.

36. A rocket works on the principle of conservation of ____________.

A. mass
B. linear momentum
C. energy
D. angular momentum
E. None of these
Ans. B

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Explanation:
A rocket works by expelling gases from one end at an extremely high velocity. The escaping
gases have a very high speed and this with their mass translates to a very large momentum.
Due to the principle of conservation f momentum the body of the rocket is pushed forward.
If both the momentum of the gases as well as that of the rocket are added the sum is zero.

37. Sound waves in air are _________.

A. transverse
B. longitudinal
C. electromagnetic
D. polarized.
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
Sound can propagate through compressible media such as air, water, and solids as
longitudinal waves and as a transverse wave in solids.

38. Who among the following is the scalar quantity__________________.

A. force
B. pressure
C. velocity
D. acceleration
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
Pressure is a scalar quantity. It relates the vector surface element with the normal force
acting on it.

39. Sound of frequency below 20 Hz is called ______________.

A. audio sounds
B. infrasonic
C. ultrasonic
D. supersonics
E. None of these
Ans. B

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Explanation:
The term "infrasonic" applied to sound refers to sound waves below the frequencies of
audible sound and nominally includes anything under 20 Hz.

40. The escape velocity of the Earth is:

A. 7.0 km/sec
B. 11.2 km/sec
C. 15.0 km/sec
D. 21.1 km/sec
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
The escape velocity of the Earth is 11.2 km/sec. It is the minimum speed an object needs to
achieve to escape the gravitational pull of the Earth and enter into space. It is determined
by the Earth's mass and radius and is an important factor in space exploration and travel.

CHEMISTRY
MATTER
• In general, it exists in 3 states i.e.,
(i) Solid
(ii) liquid
(iii) gas.

• Now-a-days there is a discussion on two more states of matter i.e., Plasma (Ionised
gases containing super energetic and super excited particles and Bose-Einstein
condensates or BEC (a gas at super low temperatures with extremely low density).

Boiling Point
• The temperature at which liquid converts into vapours is called its boiling point. -
Boiling point of water is 100∘ C.

• The boiling point increases in the presence of impurities. That's why boiling point of
sea water is more than the boiling point of pure water (as the former contains
impurity).

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• It usually decreases at high altitudes, that's why at high altitudes, the boiling point of
water is less than 100∘ C and more time is required to cook a food.

Melting Point
• It is a temperature at which a substance converts from its solid state to liquid state.

• Melting point of ice is 0∘ C; It decrease in the presence of impurity.

Atom, Molecule and Element

• Atom is the smallest particle of a matter that takes part in chemical reactions but
cannot exist in free state.

• Atom is made 43 of electrons, protons, and neutrons.

• Protons and neutrons reside in the nucleus (at the centre of atom) whereas electrons
revolve around the nucleus.

• Atoms combine to form molecules, the smallest part of matter which can exist in free
state.

Isotopes and Isobars

• Isotopes have the same number of protons (i.e., atomic number), but different number
of neutrons and mass number (atomic number + number of neutrons), e.g., 1111, 1H2

• Isobars have the same mass number but different atomic number.
Example: 18Ar40, 19K40

Dating Techniques
• Radiocarbon dating is used to determine the age of carbon bearing materials like
wood, animal fossils etc.

• Uranium dating is used to determine the age of Earth, minerals, and rocks.

Battery
• Battery is a device, used to convert chemical energy into electrical energy and is of
two types:
(i) Primary batteries (non-rechargeable) act as galvanic cell, e.g., dry cell, mercury cell etc.

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(ii) Secondary Batteries: (rechargeable) Act as galvanic as well as voltaic cell E.g., lead
storage battery, nickel cadmium battery etc.

Corrosion
• The oxidative deterioration of a metal surface by the action of environment is called
corrosion, an electrochemical process.

• When iron exposed into air, iron surface turns brown due to the formation of hydrated
ferric oxide (Fe203. × H20) which is also called rust.

• Silver- Surface turns black due to the formation of silver sulphide (Ag2S)

Renewable Non-renewable Natural Resources

• Renewable resources are available in large excess, i.e., never ends, e.g, air, sunlight
etc.

• Non-renewable resources are available in limited quantity and end, if used

excessively, after a limited period of time. e.g., mineral, coal, petroleum, natural gas
etc.

Fuels
• The substance, which produce heat and light on combustion are called fuels.

• A strong foul-smelling substance, called ethyl mercaptan is added to LPG to detect

its leakage as LPG is an odourless gas.
Some important fuels and their compositions

Fuel Composition Sources

Water Gas Carbon monoxide (co) + By passing stream over red
hydrogen(h2) hot coke
Producer Gas Carbon monoxide (CO) + By passing insufficient air
Nitrogen (N2) over red-hot coke
Coal Gas Hydrogen + methane + Ethylene By fractional distillation
+ Acetylene + CO +Nitrogen
Natural Gas Methane (83%) + Ethane From petroleum
Liquefied Petroleum Butane (CH4) 95% From petroleum
Gas (LPG)

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Compressed Natural Methane (CH4) 95% From petroleum

Gas (CNG)
Biogas or Gobar Gas Methane (CH4) + Carbon dioxide From organic wastes
(CO2) + Hydrogen (H2) +
Nitrogen (N2)

Physical and Chemical Changes

• Physical changes are the change, which only affect the physical properties like colour,
hardness, density, melting point etc. of matter, but do not affect the composition and
chemical properties of matter.

• A physical change is temporary, while a chemical change is permanent.

• Crystallization, sublimation, 'boiling, melting, vaporization, cutting of trees,

dissolving sugar or salt in water etc. are physical changes.

• Chemical changes affect the composition as well as chemical properties of matter and
result in the formation of a new substance.

• Burning of fuel, burning of candle and paper, electrolysis of water, photo synthesis,
ripening of fruits etc, are examples of chemical changes.

Coal
Coal is obtained by carbonization of vegetable matter and is available in different varieties:

• Peat-60% C

• Lignite or Brown Coal - 70%C

• Bituminous - 60 to 80%C

• Anthracite Coal - 90% C

• Fame

Flame contains three parts

1 Innermost Part- which is black due to the presence of unburned carbon particles- has
lowest temperature.
2 Middle part - is yellow due to incomplete of fuel.

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3 Outermost part- which is blue due to complete combustion of fuel is the hottest and
used by goldsmith to heat the gold.

Fire Extinguishers
• Water extinguishes fire because as it evaporates, the vapours surround the burning
substance, cutting off the oxygen supply, thus inhibiting burning process.

• In case of electrical or oil (petrol) fires, water cannot be used as extinguisher. This is
because water is a conductor of electricity and heavier than oil. Thus, oil floats over
it and continues to burn.

• Carbon dioxide, which is generated by the reaction of baking soda with acid, is used
extinguish electrical or oil fires. Quality of petrol is measured in terms of octane
number and that of diesel in terms of cetane number.

Safety Matches
In safety matches, the stick consists of mixture of antimony trisulphide and potassium
chlorate at its one end. The box side contains a mixture of powdered glass and phosphorus.
Acids, Bases, and Salts

Acids
• These are the substance, which have sour taste and turn blue litmus red.

• These are good conductor of electricity in aqueous solution.

• Pickels is always kept in glass jar because acid present in them reacts with metal to
produce hydrogen gas.

Bases
• These are the substances, which have bitter taste and turn red litmus, blue.

• They give different colours in acid and base solutions.

Salts
• These are the product of neutralization reaction between an acid and a base.

• 𝐩𝐇 is the measure of acidity/basicity.

INORGANIC AND ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

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Carbon Dioxide
• It is an acidic oxide of carbon and is used by green plants for photosynthesis. It does
not help in burning.
Air and our breath contain carbon dioxide. Thus, when lime water is kept in air or we pass
our breath into it, the lime water turns milky.

Carbon Monoxide
• It is a neutral oxide of air and has more affinity towards hemoglobin than oxygen
(about 200 times more). That's why in the environment of carbon monoxide - which
is a non- poisonous gas - people die for the need of oxygen.
It is dangerous to sleep in an unventilated room with fire burning inside because the fire
produces carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide gases.
Plaster of Paris

• It is chemically calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO4.1/2H2O) and is prepared by

heating gypsum - which is calcium sulphate dehydrate (CaSO4.2H2O) at 373 K.

• On Mixing with water, plaster of Paris further sets into a hard solid, called gypsum.
Thus, it is used to plaster fractured bones, for making toys, materials for decoration
and for making surfaces smooth.

Portland Cement
• It is a complex mixture of silicates and aluminates of calcium with small amount of
gypsum. Raw materials used for the manufacture of Portland cement are limestone
and clay.

• The composition of Portland cement is calcium oxide (50 − 60%), alumina (5 −

10%), and magnesium oxide (2-3%). Gypsum is added to cement to decrease its rate
of setting.

• In cement, if line is in excess, cement cracks during setting and if lime is less, cement
is of weak strength.

• Mortar a mixture of sand, cement and water is used for joining bricks and plastering
walls. - Concrete-a mixture of gravel, sand, cement and water is used for flooring and
making roads.

• Reinforced Concrete Cement (RCC)- which is concrete with steel bars and wires is
used for Glass constructing roofs, bridges and pillars.

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Glass

• Glass-an amorphous solid or super- cooled liquid-contains maintz silica (SiO2).

Different substances are added to obtain glass of different colours:

Colour Substance Added

Red Copper oxide (CuO)

Green Chromium oxide (Cr203)

Blue Cobalt oxide (Co0)

Brawn Iron oxide (Fe203)

Heavy water
• Heavy water is water that contains heavy hydrogen or deuterium. Deuterium differs
from the hydrogen usually found in water, protium, in that each atom of deuterium
contains a proton and a neutron. Heavy water may be deuterium oxide, D2O or it may
be deuterium protium oxide, DHO. Note: Heavy water occurs naturally, although it
is much less common than regular water.
Approximately one water molecule per twenty million water molecules is heavy water.

Hard Water
• The water in which soluble bicarbonates oil calcium and magnesium are present, is
called temporary hard water and in which soluble sulphates and chlorides of
magnesium and calcium are present is called permanent hard water.

• The temporary hardness of water is removed by boiling or by adding calcium

hydroxide, Ca(OH)2 − the Clark's process the permanent hardness of water is
removed by adding sodium carbonate (Na2 CO3 ), or Calgon (sodium
hexametaphosphate, Na2 [Na2 (PO3 )
Hardening of Oil (Hydrogenation)
Oil, an unsaturated fat when heated with nickel catalyst and hydrogen gets converted into a
solid mass, called ghee, a saturated fat. This process is called hardening of oil and is carried
out through hydrogenation in the presence of nickel as a catalyst.

Some Important Ores of Metals

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Ores - Those minerals from which the metals are extracted commercially and economically
and with minimum effort are called Ores of Metals.

Name of Elements Ores Chemical Formulae

(a) Bauxite Al2O32H2O

1. Aluminum (Al) (b) Corundum Al2O3
(c) Kryolite Na3AlF6

(a) Hematite Fe2O3

(b) Magnetite Fe3O4
2. Iron (Fe)
(c) Iron Pyrite FeS2
(d) Siderite FeCO3

(a) Copper Pyrite CuFeS2

3. Copper (Cu) (b) Copper Glance Cu2S
(c) Malachite 2CuCO3Cu (OH)2

(a) Zinc Blende ZnS

4. Zinc (Zn)
(b) Calamine ZnCo3

(a) Rock Salt NaCl

5. Sodium ( Na )
(b) Sodium Carbonate Na2CO3

(a) Karnalite KClMgCl6H2O

6. Potassium (K)
(b) Salt Petre KNO3

(a) Galena PbS

7. Lead (Pb)
(b) Anglesite PbCl2

(a) Tin Pyrites Cu2FeSnS4

8. Tin (𝑆𝑛)
(b) Classiterite SnO2

9. Silver (Ag) (a) Silver Glance Ag2S

(a) Calve rite AuTe2

10. Gold (Au)
(b) Sybarite AgAuTe2

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(a) Cinnabar HgS

11. Mercury (Hg)
(b) Calomel Hg2Cl2

(a) Dolomite
12. Magnesium (Mg)
(b) Karnalite

(a) Limestone CaCO3

13. Calcium (Ca)
(b) Dolomite MgCO3CaCO3

(a) Phosphorite Ca3(PO4) CaFe2

14. Phosphorous (P)
(b) Floreopetite 3Ca3(PO4) CaFe2

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The father of modern chemistry is?
A. Priestley
B. Lavoisier
C. Dalton
D. Mendeleeff
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Antoine Lavoisier was a French nobleman and chemist central to the 18th-century chemical
revolution and a considerable influence on both the history of chemistry and the history of
biology. He is widely considered in popular literature as the "father of modern chemistry".

2. Which one is not metal?

A. sulphar
B. sugar
C. nitrogen
D. all
E. None of these
Ans: D

Explanation:

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A metal is a material (an element, compound, or alloy) that is typically hard, opaque, shiny
and has good electrical and thermal conductivity.

3. Which one is the pure element?

A. glass
B. cement
C. sodium
D. Sulphar
E. none of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
A pure element is a chemical element consisting of only one stable isotope.

4. What is the elements present in urea?

A. C, H, O
B. C, N, O
C. C, N, H
D. C, O, N, H
E. None of these
Ans: D

Explanation:
Urea is an organic compound with the chemical formula CO(NH₂) ₂. The molecule has
functional group.

5. A radioactive substance emits?

A. alpha particle
B. beta particle
C. gamma particle
D. All of the these
E. None of these
Ans: D

Explanation:
Radioactive substances are continually producing three kinds of dangerous radiation:
alpha particles, beta particles and gamma rays. These types of radiation are invisible to the
naked eye, and so you will not see a green glow.

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6. The fuel in atomic pile is?

A. carbon
B. sodium
C. petroleum
D. uranium
E. None of these
Ans: D

Explanation:
In the pile, the neutron-producing uranium pellets were separated from one another by
graphite blocks. Some of the free neutrons produced by the natural decay of uranium would
be absorbed by other uranium atoms, causing nuclear fission of those atoms and the release
of additional free neutrons.

7. Which of the following is the lightest metal?

A. Mercury
B. Silver
C. Lithium
D. Lead
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
The lightest or least dense metal that is a pure element is lithium, which has a density of
0.534 g/cm3. This makes lithium half as dense as water, so if lithium was not so reactive, a
chunk of the metal would float on water.

8. The element present in the largest amount in rocks and minerals is?
A. carbon
B. silicon
C. hydrogen
D. aluminums
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Silicon is the eighth most common element in the universe by mass, but very rarely occurs
as the pure free element in nature. It is most widely distributed in dusts, sands, planetoids,

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and planets as various forms of silicon dioxide (silica) or silicates. Over 90% of the Earth's
crust is composed of silicate minerals, making silicon the second most abundant element in
the Earth's crust after oxygen.

9. German silver is an alloy of?

A. copper, nickel, and silver
B. silver, copper, and aluminum
C. zinc, copper, and nickel
D. silver, zinc, and copper
E. None of these
Ans: C
German silver is a copper alloy with nickel and often zinc. The usual formulation is 60%
copper, 20% nickel and 20% zinc.

10. The inert gas abundantly found in widely distributed is?

A. Xe
B. Kr
C. He
D. Ar
E. None of these
Ans: D

Explanation:
Argon (Ar) is the most prevalent of the noble gases in Earth's crust with the element
composing 0.00015% of this crust.

11. Vinegar is used as a condiment, and in the pickling of vegetables and other foods. What
is the constituent of vinegar?
A. Butanoic acid
B. Methanoic acid
C. Ethanoic acid
D. Hexanoic acid
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
When ethanol reacts with oxygen it forms a weak acid called ethanoic acid. In an open
bottle of beer or wine, the reaction happens naturally in the presence of bacteria, and it is

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the ethanoic acid that can make beer or wine taste sour. Vinegar is typically 4-18% acetic
acid by mass. Vinegar is used directly as a condiment, and in the pickling of vegetables and
other foods.

12. Which one of the following is correct? Setting of plaster of Paris is .

A. dehydration
B. oxidation with atmospheric oxygen
C. hydration leading to another hydrate.
D. combination with atmospheric carbon dioxide
E. None of these
Ans: D

Explanation:
To make lime plaster, limestone (calcium carbonate) is heated to produce quicklime
(calcium oxide). Water is then added to produce slaked lime, which is sold as a wet putty.
Additional water is added to form a paste prior to use. The paste may be stored in airtight
containers. When exposed to the atmosphere, the calcium hydroxide very slowly turns back
into calcium carbonate through reaction with atmospheric carbon dioxide, causing the
plaster to increase in strength.

13. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity?

A. Ordinary water
B. Sea water
C. Boiled water
D. Distilled water.
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Sea water is a "good" conductor. It has a resistance and resistance increases by distance.
So, if you dip a very high voltage electric wire in the ocean, the area around it (even 100
meters or more based on how high it is) gets electric.

14. Which one among the following substances evolved heat when dissolved in water?
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Quick lime
D. Salt peter

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E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
Quicklime is a widely used chemical compound. It is a white, caustic, alkaline, crystalline
solid at room temperature. When limestone is heated, at about 1000° C it undergoes thermal
decomposition. It loses carbon dioxide and turns into quicklime (calcium oxide).

15. Which one among the following polymers is used for making bullet-proof material?
A. Polyvinyl chloride
B. Polystyrene
C. Polyethylene
D. Polyamide
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
A bullet-proof material is made of polyethylene. It is a higher grade of the plastic found in
Tupperware.

16. Hydrogen was discovered by ?

A. Cavendish
B. Lavosier
C. Rutherford
D. Scheele
E. None of these
Ans: A

Explanation:
I 1766, Henry Cavendish was the first to recognize hydrogen gas as a discrete substance,
by naming the gas from a metal-acid reaction "flammable air".

17. Carbon reacts with metal to form.

A. Carbide
B. Carbonate
C. Hydroxide
D. Oxide
E. None of these

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Ans: A

Explanation:
Carbon reacts with reactive metals, such as tungsten, carbon forms carbide to form alloys
with high melting points.

18. Which one of the following elements is metalloid?

A. Si
B. Pb
C. Ge
D. C
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
A metalloid is a chemical element with properties in between metals and nonmetals.
Germanium (Ge) is a chemical element. It is a lustrous, hard, grayish-white metalloid in the
carbon group.
19. Which one of the following is used in the preparation of antiseptic solution?
A. Potassium nitrate
B. Iodine
C. Iodine chloride
D. Potassium chloride
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Antiseptics are chemical agents that slow or stop the growth of micro-organisms (germs)
on external surfaces of the body and help prevent infections.

20. The name catalysis was given by .

A. Ratherford
B. landmuir
C. Grahm
D. Berzelius
E. None of these
Ans: B

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Explanation:
Catalysis is the increase in the rate of a chemical reaction due to the participation of an
additional substance called a catalyst. With a catalyst, reactions occur faster and with less
energy. Because catalysts are not consumed, they are recycled. Often only tiny amounts are
required.

21. Which of the following is not a natural polymer?

A. Wool
B. Silk
C. Cotton
D. Teflon
E. None of these
Ans: D

Explanation:
Natural polymers occur in nature and can be extracted. They are often water-based.
Examples of naturally occurring polymers are silk, wool, DNA, cellulose, cotton, and
proteins.

22. Gamma rays are .

A. High energy electrons
B. Low energy electrons
C. High energy electromagnetic
D. High energy positron waves
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
Gamma rays (γ) refer to electromagnetic radiation of an extremely high frequency and
therefore consist of high energy photons.

23. The ultrapure metal is obtained by ?

A. Calcination
B. Sublimation
C. zone refining
D. None of these
E. None of these
Ans: C

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Explanation:
The principal stages in the production of ultrapure metals are the preparation of pure
chemical compounds, the reduction of the compounds to the elementary state and further
purification. Pure compounds are obtained by sorption, extraction, distillation, rectification,
ion exchange, and recrystallization from aqueous solutions.

24. The gas used in a refrigerator is ?

A. cooled down on flowing.
B. heated up on flowing.
C. cooled down when compressed.
D. cooled down when expanded.
E. None of these
Ans: D

Explanation:
Common refrigerants used in various applications are ammonia, sulfur dioxide, and non-
halogenated hydrocarbons such as propane. Compressing these gasses into liquids they are
made to give up their heat.

25. Which one of the following petroleum refinery products has the lowest boiling point?
A. Kerosene
B. Gasoline
C. Diesel
D. Lubricating oil
E. Crude oil
Ans: D

Explanation:
Lubricating oil is the most commonly used lubricant because of its wide range of
applications. The two basic categories of lube oil are mineral and synthetic. Mineral oils
are refined from naturally occurring petroleum, or crude oil. Synthetic oils are manufactured
polyalphaolefins, which are hydrocarbon -based polyglycols or ester oils.

26. Compound having tetrahedral structure is ____________ .

A. C2H4
B. C2H2
C. CH4
D. CH2

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E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
Methane is a tetrahedral molecule with four equivalent C-H bonds. Its electronic structure
is described by four bonding molecular orbitals resulting from the overlap of the valence
orbitals on C and H.

27. The constant temperature, the product of pressure and volume of a given amount of a
gas is constant . This is ____________.
A. Gay-Lussac law
B. Charles’s law
C. Boyle’s law
D. Pressure law
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
Boyle's law is a gas law, stating that the pressure and volume of a gas have an inverse
relationship, when temperature is held constant. If volume increases, then pressure
decreases and vice versa when temperature is held constant.

28. Modern periodic law had been given by .

A. Moseley
B. Mendeleev
C. Lother -Mayer
D. Lavoisier
E. None of these
Ans: A

Explanation:
In 1913, H.G.J Moseley in England proved that the more fundamental properties of an
element are its atomic number. Therefore, he suggested that the basis of classification of
elements should be atomic number.

29. In Nuclear reactors graphite is used as .

A. Lubricant
B. Fuel

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C. Linear of the reactor

D. Modulator
E. None of these
Ans: D

Explanation:
Nuclear reactors are used at nuclear power plants for electricity generation. These are
graphite moderated and CO2 cooled.

30. An acid is a substance which _____.

A. Donates a proton
B. Accepts an electron.
C. Give H+ in water.
D. All
E. None of these
Ans: D

Explanation:
An acid is a chemical substance whose aqueous solutions are characterized by a sour taste,
the ability to turn blue litmus red and the ability to react with bases and certain metals to
form salts.

31. A mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen is called.

A. Producer gas
B. Water gas
C. Natural gas
D. Air gas
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Water gas is a synthesis gas, containing carbon monoxide and hydrogen. It is a useful
product but requires careful handling due to its flammability and the risk of carbon
monoxide poisoning. The gas is made by passing steam over a red-hot carbon fuel such as
coke.

32. The compound of a metal found in nature is called.

A. Mineral

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B. Ore
C. Flux
D. Slag
E. None of these
Ans: A

Explanation:
Metals are an integral part of our planet and are found in all rocks and soils. Most metals
form compounds called minerals, which are naturally occurring, inorganic solids with
regular chemical compositions and crystal structures.

33. Freon is used as.

A. Oxidant
B. Refrigerant
C. Catalyst
D. Both A and B
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Freon uses for a number of halocarbon products. They are stable, nonflammable,
moderately toxic gases or liquids which have typically been used as refrigerants and as
aerosol propellants.

34. Which gas is used in filling electric bulbs.

A. Neon
B. Argon
C. Radon
D. Krypton
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Argon is used to fill incandescent light bulbs to inhibit the evaporation of the tungsten
filaments and increase bulb life.

35. Lead pencil contains.

A. Lead nitrate

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B. Graphite
C. Lead peroxide
D. Lead Sulphate
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Most pencil cores are made of graphite mixed with a clay binder which leaves grey or black
marks that can be easily erased.

36. Air is?

A. Compound
B. Element
C. Mixture
D. Solution
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
Pure air is a mixture of several gases that are invisible and clourless. It consists of about
78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and less than 1% of argon, carbon dioxide and other gases, as
well as varying amounts of water vapour.

37. Which of the following is a noble gas?

A. Argon
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen
E. None of these
Ans: A

Explanation:
Noble gas, any of the seven chemical elements that make up Group 18 (VIIIa) of the
periodic

38. Study of old age is called?

A. Gerontology
B. Pedology

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C. Ornithology
D. Anthropology
E. None of these
Ans: A

Explanation:
Gerontology is the study of the aging process itself. Geriatrics is sometimes called medical
gerontology.
39. The chemical name for common salt.
A. Sodium chloride
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Sodium chlorate
D. Potassium chloride
E. None of these
Ans: A

Explanation:
Sodium chloride is also known common salt is an ionic compound with the chemical
formula NaCl, representing a 1:1 ratio of sodium and chloride ions.

40. Liquid metal is?

A. Mercury
B. Sodium
C. Antimony
D. Sulphar
E. None of these
Ans: A

Explanation:
Liquid metal consists of gallium-containing alloys with very low melting points which are
liquid at room temperature. The standard metal formerly is mercury.

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BIOLOGY
Biology is one of the important subjects from the exam point of view. In this post we have
come up with Short Notes from the Biology part of the General Knowledge section. A good
number of questions are asked in every exam. Thus, the post is very helpful for the
upcoming SSC & Railway Exams

Vitamins
• Organic compound required in small amounts in the die to maintain normal metabolic
functions are known as 'Vitamins'.

• The term vitamin was changed to vitamin when it was realized that not all vitamins
are amines.

• Many vitamins act as (or) are converted into coenzymes; they neither provide energy
nor are incorporated into tissues.

• These also regulate the Bio-chemical processes in the body.

Vitamins are classified into two groups

1 Fat soluble vitamins (𝐴, 𝐷, 𝐸, 𝐾). These are rich in liver cells.
2 Water soluble vitamins (C, B-complex). These are present in much smaller amounts
in cells.
Fat soluble vitamins
Vitamin A:

• Vitamin A is also known as 'Retinol'.

• Deficiency diseases: Night blindness, redness in eyes (Exophthalmia), degeneration

of lachrymal glands.

Vitamin D:
• Vitamin D is also known as 'Calciferol'.

• Deficiency diseases: Rickets in children, Osteomalacia in adults.

Vitamin E:
• Vitamin E is also known as 'Tocopherol'.

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• Deficiency diseases: Sterility nutritional nuclear dystrophy, neurosis of heart

muscles.

Vitamin K:
• Vitamin K is also known as 'Anti hemorrhagic'.

• Deficiency diseases: Blood coagulation is prevented, continuous bleeding occurs.

Water soluble vitamins:
Vitamin 'B Complex': Vitamin B Complex is a mixture of 𝐵1, 𝐵2, 𝐵3, 𝐵5, 𝐵6, 𝐵7, 𝐵9, and
B12.
Vitamin B1:

• Vitamin B1 is also known as Thiamin.

• Deficiency diseases: Beri Beri disease which affects the legs. Vitamin B2:

• Vitamin B2 is also known as Riboflavin.

• Deficiency diseases: Dark red tongue, dermatitis, cheilosis occurs at the corners of
mouth & lips.
Vitamin B3:

• Vitamin B3 is also known as Pentothenic acid.

• Deficiency diseases: Burning sensations of feet.

Vitamin B5:

• Vitamin B5 is also known as Nicotinic acid/Niacin.

• Deficiency diseases: Pellagra, dermatitis, diarrhea.

Vitamin B6:

• Vitamin B6 is also known as Pyridoxine.

• Deficiency diseases: Dermatitis and convulsions.

Vitamin B7:
• Vitamin B7 is also known as Biotin (also considered as vitamin H).

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• Deficiency diseases: Dermatitis, blood cholesterol increases, loss of hair and

paralysis.
Vitamin B9:

• Vitamin B9 is also known as Folic acid.

• Deficiency diseases: Anemia, inflammation of tongue, gastro intestinal disorders.

Vitamin B12:

• Vitamin B12 is also known as 'Cynocobal amine'.

• Deficiency diseases: Pernicious anemia, hyperglycemia.

Vitamin C:

• Vitamin C is also known as 'Ascorbic acid'.

• Deficiency diseases: Scurvy, delay in wound healing.

Human Diseases Caused by Fungi:-

• Ringworm caused by Microsporum, Trichophyton by direct contact from unbathed
cats and dogs or objects handled by infected individuals.

• Athlete's foot caused by Trichophyton by Bad foot hygiene where skin remains warm
and moist for long period, fungi find optimal condition, invade dead outer layer of
skin.

Human Diseases Caused by Viruses

• Smallpox caused by Variola Virus by direct contact (droplets), indirected by infected
articles.

• Chicken pox caused by Varicella virus by direct contact (droplets) in directed by

infected objects.

• Common cold caused by Rhinovirus by contact.

• Influenza/Flu caused by Orthomyxovirus by contact (droplets) virus transmitted

through discharge from respiratory tracts of persons infected with disease.

• Mumps caused by Mumps virus by direct contact, virus in Saliva and secretion of
nose invades salivary glands.

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• Viral encephalitis caused by Encephalitis virus (arbovirus) by some domestic

animals' reservoir of virus, transmitted by mosquito bite to man.

• Poliomyelitis caused by Poliovirus by contact, houseflies, fleas, food and water.

• Rabies (Hydrophobia) caused by Rabies virus (Rhabdovirus) by Bite a mad (rabid)

dog.

• Dengue fever or breakbone fever caused by Dengue virus (arbovirus) by Mosquito

(Aedes) bite.

• Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) caused by Human T cell

• Lenkemia virus (HTLVIII) also called LAV (Retrovirus) by blood and sperm among
homosexuals, heterosexuals, intravenous drug users, haemophiliacs, promiscuous
individuals and prostitutes.

Human Diseases Caused by Bacteria

• Septic sore throat caused by Streptococcus Sp by Bacteria infect throat and nasal
membranes by droplets and direct contact.

• Diphtheria caused by Irregular rod (Corynebacterium diphtheria) by Bacteria infect

respiratory tract by carrier, through contact, droplets, and food items.

• Pneumonia caused by Diplococcus pneumonia by Bacteria transmitted to respiratory

tract, including the lungs by droplet infection.

• Tuberculosis caused by Irregular rod (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) by Bacteria

transmitted to lungs, bones and other organs by direct contact droplet infection, food,
and milk.

• Plague or Bubonic caused by short rod (Yersinia pestis) by Rat flea spreads disease
from rat to man.

• Tetanus or LockJaw caused by Clostridium tetani by Bacteria in soil, enter through

wound.

• Typhoid or enteric fever caused by, Salmonella typhi by Flies, food, faces water and
carriers.

• Cholera caused by Vibrio cholerae by Flies food, stools, water, and carriers. -
Bacillary dysentery caused by short rod (Shigella dysenteriae) by Flies, food, faeces,
water, and carriers.

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• Whooping cough caused by small, short rod (Hemophilus pertussis) by Droplets

protected during coughing and sneezing.

• Syphilis caused by Spiralshaped organism (Treponema pallidam) by direct contact,

chiefly sexual intercourse.

• Leprosy caused by Mycobacterium Leprae by long and close contact with infected
persons.

• Botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum by organism produces poison in food.

Human Diseases Caused by Protozoans

• Amoebic dysentery (Amoebiasis) caused by Entamoeba histolytica by Transmission
from man to man through ingestion of cysts in drinking water vegetables and food
contaminated with faeces.

• Diarrhea 'Giardiasis' caused by Giardia intestinalis by Transmission from man to man

through ingestion of cysts in drinking water vegetables and food contaminated with
faces.

• Malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax by Transmitted to man by bite of an infected

female auophelise mosquito.

• Sleeping sickness (Trypanosomiasis) caused by Trypanosoma brucei by Transmitted

by bite of tsetse fly.

Some Important Information & Facts Related to Biology

1. Melvin Kelvin was awarded Nobel Prize for his work on Photosynthesis.
2. The largest flower in the world is Refflessia and the smallest one is wolfessia.
3. Penicillin is obtained from penicillium Notatum.
4. Reserpine derived from the plant 'serpentine' is used to alleviate high blood pressure.
5. Plants, living in acidic soils, are called oxalophytes.
6. Photosynthesis is most active in blue and red light in which light energy is converted
into chemical energy and 02 is not a limiting process during this process.
7. The smallest bone lies stapes is found in the human ear.
8. Enzymes are basically proteins.

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9. Mitochondria is called the 'powerhouse of the cell'

10. Pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland. 11. Persons of blood group '0' are
called 'Universal Donor' while that of 'AB' are called 'Universal Acceptors'.
11. Seedless fruits are formed by parthenogenesis.
12. Simple plants that contain no chlorophyll are called fungi.
13. Spirogyra is commonly known as 'pond silk'
14. The longest muscle in the human body is found in thigh.
15. In a leaf, the opening between two guard cells is stomata.
16. Gibberellins are responsible for cell elongation.
17. The chemical name of chlorophyll is magnesium Dihydro prophysin.
18. Bile is produced in liver and stored in gel bladder.
19. All arteries, except pulmonary artery carry oxygenated blood.
20. The main function of W.B. C. is to produce antibodies.
21. Retina in the eye, acts as a film in the camera.
22. Human tears contain a mild antibacterial agent, named Lysozyme.
23. The biggest bone in the human body is femur.
24. Vitamin B12 is almost never found in plants.
25. Agrostology is the study of grasses.
26. Phycology is the study of a algae while the study of fossils is called paleontology
27. Hydroponics is cultivating plants without using soil.
28. Palco botany is the study of fossils of botanical specimens.
29. Pepsin & Lactose enzymes ad on proteins in the digestive system.
30. The water soluble vitamins are vitamin B and 𝐂
31. A chemical change in DNA molecule is called mutation.
32. Glycogen acts as a short term food reserve in animals.

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33. Estrogen is a female sex hormone.

34. The enzyme amylase aids in the digestion of starch.
35. ATP synthesis takes place in mitochondria.
36. 𝟕𝟎% of the body weight of a man is water.
37. The tough transparent membrane that protects the eye ball is called cornea.
38. Energy is produced in human body by Carbohydrates.
39. Sugar is the product of the dark reactions of photosynthesis.

Important One-liner Type Questions-

1. Banana Freckle, a plant disease, is caused by_________. - Fungus
2. What is the scientific name of Neem? - Azadirachta Indica
3. Who discovered the Bacteria? - Van Leeuwenhoek
4. To which phylum does the Amoeba belong? - Protozoa
5. Who is known as The Father of the Green Revolution? - Norman Ernest Borlaug
6. Pneumonia affects which part of the Human Body? - Lungs
7. Who is known as The Father of Genetics? - Gregor Mendel
8. Which is the second largest gland of the Human Body? - Pancreas
9. The deficiency of vitamin B-1 causes___________. - Beri-Beri
10. Which drug is yielded from Cinchona tree to cure Malaria? - Quinine
11. What is the common name of the Retinol? - Vitamin A
12. Human Skin have _________ layers? - Three
13. What is the full form of DNA? - Deoxyribonucleic Acid
14. Beetroot is which portion of the plant? - Tap Root
15. _________ is the basic unit of heredity. - Gene
16. Who is also known as Father of Microbiology? - Van Leeuwenhoek

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17. Which scientist had developed the Theory of Evolution? - Charles Darwin
18. Which branch of science is concerned with the classification of organisms? -
Taxonomy
19. In plants, respiration takes place through __________. - Stomata
20. Dermatitis is a _________ disease. Fungal
21. In which form, Glucose is stored in our body? Glycogen
22. Plants synthesize proteins from _______. - Amino Acids
23. Which organ is also known as The Biochemical Laboratory of the Human Body? -
Liver
24. What is responsible for the yellow colour of urine? - Urochrome
25. Who discovered the Antibiotics? - Alexander Flaming
26. The functional unit of the Kidney is known as ________. - Nephrons
27. Leprosy is caused by _____. - Bacteria
28. Lipase, the fat-digesting enzyme is secreted by __________. - Pancreas
29. Scientists who proposed The Cell Theory? Theodor Schwann and Matthias Jakob
Schleiden
30. Who proposed the Mutation Theory? Hugo de Vries
31. What does ATP stand for? - Adenosine triphosphate
32. Which bacteria causes Typhoid? - Salmonella typhi
33. Who wrote "Systema Naturae"? - Carl Linnaeus
34. Acacia arabica is the scientific name of which plant? - Babul Tree
35. Who coined the term "Ecology"? - Ernst Haeckel
36. Johannes Friedrich Miescher discovered the _______. - Nucleic Acids
37. The "study of Classification of Organisms" is known as __________. - Taxonomy
38. Which is the confirmatory test for AIDS? ELISA
39. Jute is obtained from which part of the plant? Stem

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40. Which plant is also called Herbal Indian Doctor? - Amla

41. What is the energy currency of the cell? - ATP
42. Which human gland is responsible for the secretion of insulin? - Pancreas
43. Which pigment is responsible for the colour of the skin? - Melanin
44. Which pigment is responsible for the yellow colour of urine? - Urochrome
45. Which organ breaks Fat to produce cholesterol? - Liver
46. Quinine is used in the treatment of which disease? - Malaria
47. which is also known as the tear gland of the human body? - Lacrimal Glands
48. What is the name of the first test tube baby? - Louise Joy Brown
49. Which gland is also known as ductless gland? Endocrine Glands
50. The green colour of the leaves is due to __________- Chlorophyll (Don't get
confused, Chloroplast is a cell organelle in which chlorophyll pigment is present.)
51. Weil's disease is caused due to the infection___________. - Bacterial
52. Who invented the stethoscope? - René Laennec
53. Har Govind Khorana shared the Nobel Prize in the field of ______. - Medicine
(Physiology)
54. ______ is also known as milk sugar. - Lactose
55. mosquito is the carrier of Zika Virus. - Aedes
56. Which is the largest artery in the human body? - Aorta
57. What kind of process Fermentation is? - Anaerobic Respiration
58. Quinine is obtained from the bark of ______. – Cinchona

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
A. Autogamy and Xenogamy
B. Autogamy and Geitonogamy
C. Geitonogamy and Xenogamy
D. Cleistogamy and Xenogamy
E. Geitonogamy and Cleistogamy
Ans: B

Explanation:
A dioecious flowering plant prevents both Autogamy and Geitonogamy. Dioecious plants
bear male and female flowers on two plants. Thus, they prevent autogamy (pollination in
the same flower, bisexual flower) as well as geitonogamy (cross-pollination between male
and female flowers on the same plant).

2. In which way are the impulses carried during depolarization of the heart?
A. Epicardium to endocardium
B. Endocardium to epicardium
C. Endocardium to myocardium
D. Myocardium to endocardium
E. Epicardium to Myocardium
Ans. B

Explanation:
The impulses carried during depolarization of the heart are from Endocardium to the
epicardium.
The SA node has the highest inherent rate of depolarization and is known as the
pacemaker of the heart. This impulse spreads from its initiation in the SA node throughout
the atria through specialized internodal pathways, to the atrial myocardial contractile cells
and the atrioventricular node.

3. Which of the following is growth movement(s)?

a. The folding up of the leaves of a sensitive plant on touching.
b. The opening and closing up of the petals of dandelion flowers in morning and evening,
respectively.
c. The closing and opening of the petals of moonflower in morning and evening
respectively.

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A. Only a
B. Only a and b
C. Only b
D. Only b and c
E. Only c
Ans. D

Explanation:
The growth movement(s) is the opening and closing up of the petals of dandelion flowers
and moonflower in morning and evening, respectively.
The growth movement in plants in which the direction of the external stimulus is a factor
is known as Tropic movements. The growth movement towards the direction of stimulus
is known as positive tropism. The growth movement away from the direction of stimulus
is known as negative tropism

4. Which of the following are genes with multiple phenotypic effects?

A. Epistatic genes
B. Complementary genes
C. Duplicate genes
D. Codominant
E. Pleiotropic genes
Ans. E

Explanation:
The genes with multiple phenotypic effects are pleiotropic genes.
Pleiotropy occurs when one gene influence two or more seemingly unrelated phenotypic
traits. Such a gene that exhibits multiple phenotypic expression is called a pleiotropic
gene.

5. Homologous repeats are involved in which of the following types of mutation?

A. Large deletion
B. Silent mutation
C. Repeat expansion
D. Frameshift mutation
E. None of above
Ans. A

Explanation:

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Homologous repeats are involved in large deletion.

A deletion changes the number of DNA bases by removing a piece of DNA. Small
deletions may remove one or a few base pairs within a gene, while larger deletions can
remove an entire gene or several neighboring genes.

6. If the external solution balances the osmotic pressure of the cytoplasm of a plant cell,
then it is said to be:
A. Hypertonic
B. Isotactic
C. Isotonic
D. Hypotonic
E. Cytosol
Ans. C

Explanation:
If the external solution balances the osmotic pressure of the cytoplasm of a plant cell, then
it is said to be Isotonic.
A solution is isotonic when its effective osmole concentration is the same as that of another
solution. In biology, the solutions on either side of a cell membrane are isotonic if the
concentration of solutes outside the cell is equal to the concentration of solutes inside the
cell.

7. Which of the following statements is not true about the primary plant growth?
A. Only woody plants show primary growth.
B. Primary growth increases the length of the plant.
C. The ground meristem is a primary meristem that produces ground tissues.
D. The procambium is a primary meristem that produces primary vascular tissues.
E. Both A and B
Ans. A

Explanation:
Only woody plants show primary growth is the correct answer.
Growth in plants occurs as the stems and roots length. Some plants, especially those that
are woody, also increase in thickness during their life span. The increase in the length of
the shoot and the root is referred to as primary growth.

8. Which of the following is a device for growing plants in a controlled environment?

A. Cyclotron

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B. Phytotron
C. Crescograph
D. Potometer
E. Both A and B
Ans. B

Explanation:
Phytotron is a device for growing plants in a controlled environment.
A phytotron is an enclosed research greenhouse used for studying interactions between
plants and the environment. It was a product of the disciplines of plant physiology and
botany.

9. When is intergeneric hybridization used?

A. When the genes for desirable characters are found in species of the same genus.
B. When the genes for desirable characters are not found between two different genera of
the same family.
C. When sexual incompatibility can be overcome.
D. When successful hybridization is desired always.
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
Intergeneric hybridization is used when the genes for desirable characters are not found
between two different genera of the same family.
Genera that generate intergeneric hybrid are always genetically related members of the
same taxonomic tribe. Intergeneric hybridization represents an opportunity to combine
genomes from distinctly different plants and to introgress traits not found in the main genus
of interest. Many intergeneric hybrids are infertile.

10. Which of the following organisms has/have neurons, but no brain?

A. Spongilla
B. Periplaneta
C. Hydra
D. Euspongia
E. None of these
Ans. C

Explanation:

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Hydra has/have neurons, but no brain.

Hydra which belongs to the Phylum Coelenterate has nerve cells but no brain. Its nervous
system consists of nerve cells and their processes. Sensory cells are also present. Sponges
do not have nerve cells; they lack a nervous system. Earthworm (Annelida) has a nervous
system consisting of a circumcenter nerve ring and a solid, double, midventral nerve cord
with ganglia.

11. Which of the following has a saprophytic mode of nutrition?

A. Roundworm
B. Leech
C. Mushroom
D. Lice
E. None of above
Ans. C

Explanation:
Mushroom has a saprophytic mode of nutrition.
The nourishment of Mushroom is saprophytic, which is just like heterotrophic nutrition.
This is the reason organisms like mushrooms nourish on a dead and decomposing plant or
animal matter. Mushrooms prefer shadowy, cool, moist, and wet growing environments.

12. Micro-organism act upon the dead plant to produce:

A. Mushroom
B. Sand
C. Humus
D. Wood
E. Algae
Ans. C

Explanation:
Micro-organisms act upon the dead plants to produce humus. The micro-organisms that
convert the dead plants and animals to humus are known as decomposers like bacteria and
fungi. For healthy soil, humus contains many useful minerals and nutrients. Dead organic
matter in the form of decaying plants and sometimes dead animals on the ground
disappear after some time. This is because the microorganisms decompose dead organic
waste of plants and animals converting them into simple substances. These substances are
again used by other plants and animals.

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13. Which of the following groups of organisms are included under chrysophytes?
A. Diatoms and desmids (golden algae)
B. Diatoms and dinoflagellates
C. Euglenoids
D. Slime moulds
E. Protist and monera
Ans. A

Explanation:
Diatoms and desmids (golden algae) are included under chrysophytes. Chrysophytes are
also known as golden algae due to the presence of yellow and brown carotene and
xanthophyll accessory pigment. They are facultatively heterotrophic in the absence of light.
They are unicellular and biflagellated.

14. Addition of iodine in the diet is necessary for treating:

A. To treat hyperthyroidism.
B. To treat hypothyroidism.
C. To regulate the 24 -hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body.
D. To reduce the loss of water through urine (diuresis)
E. None of these
Ans. B

Explanation:
The addition of iodine to the diet is necessary for treating hypothyroidism. The thyroid
hormone is responsible for metabolism and metamorphosis. lodine is an element of the
thyroid hormone, the deficiency of which leads to hypothyroidism. This happens because
iodine is needed for the production of the hormone thyroxine.

15. Opening or blooming of the flower is known as:

A. Anthesis
B. Maturation of embryo
C. Pollination
D. Dehiscence of anther lobes
E. None of these
Ans. A

Explanation:

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The opening or blooming of the flower is known as anthesis. Anthesis refers to the process
of opening the floral buds. It involves dehiscence of the anthers, attracting the pollinators,
stigma receptivity, style elongation, etc. Also, anthesis can be a sequential process in
inflorescence. The flower during anthesis becomes functional.

16. Name the gland that controls the functioning of other endocrine glands:
A. Pancreas
B. Rineal gland
C. Adrenal gland
D. Thyroid gland
E. Pituitary gland
Ans. E

Explanation:
The pituitary gland controls the functioning of other endocrine glands. Control and
coordination in our body are also brought about with the help of certain chemical substances
called hormones. Hormones are secreted by endocrine glands.

17. ______ pairs of contrasting traits were studied by Mendel in pea plant.
A. Six
B. Sevan
C. eight
D. Ten
E. Nine
Ans. B

Explanation:
Seven pairs of contrasting traits were studied by Mendel in pea plant. Johann Mendel,
considered the father of genetics, gave the observation and theories of inheritance of
characteristics. He made the bases of his conclusions on experiments conducted on Pisum
sativum.

18. The acrosome is made up of:

A. Centrioles
B. Ribosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Mitochondria
E. Cellulose

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Ans. B

Explanation:
The acrosome is formed of the Golgi apparatus. At the time of acrosome formation, the
Golgi apparatus is concentrated near the anterior end of the developing sperm nucleus and
then it forms a dense pro acrosomal granule which gets attached to the anterior end of the
nucleus and gradually enlarges to form an acrosome.

19. The outermost covering of all plant parts are made up of:
A. Phloem
B. Meristematic tissue
C. Dermal tissue
D. Xylem
E. Xylem and Phloem
Ans. C

Explanation:
The outermost covering of all plant parts is made up of Dermal tissue.
Primary dermal tissues, called the epidermis, make up the outer layer of all plant organs
(e.g., stems, roots, leaves, flowers). They help deter excess water loss and invasion by
insects and microorganisms. The epidermis is usually one cell layer thick, and its cells lack
chloroplasts.

20. In the human digestive system, which of the following enzymes converts protein into
proteases and peptones?
A. Maltase
B. Pepsin
C. Amylase
D. Lipases
E. Pectinase
Ans. B

Explanation:
In the human digestive system, Pepsin converts protein into proteases and peptones.
Digestive enzymes are a group of enzymes that break down polymeric big molecules into
smaller building blocks, in order to facilitate their absorption by the body. Pepsin is a
stomach enzyme that serves to digest proteins found in ingested food. Gastric chief cells
secrete pepsin as an inactive zymogen called pepsinogen.

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21. Which Vitamin is also known as Tocopherol?

A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin B
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Vitamin E is a series of organic compounds consisting of various methylated phenols.
Because the vitamin activity was first identified in 1936 from a dietary fertility factor in
rats, it was given the name “tocopherol” or birth carrying vitamin.
There are eight forms of Vitamin E. In general, food sources with the highest concentrations
of vitamin E are vegetable oils, followed by nuts and seeds including whole grains.

22. Gout which is usually followed / accompanied by arthritis are characterized by high
levels of uric acid in the blood and uric acid crystals become lodged in the joints. It is a
________?
A. Viral Infection
B. Metabolic Disorder
C. Muscle Disorder
D. Bacterial infection
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Gout is a metabolic disorder which is usually followed / accompanied by arthritis are
characterized by high levels of uric acid in the blood and uric acid crystals become lodged
in the joints.

23. Which branch of biology is known for the study of flowers?

A. Dendrology
B. Anatomy
C. Agrostology
D. Anthology
E. None of these

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Ans: D

Explanation:
The study of flowers and flowering plants is known as anthology. Anthos means a flower
and Logia means collection.
24. Viruses reproduce in living cells by_______?
A. replication
B. duplication
C. multiplication
D. all of these
E. None of these
Ans: A

Explanation:
DNA replication is the process by which a double-stranded DNA molecule is copied to
produce two identical DNA molecules.

25. Which of the following structures is responsible for the motility of bacteria?
A. pilli
B. flagella
C. sheath
D. capsules
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Flagella is responsible for the motility of bacteria. The flagellum is primarily a motility
organ. This enables movement and chemotaxis.

26. To which family do brown mustard and broccoli belong?

A. Solanaceae
B. Fabaceae
C. Cruciferae
D. None of these
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:

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Brassicaceae or Cruciferae is a medium-sized family of flowering plants commonly known

as the mustard, cruciferous or cabbage family.

27. Carbon Dioxide from the air is trapped by which of the following parts of the plant?
A. Petals
B. Root hairs
C. Stomata
D. Mitochondria
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
Carbon dioxide in the air is trapped by stomata. It captures Carbon dioxide from the surface
of the leaves and CO2 enters through the tiny pores present on leaves called stomata.

28. Food is prepared in which part of the plant?

A. Fruit
B. Stem
C. Leaves
D. Root
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
Food in plants is prepared in leaves, all the essential components and raw materials like
water, carbon dioxide, minerals reach to leaves. Leaves are also known as food factories in
plants.

29. It is a colorless gas that acts as a signal hormone, which of the following is it?
A. Benzene
B. Nitric Oxide
C. Ozone
D. None of the above
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:

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Nitric Oxide is a colorless gas that acts as a signal hormone. Nitric oxide (NO) is a gaseous
reactive oxygen species. It has evolved as a signaling hormone in many physiological
processes in animals.

30. What are the reproductive parts of a flower?

A. Stamen
B. Pistil
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
The stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower, and the pistil is the female
reproductive part of a flower. The stamen is surrounded by anthers and filaments and
anthers produce pollen grains.

31. Pollination where the transfer of pollen between anthers and stigmas of different
flowers of the same plant or different plants of the same species is called__.
A. Self-Pollination
B. Cross-Pollination
C. Fertilization
D. Adoption
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Pollination where the transfer of pollen between anthers and stigmas of different flowers of
the same plant or different plants of the same species is called Cross-Pollination.

32. Which of the following is / are general features of the animals belonging to Class
Reptilia?
1. They are cold-blooded animals.
2. The skull is monoconidial.
3. The heart is 3 chambered.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
A. Only 2
B. Only 1 and 2

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C. Only 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
E. None of these
Ans: D

Explanation:
Reptiles are cold-blooded animals, the skull is monocondylic and the heart is 3 chambered
(crocodiles have a 4-chambered heart). Snakes, Turtles, Lizards, Crocodiles are examples
of class reptilia.

33. The mammals evolved from the reptile in the:

A. Cretaceous
B. Triassic
C. Devonian
D. Carboniferous
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Mammals were derived in the Triassic Period from members of the reptilian order
Therapsida. Triassic Period was about 252 million to 201 million years ago.

34. Afferent neurons carry nerve impulses from

A. CNS to muscles
B. CNS to receptors
C. receptors to CNS
D. effector organs to CNS
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
Afferent neurons are sensory neurons that carry nerve impulses from sensory stimuli toward
the central nervous system and brain. Efferent neurons are motor neurons that carry nerve
impulses away from the central nervous system and cause movement toward muscles.

35. Which female organ serves as the birth canal to allow the delivery of the fetus during
labor?
A. Ovaries
B. Uterus

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C. Fallopian Tubes
D. Vagina
E. None of these
Ans: D

Explanation:
The vagina is a female reproductive organ that serves as the birth canal to allow the delivery
of the fetus during labor.

36. Infection caused by rabies leads to _________ .

A. inflammation of the brain
B. inflammation of the spinal cord
C. Both A and B
D. Only A
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
The Rabies virus infects the central nervous system.

37. Bovine babesiosis is a ___ of cattle.

A. air-borne disease
B. tick-borne disease
C. water-borne disease
D. salt- borne disease.
E. None of these
Ans: B

Explanation:
Bovine babesiosis is a tick-borne disease of cattle. It is also called tick fever.

38. Which of the following are the causes of red water?

A. Clostridium hemolyticum
B. Achromobacter anitratum
C. Escherichia coli
D. Salmonella typhimurium
E. None of these
Ans: A

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Explanation:
Clostridium hemolytic are the causes of red water disease. Redwater disease in cattle is
caused by a protozoan blood parasite in the erythrocytes.

39. Johne’s disease is a type of _____________ disease in animals.

A. Intestine
B. Liver
C. Fetus and uterus
D. Blood
E. None of these
Ans: A

Explanation:
Johne’s disease is a type of Intestine disease in animals. It is caused by Mycobacterium
paratuberculosis.

40. Which of the following is a fungal disease?

A. Athlete’s foot
B. Madura foot
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
E. None of these
Ans: C

Explanation:
Athlete’s foot and Madura’s foot are fungal diseases. Athlete’s foot is caused by
Trichophyton and Madura’s foot is caused by Maurella Mycetomi.

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