Cloud Computing OC

Key areas covered in cloud computing MCQs:

 Cloud Deployment Models:

 Public Cloud: Resources are owned and operated by a third-party provider and
accessible to the general public.

 Private Cloud: Resources are dedicated to a single organization and may be

managed internally or by a third party.

 Hybrid Cloud: Combines public and private cloud resources, allowing for
flexibility and control.

 Community Cloud: Shared resources among multiple organizations with

common interests.

 Cloud Service Models:

 Software as a Service (SaaS): Provides software applications over the internet.

 Platform as a Service (PaaS): Provides a platform for developing and deploying

applications.

 Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS): Offers virtualized computing resources,

network, and storage.

 Cloud Characteristics:

 On-demand Self-Service: Users can provision resources without human

interaction.

 Resource Pooling: Resources are shared among multiple users and dynamically
allocated.

 Broad Network Access: Accessible via standard network protocols and devices.

 Rapid Elasticity: Resources can be scaled up or down quickly and flexibly.

 Measured Service: Cloud services are measured and controlled, ensuring

efficient resource utilization.

 Virtualization:

 Hypervisor: Software that manages and virtualizes hardware resources.

 Type 1 (Bare Metal) Hypervisor: Runs directly on the hardware.

 Type 2 (Hosted) Hypervisor: Runs on top of an operating system.

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 Virtual Machine (VM): A virtualized computer system running on a hypervisor.

 Cloud Technologies:

 Cloud Storage: Methods for storing data in the cloud.

 Cloud Databases: Databases managed and accessed within the cloud.

 Cloud Networking: Technologies for connecting cloud resources and managing

traffic.

 Cloud Security: Measures for protecting cloud data and resources.

 Key Concepts:

 Scalability: The ability to increase or decrease resources as needed.

 High Availability: Ensuring continuous operation and service availability.

 Fault Tolerance: Designing systems to withstand failures and continue operating.

 Security: Protecting data and resources from unauthorized access and threats.

Sample MCQs with Answers:

1. What is the primary benefit of a hybrid cloud deployment model?

a) Cost reduction
b) Increased flexibility and control
c) Enhanced security
d) Simplified management

Answer: b) Increased flexibility and control

1. Which cloud service model provides users with the ability to access and use pre-
packaged software applications over the internet?

a) IaaS
b) PaaS
c) SaaS
d) Cloud Storage

Answer: c) SaaS

1. Which of the following is a key characteristic of cloud computing?

a) Limited scalability
b) On-demand self-service
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c) Complex management
d) High cost

Answer: b) On-demand self-service

1. What is a hypervisor?

a) A type of network device

b) A software that manages virtual machines
c) A type of cloud storage
d) A security protocol

Q1

Which of the following is a primary characteristic of cloud computing?

On-demand self-service

High latency

Fixed storage

Manual resource allocation

Answer: On-demand self-service

Explanation

Cloud computing provides resources like storage and computing power as needed, without
manual intervention.

Q2

What does cloud computing primarily aim to reduce?

Security

Cost
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Speed

Reliability

Answer: Cost

Explanation

Cloud computing reduces the need for physical infrastructure, thus lowering operational costs.

Q3

Which of the following is not a type of cloud computing deployment model?

Public cloud

Private cloud

Hybrid cloud

Local cloud

Answer: Local cloud

Explanation

Local cloud is not a recognized deployment model. Cloud models include public, private, and
hybrid clouds.

Q4

Cloud computing allows for which of the following?

Fixed capacity

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Unlimited scalability

Local-only access

Hardware dependence

Answer: Unlimited scalability

Explanation

Cloud computing offers scalability, allowing users to scale resources up or down based on their
needs.

Q5

What key factor distinguishes cloud computing from traditional IT infrastructures?

Decentralization

Centralized hardware

On-site management

Manual updates

Answer: Decentralization

Explanation

Cloud computing decentralizes resources, providing access from various locations via the
internet.

Q6

Which type of cloud service primarily offers virtualized hardware resources?

SaaS
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IaaS

PaaS

DaaS

Answer: IaaS

Explanation

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides virtualized computing resources over the internet.

Q7

Which of the following technologies is most commonly used in cloud computing?

Virtualization

Blockchain

Quantum computing

Augmented reality

Q8

Which command in AWS CLI can you use to configure a default profile for cloud access?

aws configure

aws init

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aws setup

aws create-user

Answer: aws configure

Explanation

The aws configure command is used to set up default access and secret keys for AWS services.

Q9

A company moved to a cloud environment, but users are facing slow data access times. What
could be the cause?

Insufficient bandwidth

Automatic scaling

Virtualization

Dedicated server allocation

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Answer: Insufficient bandwidth

Explanation

Slow data access can often be attributed to limited bandwidth or network issues. Cloud
environments rely heavily on network infrastructure.

Q10

Which of the following is an example of Software as a Service (SaaS)?

Microsoft Azure

Amazon EC2

Google Docs

VMware

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Answer: Google Docs

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Explanation

Google Docs is a SaaS offering, providing software over the internet without requiring
installation on a local device.

Q11

In which cloud service model does the provider manage everything from hardware to
applications?

IaaS

PaaS

SaaS

DaaS

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Answer: SaaS

Explanation
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In SaaS, the provider manages both the underlying infrastructure and the software applications
for the user.

Q12

Which of the following is a key benefit of Platform as a Service (PaaS)?

Full hardware control

Faster development

Manual scaling

Increased hardware flexibility

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Answer: Faster development

Explanation

PaaS allows developers to build, test, and deploy applications faster, without managing
underlying hardware.

Q13
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In the IaaS model, which of the following is the responsibility of the user?

Application updates

Networking

Operating system

Data backup

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Answer: Operating system

Explanation

In IaaS, the user is responsible for managing operating systems, applications, and data, while
the provider manages infrastructure.

Q14

Which cloud service model is best suited for developers who want to build custom applications
without managing infrastructure?

A
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SaaS

PaaS

IaaS

FaaS

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Answer: PaaS

Explanation

PaaS provides a platform for developers to build applications without needing to manage
infrastructure like servers or storage.

Q15

Which of the following is typically not a responsibility of the cloud provider in an IaaS model?

Networking

B
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Security

Applications

Virtualization

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Answer: Applications

Explanation

In IaaS, the provider manages the hardware, networking, and virtualization, while users handle
applications and data.

Q16

Which service model allows customers to rent virtualized computing resources over the
internet?

SaaS

IaaS

C
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PaaS

DBaaS

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Answer: IaaS

Explanation

IaaS provides users with access to virtualized hardware resources, such as storage and
computing power.

Q17

Which AWS service is an example of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?

AWS Lambda

Amazon EC2

AWS S3

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AWS CloudFormation

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Answer: Amazon EC2

Explanation

Amazon EC2 is an example of IaaS, offering scalable virtual machines in the cloud.

Q18

A company using a SaaS product for their business processes is facing issues with scaling. What
could be the reason?

Lack of cloud resources

SaaS application has limited scalability

Overloaded servers

Network issues

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Answer: SaaS application has limited scalability

Explanation

SaaS applications may have inherent limitations on scalability, especially if they are not designed
for large workloads.

Q19

Which of the following is a public cloud deployment model?

AWS

VMware

Microsoft Azure

Both AWS and Microsoft Azure

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Answer: Both AWS and Microsoft Azure

Explanation

Public cloud models like AWS and Microsoft Azure provide shared infrastructure accessible over
the internet.

Q20

What is a key advantage of a private cloud model?

Shared resources

Increased security

Low cost

Limited scalability

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Answer: Increased security

Explanation

Private cloud offers dedicated infrastructure, enhancing security and privacy compared to public
cloud models.

Q21

Which deployment model combines both private and public cloud features?

Public cloud

Hybrid cloud

Private cloud

Community cloud

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Answer: Hybrid cloud

Explanation

A hybrid cloud integrates public and private cloud infrastructure, allowing data and applications
to be shared between them.

Q22

Which of the following is a characteristic of community cloud deployment?

Infrastructure is shared between several organizations

Infrastructure is managed by a single organization

No scalability

Only available to government organizations

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Answer: Infrastructure is shared between several organizations

Explanation

A community cloud shares infrastructure between multiple organizations with similar concerns.

Q23

Which of the following scenarios is best suited for a hybrid cloud model?

A government agency hosting sensitive data

A startup hosting a website

A large enterprise with varying workloads

A personal blog

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Answer: A large enterprise with varying workloads

Explanation
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Hybrid clouds are ideal for enterprises with variable workloads, allowing them to balance
between private and public clouds.

Q24

What is the primary benefit of a community cloud over a public cloud?

Higher security

Lower cost

No need for maintenance

More scalability

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Answer: Higher security

Explanation

A community cloud offers enhanced security and privacy, as it is shared only by a specific group
of organizations.

Q25
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In Google Cloud Platform (GCP), which command can be used to create a new virtual machine
instance in a public cloud environment?

gcloud init

gcloud compute instances create

gcloud vm create

gcloud new vm

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Answer: gcloud compute instances create

Explanation

The command gcloud compute instances create is used to create a new virtual machine
instance in GCP's public cloud.

Q26

Which Azure service is used to deploy applications across a hybrid cloud model?

A
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Azure Stack

Azure Kubernetes Service

Azure VMs

Azure Functions

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Answer: Azure Stack

Explanation

Azure Stack allows enterprises to run Azure services on their own private cloud while
connecting to the public cloud for hybrid deployment.

Q27

Which AWS service is ideal for deploying applications in a private cloud environment?

AWS Direct Connect

B
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AWS Lambda

AWS EC2

AWS VPC

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Answer: AWS VPC

Explanation

AWS VPC (Virtual Private Cloud) allows you to create a private cloud within AWS, with control
over networking.

Q28

In a hybrid cloud setup, which AWS tool helps securely connect an on-premises private cloud to
the AWS public cloud?

AWS VPN

AWS Direct Connect

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AWS Lambda

AWS CloudFormation

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Answer: AWS Direct Connect

Explanation

AWS Direct Connect enables a dedicated network connection between an on-premises private
cloud and AWS public cloud for seamless integration.

Q29

A company using a public cloud environment is facing data security concerns. What could be a
possible solution?

Move to a hybrid cloud

Upgrade public cloud security

Use more encryption

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Migrate to private cloud

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Answer: Move to a hybrid cloud

Explanation

A hybrid cloud allows sensitive data to be stored in a private cloud, while utilizing the public
cloud for less sensitive workloads.

Q30

An organization using a private cloud is finding it difficult to scale during peak times. What could
be the solution?

Migrate fully to a public cloud

Move to a hybrid cloud

Increase private cloud resources

Move to a community cloud

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Answer: Move to a hybrid cloud

Explanation

A hybrid cloud enables organizations to maintain their private cloud while using the public cloud
for additional resources during peak times.

12...

Q31

What is the primary benefit of virtualization in cloud computing?

Increased physical servers

Resource optimization

Lower bandwidth usage

Faster network speeds

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Answer: Resource optimization

Explanation

Virtualization allows for better resource utilization by running multiple virtual instances on a
single physical server.

Q32

Which type of hypervisor runs directly on the host's hardware without an underlying operating
system?

Type 1

Type 2

Bare-metal

Both Type 1 and Bare-metal

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Answer: Both Type 1 and Bare-metal

Explanation

Type 1, or bare-metal hypervisors, run directly on the hardware, providing high performance
and direct access to hardware resources.

Q33

In virtualization, what is the function of a hypervisor?

Manages the virtual machine and hardware interaction

Creates storage clusters

Optimizes network bandwidth

Enhances security

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Answer: Manages the virtual machine and hardware interaction

Explanation

The hypervisor is responsible for managing the interaction between virtual machines and the
underlying hardware.

Q34

Which of the following is NOT a type of virtualization technology?

Desktop virtualization

Network virtualization

Application virtualization

Fiber channel virtualization

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Answer: Fiber channel virtualization

Explanation

Fiber channel is a storage protocol, not a type of virtualization. Common types of virtualization
include desktop, network, and application.

Q35

What is one key advantage of using containers over traditional virtual machines?

More secure

Faster startup time

Requires more resources

Limited isolation

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Answer: Faster startup time

Explanation

Containers are lightweight and share the host OS, leading to faster startup times compared to
traditional virtual machines.

Q36

Which technology is most commonly used to isolate different cloud applications in a single
environment?

Full virtualization

Paravirtualization

Containers

Hybrid virtualization

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Answer: Containers

Explanation
 Cloud Computing OC

Containers allow for isolated application environments, which makes them ideal for cloud
environments where isolation and scalability are key.

Q37

Which command is used to list all Docker containers running on a machine?

docker run

docker ps

docker start

docker exec

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Answer: docker ps

Explanation

The docker ps command lists all running containers in a Docker environment.

Q38
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How would you create a new virtual machine in VMware using the CLI?

vmware create-vm

vm create

vmware-vmcreate

vmware-cmd -s create

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Answer: vmware-cmd -s create

Explanation

The vmware-cmd -s create command is used to create a new virtual machine in VMware from
the command line.

Q39

What is the correct command to launch a container using Docker?

A
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docker run [container_name]

docker launch [container_name]

docker exec [container_name]

docker create [container_name]

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Answer: docker run [container_name]

Explanation

The docker run command is used to launch a new container from a specified image.

Q40

How do you mount a virtual disk image (VDI) to a virtual machine in VirtualBox?

VBoxManage mount-disk

VBoxManage attach-disk
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VBoxManage load-vdi

VBoxManage add-storage

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Answer: VBoxManage attach-disk

Explanation

The VBoxManage attach-disk command attaches a virtual disk image to a virtual machine in
VirtualBox.

Q41

A virtual machine in your cloud environment is experiencing slow performance. What could be a
likely cause?

Insufficient CPU allocation

Network failure

Disk corruption
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Over-provisioned RAM

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Answer: Insufficient CPU allocation

Explanation

If the virtual machine has been allocated insufficient CPU resources, it can result in slow
performance.

Q42

A containerized application in a virtualized environment is not able to access the host network.
What could be the issue?

Misconfigured network bridge

Container not started

Disk space issue

Insufficient permissions
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Answer: Misconfigured network bridge

Explanation

A misconfigured network bridge could prevent the container from accessing the host network,
affecting communication.

Q43

A company using virtual machines is experiencing resource contention between the VMs. What
could be the solution?

Add more physical servers

Use better storage

Optimize VM resource allocation

Install security patches

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Answer: Optimize VM resource allocation

Explanation

Optimizing resource allocation ensures that VMs do not over-utilize shared hardware resources,
preventing contention.

Q44

Which of the following is an example of object storage in the cloud?

Google Cloud Storage

Amazon RDS

Microsoft Azure Blob Storage

Amazon S3

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Answer: Amazon S3

Explanation

Amazon S3 is an object storage service where data is stored as objects, allowing for high
scalability.

Q45

What is the main advantage of using cloud storage over traditional on-premise storage?

Higher security

Faster access

Scalability

More control

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Answer: Scalability

Explanation

Cloud storage offers the ability to scale storage space dynamically as needed, unlike traditional
storage solutions.

Q46

Which type of cloud storage is best suited for storing frequently accessed data?

Cold storage

Archival storage

Object storage

Block storage

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Answer: Object storage

Explanation

Object storage is ideal for frequently accessed data as it allows for easy retrieval and scalability.

Q47

Which of the following cloud storage services is primarily designed for structured data?

Amazon S3

Google Cloud Storage

Amazon DynamoDB

Azure Blob Storage

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Answer: Amazon DynamoDB

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Explanation

Amazon DynamoDB is a NoSQL database service, optimized for structured data and high-
performance access.

Q48

What is a common use case for block storage in cloud computing?

Large data archives

Databases and boot volumes

Backup of infrequent data

Image hosting

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Answer: Databases and boot volumes

Explanation

Block storage is commonly used for databases and boot volumes due to its high performance
and low latency.
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Q49

Which cloud storage technology allows for high availability and automatic replication across
multiple regions?

Object storage

File storage

Block storage

Distributed storage

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Answer: Distributed storage

Explanation

Distributed storage systems replicate data across multiple regions to ensure high availability and
resilience.

Q50

Which command is used in AWS CLI to upload a file to an S3 bucket?

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aws s3 upload

aws s3 cp

aws s3 put

aws s3 send

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Answer: aws s3 cp

Explanation

The aws s3 cp command is used to upload files to an S3 bucket in AWS.

Q51

In Google Cloud Storage, which command is used to list objects in a bucket?

gsutil ls

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gsutil list

gcloud storage list

gcloud storage ls

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Answer: gsutil ls

Explanation

The gsutil ls command is used to list the contents (objects) of a bucket in Google Cloud Storage.

Q52

How would you create a new storage bucket in AWS using the CLI?

aws s3 create-bucket

aws s3 mb bucket

aws s3 cp bucket
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aws s3 make-bucket

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Answer: aws s3 mb bucket

Explanation

The aws s3 mb bucket command creates a new bucket in Amazon S3.

Q53

What is the correct command to copy a file from an Azure Blob Storage container to your local
machine using the Azure CLI?

az storage blob download

az storage cp

az storage blob get

az storage blob copy

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Answer: az storage blob download

Explanation

The az storage blob download command is used to download files from an Azure Blob Storage
container to a local machine.

Q54

A user is unable to access a file stored in Amazon S3. What could be the likely cause?

Incorrect bucket permissions

File is corrupt

The bucket is deleted

Invalid file format

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Answer: Incorrect bucket permissions

Explanation

In S3, incorrect permissions on the bucket or file can prevent access, even if the file exists.

Q55

A company is experiencing slow retrieval times when accessing data stored in cold cloud
storage. What could be the issue?

Bandwidth issues

Cold storage retrieval latency

Overloaded cloud servers

Low disk space

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Answer: Cold storage retrieval latency

Explanation

Cold storage is optimized for long-term storage and may have higher retrieval latencies
compared to other types of storage.

Q56

A cloud storage solution is reporting out-of-space errors even though it should have auto-
scaling. What could be the problem?

Quota limits on storage

Network issues

Permission issues

Data corruption

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Answer: Quota limits on storage

Explanation

Even with auto-scaling, cloud storage solutions may have quota limits that can prevent further
allocation of space.

Q57

What is the most common security risk in cloud computing?

Data breaches

Natural disasters

Increased latency

Hardware failures

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Answer: Data breaches

Explanation

Data breaches are one of the most common risks in cloud computing due to the accessibility of
data over the internet.

Q58

Which of the following is a security feature commonly provided by cloud service providers?

Automated scaling

Firewall protection

Network acceleration

Reduced storage costs

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Answer: Firewall protection

Explanation

Cloud service providers often offer firewall protection as part of their security features to
protect against unauthorized access.

Q59

What is a key role of encryption in cloud security?

Increase storage

Enhance user experience

Protect data at rest and in transit

Reduce latency

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Answer: Protect data at rest and in transit

Explanation
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Encryption is critical in cloud security as it protects data both at rest (stored) and in transit
(moving between locations).

Q60

Which of the following is a shared responsibility between the cloud provider and the customer?

Securing physical infrastructure

Data encryption

Firewall configuration

Network hardware maintenance

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Answer: Data encryption

Explanation

In cloud security, the provider ensures physical security, while the customer is responsible for
securing data through encryption.

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Q61

In cloud environments, what is the purpose of identity and access management (IAM)?

Controlling user access to resources

Reducing latency

Managing storage

Controlling physical security

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Answer: Controlling user access to resources

Explanation

IAM helps ensure that only authorized users can access specific resources in a cloud
environment, enhancing security.

Q62

Which of the following cloud security models ensures that data is protected while being
processed?
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Encryption at rest

Data masking

Homomorphic encryption

Symmetric encryption

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Answer: Homomorphic encryption

Explanation

Homomorphic encryption allows data to be processed without needing to decrypt it, providing
security even during data processing.

Q63

Which AWS service can be used to enable encryption for data stored in Amazon S3?

AWS Shield
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AWS CloudTrail

AWS KMS

AWS EC2

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Answer: AWS KMS

Explanation

AWS Key Management Service (KMS) allows for the creation and control of encryption keys
used to encrypt data stored in S3.

Q64

Which command would you use in AWS CLI to enable server-side encryption on an S3 bucket?

aws s3 enable-encryption

aws s3api put-bucket-encryption

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aws s3api set-encryption

aws s3 secure-bucket

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Answer: aws s3api put-bucket-encryption

Explanation

The aws s3api put-bucket-encryption command enables server-side encryption for an S3 bucket.

Q65

What command would you use to retrieve the IAM policy for an AWS user using the AWS CLI?

aws iam get-user-policy

aws iam describe-policy

aws iam list-users

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aws iam get-user

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Answer: aws iam get-user-policy

Explanation

The aws iam get-user-policy command retrieves the IAM policy for a specific AWS user, helping
manage permissions.

Q66

A cloud user is unable to access resources they previously had access to. What is the likely
issue?

Incorrect IAM policy

Network failure

Hardware malfunction

Server downtime

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Answer: Incorrect IAM policy

Explanation

Changes to IAM policies can restrict access to resources, and users may lose access if the
policies are misconfigured.

Q67

A company notices unusual login activities in their cloud environment. What is the most
immediate security action to take?

Disable all user accounts

Reset all passwords

Enable multi-factor authentication

Shut down all services

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Answer: Enable multi-factor authentication

Explanation

Enabling multi-factor authentication adds an extra layer of security to prevent unauthorized

access, especially during suspicious login activities.

Q68

A company is facing a data breach in their cloud infrastructure. What is the first step in
mitigating the breach?

Shut down the entire cloud system

Notify customers

Isolate the affected system

Update software patches

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Answer: Isolate the affected system

Explanation

Isolating the affected system helps contain the breach while preventing further damage or data
loss.

Q69

What is the primary purpose of Identity and Access Management (IAM) in cloud computing?

Manage cloud costs

Control access to resources

Increase network speed

Enhance data storage

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Answer: Control access to resources

Explanation

IAM controls access to cloud resources by managing users, permissions, and roles.

Q70

Which of the following is a core feature of IAM?

Network management

Encryption

User authentication

Data storage

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Answer: User authentication

Explanation

IAM ensures secure authentication of users and manages their access to resources.

Q71

In cloud IAM, what is the purpose of role-based access control (RBAC)?

To allocate network bandwidth

To limit data storage

To assign permissions based on roles

To increase computational power

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Answer: To assign permissions based on roles

Explanation
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RBAC assigns permissions based on the user's role in the organization, ensuring proper access
controls.

Q72

Which of the following is NOT part of a typical IAM system?

User identities

Resource access

Bandwidth allocation

Permission policies

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Answer: Bandwidth allocation

Explanation

IAM focuses on managing user identities, permissions, and access to resources, not network
bandwidth.

Q73
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What is the difference between an IAM user and an IAM role in cloud computing?

Roles are used for programmatic access

Users require more permissions

Users represent individuals, roles are assigned to entities

Roles have no permissions

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Answer: Users represent individuals, roles are assigned to entities

Explanation

Users are individual accounts, while roles are assigned to services or applications requiring
access to resources.

Q74

Which AWS CLI command is used to create a new IAM user?

A
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aws iam create-user

aws iam add-user

aws iam new-user

aws iam make-user

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Answer: aws iam create-user

Explanation

The aws iam create-user command is used to create a new IAM user account in AWS.

Q75

How would you assign a new IAM policy to a user using the AWS CLI?

aws iam assign-policy

aws iam put-user-policy

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aws iam attach-user-policy

aws iam set-policy

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Answer: aws iam attach-user-policy

Explanation

The aws iam attach-user-policy command is used to attach a managed policy to a specific IAM
user.

Q76

How would you create a new role with specific permissions in Google Cloud IAM using gcloud
CLI?

gcloud iam create-role

gcloud create-iam-role

gcloud iam new-role

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gcloud iam define-role

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Answer: gcloud iam create-role

Explanation

The gcloud iam create-role command creates a new role with specific permissions in Google
Cloud.

Q77

A user is unable to access a cloud resource even though they have been granted permissions.
What could be the cause?

Incorrect IAM policy

Network issues

Storage limit exceeded

Software bugs
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Answer: Incorrect IAM policy

Explanation

An incorrect or misconfigured IAM policy can prevent users from accessing resources despite
granted permissions.

Q78

A user has been granted access to multiple cloud resources but is unable to perform actions in
some of them. What is the likely issue?

Overlapping IAM policies

Insufficient permissions

Network latency

Incorrect user role

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Answer: Insufficient permissions

Explanation

The user may not have sufficient permissions for specific resources, leading to limited access.

Q79

An organization is facing unauthorized access issues despite having IAM policies in place. What
could be a potential solution?

Implement multi-factor authentication

Increase user permissions

Disable unused user accounts

Enable network encryption

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Answer: Implement multi-factor authentication

Explanation

Enabling multi-factor authentication adds an extra layer of security to prevent unauthorized

access.

Q80

What is the purpose of a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) in cloud networking?

Provide physical storage

Securely connect on-premise to cloud

Manage identity access

Increase processing speed

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Answer: Securely connect on-premise to cloud

Explanation

A VPC allows for a secure and isolated environment within the cloud for connecting on-premise
resources.

Q81

Which of the following is a core component of cloud networking?

Virtual Machines

Security Groups

Load Balancers

File Storage

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Answer: Load Balancers

Explanation

Load balancers distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers, improving
performance and reliability.

Q82

What role do subnets play in a cloud networking environment?

They route network traffic

They isolate network segments

They store user data

They secure databases

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Answer: They isolate network segments

Explanation

Subnets help divide a larger network into smaller, isolated sections, improving security and
traffic management.

Q83

Which service allows for direct, private connectivity between a customer's data center and a
cloud provider?

VPN

Direct Connect

Load Balancer

NAT Gateway

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Answer: Direct Connect

Explanation
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Services like AWS Direct Connect and Azure ExpressRoute enable private, secure connections
between on-premise data centers and cloud services.

Q84

Which cloud networking model provides scalability by abstracting the network layer entirely?

Traditional Networking

Overlay Networking

Underlay Networking

Cloud-Native Networking

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Answer: Cloud-Native Networking

Explanation

Cloud-native networking abstracts the underlying network layer, providing automatic scaling
and resource management.

Q85
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Which AWS command lists the available subnets in a specific region?

aws ec2 describe-subnets

aws ec2 list-subnets

aws vpc describe-subnets

aws ec2 show-subnets

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Answer: aws ec2 describe-subnets

Explanation

The aws ec2 describe-subnets command provides details about the subnets in a specific region
in AWS.

Q86

How would you create a new Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) in AWS using the CLI?

A
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aws vpc create-vpc

aws ec2 create-vpc

aws vpc new-vpc

aws ec2 build-vpc

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Answer: aws ec2 create-vpc

Explanation

The aws ec2 create-vpc command is used to create a new VPC in AWS.

Q87

How would you attach an internet gateway to a VPC in AWS using the CLI?

aws ec2 attach-igw

aws ec2 create-gateway

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aws ec2 attach-internet-gateway

aws ec2 add-igw

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Answer: aws ec2 attach-internet-gateway

Explanation

The aws ec2 attach-internet-gateway command is used to attach an internet gateway to a VPC
for internet connectivity.

Q88

In Google Cloud, what is the command to create a new VPC using the gcloud CLI?

gcloud compute networks create

gcloud create-vpc

gcloud compute new-vpc

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gcloud build-vpc

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Answer: gcloud compute networks create

Explanation

The gcloud compute networks create command creates a new VPC in Google Cloud.

Q89

A user is unable to access their cloud resource over the internet. What could be a possible
reason?

The VPC is not created

The internet gateway is not attached

Insufficient storage

Incorrect IAM policy

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Answer: The internet gateway is not attached

Explanation

Without an attached internet gateway, resources in a VPC cannot be accessed over the public
internet.

Q90

A company is facing slow data transfers between their on-premise data center and the cloud.
What could be the issue?

High network latency

Data encryption

Over-provisioned servers

Incorrect IAM permissions

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Answer: High network latency

Explanation

High latency can slow down data transfers between an on-premise data center and cloud
resources.

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Q91

A company using cloud services is experiencing IP conflicts between their resources. What is a
potential solution?

Increase server resources

Use multiple VPCs

Reduce security rules

Switch to a public cloud model

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Answer: Use multiple VPCs

Explanation

Using multiple VPCs can help isolate resources, reducing the risk of IP conflicts within the cloud
network.

Q92

Which of the following is a primary consideration when managing a cloud deployment?

CPU performance

Security

Backup frequency

User authentication

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Answer: Security

Explanation

Security is a key concern when managing cloud deployments, as it ensures data and applications
are protected.

Q93

What does auto-scaling help achieve in cloud deployments?

Reduced storage

Automatic billing

Optimal resource usage

Improved network speeds

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Answer: Optimal resource usage

Explanation

Auto-scaling adjusts resources automatically based on demand, ensuring optimal resource

usage.

Q94

What is a significant challenge in managing multi-cloud deployments?

Increased latency

Complex identity management

Limited scalability

Reduced data privacy

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Answer: Complex identity management

Explanation

Managing identities and permissions across multiple cloud providers can be challenging in
multi-cloud environments.

Q95

In cloud deployment, what is the main advantage of Infrastructure as Code (IaC)?

Reduced manual errors

Improved security

Faster data transfer

Better storage

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Answer: Reduced manual errors

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Explanation

IaC allows for automated, repeatable deployment configurations, reducing manual errors in the
deployment process.

Q96

Which of the following strategies is essential for managing disaster recovery in cloud
deployments?

Regular testing

Increased encryption

Smaller virtual machines

Low latency connections

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Answer: Regular testing

Explanation
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Regular testing ensures that disaster recovery plans are effective and can be executed
successfully during an emergency.

Q97

In AWS, how would you update an existing CloudFormation stack to deploy new resources?

aws cloudformation update-stack

aws cloudformation change-stack

aws ec2 update-stack

aws vpc update-stack

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Answer: aws cloudformation update-stack

Explanation

The aws cloudformation update-stack command updates an existing CloudFormation stack to

include new resources or configurations.

Q98
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How would you deploy an application to Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE) using the gcloud CLI?

gcloud app deploy

gcloud container deploy

kubectl apply

gcloud kubernetes deploy

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Answer: kubectl apply

Explanation

The kubectl apply command is used to deploy applications to Kubernetes clusters, including
GKE.

Q99

What command in AWS CLI would you use to provision resources using Terraform?

A
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terraform create

terraform apply

terraform start

terraform deploy

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Answer: terraform apply

Explanation

The terraform apply command provisions resources defined in the Terraform configuration file.

Q100

How would you define a multi-cloud deployment using Terraform configuration?

Define multiple provider blocks

Use the same provider block

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Define a single cloud block

Use one cloud and multiple regions

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Answer: Define multiple provider blocks

Explanation

Multiple provider blocks in Terraform allow you to manage infrastructure across multiple cloud
providers in a single configuration.

Q101

A company’s auto-scaling group is not scaling resources as expected in AWS. What could be the
cause?

Insufficient monitoring

Improper scaling policy

Too many instances

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Insufficient storage

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Answer: Improper scaling policy

Explanation

An improperly defined scaling policy can prevent auto-scaling groups from adjusting resources
as expected.

Q102

A cloud application deployed using Kubernetes is showing high latency. What could be a
potential reason?

Insufficient CPU allocation

Misconfigured pods

Over-provisioned nodes

Large disk storage

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Answer: Misconfigured pods

Explanation

Misconfigured pods or resource limits in a Kubernetes deployment can result in high latency or
performance issues.

Q103

A multi-cloud deployment is facing issues with data synchronization between clouds. What
could be the cause?

Slow storage

Different cloud APIs

Network misconfiguration

Incorrect IAM policies

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Answer: Network misconfiguration

Explanation

A misconfigured network can result in data synchronization problems between different cloud
providers in a multi-cloud deployment.

Q104

Which regulation is often a requirement for companies handling customer data in Europe?

HIPAA

GDPR

SOC 2

PCI-DSS

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Answer: GDPR

Explanation

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the
collection and processing of personal information from individuals who live in the European
Union (EU).

Q105

What does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulate in cloud
computing?

Payment systems

Medical data protection

Financial reporting

Storage limits

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Answer: Medical data protection

Explanation

HIPAA sets guidelines for securing medical data and protecting patient privacy, which also
applies to cloud computing environments where health data is stored.

Q106

Which of the following is a cloud compliance standard for financial data?

GDPR

ISO 27001

PCI-DSS

HIPAA

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Answer: PCI-DSS

Explanation

PCI-DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is specifically designed for ensuring the
security of credit card information.

Q107

What is the role of ISO 27001 in cloud compliance?

Ensures scalability

Protects against data breaches

Sets standards for information security

Monitors CPU usage

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Answer: Sets standards for information security

Explanation

ISO 27001 establishes an international standard for information security management systems,
applicable in cloud computing.

Q108

Which of the following is a key challenge in ensuring cloud compliance across different regions?

Regulatory diversity

Scalability issues

High costs

Inconsistent data types

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Answer: Regulatory diversity

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Explanation

Different regions may have varied regulatory frameworks, making it challenging for
organizations to ensure compliance across multiple jurisdictions.

Q109

In AWS, how would you enable logging for compliance audits in S3?

aws s3 enable-logs

aws s3 set-logging

aws s3api put-bucket-logging

aws s3api set-logging

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Answer: aws s3api put-bucket-logging

Explanation

The aws s3api put-bucket-logging command enables logging for an S3 bucket, which is crucial
for audit compliance.
 Cloud Computing OC

Q110

Which command in Google Cloud would you use to export audit logs for compliance purposes?

gcloud logging export

gcloud logs transfer

gcloud audit export

gcloud logging logs export

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Answer: gcloud logging export

Explanation

The gcloud logging export command is used to export logs in Google Cloud, which can be
essential for compliance audits.

Q111

A company is failing a compliance audit due to improper data encryption. What could be the
reason?
 Cloud Computing OC

Incorrect encryption algorithm

Slow network speeds

Insufficient cloud resources

High latency

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Answer: Incorrect encryption algorithm

Explanation

Using the wrong encryption algorithm can result in non-compliance with data protection
regulations like GDPR or PCI-DSS.

Q112

A company is struggling to comply with local data residency requirements. What solution could
help?

Multi-region backups
 Cloud Computing OC

End-to-end encryption

Use of local cloud data centers

Faster storage

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Answer: Use of local cloud data centers

Explanation

Data residency regulations often require companies to store data within specific geographic
regions, making local cloud data centers a necessary solution.

Q113

A company using multiple cloud providers is facing issues with maintaining consistent
compliance. What could be the problem?

Different compliance frameworks

Cloud provider limitations

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High data storage costs

Overlapping identities

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Answer: Different compliance frameworks

Explanation

Different cloud providers may adhere to different compliance standards, making it challenging
to ensure uniform compliance across the board.

Q114

What is the key advantage of building a cloud-native application over a traditional application?

Enhanced security

Manual scaling

Automatic scaling
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Costly maintenance

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Answer: Automatic scaling

Explanation

Cloud-native applications are built to scale automatically, which adjusts resources based on
demand.

Q115

Which of the following architecture patterns is most suited for building scalable cloud
applications?

Monolithic

Serverless

Client-server

Peer-to-peer
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Answer: Serverless

Explanation

Serverless architectures allow for scaling without worrying about the underlying infrastructure,
making it ideal for building scalable cloud applications.

Q116

What is a major challenge when scaling a stateful cloud application?

Managing session state

Scaling resources

Optimizing CPU usage

Maintaining network speed

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Answer: Managing session state

Explanation

Scaling stateful applications is difficult because session data must be managed and synchronized
across instances.

Q117

Which of the following is an optimal approach for handling massive read/write operations in a
scalable cloud database?

Horizontal scaling

Vertical scaling

Use of a monolithic database

Only increasing storage

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Answer: Horizontal scaling

Explanation

Horizontal scaling, by distributing the database load across multiple nodes, helps handle
massive operations efficiently.

Q118

How would you define an auto-scaling policy for an AWS EC2 instance using the CLI?

aws ec2 auto-scale

aws autoscaling create-auto-scaling-group

aws ec2 create-scale-policy

aws cloud create-auto-scaling

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Answer: aws autoscaling create-auto-scaling-group

Explanation

The aws autoscaling create-auto-scaling-group command is used to create an auto-scaling

group, enabling dynamic scaling of resources based on policies.

Q119

How would you configure an application load balancer in AWS using the CLI for a scalable web
application?

aws elb create

aws ec2 configure-load-balancer

aws elbv2 create-load-balancer

aws ec2 create-lb

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Answer: aws elbv2 create-load-balancer

Explanation

The aws elbv2 create-load-balancer command is used to configure an application load balancer,
a critical component for scaling web applications.

Q120

A cloud application is experiencing performance issues due to increased traffic. What could be a
solution?

Increase memory

Implement auto-scaling

Use larger VMs

Upgrade network speed

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Answer: Implement auto-scaling

Explanation

Implementing auto-scaling allows resources to dynamically adjust based on traffic, preventing

performance bottlenecks.

1...

Q121

A highly scalable cloud application is experiencing database connection issues under load. What
could be the issue?

Database throttling

Lack of CPU

Slow storage

Low network bandwidth

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Answer: Database throttling

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Explanation

Database throttling under heavy load can limit the number of active connections, causing
performance issues in scalable applications.

Q122

What is the primary goal of a disaster recovery plan in cloud computing?

Reduce costs

Prevent security breaches

Minimize downtime

Increase performance

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Answer: Minimize downtime

Explanation

The primary goal of disaster recovery is to ensure business continuity by minimizing downtime
and restoring services quickly.
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Q123

What is the main difference between disaster recovery (DR) and high availability (HA)?

HA focuses on performance

DR focuses on quick recovery

HA prevents downtime

DR increases scalability

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Answer: DR focuses on quick recovery

Explanation

Disaster recovery ensures quick recovery after an incident, while high availability aims to
prevent downtime through redundancy.

Q124

Which of the following strategies is most effective in ensuring business continuity during a
regional cloud outage?
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Vertical scaling

Data replication across regions

Increased encryption

Single data center approach

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Answer: Data replication across regions

Explanation

Replicating data across multiple regions ensures that services can continue even if one region
experiences an outage.

Q125

What is a common challenge when implementing a disaster recovery plan in a multi-cloud

environment?

High costs
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Cross-cloud data synchronization

Faster recovery times

Reduced compliance

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Answer: Cross-cloud data synchronization

Explanation

Synchronizing data across different cloud providers can be complex and is a key challenge in
multi-cloud disaster recovery plans.

Q126

How would you configure automatic backups for an Amazon RDS instance to support disaster
recovery?

aws rds create-backup

aws rds enable-backup

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aws rds modify-db-instance

aws rds backup-db

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Answer: aws rds modify-db-instance

Explanation

The aws rds modify-db-instance command allows you to enable automatic backups for an RDS
instance, critical for disaster recovery.

Q127

How would you set up cross-region replication in Amazon S3 using the CLI for disaster recovery
purposes?

aws s3 enable-replication

aws s3api create-replication-rule

aws s3 cp
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aws s3 configure-replication

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Answer: aws s3api create-replication-rule

Explanation

The aws s3api create-replication-rule command sets up cross-region replication, which ensures
data availability in multiple regions.

Q128

A company is unable to restore its cloud application quickly after a failure. What could be the
issue?

Inadequate backup frequency

Improper storage configuration

Insufficient CPU resources

High latency
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Answer: Inadequate backup frequency

Explanation

If backups are not frequent enough, data loss can occur, making it harder to restore applications
quickly.

Q129

After a cloud disaster, a business is facing a longer recovery time than expected. What could be
the cause?

Lack of automated failover

Insufficient storage

Network misconfiguration

Application scaling issues

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Answer: Lack of automated failover

Explanation

Automated failover ensures that services switch to backup resources during a failure,
minimizing downtime and recovery time.

Q130

What is the primary purpose of cloud monitoring tools?

To increase storage

To ensure performance and availability

To manage costs

To prevent scaling

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Answer: To ensure performance and availability

Explanation

Cloud monitoring tools are designed to track the performance and availability of cloud
resources, ensuring optimal functionality.

Q131

Which of the following metrics is crucial for monitoring the health of a cloud application?

CPU utilization

Latency

Data transfer speed

All of the above

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Answer: All of the above

Explanation

CPU utilization, latency, and data transfer speed are key metrics that can indicate the health of
cloud applications.

Q132

What is a common challenge with cloud monitoring in a multi-cloud environment?

High bandwidth

Too many virtual machines

Inconsistent metrics across providers

Limited scaling

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Answer: Inconsistent metrics across providers

Explanation

Different cloud providers may use different metrics and standards, making unified monitoring
more challenging.

Q133

How would you enable CloudWatch logging for an AWS EC2 instance using the AWS CLI?

aws ec2 enable-logging

aws cloudwatch enable

aws logs start-logging

aws ec2 associate-iam-instance-profile

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Answer: aws ec2 associate-iam-instance-profile

Explanation

The aws ec2 associate-iam-instance-profile command allows the EC2 instance to interact with
CloudWatch for logging and monitoring.

Q134

How would you create a custom CloudWatch alarm for high CPU utilization using the AWS CLI?

aws cloudwatch create-alarm

aws cloudwatch new-alarm

aws ec2 create-alarm

aws logs create-metric

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Answer: aws cloudwatch create-alarm

Explanation
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The aws cloudwatch create-alarm command is used to set up alarms in CloudWatch based on
predefined metrics like CPU utilization.

Q135

A cloud application is experiencing intermittent downtime. What metric should you monitor to
identify the issue?

CPU utilization

Latency

Number of active sessions

Disk usage

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Answer: Latency

Explanation

Latency spikes often indicate network or performance issues that can lead to intermittent
downtime in cloud applications.
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Q136

A company using multiple cloud services is struggling with unified monitoring. What could be a
solution?

Use a third-party monitoring tool

Limit usage to a single cloud

Increase logging frequency

Use manual checks

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Answer: Use a third-party monitoring tool

Explanation

Third-party tools like Datadog or New Relic can unify monitoring across multiple cloud
platforms, providing consolidated metrics.

Q137

Which of the following is a key benefit of using serverless computing in the cloud?
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Reduced latency

Improved security

No server management

Lower storage costs

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Answer: No server management

Explanation

Serverless computing allows developers to focus on code without worrying about managing or
provisioning servers.

Q138

How does edge computing complement cloud computing in emerging technologies?

By increasing data storage

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By processing data closer to the source

By increasing bandwidth

By reducing CPU usage

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Answer: By processing data closer to the source

Explanation

Edge computing processes data closer to the source (e.g., IoT devices), reducing latency and
enhancing performance.

Q139

What is the main advantage of using quantum computing in cloud environments?

Enhanced encryption

High processing power for complex computations

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Low storage requirements

Easy to implement

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Answer: High processing power for complex computations

Explanation

Quantum computing offers immense computational power, ideal for solving complex problems
that classical computers struggle with.

Q140

How would you deploy a containerized application using AWS Fargate, a serverless compute
engine for containers?

aws ecs create-cluster

aws fargate deploy-app

aws ecs run-task

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aws ecr start-app

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Answer: aws ecs run-task

Explanation

The aws ecs run-task command is used to run containers in AWS Fargate, which automates
container management without managing servers.

Q141

How would you configure a blockchain node on a cloud platform like AWS using the CLI?

aws ec2 create-blockchain

aws blockchain setup-node

aws managedblockchain create-node

aws ec2 run-instance

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Answer: aws managedblockchain create-node

Explanation

The aws managedblockchain create-node command is used to set up a blockchain node on AWS
Managed Blockchain.

Q142

A cloud application using edge computing is experiencing high latency. What could be the
cause?

Insufficient edge resources

High cloud provider costs

Too many users

Lack of encryption

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Answer: Insufficient edge resources

Explanation

Edge computing relies on resources closer to the data source, and insufficient resources could
lead to higher latency.

Q143

A company implementing quantum computing in the cloud is facing issues with data stability.
What could be the cause?

Inconsistent cloud APIs

Quantum decoherence

Lack of CPU resources

Slow storage speed

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Answer: Quantum decoherence

Explanation

Quantum decoherence is a common issue in quantum computing, where quantum states lose
stability, affecting data processing.

Q144

What is a primary challenge when migrating legacy systems to the cloud?

Improved performance

Increased security

Application compatibility

Lower costs

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Answer: Application compatibility

Explanation

Legacy systems may not be designed for the cloud, causing compatibility issues during
migration.

Q145

What is the main benefit of using the "lift and shift" migration strategy?

Requires less code modification

Ensures compliance

Improves security

Reduces latency

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Answer: Requires less code modification

Explanation

Lift and shift moves existing applications to the cloud with minimal changes, making migration
faster and easier.

Q146

Which of the following migration strategies involves redesigning an application for the cloud?

Re-hosting

Re-platforming

Re-purchasing

Re-factoring

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Answer: Re-factoring

Explanation

Re-factoring involves re-architecting an application to take full advantage of cloud-native

features.

Q147

How would you use the AWS CLI to migrate a database to Amazon RDS?

aws db migrate

aws rds start-db-migration

aws dms create-migration-task

aws rds sync-db

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Answer: aws dms create-migration-task

Explanation
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The aws dms create-migration-task command is used to migrate databases to Amazon RDS
using AWS Database Migration Service.

Q148

How would you perform a live migration of a virtual machine to Google Cloud using the CLI?

gcloud compute instances live-migrate

gcloud vm migrate

gcloud compute migrate-vm

gcloud instance move

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Answer: gcloud compute instances live-migrate

Explanation

The gcloud compute instances live-migrate command is used to perform live migrations of
virtual machines in Google Cloud.

Q149
 Cloud Computing OC

A company migrating to the cloud is experiencing extended downtime. What could be a

potential issue?

Incomplete data migration

Excessive costs

Too many users

Insufficient permissions

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Answer: Incomplete data migration

Explanation

Incomplete or poorly planned data migration can lead to downtime during the migration
process.

Q150

A cloud migration is complete, but the application is running slower than expected. What could
be the cause?
 Cloud Computing OC

Misconfigured network settings

Too many security layers

Serverless architecture issues

Increased storage space

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Answer: Misconfigured network settings

Explanation

Network settings may not be optimized for the cloud environment, resulting in poor application
performance post-migration.