1.

A couple is considering using the Standard Days

Method. Which of the following factors would make
this method LESS reliable for them?
a) The woman has consistently regular cycles.
b) The woman's cycles vary by more than a few
days.
c) The woman meticulously tracks her basal body
temperature.
d) The couple is highly motivated to accurately
follow the method.

Rationale: The Standard Days Method relies on a

predictable cycle length. Cycle variability reduces its
accuracy.

2. Which of the following contraceptive methods offers

the BEST protection against both pregnancy AND
sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
a) Hormonal IUD
b) Diaphragm with spermicide
c) Birth control pill
d) Male condom

Rationale: Only condoms provide a barrier against STIs.

3. A woman experiences breakthrough bleeding while

using a combined oral contraceptive (COC). What is the
MOST likely cause?
a) She is pregnant.
b) She is using an ineffective brand of pill.
c) She is missing pills or taking them inconsistently.
d) She has a serious underlying medical condition.

Rationale: Inconsistent pill-taking is the most common

reason for breakthrough bleeding on COCs.

4. Which of the following BEST describes the

mechanism of action of the copper IUD?
a) It prevents ovulation.
b) It thickens cervical mucus.
c) It creates an inflammatory response in the uterus,
toxic to sperm.
d) It inhibits implantation.

Rationale: The copper IUD's primary mechanism is the

creation of a hostile environment for sperm.

5. A woman is considering sterilization. Which procedure

involves cauterization or cutting of the fallopian tubes?
a) Vasectomy
b) Tubal ligation
c) Essure
d) Both b and c

Rationale: Tubal ligation specifically refers to the

surgical cutting or cauterization of the fallopian tubes.
Essure is a less invasive procedure involving the
placement of small coils to block the tubes.

6. Which of the following contraceptive methods is

LEAST likely to disrupt the natural menstrual cycle?
a) Combined oral contraceptive pill
b) Progestin-only pill
c) Copper IUD
d) Birth control implant

Rationale: The copper IUD is a non-hormonal method,

causing minimal hormonal disruption. However, it can
often lead to heavier bleeding.

7. Which of the following is a potential side effect

associated with progestin-only contraceptives?
a) Weight loss
b) Increased libido
c) Irregular bleeding
d) Decreased risk of blood clots

Rationale: Irregular bleeding or spotting is a common

side effect of progestin-only methods.

8. What is the main difference between a combined oral

contraceptive (COC) and a progestin-only pill (POP)?
a) COCs are more effective.
b) POPs require a prescription.
c) COCs contain both estrogen and progestin, while
POPs contain only progestin.
d) COCs are taken daily, while POPs are taken weekly.

Rationale: This highlights the key hormonal difference

between the two types of pills.

9. A woman is using the calendar method of birth

control. What information is crucial for her to accurately
determine her fertile window?
a) Her basal body temperature
b) Her cervical mucus consistency
c) The length of her menstrual cycles over several
months
d) Her hormone levels

Rationale: The calendar method relies on consistent

cycle length to predict ovulation.

10. Which of the following is NOT a barrier method of

contraception?
a) Diaphragm
b) Cervical cap
c) Male condom
d) Birth control implant

Rationale: Implants are hormonal methods, not barrier

methods.

11. What is the primary mechanism of action for the

hormonal IUD (e.g., Mirena, Kyleena)?
a) It prevents ovulation.
b) It thickens cervical mucus.
c) It creates a hostile environment for sperm.
d) It primarily thickens cervical mucus and thins the
uterine lining.

Rationale: While it can affect ovulation, the primary

mechanism is the alteration of cervical mucus and
uterine lining.
12. Which contraceptive method is often associated with
a slightly increased risk of ectopic pregnancy if
pregnancy occurs despite its use?
a) Combined oral contraceptive pill
b) Intrauterine device (IUD)
c) Condom
d) Diaphragm

Rationale: IUDs, while highly effective, do have a slightly

increased risk of ectopic pregnancy if pregnancy occurs
despite their use.

13. Which of the following factors can affect the

effectiveness of birth control pills?
a) Taking the pill at the same time each day.
b) Interactions with certain medications.
c) Vomiting or diarrhea.
d) All of the above.

Rationale: All listed factors can impact pill effectiveness.

14. What is the term for the surgical sterilization

procedure for men?
a) Vasectomy
b) Tubal ligation
c) Hysterectomy
d) Oophorectomy

Rationale: This tests knowledge of specific terminology.

15. Which of the following methods is considered a long-

acting reversible contraceptive (LARC)?
a) Condom
b) Diaphragm
c) Birth control pill
d) Hormonal IUD

Rationale: LARCs provide long-term contraception that

is easily reversible.

16. Which method requires a fitting by a healthcare

professional?
a) Condom
b) Birth control pill
c) Diaphragm
d) Withdrawal

Rationale: Diaphragms need to be properly fitted to

ensure effectiveness.

17. What is the main advantage of using a fertility

awareness-based method combined with barrier
methods?
a) Increased effectiveness and protection against STIs.
b) Reduced need for tracking menstrual cycles.
c) Eliminates the need for any other contraception.
d) Simplified method with no need for healthcare
provider visits.

Rationale: Combining methods increases both

effectiveness and protection.

18. Which of the following is a potential long-term side

effect of hormonal birth control that warrants discussion
with a healthcare provider?
a) Breast tenderness
b) Mood changes
c) Headaches
d) Persistent high blood pressure

Rationale: Persistent high blood pressure is a serious

side effect requiring medical attention.

19. What is a key consideration when choosing a

contraceptive method?
a) Personal preferences and lifestyle.
b) Medical history and potential health risks.
c) Relationship dynamics and partner involvement.
d) All of the above.

Rationale: A comprehensive approach to contraceptive

selection is essential.

20. Which of the following statements regarding

emergency contraception is TRUE?
a) It is a regular form of birth control.
b) It is most effective when taken as soon as possible
after unprotected sex.
c) It is always 100% effective in preventing pregnancy.
d) It can be used as a substitute for regular birth control.

Rationale: Emergency contraception is intended for use

only in emergency situations and is most effective when
taken promptly.

1. Which type of abortion is performed in the first

trimester using suction to remove the pregnancy
tissue?
a) Induction abortion
b) Dilation and evacuation (D&E)
c) Vacuum aspiration
d) Medication abortion

Rationale: Vacuum aspiration is the most common

method for first-trimester abortions.

2. Which method of abortion uses medication to induce

uterine contractions and expel the pregnancy?
a) Medication abortion
b) Dilation and curettage (D&C)
c) Dilation and evacuation (D&E)
d) Hysterotomy

Rationale: Medication abortion uses pills to induce

miscarriage.

3. Which procedure is typically used for second-

trimester abortions?
a) Vacuum aspiration
b) Medication abortion
c) Dilation and evacuation (D&E)
d) Manual vacuum aspiration

Rationale: D&E is commonly used for later-term

abortions.

4. What is dilation and curettage (D&C)?

a) A method of inducing labor
b) A type of prenatal test
c) A procedure to remove tissue from the uterus
d) A form of emergency contraception

Rationale: D&C is a procedure, often used after

miscarriage or abortion.

5. Which type of abortion is performed later in

pregnancy and involves a surgical incision into the
uterus?
a) Medical abortion
b) Vacuum aspiration
c) Dilation and curettage
d) Hysterotomy

Rationale: Hysterotomy is a surgical abortion performed

later in pregnancy.

6. What is the role of mifepristone in medication

abortion?
a) To induce uterine contractions
b) To block the hormone progesterone, which is
necessary for pregnancy to continue
c) To soften the cervix
d) To remove pregnancy tissue

Rationale: Mifepristone's primary action is blocking

progesterone.

7. Which of the following is a potential complication of

any type of abortion?
a) Infection
b) Heavy bleeding
c) Incomplete abortion requiring further treatment
d) All of the above

Rationale: All options are potential complications.

1. Which assisted reproductive technology (ART)
involves fertilizing an egg outside the body and then
transferring the embryo into the uterus?
a) Artificial insemination
b) In vitro fertilization (IVF)
c) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
d) Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)
Rationale: IVF is the most common ART procedure
where fertilization happens in a lab.

2. What is the primary purpose of ovulation induction

medications?
a) To thicken cervical mucus
b) To prevent implantation
c) To stimulate the ovaries to release multiple eggs
d) To improve sperm motility

Rationale: These medications aim to increase the

chances of fertilization.

3. Which fertility test evaluates the number, shape, and

movement of sperm?
a) Hysterosalpingogram (HSG)
b) Ovulation predictor kit
c) Semen analysis
d) Basal body temperature charting

Rationale: Semen analysis is a crucial assessment of

male fertility.

4. What is a common procedure used to assess the

patency (openness) of the fallopian tubes?
a) Laparoscopy
b) Hysteroscopy
c) Hysterosalpingogram (HSG)
d) Ultrasound

Rationale: HSG uses dye to visualize the fallopian

tubes.

5. Which technique involves surgically retrieving eggs

directly from the ovaries?
a) Artificial insemination
b) Transvaginal oocyte retrieval
c) In vitro maturation
d) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

Rationale: This procedure is often used in IVF cycles.

6. What is the role of a fertility specialist (Reproductive
Endocrinologist)?
a) To perform routine gynecological exams
b) To prescribe birth control pills
c) To diagnose and treat infertility
d) To provide general prenatal care

Rationale: Reproductive endocrinologists specialize in

infertility.

7. What is a potential side effect of fertility medications?

a) Decreased risk of ovarian cysts
b) Reduced risk of multiple pregnancies
c) Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)
d) No significant side effects
1. What is the primary goal of a Reproductive Health
(RH) Bill?
a) To restrict access to contraception.
b) To promote abstinence-only education.
c) To improve maternal and child health by
increasing access to reproductive healthcare
services.
d) To outlaw abortion completely.

Rationale: RH bills generally aim to improve

reproductive health outcomes.

2. Which of the following is typically included in

comprehensive RH legislation?
a) Mandatory sterilization for individuals with multiple
children.
b) Restrictions on access to emergency contraception.
c) Access to family planning services, including
contraception and education.
d) Prohibition of sex education in schools.

Rationale: Comprehensive RH bills usually include a

broad range of services and education.

3. What is a common point of contention surrounding

RH bills?
a) The cost-effectiveness of providing reproductive
healthcare.
 b) The impact on population growth.
c) Religious and moral objections regarding
contraception and abortion.
d) All of the above.

Rationale: These are common areas of debate

surrounding RH legislation.

4. How do proponents of RH bills typically argue that

they benefit society?
a) By reducing the incidence of unintended
pregnancies.
b) By improving maternal health outcomes.
c) By empowering individuals to make informed
reproductive choices.
d) All of the above.

Rationale: These are common arguments in favor of

RH bills.

5. What is often a key component of RH education

programs?
a) Promoting abstinence-only education.
b) Encouraging early marriage.
c) Providing comprehensive sex education,
including information on contraception and STIs.
d) Discouraging the use of condoms.

Rationale: Comprehensive sex education is a core

element of many RH programs.

6. How might access to reproductive healthcare

services, as promoted by RH bills, impact
socioeconomic factors?
a) It may have no impact on socioeconomic factors.
b) It could potentially reduce poverty by
empowering women to control their fertility and
participate more fully in the workforce.
c) It could lead to increased poverty due to the costs of
healthcare services.
d) It would inevitably lead to increased unemployment.

Rationale: Improved reproductive health can contribute

to better economic outcomes for women and families.

7. What is the role of government in implementing an

RH bill?
a) To have no involvement in reproductive health
matters.
b) To actively discourage the use of contraception.
c) To provide funding, resources, and oversight for
reproductive healthcare services.
d) To restrict access to information about reproductive
health.

Rationale: Governments play a crucial role in

implementing and supporting RH initiatives.
1. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom
of many STDs?
a) Painful urination
b) Unusual vaginal discharge
c) Genital sores or lesions
d) Sudden onset of severe headaches

Rationale: While some STDs can cause systemic

symptoms, severe headaches are not a typical early
sign.

2. What is the most effective way to prevent the

transmission of STDs?
a) Regular douching
b) Using spermicidal lubricants
c) Consistent and correct use of condoms
d) Limiting the number of sexual partners

Rationale: Condoms provide a barrier against STD

transmission.

3. Which of the following STDs is caused by bacteria

and is often curable with antibiotics?
a) Genital herpes
b) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c) Chlamydia
d) HIV

Rationale: Chlamydia is a bacterial infection treatable

with antibiotics.

4. Which STD is known for causing genital warts and is

linked to certain cancers?
a) Gonorrhea
b) Syphilis
c) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d) Trichomoniasis

Rationale: HPV is a viral infection associated with

genital warts and cancers.

5. Which of the following is a serious and potentially life-

threatening STD if left untreated?
a) Trichomoniasis
b) Genital herpes
c) Syphilis
d) Chlamydia

Rationale: Syphilis can cause severe systemic effects if

untreated.

6. What is a key reason for regular STD testing, even in

the absence of symptoms?
a) Many STDs can be asymptomatic for extended
periods.
b) Early detection and treatment can prevent serious
complications.
c) It helps protect sexual partners from infection.
d) All of the above.

Rationale: Asymptomatic STDs are a significant

concern.

7. Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus and

is currently incurable?
a) Gonorrhea
b) Syphilis
c) HIV
d) Chlamydia

Rationale: HIV is a retrovirus for which there is currently

no cure.
 1. Which of the following is a common symptom
experienced during the first trimester of pregnancy?
a) Significant weight gain
b) Labor pains
c) Morning sickness
d) Decreased appetite

Rationale: Morning sickness is a prevalent symptom in

early pregnancy.

2. What is gestational diabetes?

a) A type of diabetes present before pregnancy
b) A condition where high blood sugar develops
during pregnancy
c) A condition caused by excessive sugar intake
during pregnancy
d) A type of diabetes that resolves after childbirth

Rationale: Gestational diabetes is specific to

pregnancy.

3. Which condition involves high blood pressure and

protein in the urine during pregnancy?
a) Preeclampsia
b) Gestational diabetes
c) Placenta previa
d) Postpartum depression

Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood

pressure and proteinuria.

4. What is placenta previa?

a) The premature separation of the placenta from the
uterine wall
b) A condition where the placenta partially or
completely covers the cervix
c) A condition where the placenta is abnormally
attached to the uterine wall
d) A condition where the placenta is too small

Rationale: Placenta previa involves the placenta's

position obstructing the cervix.
5. What is abruptio placentae?
a) The premature separation of the placenta from
the uterine wall
b) The abnormal implantation of the placenta
c) The failure of the placenta to develop properly
d) The premature rupture of the membranes

Rationale: Abruptio placentae is a serious complication

involving placental detachment.

6. Which condition involves the premature rupture of the

amniotic sac?
a) Placenta previa
b) Preeclampsia
c) Gestational diabetes
d) Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)

Rationale: PROM is the early breaking of the amniotic

sac.

7. What is eclampsia?
a) A mild form of preeclampsia
b) A type of gestational diabetes
c) A severe complication of preeclampsia,
involving seizures
d) A condition involving excessive amniotic fluid

Rationale: Eclampsia is a life-threatening progression

of preeclampsia.

8. Which of the following is a potential consequence of

gestational diabetes?
a) Increased risk of preterm labor
b) Increased risk of macrosomia (large baby)
c) Increased risk of birth defects
d) All of the above

Rationale: Gestational diabetes increases the risk of

several adverse pregnancy outcomes.

9. What is a common complication associated with

preeclampsia?
a) Excessive weight loss
 b) Low blood pressure
c) HELLP syndrome (hemolysis, elevated liver
enzymes, low platelet count)
d) Decreased risk of preterm delivery

Rationale: HELLP syndrome is a severe complication of

preeclampsia.

10. Which condition can lead to intrauterine growth

restriction (IUGR)?
a) Gestational diabetes
b) Preeclampsia
c) Chronic hypertension
d) All of the above

Rationale: Several conditions can restrict fetal growth.

11. What is postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?

a) Heavy bleeding during pregnancy
b) Excessive bleeding after childbirth
c) Bleeding during labor
d) Bleeding during the first trimester

Rationale: PPH is significant blood loss following

delivery.

12. Which of the following is a potential consequence of

untreated STDs during pregnancy?
a) Preterm birth
b) Infection of the newborn
c) Birth defects
d) All of the above