The Most Trusted Book for

MSc Nursing│BSc (Post-Basic) Nursing│Nursing Faculty│PhD Entrance Exams

TURNING
POINT
MSc Nursing
Entrance Exam Guide
(MCQs with Rationale Including IBQs & CBQs)

M.L. CHOUDHARY

Foreword
Dr Poonam Joshi

Recommended By
Nandram Chaudhary
PRIME
PUBLICATION
TURNING POINT
Nursing Competitive Exam Guide
PRIME
PUBLICATION

Bansi Lal Verma Amit Kumar Yadav Vaishali Chaudhary

AIIMS-CRE (SNO)-2023 AIIMS NORCET- 2024, 2023, 2022 AIIMS NORCET-2024
NIMHANS, TMC, UPPSC, VPCI Staff Nurse (Bihar), CHO (Raj. & Bihar) Nursing Officer
Senior Nursing Officer Nursing Officer AIIMS, New Delhi
AIIMS, Bathinda, Punjab AIIMS, Bhubaneswar

Manoj Jain Amisha Jain Vinod Chaudhary

AIIMS NORCET- 2024 AIIMS NORCET-2024 AIIMS NORCET-2024
Nursing Officer Nursing Officer Nursing Officer
AIIMS, Bilaspur AIIMS, Raipur AIIMS, Raebareli

Riya Patra Nandita Tiwari Versha

AIIMS-CRE (SNO)-2023 KGMU Exam-2023 PGIMER Exam-2023
Senior Nursing Officer Nursing Officer Nursing Officer
AIIMS, Deoghar, Jharkhand KGMU, Lucknow PGIMER, Chandigarh

Sushila Priyanka Mezam Pathan

AIIMS NORCET-2023 AIIMS NORCET-2023 AIIMS NORCET-2023
Nursing Officer Nursing Officer Nursing Officer
AIIMS, Jodhpur AIIMS, Bhopal AIIMS, Bhopal

@Turning Point-Nursing Turning Point-Nursing Prime Publication

TURNING POINT
MSc Nursing Entrance Exam Guide Top Rank Holders
Top Rank Holders PRIME
PUBLICATION

Swa� Ishu Avan�ka Sharma

AIIMS M.Sc. Nursing AIIMS M.Sc. Nursing AIIMS M.Sc. Nursing
Entrance Exam-2024 Entrance Exam-2024 Entrance Exam-2024

Nancy Chauhan Riyanksha Roli Annu

MNS Exam-2024 MNS Exam-2024 AIIMS NORCET-2024
Military Nursing Officer (Lieut) Military Nursing Officer (Lieut) Nursing Officer
Military Hospital Military Hospital AIIMS, New Delhi

Deepshikha Pushpanjali Bais Kiran Pandey Ayushi Bairagi Shiv Basod S

AIIMS AIIMS KGMU Lucknow AIIMS ESIC
Bhopal Bhubaneswar JIPMER, NPCIL Patna UPUMS Saifai

Aar� Swa� R. Pa�l

AIIMS NORCET-2024
Mamta Aaglecha
DHS Maharashtra-2024 AIIMS NORCET-2023
Nursing Officer Nursing Officer
AIIMS, Vijaypur, Jammu Nursing Officer
PHD, Nagpur AIIMS, Jodhpur

Narayan Choudhary Vandana Sahu Anjali Saini

KGMU Exam-2023 Community Health Officer
Nursing Officer
Community Health Officer
Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh Saharanpur, Uttar Pradesh
KGMU, Lucknow

@Turning Point-Nursing Turning Point-Nursing Prime Publication

 TURNING POINT
MSc Nursing
Entrance Exam Guide
(MCQs with Rationale Including IBQs & CBQs)

Salient Features
An exclusive and complete coverage of AIIMS, AMRU, BFUHS, IGNOU, JIPMER, NIMHANS, PGIMER,
PGIMS, RAK, RGUHS, RUHS, WBUHS and All State MSc Nursing, BSc (Post-Basic) Nursing, Nursing Faculty
and PhD Entrance Exams.

The concept and founda�on of Turning Point-Nursing (MCQs) is completely based on compe��ve
grounds and is prepared by a team of nursing experts who have decades of experience in compe��ve
exams.

Turning Point-Nursing is a compila�on of 9999+ subject-wise and topic-wise MCQs with a high-yield,
including IBQs & CBQs of previous 20+ year’s exams with compact and comprehensive ra�onale.

Maximum possible content has been covered from all the nursing subjects, so that the student/reader
does not need to look into a plethora of books-in a sense it is ‘all in one approach’.

Well-explained ques�ons with the help of infographics, figures, tables and illustra�ons.

Data and informa�on provided in the book are the utmost correct and based on the latest guidelines and
evidence-based prac�ces.

About the Author

M. L. CHOUDHARY, D. Pharm, M.Sc. Nsg. (Pediatrics), AIIMS (Ex- Principal, Bansal School
of Nursing, Hanumangarh), is an award-winning author with over 20 years teaching experience
in various capaci�es and currently working at the All India Ins�tute of Medical Sciences, New
Delhi. He is a Postgraduate in Pediatric Nursing from AIIMS, New Delhi. He is a trained IAP-BLS
provider and has completed FBNC (WHO-SEARO). He has published numerous research papers
in na�onal and interna�onal journals of repute.

PRIME PUBLICATION ISBN: 978-81-954651-6-3

Faridabad, Haryana (121004), India

Phone: +91-9999077294, +91-7827712994
E-mail: primepublication21@gmail.com
QR Code to Access
Website: www.primepublication.in Website & Catalogue
Publisher

Prime Publication
MCF-46, Arya Nagar, Ballabgarh
Faridabad, Haryana (121004), India
Phone: +91-9999077294, +91-7827712994
E-mail: primepublication21@gmail.com
Website: www.primepublication.in

Copyright © Publishers
All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced, stored or transmitted in any form or by any
means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the permission in writing of
the publisher/author. If anybody found a default or copying or photocopying (Xerox) of any matter of this
book, legal action will be taken against them accordingly.

First Edition : 2024

Disclaimer:
ISBN: 978-81-954651-6-3 The questions which are discussed here are memory-based/exams conducted and not
obtained from any exam question bank, neither by force or compulsion by students,
Price: ` 950/- with due respect to the NDA (non-disclosure agreement). If any similarities occur it
may be due to mere coincidence and the author or the publisher is not to be blamed
about. All questions discussed here can be found in one or the other question banks,
guides and not any person’s private property. The author is not related in any way to the
exam conducting authority or agencies.

Notices

Knowledge and best practices in this field are constantly changing. This book is designed to provide
accurate, authoritative information about the subject matter. However, readers are advised to check
the most current information available sources. Although every effort is made to avoid errors and
omissions, the publisher and its author shall not be liable for any error or mistakes. There may be
the possibility of some mistakes being left to invisibility.

This book is released with the understanding that neither the author nor the publisher or seller will
be responsible in any manner for mistakes/omissions in the book. Dispute if any, shall be subject to
Faridabad Jurisdiction only.

Layout Design by Bhagirath Kumar

Printed by Saurabh Printers Pvt. Ltd.
 RECOMMENDED BY

Nandram Chaudhary
B.Sc. (Hons.) Nursing (SMS, Jaipur)
Diploma in Neuro Nursing (Amity University, Noida)
Nursing Officer, AIIMS Bhopal

♦♦♦♦♦♦♦♦♦
Former Nursing Officer, GMCH, Chandigarh
Selected in CRE-AIIMS SNO, AIIMS Rishikesh
GMCH-2019 AIR-07, DSSSB-2019 AIR-103
UP NHM, Staff Nurse-2019
UP NHM CHO-2019, MP NHM CHO-2019
PGI Chandigarh-2020
Combined AIIMS-2020, AIR-51
NORCET-2020 AIR-171
NORCET-2021 AIR-29, NORCET-2022 AIR-34
PGI Sangrur-2023, NORCET-5 2023 AIR-134
 Reviewers & Contributors

Ghanshyam Jangir Prof. Subhasankari G

M.Sc. Nsg. (Med-Surg.) PhD (Scholar)
Professor-cum-Principal Professor-cum-Principal
Govt. College of Nursing National College of Nursing
SPMC & AGH, Bikaner (Raj.) Barwala, Hisar, Haryana

Dr Anwar Khan Gita Razdan

PhD, M.Sc. Nsg. (Pediatrics) M.Sc. Nsg. (OBG)
Assistant Professor Ex-Assistant Professor
College of Nursing College of Nursing
University of Hail, KSA AIIMS, New Delhi

Dr Philomina Thomas Shashi Bhatia

PhD, M.Sc. Nsg. (OBG) M.Sc. Nsg. (Med-Surg.)
Ex. Nursing Tutor Lecturer
College of Nursing College of Nursing
AIIMS, New Delhi PGIMS, Rohtak, Haryana

Shatrughan Pareek Kiran Singh Simak

PhD (Scholar), M.Sc. Nsg. (Med-Surg.) B.Sc. (Hons.) Nsg.
DNA, PGDHHM & M.A. (Sociology)
Senior Nursing Superintendent Ex. Nursing Tutor
IRHS, Bikaner, Rajasthan CON, AIIMS, New Delhi

Dr Dinesh Choudhary Tapasi Mandal

Medical Officer & M.Sc. Nsg. (Med-Surg.), RAKCON
Guest Faculty (President Gold Medal)
Govt. College of Nursing Nursing Officer
GMC, Pali, Rajasthan CTVS, AIIMS, New Delhi

Suresh Kumar Bamania Dr TR Choudhary

M.Sc. Nsg. (CHN) PhD, M.Sc. Nsg. (Med-Surg.)
Nursing Tutor Faculty NEET (UG)
NINE, PGIMER, Chandigarh ALLEN, Mysuru, Karnataka

Surya Kant Tiwari

M.Sc. Nsg. (Pediatrics) Saumya P. Srivastava
PGDHM, FACEN-India M.Sc. Nsg. (Oncology)
UGC NET JRF (SMCH) Nursing Tutor
Nursing Tutor Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia Institute of
CON, AIIMS, Raebareli, U.P. Medical Sciences, Lucknow, U.P.
Ramesh Saini Virendra Kumar
B.Sc. (Hons.) Nsg. B.Sc. (Hons.) Nsg., PGDCA
Senior Nursing Officer Nursing Officer
AIIMS, Bhopal, M.P. ESIC Hospital, Indore, M.P.

Muthuselvi. S Emin Elsa Thomas

M.Sc. Nsg. (Pediatrics) M.Sc. Nsg. (CHN), RAKCON
Nursing Tutor (on Deputation) Nursing Tutor (on Deputation)
CON, AIIMS, New Delhi CON, AIIMS, New Delhi

Aparna Sehgal Dinesh K. Varma

M.Sc. Nsg. (Med-Surg.) M.Sc. Nsg. (Pediatrics)
Nursing Tutor PHNO
BKSM CON, Jind, Haryana PGIMER, Chandigarh

Kusum Lata
M.Sc. Nsg. (Psychiatric) Priyanka Bhati
Assistant Professor M.Sc. Nsg. (Cardiology)
Ch. Kehar Singh Institute of Nursing Nursing Tutor
& Hospital, Baraut, U.P. CON, AIIMS, Bathinda, Punjab

Manisha Mehra Manju Lata Mulewa

M.Sc. Nsg. (Nephrology) M.Sc. Nsg. (OBG), RAKCON
Nursing Tutor Senior Nursing Officer
CON, AIIMS, Patna, Bihar AIIMS, New Delhi

Anita Sakshi Sachdeva

M.Sc. Nsg. (Critical Care) M.Sc. Nsg. (Psychiatric)
Nsg. in-service Educator Registered Nurse
National Center for Aging George Eliot Hospital
AIIMS, New Delhi United Kingdom

Surat Ram Kudi

M.Sc. Nsg. (Psychiatric) Rajendra Kalal
Nursing Tutor M.Sc. Nsg. (CHN), RAKCON
SVBP Hospital LLRM Senior Nursing Officer
Medical College, Meerut, U.P. AIIMS, New Delhi
 Foreword

I got to know Mr M. L. Choudhary when he was doing his postgraduate studies at

College of Nursing, AIIMS, New Delhi. During his studies I found him to be a keen
observer and had passion for learning new things. I would emphasize here that he is
a highly motivated to improve the standard of nursing education. His dedication is
visible from the way he has putting efforts to provide a comprehensive coverage of
knowledge and expertise to crack any nursing competitive examinations.

It is my pleasure to write the foreword for Turning Point MSc Nursing Entrance Exam
Guide by Mr Choudhary, which I believe with its integrated and cyclopedic approach,
will fill the gap in the exam preparation. He has taken great interest to assemble questions
of previous 20+ year’s exams and written compact and comprehensive rationale.

The author has done M.Sc. Nursing from a premier institute and is having work
experience in a variety of settings. He shows the way to a fear-stricken candidate who
has to struggle to go through many books to prepare for competitive exams sometimes
for higher degree and at times for seeking jobs in institutions of repute in the country.
Readers will definitely appreciate the passion of Mr M. L. Choudhary after reading this
book “Turning Point-Nursing” upon gaining confidence to sit for various exams.

The subject-wise and topic-wise MCQs including IBQs & CBQs with compact and
comprehensive rationale have been reviewed by subject experts all over the India
that credits this book in being accurate and error-free. The work in this book speaks
volumes of praise for the author in searching and researching content for the reader
to get deeper insight into the process of preparing oneself for competitive exams in
Nursing Science.

I am sure the readers are going to have a very fruitful learning experience. I congratulate
Mr M. L. CHOUDHARY to have conceptualized this title in an excellent manner.

Dr Poonam Joshi
Principal-cum-Professor
College of Nursing
All India Institute of Medical Sciences
Kalyani, West Bengal, India
 Preface

Long ago I thought of a mission- “Turning Point-Nursing”. Then it was a dream, now
realizing that dream into concrete reality is a profound matter of satisfaction and joy.

As Steve Maraboli mentioned: “The best way to succeed is to have a specific Intent, a
clear Vision, a plan of Action, and the ability to maintain Clarity. Those are the Four
Pillars of Success. It never fails!”

This book is a compilation of 9999+ MCQs with a high-yield, including IBQs of previous
20+ year’s exams with compact and comprehensive rationale. Maximum possible
content has been covered from all the nursing subjects, so that the student/reader does
not need to look into a plethora of books- in a sense it is ‘all in one approach’.

All the questions are arranged topic-wise with the correct option and detailed
explanation, which help the readers in understanding the concept and clarifying their
doubts. The content for this book has been taken from credible sources of information/
latest guidelines and the content has been checked and rechecked at various levels to
rectify the error.

This book will be a valuable companion to all nursing aspirants who are aspiring to
succeed in various nursing competitive exams.

Although the author has made his utmost efforts to make the book errorless, however
there is great space for improvement that can only be filled by your valuable suggestions
and feedback with us regarding making the next edition more valuable (email:
turningpointnursing@gmail.com).

Wishing you the best in all your endeavors!

October 2024 M. L. CHOUDHARY

pavanmangilal@gmail.com
 Acknowledgments

From the inception with profound love I owe my sincere gratitude to the God
“The Almighty”, for his immense unconditional grace and love showered upon me
throughout my life and for giving me strength, perseverance and blessings to pursue
this task and accomplish it successfully.

Words are not enough to thank and it is my proud privilege to express heartfelt
gratitude to the expertise and guidance of my teachers Dr. Sandhya Gupta, Dr. Kamlesh
K. Sharma and Dr. Shashi Mawar for their encouragement and useful suggestions.

This book would not have been possible without the efforts of many people. I’m
indebted to all the reviewers for their valuable suggestions, constant support and
dedication throughout this endeavour. I also wish to express my sincere gratitude and
regards to all those who have contributed appropriate and relevant information timely.

Thanks are due to our beloved students, friends who are always my constant supports,
source of learning, perpetual inspiration and encouragement.

I also take this opportunity to express my sincere appreciation to my parents and

parents-in-law for their love and moral support. I owe thanks to my beloved wife
Smt. Pavan Choudhary and my son Dravit and Gravit for their unending love, faith,
understanding and support throughout this is an inevitable, continuing, but exciting
experience.

Acknowledgement will remain incomplete if I fail to extend thanks to everyone who

played an important part in the successful realization of this book.

Finally, I would like to express my deep debt of gratitude to M/s Prime Publication for
their wholehearted support in the publication of this book.

M.L. CHOUDHARY

Note:
z FAQ (Frequently Asked Question).
z Correct Option ()* indicates a doubtful answer based on the best knowledge of the
author or the opinions of experts/reviewers, so readers should further explore to
ensure the correct answer to those questions.
 Contents

Reviewers & Contributors...............................iv ♦ Blood Transfusion 99

♦ Oxygen Administration 103
♦ Perioperative Nursing Care 107
Foreword........................................................vi
(I) Preoperative Nursing Care 107
(II) Intraoperative Nursing Care 113
Preface.......................................................... vii (III) Postoperative Nursing Care 116
♦ Wound Care 120
Acknowledgments........................................ viii ♦ Orthopedic Procedures 123
(I) Bandages & Binders 123
(II) Plaster Casts 125

1 (III) Traction & Crutch Gaits

♦ Chest Drainage System
♦ Postural Drainage
127
129
131
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING 1–145 ♦ Diagnostic Aids 132
♦ Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation 134
Fundamentals of Nursing............................... 2 ♦ ET Intubation & Tracheostomy 139
♦ End-of-Life Care 143
z Introduction to Nursing 2
♦ Nursing- As a Profession 2
♦ Nursing Theories
♦ Models of Nursing Care
♦ Legal & Ethical Aspects in Nursing
4
8
10
2
♦ Nursing Process 16 MEDICAL–SURGICAL NURSING INCLUDING
♦ Preparation of Patient’s Unit 23 ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 146–451
♦ Medical & Surgical Asepsis 26
♦ Vital Signs 32 Cell and Tissues......................................... 147
♦ Body Temperature 33
♦ Pulse 37 z ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 147
♦ Respiration 39 ♦ Cells 147
♦ Blood Pressure 41 ♦ DNA & Chromosomes 150
♦ Body Mechanics 43 ♦ Cell Division 153
♦ Personal Hygiene 45 ♦ Tissues 154
♦ Bed Sore/ Decubitus Ulcer 46
♦ Clients Positions 49 Hematological System............................... 160
♦ Comfort Measures 52 z ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 160
♦ Nutrition 54 ♦ Components of Blood 160
♦ Tube Feeding (Lavage & Gavage) 55 ♦ Red Blood Cells 161
♦ Elimination 58 ♦ White Blood Cells 165
♦ Enema 60 ♦ Platelets 167
♦ Urinary Catheterization & Irrigation 61 ♦ Hemostasis 167
♦ Specimen Collection 63 ♦ Blood Groups 170
♦ Hot & Cold Applications 66 z HEMATOLOGICAL DISORDERS 171
♦ Administration of Medicines 68 ♦ Anemia 171
♦ Infusion Therapy 78 ♦ Iron-Deficiency Anemia 172
♦ Total Parenteral Nutrition 85 ♦ Megaloblastic Anemia 175
♦ Fluid Balance & Imbalance 87 ♦ Aplastic Anemia 176
♦ Electrolyte Imbalances 91 ♦ Sickle Cell Anemia 177
♦ Acid-Base Balance 96 ♦ Thalassemia 178
xiv | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

♦ Polycythemia 179 ♦ Abnormal Breath Sounds 264

♦ Haemophilia 180 ♦ Pulmonary Function Tests 265
♦ Leukemia 182 ♦ Ventilator Care 267
z RESPIRATORY DISORDERS 269
Cardiovascular System.............................. 185 ♦ Epistaxis 269
z ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 185 ♦ Atelectasis 270
♦ Heart 185 ♦ COPD 270
♦ Heart Chambers 186 ♦ Bronchiectasis 273
♦ Heart Valves & Heart Sounds 186 ♦ Emphysema 273
♦ Conduction System 188 ♦ Asthma 274
♦ ECG 189 ♦ ARDS & SARS 275
♦ Blood Vessels 190 ♦ Pneumonia 275
♦ Hemodynamic Monitoring 193 ♦ Pneumothorax 276
z CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS 196 ♦ Chest Trauma 276
♦ Hypertension 196 ♦ Miscellaneous 277
♦ Angina 199
♦ Myocardial Infarction 200 Gastrointestinal System............................. 280
♦ Congestive Heart Failure 207 z ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 280
♦ Shock 212 ♦ Oral Cavity (Mouth) 280
♦ Cardiac Arrest & Heart Block 217 ♦ Pharynx, Esophagus & Stomach 284
♦ Cardiac Dysrhythmias 218 ♦ Intestines 286
♦ Cardiac Catheterization 222 ♦ Pancreas 289
♦ Valvular Disorders 223 ♦ Liver, Gallbladder & Spleen 290
♦ Venous Insufficiency 224 z GASTROINTESTINAL DISORDERS 292
♦ Vascular Disorder 225 ♦ Gastritis & Peptic Ulcer 292
♦ DIC 227 ♦ Gastroesophageal Reflux 296
♦ Venous Thromboembolism 227 ♦ Cirrhosis of Liver 297
♦ Pulmonary Edema 231 ♦ Viral Hepatitis 301
♦ Pulmonary Embolism 231 ♦ Pancreatic Disorders 304
♦ Carditis 233 ♦ Disorder of Biliary System 307
♦ Appendicitis 309
Endocrine System...................................... 235 ♦ Inflammatory Bowel Disease 311
z ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 235 ♦ Hemorrhoids 315
♦ Introduction to Endocrinology 235 ♦ Hernia 316
♦ Pituitary Gland 236 ♦ Peritonitis 317
♦ Thyroid Gland 239 ♦ Obesity 318
♦ Parathyroid Glands 241 ♦ Miscellaneous 319
♦ Adrenal Glands 243 ♦ Metabolism 320
♦ Pancreatic Islets 243
z ENDOCRINE DISORDERS 245 Urinary System........................................... 322
♦ Hyperthyroidism 245 z ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 322
♦ Hypothyroidism 246 ♦ Kidney 322
♦ Addison’s Disease & Cushing Syndrome 248 ♦ Urinary bladder 325
♦ Pheochromocytoma 248 z RENAL & URINARY DISORDERS 326
♦ Diabetes Insipidus 249 ♦ Urinary Tract Infection 326
♦ Diabetes Mellitus 250 ♦ Urinary Incontinence 327
♦ Diabetic Ketoacidosis 258 ♦ Renal Calculi 328
♦ Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy 330
Respiratory System.................................... 260 ♦ Renal Failure 331
z ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 260 ♦ Dialysis 336
♦ Nose, Pharynx & Larynx 260 ♦ Miscellaneous 339
♦ Lungs 261
♦ Respiration Process 263 Integumentary System............................... 341
 CONTENTS | xv

z ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 341 ♦ Fracture 418

♦ Skin 341 ♦ Osteoporosis 422
z INTEGUMENTARY DISORDERS 344 ♦ Osteomyelitis 424
♦ Burns 344 ♦ Arthritis 424
♦ Scabies 351 ♦ Gout 426
♦ Systemic Lupus Erythematosus 351 ♦ Miscellaneous 427
♦ Heat Exhaustion/Stroke 352
♦ Miscellaneous 353 Male Reproductive System........................ 429

Sense Organs............................................. 356 Oncology.................................................... 433

z ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 356 ♦ Chemotherapy 437
♦ Eye 356 ♦ Radiotherapy 440
♦ Cataract 362 ♦ Breast Cancer 442
♦ Glaucoma 363 ♦ Cervical Cancer 444
♦ Conjunctivitis 365 ♦ Ovarian/Endometrial Cancer 446
♦ Miscellaneous 366 ♦ Gastric/Colorectal Cancer 446
♦ Ear 367 ♦ Laryngeal Cancer 447
♦ Otitis Externa 368 ♦ Lung Cancer 448
♦ Otitis Media 369 ♦ Bladder Cancer 448
♦ Meniere’s Disease 370 ♦ Hodgkin’s Lymphoma 449
♦ Hearing Loss 371 ♦ Miscellaneous 449

Nervous System......................................... 373

z ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY
♦ Nerve Cell
373
373 3
♦ Synapses & Neurotransmitters 374
PEDIATRIC NURSING 452–562
♦ Meninges & CSF 375
♦ Parts of Brain 375
Growth & Development
♦ Autonomic Nervous System 380
♦ Spinal Cord 382 including Neonatology................................ 453
♦ Cranial Nerves 383 ♦ Introduction to Growth & Development 453
z NEUROLOGICAL DISORDERS 386 ♦ Weight & Height/Length 458
♦ Head Injury 386 ♦ Head Circumference 459
♦ Spinal Cord Injury 391 ♦ Fontanelle 461
♦ CVA/ Stroke 395 ♦ Developmental Milestone 461
♦ Multiple Sclerosis 397 z NEWBORN INFANT 465
♦ Myasthenia Gravis 398 ♦ Neonatal Resuscitation 465
♦ Guillain-Barre Syndrome 399 ♦ APGAR Score 467
♦ Parkinson Disease 399 ♦ Birth Trauma 469
♦ Bell’s Palsy 402 ♦ Birthmarks 471
♦ Trigeminal Neuralgia 402 ♦ Neonatal Reflex 472
♦ Brain Tumor 403 ♦ Essential Newborn Care 474
♦ Miscellaneous 403 ♦ Preterm & Post Term Baby 476
♦ Breast Feeding 478
Musculoskeletal System............................. 407 z NEWBORN & INFANT DISORDERS 484
z ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 407 ♦ Hemorrhagic Disease of Newborn 484
♦ Bones 407 ♦ Neonatal Sepsis 485
♦ Skull 409 ♦ Neonatal Hypothermia 485
♦ Vertebral Column 410 ♦ Kangaroo Mother Care 487
♦ Appendicular Skeleton 411 ♦ Respiratory Distress Syndrome 488
♦ Muscles 412 ♦ Apnea of Newborn 491
♦ Joints 414 ♦ Neonatal Jaundice 492
z MUSCULOSKELETAL DISORDERS 418 ♦ Neonatal Hypoglycemia 496
xvi | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

♦
♦
♦
Infant of Diabetic Mother
Neonatal Tetanus
Congenital Syphilis
496
497
498
4
♦ Miscellaneous 498 OBSTETRIC &
♦ Care of Hospitalized Child 500 GYNECOLOGICAL NURSING 563–674
♦ Accidents 501
♦ Pain Management 502 Obstetric & Gynecological Nursing............ 564
♦ Play in Children 503
z FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM 564
Pediatric Disorders..................................... 505 ♦ Vagina 564
♦ Uterus 565
♦ Introduction to Pediatric Nursing 505 ♦ Fallopian Tubes & Ovary 566
♦ Genetic/Congenital Disorders 505 ♦ Mammary Gland (Breast) 568
♦ Inborn Errors of Metabolism 511 ♦ Ovulation & Fertilization 569
♦ Malnutrition 512 ♦ Menstruation (Ovarian Cycle) 571
z CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS 516 ♦ Female Sex Hormones 573
♦ Congenital Heart Disease 516 z GYNAECOLOGY 574
♦ Tetralogy of Fallot 518 ♦ Puberty 574
♦ Obstructive Lesions 521 ♦ Disorders of Menstruation 575
♦ Rheumatic Fever 521 ♦ Menopause 577
♦ Miscellaneous 523 ♦ Infections of the Genital Tract 578
z RESPIRATORY DISORDERS 524 ♦ Infertility 581
♦ Choanal Atresia 524 ♦ Genital Fistulae 583
♦ Epiglottitis & Croup 525 ♦ Uterine Fibroid 584
♦ Tonsillitis & Adenoiditis 526 z OBSTETRICAL NURSING 584
♦ Bronchial Asthma 527 ♦ Maternal Pelvis 584
♦ Pneumonia 528 ♦ Fetal Skull 588
♦ Cystic Fibrosis 531 ♦ Basics of Reproduction 588
z GASTROINTESTINAL DISORDERS 532 ♦ Implantation & Fetal Development 589
♦ Tracheoesophageal Fistula 532 ♦ Placenta & Fetal Membranes 591
♦ Pyloric Stenosis 533 ♦ Physiological Changes in Pregnancy 596
♦ Hirschsprung’s Disease 534 ♦ Endocrinology in Reproduction 600
♦ Anorectal Malformation 535 ♦ Diagnosis of Pregnancy 601
♦ Cleft Lip & Cleft Palate 535 ♦ Estimation of Fetal Weight/Age 604
♦ Intussusception 536 ♦ Calculation of EDD 604
♦ Celiac Disease 537 ♦ The Fetus-in-Utero 605
♦ Lactose Intolerance 538 ♦ Antenatal Care 608
♦ Diarrhea 538 ♦ Antenatal Assessment 612
♦ Miscellaneous 542 z COMPLICATIONS OF PREGNANCY 619
z GENITO-URINARY DISORDERS 543 ♦ Vomiting in Pregnancy 619
♦ Undescended Testes 543 ♦ Hyperemesis Gravidarum 620
♦ Phimosis 543 ♦ Abortion 621
♦ Epispadias/ Hypospadias 544 ♦ Ectopic Pregnancy 624
♦ Glomerulonephritis 545 ♦ Hydatidiform Mole (Molar Pregnancy) 625
♦ Nephrotic syndrome 546 ♦ Multiple Pregnancy 627
♦ Wilms Tumor 548 ♦ Oligo/Polyhydramnios 629
♦ Enuresis 549 ♦ Pre-eclampsia & Eclampsia 630
z NEUROLOGICAL DISORDERS 549 ♦ APH (Placenta Praevia & Abruptio Placentae) 635
♦ Neural Tube Defects 549 ♦ Diabetes in Pregnancy 638
♦ Hydrocephalus 551 ♦ Rh Incompatibility 639
♦ Cerebral Palsy 554 ♦ Obstetrical Emergencies 640
♦ Head Injury 554 z NORMAL LABOR 641
♦ Epilepsy 555 ♦ Stages of Labour 641
♦ Reye’s Syndrome 558 ♦ Partograph 652
♦ Meningitis 558 z COMPLICATED LABOUR 654
z MUSCULOSKELETAL DISORDERS 561
 CONTENTS | xvii

♦ Preterm & Post term Labor 654 ♦ Hormonal Contraceptives 721

♦ Rupture of Fetal Membrane 655 ♦ Natural Family Planning Methods 725
♦ Precipitate Labour 656 ♦ Terminal Methods (Sterilization) 725
♦ Perineal Tear 656 ♦ MTP 727
♦ Uterine Prolapse 657 z MATERNAL & CHILD HEALTH 727
♦ Cord Prolapse 658 ♦ Antenatal Care 727
♦ Uterine Inertia & Dystocia 658 ♦ Under-Five-Clinic 728
♦ Malpresentation 660 ♦ Indicators of MCH Care 729
♦ Medication Used in Obstetrics 661 ♦ School Health 732
z PUERPERIUM 664 ♦ Gerontology 733
♦ Involution 664 z ENVIRONMENT & HEALTH 734
♦ Lochia 666 ♦ Water & Air 734
♦ Postpartum Hemorrhage 667 ♦ Noise & Radiation 738
♦ Complications of Puerperium 669 ♦ Disposal of Wastes 739
z OPERATIVE OBSTETRICS 670 ♦ Bio-Medical Waste 740
♦ Episiotomy 670 ♦ Disaster Management 742
♦ Obstetric Forceps 671 ♦ Occupational Health 744
♦ Caesarean Section 673 z HEALTH CARE OF THE COMMUNITY 746
♦ Vital Health Statistics 746
♦ Communication Process 747
5 ♦ Health Education
♦ Health Planning in India
753
754
♦ HFA & Primary Health Care 756
COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING 675–809
♦ Health Care System 758
♦ Home Visit & Bag Technique 762
Community Health Nursing........................ 676
♦ Health Agencies 764
♦ Introduction to Community Health Nursing 676
♦ Concept of Health 676 Communicable Diseases............................ 767
♦ Indicators of Health 678
♦ Smallpox 767
♦ Health Promotion 680
♦ Chickenpox 767
z CONCEPT OF DISEASE 681
♦ Measles 768
♦ Epidemiology Triad 681
♦ Rubella 770
♦ Concept of Prevention 684
♦ Mumps 771
♦ Principles of Epidemiology 688
♦ Influenza 771
♦ Infectious Disease Epidemiology 692
♦ COVID-19 772
z COLD CHAIN & IMMUNIZATION 696
♦ Diphtheria 773
♦ Cold Chain 696
♦ Whooping Cough (Pertussis) 774
♦ Vaccines 698
♦ Tuberculosis 775
♦ BCG Vaccine 701
♦ Poliomyelitis 781
♦ Polio Vaccine 702
♦ Cholera 782
♦ DPT, DT & TT Vaccines 703
♦ Typhoid Fever 784
♦ Measles & MMR Vaccine 705
♦ Worm Infestations 785
♦ Hepatitis Vaccine 706
♦ Dengue 786
♦ Miscellaneous Vaccines 707
♦ Malaria 788
z NATIONAL HEALTH PROGRAMME 707
♦ Lymphatic Filariasis 791
♦ National Health Mission 707
♦ Rabies 792
♦ RCH 708
♦ Yellow Fever 793
♦ IMNCI 709
♦ Japanese Encephalitis 793
♦ RMNCH + A 710
♦ Chikungunya Fever 794
♦ Miscellaneous 711
♦ Kyasanur Forest Disease 794
z DEMOGRAPHY & FAMILY PLANNING 715
♦ Plague 794
♦ Demography 715
♦ Leprosy 795
♦ Family Planning Methods 717
♦ HIV/AIDS 796
♦ Barrier Methods 718
♦ Sexually Transmitted Diseases 803
♦ Intrauterine Devices 719
xviii | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

♦ Kala-Azar 806 ♦ Introduction to Mental Health 866

♦ Rickettsial Diseases 806 ♦ Therapeutic Relationship & Communication 871
♦ Medical Entomology 807 ♦ Concepts of Psychopathology 877
z PSYCHIATRIC DISORDERS 886
♦ Schizophrenia 886

6 ♦ Mood Disorders
♦ Personality Disorders
891
899
♦ Organic Mental Disorders 902
BIOCHEMISTRY & NUTRITION 810–838
♦ Anxiety Disorder 905
♦ Phobic Disorders 907
Biochemistry & Nutrition............................. 811 ♦ Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder 908
♦ Classification of Foods 811 ♦ Somatoform Disorders 910
♦ Carbohydrates 811 ♦ Eating Disorders 911
♦ Proteins 813 ♦ Substance Use Disorders 913
♦ Fats & Lipids 816 ♦ Sexual Disorders 917
♦ Vitamins 819 ♦ Sleep Disorders 918
♦ Vitamin A 819 ♦ Child Psychiatry 919
♦ Vitamin D 821 z PSYCHOLOGICAL TREATMENTS 922
♦ Vitamin E 823 ♦ ECT 922
♦ Vitamin K 823 ♦ Psychotherapy 925
♦ Vitamin B-Complex 824 z CRISIS INTERVENTION 931
♦ Vitamin C 827 ♦ Grief 931
♦ Antioxidants 828 ♦ Stress 933
♦ Minerals 829 z PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY 934
♦ Nutritional Requirements 832 ♦ Antipsychotic Drugs 934
♦ Pasteurization of milk 834 ♦ Antidepressant Drugs 937
♦ Food Toxicants 835 ♦ Mood-Stabilizing Drugs 938
♦ Nutrition Programmes in India 836 ♦ Anti-Anxiety Drugs 941
♦ Miscellaneous Drugs 941

7 9
PSYCHOLOGY 839–864
SOCIOLOGY 943–950
Psychology................................................. 840
♦ Introduction to Psychology 840 Sociology ................................................... 944
♦ Personality 841 ♦ Introduction to Sociology 944
♦ Learning 847 ♦ Family 944
♦ Memory 849 ♦ Marriage 946
♦ Thinking 850 ♦ Individual & Society 947
♦ Intelligence & Aptitude 851
♦ Motivation 855
♦
♦
Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
Frustration & Conflicts
856
858 10
♦ Emotion & Stress 859
♦ Attitudes 861 MICROBIOLOGY 951–974
♦ Ego Defence Mechanisms 861
Microbiology............................................... 952
♦ History of Microbiology 952

8 ♦
♦
General Properties of Bacteria
Staining Methods
953
956
♦ Culture Media & Methods 958
PSYCHIATRIC NURSING 865–942

Psychiatric Nursing.................................... 866

 CONTENTS | xix

♦
♦
♦
Sterilization & Disinfection
Immune System & Immunity
Immunoglobulins
958
964
968
14
♦ Bacteriology 969 NURSING RESEARCH
♦ Virology 973 & STATISTICS 1021–1052
♦ Food Poisoning 973
Nursing Research & Statistics.................. 1022

11 ♦
♦
♦
Introduction to Nursing Research
Research Process & Research Problem
Research Variables
1022
1024
1026
PHARMACOLOGY 975–993 ♦ Hypothesis & Assumption 1027
♦ Review of Literature 1029
Pharmacology............................................ 976 ♦ Research Approaches/Designs 1032
♦ Introduction to Pharmacology 976 ♦ Sampling Designs 1037
♦ Analgesic Drugs (NSAIDs) 977 ♦ Research Tools 1040
♦ Opioid Analgesics 979 ♦ Reliability & Validity 1042
♦ Diuretics 981 ♦ Research Report 1044
♦ Antibiotics 982 ♦ Statistics 1046
♦ Immunosuppressants 986 ♦ Presentation of Data 1046
♦ Poisoning & Antidote 987 ♦ Scales of Measurements 1047
♦ Hypersensitivity 990 ♦ Measures of Central Tendency 1048
♦ Emergency/Life Saving Drugs 992 ♦ Measures of Dispersion 1049
♦ Inferential Statistics 1050

12 15
FORENSIC NURSING & TOXICOLOGY 994–998
NURSING MANAGEMENT
Forensic Nursing & Toxicology................... 995 & ADMINISTRATION 1053–1078
♦ Introduction to Forensic Science 995
♦ Medico-legal Autopsy 996
Nursing Management & Administration... 1054
♦ Sexual Offences 997 ♦ Introduction to Management & Administration 1054
♦ Toxicology 997 ♦ Planning 1057
♦ Organization 1059
♦ Delegation & Span of Control 1060

13 ♦
♦
Human Resource Management
Ward Management
1061
1064
♦ Supervision 1066
NURSING EDUCATION 999–1020
♦ Leadership 1068
♦ Group Dynamics 1071
Nursing Education.................................... 1000 ♦ Quality Control 1071
♦ Introduction to Nursing Education 1000 ♦ Material Management (Inventory) 1073
♦ Nursing Education in India 1001 ♦ Financial Management (Budgeting) 1074
♦ Curriculum 1003 ♦ Records and Reports 1075
♦ Teaching-Learning Process 1004 ♦ Nursing Informatics 1077
♦ Methods of Teaching 1009
♦ Instructional Media (AV Aids) 1013 References............................................... 1079
♦ Measurement & Evaluation 1015
♦ Guidance & Counselling 1019
♦ Continuing Nursing Education 1019
 1

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING

“Nurses are the heart of healthcare.”

– Donna Wilk Cardillo
 Fundamentals of Nursing

z Her book ‘Notes on hospital’ and ‘Notes on Nursing:

INTRODUCTION TO NURSING What it is, what it is not’ become the first definitive
textbook for the field.
Nursing- As a Profession
z King Edward conferred on her the ‘Order of merit’
1. The word nursing comes from the Latin word in 1907.
‘nutricius’, means: 5. Florence Nightingale was born in which country:
(a) God (b) To nourish (c) To express (d) Help (a) England (b) Germany
NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2021 (c) Italy (d) France
Correct Option (b) RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014
2. The term ‘hygiene’ is derived from ‘Hygeia’, the Correct Option (c)
goddess of health in………….mythology: 6. Birth date of Florence Nightingale is: FAQ
(a) Egyptian (b) Greek (a) 14 June, 1820 (b) 12 June, 1820
(c) Mesopotamian (d) Indian (c) 12 May, 1820 (d) 20 May, 1820
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022 BHU Nsg. Officer 2019
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (c)
3. Nursing may be defined as “the diagnosis and 7. Birthday of ‘Lady with the lamp’ is celebrated as
treatment of human responses to health and Nurse’s Day on: FAQ
illness”. This definition of nursing was given by: (a) 12th April (b) 12th June
(a) Florence Nightingale (c) 12th March (d) 12th May
(b) American Nurses Association IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014
(c) Virginia Henderson Correct Option (d)
(d) Word Health Organization 8. All of the following statements are true for Miss
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020 Florence Nightingale EXCEPT:
Correct Option (b) (a) Known for contribution in nursing during
4. Who is known as ‘Lady with the Lamp’? FAQ Crimean war
(a) Mother Teresa (b) Sarojini Naidu (b) Visited India once only
(c) Florence Nightingale (d) None of these (c) Received the year book of the Institution at
RRB Staff Nurse 2015 Kaiser Worth
Correct Option (c) (d) Appointed as superintendent of the English
z Florence Nightingale (“The lady with lamp”) was a General hospitals in Turkey
British philanthropist, known as the founder of modern IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2013
nursing and establishing nursing as a profession. Correct Option (b)
z She was born on 12 May 1820, in Florence, Italy and z Florence Nightingale wanted to visit India in the
died on 13 August 1910, in London. 1857 revolt but unfortunately it become not possible.
z She was the second daughter of English parents, Although she worked on an Indian sanitation
Frances Nightingale (mother) and William Shore programme.
Nightingale (father). 9. Select the incorrect statement:
z She gave the theory of “modern nursing” in 1860, (a) Nightingale was the first practicing nurse
considered to be the first nursing theorist. epidemiologist
z Her tireless efforts lowered the death rate among sick (b) She volunteered during the Crimean war
and wounded British army during the Crimean war. (c) She developed schools for all branches of emergencies
z She got lots of funds during the Crimean war; funds (d) She started training for nurses in London
were used to establish a school of nursing at St. ISRO Sriharikota Staff Nurse 2024
Thomas Hospital in London, England, in 1860. Correct Option (c)
z The first nursing school based on the Nightingale 10. During which war did the United States ask for
model to be established in the U.S. war at Bellevue Florence Nightingale’s assistance in setting up
Hospital in New York in 1873. military hospitals?
4 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(a) Advocacy (b) Autonomy (a) The International Council of Nurses

(c) Internment (d) Subjugation (b) The American Nurses Association
AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017 (c) The National League for Nursing
Correct Option (b) (d) The National Student Nurses Association
23. Which of the following options best suits the SCTIMST Trivandrum Staff Nurse 2010
meaning of a profession? Correct Option (a)
(a) Occupation with ethical component and
Nursing Theories
intellectual study
(b) Occupation that promotes for higher study 30. A set of interrelated concepts that give a systematic
(c) Occupation with some practice view of a phenomenon which is explanatory and
(d) Occupation with large number of personnel working predictive in nature is known as:
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 (a) Construct (b) Theory
Correct Option (a) (c) Preposition (d) Process
24. Profession is defined as an occupation with which AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
component? Correct Option (b)
(a) Economy (b) Code of ethics 31. A paradigm can best be described as:
(c) Psychological (d) Social (a) Experiential knowledge
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019 (b) A way of looking at the world
Correct Option (b) (c) A deductive thought process
25. Which of the following is NOT supposed to be (d) Middle range theory
demonstrated as a part of professionalism? RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2013
(a) Transparency (b) Integrity Correct Option (b)
(c) Sense of duty (d) Dishonesty z Paradigm (conceptual diagram or model) is a
AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018 pattern that may serve as a model, example or way of
Correct Option (d) looking at the world.
26. Word ‘Nursing’ was defined by I.C.N. in which year: z It explains the linkages of science, philosophy and
(a) 1977 (b) 1972 (c) 1973 (d) 1978 theory accepted and applied by the discipline.
BSF Staff Nurse 2014 32. Four metaparadigms of nursing theory are: FAQ
Correct Option (c) (a) Person, Health, Environment & Nursing
z Virginia Avenel Henderson (first lady of nursing/ (b) Person, Health, Communication & Nursing
mother of modern nursing) posed the definition (c) Person, Wellness, Security & Nursing
of nursing in 1966, which was adopted by the (d) Nursing, Health, Communication & Person
international council of nursing in 1973. AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nsg. Officer 2018
z She developed nursing need theory (14 basic human Correct Option (a)
needs). z Nursing paradigm includes 4 major concepts, i.e.,
27. International Council of Nurses (ICN) was person/client, health, environment and nursing,
established in: FAQ which are known as the 4 meta-paradigm in nursing.
(a) 1867 (b) 1899 (c) 1950 (d) 1962 z The most important concept is the ‘person’.
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 33. In model of nursing care, the ……………..is the
Correct Option (b) centre of a professional practice model:
z ICN is a federation of more than 130 countries (a) Health care team (b) Nurse
national nurses association formed in the year 1899, (c) Patient and family (d) Physician
with headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland and its NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2021
main objective is to promote the development of Correct Option (c)
national nurses association. 34. A group of related ideas or statements is called:
28. The headquarters of International Council of (a) Theory (b) Philosophy
Nurses is located at: (c) Conceptual framework (d) Paradigm
(a) London (b) Geneva ESIC Staff Nurse 2019
(c) Chicago (d) Alberta Correct Option (c)
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 z A set of abstract and general concepts and statements
Correct Option (b) about those concepts is called conceptual framework
29. Which nursing organization was the first (also known as conceptual model, conceptual system
international organization of women nurses? and paradigm).
35. An example of conceptual framework is:
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING | 5

(a) Nursing process (b) Patients feedback Nursing

(c) Progress notes (d) Progressive patient care Year Central theme
theorist
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019
Imogene 1971 • Goal attainment theory
Correct Option (a)
King • Nurse and patients communicate to
36. Which of the following is NOT an example of
mutually set goals
Grand theory?
Betty 1972 • Systems model
(a) Health Belief theory
Newman • Based on individual’s reaction to
(b) Maslow’s hierarchy needs theory
stressors in the environment
(c) Self-care elderly model
• Focus on keeping the client system
(d) Community empowerment model
stable & assisting client adjustments
MNS SCC Exam 2024
to stressors
Correct Option (d)
37. .................is acknowledged to be the first nursing Sr. Callista 1974 • Adaptation model
theorist: FAQ Roy • Human beings tries to maintain a
(a) Florence Nightingale balance between bio-psycho-social
(b) Mary Breckenridge system
(c) Linda Richards • Nursing interventions are required
(d) Isabel Hampton Robb when client demonstrate ineffective
AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018 adaptive responses to environment
Correct Option (a) Madeleine 1978 • Transcultural caring theory
z Important nursing theories: Leininger • Caring is the central, unifying
domain for nursing knowledge &
Nursing practice
Year Central theme
theorist
Jean Watson 1979 • Human caring theory
Florence 1860 • Environmental theory • Holistic health care is central to the
Nightingale • Focus on environment of the patient, practice of nursing care
including cleanliness, ventilation,
Rosemarie 1981 • Human becoming theory
light, temperature, noise, diet, etc.
Parse (man-living-health)
Hildegard 1952 • Theory of interpersonal relationship 38. The nursing theory framework model of Florence
Peplau • Focus on therapeutic interpersonal Nightingale was:
relationship (a) Independent-functioning (b) Self-care
Virginia 1955 • Basic needs (14 basic needs) (c) Natural-healing (d) Adaptation
Henderson • Focus is on assisting the client in GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2016
performance of those activities Correct Option (c)
contributing to health or its recovery z Florence Nightingale’s environmental theory (13
Faye 1960 • 21 nursing-care problems were canons/concepts, i.e., ventilation, light, noise, diet,
Abdullah identified to determine patient cleanliness, etc.) believes that the environment
needs should be altered to allow for natural-healing.
Lydia E. 1966 • Focus on rehabilitation, 39. First nursing philosophy on health maintenance
Hall encompassing nursing’s autonomy, and restoration was established by:
therapeutic use of self, treatment (a) Florence Nightingale (b) Clara Barton
within the healthcare team (cure) & (c) Mary Eliza Mahoney (d) Dorthea Dix
nurturing (care) RRB Staff Nurse 2019
Myra E. 1967 • Conservation model Correct Option (a)
Levine • 4 conservation principles: energy, 40. Nursing was defined as ‘the art of utilising the
structural, personal & social environment of patients to assist them in their
integrity recovery’ by: FAQ
Martha 1970 • Science of unitary human beings (a) Florence Nightingale (b) Linda Richards
Rogers • Major concepts are energy (c) Virginia Henderson (d) M. Breckinridge
field, open field, pattern & pan- AIIMS Bhubaneswar SNO 2019
dimensionality Correct Option (a)
Dorothea 1971 • Self-care deficit theory 41. Adjustment of living matter to other things and to
Orem • Self-care deficits requires nursing environmental conditions is:
actions (a) Development theory
(b) Adaptation theory
8 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

62. Who used the term self-efficacy to describe a (a) Job satisfaction (b) Expensive
person’s perception of his/her ability to perform a (c) Personalized (d) Less confusion
certain task? IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2021
(a) Jen Delano (b) Albert Bandura Correct Option (b)
(c) Meme Hail (d) Adelaide Nting 69. The most ideal way of giving nursing care is by
NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2021 which one of these methods?
Correct Option (b) (a) Case method (b) Functional method
63. Who among the following propounded ‘Social (c) Team method (d) Primary care method
Learning Theory’? IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
(a) Sigmund Freud (b) Jean Piaget Correct Option (d)*
(c) Albert Bandura (d) Erik Erikson 70. Which method is the collaboration in providing
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 care to a group of clients under the direction of a
Correct Option (c) professional nurse?
(a) Case method (b) Primary method
Models of Nursing Care
(c) Modular method (d) Team method
64. Individualized, comprehensive and consistent care RRB Staff Nurse 2019
provided by one nurse for the total period of care Correct Option (d)
(24/7) is known as: FAQ z Team method or team nursing in which structured
(a) Case method (b) Functional nursing team members (professional, technical & unlicensed)
(c) Team nursing (d) Primary nursing provide direct care to a group of patients under the
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 direction of a professional registered nurse team leader.
Correct Option (d) 71. Modular nursing evolved from:
z Primary nursing care model: The nursing practice (a) Primary nursing (b) Emergency nursing
system in which the nurse assumes 24-hours (c) Team nursing (d) Case method
responsibility of the patient’s total care continuously NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2021
until discharge (even when the nurse is technically Correct Option (c)
off-duty). z Modular nursing is modification of team nursing
z This method is based on the concept of ‘my patient- in which a patient unit is divided into modules
my nurse’ and emphasizes continuity of care. (geographic area/unit) with the nurse as team leader.
65. When one nurse is responsible for all the needs of 72. Which of the following is NOT a method of patient
a patient from admission to discharge, it is called: assignment?
(a) Case management (b) Team nursing (a) Team nursing (b) Patient assignment
(c) Functional nursing (d) Primary nursing (c) Duty roster method (d) Functional method
AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023 AIIMS Bhopal Staff Nurse 2016
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (c)
66. The responsibility of the nurse in primary nursing 73. The type of hospital patient care assignment which
care model is: requires giving complete nursing care to a specific
(a) Assisting in work of team leader number and category of patients during the
(b) Working as team leader scheduled duty hours:
(c) Providing care to patient or group of patients for (a) Functional assignment
a period of time (b) Individual case assignment
(d) Providing care to patient or group of patients (c) Team nursing
during assigned shift (d) Organizational nursing
HSSC Haryana Staff Nurse 2017 RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (b)
67. Identifying a single nurse as the point of contact 74. A method of patient assignment in which a single
and primary caregiver for a patient during his/her nurse will provide complete nursing care to the
hospital stay is called: patient throughout her shift in order to promote
(a) Float nursing (b) Team-based nursing continuity of care is called: FAQ
(c) Primary nursing (d) Modular nursing (a) Functional method (b) Case method
NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023 (c) Primary nursing (d) Team nursing
Correct Option (c) AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
68. One of the following is disadvantage of primary Correct Option (b)
care: z Case method (client-focused care or total care): In this
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING | 9

system one nurse is assigned the total responsibility RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2009
for planning and delivering care to a client. Correct Option (a)
z It is more suitable for patients in ICU and for z Extended roles (activities concerned with patients,
unconscious patients. either in hospital or the community) of nurse include
75. The type of nursing care assignment is best suited caregiver, manager, advocate & protector, counselor,
in an Intensive Care Unit (ICU): nurse educator, communicator, rehabilitator,
(a) Case method (b) Functional method collaborator, school health nurse, occupational
(c) Team method (d) Primary care method nurse, parish nurse (physical and spiritual health)
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018 & 2017 and public health nurse, etc.
Correct Option (a) z Expanded roles (independent functioning, within
76. Which among the following is a case management the boundaries of the nurse) of nurses include
tool? advanced nurse practitioner, clinical nurse specialist,
(a) Concept map (b) Performance appraisal nurse anesthetist, nurse-midwife, nurse researcher,
(c) Nurses notes (d) Integrated care pathways nurse informatics, tele nurse, disaster nurse, hospice
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 nurse, etc.
Correct Option (d) 82. What is the duration of the course nurse practitioner
z Integrated care pathways (care maps or anticipated in critical care nursing according to INC?
recovery pathways) are structured multidisciplinary (a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) 4 years
care plans which detail essential steps in the care of AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
patients with a specific clinical problem. Correct Option (b)
77. Which of the following is TRUE about functional 83. The role of the medical surgical nurse, that uses
nursing? FAQ critical thinking, clinical judgment & the nursing
(a) Concentrates on task and activities process as a key tool for nursing practice is:
(b) Emphasizes use of group collaboration (a) Practitioner role (b) Leadership role
(c) One-to-one nurse-patient ratio (c) Managerial role (d) Research role
(d) Provides continuous, coordinated and AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
comprehensive nursing services Correct Option (a)
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020 84. Which of the below is NOT a role played by a nurse:
Correct Option (a) (a) Communicator (b) Physician/diagnostician
z Functional nursing (task-oriented method) is a (c) Counsellor (d) Caregiver
patient care model that uses the principle of division ESIC Staff Nurse 2019
of labour according to specific tasks. Correct Option (b)
z In this method each nurse is given a single task for a z Roles of nurse include caregiver (primary role),
large group of patients. coordinator, communicator, teacher/educator,
78. Best method to provide care to comatose patient is: counselor, manager, leader, motivator, delegator,
(a) Case method (b) Function method critical thinker, innovator, researcher, advocate, etc.
(c) Team method (d) Case & functional method 85. The nurse exhibits which of the following roles if
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 she stands to protect the needs and, wishes of the
Correct Option (d) patient?
79. Which type of patient assignment needs specific (a) Caregiver (b) Counsellor
personnel? (c) Teacher (d) Client advocate
(a) Patient method (b) Functional method IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
(c) Team method (d) None of the above Correct Option (d)
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017 z Patient advocacy means the nurse speaks, acts or
Correct Option (b) behaves in a way that benefits their patient, who may
80. Task-oriented approach of nursing care delivery is: not able to voice out his or her needs.
(a) Case management (b) Primary nursing 86. A nurse works with primary-level nurses to oversee
(c) Differentiated practice (d) Functional method the care of a specific caseload. This function denotes
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019 which of the following nurse roles?
Correct Option (d) (a) Case manager (b) Patient advocate
81. The nurse practitioner’s role may be categorized in (c) Change agent (d) Research consumer
all of the following EXCEPT: UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
(a) Traditional (b) Extended Correct Option (a)
(c) Expanded (d) Evaluative 87. The essential components of nursing profession are:
12 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(a) Autonomy (b) Justice (a) Deontologic (b) Beneficence

(c) Beneficence (d) Non-maleficence (c) Nonmaleficence (d) Utilitarian
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2018 AIIMS Bhubaneswar Staff Nurse 2018
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (d)
z Beneficence means duty to do good for others and to z Utilitarian system of ethics proposes that the value of
maintain a balance between benefits and harm. something is determined by its usefulness.
113. The principle of beneficence includes all the z This philosophy is also known as consequentialism
following, EXCEPT: (focus on consequences of action) because its main
(a) Freedom from harm emphasis is on the outcome or consequence of action.
(b) Freedom from exploitation z Teleology is the ethical theory stating that the value
(c) Benefits from research of a situation is determined by its consequences.
(d) The right to self‐determination 120. Which of the following is NOT true regarding
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 deontology?
Correct Option (d) (a) It focuses on the consequences of actions
114. An ethical principle which focuses to keep promises (b) It encompasses natural law
is called: FAQ (c) It incorporates dutiful actions of an individual
(a) Beneficence (b) Fidelity (d) It is also known as formalism
(c) Accountability (d) Confidentiality AIIMS Bhubaneswar SNO 2019
AIIMS Raipur SNO 2023 Correct Option (a)
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022 z Deontology defines actions as right or wrong based
Correct Option (b) on their “right-making characteristics” such as
z Fidelity in nursing means that nurses must be faithful fidelity to promises, truthfulness, and justice.
to promises they made as professionals to provide z It specifically does not look at consequences of
competent, quality care to their clients. actions to determine right or wrong.
115. An ethical principle that obligates faithfulness to 121. The ethical duty of nondisclosure of patient details
commitment and responsibility: by a health care provider is called:
(a) Veracity (b) Beneficence (a) Confidentiality (b) Privacy
(c) Fidelity (d) Nonmaleficence (c) Fidelity (d) Veracity
CCRAS (AYUSH) Staff Nurse 2019 AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (a)
116. The ethical principle, which shows obligation to tell 122. Keeping patient’s personal & medical information
the truth: FAQ private means:
(a) Autonomy (b) Veracity (a) Accountability (b) Unity
(c) Fidelity (d) Beneficence (c) Confidentiality (d) Flexibility
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (c)
z Veracity means the duty to tell the truth or neither 123. A male patient’s daughter telephones an adult-
lying nor deceiving (mislead) others. gerontology primary care nurse practitioner to
117. The principle of telling truth and not mislead the inquire about the patient’s illness. The daughter
patient is called: reports that her father relies upon her to explain
(a) Veracity (b) Justice everything to him. The nurse practitioner’s initial
(c) Fidelity (d) Compassion response is to:
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016 (a) Ask the daughter to provide a copy of the
Correct Option (a) patient’s advance directive document
118. Ethical principle stating that the human subjects (b) Tell the daughter that the nurse practitioner can
should be treated fairly is known as: discuss information only with patient
(a) Fidelity (b) Non-maleficence (c) Assure the daughter that nurse practitioner can
(c) Justice (d) Beneficence disclose the requested information
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 (d) Inform the daughter that she must come to the
Correct Option (c) clinic to discuss her father’s case
z Principle of justice pertains to participants’ right to RUHS (Raj.) Nurse Grade II 2013
fair treatment and right to privacy. Correct Option (b)
119. Which of the following action guiding theory z Nurses are accountable for protecting the client’s
explain that the rightness or wrongness of an action right to privacy and confidentiality.
depends on consequences of action? z Any information of the client to be kept secret, and
42 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

436. Which of the following are correct techniques while (a) 1: 3 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:2 (d) 3:1
checking blood pressure of a patient? AIIMS NORCET-6 (Prelims) Nsg. Officer 2024
I. Before the measurement patient must remain in Correct Option (b)
a sitting position for about 5 minutes 440. The Series of sound heard during measuring blood
II. The cuff must be at the level of the heart pressure is:
III. The arm must be freely hanging without any (a) Whisper (b) Rales (c) Korotkoff (d) Sniff
firm support AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023
IV. The stethoscope must be placed a little above Correct Option (c)
than the cuff z Sounds heard during auscultation of blood pressure
(a) I, II, IV (b) I, III, IV (c) I, II (d) II, IV are called Korotkoff sounds.
GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2019 441. While measuring the blood pressure using a
Correct Option (c) sphygmomanometer, how will the first Korotkoff
437. Arrange the steps involved in measuring blood sound be heard?
pressure correctly: (a) A sharp tapping
1. Place the stethoscope over the brachial artery (b) A blowing or whooshing
2. Inflate the blood pressure cuff to a level above (c) A crisp, intense tapping
the expected systolic pressure (d) A softer blowing that fades
3. Release the pressure in the cuff slowly RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019
4. Note the point at which the first sound is heard Correct Option (a)
(systolic) and the point at which the sound z Korotkoff sounds divided into five phases: I: sharp
disappears (diastolic) tapping sound (systolic pressure); II: blowing or
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 whooshing sound; III: crisper; intense tapping sound;
(c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1 IV: soft blowing sound that fades (diastolic pressure
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024 in infants and children); and V: silence (diastolic
Correct Option (a) pressure in adolescents and adults).
438. An accurate blood pressure of a client can be z Document the first Korotkoff sound at phase-I as the
obtained by: systolic pressure and the beginning of fifth Korotkoff
(a) A cuff that covers the upper one-third of the sound marks the disappearance of sound at phase-V
client’s arm as the diastolic pressure.
(b) Positioning the cuff approximately 4" above the 442. To avoid an error while measuring blood pressure,
antecubital space the nurse should:
(c) Use of cuff that is wide enough to cover two- (a) Use a narrow cuff
third of the client’s arm (b) Stand close to the manometer
(d) Identify ‘Korotkoff sounds’ and take systolic (c) Elevate the client’s arm on a pillow
reading, at 10 mm Hg after the first sound (d) Read at eye level
BHU Nsg. Officer 2018 BCCL Staff Nurse 2015
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (d)
z BP cuff bladder length should be 75-100% of the 443. Precautions apply during measurement of BP:
client’s measured arm circumference and width (a) Patient should be in supine position
should be 37-50% of the arm circumference (a (b) BP instrument keep above patient level
length-to-width ratio of 2:1) and wrap it 1 inch (2 (c) Record eye level measurement
cm) above the antecubital fossa. (d) None of these
z Cuff size based on arm circumference: ESIC Delhi Staff Nurse 2009
Cuff size Arm circumference Bladder dimention Correct Option (c)
(cm) (width×length), cm z Common errors in BP assessment:
Small adult 22-26 12×22 False-high reading False-low reading
Adult 27-34 16×30 Arm below heart level Arm above heart level
Large adult 35-44 16×36 Bladder or cuff is too narrow Bladder or cuff is too wide
Extra-large 45-52 16×42 Cuff wrapped too loosely Cuff wrapped too tightly
adult Deflating cuff too slowly Deflating the cuff too
439. Suppose you are a nurse on duty and you are asked (false-high diastolic quickly (false-low systolic &
to measure the BP of an adult. While choosing reading) false-high diastolic reading)
the cuff, the correct ratio of bladder in length and Read meniscus from below Read meniscus from above
width is? eye level eye level
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING | 71

z Common infusion sites are chest, abdomen, thighs 732. Vitamin K injection in a newborn is given at which
and upper arms. site?
z It is a useful and easy hydration technique for mild to (a) Right Deltoid (b) Left Deltoid
moderate dehydration, especially in elderly patients. (c) Mid-Thigh (d) Buttock
728. For IM injection, the nurse should insert the needle BHU Nsg. Officer 2018
into the muscle at an angle of: FAQ Correct Option (c)
(a) 30° (b) 15° (c) 45° (d) 90° 733. When giving a patient intramuscular preoperative
OSSSC, Odisha Nsg. Officer 2023 medications, the practical nurse must remember to
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2022 inject into site no more than?
Correct Option (d) (a) 1 mL (b) 2 mL (c) 3 mL (d) 4 mL
z In IM injection needle is inserted at a 90° angle. RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015
Site/ Age Needle size (Inch) Correct Option (c)
Vastus lateralis (Infant) 5/8" to 1" z Maximum volume for IM injection is 3 mL for a large
Deltoid (children) 5/8" to 1¼" muscle (gluteus medius) in a well-developed adult, 1
Deltoid (adults) 5/8" to 1½" to 2 mL for less developed muscles in children and
in older and thin clients and 0.5 to 1.0 mL for deltoid
Ventrogluteal (adults) 1½"
muscle.
729. A 4-year-old patient is scheduled for surgery. In 734. Which one of the following routes is NOT indicated
preparing this child’s preoperative injections, which for administering analgesic medicine?
size needle should the nurse select to administer (a) Intravenous (b) Intramuscular
this child’s IM injection? (c) Epidural (d) Intra-abdominal
(a) 20 G, 1½ inch (b) 18 G, 1½ inch RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
(c) 25 G, 5/8 inch (d) 22 G, 1½ inch Correct Option (d)
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2022 735. The reason for using the parenteral route to
Correct Option (d) administer medications includes:
730. Intramuscular injections can be injected in all of (a) Parenteral medications have a longer duration of
the following muscles EXCEPT: action than an oral medication
(a) Triceps (b) Deltoid (b) It is the least expensive method
(c) Vastus lateralis (d) Gluteal (c) It is easier to measure an accurate dose
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015 (d) The parenteral route allows more rapid
Correct Option (a) absorption than the oral route
z Muscles used to administer IM injections: AIIMS Bathinda Nsg. Officer 2019
♦ Gluteal [Dorso-gluteal & ventrogluteal (gluteus Correct Option (d)
medius)] is common site for IM injections and 736. Which route is most effective for rapid absorption
can be used up to 5 mL volume. Dorso-gluteal is and immediate effect in the body, the drug is given
not used due to risk of sciatic nerve damage. by:
♦ Vastus lateralis is located on the anterior lateral (a) Oral route (b) IV route
aspect of the thigh, used for children till 3 years. (c) IM route (d) SC route
♦ Deltoid muscle is located in the lateral upper RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012
aspect of the upper arm, used mainly for Correct Option (b)
vaccination and for small amounts of dose (1 737. The LEAST invasive route of administration of
mL). analgesia by a nurse is by:
731. The most preferred intramuscular injection site for (a) Rectal route (b) Intrathecal route
children and infants is: FAQ (c) Oral route (d) Intravenous route
(a) Ventrogluteal site (b) Vastus lateralis site CRPF Staff Nurse (SI) 2023
(c) Dorsogluteal site (d) Deltoid site Correct Option (c)
DMER, Mumbai Staff Nurse 2023 738. Which route of drug administration provides a
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019 rapid response in a patient?
Correct Option (b) (a) Intramuscular (b) Oral
z The IM injections in newborn, infant and toddlers (c) Subcutaneous (d) Sublingual
should be given in the middle third of the vastus SSB DD & DNH Nsg. Officer 2018
lateralis (involve quadriceps femoris muscle) by Correct Option (d)
using a 22 to 25 gauge (5/8 to 1 inch) needle. z In sublingual route, a tablet (e.g., nitroglycerin) is
z Gluteal and deltoid muscles are not used in infants placed under the patient’s tongue (rich in superficial
and children, because poorly developed. blood vessels), which allows the drug to be absorbed
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING | 79

(16G), green (18G), pink (20G), blue (22G), yellow 819. Which one among the following is a physiologically
(24G) and purple (26G). hypertonic solution?
815. Which of the following is NOT a precaution to be (a) 3% sodium chloride (b) 0.9% sodium chloride
taken in case of a patient with a central IV line? (c) 0.45% sodium chloride (d) 2.5% sodium chloride
(a) Optimal site selection (b) Hand hygiene ESIC Nsg. Officer 2024
(c) Changing line everyday (d) Skin antisepsis Correct Option (a)
AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018 820. Plasmolysis will occurs when the cell is placed in:
Correct Option (c) (a) Hypotonic solution (b) Isotonic solution
816. Normal saline is an: (c) Hypertonic solution (d) None of these
(a) Isotonic solution (b) Hypotonic solution HPSSC Staff Nurse 2020
(c) Hypertonic solution (d) None of the above Correct Option (c)
GMCH Mewat Haryana 2014 821. The osmolality of 0.45% sodium chloride is:
Correct Option (a) (a) 154 mOsm/L (b) 278 mOsm/L
z Normal serum osmolarity for healthy adults is 270 to (c) 308 mOsm/L (d) 512 mOsm/L
300 mOsm/L. GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2016
z A parenteral solution which osmolarity is within Correct Option (a)
normal range is called isotonic; those fluids greater 822. How much salt must be added in 1 litre of water to
than 300 mOsm/L is called hypertonic; and those make a solution of normal saline (0.9%)? FAQ
fluids less than 270 mOsm/L is called hypotonic. (a) 19 gm (b) 90 gm (c) 0.9 gm (d) 9 gm
Solution Tonicity mOsm/L IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2021
0.9% saline (NS) Isotonic 308 Correct Option (d)
Lactated Ringer’s solution Isotonic 274 z Normal saline (NS) contains 0.9% of sodium chloride
5% dextrose in water (D5W) Isotonic 278 (NaCl), so 1 litre of NS contains 9 gm NaCl.
z 0.9% means 0.9 gm NaCl into 100 mL solution.
5% dextrose in 0.225% saline Isotonic 321
823. Amount of salt into isotonic solution:
(5% D/¼ NS)
(a) 0.25% (b) 0.45% (c) 0.75% (d) 0.90%
0.45% saline (½ NS) Hypotonic 154
RPSC (Raj.) Staff Nurse 2007
0.33% saline (⅓ NS) Hypotonic 102 Correct Option (d)
0.225% saline (¼ NS) Hypotonic 77 824. Isotonic saline means, saline having concentration
3% saline (3% NS) Hypertonic 1026 of: FAQ
5% saline (5% NS) Hypertonic 1710 (a) 0.45 % (b) 1.45 % (c) 1.5 % (d) 0.9 %
10% dextrose in water (D10W) Hypertonic 556 IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019
5% dextrose in 0.9% saline Hypertonic 586 Correct Option (d)
(5% D/NS) 825. Identify the isotonic fluid among the following?
5% dextrose in 0.45% saline Hypertonic 432 (a) 0.9% NS (b) 5 % Dextrose
(5% D/½ NS) (c) RL (d) All the above
817. Which of the following IV fluids is an isotonic RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018
solution? Correct Option (d)
(a) 25% Dextrose (b) Ringer Lactate 826. 5% dextrose in water is…………..solution:
(c) 3% Normal saline (d) 0.45% Normal saline (a) Hypotonic (b) Isotonic (c) Colloidal (d) Hypertonic
CHO, Haryana 2022 HPSSC Staff Nurse 2021
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (b)
818. Which type of solution causes water to shift from 827. … is an isotonic solution among the following: FAQ
the cells into the plasma? FAQ (a) Ringer’s solution (b) 10% dextrose
(a) Alkaline (b) Hypotonic (c) Half-normal saline (d) 3% saline
(c) Acidic (d) Hypertonic AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018
AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (d) 828. Tonicity of Ringer Lactate solution is: FAQ
z Hypertonic solution means a solution having a (a) Isotonic (b) Normotonic
greater osmotic pressure than plasma. (c) Hypotonic (d) Hypertonic
z It draws out water from cells (ICF) to the plasma RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2009
(ECF), thus inducing plasmolysis. Correct Option (a)
z Plasmolysis means shrinking or decreasing of cytoplasm z Lactated Ringer’s (Hartmann’s) or sodium lactate
in a living cell caused by loss of water by osmosis. solution is an isotonic solution (274 mOsm/L &
116 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

1188. Sellick maneuver is used to prevent: C. Deaver 3. Useful in major abdominal surgery
(a) Alveolar collapse to retract deeper parts of the
(b) Hypertension abdominal wall or the bladder
(c) Aspiarion of gastric contents or uterus while operating on the
(d) Bradycardia rectum
AIIMS NORCET-7 (Prelims) Nsg. Officer 2024 D. Dyball 4. Useful for holding open wound
Correct Option (c) like in appendicectomy
z Sellick maneuver (cricoid pressure) is used for
rapid-sequence intubation (RSI) to prevent risk of
aspiration.
(a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (b) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
1189. Identify the Mapleson circuit type, shown in the
(c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
image below:
ESIC Nsg. Officer 2024
Correct Option (b)
(III) Postoperative Nursing Care
1193. You are a nurse assigned in a recovery room or post-
(a) Type A (b) Type B (c) Type C (d) Type D anesthetic care unit (PACU). The main priority of
Correct Option (b) care in such area is:
z Mapleson or controlled breathing systems (A to F) (a) Keeping airway intact
are used for delivering O2 and anaesthetic agents and (b) Keeping patient pain
to eliminate CO2 during anaesthesia. (c) Keeping neurological status stable
z Ayre’s T-piece (type E) anesthesia circuit used in (d) Keeping relatives informed of patient’s condition
infants. IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019
1190. Identify the instrument: Correct Option (a)
z Maintaining a patent airway postoperatively is
priority nursing intervention because airway
obstruction commonly occurs due to tongue falling
back or due to fluid collection or edema in airway.
1194. A client arrives from surgery to the post-anesthesia
(a) Vascular stapler (b) Diagonal stapler care unit (PACU). The nurse should complete which
(c) Circular stapler (d) Linear stapler of the following respiratory assessments first?
AIIMS (NORCET) Nsg. Officer 2020 (a) Airway flow (b) Breath sound
Correct Option (c) (c) Respiratory rate (d) Oxygen saturation
1191. Identify the instrument: RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
Correct Option (a)
1195. Ms. Anita asks the nurse when she can start
eating after surgery. What is the most appropriate
response by the nurse?
(a) “You’ll have to ask the doctor”
(b) “Tell me about your appetite”
(a) Vascular stapler (b) Diagonal stapler (c) “You’ll likely start on clear fluids once bowel
(c) Circular stapler (d) Linear stapler sounds can be heard”
AIIMS (NORCET) Nsg. Officer 2020 (d) “I’ll have the dietician consult with you about
Correct Option (d) most nutritious post-surgery menus”
1192. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2019
answer using the code given below the lists: Correct Option (c)
List-I (Retractor) List-II (Use) z NPO status is maintained until the gag reflex and
A. Langenbeck 1. Useful for giving maximum peristalsis/bowel sound returns or flatus pass.
exposure in large incision such as z First, ice chips/water is offered; then clear to full
those used in abdomen liquids; if tolerated.
B. Morris 2. Useful for holding the liver up 1196. After a child returns from post-anesthesia care unit
during cholecystectomy (PACU) after surgery, which of the following would
the Nurse assess first?
(a) The intravenous fluid access site
 2

MEDICAL–SURGICAL NURSING
INCLUDING
ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY

“Every human being is the author of his

own health or disease.”
– Swami Sivananda Saraswati
 Cell and Tissues

CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021

ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY Correct Option (b)
8. The main difference between a prokaryotic cell and
Cells
an eukaryotic cell is absence of:
1. …… are the smallest functional units of the body: (a) Plasma membrane (b) True nucleus
(a) Cartilages (b) Tissues (c) Mitochondria  (d) Flagella
(c) Cells (d) Fibres AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nsg. Officer 2018
HSSC Haryana Staff Nurse 2023 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (c) z Prokaryotic cells are the cells that do not have a
z The cells are basic structural, functional and true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles (e.g.,
biological units of life. bacterial and archaea cells).
z Human body is made up of about 100 trillion cells. z Eukaryotic cells are the cells that contain a true
2. These are the basic units or building blocks of living membrane-bound nucleus and organelles (e.g.,
organisms: animals, protozoa, fungi and plants cells).
(a) Enzyme (b) Proton (c) Cells (d) Neutron 9. Identify false statements from the following with
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019 regards to prokaryotes?
Correct Option (c) (a) Deoxyribonucleoprotein is absent
3. Robert Hooke discovered the cell in which year? (b) Muramic acid is present
(a) 1665 (b) 1725 (c) 1545 (d) 1595 (c) Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus are present
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2022 (d) One chromosome is present
Correct Option (a) DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
4. Who proposed the “cell theory”? Correct Option (c)
(a) Schleiden & Schwann (b) Watson & Crick 10. Which of the following is NOT assimilated by
(c) Mendel & Morgan (d) Robert Hooke eukaryotic cells?
Correct Option (a) (a) Lactate (b) Sulfate (c) Nitrogen (d) Glucose
5. Which of the following is NOT a feature of life? ESIC Staff Nurse 2019
(a) Growth (b) Responsiveness Correct Option (c)
(c) Reproduction (d) Organ System 11. Cell membrane is: FAQ
BSF Staff Nurse 2014 (a) Semipermeable (b) Permeable
Correct Option (d) (c) Impermeable (d) Selectively-permeable
z Except organ system, other options are basic life HPSSC Staff Nurse 2020
processes that distinguish living from non-living. Correct Option (d)
z Six most important life processes of the human body z Cell membrane, also called the plasma membrane,
are metabolism, responsiveness, movement, growth, consists of a lipid bilayer, made up of three types of
differentiation and reproduction. lipids molecules-phospholipids (75%), cholesterol
z Cell, tissue, organ, system and whole body are (20%) and glycolipids (5%).
structural hierarchy or compositional systems of the z The fluid-mosaic model of the bimembrane or cell
body. membrane proposed by SJ Singer and GL Nicolson.
6. How many types of cells are known? z It helps in maintaining water and salt balance across
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four membranes in the body is called osmoregulation.
Correct Option (c) 12. What kind of substance cannot permeate the
z The three types of cells are known as prokaryotic, membrane by passive diffusion?
mesokaryotic and eukaryotic. (a) Lipid-Soluble
7. The…………..occupies the central portion of the (b) Non-ionized substances
cell and is the main regulator of its activity: (c) Hydrophobic substances
(a) Pinocytic vesicle (b) Nucleus (d) Hydrophilic substances
(c) Nuclear membrane (d) Cytoplasm
 Hematological System

5. pKa of the amino group of glycine is 9.6. The pH

ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY range at which glycine can be used as effective
buffer due to its amino group is:
Components of Blood
(a) 7.6 to 9.6 (b) 8.6 to 10.6
1. The approximate volume of blood in a normal adult (c) 9.6 to 11.6 (d) 10.6 to 12.6
male is: CHO, Himachal Pradesh 2022
(a) 10 Ltr (b) 2 Ltr (c) 5 Ltr (d) 8 Ltr Correct Option (b)
AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018 6. The blood contains:
Correct Option (c) (a) 90% of water (b) 80% of water
z Physical characteristics of blood: (c) 95% of water (d) 60% of water
Features Normal Value LNJP Delhi Staff Nurse 2013
Colour Bright red (O2-rich) and dark red (O2-poor) Correct Option (d)
z Blood contains 50 to 60% (average 55%) a clear,
Volume 5-6 L (males); 4-5 L (females);
straw-coloured liquid is called plasma.
450 mL (newborn)
z Blood plasma contains 91.5% water and 8.5% solutes
Viscosity 4-5 times more viscous than water (mainly plasma proteins).
Temperature 38° C (100.4° F) 7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
pH 7.35-7.45 (slightly alkaline) answer from the codes given below the lists:
2. The normal pH of blood is: FAQ List-I (Cell type) List-II (Function)
(a) 9.01 – 9.99 (b) 6.35 –6.45 A. Red Blood Cell 1. Help blood to clot
(c) 7.35 – 7.45 (d) 7.50 –7.60 B. White Blood Cell 2. Fight infection
JSSHS Delhi Nsg. Officer 2019
C. Platelets 3. Carrier or dissolved substances
AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nsg. Officer 2018
Correct Option (c) D. Plasma 4. Transport oxygen
3. The pH of arterial plasma in healthy individuals is: (a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(a) 7.5 (b) 7.6 (c) 7.4 (d) 7.2 (c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
AIIMS Bhubaneswar SNO 2019 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (c) z Blood (fluid of life or growth or health) is a connective
4. Blood is a: tissue and has two components, i.e., 55% blood
(a) Acidic Solution (b) Basic Solution plasma and 45% formed elements or cells (RBC,
(c) Buffer Solution (d) Neutral Solution WBC and platelets).
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2016 z Blood plasma contains water (91.5%), plasma
Correct Option (c) proteins (7%) and other solutes (1.5%) like inorganic
z Buffer solution is an aqueous solution of a mixture salts, hormones, gases, waste material, nutrients, etc.
of a weak acid & its salt (acid buffer, e.g., carbonic 8. Plasma of the blood is made up of:
acid) or a weak base with its salt (basic buffer, e.g., (a) Protein and salt (b) Water
sodium bicarbonate) for maintaining a constant pH, (c) Protein, water and salt (d) Carbohydrate
especially of the blood. CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022
z The 3 main buffer systems of the body fluids are Correct Option (c)
protein buffer system, carbonic acid-bicarbonate 9. The maximum amount of carbon dioxide in the
buffer system and phosphate buffer system. human body is transported as:
z The protein buffer system is the most abundant buffer (a) Bicarbonate (b) Carbide
in intracellular fluid (ICF) and blood plasma. For (c) Amylase (d) None of the above
example, the protein haemoglobin is a good buffer UPUMS, Saifai Nsg. Officer 2024
within the RBCs and albumin is the main protein Correct Option (a)
buffer in blood plasma. 10. Which of the following is NOT a type of blood cell?
 MEDICAL–SURGICAL NURSING INCLUDING ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY | 163

(c) Early normoblast stage A. Ensure cleanliness and dryness of the

(d) Pronormoblast stage hemoglobinometer tubes and pipette
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 B. Fill the hemoglobinometer tube with N/10 HCl up
Correct Option (b) to its lowest mark (2 g% or 10%) using a dropper
34. Normal reticulocyte count of blood is: C. Draw blood up to the mark in the Sahli’s pipette
(a) 1 to 2% (b) 5% (c) 10% (d) 25% (20 μl), wipe off excess blood and transfer it to
BSF Staff Nurse 2015 the N/10 HCl in the haemoglobin tube
Correct Option (a) D. Allow it to sit for 10 minutes for complete
z Reticulocyte is the last immature stage of RBCs and haemoglobin to hematin conversion
develops into mature RBCs within 1 to 2 days after E. Add distilled water drop by drop, stirring until
their release from red bone marrow. the colour matches the standard glass of the
z Normal reticulocyte count of blood is about 0.5 to comparator
1.5% of all RBCs. F. Read the haemoglobin concentration at the
z In newborn babies, the reticulocyte count is 2% to lower meniscus, providing the concentration in
6% of RBCs. 100 mL of blood
z Miller disc method is used for reticulocyte counting. (a) ABCDEF (b) AFDCEB
35. The most important function of RBC is: (c) FEADCB (d) DCEFBA
(a) To act as anti-parasite and anti-allergen CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024
(b) To transport O2 from lungs to the tissues Correct Option (a)
(c) To prevent bleeding by haemostasis 40. Haemoglobin is a type of:
(d) To provide first-line of defence (a) Carbohydrate (b) Respiratory pigment
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 (c) Skin pigment (d) Vitamins
Correct Option (b) RML Delhi Staff Nurse 2011
36. The normal newborn hemoglobin level is: FAQ Correct Option (b)
(a) 17-20 g/dL (b) 12-14 g/dL z The term “respiratory pigment” refers to any pigment
(c) 10-12 g/dL (d) 20-25 g/dL such as hemoglobin, myoglobin (oxygen-binding
AIIMS Bhubaneswar SNO 2019 pigment in muscles) and neuroglobin (oxygen-
Correct Option (a) binding pigment in brain) that has a part in the
z Normal levels of haemoglobin (Hb) are 18-20 gm/dL metabolism of oxygen within the body.
at birth, 17 gm/dL at one year, 15 gm/dL as an adult 41. Which one of the following is an example of
male and 14 gm/dL as an adult female. chromoprotein?
37. The average Hb content of human blood is: (a) Haemoglobin (b) Mucin
(a) 18-23 gm/dL (b) 14-16 gm/dL (c) Glutenin (d) Casein
(c) 8-10 gm/dL (d) 16-20 gm/dL DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
DSSSB PHN 2015 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (b) 42. Which of the following is correct concerning fetal
38. Identify the given below image: hemoglobin (HbF)?
(a) HbF is present only in fetal life
(b) HbF is composed of 2 alpha and 2 gamma
subunits
(c) HbF has decreased oxygen carrying capacity
(d) HbF is composed of 2 alpha & 2 beta subunits
BHU Nsg. Officer 2019
Correct Option (b)
z Fetal hemoglobin (Hb present in RBC of fetus) has
better oxygen-binding capacity than adult Hb.
(a) Sahli’s Hemoglobinometer z Adult hemoglobin composed of two α- (alpha)
(b) Sphygmomanometer chains and two β- (beta) chains and fetal hemoglobin
(c) Thermometer composed of two α- (alpha) chains and two γ-
(d) Nebulizer (gamma) chains.
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024 43. Normal adult hemoglobin contains:
Correct Option (a) (a) One alpha chains and one beta chains
39. Arrange the steps for the estimation of HB through (b) One alpha chains and two beta chains
Sahli’s Haemoglobinometer in the correct order: (c) One beta chains and two alpha chains
168 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2018 X and V in the presence of calcium and platelets.
Correct Option (a) ♦ Conversion of prothrombin into thrombin in
z Hemostasis means arrest or stoppage of bleeding. presence of calcium and thromboplastin.
z It occurs in 3 stages, i.e., vasoconstriction, platelet ♦ Conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin (fibrin is an
plug formation and coagulation of blood. insoluble protein which is a last product of the
84. Platelets get activated when they come in contact process of coagulation).
with: 89. Last product of the process of blood coagulation is:
(a) Heparin (b) Collagen (a) Prothrombin (b) Thrombin
(c) Fibrinogen (d) Endothelium (c) Thromboplastin (d) Fibrin
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016 NVS (Navodaya) Staff Nurse 2019
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (d)
z When the endothelium is damaged, platelets come 90. In the coagulation process, which enzyme converts
with the contact of exposed collagen and von inactive fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin threads?
Willebrand factor and become activated. (a) Prothrombin activator (b) Prothrombin
z The activated platelets secrete serotonin, which cause (c) Thromboplastin (d) Thrombin
constriction of the blood vessels. RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019
85. Total number of blood clotting factors are: FAQ Correct Option (d)
(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 91. A characteristic of afibrinogenemia is the:
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024 (a) Absence of circulating fibrinogen
Correct Option (b) (b) Circulating fibrinogen is reduced in quantity &
z Substances necessary for clotting are called clotting is functionally abnormal
(coagulation) factors. (c) Reduced levels of circulating fibrinogen
z The 13 clotting (coagulation) factors include: I- (d) Circulating fibrinogen is dysfunctional
Fibrinogen, II- Prothrombin, III- Tissue factor CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024
(thromboplastin), IV- Calcium ions (Ca2+), V- Correct Option (a)
Labile factor (proaccelerin or accelerator globulin), 92. Which of the following minerals is necessary for
VI- (No factor), VII- stable factor (proconvertin), blood clotting?
VIII- Antihemophilic factor (antihemophilic factor (a) Iron (b) Sodium
A), IX- Christmas factor (antihemophilic factor B), (c) Potassium (d) Calcium
X- Stuart-Prower factor, XI- Plasma thromboplastin RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
antecedent (antihemophilic factor C), XII- Hageman Correct Option (d)
factor and XIII- Fibrin-stabilizing factor (Fibrinase). z Calcium ions (clotting factor IV) plays an important
86. What is the synonym of clotting factor II? FAQ role in blood clotting because it is involved in
(a) Fibrinogen (b) Christmas factor various reactions of intrinsic, extrinsic and common
(c) Prothrombin (d) Calcium pathways of the process of coagulation.
AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020 93. Which of the following is NOT required for clot
Correct Option (c) formation?
87. What is the name of the factor XII in the blood (a) Plasmin (b) Calcium
coagulation process? (c) Vitamin K (d) Fibrinogen
(a) Prothrombin (b) Christmas factor BHU Nsg. Officer 2019
(c) Stuart factor (d) Hageman factor Correct Option (a)
AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022 z Except plasmin, all others are essential for clot
Correct Option (d) formation.
88. During clotting, the prothrombin is changed to z Plasmin is a fibrinolytic enzyme derived from its
thrombin in the presence of: precursor plasminogen.
(a) Calcium ions and fibrinogen 94. Blood clotting time (CT) is considerably prolonged
(b) Thromboplastin and vitamin K in deficiency of: FAQ
(c) Calcium ion and vitamin K (a) Vitamin B2 (b) Vitamin B12
(d) Calcium ion and thromboplastin (c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin B6
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015 ESIC Staff Nurse 2016
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (c)
z Blood clotting occur in three stages: z Vitamin K (anti-hemorrhagic factor) is needed for
♦ Formation of prothrombin activator or clotting, although it is directly not involved in actual
prothrombinase with the help of activated factors clot formation.
 MEDICAL–SURGICAL NURSING INCLUDING ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY | 183

240. The nurse cares for a patient with leukaemia. The ♦ Its sites are posterior superior iliac crest
patient tells the nurse that he is having abdominal (preferred site), anterior iliac crest and sternum
pain. The nurse understands that the abdominal are alternative sites in adult/children and tibial
pain is due to: FAQ tuberosity in infants.
(a) Persistent vomiting ♦ Informed consent is obtained before procedure.
(b) Intra-abdominal bleeding ♦ Its indications are to diagnose blood disorders
(c) Hepatosplenomegaly such as cancer, aplastic anemia and infectious
(d) Side effects of drugs diseases that affect bone marrow depression.
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021 245. A child with leukemia having nausea should be
Correct Option (c) offered:
241. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic myeloid (a) Cold clear fluid (b) Warm clear fluid
leukemia (CML). The nurse should assess the client (c) Low protein diet (d) Low calorie diet
for: RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016
(a) Lymphadenopathy (b) Hyperplasia of the gum Correct Option (a)
(c) Shortness of breath (d) Bone pain z Leukemia patients should provide small, frequent
Correct Option (c) meals with high-calories, high-proteins and high-
242. Gold standard in the diagnosis of leukemia is: FAQ carbohydrates that require little chewing like cold
(a) Blood culture & sensitivity (b) Bone X-Ray clear fluid.
(c) Bone marrow biopsy (d) Bone biopsy 246. Which of these beverages can be given to a child
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2018 with leukemia if nausea occurs?
Correct Option (c) (a) Orange juice (b) Weak tea
z Definitive test for leukemia is microscopic (c) Plain water (d) Carbonated beverage
examination of cells obtained from bone marrow IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
aspiration and biopsy. Correct Option (c)
z Immature blast cells (immature leukocytes; more 247. You are caring for a ten-year-old with ALL, who
than 20%) is a hallmark of the diagnosis. underwent a bone marrow transplant. To provide
243. Which of the following is used as a diagnostic test a safe effective care environment what would be
for CML? included in a plan of care:
(a) FISH (b) BMB (c) LAP score (d) Karyotyping (a) Rectal temperature every four hourly to monitor
Correct Option (a) for infection
z In CML, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) (b) Encourage the child to go to play room to limit
and/or PCR is used determine the Philadelphia isolation
chromosome or BCR-ABL1 oncoprotein. (c) Use of egg crate or other pressure reducing mattress
244. As part of the preparation for a bone marrow (d) Inserts a Foley’s catheters to monitor output
aspiration, the nurse would: FAQ RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2014
(a) Explain the procedure to the patient and have Correct Option (c)
the patient sign a consent form z Use of egg crate or other pressure reducing mattress
(b) Tell the patient that no anaesthetic can be given to reduce the pressure on pressure points that helps
because it interferes with the quality of the to prevent pressure sore.
sample z Other activities like rectal temperature, urinary
(c) Show the patient the location of the posterior catheterization and not maintaining strict isolation
iliac crest where the sample will be taken are contraindicated in bone marrow transplant
(d) Discuss the need to remain on bed rest for 6 to 8 patients.
hours after the procedure to prevent bleeding 248. A 4-year-old newly diagnosed with leukemia, is
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013 placed on bed rest. While assisting with morning
Correct Option (a) care, the nurse notes bloody expectorant after the
z Procedure for bone marrow aspiration/biopsy: child has brushed the teeth. The nurse should first:
♦ It is an invasive procedure under local anesthesia, (a) Secure a smaller toothbrush for the child
used to remove a small volume (5 mL) of tissue (b) Tell the child to be more careful while brushing
(bone marrow biopsy) and fluid filled with blood the teeth
cells (bone marrow aspiration) from the central (c) Record and report the incident without alarming
core of a bone by a large-bore needle (e.g., the child
Jamshidi needle). (d) Rinse the child’s mouth with half-strength
hydrogen peroxide
 Cardiovascular System

NHM, Rajasthan Staff Nurse 2024

ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY Correct Option (b)
6. The innermost layer of the heart is called: FAQ
Heart
(a) Myocardium (b) Endocardium
1. The…………system comprises the heart, blood, (c) Epicardium (d) Pericardium
and blood and lymph vessels: RRB Staff Nurse 2019
(a) Circulatory (b) Skeletal Correct Option (b)
(c) Cartilage (d) Muscular 7. What is the normal amount of pericardial fluid?
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 (a) 5-10 mL (b) 20-50 mL
Correct Option (a) (c) 50-100 mL (d) 100-150 mL
2. The heart is developed from which embryonic Correct Option (b)
structure? 8. Which of the below is NOT a function of the fibrous
(a) Paraxial mesoderm skeleton of the heart?
(b) Intermediate mesoderm (a) Acts as a point of insertion for cardiac muscle
(c) Splanchnopleuric intraembryonic mesoderm fibers
(d) Somatopleuric intraembryonic mesoderm (b) Forms structural foundation for heart valve
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2022 (c) Conducts impulses from atria to ventricles
Correct Option (c) (d) Prevents overstretching of the valves
3. The apex of the heart is formed mostly by: ESIC Staff Nurse 2019
(a) Central ventricle (b) Left ventricle Correct Option (c)
(c) Right atrium (d) Left atrium z Fibrous skeleton of the heart (cardiac skeleton)
AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020 consists of four dense connective tissue rings that
Correct Option (b) surround the valves of the heart, fuse with one
4. The fibroserous sac that covers the heart is called: another and merge with the interventricular septum.
(a) Endocardium (b) Epicardium z It prevents overstretching of the valves as blood passes
(c) Myocardium (d) Pericardium through them and serves as a point of insertion for
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2022 bundles of cardiac muscle fibers.
Correct Option (d) z It acts as an electrical insulator between the atria and
z Heart wall is consists of three layers: ventricles.
♦ Pericardium (outermost layer) is made up of 9. The sinus venarum and the atrium meet at the
two parts: outer fibrous tissue and inner double muscular ridges called:
layer of serous membrane (i.e., outer parietal (a) Crista terminalis (b) Fossa ovalis
pericardium and inner visceral pericardium/ (c) Venae cordis minimae (d) Auricle
epicardium). CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022
♦ Myocardium (middle layer) is the thick (95% Correct Option (a)
of the heart wall) and functional muscular layer 10. Cardiac muscle differ from skeletal muscle by: FAQ
formed by cardiac muscle fibers. (a) It contains actin and myosin
♦ Endocardium (innermost layer) is a thin and (b) It has automaticity and conductivity
smooth membrane formed by squamous (c) It needs calcium for contraction
epithelium (called endothelium) that lines the (d) It thrives without oxygen
chambers of the heart and is continuous with the JIPMER Staff Nurse 2013
lining (intima) of the arteries and veins. Correct Option (b)
5. Human heart is protected by a double-walled z Cardiac muscle differs from skeletal muscle in that it
membranous bag, known as: has the ability to produce its own impulses regularly
(a) Mesocardium (b) Pericardium is called rhythmicity (autorhythmicity or self-
(c) Endocardium (d) Atria excitation).
186 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

z It has gap junctions which allow muscle action 17. Which of the following contains deoxygenated
potentials to conduct from one cardiac muscle fiber blood?
to another (conductivity). (a) Aorta (b) Pulmonary artery
11. The action of the heart related to the excitability of (c) Subclavian (d) Pulmonary vein
cardiac muscle is called: AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nsg. Officer 2018
(a) Chronotropic action (b) Inotropic action Correct Option (b)
(c) Dromotropic action (d) Bathmotropic action 18. Which portion of the heart receives oxygenated
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023 blood?
Correct Option (d) (a) Left auricle (b) Right auricle
z Actions of cardiac muscle: (c) Left ventricle (d) Right ventricle
Action Definition NPCIL Staff Nurse 2019
Correct Option (a)
Chronotropic Frequency of heartbeat
z Left auricle or atrium receives oxygenated (oxygen-
Inotropic Force of contraction of heart rich) blood from the lungs through four pulmonary
Dromotropic Conduction of impulse through heart veins.
Bathmotropic Excitability of cardiac muscle 19. The only vein in the body that transports oxygen
rich blood is the:
Lusitropic Relaxation of cardiac muscle
(a) Pulmonary vein (b) Coronary vein
Heart Chambers (c) Hepatic portal vein (d) Aortic vein
DMER, Mumbai Staff Nurse 2023
12. Human heart is a cone-shaped…… muscular pump:
Correct Option (a)
(a) Six-chambered (b) Four-chambered
20. Oxygenated blood first enters into which chamber
(c) Two-chambered (d) Three-chambered
of heart:
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021
(a) Right atrium (b) Left atrium
Correct Option (b)
(c) Right ventricle (d) Pulmonary aorta
z Human heart has 4 chambers, i.e., two superior
ESIC Delhi Staff Nurse 2009
receiving chambers are called atria (right and left
Correct Option (b)
atrium) and two inferior pumping chambers are
21. Which chamber of the heart ejects oxygenated
called ventricles (right and left ventricle).
blood into the systemic circulation?
13. How many chambers are there in the heart of fish?
(a) Left atrium (b) Left ventricle
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
(c) Right atrium (d) Right ventricle
RRB Staff Nurse 2019
Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (c)
z Left ventricle is the thickest chamber of the heart (10
14. Deoxygenated blood from the body via superior
to 15 mm); it receives oxygenated blood from the
and inferior vena cava is received in:
lungs via the left atrium and pumps blood into the
(a) Left atrium (b) Right ventricle
systemic circulation via aorta.
(c) Right atrium (d) Left ventricle
22. Artery supply to Koch’s triangle is from:
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2024
(a) Right coronary artery
Correct Option (c)
(b) Left coronary artery
z Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the
(c) Left anterior descending artery
entire body (except lungs) through the superior and
(d) Artery from anterior aortic sinus
inferior venae and coronary sinus (deoxygenated
Correct Option (a)
blood of myocardium).
z Boundaries of Koch’s triangle are formed by the
15. The only artery which supplies deoxygenated blood:
coronary sinus orifice, tendon of Todaro and
(a) Pulmonary artery (b) Hepatic artery
tricuspid valve annulus.
(c) Gastric artery (d) Renal artery
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014 Heart Valves & Heart Sounds
Correct Option (a) 23. Tricuspid valve is located between: FAQ
z The only artery of an adult that carries deoxygenated (a) Right atrium and right ventricle
(oxygen-poor) blood from the right ventricle to (b) Left atrium and left ventricle
lungs is called pulmonary artery or trunk. (c) Left ventricle and aorta
16. Entry channels of heart are all, EXCEPT: (d) Left and right ventricle
(a) Superior vena cava (b) Inferior vena cava RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2013
(c) 4 pulmonary veins (d) Pulmonary trunk Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (d)
 MEDICAL–SURGICAL NURSING INCLUDING ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY | 193

85. Where does the lymph drain from the right lung? Parameter Normal range
(a) Paratracheal and upper bronchopulmonary JVP (jugular venous pressure) 6-8 cm H2O
nodes Portal venous pressure 8-12 mm Hg
(b) Bronchopulmonary lymph nodes
PAWP (pulmonary artery wedge 4-12 mm Hg
(c) Paratracheal bifurcation nodes
pressure) or left artrial pressure
(d) Tracheobronchial nodes
Pulmonary artery occlusion 6-12 mm Hg
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022
pressure (PAOP)
Correct Option (b)
86. Which technique used to palpate lymph nodes: MAP (mean arterial pressure) 70-105 mm Hg
(a) Press nodes by both hand index finger Arterial PO2 100 mm Hg
(b) Rotate two finger pads in circular motion Arterial O2 saturation (SaO2) 95-100%
(c) Fell the defect by back of hands Central venous saturation (ScvO2) ≥70%
(d) Use all four fingers in horizontal motion Cardiac output (CO) 4-8 L/min
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 Cardiac index (CI) 2.5-4.0 L/min/m2
Correct Option (b) 90. Average systolic blood pressure (BP) in healthy
87. The purpose of lymph nodes is to trap: adult is:
(a) Antigens (b) Macrophages (a) 150-160 mmHg (b) 100-140 mmHg
(c) Hormones (d) RBCs (c) 140-170 mmHg (d) 160-170 mmHg
JIPMER Staff Nurse 2013 IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (b)
z Lymph nodes are about 600 bean-shaped lymphoid z Normal systolic pressure is 120 mm Hg (110 mm Hg
organs that lie at intervals along the lymphatic to 140 mm Hg) and diastolic pressure is 80 mm Hg
vessels, which filter lymph. (60 mm Hg to 80 mm Hg).
z A lymph flows through lymph nodes, antigens 91. Blood pressure in lower limb is recorded from:
(cellular debris and pathogens) trapped and (a) Internal pudendal artery (b) Tibial artery
destroyed by macrophages by direct phagocytosis. (c) Popliteal artery (d) Femoral artery
88. Buboes are: Correct Option (c)
(a) Enlarged tender lymph nodes 92. The lowest pressure that occurs when the heart is at
(b) Enlarged tender arteries its resting period, just before the contraction of the
(c) Enlarged bones left ventricle is known as:
(d) Tender muscles (a) Diastolic pressure (b) Hypertension
UPRVUNL, U.P. Staff Nurse 2021 (c) Systolic pressure (d) Pulse pressure
Correct Option (a) AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019
Correct Option (a)
Hemodynamic Monitoring 93. A patient Mr. Shyam Modi has BP measured is 83
89. Infants undergoing cardiac surgery require /50 mm Hg; which of the following would be his
meticulous preoperative assessment of their Mean Arterial blood pressure (MAP) in mm of Hg?
hemodynamic and thus dehydration must be (a) 63 (b) 60 (c) 62 (d) 61
avoided in patients. Hemodynamic means: AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2022
(a) Dynamics of blood flow Correct Option (d)
(b) Dynamics of nervous system z MAP= Diastolic BP + ⅓ (Pulse Pressure)
(c) Dynamics of breathing MAP = 50 + ⅓ (33) = 61
(d) Dynamics of muscle movements 94. The normal mean pulmonary artery pressure is:
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024 (a) 10-15 mm Hg (b) 15-20 mm Hg
Correct Option (a) (c) 20-25 mm Hg (d) 25-30 mm Hg
z Hemodynamic monitoring parameters: HPSSC Staff Nurse 2021
Parameter Normal range Correct Option (a)
CVP/Right atrial pressure (RAP) 2-8 mm Hg z Normal mean pulmonary artery pressure is 12 mm Hg.
Right ventricular pressure (RVP) z Mean blood pressure means the sum of twice the
• Systolic (RVSP) 15-30 mm Hg diastolic BP plus the systolic BP and then divided by 3.
• Diastolic (RVDP) 2-8 mm Hg z Mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP):
Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) (PASP +2PADP)
mPAP = 3
• Systolic (PASP) 15-30 mm Hg
= (25 + 2 × 10) ÷ 3 = 15 mm Hg
• Diastolic (PADP) 8-15 mm Hg
z Pulmonary hypertension is mPAP >20 mm Hg.
196 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

z Chest X-ray confirmation for catheter tip placement a systolic blood pressure (SBP) ≥140 mm Hg and a
is essential before starting IV fluid. diastolic blood pressure (DBP) ≥90 mm Hg on two
z It should demonstrate the distal tip of the central separate occasions.
venous line within either the superior vena cava (SC/ z Classification of Blood Pressure (ESH, 2023):
IJ) or inferior vena cava (femoral). Category SBP (mmHg) DBP (mmHg)
120. A nurse is monitoring manometer for CVP value
Optimal < 120 < 80
from a central line inserted via the brachial vein.
CVP line inserted in a patient in ICU on face mask Normal 120-129 80-84
with oxygen. For correct reading she should record High-normal 130-139 85-89
the value at: Hypertension grade 1 140-159 90-99
(a) She should disconnect the manometer just
Hypertension grade 2 160-179 100-109
before reading
(b) Either is correct Hypertension grade 3 ≥ 180 ≥ 110
(c) End expiration 124. What recommendation should a nurse give to a
(d) End inspiration 55-year-old patient with a blood pressure of 150/90
AIIMS Jodhpur/Rishikesh Staff Nurse 2017 mm Hg?
Correct Option (c) (a) It is normal BP for your age
z If the patient is on a ventilator or on a face mask with (b) Recheck your BP 2 weeks later
oxygen, the reading should be taken at the point of (c) Recheck your BP after 6 months
end expiration, to relax intrathoracic pressure. (d) Recheck your BP after 1 year
121. The nurse is assisting a doctor with the removal of a JIPMER Staff Nurse 2013
central venous catheter. To prevent complications, Correct Option (b)
the patient should be instructed to: z Recommendations for follow-up of BP:
(a) Perform Adson’s maneuver while removing BP (mmHg)* Follow-up recommendations
catheter
SBP DBP
(b) Perform Valsalva maneuver as the catheter is
pulled < 120 < 80 Recheck in 2 years
(c) Turn his head to right while grasping side rail 120-139 80-89 Recheck in 1 year (lifestyle advice)
(d) Turn his head to the left side and hyperextend 140-159 90-99 Confirm within 2 months (lifestyle
the neck while looking up advice)
GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2019
160-179 100-109 Evaluate or refer within 1 month
Correct Option (b)
(lifestyle advice)
122. …..…..is the drug used in the procedure of,
maintaining a CVP: ≥ 180 ≥ 110 Further evaluate & refer within 1
(a) Heparin (b) Dopamine week (start drug treatment)
(c) Atropine (d) Xylocaine (*If systolic & diastolic categories are different, follow
ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 recommendation for shorter time)
Correct Option (a) 125. With respect to the prevalence of hypertension by
z Heparin (heparinized saline) is used to prevent clot age and sex, which is/are correct?
or occlusion in arterial or CVP monitoring catheters 1. Age 70 years and over, Sex-M-56%, F-49%
or extracorporeal circuits. 2. Age 60-69 years, Sex-M-43%, F-60%
3. Age 55-59 years, Sex-M-38%, F-40%
CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS Choose the correct answer:
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 only
Hypertension (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 only
123. When the systolic blood pressure is between 130 to CHO, Rajasthan 2024
139 mmHg the blood pressure is classified as: FAQ Correct Option (a)
(a) Normal 126. Rule of halves is seen in:
(b) Prehypertension (a) CHD (b) Blindness
(c) Hypertension stage 1 (c) Burns (d) Hypertension
(d) Hypertension stage 2 RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2021
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2022 Correct Option (d)
Correct Option (b) z ‘Rule of halves’ for hypertension states that half the
z In adults (>18 years old), hypertension is defined as people with high BP are not known (rule 1), half of
 MEDICAL–SURGICAL NURSING INCLUDING ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY | 219

other organs), as a result AF is an important risk nurse understands that the purpose of defibrillation
factor for stroke. is to:
z Along with anti-arrhythmic drugs, anticoagulants (a) Increase cardiac contractility & output
(e.g., heparin or warfarin) may be used to reduce the (b) Cause asystole so the normal pacemaker can
risk of stroke. recapture
352. A nurse in ICU observes the following ECG (c) Reduce cardiac ischemia and acidosis
recording on the bedside monitor. Which of the (d) Provide energy for depleted myocardial cells
following interpretations of this ECG, nurse will GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2019
make and communicate to the physician? Correct Option (b)
z Purpose of defibrillation is to cause asystole so the
normal pacemaker can recapture (allows SA nodes
to resume as pacer of heart activity).
357. A patient in ventricular fibrillation is about to be
defibrillated. A nurse knows that to convert this
rhythm effectively, the machine should be set at
which of the following energy levels for the best
(a) Atrial flutter (b) First degree AV clock delivery? FAQ
(c) Atrial fibrillation (d) Sinus bradycardia (a) 50 Joules (b) 100 Joules
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021 (c) 200 Joules (d) 360 Joules
Correct Option (c) RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2014 & 2011
353. When interpreting ECG, P-wave disruption indicates: Correct Option (d)
(a) Cardiac arrest (b) Ventricular tachycardia z Termination of ventricular fibrillation (“v-fib”) with
(c) Complete block (d) Atrial fibrillation electrical counter shock is called defibrillation.
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2021 z It is used in two forms, i.e., monophasic or biphasic
Correct Option (d) defibrillator.
354. The client who should get priority in nursing care z Monophasic defibrillator deliver current in only one
is the one with: direction and require increased energy loads, this
(a) Fractured patella (b) Abdominal wound type of defibrillation must deliver high energy (200
(c) Head injuries (d) Ventricular fibrillation or more joules, i.e., consecutively 3 shocks first 200,
BSF Staff Nurse 2015 then 300 and finally 360 joules).
Correct Option (d) z The energy setting for initial and subsequent shocks
z Ventricular fibrillation (ventricular quiver/pulseless) using monophasic defibrillators should be set at 360
is life-threatening in which impulses from many joules.
irritable foci (points) in the ventricles fire at irregular z Biphasic defibrillator delivers current through the
basis. heart in two directions, flowing through the heart
355. A nurse is administering an antibiotic Inj. Taxim and back again to the first electrode.
1000 mg to the patient admitted in ICU with z Biphasic defibrillator uses lower levels of electrical
septicaemia. She notices following waveform in current than monophasic techniques, usually
second lead of ECG. Which of the following action initiated at 120 to 200 joules, with the level increased
she need to take FIRST? as needed.
z In cardioversion, only 30 joules are required.

(a)Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation

(b)Administer atropine
(c)Administer adrenaline
(d)Deliver shock of 200 J
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021 358. The initial energy selection for defibrillation in
Correct Option (a) pulseless ventricular tachycardia for a:
356. A man is admitted to the Telemetry Unit for (a) Monophasic defibrillator is 32 J
evaluation of complaints of chest pain. Eight hours (b) Biphasic defibrillator is 16 J
after admission, the patient goes into ventricular (c) Monophasic defibrillator is 100 J
fibrillation. Physician defibrillates the patient. The (d) Biphasic defibrillator is 150 J
 Endocrine System

♦ Lipid-soluble hormones:
ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY ➢ Steroid hormones are derived from
cholesterol, e.g., corticosteroids,
Introduction to Endocrinology
progesterone and estrogen.
1. Chemical messengers synthesised and secreted by ➢ Thyroid hormones, e.g., T3 and T4 are
endocrine glands are called: FAQ synthesized by attaching iodine to the amino
(a) Enzymes (b) Neurotransmitters acid tyrosine.
(c) Hormones (d) Catalysts ➢ The gas nitric oxide (NO) is both a hormone
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 and a neurotransmitter.
Correct Option (c) ♦ Water-soluble hormones:
z Endocrine system consists of ductless glands which ➢ Amine hormones, e.g., catecholamines
secrete one or more hormones (chemical messengers) (epinephrine, norepinephrine and
directly into the blood capillary without pouring into dopamine) are synthesized by modifying the
any duct. amino acids tryptophan or tyrosine.
z Study of hormones-related diseases is called ➢ Peptide hormones, e.g., antidiuretic hormone
endocrinology (Thomas Addition is known as the and oxytocin and protein hormones, e.g.,
father of endocrinology). thyroid-stimulating hormone.
2. Endocrine glands release hormones: FAQ ➢ Eicosanoid hormones, e.g., leukotrienes
(a) Directly in the blood (LTs), prostaglandins (PGs).
(b) Directly into tissue 6. Peptide hormones:
(c) Directly in the skin (a) Oxytocin-Vasopressin-Somatostatin
(d) Through the duct in the body (b) Oxytocin-Vasopressin-Epinephrine
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 (c) Oxytocin-Vasopressin-Thyroxine
Correct Option (a) (d) Testosterone-Vasopressin-Oxytocin
3. The most common ionized mediator of hormone Correct Option (a)
action in our body is: 7. A gland that disappears in the adult but is active
(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium during childhood is:
(c) Iron (d) Potassium (a) Hypothalamus (b) Parathyroid
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016 (c) Adrenal cortex (d) Thymus
Correct Option (a) UPPSC, U.P. Staff Nurse 2017
z Hormones are called the first messenger and cyclic Correct Option (d)
AMP (adenosine monophosphate) is most common z Thymus gland is a bilobed lymphoid organ which is
second messenger or inside the cell. situated in the mediastinal cavity and it is the primary
z Other second messengers are calcium ions (Ca2+), site for T-lymphocyte differentiation.
cGMP (cyclic guanosine monophosphate, a cyclic z It weighs 10 to 15 gm at birth and continues to grow
nucleotide similar to cAMP), inositol trisphosphate till puberty about 30 to 40 gm.
(IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG). z After puberty it shrinks and the lymphoid tissue is
4. Which one of the following is not a 2nd messenger? replaced by fibrotic tissue.
(a) cGMP (b) cAMP (c) Sodium (d) Ca++ z Only 5 to 10 gm of thymic tissue is left in adulthood.
Correct Option (c) 8. An example of positive feedback mechanism in our
5. Which of the following hormones is modified body is:
amino acid? (a) Oxytocin in childbirth
(a) Epinephrine (b) Progesterone (b) Regulation of thyroid hormone
(c) Prostaglandin (d) Oestrogen (c) Temperature regulation
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2016 (d) Baroreceptor mechanism
Correct Option (a) ESIC Staff Nurse 2019
z Chemically, hormones are classified into 2 types: Correct Option (a)
242 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(c) High serum potassium after sharp tapping over the facial nerve about 2 cm
(d) Low serum potassium anterior to earlobe, just below the zygomatic arch.
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016 z Trousseau’s sign is a muscular spasm of the hand and
Correct Option (b) wrist (carpal spasm) resulting from pressure applied
z Deficiency of PTH (hypoparathyroidism) results in by an inflated BP cuff on the upper arm to about 20
increased blood phosphate (hyperphosphatemia) mmHg above systolic pressure for 2 to 5 minutes.
and decreased blood calcium (hypocalcemia) levels. z Presence of both signs suggests latent tetany
76. If serum calcium level less than 5 mg %, it occur (subclinical tetany).
due to abnormality of which hormone:
(a) Hyperthyroidism (b) Hypothyroidism
(c) Hypoparathyroidism (d) Prolonged bed rest
ESIC Bhiwari Staff Nurse 2010
Correct Option (c)
77. Tetany can be produced by which of the following
electrolyte disturbance? FAQ
(a) Hypocalcaemia (b) Hypermagnesemia
(c) Hypercalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2016 81. Twitching of facial muscles when the facial nerve is
Correct Option (a) tapped anterior to the earlobe is caused:
z Tetany occurs due to hypocalcemia which is (a) Chvostek’s Sign (b) Trousseau’s Sign
characterized by intermittent tonic muscular (c) Homan’s Sign (d) Brudzinski’s Sign
hypertonia, with tremor mainly of the arms or legs. AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nsg. Officer 2018
z Symptoms of latent tetany are numbness, tingling, Correct Option (a)
cramps, loss of function and pain in affected muscle 82. Carpopedal spasm indicates:
groups. (a) Hypomagnesemia (b) Hyponatremia
z Symptoms of overt tetany include bronchospasm, (c) Hypocalcaemia (d) Hypokalemia
laryngeal spasm, carpopedal spasm, dysphagia, AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018
photophobia, cardiac dysrhythmia, seizures, ECG Correct Option (c)
changes, hypotension and irritability. z Carpopedal spasm is an involuntary muscular
78. Which is NOT true for tetany? FAQ contraction of hands or feet, seen in hypocalcemia
(a) Low Ca++ in body fluid and hyperventilation syndrome.
(b) Wild contractions in muscles 83. Carpopedal spasm induced when blood flow to the
(c) Age related disorder with increased bone mass arm is occluded using a BP cuff causing ischemia to
(d) Rapid spasms in muscles the distal nerves are called: FAQ
CHO, Rajasthan 2024 (a) Chvostek sign (b) Trousseau’s sign
Correct Option (c) (c) Macewen’s sign (d) Rovsing’s sign
79. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022
tetany? Correct Option (b)
(a) Numb fingers, muscle cramps 84. While checking the blood pressure in the upper
(b) Weakness, muscle fatigue limb of a patient with a sphygmomanometer, you
(c) Hallucinations, delusions observe that she has developed carpal spasm. The
(d) Dyspnea and tachycardia most likely cause is:
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016 (a) Hypokalemia (b) Hyponatremia
Correct Option (a) (c) Hypocalcaemia (d) Hyperphosphatemia
80. Chvostek’s sign the clinical manifestation of: FAQ GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2016
(a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypermagnesemia Correct Option (c)
(c) Hyponatremia (d) Hypocalcemia 85. After thyroid surgery (thyroidectomy) the patient
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 shows carpo-pedal spasm. This sign indicates:
Correct Option (d) (a) Severe postoperative bleeding
z A positive Chvostek’s sign or a positive Trousseau’s (b) Very low thyroid hormone levels
(main d’accoucheur) sign are hallmark of (c) Decreased metabolism and hypothermia
hypocalcemia. (d) Hypocalcemic tetany
z Chvostek’s sign is a spasm of the facial muscles BHU Staff Nurse 2015
Correct Option (d)
244 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(a) Pituitary (b) Thyroid e.g., glucagon, epinephrine, norepinephrine, cortisol

(c) Pancreas (d) Adrenal and growth hormone.
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2021 z Single hormone insulin is only responsible for
Correct Option (c) decreasing blood glucose level (hypoglycemia).
z The pancreas is a pale grey, retroperitoneal gland z Vasopressin (ADH) mainly helps in retention of
classified as both an exocrine (99% part) and an water by acting on kidneys.
endocrine gland (1% part consists of pancreatic 106. Which of the following is a correct function of
islets). pancreatic glands?
99. Which of the following glands has the presence of I. Controls carbohydrate metabolism
centro-acinar cells? II. Controls nutrient absorption into blood
(a) Pancreas (b) Parotid (a) Both I and II (b) Only II
(c) Prostate (d) Mammary (c) Neither I nor II (d) Only I
Correct Option (a) AIIMS Jodhpur PHN 2023
100. The endocrine function of pancreas is performed Correct Option (a)
by: FAQ 107. In following which is NOT a function of the insulin:
(a) Islets of Langerhans (b) Acinar cells (a) Decreasing glycogenolysis (b) Lipogenesis
(c) Islands of Langerhans (d) Follicle cells (c) Gluconeogenesis (d) Glycogenesis
NHM, Rajasthan Staff Nurse 2024 RUSH M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (c)
z Endocrine function of pancreas is performed by the z Insulin decreases the blood glucose level in the body
pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans). by mechanism of glycogenesis, lipogenesis, and
z Pancreatic islets include 4 types of cells: decreases gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis and
♦ A (α) cells (17%), secrete glucagon. increases utilization of glucose by body cells.
♦ B (β) cells (70%), secrete insulin. 108. The process by which glucose is made primarily in
♦ D (δ) cells (7%), secrete somatostatin. the liver from non-carbohydrate sources is known
♦ F (PP) cells (1-2%), secrete pancreatic polypeptide. as:
101. Hormone secreted by islets of Langerhans of (a) Glycolysis (b) Glycogenolysis
pancreas is: FAQ (c) Glycogenesis (d) Gluconeogenesis
(a) Progesterone (b) Testosterone AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022
(c) Insulin (d) Hemoglobin Correct Option (d)
DSSSB Clinical Instructor 2017 z Gluconeogenesis is formation of glucose from an
Correct Option (c) excess amino acid, fat or other non-carbohydrate
102. The numbers of amino acids present in insulin are: sources.
(a) 46 (b) 23 (c) 51 (d) 52 109. Insulin is not administered through oral route
ISRO Sriharikota Staff Nurse 2024 because:
Correct Option (c) (a) It causes GIT bleeding
103. Which of the following pancreatic cells secrete (b) It causes Nausea and Vomiting
glucagon? FAQ (c) It is destroyed by GIT
(a) Beta cells (b) Gamma cells (d) None of these
(c) Delta cells (d) Alpha cells RRB Staff Nurse 2015
NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (d) z Insulin is a protein hormone so it can be easily
104. Islets of Langerhans are present in: destroyed by GIT, if given by oral route by action of
(a) Liver (b) Spleen (c) Stomach (d) Pancreas protein digesting enzymes such as pepsinogen, etc.
ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 z It is administered via SC or IV route rather than oral
Correct Option (d) route.
105. Which hormone does not control blood glucose 110. Match List-I with List-II:
levels in the body? FAQ List-I (Hormone) List-II (Target)
(a) Insulin (b) Glucagon
a. Gonadotrophins I. Gall bladder
(c) Cortisol (d) Vasopressin
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2013 b. Aldosterone II. Liver cells
Correct Option (d) c. Glucagon III. Ovary
z The hormones that oppose the effect of insulin (cause d. Cholecystokinin IV. Renal tubules
hyperglycemia) is called counter-regulatory hormone,
 Respiratory System

Correct Option (d)

ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 7. All are sinuses belong to paranasal sinuses EXCEPT:
(a) Maxillary (b) Ethmoid
Nose, Pharynx & Larynx
(c) Sphenoid (d) Mastoid
1. The functions of nasal cavity in relation of Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018
ventilation are following EXCEPT: FAQ Correct Option (d)
(a) Warming up inspire air to body temperature z Air cavities present in frontal, maxillary (largest
(b) Humidify the air up to 100% saturation sinus), sphenoid and ethmoid bones are called
(c) Removal of particulate matter from air paranasal sinuses.
(d) Disinfect the air entering in to lungs z Infection of sinus is called sinusitis (maxillary sinus
Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018 is most commonly involved).
Correct Option (d) z Caldwell-Luc operation is done for maxillary
2. One of the following is NOT a function of human sinusitis.
respiratory system: 8. Surgical procedure used to correct a deviated nasal
(a) Humidifies the air (b) Cools the air septum (DNS)?
(c) Warms up the air (d) Exchange of gases (a) Septoplasty (b) Annuloplasty
ISRO Sriharikota Staff Nurse 2024 (c) Valvuloplasty (d) None of these
Correct Option (b) HPSSC Staff Nurse 2022
3. Which nasal structure cleans and moistens the air Correct Option (a)
entering the nasal and nasal cavity? FAQ z Septoplasty or submucosal resection of the nose is a
(a) Conchae (b) Cilia surgical procedure used to treat DNS.
(c) Sieve screen (d) Vertical septum 9. Which of the following is NOT the cause of rhinitis?
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022 (a) Rhino virus (b) Dirty water
Correct Option (a) (c) Influenza virus (d) Pollen
z Nasal conchae (turbinates) are three (superior, AIIMS Jodhpur PHN 2023
middle & inferior) long, narrow curled shelves of Correct Option (b)
bone that protrude into the nasal cavity. z Rhinitis is an inflammation and/or dysfunction
4. The lateral wall of the nose consists of how many of the nasal mucosa and classified as non-allergic/
pairs of turbinates or conchae? allergic or acute/chronic condition.
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five z It is caused by a variety of factors like change in
KSSSCI, Lucknow Nsg. Officer 2024 temperature or humidity; odours; infection; age;
Correct Option (b) systemic disease; allergens; drugs, etc.
5. Which structure is considered as a special nose for 10. Which among the following virus is responsible for
detecting chemical signals, facilitating the sense of most incidence of common cold?
smell? (a) Rhino virus (b) T4 virus
(a) Pharyngeal tonsil (b) Ethmoid bone (c) MSZ virus (d) Simian virus 40
(c) Vomeronasal organ (d) Nasal conchae CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2019
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (c) 11. Before endotracheal intubation some facts about
6. What is the function of the internal nasal valve? trachea a nurse has to understand and all the
(a) To act as a resonating chamber for sound following are true regarding trachea EXCEPT: FAQ
(b) To separate the two nasal cavities (a) It’s about 13 cm long
(c) To filter inhaled particles (b) It bifurcates into two major bronchi
(d) To constitute the area of highest resistance to (c) It starts at the level of 7th cervical vertebra
airflow (d) It ends at the level of sternal angle of Louis
AIIMS Bhubaneswar SNO 2023 BFUHS, Faridkot Staff Nurse 2021
278 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

186. Abnormal accumulation of fluid in pleural space is (b) Nutritional status

called: (c) Lung sounds
(a) Pleural embolism (b) Pleural effusion (d) Patient acceptance of surgery
(c) Pulmonary edema (d) Empyema RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2017 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (b) z After laryngectomy (removal of larynx) maintaining
187. The X-ray finding in a patient with pleural effusion patent airway by positioning patient in semi-Fowler’s
reveals that fluids stats to build up as a result of or Fowler’s position after recovery from anesthesia,
gravity in: monitors signs of respiratory distress and hypoxia
(a) Costophrenic angle (b) Lateral angel and check the leakage of blood underneath the neck.
(c) Anterior angle (d) None of these 192. The client is 3 days post partial laryngectomy.
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2022 Which type of nutrition should the nurse offer the
Correct Option (a) patient?
z Blunting of the costophrenic angles (meniscus sign) (a) Total parenteral nutrition
is the classic sign for pleural effusion. (b) Soft regular diet
188. Which of the following pathophysiological changes (c) Partial parenteral nutrition
are seen in patient with pleurisy: (d) Clear liquid diet
(a) Inflammation of pleura stimulates nerve ending RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010
causing pain Correct Option (a)
(b) Decrease of absence of inflammation z Postoperatively, the patient may not be permitted to
(c) Increase pulmonary vascular resistance eat or drink for at least 7 days, so alternate sources of
(d) Increase pulmonary arterial pressure nutrition and hydration include IV fluids and TPN.
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015 193. All of the following are benefits of esophageal
Correct Option (a) speech after total laryngectomy EXCEPT:
z Pleurisy (pleuritis) means inflammation of the both (a) Promotion of air supply
layers of pleura (parietal & visceral) that surround (b) Speech production
the lungs and line the thoracic cavity. (c) Voice restoration
z Sharp stabbing (knife-like) pain exacerbated by (d) Laryngectomy rehabilitation
breathing is characteristic of this disorder, which IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
occurs due to stimulation of nerve endings. Correct Option (a)
z Place the client on the affected side to splint chest. z Those people who have had laryngectomy, the use of
189. Classic symptoms of pleurisy are: the upper end of the esophagus to produce speech is
(a) Cyanotic nails (b) Tachycardia called esophageal speech.
(c) Pain while breathing (d) Hyper pyrexia z Esophageal speech is taught once a patient begins
DMER, Mumbai Staff Nurse 2023 oral feed (>1 wk after surgery), mainly to help to
Correct Option (c) improve verbal restoration in patient laryngectomy
190. A client has paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea which and it is not concerned with promotion of air supply.
of the following medication does a nurse anticipate; 194. A nurse caring for a patient subjected to total
will be prescribed by the physician: laryngectomy should plan for:
(a) Lidocaine (b) Bumetanide (a) Supine position for patient
(c) Propranolol (d) Urokinase (b) Keeping tracheostomy cuff fully inflated
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011 (c) Alternative communication method
Correct Option (b) (d) Oral feeds at intervals
z Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is an attack SSB DD & DNH Nsg. Officer 2018
of shortness of breath that occurs suddenly during Correct Option (c)
sleep. 195. Aphonia would lead one to suspect:
z PND is one of the classic symptoms of left ventricular (a) Haemorrhage
failure due to pulmonary congestion. (b) Hysteria
z It is usually relieved in the upright position. (c) Injury to esophagus
z Bumetanide is a loop diuretic which will decrease (d) Injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve endings
fluid retention into tissue like lungs. RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015
191. After a laryngectomy, which of the following Correct Option (d)
assessments takes priority? z Aphonia is complete loss of voice from the larynx.
(a) Airway patency z It may occur in acute laryngitis, disease of the vocal
 Gastrointestinal System

(c) Digestion (d) Absorption

ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022
1. The alimentary canal is basically a long extending Correct Option (d)
from the mouth to the: 6. A progressive wave like movement that occurs
(a) Stomach (b) Liver involuntarily in the alimentary canal is called:
(c) Large intestine (d) Anus (a) Peristalsis (b) Inflammatory response
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 (c) Colic response (d) Regurgitation
Correct Option (d) IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2012
z The 2 division of digestive system are: Correct Option (a)
♦ Gastrointestinal tract (GIT)/alimentary canal z Speed of peristalsis is 2-25 cm/sec throughout GIT.
that extend from mouth to anus, where actual
Oral Cavity (Mouth)
digestion takes place is called primary digestive
organs, e.g., oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, 7. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a healthy
stomach, small and large intestine. mouth?
♦ Accessory digestive organs which help in primary (a) Dry & rough lips (b) Teeth free of debris
digestive organs in the process of digestion, e.g., (c) Pink & moist mouth (d) Adequate salivation
teeth, tongue, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder AIIMS Bhubaneswar SNO 2019
and pancreas. Correct Option (a)
2. Which of the following are accessory digestive 8. The functions of the oral cavity include:
organs? 1. Pancreas, 2. Small intestine, 3. (a) Mechanical processing (b) Lubrication
Gallbladder, 4. Stomach, 5. Tongue. Choose the (c) Analysis of the food (d) All of these
correct answer: FAQ RRB Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2015
(a) 1, 3, 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 (c) 3, 5 (d) 1, 5 Correct Option (d)
NHM, Rajasthan Staff Nurse 2024 9. Commonest commensal microbes present into oral
Correct Option (a) cavity: FAQ
3. Choose the correct sequence of the layers of the (a) Helicobacter pylori (b) E. Coli
alimentary canal from the inside to outer layer: (c) Bacillus acidophilus (d) All of above
(a) Submucosa→mucosa→muscular→serosa JMC Jhalawar (Raj.) Staff Nurse 2010
(b) Muscular→serosa→mucosa→submucosa Correct Option (c)
(c) Serosa→muscular→submucosa→mucosa z Lactobacillus acidophilus bacteria are commensal
(d) Mucosa→submucosa→muscular→serosa microbes (natural habitats) present in the oral cavity,
Correct Option (d) intestine and adult vagina.
4. Process of taking food into the digestive system is: z It is found in milk, faces of bottle-fed infants, adults
(a) Ingestion (b) Propulsion whose diets include high milk content.
(c) Digestion (d) Elimination z Helicobacter pylori (gram-negative spiral-shaped
RRB Staff Nurse 2015 bacterium) are mainly present in the stomach and E.
Correct Option (a) coli (gram-negative bacillus) in the colon.
z Digestive system performs 6 basic processes: 10. Which of the following bacteria is responsible for
♦ Ingestion or eating (first process) means taking curdling? FAQ
food and liquid into the mouth. (a) Lactic acid bacteria
♦ Other processes include secretion, mixing (b) Lactobacillus acidophilus
and propulsion, digestion (mechanical and (c) Lactobacillus aureus
chemical), absorption and defecation. (d) Bacillus radicicola
5. The process in which digested food can move into CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022
the blood vessels of the intestinal wall is called: Correct Option (b)
(a) Ingestion (b) Assimilation z Lactobacillus (a genus of gram-positive facultative
292 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

Correct Option (d) GASTROINTESTINAL DISORDERS

z Portal circulation: Blood flow from the abdominal
organ that passes through the portal vein, the hepatic Gastritis & Peptic Ulcer
sinusoids and into the hepatic veins, to the inferior 152. The term pyrosis is related to:
vena cava and back to the right atrium. (a) Heartburn (b) Dyspepsia
z This pathway permits the liver to remove excess (c) Pus formation (d) Dysphagia
glucose (store it as glycogen) and to detoxify AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020
substances (e.g., alcohol) entering the body from the Correct Option (a)
GI tract. 153. The erosion of mucosal layer of stomach is termed
147. Gallbladder acts as a storehouse for: as:
(a) Salivary juices (b) Enzymes (a) Duodenal ulcer (b) Gastric ulcer
(c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Bile (c) Crohn’s disease (d) Diverticulitis
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014 DSSSB PHN 2015
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (b)
z Gallbladder is a pear-shaped reservoir of bile with 30 z Gastric ulcer means ulceration of mucosal and
to 50 mL in capacity. submucosal layers of stomach due to gastric acid.
z Bile is concentrated (up to ten times) in gallbladder 154. A patient’s gastric analysis test reveals excess
by the absorption of water. secretion of gastric acid. The nurse would suspect
z When fatty foods or acid enter the duodenum, the which of the following diagnosis: FAQ
enteroendocrine cells of the duodenal mucosa secrete (a) Duodenal ulcer (b) Esophageal ulcer
hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) which then causes (c) Gastric cancer (d) Chronic atrophic gastritis
the gallbladder to contract and push the stored bile RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
out through the 3 to 4 cm long cystic duct which Correct Option (a)
joins the common hepatic duct. Features Gastric ulcer Duodenal ulcer
148. Cystic duct mostly joins:
(a) Common hepatic duct (b) Right hepatic duct Location Antrum (Lesser Duodenal bulb
(c) Left hepatic duct (d) None of above curvature) (first 1-2 cm)
Correct Option (a) Peak age 50-60 years 35-45 years
149. A largest organ in abdominal cavity that filters Male: Female 1:1 2-3:1
blood is: Risk factors NSAID, H. pylori,
(a) Lymph nodes (b) Palatine Tonsils H. pylori blood group O
(c) Spleen (d) Thymus gland
RML Delhi Staff Nurse 2011 Stomach acid Normal to Increased
Correct Option (c) production decreased
z The spleen is a dark purple, wedge-shaped largest Pain 30-60 min after 2-3 hr after a meals;
lymphoid organ (weight 200 gm) situated in the left a meals; pain wakes up in night
hypochondriac region and lies relative to 9th, 10th intensifies after due to pain; pain
and 11th ribs. meals improves after meals
z Its main functions are phagocytosis (filter the or antacid
blood), destruction of RBC (‘graveyard of RBCs’), Hemorrhage Hematemesis Melena more
haemopoiesis (during foetal life), immune response more common common than
and storage of blood (up to 350 mL). than melena hematemesis
z It stores RBCs, lymphocytes, iron, etc. Nourishment Weight loss Weight gain
150. Which organ is called graveyard of RBCs?
(a) Liver (b) Thymus (c) Spleen (d) Pancreas Malignant Less than 10% Rare
AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023 change
Correct Option (c) Surrounding Atrophic gastritis No gastritis
151. The spleen lies against: mucosa
(a) 6th, 7th & 8th ribs (b) 7th, 8th & 9th ribs 155. A client is admitted with duodenal ulcer. What will
(c) 8th, 9th & 10th ribs (d) 9th, 10th & 11th ribs the nurse anticipate the history to include?
Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018 (a) Recent weight loss
Correct Option (d) (b) Increasing indigestion after meal
(c) Awaking with pain at night
 MEDICAL–SURGICAL NURSING INCLUDING ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY | 307

292. Which client problem has priority for the client shoulder resulting from obstruction of a bile duct by
diagnosed with acute pancreatitis? a gallstone or cholecystitis.
(a) Risk for fluid volume deficit 297. Condition ‘Cholelithiasis’ refers to stones in:
(b) Alteration in comfort (a) Urethra (b) Kidneys
(c) Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirements (c) Gallbladder (d) Urinary bladder
(d) Knowledge deficit NVS (Navodaya) Staff Nurse 2018
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (b) 298. Brown pigment gall stones are commonly found in?
z Most important nursing diagnosis for a patient (a) Cystic duct (b) Common bile duct
suffering from acute pancreatitis is altered discomfort (c) Gall bladder (d) All of these
due to severe pain and in chronic pancreatitis is CHO, Haryana 2023
altered nutrition less than body requirements. Correct Option (b)
293. Which of the following would most likely be a z Types of gallstones:
major nursing diagnosis for a patient with acute Features Cholesterol Black Brown
pancreatitis? pigment pigment
(a) Ineffective airway clearance
Location Gallbladder, Gallbladder, Bile ducts
(b) Fluid volume excess
ducts ducts
(c) Impaired swallowing
(d) Altered nutrition less than body requirements Constituents Cholesterol Bilirubin Calcium
ESIC Bhiwari Staff Nurse 2010 pigment bilirubinate
Correct Option (d) polymer
294. In caring for pancreatitis patients, which of the Consistency Crystalline Hard Soft, friable
following diets should the nurse plan? FAQ with nucleus
(a) High protein, high carbohydrate, low fat diet % Radio- 15% 60% 0%
(b) High carbohydrate, low fat with fruits and opaque
vegetables
Infection Rare Rare Usual
(c) High carbohydrate, high protein, low fat and low
residue diet 299. The condition in which stones are located in the
(d) Small and frequent bland diet common bile duct is:
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019 (a) Biliary cirrhosis (b) Cholelithiasis
Correct Option (c) (c) Choledocholithiasis (d) Jaundice
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2017
Disorder of Biliary System Correct Option (c)
295. The presence of bilirubin in urine indicates: 300. Cholecystography is performed to:
(a) Renal stones (b) Raised blood glucose level (a) Detect obstruction in the duodenum
(c) Malignancy (d) Biliary disease (b) Diagnose stones in the gallbladder
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 (c) Detect conditions of the stomach
Correct Option (d) (d) None of these
z Biliary disease refers to diseases affecting bile ESIC Delhi Staff Nurse 2012
ducts, gallbladder, other structures involved in the Correct Option (b)
production/storage and transportation of bile. z Cholecystography is an x-ray examination of the
z Presence of bilirubin in urine may occur in gallbladder to diagnose the gallstones.
cholecystitis, bile duct obstruction, etc. z Allergies to iodine or seafood are assessed and
296. What is the characteristic feature of biliary colic? iodine containing contrast agents like iopanoic acid
(a) Mid epigastric pain that radiates to the back administered 10-12 hrs before the x-ray study and
(b) Upper right abdominal pain that radiates to the give fat-free meal the night before the test.
back or right shoulder z During the test the patient is fed with a fatty meal, to
(c) Localized lower right abdominal pain test the contractility of the gallbladder.
(d) Localized pain in the hypogastric region 301. The nurse is caring for a patient during a
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019 cholecystogram. Which of the following actions by
Correct Option (b) the nurse is BEST? FAQ
z Biliary colic refers to epigastric pain in the right (a) Administer an antiemetic
upper quadrant that radiates to the back or right (b) Force fluids
 Urinary System

z Features of two types of nephrons:

ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY
Feature Cortical/superficial Juxtamedullary
Kidney Quantity 85% 15%
1. Development of the kidney takes place in the: Location Outer cortex of kidney Inner cortex near
(a) Cervical region (b) Thoracic region medulla
(c) Lumbar region (d) Sacral region Loop of Short, Hairpin bend Long, Hairpin bend
BSF Staff Nurse 2015 Henle penetrates up to outer penetrates till the
Correct Option (d) zone of medulla tip of papilla
z Kidney starts developing in the sacral region and
then it ascends to occupy its lumbar position. Blood Peritubular capillaries Vasa recta
z Kidney derived from the metanephros and ureter supply
from the mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct). Function Urine formation Concentration of
2. The kidneys are located in the…………….space? urine (mainly) &
(a) Peritoneal cavity (b) Pelvic cavity also urine formation
(c) Abdominal cavity (d) Retro-peritoneal 6. Which of the following is/are NOT a main
KSSSCI, Lucknow Nsg. Officer 2024 component of the nephron?
Correct Option (d) (a) Glomerulus (b) Long renal tubule
z Kidneys are a pair bean-shaped, brownish-red (c) Renal columns (d) Bowman’s capsule
organs lie in the back (retroperitoneally) side of the CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022
abdomen cavity, from the 12th thoracic vertebra to Correct Option (c)
the 3rd lumbar vertebra in adult. 7. Through which arteriole does blood exit the
3. All of the following features are true related to glomerular capsule?
kidney EXCEPT: (a) Afferent (b) Efferent
(a) Lie in abdomen in the lumbar region (c) Renal (d) Interlobular
(b) Acts as storehouse for urine HPSSC Staff Nurse 2022
(c) Bean-shaped organ Correct Option (b)
(d) Maintains acid-base balance 8. A thin, smooth layer of fibrous membrane that
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2021 protects the kidney is called as:
Correct Option (b) (a) Bowman’s capsule (b) Capsule
4. Structural and functional unit of kidney is called: (c) Cortex (d) Medulla
(a) Neuron (b) Glomeruli HSSC Haryana Staff Nurse 2017
(c) Axon (d) Nephron Correct Option (b)
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2017 & 2016 z The fibrous connective and fatty tissue that protects
Correct Option (d) and surrounds each kidney is called renal capsule.
z Nephron is known as the functional, structural and 9. Renal pyramids are separated by the:
excretory units of the kidneys. (a) Renal cortex (b) Renal medulla
z Each kidney has 1 million of nephrons and starts (c) Renal columns (d) Renal pelvis
decreasing after about 45 to 50 years of age at a rate RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2013
of 0.8% to 1% every year. Correct Option (c)
5. ………….type of nephrons have short loops of z Renal parenchyma is divided into two parts: the outer
Henle that do not dip far beyond the cortex: reddish brown portion is called cortex (contains
(a) Cortical nephrons (b) Medullary nephrons nephrons) and the inner pale portion is medulla
(c) Papillary nephrons (d) Juxtamedullary nephrons (contains loops of Henle, vasa recta and collecting
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024 ducts).
Correct Option (a) z Tissue of the renal cortex of the kidney extends
324 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

Correct Option (b) Correct Option (c)

z Function of kidney: 26. Which of following organs is one of primary
♦ Maintenance of water, electrolyte and acid-base regulator of body fluid and electrolyte balance?
balance. (a) Kidney (b) Lungs (c) Stomach (d) Intestine
♦ Formation of hormones like erythropoietin, AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020
thrombopoietin, renin, 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol Correct Option (a)
(calcitriol) and prostaglandins. 27. Renin catalyzes the synthesis of angiotensin which
♦ Excretion of metabolic waste like urea (end causes vasoconstriction in the kidneys thereby:
product of amino acid metabolism), uric acid (a) Causing water and electrolyte excretion
(end product of nucleic acid metabolism), (b) Causing water and electrolyte retention
creatinine (end product of metabolism in (c) Stimulate synthesis of minerals
muscles) and bilirubin (end product of Hb (d) Affects melatonin synthesis
degradation). RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015
z Formation of urea occurs in the liver, not in kidneys. Correct Option (b)
21. Urea is a waste product of which of the following is z When blood pressure and ECF volume decrease,
metabolism? renin is secreted by delta cells of the juxtaglomerular
(a) Nucleic acid (b) Amino acid apparatus of kidney, which catalyzes the synthesis
(c) Muscle tissue (d) Carbohydrate of angiotensin-I from angiotensinogen (a plasma
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016 protein synthesize from liver).
Correct Option (b) z Angiotensin-converting enzymes (an enzyme
z Urea is the end product of the metabolism of proteins secreted by lungs) convert angiotensin-I into
(amino acids are structural units of proteins) angiotensin-II.
metabolism in the body. z Angiotensin-II (active form of hormone, a powerful
z Urea is the major nitrogenous constituent of urine, vasopressor) affects renal physiology in 3 main ways:
in normal conditions urea represents 80% to 90% of ♦ It decreases GFR by causing vasoconstriction of
total urinary nitrogen. afferent arterioles.
22. Synthesis of uric acid mainly takes place in: ♦ It increases H2O, Na+ and Cl – resorption from
(a) Muscle (b) Kidney (c) Liver (d) Bone marrow PCT.
RRB Staff Nurse 2015 ♦ It stimulates the synthesis of aldosterone from
Correct Option (c) adrenal cortex, which causes stimulation of
z Uric acid is a crystalline acid, synthesized mainly principal cells in the distal portion of DCT,
in the liver as the end-product of purine base which results in more reabsorption of H2O, Na+
metabolism (adenine and guanine). and Cl– and increases BP to normal level.
z Purine bases are derived from nucleic acids (DNA 28. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
and RNA) and from food containing free purine. (a) Angiotensinogen is secreted by the liver
23. Creatinine is not produced by: (b) Angiotensinogen is converted to Angiotensin I
(a) Children (b) Pregnant women by renin
(c) Fasting persons (d) Healthy males (c) ACE inhibitors are important antihypertensive
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2021 agents
Correct Option (c) (d) ACE converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I
24. Acid base balance is regulated by kidney by PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020
excreting hydrogen ion and electrolytes to maintain Correct Option (d)
the: 29. When a person’s blood pressure drops, the kidneys
(a) Electrolyte balance in body respond by: FAQ
(b) Specific gravity of urine (a) Producing aldosterone
(c) Filter the protein from urine (b) Slowing the release of ADH
(d) Normal pH of blood plasma (c) Secreting renin
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015 (d) Increasing urine output
Correct Option (d) ESIC Staff Nurse 2019
25. The major role in maintaining fluid balance in the Correct Option (c)
body is performed by: 30. The hormone renin is synthesized by:
(a) Liver (b) Heart (c) Kidney (d) Lungs (a) Spleen (b) Lungs
NPCIL Staff Nurse 2019 (c) Juxtaglomerular apparatus (d) Uric acid
AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018
 MEDICAL–SURGICAL NURSING INCLUDING ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY | 331

continuous bladder irrigation (first 24 hr) to remove Renal Failure

blood clots and dissected tissue. 95. The client is diagnosed with Acute Renal Failure.
90. A patient has a TURP. Twenty-four hours later, the Which laboratory values are most significant for
nurse notices that his urine is bright red. Which of diagnosing ARF? FAQ
the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate? (a) BUN and Creatinine
(a) Contact the physician (b) WBC and Haemoglobin
(b) Irrigate the catheter (c) Potassium and Sodium
(c) Continue to monitor the patient (d) Bilirubin and Sodium
(d) Remove the catheter AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021 RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (a)
z Bright-red coloured urine may occur during the first z Acute kidney injury (acute renal failure) is defined
24 hours after surgery and if it occurs after 24 hours as increase in serum creatinine, at least 0.3 mg/dL
later; inform the physician. within 48 hr or urine volume <0.5 mL/kg/h for 6 hr.
91. Important nursing management following TURP is: z Progressive increased serum level of BUN and
(a) Assess surgical site of signs of infection creatinine is called azotemia, which indicates ARF.
(b) Assess the vital signs z KDIGO classification for AKI:
(c) Maintaining patency of a three-way Foley’s
Stage Urine Output Serum Creatinine (SCr)
catheter for hemostasis
(d) Administer ordered analgesics 1 <0.5 mL/kg/h for ≥6 h Raised by ≥0.3 mg/dL
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2018 2 <0.5 mL/kg/h for ≥12 h Raised by ≥2 times baseline
Correct Option (c) 3 <0.3 mL/kg/h for ≥24 h Raised by ≥3 times baseline
92. Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for or anuria for ≥12 h
the client who has undergone TURP? 96. In RIFLE criteria, R stands for:
(a) Potential for sexual dysfunction (a) Risk (b) Renal
(b) Potential for an altered body image (c) Residual (d) Refractory
(c) Potential for chronic infection AIIMS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2022
(d) Potential for hemorrhage Correct Option (a)
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2009 z Acronym RIFLE stands for risk, injury, failure, loss
Correct Option (d) and end-stage kidney disease (ESRD).
93. The following are the important preoperative z Risk, injury and failure are the three stages of AKI
nursing care for a patient with BPH; EXCEPT: severity, whereas loss and ESKD are two outcomes
(a) Promoting urinary drainage of loss that require some form of renal replacement
(b) Acid- ash diet to treat infection therapy.
(c) Assure nutrition, correct fluid and electrolyte z RIFLE classification is based on serum creatinine
balance and urine output criteria.
(d) Hormonal therapy 97. Which is the hallmark sign of acute renal failure
ESIC Staff Nurse 2019 (ARF)?
Correct Option (d) (a) Hypertension (b) Weight gain
z Hormonal therapy with 5-α- reductase inhibitors (c) Edema (d) Oliguria
(e.g., finasteride, dutasteride) are used to prevent Correct Option (d)
conversion of testosterone to DHT and decrease 98. BUN used for kidney function tests stand for:
prostate size. (a) Blood urine nitrogen
94. Nurse would know that a post-TURP client (b) Blood uric acid nitrogen
understood his discharge teaching when he says I (c) Blood uracil nitrogen
should: (d) Blood urea nitrogen
(a) Get out of bed into a chair for several hours daily BHU Staff Nurse 2015
(b) Call the physician if my urinary stream decreases Correct Option (d)
(c) Attempt to void every three hours when I’m z Blood urea nitrogen (BUN), serves as an index of
awake renal function.
(d) Avoid vigorous exercise for 6 months after z BUN means nitrogen present in the blood in the
surgery form of urea.
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2021 z Urea is the nitrogenous end product of protein
Correct Option (b) metabolism and urea cycle.
 Integumentary System

z Epidermis has five layers:

ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY ♦ Stratum corneum or horny layer is the outermost
layer, consists of dead cells (corneocytes).
Skin
♦ Stratum lucidum consists of translucent cells
1. Skin is a part of which systems in the body: contain keratin and only present in the thick skin
(a) Circulatory (b) Respiratory of areas (e.g., fingertips, palms and sole).
(c) Endocrine (d) Integumentary ♦ Stratum granulosum is a thin layer with two to
AIIMS Bhopal Staff Nurse 2016 five rows of flattened rhomboid cells.
Correct Option (d) ♦ Stratum spinosum or prickle cell layer consists of
z Integumentary system includes the skin (epidermis keratinocytes with some spine-like protoplasmic
and dermis) and its derivatives (hair, nails) and the projections.
subcutaneous tissue (hypodermis). ♦ Stratum basale or stratum germinativum is the
2. The body system responsible for detection of Touch, deepest layer, consists of cuboidal or columnar
Pain and Pressure is: keratinocytes and involved in rapid cell division
(a) Musculo-skeletal (b) Integumentary (stem cells).
(c) Respiratory (d) Cardiovascular z Dermis is made up of two layers: superficial papillary
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014 layer contains blood vessels, lymphatics, nerve fiber,
Correct Option (b) chromatophores, dermal ridge (forms fingerprints
z Sensory (somatic) nerves endings present in the or footprints) and deeper reticular layer contains
dermis of skin which are responsible for detection of reticular and elastic fibers.
touch, pressure, temperature and pain. 6. Normal turnover time of epidermis is:
3. Which is the largest external organ in the body? (a) 2 wk (b) 4 wk (c) 6 wk (d) 8 wk
(a) Intestine (b) Liver (c) Skin (d) Stomach Correct Option (b)
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019 7. Eleidin protein is found in:
Correct Option (c) (a) Stratum Corneum (b) Stratum Spinosum
z Skin is the largest organ of the human body with a (c) Stratum Lucidum (d) Stratum Granulosum
surface area of about 1.5 to 2 m2 (22 feet2) and weight Correct Option (c)
is about 4.5 to 5 kg (7% of the total body weight). 8. Which of the following layers is also known as
z It is thinnest over eyelids and glans penis (thickness stratum germinativum?
0.5 mm) and thickest over palm of the hand and (a) Stratum lucidum (b) Stratum corneum
heels or sole of the foot (thickness 4 mm). (c) Stratum basale (d) Stratum spinosum
4. The thickest human skin is: NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023
(a) Palm (b) Sole (c) Neck (d) Head Correct Option (c)
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2014 9. Match list- I and list- II and selection the correct
Correct Option (b) answer from the code given below:
z Thickest skin present at soles of foot (4 mm thickness)
List – I List – II
and then the palm of hand.
5. What is the superficial layer of skin called? FAQ A. Stratum lucidum 1. Region involved in rapid cell
(a) Sebaceous glands (b) Epidermis division
(c) Dermis (d) Hair B. Stratum corneum 2. Deep region of the
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019 dermis
Correct Option (b) C. Stratum basale 3. Layer of dead cells
z Skin is made up of two layers: superficial, thinner
D. Reticular layer of 4. Translucent cells containing
portion, which is composed of epithelial tissue is
dermis keratin
called epidermis and deeper, thicker connective
tissue portion is called dermis. (a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (b) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
344 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(c) Paronychia (d) Splinter hemorrhage consider Insensible water loss from human body
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022 and the normal loss is:
Correct Option (d) (a) 200 mL (b) 400 mL (c) 800 mL (d) 1000 mL
35. Dermatome is a part of: RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2017
(a) Bone (b) Joints (c) Muscle (d) Skin Correct Option (c)
RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012 41. The amount of air exhaled from lungs as water
Correct Option (d) vapour is about:
z A region of skin supplied by a single sensory nerve is (a) 100 mL (b) 1000 mL (c) 1500 mL (d) 500 mL
called dermatome. DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
36. Name the disease caused by human papilloma virus Correct Option (d)
(HPV):
(a) Herpes simplex (b) Warts INTEGUMENTARY DISORDERS
(c) Herpes zoster (d) Psoriasis
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2016
Burns
Correct Option (b) 42. In the case of burns, the involvement of the
z Warts are circumscribed cutaneous elevation epidermis only comes under: FAQ
resulting from hypertrophy of the epidermis. (a) Fourth-degree (b) Third-degree
z Genital warts (condylomata acuminata) are caused (c) First-degree (d) Second-degree
by strains of human papilloma virus (mostly HPV DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
6 and 11) some of which are transmitted by sexual Correct Option (c)
contact. z Burns are usually classified on the basis of depth (1st,
37. Abnormal collection of fluid within a definite sac 2nd, 3rd, 4th-degree burns) and extent of burn area.
is known as: z First-degree (superficial) burns are a superficial burn
(a) Tumor (b) Wart (c) Cyst (d) Mole in which burn is limited to the outer layer of the
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014 epidermis.
Correct Option (c) z It is characterized by redness, tenderness and mild
z Cyst is a closed sac or pouch with a definite wall that pain. A common example is sunburn or superficial
contains fluid, semi-fluid or solid material. scald.
z Moles or nevus is a birthmark. 43. Pink to red discoloured area with slight oedema
38. After reading the doctor’s progress reports, the indicates:
nurse plans to monitor the patient, which states (a) 1st-degree burns (b) 2nd-degree burns
that the patient has “insensible fluid loss of approx. (c) Superficial burns (d) Both a and c
800 mL daily.” The nurse is aware that one way CHO, Himachal Pradesh 2022
insensible fluid loss happens is through? FAQ Correct Option (d)
(a) Gastrointestinal tract (b) Sweat 44. Scalds means it is burn cause by:
(c) Wound drainage (d) Urinary output (a) Electricity (b) Flame
KSSSCI, Lucknow Nsg. Officer 2024 (c) Chemicals (d) Moist heat
Correct Option (b) ESIC Staff Nurse 2016
z Insensible water loss means the water loss about Correct Option (d)
which we are not aware (600 to 900 mL/day). z Scald means burn of the skin caused by moist heat,
z It is mainly lost by skin through insensible hot vapors as steam, with hot liquid or steam, whereas
perspiration/sweating in the form of vapor from the dry heat burn is caused by open flame.
body without appearing as moisture on the skin. It is z Hot tap water at 68.9° C for 1 second destroys
approximately 400 mL/day. both the epidermis and the dermis, causing a full-
z Another loss by lungs/respiratory tract by thickness injury and 15 seconds of exposure to hot
moisturizing of exhale air. It is also 400 mL/day. water at 56.1° C results in a similar full-thickness
39. The daily insensible water loss from the body injury.
normally is (in milliliter, mL): FAQ 45. A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency
(a) 100-200 mL (b) 400-800 mL department with a burn to his chest and abdomen.
(c) 1220-1400 mL (d) 1600-1800 mL The burn is red and blistered and the child is in
GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2016 pain. The burn is most likely to be a?
Correct Option (b) (a) 1st-degree burn (b) 2nd-degree burn
40. While recording Intake Output nurse has to (c) 3rd-degree burn (d) 4th-degree burn
UPUMS, Saifai Nsg. Officer 2024
Correct Option (b)
346 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

extremity/lower limb 18% (9% thigh + 9% lower (a) 18% (b) 19% (c) 28% (d) 38%
part) and the perineum 1%. RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019
Correct Option (c)
z Abdomen 9%, perineum 1% and both thighs 18%
(9% + 9%), so total burn is 28%.
60. Using the ‘rule of nine’, estimated burn size in an
adult having burn injury to chest and stomach is
………percent:
(a) 18 (b) 27 (c) 36 (d) 9
AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020
Correct Option (a)
61. Using the ‘Rule of the Nines’, the nurse determines
the percentage of the body burned on a patient with
both arms burned to be:
(a) 9% (b) 36% (c) 18% (d) 1%
CHO, Uttarakhand 2021
Correct Option (c)
62. If an adult has sustained burns on both the thighs
55. How can you calculate the percentages of burn that and the perineum, then as per the ‘rule of nine’, the
involves body surface areas? body surface area with burns would be:
(a) Rule 9% (b) Rule 90 % (a) 19% (b) 28% (c) 37% (d) 41%
(c) Rule 100% (d) Rule 50% PGIMS Rohtak Staff Nurse 2022
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (a) 63. A 3-year-old child is admitted with partial and
56. A 25‐year‐old male patient sustained severe burns full-thickness burns over 30% of the body. Which
of the right lower extremity. Using the rule of nines, significant adverse outcome during the first 48
which of these is the best estimate of total body‐ hours should be prevented? FAQ
surface area burned? (a) Shock (b) Pneumonia
(a) 18% (b) 22% (c) 31% (d) 40% (c) Contractures (d) Hypertension
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 AIIMS Patna Staff Nurse 2015
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (a)
57. What percentage does burns of genitalia constitute z Major concern of the first 48 to 72 hours (emergent/
by the rule of nines? FAQ resuscitative phase) is onset of hypovolemic shock
(a) 9% (b) 18% (c) 1% (d) 21% and edema formation, due to increased capillary
RRB Staff Nurse 2019 permeability, fluid shift into third space, e.g.,
Correct Option (c) exudates and blister formation, as well as edema in
58. A client admitted into emergency ward with non-burned areas.
circumferential (round) burn into upper half of z Urinary output, blood pressure and pulse, body
both legs and lower half of anterior torso (trunk). weights and renal functions are closely monitored to
What would be percentage of burn calculated by ensure adequate hydration status.
nurse according rule of nine? 64. When planning care for a person with burns on
(a) 27 % (b) 36% (c) 18 % (d) 45 % the upper part of the body involving face and neck.
Correct Option (a) Which of the following nursing diagnosis should
z According to the “rule of nine”, the upper half of both take the highest priority?
legs equal to 18% because burn is circumferential (a) Fluid volume deficit
so involves both anterior and posterior aspects of (b) Body image disturbance
upper parts of legs. Lower half of the anterior torso (c) Ineffective airways clearance
(abdomen) equal to 9% because the whole anterior (d) Risk of infection
trunk is equal to 18%, so total burn is 18 + 9 = 27 %. HPSSC Staff Nurse 2016
59. A 35-years-old female was brought to the Correct Option (c)
Emergency department with burn injury over the z Maintaining patent airways, i.e., early endotracheal
abdomen, perineum and both thighs. According to (preferably orotracheal) intubation is the priority
the Rule of Nines, what is the percentage of burn nursing diagnosis if burn involves faces and neck.
injury for this patient?
348 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(a) Keep accurate intake and output, weight daily (a) Dextrose 5 % (b) Sodium chloride
and maintain IV fluids (c) Dextrose 25 % (d) Potassium chloride
(b) Reverse isolation and measure urine specific GMCH Mewat Haryana 2014
gravity Correct Option (b)
(c) Reposition frequently and administer analgesics z Fluid used during fluid resuscitation in the burn
(d) Note depth of respiration and measure intake patient is Ringers lactate (2 to 4 mL/kg/% TBSA), not
and output accurately to be dextrose solution during first 24 hours because
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 there is already hyperglycemia in the patient due to
Correct Option (a) increased level of counter-regulatory hormones.
75. A 2-year-old child is admitted to a burn unit with z Although use of normal saline is associated with
partial and full-thickness burns over 35 % of the hyperchloremic acidosis.
body. After admission assessment and review of the z Colloidal solutions (e.g., 5% albumin) may also be
physician order, the priority nursing intervention given, after the first 12 to 24 hours post-burn when
focuses on: FAQ capillary permeability returns to normal.
(a) Sedation with morphine sulfate 79. The most effective route of relieving pain during
(b) Inserting a Foley catheter emergency phase of burn injury is: FAQ
(c) Inserting a nasogastric tube (a) IV (b) SC (c) ID (d) Orally
(d) Restricting I/V Fluids RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg Entrance 2018
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018 & 2016 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (b) z In extensive burns, medications administered by IM
z Inserting an indwelling (Foley) urinary catheter is and SC route are not absorbed properly as a result of
a priority nursing management to monitor hourly burned or edematous areas.
urine output and to maintain intake-output chart. z Blood perfusion also decreases into GIT wall due to
76. A nurse is monitoring a burn child during the burns, so rate of absorption of drugs also decreases
treatment of burn stock. The nurse understands per orally.
that which of the following assessment provide the z So in severe burns injury nurse should administer
most accurate guide to determining the adequacy opioid analgesic, e.g., morphine sulfate (drug of
of fluid resuscitation: FAQ choice) by IV route (central venous access in larger
(a) Skin turgor burn).
(b) Neurological assessment 80. Which complication may occur in severe burn
(c) Level of edema at burn site cases?
(d) Adequacy of peripheral pulse (a) Hypoglycemia (b) Gastric ulcer
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011 & 2010 (c) Muscle atrophy (d) Paralysis
Correct Option (b) ESIC Delhi Staff Nurse 2009
z Burn injury itself does not alter the sensorium, so Correct Option (b)
if sensorium is disturb into a child it is only due to z A peptic ulcer (mainly gastric ulcer) may develop
inadequate fluid resuscitation. within 24 hours after severe burns caused by
z To assess the sensorium, neurological assessment is generalized stress response (decrease blood flow to
essential. the GIT) is called Curling’s ulcer.
z Skin turgor can be used to assess the hydration status z After burn hyperglycemia may occur due to
of the skin but not fluid resuscitation status most increased secretion of counter-regulatory hormone,
accurately. not hypoglycemia.
77. Burns of the upper torso of the patient occurs after z Stress ulcers in patients with acute brain injury is
a hot water spillage in the kitchen. What is the called as Cushing ulcer.
priority treatment for the patient? 81. The first priority during the rehabilitation phase of
(a) Antibiotic coverage burn care is: FAQ
(b) Fluid replacement (a) Prevention of shock
(c) Wound debridement (b) Wound care and closure
(d) Respiratory management (c) Prevention of contractures
MNS SCC Exam 2024 (d) Prevention of respiratory distress
Correct Option (d) AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022
78. The most commonly used electrolytes solution in Correct Option (c)
burn cases is:
 Sense Organs

ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY (a) Cornea (b) Lens (c) Iris (d) Retina
AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020
Eye Correct Option (c)
1. The eyeball is approximately spherical in shape z Iris is a colored curtain-like part of the eyeball,
with a diameter of about: regulate the amount of light enter into the eye by
(a) 1.8 cm (b) 3.0 cm (c) 1 cm (d) 2.3 cm controlling dilation and contraction of the pupil.
RRB Staff Nurse 2019 z The oculomotor (CN III) nerve (i.e., parasympathetic)
Correct Option (d) stimulate the circular muscles or sphincter pupillae
z Eyeball (bulbus oculi) is spherical in shape and its of the iris to contract, causing a decrease in the size of
diameter is about 2.5 cm (1 inch). the pupil (constriction) and in dim light, sympathetic
2. The anterior transparent part of the eye is: neurons stimulate the radial muscles or dilator
(a) Pupil (b) Conjunctiva (c) Cornea (d) Sclera pupillae of the iris to contract, causing an increase in
DSSSB PHN 2015 the pupil’s size (dilation).
Correct Option (c) 8. Size of pupil varies between:
z Cornea is the transparent convex shape membrane (a) 3-5 mm (b) 2-6 mm (c) 1.5-8 mm (d) 1-10 mm
about the anterior one-sixth portion of the eye. BSF Staff Nurse 2015
z It focuses the light to the retina through the lens. Correct Option (c)
3. A transparent membrane that focuses the light that z Average diameter of pupil is 4 to 5 mm (varies from
enters the eyes to the retina? 1 to 8 mm).
(a) Lens (b) Sclera (c) Cornea (d) Pupils 9. Which structure of the eye is helpful in changing
KSSSCI, Lucknow Nsg. Officer 2024 the thickness of the lens?
Correct Option (c) (a) Sclera (b) Cornea (c) Ciliary body (d) Iris
4. Which corneal layer is unable to regenerate? RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
(a) Stroma (b) Bowman’s membrane Correct Option (c)
(c) Dua’s layer (d) Descemet’s membrane z Ciliary body is a dark brown structure behind the iris
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2022 of the eye.
Correct Option (b) z It consists of ciliary processes (secretes aqueous
z Corneal layers include epithelium, Bowman’s layer, humor) and ciliary muscle (changes the shape of the
stroma, Descemet’s membrane and endothelium. lens).
5. Light rays entering the eye is controlled by: z Extending from the ciliary processes are zonular
(a) Pupil (b) Iris (c) Cornea (d) Lens fibers or suspensory ligaments that attach to the lens.
BSF Staff Nurse 2014 10. What does the ciliary body in the eye do?
Correct Option (a) (a) Filter out harmful UV radiation
z Pupil is a contractile opening or hole at the center of (b) Replaces damaged retina cells
the iris of the eye. (c) Change the shape of the lens to focus light
z It is constricted when exposed to bright light or (d) Detect light and convert it into electrical signals
when the focus is on a near object and it is dilated in CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024
the dark light or when the focus is on a distant object. Correct Option (c)
6. The size of which part of the eye contributes to the z Ciliary muscle is a circular band of smooth muscle,
controlling the amount of light entering the eye: which is the part of the ciliary body (ciliary apparatus)
(a) Macula lutea (b) Pupil (c) Optic disc (d) Lens of the eye.
ESIC Staff Nurse 2019 z Contraction or relaxation of the ciliary muscle
Correct Option (b) changes the tightness of the zonular fibers, which
7. Which of the following parts of an eye alters the changes the shape of the lens, adapting it for near or
size of the pupil to regulate the amount of light far vision.
entering the eye? 11. Minimum distance required by a normal human
eye to see the objects clearly is:
370 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

z Myringotomy (tympanotomy) is an incision (c) Otosclerosis (d) Nystagmus

in the tympanic membrane with placement of RRB Staff Nurse 2019
tympanostomy tube. Correct Option (b)
z It helps to reduce pressure and to drain serous or z Ménière’s disease (endolymphatic hydrops) means
purulent fluid from the middle ear and most often an excessive endolymph fluid in the membranous
performed in children with recurrent otitis media or labyrinth of the inner ear.
medically refractory middle ear effusion. z It is characterized by triad: tinnitus, unilateral
147. The nurse understands that the primary purpose of sensorineural hearing loss and vertigo.
performing a myringotomy on a patient with acute 152. The following are the triad symptoms in Meniere’s
otitis media is to: disease EXCEPT:
(a) Avert the need for analgesia (a) Vertigo (b) Cholesteatoma
(b) Relieve pressure on the eardrum (c) Hearing loss (d) Tinnitus
(c) Remove debris from the outer ear AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023
(d) Create a pathway for administering medications Correct Option (b)
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021 153. Accumulation of endolymph causing distention
Correct Option (b) and increased pressure within membranous
148. For the patient with otitis media nursing care is labyrinth with destruction of sensory cells in the
centred on reducing the severity or alleviating ampulla and cochlea is:
problems: (a) Meniere’s disease (b) Otitis media
(a) Dizziness and decreased hearing (c) Osteosclerosis (d) Hordeolum
(b) Fever and tinnitus ESIC Staff Nurse 2019
(c) Pain and pressure in the ear Correct Option (a)
(d) Nausea and vomiting 154. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 expect to find when assessing a client with Meniere’s
Correct Option (c) disease?
149. A pediatric nurse is giving education to the (a) Epistaxis (b) Facial pain (c) Ptosis (d) Tinnitus
mother of 2-year-old child. Which of the ESIC Kolkata/Bangalore Staff Nurse 2012
following instruction is CORRECT regarding the Correct Option (d)
administration of ear drops? FAQ 155. Vertigo is due to problem in: FAQ
(a) Pull the earlobe down and back (a) External ear (b) Inner ear
(b) Pull the earlobe up and back (c) Middle ear (d) Tympanic membrane
(c) Pull the earlobe down and front SSB DD & DNH Nsg. Officer 2018
(d) Pull the earlobe up and front Correct Option (b)
AIIMS Raipur SNO 2023 z Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a
Correct Option (a) common inner ear disorder.
z Pull the pinna (earlobe) down and backward in z Dix-Hallpike maneuver is the gold standard test used
children below 3 years and up and backward in to diagnose BPPV.
adults during instilling ear drops. z Epley’s maneuver is used to treat BPPV.
z Instill the ear drops into side lateral position at room 156. What drugs are given to the client with Meniere’s
temperature. disease?
z Never instill the ear drop directly on the eardrum (a) Anti-hypertensive (b) Diuretic
(tympanic membrane). (c) Antibiotic (d) Vasoconstrictor
150. While instilling ear drops, the ear canal of an adult RML Delhi Staff Nurse 2011
is straightened by pulling pinna: FAQ Correct Option (b)
(a) Down and back (b) Up and back z Treatment of Meniere’s disease includes bed
(c) Straight down (d) Straight back rest, antihistamines, antiemetics, nicotinic acid
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019 (vasodilatory effect), sedative (e.g., diazepam),
Correct Option (b) low-sodium diet (<2 gm/day), diuretics and
avoid smoking, caffeine, alcohol and foods with
Meniere’s Disease
monosodium glutamate (MSG), etc.
151. A condition of the inner ear characterized by 157. Drugs used in relieving symptoms of Meniere’s
episodic vertigo, tinnitus and sensori-neural disease include all EXCEPT:
hearing loss is referred to as: (a) Antiemetics (b) Diuretics
(a) Otitis media (b) Meniere’s disease (c) Atropine (d) Diazepam
 Nervous System

6. Which structures act as wires of a telephone in the

ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY body?
Nerve Cell (a) Veins (b) Arteries (c) Muscles (d) Nerves
RRB Staff Nurse 2019
1. The body system that collects, processes and Correct Option (d)
respond to information using electrical signals is: 7. Where does a neuron receive input from other
(a) Endocrine (b) Nervous cells?
(c) Lymphatic (d) Respiratory (a) Axon (b) Soma (c) Cell body (d) Dendrite
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019 CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (d)
z Nervous system is made up of a network of billions of z Most neurons or nerve cell have three parts:
neurons and neuroglia. ♦ Nerve cell body (soma or perikaryon).
2. Central Nervous System is consists of: ♦ Dendrites (branched short process) are receiving
(a) Brain (b) Spinal cord or input portions of a neuron, which transmits
(c) Brain and Spinal cord (d) Spine only impulses towards the nerve cell body.
RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012 ♦ Axon (long process) is the output portions of a
Correct Option (c) neuron, which transmits impulses away from the
z The nervous system is divided into: nerve cell body. It is insulated by myelin sheath,
♦ Central nervous system (CNS) consists of the which absent at regular interval is called nodes
brain and spinal cord. of Ranvier.
♦ Peripheral nervous system (PNS) includes 12 8. The neurons composing the nervous system can be
pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal divided into….…….classes:
nerves. (a) Three (b) Four (c) Six (d) Five
3. Basic structural and functional unit of the nervous CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021
system is: Correct Option (a)
(a) Nephron (b) Cytoplasm z Functionally, neurons are classified as sensory or
(c) Proton (d) Neuron afferent, motor or efferent and interneurons or
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014 association neurons.
Correct Option (d) 9. The supportive cells of the nervous system are:
z Neurons are specialized nerve cells, which serve as (a) T-cells (b) Stem cells (c) Glial cells (d) Astrocytes
structural and functional units of the nervous system. SCTIMST Trivandrum Staff Nurse 2010
4. Specialized cells found throughout the nervous Correct Option (c)
system that transmit signals using electrochemical z Neuroglia or glial cells is the supporting structure
processes are: FAQ of the nervous tissues which includes astrocytes,
(a) Soma (b) Dendrites (c) Neurons (d) Axons oligodendrocytes, microglia and ependymal cells in
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019 CNS and Schwann cells and satellite cells in PNS:
Correct Option (c) ♦ Astrocytes (star-shaped cells) are the largest and
z Functions of neurons are initiation and conduction most numerous neuroglial cells, which help in
of impulses. They transmit impulses to other neurons forming blood-brain barrier (BBB).
or cells by releasing neurotransmitters at synapses. ♦ Oligodendrocytes are responsible for forming
z The impulses can flow 0.5 to 130 meters per second and maintaining the myelin sheath around axons
(1 to 290 mi/hr). of CNS.
5. Nervous tissue is made of................that receive and ♦ Microglia are phagocytic cells (macrophages
conduct impulses: of CNS) that migrate to the site of infection or
(a) Nephron (b) Mucus (c) Enzymes (d) Neurons injury.
RRB Staff Nurse 2019 ♦ Ependymal cells form the lining of the ventricles
Correct Option (d)
394 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(c) Complex regional pain syndrome (b) Place in reverse trendelenburg’s position
(d) Sudeck’s osteodystrophy (c) Administer a sedative on a standing order
JIPMER Staff Nurse 2017 (d) Check the client for a fecal impact
Correct Option (a) PGIMS Rohtak Staff Nurse 2015
z Autonomic dysreflexia (autonomic hyperreflexia) is Correct Option (a)
a condition that occurs in a person with spinal cord z Autonomic dysreflexia is a neurological emergency
injury at T6 or above. and must be treated promptly to prevent hypertensive
z It is caused by distended bladder or clogged Foley stroke.
catheter (most common cause), distention of bowel z Immediate nursing actions are to inform the
(from constipation, impaction) and stimulation of physician, elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees
skin (tactile, pain, thermal stimuli, pressure ulcer). or high-Fowler or sitting upright position (first
z Its manifestation include severe, throbbing headache priority) and remove triggering stimulus such as
with hypertension (up to 300 mm Hg systolic), bladder and bowel distension.
profuse diaphoresis (most often of the forehead) or z Immediate catheterization to relieve bladder
flushing of the skin above the level of injury, pale distention.
extremities below the level of the injury, nausea, nasal 231. While the nurse is caring for a client with C5
congestion, bradycardia (30 to 40 bpm), piloerection quadriplegia, the client complains of severe
(erection of body hair), blurred vision or spots in the headache, nausea and nasal congestion. On
visual fields. assessment the client has a pulse of 40 and BP of
227. Which assessment data would make the nurse 190/110. Which nursing action is most appropriate
suspect that the client with a C-7 spinal cord injury at this time?
is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia? FAQ (a) Place the client in a supine position
(a) Abnormal diaphoresis (b) Assess for bladder distension
(b) A severe throbbing headache (c) Administer oxygen
(c) Sudden loss of motor function (d) Administer medication for pain
(d) Spastic skeletal muscle movement Correct Option (b)
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010 232. A client is experiencing spinal shock. Nurse
Correct Option (b) Meghna should expect the function of the bladder
228. A client with C7 quadriplegia is flushed and to be which of the following? FAQ
anxious and complains of a pounding headache. (a) Spastic (b) Normal
Which symptom(s) should also be anticipated? (c) Atonic (d) Uncontrolled
(a) Decreased urine output or oliguria HPSSC Staff Nurse 2021
(b) Hypertension and bradycardia Correct Option (c)
(c) Respiratory depression z Spinal shock (areflexia) is a complete but temporary
(d) Symptoms of shock loss of motor, sensory reflex and autonomic function
AIIMS NORCET-7 (Prelims) Nsg. Officer 2024 immediately after a spinal cord injury.
Correct Option (b) z It often lasts less than 48 hours but may continue for
229. A patient with a diagnosis of C-4 level spinal cord several weeks.
injury, which has been stabilized and patient is z It is manifested by flaccid paralysis (e.g., atonic
ready for discharge. Because this patient is at risk bladder), hypotension, bradycardia, paralytic ileus,
for autonomic dysreflexia, he and his family should poikilothermia and loss of reflex activity below the
be instructed to assess for and report which of the level of injury.
following? z Spastic bladder is a neurogenic bladder occurs due
(a) Pallor and itching of the face and neck to complete transection of spinal cord above sacral
(b) Dizziness and tachypnea segments, not due to spinal shock.
(c) Severe, throbbing headache and facial flushing 233. Patient undergone spinal surgery, the nurse should:
(d) Circumoral pallor and light headedness (a) Observe bowel movements
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2022 (b) Logroll the patient to prone position
Correct Option (c) (c) Assess patient feet for sensation and circulation
230. A patient with a spinal cord injury has autonomic (d) Encourage patient to drink plenty of fluids
dysreflexia. Which action should the nurse take WCL Staff Nurse 2019
first? Correct Option (c)
(a) Call the physician 234. Identify an early symptom of spinal cord tumor
from the options:
 Musculoskeletal System

cavity) is metabolically more active than periosteum.

ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 6. Haversian canals are found in:
(a) Bones (b) Brain (c) Lungs (d) Kidneys
Bones
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2020
1. A system which provides support with a variety of Correct Option (a)
joints that enables a wide range of movements is: z Compact bone tissue is composed of microscopic
(a) The CNS (b) The skeleton structural units called osteons or haversian systems.
(c) The PNS (d) The spine and discs z Haversian canal is minute canals found in compact
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 bone that contains blood, lymph vessels and nerves.
Correct Option (b) 7. Which of the following is known as bone forming
2. ……….is a connective tissue in which the cells?
intercellular substance is made hard by salts of (a) Fibroblasts (b) Osteocytes
calcium and phosphate: (c) Osteoclasts (d) Osteoblasts
(a) Nervous tissue (b) Muscle AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
(c) Cartilage (d) Bone Correct Option (d)
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 z Four types of cells are present in bone tissue:
Correct Option (d) ♦ Osteoblasts (bone-forming cells) are derived
3. The spongy bones are called as: from mesenchymal cells and it manufactures
(a) Cancellous (b) Endosteum bone matrix (acellular part of bone).
(c) Cortical (d) Osteons ♦ Osteoprogenitor cells are unspecialized bone
HSSC Haryana Staff Nurse 2017 stem cells derived from mesenchyme, the tissue
Correct Option (a) from which almost all connective tissues are
z Mainly 2 types of bone tissue present in bones: formed and undergo cell division.
compact bone (80%) and spongy bone (20%). ♦ Osteocytes are mesodermal bone-making cells
z Spongy bone tissue is also called trabecular or (maintain bone tissue) that have become trapped
cancellous bone tissue (looks like a honeycomb), within bone matrix and it do not undergo cell
does not contain osteons, but it contains red bone division.
marrow. ♦ Osteoclasts are giant, multinucleated cells
z Compact bone tissue (cortical) contains few spaces derived from blood cell (monocytes) precursors
and is the strongest form of bone tissue. formed in the bone marrow of growing bones. By
4. Which of the following is the outer covering of the absorbing calcium salts, it removes excess bone
bone? tissues as in the remodeling of growing bones or
(a) Perineurium (b) Perichondrium damaged bone in the repair of fractures.
(c) Periosteum (d) Perimysium 8. Which of the following biomarkers is specific to
AIIMS Bhopal Senior Nsg. Officer 2018 bone formation?
Correct Option (c) (a) Hydroxyproline (b) Osteocalcin
z The periosteum (outer covering of the bone) is highly (c) Osteopntin (d) Cathepsin
active during fetal development, when it generates AIIMS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2022
osteoblasts for the appositional growth of bone. Correct Option (b)
5. A vascular membrane that covers the marrow 9. Site of growth in the length of a long bone is:
cavity of long bones is called the: (a) Diaphysis (b) Periosteum
(a) Endosteum (b) Lamellae (c) Epiphyseal plate (d) Bone marrow
(c) Periosteum (d) Osteon NVS (Navodaya) Staff Nurse 2019
NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (a) z The epiphyseal (growth) plate is a thin layer of
z Endosteum (inner thin covering lines the medullary cartilage and it separates the epiphyses from the
 Male Reproductive System

1. “Gonads” means: (a) Cystitis (b) Orchitis

(a) Salivary glands (b) Sebaceous glands (c) Otitis (d) Oophoritis
(c) Sweat glands (d) Testis and ovaries IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014
SCTIMST Trivandrum Staff Nurse 2010 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (d) 8. Granulomatous orchitis is the term applied for
z Male reproductive system include primary male inflammation of: FAQ
sex gland or male gonads (testes), a system of ducts (a) Lung (b) Testis (c) Omentum (d) Ovary
(epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory ducts, and BHU Nsg. Officer 2019
urethra), accessory sex glands (seminal vesicles, Correct Option (b)
prostate and bulbourethral glands) and supporting 9. Dilatation and varicosity of the pampiniform
structures (scrotum, penis). plexus within the scrotum is called:
2. The male accessory glands include: 1. Paired (a) Hydrocele (b) Hematocele
seminal vesicles, 2. Prostate gland, 3. Ampulla, 4. (c) Varicocele (d) Spermatocele
Paired bulbourethral glands. Choose the correct NHM, M.P. Staff Nurse 2021
answer: Correct Option (c)
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only 10. What is the common complication of varicocele?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only (a) Phimosis (b) Erectile dysfunction
NHM, Rajasthan Staff Nurse 2024 (c) Infertility (d) Cancer
Correct Option (c) Kerala PSC Staff Nurse 2014
3. Length of male urethra is approximately: Correct Option (c)
(a) 18-20 cm (b) 10-12 cm (c) 30-40 cm (d) 2-4 cm 11. Which hormone is important for pubertal changes
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2020 in males?
Correct Option (a) (a) Luteinising hormone (b) FSH
z Length of male urethra is about 20 cm (8 inch) and (c) Testosterone (d) Estrogen
female urethra is about 4 cm (1.5 inch). Kidwai Hospital Staff Nurse 2018
4. The elastic tissue which connects the cauda Correct Option (c)
epididymis to the scrotal sac is: z Testes secrete male sex hormones, which are
(a) Caput epididymis (b) Scrotal ligament collectively called androgens.
(c) Gubernaculum (d) Tendinous cord z Testosterone is secreted by the interstitial cells of
Correct Option (c) Leydig of seminiferous tubules in the testicles.
5. Name the structure formed from the union of the z It is the principal hormone that is responsible for
ampulla of the ductus deferens and the duct of the development of secondary sexual characteristics in male.
seminal vesicle: 12. Identify the measuring device shown below:
(a) Ejaculatory duct (b) Urethra
(c) Spermatic cord (d) Prostate gland
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022
Correct Option (a)
6. Which of the following is NOT true about testes?
(a) Testes produce spermatozoa
(b) Testes are internal genital organ
(c) Testes have an important function of formation, (a) Tonometer (b) Orchidometer
development and liberation of ova (c) Testometer (d) Parometer
(d) Testosterone hormone is responsible for sexual Correct Option (b)
characteristics z Prader orchidometer is used to measure volume and
RRB Staff Nurse 2015 determine the size of the testicle.
Correct Option (c) 13. Location and secretion of Leydig cells are:
7. Inflammation of testes is known as: (a) Testis-testosterone (b) Ovary-estrogen
 of sperm/mL of semen. (c) Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other
z Necrozoospermia: All sperm are non-viable/dead. appropriate professional
26. Absence of living spermatozoa in semen is called: (d) Provide support for the spouse
(a) Oligospermia (b) Oligozoospermia RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2013
(c) Azoospermia (d) Teratozoospermia Correct Option (c)
AIIMS Bhubaneswar Staff Nurse 2018 32. Fault in male that may cause infertility includes:
Correct Option (c) (a) Raised scrotal temp. (b) Mumps orchitis
27. Aspermia is the term used to describe: (c) Undescended testes (d) All of the above
(a) Absence of semen RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014
(b) Absence of sperm Correct Option (d)
(c) Presence of abnormal sperms z Couples who fail to conceive after 1 year of regular,
(d) Absence of sperm motility unprotected intercourse is called infertility.
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017 z Its known causes are primary hypogonadism (30 to
Correct Option (a) 40%), disorders of sperm transport (10 to 20%), and
28. Asthenospermia is known as: secondary hypogonadism (2%) and unknown cause
(a) Absence of sperm in semen (40 to 50%).
(b) Low number of sperm z It may be caused by failure of sperm as a result of
(c) Sperm count > 250 million per mL exposure to radiation, environmental toxins, mumps
(d) Reduced sperm motility orchitis, STDs and TB, developmental or genetic
UPPSC, U.P. Staff Nurse 2022 diseases, varicocele, raised testicular temperature,
Correct Option (d) undescended testes or endocrine abnormalities.
29. Reduced sperm motility is termed as: z Sometimes it may be caused by erectile dysfunction
(a) Oligospermia (b) Asthenozoospermia (impotence).
(c) Azoospermia (d) Teratozoospermia 33. Quad is an individual who is:
AIIMS Raipur SNO 2023 (a) Impotent for particular women (b) Impotent
Correct Option (b) (c) Become potent after surgery (d) Potent
30. According to WHO criteria, the minimum normal HPSSC Staff Nurse 2016
sperm count is: FAQ Correct Option (b)
(a) 10 million/mL (b) 20 million/mL 34. Total number of chromosomes in each mature
(c) 40 million/mL (d) 60 million/mL germ cell is:
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2022 & 2018 (a) 23 (b) 24 (c) 46 (d) 48
Correct Option (b) RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013
z Cut-off values for semen characteristics: Correct Option (a)
Semen parameter WHO 2010 WHO 2021 z Germ cells (ova in females and sperm in males) are
Volume (mL) 1.5 1.4 cells that reproduce reproductive cells are called
Total sperm number 39 39 gametes.
(106 million/ejaculate) z Each mature germ cell has haploid (n) number
Sperm concentration 15 16 of chromosomes (i.e., 23), whereas each body
(million/mL) cell (somatic cell) has diploid (2n) number of
chromosomes (i.e., 46).
Total motility (%) 40 42
35. Sex chromosomes are also called:
Progressive motility (%) 32 30
(a) Allosomes (b) Heterosomes
Non-progressive motility (%) 1 1 (c) Autosomes (d) Euchromosomes
Immotile sperm (%) 22 20 RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013
Vitality (%) 58 54 Correct Option (a)
Normal morphology (%) 4 4 z The 46 chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. The
31. A nurse is assigned to care for a postoperative 22 pairs of these chromosomes are called autosomes,
male patient who has diabetes mellitus. During the whereas the 23rd pair is called sex chromosomes
assessment interview, the patient reports that he’s (allosomes or heterochromosomes).
impotent & says he’s concerned about the effect on z Members of allosomes pair are differ from one
his marriage. In planning this patient’s care, the another and thereby determine sex.
most appropriate intervention would be to: 36. The term autosome is defines as:
(a) Encourage the client to ask questions about (a) All the DNA contained in an individual
personal sexuality (b) A chromosome that is not a sex chromosome
(b) Provide time for privacy
 Oncology

1. The term “oma” means: Correct Option (b)

(a) Cyst (b) New growth (c) Opening (d) Organ z Metaplasia is conversion of one type of mature cell
ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 into another type of cell.
Correct Option (b) z Dysplasia is abnormal cellular or tissue development.
z The suffix ‘-oma’ means tumors (neoplasm or new z Anaplasia is loss of cellular differentiation and
growths). function, which is characteristic of malignancies.
z The study of neoplasms or tumors is called oncology. 6. In smokers, the ciliated columnar epithelium lining
2. Identify the statements, which are true for “Cancer”. of the bronchi is replaced by squamous epithelium.
1. Is a group of diseases characterized by an This type of cell transformation is called:
abnormal growth of cells (a) Dysplasia (b) Hyperplasia
2. The most common cancer diagnosed is breast (c) Hypertrophy (d) Metaplasia
cancer AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
3. The most common cause of death due to cancer Correct Option (d)
is liver cancer 7. Which of the following is not a typical difference
4. The global burden of cancer was around 20 factor between benign and malignant tumors?
million in 2020 (a) Cell differentiation (b) Growth rate
5. Cancer is the sixth leading cause of death (c) Size of the tumor (d) Encapsulation
Choose the correct answer: ESIC Staff Nurse 2019
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only Correct Option (c)
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 3 and 5 only 8. The severe weight loss accompanied by progressive
CHO, Rajasthan 2024 weakness, loss of appetite and anemia that is usually
Correct Option (b) associated with advanced cancer is called:
3. Which physiological process is seen in the case of (a) Carcinomatosis (b) Cachexia
cancer? (c) Anaplasia (d) Dysplasia
(a) Uncontrolled mitosis (b) Cell adhesions AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
(c) Uncontrolled meiosis (d) Cell rupture Correct Option (b)
NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023 z Cachexia is a state of ill health, malnutrition, severe
Correct Option (a) muscle wasting and weight loss (>5%) that may
4. Increase in number of cells in a tissue is called: occur in many chronic diseases, malignancies and
(a) Hypertrophy (b) Hyperplasia infections.
(c) Aplasia (d) Hypoplasia 9. Significant weight loss is:
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2024 (a) 5% over 6 to 12 months
Correct Option (b) (b) 10% over 6 to 12 months
z Hyperplasia is an increased number of normal cells (c) 5% over 6 weeks
in the normal tissue of an organ. (d) 10% over 6 weeks
z Hypertrophy is an increase in size of an organ due to BHU Nsg. Officer 2018
increase in size of the cells. Correct Option (a)
z Hypoplasia is an underdevelopment of a tissue organ 10. Which of the following is NOT considered as
or body. carcinogen?
z Aplasia is a failure of an organ or tissue to develop (a) Tobacco (b) UV rays (c) Viruses (d) Gens
normally. RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
5. Transmission of one type cell into another cell type Correct Option (d)
called: z Any agents (biologic, physical, chemical & other)
(a) Hyperplasia (b) Metaplasia that cause cancer are called carcinogens.
(c) Dysplasia (d) Anaplasia z Biologic (viruses & bacteria) agents are Epstein-Barr
RPSC (Raj.) Staff Nurse 2007 virus (Burkitt lymphoma), HPV (liver cancer) and
H. pylori (gastric cancers).
 MEDICAL–SURGICAL NURSING INCLUDING ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY | 435

lymphoma (11%), neuroblastoma (7%), Wilms palpation of breast tissue) during bath or shower,
tumor (6%), retinoblastoma (3%), osteosarcoma when the skin is slippery with soap and water.
(3%), Ewing sarcoma (2%) and others (16%). 24. The nurse teaches a patient who wants to perform
z Leukemias is the most common cancer of the blood BSE that the technique involves both the palpation
forming organ, i.e., bone marrow. of the breast tissue and:
20. All the following are warning signs of cancer (a) Palpation of cervical lymph nodes
EXCEPT: (b) A mammogram to evaluate breast tissue
(a) Indigestion and nagging cough (c) Inspection of the breast for any changes
(b) Change in bowel habits & unusual bleeding (d) Hard squeezing of the breast tissue
(c) A healing sore AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023
(d) Obvious change in mole Correct Option (c)
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014 25. The screening cancer detection test for the most
Correct Option (c) common cancer in women is:
z Seven warning signs of cancer are expressed by an (a) Biopsy of cervical tissue
acronym “CAUTION”: (b) Dilation and curettage
♦ C: Change in bowel/bladder habits. (c) Positive Kahn’s test
♦ A: A sore that does not heal. (d) Breast self-examination (BSE)
♦ U: Unusual bleeding/discharge. RUHS B.Sc. Nsg. (PB) Entrance 2015
♦ T: Thickening/lump in the breast/other body parts. Correct Option (d)
♦ I: Indigestion/difficulty in swallowing. z Breast cancer is the most common cancer in women,
♦ O: Obvious changes in warts/moles. and BSE is used for early screening of breast cancer.
♦ N: Nagging cough/hoarseness (laryngeal cancer). 26. Best time for breast self-examination?
21. A patient with shortness of breath is being tested (a) During menses
for lung cancer. Which diagnostic test will be most (b) 7 to 10 days after first days of menses
conclusive? (c) 10 days before the menses
(a) Chest X-ray (b) MRI (d) Any time
(c) Sputum culture (d) Biopsy CHO, Rajasthan 2020
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (d) 27. Suitable time to perform testicular self-examination
z Biopsy (excisional, incisional and fine-needle (TSE):
aspiration) is the definitive means of diagnosing (a) Weekly (b) Fortnightly
cancer which provide histologic proof of malignancy. (c) Monthly (d) Whenever get time
z Coaxial setup: A 22-gauge Chiba needle for FNA or a Correct Option (c)
20-gauge gun is used to obtain a core biopsy. z Testicular cancer most often affects men age 20
22. Screening tests used for early detection of cancer to 35 years, mainly arising from germ cell tumor
EXCEPT: (seminoma is the most common type).
(a) Mammography (b) Pap test z TSE should be performed on a monthly basis on
(c) BSE & TSE (d) X-ray the same day of every month mainly after taking a
Correct Option (d) shower to detect early detection of testicular cancer.
z Mammography, Pap test, BSE, TSE, sigmoidoscopy, 28. Which of following is most important tumor
colonoscopy, rectal exams, fecal occult blood test marker to diagnose carcinoma of ovary?
(FOBT) and skin inspection are used for early (a) Serum human chorionic gonadotropin
detection/screening of cancer. (b) CA-125
23. Which is correct instruction given by nurse related (c) Serum alpha fetoprotein
to breast self-examination (BSE) EXCEPT: (d) Human placental lactogen
(a) Perform BSE monthly 7-10 days after menses AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020
(b) After menopause or hysterectomy perform on a Correct Option (b)
fixed day of every month z Tumor marker is a substance synthesized by tumors
(c) Use opposite hand to examine breast that are released in the blood, urine, or body tissue
(d) Not take bath and use soap before BSE serves as a biochemical indicator for possible
Correct Option (d) presence of malignancy.
z Except option ‘d’ all others are correct regarding BSE. z Examples of specific-tumor marker & malignancy:
z Perform BSE (involves inspection of breast and ♦ Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for cancers
440 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

nutritional status. What should the nurse encourage z Other medical oncologic emergencies are spinal cord
the client to do? compression, tumor lysis syndrome, hypercalcemia,
(a) Medicate with prochlorperazine (Compazine) sepsis, DIC and SIADH.
before meals 73. The following are the metabolic triad of tumor lysis
(b) Eat foods that are hot in temperature syndrome EXCEPT: FAQ
(c) Avoid red meats (a) Hyperuricemia (b) Hyperphosphatemia
(d) Increase the amount of spices in the food (c) Hypercalcemia (d) Hyperkalemia
UPUMS, Saifai Nsg. Officer 2024 AIIMS Raipur SNO 2023
Correct Option (d)* Correct Option (c)
z Because taste buds are affected, increasing the spices z Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) occurs when large
in the food will improve flavour. number of tumor cells are destroyed and their
70. Precaution used by nurse during administration of intracellular contents like potassium, nucleic
chemotherapy EXCEPT: acids (mainly uric acid) are released rapidly into
(a) Wear mask, gloves, gown and eye protector bloodstream, which results in hyperkalemia,
(b) Use mainly IV route hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia and
(c) Never administer antiemetic before chemotherapy hyperuricemia.
(d) Advise to use contraception during chemotherapy z TLS is a positive sign that cancer treatment is
Correct Option (c) effective; however, if left untreated may be fatal.
z Precaution during administration of chemotherapy: 74. The four-hallmark sign of tumor lysis syndrome are
♦ Administer antiemetics (e.g., ondansetron) hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia
before and during chemotherapy, because and:
antineoplastic drugs stimulate the vomiting (a) Hypernatremia (b) Hypocalcemia
centers and cause nausea and vomiting. (c) Hyponatremia (d) Hypercalcemia
♦ Advice to use contraception because of NVS (Navodaya) Staff Nurse 2019
antineoplastic drugs having teratogenic effects. Correct Option (b)
♦ Use mainly IV route because chemotherapeutic 75. Initial management of tumor lysis syndrome
agents are very irritant or vesicant (pH <5 or >9). includes:
♦ Wear gloves, gown, mask and eye and face (a) Hydration (b) Correction of hyperkalemia
protection. (c) Allopurinol (d) Hemodialysis
71. Which of the following laboratory test is important AIIMS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2022
for patient on chemotherapy? Correct Option (a)
(a) WBC (b) RBC (c) Electrolyte (d) BUN
Radiotherapy
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015
Correct Option (a) 76. Brachytherapy means: FAQ
z WBCs count is more important because a decreased (a) Chemotherapy with radiation therapy
count may result in life-threatening opportunistic (b) Internal radiation therapy
infection in the body. (c) External radiation therapy
72. The nurse is monitoring a client for signs and (d) Radiation therapy with surgery
symptoms related to superior vena cava syndrome. CHO, Rajasthan 2023
Which is an early sign of this oncological Correct Option (b)
emergency? FAQ z Brachytherapy (internal radiation), the radiation
(a) Cyanosis (b) Periorbital edema source comes into direct, continuous contact with
(c) Arm edema (d) Mental status changes tumor tissue inside the body for a period, so client
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2022 emit radiation for a period of time and is hazardous
Correct Option (b) to others.
z Superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome is a medical z It includes either an unsealed radiation source
oncologic emergency caused by either partial/ (administered via oral or IV route, e.g., iodine-131)
complete obstruction (mainly at thoracic level) of the or a sealed radiation source (mainly solid implant)
SVC by tumor growth (mainly lung cancer), enlarged implanted within the tumor target tissues.
lymph nodes, clots that block the venous blood flow z Teletherapy (external-beam radiation) is the most
from head, neck and thorax to the heart. common type of radiation therapy given by an external
z It is characterized by progressive facial puffiness/neck radiation source, so clients do not emit radiation from
swelling (early sign), tightness of shirt or blouse collar the body and is not hazardous to others.
(stokes’ sign), dyspnea, cough and cerebral edema. z It includes stereotactic radiation therapy (a device
 3

PEDIATRIC NURSING

“Great is the man who has not lost his

childlike heart.”
– Mencius
 Growth & Development
including Neonatology

Introduction to Growth & Development growth and development EXCEPT:

1. Which of the following is defined as ‘a progressive (a) Malnutrition (b) Common cold
series of orderly, coherent changes in terms of (c) Pneumonia (d) Measles
qualitative changes’? FAQ AIIMS Bhubaneswar Staff Nurse 2018
(a) Spurt (b) Development Correct Option (b)
(c) Identity (d) Growth 6. Fetal growth is maximally affected by:
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 (a) Insulin (b) Growth hormone
Correct Option (b) (c) Cortisol (d) Thyroxine
z Development refers to progressive qualitative Correct Option (a)
increase in a child’s skills and capacity to function. z Insulin and insulin-like growth factors (IGF-I) and
z Growth refers to quantitative increase in physical (IGF-II) help in tissue growth in the fetus.
size of an organ or body (except lymphatic tissue) and z Growth Hormone (GH) has no role in intrauterine
it can be measured by anthropometric parameters growth.
like weight, height, head circumference, body mass 7. Hormone responsible for skeletal maturation of
index and skin fold thickness. fetus: FAQ
z Maturation refers to an increase in competence and (a) Testosterone (b) Thyroxin
increased functioning at a higher level. (c) Progesterone (d) Estrogen
2. Development in children refers to one of the following: RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
(a) Increase in size of the body parts Correct Option (b)
(b) Increase in intercellular substance z Human fetus secretes thyroxine (T4) from 12th
(c) Qualitative change and progressive increase in weeks of gestation which helps in skeletal growth.
skill and capacity to function 8. Children generally double their birth weight by 5
(d) Quantitative change in body months of age. This is an example of:
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019 (a) Development (b) Heredity
Correct Option (c) (c) State of health (d) Physical growth
3. Developmental change that occurs across all stages Correct Option (d)
of life is known as: z A net increase in the size or mass of tissue of the
(a) Early stage approach body and in total weight of the muscles and various
(b) Life cycle approach internal organs is called physical growth.
(c) Maturity approach 9. Growth from head to toe in children is called: FAQ
(d) Life experience approach (a) Cephalocaudal growth
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2022 (b) Proximodistal growth
Correct Option (b) (c) Sequential growth
z Developmental change is a continuous process and (d) Developmental pace
individuals achieve it in every phase of life. NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023
4. Which of these is NOT a factor affecting growth Correct Option (a)
and development? z Cephalocaudal pattern of development is the
(a) Heredity (b) Nutrition principle of maturation that includes motor
(c) Physical Appearance (d) Hormones development, control and coordination progress
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024 from head (cephalic part) to the legs (caudal part).
Correct Option (c) z Proximodistal pattern of development is the
z Factors affecting growth and development include principle of maturation that proceeds from near to
malnutrition, recurrent diarrhoea, respiratory far, i.e., from the central axis of the body towards the
tract infections (pneumonia, measles), parasitic periphery or extremities.
infestations, anemia, vitamin deficiency (rickets) 10. Development is in a proximo-distal direction.
fracture, child feeding practices, etc. Which of the following statements is suitable to
5. All following are major problems affecting child this principle? FAQ
 PEDIATRIC NURSING | 457

43. What is the normal pulse rate of a newborn? (b) Administer oxygen
(a) 140 per minute (b) 130 per minute (c) Reassess after 15 minutes
(c) 120 per minute (d) 110 per minute (d) Document the findings
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015 RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (d)
z Normal vital signs of healthy newborn: 50. The weight of a baby at birth is 2 kg. How much
♦ Pulse rate or heart rate (apical most accurate) 120 fluid does a baby need on the first and third day
to 160 bpm (average 140 bpm), bradycardia (rate respectively?
<100/min) and tachycardia (rate >160/minute). (a) 40 mL/kg/day and 50 mL/kg/day
♦ Respiratory rate 40 to 60 breath/minute (up to 80 (b) 60 mL/kg/day and 100 mL/kg/day
bpm- 1st period of reactivity). (c) 50 mL/kg/day and 70 mL/kg/day
♦ BP 80/46 mm Hg. (may be variation of 20/10 (d) 80 mL/kg/day and 120 mL/kg/day
mm Hg.). CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022
♦ Temperature 36.5 to 37.5°C (97.7° to 99.7°F). Correct Option (b)
♦ Capillary refill time (CRT) < 3 seconds. z Term baby requires 60 to 70 mL/kg fluid on the first
44. The normal respiratory rate of a newborn is: day and 100 to 120 mL/kg on the next 2 to 3 days.
(a) 14-18 breaths/min (b) 30-60 breaths/min z Preterm babies require 70 to 80 mL/kg on the first
(c) 50-70 breaths/min (d) 20-30 breaths/min day and advance gradually improves to 150 mL/kg/
ESIC Nsg. Officer 2024 day.
Correct Option (b) z Daily fluid requirements during 1st week of life (mL/
45. All the following are observed in normal newborn kg/day):
EXCEPT: Birth Wt D-1 D-2 D-3 D-4 D-5 D-6 ≥D-7
(a) Positive Moro reflex
<1500 g 80 95 110 120 130 140 150
(b) Heart rate is 60 bpm
(c) Respiration are irregular ≥1500 g 60 75 90 105 120 135 150
(d) Uneven head shape 51. The body water content of an infant is:
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 (a) 750 mL/kg (b) 550 mL/kg
Correct Option (b) (c) 250 mL/kg (d) Based on feeding
46. Heart rate of a healthy, alert neonate may range Correct Option (a)
between: FAQ z Infant body contains 75% (750 mL/kg) fluid as
(a) 120-180 beats/min (b) 130-170 beats/min compared to 60% (600 mL/kg) fluid in adults.
(c) 100-130 beats/min (d) 110-160 beats/min z Premature infants have higher total body water
NCL Singrauli Staff Nurse 2019 (TBW) than term infants.
Correct Option (d) 52. Infant with a body weight of 10 Kg is kept NPO for
47. Which of the following is the normal respiratory surgery. How much IV fluid should be administered
rate of a healthy newborn? per hour to this child?
(a) 40-60/minute (b) 60-100/minute (a) 100 mL/hr (b) 40 mL/hr (c) 120 mL/hr (d) 80 mL/hr
(c) 20-30/minute (d) 10-16/minute AIIMS NORCET-6 (Mains) Nsg. Officer 2024
AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (a) z Holliday-Segar formula (4/2/1 rule):
48. What is the normal pulse rate of an infant? Body Maintenance fluid requirement
(a) 120-160 per minute (b) 30-60 per minute Weight Hourly Daily
(c) 80-100 per minute (d) 60-80 per minute <10 kg 4 mL/kg 100 mL/kg
BHU Staff Nurse 2016
10-20 kg 40 mL + 2 mL/kg 1000 mL + 50 mL/kg
Correct Option (a)
for each kg >10 kg for each kg >10 kg
z Normal vital signs of healthy infant:
>20 kg 60 mL + 1 mL/kg 1500 mL + 20 mL/kg
♦ Pulse rate 90 to 130 bpm (average 110 bpm).
for each kg >20 kg for each kg above 20 kg
♦ Respiratory rate 20 to 40 breath/minute (average
30 bpm). 53. Total blood volume of a newborn at birth is:
♦ BP 90/56 mm Hg. (a) 80 mL/kg (b) 100 mL/kg
49. What action should a nurse take if the respiratory (c) 125 mL/kg (d) 150 mL/kg
rate of an infant is 35 breaths/minute? PGIMER Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2016
(a) Notify the physician Correct Option (a)
 PEDIATRIC NURSING | 461

z The causes include organic (underlying medical AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nsg. Officer 2023
conditions) and non-organic or psychosocial (up to Correct Option (c)
80% of cases). 95. What is the shape of anterior fontanelle?
(a) Square (b) Rectangular
Fontanelle
(c) Diamond (d) Triangular
90. Wide-gap in the suture is: RRB Staff Nurse 2019
(a) Diameter (b) Circumference Correct Option (c)
(c) Fontanelle (d) Inlet 96. The meeting point between coronal and sagittal
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018 suture is known as:
Correct Option (c) (a) Lambda (b) Parietal eminence
z Wide gap in the suture line is called fontanelle. (c) Bregma (d) Occipital eminence
z Of the many fontanelles (6 in number), 4 are minor RRB Staff Nurse 2019
(2 anterolateral and 2 posterolateral) and 2 major Correct Option (c)
fontanelles present in newborn. 97. The anterior fontanelle (Bregma) is situated at the
z Among two (anterior fontanelle and posterior junction of:
fontanelle) are of obstetric significance. (a) Sagittal, coronal and frontal sutures
91. How many fontanels are present in a newborn? (b) Sagittal and lambdoid sutures
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Five (d) Four (c) Coronal and frontal sutures
RRB Staff Nurse 2015 (d) Sagittal and frontal sutures
Correct Option (a) NPCIL Staff Nurse 2019
92. At birth, there are: Correct Option (a)
(a) 4 fontanels (b) 6 fontanels 98. The anterior fontanelle becomes ossified by 18
(c) 2 fontanels (d) 8 fontanels months but it becomes pathological if it fails to
ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 ossify:
Correct Option (b) (a) Before 18 months (b) After 18 months
93. Anterior fontanel in newborn closes between: (c) Before 24 months (d) After 24 months
(a) 12-18 months of age (b) 2-3 months of age RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011
(c) 9-12 months of age (d) 6-9 months of age Correct Option (d)
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2024 99. Which fontanelle closes first into a child? FAQ
AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020 (a) Frontal (b) Occipital
Correct Option (a) (c) Sphenoid (d) Mastoid
z Anterior fontanelle (bregma) is diamond shape RPSC (Raj.) Staff Nurse 2007
junction formed by joining of the 4 sutures, i.e., Correct Option (b)
anteriorly frontal, posteriorly sagittal and on either z Posterior fontanelle (lambda/occipital) is a triangular
side, coronal. shape junction formed by 3 suture lines, i.e., sagittal
z It normally ossified or closed by 12 to 18 months of suture anteriorly and lambdoid suture on either side.
age. z It closes (first) in 6 to 8 weeks from birth.
z It becomes pathological, if it fails to ossify even after 100. The infant’s posterior fontanelles usually closed by:
24 months. (a) 6 - 8 weeks (b) 3 - 6 months
z Early closure of fontanelle indicates craniostenosis (c) 12 - 18 month (d) 9 - 12 months
due to premature closure of skull sutures and RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
delayed closure may be due to rickets, malnutrition, Correct Option (a)
hydrocephalus, cretinism, etc.
94. Identify the fontanel indicated by the arrow: Developmental Milestone
101. All of these are gross motor activity EXCEPT:
(a) Turning (b) Standing and walking
(c) Sitting (d) Palmar and pincer grasp
Correct Option (d)
z Two types of motor development are:
♦ Gross motor skills: The group of motor skills
including head control, turning, sitting, standing
and walking, running, climbing upstairs,
(a) Posterior fontanel (b) Temporal fontanel throwing, etc. that require large muscle groups
(c) Anterior fontanel (d) Occipital fontanel to produce the major action and require less
462 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

precision than that exerted by small muscles. ESIC Bhiwari Staff Nurse 2010
♦ Examples of gross motor skills are crawling, Correct Option (a)
reaching, standing, walking, lifting things or z Turn head from back to front and front to back, left
throwing objects, etc. to right or side to side occur at 2 to 3 months.
♦ Fine motor skills: Motor skills that require greater z Grasp the object strongly but cannot hold it and drop
control of the small muscles than large ones, and immediately (hold rattles at 2 months).
those that require a high degree of precision in z Laughing and crying too loudly at 3 months.
hand and finger movement, etc. 105. Child starts crawling at: FAQ
♦ Examples of fine motor skills are hand-to-eye (a) 4 to 6 months (b) 8 to 9 months
and hand-to-mouth coordination, palmar and (c) 9 to 12 months (d) After 12 months
pincer grasp, handwriting, grasping, dressing, IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019
etc. DSSSB PHN 2015
102. The toddler can demonstrate achievement of gross Correct Option (b)
motor skills by which of these activities: 106. At which age does the child sit on its own, without
(a) Stacking two blocks any support?
(b) Push and pull toys (a) 4 month (b) 6 month (c) 12 month (d) 8 month
(c) Turning pages of a book NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023
(d) Dumping a raisin Correct Option (d)
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016 107. An infant can sit steadily without support at the age
Correct Option (b) of:
103. When does an infant start gaining good head (a) 10 month (b) 12 month (c) 8 month (d) 6 month
control? SSB DD & DNH Nsg. Officer 2018
(a) At Birth (b) 3rd months Correct Option (c)
(c) 8th months (d) 10th months 108. When toddlers move around on their hands
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024 keeping their abdomen off the floor, it is called:
Correct Option (b) (a) Squirming (b) Crawling
z Key gross motor developmental milestones: (c) Creeping (d) Rolling
Age Milestones AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nsg. Officer 2018
3 months Head control/neck holding Correct Option (c)
5 months Rolls over (prone to supine) 109. The nurses assess a six-months-old child during
6 months Sitting with support (tripod posture) a well-baby clinic. Nurse makes all the following
observations. Which of the following assessments
7 months Supine to prone
made by the nurse is an area of concern indicating
8 months Sitting without support; crawls
a need for further evaluation?
9 months Standing with support (a) Absence of Moro reflex
10 months Creeping (b) Closed posterior fontanel
11 months Cruising (c) Three pounds weight gain in 2 months
12 months Stands without support; bear walking (d) Moderate head lag when pulled to sitting
15 months Walks alone; creeps upstairs position
18 months Runs; pulls a toy RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018
2 years Walks up & downstairs (2 feet/step); walks Correct Option (d)
backwards; kicks a ball 110. A child can walk with a steady gait at the age of:
3 years Rides tricycle; alternate feet going upstairs (a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) 4 years
4 years Hops on one foot; alternate feet going IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2021
downstairs Correct Option (b)
5 years Skipping on both feet 111. Normally a child climbs stairs at:
(a) 12 months (b) 24 months
104. A one-month-old baby come to primary health
(c) 36 months (d) 48 months
center for physical examination, nurse should
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017
check which developmental milestone:
Correct Option (b)
(a) Head turned from back to front
112. A child can ride a tricycle by the age of:
(b) Head turned left to right
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years (c) 4 years (d) 5 years
(c) Laughing and crying too loudly
AMRU, M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024
(d) Hold the rattles
 PEDIATRIC NURSING | 463

Correct Option (b) Correct Option (c)

113. The indicators that suggest that development is 118. Select the correct sequence of the milestones
seriously disordered in a child include all of the achieved by an infant: a. Pincer grasp, b. Bidextrous
following, EXCEPT: reach, c. Scribbles, d. Unidextrous reach. Choose
(a) Persistently low muscle tone or floppiness the correct answer:
(b) Persistent toe walking (a) b, d, a, c (b) a, b, c, d
(c) No speech by 18 months (c) b, a, d, c (d) c, b, d, a
(d) Climbing stairs with two feet per step by 2 years MNS SCC Exam 2024
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (d) 119. A child transfers objects from one hand to other.
114. Infants of 4 months to 5 months of age reach for What does it imply?
objects with: (a) Visual motor coordination (b) Object release
(a) Bidextrous approach (b) Intermediate pincer grasp (c) Comparison of objects (d) Explore small objects
(c) Unidextrous approach (d) Immature pincer grasp Correct Option (c)
WBUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2022 Milestones Developmental implications
Correct Option (a) Hand regard Self-discovery of hands
z Key fine motor milestones: Grasps a rattle Object use
Age Milestones Reaches for objects Visuomotor coordination
4 months Bidextrous grasp; mouthing Transfers objects from Able to compare objects
6 months Unidextrous; transfer objects one hand to other
Builds a tower of 2 cubes Use objects in combination
9 months Immature pincer grasp
120. What age group the development of social smile
12 months Pincer grasp mature
occurs?
15 months Imitates scribbling; tower of 2 blocks; (a) 2 month (b) 4 month (c) 6 month (d) 8 month
drinks from cup HSSC Haryana Staff Nurse 2021
18 months Scribbles; tower of 3 blocks; feed self Correct Option (a)
with spoon z Key social and adaptive milestones:
2 years Tower of 6 blocks; vertical & circular Age Milestones
stroke 2 months Social smile
3 years Tower of 9 blocks; copies circle 3 months Recognizes mother
4 year Copies rectangle/plus sign/cross; bridge 6 months Smiles at mirror image (mirror play)
with blocks
7 months Stranger anxiety
5 years Copies triangle; gate with blocks
8 months Object permanence
115. A child grasps fingers when palm touch occurs at
9 months Waves ‘bye-bye’
the age of:
(a) 4 month (b) 6 month (c) 9 month (d) 4 week 10 months Plays peek-a-boo
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 12 months Kisses on request; plays simple ball game
Correct Option (d) 18 months Domestic mimicry (e.g., sweeping)
z Palmar grasp reflex appears at 28 weeks of gestation
2 years Asks for food & drink; parallel play
and fully developed by 32 weeks of gestation and
disappears by 2 to 3 months after birth. 3 years Knows full name & gender; shares toys
116. All of the following fine motor skills develop during 4 years Goes to toilet alone; cooperative play
early childhood EXCEPT: 5 years Helps in household tasks, dresses and
(a) Sketching (b) Cutting-pasting undresses
(c) Sharing toys (d) Doing jigsaw puzzles
121. Which of the following milestones develop first?
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019
(a) Mirror play (b) Crawling
Correct Option (c)
(c) Creeping (d) Pincer grasp
117. A child can release a toy voluntarily by the age of:
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2021
(a) 6 months (b) 8 months
Correct Option (a)
(c) 10 months (d) 12 months
122. At which age child may respond to verbal request:
JIPMER Staff Nurse 2017
464 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(a) 6-9 months (b) 9-12 months in children with profound hearing losses who use
(c) 12-15 months (d) 15-18 months cochlear implants or hearing aids.
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2024 127. The vision fully mature at the age of:
Correct Option (b) (a) At birth (b) 6 to 7 year
123. When child start to say word like ‘baba’ ‘dada’: (c) 6 months (d) 1 to 2 year
(a) 18 months (b) 9 months Correct Option (c)
(c) 12 months (d) 3 months z At birth, a baby can follow a moving object (8 to 12
Correct Option (b) inches away) up to a range of 45°; at 4 weeks 90° and
z Key language milestones: 8 to 12 weeks 180°.
Age Milestones z About 3 to 4 months binocular vision is established
and by 6 months vision fully mature as in adult.
1 month Alerts to sound
128. At which age a child can starts to brush his teeth:
2 months Vocalizes (a) 2 year (b) 3 year (c) 4 year (d) 20 month
3 months Cooing (musical) sound RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014
4 months Laughs aloud Correct Option (b)
129. At the age of 2 years child should be able to:
6 months Monosyllables (‘ma’, ‘ba’)
(a) Use to eat fruits
9 months Bisyllables (‘mama’, ‘baba’) (b) Drink milk from cup
12 months 1 to 2 words with meaning (c) Pours own water in a glass
15 months Jargon speech (d) Cuts food using a knife
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016
18 months 8-10 words with meaning (identify one
Correct Option (b)
or more body parts)
130. A female child has recently learned to eat with a
2 years Simple sentence with 2-3 words spoon without spilling, to dress and undress herself
(uses pronouns “I”, “me”, “you”) with supervision and to understand that she is a
3 years Asks questions, repeats 3 digits girl. These skills are first mastered between the ages
4 years Sings song or tells poem or stories of:
(a) 2 and 3 years (b) 3 and 4 years
5 years Asks meaning of words
(c) 4 and 5 years (d) 5 and 6 years
124. Which of the following best describes the language RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2022
of a 24-month-old? Correct Option (a)
(a) Doesn’t understand yes and no 131. When assessing physical development of the 5-year-
(b) Understands the meaning of words old, you would find it abnormal if he:
(c) Able to verbalize needs (a) Needed to go up a stairway one step at a time
(d) Continuously asks “Why?” to most of topics (b) Could jump on one foot a few times
Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018 (c) Could catch a large rubber ball
Correct Option (c) (d) Could stack up pile of six blocks
125. Repetition of words and phrases without ESIC Staff Nurse 2019
understanding is a characteristic feature of: Correct Option (a)
(a) Infant (b) Toddlers z Developmental red-flag signs:
(c) Preschoolers (d) Schoolers Milestone Upper limit Usual limit
CHO, Tripura 2022
Head control 5 months 3 months
Correct Option (b)
Sitting with support 9 months 6 months
126. PBK-50 is a monosyllabic word recognition
test which is developed to evaluate the speech Standing with support 12 months 9 months
perception of children. What does PBK stand for? Walking with support 15 months 12 months
(a) Phonetically Balanced Kindergarten Immature pincer grasp 12 months 9 months
(b) Perception Based Kindergarten Scribbling 24 months 15 months
(c) Picture Balanced Kindergarten Social smile 6 months 2 months
(d) Paediatric Based Kindergarten Single words 18 months 1 year
CHO, Jharkhand 2022 132. Which of the following behaviours by a 36-month-
Correct Option (a) old child supports a nursing diagnosis of altered
z PBK-50 is used to measure speech perception skills growth and development?
(a) Walks holding onto furniture
 PEDIATRIC NURSING | 479

z Hind milk is thick milk secreted at the end of feed, (a) Goat milk (b) Cow milk
which contains more fat and energy and satisfies (c) Buffalo milk (d) Camel milk
hunger of the baby. RRB Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2015
278. Which of the following components is higher in Correct Option (b)
colostrum compared to breast milk in humans? z Cow milk more resembles human milk because both
(a) Protein (b) Water contain lactose sugar and equal amounts of fat (3.5
(c) Carbohydrate (d) Fats g/dL), water and almost the same energy (cow’s milk
NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2021 67 and human milk 65-70 Kcal/dL).
Correct Option (a) z Although cow’s milk contains more protein (three
279. Which of the following is significantly difference times more), sodium, potassium, chloride and
between human and cow’s milk? phosphorus, which may increase load on neonatal
(a) Proteins & Fat (b) Proteins & sugar immature kidneys, so it should be diluted and boiled
(c) Protein & Lactose (d) Minerals (boiling may modify casein present in cow’s milk).
RRB Staff Nurse 2015 284. Which of the following enzymes coagulate milk in
Correct Option (c) the infant?
z Composition of human and cow’s milk: (a) Rennin (b) Gastric lipase
Nutrients Human milk Cow’s milk (c) Pepsinogen (d) Lysozyme
(per 100 mL) (per 100 mL) NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2021
Protein 0.9-1.1 gm 3.5 gm Correct Option (a)
Casein 30- 40 %, high 80%, rich in casein 285. Why cow’s milk need to be diluted (4:1) for first 6
lactalbumin, (causes milk allergy to 8 weeks of birth:
whey protein & colic) (a) High content of sugar
Carbohydrate 6 - 7.5 gm 4.5 gm (b) High content of fat
(Lactose) (c) High content of protein and sodium
(d) All options are right
Fat 3.5 gm, richer in 4.0 gm
Correct Option (c)
PUFA
286. In a 100 mL of human milk, how much protein is
Na & K 6.5 & 14 25 & 35
present?
(mEq/L)
(a) 1.2 g (b) 7.0 g (c) 4.0 g (d) 3.5 g
Osmolality 290 350 NVS (Navodaya) Staff Nurse 2019
(mOsm/L) Correct Option (a)
Calories 65-70 kcal 67 kcal 287. In comparison to cow’s milk, which one of the
280. Human milk contains ........gms of protein: following is more in human milk?
(a) 2.2 gm/100 mL (b) 1.1 gm/100 mL (a) Lactose (b) Proteins
(c) 3.3 gm/100 mL (d) 4.4 gm/100 mL (c) Minerals (d) Iron
Correct Option (b) RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2014
281. The carbohydrate content of breast milk is: Correct Option (a)
(a) 8.6 (b) 2.3 (c) 3.2 (d) 7.5 288. The average energy value of human milk is:
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013 (a) 150 kcal/100 mL (b) 70 kcal/100 mL
Correct Option (d) (c) 100 kcal/100 mL (d) 50 kcal/100 mL
282. Which milk, is nearer the mother’s milk when ESIC Staff Nurse 2016
extracted some sugar & add some protein from it: Correct Option (b)
(a) Goat (b) Yak (c) Buffalo (d) Cow z Human milk provides energy 65-70 kcal/100 mL.
BSF Staff Nurse 2014 z Maximum breast milk output occurs at 5 to 6 months
Correct Option (d) of lactation is 730 mL/day.
z Cow’s milk contains low sugar compared to human z Water contents in breast milk 88%.
milk (cow’s 4.5 g/dL and human 7.5 g/dL), so it 289. A healthy mother while breastfeeding will produce
becomes nearer to the mother’s milk when adding about ……….of breast milk per day:
some sugar. (a) 10-100 mL (b) 100-200 mL
z Cow’s milk contains more protein than human milk (c) 300-400 mL (d) 500-900 mL
(cow’s 3.5 g/dL and human 1.2 g/dL), so it becomes HSSC Haryana Staff Nurse 2023
nearer to the mother’s milk when removing some Correct Option (d)
protein. 290. Human milk is preferable to cow’s milk because:
283. The milk that closely resembles human milk is:
 PEDIATRIC NURSING | 489

and appears in amniotic fluid between 28 to 32 weeks IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014
and peaks at 35 weeks gestation. Correct Option (b)
z Therefore, any neonate born at 36 weeks is unlikely z Signs/symptoms of RDS appear within the first
to develop RDS. 6 hours of birth include tachypnea (respiratory
380. The most important factor predisposing an infant rate >60/min), nasal flaring, expiratory grunting,
to respiratory distress is: FAQ retraction of the ribs, cyanosis, seesaw respiration,
(a) Prematurity (b) Cold stress decrease air entry, etc.
(c) Hypoglycemia (d) Hypocalcemia 386. Silverman-Andersen scoring is used to evaluate:
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024 (a) Neonatal sepsis (b) Asthma
Correct Option (a) (c) Respiratory distress (d) Jaundice
381. One of the possible complication in infant delivered AMRU, M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024
by caesarean section would be: Correct Option (c)
(a) Respiratory distress (b) Renal impairment z Silverman-Anderson index is used to assess the
(c) ABO incompatibility (d) Kernicterus degree of respiratory distress in preterm newborn
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2013 with RDS (Interpretation: <5 mild; 5-7 moderate;
Correct Option (a) >7 severe).
382. What is the most common complication for which Score Score 0 Score 1 Score 2
a nurse must monitor a preterm infant? Upper chest Equal Lag on See-saw
(a) Hemorrhage (b) Brain Damage retraction inspiration respiration
(c) Respiratory distress (d) Aspiration of mucus Lower chest None Mild Severe
NCL Singrauli Staff Nurse 2019 retraction
Correct Option (c) Xiphoid None Mild Severe
383. When a nurse see a baby in respiratory distress retractions
from apparent mucus, the first nursing action is to:
Nasal flaring None Mild Severe
(a) Carefully slap the infant’s back
Expiratory None Audible with Audible
(b) Thump chest and start CPR
grunt stethoscope without
(c) Pick the baby up by the feet
stethoscope
(d) Call the core team
BHU Nsg. Officer 2018 387. You are providing nursing care to a preterm
Correct Option (c) newborn baby. Which assessment finding would
z Clearing of airway (gravity or postural drainage), alert the nurse to the possibility of Respiratory
ensuring adequate breathing and circulation are the Distress Syndrome?
first-line intervention. (a) Tachypnea and Retraction
384. The nurse evaluates the adequacy of the neonate’s (b) Bradypnea and hypotension
oxygen by monitoring: (c) Weak cry and irritability
(a) Cyanosis of hands and feet (d) Incessant cry and cyanosis
(b) Pulse rate continuously RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019
(c) Arterial blood gas levels Correct Option (a)
(d) The percentage of oxygen received z Downes’ score is used to assess the degree of
NPCIL Staff Nurse 2019 respiratory distress in term and preterm babies
Correct Option (c) (Interpretation: <3 mild; 4-6 moderate; >6 severe or
z The adequacy of the neonate’s oxygen can be impending respiratory failure).
monitored ABG (from umbilical artery) and SpO2 Score 0 1 2
levels (for term neonates 90 to 93% and preterm Cyanosis None At room air With 40% O2
neonates 88 to 92%), colour of skin, respiratory rate.
Respiratory <60/min 60-80/min >80/min
z Because SpO2 above 95% may cause retinopathy of
rate
prematurity (ROP).
385. The most significant sign of respiratory distress in Air entry Clear Decreased Severely
preterm baby is: FAQ decreased
(a) Bradycardia Retractions None Mild Severe
(b) Nasal flaring Grunting None Audible with Audible without
(c) Barrel chest stethoscope stethoscope
(d) Grunting, ala nasi and chest indrawing
 Pediatric Disorders

Introduction to Pediatric Nursing AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017

1. “Pediatric nursing” a branch of nursing is Correct Option (b)
concerned with: z Primary roles of the pediatric nurse are caregiver,
(a) Care to infant (b) Care to adolescent advocate, educator, researcher and manager/leader.
(c) Care to children (d) All of the above 6. What is NOT the role of a Pediatric nurse?
Correct Option (d) (a) Primary care giver (b) Health educator
z ‘Pediatrics’ is Greek words, ‘pedia’ means child, (c) Therapeutic nurse (d) Prescribing medicines
‘iatrike’ means treatment and ‘ics’ means branch AIIMS Jodhpur PHN 2023
of science of child care and scientific treatment of Correct Option (d)
children from infancy through adolescence. 7. Who is known as “Father of Pediatric”?
2. The modern concept of pediatrics means: (a) Abraham Jacob (b) Hippocrates
(a) Short term care of the child (c) Kashyapa (d) Susruta
(b) Basic care of the child Correct Option (a)
(c) Continuous and preventive care of whole child z Abraham Jacob is known as the father of pediatrics.
(d) Terminally ill care of the child z Dr. George Coelho is considered the father of
Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018 pediatrics in India.
Correct Option (c) z The world’s first pediatricians (Indian) were Kashyapa
z Modern concepts of pediatrics include advocate for and Jeevaka.
child and family, communicate for child, activate 8. Hospital procedures for a child are:
child’s activities and disseminate information related (a) The same in each hospital
to child health programs, educate the public about (b) Different in basic principles from those for
child health, motivate people to participate in child adults
care, investigate available resources, collaborate care. (c) Entirely different for each age group
3. The following are the trends of pediatric nursing, (d) The same in principle as those for adults
EXCEPT: RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015
(a) Restricted visiting hours (b) Rooming-in Correct Option (d)
(c) Evidence-based practice (d) Family centred care Genetic/Congenital Disorders
MPESB, Bhopal Staff Nurse 2021 9. The science of betterment of human race by
Correct Option (a) application of the law of inheritance is called:
4. The changing focus of pediatric nurse on one of the (a) Eugenics (b) Genetics
following is: (c) Euphenic (d) Euthenics
(a) Disease centered care AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018
(b) Special care during 3rd trimester of pregnancy Correct Option (a)
(c) Only care of sick child in hospital z Eugenics is the science which aims to improve the
(d) Child centered care within family perinatal care genetic endowment of human population by selective
with advice and prevention, health promotion breeding by application of the law of inheritance.
and follow up of children z Euthenics is the science that deals with development
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019 of human well-being by improvement of living
Correct Option (d) conditions.
5. The primary role of the pediatric nurse is to provide 10. Eugenics means: FAQ
nursing care as: (a) Genetic counseling
(a) Collaborator, Care coordinator and consultant (b) Improvement of genetic endowment
(b) An advocate, educator and manager (c) Genetic preventive measures
(c) An independent and autonomous practitioner (d) Improvement of environment
(d) Clinical specialist and case manager AIIMS Nagpur Nsg. Officer 2020
510 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(c) Decreased FSH (d) Decreased testis size (c) Caput succedaneum (d) Craniosynostosis
Correct Option (c) RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024
54. Klinefelter syndrome is diagnosed by: Correct Option (d)
(a) Karyotyping (b) USG abdomen z Premature closure of one or more cranial sutures,
(c) Triple test (d) Echocardiography lead to abnormal shape/asymmetry of the skull is
Correct Option (a) called craniosynostosis (craniostenosis).
55. Karyotyping is done using a fluorescence z Depending on early closure of sutures involved, it
microscope with which of the following techniques? may be:
(a) G-banding (b) T-banding ♦ Scaphocephaly/dolichocephaly “boat-shape
(c) C-banding (d) Q-banding head” (sagittal suture), commonest type.
Correct Option (d) ♦ Brachycephaly (bilateral coronal sutures).
56. The karyotype in testicular feminization syndrome ♦ Trigonocephaly “triangle-shape head” (metopic
is? suture).
(a) XX (b) XY (c) XXY (d) XXXY ♦ Plagiocephaly 2 types, i.e., frontal & occipital.
Correct Option (b) ♦ Oxycephaly/acrocephaly/turricephaly (all the
z Androgen insensitivity syndrome (testicular sutures).
feminization) is an X-linked recessive androgen 62. During physical assessment of children, asymmetry
receptor disorder with 46, XY karyotype. of the skull indicates:
57. Cat-eye syndrome is: (a) Hydrocephalus (b) Osteogenesis imperfecta
(a) Partial trisomy 18 (b) Partial trisomy 13 (c) Craniosynostosis (d) Craniotabes
(c) Partial trisomy 21 (d) Partial trisomy 22 AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (c)
58. All the following are sex chromosomal disorders 63. The premature closure of the sagittal suture is
EXCEPT: called:
(a) Klinfelter’s syndrome (b) Turner syndrome (a) Scaphocephaly (b) Oxycephaly
(c) Hirschsprung’s disease (d) XXX syndrome (c) Acrocephaly (d) Anencephaly
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016 AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (a)
59. Wermer’s syndrome is considered as: 64. Apert syndrome is:
(a) MEN III (b) MEN IV (c) MEN I (d) MEN II (a) Premature closure of coronal suture
RRB Staff Nurse 2019 (b) Premature closure of posterior suture
Correct Option (c) (c) Premature closure of anterior suture
z Multiple endocrine neoplasia type I (MEN I), also (d) All of the above
called Wermer’s syndrome, is a rare, autosomal- AMRU, M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024
dominant genetic disorder that associated with Correct Option (a)
tumor of endocrine glands, e.g., parathyroid, 65. The congenital anomaly of the hand, in which there
pituitary gland, pancreas, etc. is persistence of the webbing between adjacent
z It is caused by a mutation in the menin gene on digits of the hands, so that they are attached to each
chromosome 11q13. other is called a:
z Hyperparathyroidism is the most common (a) Polydactyl (b) Monodactyly
manifestation of MEN I. (c) Syndactyly (d) Reduction deformities
z Multiple endocrine neoplasia type II (MEN II) AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
known as sipple’s syndrome. Correct Option (c)
60. The earliest congenital anomaly detected is: z Syndactyly is congenital fusion or webbing of one or
(a) Anencephaly (b) Spina bifida more fingers/toes.
(c) Duodenal atresia (d) Hydrocephalus z Polydactyl is the condition of having more than the
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017 normal number of fingers/toes.
Correct Option (a) z Monodactyly is the congenital condition having only
z Anencephaly means congenital absence of brain and one finger/toe on hand or foot.
cranial vault, which can be detected at the time of 66. A congenital anomaly in which the hands or feet
the birth. attached close to the trunk is called:
61. The premature closure of one or more sutures of the (a) Polydactyly (b) Syndactyly
neonate’s skull is called: FAQ (c) Phocomelia (d) Hemimelia
(a) Cephalohematoma (b) Cranioclast AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
Correct Option (c)
512 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

AIIMS Bhubaneswar SNO 2023 (a) Niemann-Pick disease (b) Gaucher disease
Correct Option (c) (c) Tay-Sachs disease (d) Fabry disease
z Meat, fish, chicken, eggs, dry beans, nuts, legumes, Correct Option (b)
colas, milk & dairy products & aspartame (artificial z Gaucher cells are a hallmark of Gaucher disease and
non-saccharide sweetener) contain high amounts of seen as wrinkled tissue paper appearance.
phenylalanine so it should be avoided in PKU. z X-ray of long bones: Erlenmeyer-flask deformity.
z Low phenylalanine diets like vegetables, fruits, juices
Malnutrition
and cereal are the treatment of choice.
77. Which of the following is a characteristic finding in 81. The major cause for childhood illness is:
a child diagnosed with Maple Syrup Urine Disease (a) Infection (b) Accidents
(MSUD)? (c) Malnutrition (d) Infestation
(a) Hypoglycemia AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018
(b) Increased serum bilirubin Correct Option (c)
(c) Elevated serum phenylalanine levels z The major health problems include low birth
(d) Elevated levels of branched-chain amino acid in weight, malnutrition (most wide-spread condition),
blood and urine infections and parasitic infestations, accident and
AIIMS Bhubaneswar SNO 2023 poisoning and behavioral problems, etc.
Correct Option (d) z Malnutrition refers to deficiencies, excesses or
z MSUD is an autosomal recessive inborn error of imbalances in a person’s intake of energy and/ or
amino acid metabolism due to abnormal activity nutrients (WHO).
of the branched-chain α-ketoacid dehydrogenase z It consists of both undernutrition and overweight
(BCKAD) complex. and obesity.
z It is characterized by a typical smell (maple syrup or 82. A condition in which there is an inadequate
burnt sugar) in cerumen (12 h after birth) and urine consumption, poor absorption or excessive loss of
(1st week of life). nutrients is called:
78. Methionine restricted diet is recommended for: (a) Malnutrition (b) Undernutrition
(a) Phenylketonuria (b) Homocystinuria (c) Excess nutrition (d) Overnutrition
(c) Alkaptonuria (d) MSUD DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (b) z Undernutrition has 3 subgroups: underweight,
z Homocystinuria is a disorder of methionine wasting and stunting.
metabolism caused by deficiency of cystathionine z Underweight is defined as low-weight-for-age
β-synthase (CBS), a pyridoxine-dependent enzyme. (Weight-for-age less than –2 SD of the WHO child
z It is characterized by developmental delay, ectopia growth standards median).
lentis, myopia, marfanoid, thromboembolism (a z Stunting is defined as low-height-for-age (Height-
cause of early death and morbidity). for-age less than –2 SD of the WHO child growth
z High doses of vitamin B6 and folic acid is advised. standards median).
79. Commonest autosomal recessive inherited z Wasting is defined as low-weight-for-height (Weight-
lysosomal storage disorder is: for-height less than –2 SD of the WHO child growth
(a) Gaucher disease standards median).
(b) Niemann-Pick disease 83. Stunting refers to:
(c) Tay-Sachs disease (a) Low weight than what is appropriate for a certain
(d) Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome height
MNS SCC Exam 2024 (b) Low BMI
Correct Option (a) (c) Low weight than what is appropriate for certain
z Important lysosomal storage diseases: age
Disease Deficiency (d) Low height than what is appropriate for a certain
age
Gaucher disease Beta glucocerebrosidase
AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nsg. Officer 2018
Tay-Sachs disease Alpha hexosaminidase
Correct Option (d)
Niemann-Pick disease Sphingomyelinase 84. Which of the following types of malnutrition
GM1 gangliosidosis Beta galactosidase describes low-weight-for-height?
80. “Wrinkled tissue paper” appearance of macrophage (a) Underweight (b) Wasting
in bone marrow aspirate is seen in? (c) Deficiency in vitamins & minerals (d) Stunting
 PEDIATRIC NURSING | 515

RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012 Correct Option (b)

Correct Option (c) z Shakir’s tape is used to measure MUAC.
z High protein diet is provided in malnutrition. z It is divided into 3 colour zones:
z In severe protein energy malnutrition: 175 to ♦ Green: >12.5 cm (normal nutritional status).
200 kcal/kg/day and moderate protein energy ♦ Yellow: 11.5-12.5 cm (borderline malnutrition).
malnutrition: 150 Kcal/kg/day is given. ♦ Red: <11.5 cm (severe malnutrition).
z About 8 to 10% of total calories should be obtained 110. Which of the following is NOT used in the
from higher biological value proteins. Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool (MUST)?
z Start feeding with a “starter” (F-75) diet (75 kcal and (a) Effect of medications (b) Weight loss
0.9 gm protein/100 mL), 8 to 12 feeds over 24 hours (c) Effect of acute disease (d) BMI
in the stabilization phase. NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023
z “Catch-up” (F-100) diet contains 100 kcal and 3 gm Correct Option (a)
protein/100 mL. 111. What is the full form of method ‘ABCD’ used in
z Ready-to-use therapeutic food (RUTF) is an energy- nutrition assessment?
dense, mineral and vitamin enriched food, used for (a) Assessing, Bioscreening, Categorizing, Defining
home-based rehabilitation of SAM. (b) Anthropometry, Biological method,
z 100 gm of RUTF: 543 kcal of energy & 15 gm protein. Contemporary method, Diet
107. Identify the age-independent indicators of (c) Anthropometry, Biochemical/Biophysical
malnutrition among the following? method, Clinical method, Dietary method
(a) Mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC) (d) Analyzing, Bioscreening, Complication
(b) Shakir’s tape method assessment, Distribution of nutrients
(c) Bangle test NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023
(d) All of the above Correct Option (c)
AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017 z Methods of nutritional status assessment:
Correct Option (d)* ♦ Direct methods, i.e., anthropometric
z Age-independent anthropometric indices are used to measurements (height, weight, head, chest, skin-
assess nutritional status when child’s age is not known, fold thickness, MUAC, BMI, etc.) and clinical
e.g., MUAC (bangle test & Shakir tape), Kanawati & examination (clinical signs), biochemical tests
McLaren index, Rao & Singh index, Dugdale’s index, (Hb, stools and urine), biophysical methods
Quaker arm circumference measuring stick (quac (radiological examination, dark adaptation test).
stick) and Jelliffe ratio. ♦ Indirect methods, i.e., morbidity and mortality
108. What is being measured in this image? data, dietary intake assessment (diet survey/24-
hr recall), food production data.
112. What is the most common and the easiest method
of assessing the daily intake of a child?
(a) Food diary (b) Biochemical measurements
(c) 24-hour recall (d) Anthropometry
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
Correct Option (c)
113. Which of the following is an example of a clinical
assessment of nutritional status?
(a) Food frequency questionnaire
(b) Checking level of nutrients in a person’s blood
(a) Skin fold thickness (b) Kanawati index (c) Asking a client about symptoms of deficiency
(c) Body mass index (d) MUAC (d) MUAC
Correct Option (d) UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
z MUAC is measured at the midpoint between the tip Correct Option (c)
of acromion process of scapula and the olecranon of 114. Bangle test is an assessment method to rule out:
ulna, while the child holds the left arm by his side. (a) Fracture (b) Anemia
109. Shakir’s tape is used for measuring: (c) Malnutrition (d) Hemophilia
(a) Colour-blindness (b) MUAC AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022
(c) Chest circumference (d) Height Correct Option (c)
CHO, Haryana 2022 115. Consider the following statements and select the
516 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

correct answer from the code given below: (b) Ventricular septal defect
Assertion (A): In nutritional assessment, (c) Patent ductus arteriosus
biochemical tests are useful in early detection of (d) Pulmonary stenosis
nutritional deficiency. IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2017
Reason (R): Such laboratory tests confirm the Correct Option (d)
subclinical form. 119. Which of the following condition is NOT under the
Codes: cyanotic heart disease?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct (a) Tetralogy of fallot
explanation of (A) (b) Transposition of great arteries
(b) (A) is true, but (R) is false (c) Patent ductus arteriosus
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true (d) Truncus arteriosus
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
UPPSC, U.P. Staff Nurse 2017 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (a) 120. Which of these is NOT a congenital heart disease?
(a) Atrial septal defect (b) Tetralogy of fallot
CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS (c) Ischemic heart disease (d) Tricuspid atresia
ESIC Staff Nurse 2016
Congenital Heart Disease Correct Option (c)
116. Which of the following cardiovascular disorders is z Ischemic heart disease is not a congenital heart
acyanotic? FAQ disease (CHD) because its causes depend on the
(a) Tricuspid atresia lifestyle of the person (modifiable).
(b) Tetralogy of Fallot z NADA’s criteria for CHD: (1 major or 2 minor)
(c) Truncus arteriosus Major criteria Minor criteria
(d) Patent ductus arteriosus Systolic murmur ≥ grade 3 Systolic murmur ≤ grade 3
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013
Any diastolic murmur Abnormal S2
Correct Option (d)
Central cyanosis Abnormal ECG; BP
z Congenital heart disease (CHD) is structural
malformations of the heart or great vessels that Congestive heart failure Abnormal chest X-ray
develop between 3 to 8 weeks of intrauterine life and 121. A 2-year-old child has a congenital cardiac
are present at birth (0.8% of live births). malformation that causes right to left shunting of
z CHD has been classified into 3 types: blood through the heart, what clinical finding the
♦ Acyanotic CHD: There is increased pulmonary nurse should expect: FAQ
blood flow due to left to right shunt, e.g., patent (a) Proteinuria
ductus arteriosus (PDA), ventricular septal (b) Peripheral edema
defect (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD). (c) Elevated hematocrit
♦ Cyanotic CHD: There is reduced pulmonary (d) Absence of pedal pulse
blood flow due to right to left shunt, e.g., RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013
tetralogy of fallot (TOF), tricuspid atresia (TA), Correct Option (c)
transposition of great arteries (TGA), truncus z Right to left shunting of blood may cause cyanosis
arteriosus. because deoxygenated blood from the right side of
♦ Obstructive lesions: These disorders also show the heart shunts into the left side of the heart.
cyanosis, e.g., coarctation of aorta, aortic valve z Polycythemia (increased hematocrit) and increased
stenosis, pulmonary valve stenosis, congenital blood viscosity may develop as a compensatory
mitral stenosis. mechanism of cyanosis, which may increase risk of
117. Which of the following is a cyanotic heart disease? thrombophlebitis and formation of emboli.
(a) Atrial septal defect (ASD) 122. A 2-year-old child had cyanotic congenital heart
(b) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) diseases. The nurse would expect to observe:
(c) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) (a) Orthopnea
(d) Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) (b) An elevated hematocrit
AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018 (c) Absence of pedal pulse
Correct Option (d) (d) Edema in the extremities
118. One of the following is a cyanotic congenital heart RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016
disease: Correct Option (b)
(a) Atrial septal defect 123. A 6-month-old baby girl has a cyanotic type of
 PEDIATRIC NURSING | 519

to pulmonary stenosis that is right to left shunt. (b) Chronic hypertension

z Whereas in PDA, ASD and VSD, there is increased (c) Delayed physical growth
pulmonary blood flow that is left to right shunt. (d) Destruction of bone marrow
145. Tetralogy of Fallot presents with all of the following KSSSCI, Lucknow Nsg. Officer 2024
EXCEPT: FAQ Correct Option (a)
(a) Cyanosis of lips and nail beds 149. A child undergoes heart surgery to repair the defect
(b) Skin surface is dusky and bluish associated with tetralogy of fallot. Postoperatively
(c) Dyspnea it is essential that nurse prevent: FAQ
(d) As child grows, symptoms disappear (a) Crying (b) Coughing
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014 (c) Hard stool (d) Unnecessary movement
Correct Option (d) RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017 & 2013
z Initially the most significant clinical features of TOF Correct Option (a)
are blue baby or cyanosis at lips and nail beds and z Crying and exertion in a child will increase workload
dusky blue color mucous membrane with dyspnea on heart postoperatively and may cause hypoxic-
on crying and exertion (commonest symptom) and anoxic or blue (hypercyanotic) spells or tet-spells,
develop clubbing by 2 years of age. which occur due to cerebral anoxia.
z Child’s body does not receive enough O2 which leads z Tet-spell found in the morning soon after awakening,
to growth and development delay. during or after feeding and painful procedure.
146. The congenital heart disease in which radiographic 150. What is the immediate nursing intervention for
findings depict boot-shaped heart is called: cyanosis of a child with Tetralogy of fallot? FAQ
(a) Patent Ductus Arteriosus (a) Call up the pediatrician
(b) Atrial Septal Defect (b) Place her in knee-chest position
(c) Coarctation of Aorta (c) Administer oxygen inhalation
(d) Tetralogy of Fallot (d) Transfer her to the PICU
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 JIPMER Staff Nurse 2017
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (b)
z Chest X-ray in TOF shows poorly vascularized lung z Hypoxic-anoxic spell is an emergency (commonly
field, a small boot-shaped heart (“cor en sabot”) due seen <2 years) that should be managed by placing the
to right ventricular hypertrophy. child in squatting (sitting posture) or knee-chest or
Congenital heart diseases Chest X-ray finding in a lying down position.
z Administer 100% humidified O2 by face mask,
Tetralogy of Fallot Boot-shaped heart
morphine 0.1-0.2 mg/kg IV/SC (to depresses
Transposition of great vessels Egg on side appearance respiratory centre) and β-blocker (propranolol)
Supracardiac TAPVC Figure of 8 or snowman 0.1-0.2 mg/kg (IV) during spell and 0.5-1.5 mg/kg,
Ebstein anomaly Box-shaped heart 4-6 hourly orally, sodium bicarbonate at 1-2 mL/
147. Clubbing of the nails is a common finding in: kg and correct hypovolemia (10 mL/kg of dextrose
(a) Iron deficiency anemia normal saline) and methoxamine or phenylephrine
(b) Vitamin B12 deficiency (α-agonists) causes systemic vasoconstriction.
(c) Rheumatic heart disease 151. The recommended position for an infant with test
(d) Cyanotic heart disease spells is:
GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2015 (a) Dorsal recumbent (b) Knee-chest
Correct Option (d) (c) Trendelenburg (d) Semi-Fowler’s
z Clubbing of fingers (drumstick fingers/Hippocratic AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023
fingers/watch-glass nails) means enlarged terminal Correct Option (b)
phalanx of the finger. 152. A child with Tetralogy of Fallot, position uses
z It is seen in congenital cyanotic heart disease, cystic which of the following:
fibrosis, COPD, lung cancer, cirrhosis of liver and (a) Supine position (b) Squatting position
any other condition that causes chronic hypoxia. (c) Prone position (d) Leaning forward position
148. The nurse caring for a 5-year-old with a history HPSSC Staff Nurse 2016
of Tetralogy of Fallot notes that the child has Correct Option (b)
clubbed fingers. This finding is indicative of which z Squatting position decreases venous return to
associated condition? the heart and thereby increases systemic vascular
(a) Tissue hypoxia resistance, which leads to decreased cardiac output.
 PEDIATRIC NURSING | 527

(b) A heart rate of 90 beats per minute Day time Night time FEV1 Severity
(c) Expectorating bright red secretion symptoms symptoms
(d) Infrequent swallowing <2/week <2/month >85% Intermittent
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 >2/wk but 3-4/month >80% Mild persistent
Correct Option (c) not daily
224. While assessing an infant, the nurse notes nose
Daily >1/week 60-80% Moderate persistent
breathing and occasional sneezing. What is the
Continuous Frequent <60% Severe persistent
correct analysis of this data?
228. A ten-year-old child with asthma is treated for
(a) There may be a respiratory problem
acute exacerbation in the emergency room. A nurse
(b) Further assessment is indicated
reports which of the following, knowing that it is
(c) The environment may be cold
not an indication that the condition is improving:
(d) These are normal responses
(a) Increased wheezing
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013
(b) Decreased wheezing
Correct Option (d)
(c) Warm, dry skin
225. The most common food given to the child after
(d) A pulse rate of 90 beats per minute
tonsillectomy is:
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011 & 2010
(a) Hot milk (b) Hot soup
Correct Option (b)
(c) Pudding (d) Ice-cream
z Decreased wheezing in a child with asthma may be
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2013
incorrectly interpreted as a positive sign, while it may
Correct Option (d)*
actually signal an inability to move air (silent chest).
z After tonsillectomy the child should be given cool
z A silent chest (decreased breath sound) is an
water, crushed ice, ice pops, or diluted fruit juice and
ominous sign during an asthmatic attack.
soft foods like jelly, cake, cooked fruits, sherbet, soup
z Increased wheezing during treatment actually
and mashed potatoes.
indicates that the child’s condition is improving.
z Milk, ice cream, or pudding should not be given
229. While caring for a patient of Bronchial Asthma,
initially, because milk products coat the mouth and
you identify that the patients’ respiratory condition
throat, cause the child to clear the throat and increase
has become critically worse when:
the risk of bleeding.
(a) There is an increase in the intensity of wheezing
z Avoid red, purple or brown color liquids because it
(b) There is a decrease in breath sounds all over the
may confuse between fresh or old blood in vomits.
chest
z Avoid spicy, hot and rough foods, citrus juice and
(c) Crepitations and wheezing are both present
straws, forks or sharp objects, etc.
(d) The patient says, “I am feeling more breathless
z Among the given options, ice cream is the best option
than when I came to hospital”
to prevent bleeding.
GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2016
226. Which foods would be best for a postoperative
Correct Option (b)
tonsillectomy child?
230. A ten-year-old boy was brought to the emergency
(a) Toast, jelly and ice cream
with a history of severe prolonged asthma attack
(b) Creamed tuna fish, root beer, and cake
that is unresponsive to usual treatment. The
(c) Clear soup, apple juice and cake
diagnosis of the child is:
(d) Hot tea, wiener and roll, and sherbet
(a) Status asthmaticus (b) Pneumonia
PGIMS Rohtak, Staff Nurse 2015
(c) Complicated pneumonia (d) Asthma
Correct Option (c)
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2022
Bronchial Asthma Correct Option (a)
227. A 4-year-old child with bronchial asthma presents 231. What will a nurse do if she receives a patient
history of 3 or more episodes during daytime and with status asthmaticus manifest with tachypnea,
2 wheezing episodes during night in a week. How laboured respiration with effort on exhalation,
will you grade this asthma? tachycardia, elevated BP and is irritable?
(a) Mild persistent (b) Moderate persistent (a) Administer treatment as prescribed
(c) Severe persistent (d) Mild intermittent (b) Monitor IV therapy and give bronchodilators
Correct Option (b) (c) Start oxygen, check vital signs
z Classification of asthma severity: (d) Provide comfortable position and check vital
signs
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015
 PEDIATRIC NURSING | 547

(d) Rise in tissue colloid osmotic pressure (c) Low sodium, low fat
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013 (d) Regular diet, no added salt
Correct Option (c) RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018
z A patient with albuminuria develops edema Correct Option (d)
because of fall in plasma colloid oncotic pressure z A regular diet with no added salt is prescribed if the
(osmotic pressure exerted by colloids, e.g., protein child is in remission (reduction of sign/symptoms)
in a solution), so fluid shifts from plasma through state of disease.
capillaries to the interstitial tissue. 423. What should be restricted when preparing a diet
419. Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children: for children with Nephrotic syndrome?
(a) Membranous GN (b) PSGN (a) Protein (b) Potassium (c) Vitamin (d) Salt
(c) Minimal change disease (d) RPGN RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (d)
z Minimal change nephrotic syndrome (idiopathic) is 424. The primary purpose of administering
the most common (80%) occurring type in preschool corticosteroids to the child with nephrotic
children. syndrome is:
420. A patient is admitted with Haematuria, Oliguria (a) To increase blood pressure
and Hypertension. The most likely diagnosis is: (b) To prevent infection
(a) Nephritic syndrome (b) Nephrotic syndrome (c) To reduce inflammation
(c) Glomerulonephritis (d) UTI (d) To decrease proteinuria
WCL Staff Nurse 2019 RRB Staff Nurse 2019
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (d)
z Acute nephritic syndrome is a type of renal failure z Corticosteroids like prednisolone are mainly
with glomerulonephritis. prescribed to patients with the first episode of
z Comparison of nephrotic and nephritic syndrome: nephrotic syndrome to decrease proteinuria.
Features Nephrotic Nephritic 425. A 4-years-old child with nephritic syndrome is
being treated with corticosteroid therapy. A nurse
Onset Insidious Abrupt
reviews the laboratory reports of the child’s urine
Edema Extravascular (+++) Intravascular (++) to evaluate if the treatment has been effective.
BP Normal High Which of the following decrease?
JVP Normal Raised (a) Glycosuria (b) Polyuria
(c) Hematuria (d) Proteinuria
Proteinuria More Less
BHU Nsg. Officer 2019
Hematuria Less More Correct Option (d)
RBC casts Absent Present 426. When a child is in acute phase of nephrotic
S. albumin Low Normal/slightly ↓ syndrome, which of the following is an essential
measure the nurse should take:
421. Which diet is given to patients with nephritic
(a) Urine dipstick to be done every hour
syndrome?
(b) Measure abdominal girth every two hours
(a) Fluid restriction and high calorie and high
(c) Check hematocrit value every 12 hours
protein
(d) Weigh the child daily
(b) Protein supplement with calorie restriction
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2021
(c) Protein supplement, sodium and fluid restriction
Correct Option (d)
(d) Fluid and sodium and potassium restriction
z Nursing intervention for nephrotic syndrome
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015
patient:
Correct Option (c)
♦ Record daily weight with the same scale and
z Diet of nephritic syndrome should contain a low
same time (usually on awakening).
sodium diet (2 to 3 g/day), low potassium, low to
♦ Monitor fluid intake and output so changes in
moderate proteins (0.5 to 0.6 g/kg/day) and fluid
fluid retention can be documented.
intake is restricted to an amount equal to insensible
♦ Maintain bed rest during the edema phase.
losses and 24 hr urine output.
♦ Provide meticulous skin care by elevating
422. Nurse is planning care for a 2-year-old who has
edematous parts and cleaning skin surface.
nephritic syndrome and is in remission. What type
♦ Daily urine dipstick testing for protein.
of diet would the nurse plan to feed the child?
♦ Advice for low-sodium, moderate to low-protein,
(a) High protein, low calorie
low-potassium and high-calorie diet.
(b) High calorie, low protein
 4

OBSTETRIC &
GYNECOLOGICAL NURSING

“To change the world, we must first change

the way the babies are being born.”
– Michel Odent
 Obstetric & Gynecological Nursing

higher than 4.5 (alkaline), which may cause vaginal

FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM infections (e.g., candida albicans, bacterial vaginosis).
5. In a healthy woman the only organism found in
Vagina
upper two-third of the vagina is:
1. Which of the following are the external structures (a) Moniliasis (b) Doderlein’s bacillus
of the female genitalia? (c) Gonorrhoea (d) Trichomoniasis
(a) Labia majora, labia minora, cervix & hymen ESIC Staff Nurse 2016
(b) Labia majora, labia minora, clitoris & hymen Correct Option (b)
(c) Labia majora, labia minora, hymen & ovaries 6. Acid medium of vagina is maintained by: FAQ
(d) Labia majora, labia minora, cervix & corpus (a) Trichomonas vaginalis (b) Staphylococci
luteum (c) Doderlein bacilli (d) E. coli
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022 AIIMS Nagpur Nsg. Officer 2020
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (c)
z The female reproductive organs divided into: 7. Vaginal defence is lost in:
♦ External genitalia (vulva or pudendum): Mons (a) Within 10 days of birth (b) During pregnancy
pubis (veneris), labia majora, labia minora, (c) After 10 days of birth (d) At puberty
hymen, clitoris, vestibule, urethra, Skene’s glands, Correct Option (c)
Bartholin’s glands and vestibular bulbs. z Vaginal defence is lost at 10 days after birth. The
♦ Internal genitalia: Vagina, uterus, fallopian tubes maternal estrogen circulating the newborn maintains
and the ovaries. the vaginal defence for 10 days. Thereafter it is lost up
♦ Accessory organs: Breasts. to pre-puberty and after menopause.
2. A tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper z High level of circulating estrogen increases the
junction of the two labia minora above the urethral vaginal defence during puberty, pregnancy and in
opening is called: the premenstrual phase.
(a) Ampulla (b) Hymen 8. pH of vagina during pregnancy:
(c) Clitoris (d) Mons pubis (a) Acidic (b) Neutral
NHM, Rajasthan Staff Nurse 2024 (c) Basic (d) Sometime acidic & sometime basic
Correct Option (c) RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018
3. A fibro-musculo-membranous sheath communicating Correct Option (a)
the uterine cavity with the exterior at the vulva is called: z During pregnancy proliferation and activity of
(a) Cervix (b) Urethra (c) Vagina (d) Clitoris lactobacilli increase due to increased levels of
NHM, M.P. Staff Nurse 2022 estrogen which causes an increase in acidity of vagina
Correct Option (c) (pH 3.5 to 4.5).
4. Vaginal canal normally has: 9. The triangular area bounded by the clitoris,
(a) An acid environment fourchette and labia minora is:
(b) An alkaline environment (a) Fossa navicularis (b) Vestibule
(c) A neutral environment (c) Fourchette (d) Vulva
(d) An environment difficult to determine NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2021
RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2009 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (a) 10. The opening of the Bartholin’s ducts are situated in
z The pH of vagina is acidic (4 to 4.5, during the?
reproductive life), due to presence of lactobacillus (a) Vagina (b) Superficial perineal pouch
acidophilus (Doderlein’s bacillus, a gram-positive (c) Uterus (d) Vestibule
facultative anaerobic rod-shaped bacteria), which RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016
converts glycogen into lactic acid. Correct Option (d)
z Before puberty and after menopause pH will be z Bartholin’s glands (greater vestibular gland) are two
586 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

Correct Option (d) 4¼”), obstetric conjugate (10 cm or 4”) and diagonal
233. The following pelvis is usually associated with (internal) conjugate (12 cm or 4¾”).
transverse arrest: z Diagonal conjugate is the distance between the
(a) Anthropoid (b) Android midpoint on the sacral promontory to the lower
(c) Gynecoid (d) Platypelloid border of symphysis pubis.
BSF Staff Nurse 2014 z It is the only diameter which can be measured by per
Correct Option (b) vaginal examination.
z In women with android pelvis, the fetal head is
arrested with sagittal suture in transverse bispinous
diameter of the pelvis either at or slightly below
the ischial spines (deep into the cavity) for more
than 2 hours despite good uterine contractions,
full dilatation of cervix and ruptured membranes is
called deep transverse arrest (DTA).
z DTA is delivered only by caesarean section.
234. The pelvic shape has the poorest progress from
vaginal delivery:
(a) Platypelloid (b) Anthropoid
(c) Android (d) Gynecoid 238. The distance from the upper border of the pubic
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018 symphysis to the midpoint of the sacral promontory
Correct Option (c) is called:
z Because of a narrowed sub-pubic angle (<90°) the (a) Anatomical conjugate (b) Diagonal conjugate
biparietal diameter cannot easily accommodate and (c) Obstetric conjugate (d) Oblique conjugate
also of deep transverse arrest the android pelvis is Correct Option (a)
least suited for vaginal delivery. 239. The shortest anteroposterior diameter of the pelvis
235. Which type of pelvis has a kidney-shaped brim with in the anteroposterior plan of inlet is:
reduced anterior posterior diameter and increased (a) Diagonal conjugate (b) Obstetric conjugate
transverse diameter? (c) Oblique conjugate (d) Conjugate vera
(a) Gynecoid (b) Android RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024
(c) Anthropoid (d) Platypelloid Correct Option (b)
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 240. Name the following clinical pelvimetry technique
Correct Option (d) shown in the following diagram? FAQ
236. Which of the following is the largest diameter of
pelvic brim?
(a) Obstetrical conjugate (b) Oblique diameter
(c) Anatomical conjugate (d) Transverse diameter
NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023
Correct Option (d)
z Diameters of female pelvis:
Pelvis Diameter (cm)
Anteroposterior Transverse Oblique (a) Diagonal conjugate (b) Oblique conjugate
Inlet/brim 11 13 12 (c) Anatomical conjugate (d) Obstetric conjugate
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021
Cavity 12 12 12
Correct Option (a)
Outlet 13 11 −
241. The most important pelvic inlet diameter through
237. The distance between the lower border of symphysis which the foetal head passes during birth:
pubis to the midpoint on the sacral promontory is (a) Anatomical conjugate (b) Diagonal conjugate
called: FAQ (c) Obstetrical conjugate (d) Oblique diameter
(a) Obstetric conjugate (b) Anatomical conjugate IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019
(c) Diagonal conjugate (d) True conjugate Correct Option (c)
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023 z Obstetrical conjugate (10 cm or 4”) is the distance
Correct Option (c) between the sacral promontory to a point slightly
z There are 3 antero-posterior diameters of pelvis inlet below the upper inner margin of the symphysis pubis.
(brim), i.e., anatomical (true) conjugate (11 cm or z It is the shortest diameter of pelvic inlet through which
588 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

Fetal Skull 255. The area lying in front of the anterior fontanelle
252. The suture of the fetal skull which is present corresponding to the area of brow is called:
between the frontal and parietal bone is called: FAQ (a) Vertex (b) Sinciput
(a) Frontal suture (b) Sagittal suture (c) Occiput (d) Mentum
(c) Coronal suture (d) Lambdoidal suture DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (c) 256. The average submento-vertical diameter is:
z Coronal suture lies between parietal and frontal (a) 9.5 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 11.5 cm (d) 14 cm
bones on either side. AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
z Sagittal (longitudinal or interparietal) suture lies Correct Option (c)
between two parietal bones. 257. The largest diameter of the fetal skull is:
z Frontal (metopic or medio-frontal) suture lies (a) Mento-vertical (b) Occipito-frontal
between two frontal bones. (c) Submento-vertical (d) Submento-bregmatic
z Lambdoidal (occipito-parietal) suture lies between NVS (Navodaya) Staff Nurse 2019
the two parietal bones and the superior borders of Correct Option (a)
the occipital bone. 258. Normal bi-parietal diameter (BPD) measurement
253. The suture that separates the parietal bone from of full term fetal head is:
the tabular portion of the occipital bone is called: (a) 11.4 cm (b) 9.5 cm (c) 8.5 cm (d) 10.5 cm
(a) Sagittal suture (b) Frontal suture ESIC Staff Nurse 2016
(c) Coronal suture (d) Lambdoidal suture Correct Option (b)
AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020 z Biparietal diameter (9.5 cm) is the distance between
Correct Option (d) two parietal eminences.
254. In human fetal skull distance between the centres 259. The compression of the engaging diameter of
of bregma to the nape of the neck, is termed as: the head with corresponding elongation of the
(a) Suboccipito bregmatic diameter at right angle is called:
(b) Submento bregmatic (a) Moulding (b) Caput succedaneum
(c) Suboccipito frontal (c) Extension (d) De-flexion
(d) Mento vertical RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024
RIMS & R., U.P. Staff Nurse 2013 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (a) z Grading of moulding: Grade 1: bones touching but
z Suboccipito-bregmatic (9.5 cm): Distance from the not overlapping, Grade 2: overlapping but easily
occipital protuberance (nape of the neck) to the separated and Grade 3: fixed overlapping.
center of the anterior fontanel (bregma). Basics of Reproduction
z Submento-bregmatic (9.5 cm): Distance from the 260. The process involved in the development of a
sub-mentrum to the bregma. mature ovum is called:
z Occipito-frontal (11.5 cm): Distance from the (a) Fertilization (b) Oogenesis
occipital protuberance to the glabella (portion above (c) Gametogenesis (d) Spermatogenesis
the root of the nose). RRB Staff Nurse 2019
z Suboccipito-frontal (10 cm): Distance from the Correct Option (b)
nape of the neck to the anterior end of the anterior z Oogenesis is the process of formation of a mature
fontanel (center of the sinciput). female gamete (ovum) from oogonium (a primordial
z Mento-vertical (14 cm, highest diameter): Distance cell from which an oocyte originates).
from the mentrum (chin) to the highest point on the 261. In primordial follicles, the single flat layer of
vertex. support cells that surround the oocyte is called:
z Submento-vertical (11.5 cm): Distance from the sub- (a) Glial cells (b) Antrum
mentrum (below the chin) to the highest point on (c) Granulosa cells (d) Theca cells
the vertex. UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
Correct Option (c)
262. During process of gametogenesis the female and
male sex cells divide and then contain:
(a) A diploid number of chromosomes in their nuclei
(b) A haploid number of chromosomes in their nuclei
(c) 24 pairs of autosomes in their nuclei
 Obstetric & Gynecological Nursing | 607

(b) Face presentation : Face Leopold’s Name of Purpose

(c) Transverse presentation : Shoulder maneuver grip
(d) Breech presentation : Buttock 1st Fundal Used for fundal palpation, to
BHU Staff Nurse 2015 Leopold grip determine part of the fetus
Correct Option (a) is present in the upper pole
z In cephalic presentation, the presenting part may be (fundus)
vertex (commonest), brow or face not chin. 2nd Lateral or Used for lateral palpation, to
462. In face presentation, the denominator is the: Leopold umbilical determine position of the back,
(a) Vertex (b) Frontal eminence grip limbs and anterior shoulder
(c) Acromion (d) Mentum
3rd Pawlik’s Examiner should face towards
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016
Leopold or 2nd mother face & grasp lower pole
Correct Option (d)
pelvic with thumb and fingers of one
z Denominator means a bony fixed point on the
grip hand to determine the part
presenting part which makes relation with the
of the fetus at the inlet & its
various quadrants of the maternal pelvis, i.e., occiput
mobility
in vertex, mentum (chin) in face, frontal eminence
4th 1st pelvic Examiner should face towards
in brow, sacrum in breech and acromion in shoulder.
Leopold grip mother’s feet to determine the
463. The relationship of the foetal parts to each other is
pole of the uterus
called: FAQ
(presentation)
(a) Foetal attitude (b) Foetal lie
(c) Foetal presentation (d) Foetal position
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023
Correct Option (a)
z Attitude of the fetus means relationship of the fetal
head and limbs to its body.
z It may be fully flexed (universal attitude), deflexed,
extended (partially or completely) and neutral (military).
464. In normal labour, attitude of the fetal head is in:
(a) Partial flexion (b) Partial extension
(c) Complete flexion (d) Complete extension
NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023
Correct Option (c)
465. During face presentation attitude of the head will 467. Identify the grip shown in the image:
be:
(a) Partial extension (b) Deflexion
(c) Complete extension (d) Flexion
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
Correct Option (c)
z In face presentation, the head of the fetus is sharply
extended so that the face comes first.
466. When the lower pole of the uterus is grasped with
right hand and facing the women’s head is known as: (a) Pelvic grip (b) Fundal grip
(a) Pelvic palpation (b) Combined grip (c) Lateral grip (d) Pawlik grip
(c) Pawlik maneuver (d) None of the above AIIMS (NORCET) Nsg. Officer 2020
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2016 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (c) 468. To determine fetal position using Leopold’s
z In obstetrics, the use of four steps in palpating maneuvers, the first maneuver is to:
the uterus in order to determine the lie, position, (a) Determine degree of molding
presentation and engagement of the fetus is called (b) Determine the position of fetus
obstetric grips (Leopold’s maneuvers). (c) Determine what part of fetus is in fundus
(d) Locate the back, arms and legs
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018
Correct Option (c)
630 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

Pre-eclampsia & Eclampsia z Preeclampsia before 20th weeks indicates features of

683. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) usually hydatidiform mole and polyhydramnios.
develops into mother after: FAQ 688. The level of proteinuria in 24 hours to diagnose
(a) 18 wk (b) 20 wk (c) 22 wk (d) 16 wk severe preeclampsia is:
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 (a) 200 mg (b) 2000 mg (c) 300 mg (d) 3000 mg
Correct Option (b) RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2022
z Pregnancy-induced hypertension (gestational Correct Option (c)
hypertension) means BP ≥ 140/90 mm Hg for the 689. The danger of convulsion in a woman with pre-
first time in pregnancy after 20 weeks, without eclampsia ends? FAQ
proteinuria. (a) After delivery occurs (b) 24 hr postpartum
684. Which of the below is TRUE with regard to (c) After labour begins (d) 48 hr postpartum
pregnancy-induced hypertension? UPUMS, Saifai Nsg. Officer 2024
(a) Visual disturbances are always present Correct Option (d)
(b) Proteinuria is usually present 690. Multisystem disorder of unknown etiology
(c) It is also called as gestational hypertension characterized by hypertension (140/90 mmHg
(d) There is raised BP before 20 weeks gestation or above) with proteinuria after 20th weeks of
ESIC Staff Nurse 2019 pregnancy is called:
Correct Option (c) (a) Gestational hypertension
685. A nurse is assessing a client with ‘pregnancy- (b) Pre-eclampsia
induced hypertension’, the nurse expects the client’s (c) Eclampsia
blood pressure to be: FAQ (d) Chronic hypertension with pregnancy
(a) 150/100 mm Hg while standing and sitting RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018
(b) Elevated and accompanied by a headache Correct Option (b)
(c) Above the baseline & fluctuating at each reading 691. Development of hypertension with oedema and
(d) 30/15 mm Hg over the baseline on two occasions proteinuria or both during pregnancy called:
6 hours apart (a) Essential hypertension (b) Pre-eclampsia
BHU Nsg. Officer 2018 (c) Gestational hypertension (d) Hypertension
Correct Option (d) IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014
z Systolic BP more than 30 and diastolic BP more than Correct Option (b)
15 mm Hg of previous known BP (baseline BP) or 692. The early sign of pre-eclampsia is:
mean arterial blood pressure (MABP) more than 105 (a) Headache (b) Polyuria
mm Hg or more than 20 mm Hg to previous reading (c) Proteinuria (d) Seizures
on two occasions, at least 6 hours apart is called IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
pregnancy-induced hypertension. Correct Option (c)
686. All of the following are the signs of pregnancy- z Pre-eclampsia is a complication of pregnancy
induced hypertension EXCEPT: characterized by gestational hypertension, edema
(a) High blood pressure (b) Proteinuria and proteinuria.
(c) Generalized neuralgia (d) Oedema 693. Which one of following seen in preeclampsia?
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2021 (a) Proteinuria (b) Weight loss
Correct Option (c) (c) Hypotension (d) Facial hair
687. Pre-eclampsia is more common after 20 weeks of AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020
pregnancy in women with: Correct Option (a)
(a) Normotensive (b) Non-proteinuric 694. All the following are characteristics of pre-eclampsia
(c) Hydatidiform mole (d) Both a & b EXCEPT:
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2014 (a) Vomiting (b) Hypertension
Correct Option (d) (c) Edema (d) Proteinuria
z Preeclampsia is the development of gestational AIIMS Bhubaneswar Staff Nurse 2018
hypertension (BP ≥140/90 mm Hg) with proteinuria Correct Option (a)
(≥300 mg/24 hrs) after the 20th week in a previously 695. The two important diagnostic criteria of pre-
normotensive and non-proteinuric woman. eclampsia is:
z Condition usually develops between the 20th week (a) Hypertension and proteinuria
of gestation to the end of the first postpartum week (b) Hypertension and increased cholesterol level
(usually within 48 hrs of delivery). (c) Oedema and increased blood urea level
(d) Hypertension and increased blood glucose level
712 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

Correct Option (a) z MDGs place health at the heart of development, 3

394. Which of the following Five-Year Plans introduced out of 8 goals, 8 out of 18 targets and 18 out of 48
‘Target-free approach’ in National family welfare indicators are health related.
program? z Goal 4, 5 and 6 are ‘directly health related’ and Goal
(a) 5th Five-Year Plan (b) 7th Five-Year Plan 2 and 3 ‘do not pertain to health’.
(c) 6th Five-Year Plan (d) 8th Five-Year Plan 399. The following are the major components in
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 Minimum Needs Programme EXCEPT:
Correct Option (d) (a) Population control (b) Adult education
395. Identify the strategies adopted by the National (c) Elementary education (d) Rural water supply
Population Stabilization Fund for population AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
control: 1. Prerna strategy, 2. ASHA scheme , 3. Correct Option (a)
National Helpline, 4. Santushti strategy. Choose z Minimum Needs Programme (MNP) was introduced
the correct answer: in the first year of the 5th five year plan (1974-78).
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only z Its major components are rural health, water supply,
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only rural electrification, elementary education, adult
CHO, Rajasthan 2024 education, nutrition, improving status of urban
Correct Option (a) slums and houses for landless workers.
396. Important objective of health services are: 400. As per National Water Supply and Sanitation
(a) Prevention of disease Program a ‘problem village’ is one:
(b) Promotion of health (a) Where safe water is available within a kilometre
(c) Cure from the disease (b) Where water is available within a depth of 5
(d) All of the above meters
ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 (c) Where water has excess salinity
Correct Option (d) (d) Where water has less iron content
397. Development and poverty eradication goal is CHO, Haryana 2022
referred as: Correct Option (c)
(a) Development Goal z National water supply and sanitation program was
(b) Millennium Development Guarantee launched in 1954.
(c) Millennium Development Goal z As per this program a “problem village” means no
(d) Health for All source of safe water within 1.6 km radius/15 m deep,
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014 or excess level of iron, fluoride, salinity and other
Correct Option (c) toxic elements in water, or water is exposed to risk
z In September 2000, the UN General Assembly in of cholera.
New York (189 countries) adopted goals known as 401. Consumer rights for health care system was
Millennium Development Goals (MDGs). introduced in India in:
z There are 8 goals, 18 targets and 48 indicators to be (a) 1976 (b) 1986 (c) 1990 (d) 1996
achieved by the year 2015. RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011
398. Health-related Millennium Development Goals are Correct Option (b)
all EXCEPT: z The Consumers International (CI), endorsed 8
(a) Ensure environmental sustainability rights: safety, choose, information, heard, consumer
(b) Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases education, redress, satisfaction of basic needs and
(c) NRHM programme development health environment.
(d) Eradicate extreme poverty z Consumer protection act popularly called COPRA
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2009 was passed by parliament in 1986 with the aim to
Correct Option (c) provide a simple, speedy redressal of their grievance
z 8 MDGs are: Goal 1: Eradicate extreme poverty & against unfair medical practice and services.
hunger; Goal 2: Universalize primary education; 402. Consumer Protection Act was implemented in the
Goal 3: Gender equality and women empowerment; year:
Goal 4: Reduce child mortality; Goal 5: Improve (a) 1986 (b) 1987 (c) 1999 (d) 2000
maternal health; Goal 6: Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2009
and other disease (Tuberculosis); Goal 7: Ensure Correct Option (a)
environmental sustainability; Goal 8: Develop global 403. Which of the following is true about the aim of
partnerships for development. sustainable development goals: goal 1?
622 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(a) History of bleeding per vaginum ESIC Nsg. Officer 2024

(b) Uterine size less than period of amenorrhoea Correct Option (a)
(c) Closed cervical os Abortion Clinical Internal os USG
(d) History of passage of products of conception features
PGIMER Rohtak Staff Nurse 2017 Threatened Slight Closed Live fetus,
Correct Option (c) painless subchorionic
z An abortion in which entire products of conception bleeding hemorrhage
are not expelled but a part of it is left inside the uterus Inevitable Bleeding & Open with Dead fetus
is called incomplete abortion. colicky pain, products of
z Its clinical features are history of passage of fleshy shock conception
mass per vaginum followed by continuation of pain felt
in lower abdomen, persistent vaginal bleeding, size Incomplete Bleeding Open Retained
of uterus is less than period of amenorrhea, open products
cervical os that can be admit a tip of finger.
Complete Bleeding Closed Empty uterus
606. An arrest of foetal development, with no cardiac
stopped
activity and closed cervix on ultrasonogram with
Missed Absent or Closed Dead fetus
very slight or no vaginal bleeding indicates: FAQ
minimal
(a) Inevitable abortion (b) Threatened abortion
bleeding
(c) Incomplete abortion (d) Missed abortion
609. The active management of patient with missed
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024
abortion at 12 weeks of gestation includes:
Correct Option (d)
a. Vaginal evacuation
z Abortion in which the fetus has died before
b. Accelerate uterine contraction by oxytocin drip
completion of the 20th week of gestation but the
c. Slow dilatation of the cervix by laminaria tents
product of conception is retained in the uterus for
d. Suction evacuation
8 weeks or longer is called missed abortion (silent
(a) a, b, c (b) b, c, d (c) a, c, d (d) a, b, c, d
miscarriage).
AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
607. A woman with 20 weeks of gestation seen in OPD
Correct Option (c)
with complaints of absence of feeling of life in the
610. The safest method of termination of pregnancy
womb and painless dark brown vaginal discharge.
before 12 weeks is:
Urine pregnancy test results are negative. Based on
(a) Suction evacuation (b) Laminaria tent
the clinical findings, which types of spontaneous
(c) Dilatation & curettage (d) Prostaglandins
abortions may be suspected to the woman?
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2021
(a) Threatened (b) Incomplete
Correct Option (a)
(c) Imminent (d) Missed
z Comparison of vacuum aspiration and D & C:
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021
Correct Option (d) Characteristics Vacuum Dilatation &
z Clinical features of missed abortion are dark brown Aspiration Curettage
vaginal discharge, retrogression of breast changes, Safety & efficacy Very safe; 98% Less safe; 99%
cessation of uterine growth, absence of FHS and Pain Less More
negative pregnancy test. Complications Less More
608. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct 611. Manual Vacuum Aspiration (MVA) for termination
answer using the code given below the lists: of pregnancy can be performed at PHC:
List-I List-II (a) Up to 8 weeks of Pregnancy
(Phenomenon) (Diagnostic feature of USG) (b) Up to 12 weeks of Pregnancy
A. Threatened 1. Foetus without cardiac activity (c) Up to 16 weeks of Pregnancy
abortion (d) Up to 20 weeks of Pregnancy
B. Missed abortion 2. Uterine cavity empty RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2024
C. Incomplete 3. Foetus alive & retroplacental Correct Option (a)*
abortion haemorrhage 612. Which of the following is the method of termination
of pregnancy in the 2nd trimester (13 to 20 wk)?
D. Complete 4. Product of conception partly
(a) Mifepristone (b) Vacuum aspiration
abortion retained
(c) Methotrexate (d) Oxytocin infusion
(a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
 Obstetric & Gynecological Nursing | 627

of molar pregnancy and theca lutein cysts >6 cm 659. Binovular twins form from:
diameter. (a) One Ovum and Two Spermatozoa
654. Most common site for metastasis in (b) Two Ova and Two Spermatozoa
choriocarcinoma is: (c) One Ovum and One Spermatozoon
(a) Lungs (b) Brain (c) Liver (d) Spine (d) Two Ova and One Spermatozoon
Correct Option (a) BSF Staff Nurse 2014
655. Serial hCG test is used to diagnose the following Correct Option (b)
condition? 660. Which of the following are true with dizygotic
(a) Ca cervix (b) Ca vagina twins?
(c) Ca endometrium (d) Choriocarcinoma a. Has two placenta (separate or fused)
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018 b. Communicating vessels are present
Correct Option (d) c. Has 4 intervening membranes (2 amnions & 2
656. After suction and evacuation of a complete chorions)
hydatidiform mole, the 28-year-old multigravida d. Sex may differ
client asks the nurse when she can become pregnant Choose the correct answer:
again. Nurse would advise to avoid pregnancy for (a) a, c & d only (b) a, b & c only
at least: (c) a, b, c & d (d) b, c & d only
(a) 6 months (b) 12 months MNS SCC Exam 2024
(c) 18 months (d) 24 months Correct Option (a)
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016 z Difference between Monozygotic & Dizygotic twins:
Correct Option (b) Feature Monozygotic Dizygotic
z Suction curettage is the preferred method of
Placenta One Two (mostly fused)
evacuation for complete molar pregnancy.
z Patient should not become pregnant during the Communicating Present Absent
period of follow-up (at least 12 months). She may vessels
become pregnant after a minimum 6 months of Intervening 2 (amnions) 4 (2 amnions 2
negative hCG titer. membranes chorions)
Multiple Pregnancy Sex Always May differ
identical
657. How many children are in quintuplets?
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 4 Genetic features Same Differ
ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 Skin grafting Acceptance Rejection
Correct Option (b) 661. The synonym for uniovular twins:
z The presence of two (twins, commonest), or more (a) Identical (b) Dizygotic
embryos, i.e., triplets (3), quadruplets (4), quintuplets (c) Fraternal (d) Binovular
(5), sextuplets (6) in the uterus are called multiple RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2009
pregnancy. Correct Option (a)
658. The term dizygotic refers to twins who have? 662. In “monozygotic” babies are of:
(a) Developed from two separate ova & sperms (a) Same sex (b) Different sex
(b) Born several hours apart from each other (c) Same blood group (d) Both a & c
(c) Developed physically a different rates from each RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013
other Correct Option (d)
(d) Developed in one amnion & have one chorion z Monozygotic (identical) twins have the same genetic
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 makeup, because they developed from a single
Correct Option (a) fertilized ovum, so have the same sex, possess the
z There are two types of twins: same blood groups and are similar to each other
♦ Dizygotic/binovular/fraternal/unlike twins physically, physiologically and mentally.
(80%) results from the fertilization of two ova 663. In case of twin pregnancy, identical twins occur
(two sperms fertilized with two ova separately). when?
♦ Monozygotic/uniovular/identical/true twins (a) One sperm fertilize the ovum and zygote divides
(20%) results from the fertilization of a single into two
ovum (one sperm fertilized with one ovum). (b) Two sperms fertilize one ovum and the zygote
Same sex of both twins. divides into two
652 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

z Methods of placental separation: IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015

Features Schultze Mathews- Correct Option (d)
Duncan Partograph
Placental From center From periphery
921. Who was discovered the partograph? FAQ
separation
(a) Dr. R.H. Philpott (b) Dr. A. L Mudaliar
Retroplacental clot Present Absent
(c) Dr. William shaw (d) Dr. Shirodkar
Bleeding After complete As soon as HPSSC Staff Nurse 2021
placental placenta separates Correct Option (a)
separation z Partograph was first invented by Freidman (1954)
Blood loss Less More and later modified by R.H. Philpott and Castle (1972
Part expelled first Shiny fetal Dull maternal in the form of cervicograph).
surface surface 922. Partograph is first planned by:
Incidence 80% 20% (a) Robert (b) Jacobson
916. When the shiny portion of the placenta comes out (c) Friedman (d) Chadwick
first, this is called the……….mechanism: RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018
(a) Schultze (b) Duncan (c) Ritgen’s (d) Marmet Correct Option (c)
AIIMS NORCET-6 (Mains) Nsg. Officer 2024 923. The graphical record of maternal and foetal data
Correct Option (a) against time during labour on a single sheet of
917. Separation begins at the center of the placenta and paper is called: FAQ
side down the birth canal like a folded umbrella (a) Ultrasonogram (b) Partograph
this method of placenta separation referred as: (c) Cardiotocogram (d) Tocogram
(a) Schultze mechanism AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020
(b) Brandt-Andrews mechanism Correct Option (b)
(c) Duncan mechanism z Partograph is a composite graphical recording of key
(d) Ritgen’s mechanism data (maternal & fetal) along with cervical dilatation
MPESB, Bhopal Staff Nurse 2021 & descent of head against duration of labour in hours.
Correct Option (a) z It is a vital tool to represent the progress of labour
918. Identify the procedure shown below: and to identify complications at an early stage.
924. Which one of the following is used to record the
labor events?
(a) Partograph (b) Fetoscope
(c) Silverman assessment (d) APGAR
RRB Staff Nurse 2019
Correct Option (a)
925. Partogram includes all salient features of labour
EXCEPT: FAQ
(a) Expulsion of foetus (b) Expulsion of placenta (a) Pulse (b) Fetal presentation
(c) Expulsion of clots (d) None of the above (c) Fetal heart rate (d) Frequency of contraction
AIIMS Delhi Nsg. Officer 2017 AIIMS Bhubaneswar Staff Nurse 2018
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (b)
919. What is the other name of controlled cord traction? z Components of partograph (cervicograph) are
(a) Mathew-Duncan method patient’s identification data, time, FHR, state of
(b) Schultz method membranes and colour of liquor, cervical dilation and
(c) Pinard’s manoeuvre descent of the head, uterine contractions, drugs and
(d) Brandt-Andrews manoeuvre fluids used and recording of BP, pulse, temperature
NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023 and urine analysis.
Correct Option (d) 926. Latent phase, alert line and action line are terms
920. Which of the following is performed by a nurse used in the context of:
during the 3rd stage of labour? (a) Partograph (b) Biophysical profile
(a) Getting urine specimen for laboratory test (c) Amniocentesis (d) Non stress test
(b) Assessing uterine contraction AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018
(c) Asking patient to push Correct Option (a)
(d) Monitoring placental separation
 Obstetric & Gynecological Nursing | 653

z Modified WHO partograph (Labor care guide): Correct Option (a)

♦ No alert and action line. 933. Bishop’s classification is used for assessing:
♦ First (active phase) and second phase of labor (a) Fetal well being
represented. (b) Progress of labour
♦ Active phase begins at 5 cm cervix dilation. (c) Gestational age of fetus
♦ Divided into 7 sections, i.e., patient and labor (d) Requirement of induction for labour
details; supportive care; care of baby; care of RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017
woman; labor progress; medication; plan of Correct Option (d)
action). 934. For induction of labor, Bishop score should be:
927. The purpose of partograph includes all the (a) 5‒6 (b) 3‒4 (c) 4‒5 (d) Above 6
following EXCEPT: AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019
(a) To monitor the progress of labour Correct Option (d)
(b) To assess the foetal well-being 935. All the following parameters are used to assess
(c) To predict post-partum haemorrhage (PPH) progress of labour EXCEPT:
(d) To identify stages of labour (a) Fetal heart rate (b) Descent of fetus
ISRO Sriharikota Staff Nurse 2024 (c) Uterine contractions (d) Cervical dilation
Correct Option (c) ESIC Staff Nurse 2016
928. Bishop’s score includes all, EXCEPT: FAQ Correct Option (a)
(a) Cervical dilation (b) Station of fetal head 936. The position a client should be taught to avoid when
(c) Fetal Heart Rate (d) Consistency of cervix she experiences back pain during labour is the:
CHO, Haryana 2022 (a) Knee-chest position (b) Sitting position
Correct Option (c) (c) Side-lying position (d) Supine position
z Bishop score is a system used to evaluate the maternal RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2009
readiness for successful elective induction of labor. Correct Option (d)
z Five factors are assessed, which include cervical z Supine position will cause aortocaval compression,
dilatation (cm), cervical position, effacement (%), so it should be avoided during labour.
head station and cervical consistency. z Provide positions that promote comfort and facilitate
z Each factor assigned a score of 0, 1, 2 and 3. pushing-efforts like lithotomy, side-lying, kneeling,
z Total score is 13, favorable score is 6 to 13 and squatting or partial sitting (45°).
unfavorable score is 0 to 5. 937. A client is in the late active phase of labor. Suddenly
929. The most important factor for successful induction she tells the nurse she feels weak and dizzy.
of labour includes: The nurse notes drop in maternal B.P. and late
(a) Elderly primigravidae (b) Bishop score >6 decelerations of fetal heart rate. The initial action
(c) Maternal BMI >25 (d) Small foetus the nurse should be to:
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 (a) Increase the I.V. drip rate and notify provider
Correct Option (b) (b) Turn the client on side and administer oxygen
930. The Bishop score is used to predict: (c) Assess for cord prolapse or vaginal bleeding
(a) The state of the fetus at the time of delivery (d) Prepare for immediate delivery
(b) The success rate of the induction of labour GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2019
(c) The fetal condition in the uterus Correct Option (b)
(d) The maternal wellbeing in labour z It may be due to supine hypotensive syndrome, so
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2018 turn the client on her side (left lateral position).
Correct Option (b) 938. When a client experience the urge to push at 9
931. According to the Bishop Score the cervical cm dilation, the breathing pattern that the nurse
effacement that is an indication for successful labor should instruct the client to use is that:
is: (a) Expulsion pattern
(a) 50% (b) 40% (c) 80% (d) 30% (b) Slow-chest pattern
AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023 (c) Panting or blowing pattern
Correct Option (c) (d) Accelerated-decelerated pattern
932. Ripeness of cervix is assessed by: RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2009
(a) Bishop score (b) Apgar score Correct Option (c)
(c) Downe score (d) New Ballard scale z Breathing techniques used during the first-stage of
ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 labor are paced breathing (it may be slow, modified
656 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

that preterm prelabour rupture of membrane Features Bandl’s Schroeder’s

(PPROM) can lead to the following: (retraction) ring (constriction) ring
(a) Cord compression Cause Obstructed labour Spasm of a segment
(b) Cord prolapse of uterus due to
(c) Maternal wound infection injudicious use of
(d) All of the above oxytocin
HPSSC Staff Nurse 2016 Site Between upper Any site
Correct Option (b) & lower uterine
z Dangers of PPROM are onset of preterm labor, segments
chorioamnionitis (liquor infection), cord prolapse,
Stage of Second First or second
dry labor (decrease amniotic fluid), placental
labour
abruption, APH and maternal and neonatal sepsis.
Palpable Per abdomen Per vaginal
Precipitate Labour Visible On per abdomen Not visible
961. If the labour ends within 3 hours with 2 to 3 painful End result Maternal & fetal Normal or late
contractions, it is called: distress features
(a) Difficult labour (b) Precipitate labour Relieved by Cesarean delivery Stop oxytocin; use
(c) Prolonged labour (d) Normal labour uterine relaxants
AIIMS Bathinda Nsg. Officer 2019
Correct Option (b) Perineal Tear
z Precipitate labour marked by sudden onset, rapid 966. Which degree of perineal tear affects the perineal
cervical effacement and dilation (≥ 5 cm/hr for muscles?
nulliparas and 10 cm/hour for multiparas) and (a) Second (b) First (c) Third (d) Fourth
delivery within 3 hours of labour onset. AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023
962. Labour is termed as precipitate if it occurs in: Correct Option (a)
(a) 1 hr (b) 2 hr (c) 3 hr (d) 4 hr z Lacerations are caused by overstretching of the
MNS SCC Exam 2024 cervix, vagina, or perineum during delivery is called
Correct Option (c) perineal tears.
963. In which type of labour, the combined duration of z It is classified into four degrees:
the first and second stage is less than 2 hours: ♦ First-degree: Involves superficial tissue of
(a) Normal labour (b) Precipitate labour perineum and vaginal mucosa but not the
(c) Trial labour (d) Prolonged labour underlying fascia and muscle.
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 ♦ Second-degree: Involves those tissues included in
Correct Option (b) 1st degree tear and the muscles of the perineum
964. A multigravida client is in active labour with twins but not the anal sphincter (e.g., episiotomy).
at 38 weeks’ gestation. The nurse would monitor ♦ Third-degree: Involves all of the tissues of the
the client closely for symptoms of which of the 2nd degree tear and the anal sphincter.
following? ♦ Fourth-degree: Extends completely through the
(a) Pregnancy-induced hypertension perineal skin, vaginal mucosa, perineal body,
(b) Urinary tract infection anal sphincter and rectal mucosa.
(c) Chorioamnionitis
(d) Precipitous delivery
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010
Correct Option (d)
z Precipitous delivery (combined duration of 1st and
2nd stage of labor is <3 hr) is more common in
multipara.
965. Bandl’s ring in uterus usually occurs during:
(a) Obstructed labour (b) Placenta previa
(c) Uterine inversion (d) Normal delivery 967. Which type of vaginal tear during childbirth is the
NVS (Navodaya) Staff Nurse 2018 most common and requires stitches for repair?
Correct Option (a) (a) 1st-degree tear (b) 2nd-degree tear
z Difference between Bandl’s and Schroeder’s ring: (c) 3rd-degree tear (d) 4th-degree tear
 5

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

“A good physician treats the disease; the

great physician treats the patient who has
the disease.”
– William Osler
 Community Health Nursing

Introduction to Community Health Nursing (a) Charaka (b) Atreya

1. Community health postulates a unified and (c) Maharishi Patanjali (d) Sushruta
balanced integration of curative,…………….& UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
promotive health service: Correct Option (c)
(a) Communicative (b) Preventive 6. The Arabic system of medicine practiced in India
(c) Protective (d) Emotive is known as:
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 (a) Homeopathy system (b) Siddha system
Correct Option (b) (c) Ayurveda system (d) Unani system
2. Changing concepts in public health include all the CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021
following phases EXCEPT: Correct Option (d)
(a) Family and community medicine phase 7. Which of the following is NOT an Indian system of
(b) Social engineering phase Medicine? FAQ
(c) Disease control phase (a) Homeopathy (b) Ayurveda
(d) Health promotional phase (c) Feng Shui (d) Unani
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010 PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (c)
z In the history of public health changing concepts z Feng Shui (wind-water), yin and yang (yin represents
toward health include 4 phases: shade, cold, and inhibition; whereas yang represents
♦ Disease control phase (1880-1920). fire, light and excitement) are the traditional Chinese
♦ Health promotional phase (1920-1960). medicine (TCM) system.
♦ Social engineering phase (1960-1980). Concept of Health
♦ “Health for all phase” (1981-2000 A.D). 8. The state of complete physical, mental and social
3. Complementary health care refers to: well-being and not merely absence of any disease is
(a) Healthcare given free of cost called: FAQ
(b) Alternate systems of medicine (a) Care (b) Morbidity (c) Wellness (d) Health
(c) Doctor-patient relationship AIIMS Bhubaneswar Staff Nurse 2018
(d) Healthcare delivered at home Correct Option (d)
AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018 z Health is defined by WHO (1948) as “a state of
Correct Option (b) complete physical, mental and social well-being and
z Complementary/alternative system of medicine not merely an absence of disease or infirmity”.
(CAM) refers to a diverse group of practices that z In (1978) it has been added as to lead a “socially and
are adjuncts or alternatives to Western medical economically productive life”.
approaches. 9. “Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and
z It includes Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, social well-being and not merely the absence of
Siddha and Homeopathy (AYUSH), etc. disease and infirmity”. This was stated by:
4. Which of the following systems of medicine is of (a) United Nations
Indian origin? (b) National Institute of Health
(a) Homoeopathy (b) Siddha (c) National League for Nursing (NLN)
(c) Unani-tibbi (d) Acupuncture (d) World Health Organization
PGIMER Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2016 AIIMS Bathinda Nsg. Officer 2019
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (d)
z India is known for its traditional medicinal systems, 10. The WHO has defined ‘Health’ as:
i.e., Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Yoga. (a) Mental and physical well-being only
5. Who among the following is popularly known as (b) Social well-being only
the Father of Yoga? (c) Physical, mental and social well-being
708 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(c) Strengthen sub-centre ASHA would work as link workers.

(d) All of the above z Objectives of JSY are reducing maternal mortality
RPSC (Raj.) Staff Nurse 2010 and infant mortality through institutional deliveries
Correct Option (d) and care especially for poor women.
352. Creation of a cadre of ASHA (Accredited Social 357. Janani Suraksha Yojana has been started as under:
Health Activist) was done under this mission: (a) CSSM (b) NRHM (c) MCH (d) ICDS
(a) National Urban Health Mission BHU Nsg. Officer 2018
(b) National Rural Health Mission Correct Option (b)
(c) Mission Indradhanush 358. Which of the following is FALSE about JSY?
(d) Reproductive Child Health Mission (a) It was launched in 2005
MNS SCC Exam 2024 (b) It aims to revive Dai training
Correct Option (b) (c) It involves cash incentives to ASHA workers
353. From the following, the defined form of CSSM is: (d) It also aims to reduce neonatal mortality
(a) Child Survival & Sickness Control Measures CHO, Haryana 2022
(b) Child Sanitation and Safety Measures Correct Option (b)
(c) Child Security and Safety Measures 359. Under Janani Suraksha Yojna assistance given to
(d) Child Survival and Safe Motherhood mother, in low-performance states (LPS), in urban
AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018 area is:
Correct Option (d) (a) ` 2000 (b) ` 1050 (c) ` 1000 (d) ` 1400
z Child survival and safe motherhood (CSSM) CHO, Rajasthan 2024
programme was launched in 1992, with assistance Correct Option (c)
from World Bank and UNICEF. z Cash assistance for institutional delivery (in Rs):
354. The child survival and safe motherhood programme Category Rural Area Urban Area
was launched in the year:
Mother’s ASHA’s Mother’s ASHA’s
(a) 1992 (b) 1994 (c) 1996 (d) 1998
AIIMS Raipur SNO 2023 LPS 1400 600 1000 400
Correct Option (a) HPS 700 600 600 400
RCH 360. What is the proposed timeline for registration of
mothers according to the micro-birth plan of JSY?
355. In which year reproductive child health concept
(a) At least 14‐18 weeks before the EDD
begins in India:
(b) At least 20‐24 weeks before the EDD
(a) 1997 (b) 1995 (c) 1994 (d) 1999
(c) At least 12‐ 16 weeks before the EDD
RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012
(d) At least 8 to 12 weeks before the EDD
Correct Option (a)
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2021
z RCH-I was launched on 15th October, 1997 and
Correct Option (b)
second phase, i.e., RCH-II was launched on 1st April,
361. A voluntary scheme wherein any obstetric and
2005 with major strategies on essential obstetric
gynae specialist/maternity home/nursing home
care (institutional delivery, skilled attendance at
staffs volunteer themselves for providing safe
delivery); emergency obstetric care (fully functional
motherhood services: FAQ
FRU and 24×7 delivery services at PHCs and CHCs)
(a) IMNCI (b) Vandemataram scheme
and strengthening referral system.
(c) RMNCH+A (d) JSY
z RMNCH +A launched in 2013 (inclusion of
MNS SCC Exam 2024
adolescents), Indian newborn action plan (2014) and
Correct Option (b)
RMNCAH +N (2022).
362. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan
356. “Janani Suraksha Yojana” was launched on: FAQ
(PMSMA) was launched to provide fixed‐day
(a) 1st April 2004 (b) 12th April 2004
assured, comprehensive & quality antenatal care
(c) 12th April 2005 (d) 5th April 2005
universally to all pregnant women in:
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014
(a) 2nd trimester (b) 2nd & 3rd trimester
Correct Option (c)
(c) 1st trimester (d) 1st & 2nd trimester
z The national maternity benefit scheme was modified
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2021
into “Janani Suraksha Yojana” (JSY) and it was
Correct Option (b)
launched on 12th April, 2005, under RCH (100%
z PMSMA was launched in 2016 to provide a minimum
centrally sponsored scheme, under NRHM) and
package of antenatal care services to all pregnant
 Community Health Nursing | 725

Choose the correct answer: Correct Option (c)

(a) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I (b) a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II z If a woman has a regular cycle of 28 days, then her
(c) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II (d) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV fertile period will be from the 8th day to the 21st day
NHM, Rajasthan Staff Nurse 2024 of the menstrual cycle.
Correct Option (b) z So her “safe period” will be the first and last seven
days (known as programmed sex).
Natural Family Planning Methods
538. Which one of the following is a natural family
534. The natural family planning methods are all of the planning method?
following EXCEPT: FAQ (a) Breastfeeding (b) Intrauterine devices
(a) Symptothermic method (c) Vasectomy (d) Tubectomy
(b) Cervical mucus method RRB Staff Nurse 2019
(c) Basal body temperature method Correct Option (a)
(d) Use of condom z It is believed that breastfeeding prolongs postpartum
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2021 amenorrhea which is called lactational amenorrhea
Correct Option (d) that prevents conception by inhibiting ovulation.
z Natural family planning methods: 539. Lactational amenorrhea acts as a contraceptive
♦ In the basal body temperature (BBT) method method by:
there is a slight rise of temperature (0.3° to 0.5° (a) Preventing ovulation
C) at ovulation due to increased progesterone (b) Preventing implantation
production. (c) Spermicidal action
♦ Cervical mucus (Billing’s or ovulation) method (d) Preventing sperm entry
is based on changes in characteristics of cervical ESIC Staff Nurse 2019
mucus, i.e., at ovulation [watery, clear, smooth, Correct Option (a)
slippery, profuse (like egg white)] and after 540. Exclusive breastfeeding protects women against
ovulation (thickens and lessens in quantity). pregnancy for a period of:
♦ Symptothermic method combines temperature, (a) 12 month (b) 9 month (c) 6 month (d) 3 month
cervical mucus and calendar techniques. JSSHS Delhi Nsg. Officer 2019
535. Natural method of family planning is: Correct Option (c)
(a) Calendar method (b) Condom 541. Which of the following is a natural method of
(c) IUCDs (d) Oral contraceptives contraception?
ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 (a) Condom (b) Abstinence
Correct Option (a) (c) Copper T (d) Vaginal sponge
z Calendar method (described by Ogino), also known AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
as safe method/ rhythm method based on the fact Correct Option (b)
that ovulation occurs from 12 to 16 days before the z Abstinence is completely effective; sterilization is
onset of menstruation. most cost-effective; oral contraceptives are almost
536. The first day of the fertile period in the rhythm 100 % effective and pregnancy rate <1% a year; in
method of contraception is calculated by: condoms pregnancy rates is 2 to 3 per 100 women
(a) Shortest cycle – 10 days years to more than 14 in typical users and in barrier
(b) Longest cycle – 18 days methods pregnancy rates is 6 to 12 per 100 women-
(c) Longest cycle – 10 days years.
(d) Shortest cycle – 18 days 542. Coitus interruptus is also known as:
CHO, Rajasthan 2023 (a) Cervical mucus ovulation method
Correct Option (d) (b) Symptothermic method
z In the rhythm method the shortest cycle minus 18 (c) Standard day’s method
days gives the first day of the fertile period and the (d) Withdrawal
longest cycle minus 10 days gives the last day of the DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
fertile period. Correct Option (d)
537. In a woman having a regular 28 day regular z In coitus interruptus (oldest method) the male
menstrual cycle, what is the “Safe period”? withdraws penis before ejaculation to prevent
(a) Initial 28 days (b) Later 14 days deposition of semen into the vagina (high failure rate
(c) First & last 7 days (d) First 7 days 25%).
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017
732 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

z Infant mortality rate (IMR) is universally considered z Causes of child mortality in India (2016) are
as the most sensitive indicator of health status of a prematurity (27.9%), pneumonia (14.6%),
community/country, level of living and also reflects intrapartum (11.7%), diarrhea (9.5%), sepsis (8%),
the quality of MCH care. etc.
z The IMR is among the best predictors of state failure. 607. Child survival index is calculated by?
602. A sensitive indicator of availability, utilization & (a) 1000-IMR/10 (b) IMR-1000/10
effectiveness of health care services is: FAQ (c) 1000-U5MR/10 (d) U5MR-1000/10
(a) Maternal mortality rate (b) Notification rates Correct Option (c)
(c) Infant mortality rate (d) Case fatality tale
School Health
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024
Correct Option (c) 608. First time medical examination of school children
z Infant mortality rate is one of the most universally was carried out at:
accepted indicators of health status not only of (a) Bangalore (b) Baroda (c) Bidar (d) Bijapur
infants, but also of the whole population and the RGUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2006
socio-economic conditions under which the infant Correct Option (b)
live. z The first medical examination of school children was
z IMR is a sensitive indicator of availability, utilization carried out in Baroda in the year 1909.
and effectiveness of health care, particularly perinatal z The first school of deaf was set up in Bombay in 1883
care. and the first school for blind at Amritsar in 1887.
603. Most sensitive index of health of community: 609. Which of the below DOES NOT help in controlling
(a) MMR (b) Crude birth rate hazards in a school setting?
(c) IMR (d) Crude death rate (a) Health education should be included in the
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019 curriculum
Correct Option (c) (b) Food supply to the students should be safe
604. Sensitivity parameter of combined pediatric and (c) The school should he well-ventilated
obstetric care in our country is: (d) The school should be built near from the source
(a) IMR (b) PNMR (c) NNMR (d) NMR of noise
Correct Option (a) ESIC Staff Nurse 2019
605. Which state has lowest infant mortality rate: Correct Option (d)
(a) Kerala (b) West Bengal 610. According to the school health committee of India
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Madhya Pradesh the minimum land area for elementary school
RML Delhi Staff Nurse 2011 education is:
Correct Option (a) (a) 30 Acres (b) 40 Acres (c) 20 Acres (d) 10 Acres
z According to the SRS bulletin (2020), the lowest RRB Staff Nurse 2019
IMR has been reported in Kerala (6) and highest in Correct Option (d)
Madhya Pradesh (43). z The school health committee (1961) recommended
z Delhi (12), Arunachal Pradesh (24), Bihar (27), that 10 acres of land for higher elementary school and
Assam (36), Uttar Pradesh (38), Rajasthan (32). 5 acres land for primary schools with an additional 1
z IMR of India (SRS, 2020) was 28 [rural (31) and acre of land per 100 students.
urban (19)]. 611. Desk for school students is:
z Current (2024) IMR of India is 26 deaths/1000 live (a) Minus desk (b) Plus desk
births. (c) Zero desk (d) All the desks
606. What is Under-five Mortality Rate (U5MR)? Correct Option (a)
(a) Probability of dying before the 5th month of birth z Minus (negative) desk: The edge of the chair goes
(b) Probability of dying before the 5th day of birth inside the edge of the desk (preferred for school
(c) Probability of dying before the 5th week of birth students).
(d) Probability of dying before the 5th birthday z Zero desk: The edge of the desk is at the same level as
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 that of the chair.
Correct Option (d) z Plus (positive) desk: There is a gap between the edge
z Child mortality rate (U5MR) means the annual of the desk and edge of the chair.
number of deaths of children age under 5 years, 612. Maximum recommended number of students in a
expressed as a rate per 1000 live births. school classroom:
z U5MR of India (2020) is 32 deaths/1000 live births. (a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 40 (d) 50
 Community Health Nursing | 749

Correct Option (d) GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2016

785. Response from the receiver to sender is known as: Correct Option (b)
(a) Interpersonal relationship z Haptic (Greek word means to touch or to grasp) is a
(b) Internal communication form of non-verbal communication in which people
(c) Communication and animals communicate and interact via the sense
(d) None of the above of touch, e.g., handshake or a gentle pat on back or
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011 a high five.
Correct Option (d) 791. Line of authority is followed under: FAQ
786. The most frequently used communication channel is: (a) Symbolic communication
(a) Written channel (b) Visual channel (b) Informal communication
(c) Auditory channel (d) Tactile channel (c) Formal communication
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 (d) Therapeutic communication
Correct Option (c) RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2014
787. Which teaching method is based on one-way Correct Option (c)
communication? z Formal communication follows a line of authority
(a) Lecture (b) Group discussion (official hierarchy) either ascending/upward, i.e.,
(c) Conference (d) Workshop bottom to the top level (subordinates to superior) or
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 descending/downward, i.e., higher level to a lower
Correct Option (a) level (superior to subordinates).
z One-way communication (didactic) is which flow z Informal communication (grapevine/ rumour)
is “one-way” from communicator to audience, e.g., follows informal networks in an organization, e.g.,
lecture method (chalk and talk method), television, gossip, chitchat into a circle (taking into corridors
radio, newspaper, etc. and canteen, etc.).
z It is faster, appears neat and efficient, sender is 792. The level of conversation in which no sharing of
more psychologically comfortable and plan- oneself occurs is:
fullness, systemization is associated with one-way (a) Level 1: Open conversation
communication. (b) Level 5: Cliché conversation
788. Which of the following is a Socratic method of (c) Level 4: Reporting of facts
teaching? (d) Level 2: Spontaneous conversation
(a) Lecture (b) Film AIIMS Bhubaneswar SNO 2019
(c) Exhibition (d) Panel discussion Correct Option (b)
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020 793. Which of the following actions show physical
Correct Option (d) attending?
z Two-way communication (socratic) in which both a. Adopting an open posture
the communicator and the audience take active part, b. Maintain good eye contact
e.g., group discussion, focused group discussion c. Leaning towards the person
(FGD), panel discussion, symposium, role play, d. Presume an understanding of client
demonstration, etc. (a) b, c, d (b) a, b, d (c) a, c, d (d) a, b, c
789. Which type of channel is considered as the best one DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
for effective communication? Correct Option (d)
(a) Combined (b) Visual 794. Technique of communication ‘soler’ means:
(c) Auditory (d) Tactile (a) Restating (b) Active listening
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2014 (c) Humor (d) Clarification
Correct Option (a) RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013
z Combined use of audio-visual media and tactile Correct Option (b)
(touch sensation) is considered as the best one for z S.O.L.E.R. is an acronym that stands for S (sit
effective communication. squarely), O (open posture), L (lean forward), E (eye
790. The use of “touch” to convey your feelings to a contact) and R (relax).
patient is called: z It is an active listening model devised by Gerald Egan
(a) Extrasensory perception and described as an aid for teaching and learning
(b) Haptic communication about non-verbal communication.
(c) Gestalt therapy 795. The nurses demonstrate active listening by:
(d) Neural networking (a) Agreeing with the client
 Community Health Nursing | 755

845. Who was the chairman of the Health Survey and z Kartar Singh Committee (1973) also known as
Planning Committee? FAQ ‘Committee on Multipurpose Workers under Health
(a) A.L. Mudaliar (b) A.K. Mukherjee and Family Planning.
(c) M.S. Chadah (d) Joseph Bhore z ANMs to be replaced by ‘Female Health Workers’;
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017 Basic health workers, Malaria surveillance workers,
Correct Option (a) Vaccinators, Health education assistants and family
z Dr. A.L. Mudaliar was the chairman of Mudaliar planning health assistants be replaced by ‘Male
Committee (1962), which is also known as ‘Health Health Workers’ was the main recommendation.
Survey and Planning Committee’. z Shrivastva Committee (1975) also known as “Group
z It was appointed to survey the progress of Bhore on medical education and support manpower”.
committee’s report and to provide guidelines for 850. Which of the following committee recommended
health planning for the five year plans. multipurpose workers for ensuring proper coverage
846. Health survey and planning committee popularly of health services?
known as: (a) Shrivastav Committee
(a) Bhore committee (b) Mudaliar Committee
(b) Mudaliar committee (c) Kartar Singh Committee
(c) Kartar Singh committee (d) Bhore Committee
(d) Shrivastva committee RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (b) 851. The importance of “Nursing” in the Health
847. Basic health services provided at the block level is Department was emphasized by which of these?
committed by: (a) Chadha committee (b) Shetty committee
(a) Mudaliar committee (b) Bhore committee (c) Shrivastav committee (d) Bhore committee
(c) Mukherji committee (d) Chadah committee IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2018 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (c) z The Shetty committee (1954) was made by the then
z Mukherjee Committee (1966) recommended that Union Minister for health; Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
basic health service should be provided at block level. emphasized the need for improvement of nursing
z Mukherjee Committee (1965), recommended to in health development and drew attention to many
delink malaria activities from family planning and factors that hindered its development.
separate staff for family planning programmes. z It recommended the nurse-to-patient ratio of 1:3 in
848. One of the health committees of India which teaching hospitals and 1:5 in general hospitals.
focuses on the principle of integration of health 852. Which committee was set up to see the general
services is: FAQ condition of nurses?
(a) Kartar Singh committee (a) High power committee (b) Mudaliar committee
(b) Jungalwalla committee (c) Mukherjee committee (d) Bhore committee
(c) Mukherji committee AIIMS Bhopal Staff Nurse 2016
(d) Bhore committee Correct Option (a)
AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022 z Sarojini Varadappan committee (1989) also known
Correct Option (b) as ‘High Power Committee on Nursing and Nursing
z Jungalwalla Committee (1967) also known as Profession’, to look into working conditions and
‘Committee on Integration of Health Services’ and staffing norms, etc.
recommended unified cadre, common seniority, 853. The Expert Committee for Health Manpower,
recognition of extra qualification, equal pay for Planning, Production and Management was
equal work, special pay, no private practice and good constituted in which year?
service conditions. (a) 1985 (b) 1999 (c) 2000 (d) 1976
849. Kartar Singh committee is also known as: FAQ CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021
(a) Multipurpose worker committee Correct Option (a)
(b) Health survey and development committee z Bajaj committee (1986), also known as ‘Expert
(c) Health survey and planning committee Committee for Health Manpower, Planning,
(d) Committee for medical education Production and management’ reviewed the state of
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2014 nursing education & predicted nursing manpower.
Correct Option (a) 854. Match List-I with List-II:
 Community Health Nursing | 759

(b) Number of visits (b) Home visits

(c) Reduction in IMR (c) Conducting MTP independently
(d) Number of training hour attended (d) Training Dai
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017 IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2017
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (c)
z ASHA workers performance indicators are reduction 893. Female health worker (MPW) does not do:
in IMR, child malnutrition rates and number of cases (a) Distribution of condom
of TB/leprosy cases detected. (b) Birth and death registration
887. All are true about Anganwadi workers EXCEPT: (c) Malaria surveillance
(a) Part time worker (d) Supervision of health volunteers
(b) Covers population of 5000 RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018
(c) Supply nutrition and educate about vaccination Correct Option (c)
(d) Under controls ICDS 894. Registration of pregnancy within 12 weeks of
Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018 pregnancy is the primary responsibility of:
Correct Option (b) (a) Doctor (b) Nurse (c) ANM (d) Social worker
z Under ICDS scheme, one Anganwadi center with CHO, Tripura 2022
one Anganwadi worker for 1000 population in rural Correct Option (c)
& urban projects and one Anganwadi center for 300 895. The following are the functions of Male health
to 800 populations in tribal/hilly projects. workers as a Health Team member “EXCEPT”:
z The work of 20-25 Anganwadis is supervised by (a) Conduct survey of the Sub-centre and maintain
mukhyasevikas and 4 mukhyasevikas are headed by record of all families
a child development project officer (CDPO). (b) Provide nutrition advice and Immunization to
888. Anganwadi worker caters to what size of mothers and children
population? (c) Maintain information of all vital events
(a) One thousand (b) One lath (d) Promote health education activities
(c) One hundred (d) One million AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
AIIMS Bhopal Staff Nurse 2016 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (a) z Option ‘b’ is the work of a female health worker.
889. Which of the following is NOT the purpose of z Vital events including death and birth occurring
conducting Mahila Swasthya Sangh meetings every in the area are reported by health worker female
week by Anganwadi workers in a village? (ANM), health worker male (MPHW) and ASHA.
(a) Discuss anemia 896. The peripheral outpost of the existing health
(b) Enhance interpersonal communication delivery system in rural areas is: FAQ
(c) Discuss breastfeeding (a) Village health centre (b) PHC
(d) Discuss general household problems (c) Sub-centre (d) CHC
CHO, Rajasthan 2024 CHO, Tripura 2022
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (c)
890. Which of the following person is present in sub- 897. Population covered by one sub-center in general is:
centre? (a) 1000 (b) 5000 (c) 10000 (d) 25000
(a) Multipurpose health worker JIPMER Staff Nurse 2017
(b) Laboratory technician Correct Option (b)
(c) Health educator z Population norm for HWC-PHC (IPHS, 2022):
(d) Medical officer Type of HWC Plain areas Hilly/Tribal areas
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2014 facility (population) (population)
Correct Option (a) HWC-SHC 5000 3000
891. Keeping the record of birth and death certificate is UHWC 15,000-20,000 −
the responsibility of:
898. Population covered by a sub-centre in hilly area:
(a) DOTS worker (b) ANM
(a) 5000 (b) 3000 (c) 10000 (d) 30000
(c) MHW (d) Anganwadi worker
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018
ESIC Delhi Staff Nurse 2009
Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (b)
899. The sub-centre is renamed as: FAQ
892. Job responsibilities of an ANM are all EXCEPT:
(a) Health and sciences centre
(a) Distribute iron and folic acid to women
(b) Health centre
760 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(c) Health and wellness centre (HWC) z Drug Kit-A and Kit-B are supplied at Sub-centre
(d) Health sciences treatment & palliative centre under IPHS guidelines.
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2020 z Equipment kits supplied under CSSM/RCH programme:
Correct Option (c) ♦ Kit-E: Standard surgical set-I (instruments) FRU
z HWC-SHC (rural) is established for every 5000 ♦ Kit-F: CHC standard surgical set-II
population in plain areas and 3000 population in ♦ Kit-G: IUD insertion kit
hilly/tribal/desert areas (with the principle being ♦ Kit-H: CHC standard surgical set-III
“time to care”- to be no more than 30 minutes). ♦ Kit-I: Normal delivery kit
z Manpower recommended at HWC-SHC (IPHS, 2022): ♦ Kit-J: Standard surgical set-IV
Manpower required Required Numbers* ♦ Kit-K: Standard surgical set-V
Community Health Officer 1 ♦ Kit-L: Standard surgical set-VI
Multipurpose Health Worker 1 Male + 1 Female ♦ Kit-M: Equipment for anaesthesia
♦ Kit-N: Equipment for neonatal resuscitation
(*ASHA: 1 per 1000 population or 1 per
♦ Kit-O: Equipment for lab tests and blood
habitation in tribal/hilly/desert areas)
transfusion
900. Which of the following health care institutions
♦ Kit-P: Materials kit for blood transfusion
have been upgraded to health & wellness centres?
905. Which of the following is NOT a content of drug
1. Sub-health centres, 2. Primary health centres, 3.
kit-A provided at sub-centre? FAQ
Sub-district hospitals, 4. District hospital. Choose
(a) Vitamin A solution (b) Oral rehydration salt
the correct answer:
(c) Tab Paracetamol (d) Tab Cotrimoxazole
(a) 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Correct Option (c)
NHM, Rajasthan Staff Nurse 2024
Correct Option (b) Drug Kit-A Drug Kit-B
901. Which of the following are the team members of Oral rehydration salt Tab Paracetamol
Health & Wellness Center (HWC) at sub-centre Tab IFA (large/small) Tab Dicyclomine HCl
level? 1. CHO (MLHP), 2. ANM, 3. ASHA, 4. Syrup IFA Tab Albendazole
Anganwadi worker. Select the correct answer using Tab Folic acid Tab Methylergometrine
the codes given below: Tab Cotrimoxazole Inj. Methylergometrine
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only Tab Zinc Chloramphenicol eye ointment
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Vitamin A solution Povidone-iodine ointment
ESIC Nsg. Officer 2024 Gentian violet Cotton bandage & cotton
Correct Option (d) 906. Testing kit, for early detection of pregnancy,
902. The multi-purpose worker in general serves a rural available at sub-centers is called:
population of: (a) MCP card (b) Nischay (c) Nikshay (d) M.P. Card
(a) < 500 (b) 1000 (c) 3000 (d) 5000 CHO, Rajasthan 2024
DSSSB PHN 2015 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (d) 907. How much population coverage was proposed by
z Under the multipurpose worker scheme (MPWS), the National Health Plan 1983 in the rural plain
one health worker (male and female) is posted at areas for a primary health centre? FAQ
each sub-centre. (a) 100000 (b) 30000 (c) 10,000 (d) 40000
z A health worker female (ANM) may cover 350 to 500 CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022
families. Correct Option (b)
903. Which one of the following is NOT a function of z Population norm for HWC-PHC (IPHS, 2022):
the sub-center? Type of PHC Plain areas Hilly/Tribal areas
(a) Maternal and Child Health (b) Referral facility (population) (population)
(c) National Health programs (d) Training
Rural PHC 30,000 20,000
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
Urban PHC 50,000 −
Correct Option (d)
904. Kit supplied at sub-centre is: FAQ Polyclinic 2.5-3 lakh −
(a) Kit-E (b) Kit-M (c) Kit-K (d) Kit-B 908. Population covered by Primary Health Centre in
AIIMS Jodhpur/Rishikesh Staff Nurse 2017 hilly region is:
Correct Option (d) (a) 20,000 (b) 25,000 (c) 30,000 (d) 40,000
UPPSC, U.P. Staff Nurse 2017
 Communicable Diseases

Smallpox (c) Smallpox (d) Rabies

1. Which of the following viruses causes smallpox? RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017
(a) Parvovirus (b) Reovirus Correct Option (c)
(c) Togavirus (d) Variola virus 7. WHO declared global eradication of smallpox on:
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024 (a) 26th October 1977 (b) 5th July 1975
Correct Option (d) (c) 17th May 1975 (d) 8th May 1980
2. Smallpox vaccine contains: Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018
(a) Living virus Correct Option (d)
(b) Living mycobacterium Chickenpox
(c) Attenuated virus 8. Chicken pox is caused by: FAQ
(d) Attenuated mycobacterium (a) Varicella-Zoster (b) Cytomegalovirus
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2013 (c) Herpes Zoster (d) Herpes Simplex
Correct Option (a) AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023
z Smallpox vaccine contains live vaccinia virus, which Correct Option (a)
is a poxvirus similar to smallpox but less harmful. z Chickenpox (varicella/waterpox) is an acute
z WHO had officially discontinued the use of smallpox infectious disease caused by varicella-zoster virus
vaccine by 1982 and all variola virus stocks were also called human (alpha) herpes virus-3, primarily
either destroyed or consolidated into 1 of 2 WHO among young children below 10 years of age (peak
sanctioned laboratories. age 5 to 10 years).
3. The last case of smallpox was reported in the world 9. Under certain circumstances the virus that causes
in: chickenpox can also cause:
(a) 1977 (b) 1978 (c) 1979 (d) 1982 (a) Athlete’s foot (b) Herpes zoster
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013 (c) German measles (d) Infectious hepatitis
Correct Option (a) RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017
z The last case of smallpox was reported in the world Correct Option (b)
on 26th October 1977 in Somalia, Africa and in India z Recovery from chickenpox is followed by the
on 24th May 1975 in Bihar. establish-ment of lifelong latent infection in cranial
z India was declared smallpox-free on 5th July 1975 nerve, sensory ganglia and spinal dorsal root ganglia
and confirmed by international commission in April for decades.
1977. z Under certain conditions (suppression of cell-
z WHO declared global eradication of smallpox on 8th mediated immunity), viruses may reactivate and can
May 1980. cause herpes zoster (shingles).
4. In which year was India declared a smallpox-free 10. Incubation period of chickenpox is:
country by an International Commission for (a) 12 ‒ 14 days (b) 10 ‒ 14 days
Assessment of Smallpox Eradication? (c) 14 ‒ 16 days (d) 14 ‒ 18 days
(a) 1975 (b) 1977 (c) 1976 (d) 1974 IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2011
NVS (Navodaya) Staff Nurse 2019 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (b) 11. The mode of transmission of chickenpox is:
5. One of the following diseases has been eradicated (a) Droplet nuclei (b) Infected blood
globally as declared by WHO: (c) Mosquito (d) Rodents
(a) Poliomyelitis (b) Pox virus CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2021
(c) Human monkeypox (d) Smallpox Correct Option (a)
RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2009 12. Which is the first sign of chickenpox in children?
Correct Option (d) (a) Fever (b) Rashes (c) Shivering (d) Malaise
6. Communicable disease eradicated from India: RIMS & R., U.P. Staff Nurse 2013
(a) Chickenpox (b) Rubella Correct Option (b)
 Community Health Nursing | 781

(c) Treatment is interrupted for 30 days (a) Government commitment

(d) Treatment is interrupted for 2 consecutive (b) High-quality DOTS expansion
months or more (c) Empower people with TB
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 (d) Bold policies and supportive system
Correct Option (d) RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019
z A TB patient whose treatment was interrupted for 2 Correct Option (d)
consecutive months or more is called lost to follow- z Pillars and components include integrated, patient-
up (treatment after default patients). centred care and prevention; bold policies and
z A TB patient whose sputum smear or culture is supportive systems; intensified research and
positive at 5 months or later during treatment is innovation; ending the TB epidemic.
called treatment failure. z Global plan’s targets 90-90-90, i.e., reach at least 90%
150. In which year was RNTCP launched? FAQ of all people with TB; 90% of the key population and
(a) 2002 (b) 1997 (c) 2000 (d) 2006 achieve at least 90% treatment success.
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 154. According to the NSP, TB elimination has been
Correct Option (b) integrated into the four strategic pillars of:
z National tuberculosis control programme (NTCP), (a) Detect-Transfer-Prepare-Block
launched in 1962 and revised by Govt. of India, with (b) Detect-Treat-Prevent-Build
the help of WHO and SIDA in 1992 and evolved a (c) Diagnose-Treat-Prevent-Break
new strategy known as Revised National TB Control (d) Define-Treat-Prepare-Block
Program (RNTCP) with objectives to achieve a cure CHO, Tripura 2022
rate of at least 85% and achieve a case detection rate Correct Option (b)
of 70% and internationally adopted strategy DOTS 155. The Govt. of India launched ‘Nikshay’ for tracking
in 1997. and monitoring patient with:
151. Revised National TB control programme was (a) TB (b) Blindness
launched with objectives of: (c) Leprosy (d) Pneumonia
(a) Curing 85% of smear positive cases AIIMS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2022
(b) Detection of 70% of sputum positive cases Correct Option (a)
(c) Both a & b 156. NIKSHAY Poshan Yojana (NPY) is related to which
(d) None of the above of the following diseases?
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011 (a) Cancer (b) TB (c) AIDS (d) Rabies
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (b)
152. New stop TB strategy is: z NPY (launched in April 2018) is one of the four
(a) Extensive BCG vaccination initiative-based support schemes which provide
(b) Detecting TB carrier financial support, i.e., Rs. 500/month to all TB
(c) DOTS patients for their nutrition till the completion of
(d) Survey for number of TB deaths treatment.
RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2009
Poliomyelitis
Correct Option (c)
z In 2006, WHO launched “the Stop TB Strategy” with 157. Polio is the primary infection of:
the vision “a world free of TB” and goal to reduce (a) Urinary system
global burden of TB by 2015 through its six principal (b) Respiratory system
components with the core strategy DOTS. (c) Gastrointestinal system
z DOTS under RNTCP launched in March 1997 and it (d) Central nervous system
covers the whole country by March 2006. RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
z In 2014, WHO approved a 20 year programme to end Correct Option (c)
the global TB epidemic by “the End TB Strategy” at z Polio is an acute viral infection caused by an
the end of 2035. RNA virus (group Picornavirus and the family
z In 2020, RNTCP was renamed as the “National TB Enterovirus).
Elimination Program (NTEP)” with the tagline “TB z It has 3 serotypes, i.e., type 1 (most common case of
Harega Desh Jeetega”. epidemic), type 2 and type 3.
z Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan was z It mainly infects the human alimentary tract but in
launched on 9th September, 2022). about 1% of cases it may infect the central nervous
153. Which of the following is one of the pillars under system (anterior horn of spinal cord), which results
‘The End TB Strategy of 2015’? in paralysis.
782 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

z The last wild polio case was reported from India on Correct Option (a)
13th January 2011. z Stool sample (highest concentration of virus) of child
z India was certified as polio-free by SEAR-WHO on with AFP collected and kept in a cold box at 4 to 8° C
27th March 2014. and tested within 48 hours of onset.
158. A viral disease that infects the motor cells of the z Polio virus is shed maximum in stool up to 12 weeks.
anterior horn of the spinal cord is: 165. Kenny’s packs were used in treatment of:
(a) Rubella (b) Rubeola (a) Poliomyelitis (b) Muscular dystrophy
(c) Chickenpox (d) Poliomyelitis (c) Nerve injury (d) Polyneuropathies
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (d) z Primary symptomatic and supportive treatment
159. Polio virus is primarily transmitted by: of poliomyelitis includes bed rest, moist hot packs
(a) Infected needles (b) Respiratory route (sister’s Elizabeth Kenny’s treatment), physiotherapy
(c) Animal bite (d) Feco-oral route and rehabilitation.
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022 166. When was India declared polio free?
Correct Option (d) (a) 27th March 2014 (b) 27th March 2019
z Poliomyelitis is mainly transmitted via fecal- (c) 27th March 2020 (d) Not yet declared
oral route through directly contaminated fingers CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2020
or indirectly through water or foods, flies, etc. Correct Option (a)
(developing countries) and through the oral-
Cholera
pharyngeal route (droplet infection) in the acute
phase of disease (developed countries). 167. Organism causing cholera: FAQ
160. Poliomyelitis is transmitted through: (a) M. cholerae (b) E. coli
(a) Water (b) Air (c) Blood (d) Vector (c) Vibrio Cholerae (d) Salmonella cholerae
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2014 AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (c)
161. Incubation period of poliomyelitis is: z Cholera is an acute diarrhoeal disease, caused by the
(a) 1-2 week (b) 1-3 day (c) 1 month (d) 7-14 day bacteria Vibrio cholera O1 (classical or El Tor, e.g.,
ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 Inaba, Ogawa, Hikojima) and O139.
Correct Option (d) z It produces exotoxin (entero-toxin which consists
z Incubation period is 7 to 14 days (range 3-35 days). of 2 parts-light or L toxin combined with “GM1
162. …………is a characteristic symptom of paralytic ganglioside” and helps in irreversible binding.
polio: z The heavy or H toxin activates “adenylate cyclase”
(a) Watery diarrhea (b) Skin rash which increases secretion of cAMP, which drives
(c) Muscle weakness or paralysis (d) High fever fluid and electrolyte into lumen of gut, which
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024 expelled constitutes diarrhea of cholera).
Correct Option (c) 168. Which disease is called “Father of public Health”?
z Clinical spectrum of polio: Inapparent or subclinical (a) Malaria (b) Leprosy (c) Influenza (d) Cholera
infection (91-96% of infection; no signs & symptoms), AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023
abortive polio or minor illness (4-8% of infection; Correct Option (d)
mild & self-limiting illness due to viraemia), non- z John Snow is known as “father of public health” for
paralytic polio (1% of infection; stiffness & pain in his work investigating cholera outbreaks in London.
neck and back) and paralytic polio (<1% of infection; 169. Which serogroup of Vibrio cholerae is most
invades CNS & causes varying degrees of paralysis, toxigenic?
i.e., asymmetrical flaccid paralysis). (a) 05 (b) 0100 (c) 0150 (d) O1
163. Acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) is reported in a child NHM, U.P. Staff Nurse 2023
aged: Correct Option (d)
(a) 0-3 years (b) 0-5 years 170. What is the main cause of acute watery diarrhoeal
(c) 0-10 years (d) 0-15 years attack?
Correct Option (d) (a) Vibrio cholera (b) Salmonella typhi
164. What kind of sample can be used to isolate (c) Corynebacterium (d) Escherichia coli
poliovirus? FAQ BSF Staff Nurse 2015
(a) Stool (b) Blood (c) Throat (d) CSF Correct Option (a)
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2022 171. A convalescent case of cholera remains infective
for:
 Community Health Nursing | 783

(a) <7 days (b) 7-14 days (c) 14-21 days (d) 21-28 days Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (c) z Early case finding, notification (within 24 hours to
z Mainly 4 types carriers of cholera: WHO) and management (isolation, oral rehydration
♦ Preclinical (incubatory) carriers with short and adjuncts therapy), general sanitation measures
incubation period (1-5 days) and are potential like water control (chlorination of water), proper
patients. excreta disposal (sanitary latrines), food sanitation
♦ Convalescent carrier not received effective and disinfection must be applied to control cholera
antibiotic treatment and continues to excrete at the time of an epidemics.
vibrios during his convalescence for 2-3 weeks. z Mass chemoprophylaxis during an outbreak is not
♦ Contact (healthy) carrier duration is <10 days, advised because of the short time effect of the drug
due to subclinical infection; cause spread. and to treat one case of cholera, giving the drug to
♦ Chronic carrier has the longest duration up to 10 thousands.
years in gall bladder infection. 176. During cholera outbreak, the best emergency
172. Rice-water stool is present in which of the following sanitation measures to be adopted will be:
diseases? FAQ (a) Chemoprophylaxis
(a) Giardiasis (b) Cholera (b) Mass Vaccination
(c) Diarrhea (d) Dysentery (c) Disinfection of stool
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020 (d) Provision of chlorinated water
Correct Option (b) RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018
z Typical cholera case shows 3 stages: Correct Option (d)
♦ Evacuation: Profuse, painless and effortless z Best emergency sanitary measures to control cholera
“rice-watery diarrhoea” (40 stool/day) followed are chlorination or boiling of water.
by vomiting. z Health education (ORT, early reporting, hand and
♦ Collapse: “Classical sign”- sunken eyes, hollow food hygiene) is the most effective prophylactic
cheeks, scaphoid abdomen, hypotension, measure in cholera.
hypothermia, rapid, feeble and thready pulse, 177. The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of cholera
loss of skin elasticity, decreased urine output and is: FAQ
death. (a) Streptomycin (b) Amoxicillin
♦ Recovery: BP, temperature and urine secretion (c) Paracetamol (d) Tetracycline
returns to normal. UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
173. Most important characteristic of diarrhoea caused Correct Option (d)
by vibrio cholera is: z Tetracycline (3 days BD) is drug of choice for
(a) Profound watery diarrhoea chemoprophylaxis of cholera and doxycycline may
(b) Severe abdominal pain be used as an alternative.
(c) Massive bloody diarrhoea z In pregnancy and children azithromycin is an
(d) Renal insufficiency antibiotic of choice.
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 178. Regarding cholera vaccine all are the correct except
Correct Option (a) that:
174. A 4-year-old client was brought to the health centre (a) It is given at interval of 6 month
with chief complaints of severe diarrhoea and the (b) Long-lasting immunity
passage of ‘‘rice water”. The client is most probably (c) Not useful in epidemics
suffering from which condition? (d) Not given orally
(a) Giardiasis (b) Cholera RML Delhi Staff Nurse 2011
(c) Amoebiasis (d) Dysentery Correct Option (a)
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 z Oral cholera vaccine: (not recommended for
Correct Option (b) epidemic control)
175. For controlling outbreak of cholera which of the ♦ Killed vaccine given orally in 2 doses with 10 to
following measures are suggested EXCEPT: 15 days apart, which give 50 to 60% protection
(a) Mass chemo-prophylaxis for 3 years.
(b) Proper disposal of excreta ♦ Live-attenuated vaccine given orally in single
(c) Chlorination of water dose, which gives 80% protection for long lasting
(d) Early detection of cases and management time.
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016 179. Two doses of Dukoral provide protection against
 6

BIOCHEMISTRY & NUTRITION

“To maintain good health requires good

nutrition and a healthy dose of exercise.”
– DeBarra Mayo
 Biochemistry & Nutrition

Classification of Foods proteins which are also called body-building foods.

1. The process of providing or obtaining the food 7. Which kind of food is called as body building
necessary for growth and health is: foods?
(a) Nutrition (b) Nourishment (a) Vitamins and Minerals (b) Proteins
(c) Nutrients (d) Natural science (c) Carbohydrates (d) Fats
RRB Staff Nurse 2019 AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (b)
2. The most abundant nutrient present in the body is: 8. Proximate principles include all, EXCEPT:
(a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein (a) Proteins (b) Fats
(c) Lipid (d) Water (c) Carbohydrates (d) Vitamins
PGIMS Rohtak Staff Nurse 2017 JIPMER Staff Nurse 2017
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (d)
z Seven major classes of nutrients are carbohydrates, z Carbohydrates, fats and proteins are needed in large
fats, fiber, minerals, proteins, vitamins and water quantities and yield energy is called “macronutrients”
(60% of body weight). or “proximate principles”.
3. Food can be classified based on four criteria. Which z Vitamins and minerals are needed in small quantities
of the following is NOT one of them? and do not yield energy but are very essential to keep
(a) Physiological functions (b) Chemical composition healthy are called “micronutrients” or “magic wands”.
(c) Source of origin of food (d) Nutritive value 9. Which among the following nutrients is called
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 micronutrient?
Correct Option (a) (a) Vitamins and Minerals
4. Which food group of the following is the basic food (b) Fat and Carbohydrates
group? (c) Protein and Carbohydrates
(a) Fruits & vegetables (b) Egg & meat (d) Protein and Fat
(c) Wheat & whole grains (d) Fat & oil AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023
BSF Staff Nurse 2014 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (c) 10. One of the following that does not have protective
z Wheat, rice, barley, oats and whole grains (also function:
known as cereals) are the basic food group because (a) Milk (b) Fish
they form the main bulk of our diet. (c) Fruits (d) Green leafy vegetables
z Cereals contain about 70 to 80% carbohydrate by RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
weight, 8 to 15% proteins and 3 to 6% fats. Correct Option (b)
5. Which of the following nutrients are also known as z Vitamins and minerals are called protective foods,
‘energy-giving foods’? which are mainly found in vegetables, fruits and
(a) Vitamins (b) Proteins milk.
(c) Carbohydrates & fats (d) Minerals Carbohydrates
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 11. The macronutrient that contributes to the major
Correct Option (c) portion of the total energy intake is:
6. Which one of the following is NOT a body-building (a) Carbohydrate (b) Fat
food? (c) Minerals (d) Protein
(a) Meat (b) Pulses & legumes AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023
(c) Fruits (d) Egg Correct Option (a)
UPPSC, U.P. Staff Nurse 2017 z Recommended intake in balance diet for proteins 10-
Correct Option (c) 15 % (first & foremost), fats 15-30 %, carbohydrates
z Meat, pulses, legumes, milk and milk products, 50-80% of total daily energy intake.
poultry, fish, eggs, groundnuts are rich sources of 12. One gram of carbohydrate gives: FAQ
 BIOCHEMISTRY & Nutrition | 823

(a) Vit D (b) Vit A (c) Vit K (d) Vit C α-tocopherol.

KSSSCI, Lucknow Nsg. Officer 2024 z Rich sources of vitamin E are vegetable oil, cotton
Correct Option (a) seed oil, sunflower oil, wheat germ oil, soybean,
z Vitamin D is necessary for the absorption of calcium corn-oil, green leafy vegetables, egg-yolk and butter.
and phosphorus from food in the small intestine. 141. The generic name for tocopherol is:
z Vitamin D is also known as an antirachitic vitamin (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C
because its deficiency interferes with calcium & (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin E
phosphorus use, which in turn causes rickets. RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017
137. Which of the following minerals should be taken by Correct Option (d)
a child suffering from rickets? 142. Which vitamin is known as anti-sterility vitamin?
(a) Potassium (b) Sodium (c) Iron (d) Calcium (a) E (b) C (c) A (d) K
ESIC Staff Nurse 2016 AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (a)
138. RDA of Vitamin D for a pregnant lady according to z It is presumed that vitamin E prevents sterility and
ICMR (2020) should be: helps in the embedding of ovum.
(a) 200 IU (b) 400 IU (c) 600 IU (d) 800 IU
Vitamin K
Correct Option (c)
z Requirement of Vitamin D: 143. Vitamin K is otherwise known as:
♦ ICMR emphasizes the importance of outdoor (a) Phylloquinone (b) Tocopherol
physical activities because even 5 minutes (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Retinol
exposure to sunlight is sufficient to supply AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
adequate amounts. Correct Option (a)
♦ Children 1-2 year (urban): 600 IU/day. z Vitamin K (anti-haemorrhagic factor) is necessary
♦ RDA (ICMR, 2020) for vitamin D (IU/day): Men for synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X by
& women (600), pregnancy & lactation (600), the liver.
infant (400) and children (600). z The two major forms are Vitamin K1 and K2.
♦ Pregnancy and Lactation: 200 IU or 5 µg /day in z Vitamin K1 (Phylloquinone) is found mainly in fresh
suspected Vitamin D deficiency (WHO). dark green vegetables and fruits.
♦ WHO did not recommend oral vitamin D z Vitamin K2 (Menaquinone) is synthesized by large
supplementation for pregnant women (advised intestinal commensal bacterial flora.
to eat a balanced diet and exposure to sunlight). 144. Which of the following is involved in synthesis of
139. The risk of stomach cancer has been related to the vitamin K?
deficiency of: (a) Large intestine (b) Liver
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin D (c) Small intestine (d) Stomach
(c) Cobalt (d) Nickel RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2013
JIPMER Staff Nurse 2017 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (b) 145. A fat soluble vitamin which is synthesized by
z Vitamin D lowers the risk of many cancers like intestinal flora is:
prostate, stomach, colorectal, breast etc. and is (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D
also protective against pre-diabetes and metabolic (c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin K
syndrome. AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022
Correct Option (d)
Vitamin E 146. The vitamin that is necessary for the proper clotting
140. Which vitamin is called Alpha-Tocopherol? of blood is: FAQ
(a) Vitamin B (b) Vitamin E (a) Vitamin K (b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin A (c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin B
ESIC Delhi Staff Nurse 2012 AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (a)
z Vitamin E (discovered by Evans & Bishop) is the z Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin (also called an anti-
generic name for a group of closely related and haemorrhagic factor) which is not directly involved
naturally occurring fat soluble compounds, the in the process of coagulation but it is essential for
tocopherols and tocotrienols. synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II,
z It is the most powerful naturally occurring VII, IX and X by the liver.
antioxidant and biologically most potent form of is
 BIOCHEMISTRY & Nutrition | 837

Correct Option (a) and health status, self-development, literacy and

z ICDS scheme was started in 1975 by the Govt. India numerical and vocational skills, etc.
under the ministry of social welfare, to fulfil the z SABLA scheme aims to empower adolescent girls
‘National Policy for Children’ on 22nd August 1974. through nutrition, health care and life skill education.
300. The following are the beneficiaries of Integrated 305. Which of the following Health Program provides
Child Development Scheme (ICDS) EXCEPT: supplementary Nutrition and non-formal
(a) Children below 6 years education services as two major components?
(b) Adolescent girls (aged from 13-19 yrs) (a) UIP (b) ICDS (c) RCH Program (d) NRHM
(c) Pregnant women (aged 15-45 yrs) RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
(d) Elderly women (age above 60 yrs) Correct Option (b)
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 306. All are true of mid-day school meal programme
Correct Option (d) EXCEPT:
z ICDS is implemented through anganwadi centres (a) Should supply one-third daily calories and half
(AWC) by anganwadi workers. of daily protein
z The beneficiaries of ICDS are 0 to 6 years of children, (b) Substitute for regular food
pregnant women and nursing (lactating) mothers, (c) Locally available foods are used
other women 15 to 45 years and adolescent girls 11 (d) Cheap and easy to prepare
to 18 years. Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018
301. Who is the principal worker in ICDS project? Correct Option (b)
(a) Child development project officer z Principles for formulating mid-day meals:
(b) Multipurpose health worker ♦ Meal should be a supplement only, not a
(c) Anganwadi worker substitute for a home diet.
(d) Auxiliary nurse midwives ♦ Meals should provide 1/3 calories and 1/2
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019 proteins.
Correct Option (c) ♦ Meal cost should be low.
302. Activities of ICDS programme included all of the ♦ Complicated cooking process must not be
following EXCEPT: involved.
(a) Growth monitoring ♦ Use locally available foods.
(b) Supplementary nutrition ♦ Keep changing the menu frequently.
(c) Immunization 307. Mid-day meal supplement diet provides following
(d) Attending women during intranatal period nutrients:
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010 (a) 200 calories and 6-8 gm protein
Correct Option (d) (b) 200 calories and 7-10 gm protein
z Activities of ICDS programme include (c) 300 calories and 8-12 gm protein
supplementary nutrition; nutrition and health (d) 300 calories and 14-16 gm protein
education; immunization of children & pregnant RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015
women; health check-up in antenatal, postnatal, and Correct Option (c)
care of newborn infants and children under 6 years 308. As per the Mid-day meal programme the meals
of age & imparting non-formal pre-school education. served should supply at least...........of the total
303. The amount of protein provided in the nutritional energy requirement: FAQ
supplement program for a lactating mother: (a) 1/3rd (b) 1/4th (c) 1/6th (d) 3/4th
(a) 10-15 gm (b) 12-15 gm (c) 18-20 gm (d) 20-25 gm NCL Singrauli Staff Nurse 2019
CHO, Tripura 2021 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (c) 309. Which of the nutritional programmes launched by
304. Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY) is catering to the need the Govt. of India is to enhance admission, retain
of girls in the age group of: students in school & improve health?
(a) 10-19 years (b) 11-18 years (a) Special Nutrition Programme
(c) 12-19 years (d) 13-19 years (b) ICDS
CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2020 (c) Mid-day Meal Programme
Correct Option (b) (d) Vitamin A Prophylaxis Programme
z KSY scheme (launched in 2000) is implemented DSSSB Clinical Instructor 2017
under the ICDS project for adolescent girls in the Correct Option (c)
age group of 11 to 18 years and focuses on nutrition z Mid-day Meal Programme (MDMP) is also known
 7

PSYCHOLOGY

“Psychology has a long past, but only a

short history.”
– Hermann Ebbinghaus
 Psychology

Introduction to Psychology describes the structure of the mind (structuralism)

1. Psychology is defined as the science of? or how the mind works.
(a) Sensation and perception z He believes that the mind is made up of units or
(b) Experience and mental illness elements.
(c) Culture and group dynamics 6. Structuralism is propagated by:
(d) Behaviour and mental process (a) John B. Watson (b) William James
CHO, Haryana 2023 (c) Sigmund Freud (d) Wilhelm Wundt
Correct Option (d) HSSC Haryana Staff Nurse 2023
z Psychology is the scientific study of mind and Correct Option (d)
behaviour. 7. The first task in psychology is to carefully observe
z It has an important relationship with both biological and objectively describe:
and social sciences so it may be considered as a link (a) Behaviour (b) Social Institution
between these two sciences. (c) Personality (d) Motivation
2. Which of the following statements is correct about IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
modern psychology? Correct Option (a)
(a) Psychology is the science of behavior z Psychology is the science of human behaviour, so
(b) Psychology is the science of soul the first primary task in psychology is to carefully
(c) Psychology is the science of mind observe and objectively describe behaviour.
(d) Psychology is the science of consciousness 8. Behaviorism, “the science of behaviour” was
UPUMS, Saifai Nsg. Officer 2024 proposed by:
Correct Option (a) (a) Sigmund Freud (b) Erik Erickson
3. Psychology as a ‘Science of Mind’, defined by: (c) JB Watson (d) Ivan Pavlov
(a) Behaviourists (b) Psychoanalysts CHO, Uttarakhand 2021
(c) Functionalist (d) Ancient Greek philosopher Correct Option (c)
Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018 9. The branch of psychology that deals with the group
Correct Option (c) behaviour and inter-relationships of people is:
z William James (1842-1910) defined psychology as (a) Geopsychology (b) Social psychology
the ‘science of mind’ or ‘science of mental (cognitive) (c) General Psychology (d) Parapsychology
processes’. PGIMS Rohtak Staff Nurse 2017
z He focused on how the mind allows people to Correct Option (b)
function and how people work, play, and adapt to z Psychology may be broadly classified into pure
their surroundings called functionalism. psychology and applied psychology.
4. ‘Psychology’ as the scientific study of activities of z Social psychology branch deals with group behaviour
organism in relation to its environment is defined by: and inter-relationship of people with other people
(a) J.B Watson (b) Sigmund Freud with other people.
(c) Woodworth (d) William James z It studies various types of group phenomena such
Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018 as public opinion, attitudes, beliefs and crowd
Correct Option (d) behaviour.
5. E.B. Titchener (1867-1927) defined ‘Psychology’ as 10. Social psychology deals with:
the science of: (a) Human Behavior (b) Different culture
(a) Conscious experience (b) Science of mind (c) Religious values (d) Negative feelings
(c) Science of experience (d) Science of Soul IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2017
Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (b) 11. Abnormal psychology is mainly the study of:
z E.B. Titchener, student of Wilhelm Wundt and he (a) Normality of mind
(b) Unconscious level of mind
 PSYCHOLOGY | 847

(c) Concept of conservation (d) Ritualism Theories of Development Theorist

AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
Correct Option (c) a. Cognitive theory I. Fowler
81. Reversibility is a characteristic feature of: b. Psychosocial theory II. Kohlberg
(a) Late childhood (b) Adolescence c. Moral theory III. Piaget
(c) Early childhood (d) Infants d. Spiritual theory IV. Erickson
CHO, Himachal Pradesh 2022
Correct Option (a) Choose the correct answer:
82. Personality is largely influenced by: (a) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I (b) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
(a) Speech (b) Gesture (c) a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III (d) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
(c) Social Interaction (d) Language MNS SCC Exam 2024
UPSSC, U.P. Staff Nurse 2017 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (c) Learning
z Growth of personality is influenced by biological or 88. Development and modification of behaviour
physical factors, environmental or social factors and occurs due to:
psychological factors. (a) Maturation (b) Conditioning
z But personality is largely influenced by social/ (c) Learning (d) Thinking
environmental factors like social interaction IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2012
with family systems (parents are a model for Correct Option (c)
identification), peers, school, teacher and society z Learning is any relatively permanent change or
(social codes and culture). modification in behaviour or skill that occurs as
83. The family plays an important role in the emotional a result of practice or experience and not due to
development of the individual development of the maturation.
individual because it: 89. From a behaviourist point of view, learning is:
(a) Provides support for the young (a) A goal directed activity
(b) Gives reward and punishment (b) A result of trial-and-error activities
(c) Helps one to learn identity and roles (c) Total reaction to the total situation
(d) Reflects the mores of a large society (d) Change in behaviour as a result of experience
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (d)
84. Primary emergences of personality is demonstrated 90. Retaining permanent change in behaviour that
by the age of: occurs as a result of prior experiences is known as:
(a) 6 month (b) 9 month (c) 2 year (d) 6 year (a) Learning (b) Education
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014 (c) Aptitude (d) Intelligence
Correct Option (d)* RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015
85. Psychodynamics theory as development by Freud Correct Option (a)
saw phobia as: 91. An increase in the ability to extract information
(a) Repressed ego from the environment as a result of experience or
(b) Repressed id impulses practice with the stimulation coming from it is
(c) Repressed superego called:
(d) Repressed defence mechanism (a) Cognitive learning (b) Experiential learning
RRB Staff Nurse 2015 (c) Perceptual learning (d) Rot learning
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (c)
z Psychodynamic Approaches: Theories which assume 92. The therapy based on learning theory is:
that unconscious conflicts develop early in life and (a) Psychoanalysis (b) Logo therapy
part of the therapy is designed to identify life events (c) Cognitive therapy (d) Behaviour therapy
that may have caused these unconscious conflicts. RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017
86. Who proposed the 6 stages of moral development? Correct Option (d)
(a) Lawrence Kohlberg (b) Piaget z Behaviour therapies are based on the theory of
(c) Sigmund Freud (d) Anna Freud classical conditioning of learning.
NVS (Navodaya) Staff Nurse 2022 z Because of that all behaviors are learned, so faulty
Correct Option (a) learning may cause an abnormal behaviour.
87. Match List-I with List-II: 93. All behaviour can be said to be:
 PSYCHOLOGY | 853

JIPMER Staff Nurse 2017 (a) Objective tests (b) Projective tests
Correct Option (a) (c) Speed tests (d) Power test
z Rorschach’s inkblot test is a projective test consisting Correct Option (d)
of 10 inkblots, 5 in black ink on a white background z In the power test there is no limit of time and
and 5 in colored inks on a white background. applicants are allowed as much time as needed to
z The subject is asked to interpret each inkblot complete the test, whereas in speed tests time is fixed.
individually to know his unconscious intentions. 154. The capacity of an individual to act purposefully
z Projective tests are used to explore a client’s and deal effectively with his/her environment is
personality or used as a diagnostic tool to uncover called:
problems in personality. (a) Adaptation (b) Cognitive development
148. Rorschach Inkblots Test which is used during a (c) Intelligence (d) Skilled behaviour
counselling procedure is an example of: IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015
(a) Aptitude test (b) Intelligence test Correct Option (c)
(c) Rating scale (d) Projective technique z David Wechsler defined intelligence as “the aggregate
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 or global capacity of the individual to act purposefully,
Correct Option (d) to think rationally and to deal effectively with his/
149. What type of psychological testing discloses her environment”.
conscious and unconscious personality traits 155. Intellectual quotient (IQ) tells about:
and emotional conflicts by eliciting patients’ (a) Intellectual maturity
associations with a standards set of inkblots? (b) Mental age in relation to chronological age
(a) Binet Kamat test (b) Rorschach test (c) Academic achievement
(c) Ammons quick test (d) Abstract reasoning test (d) Mental growth
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023 RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2009
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (b)
150. Rorschach inkblot test, Thematic Apperception z William Stern’ proposed the concepts of intelligence
Test are based on phenomenon of: quotient (IQ).
(a) Observation (b) Projection z It is obtained when the individual’s mental age
(c) Identification (d) Transference (determined by intelligence test) is divided by
AIIMS Nagpur Nsg. Officer 2020 chronological age (number of years since birth)
Correct Option (b) which is the actual age of the person in years and
z Thematic Apperception Test (developed by Henry multiplied by 100.
Murray) is a projective test consists of 20 pictures, z IQ = MA/CA × 100.
all black and white, that are shown to a person and z IQ scores that start to become meaningless as the
asked to tell a story about pictures. person’s chronological age passes 16 years.
151. A projective technique which is used to assess the 156. Who among the following suggested the concept
social motives is: called Intelligent Quotient (IQ) in 1912?
(a) Kaufman Test (a) William Stern (b) Charles Spearman
(b) Stanford-Binet Test (c) John C Raven (d) David Wechsler
(c) Wonderlic Test UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
(d) Thematic Apperception Test Correct Option (a)
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022 157. Father of intelligence test is:
Correct Option (d) (a) Alfred Binet (b) Erick Erickson
152. Performance test are termed as: (c) Alfred Adler (d) Carl Jung
(a) Non-verbal tests (b) Verbal tests DSSSB PHN 2015
(c) Projective tests (d) Subjective test Correct Option (a)
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013 z Intelligence test was first discovered by Simon and
Correct Option (a) Alfred Binet in 1896.
z Performance tests, also known as non-verbal tests, z Alfred Binet was the French Psychologist (1857-
are mainly used for illiterate, deaf and dumb, in 1911) who was called the father of intelligence test.
which the individual is required to do something like 158. As per the IQ formula, a normal child is one for
solving a puzzle or to complete a picture. whom:
z Well-known Wechsler scales (intelligence tests) is a (a) Mental age less than chronological age
performance test. (b) Mental age greater than chronological age
153. Test which are not timed are called: (c) Mental age is equivalent to chronological age
 8

PSYCHIATRIC NURSING

“No man is a hero to his wife’s psychiatrist.”

– Eric Berne
 Psychiatric Nursing

Introduction to Mental Health (a) Ability to perform activities independently

1. Who coined the term ‘Psychiatry’? (b) Ability to make adjustments
(a) Johann Christian Reil (b) Erik Erikson (c) Feeling insecure
(c) Sigmund Freud (d) Carl Jung (d) Ability to cope with daily pressures of life
Correct Option (a) IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2021
2. First American psychiatric nurse is identified as: Correct Option (c)
(a) Hildegard Peplau (b) Dorothea Dicks 7. A psychiatric illness may be manifested by all of the
(c) Linda Richards (d) June Mellow following, EXCEPT:
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024 (a) Impairment in pre-existing functioning
Correct Option (c) (b) Impoverishment of feelings
3. A state of successful mental functioning, resulting (c) Disturbance in behavior
in productive activities, fulfilling relationships (d) Unpopular beliefs
and the ability to adapt to change and cope with JIPMER Staff Nurse 2017
adversity is called: Correct Option (d)
(a) Community mental health care system z Unpopular beliefs or opinions by an individual is not
(b) Community mental health considered a psychiatric illness.
(c) Mental health 8. A psychiatric illness is manifested by:
(d) Mental health care system (a) Disturbed behaviour, impaired functions and
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 poor feeling
Correct Option (c) (b) Unpopular belief
4. Which organisation gave the following definition (c) Good concentration
of mental health? “A state of wellbeing, in which (d) Mood swings
every individual realises his or her own potential, IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015
can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work Correct Option (a)
productively and fruitfully, and is able to make a 9. Warning signals of poor mental health are, all
contribution to her or his community”? EXCEPT:
(a) Mental Health Foundation (a) Continually dislike to be in company of people
(b) World Federation for Mental Health (b) Always worrying
(c) World Health Organisations (c) Afraid without real cause
(d) American Psychological Association (d) Chronic pain in abdomen
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 CHO, Rajasthan 2024
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (d)
5. According to Marie Jahoda: 10. Which of the following is the warning sign of
(a) The absence of mental illness is not a sufficient mental illness?
indicator of mental health (a) Marked changes in eating or sleeping patterns
(b) Hospitalisation is required for the treatment of (b) Thinking or talking about suicide or harming oneself
mental illness (c) Extreme mood swings (high or low)
(c) The support of the community to mental health (d) All of the given options
patients is a sufficient indicator of mental health KSSSCI, Lucknow Nsg. Officer 2024
(d) The absence of mental illness is a sufficient Correct Option (d)
indicator of mental health 11. Which of the following is NOT a sign of poor
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 mental health?
Correct Option (a) (a) Unresolved conflict
6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a (b) Lack of self-confidence
mentally healthy person? (c) Emotional instability
(d) Positive attitude
880 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

150. A subjective feeling that an experience, which is (a) Sympathy (b) Delusions
occurring for the first time has been experienced (c) Illusions (d) Hallucination
before is called: FAQ AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020
(a) Euphoria (b) Deja vu Correct Option (b)
(c) Confabulation (d) Hypnosia z A patient who refuses to eat her lunch stating that
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022 the food is poisoned is an example of delusions of
Correct Option (b) persecution because patients with this delusion have
151. A form of thinking/speech in which the client tends a very strong belief that someone wants to harm or
to wander away from the intended point and never kill him.
returning to the original idea is termed as: FAQ 157. When a patient has got a very strong belief that
(a) Centrally (b) Tangentiality someone is going to harm him, he is exhibiting?
(c) Flight of ideas (d) Confabulation (a) Delusion of Reference
AIIMS Raipur SNO 2023 (b) Delusion of Persecution
Correct Option (b) (c) Delusion of Grandeur
z Tangentiality is a thought disorder in which a person (d) Delusion of Influence
begins to respond to a question and gives a series of AIIMS Patna Staff Nurse 2015
explanations, but never reaches the right answer. Correct Option (b)
152. What is meant by thought broadcasting? 158. Persecutory delusion is more common in:
(a) Delusion that one’s thoughts are being controlled (a) Schizophrenia
by others (b) Paranoid schizophrenia
(b) Experience of thoughts being removed from (c) Manic depressive psychosis
one’s mind (d) Bipolar affective disorder
(c) Unpleasant expression of thoughts RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2009
(d) Delusion that one’s thoughts can be heard by others Correct Option (b)
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 159. In which type of delusion, the person starts to
Correct Option (d) harbor a false belief that he is an extraordinarily
153. A client has a belief that his brother wants to kill powerful person?
him. This is an example of: FAQ (a) Delusions of jealousy (b) Nihilistic delusions
(a) Delusion of persecution (b) Hallucination (c) Delusions of grandeur (d) Delusions of control
(c) Delusion of infidelity (d) Derealization AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (a) z A delusion of grandeur (expansive delusions) is
z Delusion of persecution (paranoid delusion) is a false a false belief about one’s power, wealth, talents,
belief of a client that “others” (like family members, knowledge and other traits (inflated self-esteem and
neighbours, friends and any agencies, e.g., armed self-image), e.g., “I am Lord Hanuman”.
forces, CBI, etc.) are trying to kill him. z It is mainly seen in mania and sometimes in
z It is the most common type of delusion in patients schizophrenia.
with psychotic disorder mainly in paranoid 160. Mr. Raju says that he is the first leader of the world
schizophrenia and severe mania. and he is born with a special mission in life. These
154. ‘Preoccupation with delusions or auditory are the symptoms of:
hallucinations; no disorganised speech or (a) Autochthonous delusion
behaviour or inappropriate affect’ is a sub-type of: (b) Delusion of grandeur
(a) Paranoid type (b) Undifferentiated type (c) Delusion of persecution
(c) Catatonic type (d) Disorganised type (d) Delusion of reference
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (b)
155. What is the other name for delusions of persecution? 161. Grandiose delusions occur in which of the following
(a) Infidelity (b) Passivity disorders?
(c) Paranoid delusion (d) Grandiose (a) Manic disorder (b) OCD
RRB Staff Nurse 2019 (c) Phobic disorder (d) Anxiety disorder
Correct Option (c) RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2017
156. A patient admitted in the psychiatric ward refused Correct Option (a)
to eat her lunch stating that the food is poisoned. 162. An exaggerated concept of one’s own importance,
This kind of response is an example of: power and knowledge of identity is:
904 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(c) Alzheimer’s disease (d) Tuberous sclerosis (c) Dopamine (d) Acetylcholine
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2022 AIIMS Bhubaneswar Staff Nurse 2018
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (d)
395. Which of the following lobe of the brain is affected 402. Which of the following is NOT a sign of Alzheimer’s
earliest in most of the cases of Alzheimer’s disease? Dementia?
(a) Temporal lobe (b) Parietal lobe (a) Memory loss (b) Loss of weight
(c) Frontal lobe (d) Occipital lobe (c) Misplacing things (d) Disorientation
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024 DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (b)
396. Which disease is the dementia associated with z Alzheimer’s dementia is characterized by 4 stages,
asymmetric atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes? i.e., stage I (mild): forgetfulness; stage II (moderate):
(a) Pick’s disease (b) Vascular disease confusion; stage III (severe): ambulatory dementia
(c) Jakob disease (d) Huntington disease and stage IV (late): end stage.
RRB Staff Nurse 2019 403. The most common degenerative changes occurring
Correct Option (a) in old-age are called:
397. The most common type of dementia seen globally (a) Senile dementia (b) Amnesia
is: (c) Korsakoff dementia (d) Paramnesia
(a) Alzheimer’s disease (b) Wilson’s disease IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2012
(c) Parkinson’s disease (d) Huntington’s dementia Correct Option (a)
CRPF Staff Nurse (SI) 2023 z Senile dementia or Alzheimer’s disease is a chronic,
Correct Option (a) progressive, most common degenerative cognitive
398. Alzheimer’s disease is associated with: disorder usually affects people over the age of 65.
(a) Dementia (b) Delusion z Korsakoff dementia is a rare degenerative disorder
(c) Delirium (d) Displacement that occurs due to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017 but most often seen in chronic alcohol abuse.
Correct Option (a) z Amnesia and paramnesia may or may not occur due
399. What is “sundowning?” to degenerative changes.
(a) Incontinence during night 404. A short-term goal for a patient with Alzheimer’s
(b) Stereotyped behaviour and activities disease is:
(c) Worsening of symptoms and confusion in the (a) Improved problem solving in activities of daily living
evening (b) Improved functioning in the least restrictive
(d) Unconscious filling of memory gaps environment
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 (c) Regained sensory perception and cognitive function
Correct Option (c) (d) Increased self-esteem and improved self-concept
z Sundowning (sundown syndrome) is a set of AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nsg. Officer 2023
neuropsychiatric symptoms (i.e., agitation, Correct Option (b)
drowsiness, confusion, anxiety and aggressiveness) 405. An organic mental disorder among the following is:
occurring in elderly patients with or without (a) Conversion disorder (b) Bipolar disorder
dementia at the time of sunset, at evening or at night. (c) Schizophrenia (d) Vascular dementia
400. Deficiency of which of the following AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018
neurotransmitters in the brain will cause Correct Option (d)
Alzheimer’s disease? FAQ z Vascular dementia (2nd most common type) is
(a) Acetylcholine (b) Serotonin caused by chronic, reduced blood flow to the brain
(c) GABA (d) Dopamine results from cerebrovascular accidents (multi-infarct
AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nsg. Officer 2018 dementia).
Correct Option (a) z It is marked by sudden onset, step-wise clinical
z Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is due to decreased deterioration (stepladder pattern), hypertension
production of a neurotransmitter acetylcholine in (most common) and previous stroke.
the entorhinal cortex and hippocampus, resulting in 406. Pseudodementia is commonly seen in:
a disruption of cognitive processes. (a) Depression (b) Hysteria
401. Biochemical etiology of Alzheimer’s disease relates (c) Anxiety neurosis (d) Mania
to: RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2021
(a) Epinephrine (b) Serotonin Correct Option (a)
 PSYCHIATRIC NURSING | 917

538. Abrupt withdrawal of barbiturate use could cause a z Premature ejaculation (ejaculation within 1 minute
person to experience: of vaginal intercourse) and anorgasmia is disorder of
(a) Ataxia (b) Urticaria orgasm phase.
(c) Diarrhoea (d) Seizures 543. Squeeze technique is used for:
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2014 (a) Impotence (b) Premature ejaculation
Correct Option (d) (c) Infertility (d) Priapism
z Abrupt withdrawal of barbiturate use is characterised Correct Option (b)
by marked restlessness, tremors, hypertension, z Squeeze technique & stop-start (seman’s) technique
delirium tremens and seizures and in severe cases, a are used for treatment of premature ejaculation.
psychosis like delirium tremens. 544. Gender identity is the individual’s:
z It usually occurs when taking more than 600 to 800 (a) Sexual behaviour
mg/day of secobarbital equivalent for more than one (b) Sexual orientation
month. (c) Sense of being feminine and masculine
539. Hydrocarbon, butyl nitrate comes under which (d) Sense of preferring one sex over other
group of drugs involved in substance abuse? Correct Option (c)
(a) Steroids (b) Stimulants z Gender identity disorders means the sense of one’s
(c) Inhalants (d) Narcotics being a male (masculine) or female (feminine) is
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 disturbed.
Correct Option (c) z It includes transsexualism, gender identity disorder of
z Inhalants or volatile solvents such as toluene, childhood, dual-role transvestism and intersexuality.
petrol (gasoline), glues, thinners, varnish remover, 545. Which of the following psychiatric disorder are
halogenated solvents, volatile hydrocarbons, etc. are comparatively common in female EXCEPT:
more commonly misuse by children and adolescents. (a) Transvestism (b) Bipolar affective disorder
540. Withdrawal symptoms do NOT usually occur in (c) Social Phobia (d) Anorexia Nervosa
case of which of the following medications? AIIMS Patna Staff Nurse 2015
(a) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors Correct Option (a)
(b) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs z Except transvestism which is exclusively seen in
(c) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors males, all other disorders are comparatively common
(d) Tetracyclic antidepressants in females.
AIIMS Bhubaneswar SNO 2019 z Transvestism (fetishistic cross-dressing) is wearing
Correct Option (b) clothes of the opposite sex for the purpose of sexual
541. Dual diagnosis is made when: excitement.
(a) The client has two psychiatric disorders z Anorexia nervosa is 10-20 times more common in
(b) The client has substance abuse and any other young women (between 10-30 years) than men.
disease 546. Sexual gratification from actual to fantasized
(c) The client is diagnosed to have both psychiatric inanimate objects are known as: FAQ
disorders and personality disorders (a) Exhibitionism (b) Voyeurism
(d) The client has both substance abuse and another (c) Frotteurism (d) Fetishism
psychiatric illness AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024 Correct Option (d)
Correct Option (d) z Fetishism: Use of non-living objects (e.g., bras,
underpants, shoes, gloves) for sexual gratification.
Sexual Disorders
z Voyeurism: Persistent or recurrent tendency to
542. There are four stages of the human sexual response observe unsuspecting persons (usually of the other
cycle. Which of the following is not one of them? sex) naked or engaged in sexual activity.
(a) Excitement (b) Tension z Exhibitionism: Persistent or recurrent sexual arousal
(c) Resolution (d) Plateau by exposure of one’s genitalia to an unsuspecting
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 stranger.
Correct Option (b) 547. Psychosexual disorder in which sexual behaviour is
z Normally, human sexual response cycle has 4 phases, directed to animals:
i.e., excitement (arousal), plateau, orgasm (shortest (a) Fetishism (b) Bestiality
phase; < 30 sec.) and resolution. (c) Frotteurism (d) Transvestism
z Erectile dysfunction is a disorder of excitement phase. HPSSC Staff Nurse 2016
 9

SOCIOLOGY

“Sociology is the spectacle that helps us to

understand society.”
– Deepak Maurya
 Sociology

Introduction to Sociology 9. In medical sociology discipline incidence of illness

1. The study of human interactions & interrelations, is to a large extent……by social and cultural
their conditions and consequences are known as: factors?
(a) Psychology (b) Anthropology (a) Modified (b) Determined
(c) Sociology (d) Paleontology (c) Reject (d) None
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022 UPUMS, Saifai Nsg. Officer 2024
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (b)
2. Which of the following statements is correct? 10. Sociology helps nurses to know about:
(a) Sociology is a natural science (a) Social life (b) Politics
(b) Sociology is a social science (c) Community (d) Personal life
(c) Sociology is an applied science RRB Staff Nurse 2019
(d) Sociology is a biological science Correct Option (a)
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 Family
Correct Option (b) 11. The basic unit in all societies is: FAQ
3. Society emerges out of: (a) Family (b) Caste (c) Religion (d) Income
(a) Community’s existence (b) Men’s existence UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
(c) Problem’s existence (d) Relationship Correct Option (a)
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019 12. Group of biologically related individuals living
Correct Option (b) together and eating from common kitchen is
4. The term ‘Sociology’ was coined by a French known as:
philosopher named: FAQ (a) Family (b) Group
(a) Aristotle (b) Simmel (c) Society (d) Household
(c) Auguste Comte (d) Von Wiese IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (c) 13. The primary level of child socialization is:
5. Who is considered as the father of sociology? (a) Family (b) School
(a) Auguste Comte (b) Maclver (c) Playground (d) Community
(c) Emile Durkheim (d) Kingsley Davis IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2017
AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (a) 14. Which of following statement is NOT true?
6. Which theory was proposed by Karl Marx? (a) Family is a biological unit
(a) Fascism (b) Behaviorism (b) Family is a group of person who are related to
(c) Communism (d) Socialism each other by religion
WBUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2022 (c) Family is a system of relationship between
Correct Option (c) parents and children
7. Who said that man is a social animal? (d) Family is a group defined by social relationship
(a) Maclver (b) Auguste Comte AIIMS Bhopal Staff Nurse 2016
(c) Aristotle (d) Ginsberg Correct Option (b)
AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020 15. All of the following are the characteristics of family
Correct Option (c) EXCEPT:
8. Which of the following is a suitable area of study in (a) Number of individuals assembled together
the scope of sociology? (b) Organized group based on blood relationship
(a) Business (b) Education (c) Marriage of person with opposite sex
(c) Community (d) Trade (d) Members are related through the process of
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 procreation
Correct Option (c)
 10

MICROBIOLOGY

“Without laboratories men of science are

soldiers without arms.”
– Louis Pasteur
 Microbiology

History of Microbiology drinking water, for this his studies considered as one
1. Who is known as the Father of modern of the father of modern epidemiology.
Microbiology? FAQ 7. Which of the following pioneers of microbiology
(a) Louis Pasteur (b) Robert Koch is credited with the discovery of microorganisms
(c) Alexander Fleming (d) Joseph Lister using high quality magnifying lenses (early
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022 microscopes)?
Correct Option (a) (a) Antony van Leeuwenhoek (b) Louis Pasteur
z Louis Pasteur, who first coined the term (c) Robert Hooke (d) Robert Koch
“microbiology” known as the father of medical Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018
microbiology for his “germ theory of disease”. Correct Option (a)
2. Germ cell theory was proposed by: 8. All are parts of the light microscope EXCEPT:
(a) Robert Koch (b) Ronald Ross (a) Condenser (b) Eye-piece
(c) Louis Pasteur (d) Minerals (c) Slide with cover slip (d) Objective lens
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016 BHU Staff Nurse 2015
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (c)
3. One of the following scientist demonstrated z Main parts of light microscope are eye-piece or
transmission of malarial parasites by bite of ocular lenses (magnification power 10x), objective
Anopheles mosquito is: lenses (low power 10x; high power 40x; and oil
(a) E. von Behring (b) Ziehl-Neelsen immersion 100x), condenser (contains lens system
(c) Sir. Ronald Ross (d) Elberth that condenses light before it passes through the
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2019 specimen) and iris diaphragm (control the amount
Correct Option (c) of light entering the condenser).
4. Who discovered vibrio cholera? 9. Resolution power of compound microscope is:
(a) Robert Koch (b) Ronald Ross (a) 0.2 micron (b) 0.2 millimetre
(c) A Nicolaier (d) Alexander Fleming (c) 0.2 Angstrom units (d) 0.2 centimetre
RIMS & R., U.P. Staff Nurse 2013 CHO, Himachal Pradesh 2022
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (a)
z Robert Koch devised staining techniques for growth 10. The type of microscope in which there are differences
of bacteria in culture media, known as the father of in refractive indices between the bacterial cell & the
bacteriology. surrounding medium is a/an………….microscope:
z He discovered the causative agents of tuberculosis, (a) Dark ground (b) Fluorescence
cholera and anthrax. (c) Electron (d) Phase contrast
5. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis was identified by: UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
(a) Von Helmholtz (b) Robert Koch Correct Option (d)
(c) Louis Pasteur (d) Van Leuwenhoek 11. Which of the following is the unit of measurement
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 in bacteriology?
Correct Option (b) (a) Newton (b) Joule (c) Micron (d) Pascal
6. Who found the link between cholera and AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018
contaminated water? Correct Option (c)
(a) Louis Pasteur (b) Ronald Ross 12. The images obtained in a compound microscope is
(c) Edward Jenner (d) John Snow which of the following?
AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017 (a) Real (b) Real inverted
Correct Option (d) (c) Virtual (d) Virtual inverted
z John Snow, English physician, first time in 1854 IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
found a link between cholera and the contaminated Correct Option (d)
13. Father of genetics is:
(a) Mendel (b) Darwin (c) Muller (d) Bateson
 MICROBIOLOGY | 971

(b) They are released from the bacterial surface by z Staphylococcus aureus is a species of staphylococcus
natural lysis that produces coagulase positive.
(c) They are heat-labile proteins z Coagulase is an enzyme that converts fibrinogen
(d) Their toxicity depends in the lipid component (soluble) in plasma to fibrin (insoluble).
AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017 z It causes suppurative (invasive) diseases such as
Correct Option (c) skin infections (impetigo, folliculitis, furuncle,
Feature Endotoxins Exotoxins carbuncle, paronychia, wound infection), systemic
Nature Lipopolysaccharide Protein (polypeptide) infections (bacteremia, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis,
Source Gram -ve bacterial Gram +ve bacteria & endocarditis, pneumonia, meningitis, deep-seated
cell wall Gram -ve bacteria abscess) and nonsuppurative (toxinoses/ toxin-
Location of Chromosome Plasmid or mediated infections): food poisoning, toxic shock
genes bacteriophage syndrome (TSS), staphylococcal scalded skin
syndrome (SSSS), etc.
Nature of Not secreted by the Actively secreted by
226. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by:
secretion bacterial cell the bacteria
(a) Staphylococcus (b) Enterococcus
Release of Cell lysis Filtration of bacterial
(c) Pneumococcus (d) Meningococcus
toxin cultures
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023
Heat Stable (withstand Labile (destroyed Correct Option (a)
stability at 100 °C for an hr) mostly at 60 °C) 227. Which of the following strategies the nurse will
Mode of Mediated by IL-1 Mostly enzyme-like adopt for patient with MRSA infection?
action & tumor necrosis action (a) Contact isolation (b) Hand washing
factor (c) Droplet isolation (d) Respiratory isolation
Effect Nonspecific (fever, Specific pharma- BHU Nsg. Officer 2024
shock, etc.) cological effect Correct Option (a)
Tissue No Specific tissue z MRSA stands for Methicillin-resistant Staphylo-
affinity affinities coccus aureus, a type of bacteria that is resistant to
Fatal dose Large doses are Small doses are fatal penicillin, other β-lactam antibiotics (methicillin,
fatal oxacillin, dicloxacillin), cephalosporins and
Antigenicity Poor High carbapenems.
Diseases Gram -ve Botulism, diphtheria z Vancomycin is the drug of choice in life-threatening
bacterial sepsis, & staphylococcal staphylococcal infections (infused slowly over 60 min).
meningococcemia toxic shock syndrome z Proper hand-washing and use of topical agents (mupirocin
Vaccine Not effective Specific toxoids are and chlorhexidine) on skin and nose to prevent and
available control nosocomial infections caused by MRSA.
224. Signs of a local infection include: 228. The term MRSA in bacteriology stands for:
(a) Redness, pain, swelling and decreased (a) Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus
temperature (b) Methicillin Reactive Staphylococcus aureus
(b) Increase and decreased blood pressure (c) Multidrug Resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(c) Redness, pain and swelling of the area (d) Methicillin resistant Streptococcus anginosus
(d) Increased temperature, pain, redness and ESIC Staff Nurse 2019
decreased urine output Correct Option (a)
RUHS B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 229. The drug of choice for methicillin resistant
Correct Option (c) staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is:
z Cardinal signs and symptoms of local acute (a) Clindamycin (b) Erythromycin
inflammation are redness or erythema; swelling; (c) Gentamycin (d) Vancomycin
local pain; heat and loss of function. BHU Nsg. Officer 2018
225. Which of the following is NOT true concerning Correct Option (d)
Staphylococcus aureus? 230. “Klebs Löffler bacillus” is the name of:
(a) S. aureus is related to inflammation (a) Streptococci (b) Salmonella typhi
(b) S. aureus can cause pneumonia (c) C. diphtheria (d) Meningococci
(c) S. aureus can lead to acute bacterial endocarditis RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018
(d) S. aureus does not make coagulase Correct Option (c)
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013 z Diphtheria is caused by causative organism
Correct Option (d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae, also known as Klebs
 11

PHARMACOLOGY

“Wherever the art of medicine is loved,

there is also a love of humanity.”
– Hippocrates
 Pharmacology

Introduction to Pharmacology 6. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following

1. Who is called the “Father of Medicine”? EXCEPT:
(a) Louis Pasteur (b) Lord Lister (a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
(c) Hippocrates (d) Darwin (b) Absorption and distribution of drugs
ESIC Delhi Staff Nurse 2009 (c) Mechanisms of drug action
Correct Option (c) (d) Drug interactions
z Hippocrates was a Greek physician and considered RRB Staff Nurse 2015
as the father of medicine because he was the first Correct Option (b)
healer to attempt to record medical experiences for z Pharmacodynamics means ‘what the drug does to
future reference. the body’ or ‘study of drug effects on the body’.
z A moral code of ethics conduct and practice in z It includes the mechanism of action, pharma-
medicine, established by Hippocrates is called the cological actions and adverse effects of the drugs.
Hippocratic Oath. z Pharmacokinetics means ‘what the body does to
z Susruta wrote ‘Sushruta Samhita’ and is known as the drug’ and it includes absorption, distribution,
Indian Hippocrates (father of Indian surgery). metabolism (biotransformation) and excretion of
2. Who said, ‘Let food be thy medicine and medicine drug.
be thy food’? z It is also called ADME study.
(a) Leonardo Da Vinci (b) Hippocrates 7. Match the oral drug administration term with its
(c) Antoine Lavoisier (d) Dr James Lind corresponding description:
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 1. Absorption A. The percentage of a drug that
Correct Option (b) reaches the systemic circulation after
3. What is a sociological definition of the word drug? oral administration
(a) A substance that changes mood, behaviour or 2. First-pass B. The process by which a
consciousness metabolism drug moves from the site of
(b) A dysfunction administration to the bloodstream
(c) A chemical 3. Bio-availability C. The metabolism of a drug that
(d) Ecology occurs in the liver before it reaches
RUHS (Raj.) Nurse Grade II 2013 systemic circulation
Correct Option (a)
4. Essential drug list include all, EXCEPT: 4. Entero-hepatic D. The recycling of drugs between
(a) Medicines used for emerging & re-emerging circulation the liver & the small intestine,
infections influencing drug concentration
(b) Medicines that satisfy priority health needs of a (a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
population (c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D (d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
(c) Medicines used in national health programmes CHO, Madhya Pradesh 2024
(d) Medicines for rare diseases Correct Option (a)
CHO, Rajasthan 2024 8. The rate of drug absorption is greatest in the:
Correct Option (d) (a) Large intestine (b) Stomach
5. Most drugs have a molecular weight between: (c) Gallbladder (d) Small intestine
(a) 1-10 (b) 10-100 RRB Staff Nurse 2015
(c) 100-500 (d) Greater than 500 Correct Option (d)
RRB Staff Nurse 2015 z The rate of drug absorption depends on surface area
Correct Option (c) and it is much larger in the small intestine due to
z Normally drugs have molecular weights under 450 presence of villi and microvilli, so the absorption is
Daltons (atomic mass unit). faster/greatest in the small intestine.
z Smaller the molecular weight is better because of 9. If gut motility is increased then:
easy diffusion. (a) Drug absorption is decreased
 12

FORENSIC NURSING
& TOXICOLOGY

“Forensic science is the key to solving

crimes and bringing justice to victims and
their families”
– Tom Holland
 Forensic Nursing & Toxicology

Introduction to Forensic Science (b) Can be taken in presence of Magistrate only

1. The meaning of the Latin word forensic is: (c) Taken in presence of two witnesses
(a) Public (b) In open court (d) Has to be taken under oath
(c) Of or before the forum (d) All of the above BHU Nsg. Officer 2018
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (c)
2. Which of the following is NOT a component of z Dying declaration is the statement (oral or written) by
forensic medicine? a dying person about cause or circumstance leading
(a) Observation of facts to death in presence of the magistrate (ideally)/
(b) Reconstruction of the events based on medical doctor/police/ common public (pre-requisite: 2
examination witnesses).
(c) Punishment to the perpetrator z Dying declaration comes under section 26(1) BSA,
(d) Collection of evidence 2023 (Sec. 32 CrPC).
Correct Option (c) z Dying deposition (bedside court) is recorded by
3. Who is considered the father of fingerprint magistrate/judge and oath is compulsory and
identification? considered superior to the dying declaration.
(a) Francis Galton (b) Antistius 10. Death due to medical negligence is punishable
(c) Fortunato Fidelis (d) Hans Gross under which section of BNS (2023)?
Correct Option (a) (a) 102 (b) 106 (c) 104 (d) 105
z Study of fingerprints is known as dactylography. Correct Option (b)
z Fingerprint pattern: loop (ulnar/radial 60-70%), 11. Dowry Prohibition act was given in which year?
whorl (30-35%), arch (5-10%) & composite (2-3%). (a) 1961 (b) 1947 (c) 1952 (d) 1968
z Its pattern may be permanently lost in leprosy, UPPSC, U.P Staff Nurse 2017
electric burn and radiation. Correct Option (a)
4. Alec Jeffery’s name is associated with: 12. Dowry death is defined under section:
(a) DND sequencing (b) Site-directed mutagenesis (a) 304A IPC (b) 304B IPC
(c) RNF finger printing (d) DNA finger printing (c) 376A IPC (d) 376D IPC
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 CHO, Haryana 2022
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (b)
5. Northern blotting is used for the analysis of: z Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 (w.e.f 1st July
(a) Vitamins (b) DNA (c) Proteins (d) RNA 2024) has replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC),
UPRVUNL, U.P. Staff Nurse 2021 1860.
Correct Option (d) z Important sections of IPC/BNS: IPC 304B/BNS 80
6. Western blot is used for: (dowry death), IPC 304A/BNS 106 (causing death
(a) RNA (b) DNA (c) Proteins (d) Maternal DNA by negligence by RMP), IPC 302/BNS 103 (murder),
Correct Option (c) IPC 315/BNS 91 (infanticide), IPC 339/BNS 126
7. For DNA test, liquid blood is preserved in: (wrongful restraint), IPC 340/BNS 127 (wrongful
(a) Sodium citrate (b) Potassium oxalate confinement), IPC 349/BNS 128 (force), IPC 350/
(c) EDTA (d) Sodium fluoride BNS 129 (criminal force), IPC 351/BNS 130 (assault),
Correct Option (c) IPC 354C/BNS 77 (voyeurism), IPC 354D/BNS 78
8. Best forensic sample for DNA analysis is: (stalking), IPC 359/BNS 137 (kidnapping), IPC 362/
(a) Blood in EDTA (b) Hair BNS 138 (abduction), IPC 375/BNS 63 (rape), etc.
(c) Vitreous humor (d) Femur bone 13. Section 375 IPC deals with:
Correct Option (a) (a) Rash & Negligent Act (b) Murder
9. True about ‘dying declaration’ is: (c) Kidnapping (d) Rape
(a) More important than dying deposition CHO, Haryana 2023
Correct Option (d)
 FORENSIC NURSING & TOXICOLOGY | 997

(c) Emphysema aquosum (a) Revaccination (b) Eubacterium

(d) Water in esophagus (c) Rinsing (d) Embalming
Correct Option (b) AIIMS Patna Nsg. Officer 2020
32. Emphysema aquosum is found in: Correct Option (d)
(a) Dry drowning (b) Immersion syndrome z Embalming (thanatopraxia) is preserving the dead
(c) Wet drowning (d) Secondary drowning body with special chemicals within 48 hr of death
Correct Option (c) (e.g., formaldehyde, methanol), to protect from
33. Death occurs faster in: decay.
(a) Fresh water drowning (b) Salt water drowning 40. The suction of the internal fluids, of the corpse
(c) Warm water drowning (d) Near drowning and the injection of embalming chemicals into
Correct Option (a) body cavities, using an aspirator and trocar is the
z Differentiation between fresh & seawater drowning: method of:
Feature Fresh water Sea water (a) Surface embalming (b) Cavity embalming
Size & weight Ballooned, but Ballooned and (c) Arterial embalming (d) Hypodermic embalming
light heavy AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
Color Pinkish Purplish or bluish Correct Option (b)
Consistency Emphysematous Soft, jelly-like Sexual Offences
Shape after Retained, do not Not retained, tend 41. In which year “POCSO” Act was passed in India?
removal from body collapse to flatten out (a) 2005 (b) 2012 (c) 2010 (d) 2009
On cut section Crepitus is No crepitus, UPPSC, U.P. Staff Nurse 2021
heard, little froth copious fluid and Correct Option (b)
and no fluid froth 42. Rape is defined under section of BNS, 2023:
34. NOT true about fresh water drowning: (a) 63 (b) 71 (c) 75 (d) 77
(a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypovolemia Correct Option (a)
(c) Ventricular fbrillation (d) Hemolysis 43. Following is used to document tear of hymen in a
Correct Option (b) victim of rape:
35. In case of drowning in sea water: (a) Vaginal speculum (b) Glaister-keen rod
(a) Hemoglobin increases (b) No change (c) Cylinder rod (d) Hegar’s rod
(c) Hemoglobin decreases (d) Either may occur Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (a) 44. Position of rupture of hymen in a virgin after rape:
36. NOT seen in salt water drowning: (a) 3 o’ clock (b) 5 o’ clock
(a) Hyperkalemia (c) 11 o’ clock (d) 12 o’clock
(b) Progressive hypovolemia Correct Option (b)
(c) Circulatory collapse 45. Motile spermatozoa found in wet mount of vaginal
(d) Acute pulmonary edema secretions are indicative of intercourse within the
Correct Option (a) past:
37. In dry drowning: (a) 6 h (b) 12 h (c) 24 h (d) 48 h
(a) Death occurs in few days of submersion episode Correct Option (b)
(b) Death occurs due to sudden immersion in cold 46. Test for vaginal cells collected for investigation for
water rape:
(c) Water does not enter lungs because of laryngeal (a) Lugol’s iodine test (b) Acro-reaction test
spasm (c) Precipitin test (d) Berberio’s test
(d) Seen in alcoholics due to drowning in shallow Correct Option (a)
pool 47. On examination to identify dried and old seminal
Correct Option (c) fluid on an undergarment. Which test is best to be
38. Cause of death for drowning in cold water: used?
(a) Ventricular fbrillation (b) Asphyxia (a) Fluorescence test (b) Reine’s test
(c) Loss of consciousness (d) Vagal inhibition (c) Barberio’s test (d) Paraffin test
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (c)
39. ……..is the process of introducing a disinfectant
solution to the internal environment of the body
Toxicology
when someone passes away: 48. Founder of modern toxicology is:
(a) Paracelsus (b) Galen (c) Galton (d) Orfila
998 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

Correct Option (d) 53. Hemodialysis is used in all the poisonings,

49. Cherry-red colour in post-mortem staining is seen EXCEPT:
in? (a) Kerosene oil (b) Barbiturates
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Nitrate (c) Alcohol (d) Cocaine
(c) Phosphorous (d) Cyanide Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (a) 54. Highly toxic nerve gas that can cause death within
z Colour of post-mortem staining: seconds following exposure is:
Colour Poisoning (a) Sarin (b) Furin
(c) Diaoxine (d) Metformin
Cherry-red Carbon monoxide
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016
Deep blue Carbon dioxide Correct Option (a)
Pink Cyanide z Sarin (isopropyl methyl fluorophosphonate) is an
Coffee brown Aniline, nitrites, nitrobenzene extremely toxic nerve gas.
55. Which of the following snakes are poisonous?
Black Opiates
(a) Krait (b) Russell’s viper (c) Cobra (d) All
Bluish-green Hydrogen sulphide Correct Option (d)
Deep blue Potassium cyanide z Study of snake poisoning is called ophiology.
Bronze Clostridium perfringens 56. True of poisonous snakes are all, EXCEPT:
(a) Fangs present (b) Belly scales are small
Purple Methanol
(c) Small head scales (d) Grooved teeth
Bright pink Hypothermia Correct Option (b)
50. Smell of bitter almonds is seen in: z Poisonous vs. non-poisonous snakes:
(a) Phosphorus (b) Hydrocyanic acid Feature Poisonous Non-poisonous
(c) Nitric acid (d) Oxalic acid Head scales Small Large
Correct Option (b) Belly scales Large Small
Special smell Toxins Tail Compressed Not compressed
Fruity/sweet Ethanol, chloroform Fangs (teeth) Hypodermic needle Multiple teeth
Rotten eggs Hydrogen sulphide (H2S) Bite mark 2 bite marks Multiple bite marks
Habit Nocturnal Diurnal
Rotten fish Aniline
57. The most useful bedside diagnostic test to suggest
Kerosene-like Organophosphate
snake bite envenomation is:
Fishy or musty Aluminum phosphide, zinc phosphide (a) Platelet count
Bitter almonds Cyanide (b) Bleeding time
Burnt rope Cannabis (c) International normalized ratio
(d) 20 min. whole blood clotting test
Shoe polish Nitrobenzene
Correct Option (d)
Garlic-like Arsenic, phosphorous malathion, 58. First aid, in case of snake bite includes all, EXCEPT:
parathion, thallium, tellurium (a) Transport the patient to medical facility
51. ‘Golden hair’ seen with poisoning of: (b) Reassure patient- as 70% of all snake bites are
(a) Mercury (b) Copper from non-venomous species
(c) Lead (d) Arsenic (c) Search of local popular snake charmer
Correct Option (d) (d) Immobilize the limb
52. Green colored urine is seen after ingestion of: CHO, Rajasthan 2024
(a) Copper sulphate (b) Phenol Correct Option (c)
(c) Organophosphorus (d) Cyanide z Follow the RIGHT strategy, i.e., Reassure, Immobilize,
Correct Option (b) Go to Hospital, Tell the appropriate history.
 13

NURSING EDUCATION

“Education is the most powerful weapon

which you can use to change the world.”
– Nelson Mandela
 Nursing Education

Introduction to Nursing Education vocation and social aim, character building, self-
1. The word education means: realization, leadership development, personality
(a) To bring changes development, professional development, nursing
(b) To bring positive changes research, democratic citizenship, etc.
(c) To bring negative changes 7. The actual meaning of trend is:
(d) To bring some changes (a) New change
RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012 (b) Changes in specific direction
Correct Option (b) (c) New development
z The word education is derived from the Latin word (d) Negative changes
‘educare’ which means to ‘lead out’. RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012
z Education brings positive changes in human Correct Option (b)
behaviour or it modifies human behaviour. 8. Modern trends in nursing education emphasize on:
2. Education is a process and chief goal of which is to (a) Learning by practical
bring about change in: (b) Learning by doing
(a) Societal needs (b) Institutional goals (c) Learning by exposure
(c) Human behaviour (d) Evaluation system (d) Learning by theoretical
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013 RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (b)
3. “Education is an all-round drawing out of the best z Current trends in nursing education include
in child and man, body and spirit” was said by: curriculum changes, innovations in teaching and
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Kofi Annan learning (like learning by doing), quality assurance,
(c) John Dewey (d) Pestalozzi reliance on technology, emphasis on high-tech-high-
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 touch approach, uniformity and standardization,
Correct Option (a) emergence of new specialities, etc.
4. Who stated “education is not a preparation for life; 9. It is a power of knowing or knowledge obtained
education is life itself ”? without resource to inference or reasoning, is called:
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Bertrand Russell (a) Tradition (b) Institution
(c) Helen Keller (d) John Dewey (c) Experience (d) Available facts
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013 RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (c)
5. Education is the creation of a sound mind in a 10. Philosophy is: FAQ
sound body. This is stated by whom? (a) Science of knowledge (b) Mother of all arts
(a) Pestalozzi (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Science of all sciences (d) None of these
(c) Aristotle (d) Rigveda PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (c) z The word “philosophy” derived from two Greek
6. Aim of nursing education is: words “philos” means loving and “Sophia” means
(a) Physical development wisdom, so philosophy means love of knowledge and
(b) Mental development wisdom.
(c) Vocation aim z Its main branches are metaphysics (study of
(d) All of the above existence), epistemology (study of knowledge),
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018 ethics (study of action), logic (study of ideal method
Correct Option (d) of thought & reasoning) & aesthetics (study of art).
z Aims of nursing education are harmonious 11. Which of the following branch of philosophies
development (physical, intellectual, emotional, of education deals with the origin and sources of
social, spiritual, etc.), knowledge and skill aim, knowledge?
1002 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(b) Indian Nursing Council Correct Option (c)

(c) State Nursing Council 29. In every state, the examinations for general nursing
(d) National Nursing Council and midwifery courses are conducted by the:
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 (a) Indian Nursing Council (b) Nursing Colleges
Correct Option (b) (c) State Nursing Council (d) State University
23. Which regulatory board of nurses is responsible UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
to prescribe syllabus and regulations for nursing Correct Option (c)
programmes? 30. The role of the Trained Nurses Association of India
(a) Exam Boards and Universities (TNAI) is to: FAQ
(b) State Nursing council (a) Provide registration for foreign nurses
(c) Indian Nursing Council (b) Improve the living & working conditions of
(d) Trained Nurses Association of India nurses
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019 (c) Prescribe curricula for nursing education
Correct Option (c) (d) Promote the development of strong national
24. Which of the following inspections is conducted associations
by the INC for those institutions which are found UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
unsuitable on first or subsequent inspection? Correct Option (b)
(a) Second inspection (b) Re-inspection z TNAI is a national professional organization of
(c) Periodic inspection (d) Third inspection nurses and it was initially known as ‘Association
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 of Nursing Superintendents’ which was founded
Correct Option (b) in 1905, at Lucknow & at the annual conference in
25. Which type of authority regulates the practice of Bombay in 1908 decided to establish ‘Trained Nurses
nursing? Association’ (TNA) & inaugurated in 1909.
(a) Institutional policies z In 1922, the Association of Nursing Superintendents
(b) Federal guidelines and regulations and TNA were merged and called TNAI with
(c) International standards and codes headquarters in New Delhi.
(d) State Nurse Practice Act z The first president was Miss Allen Martin and first
AIIMS Bathinda Nsg. Officer 2019 secretary was Miss Burn.
Correct Option (d) z The nursing journal of India is the official organ of
26. An autonomous statutory registration body for TNAI and is published monthly.
registering qualified nurses in India is: z TNAI became a member of the commonwealth
(a) Indian Nursing Council nurses federation (CNF) in 1974.
(b) Trained Nurses Association of India 31. T.N.A.I was established in the year: FAQ
(c) State Nursing Council (a) 1908 (b) 1912 (c) 1916 (d) 1920
(d) Student Nurses Association AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (c) 32. The ‘Nursing Journal of India’ is published by:
27. Which is the responsibility of the State Nursing (a) Student Nurses Association
Council? (b) Trained Nurses Association of India
(a) Formulation of objectives of nursing care (c) Common Wealth Nurses Federation
(b) Preparation of job description of nursing staff (d) Indian Nursing Council
(c) Implementation of INC standards of Nursing AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
education Correct Option (b)
(d) Transfer of nursing staff 33. Student nurses association (SNA) is establish in the
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017 year:
Correct Option (c) (a) 1920 (b) 1925 (c) 1929 (d) 1935
28. Which of the following is the function of the State RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012
Nursing Councils in India? Correct Option (c)
(a) To promote the development of strong national z Student Nurses Association (SNA) was established in
associations 1929, with headquarters in New Delhi.
(b) To provide registration for foreign nurses z It was established to uphold dignity and ideas of the
(c) To prescribe rules of conduct, take disciplinary profession and to develop corporate and leadership
actions spirit among student nurses.
(d) To prescribe curricula for nursing education
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
 NURSING EDUCATION | 1003

34. ............suggested the continuing education: AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
(a) Bhore Committee (b) Chadah Commission Correct Option (b)
(c) Kothari commission (d) Mudaliar Commission 42. Which among the following agencies of teacher
RRB Staff Nurse 2019 education programme provides fellowship for
Correct Option (c) teachers and project work for universities?
z National Education Commission (1964-1966) (a) University department of education
popularly known as Kothari Commission (Daulat (b) University grants commission
Singh Kothari, chairman of UGC) was set up to (c) National council for teacher education
examine all aspects of the educational sector in India, (d) State board of teacher education
except medical and legal studies. AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
35. Operation blackboard programme was Correct Option (b)
implemented to improve: 43. Which of the following is a focus area for an
(a) Teacher education (b) Primary education assessment by NAAC?
(c) Secondary education (d) Vocational education (a) Curricular aspects (b) Patient safety
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 (c) Good patient care protocols (d) Patient rights
Correct Option (b) CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022
36. In India, B.Sc. Nursing programme was started in Correct Option (a)
the year:
Curriculum
(a) 1940 (b) 1943 (c) 1946 (d) 1948
AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022 44. A blueprint of an educational programme is called:
Correct Option (c) (a) Philosophy (b) Lesson plan
37. In India first M.Sc. Nursing programme was started (c) Curriculum (d) Educational objectives
in RAK College in the year: AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
(a) 1959 (b) 1947 (c) 1946 (d) 1968 Correct Option (c)
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013 45. Learning activities which are planned and guided
Correct Option (a) by the school inside and outside the school are
38. The registrar is the head of which institution: known as:
(a) Educational Institute (b) Hospital (a) Lesson plan (b) Curriculum
(c) State Nursing Council (d) School of Nursing (c) Supervision (d) Rotation
RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012 PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (b)
39. Organization of school of nursing according to 46. A systematic arrangement of the sum total of
INC norms from top to lower level: selected experiences planned by a school for a
(a) Principal, Vice Principal, Lecturer, Clinical defined group of students to attain the aims of a
Instructor particular educational program is called:
(b) Principal, Vice Principal, Tutor, Clinical Instructor (a) Curriculum (b) Objectives
(c) Principal, Lecturer, Tutor (c) Evaluation (d) Learning
(d) Principal, Vice Principal, Clinical Instructor DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (b) 47. “Curriculum is a tool in the hands of the artist to
40. What is the recommended teacher student ratio for moulds his material, according to his ideals in his
B.Sc. Nursing programme as per Indian Nursing studio” a definition given by:
Council? (a) Albert A. (b) Albert E.
(a) 1:5 (b) 1:10 (c) 1:15 (d) 1:20 (c) Cunningham (d) Bharat
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 RGUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2005
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (c)
41. What is the eligibility criteria for Assistant Professor 48. The first step in process of curriculum development
in nursing for a B.Sc. Nursing programme as per is:
INC? (a) Establishment of purpose and objective
(a) 2 years of teaching experience after M.Sc. Nsg. (b) Formulating philosophy
(b) 3 years of teaching experience after M.Sc. Nsg. (c) Selection of learning experience
(c) 4 years of teaching experience after M.Sc. Nsg. (d) Organization of learning experience
(d) 5 years of teaching experience after M.Sc. Nsg. RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024
Correct Option (b)
1004 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

z Five phases of curriculum process: formulation the AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
statement of philosophy, establishment of purpose Correct Option (a)
and objective, selection of learning experience, 54. The approach of nursing process of giving nursing
organization of learning experience and evaluation. care can be regarded as:
49. ……….model of curriculum development has the (a) Core curriculum
following components: (b) Societal curriculum
1. Specifying major educational goals, objectives (c) Instructional curriculum
and domains (d) Institutional curriculum
2. Curriculum designing DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
3. Curriculum implementation Correct Option (a)
4. Evaluation z A set of course that is considered basic and essential
(a) Taba model (b) Taylor model for future course or a study and which are utilized to
(c) Oliva model (d) Saylor, Alexander & Lewis model solve the problem of common clients is called core
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 curriculum.
Correct Option (d) 55. During which of the curriculum process does the
50. Context, input, process, product model (CIPP institution sets the course objective:
model) for curriculum evaluation was given by: (a) Functional stage (b) Formative stage
(a) Bradley (b) Tyler’s (c) Stufflebeam (d) Scriven (c) Directive stage (d) Evaluation stage
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024 AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (b)
51. A well-planned curriculum helps to: 56. The behavioural objective model of curriculum was
(a) Develop a good lesson plan developed by:
(b) Organize the learning experience (a) Tylor (b) Lawton (c) Beattie (d) Lawrence
(c) Realize the educational objectives AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
(d) Analyze a lesson plan Correct Option (a)
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011 57. All four C’s are part of Curriculum word EXCEPT:
Correct Option (c) (a) Classification (b) Continuous
52. If a curriculum exists in the heart and mind of (c) Comprehensive (d) Concrete
education but seldom exists in reality, it is called: PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022
(a) Null curriculum Correct Option (a)
(b) Hidden curriculum z “Four Cs” of curriculum planning: cooperation,
(c) Legitimate curriculum continuous, comprehensive and concrete.
(d) Illegitimate curriculum 58. The overall plan of rotation of all students in
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 educational institution including teaching learning
Correct Option (a) activities and related events during academic year
z Types of nursing curriculum (Olivia Bevis): is known as:
♦ Legitimate curriculum: It is recognized by the (a) Clinical rotation plan (b) Master rotation plan
faculty and students as ‘real curriculum and (c) Curriculum planning (d) Course plan
approved by the accreditation bodies. . ESIC Nsg. Officer 2024
♦ Illegitimate curriculum: This is curriculum Correct Option (b)
that because of constraints of the behavioural 59. In the new education policy 2020, 10+2 structure
objectives driven curriculum prevalent be has been modified with:
graded or officially acknowledged. (a) 5+3+3+4 (b) 5+4+3+3
♦ Hidden curriculum: It is the curriculum that (c) 5+2+4+4 (d) 5+3+4+3
covertly communicates priorities, relationships RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024
and values. Correct Option (a)
♦ Null curriculum: It is the curriculum that has no
Teaching-Learning Process
content, no specific teaching-learning.
53. A type of curriculum in which the values and beliefs 60. An effective teaching means all of the following
are learned by students from the teachers, wherein EXCEPT:
the teachers will be unaware about it is termed as: (a) A teacher teaches with enthusiasm
(a) Hidden curriculum (b) Legitimate curriculum (b) A teacher puts emphasis more on teaching than
(c) Official curriculum (d) Null curriculum on class control
 NURSING EDUCATION | 1007

(c) Programme based learning RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2009

(d) Online learning Correct Option (d)
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2022 94. Taxonomy of educational objectives was presented
Correct Option (b) in 1956 by: FAQ
88. Instructional Objectives are also known as: (a) BF Skinner (b) Benjamin S Bloom
(a) Specific Objectives (b) Professional Objectives (c) Max Weber (d) Socrates
(c) General Objectives (d) Intermediate Objectives JSSHS Delhi Nsg. Officer 2019
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (b)
z Educational objectives are classified into institutional z Benjamin Bloom (1956) described educational
or general objectives, intermediate or departmental objectives into three ‘domains’ which is called
objectives and instructional or specific objectives. Bloom’s taxonomy.
z Instructional objectives are statements that will z Cognitive (intellectual skill) domain: It includes
describe what the learner/ student will be able to do knowledge, comprehension, application, analysis,
after completing the instruction, e.g., class on peptic synthesis and evaluation.
ulcer. z Affective (emotions, attitudes) domain: It includes
z The skill, knowledge and attitude that the instructor/ receiving (attending), responding, valuing,
teacher will be attempting to produce in the learners/ organization and characterization.
students. z Psychomotor/conative (practical skills) domain:
89. The components of specific objectives are: It includes perception, set, guided response,
(a) Act content, condition and criteria mechanism, complex overt response, adaptation and
(b) Act subject, feasibility and standard organization.
(c) Task, act, plan and condition 95. The student is able to perform a practical act
(d) Plan, criteria, subject and content automatically and with all high degree of precision
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020 and efficiency, having effective control over
Correct Option (a) practical skill is termed as:
z Components of the specific learning objectives are (a) Domain of attitude (b) Domain of conative
act (verb), content, criteria and condition. (c) Cognitive domain (d) Educational domain
90. All of the following are qualities of specific RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010
educational objectives EXCEPT: Correct Option (b)
(a) Relevant (b) Logical 96. The most basic level of cognitive domain of
(c) Non-observable (d) Unequivocal educational objectives is:
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020 (a) Analysis (b) Application
Correct Option (c) (c) Knowledge (d) Evaluation
z Qualities of specific learning objectives are relevant, RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011
logical, unequivocal, feasible, observable and Correct Option (c)
measurable. 97. According to Bloom’s taxonomy, the action verb
91. Instructional objectives are achievable at the: pertaining to comprehension is:
(a) Student level (b) Teacher level (a) Define (b) Analyze (c) Explain (d) Evaluate
(c) Institutional level (d) Societal level AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (a) z The commonly used verbs pertaining to
92. The objectives that are written more specifically in comprehension are identify, justify, indicate,
term of knowledge, abilities and skills to be learnt formulate, explain, judge, classify, translate, convert.
by the students are called: 98. Cognitive domain in Bloom’s Taxonomy includes
(a) Contributory objectives all the following EXCEPT: FAQ
(b) Institutional objectives (a) Evaluation (b) Synthesis
(c) General objectives (c) Analysis (d) Criticism
(d) Central objectives PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 Correct Option (d)
Correct Option (a) 99. Ability to recall signs and symptoms of a disease by
93. Objectives are the written statements of: a student belongs to:
(a) Student targets (b) Learning aims (a) Affective domain (b) Cognitive domain
(c) Personal goals (d) Desired outcomes (c) Psychomotor domain (d) Receiving domain
1014 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(a) Blue, red, green (b) Black, blue, green (c) Need small room
(c) Black, green, pink (d) Black, orange, green (d) Need skilled personnel
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017 RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (c)
175. Which of the following is true for preparing the 183. A three dimensional arrangement of related
power-point presentation? objects, models and cut-outs to illustrate a central
(a) Often use dark background with most bright colours theme or concept is termed as:
(b) Present single concept on one slide (a) Exhibition (b) Dioramas
(c) Use best possible sufficient content for students to read (c) Museum (d) Simulation
(d) Always use one or other image with written content AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (b) z Diorama is a model, representing a scene with three-
176. Non-projected aids are all EXCEPT: dimensional objects and figures in a natural setting,
(a) Blackboard (b) Video tapes (c) Maps (d) Posters so it is a non-projected aid.
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2009 z It is very effective in teaching biological and social
Correct Option (b) sciences.
177. Examples of non-projected teaching aids are 184. All of the following AV aids are a type of projected
EXCEPT: aids EXCEPT:
(a) Models (b) Specimen (a) Epidiascope (b) Diorama
(c) Flashcard (d) Laptop (c) Microscope (d) Slide projector
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019 RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (b)
178. Which of the following does not belong to a project 185. Models, objects, specimen and dioramas are all
aid? considered to be:
(a) Overhead projector (b) Blackboard (a) Appropriate aids for a speech
(c) Epidiascope (d) Slide projector (b) Three-dimensional aids
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018 (c) Projected aid
Correct Option (b) (d) Audial aid
179. An epidiascope is otherwise known as: RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013
(a) Microscope (b) Opaque projector Correct Option (b)
(c) Camera (d) Tape recorder 186. Which of the following is a 3-dimensional
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023 educational material?
Correct Option (b) (a) Model of heart (b) Charts
z An epidiascope is a projector for showing both (c) Posters (d) Photographs
transparent slides and opaque objects. IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015
z This combination of functions made the epidiascope Correct Option (a)
the ideal projector for teaching aid. 187. Three-dimensional aid is:
180. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid? (a) Bulletin board (b) Transparencies
(a) Blackboard (b) Diorama (c) Model (d) Black board
(c) Epidiascope (d) Globe RPSC (Raj.) Staff Nurse 2010
DSSSB Clinical Instructor 2017 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (c) 188. Which of the following visual aids is ideal for rural
181. All of the following are features of slide projectors community?
EXCEPT: (a) Model (b) Role-play (c) Chalk board (d) Pamphlet
(a) Overhead projection IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015
(b) Use of photographic slides Correct Option (a)
(c) A light source z Model helps to simulate a real situation so it is ideal
(d) Slide holder for rural community.
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016 189. In which visual aid the statistical information is
Correct Option (b) presented in the form of visual symbols?
182. Disadvantage of projected aids are all EXCEPT: (a) Graph (b) Poster
(a) Need electricity (c) Flash cards (d) Bulletin board
(b) Need room preparation RPSC (Raj.) Staff Nurse 2010
 NURSING EDUCATION | 1015

Correct Option (a) 196. The type of AV aid which is a cheap and easy to
z Graphs are flat pictures used to visualize numerical carry aid that is covered with rough khadi and the
and statistical data, e.g., line (curve) graph, bar cut outs, drawings and other illustration are placed
graph, pie graph, etc. is called:
190. The method which consist of series of cards which (a) Flash cards (b) Flannel boards
are flashed one after another while teaching is: (c) Bulletin boards (d) Exhibits
(a) Flannel graph (b) Flash card AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
(c) Puppet show (d) Charts Correct Option (b)
DSSSB Clinical Instructor 2017 197. Fog index is related to:
Correct Option (b) (a) Visual aids (b) Readability
z Flashcards are a set of small cards, generally 25 cm (c) Audio aids (d) Credibility
× 30 cm in size, which are flashed in succession to a AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
small group (ideally 30 people) of students/ audience Correct Option (b)
to send a message or impart an idea.
Measurement & Evaluation
191. Flashcards are ideals for a group of:
(a) 10-15 (b) 20-30 (c) 50-60 (d) 80 and above 198. A systematic process which enables us to measures
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015 the extent to which the student has attained the
Correct Option (b) educational objectives is:
192. The graphic aids with short, quick and typical (a) Validation (b) Estimation
message with attention capturing painting are (c) Evaluation (d) Appraisal
called: PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020
(a) Pamphlets (b) Graphs (c) Postures (d) Charts Correct Option (c)
AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022 199. Evaluation in teaching is very important because it
Correct Option (c) is helpful for:
193. The art of applying mock injuries for the purpose (a) To know the individual progress
of training emergency response team other medical (b) To take proper feedback
personnel is called: (c) To determine further requirement
(a) Exhibit (b) Specimen (c) Moulage (d) Model (d) All of the above
AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nsg. Officer 2018 RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (d)
z Moulage is the process of making molds or casts that 200. The first step in constructing a ‘test’ is to:
are often used as evidence in criminal investigation (a) Define the objectives of the course
or for training medical personnel. (b) Select a variety of items from which to choose
194. All of these are effective ways to use a chart EXCEPT: (c) Delimit the content to be covered by the test
(a) Involve the students in preparation (d) Draw-up a table of a specifications- blueprint
(b) Should be visible to all students RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2014
(c) Should contain all details Correct Option (a)
(d) Use of pointer when teaching 201. All of the following are common defects of testing
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016 EXCEPT:
Correct Option (c) (a) Unambiguity (b) Bias
195. Advantages of bulletin board are all, EXCEPT: (c) Unintended cues (d) Ambiguity
(a) Effective for displaying textual and pictorial PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020
materials Correct Option (a)
(b) Explains important events z Common defects of testing are triviality, outright
(c) Highlights important information to large error, ambiguity or complexity, obsolescence, bias
groups and unintended cues.
(d) Serves as introduction to a particular topic 202. Process of obtaining numerical description of the
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2017 degree to which and individual possess a particular
Correct Option (d) characteristics is:
z Bulletin board is a display board which shows the (a) Evaluation (b) Measurement
visual learning material on a specific subject. (c) Judgment (d) Assessment
z It is used as an effective educational media for a large RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013
audience. Correct Option (b)
 14

NURSING RESEARCH
& STATISTICS

“Research is creating new knowledge.”

– Neil Armstrong
 Nursing Research & Statistics

Introduction to Nursing Research high-quality nursing care, i.e., to improve care of

1. A systematic inquiry that uses disciplined methods patients based on evidence-based practice.
to answer questions or solve problems is called: 6. Importance of research in nursing is to:
(a) Education (b) Experiment (a) Build a body of nursing knowledge
(c) Knowledge (d) Research (b) Promote confidence in nursing practice
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 (c) Build infrastructure for nursing education
Correct Option (d) (d) Help in smooth functioning of nursing unit
z Research is defined as a systematic and scientific IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2013
process to answer questions about facts and Correct Option (a)
relationship between facts. 7. The use of research in nursing is: FAQ
z Nursing research is a systematic inquiry designed (a) To develop scientific knowledge
to develop trustworthy evidence for the nursing (b) To improve quality of nursing care
practice, education, administration & informatics. (c) To improve decision making
2. The most sophisticated method of acquiring (d) All of the above
knowledge is by: RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012
(a) Logical reasoning (b) Intuition Correct Option (d)
(c) Scientific research (d) Trial & Error 8. Which one of the following is the scope of nursing
MNS SCC Exam 2024 research?
Correct Option (c) (a) To develop the answers
3. Using precise methods to investigate problems and (b) To develop the assessment
arrive at solutions is called: (c) To develop the concept
(a) Critical thinking (d) To develop the knowledge
(b) Scientific problem-solving RRB Staff Nurse 2019
(c) Planning and execution Correct Option (d)
(d) Trial and error 9. All of the following are purposes of nursing
AIIMS Nagpur Nsg. Officer 2020 research EXCEPT:
Correct Option (b) (a) To increase the knowledge
z Scientific problem-solving is a structured method (b) To provide evidence-based care
of solving problems or acquiring knowledge by (c) Repeat all the previous work done
scientific methods, e.g., through research findings. (d) To find out new facts
4. A nurse midwife has to develop ………based IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2011
knowledge and practice of midwifery and take part Correct Option (c)
in research activities: 10. The importance of research in nursing is to provide:
(a) Social evidence (b) Scientific evidence (a) Quality nursing care
(c) Political evidence (d) Economical evidence (b) Comprehensive nursing care
CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2021 (c) Evidence-based nursing care
Correct Option (b) (d) Individualized nursing care
5. Ultimate purpose of all nursing research is to: RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2009
(a) Stimulate more research in nursing Correct Option (c)
(b) Improve care of patients z Integration of best research evidence with clinical
(c) Broaden one’s knowledge base practice or patient care is called evidence-based
(d) Discover explanations to theories (research-based) practice (EBP).
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010 z Evidence-based nursing (EBN) involves identifying
Correct Option (b) solid research findings and implementing them in
z The ultimate goal of all nursing research is to provide nursing practices to improve the quality of patient
care.
 NURSING RESEARCH & STATISTICS | 1025

phase, design and planning phase, empirical phase, z Criteria for selecting a good research problem
analytic phase and dissemination phase. are relevance to nursing profession, originality,
32. The first and significant step in conducting research feasibility, researchable, ethical, current, interesting.
is: FAQ 38. Which of the following guidelines is followed in the
(a) Defining research variables formulation of a research objective?
(b) Identifying research problem (a) PQRS (b) SMART (c) FINER (d) PICOT
(c) Starting research purpose AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021
(d) Determining feasibility of study Correct Option (b)
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2021 z Characteristics of research objectives are SMART,
Correct Option (b) i.e., specific, measureable, attainable, realistic and
33. Before a research project in nursing is initiated it is time-bound.
essential to: z Acronym FINER (i.e., feasible, interesting, novel,
(a) Select a problem ethical, and relevant) is the criteria for good research
(b) Determine its significance problem.
(c) Determine its importance 39. Which of the following is/are the characteristic(s)
(d) All of the above of research objectives?
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011 (a) Specific (b) Measurable
Correct Option (d) (c) Realistic (d) All of these
34. One of the important source for identification of a AIIMS Raipur SNO 2023
research problem include all EXCEPT: Correct Option (d)
(a) Nursing practice (b) Practice guidelines 40. You have been asked to formulate a research
(c) Research textbook (d) Nursing code of ethics question using the PICO format. Which one of the
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2021 following is correct?
Correct Option (d) (a) P stands for Protocol
z Common sources of research problems are personal (b) I stands for Individuals
experience, practical experience, nursing literature, (c) C stands for Comparison
theories, social issues, intuitions, previous research, (d) O stands for Opportunity
brainstorming and consultations with experts. GMCH Chandigarh Staff Nurse 2015
35. Which of the following is NOT considered as a Correct Option (c)
component of the research problem? z The PICO(T) process is a technique used in evidence-
(a) Study population (b) Research instruments based practice to frame and answer a clinical or
(c) Research setting (d) Variables of the study health care related research question.
AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017 z The PICO(T) framework is also used to develop
Correct Option (b) literature search strategies.
z Components of research problems are research z The PICO(T) acronym stands for:
design, variables, population and research setting. ♦ P - Patient, problem or population.
z An example of a research problem is “a descriptive ♦ I - Intervention.
study (research design) on the prevalence of pin site ♦ C - Comparison, control or comparator.
infection (variables) among patients with external ♦ O - Outcome.
skeletal fixation (population) in orthopedic wards of ♦ T - Time frame.
AIIMS, New Delhi (research setting)”. 41. “A study to evaluate the effect of aloe vera dressing
36. Statement of research problem should have all on healing parameters of diabetic foot among
EXCEPT: patients with type II Diabetes Mellitus”. According
(a) Variable (b) Research design to the PICOT model, what is ‘O’ in this research?
(c) Hypothesis (d) Population (a) Patients with type-II diabetes mellitus
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010 & 2009 (b) Healing parameters of diabetic foot
Correct Option (c) (c) Diabetes mellitus
37. One of the following is NOT an important criterion (d) Aloe vera dressing
for selecting a research problem. It is: AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021
(a) Originality (b) Relevance Correct Option (b)
(c) Feasibility (d) Legal problems 42. Which of the following term is used for defining
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016 the study concepts or variables, the way they will
Correct Option (d) measured in the study?
 NURSING RESEARCH & STATISTICS | 1027

(a) The dependent variable are known as: FAQ

(b) The manipulated variable (a) Dependent variables (b) Research variables
(c) The experimental variable (c) Independent variables (d) Extraneous variables
(d) None of the above AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010 Correct Option (d)
Correct Option (a) z Extraneous (confounding) variables are the factors
56. When an attribute is extremely varied in the group (like low Hb level or high blood sugar) that may have
under investigation, the group is said to be: effect on the dependent variable but which are not
(a) Dependent (b) Independent controlled.
(c) Homogenous (d) Heterogeneous z It may be controlled by using inclusion and exclusion
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 criteria.
Correct Option (d) 63. Nature of illness, characteristic comes under which
57. Qualities or characteristics that are measured in type of variable:
natural settings are: (a) Internal variables (b) External variables
(a) Dependent variables (b) Independent variables (c) Extraneous variables (d) All of the above
(c) Research variables (d) Demographic variables Safdarjung Delhi Nsg. Officer 2018
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (c) 64. A variable which can interfere with the results of
z The variables that are measured or observed in a the study is a/an:
natural setting as they exist, without manipulating (a) Causal variable (b) Independent variable
independent variables or without imposing the effect of (c) Dependent variable (d) Confounding variable
intervention or treatment are called research variables. PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020
z It is used in descriptive, exploratory, comparative Correct Option (d)
and qualitative research studies. 65. The confounding variables which may affect the
58. Which type of variables are seen in descriptive outcome of study can be controlled with:
study? (a) Randomization (b) Pilot study
(a) Independent variables (b) Dependent variables (c) Screening (d) Validation
(c) Confounding variables (d) Research variables PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (d)
59. Nominal variables are also known as: FAQ Hypothesis & Assumption
(a) Ordinal variable (b) Confounding variable 66. The expected relationship between two or more
(c) Discrete variable (d) Categorical variable variables is known as: FAQ
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024 (a) Conceptual definition (b) Hypothesis
Correct Option (d) (c) Problem statement (d) Research question
z Variables that have a discrete non-qualitative value PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022
are called categorical variables, e.g., blood group, Correct Option (b)
gender, religion, etc. z Hypothesis is a formal tentative statement of the
z Categorical variables can be further classified as expected relationship between two or more variables
nominal, ordinal, etc. in a research study (e.g., smoking cause’s lung cancer).
z Nominal variables are variables that have two 67. Statements formulated to predict a relationship
(dichotomous, e.g., gender) or more categories. between two or more variables is known as what?
60. Which of the following is a dichotomous variable? (a) Assumption (b) Interpretation
(a) Blood group (b) Sex (c) Religion (d) Height (c) Hypothesis (d) Analytical method
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (c)
61. Which of the following is a continuous variable? 68. The statement that describes researcher’s
(a) Height (b) Religion expectations about relationship of two variables
(c) Type of family (d) Gender under study is known as:
AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023 (a) Significance test (b) Testability
Correct Option (a) (c) Assumption (d) Hypothesis
62. The variables which are not the part of the study DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
but may affect the measurement of study variable Correct Option (d)
 NURSING RESEARCH & STATISTICS | 1029

81. Basic principle that is accepted as being true on beyond his or her control.
the basis of logic or reason, without proof or z Limitation may decrease the generalizability or
verification is called: FAQ credibility of the research findings; it is mentioned at
(a) Hypothesis (b) Assumption the end of study.
(c) Proposition (d) Concept 87. The cut-off points OR the restrictions the researcher
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 placed in the study prior to gathering data:
Correct Option (b) (a) Consistency (b) Delimitation
z Assumptions are statements that are considered to be (c) Reliability (d) Limitation
true, even though they are not scientifically proved, PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022
e.g., god exists everywhere in this universe. Correct Option (b)
z It is a realistic expectation that something that we 88. “The current study includes female nurses only”.
believe to be true, without empirical evidence. What is reflected in this statement?
82. The statements that are taken for granted or (a) Assumption (b) Delimitation
are considered true even though they are not (c) Research problem (d) Variable
scientifically tested are known as: AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021
(a) Delimitations (b) Assumptions Correct Option (b)
(c) Hypothesis (d) Limitations 89. Restriction in the study that may decrease the
MNS SCC Exam 2024 credibility the research findings:
Correct Option (b) (a) Delimitations (b) Limitations
83. The beliefs and ideas which are considered to be (c) Hypothesis (d) Assumptions
true are known as: RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
(a) Conceptual definition (b) Hypothesis Correct Option (b)
(c) Operational definition (d) Assumption
Review of Literature
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022
Correct Option (d) 90. A literature review is: FAQ
84. An unexamined belief or inferences by the (a) Everything that is known about subject
researcher is called: (b) An analytical summary of research finding
(a) Determinants (b) Assumption (c) All approved data on a research topic
(c) Analysis (d) Generalization (d) A compilation of all positive result of research
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019 RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (a)
85. “Prevalence of communicable diseases is more 91. Summary of the sources that discusses published
common among rural people when compared to information in a particular subject area within a
urban people”. Which type of assumption is used in certain time period is known as:
this statement? (a) Research question (b) Research design
(a) Methodological assumption (c) Meta-analysis (d) Literature review
(b) Empirical assumption UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
(c) Universal assumption Correct Option (d)
(d) Statistical assumption 92. The review of literature is an essential step of
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021 research planning in order to:
Correct Option (d) (a) Acquaint the researcher with current stage of
86. Which of the following is a term for the scope of research in the problem area
a particular research design that is described by (b) Learn what approaches & methods of research
setting boundaries at the beginning of the study? have been tried in previous research
(a) Generalizations (b) Delimitation (c) Learn the results of previous research
(c) Limitation (d) Assumptions (d) All of these
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2011
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (d)
z Delimitations are boundaries set by the researcher 93. One of the main purposes of conducting a review
before starting the study to clearly define or narrow of literature before carrying out a research project
the scope of study. It is mentioned in the initial is to:
chapter of the dissertation. (a) Determine existing knowledge on the topic
z Limitations are challenges faced by the researcher (b) Help select an optimum sample size
 NURSING RESEARCH & STATISTICS | 1035

(a) Control (b) Manipulation (a) Cross-over design (b) Post-test design
(c) Matching (d) Randomization (c) Factorial design (d) Time-series design
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023 PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (a)
154. Examining cause and effect relationship between 162. Cross-over research design is a type of:
variables under highly controlled condition is: (a) Quasi-experimental research design
(a) Experimental research (b) True experimental research design
(b) Quasi-experimental research (c) Descriptive design
(c) Correlational research (d) Pre-experimental research design
(d) Descriptive research AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
AIIMS Bhubaneswar Staff Nurse 2018 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (a) 163. In which design the data is collected over an
155. Which of the following approach is the strongest extended period during which an intervention is
for establishing a causal relationship between two introduced?
or more variables? (a) One group pre-test post-test design
(a) Experimental (b) Case-control (b) Comparative design
(c) Cross-sectional (d) Cohort (c) Cross-over design
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021 (d) Time-series design
Correct Option (a) MPESB, Bhopal Staff Nurse 2021
156. Experimental design focus on which relationship? Correct Option (d)
(a) Strong (b) Linear 164. Which of the following falls under experimental
(c) Weak (d) Cause and effect study?
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 (a) Clinical trial
Correct Option (d) (b) Case report and case series
157. Which is NOT a true experimental design? (c) Correlation/ecological study
(a) Exploratory design (b) Randomized block (d) Cross-sectional study
(c) Crossover design (d) Factorial design DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
RRB Staff Nurse 2019 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (a) 165. Which of the following are the features of quasi‐
z Types of true experimental designs are post-test only, experimental research design?
pretest-post-test only, solomon 4-groups, factorial, (a) Manipulation, control group, randomization
randomized block, crossover and Latin square. (b) Manipulation, but no control group or
158. Solomon four-group design is a type of: randomization
(a) True experimental design (c) No manipulation of independent variable
(b) Quasi-experimental design (d) Use of correlational approach
(c) Pre-experimental design PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022
(d) Descriptive design Correct Option (b)
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023 z Quasi-experimental research design involves
Correct Option (a) manipulation of an independent variable, but no
159. A factorial design is a combination of two or more: control group or randomization.
(a) Research designs (b) Research measurements 166. What is the research design called that involves
(c) Dependent variable (d) Independent variables manipulation of independent variables without the
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020 random assignment of participants to conditions
Correct Option (d) or order of conditions?
160. Which among the following is true experimental (a) Pre-experimental (b) Quasi-experimental
research? (c) Descriptive (d) Non-experimental
(a) Factorial design AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019
(b) Time series design Correct Option (b)
(c) One-shot case design 167. The data collected for establishing relationship
(d) One-group pretest-posttest design between cause and effect is called:
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022 (a) Experimental study (b) Survey
Correct Option (a) (c) Ex-post-Facto study (d) Historical study
161. A research design in which we expose two different IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2012
type of treatment to sample known as? Correct Option (a) & (c)*
1036 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

z Data collected for establishing relationships between RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016
cause and effect under control conditions is called Correct Option (b)
experimental research. 173. An in-depth study of a particular research
z Data collected for establishing the relationship problem rather than a sweeping statistical survey,
between cause and effect under natural conditions which is useful when not much is known about a
is called ex-post facto or correlational research (a phenomenon is called:
type of non-experimental research). (a) Time series design (b) Experimental design
z Question seems to be incomplete so, option ‘a’ (c) Case study design (d) Quasi-experimental design
assuming it to be in control conditions & option ‘c’ UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023
assuming it to be in natural conditions. Correct Option (c)
168. A research method to find cause and effect 174. A case study is a design used in which type of
relationship is known as: research?
(a) Operational research (b) Survey research (a) Documentary (b) Explanatory
(c) Experimental research (d) Historical research (c) Historical (d) Survey
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014 RAK M.Sc. Nsg Entrance 2010
Correct Option (c) Correct Option (b)
169. Which of the following property makes ex-facto z Based on the purpose of carrying out studies, case
research different from experimental research? study research (in-depth investigation) is classified
(a) Correlation is not found as descriptive, exploratory and explanatory.
(b) Difficult to infer association 175. The research which focuses on establishing a causal
(c) Difficult to infer causal relation relationship to its outcome is termed as:
(d) Manipulation is not possible (a) Analytical research (b) Basic research
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015 (c) Descriptive research (d) Applied research
Correct Option (d) IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2012
z Ex-post-facto/correlational research is a type of Correct Option (c)
non-experimental research where manipulation of 176. Which of these designs is used to estimate the
variables is not possible like experimental research. prevalence of osteoporosis? FAQ
z Its three types are prospective (forward, i.e., from (a) Cross-over (b) Quasi-experimental
cause to effect), retrospective (backward, i.e., from (c) Cross-sectional (d) Factorial
effect to cause) and ambispective (both forward and SSB DD & DNH Nsg. Officer 2018
backward). Correct Option (c)
170. A type of research design in which the researcher z Developmental research design is a type of non-
relates the present to the future is termed as: experimental research design, in which the
(a) Retrospective design phenomenon is examined with reference to time.
(b) Prospective design z Developmental research designs are classified as
(c) Cross sectional design cross-sectional research design (researcher collects
(d) Longitudinal design data at particular point of time) and longitudinal
AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022 research design (data collected over an extended
Correct Option (b) period).
171. When a researcher starts the study with effect z Estimation of prevalence of a particular disease (e.g.,
variable and moves backwards to find out the cause, osteoporosis) is a cross-sectional study.
it is called: z Trend studies, panel studies and follow-up studies
(a) Retrospective research are the types of longitudinal research design.
(b) Descriptive research 177. Design that involves collection of data at one point
(c) Predictive research of time is: FAQ
(d) Exploratory research (a) Case control (b) Longitudinal
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021 (c) Cross-sectional (d) Cohort
Correct Option (a) PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020
172. Collecting data from a sample to determine the Correct Option (c)
characteristics of population is the purpose of 178. Name the study in which the observations or data
which type of research: are referred to for more than one point of time:
(a) Correlational (b) Survey (a) Experimental study (b) Clinical trials
(c) Methodological (d) Quasi-experimental (c) Longitudinal study (d) Evaluative study
 NURSING RESEARCH & STATISTICS | 1039

(c) Stratified sampling (d) Convenience sampling AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019
UPUMS, Saifai Nsg. Officer 2024 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (c) z Types of non-probability sampling are purposive
206. A sampling method which involves a random start (judgmental) sampling, convenient (accidental)
and then proceeds with the selection of every Kth sampling, consecutive (total enumerative) sampling,
element from then onwards (where k= population quota sampling and snowball sampling.
size/sample size): FAQ z In non-probability sampling, researchers select
(a) Simple random sampling elements by nonrandom methods, so there is not an
(b) Systematic random sampling equal chance to be selected in the sample, it is more
(c) Stratified random sampling biased.
(d) Snowball sampling 213. In which of the following sampling technique
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 participants are chosen deliberately which is in
Correct Option (b) researcher’s judgement are representative of the
207. Selection of every 5th patient from the list of whole data:
tuberculosis patients admitted in a hospital is (a) Cluster sampling (b) Purposive sampling
known as: (c) Quota sampling (d) Convenience sampling
(a) Simple random sampling AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2022 & 2021
(b) Systematic random sampling Correct Option (b)
(c) Stratified random sampling 214. In following which is NOT under the non-
(d) Sequential sampling probability sampling technique:
DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019 (a) Convenient sampling (b) Quota sampling
Correct Option (b) (c) Consecutive sampling (d) Cluster sampling
208. Which of the following is a type of probability RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2019
sampling? Correct Option (d)
(a) Quota (b) Convenience 215. The technique in which a sample is selected based
(c) Cluster (d) Purposive on certain sample characteristics is known as:
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2010 & 2009 (a) Snowball sampling (b) Convenient sampling
Correct Option (c) (c) Purposive sampling (d) Judgmental sampling
209. Which of the following is NOT an example of DSSSB Nsg. Officer 2019
random sampling? Correct Option (c)
(a) Simple random (b) Cluster 216. Total enumerative sampling is otherwise known as:
(c) Stratified random (d) Purposive (a) Snowball sampling (b) Simple random sampling
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016 (c) Purposive sampling (d) Consecutive sampling
Correct Option (d) AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
210. The assignment by chance of intact groups of Correct Option (d)
participants rather than individual participants to 217. Which among the following is a type of non-
treatment conditions is: probability sampling technique?
(a) Cluster randomization (b) Cluster sampling (a) Quota sampling
(c) Cohort randomization (d) Quota sampling (b) Stratified random sampling
CCRAS (AYUSH) Staff Nurse 2019 (c) Cluster sampling
Correct Option (a) (d) Sequential sampling
211. Multistage sampling is also known as: AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
(a) Systematic random sampling Correct Option (a)
(b) Cluster sampling 218. Which sampling could be effective during a
(c) Stratified sampling sampling frame is difficult to identify in research?
(d) Simple random sampling (a) Convenient (b) Snowball
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015 (c) Quota (d) Purposive
Correct Option (b) RRB Staff Nurse 2019
212. Which among the following is a type of non- Correct Option (b)
probability sampling? FAQ z Snowball sampling (also known as chain referral
(a) Systematic sampling sampling) used to identify the potential subjects that
(b) Stratified random sampling are hard to locate, e.g., commercial sex workers, drug
(c) Purposive sampling abusers, etc.
(d) Multistage cluster sampling
1042 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(c) Anecdotal records (d) Life history Reliability & Validity

PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 249. An extent to which the particular evaluation tool
Correct Option (a) and technique which measures what is intended to
243. Which of the following data collection method has measure is called: FAQ
better objectivity? FAQ (a) Validity (b) Reliability
(a) Self-reports (b) Questionnaires (c) Practicality (d) Ambiguity
(c) Observation (d) Bio-physiologic measures AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (d) z Validity means the degree to which an instrument
z The collection of bio-physiological data from subjects measures what it is supposed to be measured, e.g., a
by using the specialized equipment to determine thermometer should measure only the temperature,
biologic and physical status of subjects is called bio- not other than temperature like pain or anything else.
physiologic method. 250. Validity of a data-collection instrument means:
z It can be in-vivo (measure internal process, e.g., TPR, (a) The consistency of data over time
BP, vital capacity) or in-vitro (measure physiologic (b) The stability of data over time
process from outside the body, e.g., blood test, (c) The degree of which two different forms of an
bacterial counts, tissue biopsies). instrument obtains the same results
z It is a most reliable & valid method of data collection (d) The ability of the instrument to gather the data
and also more objective in nature. that is intended to measure
244. Which of the following bio-physiological test is an AIIMS Jodhpur Senior Nsg. Officer 2018
example of in-vivo data? FAQ Correct Option (d)
(a) Blood glucose (b) Bacterial count 251. Validity of a tool refers to:
(c) Blood pressure (d) Bone marrow biopsy (a) Consistency (b) Acceptability
RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2024 (c) Accuracy (d) Feasibility
Correct Option (c) AIIMS Bhopal Staff Nurse 2016
245. The most reliable method of data collection is: Correct Option (c)
(a) Self-report 252. If the tool is given to three experts to check its
(b) Bio-physiologic measures validity, then this is called as:
(c) Concealed observation (a) Content validity (b) Predictive validity
(d) Focused group discussion (c) Construct validity (d) Criterion‐related
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2017 PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022
Correct Option (b) Correct Option (a)
246. Analysis of the results of the research study is 253. Which type of validity involves an overall look of
called: an instrument regarding its appropriateness to
(a) Evaluation (b) Implementation measure a particular attribute or phenomenon?
(c) Data analysis (d) Problem identification (a) Face validity (b) Content validity
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019 (c) Construct validity (d) Criterion validity
Correct Option (c) AIIMS Raipur SNO 2023
247. Small scale version of the main research study Correct Option (a)
which is conducted as a trial run: 254. A Likert scale designed to measure the attitude of
(a) Validating the study (b) Mock exercise the nurses towards the patient admitted with HIV/
(c) Analytical study (d) Pilot study AIDS. Which of the following type of validity of
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2012 this instrument can be assessed by its appearance?
Correct Option (d) (a) Criterion Validity (b) Construct Validity
z Pilot study is a small-scale version of main research (c) Face validity (d) Content validity
study to test the feasibility, reliability and validity of AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2022
the proposed study design. Correct Option (c)
248. Nurse researcher carries out pilot study to: 255. The phenomena which refer to the degree of
(a) Confirm the research design correlation of two measures of the same concept
(b) Confirm the sample size administered at the same time is known as:
(c) Help to modify tool (a) Criterion validity (b) Construct validity
(d) Confirm the feasibility of the study (c) Content validity (d) Face validity
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2015 Correct Option (a)
Correct Option (d)
1044 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

z The 3 main aspects of reliability in quantitative 274. A statistical calculation used for determining the
research are stability, internal consistency reliability of a research tool is:
(homogeneity) and equivalence. (a) Chi-square test (b) Split-half method test
z Stability means instruments provide the same results (c) Z-test (d) Independent t-test
when used consecutively for 2 or more times. AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023
z Internal consistency means all the subparts Correct Option (b)
(items) of a research instrument measure the same 275. The aspects of reliability of a test can be measured
characteristics. using:
z Equivalence (inter-rater or inter-observer) means (a) Kuder-Richardson formula (b) T-test
instruments give the same result if administered by (c) Chi-square test (d) ANOVA
2 different observers. PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020
268. Stability, internal consistency and equivalence are Correct Option (a)
components of:
Research Report
(a) Reliability (b) Validity
(c) Efficiency (d) Matching 276. The problem statement is included in one of the
JSSHS Delhi Nsg. Officer 2019 following section of research report:
Correct Option (a) (a) Literature review (b) Methods
269. The internal consistency of a tool or a test is (c) Introduction & background (d) Results
measured with: IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2021
(a) Content validity index (b) Odds ratio Correct Option (c)
(c) Correlation coefficient (d) Cronbach’s alpha z IMRAD (introduction, methods, results and
AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022 discussion) format is used for quantitative research
Correct Option (d) reports.
270. Approach to reliability assessment that involves z Introduction includes background and need of the
administration of the same measure to the same study, research problem, objectives, hypothesis/
people on two occasions is called as: assumptions, conceptual framework and literature
(a) Inter-rater reliability (b) Test-retest reliability review.
(c) Intra-rater reliability (d) Parallel test reliability 277. The format used for a research report is: a. Results,
ESIC Nsg. Officer 2024 b. Methods, c. Introduction, d. Discussion. Choose
Correct Option (b) the correct answer:
z Karl Pearson’s correlation coefficient formula is (a) d, b, c, a (b) c, b, a, d (c) b, a, d, c (d) b, c, a, d
used to estimate stability (test-retest method) of an MNS SCC Exam 2024
instrument. Correct Option (b)
271. In Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Correlation, which 278. A clear concise summary of a study that
equation denotes the relationship between the two communicates the essential information about the
variables X and Y? study is called:
(a) X = Y + ab (b) X = b + Ya (a) Construct (b) Concept mapping
(c) Y = b + Xa (d) Y = a + bX (c) Abstract (d) Proposition
AIIMS Jodhpur PHN 2023 AIIMS Raipur Staff Nurse 2017
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (c)
272. The relationship between two variables as the body z Abstract is a brief description (ideally 150 to 175
mass index and blood pressure is determined by: words) of a completed or proposed study, usually
(a) Chi-square test located at the beginning of the article or proposal.
(b) Independent t test z It is organized under the heading of background,
(c) Pearson’s correlation coefficient objectives, methods, results and conclusions of the
(d) Analysis of variance study.
AIIMS Rishikesh ANS 2023 279. Brief summary of research article is referred as:
Correct Option (c) (a) Micro report (b) Micro forms
273. Split-half method is an approach to estimate: (c) Abstract (d) Analytic reports
(a) Validity (b) Reliability IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014 & 2012
(c) Objectivity (d) Practicability Correct Option (c)
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 280. Which of the following reporting guidelines is used
Correct Option (b) for reporting systematic review and meta-analysis?
 NURSING RESEARCH & STATISTICS | 1051

between two nominal or ordinal sets of data or Correct Option (d)

variables. 371. What does it mean when Kurtosis is <0?
z T-test is used to compare means between two (a) Normokurtic (b) Leptokurtic
independent groups (unpaired) or from the same (c) Platykurtic (d) Mesokurtic
group of individuals (paired). AIIMS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2022
z Z-test is used to compare the differences in population Correct Option (c)
mean and a sample mean or the differences between 372. Skewness is the measure of the:
two independent sample means. (a) Symmetry of probability (b) Central tendency
365. A contingency table is used to calculate: (c) Asymmetry of probability (d) Central tendency
(a) t‐statistic (b) Correlation coefficient RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2016 & 2013
(c) Variance (d) Chi‐square statistic Correct Option (c)
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 z Skewness is the absence of symmetry in the curve
Correct Option (d) formed by the distribution of scores.
366. The statistical measure ANOVA is used to test z Distribution can be positively or negatively skewed.
whether or not the: 373. The relationship between two or more variables is
(a) Group difference in proportions exists called:
(b) Means of two samples are equal (a) Research (b) Correlation
(c) Means of more than two samples are equal (c) Hypothesis (d) Type I error
(d) Means of two or more populations are equal RRB Staff Nurse 2019
CCRAS (AYUSH) Staff Nurse 2019 Correct Option (b)
Correct Option (c) 374. To analyze the relationship between blood pressure
z Analysis of variance (ANOVA) is a statistical test and height in a sample of students, we could use:
used to examine differences among two or more (a) Paired t-test (b) Correlation coefficient
groups by comparing the variability between groups (c) Chi-squared test (d) Two sample t-test
with the variability within the group. Correct Option (b)
367. Which of the following is a parametric test used in 375. Which of the following correlation coefficients
hypothesis testing? would indicate the strongest relationship between
(a) ANOVA (b) Chi-square test anxiety and ability to concentrate? FAQ
(c) McNemar test (d) Mann-Whitney test (a) r = −1.30 (b) r = 0.80 (c) r = 0.30 (d) r = −0.60
AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022 AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021
Correct Option (a) Correct Option (b)
368. Which among the following is NOT a characteristic z Correlation coefficient scale:
of a normal probability curve? FAQ Strength of Coefficient (r)
(a) It is a bell-shaped curve association
(b) Mean = median = mode Positive Negative
(c) The curve is asymptotic Weak 0.1 to 0.3 − 0.1 to − 0.3
(d) Normal curve is platykurtic
Moderate 0.3 to 0.5 − 0.3 to − 0.5
AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
Correct Option (d) Strong 0.5 to 0.9 − 0.5 to − 0.9
z Characteristics of normal distribution (Gaussian) Perfect +1.00 − 1.00
curve are bell-shaped, continuous-type probability 376. The correlation value falls on scale between:
curve, symmetrical and mesokurtic. (a) +2 to – 2 (b) −1 to +1
369. Which is NOT a characteristic of normal (c) −0.5 to +0.5 (d) 0 to 1
distribution? Correct Option (b)
(a) Symmetric (b) Mean= median = mode 377. Which of the following correlation is the strongest?
(c) Bell-shaped (d) Negative skewness (a) +0.10 (b) -0.95 (c) +0.90 (d) -1.00
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020
Correct Option (d) Correct Option (d)
370. In a normal distribution curve, which of the 378. Which of the following correlation coefficients
following statement is true? would indicate the weakest relationship between
(a) Mean = SD (b) Median = SD anxiety and ability to concentrate?
(c) Mean = 2 Median (d) Mean = Mode (a) r = −1.30 (b) r = 0.80 (c) r = 0.30 (d) r = −0.60
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2022
1052 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

Correct Option (c) Correct Option (c)

379. What does the below figure depicts? 381. Correlation in which the study hours increase with
the increase in students’ score is an example of:
(a) Positive correlation (b) Perfect correlation
(c) Negative correlation (d) No correlation
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020
Correct Option (a)
382. Which………….percent confidence interval will
be the widest for a particular data set that includes
(a)Moderately negative correlation exactly 500 cases?
(b)Perfectly positive correlation (a) 99% (b) 95% (c) 90% (d) None
(c)Absolutely no correlation Correct Option (a)
(d)Perfectly negative correlation 383. What will happen to 95% confidence intervals when
AIIMS Jodhpur Nsg. Tutor 2021 sample size goes up?
Correct Option (d) (a) They become less precise
380. The following diagram is indicative of: FAQ (b) They become more narrow
(c) They become wider
(d) Constant
Correct Option (b)
384. It is the set of procedures used to explain or predict
the values of a dependent variable based on the
values of one or more independent variables:
(a) Regression analysis (b) Regression coefficient
(c) Regression equation (d) Regression line
Correct Option (a)
385. PDSA stands for:
(a) Plan-Direct-Set goals-Apply
(b) Plan-Divide-Study-Act
(a) Weak negative correlation (c) Plan-Do-Study-Act
(b) Strong negative correlation (d) Plan-Devise-Set goals-Apply
(c) Perfect positive correlation AIIMS (NORCET) Nsg. Officer 2021
(d) Moderate positive correlation Correct Option (c)
ESIC Nsg. Officer 2024

Notes
 15

NURSING MANAGEMENT
& ADMINISTRATION

“Management is, above all, a practice

where art, science, and craft meet.”
– Henry Mintzberg
 Nursing Management & Administration

Introduction to Management & is the function of administration and implementation

Administration (execution) of the policies or decisions is the function
of management.
1. The act of getting things done through and with
6. Accomplishment of defined objectives and getting
nursing staff is: FAQ
the work done is known as: FAQ
(a) Supervision (b) Leadership ability
(a) Administration (b) Organization
(c) Management (d) Professional norm
(c) Management (d) Control
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020
RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2009
Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (a)
z According to Harold Koontz, “management is the art
z According to Luther Gullick “administration has to
of getting things done through and with people in a
do with getting things done; with the accomplishment
formally organized group”.
of defined objectives.
2. The famous quote “Administration is a
7. In following which is the correct definition of
determinative function while management is an
administration?
executive function that is primarily concerned
(a) It is organization and direction of human and
with carrying out the broad policies laid down by
material sources to achieve desired goal
administration” was given by:
(b) It is the direction coordination & control of
(a) Harold D. Koontz (b) William Spriegel
many person to achieve some object
(c) Florence & Tend (d) S. Vance
(c) It is the activity of group corporation to
RGUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2005
accomplish common goal
Correct Option (b)
(d) All are correct
3. Management related to:
UPUMS, Saifai Nsg. Officer 2024
(a) Getting the work done from the staff
Correct Option (d)
(b) Forming policies and plan
8. Which one of the following key points is NOT
(c) Executing the work delegated by superior
philosophies of administration?
(d) Line authority
(a) Cost-effectiveness
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015
(b) Rewards and challenges
Correct Option (a)
(c) Effective communication
4. When the efforts of people are coordinated to
(d) Delegation of responsibility
achieve the desired goal is known as:
RRB Staff Nurse 2019
(a) Management (b) Organization
Correct Option (b)
(c) Administration (d) Supervision
9. The famous 14 principles of management were first
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2013
defined by: FAQ
Correct Option (a)
(a) Elton Mayo (b) Adam Smith
5. Which among the following statements is TRUE
(c) Henri Fayol (d) James Watt
about Administration?
AIIMS Nagpur Nsg. Officer 2020
(a) Determination of major policies
Correct Option (c)
(b) Concerned with direction of human efforts at
z Henry Fayol developed 14 principles of management
the operational level
are division of work, authority and responsibility,
(c) Applicable at lower levels of management
discipline, unity of command, unity of direction,
(d) Main focus on getting the work done
subordination of individual interest to general
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019
interest, remuneration, centralization, scalar chain or
Correct Option (a)
hierarchy, order, equity, stability of tenure, initiative
z Except option ‘a’ all other options are related to
and esprit de corps (union is strength).
management.
10. Who has given the 14 principles of management?
z Determination of major policies & decision-making
(a) Daniel Fraud (b) Mary Follett
 NURSING MANAGEMENT & ADMINISTRATION | 1055

(c) Henry Fayol (d) Florence Nightingale refer the problems to the head of the department
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 is called:
Correct Option (c) (a) Integration (b) Centralization
11. Principles of administration includes all the (c) Delegation (d) Functional autonomy
following EXCEPT: AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022
(a) Unity of command Correct Option (b)
(b) Unity of direction 17. A chain of reporting ranging from the individual
(c) Scalar chain of command with the ultimate authority at the top to the one
(d) Unity of collective behaviour with the least authority at the bottom is called:
RUHS M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2018 (a) Unity of command (b) Requisite authority
Correct Option (d) (c) Span of control (d) Scalar chain
12. In administration, principle of division of work is AIIMS Bhopal Nsg. Officer 2018
essential because: Correct Option (d)
(a) Workers do not like interference z Scalar chain, a principle of management, means
(b) It provides job satisfaction hierarchy must be present at every level of
(c) Administrator cannot do all work by himself organization from top (director) to the lowest rank
(d) It prevents overlapping of work in the organization (“Henri Fayol’s hierarchy”).
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2017 z It means there should be a clear line/ chain in the
Correct Option (d) area of authority or reporting.
z Division of work or principle of specialization is the 18. There should be fair and impartial treatment to all
first principle of management. workers irrespective of their job in nursing services
z This principle implies that every employee should is referred to as:
be assigned only one type of work, so it prevents (a) Esprit de corps (b) Order
overlapping of work. (c) Centralisation (d) Equity
13. Authority means: FAQ CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022
(a) Right to command Correct Option (d)
(b) Right to reprimand 19. One of the principles of the management, ‘Esprit de
(c) Right to use and abuse power corps’ means:
(d) Right to perform duty (a) Sense of wellness (b) Sense of belonging
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 (c) Sense of loyalty (d) Sense of autonomy
Correct Option (a) AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
z Authority means the right to give order or command Correct Option (b)
by a superior to his/ her subordinates. 20. POSDCORB depicts the: FAQ
14. The power to take decisions is: (a) Elements of administration
(a) Organizing (b) Responsibility (b) Principles of communication
(c) Authority (d) Planning (c) Principles of supervision
AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019 (d) Techniques of supervision
Correct Option (c) IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2015
15. A concept of organization in which an employee Correct Option (a)
should receive orders from only one supervisor is z Luther Gullick (1937), the father of management,
called: FAQ coined the acronym: POSDCORB for the functions/
(a) Decentralization (b) Hierarchy elements of management.
(c) Unity of command (d) Deputation z POSDCORB stands for planning, organizing,
AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Lecturer 2022 staffing, directing, coordinating and controlling,
Correct Option (c) reporting and budgeting.
z Every subordinate must receive orders and 21. Administration elements “POSDCORB” is
instructions and be accountable to only one superior described by:
to improve the performance of employees and to (a) Frederic Winslow (b) Luther Gullick
prevent overlapping of orders and instructions is (c) Henry Fayol (d) Max Weber
called unity of command. RPSC (Raj.) Nsg. Tutor 2012
16. One of the principles of organization in which the Correct Option (b)
power of decision making is vested upon the top 22. What does ‘P’ indicate from the elements of
level management, so that the subordinates will administration ‘POSDCORB’?
1062 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

(a) Recruitment (b) Personnel management 101. List of activities prescribed for various category of
(c) Staffing (d) Personnel administration professionals is known as:
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2012 (a) Job specification (b) Job description
Correct Option (b) (c) Job evaluation (d) Job summary
96. Advertisement and interviewing for selecting new IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2011
staff refers to: Correct Option (b)
(a) Staffing (b) Recruitment 102. Job specification is characterized by all EXCEPT:
(c) Orientation (d) Induction (a) Characteristics of employee
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2011 (b) Qualification required
Correct Option (b) (c) Primary duties
z Advertisement and interviewing for selecting new (d) Placement into jobs
staff are steps of the recruitment process. IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016
z Orientation is the integration of the new employees Correct Option (d)
to the organization, their tasks, their supervisors and z Job specification is a written statement of
their work groups. qualifications (educational, experience, skill),
97. A scientific study of all the facts about a job is physical and mental characteristics that an individual
termed as: FAQ must process to perform duties and discharge
(a) Job specification (b) Job screening responsibility effectively and satisfactory.
(c) Job analysis (d) Job evaluation 103. The process of creating a job that enables the
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2012 organization to achieve its goals while motivating
Correct Option (c) and rewarding the employee is called:
z A detailed scientific study of all the facts about (a) Job specification (b) Job design
a job is termed as job analysis (job review or job (c) Job description (d) Job identification
classification). CHO, Uttar Pradesh 2022
z Its methods include observation, interviews, panel of Correct Option (b)
experts, work diaries (logbook), questionnaire and 104. Which among the following is NOT a method for
technical conference. designing the job content?
98. The process of identifying and determining in (a) Job rotation (b) Job enlargement
detail about the duties and responsibilities of a job (c) Job ranking (d) Job enrichment
as well as the requirements of the job is known as: AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
(a) Job description (b) Job analysis Correct Option (c)
(c) Job specification (d) Job identification z Techniques of job design (designing job content)
UPUMS, Saifai Staff Nurse 2023 include job simplification, job rotation, job
Correct Option (b) enlargement and job enrichment.
99. Job analysis involves all of these EXCEPT: 105. The process of assigning a specific job to each of the
(a) Job related data collection selected candidate is called:
(b) Job description (a) Recruitment (b) Selection
(c) Job specification (c) Placement (d) Job analysis
(d) Job creation AIIMS Mangalagiri Nsg. Tutor 2022
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2016 Correct Option (c)
Correct Option (d) 106. The RPTIM model is related to:
100. A written statements, outlining duties, (a) Motivation (b) Professional development
responsibilities and work assignment is referred as: (c) Budgeting (d) Organization
(a) Job description (b) Job evaluation AIIMS Mangalagiri Prof.-cum-Principal 2022
(c) Job analysis (d) Self-appraisal Correct Option (b)
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2014 z RPTIM (readiness, planning, training,
Correct Option (a) implementation and maintenance) model is a
z Job description is a clear, concise written statement, professional staff development model, created by
which outlines duties, responsibilities and work Woods, Thompson and Russell.
assignment or activities for a particular job or 107. Staff development includes all the following
position. EXCEPT: FAQ
z It includes job title and location, job summary, job (a) In-service education
duties, working condition and environment and (b) Case presentation
performance standards.
 NURSING MANAGEMENT & ADMINISTRATION | 1073

(b) Retrospective Evaluation consumption value.

(c) Concurrent Evaluation ♦ ‘A’ items are small in number (10%), but high in
(d) Quality Assurance cost (70%).
RRB Staff Nurse 2019 ♦ ‘B’ items are medium in number (20%) and
Correct Option (b) moderate in cost (20%).
z Retrospective audit is looking back at what has ♦ ‘C’ items are large in number (70%), but less in
happened in the past, this type of audit carried out cost (10%).
by use of records maintained by nurses after the 237. Which is the basis of ABC analysis in inventory
discharge of the patients. control? FAQ
z Concurrent or prospective audit is performed during (a) Criticality of items
caregiving (directly observed). (b) Annual consumption value
231. Advantages of nursing audits are all EXCEPT: (c) Procurement difficulty of items
(a) Results are easily communicated for (d) Unit cost of items
improvement RRB Staff Nurse 2019
(b) Can be used in all areas of nursing service Correct Option (b)
(c) It is time consuming 238. An item which can be included in ‘A’ item in ABC
(d) Nurses can be involved in conducting audits analysis in inventory control:
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2017 (a) Gauze bundle (b) Syringe & needles
Correct Option (c) (c) MRI Machine (d) Bed linen
AIIMS Mangalagiri Staff Nurse 2018
Material Management (Inventory)
Correct Option (c)
232. Detailed list of all materials, their specification and 239. ABC analysis of store items B stands for:
quantity is known as: (a) Low cost centre
(a) Stock list (b) Inventory (b) Intermediate cost centre which is need
(c) Stocking (d) Demand estimation reasonably
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2012 (c) High cost centre
Correct Option (b) (d) None of the above
233. Checking the equipment and supplies periodically RAK M.Sc. Nsg. Entrance 2013
is known as: Correct Option (b)
(a) Item analysis (b) Investigation 240. In ABC analysis, which of the items are frequently
(c) Inventory (d) Indent used and purchased in large quantities?
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2022 (a) Vital items (b) B items
Correct Option (c) (c) C items (d) A items
234. Clinical information, such as order sets and patient AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019
education material, should be reviewed at least: Correct Option (c)
(a) Monthly (b) Annually 241. What is the main purpose of ABC analysis in
(c) Biennially (d) Biannually material management?
AIIMS Nagpur Nsg. Officer 2020 (a) To control purchasing
Correct Option (c) (b) To control inventories
235. In material management, the period in days that (c) To control obsolescence
elapses between placing an order and receiving in (d) To determine stocking
the stores is termed as: AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Officer 2019
(a) Economic order quantity (b) Lead time Correct Option (b)
(c) Quantity survey (d) Reorder time 242. An inventory control technique which is focusing
PhD (Nursing) IGNOU Entrance 2020 on the degree of criticality of the items is called:
Correct Option (b) (a) ABC analysis (b) VED analysis
236. ABC analysis for inventory control is based on: (c) FSN analysis (d) SDE analysis
(a) Storing criteria (b) Item criteria AIIMS Raipur Nsg. Tutor 2023
(c) Cost criteria (d) Issuing criteria Correct Option (b)
IGNOU B.Sc. (PB) Nsg. Entrance 2011 243. Which of the following inventory control method
Correct Option (c) is based on the criteria of rate of consumption of
z ABC (Always, Better, Control) analysis for inventory the items?
control is based on cost factor and their annual (a) ABC Analysis (Always, Better, Control)
 References

Potter PA, Perry AG, Hall A, Stockert PA (2020). Fundamentals of Malarvizhi S, Renuka K. Black’s (2019). Medical-Surgical Nursing
nursing. (11th ed.). St. Louis, Miissouri: Elsevier. (1st ed.). Elsevier.
Taylor C, Lillis C, LeMone P (2018). Fundamentals of nursing: the Lewis SM, Dirksen SR, Heitkemper MM, Bucher L, Harding M
art and science of nursing care (9th ed.). Wolters Kluwer. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: assessment and management
Yoost BL, Crawford LR. (2022). Fundamentals of nursing: active of clinical problems (9th ed.). St. Louis, Missouri: Elsevier/
learning for collaborative practice (3rd ed.). St. Louis, Missouri: Mosby.
Elsevier. Corbett JV, Banks AD (2013). Laboratory tests and diagnostic
Berman A, Snyder S, Frandsen G. Kozier & Erb’s (2021). procedures: with nursing diagnoses (8th ed.). Upper Saddle
Fundamentals of nursing: concepts, process, and practice (11th River, N.J: Pearson.
ed.). Hoboken, New Jersey: Pearson. Timby BK, Smith NE (2017). Introductory medical-surgical
Altman G, Buchsel PC, Coxon V. Delmar’s (2009). Fundamental nursing (12th ed.). Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health/
& advanced nursing skills (3rd ed.). Albany, NY: Delmar. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
Smith SF, Duell D, Martin B (2016). Clinical nursing skills: basic Williams LS, Hopper PD (2022). Understanding Medical-Surgical
to advanced skills (9th ed.). Boston: Pearson. Nursing (7th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: F.A. Davis Co.
DeLaune SC, Ladner PK (2011). Fundamentals of nursing: Paul VK. (2023). Ghai Essential Pediatrics (10th ed.). New Delhi:
standards & practice (4th ed.). Clifton Park, NY: Delmar CBS Publ & Dist Pvt Ltd.
Cengage Learning. Datta P. (2023). Pediatric Nursing (6th ed.). New Delhi: JAYPEE
Kee JL, Marshall SM, Woods K, Forrester MC (2022). Clinical Brothers Medical P.
calculations: with applications to general and specialty areas Gupte S. (2020). The Short textbook of pediatrics (13th ed.). New
(10th ed.). St. Louis, Missouri: Elsevier. Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers.
Lynn PB, Taylor C, Lynn PB (2011). Taylor’s handbook of clinical Hockenberry MJ, Wilson D (2018). Wong’s nursing care of infants
nursing skills (18th ed.). Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer/ and children (11th ed.). St. Louis, Missouri: Elsevier.
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. Goel KM, Gupta DK, Stephenson T. (2012). Hutchison’s
Rosdahl CB, Kowalski MT (2016). Textbook of basic nursing paediatrics (2nd ed.). New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical.
(11th ed.). Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health/Lippincott Ball J, Bindler RM, Cowen KJ, Shaw MR. (2017). Principles of
Williams & Wilkins. pediatric nursing: caring for children (7th ed.). Hoboken, NJ:
Stephanie, Nancy (2023). Principles and practice of nursing (8th Pearson Education.
ed.). Indore, India: Sole distributors, N.R. Brothers : N.R. Pub. Kliegman R, Behrman RE, Nelson WE (2024). Nelson textbook of
House. pediatrics (22nd ed.). Phialdelphia, PA: Elsevier.
Tortora GJ, Derrickson B (2020). Principles of anatomy and Magill-Cuerden J, MacDonald S. (2023). Mayes’ Midwifery: a
physiology (16th ed.). Hoboken: Wiley. Textbook for Midwives (16th ed.). Edinburgh: Bailliere-Tindall.
Waugh A, Grant A. (2022). Ross and Wilson anatomy and Marshall JE, Raynor MD (2020). Myles textbook for midwives
physiology in health and illness (14th ed.). London: W.B. (17th ed.). Edinburgh; New York: Saunders/Elsevier.
Saunders Company. Lowdermilk DL, Perry SE, Cashion K, Alden KR, Olshansky EF
BD Chaurasia’s (2024). Human anatomy (10th ed.): Vol-1, 2, 3, 4. (2024). Maternity & women’s health care (13th ed.). St. Louis,
New Delhi: CBS Publishers. MO: Elsevier.
Sembulingam K, Sembulingam P (2019). Essentials of medical Dutta DC, Konar H. DC (2024). Dutta’s textbook of gynecology:
physiology (8th ed.). New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Pub. including contraception (9th ed.). New Delhi: Jaypee, The
Barrett KE, Boitano S, Barman SM, Brooks HL, Ganong WF Health Sciences Publisher.
(2019). Ganong’s review of medical physiology (26th ed.). New Shaw W, Shaw W, Padubidri V, Daftary S, Howkins J, Bourne G.
York, NY: McGraw-Hill. (2022). Shaw’s textbook of gynaecology (18th ed.). St. Louis,
Hall JE, Guyton AC (2021). Guyton and Hall textbook of medical Missouri: Elsevier.
physiology (14th ed.). Philadelphia, Pa: Saunders/Elsevier. Gorrie TM, McKinney ES, Murray SS (2018). Foundations of
Farrell M, Smeltzer SCO, Bare BG (2017). Smeltzer & Bare’s maternal-newborn nursing (7th ed.). Philadelphia: Saunders.
textbook of medical-surgical nursing (4th ed.): Volume 1 and Dutta DC, Konar H. DC (2023). Dutta’s textbook of obstetrics:
2. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. including perinatology and contraception (10th ed.). New
Hinkle JL, Cheever KH (2021). Brunner & Suddarth’s textbook Delhi: Jaypee, The Health Sciences Publisher.
of medical-surgical nursing (15th ed.). Philadelphia: Wolters Hoffman BL, Schorge JO, Schaffer JI, Halvorson LM, Bradshaw
Kluwer Health/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. KD, Cunningham FG (2020). Williams gynecology (4th ed.).
Ignatavicius DD, Workman ML, Rebar CR, Heimgartner NM New York Chicago San Francisco: McGraw-Hill Medical.
(2024). Medical-surgical nursing: concepts for interprofessional Cunningham FG (2022). Williams obstetrics (26th ed.). New
collaborative care (11th ed.). St. Louis, Missouri: Elsevier. York: McGraw-Hill.
1080 | TURNING POINT–NURSING (MCQs)

Ladewig PW, London ML, Davidson MR. (2017). Contemporary Shanbhag T, Shenoy S. (2015). Pharmacology: Prep Manual for
maternal-newborn nursing care (9th ed.). Boston: Pearson. Undergraduates (3rd ed.). New Delhi: Elsevier.
Park K. (2023). Park’s textbook of preventive and social medicine Venkatesan L, Joshi P. (2015). Textbook of Nursing Education (1st
(27th ed.). Jabalpur: M/S Banarsidas Bhanot. ed.). New Delhi: Elsevier.
Suryakantha AH. (2021). Community medicine with recent Sankaranarayanan B SB. (2012). Learning and Teaching Nursing
advances (6th ed.). New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical. (4th ed.). Jaypee Brothers Medical Publisher (P) Ltd.
Roy RN, Saha I, Gupta MC, Mahajan BK. (2013). Mahajan & Sudha R. (2021). Nursing education: principles and concepts (2nd
Gupta Textbook of preventive and social medicine (4th ed.). ed.). New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers.
New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Pub. Neeraja (2021). Textbook of nursing education (2nd ed.). New
Singh R. (2020). Food & Nutrition for Nurses: B.Sc nursing (2nd Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers.
ed.). New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical P. Polit DF, Beck CT. (2004). Nursing research: principles and
Venkatraman S. (2019). Nutrition for nurses (1st ed.). New Delhi: methods (7th ed.). Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams &
Elsevier. Wilkins.
Margaretta Craig BDB. (2023). Bhatia and craig’s elements of Sharma SK. (2022). Nursing research and statistics (4th ed.). New
psychology and mental hygiene for nurses in india (5th ed.). Delhi: Elsevier.
Orient Blackswan Pvt Ltd. Vati J. (2020). Principles and Practice of Nursing Management
Sreevani R. (2021). Psychology For Nurses: as per INC syllabus and Administration for B.Sc and M.Sc Nursing (2nd ed.). New
(4th ed.). New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical P. Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers.
Townsend MC. (2020). Psychiatric mental health nursing: concepts Marriner-Tomey A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and
of care in evidence-based practice (9th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. leadership (8th ed.). St. Louis: Mosby Elsevier.
Davis. Clement I. (2020). Management of nursing services and education
Keltner NL, Steele D. (2024). Psychiatric nursing (9th ed.). St. (3rd ed.). New Delhi: Elsevier.
Louis, Missouri: Elsevier/Mosby. Basavanthappa BT. (2014). Nursing administration (3rd ed.). New
Stuart GW. (2013). Principles and practice of psychiatric nursing Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers.
(10th ed.). Maryland Heights, Mo: Elsevier Saunders. Dash M. (2015). Ward management and administration for
Ahuja N. (2011). A short textbook of psychiatry (7th ed.). New nurses (1st ed.). New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers
Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Pub. (P) Ltd.
Fortinash KM, Holoday-Worret PA (2012). Psychiatric mental Venes D. (2021). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (24th ed.).
health nursing (5th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier Mosby. Philadelphia: F.A. Davis.
Indrani TK. (2023). Textbook of sociology for nurses (3rd ed.). Biswas, Gautam. Review of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology:
New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Pub. Including Clinical & Pathological Aspects. 6th ed. New Delhi:
Lohumi S. (2023). Sociology for Nurses (3rd ed.). New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers, 2015.
Elsevier. Reddy, K. S. Narayan. (2017). Essentials of Forensic Medicine and
C.K. Jaya Ram Paniker RA. (2022). Ananthanarayan and Paniker’s Toxicology (24th ed.): Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers.
Textbook of Microbiology (12th ed.). Orient Blackswan Pvt Ltd.
Bhatia R. (2008). Essentials of medical microbiology (4th ed.). https://nhm.gov.in/
New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Pub. https://censusindia.gov.in/vital_statistics/SRS_Bulletins/
Kumar S. (2016). Essentials of microbiology (1st ed.). New Delhi: Bulletins.
Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers. https://www.cdc.gov/
Murray PR, Rosenthal KS, Pfaller MA. (2020). Medical https://cpr.heart.org
microbiology (9th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier. https://www.acog.org/
Tripathi KD. (2018). Essentials of medical pharmacology (8th https://www.ruhsraj.org/cms/uploads/2019/10/MSc_Nursing_
ed.). New Delhi: Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P), Ltd. Question_Paper.pdf
Lilley LL, Collins SR, Snyder JS, Savoca D. (2022). Pharmacology https://dsssb.delhi.gov.in/
and the nursing process (10th ed.). St. Louis, Mo: Mosby. https://www.aiimsjodhpur.edu.in/
Katzung BG (2024). Basic & clinical pharmacology. (16th ed.) https://www.prncfet.com/p/previous-staff-nurse-exams-papers-
New Delhi: McGraw-Hill Education. staff.html
https://www.nursingofficer.in/

      
 TURNING POINT
MSc Nursing
Entrance Exam Guide
(MCQs with Rationale Including IBQs & CBQs)

Salient Features
An exclusive and complete coverage of AIIMS, AMRU, BFUHS, IGNOU, JIPMER, NIMHANS, PGIMER,
PGIMS, RAK, RGUHS, RUHS, WBUHS and All State MSc Nursing, BSc (Post-Basic) Nursing, Nursing Faculty
and PhD Entrance Exams.

The concept and founda�on of Turning Point-Nursing (MCQs) is completely based on compe��ve
grounds and is prepared by a team of nursing experts who have decades of experience in compe��ve
exams.

Turning Point-Nursing is a compila�on of 9999+ subject-wise and topic-wise MCQs with a high-yield,
including IBQs & CBQs of previous 20+ year’s exams with compact and comprehensive ra�onale.

Maximum possible content has been covered from all the nursing subjects, so that the student/reader
does not need to look into a plethora of books-in a sense it is ‘all in one approach’.

Well-explained ques�ons with the help of infographics, figures, tables and illustra�ons.

Data and informa�on provided in the book are the utmost correct and based on the latest guidelines and
evidence-based prac�ces.

About the Author

M. L. CHOUDHARY, D. Pharm, M.Sc. Nsg. (Pediatrics), AIIMS (Ex- Principal, Bansal School
of Nursing, Hanumangarh), is an award-winning author with over 20 years teaching experience
in various capaci�es and currently working at the All India Ins�tute of Medical Sciences, New
Delhi. He is a Postgraduate in Pediatric Nursing from AIIMS, New Delhi. He is a trained IAP-BLS
provider and has completed FBNC (WHO-SEARO). He has published numerous research papers
in na�onal and interna�onal journals of repute.

PRIME PUBLICATION ISBN: 978-81-954651-6-3

Faridabad, Haryana (121004), India

Phone: +91-9999077294, +91-7827712994
E-mail: primepublication21@gmail.com
QR Code to Access
Website: www.primepublication.in Website & Catalogue