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UT Question 2024 - 1-General

The document outlines an ultrasonic testing (UT) examination consisting of 40 general and 20 specific questions, designed for ASNT Level II certification, with a total time limit of 2 hours. It includes various questions related to ultrasonic testing principles, techniques, and materials, covering topics such as wave propagation, attenuation, and probe characteristics. The document serves as a preparatory resource for candidates taking the UT exam in 2024.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
118 views7 pages

UT Question 2024 - 1-General

The document outlines an ultrasonic testing (UT) examination consisting of 40 general and 20 specific questions, designed for ASNT Level II certification, with a total time limit of 2 hours. It includes various questions related to ultrasonic testing principles, techniques, and materials, covering topics such as wave propagation, attenuation, and probe characteristics. The document serves as a preparatory resource for candidates taking the UT exam in 2024.

Uploaded by

ajitkumarakr03
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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METHOD : ULTRASONIC TESTING - UT

GENERAL AND SPECIFIC EXAM : 40 QUESTIONS AND 20 QUESTIONS

TIME : 2 Hours

LEVEL : ASNT LEVEL II

QUESTION PAPER NUMBER : INNO/UT/2024/1 Rev 0

GENERAL EXAMINATION

1. The indication on the cathode ray tube which represents the far boundary of the
material being tested is called:
A. Hash
B. The initial pulse
C. The main bang
D. The back surface reflection

2. If a probe frequency with 2 MHz and 10 mm diameter is used, find the wave length
in steel for longitudinal wave testing. (VL. STEEL 5.9 mm/µs) :
A. 0.5 mm
B. 3.0 mm
C. 1 mm
D. 2 mm

3. Pulse echo technique is based on the principle of :


A. Magnetic induction
B. Electromagnetic induction
C. Piezoelectric effect
D. Reflection of ultrasound due to change in acoustic impedance

4. The piezoelectric material in a search unit which vibrates to produce ultrasonic


waves is called a:
A. Backing material
B. Lucite wedge
C. Crystal
D. Couplant

5. In immersion testing, the position of the search unit often varied to transmit sound
into the test part at various angles to the front surface. Such a procedure is referred to as:
A. Angulation
B. Dispersion
C. Reflection testing
D. Refraction
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6. The velocity of surface waves is approximately of the velocity of longitudinal waves
in the same material.
A. 50%
B. 100%
C. 45%
D. 90%

7. Under most circumstances, which of the following frequencies would result in the
best surface resolving power?
A. 1 MHz
B. 15 MHz
C. 10 MHz
D. 20 MHz

8. In contact testing, the entry surface indication is sometimes referred to as:


A. The initial pulse
B. The main bang or transmitter pulse
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

9. The number of complete waves which pass a given point in a given period of time is
referred to as the:
A. Amplitude of a wave motion
B. Pulse length of a wave motion
C. Frequency of a wave motion
D. Wavelength of a wave motion

10. A piezoelectric material can:


A. Convert a mechanical strain to an electrical output
B. Convert an electrical pulse to a mechanical energy
C. Be used in the construction of search units.
D. All of the above

11. A 25 MHz search unit would most likely be used during:


A. Straight beam contact testing
B. Immersion testing
C. Angle beam contact testing
D. Surface wave contact testing

12. The gradual loss of sonic energy as the ultrasonic vibrations travel through the
material is referred to as:
A. Reflection
B. Refraction
C. Diffraction
D. Attenuation

2
13. When testing a plate, increasing the frequency of an ultrasonic longitudinal wave
will result in:
A. An increase in its velocity
B. A decrease in its velocity
C. No change in its velocity
D. A decrease in its velocity if diameter of probe decreases

14. A term used to describe the ability of an ultrasonic testing system to distinguish
between the entry surface response and the response of discontinuities near the entry
surface is:
A. Sensitivity
B. Penetration
C. Subtraction
D. Resolution

15. Which of the following probes would contain the thickest crystal?
A. 1.5 MHz probe
B. 0.5 MHz probe
C. 2.5 MHz probe
D. 25 MHz probe

16. The interference field near the face of a transducer is often referred to as the:
A. Fresnel zone
B. Fraunhofer zone
C. High zone
D. Reflection zone

17. When inspecting coarse-grained material, which of the following frequencies will
generate a sound wave that will be most easily scattered by the grain structure?
A. 1500 Hz
B. 2.5 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 25 KHz

18. In a material with a given velocity, when frequency is increased, the wavelength will:
A. One-half
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D. Double

19. Rough entry surface conditions can result in:


A. A loss of echo amplitude from discontinuities.
B. An increase in the width of the front surface echo
C. A decrease in the width of the front surface echo
D. Both A and B

3
20. If a 1 MHz transducer is substituted for a 2 MHz transducer, what would be the
effect on the Wave length of a longitudinal mode wave produced in the test specimen?
A. The wavelength would be longer
B. The wavelength would remain constant
C. The wavelength would be shorter
D. The wavelength would vary directly with the acoustic impedance

21. In a liquid medium, the only mode of vibration that can exist is:
A. Longitudinal
B. Shear
C. Surface
D. Both A and B

22. The product of the sound velocity and the density of a material is known as the:
A. Reflection value of the material
B. Acoustic impedance of the material
C. Elastic constant of the material
D. Penetration depth of the material

23. What kind of waves travel at a velocity slightly less than shear waves and their
modes of propagation are both longitudinal and transverse with respect to the surface?
A. Rayleigh waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Lamb waves
D. Longitudinal waves

24. In an ultrasonic instrument, the number of pulses produced by an instrument in a


given period of time is known as the:
A. Pulse length
B. Pulse recovery time
C. Frequency
D. Pulse width

25. An ultrasonic longitudinal wave travels in aluminum with a velocity of 6.35 Km/s and
has a frequency of 1 MHz. The wavelength of this ultrasonic wave is:
A. 6.35 mm (0.25 in.)
B. 78 mm (3.1 in.)
C. 1.9 m (6.35 ft)
D. 31700 A°

26. In which medium listed below would the velocity of sound be lowest?
A. Air
B. Water
C. Aluminum
D. Plastic

4
27. In contact testing, discontinuities near the entry surface cannot always be detected
because of:
A. Dead zone
B. Attenuation
C. Scattering
D. Refraction

28. When inspecting aluminum by the immersion method using water for a couplant, the
following information is known. (Velocity of sound in water = 1.49 mm/s, velocity of
longitudinal waves in aluminum 6.32 mm/s). Angle of incidence 5º. The angle of refraction
for longitudinal wave is approximately:
A. 22°
B. 18°
C. 26°
D. 16°

29. Notches are frequently used as reference reflectors for:


A. Determining near-surface resolutions
B. Area amplitude calibration
C. Thickness calibration of plate
D. Distance amplitude calibration for shear waves

30. Angle beam testing of plate will often miss:


A. Cracks that are perpendicular to the sound wave
B. Inclusions that are randomly oriented
C. Laminations that are parallel to the front surface
D. All of the above

31. Attenuation is the loss of the ultrasonic wave energy during the course of
propagation in the material mainly due to:
A. Reflection and refraction
B. Dispersion and diffraction
C. Absorption and scattering
D. All of the above

32. During a test using A-scan equipment, strong indications that move at varying rates
across the screen in the horizontal direction appear. It is impossible to repeat a particular
screen pattern by scanning the same area. A possible cause of these indications is:
A. Porosity
B. An irregularly shaped crack
C. A blow hole
D. Electrical interference

5
33. In a plate, skip distance (SD) can be calculated from which of the following formula
(where t = plate thickness, Ø = angle of sound beam refraction, and V = sound velocity):
A. SD = (2t) / tan Ø
B. SD = 2t sin Ø
C. SD =2t tan Ø
D. SD = 2v sin Ø
E. None of the above

34. The fundamental frequency of a piezoelectric crystal is primarily a function of:


A. Acoustic impedance
B. The amplifying characteristics of the pulse amplifier in the instrument
C. The thickness of the crystal
D. None of the above

35. Rough surfaces cause the echo amplitude from discontinuities within the part to:
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Not changes
D. Change frequency

36. The principal applications of ultrasonic techniques consist of:


A. Flaw detection
B. Thickness measurements
C. Determination of elastic modulus
D. All of the above

37. Very thin material tube weld of 6 mm diameter and.0.5 mm thick has to be
examined. The ideal ultrasonic examination technique is:
A. Contact technique with surface wave
B. contact technique with contoured probe of higher frequency and higher angle shear wave
C. Immersion technique with high frequency focused probe
D. This cannot be examined by ultrasonic examination

38. The factor which determines the amount of reflection at the interface of two
dissimilar materials is:
A. An index of rarefaction
B. The frequency of the ultrasonic wave
C. Young's modulus
D. An acoustic impedance

39. A 4 MHz normal probe was used in a 10 mm thick titanium plate and if the first
back wall echo appeared at 80% of FSH, second back wall echo appeared at 50% of FSH.
The attenuation on the plate is:
A. 0.4 dB/mm
B. 0.2 dB/mm
C. 6.5 dB/mm
D. none of the above

6
40. While performing the shear wave examination on a thick plate of 50 mm on
particular material as per specification, noise was noted at certain locations. This can be
due to:
A. Presence of small discontinuities
B. Inhomogeneity of material
C. Variation in grain structure
D. Electrical disturbances.

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