13-03-2025

7501CMD303031240020 MD

PHYSICS

1)

A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic
field what should be the energy of an µ-particle to discribe a circular of same radius in the same
magnetic field.

(1) 0.5 MeV

(2) 4 MeV
(3) 2 MeV
(4) 1 MeV

2) PQRS is a square loop made of uniform conducting wire. If the current enters the loop at P and

leaves at S, then the magnetic field will be :-

(1) Maximum at the centre of the loop

(2) Zero at the centre of loop
(3) Zero at all points inside the loop
(4) Zero at all points outside of the loop

3) A square loop of side a is rotating about its diagonal with angular velocity in a perpendicular

magnetic field . It has 10 turns. the emf induced is

(1) Ba2 ωsin ωt

(2) Ba2 ωcosωt
(3)
(4) 10 Ba2 ωsinωt

4) Adjoining figure shows a conductor carrying a current I. The magnitude of magnetic field at the
origin is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Current I flows through a long conducting wire bent at right angles as shown in the figure. The
magnetic field at a point P on the right bisector of the angle XOY at a distance r from O is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Five very long, straight wires are bound together to form a small cable. Currents carried by the
wires are I1 = 20A, I2 = –6A, I3 = 12A. I4 = –7A, I5 = 18A. The magnetic induction at a distance of 10
cm from the cable's :-

(1) 34 μT
(2) 74 mT
(3) 34 mT
(4) 74 μT

7) Rank the value of for the closed paths shown in figure from the smallest to largest :-
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d, b
(3) a, d, c, b
(4) a, c, b, d

8) A magnetic field :-

(1) Always exert a force on a charged particle

(2) Never exerts a force on a charged particle
(3) Exerts a force, if the charged particle is moving across the magnetic field lines
(4) Exerts a force, if the charged particle is moving along the magnetic field lines

9) H+, He+ and O++ are projected in uniform transverse magnetic field with equal accelerating
potential, then ratio of their radii are respectively (if their masses are 1 a.m.u., 4 a.m.u. and 16
a.m.u. respectively) :-

(1) 1 : :2
(2) 1 : :
(3) 1 : 2 : 2
(4) :2:1

10)

In the given diagram two particle A & B having same charge & mass respectively mA and mB, are
moving in a magnetic field B with speed VA and VB then :

(1) mA vA < mB vB
(2) mAvA > mBvB
(3) mA < mB and vA < vB
(4) mA = mB and vA = vB

11) A charge '+q' moving with a velocity entres a region of uniform electric and magnetic
fields with N/C and As it moves in the two fields, it deflects along negative y-
axis. Which of the following could be possible value of V0 ?

(1) 3 × 104 m/s

(2) 4 × 104 m/s
(3) 5 × 104 m/s
(4) 2 × 104 m/s

12)

If a charged particle goes unaccelerated in a region containing electric and magnetic fields
(a) must be perpendicular to
(b) must be perpendicular to
(c) must be perpendicular to
(d) must be equal to

(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) a and c
(4) b and d

13) A square coil of 10–2 m2 area is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of intensity 103
Wb/m2. The magnetic flux through the coil is :

(1) 10 weber
(2) 10–5 weber
(3) 105 weber
(4) 100 weber

14) The flux linked with a circuit is given by ϕ = t3 + 3t – 7. The graph between time (x-axis) and
induced emf (y-axis) will be :

(1) Straight line through the origin

(2) Straight line with positive intercept
(3) Straight line with negative intercept
(4) Parabola not through the origin

15) A conducting ring is placed around the core of an electromagnet as shown in fig. When key K is

pressed, the ring

(1) Remain stationary
(2) Will be attracted
(3) Jumps out of the core
(4) None of the above

16) One conducting U tube can slide inside another as shown in figure, maintaining electrical
contacts between the tubes. The magnetic field B is perpendicular to the plane of the figure. If each
tube moves towards the other at a constant speed v, then the emf induced in the circuit in terms of

B, l, v (l is the width of each tube) will be :-

(1) zero
(2) 2Blv
(3) Blv
(4) –Blv

17) The current 'i' in an inductance coil varies with time 't' according to following graph

Which one of the following plots shows the variations of voltage in the coil

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
18) A conducting rod AB of length ℓ = 1 m is moving at a velocity v = 4 m/s making an angle 30º
with its length. A uniform magnetic field B = 2T exists in a direction perpendicular to the plane of

motion. Then :-

(1) VA – VB = 8V
(2) VA – VB = 4V
(3) VB – VA = 8V
(4) VB – VA = 4V

19) A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is moving with a uniform speed v = 2 m/s in a uniform
magnetic field (B = 4T) directed into the paper. A capacitor of capacity C = 10 μF is connected as

shown in figure. Then

(1) qA = + 80 μC and qB = – 80 μC
(2) qA = – 80 μC and qB = + 80 μC
(3) qA = 0 = qB
(4) Charge stored in the capacitor increases exponentially with time

20) A step down transformer is used to reduce the main supply of 220 V to 11 V. If the primary coil
draws a current of 5A and the current in seondary coil 90A. What is the efficiency of the transformer
?

(1) 70%
(2) 80%
(3) 90%
(4) 99%

21) The core of a transformer are laminated because.

(1) Reduce the energy loss due to eddy current

(2) Make it light weight
(3) Make it robout & strong
(4) Increase the secondary voltage

22) A step down transformer has turn ratio 10 :1. A D.C. source of emf. 2 volt is fed to the primary;
secondary voltage developed will be :
(1) 20 V
(2) 10 V
(3) 2 V
(4) Zero

23) A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a step down transformer having 4000
turns in its primary. What should be the number of turns in the secondary to get output power at
230 V?

(1) 100
(2) 400
(3) 200
(4) 300

24) If electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by . The

peak value of magnetic field in the region is

(1) 20 T
(2) 2 T
(3) 0.2 T
(4) 0.02 T

25) Maxwell's modified form of Ampere's Circuital law is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The potential difference between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is changing at the rate
of 106 V/s. If the capacitance is 3µF, the displacement current in the dielectric of the capacitor will
be :

(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 3 A
(4) 4 A

27) The Maxwell equation is statement of

(1) Faraday's law
(2) Gauss law of magnetism
(3) Modified ampere's law
(4) Gauss law of electricity

28)

Match the column I with column II -

Column - I Column - II
(Law) (Mathematical formula)

(A) Faraday law (P)

Ampere
(B) (Q)
Maxwell law

(C) Gauss law for magnetism (R)

(D) Gauss law for electrostatics (S)

(1) A R, B Q, C S, D P
A P, B Q, C S, D R
(2)

(3) A P, B S, C Q, D R
(4) A R, B S, C Q, D P

29) A parallel plate capacitor consists of two circular plates of radius 0.05 m. If electric field
between the plates is changed as 1010 volt/m-s then find displacement current between the plates.

(1) 1.4 mA
(2) 0.7 mA
(3) 2.1 mA
(4) 4 mA

30)

An alternating voltage is given by :

e = e1sinωt + e2cosωt
Then the root mean square value of voltage is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31)

The peak value of the following A.C. current i = 4 sin ωt + 4 sin (ωt + 2π/3) is –

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 4

32) In showing figure find VR :

(1) 132 V
(2) 396 V
(3) 185 V
(4)

33) A 50 Hz a.c. source of 20 volts is connected across R and C as shown in figure below. The

voltage across R is 12 volts. The voltage across C is –

(1) 8 V
(2) 16V
(3) 10 V
(4) not possible to determine unless values of R and C are given

34) The reactance of an inductor at 10,000Hz is 10,000 ohm. Its inductive reactance at 20,000 Hz
will be –

(1) 500Ω
(2) 10,000Ω
(3) 20,000Ω
(4) 32,000Ω
35) In the circuit shown in figure the current measured by ammeter is :-

(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 3 A
(4) Zero

36) One centimetre on the main scale of Verneir Callipers is divided into ten equal parts, if 20
divisions of Verneir scale coincide with 18 small divisions of the main scale then what will be the
least count of the callipers.

(1) 0.1 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.01 mm
(4) 0.02 mm

37) Two full turns of Screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on main scale. The total number of
circular scale divisions are 100. The measured value of thickness of sheet will be :

(1) 4.555 mm
(2) 4.295 mm
(3) 2.295 mm
(4) 2.245 mm

38) A wire of area of cross section 10–6 m2 is increased in length by 0.1%. The tension produced is
1000 N. The young's modulus of the wire is :

(1) 1012 N/m2

(2) 1011 N/m2
(3) 1010 N/m2
(4) 109 N/m2

39) In Searle's apparatus, when experimental wire is loaded and unloaded, the air bubble in spirit
level gets shifted :

(1) towards reference wire while loading and towards experimental wire while unloading
(2) towards experimental wire while loading and towards reference wire while unloading
(3) towards experimental wire, both the times, during loading and unloading
(4) towards reference wire, both the times during loading and unloading

40) In a resonance tube experiment, two consecutive resonances are observed when the length of
the air columns are 16 cm and 49 cm. If the frequency of the tuning fork used is 500 Hz, the velocity
of sound in air is :

(1) 310 ms–1

(2) 320 ms–1
(3) 330 ms–1
(4) 340 ms–1

41) Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves given by y1= 4 sin(500πt) and
y2= 2 sin(506πt). These tuning forks are held near the ear of a person. The person will hear

(1) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 4.
(2) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 9.
(3) 6 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 4.
(4) 6 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 9.

42) Figure shows graph of deviation (δ) versus angle of incidence (i) for a light ray striking a prism.

Angle of prism is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

43) The expression for magnetic induction inside a solenoid of length L carrying a current I and
having N number of turns is :-

(1)

(2) μ0NI

(3)
NLI

(4)
μ0 I

44) Three identical long solenoids P, Q and R connected to each other as shown in figure. If the
magnetic field at the centre of P is 4.0 T, what would be the field at the centre of Q ?
(1) 2.0 T
(2) 1.0 T
(3) 4.0 T
(4) None of these

45) All the solenoids are identical and long. If magnetic

field at point 'A' is 'B' then Find magnetic field at 'C'.

(1) B
(2) 2B
(3) 3B

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that

(1) Zr and Y have about the same radius

(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state

2) In Na2[Fe(CN)5NO], sodium nitroprusside :-

(1) Oxidation state of Fe is +2

(2) It has NO+ as ligand
(3) Both are correct
(4) None is correct

3) The complex [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] can exhibit.

(a) linkage isomerism (b) Coordination isomerism
(c) Ionisation isomerism (d) Optical isomerism
The correct answer is :-

(1) Only 'a' 'b' and 'c'

(2) Only 'a'
(3) Only 'a' and 'd'
(4) Only 'b'

4) Fac and Mer isomerism is associated with which of the following general formula :-

(1) [M(AA)2]
(2) [M(AA)3]
(3) [M ABCD]
(4) [M A3B3]

5) Borax bead test is not shown by ?

(1) Mg2+
(2) Cr+3
(3) Fe2+
(4) Co+2

6) The product of oxidation of I– and MnO4– in alkaline medium is –

–
(1) IO3
(2) I2
(3) IO–
–
(4) IO4

7) Purple colour of KMnO4 is due to :-

(1) Charge transfer spectra

(2) d–d transition
(3) Homo-Lumo transition
(4) None

8) The number of paramagnetic species from the following is :- [Ni(CN)4]2–, [Ni(CO)4], [NiCl4]2–
[Fe(CN)6]4–, [Cu(NH3)4]2+
[Fe(CN)6]3– and [Fe(H2O)6]2+

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Total number of moles of AgCl precipitated on addition of excess of AgNO3 to one mole each of the
following complexes
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl, [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 , [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] and [Pd(NH3)4]Cl2 is

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

10) Which of the following oxide of chromium is amphoteric in nature :

(1) CrO
(2) Cr2O3
(3) CrO3
(4) CrO5

11) The Lewis acid character of boron tri halides follows the order :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) The compound which is not a double salt ? (A) FeSO4·(NH4)2SO4·6H2O

(B) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O
(C) K2SO4·Al2(SO4)3·24H2O
(D) Fe(CN)2·4KCN
Choose the correct answer.

(1) D only
(2) A and B only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) B and D only

13) The correct order of bond enthalpy (kJ mol–1) is :

(1) Si – Si > C – C > Sn – Sn > Ge – Ge

(2) Si – Si > C – C > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn
(3) C – C > Si – Si > Sn – Sn > Ge – Ge
(4) C – C > Si – Si > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn

14) A chloride salt solution acidified with dil. HNO3 gives a curdy white precipitate, [A], on addition
of AgNO3. [A] on treatment with NH4OH gives a clear solution, B. A and B are respectively :

(1) H[AgCl3] & [Ag(NH3)2]Cl

(2) H[AgCl3] & (NH4)[Ag(OH)2]
(3) AgCl & [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
(4) AgCl & (NH4)[Ag(OH)2]

15) Highest oxidation state of Mn is exhibited in Mn2O7. The correct statements about Mn2O7 are (A)
Mn is tetrahedrally surrounded by oxygen atoms
(B) Mn is octahedrally surrounded by oxygen atoms
(C) Contains Mn-O-Mn bridge
(D) Contains Mn-Mn bond.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) A and C only

(2) A and D only
(3) B and D only
(4) B and C only

16) Which of the following have one lone pair on the central atom ?
(I) NH3
(II) SF4
(III) XeOF4
(IV) XeF6

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, IV
(3) I, IV
(4) I, II,III, IV

17) Number of S-O-S bond in H2S2O6 :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) zero
(4) 4

18)

Concentrated nitric acid reacts with iodine to give :-

(1) HI
(2) HOI
(3) HOIO2
(4) HOIO3

19) Correct match is :

Complexes No. of unpaired electron

–4
A [CrF6] P 5
–4
B [MnF6] Q 2
–4
C [Cr(CN)6] R 1
–4
D [Mn(CN)6] S 4
(1) (A – S), (B – Q), (C – P), (D – R)
(2) (A – P), (B – R), (C – Q), (D – S)
(3) (A – S), (B – P), (C – Q), (D – R)
(4) (A – R), (B – S), (C – Q), (D – P)

20) In weakly alkaline solution, MnO4– changes to –

2–
(1) MnO4
(2) MnO2
(3) Mn2O3
(4) MnO

21) Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution ? (At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23,
Cr = 24, Mn=25)

(1) Mn3+
(2) Cr3+
(3) V3+
(4) Ti3+

22) Complexes [Co(NH3)6]+3 and [CoF6]–3 are respectively

(1) Spin paired complex and low spin complex

(2) Low spin complex and spin paired complex
(3) Spin free complex and spin paired complex
(4) Spin paired complex and spin free complex

23) The hybridization involved in complex

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) Among the following halide which is inert to hydrolysis :-

(1) BF3
(2) SiCl4
(3) PCl5
(4) SF6

25) The common positive oxidation states for an element with atomic number 24 are.

(1) +3 and +6
(2) +1 and +3 to +6
(3) +1 and +3
(4) +1 to +6
26) The set that represents the pair of Neutral oxides of nitrogen is :

(1) NO and N2O

(2) N2O and N2O3
(3) N2O and NO2
(4) NO and NO2

27) The correct increasing order of extent of hydrolysis is :

(1) CCl4 < MgCl2 < AlCl3 < SiCl4 < PCl5
(2) CCl4 < AlCl3 < MgCl2 < PCl5 < SiCl4
(3) CCl4 < SiCl4 < PCl5 < AlCl3 < MgCl2
(4) CCl4 < PCl5 < SiCl4 < AlCl3 < MgCl2

28) The true statements from the following are :

(a) PH5, NCl5 and BiCl5 do not exist
(b) I3+ has bent geometry
(c) XeF4 is non-polar molecule
(d) CO and C2–2 has same bond order

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b , c, d
(3) a , b, c
(4) a, b, d

29) What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal
field theory ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) Which element does not show +4 oxidation state:

(1) Ce
(2) Ti
(3) Pt
(4) Eu

31) Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F
if it is false : (i) Cu+ undergoes disproportionation to Cu and Cu2+ in aqueous solution.
(ii) H2S does not impart sodium nitroprusside Test.
(iii) Sulphide ions react with sodium nitroprusside to form a purple coloured complex. In this
reaction, oxidation state of iron changes.
(1) TFT
(2) TTF
(3) TFF
(4) FTT

32) Disodium hydrogen phosphate is used to test :

(1) Mg2+
(2) Na+
(3) Ca2+
(4) All of these

33) Assertion (A) : X – X' bond in interhalogens is weaker than X – X bond in hologens.
Reason (R) : Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogens (except fluorine).

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

34) Statement-I : The complex [Cr(SCN)(NH3)5]Cl2 is not a linkage isomer of [Cr(NCS)(NH3)5]Cl2.

Statement - II : SCN– is an ambidentate ligand.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

35) Two gases when mixed gives white dense fumes, the gases are :-

(1) NH3 and SO2

(2) SO2 and steam
(3) NH3 and HCl
(4) NH3 and N2O

36) Assertion (A) : Oxidising power increases in the order : VO2+ < Cr2O7–2 < MnO4–.
Reason (R) : It is due to the increasing stability of species in lower oxidation state to which, they
are easily reduced.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is correct Explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct

37) Which one of the following has the highest molar conductivity?
(1) Diamminedichloroplatinum (II)
(2) Tetraamminedichlorocobalt (III) chloride
(3) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)
(4) Hexaaquochromium (III) bromide

38) Chromyl chloride test is not given by the compound

(1) HgCl2
(2) NaCl
(3) KCl
(4) SnCl2

39) Which of the following cation gives ppt in two groups during group analysis -

(1) Hg+2
(2) Pb+2
(3) Cu+2
(4) Ag+

40) Assertion : The loss of exchange energy increases the stability of a species.
Reason : There is no loss of exchange energy in Mn+ as it has d6 configuration and for this reason
Mn+ has lower ionisation energy in comparison to Cr+.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

41) Highest wavelength of light absorbed by the compound.

3–
(1) [Co(CN)6]
2+
(2) [Cu(H2O)4]
3+
(3) [Ti(H2O)6]
3+
(4) [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]

42) Assertion (A):- Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur exist as S8 but oxygen exists only as O2.
Reason (R):- Oxygen forms Pπ-Pπ multiple bonds due to small size and small bond length but Pπ-Pπ
bonding is not feasible in sulphur.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

43) Which of the following is a self indicator ?

(1)
(2)
(3) I–
(4)

44) Which complex ion does not absorb light of visible range :-

+3
(1) [Cr(NH3)6]
–4
(2) [Ni(CN)6]
–3
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
2–
(4) [Ni(CN)4]

45) Match the column.

Column-I Column-II
(Composition) (Alloy)

(a) Cu + Ni (p) Silver UK coins

(b) Cu + Zn (q) Bronze

(c) Cu + Sn (r) Brass

(d) Ln(95%) + Fe (s) Misch metal

(1) (a)→(p), (b)→(q), (c)→(r), (d)→(s)
(2) (a)→(p), (b)→(r), (c)→(q), (d)→(s)
(3) (a)→(q), (b)→(p), (c)→(s), (d)→(r)
(4) (a)→(s), (b)→(q), (c)→(r), (d)→(p)

BIOLOGY

1) What is the name of the DNA that is created by combining DNA from different sources?

(1) Recombinant DNA

(2) Satellite DNA
(3) Repetitive DNA
(4) Complementary DNA

2)

Ligase enzyme is used for

(1) Denaturation of DNA

(2) Splitting of DNA into small fragments
(3) Joining fragments of DNA
(4) Digestion of lipids
3) Which one of the following option is correct for A, B and C marked in the given diagram of

recombinant DNA technology ?

(1) A - Exonuclease; B - Ligase; C -Transformation

(2) A - Endonuclease; B - Gyrase; C - Transformation
(3) A - Exonuclease; B - Hydrolase; C - Transduction
(4) A - Restriction endonuclease; B - Ligase; C - Transformation

4) Which organization was set up by the Indian government to make decision regarding the validity
of GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services ?

(1) GEAC
(2) ICAR
(3) KVIC
(4) ICMR

5) Correctly match column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

Trichoderma
(A) (i) Biofertilisers
species

(B) Rhizobium (ii) Clot buster

(C) Cyclosporin A (iii) Biocontrol agents

Trichoderma
(D) Streptokinase (iv)
polysporum
(1) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(iv)
(2) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(iv), D–(i)
(3) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(i)
(4) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(ii)

6) Which of the following is a plasmid?

(1) pBR322
(2) Bam HI
(3) Sal I
(4) Eco RI

7) Which of the following is not a suitable feature of a cloning vector ?

(1) Origin of replication

(2) Many restriction sites of one restriction enzyme
(3) Selectable marker
(4) Restriction sites of more than one restriction enzymes

8) A vector should have selectable marker gene because

(1) It helps in selectively permitting the growth of non-transformants

(2) It is required for origin of replication
(3) It helps in selection of recombinants
(4) It helps in marking useful gene in the vector

9) The distillation process is required in the formation of :-

(1) Rum
(2) Brandy
(3) Whisky
(4) All of these

10) Eli Lilly, an American company in 1983 produced which recombinant product ?

(1) Basmati Rice

(2) Turmeric
(3) Insulin
(4) α-1 antitrypsin

11) Restriction endonucleases cut which bonds?

(1) Hydrogen bonds

(2) Phosphodiester bonds
(3) Ionic bonds
(4) Disulphide bonds
12)

(1) A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1

(2) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
(3) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
(4) A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2

13) Among the transformants, recombinant colonies in insertional inactivation are differentiated
from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of

(1) Production of blue colour

(2) Production of no colour
(3) Production of red colour
(4) Production of green colour

14) Assertion : Bottled fruit juices brought from market are clearer as compared to those made at
home.
Reason : Bottled are treated with pectinases and proteases.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) Assertion (A): Alien piece of DNA has to become the part of chromosome, only then it has the
ability to replicate.
Reason (R): Chromosome shows the presence of a specific sequence termed as origin of replication.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

16) How many characteristics are correct w.r.t. plasmid used as a vector?
(i) Double-stranded.
(ii) Circular DNA.
(iii) Single stranded
(iv) Can self-replicate.
(v) Linear DNA.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

17) Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen of several _____A_____ plants is able to deliver a piece of
DNA known as _____B_____. Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks.

(1) (A) - Dicot, (B) - Ti plasmid

(2) (A) - Monocot, (B) - Ti plasmid
(3) (A) - Dicot, (B) - T-DNA
(4) (A) - Monocot, (B) T - DNA

18) Choose the correct option w.r.t. the figure given below :

(1) Lane 3 shows undigested DNA fragments

(2) The matrix used is synthetically prepared from sea weeds
(3) Smallest band is towards cathode
(4) Bands are visualised after staining it with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV light

19) Consider the following statements w.r.t gel electrophoresis.

Statement-A: Elution is the technique used to separate DNA fragments treated with restriction
endonucleases.
Statement-B: The smaller the DNA fragment size, the farther it moves.

(1) Both statements A and B are true

(2) Both statements A and B are false
(3) Statement A is true but statement B is false
(4) Statement A is false but statement B is true

20) Which of the following is not an application of PCR?

(1) Purification of isolated protein

(2) Detection of gene mutation
(3) Molecular diagnosis
(4) Gene amplification

21) Which of the following steps are in correct order in PCR ?

(1) Denaturation → Annealing → Extension

(2) Denaturation → Extension → Annealing
(3) Annealing → Denaturation → Extension
(4) Extension → Denaturation → Annealing

22) For transformation with recombinant DNA, the bacterial cells must first be made 'competent'
which

(1) Increases their catalytic activity

(2) Decreases their metabolic reactions
(3) Increases efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium
(4) Promotes the ability to divide fast

23) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement-A: A stirred tank reactor is usually cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate the even
mixing of the reactor contents.
Statement-B: If any protein, encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, it is called a
Recombinant protein.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect
(4) Statement B is incorrect

24) A typical bioreactor has

(a) An agitator system.
(b) An oxygen delivery system.
(c) A foam control system.
(d) A temperature control system.
(e) A pH control system.
(f) Sampling ports.

(1) a, b and c only

(2) a, b, c and d only
(3) a, b, c, d and e only
(4) a, b, c, d, e and f

25) During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, purified DNA ultimately
precipitates out after the addition of :-

(1) Ethidium bromide

(2) Chilled ethanol
(3) Chromogenic substrate
(4) Agarose

26) Pure DNA precipitated by addition of chilled ethanol can be removed from solution by

(1) Elution
(2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) Spooling
(4) PCR

27) During sewage treatment, biogases are produced, which include.

(1) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide

(2) Methane, oxygen and hydrogen sulphide
(3) Hydrogen sulphide, methane and sulphur dioxide
(4) Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen and methane

28) How many recombinant therapeutics have been used for human diseases throughout the world?

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 30
(4) 56

29) What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in bollworm?

(1) Body temperature

(2) Moist surface of midgut
(3) Alkaline pH of gut
(4) Acidic pH of stomach

30) Nematode-specific genes were introduced into the host plant by

(1) Retrovirus
(2) Adenovirus
(3) Meloidegyne incognitia
(4) Agrobacterium

31) RNA interference involves

(1) Synthesis of cDNA and RNA using reverse transcriptase

(2) Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary dsRNA
(3) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA
(4) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA

32) What does the diagram depicts?

(1) Degradation of insulin
(2) Formation of proinsulin
(3) Maturation of pro-insulin into insulin
(4) Addition of C-peptide to proinsulin

33) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

Ladybird Nitrogen
A. (i)
beetle fixation

B. Mycorrhiza (ii) Bio gas

C. Methanogens (iii) Aphids

D. Rhizobium (iv) Glomus

A B C D

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Choose the mismatch from the following.

(1) Basmati rice 27 varieties in India

(2) Rosie cow Developed in 1997

Patent on Basmati rice by an American

(3) 1997
company

(4) First clinical gene therapy 1901

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Match List I with List II :

List I List II

A α-1 antitrypsin I Cotton bollworm

B Cry IAb II ADA deficiency

C Cry IAc III Emphysema

D Enzyme replacement therapy IV Corn borer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

36) Statement-1 : Use of bio-fertilizer is a part of organic farming.

Statement-2 : The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to efforts of
IARI and KVIC.

(1) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct.
(4) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.

37)

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.

Statement II : Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by

the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut. In
the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

38) Transgenic models exist for which of the following human diseases ?
(a) Cancer
(b) Cystic fibrosis
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Alzheimer's disease

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only

39) Recognition sequence of first restriction endonuclease is of

(1) Four base pairs

(2) Five base pairs
(3) Six base pairs
(4) Eight base pairs

40) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement A : RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all prokaryotic organisms as a method of
cellular defense.
Statement B : RNAi prevents transcription of the mRNA.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect

41) Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. the advantage of human insulin over insulin extracted
from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs?

(1) Do not induce unwanted immunological responses

(2) Free from risk of infection
(3) Large scale production is not possible
(4) Structure of recombinant human insulin is absolutely identical to that of natural molecule

42) A single stranded DNA or RNA tagged with a radioactive molecule is known as :-

(1) Primer
(2) Probe
(3) Plasmid
(4) Both (1) and (2)

43) Which of the following could be a permanent cure for ADA deficiency?

(1) Genetically engineered lymphocytes

(2) Enzyme replacement therapy
(3) ADA functional gene is introduced at early embryonic stage.
(4) Bone marrow transplantation

44)
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of fungi with roots of higher plants. Plants get all of the
following benefits from such associations, except

(1) Resistance to root - borne pathogens

(2) Tolerance to salinity and drought
(3) Increase in plant growth
(4) Shelter and food.

45) Identify an incorrect statement with respect to ethical issues in biotechnology

Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and flavour and 27 documented
(1)
varieties of basmati are grown in India
In 1997, an American company got patent rights on basmati rice through the US Patent and
(2)
Trademark office
Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bioresources by multinational companies
(3) without proper authorization from the countries and people concerned without compensatory
payment
The current interest in the manipulation of microbes, plants and animals has
(4)
raised no ethical questions

46)

Number of
Organism
nucleotide

(i) ϕ × 174 (A) 4.6 × 106 bP

Lambda
(ii) (B) 3.3 × 109 bP
Bacteriophage

5386
(iii) E.coli (C)
Nucleotide

Human
(iv) (D) 48502 bP
(Haploid DNA)

Following match is correct :-

(1) i = D, ii = C, iii = B, iv = A
(2) i = B, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B
(3) i = A, ii = D, iii = C, iv = B
(4) i = C, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B

47) Find out the number of phosphodiester bonds (PDB) and N-glycosidic bonds (NGB) in the
polynucleotide chain provided below :
(1) PDB = 4, NGB = 4
(2) PDB = 3, NGB = 3
(3) PDB = 4, NGB = 3
(4) PDB = 3, NGB = 4

48) A couple claimed in court that a child belonged to them. Their claim can be true if the DNA
fingerprint pattern of the child shows:

100% similarity to both the parents' DNA fingerprint as both contribute equally to zygote
(1)
formation.
(2) 100% similarity to mother's DNA print because of maternal inheritance.
(3) 100% similarity to father's DNA print due to large number of mitochondria in sperm.
(4) 50% bands similar to father and 50% similar to mother DNA fingerprint pattern.

49) If heavy DNA of E.Coli was allowed to grow for 80 minutes in N14 medium, then what would be
the ratio of light and hybrid densities DNA molecules :-

(1) 7 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 3 : 2

50) Which DNA molecule among the following will melt at lowest temperature :-

(1) 5'-A-A-T-G-C-T-G-C-3' 3'-T-T-A-C-G-A-C-G-5

(2) 5'-A-A-T-A-A-A-G-A-3' 3'-T-T-A-T-T-T-C-T-5'
(3) 5'-G-C-A-T-A-G-C-T-3' 3'C-G-T-A-T-C-G-A-5'
(4) 5'-A-T-T-C-T-G-A-T-3' 3'-T-A-A-G-A-C-T-A-5'

51) Which positions in a purine ring are occupied by nitrogen ?

(1) 1st, 3rd, 8th and 9th

(2) 2nd, 5th, 7th and 9th
(3) 1st, 3rd, 7th and 9th
(4) 3rd, 5th, 7th and 9th

52) Identify the template strand–

(1) B
(2) A
(3) Both can act as the template strand
(4) Data insufficient

53) Which of following amino acid has maximum codons in genetic code?

(1) Leu
(2) Met
(3) Ala
(4) Phe

54)

The sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting technique can be enhanced by

(1) Usage only a single combination of VNTR probe

(2) Usage of PCR to amplify DNA
(3) Usage of nitrocellulase membrane
(4) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis

55) If a DNA molecule of 30 bp has 10% Adenine as nitrogenous base. Find the total number of
hydrogen bonds present between the two strands :-

(1) 72
(2) 84
(3) 60
(4) 48

56)

Correct match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

RNA
(A) (i) Primer removal
primase

Synthesised RNA
(B) DNA gyrase (ii)
primer

Reduced tension
(C) DNA pol-I (iii)
in DNA

DNA Breakdown
(D) (iv)
helicase hydrogen bond
(1) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

57)
Go through the feature of human genome
(i) Largest human gene is dystrophin with 2.4 million bases
(ii) Chromosome 1 has maximum number of genes, i.e ., 2968 and y-chromosome has minimum
number , i.e., 231
(iii) The human genome contains 3164.7 billion nucleotide bases
(iv) The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000
Which of these are correct ?

(1) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(2) (ii), (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(4) All are correct

58)

In density gradient centrifugation, the bulk DNA forms _________ while satellite DNA forms_________.

(1) Major peak; Minor peak

(2) Minor peak; Major peak
(3) Major peak; Major peak
(4) Minor peak; Minor peak

59)

Which group present in RNA nucleotide is very reactive and makes RNA labile and easily degradable
than DNA?

(1) group at every nucleotide

(2) group on ribose sugar
(3) group on ribose sugar
(4) group on base

60) The (I) provides the template, during translation and (II) brings amino acids and read the
genetic code, and (III) play structural and catalytic role.
Choose the correct word for I, II and III blanks?

I II III
(1) r-RNA t-RNA m-RNA
(2) hn-RNA Sn-RNA t-RNA
(3) m-RNA t-RNA r-RNA
(4) m-RNA r-RNA t-RNA
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) (A) The experiments which proved that DNA in chromosome also replicate semi-conservatively
was performed on ____i____ .
(B) Genetic material should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for ____ii____
(C) In DNA plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix confer additional ____iii____
to the helical structure.
(D) An acidic substansce present in nucleus was named ____iv____ by Friedrich meischer.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) Find out the correct match

a RNA Polymerase-I (i) 28 S rRNA

b RNA Polymerase-II (ii) 5.8 S rRNA

c RNA Polymerase-III (iii) tRNA

(iv) hn RNA

(v) 18 S rRNA

(vi) Sn RNA

(vii) 5 S rRNA

(viii) mRNA

a b c

(1) i, ii, v, vii iv, viii iii, vi

(2) i, ii, vii iv, vi, viii iii, v

iii, vi,
(3) i, ii, v iv, viii
vii

(4) v, vii, ii i, iv, viii iii, vi

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) DNA polymerase II resemble with kornberg enzyme in having

(a) 5′ → 3′ exonuclease activity
(b) 3′ → 5′ exonuclease activity
(c) 5′ → 3′ polymersing activity
(d) 3′ → 3′ polymersing activity

(1) b and c
(2) a and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) b, c and d

64) Which diagram correctly explain the process of replication :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

65) Match the following:

List-I List-II

(a) Polynucleotide
(i) S. Ochoa
phosphorylase

(b) Adapter Molecule (ii) tRNA

(c) Code is a
combination of (iii) G. Gamow
bases (Triplet code)

(d) Cell free system

(iv) M. Nirenberg
for protein synthesis
(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
(2) a–ii, b–iv, c–i, d–iii
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
(4) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii

66) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(a) 1953 (1) Griffith (i) Double helix model of DNA

(b) 1958 (2) Watson & Crick (ii) Heavy isotope of nitrogen

(c) 1952 (3) Hershey & Chase (iii) Bacteriophage

(d) 1928 (4) Meselson & Stahl (iv) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(1) a-1-iv, b-2-ii, c-4-i, d-4-ii
(2) a-4-ii, b-1-i, c-2-ii, d-3-i
(3) a-3-iii, b-3-iii, c-2-iv, d-2-iii
(4) a-2-i, b-4-ii, c-3-iii, d-1-iv

67) In the given diagram A, B, C and D are respectively :

(1) A → Inactive repressor, B → β-galactosidase, C → Permease, D → Transacetylase

(2) A → Repressor, B → β-galactosidase, C → Permease, D → β-galactosidase
(3) A → Repressor, B → β-galactosidase, C → Transacetylase, D → Permease
(4) All of these

68) Which of the following amino acid is coded by only one codon ?

(1) Leucine
(2) Tryptophan
(3) Phenylalanine
(4) Arginine

69) Peptidyl transferase

(1) Is a 23s rRNA

(2) forms peptide bonds
(3) Component of ribosome
(4) All of these are correct

70) Given diagram is the representation of a certain event. Identify enzyme needed in the reaction :
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(4) RNA dependent RNA polymerase

71) How many types of gametes will be produced by male and female Drosophila respectively having

following arrangement of two genes ?

(1) Two & Two

(2) Two & Four
(3) One & Two
(4) Four & Four

72) In a linear chromosome, map distance between four loci are as follows : a – b = 20, b – c = 8, a –
d = 6, a – c = 12. The expected cross over value between c and d is :-

(1) 6%
(2) 18%
(3) Either 6% or 18%
(4) Either 3% or 9%

73) Assume that genes c and d are linked and show 40% recombination. If ++/++ individual is
crossed with cd/cd, then types and proportion of gametes produced by F1 hybrid will be :-

(1) ++30%; cd30%; +d20%; c+20%

(2) ++25%; cd25%; +d25%; c+25%
(3) ++50%; cd50%
(4) ++20%; cd20%; +d20%; c+40%

74) In a breeding experiment between two parents showing the dominant and recessive phenotype
of the character, the offsprings showed equal proportions of the dominant & recessive phenotypes.
Which one of following statement must be true ?

(1) Both the parents produces same types of gametes

(2) Both the parents carried recessive alleles
(3) Both the parents were true breeding
(4) More than one options are correct

75) Given below are two statements:

Statement I:Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of
Inheritance
Statement II: Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed
shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height In the light
of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

76) Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridization experiments?

(1) 1840 - 1850

(2) 1857 - 1869
(3) 1870 - 1877
(4) 1856 - 1863

77) How many of the following are mendelian disorders:-

Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Sickle cell, Anaemia, Colour blindness, Phenylketonuria, Thalassemia,
Down's syndrome, Tumer's syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome.

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 3

78) Mendel selected :-

(1) 7 true breeding pea plant varieties

(2) 12 true breeding pea plant varieties
(3) 14 true breeding pea plant varieties
(4) 10 true breeding pea plant varieties

79)

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) Homozygous - M, n
(2) Heterozygous - NN
(3) Hemizygous - e, r
(4) Homzygous - AA

80) In 1900 A. D. three biologists independently discovered Mendel's principles. They are :-

(1) De Vries, Correns and Tschermak

(2) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
(3) Avery, McLeod and McCarthy
(4) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges

81) In F2 generation of a dihybrid cross, ratio of parental and recombinant combinations is ?

(1) 2 : 7
(2) 1 : 14
(3) 5 : 3
(4) 9 : 7

82) If both parents have pattern baldness and their first female child is normal, then the chances of
pattern baldness in their second male child is :

(1) 50%
(2) 100%
(3) 25%
(4) 0%

83) The independent assortment of two pairs of genes located on non-homologus chromosomes,
occur as a result of the random orientation of chromosome during:

(1) Telophase of the first meiotic division

(2) Metaphase of the first meiotic division
(3) Prophase of the second meiotic division
(4) The brief interphase between the two meiotic division

84) Which of the following inheritances is shown by given pedigree chart?

(1) X-Linked dominant

(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Autosomal recessive
(4) X-Linked recessive

85) Select out the incorrect match:

Possible Phenotype
Cross of children in family
A : B : AB : O
0
(1) IAIA × IBI 2:0:2:0
0
(2) IAIB × IBI 1:2:1:0
0 0 0
(3) I I × IAI 1:0:1:1
0 0
(4) I I × IAIB 2:2:0:0
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86)

Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal linked recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to the
offspring when both the partners are carrier or heterozygous. The disease is controlled by a single
pair of allele, HbA and HbS. Identify X, Y and Z:-

(1) GTG, GAC, Val

(2) GTG, CAC, Val
(3) GTA, GAG, Val
(4) GTC, GAC, Val

87) Which of the following characters of Drosophila is not suitable for genetical studies ?
(a) They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in laboratory
(b) They complete their life cycle in about 2-weeks
(c) Single mating produces few number of progeny flies.
(d) They have many types of hereditary variations that can be seen with low power microscope.
(e) Male & Female flies are not easily distinguishable

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) d and e
(4) c and e

88) In which case, the modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele.

(1) Production of non-functional enzyme

(2) Production of normal enzyme
(3) Production of no enzyme at all
(4) More than one option is correct

89) What results from the accumulation of phenylpyruvic acid in the brain?

(1) Increased intelligence

(2) Mental retardation
(3) Enhanced physical strength
(4) Improved vision

90) Match the column :-

a. XX–XY (i) birds

b. XX–XO (ii) Human

c. ZW–ZZ (iii) Grasshopper

(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii
(2) a–i, b–iii, c–ii
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iii
(4) a–ii, b–iii, c–i
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 4 1 4 4 2 3 3 2 3 3 1 4 3 2 2 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 2 4 4 3 3 4 2 4 4 1 2 3 3 1 3 1 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 4 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 2 4 1 1 1 4 2 2 4 1 4 3 1 4 3 3 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 3 4 1 1 1 1 2 4 2 1 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 1 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 4 1 4 1 2 3 4 3 2 1 2 1 1 3 3 4 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 1 4 2 3 1 3 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 1 3 3 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 3 4 4 4 4 4 1 2 3 1 1 2 2 2 3 1 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 1 4 1 4 1 2 4 3 2 3 1 2 4 4 2 3 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 2 3 3 2 4 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)
As potential difference is same between A & B due to length of two paths current distribution

at A is such that i1 = , i2 = so magnetic field at centre is zero.

4)

Where

=0
(Since, wire 3 passes through origin)

5)

θ1 = 45°; θ2 = 90°
d = r sin 45°

6)
 B(2πr) = μ0(I1+ I2 + I3 + I4 + I5)

0
B(2πr) = μ (20 – 6 + 12 – 7 + 18)

9) R =

R=

∴Rα

: :
=1:2:

10)
RA > RB
MAVA > MBVB

11)

Fmagnetic > FElectric then charge will move in –ve z direction

if q V B > q E
V > E/B

V> V > 4 × 104 m/s Hence V = 5 × 104 m/s

12)

and

17)

ε= = L × slope of i-t graph

20)

η= =

22) Transformer does not work on D.C.

24)

26)

27) NCERT Reference: XII, Part I, Page No. 272

28)

Theoretical

29) A = πr2

0
Id = A∈

33) VC = = =16 volt

36) Given MSD = cm

20 VSD = 18 MSD = 0.1 cm

1 VSD = MSD = 1 mm
= 0.9 MSD
Least count = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
= 1 MSD – 0.9 MSD
= 0.1 MSD
= (0.1) (1 mm)
= 0.1 mm

37) Pitch (p) = = 0.5 mm

Least count (LC) =

= = 0.005 mm
In fig (1) – No measurement:
 There is a Negative zero error
ZE = – 4, CSD = –4 × 0.005 mm = –0.02 mm
In fig (2) – During measurement :
MSR = 4 pitch = 4 × 0.5 mm = 2 mm
CSR = 55 CSD = 55 × 0.005 mm
= 0.275 mm
Final Reading = 2 mm + 0.275 mm – (–0.02 mm)
= 2.295 mm

38)

39)

Experimental

40)

If ℓ1 and ℓ2 are the consecutive resonant lengths, the wavelength of sound is given by

λ = 2(ℓ2–ℓ1) = 2(49–16) = 66 cm =

v = νλ = = 330 ms–1

41) Y1 = 4sin(500πt), Y2 = 2sin(506πt)

n1 = 250 Hz, n2 = 253 Hz
No. of Beats = n1 – n2 = 3
I1 ∝ 16, I2 ∝ 4

42) i = 15°, e = 60°, δ = 30

δ = i + e– A ⇒ A = 45°.

44) As the solenoids are identical, the currents in Q and R will be same and will be half the
current in P. The magnetic field within a solenoid is given by B = μ0nI. Hence the field in Q will
be equal to the field in ‘R’ and will be half the field in ‘P’ i.e. will be 2.0T.

45)

BA = ....(1)
 BC =

CHEMISTRY

50) Only d block cations gives Borax Bead test.

51)

I– → IO3–

53) : diamagnetic –CN : strong field ligand

: diamagnetic

: paramagnetic
Cl– : weak field ligand

: diamagnetic
–
CN : strong field ligand
[Cu(NH3)4]+2 : Cu+2 ⇒ one unpaired electron : paramagnetic

[Fe(CN)6]3– : Fe+3 : : paramagnetic, –CN : strong field ligand

[Fe(H2O)6]2+ : Fe2+ : : paramagnetic H2O : Weak field ligand

54) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl ⇒ Gives 1 mole AgCl

[Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 ⇒ Gives 2 moles AgCl
[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] ⇒ Gives No AgCl
[Pd(NH3)4]Cl2 ⇒ Gives 2 moles AgCl
Total number of moles of AgCl = 5 mole.

56) Extent of back bonding, reduces down the group leading to more Lewis acidic strength
58) (Bond enthalpy order
C – C > Si – Si > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn)

59)

60)

62)

H2S2O6
→ Dithionic acid

⇒ There is no S–O–S bond in it.

63)

I2 + conc. HNO3 → HIO3 + NO2

64)

[CrF6]–4
⇒ Cr+2 → 3d4
F– → WFL → No pairing
so unpaired e– = 4
(b) [MnF6]–4
Mn+2 → 3d5
F– → WFL → No pairing
unpaired e– = 5
(c) [Cr(CN)6]–4 ⇒ Cr+2 ⇒ d4
CN– → SFL

→ unpaired e– = 2
(d) [Mn (CN)6]–4 ⇒ 3d5,
 ⇒ d2sp3
–
unpaired e = 1

65)

66) Cr3+ ion is a most stable in aqueous solution due to. t2g half filled configuration.

67) [Co(NH3)6]+3 form low spin complex or spin paired complex by pairing of unpaired electron.
[CoF6]–3 form high spin or spin free complex (no pairing of unpaired electron)

68) The shape of is square planar, where CN- is a strong ligand and the
hybridisation of Ni is dsp2.

69)

SF6 do not hydrolyse as it is sterically hindered and stable

70)

Z = 24 (Cromium) show +3 and +6 oxidation state Cr+1 not exist.

71)

Fact

75)

Eu shows +2 & +3 oxidation state

78) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
The question presents an Assertion-Reason format, which requires you to determine:

A. Whether the assertion is true or false.

B. Whether the reason is true or false.

C. If both are true, whether the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Concept:
 Assertion (A) is correct: Interhalogen bonds (X-X') are indeed weaker than halogen bonds (X-
X).

Reason (R) is correct: Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogens (except
fluorine).

Reason (R) does not directly explain Assertion (A): While bond weakness contributes to
reactivity, reactivity is also influenced by other factors like polarity. Therefore, the reason,
while true, doesn't solely and directly explain why the bond is weaker.

Answer – Option(2 )

80) (white dense fumes)

BIOLOGY

93) Ncert Pg No: 197

95)

NCERT XII Pg. # 183

99) NCERT XII Pg # 152

105) Ncert page 164.

106)

Ncert Pg No: 194

107)

Ncert Pg No: 200

112)

Ncert Pg No: 202

113)

Ncert Pg No: 204

114)

Ncert Pg No: 204

115) NCERT-XII, Pg. # (E)-201, (H)-221

116)

NCERT Page.no 201

123)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 156,157,158

126) NCERT XII Page # 168.

127) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179, 180

131) NCERT Page no 211

132)

NCERT-XII, Page # 183

134) Ncert Pg No: 158

136) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 96, para 3

148)

Allen module.

151) NCERT Pg # 106

152) NCERT Pg # 111

154)

NCERT XII Pg # 107, fig. 6.8

155)

NCERT Page no. 111,112

157)
NCERT XII, Pg. # 101

158)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 96

172)

Data : Both the parents are bald and female child is normal.
∴ Father - Bb
Mother - BB
Therefore, 100% of baldness is there in male child.

175) NCERT XII Page # 77

176) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 74

179)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 75