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26 views6 pages2011 PPSC Zoology Done
The document outlines the instructions and format for a written test conducted by the Punjab Public Service Commission for the recruitment of lecturers in Zoology. It includes details on the test structure, marking scheme, and sample questions covering various biological concepts. Candidates are instructed to follow specific guidelines for answering and submitting their answer sheets.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
26 views6 pages2011 PPSC Zoology Done
The document outlines the instructions and format for a written test conducted by the Punjab Public Service Commission for the recruitment of lecturers in Zoology. It includes details on the test structure, marking scheme, and sample questions covering various biological concepts. Candidates are instructed to follow specific guidelines for answering and submitting their answer sheets.
Uploaded by
EiliyahCopyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF or read online on Scribd
/ 6
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION, LAHORE
Roll No. [1
WRITTEN TEST FOR RECRUITMENT TO THE POSTS OF LECTURER ZOOLOGY BS-17
MALE/FEMALE IN THE PUNJAB EDI
Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Instructions:
1. Write your allotted roll number in
Answer Sheet.
be deducted for each incorrect answer.
1
tN a!
oo Oy
, of
uv comer of Question Paper and in the specified place
Read the Question Paper carefully and mark your answers on the Answer Sheet
3. Each question has four options. Fill only one box that you think is correct answer.
IN DEPARTMENT, 2014
Maximum Marks: 100
a
0.25 marks will
Instructions for filling box have given on the Answer sheet. Read them before attempting.
heet
5. Read the instructions for filing your Roll No. and marking your answer on the Answer She!
before starting answering
6. __ Sign the answer sheet in the box provided at the left border corner.
7. Return both Question Paper and Answer sheet, to the staff, at the end of the test.
4. Ribosomes when not involved in protein 5.
synthesis consist of:
(A) mRNA and lipid (B) mRNA and tRNA
(C) tRNA andlipid (BY rRNA and protein
2. Which components are present in the
prokaryotic cell?
(A) chloroplast, DNA, nuclear envelop 6
(8) chromosomes, mitochondria, nuclear
envelop
cytoplasm, DNA, ribosomes
(D) cytoplasm, DNA, mitochondria
3. Which of the following are the features of 7,
glycogen?
(A) contains nitrogen, unbranched molecule,
have no structural role in cell
{B), contains nitrogen, unbranched molecule,
have structural role in cell 8.
no nitrogen, branched molecule, have no
structural role in cell
no nitrogen, unbranched molecule, have
structural role in cell
(Cc)
(0)
4. Name the bond joining glycerol and fz
in, the formation of monosaccharide. a?
(A) ester (8) glycosidic
(©) hydrogen (0) peptide
Which of the following properties of water
allows certain insects to stand on the surface?
{B-schesion with other molecules
) cohesion between water molecules
(C) low viscosity
(D) highest density at 4°C.
Which of the following bonds are i
for establishing roeue
second.
proteins? ndary structure of
(C) ionic
If lysosome me:
diameter in nm?
(2) hydrophobic
‘asures 0.4 um, what is the
(A) 4nm
(8) 40ni
(C) 400 ‘
© 4 1m ) 4000 am
ich property of 7
'eat of vaporization ae x
(8) cohesion &
(©) maximum a
lensity at 4
HO) specie heat Ha) ws °
"oy
‘Scanned with CemScanner aldehyde.
{A)_ carbonyl; keton,
) alcohol; carbon
40. Which of the fo}
the list?
(A) monosaccharide
(C) polysaccharide
41. What does a protein tos
e
i) tapas ose when it denatures?
(8) its 3-D shape
mS its peptide bond
),
sequence of amino acids
42. Which of the followir
of an enzyme?
(A) allosteric activator
(B) allosteric inhibitor
(G) non-competitive inhibitor
D)
competitive inhibitor
13. Which enzyme converts 2-phosphogyceric
acid into phosphoenol pyruvic acid?
(A) maltose (B)_ pyruvic kinase
(C) nuclease (D) enolase
© (B) oxygen: carbor
a
vl (0) alcohol; acetone
llowing term include all other in
(B), disaccharide
) carbohydrates
ing binds to the active site
14, Acetaldehyde is reduced with NADH in the
presence of alcohol dehydrogenase into:
) ethanol (B)_matonic acid
(C) fumaric acid" (D) acetic acid
45. An activated enzyme consisting of polypeptide
chain and a cofactor is known as:
(A) apo-enzyme —(B) holoenzyme
(C) coenzyme (0) prosthetic group
46. Which metabolic process in bacteria is directly
inhibited by penicillin?
(A) cellular respiration
(B) ATP hydrolysis
feApetiess of cell wall
{D) replication of DNA
47. Which of the foliowing structure-function Is
mis-matched? ‘
(A) nucleolus-ribosome production
(B) Iysosome-intracellular digestion
© ribosome-protein synthesis
).microtubule-muscle contraction
18. The final electron acceptor of ETC that
functions in oxidative
phosphorylation is:
LAS) one ee
(C) NAD* (D) pyruvate
19. Most of ATP made during cellular respiration
is penetrated by:
(A_-glycolysis
UB) oxidative phosphorylation
(C) Krebs cycle
(D) substrate
20. Homologous chromosomes _ segregate
towards opposite poles of a dividing cell
during:
(A) mitosis (8) meiosis 1
(C) meiosis it (0) binary fission
21, How many different combinations of maternal
and paternal chromosomes can be packed in
gamete made by an organism with diploid
number of 8 (2n ~ 8).
(A) 4 (8) 8
L€) 16 (0) 32
22. the primer required to initiate synthesis of a
at DNA strand consists of:
(A) RNA (8) DNA
(C) Okazaki segment(D) protein molecule
23. In recombinant DNA method, the term, vector,
refers to
(A) aRFLP
(®). sticky ends of DNA segments
(©) restriction enzyme
) a plasmid
24. The synthesis of polypeptide chain begins
with which of the following amino acids:
(A). Arginine (8) Lysine
(€) Methionine (D) Cysteine
25. The elongation of leading stand during DNA
synthesis:
(A) progresses away from the replication fork
(B) occurs in the 3' to 5' direction
(C)-produces Okazaki fragments
}) depends on the activation of DNA
polymerase
26. Which compound is not directly involved in the
process known as translation?
(A) mRNA Y@®) DNA
(C) tRNA (D) GTP
‘Scanned with CemScanner 27. The template to make cDNA is:
(A) DNA (6) mRNA
(C) plasmid (D) DNA probe
28. - Which of the following include all others in the
list?
(8) enzyme
(A)_pbozyme
(Creatas
29. What does the blood in the renal artery
contain in comparison with the blood in renal
vein:
(AY less carbon dioxide and more urea
(8) more carbon dioxide and less urea
(C) less oxygen and more urea
(D) more oxygen and less urea
(0) tRNA-synthetase
30. The colour of brown fat is due to large number
of mitochondria with cytohromes containing:
(A) nickel (8 iron
(C) iodine () copper
31. The amount of lactic acid in muscles
increases when they are lacking in
(A) glucose (B) carbon dioxide
(C) oxygen (0) bicarbonate ions
32. Which part of the brain detects temperature
changes?
(A)- cerebrum {B) cerebellum
(€) hypothalamus (0) thalamus
33. As a result of glycolysis in a cell:
(A) glucose is converted into glycogen
(B), glycogen is converted into glucose
) glucose is converted into pyruvic acid
'® — (D) pyruvic acid into oxaloacetate
34. During which stage in cardiac cycle are the
semi lunar valves shut:
var ventricular diastole
(B) atrial systole
(C) atrial diastole
(O) ventricular systole
36. How many ATP molecules are used in
preparatory phase of glycolysis?
) 2 (8) 4
(©) 6 (0) 8
36. Which of the following is common to both
avian and mammalian development?
a holoblastic cleavage
})_ primitive streak
(©) trophoblast — (0) folk plug
37. The endoderm gives rise to:
(A) skeleton
(B)_ skin epidermis
“C) lining of digestive tract
(0) body muscles
38. Adrenal gland is the derivative of.
(A) endoderm
(8) mesoderm
(C), ectoderm
f) ectoderm and mesoderm
39. Hensen’s node in chick embryo is equivalent
to
(A) anal opening
(8), atriopore
\C)’ dorsal lip of amphibian blastopore
(D) neural opening
40. The endometrial breakdown occurs due to
decrease of.
(A) estrogen progesterone
(C) FSH }) both a and b
41. Which of the following is not the function of
testosterone?
(A) increases sperm production
(8) stimulates secondary sexual
characteristics
ue inhibits LH secretion
)) aids sperm maturation
42. The process by which a tissue causes another
ge to differentiate is called
(A) induction (8) cleavage
(C) gastrulation" (D) differentiation
43. The archenteron develops into:
a blastocoel
) lumen of digestive system
(C) placenta
(0) fiver
44. i
in, ortebrates the yolk in eggs is synthesized
(A) oocytes
(C) blood
45. Which of the fol
lk
tection of imbe
(B) cumulus cells
) liver
19 drugs is responsible for
an humans?
elracycline 45) “thalidomide
?) Marijuana (D) aspirin
‘Scanned with CemScanner Which of the fol,
masculinization of femaieg> a" SCoelerate
(A) androgens
(8) alcohol
(C) paramethadione (Dy streptomycin
a7. Folic acid deficiency, is bel
cause of what clase of mafonseneree 3 el
)_trisomies
neural tube defects
(C) polyploidy
(D) duplications
48. hore sgiattamny defines and heart
efects ave Common in infants if mothers are
exposed to which teratogenic agents duri
first trimester of pregnancy? 4
(Ay tubella (B) retinoic acid
(C) thalidomide (D) alcohol
49. Which of the following is
anticoagulant for fetus?
(A) warfarin (By heparin
(C) NaH,PO, () sodium citrate
50. Adrenal medulla is the derivative of:
(AY ectoderm
(8) mesoderm
(C) ectoderm and endoderm
(D) ectoderm and mesoderm
the safest
51. Hydra exhibits regeneration of the type:
(A) epimorphic
(B) mpensatory
(C) morphallaxis
(D) stem cell-mediated
52. The stage of the conceptus that implants in
the uterine wall is:
(A) _blastomere
(a westocyst (D) zygote
53. The part of blastoderm in chick that forms
most of the actual one’
(BY epiblast
(A) marginal zone
(C) hypoblast (D) area opaca
(8) morula
yenesis is normal in all cells, how
54. If spermatogre il result from 80 primary
many sperms Dn
spernalgcyles and 50 spermatids?
100, 100 B) fal es
(©) 200, 50 (p) 100,
7 jon that is in Hardy Weinberg
Feoeseive trait. What is the frequency of the
dominant allele in the population?
(A) 0.84 (04
(C) 0.36 (b) 0.6
ee acts directly on:
) phenotype (B) each allele
{C) genotype (0) entire genome
56,
57. Evolutionary mechanisms consists of
population size, genetic drift and;
(A) ecosystem
(8) partial drift of genes
(C) Anutation
(0) natural selection
58. Which of the following groups is entirely,
extinct?
(A) cephalochodates (®)_agratnans
(C) ratite birds (By placoderms
59. The amniote egg first evolved In:
(A), bony fishes oN
(C)_ amphibians reptiles
60. Most of biological diversity ahs probably
arisen by:
& anagenesis
)
cladogenesis
61. The largest unit in which gene flow is possible
is:
(A) subspecies {ey species
(C) order (O) phylum
62. If humans and pandas belong to the same
class, then they must also belong to the
(B)_phyletic evolution
(D) hybridization
same:
(A) genus (8), family
(©) order )) phylum
63. Aland snail, a clam, and an octopus all share:
). mantle (B) torsion
(C) cephalization —(D) redula
64. Which of the following combinations of phylum
‘and description is incorrect?
) Porifera— gastrovascular cavity; mouth
from blastopore
(8) Platyhelminthes — flatworm; GV
acoelomate
(C) Nematoda — roundworms;
pseudocoelomate
(0) Echnodermata — bilateria; coelom from
archenteron
‘Scanned with CemScanner 65,
66.
67,
68.
69.
70,
m1.
72.
73.
74.
wulae~ Zoology
thi Of the following subdivisions of animal
Kingdom encompasses all the others in the
(A) protostomes
(C) coelomates
uv
(8) bilateria
(0) deutrostomes
How many kinds of individuals would be
produced if the genotypes of the
‘AaBbCc and AABBCc? cea
(A) 02
(C) 08
B). 04
) 16
Which of these result from aneuploidy?
(A) rubella
(B) fetal alcohol syndrome
(S)non disjunction
(6) Turner's syndrome
Condition in which a gene influences more
than one trait is called:
) pleiotropy (B) polyploidy.
(C) polygene (0) none of the above
Which of the following genotypes would
produce the greatest variety of gametes if the
alleles assort independently?
(A) eaBBCeDd (8) aabbCCDD
(Cy) AaBbCcDd —(D)_ AAbbeoDd
Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that:
(A) homologous chromosomes synapse
(B) the daughter cells are diploid
()
anaphase
() chromosome number is reduced
In which of the following stages crossing over
occurs?
(A) leptotene
(C) zygotene
‘All of the following change the gene frequency
(B) -pachytene
(B) diplotene
except one: . -
(A) mutation 16 inbreeding
(C) migration (0) selection
The RNA molecules that exhibit catalytic
activity are called:
(A)_mRNAS (8) ribonuleases
(Cy ribosomes (D) ribozymes
In animals, the enzyme unique to
