Test-1

Basic Knowledge of Computer.

1. What was the primary programming language used in second-generation computers?

A) Machine Language
B) Assembly Language
C) FORTRAN and COBOL
D) Python

2. Which company introduced the first commercially successful microprocessor?

A) IBM
B) Intel
C) HP
D) Microsoft

3.Which technology was primarily used in the first generation of computers?

A) Vacuum Tubes
B) Transistors
C) Integrated Circuits
D) Microprocessors

4.What was the primary programming language used in second-generation computers?

A) Machine Language
B) Assembly Language
C) FORTRAN and COBOL
D) Python

5. Which of the following is an example of a third-generation computer?

A) ENIAC
B) IBM 360
C) Intel 4004
D) Apple I

6. Which of the following programming paradigms became prominent with fifth-

generation computers?
A) Procedural Programming
B) Object-Oriented Programming
C) Logic Programming
D) Assembly-Level Programming

7. What development during the second generation significantly improved

programming productivity?
A) Use of Transistors
B) High-Level Programming Languages
C) Punch Cards for Input
D) Introduction of Registers

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8. Which material innovation contributed to the miniaturization of integrated circuits in
third-generation computers?
A) Germanium
B) Silicon
C) Copper
D) Gallium Arsenide

9. Which device became widely adopted as an output mechanism in fourth-generation

computers?
A) Punch Cards
B) CRT Monitors
C) Printers
D) LEDs

10. What distinguishes supercomputers from mainframes in fourth-generation

computing?
A) Higher Storage Capacity
B) Parallel Processing
C) Larger Size
D) Use of Magnetic Tape

11. Which type of operating systems emerged in third-generation computers?

A) Batch Processing
B) Time-Sharing Systems
C) Real-Time Operating Systems
D) Virtual Operating Systems

12. What is a key feature expected from sixth-generation computers?

A) Integrated Quantum Chips
B) Improved Vacuum Tubes
C) Greater Reliance on Magnetic Tape
D) Use of BASIC as the Core Language

13. The third generation of computers introduced which of the following innovations?
A) Artificial Intelligence
B) Integrated Circuits
C) Vacuum Tubes
D)Fiber Optics

14. What type of computer forms the backbone of cloud computing services?
A) Embedded Computers
B) Mainframes and Supercomputers
C) Minicomputers
D) Personal Computers

15.Who invented the C programming language?

A) Dennis Ritchie

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B) Bjarne Stroustrup
C) Ken Thompson
D) James Gosling

16. Who is credited with inventing the first digital computer?

A) Konrad Zuse
B) Charles Babbage
C) Alan Turing
D) John von Neumann

17. Which programming language is designed for artificial intelligence and natural
language processing?
A) Java
B)Prolog
C) C++
D) R

18. Which language introduced the concept of object-oriented programming (OOP)?

A) Java
B) Smalltalk
C) C++
D) Python

19. Which language is specifically designed for database queries?

A) Python
B) SQL
C) JavaScript
D)Kotlin

20. Which of these languages is widely used for front-end web development?
A) Java
B) HTML
C) Python
D) Ruby

21.What is the main purpose of the MATLAB programming language?

A) Web development
B) Numerical computing
C) Game development
D) Systems programming

22. Which type of RAM needs to be refreshed periodically?

A) SRAM
B) DRAM
C) ROM

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D) Flash

23.Which memory is directly accessible by the CPU?

A) Cache Memory
B) Secondary Memory
C) Virtual Memory
D) External Storage

24. What is the main purpose of virtual memory?

A) To store data permanently
B) To expand the capacity of primary memory
C) To increase processing speed
D) To store frequently used instructions

25.Which type of memory is the fastest?

A) DRAM
B) SSD
C) Cache
D) HDD

26.What does EEPROM stand for?

A) Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
B) Electronic Erasable Peripheral ROM
C) Enhanced Erasable Primary ROM
D) Efficient Erasable Programmable RAM

27. Which unit measures the speed of memory?

A) Hertz
B) Bits
C) Bytes
D) Nanoseconds

28. Which type of memory is used in USB drives?

A) Flash Memory
B) ROM
C) SRAM
D) Cache

29.What is the full form of SDRAM?

A) Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory
B) Systematic Dynamic Random Access Memory
C) Static Data Random Access Memory
D) Serial Dynamic Read Access Memory

30.Which type of internet service is typically associated with mobile broadband

networks and offers internet access via cellular data?
A) DSL

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B) Wi-Fi
C) 4G/LTE
D)Fiber optic

31.Which of the following internet services is widely used for short-range

communication within a building or a small area?
A) Bluetooth
B) 4G
C) DSL
D) Wi-Fi

32. Which system translates domain names into IP addresses?

A) FTP
B) DNS
C) HTTP
D) DHCP

33. Which type of addressing does the IPv6 protocol use?

A) 32-bit addresses
B) 64-bit addresses
C) 128-bit addresses
D) 256-bit addresses

34. Which layer of the OSI model corresponds to the internet's IP addressing and
routing?
A) Physical Layer
B) Transport Layer
C) Network Layer
D) Application Layer

35. Which internet technology helps maintain user anonymity by routing

communications through a network of relays?
A) DNS
B) VPN
C) Tor
D) FTP

36. What protocol is used to send emails over the internet?

A) POP
B) SMTP
C) HTTP
D) IMAP

37. Which protocol secures communication over the internet using encryption?
A) HTTP
B) HTTPS
C) FTP

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D) SMTP

38. What is "ping" used for in networking?

A) Measuring data packet size
B) Checking the reachability of a host
C) Encrypting communications
D) Transferring files

39. What does the term "bandwidth" refer to in internet connections?

A) Speed of the internet
B) Amount of data that can be transferred in a given time
C) Number of devices connected to a network
D) Encryption strength of a network

40. In which year was ARPANET, the precursor to the modern internet, first
implemented?
A) 1969
B) 1972
C) 1983
D) 1991

41. Who is credited with inventing the World Wide Web?

A) Vinton Cerf
B) Tim Berners-Lee
C) Robert Metcalfe
D) Steve Jobs

42. When was the term "internet" first used to describe the interconnected network of
networks?
A) 1974
B) 1980
C) 1983
D) 1990

43. Which institution is responsible for managing the global Domain Name System
(DNS)?
A) ICANN
B) IETF
C) W3C
D) ISOC

44. Which organization developed ARPANET?

A) DARPA
B) NASA
C) MIT
D) NSF

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45. When was the first web browser, WorldWideWeb, created?
A) 1989
B) 1990
C) 1992
D) 1993

46. Who invented Ethernet technology?

A) Tim Berners-Lee
B) Vinton Cerf
C) Robert Metcalfe
D) Dennis Ritchie

47. When was ICANN established?

A) 1988
B) 1995
C) 1998
D) 2000

48. Which organization proposed the first email standard?

A) W3C
B) ARPA
C) IETF
D) ISOC

49. Which institution manages the assignment of IP addresses globally?

A) ICANN
B) RIRs
C) ISOC
D) IANA

50. In which year was the first version of Microsoft Office released?
A) 1987
B) 1989
C) 1990
D) 1995

51. Which Microsoft Office application is used primarily for database management?
A) Excel
B) Access
C) OneNote
D) Visio

52. When was Microsoft Excel first released?

A) 1982
B) 1985
C) 1987

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D) 1990

53. Which Windows operating system was the first to support touchscreen functionality?
A) Windows XP
B) Windows Vista
C) Windows 7
D) Windows 8

54. Which feature was first introduced in Windows Vista?

A) Windows Defender
B) Task Manager
C) Cortana
D) Microsoft Edge

55. What is the purpose of a domain name?

A. Identifies a specific computer on the internet
B. Simplifies complex IP addresses
C. Functions as a search engine
D. Maintains network security

56. What does "cookie" refer to in internet browsing?

A. A virus program
B. A small text file storing user data
C. A tracking tool for hackers
D. A browser plug-in

57. What is the maximum length of an IPv4 address?

A. 16 bits
B. 32 bits
C. 64 bits
D. 128 bits

58. Which technology aims to safeguard data against threats posed by quantum
computers?
A. Blockchain Technology
B. Cloud Security Protocols
C. Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC)
D. Neural Network Algorithms

59. What is a significant goal of AI in Customer Experience (CX) management?

A. Full automation of customer service
B. Upskilling employees for better service
C. Increasing data collection
D. Replacing human interaction

60. What is a key feature of smaller AI models being developed?

A. Greater energy consumption
B. Improved multitasking

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C. Task-specific optimization
D. Increased model size

61. Virtual and augmented reality are significantly transforming:

A. Social media platforms
B. Infrastructure planning
C. Video game design
D. Retail management

62. Which cybersecurity threat is becoming more prominent with advanced AI?
A. Phishing
B. Social Engineering Attacks
C. Brute Force Attacks
D. Ransomware

63. What is the main feature introduced in the 1G mobile technology?

A. Internet browsing
B. Analog voice communication
C. SMS service
D. Digital voice communication

64. Which technology forms the basis of 3G mobile networks?

A. AMPS
B. GSM
C. CDMA2000 and UMTS
D. LTE

65. What generation of mobile networks introduced video calling as a common feature?
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. 5G

66. Which mobile network generation uses millimeter waves for faster speeds?
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. 5G

67.What does VoLTE stand for, as seen in 4G networks?

A. Voice Over Long-Term Evolution
B. Video Over LTE
C. Volume Optimization LTE
D. Variable Optimization Long-Term Evolution

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.
68. Which of the following is a goal of 6G technology?
A. Higher voice clarity
B. Terabit-level data speeds
C. Reduced data rates
D. Improved SMS functionality

69. Which of these was a hallmark feature of fourth-generation computers?

A) Microprocessors
B) Cloud Computing
C) Quantum Processing
D) Punch Cards

70. Fifth-generation computers are best associated with which of the following fields?
A) Artificial Intelligence
B) Mechanical Computing
C) Analog Processing
D) Vacuum Tubes

71. Which component was introduced with second-generation computers that replaced
vacuum tubes?
A) Resistors
B) Transistors
C) Capacitors
D) None of the above

72. Which company introduced the first commercially successful microprocessor?

A) IBM
B) Intel
C) HP
D) Microsoft

73. What distinguishes third-generation computers from their predecessors in terms of

user interface?
A) Graphical User Interface
B) Use of Monitors
C) Keyboards and Operating Systems
D) Virtual Reality

74. Which language became prominent with fourth-generation computers?

A) BASIC
B) COBOL
C) Assembly
D) Pascal

75. Which of the following computers is an example of the first generation?

A) UNIVAC

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B) IBM 1401
C) IBM 360
D) DEC PDP-11

76. What year marks the transition from the second to the third generation of
computers?
A) 1955
B) 1964
C) 1971
D) 1980

77. What was the primary drawback of first-generation computers?

A) Limited Memory
B) High Cost and Size
C) Inaccuracy
D) Slow Clock Speeds

78. Which generation saw the emergence of supercomputers?

A) First Generation
B) Second Generation
C) Third Generation
D) Fourth Generation

79. Which type of memory was first used in second-generation computers?

A) Magnetic Core Memory
B) Dynamic RAM
C) EPROM
D) Flash Memory

80. Who is credited with coining the term "Artificial Intelligence," central to fifth-
generation computing?
A) Alan Turing
B) John McCarthy
C) Marvin Minsky
D) Claude Shannon

81. Which type of computer is designed for personal use at home or in an office?
A) Microcomputer
B) Supercomputer
C) Mainframe
D) Embedded Computer

82.Which type of computer is widely used for data analytics in research labs?
A) Mainframe
B) Workstation
C) Tablet

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D) Embedded Computer

83. What is the primary feature of a tablet computer?

A) Detachable storage
B) Touchscreen interface
C) High computational speed
D) Parallel processing

84. Who developed the UNIX operating system?

A) Dennis Ritchie and Ken Thompson
B) Bill Gates
C) Linus Torvalds
D) Steve Wozniak

85. Who invented the graphical user interface (GUI)?

A) Xerox PARC team
B) Steve Jobs
C) Tim Berners-Lee
D) Bill Gates

86. Who is credited with creating the first hard disk drive?
A) IBM
B) Seagate
C) Toshiba
D) Hitachi

87. Who developed the first personal computer?

A) IBM
B) Steve Jobs and Steve Wozniak
C) Ed Roberts
D) Bill Gates

88. Who is credited with creating the Linux operating system?

A) Linus Torvalds
B) Richard Stallman
C) Ken Thompson
D) Dennis Ritchie

89. Which operating system is known as the first multi-user, multitasking OS?
A) UNIX
B) MS-DOS
C) Windows 95
D) Mac OS

90. What does the acronym "BIOS" stand for?

A) Basic Integrated Operating System

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B) Binary Input/Output System
C) Basic Input/Output System
D) Binary Integrated Operating System

91. Which OS is the primary choice for servers due to its stability and security?
A) Linux
B) Windows
C) MacOS
D) Chrome OS

92. What is the purpose of a swap space in an operating system?

A) To swap data between two computers
B) To store the kernel
C) To act as virtual memory
D) To back up data

93. Which Windows version introduced the Start menu?

A) Windows 95
B) Windows 3.1
C) Windows 98
D) Windows NT

94. Which OS is primarily used in Apple devices?

A) iOS
B) macOS
C) WatchOS
D) All of the above

95. What is the primary function of a shell in an OS?

A) Manage hardware
B) Interface between the user and kernel
C) Store user data
D) Execute software applications

96. Which of the following is an open-source mobile operating system?

A) iOS
B) Android
C) Windows Phone
D) Blackberry OS

97. What is one of the key features introduced in the 2024 update of Windows 11?
A) Advanced holographic displays
B) Generative erase for photos
C) Blockchain-based file management
D) Virtual desktop for AR applications

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98. Which mobile operating system introduced "Emergency SOS via satellite" for regions
without cellular service in 2023?
A) Android 14
B) iOS 16
C) HarmonyOS 4
D) iOS 17

99.Which operating system includes the "Nearby Share" feature, similar to Apple’s
AirDrop?
A) Android 14
B) iOS 17
C) macOS Ventura
D) Windows 11

100. Which Linux distribution gained traction in 2024 for AI model training?
A) Ubuntu 24.04
B) Fedora AI Edition
C) CentOS Stream
D) ArchLinux AI

Test-2
Cyber Security

1.Which act serves as the primary legislation for cybersecurity in India?

A. Indian Penal Code, 1860
B. IT Act, 2000
C. Cybersecurity Act, 2010
D. Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019

2.Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000 was struck down by the Supreme Court in which case?
A. K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India
B. Shreya Singhal vs Union of India
C. Naz Foundation vs Government of NCT
D. Internet Freedom Foundation vs TRAI

3.Which section of the IT Act penalizes sending offensive messages through

communication service?
A. Section 65
B. Section 66A
C. Section 67
D. Section 68

4.What is the penalty for tampering with computer source documents under the IT Act?
A. Section 65
B. Section 67
C. Section 70
D. Section 72

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5.Which Indian law was first amended to accommodate digital evidence?
A. Indian Penal Code, 1860
B. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C. Consumer Protection Act, 1986
D. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885

6.Which body regulates the use of encryption in India?

A. TRAI
B. CERT-In
C. Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY)
D. Reserve Bank of India

7.Under the IT Act, what is the term for a person who assists in committing a
cybercrime?
A. Perpetrator
B. Abettor
C. Hacker
D. Accomplice

8.What is the primary objective of the Digital India program in terms of cybersecurity?
A. Setting up more IT colleges
B. Creating a secure cyberspace
C. Developing mobile apps
D. Promoting e-commerce

9.Which law governs data breaches and imposes responsibilities on companies for user
data protection?
A. IT Act, 2000
B. Data Protection Bill, 2019
C. Copyright Act, 1957
D. Indian Penal Code, 1860

10. Which section of the IT Act penalizes hacking?

A. Section 43
B. Section 66
C. Section 67
D. Section 70

11.Under which section can websites be blocked in India?

A. Section 66
B. Section 69A
C. Section 72
D. Section 77

12. Which section addresses cyber terrorism?

A. Section 66C

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B. Section 66F
C. Section 70
D. Section 73

13.Which type of cybercrime refers to monitoring someone's online behavior without

their knowledge?
A. Keylogging
B. Cyber voyeurism
C. Cyber defamation
D. Malware attack

14.Which cybercrime involves obtaining sensitive government or corporate data?

A. Cyber espionage
B. Phishing
C. Keylogging
D. Cyberstalking

15.What type of cybercrime uses small data storage devices to steal sensitive files from a
computer physically?
A. USB-based malware
B. Physical hacking
C. Cyber theft
D. Insider attack

16What is the term for cybercrime that involves manipulating stock prices using
misinformation?
A. Digital piracy
B. Pump-and-dump schemes
C. Hacking
D. Identity theft

17.Which cybercrime intercepts users' sensitive data by exploiting unsecured wireless

networks?
A. Packet sniffing
B. Malware attack
C. SQL injection
D. Denial-of-service attack

18.What type of attack involves embedding malicious code into a legitimate program to
gain access to a system?
A. Spyware
B. Trojan horse
C. Adware
D. Keylogging

19.What is a stealth virus designed to do?

A. Encrypt files

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B. Hide its presence from antivirus software
C. Infect boot sectors
D. Replicate via email attachments

20.Which type of virus rapidly consumes disk space or memory by creating multiple
copies of itself?
A. Worm
B. Space-filler virus
C. Logic bomb
D. Boot sector virus

21.Which encryption standard is widely used in wireless networks?

A. AES
B. RSA
C. DES
D. SHA

22.Which key length is considered secure for modern encryption?

A. 64-bit
B. 128-bit
C. 512-bit
D. 1024-bit

23. Which cryptographic protocol secures data during transmission over the internet?
A. SSL/TLS
B. MD5
C. SHA-256
D. DES

24. Which hashing algorithm is widely used for data integrity?

A. AES
B. RSA
C. SHA-256
D. DES

25.What is the primary function of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?

A. To encrypt files
B. To manage keys and digital certificates
C. To store passwords
D. To compress data

26.What does the term "plaintext" refer to in encryption?

A. Encrypted data
B. Data before encryption
C. Data compressed for transmission
D. A public key

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27. Which encryption algorithm is known for being used in blockchain technology?
A. RSA
B. SHA-256
C. AES
D. DES

28. What is the primary vulnerability of symmetric encryption?

A. Complexity of algorithms
B. Difficulty in sharing the key securely
C. High computational overhead
D. Inability to encrypt large data

29. Which type of encryption is best for securing emails?

A. Symmetric encryption
B. Asymmetric encryption
C. Hashing
D. Stream cipher

30.Which technology is designed to detect and respond to unauthorized intrusions in a

network?
A. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
B. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
C. Multi-factor Authentication (MFA)
D. Antivirus software

31.Which cryptographic technique is used to secure data during transmission?

A. Digital Signatures
B. SSL/TLS Protocol
C. Hashing
D. EDR

32.What is the role of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?
A. Preventing unauthorized logins
B. Encrypting sensitive data
C. Collecting and analyzing security logs for threat detection
D. Scanning emails for phishing

33. What does "sandboxing" refer to in cybersecurity?

A. Testing applications in isolated environments to detect malicious behavior
B. Encrypting sensitive data
C. Managing user authentication
D. Blocking spam emails

34. What is a Zero Trust security model?

A. Always assuming internal traffic is safe
B. Trusting no user or device by default, even within the network

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C. Allowing all traffic after initial authentication
D. A method of password management

35.Which cybersecurity technology helps prevent phishing attacks?

A. EDR
B. DNS filtering
C. SIEM
D. Encryption

36.Which malware has recently exploited a zero-day vulnerability in GeoVision devices

for potential DDoS attacks?
a) Pegasus
b) SteelFox
c) Bumblebee
d) Water Hydra

37. What is the primary characteristic of the "ILOVEYOU" virus?

A) It spreads through email attachments
B) It spreads through website pop-ups
C) It affects hardware components
D) It encrypts files

38. Which virus is known for affecting Microsoft Windows systems by exploiting
vulnerabilities in the system’s file-sharing protocol?
A) Conficker
B) Blaster
C) MyDoom
D) Sasser

39. The "Stuxnet" virus is considered a significant cyber-attack. What was its primary
target?
A) Banking systems
B) Nuclear facilities
C) Healthcare systems
D) Social media accounts

40. Which virus is known for being one of the first to perform "ransomware" actions by
encrypting files and demanding payment?
A) Cryptolocker
B) Ransomware
C) Zeus
D) Code Red

41. What is the function of the "Conficker" virus?

A) It steals sensitive personal information
B) It turns infected computers into a botnet
C) It encrypts the hard drive
D) It redirects web traffic to fake websites

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42. The "MyDoom" virus is often associated with which type of activity?
A) Stealing passwords
B) Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks
C) Phishing
D) Keylogging

43. The "Code Red" virus primarily targeted which version of Windows?
A) Windows XP
B) Windows 95
C) Windows NT
D) Windows 2000

44. Which of these viruses spreads primarily through instant messaging services?
A) Sasser
B) Nimda
C) Zbot
D) ILOVEYOU

45. Which of the following is the main function of a firewall in computer security?
A) It helps in encrypting files
B) It prevents unauthorized access to a network
C) It repairs corrupted files
D) It checks the computer for malware

46. Which virus was famous for creating a backdoor into Windows systems by exploiting
a vulnerability in the SMB protocol?
A) Stuxnet
B) Conficker
C) MyDoom
D) WannaCry

47.Which computer virus, classified as a Trojan, is specifically designed to steal sensitive

financial information?
A) Zeus
B) Melissa
C) ILOVEYOU
D) Sasser

48. What is the "Trojan Horse" virus primarily known for?

A) Self-replication across networks
B) Unauthorized data collection
C) Disguising as legitimate software to trick users
D) Corrupting system files

49. What function does a "firewall" serve in a corporate network?

A) It encrypts sensitive data
B) It prevents unauthorized access to and from the network
C) It scans incoming emails for malware
D) It updates antivirus definitions

50. What is "White Hat" hacking also known as?

A) Malicious Hacking
B) Ethical Hacking

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C) Cyber Espionage
D) Phishing

51. Which type of hacking involves unauthorized access for malicious intent?
A) Gray Hat Hacking
B) White Hat Hacking
C) Black Hat Hacking
D) Script Kiddies

52. What is "Gray Hat" hacking?

A) Ethical hacking without permission
B) Ethical hacking with authorization
C) Malicious hacking for financial gain
D) Phishing attacks

53. What is the primary purpose of a rootkit?

A) To enhance system performance
B) To gain unauthorized control over a system
C) To detect malware
D) To block phishing emails

54. Which type of rootkit hides in the firmware of a system?

A) Kernel-level Rootkit
B) Firmware Rootkit
C) User-mode Rootkit
D) Application Rootkit

55. What type of hacking targets public figures or organizations to damage their
reputation?
A) Hacktivism
B) Cyber Espionage
C) Phishing
D) Ransomware Attack

56. What is a "keylogger" commonly used for in cyber attacks?

A) Encrypting sensitive data
B) Recording keystrokes to steal information
C) Scanning for vulnerabilities
D) Blocking unauthorized access

57. What is the primary target of a "Man-in-the-Middle" attack?

A) System files
B) Communication between two parties
C) Network routers
D) User accounts

58. Which rootkit operates at the core of the operating system and has full access to
resources?
A) Application Rootkit
B) Kernel-level Rootkit
C) Firmware Rootkit
D) User-mode Rootkit

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59. What is a "Botnet"?
A) A single malware program
B) A network of infected computers controlled remotely
C) A type of ransomware
D) A firewall technique

60. What distinguishes Spear Phishing from regular Phishing?

A) It targets specific individuals or organizations
B) It uses mass email campaigns
C) It infects systems with ransomware
D) It bypasses firewalls

61. What is a "Polymorphic Virus"?

A) A virus that infects the BIOS
B) A virus that changes its code to evade detection
C) A virus that replicates without user intervention
D) A virus designed to target rootkits

62.What is the purpose of the CERT-In (Computer Emergency Response Team-India)?

A. To draft cyber laws
B. To monitor and respond to cybersecurity incidents
C. To enforce penalties for cybercrimes
D. To regulate online content

63. Which section of the IT Act penalizes identity theft?

A. Section 66B
B. Section 66C
C. Section 67
D. Section 72

64.The "Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code Rules, 2021" were
framed under which act?
A. IT Act, 2000
B. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
D. Data Protection Act, 2019

65.What does Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000 address?

A. Cyberstalking
B. Publishing obscene material in electronic form
C. Hacking
D. Financial fraud

66.The “Pigmy Goat” malware targets which security devices?

a) Cisco routers
b) Sophos firewalls
c) AWS EC2 instances
d) Palo Alto firewalls

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67. Which malware loader returned in 2024 after law enforcement disruption?
a) Bumblebee
b) Emotet
c) RedLine
d) Glove Stealer

68. What recent malware can bypass Chrome's cookie encryption to steal data?
a) Glove Stealer
b) Hydra Trojan
c) Zeus
d) SteelFox

69.CVE-2023-22527 was a critical vulnerability in which system?

a) WordPress
b) Atlassian Confluence
c) Apache
d) VMware

70.What is the name of the campaign targeting Ukrainian conscripts with malware?
a) UNC5812
b) BlueNoroff
c) Pegasus
d) HydraNet

71. Which malware was associated with macOScryptomining in 2024?

a) RedLine
b) SteelFox
c) BlueNoroff
d) HydraNet

72.A Russian national was charged for creating which prolific infostealer malware?
a) Emotet
b) RedLine
c) DarkComet
d) Dridex

73. Which of the following is the national nodal agency for responding to cybersecurity
incidents in India?
A) CERT-In
B) C-DAC
C) NCIIPC
D) DSCI

74. In which year was the Data Security Council of India (DSCI) established?
A) 2001
B) 2005
C) 2008
D) 2010

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75. What does the abbreviation IDRBT stand for?
A) Institute for Digital Research in Banking Technology
B) Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology
C) Indian Data Research in Banking Technology
D) Indian Development Research in Banking Technology

76. Which organization is responsible for advising the government on the protection of
India’s critical infrastructure from cyber threats?
A) C-DAC
B) CERT-In
C) NCIIPC
D) DSCI

77. Which Indian institute is tasked with securing communication networks and
providing encryption solutions?
A) C-DAC
B) CERT-In
C) NCIIPC
D) IDRBT

78. Which of the following institutes is involved in managing cybersecurity threats

specific to national security?
A) NCIIPC
B) DSCI
C) CERT-In
D) IDRBT

79.Which law in India addresses unauthorized access to a computer system?

A. Section 43 of IT Act, 2000
B. Section 65 of IT Act, 2000
C. Indian Penal Code, 1860
D. Data Protection Bill, 2019

80. The Aadhaar Act, 2016 ensures data protection under which of its provisions?
A. Section 8
B. Section 28
C. Section 34
D. Section 37

81. What does Section 67 of the IT Act penalize?

A. Publishing obscene material electronically
B. Identity theft
C. Hacking
D. Data tampering

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82. What is the punishment for tampering with computer source documents under
Section 65?
A. Fine only
B. Imprisonment of up to 3 years, or fine, or both
C. Imprisonment of up to 1 year
D. No penalty

83. Which section grants authority to monitor encrypted information?

A. Section 69
B. Section 66A
C. Section 70
D. Section 72

84. What is the role of Section 70 in the IT Act?

A. Defines penalties for hacking
B. Protects critical information infrastructure
C. Addresses digital signatures
D. Penalizes obscene content

85. What is the penalty for identity theft under Section 66C of IT Act?
A. Fine up to ₹1 lakh
B. Imprisonment up to 3 years
C. Both fine and imprisonment
D. No penalty

86. Which body handles cybersecurity incidents under the IT Act?

A. TRAI
B. CERT-In
C. MeitY
D. NIA

87. Which section penalizes breach of confidentiality and privacy under IT Act 2000?
A. Section 66
B. Section 67A
C. Section 72
D. Section 75

88.Which cybercrime involves tricking individuals into divulging sensitive information

via fake websites or emails?
A. Malware attack
B. Phishing
C. Denial-of-service attack
D. Spyware installation

89.What is the term for software designed to disrupt, damage, or gain unauthorized
access to a computer system?
A. Ransomware

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B. Malware
C. Trojan Horse
D. Spyware

90.Which cybercrime specifically targets financial gain by encrypting victims' files and
demanding payment for the decryption key?
A. Phishing
B. Ransomware
C. Hacking
D. Cyberbullying

91.What type of cybercrime involves sending a large number of requests to overwhelm a

server and make it inaccessible?
A. Spoofing
B. Denial-of-service (DoS) attack
C. Cyber espionage
D. SQL injection

92. Which type of cybercrime involves secretly monitoring someone's online activity?
A. Cyberstalking
B. Spyware attack
C. Phishing
D. Identity theft

93.What is the term for the theft of someone’s identity for fraudulent purposes?
A. Cyberbullying
B. Hacking
C. Identity theft
D. Spoofing

94.Which cybercrime uses social engineering techniques to manipulate individuals into

revealing personal information?
A. Malware attack
B. Phishing
C. Cyberstalking
D. Smishing

95. What is the act of altering data unlawfully to defraud others?

A. Hacking
B. Cyber fraud
C. Data diddling
D. Spoofing

96. Which type of cybercrime targets children by exploiting them online?

A. Cyberbullying
B. Cyber grooming
C. Identity theft

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D. Spyware installation

97. What cybercrime involves intercepting private communications over a network?

A. Cyber espionage
B. Eavesdropping
C. Denial-of-service attack
D. SQL injection

98. What type of attack uses fake identities to deceive others online?
A. Phishing
B. Spoofing
C. Cyberbullying
D. Data breach

99. What is the term for unauthorized attempts to access database systems using
malicious queries?
A. SQL injection
B. DoS attack
C. Phishing
D. Cyber espionage

100. What is the cybercrime involving sending fraudulent emails claiming to be from
reputable sources to gain financial or personal information?
A. Cyberbullying
B. Phishing
C. Cyber espionage
D. Data breach

Test-3
Robotics and AI

1. Who is considered the co-inventor of the first industrial robot, Unimate?

A) Isaac Asimov
B) George Devol
C) Joseph Engelberger
D) Both B and C

2. What was the name of the play in which the term "robot" was first introduced?
A) Metropolis
B) R.U.R. (Rossum's Universal Robots)
C) Frankenstein
D) The Robot’s Rebellion

3. Which ancient Greek engineer is known for creating early automata such as
mechanical temples and puppets?
A) Pythagoras

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B) Aristotle
C) Heron of Alexandria
D) Plato

4. When was the first robot-assisted surgery performed?

A) 1985
B) 1995
C) 2000
D) 2010

5. Which country developed the first robot astronaut, Robonaut?

A) Russia
B) USA
C) Japan
D) Germany

6. Which component is essential for a robot's autonomous decision-making?

A) End-effector
B) Controller
C) Actuator
D) Frame

7. Which type of motion is unique to a Cartesian robot?

A) Circular motion
B) Linear motion along X, Y, and Z axes
C) Rotational motion
D) Random motion

8. In robotics, "gripper" typically refers to which component?

A) Sensor
B) Actuator
C) End-effector
D) Frame

9. Which Indian institution established the first robotics laboratory in the country?
A) IIT Kanpur
B) IISc Bangalore
C) DRDO
D) ISRO

10. In which year was the Indian Society for Robotics and Automation (ISRA) founded?
A) 1986
B) 1992
C) 2000
D) 1984

11. Which Indian organization developed Daksh, an indigenous robot?

A) ISRO
B) DRDO
C) BARC
D) CSIR

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12. Which Indian university initiated the Centre for Robotics and Intelligent Systems
(CRIS)?
A) IIT Delhi
B) IIT Kanpur
C) IIT Bombay
D) Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham

13. What was India's first humanoid robot developed for public interaction?
A) Mitra
B) Manav
C) Sophia
D) Chitti

14. Which organization created India's first indigenous robotic surgical system, SSI
Mantra?
A) All India Institute of Medical Sciences
B) Indian Institute of Science
C) Skanray Technologies
D) SS Innovations

15. What is the primary purpose of the “e-Vahan” robot developed in India?
A) Autonomous farming
B) Traffic management
C) Law enforcement
D) Disaster recovery

16. Which Indian startup is known for developing the advanced robotic arm Grasp?
A) GreyOrange
B) Asimov Robotics
C) Hi-Tech Robotics Systemz
D) Sastra Robotics

17. In which year did the Government of India launch the SAMARTH Udyog initiative,
focusing on robotics in manufacturing?
A) 2016
B) 2017
C) 2018
D) 2019

18. Which Indian robotic platform specializes in warehouse automation?

A) Milagrow
B) GreyOrange
C) ASIMOV
D) DRONA

19.What was significant about the robot "BigDog," developed by Boston Dynamics?
A) It mimicked a horse’s movements
B) It was the first quadruped robot capable of navigating rough terrain
C) It could fly autonomously
D) It was powered entirely by solar energy

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20. Who developed the first robot capable of playing chess?
A) Charles Babbage
B) Alan Turing
C) MIT AI Lab
D) IBM

21.Which robot became the first to achieve citizenship in a country?

A) Sophia
B) Asimo
C) Pepper
D) Kismet

22. Which programming language is most associated with early robotics research?
A) Python
B) LISP
C) C++
D) COBOL

23. Who is often referred to as the "Father of AI"?

A) John McCarthy
B) Alan Turing
C) Marvin Minsky
D) Herbert Simon

24. Which subfield of AI includes the development of chatbots like ChatGPT?

A) Natural Language Processing
B) Robotics
C) Machine Learning
D) Expert Systems

25. Which AI subfield studies strategies for decision-making in competitive

environments?
A) Game Theory
B) Reinforcement Learning
C) Deep Learning
D) Computer Vision

26. Which country leads the world in AI regulations through its proposed AI Act?
A) United States
B) European Union
C) India
D) China

.
27. India recently collaborated with which global tech giant to establish AI models for
healthcare?
A) Google
B) Microsoft
C) OpenAI

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D) IBM

28. The first generative AI system in India for public administration is called?
A) Bhashini AI
B) GPT India
C) Samarth AI
D) Sagar AI

29. Which Indian company launched the ‘Sankalp’ AI platform to combat cyber threats?
A) Infosys
B) TCS
C) HCL
D) Wipro

.
30.Which technology is utilized in India’s new flood prediction AI model?
A) Natural Language Processing
B) Machine Learning
C) Blockchain
D) Internet of Things (IoT)

31. India is collaborating with which nation for AI-based agricultural technologies?
A) Israel
B) Germany
C) Japan
D) France

.
32. Which Indian state recently announced a large-scale AI initiative for smart cities?
A) Karnataka
B) Maharashtra
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Gujarat

33. Which global summit discussed AI's role in climate change mitigation in 2024?
A) COP29
B) G20 Summit
C) UNGA AI Summit
D) AI for Climate Forum

34. What is the name of the initiative focusing on AI in governance by NITI Aayog?
A) Digital India AI
B) Responsible AI for All
C) AI Governance Hub
D) Bharat AI Ecosystem

35. India's AI-based judicial case management system is known as?

A) eCourts 2.0

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B) SUPACE
C) AI Justice
D) Nyaya Tech

36. Which industry in India has benefited the most from AI-driven chatbots in 2024?
A) Banking
B) Retail
C) Education
D) Tourism

37. What is the global AI-powered humanitarian prediction tool used in India for natural
disasters?
A) Gaia AI
B) Artemis AI
C) AI4Relief
D) CEPI-AI

38. Which AI-powered tool was recently adopted in India for mapping biodiversity?
A) EcoAI
B) iNaturalist AI
C) AI-WildLife Mapper
D) eBiodiversityAI

39. Which AI system has been implemented by the Indian Railways for safety
monitoring?
A) Kavach AI
B) AI-SafeGuard
C) RailNet AI
D) LokSuraksha AI

40. Which Indian city implemented AI-based traffic management in 2024?

A) Bengaluru
B) Pune
C) Chennai
D) Hyderabad

41. Which organization launched the "AI for All" initiative in India?
A) NITI Aayog
B) Microsoft India
C) CBSE
D) Intel India

42. Which global AI summit in 2024 emphasized ethical AI development?

A) G20 AI Summit
B) Global Partnership on AI (GPAI)

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C) AI Ethics Summit
D) COP29 Tech Forum

43. Which AI initiative is being used by the Indian agricultural sector for soil health
analysis?
A) Bhoomi AI
B) KrishiYantrAI
C) DigiKisan AI
D) AgriTechAI

44. What is India's AI-powered health initiative to predict disease outbreaks?

A) Suraksha AI
B) Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
C) HealthNet AI
D) Integrated Health Prediction AI

45. The AI chatbot “Saksham” was introduced in India for which sector?
A) Banking
B) Railways
C) Education
D) Healthcare

46. Which test was proposed by Alan Turing in 1950 to determine machine intelligence?
A) Intelligence Quotient Test
B) Turing Test
C) Imitation Game
D) Neural Network Test

47. Which event in 1956 is widely considered the starting point of AI as a research field?
A) The invention of the transistor
B) Dartmouth Conference
C) Launch of Sputnik
D) Publication of "Perceptrons" by Minsky and Papert

48. Which AI system defeated Garry Kasparov in chess in 1997?

A) AlphaZero
B) DeepMind
C) Deep Blue
D) Watson

49. Which programming language, introduced in 1972, became a standard for AI

research?
A) Python
B) Lisp
C) Prolog
D) Java

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50. What is the primary function of actuators in a robot?
A) Processing sensory inputs
B) Converting energy into mechanical motion
C) Storing and supplying energy
D) Communicating with external systems

51. Degrees of Freedom (DOF) in a robot primarily affect its:

A) Power consumption
B) Flexibility and range of motion
C) Communication abilities
D) End-effector attachment types

52. Which type of robot is specifically designed for space exploration?

A) Mobile robots
B) Humanoid robots
C) Articulated robots
D) Rover robots

53. In robotics, what is the primary role of the end-effector?

A) Generating energy
B) Sensing environmental conditions
C) Interacting with the environment
D) Processing commands

54. Which sensor is most commonly used for object detection in robots?
A) Gyroscope
B) Proximity sensor
C) Thermometer
D) Humidity sensor

55. Which material is commonly used for building lightweight robotic frames?
A) Stainless steel
B) Aluminum
C) Lead
D) Titanium

56. What does the term "robotic manipulator" refer to?

A) The sensor used for navigation
B) The arm of the robot used for handling objects
C) The software controlling robot movements
D) The power source of the robot

57. Which of the following is NOT a type of actuator?

A) Electric motor
B) Hydraulic cylinder
C) Pneumatic valve
D) Light-emitting diode

58. Which Indian state is home to the largest robotics park inaugurated in 2022?
A) Karnataka
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Gujarat
D) Maharashtra

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59. Which Indian company collaborated with the Ministry of Defense to develop the
Tactical Robotic System (TRoS)?
A) Tata Advanced Systems
B) Larsen & Toubro
C) Bharat Electronics Limited
D) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

60.Which component of AI focuses on machines simulating human decision-making

processes?
A) Machine Learning
B) Natural Language Processing
C) Expert Systems
D) Vision Systems

61. Which of the following is NOT a core component of AI?

A) Robotics
B) Machine Learning
C) Knowledge Representation
D) Cryptography

62.Which subfield of AI focuses on enabling machines to learn from data?

A) Neural Networks
B) Machine Learning
C) Robotics
D) Natural Language Processing

63.What is the purpose of a neural network in AI?

A) Encrypting data
B) Simulating the human brain
C) Processing natural language
D) Managing hardware components

64. Which AI component is most involved in planning and decision-making?

A) Heuristics
B) Robotics
C) Expert Systems
D) Knowledge Representation

65. Which type of AI is primarily focused on enhancing human-machine interaction?

A) Machine Learning
B) Natural Language Processing
C) Robotics
D) Reinforcement Learning

66. What does "Deep Learning" primarily use for its operations?
A) Simple algorithms
B) Large datasets and multi-layered neural networks
C) Knowledge bases
D) Statistical models

67. Which of the following is an example of robotics in AI?

A) Speech recognition
B) Self-driving cars

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C) Data mining
D) Sentiment analysis

68. What is a chatbot an example of in AI?

A) Expert System
B) Natural Language Processing
C) Machine Learning
D) Computer Vision

69. Which type of AI can only perform tasks it was specifically programmed for?
A) Narrow AI
B) General AI
C) Super AI
D) Reactive AI

70. What is the primary focus of Super AI?

A) Beating humans in chess
B) Surpassing human intelligence and capabilities
C) Replacing human labor
D) Functioning without human intervention

71. Limited Memory AI is best exemplified by which application?

A) Chatbots
B) Self-driving cars
C) Smart thermostats
D) Reactive game-playing AI

72. Which AI type is not yet realized but represents the ultimate goal of AI development?
A) Narrow AI
B) General AI
C) Super AI
D) Reactive Machines

73. What is a characteristic feature of General AI?

A) Specific task optimization
B) Human-level reasoning and learning abilities
C) Inability to adapt to new situations
D) Lack of creativity

74. Which type of AI uses historical data to predict outcomes?

A) Reactive Machines
B) Limited Memory AI
C) General AI
D) Super AI

75. Which type of AI is also referred to as weak AI?

A) Narrow AI
B) General AI
C) Super AI
D) Reinforcement AI

76. AI chatbots like Siri and Alexa are examples of which type of AI?
A) General AI

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B) Super AI
C) Narrow AI
D) Reactive Machines

77. What makes Limited Memory AI different from Reactive AI?

A) Use of neural networks
B) Ability to store and learn from past data
C) Faster processing speeds
D) Better user interface

78. Which type of AI could potentially develop self-awareness?

A) Super AI
B) Narrow AI
C) Reactive Machines
D) General AI

79. Deep Blue, the chess-playing computer, is an example of what type of AI?
A) General AI
B) Reactive AI
C) Limited Memory AI
D) Super AI

80. What is the defining characteristic of Narrow AI systems?

A) Problem-solving across all domains
B) Lack of memory
C) Performing a single task very effectively
D) Operating without human intervention

81. What is the primary focus of Machine Learning?

A) Building hardware for AI
B) Learning from data and improving over time
C) Designing robots
D) Simulating human emotions
.
82. Which AI subfield employs neural networks to solve complex problems?
A) Robotics
B) Expert Systems
C) Deep Learning
D) Natural Language Processing

83. What subfield of AI involves planning and problem-solving using stored knowledge?
A) Machine Learning
B) Expert Systems
C) Robotics
D) NLP

84. Which AI model was launched to assist Indian farmers with weather predictions?
A) Meghdoot AI
B) MonsoonAI
C) Krishi AI
D) ClimateAI

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85. Which AI-powered platform is used for crop insurance claims in India?
A) CropGuard AI
B) Pradhan Mantri AI-Bima
C) Krishi Insurance AI
D) DigiClaim

86. Which AI tool is helping Indian police with facial recognition for missing persons?
A) Trinetra AI
B) Darpan AI
C) Aadhaar Face AI
D) Jyoti AI

87. Which ministry released the Draft National Strategy on Robotics in October 2023?
A) Ministry of Science and Technology
B) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
C) Ministry of Defence
D) Ministry of Skill Development

88. The National Robotics Mission proposes establishing which of the following?
A) Space robotics labs
B) Robotics Innovation Units (RIU)
C) AI-only research centers
D) Drone-specific R&D zones

89. Which country is leading in humanoid robot deployment for public services?
A) USA
B) Japan
C) Germany
D) South Korea

90. What is the significance of "Cyber Physical Systems" in India's robotics mission?
A) Advanced military weaponry
B) Integration of physical and digital technologies
C) Replacement of human workers in agriculture
D) Robotics for social media monitoring

91. Which Indian initiative aims to promote robotics and AI at school levels?
A) Skill India
B) Atal Tinkering Labs
C) Digital India
D) National AI Mission

92. Which of the following is a major application of robotics in healthcare in India?

A) Robotic surgery
B) Pharmacy automation
C) Remote patient monitoring
D) All of the above

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93. The National Strategy on Robotics identifies how many core sectors for automation?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

94. India's "Make in India 2.0" includes robotics under how many identified sub-sectors?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 27
D) 30

95. Which humanoid robot made by Kerala engineering students was recently in the
news?
a) Sophia
b) ASIMO
c) Vihaan
d) Aadya

96. Which Indian university’s aeromodelling club is developing smart drones?

a) IIT Delhi
b) IIT Guwahati
c) NIT Trichy
d) Anna University

97. Which Indian startup launched the “Elevate V1” series drone?
a) InsideFPV
b) DRDO
c) Skyroot
d) AeronX

98. The “Coro-bot” was developed during the COVID-19 pandemic for what purpose?
a) Delivering food in isolation wards
b) Disinfecting large areas
c) Diagnosing diseases
d) Robotic surgeries

99. Which government initiative supports deep-tech startups, including robotics?

a) Atal Tinkering Labs
b) Digital India Innovation Fund
c) Make in India 2.0
d) Startup India Robotics

100. What is the purpose of Captain Arjun, a robot launched by the Indian Railways?
a) Surveillance at railway stations
b) Ticket vending

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c) Luggage handling
d) Cleaning railway tracks

Test-4
E-Commerce and E Governance
Name……………………………… ID………………… Marks………./100

1. What is the primary objective of e-Governance?

a) Increased taxation
b) Transparent and efficient public service delivery
c) Improved entertainment options
d) Privatization of government agencies

2. Which is the first country to implement a fully digital voting system under e-
Governance?
a) Estonia
b) Finland
c) Japan
d) USA

3. In India, which policy laid the foundation for e-Governance?

a) Digital India Campaign
b) National e-Governance Plan (NeGP), 2006
c) Make in India
d) BharatNet Project

4. Which of the following is NOT a component of e-Governance?

a) e-Administration
b) e-Services
c) e-Commerce
d) e-Governance policies

5. What is the name of India’s largest rural broadband connectivity initiative?

a) Digital Villages Program
b) BharatNet
c) National Fibre Mission
d) eGramSwaraj

6. Which state in India was the first to adopt e-Governance extensively?

a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Gujarat

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7. What does "m-Governance" refer to?
a) Governance through manual records
b) Governance using mobile devices
c) Micro-level governance policies
d) Migration governance

8. What is the role of the e-Sign service in e-Governance?

a) Securing internet connections
b) Providing digital authentication for documents
c) Managing government portals
d) Tracking cybercrimes

9. Which e-Governance initiative focuses on digitizing education in India?

a) Diksha
b) SWAYAM
c) e-Paathshala
d) All of the above

10. Which technology is key to securing e-Governance platforms?

a) Cloud computing
b) Blockchain
c) Big Data
d) Virtual Reality

11. What is the main purpose of UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age
Governance)?
a) Single-point access to multiple government services
b) Mobile gaming
c) Weather updates
d) Virtual reality experiences

12. Which of the following represents Government-to-Citizen (G2C) e-Governance?

a) Tax filings by businesses
b) Online grievance redressal portals for citizens
c) Coordination between government departments
d) Sharing data among government agencies

13. Which type of e-Governance is primarily used for internal government operations?
a) G2B
b) G2G
c) G2E
d) G2C

14. Which type of e-Governance improves trade and commerce?

a) G2E
b) G2G
c) G2B

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d) G2C

15. What type of e-Governance is a government-to-government taxation data-sharing

initiative?
a) G2C
b) G2B
c) G2G
d) G2E

16. Which type of e-Governance does the online filing of income tax fall under?
a) G2C
b) G2B
c) G2G
d) G2E

17. What type of e-Governance enables citizens to register complaints online?

a) G2B
b) G2C
c) G2G
d) G2E

18. Which Indian program exemplifies G2B e-Governance?

a) GST Portal
b) Digital Locker
c) Swachh Bharat Mission
d) UMANG App

19. What is a distinguishing feature of G2B e-Governance?

a) Transparency in trade procedures
b) Direct public access to government
c) Employee attendance management
d) Intergovernmental collaboration

20. Which type of e-Governance ensures better service delivery through mobile
platforms?
a) m-Governance
b) G2C
c) G2E
d) G2G

21. Which component of e-Governance focuses on delivering services through integrated

platforms?
a) Connectivity
b) Process re-engineering
c) Transparency

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d) IT infrastructure

22. Which component is associated with the seamless interaction between various
government entities?
a) G2C
b) Interoperability
c) Transparency
d) Citizen feedback

23. What is a "payment aggregator"?

a) A bank
b) A service bundling multiple payment options
c) A customer support platform
d) A financial regulator

24. Which Indian payment gateway offers BharatQR as a service?

a) Instamojo
b) Razorpay
c) Paytm
d) NPCI

25. Which law regulates online payment systems in India?

a) IT Act, 2000
b) Consumer Protection Act, 2019
c) Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
d) Digital Payments Act, 2015

26. What does "two-factor authentication" in online payments involve?

a) Card and PIN entry
b) OTP and password
c) Both a and b
d) Fingerprint only

27. Which payment gateway first introduced the "Buy Now, Pay Later" feature in India?
a) PayU
b) Razorpay
c) Simpl
d) Paytm

28. Which of the following is an example of digital wallets?

a) Paytm
b) Apple Pay
c) Google Wallet
d) All of the above

29. Which is a peer-to-peer payment system?

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a) Paytm Wallet
b) PhonePe
c) UPI
d) All of the above

30. Which method facilitates transactions through QR codes?

a) Credit card
b) UPI
c) Cryptocurrency
d) Net banking

31. What is BNPL in e-commerce payments?

a) Buy Now, Pay Later
b) Blockchain Network Payment Link
c) Banking Network Payment Line
d) Balance Now, Pay Later

32. Which payment method uses NFC technology?

a) Digital wallet
b) Cryptocurrency
c) Contactless credit cards
d) Both a and c

33. Which NeGP initiative aims to provide education, healthcare, and employment-
related services through a digital platform?
a) e-District
b) State e-Governance Service Delivery Gateway
c) National Knowledge Network
d) National e-Governance Infrastructure

34. Which technology platform is designed under NeGP to improve government

efficiency by enabling data sharing and integration?
a) e-Governance Infrastructure
b) National Knowledge Network
c) Digital Locker
d) Digital India Platform

35. Which of the following is an example of a service offered through the e-District
project under NeGP?
a) Online land records
b) Job training programs
c) Digital payments for government services
d) E-filing of taxes

36. Which of the following apps is designed to help citizens in India to find and track the
status of their driving license, vehicle registration, and other transport-related services?

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a) DigiLocker
b) m-Parivahan
c) e-Sign
d) MyGov

37.. Which mobile app launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare helps
users in India book appointments with doctors and access health services online?
a) Aarogya Setu
b) Swasthya Kendra
c) e-Swasthya
d) Health India

38. Which portal was launched to streamline the online application and delivery of
public services to citizens in India?
a) e-District Portal
b) ServicePlus
c) National Knowledge Network
d) Digital India Portal

39. Which government app was launched to enhance financial inclusion in India by
providing financial services to underserved sections of society?
a) DigiLocker
b) PMGDISHA
c) e-RUPI
d) Jan Dhan

40. Which mobile application launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers'
Welfare aims to provide farmers with information on weather conditions, crop
protection, and market prices?
a) Kisan RATH
b) Kisan App
c) mKisan
d) PM Kisan

41. Which initiative was launched to facilitate the digital registration of laborers and
workers in India’s unorganized sector?
a) PMGDISHA
b) e-Shram Portal
c) National Skill Development Portal
d) Skill India

.
42. What is the purpose of the 'SWECHHA' portal launched by the Government of India?
a) To track the online education status
b) To support the Clean India Mission
c) To offer citizen grievances resolution
d) To enable environmental monitoring

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43. Which of the following portals was designed to enable digital tracking of criminal
activities and provide access to police records in India?
a) CCTNS Portal
b) e-Courts
c) Crime Tracker
d) National Judicial Portal

44. Which app launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development helps women
in distress by connecting them with services such as legal help and counseling?
a) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
b) Mahila Shakti Kendra
c) One Stop Center
d) Nirbhaya Fund

45. Which mobile application was launched by the Ministry of Tourism to promote
tourism in India by providing detailed information about tourist destinations, events,
and services?
a) Incredible India
b) Visit India
c) Explore India
d) India Tourism App

46.. Which of the following initiatives launched by the Government of India is designed
to offer a unified platform for submitting and tracking grievances?
a) MyGov
b) e-District
c) CPGRAMS
d) e-Kranti

47. What is the full form of RTGS, commonly used in business payments?
a) Real-Time Gross Settlement
b) Rapid Transaction Gateway System
c) Real-Time General Settlement
d) Regular Transaction Gateway Service

48. Which component ensures ease of access to services for citizens in remote areas?
a) IT infrastructure
b) Connectivity
c) Service delivery channels
d) Cybersecurity

49. What does 'Capacity building' in e-Governance focus on?

a) Training and skill development for stakeholders
b) Constructing physical government offices
c) Increasing taxation rates
d) Providing online entertainment

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50. Which Indian state was the first to implement e-Governance initiatives at a statewide
level?
a) Kerala
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Karnataka
d) Maharashtra

51. Which of the following is NOT a component of the National e-Governance Plan
(NeGP)?
a) e-District
b) e-Courts
c) e-Panchayat
d) Smart Cities Mission

52. Which year was the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) launched?
a) 2005
b) 2007
c) 2010
d) 2012

53. What is the main purpose of the Common Services Centers (CSCs) under NeGP?
a) To provide free Wi-Fi in rural areas
b) To provide government services in electronic form at the village level
c) To train government officials in IT skills
d) To facilitate e-commerce transactions

54. Under NeGP, which department is responsible for ensuring the delivery of
government services electronically?
a) Ministry of Finance
b) Ministry of Rural Development
c) Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY)
d) Ministry of Home Affairs

55. Which Indian government e-commerce initiative promotes the sale of products made
by artisans and craftsmen?
a) Flipkart
b) GeM (Government e-Marketplace)
c) Amazon Karigar
d) Snapdeal

56. What is the cap on Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in inventory-based e-commerce
in India?
a) 0%
b) 26%
c) 49%
d) 100%

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57. Which Indian ministry oversees e-commerce regulations?
a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
d) Ministry of Finance

58. What is the maximum penalty for violation of the Consumer Protection (E-
Commerce) Rules, 2020?
a) ₹1 lakh
b) ₹5 lakh
c) ₹10 lakh
d) ₹50 lakh

59. Which initiative supports e-commerce for MSMEs in India?

a) BharatNet
b) Udyam Registration
c) Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS)
d) GeM (Government e-Marketplace)

60. What does the Press Note 2 (2018) address in the context of e-commerce?
a) Guidelines for offline retailers
b) Rules for FDI in e-commerce
c) Consumer complaint resolution timelines
d) Data protection in e-commerce

61. Which platform was launched to empower Indian artisans through e-commerce?
a) Flipkart Samarth
b) Amazon Karigar
c) GeM
d) Startup India Hub

62. Which Indian law protects intellectual property rights in the digital domain for e-
commerce?
a) Copyright Act, 1957
b) Trademarks Act, 1999
c) Patent Act, 1970
d) All of the above

63. What is the purpose of the "ONDC" project launched by the Indian government?
a) To regulate e-commerce prices
b) To create a unified e-commerce platform
c) To ensure fair competition in e-commerce
d) To boost offline retail

64. Which Indian government policy encourages cashless transactions for e-commerce?

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a) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
b) Digital India
c) UPI Guidelines
d) AatmaNirbhar Bharat

65.. Which of the following is a popular payment gateway in India?

a) Razorpay
b) Stripe
c) PayPal
d) All of the above

66. Which protocol ensures secure online payment transactions?

a) FTP
b) HTTPS
c) HTTP
d) SMTP

67. Which initiative, launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information

Technology, is aimed at providing digital literacy to rural citizens in India?
a) e-District
b) Digital India
c) PMGDISHA
d) SWAYAM

68. Which one of the following is not a type of e-commerce?

a) Business-to-Business (B2B)
b) Consumer-to-Business (C2B)
c) Government-to-Citizen (G2C)
d) Mobile-to-Mobile (M2M)

69. Which type of e-commerce involves individuals selling goods or services to other
individuals?
a) B2B
b) B2C
c) C2C
d) C2B

70. Which of the following best defines the term 'digital marketplace'?
a) A place where businesses and consumers meet to trade goods and services
b) A physical market where products are sold online
c) A government-regulated platform for electronic payments
d) A place for conducting online meetings

71. What is the purpose of an e-commerce shopping cart?

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a) To manage inventory for businesses
b) To store items a customer intends to purchase
c) To display advertisements to consumers
d) To calculate shipping charges

72. Which of the following is a popular example of a Business-to-Consumer (B2C) e-

commerce platform?
a) Alibaba
b) LinkedIn
c) Flipkart
d) Etsy

73. Which of the following is an essential element of an effective e-commerce website?

a) Large physical storefronts
b) Secure payment processing
c) Limited product variety
d) High-volume customer support

74. Which business model refers to e-commerce activities where a consumer sells
products to a business?
a) B2C
b) C2B
c) B2B
d) C2C

75. Which model does platforms like Kickstarter represent?

a) B2C
b) G2C
c) C2C
d) C2B

76. In which type of e-commerce does Alibaba primarily operate?

a) C2C
b) B2C
c) B2B
d) G2C

77. Which e-commerce platform is often referred to as "India’s Alibaba"?

a) Flipkart
b) IndiaMART
c) Snapdeal
d) ShopClues

78. Which e-commerce giant acquired Flipkart in 2018?

a) Amazon
b) Walmart

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c) Alibaba
d) eBay

79. Which e-commerce platform was started by IIT graduates Sachin Bansal and Binny
Bansal?
a) Snapdeal
b) Flipkart
c) Paytm Mall
d) Amazon India

80. Which platform focuses on consumer-to-consumer (C2C) sales, primarily for used
goods?
a) OLX
b) Snapdeal
c) Flipkart
d) Paytm Mall

81. Which Indian e-commerce platform primarily targets small and medium-sized
businesses (SMBs)?
a) IndiaMART
b) Flipkart
c) Paytm Mall
d) Snapdeal

82. What is a key benefit of 'Process re-engineering' in e-Governance?

a) Simplifies citizen engagement
b) Maintains outdated workflows
c) Promotes manual record-keeping
d) Reduces service delivery speed

83. What is the primary goal of 'Service delivery channels' in e-Governance?

a) Increase manual application processes
b) Provide services through multiple platforms (e.g., mobile, web)
c) Eliminate digital systems
d) Restrict service access to urban areas

84. Which was the first initiative of e-Governance in India?

a) National e-Governance Plan (NeGP)
b) NICNET
c) Aadhaar
d) Digital India Mission

85. What is the significance of the MCA21 initiative?

a) Financial inclusion
b) E-filing of corporate records
c) Rural education

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d) Health service digitization

86. When was the Digital India campaign launched?

a) 2006
b) 2015
c) 2020
d) 1999

87. What is the objective of the UMANG app?

a) To promote e-commerce
b) To provide unified access to government services
c) To connect rural businesses
d) To facilitate GST compliance

88. Which mission integrates e-Governance with municipal services?

a) Smart Cities Mission
b) e-Municipality
c) NeGP
d) Digital Villages Mission

89. Which of the following is NOT a core component of the Digital India Mission?
a) Digital Infrastructure as a Utility to Every Citizen
b) Digital Literacy
c) E-Governance for Tax Collection
d) Secure Cyber Ecosystem

90. Which initiative was launched to enhance digital payment systems across India?
a) PMGDISHA
b) Digital India
c) JAM Trinity
d) Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM)

91. Which service under e-Governance helps citizens avail government services like
birth certificates, land records, and ration cards online?
a) e-District
b) e-Courts
c) BharatNet
d) National Knowledge Network (NKN)

92. Which project was initiated to make all public sector services available
electronically in India?
a) NICNET
b) NeGP
c) e-District
d) BharatNet

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93. Which government initiative seeks to deliver government services to rural areas
through an online platform?
a) Digital India
b) e-Panchayat
c) Smart Cities Mission
d) Swachh Bharat Mission

94. What is the purpose of the PMGDISHA scheme?

a) To digitize government offices
b) To provide digital literacy to rural populations
c) To promote digital wallets
d) To train professionals in IT sector jobs

95 Which project is aimed at ensuring that broadband internet reaches every village in
India?
a) BharatNet
b) e-Kranti
c) Digital India
d) National Optical Fiber Network

96. Which e-Governance project connects various government departments, enhancing

transparency in the delivery of public services?
a) PRAGATI
b) NeGP
c) NICNET
d) e-District

97. Which initiative allows citizens to track the status of their grievance with
government departments?
a) e-District
b) e-Panchayat
c) CPGRAMS
d) DigiLocker

98. Which e-commerce platform recently launched a "Local Sellers Program" to promote
small-scale entrepreneurs?
a) Amazon India
b) Flipkart
c) Meesho
d) Snapdeal

99. Which platform introduced "Shopsy," a low-cost social commerce initiative in India?
a) Myntra
b) Flipkart
c) Nykaa
d) Amazon

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100. Which technology trend is shaping e-commerce in 2024 with personalized
customer experiences?
a) Blockchain
b) Headless Commerce
c) 5G Integration
d) IoT

Test-5
Internet and Social media

1. In which year was the first website launched?

A) 1989
B) 1990
C) 1991
D) 1992

2. Which search engine was launched in 1998 and revolutionized Internet search?
A) Yahoo
B) AltaVista
C) Google
D) Bing

3. Which major Internet milestone occurred in 1995?

A) Launch of YouTube
B) Public commercialization of the Internet
C) Development of IPv6
D) Creation of ICANN

4. Which type of Internet allows limited access to selected users, usually from outside an
organization?
A) Internet
B) Extranet
C) Intranet
D) World Wide Web

5.Which Internet term refers to the amount of data that can be transmitted in a given
time?
A) Bandwidth
B) Latency
C) Ping
D) Throughput

6. What does "VPN" stand for?

A) Virtual Private Network
B) Virtual Proxy Node
C) Verified Proxy Network
D) Virtual Public Node

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7. Which protocol is used to transfer files over the Internet?
A) FTP
B) HTTP
C) IMAP
D) SMTP

8. What does "ISP" refer to in Internet terminology?

A) Internet Speed Provider
B) Internet Service Provider
C) Internal Signal Processor
D) International Service Protocol

9. What is "cache" in the context of web browsing?

A) A method of encrypting data
B) A temporary storage for frequently accessed data
C) A measure of network performance
D) A protocol for data transfer

10. What is the role of "cookies" in web browsing?

A) Encrypt user data
B) Track user activity and preferences
C) Improve bandwidth
D) Resolve domain names

11. What does "VoIP" stand for?

A) Voice over Internet Protocol
B) Virtual Online Interaction Protocol
C) Voice over Instant Packet
D) Verified Online IP

12. Which term refers to unsolicited email messages?

A) Spam
B) Malware
C) Phishing
D) Worm

13. What does "ICANN" stand for?

A) Internet Corporation for Assignment of Network Nodes
B) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
C) International Council for Assigned Network Names
D) Internet Control Authority for Names and Numbers

14. What is the full form of "IPSec"?

A) Internet Protocol Secure
B) Internet Privacy Security
C) Internet Protocol Security
D) International Privacy Security

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15. What does "ARPANET" stand for?
A) Advanced Research Projects Agency Network
B) Advanced Routing and Protocols Agency Network
C) American Research and Protocol Association Network
D) Automated Routing and Project Assignment Network

16. Expand "TLS" in Internet security.

A) Transport Layer Security
B) Transmission Line System
C) Transfer Level System
D) Traffic Layer Security

17. What is the full form of "DHCP"?

A) Data Handling Communication Protocol
B) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
C) Domain Host Configuration Protocol
D) Direct Host Communication Protocol

18. What does "POP" stand for in email communication?

A) Protocol for Online Processing
B) Post Office Protocol
C) Packet Optimization Protocol
D) Port Oriented Processing

19. What does "TLD" stand for in the context of domain names?
A) Top-Level Domain
B) Translated Layer Domain
C) Tree Level Directory
D) Terminal Level Domain

20. What does "Wi-Fi" stand for?

A) Wireless Fidelity
B) Wide Frequency
C) Wired Fidelity
D) Wireless Frequency

21. Which type of Internet refers to websites and content that is hidden and not
accessible through traditional browsers?
A) Surface Web
B) Deep Web
C) Dark Web
D) Extranet

22. The term "Internet of Things" (IoT) refers to:

A) A system where devices communicate with each other over the Internet
B) A web-based e-commerce platform

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C) The set of technologies that power the Deep Web
D) A type of public network for educational purposes

23. Which of the following is NOT considered part of the Deep Web?
A) Password-protected websites
B) Subscription-based academic databases
C) Websites indexed by search engines
D) Online banking sites

24. Which of these best describes "Web 3.0"?

A) A decentralized, AI-driven internet focused on privacy
B) A traditional, static webpage system
C) The first generation of Internet technology
D) A peer-to-peer network for file sharing

25. A key difference between the Surface Web and the Deep Web is:
A) The Surface Web is encrypted, while the Deep Web is not
B) The Surface Web is indexed by search engines, while the Deep Web is not
C) The Deep Web is faster and more accessible
D) The Surface Web contains more secure data than the Deep Web

26. The use of Tor (The Onion Router) is associated with which type of Internet?
A) Dark Web
B) Surface Web
C) Extranet
D) Intranet

27. Who is credited with conceptualizing the idea of the World Wide Web?
A) Tim Berners-Lee
B) Vint Cerf
C) Robert Kahn
D) Larry Roberts

28. ARPANET, the precursor to the modern Internet, was established in which year?
A) 1965
B) 1969
C) 1971
D) 1973

29. Which organization governs the allocation of domain names?

A) ARPA
B) ICANN
C) IETF
D) W3C

30. Which technology led to the widespread use of e-commerce?

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A) HTTP
B) SSL/TLS encryption
C) HTML
D) TCP/IP

31. Which event marked the transition to "Web 2.0"?

A) Launch of Google
B) Introduction of social networking sites
C) Development of HTML
D) Adoption of cloud computing

32. Which government initiative funded the creation of ARPANET?

A) NASA
B) DARPA
C) NSF
D) NIST

33. Which protocol is designed for remote login to a server over a network?
A) Telnet
B) HTTP
C) SMTP
D) FTP

34. Which protocol is used for encrypting and securing communication over a network?
A) FTP
B) HTTPS
C) HTTP
D) SMTP

35. Which system translates a domain name into an IP address?

A) HTTP
B) DNS
C) FTP
D) SMTP

36. Which protocol is used for sending email from an email client to an email server?
A) IMAP
B) POP3
C) SMTP
D) FTP

37. Which system is used to assign unique identifiers to devices in a network and allows
them to communicate?
A) MAC
B) IP address

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C) DNS
D) FTP

38. Which system uses public and private key encryption to secure data on the internet?
A) SSL/TLS
B) DNS
C) FTP
D) HTTP

39. Which system is responsible for managing the allocation of IP addresses in a

network?
A) DHCP
B) DNS
C) SMTP
D) FTP

40. Which protocol is used for secure communication between a user’s browser and a
website?
A) HTTP
B) HTTPS
C) FTP
D) SMTP

41. Which protocol is used to check if a host is reachable on a network?

A) TCP
B) UDP
C) ICMP
D) SMTP

42. What does the DNS protocol translate?

A) IP addresses to MAC addresses
B) Website names to IP addresses
C) Email addresses to server locations
D) Server URLs to HTML pages

43. Which of the following systems is responsible for the secure transfer of files between
two computers over a network?
A) HTTP
B) FTP
C) SMTP
D) Telnet

44. Which was the first search engine ever created?

A) Yahoo
B) Google
C) Archie

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D) AltaVista

45.Which algorithm was a key innovation in Google's success?

A) Hummingbird
B) PageRank
C) Penguin
D)BackRub

46. Which search engine is known for prioritizing user privacy by not tracking searches?
A) Google
B) Yahoo
C) DuckDuckGo
D) Baidu

47. What is the main source of revenue for search engines?

A) Subscription fees
B) Sponsored content
C) Search Engine Marketing (SEM)
D) Selling user data

48. What does SEO stand for in relation to search engines?

A) Search Engine Optimization
B) Secure Engine Operation
C) Systematic Engine Output
D) Search Engine Order

49.What innovation allows search engines to understand user intent beyond keywords?
A) Semantic Search
B) Keyword Density
C) Backlink Analysis
D) AdWords Integration

50. Which of these is NOT a function of search engine crawlers?

A) Indexing pages
B) Ranking websites
C) Collecting metadata
D) Identifying broken links

51. What is the maximum file size limit for email attachments in most email services?
A) 5 MB
B) 25 MB
C) 50 MB
D) 100 MB

52. Which email component allows grouping multiple related emails together?
A) Folder

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B) Thread
C) Archive
D) CC

53. What does the acronym SaaS stand for in cloud computing?
A) System as a Service
B) Software as a Service
C) Storage as a Service
D) Solution as a Service

54. Which cloud model combines private and public cloud services?
A) Public cloud
B) Private cloud
C) Hybrid cloud
D) Community cloud

55. What type of cloud service is Google Drive categorized under?

A) IaaS
B) PaaS
C) SaaS
D) DaaS

56. Which service model is suitable for developers who need tools and platforms to
build applications?
A) SaaS
B) IaaS
C) PaaS
D) DaaS

57. What is the main function of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?

A) Application hosting
B) Providing virtualized computing resources
C) Delivering software applications
D) Data analytics

58. Which of the following is an example of a private cloud?

A) AWS (Amazon Web Services)
B) Azure Government Cloud
C) Google Drive
D) Dropbox

59. What is the process of moving data from one cloud service to another called?
A) Cloud migration
B) Cloud replication
C) Cloud transfer
D) Cloud cloning

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60. Which of these is an open-source cloud computing platform?
A) Microsoft Azure
B) OpenStack
C) Oracle Cloud
D) AWS

61. What is "Cloud Bursting" in cloud computing?

A) Scaling to a public cloud during peak demand
B) A cloud failure scenario
C) Shutting down unused cloud resources
D) Rapid data transfer between clouds

62. What technology does edge computing commonly integrate with?

A) Quantum computing
B) Internet of Things (IoT)
C) Mainframe computers
D) Supercomputers

63. What is a "grid" in grid computing?

A) A single powerful computer
B) A network of geographically distributed resources
C) A specific type of cloud service
D) A centralized database

64. What is a common application of edge computing in smart cities?

A) Centralized weather prediction
B) Real-time traffic management
C) Batch processing of historical data
D) Remote education services

65. What type of networks does grid computing often rely on?
A) Peer-to-peer networks
B) Local Area Networks (LAN)
C) Wide Area Networks (WAN)
D) Satellite networks

66. Which of these is NOT an edge computing device?

A) IoT-enabled smart thermostat
B) Centralized cloud server
C) Autonomous vehicle sensor
D) Network gateway

67. What is a packet in the context of the internet?

A) A type of encryption
B) A unit of data transmitted across a network
C) A DNS query

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D) A virus signature

68. What does the term "latency" refer to in internet performance?

A) Speed of data download
B) Delay in data transmission
C) Bandwidth capacity
D) Network encryption strength

69. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for ensuring end-to-end delivery of data?
A) Physical layer
B) Transport layer
C) Application layer
D) Data link layer

70. What does "bandwidth" measure in internet services?

A) Data encryption level
B) Data transfer rate over a network
C) Number of devices on a network
D) Network latency

71. Which platform is primarily used for professional networking and career
development?
A) Reddit
B) LinkedIn
C) Snapchat
D) TikTok

72. Which platform introduced the "Hashtag" feature first?

A) Facebook
B) Twitter
C) Instagram
D) LinkedIn

73.Which platform's logo is a ghost?

A) Snapchat
B) Instagram
C) Facebook
D) Reddit

74. Which platform was acquired by Facebook in 2012 for $1 billion?

A) WhatsApp
B) Instagram
C) Oculus
D) Messenger

75.Which platform is popular for creating and sharing memes and animated GIFs?
A)Giphy

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B) Reddit
C) Facebook
D) YouTube

76. Which app is focused on real-time voice and text chat for gamers?
A) Discord
B) Twitch
C) WhatsApp
D) Instagram

77. Which Indian government portal serves as a one-stop platform for citizen-centric
services?
A) MyGov
B) UMANG
C) e-SamikSha
D)DigiLocker

78. Which government portal is primarily aimed at enhancing transparency in the

allocation of coal blocks?
A) CoalNet
B) e-Auctions
C) MSTC
D) e-Khanij

79. What is the primary function of the "SWAYAM" platform?

A) Online shopping
B) Digital education
C) Agricultural assistance
D) Citizen grievances

80. Which was the first widely used web browser?

A) Internet Explorer
B) Mosaic
C) Netscape Navigator
D) Opera

81. Which of the following is NOT a web browser?

A) Firefox
B) Safari
C) Outlook
D) Edge

82. What is the default web browser on macOS devices?

A) Chrome
B) Safari
C) Edge

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D) Firefox

83. Which of the following is an open-source web browser?

A) Internet Explorer
B) Safari
C) Firefox
D) Edge

84. Which browser uses the Blink rendering engine?

A) Firefox
B) Chrome
C) Safari
D) Internet Explorer

85. Which browser was discontinued by Microsoft in 2022?

A) Edge
B) Internet Explorer
C) Chrome
D) Netscape

86. Which feature in web browsers helps in syncing bookmarks, history, and passwords
across devices?
A) Extensions
B) Cloud Storage
C) Browser Sync
D) Cookies

87. What does the “BCC” field in an email stand for?

A) Blind Courtesy Copy
B) Blind Carbon Copy
C) Backup Courtesy Copy
D) Blind Copy Communication

88. Which protocol is responsible for sending emails from a client to a server?
A) SMTP
B) POP3
C) IMAP
D) DNS

89. Which part of an email ensures the sender’s identity is authentic?

A) Subject
B) Signature
C) Digital Certificate
D) Body

90. Which portal is used for online registration of intellectual property rights in India?

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A) IP India
B)PatentNet
C) TM India
D) Copyright Portal

91. Which portal was launched to enhance the skill development ecosystem in India?
A) Skill India
B) e-Kaushal
C) ASEEM
D) Bharat Skills

92. Which portal is dedicated to India's digital land records modernization?

A) e-Bhoomi
B)Bhulekh
C) Digital Land Records India
D) Land Record e-Seva

93. Which Indian government portal provides access to agriculture-related services and
schemes?
A) e-Krishi
B) Kisan Rath
C) PM Kisan Portal
D) e-NAM

94. Which device acts as a gateway between a local network and the Internet?
A) Router
B) Switch
C) Hub
D) Repeater

95. Which type of network card is commonly used to connect a computer to a wired
Internet network?
A) Wireless NIC
B) Ethernet NIC
C) Fiber NIC
D) Token Ring NIC

96. Which of the following is NOT a type of modem?

A) DSL Modem
B) Cable Modem
C) Satellite Modem
D) Switch Modem

97. Which hardware helps to amplify and retransmit network signals in long-distance
Internet connections?
A) Router
B) Repeater
C) Hub

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D) Gateway

98. Which hardware device converts fiber optic signals to Ethernet for Internet
connectivity?
A) Media Converter
B) Ethernet Bridge
C) Fiber Repeater
D) Access Point

99. Which Internet hardware device is essential for connecting multiple networks?
A) Switch
B) Hub
C) Gateway
D) Bridge

100. What is the primary medium for data transmission in Li-Fi technology?
A) Radio waves
B) Visible light
C) Infrared waves
D) Microwave signals
Test-6 ELECTRONICS
1. Who is considered the father of modern electronics?
a. Thomas Edison
b. Nikola Tesla
c. John Bardeen
d. Michael Faraday

2. What was the first widely used vacuum tube in electronics?

a. Cathode-ray tube
b. Diode tube
c. Triode tube
d. Magnetron.

3. When was the first transistor invented?

a. 1937
b. 1947
c. 1957
d. 1967

4. Which invention marked the transition from vacuum tubes to solid-state

electronics?
a. Microprocessor
b. Semiconductor diode
c. Transistor
d. Integrated Circuit

5. The first integrated circuit (IC) was developed in which year?

a. 1958
b. 1962
c. 1965

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 d. 1970

6. What was the primary application of the first electronic computers?

a. Military calculations
b. Data processing for businesses
c. Weather prediction
d. Image processing

7. Which company introduced the first commercially available microprocessor?

a. IBM
b. Intel
c. Texas Instruments
d. Motorola

8. The photoelectric effect, which is fundamental to semiconductors, was explained

by whom?
a. Albert Einstein
b. Max Planck
c. Heinrich Hertz
d. Erwin Schrödinger

9. Which process is crucial for creating semiconductor components?

a. Electrolysis
b. Doping
c. Catalysis
d. Smelting

10. What was the purpose of the first semiconductor diode?

a. Amplification
b. Switching
c. Rectification
d. Signal processing

11. What are intrinsic semiconductors made of?

a. Pure silicon or germanium without any impurities
b. Compounds like gallium arsenide
c. Heavily doped materials
d. Insulators

12. Which of the following is an example of a compound semiconductor?

a. Silicon
b. Germanium
c. Gallium arsenide
d. Aluminum

13. What type of impurity is added to create an N-type semiconductor?

a. Trivalent
b. Pentavalent
c. Tetravalent
d. None of the above

14. Which charge carriers dominate in N-type semiconductors?

a. Electrons
b. Holes

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 c. Neutrons
d. Ions

15. What happens when phosphorus is added to silicon?

a. Holes increase
b. Electrons increase
c. Conductivity decreases
d. Material becomes P-type

16. Which element is commonly used as a dopant for creating N-type silicon?
a. Boron
b. Gallium
c. Phosphorus
d. Aluminum

17. In an N-type semiconductor, majority carriers move towards the:

a. Positive terminal
b. Negative terminal
c. Neutral point
d. None of the above

18. Which diode is specifically designed to allow current to flow in reverse under a
certain voltage?
a. LED
b. Zener Diode
c. Schottky Diode
d. Tunnel Diode

19. What type of diode emits light when a current passes through it?
a. Schottky Diode
b. Photodiode
c. Light Emitting Diode (LED)
d. Zener Diode

20. What is the primary use of a photodiode?

a. Voltage regulation
b. Detecting light
c. Generating light
d. Amplifying signals

21. What type of diode combines a semiconductor and a metal junction?

a. Zener Diode
b. Tunnel Diode
c. Schottky Diode
d. Photodiode

22. What is the function of a rectifier diode?

a. Emit light
b. Regulate voltage
c. Convert AC to DC
d. Detect light

23. Which diode has the ability to handle large current surges?
a. Schottky Diode

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 b. Avalanche Diode
c. Zener Diode
d. Rectifier Diode

24. Which diode is commonly used in infrared remote controls?

a. LED
b. Infrared Emitting Diode (IRED)
c. Zener Diode
d. Tunnel Diode

25. Which diode is used as a high-speed switch in digital circuits?

a. Tunnel Diode
b. Schottky Diode
c. Varactor Diode
d. Zener Diode

26. Which phenomenon explains the expulsion of magnetic fields from a

superconductor?
a. Hall Effect
b. Meissner Effect
c. Josephson Effect
d. Quantum Tunneling

27. Who discovered superconductivity and in which year?

a. Heike Kamerlingh Onnes, 1911
b. James Clerk Maxwell, 1873
c. Michael Faraday, 1831
d. Albert Einstein, 1920

28. What is the primary challenge of using superconductors in everyday technology?

a. High resistance at room temperature
b. Requirement for extremely low temperatures
c. Incompatibility with electric circuits
d. Difficulty in producing magnetic fields

29. Which superconducting property is utilized in Magnetic Resonance Imaging

(MRI)?
a. Zero resistance
b. Meissner Effect
c. High current-carrying capacity
d. Magnetic field stability

30. Which type of extrinsic semiconductor is created by adding pentavalent

impurities?
a. P-type
b. N-type
c. Compound
d. Intrinsic

31. What does a P-type semiconductor primarily use as charge carriers?

a. Electrons
b. Holes
c. Neutrons

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d. Ions

32. What type of semiconductor is primarily used in solar cells?

a. Amorphous silicon
b. Germanium
c. Compound semiconductors
d. P-type only

33. What type of impurity is added to create a P-type semiconductor?

a. Pentavalent
b. Trivalent
c. Tetravalent
d. None of the above.

34. Which of the following materials can act as a dopant for creating a P-type
semiconductor?
a. Phosphorus
b. Boron
c. Antimony
d. Arsenic

35. What is the role of a P-type semiconductor in a PN junction diode?

a. Acts as the source of electrons
b. Acts as the source of holes
c. Provides insulation
d. Reduces current flow

36. What happens to the conductivity of a P-type semiconductor at high

temperatures?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. Becomes zero

37. Why are P-type semiconductors called "acceptor" materials?

a. They donate electrons
b. They accept electrons into their valence band
c. They neutralize charges
d. They block current

38. Which of these devices primarily uses P-type semiconductors?

a. LED
b. Photodiode
c. Solar cell
d. All of the above

39. What kind of bonding occurs between the trivalent impurity and the host atoms
in P-type semiconductors?
a. Covalent bonding with one electron missing
b. Ionic bonding
c. Metallic bonding
d. Van der Waals forces

40. What happens to a P-type semiconductor when reverse-biased in a PN junction?

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 a. Conductivity increases
b. The depletion region widens
c. Current flows freely
d. Holes move towards the N-side

41. What is the role of Cooper pairs in superconductivity?

a. Cause magnetic repulsion
b. Facilitate zero resistance
c. Block electron movement
d. Generate thermal resistance

42. Which of these is used in particle accelerators for guiding particles?

a. Superconducting magnets
b. Type I superconductors
c. High-resistance conductors
d. Ceramic insulators

43. What property of superconductors makes them ideal for quantum computing?
a. High critical field
b. Zero resistance
c. Magnetic flux quantization
d. High thermal conductivity

44. What is the output of an AND gate when all inputs are HIGH?
a. LOW
b. HIGH
c. Undefined
d. Depends on the number of inputs

45. Which of the following gates has an output that is LOW only when all inputs are
HIGH?
a. AND
b. NOR
c. XOR
d. NAND

46. Which of the following is India's public service broadcaster?

a. Akashvani
b. AIR
c. Prasar Bharati
d. DD National

47. Which department under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(MeitY) is responsible for promoting electronic governance?
a. Department of Telecommunications
b. National Informatics Centre (NIC)
c. Department of Electronics Development
d. Digital India Division

48. What is the main focus of the Standardization Testing and Quality Certification
(STQC) Directorate?
a. Export promotion
b. Software testing

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 c. IT product quality certification
d. Cybersecurity services

49. Which organization develops policies for electronics manufacturing in India?

a. C-DAC
b. NITI Aayog
c. MeitY
d. BEE

50. Which department governs the BharatNet project to provide broadband

connectivity to rural areas?
a. MeitY
b. Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
c. BSNL
d. C-DOT

51. Which government initiative promotes electronics design and manufacturing in

India?
a. Make in India
b. National Policy on Electronics
c. Start-up India
d. Skill India

52. The Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL) is managed by which Indian department?

a. Department of Science and Technology (DST)
b. MeitY
c. Ministry of Defense
d. Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)

53. Which agency leads the Digital India program?

a. C-DAC
b. NIC
c. MeitY
d. ESC

54. Which department regulates the policies for internet usage in India?
a. TRAI
b. NIC
c. DoT
d. MeitY

55. What does the Cyber Swachhta Kendra focus on?

a. Cyber hygiene awareness
b. Internet speed testing
c. Malware cleaning tools
d. Both A and C

56. Which organization manages the Unique Identification Authority of India

(UIDAI)?
a. Ministry of Home Affairs
b. NITI Aayog
c. MeitY
d. TRAI

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 57. Which gate's output is the inverse of an OR gate?
a. NOR
b. NAND
c. XOR
d. XNOR

58. Which gate is used to build a flip-flop?

a. AND
b. OR
c. NOR
d. XOR

59. Which type of television uses organic compounds to produce light?

a. LED
b. LCD
c. OLED
d. CRT.

60. Which of the following types of TVs was the first widely available color television?
a. LCD
b. CRT
c. Plasma
d. OLED

61. What feature is a significant advantage of QLED TVs over OLED TVs?
a. Better contrast
b. Higher brightness levels
c. Deeper blacks
d. Organic materials

62. Which television technology is based on liquid crystals?

a. CRT
b. OLED
c. LCD
d. Plasma

63. Which of these TV types is becoming obsolete due to advancements in

technology?
a. QLED
b. OLED
c. Plasma
d. MicroLED

64. Which government initiative aims to promote electronics manufacturing in India?

a. Make in India
b. Start-Up India
c. Digital India
d. Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme

65. Which Indian city is known as the "Electronics City of India"?

a. Pune
b. Bengaluru
c. Hyderabad

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 d. Chennai

66. Which Indian institute focuses on research and development in microelectronics?

a. IIT Madras
b. Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
c. Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL)
d. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)

67. Which scheme supports the development of semiconductor design startups in

India?
a. Start-Up India
b. Semicon India Program
c. Atmanirbhar Bharat
d. Make in India

68. The National Institute of Electronics and Information Technology (NIELIT)

operates under which ministry?
a. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
b. Ministry of Education
c. Ministry of Science and Technology
d. Ministry of Communications

69. Which Indian mission supports the development of supercomputers?

a. Digital India
b. National Supercomputing Mission
c. Atal Innovation Mission
d. BharatNet

70. The "Modified Electronics Manufacturing Clusters (EMC 2.0)" scheme primarily
focuses on:
a. Building electronic retail stores
b. Setting up infrastructure for electronics clusters
c. Exporting consumer electronics
d. Manufacturing wearable devices

71. Which ministry launched the "National Policy on Software Products 2019"?
a. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
b. Ministry of Commerce
c. Ministry of Finance
d. Ministry of Education

72. The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) specializes in:

a. Space research
b. Telecom and internet technology
c. Software development
d. Consumer electronics manufacturing

73. What is the main objective of the National Knowledge Network (NKN)?
a. Establish a nationwide telecom grid
b. Provide high-speed internet to research institutions
c. Develop consumer electronics hubs
d. Manufacture semiconductors

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 74. Which program focuses on making India a global hub for Electronic System
Design and Manufacturing (ESDM)?
a. Make in India
b. India Semiconductor Mission
c. Atmanirbhar Bharat
d. National Policy on Electronics 2019

75. Which material is most commonly used to manufacture transistors?

a. Copper
b. Silicon
c. Aluminum
d. Iron

76. In a BJT, what are the three terminals called?

a. Source, Drain, Gate
b. Emitter, Base, Collector
c. Anode, Cathode, Gate
d. Positive, Negative, Neutral

77. What determines the conductivity of a transistor?

a. Temperature
b. Magnetic field
c. Doping concentration
d. Physical size

78. What is the main advantage of transistors over vacuum tubes?

a. Higher power consumption
b. Smaller size and greater efficiency
c. Lower reliability
d. More expensive

79. What is the difference between an NPN and a PNP transistor?

a. Material conductivity
b. Polarity of operation
c. Number of terminals
d. Doping process

80. When was All India Radio (AIR) officially established?

a. 1927
b. 1936
c. 1947
d. 1950

81. Which city hosted the first-ever radio broadcast in India?

a. Mumbai
b. Delhi
c. Chennai
d. Kolkata

82. When did television broadcasting start in India?

a. 1947
b. 1959
c. 1965

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 d. 1975

83. What was the name of India’s first television channel?

a. DD National
b. Doordarshan
c. AIR-TV
d. Akashvani

84. Which year marked the beginning of color television broadcasting in India?
a. 1980
b. 1982
c. 1985
d. 1990

85. What was the primary purpose of SITE (Satellite Instructional Television
Experiment) in 1975-1976?
a. Entertainment
b. Education and development
c. News dissemination
d. Sports broadcasting

86. When was Prasar Bharati established as a statutory autonomous body?

a. 1976
b. 1982
c. 1997
d. 2000

87. When did private FM channels become operational in India?

a. 1995
b. 2001
c. 2005
d. 2010

88. Which year saw the launch of the first private satellite channel in India?
a. 1991
b. 1993
c. 1995
d. 1999

89. What is the name of the community radio initiative started by the Indian
government?
a. AIR Community FM
b. CRS Scheme
c. Akashvani Local
d. Lok Sewa Radio

90. Which Indian city witnessed the first television broadcast?

a. Mumbai
b. Delhi
c. Kolkata
d. Chennai

91. When was Doordarshan separated from All India Radio?

a. 1970

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 b. 1976
c. 1980
d. 1985

92. What was the first radio program to focus on farmers and rural issues in India?
a. Gram Sabha Radio
b. Krishi Darshan
c. Kisan Vani
d. Gram Shakti

93. Which Indian Prime Minister was responsible for introducing the Prasar Bharati
Act?
a. Indira Gandhi
b. Rajiv Gandhi
c. P. V. Narasimha Rao
d. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

94. Which program popularized educational content on radio in the 1960s?

a. Akashvani Schools
b. University Radio
c. Schools on AIR
d. Educational Voice

95. What electronic device is associated with the invention of the cathode-ray tube?
a. Radio
b. Television
c. Radar
d. Oscilloscope

96. Who coined the term "electronics"?

a. Guglielmo Marconi
b. Edwin Armstrong
c. John Ambrose Fleming
d. Alan Turing

97. The invention of the MOSFET (Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor Field-Effect

Transistor) occurred in which decade?
a. 1940s
b. 1950s
c. 1960s
d. 1970s

98. What was the ENIAC primarily composed of?

a. Transistors
b. Integrated circuits
c. Vacuum tubes
d. Relays

99. Which material is most commonly used as a semiconductor in electronics?

a. Copper
b. Silicon
c. Gold
d. Aluminum

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 100. Who is credited with inventing the first transistor?
a. John Bardeen, Walter Brattain, and William Shockley
b. Jack Kilby
c. Thomas Edison
d. Nikola Tesla

Unit Test-7 Complete Test

1. A(n) __________ is composed of several computers connected together to share resources and
data.
(a) Internet
(b) network
(c) backbone
(d) hyperlink

2. If you wish to extend the length of the network without having the signal degrade, you
would use a
(a) resonance
(b) router
(c) gateway
(d) repeater

3. A __________ is the term used when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the
search criteria.
(a) blog
(b) hit
(c) link
(d) view

4. What are the four things required to connect to the Internet?

(a) Telephone line, Modem, Computer and an ISP
(b) Modem, Computer, PDA and ISP
(c) Telephone line, PDA, Modem and Computer
(d) Computer, ISP, Modem and Communication software

5. A ____ is a small program embeded inside of a GIF image.

(a) web bug
(b) cookie
(c) spyware applications
(d) spam

6. A hacker contacts your phone or E-mails and attempts to acquire your password is called
(a) spoofing
(b) phishing
(c) spamming
(d) buging

7. The phrase ____ describes viruses, worms, trojan horse attack applets and attack scripts.
(a) malware
(b) spam

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 (c) phishing
(d) virus

8. What is the name of Artificial Intelligence which allows machines to handle vague
information with a deftness that mimics human intuition?
(a) Human intelligence
(b) Boolean logic
(c) Functional logic
(d) Fuzzy logic

9. Strong Artificial Intelligence is __________

(a) the embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer
(b) a set of computer programs that produce output that would be
considered to reflect intelligence if it were generated by humans
(c) the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models
implemented on a computer
(d) all of the mentioned

10. Which term is used for describing the judgmental or commonsense part of problem
solving?
(a) Heuristic
(b) Critical
(c) Value based
(d) Analytical

11. What was originally called the “imitation game” by its creator?
(a) The Turing Test
(b) LISP
(c) The Logic Theorist
(d) Cybernetics

12. Which particular generation of computers is associated with artificial intelligence?

(a) Second
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Third

13. What kind of signal is used in speech recognition?

(a) Electromagnetic signal
(b) Electric signal
(c) Acoustic signal
(d) Radar

14. Most of the commonly available personal computers/laptops have a keyboard popularly
known as __________.
(a) QWERTY
(b) QOLTY
(c) ALTER
(d) UCLIF

15. A set of step-by-step procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a(n) __

(a) algorithm

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 (b) hardware program
(c) software bug
(d) firmware program

16. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as
the crime of __________.
(a) spooling
(b) identity theft
(c) spoofing
(d) hacking

17. A prescribed set of well-defined instructions for solving mathematical problems is called
__________.
(a) a compiler
(b) a code
(c) a description
(d) an algorithm

18. A collection of computers and devices connected together via communication devices and
transmission media is called a __________.
(a) workgroup
(b) server
(c) mainframe
(d) network

19. What device separates a single network into two segments but lets the two segments
appear as one to higher protocols?
(a) Switch
(b) Bridge
(c) Gateway
(d) Router

20. In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter transmits signal to the

(a) equalizer
(b) modulator
(c) demodulator
(d) terminal

21. Which of the following communications modes support two-way traffic but in only one
direction of a time?
(a) simplex
(b) half-duplex
(c) three-quarters duplex
(d) All of the above

22. Programs such as Internet Explorer that serve as navigable windows into the Web are
called
(a) Hypertext
(b) Networks
(c) Internet
(d) Web browsers

23. __________ is the act of copying or downloading a program from a network and making
multiple copies of it.

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 (a) Network piracy
(b) Plagiarism
(c) Software piracy
(d) Site-license piracy

24. Unauthorised copying of software to be used for personal gain instead of personal backups
is called
(a) program thievery
(b) data snatching
(c) software piracy
(d) program looting

25. The first PC virus was developed in

(a) 1980
(b) 1984
(c) 1986
(d) 1988

26. The first computer virus is

(a) creeper
(b) PARAM
(c) the famous
(d) HARLIE

27. What is the full form of USB as used in computer related activities?
(a) Universal Security Block
(b) Ultra Serial Block
(c) United Service Block
(d) Universal Serial Bus

28. ALGOL means –

(a) Advance logarithmic language
(b) Algorithmic language
(c) Algorithmic output language
(d) Algorithmic operation language

29. PDA–
(a) People’s Data Assistant
(b) Personal Data Assistant
(c) People’s Digital Assistant
(d) Personal Digital Assistant

30. In which year John McCarthy coined the term Artificial Intelligence?
(a) . 1950
(b) . 1953
(c) . 1956
(d) . 1959

31. Which of the following is a component of Artificial Intelligence?

(a) Learning
(b) Training
(c) Designing

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 (d) Puzzling

32. Which of the following is not the commonly used programming language for Artificial
Intelligence?
(a) Perl
(b) Java
(c) PROLOG
(d) LISP

33. Which of the following is not an application of artificial intelligence?

(a) Face recognition system
(b) Chatbots
(c) LIDAR
(d) DBMS

34. What is the purpose of the "SWAYAM" platform in India?

(a) Online shopping
(b) Providing free public Wi-Fi
(c) Online education and courses
(d) Managing traffic signals

35. Which government platform facilitates the issuance of digital driving licenses and vehicle
registration certificates?
(a) RTO India
(b) Digital Motor Authority
(c) e-Vehicle Services
(d) Vahan Sarathi

36. The "UMMID" initiative in India is related to:

(a) Disaster management
(b) Maternal and child health
(c) Youth development
(d) Agricultural research

37. Which of the following basic parts of a robot unit would comprise the computer circuitry
that could be programmed to determine which of the following the robot would do?
(a) sensor
(b) end effector
(c) . arm
(d) controller

38. Which of the following is not among the 5 basic parts of a robot?
(a) controller
(b) end effectors
(c) peripheral tools
(d) drive

39. Which of the following “laws” is Asimov’s first and most significant robotics law?
(a) . robot events must never result in damage to the robot
(b) . robots must make a business a more profitable business
(c) robots must obey the directions given by humans
(d) . robots must never take actions harmful to persons

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40. Which of the following is wrong about solar cell electronic devices?
(a) Solar cell responsivity is directly proportional to the wavelength of
light
(b) It produces dark current
(c) It is a photovoltaic cell
(d) No external voltage is applied

41. In a semiconductor which of the following carries can contribute to the current?
(a) Electrons
(b) Holes
(c) Both
(d) None

42. In which of the following semiconductor, the concentration of the holes and electrons is
equal?
(a) Intrinsic
(b) Extrinsic
(c) Compound
(d) Elemental

43. Efficiency of a half wave rectifier is

(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 40.6%
(d) 46%

44. What is a dropshipping business model?

(a) A model where the retailer does not keep inventory in stock, but
instead transfers the order and shipment details to a manufacturer or
supplier who then ships the products directly to the customer.
(b) A model where the retailer keeps large amounts of inventory in stock.
(c) A model where the retailer sells products only to a specific target
audience.
(d) A model where the retailer sells products through a physical store
only.

45. What is a SSL certificate?

(a) A digital certificate that authenticates the identity of a website and
encrypts data transmitted between the website and its visitors
(b) A type of payment processor
(c) A type of advertising campaign
(d) A type of customer service technique

46. What is an affiliate program?

(a) A program where third-party websites or individuals promote a
company’s products or services in exchange for a commission on
sales
(b) A program where customers receive a commission on their own
purchases
(c) A type of payment processor
(d) A type of customer service technique

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47. What is A/B testing?
(a) A method of testing two different versions of a website or marketing
campaign to see which performs better
(b) A type of payment processor
(c) A type of customer service technique
(d) A type of advertising campaign

48. The first computer which provides storage is

(a) EDSAC
(b) EDBAC
(c) MARK-I
(d) ACE

49. The zener diode is heavily doped because______

(a) to have low breakdown voltage
(b) to have high breakdown voltage
(c) to have high current variations
(d) to maintain perfect quiescent point

50. .What is a chargeback?

(a) A refund issued by the seller
(b) A dispute initiated by the buyer with their bank
(c) A fee charged by the payment processor
(d) A discount offered by the seller

51. Which media has the ability to have data/information stored (written) on them by users
more than once?
(a) CD-R disks
(b) CD-RW disks
(c) Zip disks
(d) Opti-Disks

52. The microprocessor of a computer

(a) does not understand machine language.
(b) understands machine language and highlevel languages.
(c) understands only machine language.
(d) understands only high-level languages.

53. Computer programs are written in a high-level programming language; however, the
humanreadable version of a program is called -
(a) cache
(b) instruction set
(c) source code
(d) word size

54. An assembler is used to translate a program written in __________.

(a) a low level language
(b) machine language
(c) a high level language
(d) assembly language

55. Oracle is an example of __________ application software.

(a) database
(b) word processing

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 (c) project management
(d) presentation graphics

56. . Hardware devices that are not part of the main computer system and are often added later
to the system are
(a) clip art
(b) highlight
(c) execute
(d) peripheral

57. The "e-NAM" platform in India is related to:

(a) Online booking of cinema tickets
(b) Agricultural marketing
(c) Online fashion retail
(d) International trade

58. Which of the following refers to the usage of compressed gasses to drive the robot device?
(a) . photosensitive
(b) . hydraulic
(c) piezoelectric
(d) . pneumatic

59. Which of the following is correct about photo diode electronic devices?
(a) P-N junction is connected in reverse bias.
(b) Electron-hole pairs are generated by impurity injection in depletion
layer
(c) It is a photovoltaic cell
(d) No external voltage is applied

60. Which of the following diode is used in ultra-high speed switching electronic circuits?
a) Zener diode
b) Varactor diode
c) Tunnel diode
d) Schottky diode

61. In which year was the first version of Microsoft Office released?
A) 1987
B) 1989
C) 1990
D) 1995

62. . Which Microsoft Office application is used primarily for database management?
A) Excel
B) Access
C) OneNote
D) Visio

63. When was Microsoft Excel first released?

A) 1982
B) 1985
C) 1987

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D) 1990

64. . Which Windows operating system was the first to support touchscreen functionality?
A) Windows XP
B) Windows Vista
C) Windows 7
D) Windows 8

65. Which feature was first introduced in Windows Vista?

A) Windows Defender
B) Task Manager
C) Cortana
D) Microsoft Edge

66. Which company introduced the first commercially successful microprocessor?

a) IBM
b) Intel
c) HP
d) Microsoft

67. What distinguishes third-generation computers from their predecessors in terms of user
interface?
a) Graphical User Interface
b) Use of Monitors
c) Keyboards and Operating Systems
d) Virtual Reality

68. . Which language became prominent with fourth-generation computers?

a) BASIC
b) COBOL
c) Assembly
d) Pascal

69. Which of the following computers is an example of the first generation?

a) UNIVAC
b) IBM 1401
c) IBM 360
d) DEC PDP-11

70. Which Indian law was first amended to accommodate digital evidence?
A. Indian Penal Code, 1860
B. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C. Consumer Protection Act, 1986
D. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885

71. Which body regulates the use of encryption in India?

A. TRAI
B. CERT-In
C. Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY)

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 D. Reserve Bank of India

72. Under the IT Act, what is the term for a person who assists in committing a cybercrime?
A. Perpetrator
B. Abettor
C. Hacker
D. Accomplice

73. What is the primary objective of the Digital India program in terms of cybersecurity?
A. Setting up more IT colleges
B. Creating a secure cyberspace
C. Developing mobile apps
D. Promoting e-commerce

74. Which law governs data breaches and imposes responsibilities on companies for user data
protection?
A. IT Act, 2000
B. Data Protection Bill, 2019
C. Copyright Act, 1957
D. Indian Penal Code, 1860

75. Which section of the IT Act penalizes hacking?

A. Section 43
B. Section 66
C. Section 67
D. Section 70

76. .Under which section can websites be blocked in India?

A. Section 66
B. Section 69A
C. Section 72
D. Section 77

77. Which section addresses cyber terrorism?

A. Section 66C
B. Section 66F
C. Section 70
D. Section 73

78. What does "ARPANET" stand for?

a) Advanced Research Projects Agency Network
b) Advanced Routing and Protocols Agency Network
c) American Research and Protocol Association Network
d) Automated Routing and Project Assignment Network

79. . Expand "TLS" in Internet security.

a) Transport Layer Security
b) Transmission Line System
c) Transfer Level System
d) Traffic Layer Security

80. . What is the full form of "DHCP"?

(a) Data Handling Communication Protocol

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 (b) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
(c) Domain Host Configuration Protocol
(d) Direct Host Communication Protocol

81. . What does "POP" stand for in email communication?

(a) Protocol for Online Processing
(b) Post Office Protocol
(c) Packet Optimization Protocol
(d) Port Oriented Processing.

82. . What does "TLD" stand for in the context of domain names?
(a) Top-Level Domain
(b) Translated Layer Domain
(c) Tree Level Directory
(d) Terminal Level Domain

83. . What does "Wi-Fi" stand for?

(a) Wireless Fidelity
(b) Wide Frequency
(c) Wired Fidelity
(d) Wireless Frequency

84. . Which type of Internet refers to websites and content that is hidden and not accessible
through traditional browsers?
A) Surface Web
B) Deep Web
C) Dark Web
D) Extranet

85. Which Indian program exemplifies G2B e-Governance?

a) GST Portal
b) Digital Locker
c) Swachh Bharat Mission
d) UMANG App

86. . Which component of e-Governance focuses on delivering services through integrated

platforms?
a) Connectivity
b) Process re-engineering
c) Transparency
d) IT infrastructure

87. . What is a "payment aggregator"?

a) A bank
b) A service bundling multiple payment options
c) A customer support platform
d) A financial regulato
88. Which Indian payment gateway offers BharatQR as a service?
a) Instamojo
b) Razorpay
c) Paytm
d) NPCI

89. In an N-type semiconductor, majority carriers move towards the:

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 a) Positive terminal
b) Negative terminal
c) Neutral point
d) None of the above

90. Which diode is specifically designed to allow current to flow in reverse under a certain
voltage?
a) LED
b) Zener Diode
c) Schottky Diode
d) Tunnel Diode

91. What type of diode emits light when a current passes through it?
a) Schottky Diode
b) Photodiode
c) Light Emitting Diode (LED)
d) Zener Diode

92. What is the primary use of a photodiode?

a) Voltage regulation
b) Detecting light
c) Generating light
d) Amplifying signals

93. What type of diode combines a semiconductor and a metal junction?

a) Zener Diode
b) Tunnel Diode
c) Schottky Diode
d) Photodiode
94. Which diode is commonly used in infrared remote controls?
a) LED
b) Infrared Emitting Diode (IRED)
c) Zener Diode
d) Tunnel Diode
95. Which phenomenon explains the expulsion of magnetic fields from a superconductor?
a) Hall Effect
b) Meissner Effect
c) Josephson Effect
d) Quantum Tunneling
96. Who discovered superconductivity and in which year?
a) Heike Kamerlingh Onnes, 1911
b) James Clerk Maxwell, 1873
c) Michael Faraday, 1831
d) Albert Einstein, 1920
97. Which subfield of AI includes the development of chatbots like ChatGPT?
A) Natural Language Processing
B) Robotics
C) Machine Learning
D) Expert Systems

98. Which AI subfield studies strategies for decision-making in competitive environments?

A) Game Theory
B) Reinforcement Learning

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 C) Deep Learning
D) Computer Vision

99. Which country leads the world in AI regulations through its proposed AI Act?
A) United States
B) European Union
C) India
D) China

100. India recently collaborated with which global tech giant to establish AI models for
healthcare?
(a) Google
(b) Microsoft
(c) OpenAI
(d) IBM